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I.E.S-(OBJ) 2003 1 of 16

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-I

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1. Consider the following statements A B C D

pertaining to boundary layer : a. 3 1 2 4
1. Boundary layer is a thin layer adjacent b. 1 4 3 2
to the boundary where maximum c. 3 1 4 2
viscous energy dissipation takes place.
d. 1 4 2 3

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2. Boundary layer thickness is a thickness
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by which the ideal flow is shifted. 4. Consider the following statements:

3. Separation of boundary layer is caused
by presence of adverse pressure
gradient.
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
1. Dimensional analysis is used to
determine the number of variables
involved in a certain phenomenon.
2. The group of repeating variables in
dimensional is should include all the
fundamental units.

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b. 1 and 2
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3. Buckingham’s  theorem stipulates the

c. 1 and 3 number of dimensionless groups for a
d. 2 and 3 given phenomenon.
2. The velocity profile for turbulent layerover 4. The coefficient in Chezy’s equation
a flat plate is has no dimension
u  y  Which of these are correct ?
a.  sin   
2  a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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U
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1/7 b. 2, 3 and 4
u  y
b.   c. 1 and 4
U  
d. 2 and 3
2
u  y  y 5. Match List I (Flow/Wave) with List II
c.  2    
U     (Dimensionless Number) and select the
3 correct answer :
u 3 y  1 y 

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d.      List I
U 2  2 
A. Capillary waves in channel
3. Match List I (Flows Over or inside the B. Testing of aerofoils
Systems) with List II (Type of Flow) and
select the correct answer : C. Flow around bridge piers
List I
D. Turbulent flow through pipes
A. Flow over a sphere List II UPSC Dada
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B. Flow over a long circular cylinder 1. Reynolds number

C. Flow in a pipe bend 2. Froud number
D. Fully developed flow in a pipe at 3. Weber number
constant flow rate 4. Euler number
List II 5. Mach number
1. Two dimensional flow A B C D
a. 5 4 3 2
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2. One dimensional flow

3. Axis symmetric flow b. 3 5 4 1
4. Three dimensional flow c. 5 4 2 1
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d. 3 5 2 1 venturi depending on the back
6. Consider the following statements : pressure.
1. Complete similarity between model 2. At the throat, sonic conditions exist for
and prototype envisages geometric and subsonic or supersonic flow at the
dynamic similarities only outlet.
3. A supersonic nozzle discharges fluid at

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2. Distorted models are necessary where
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geometric similarity is not possible due
to practical reasons.
3. In testing of model of a ship, the
surface tension forces are generally
neglected.
4. The scale effect takes care of the effect
constant rate even if the exit pressure is
lower than the design pressure
4. A normal shock appears in the
diverging section of the nozzle if the
back pressure is above the design
pressure but below a certain minimum
pressure for venturi operation.

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of dissimilarity between model and
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prototype: Which of the statements are correct?

Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 4 10. Two pelton wheels A and B have the same

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specific speed, and are working under, the
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7. The fluid property that remains unchanged

across a normal shock wave is same head. When A produces 400 kW at
1000 rpm. If B produces 100 kW, then its
a. Stagnation enthalpy rpm is
b. Stagnation pressure a. 4000
c. Static pressure b. 2000
d. Mass density c. 1500

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8. Match List I (Phenomena) with List II d. 1250

(Causes) and select the correct answer :
11. On the assumption that a double suction
List I impeller is the equivalent of two single
A. Shock wave suction impellers placed back to back, it is
B. Flow separat4on customary to base the specific speed of the
C. V Capillary rise double suction pump on
D. Cavitation a. One half of the total capacity

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List II b. Three fourth of the total capacity

1. Surface tension c. Full total capacity
2. Vapour pressure d. Double the total capacity
3. Compressibility 12. Consider the following types of water
4. Adverse pressure gradient turbines
A B C D 1. Bulb
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a. 3 1 2 4 2. Francis
b. 4 2 1 3 3. Kaplan
c. 3 4 1 2 4. Pelton
d. 4 1 2 3 The correct sequence of order in which the
operating head decreases while developing
9. Consider the following statements the same power is
pertaining to one-dimensional isentropic
a. 4, 2, 3, 1
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flow in a convergent-divergent passage:

1. A convergent-divergent passage may b. 3, 4, 1, 2
function as a supersonic nozzle or a c. 2, 1, 4, 3
d. 1, 3, 2, 4
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13. Match List I (Type of Pumps) with List II c. 3, 2, 1
(Associated Features) and select the d. 1, 3, 2
correct answer : 16. Euler equation of turbine giving energy
List I transfer per unit mass E0 (where U, Vw, Vr
A. Centrifugal pump and V represent the peripheral, whirl,
relative and absolute velocities

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B. Gear pump
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C. Reciprocating pump respectively. Suffix 1 and 2 refer to the

turbine inlet and outlet respectively) is
D. Turbine pump given by
List II a. E0 = U1Vw1 – U2 Vw2
1. Air vessel b. E0 = U1Vr1 – U2 Vr2
2. Draft tube c. E0 = U1V1 – U2 V2
3. Guide vanes

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d. E0 = V1Vw1 – V2 Vw2
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4. Rotary pump 17. The power ratio of a pump and its l/4 the
5. Rotor having blades scale model, if the ratio of the heads is 5 :
A B C D 1, will be
a. 4 2 5 3 a. 100
b. 5 4 1 2 b. 3.2
c. 4 2 3 1 c. 179

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d. 5 4 1 3 d. 12.8
14. Match List I (Industrial Needs) with List II 18. Which one of the following graphs
(Type of Pump) and select the correct correctly represents the relations between
answer : Head and Specific speed for Kaplan and
List I Francis turbine?
A. Combustible fluid to be pumped

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B. High head but small discharge needed
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C. Low head but large discharge needed

D. High head and high discharge needed
List II a.
1. Single stage centrifugal
2. Multi-stage centrifugal
3. Positive displacement

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4. Jet pump
A B C D b.
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 4 3 2 1
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15. Consider the following energies associated c.

with a Pelton turbine :
1. Mechanical energy
2. Kinetic energy
3. Potential energy
The correct sequence of energy conversion d.
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starting from the entry of fluid is 19. Consider the following statements
a. 1, 2, 3 regarding air vessels provided in,
b. 2, 3, 1 reciprocating pump installations

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1. The air vessels are fitted both on
suction and delivery sides.
2. The air vessels are fitted far from the
pump cylinder.
3. The air vessels save energy by
reducing the friction loss.
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24. In a two-stage compressor with ideal
intercooling, for the work requirement to
be minimum, the intermediate pressure pi
in terms of condenser and evaporator
pressure pc and pe respectively is
a. pi = pcpe

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Which of these statements are correct? b. pi = pc pe

a. 1, 2 and 3
c. pi = pc /pe
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2 d. pi = pc / pe
d. 1 and 3 25. In a one ton capacity water cooler, water
enters at 30°C at the rate of 200 liters per
20. A pump, is installed at a height of 5 m

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hour. The outlet temperature of water will
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above the water level in .the sump.

be (sp. heat of water = 4.18 kJ/kg K)
Frictional loss on the suction side is 0.6 m.
If the atmospheric pressure is 10.3 m of a. 3.5°C
water and vapour pressure head is 0.4 m b. 6.3°C
(abs), the NPSH (Net Positive Suction c. 23.7°C
Head) will be d. 15°C
a. 3.7 m 26. A refrigerator working on a reversed

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b. 4 m Carnot cycle has a C.O.P. of 4. If it works

c. 4.3 m as a heat pump and consumes 1 kW, the
d. 4.6 m heating effect will be
21. Priming is necessary in a. I kW
a. Centrifugal pumps to lift water from a b. 4kW
greater depth c. 5kW
d. 6kW

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b. Centrifugal pumps to remove air in the
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suction pipe and casing 27. Theoretical maximum C.O.P. of a vapour

c. Hydraulic turbine to remove air in the absorption system (where, TG = generator
turbine casing temp, TE = evaporator temp, T0 =
d. Hydraulic turbine to increase the speed environmental temp) is
of turbine and to generate more power TE  TG  TO 
a.  
22. An accumulator is a device to store TG  TO  TE 

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a. Sufficient quantity of liquid to

compensate the change in discharge TE  TO  TE 
b.  
b. Sufficient energy to drive the machine TG  TG  TO 
when the normal energy source does, TG  TG  TO 
not function c.  
c. Sufficient energy in case of machines
TE  TO  TE 
which work intermittently to TG TO  TE 
 
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d.
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supplement the discharge from the

normal source
TE TG  TO 
d. Liquid which otherwise would have 28. When a refrigerator system is started from
gone to waste ambient conditions, the evaporator
temperature decreases from ambient
23. The draught in locomotive boilers is
temperature to design value. This period is
produced by
known as a pull-down period. The power
a. Chimney requirement of compressor during pull-
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b. Centrifugal fan down

c. Steam jet a. decreases continuously
d. Locomotion b. increases continuously
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c. remains constant
d. increases and then decreases
29. Oil separator is NOT required in
refrigeration system if
a. refrigerant and oil are immiscible at all
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d. Water inlet temperature is mean of
water outlet temperature and wet bulb
temperature
33. Which of the following properties
increase(s) during sensible heating of air-
water vapour mixture?

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pressures and temperatures
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b. refrigerant and oil are immiscible at 1. Relative humidity

condensation pressure and temperature 2. Humidity ratio
c. refrigerant and oil are miscible at all 3. Wet bulb temperature
pressure and temperatures 4. Specific enthalpy of air-vapour
d. refrigerant and oil are miscible at mixture
condensation pressures and Select the correct answer from the codes

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temperature given below:
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30. If the volume of moist air with 50% a. 1 and 2

relative humidity is isothermally reduced b. 3 only
to half its original volume, then relative c. 2 and 3
humidity of moist air becomes
d. 3 and 4
a. 25%
34. Upon which of the following factors does
b. 60% the effective temperature for human

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c. 75% comfort depend?

d. 100% 1. Dry bulb temperature
31. When the wet and dry bulb temperatures 2. Humidity ratio
are identical, which of the following 3. Air velocity
statements is/are true ?
4. Mean radiation temperature
1. Air is fully saturated
Select the correct answer from the codes
2. Dew point temperature is reached

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given below :
3. Humidity ratio is unity a. 1 and 2
4. Partial pressure of vapour equals total b. 1, 3 and 4
pressure
c. 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below : d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
a. 1 only 35. Moist air enters the cooling coil with mass
flow rate of 10 kgda/s at dry bulb

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b. 1 and 2 temperature of 30°C and humidity ratio of

c. 3 and 4 0.017 kgw/kgda. It leaves the cooling coil
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 at dry bulb temperature of 16°C and
32. In a cooling tower the sum of range and humidity ratio of 0.008 kgw/kgda. If
approach is equal to twice the wet bulb specific heat of humid air is 1.02 kJ/kgda-
depression. Then K and latent heat of water vapour is 2500
a. Dry bulb temperature is mean of water kJ/kgw. The sensible and latent heat
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inlet temperature and wet bulb
temperature
b. Dry bulb temperature is mean of water
outlet temperature and wet bulb
temperature
c. Water inlet temperature is mean of dry
bulb temperature and wet bulb
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transfer of cooling coil are, respectively
a. 140 kW and 25000 kW
b. 142.8 kW and 2.25 kW
c. 142.8 kW and 225 kW
d. 225 kW and 142.8 kW
36. An air-conditioned room has length, width
and height of 20 m, 30 m and 4 m
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temperature respectively. The infiltration is assumed to

be one air change. The outdoor and indoor
dry bulb temperatures are 40°C and 25°C
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respectively. The sensible heat load due to 2. It acts vertically even when the surface
infiltration is is turned.
a. 734 kW (b) 12.24 kW Which of these is/are correct ?
b. 0.204 kW (d) 10 kW a. Only 1
37. Consider the following statements in b. Only 2

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respect of the contraction and expansion c. Both 1 and 2
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in. air conditioning ducts : d. Neither 1 nor 2

1. Pressure drop is more in contraction 41.
than in expansion.
2. Pressure drop is more in expansion
than in contraction.
3. Static pressure increases (regain) in
The depth of centre of pressure for a
rectangular lamina immersed vertically in
water up to height ‘h’ is given by
a. h/2
b. h/4

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expansion.
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c. 2h/3
4. Static pressure increases (regain) in
contraction. d. 3h/2
Which of these statements are correct ? 42. The vertical component of force on a
curved surface submerged in a static liquid
a. 1 and 2 is equal to the
b. 1, 2 and 3 a. Weight of liquid column above the
c. 1 and 3 C.G. of the curved surface

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d. 2 and 4 b. Weight of liquid above the curved

38. On which, of the following factors does surface
sol-air temperature depend? c. Product of pressure at C.G., multiplied
1. Outdoor air temperature by the area of the curved surface
2. intensity of solar radiation d. Product of pressure at C.G., multiplied
3. Absorptivity of wall by the projected area of the curved

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surface
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4. Convective heat transfer coefficient at

outer surface of wall 43. The point of application of a horizontal
5. Indoor design temperature force on a curved surface submerged in
liquid is
Choose the correct answer from the codes
IG
given below: a. h
a. 1, 2 and 5 Ah
b. 1, 2 and 3 I G  Ah

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b.
c. 3 and 4 Ah
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ah
c. h
39. Instantaneous cooling loads are NOT equal IG
to instantaneous heat gains because
IG
a. Heat gains are offset by cooling d.  Ah
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where A = area of the immersed surface
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b. Indoor temperatures are tower

c. Comfort conditions are maintained in h = depth of centre of surface
the space immersed
d. Of the storage effect in the IG = moment of inertia about centre
construction material of walls and roof of gravity
40. Consider the following statements about 44.
hydrostatic force on a submerged surface :
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1. It remains the same even when the

surface is turned.

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 p 1
t   2
  |  |2  gz = constant
represents
a. Steady flow energy equation
b. Unsteady irrotational Bernoulli’s

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equation
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c. Steady rotational Bernoulli’s equation

d. Unsteady rotational Bernoulli’s
equation
To measure the pressure head of the fluid 48. For a circular channel, the wetted
of specific gravity S flowing through a parameter (where R = radius of circular
pipeline, a simple micro-manometer channel,  = half the angle subtended by

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containing a fluid of specific gravity S1 is the water surface at the centre) is given by
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connected to it. The readings are as

a. R/2
indicated in the diagram. The pressure
head in the pipeline is b. 3R
a. h1S1 – hS – h(S1 – S) c. 2R
b. h1S1 – hS1 + h(S1 – S) d. R
c. hS – h1S1 – h(S1 – S) 49. Consider the following statements:

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d. hS – h1S1 +h (S1 – S) A hydraulic jump occurs in. an open
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channel
45. Match List I (Rheological Equation) with
List II (Types of Fluids) and. select the 1. when the Froude number is equal to or
correct answer : less than one.
List I 2. at the toe of a spillway.
A.  =  (du/dy)n , n = 1 3. downstream of a sluice gate in a canal.
B.  =  (du/dy)n , n < 1 4. when the bed slope suddenly changes.

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Which of these are correct ?

C.  =  (du/dy)n , n > 1
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D.  = 0 +  (du/dy)n , n = 1
b. 1, 2 and 3
List II
c. 2, 3 and 4
1. Bingham plastic
d. 1 and 4
2. Dilatant fluid
50. An orifice meter with Cd = 0.61 is
3. Newtonian fluid

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substituted by Venturimeter with Cd = 0.98

4. Pseudo-plastic fluid in a pipeline carrying crude oil, having the
A B C D same throat diameter as that of the orifice.
a. 3 2 4 1 For the same flow rate, the ratio of the
b. 4 1 2 3 pressure drops for the venturimeter and the
orifice meter is
c. 3 4 2 1
a. 0.61 / 0.98
d. 4 2 1 3
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b. (0.61)2 / (0.98)2
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46. Which one of the following stream

functions is a possible irrotational flow c. 0.98 / 0.61
field ? d. (0.98)2 / (0.61)2
a.  = x3y 51. The instrument preferred in the
measurement of highly fluctuating
b.  = 2xy
velocities in air flows is
c.  = Ax2y2 a. Pitot-static tube
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d.  = Ax + By2 b. Propeller type anemometer

47. The expression c. Three cup anemometer
d. Hot wire anemometer
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52. The friction factor for fully developed 56. Consider the following statements
turbulent flow through a rough circular regarding the fluidized bed combustion
pipe depends on boilers :
a. Reynolds number 1. The combustion temperatures are low,
b. Relative roughness around 900°C
2. The formation of oxides of nitrogen is

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c. Reynolds number and relative
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roughness
d. Reynolds number, relative roughness
and diameter to length ratio
53. In a steady flow of an oil in a pipe in the
fully developed laminar regime, the shear
stress is
low.
3. It removes sulphur from coal during
combustion process.
4. It requires high quality of coal as fuel.
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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a. Constant across the pipe
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b. Maximum at the centre and decreases
parabolically towards the pipe. wall
boundary
57.
c. Zero at the boundary and increases
linearly towards the centre
d. Zero at the centre and increases
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
The correct gas flow path in a typical large
modern natural circulation boiler is
a. Combustion chamber – Reheater –
Superheater – Economiser – Air

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towards the pipe wall
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Preheater – I.D. fan – Electrostatic

54. Velocity of pressure waves due to pressure precipitator – Stack
disturbances imposed in a liquid is equal to b. Combustion chamber – Superheater –
a. (E/)1/2 Reheater – Economiser – Air Preheater
b. (E)1/2 – Electrostatic – precipitator I.D. fan –
c. (/E)1/2 Stack
c. Combustion chamber – Reheater –
d. (1/E)1/2

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Superheater – Air Preheater –

55. Match List I (Boilers) with List Economiser – Electrostatic precipitator
II(Type/Description) and select the correct – I.D. fan – Stack
answer
d. Combustion chamber – Superheater –
List I Reheater – Economiser – Air Preheater
A. Lancashire – I.D. fan – Electrostatic precipitator –
B. Benson Stack

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C. Babcock and Wilcox 58. Employing superheated steam in turbines

D. Stirling leads to
List II a. Increase in erosion of blading
1. Horizontal straight tube, fire-tube b. Decrease in erosion of blading
boiler c. No erosion in blading
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boiler 59. Steam enters a De laval steam turbine with
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3. Bent tube, water-tube boiler an inlet velocity of 30 m/s and leaves with
4. High pressure boiler an outlet velocity of 10 m/s. The work
done by 1 kg of steam is
A B C D
a. 400 Nm
a. 4 2 1 3
b. 600 Nm.
b. 1 4 2 3
c. 800 Nm
c. 4 2 3 1
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d. 1200 Nm
d. 1 4 3 2
60. In a 50% reaction stage, absolute velocity
angle at inlet is 450, mean peripheral speed
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is 75 m/s and the absolute velocity at the c. is independent of the initial pressure
exit is axial. The stage specific work is and temperature
a. 2500 m2/s2 d. depends only on the condenser
b. 3270 m2/s2 pressure
c. 4375 m2/s2 66. Match List I (Blades) with List II
(Features) and select the correct answer :

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d. 5625 m2/s2
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61. In a reaction turbine stage enthalpy drop in List I

the stator blades is 4.62 kJ/kg and that in A. Ceramic blades
the rotor blades is 2.38 kJ/ kg. The degree B. Steam turbine blades
of reaction of the stage is C. Alloy steel blades
a. 0.52 D. Compressor blades
b. 0.43 List II

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c. 0.34 1. High creep strength

d. 0.26 2. Forged and machined
62. An emergency governor of a steam turbine 3. Precision cast
trips the turbine when 4. Thick at mid chord
1. Shaft exceeds 100% of its rated speed 5. Thin trailing edge
2. Condenser becomes hot due to A B C D
inadequate cooling water circulation

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a. 2 1 5 4
3. Lubrication system fails
b. 3 4 5 1
4. Balancing of turbine is not proper
c. 2 4 3 5
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below: d. 3 2 1 5
a. 1, 2 and 3 67. Assertion (A) : Throttling process for real
gases at initial temperature higher than
b. 2, 3 and 4 maximum inversion temperature is

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c. 3, 4 and 1 accompanied by decrease in temperature

d. 4, 1 and 2 of the gas.
63. Roots blower is an example of Reason (R) : Joule-Kelvin coefficient J is
a. Reciprocating (positive displacement) given by (T/p)h and should have a
compressor positive value for decrease in temperature
b. Rotary (positive displacement) during throttling process.
a. Both A and R are individually true and

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compressor
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c. Centrifugal compressor R is the correct explanation of A

d. Axial compressor b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
64. Acoustic velocity in an elastic gaseous
medium is proportional to c. A is true but R is false
a. Absolute temperature d. A is false but R is true
b. Stagnation temperature 68. Assertion (A) : An ideal regenerative
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Ranking cycle power plant with saturated

c. Square root of absolute temperature
d. Square root of stagnation temperature
65. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the
economic number of the stages of
regeneration
a. increases as the initial pressure and
temperature increase
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steam at the inlet to the turbine has same
thermal efficiency as Carnot cycle working
between the same temperature limits.
Reason (R) : The change in entropy of
steam during expansion in the turbine is
equal to the change in entropy of the feed
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water during sensible heating at steam

b. decreases as the initial pressure and generator pressure.
temperature increase a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
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b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
69. Assertion (A) : Octane number is used for
rating of fuels in spark ignition engine.
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Reason (R) : Octane number of a fuel is
defined as percentage by volume, of iso-
octane in a mixture of iso-octane and -
methyl naphthalene.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
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R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
70. Assertion (A) : Power generated by a four
stroke engine working on Otto cycle is
higher than the power generated by a two
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stroke engine for the same swept volume,
speed, temperature and pressure
conditions.
Reason (R) : In a four stroke engine one
cycle is completed in two revolutions.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
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b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
71. Assertion (A) : A counter flow heat
exchanger is thermodynamically more
efficient than the parallel flow type
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Reason (R) : A counter flow heat ex
changer has a lower LMTD for the same
temperature conditions.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
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c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
72. Assertion (A) : If the heat flux in pool
boiling over a horizontal surface is
increased above the critical heat flux, the
temperature difference between the surface
and liquid decreases sharply.
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Reason (R) : With increasing heat flux
beyond the value corresponding to the
critical heat flux, a stage is reached when
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the rate of formation of bubbles is so high
that they start to coalesce and blanket the
surface with a vapour film.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
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R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
73. Assertion (A) : Decrease of pressure and
increase of temperature of the refrigerant
in the suction pipeline connecting the
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evaporator to the reciprocating compressor
reduces the refrigerating capacity of the
system.
Reason (R) : Decrease of pressure and
increase of temperature of the refrigerant
in the suction pipeline connecting the
evaporator to the compressor reduces the
volumetric efficiency of the reciprocating
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compressor.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
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d. A is false but R is true
74. Assertion (A) : For a vertically immersed
surface, the depth of the centre of pressure
is independent of the density of the liquid.
Reason (R) : Centre of pressure lies above
the centre of area of the immersed surface.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
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R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
75. Assertion (A) : Streamlines can cross one
another if the fluid has higher velocity.
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Reason (R) : At sufficiently high velocity,
the Reynolds number is high and at
sufficiently high Reynolds numbers, the
structure of the flow is of turbulent type.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
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R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
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76. Assertion (A) : After the fluid has re-
established its flow pattern downstream of
an orifice plate, it will return to same
pressure that it had upstream of the orifice
plate.
Reason (R) : Bernoulli’s equation when
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applied between two points having the
same elevation and same velocity gives the
same pressure at these points.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
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c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
77. Assertion (A) : Aircraft wings are, slotted
to control separation of boundary layer
especially at large angles of attack.
Reason (R) : This helps to increase the lift
and the aircraft can take off from, and land
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on, short runways.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
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d. A is false but R is true
78. Assertion (A) : Reynolds number must be
same for the model, and prototype
immersed in subsonic flows.
Reason (R) : Equality of Reynolds number
for the model and prototype satisfies the
dynamic similarity criteria.
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a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
79. Assertion (A) : A normal shock always
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makes a supersonic flow of a compressible
fluid subsonic, but an oblique shock may
not ensure subsonic flow after the shock.
Reason (R) : A normal shock reduces the
stagnation pressure and stagnation
enthalpy considerably whereas the loss at
oblique shock is minimized.
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a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
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b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
80. Assertion (A) : Multi-stage centrifugal
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pumps are only of the radial flow type.
Reason (R) : In a multi-stage centrifugal
pump, two or more impellers are keyed to
a single shaft and enclosed in the same
casing, the radial inlet to successive
impellers being made through guide vanes.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
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R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
81. Assertion (A) : Large reaction turbines
have higher overall efficiency than the
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small reaction turbines.
Reason (R) : The mechanical efficiency of
small reaction turbines is higher than that
of larger ones.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
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R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
82. Assertion (A) : Impulse staging is
commonly employed in high pressure part
and reaction staging in intermediate low
pressure parts of the steam turbine.
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Reason (R) : The tip leakage across
moving blades is less in impulse staging as
the pressure drop is small and there can be
large pressure drop across fixed blades and
nozzles.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
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b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
83. Assertion (A) : In constant pressure type
gas turbines, large quantity of air is used,
in excess of its combustion requirements.
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Reason (R) : Excess air is used to
compensate for inevitable air-loss due to
leakages in the system.
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a. Both A and R are individually true and Exhaust emissions vs. Air fuel ratio curves
R is the correct explanation of A for a petrol engine are shown in the above
b. Both A and R are individually true but figure. The curve C represents
R is not the correct explanation of A a. Hydro carbon
c. A is true but R is false b. Carbon dioxide

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d. A is false but R is true c. Carbon monoxide
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84. A heat, pump for domestic heating d. Oxides of nitrogen

operates between a cold system at 0°C and 89.
the hot system at 60°C. What is the
minimum electric power consumption if
the heat rejected is 80000 kJ/hr?
a. 2 kW
Orsat apparatus is used to determine
products of
a. All constituents of fuel combustion by
mass
b. All constituents of fuel combustion by

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b. 3 kW
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volume
c. 4 kW c. Only dry constituents of combustion
d. 5 kW by mass
85. A Carnot refrigerator requires 1.5 kW/ton d. Only dry constituents of combustion
of refrigeration to maintain a region at a by volume
temperature of –30°C. The C.O.P. of the 90. Match List (Measuring Appliances) with
Carnot refrigerator is List II (Properties/Composition of Fuel)

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a. 1.42 and select the correct answer :

b. 2.33 List I
c. 2.87 A. Hydrometer
d. 3.26 B. Bomb calorimeter
86. In a standard dual air cycle, for a fixed C. Reid bomb
amount of heat supplied and a fixed value D. Orsat apparatus
of compression ratio, the mean effective

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List II
pressure
1. Vapour pressure
a. Shall increase with increase in rp
(pressure ratio for constant volume 2. Composition of products combustion
heating) and decrease in rc 3. Specific gravity
(constant pressure cut-off ratio) 4. Heating value
b. Shall increase with decrease in rp and A B C D

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increase in rc a. 2 1 3 4
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c. Shall remain independent of rp b. 3 4 1 2

d. Shall remain independent of rc c. 2 4 3 1
87. Bomb calorimeter is used to determine the d. 3 1 2 4
calorific value of 91. For a simple closed system of constant
a. Solid fuel only composition, the. difference between the
b. Gaseous fuels only net heat and work interactions is
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c. Solid as well. as gaseous fuels identifiable as the change in

d. Solids as well as liquid fuels a. Enthalpy
88. b. Entropy
c. Flow energy
d. Internal energy
92. If the performance of diesel engines of
different sizes, cylinder dimensions and
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power ratings are to be compared, which

of the following parameters can be used
for such comparison ?
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a. Swept volume Which of the above statements is/are
b. Air fuel ratio correct ?
c. Specific brake fuel consumption a. 1 only
d. Volumetric efficiency b. 2, 3 and 4
93. The propulsive efficiency of a turbojet c. 1 and 3

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aircraft approaches 100% when the thrust d. 2 and 4
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approaches 98. Gas contained in a closed system

a. Maximum consisting of piston cylinder arrangement
is expanded. Work done by the gas during
b. 50% of the maximum
expansion is 50 kJ. Decrease in internal
c. 25% of the maximum energy of the gas during expansion is 30
d. Zero kJ. Heat transfer during the process is
94. Identify the process for which the two equal to

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integrals  pdv and   vdp , evaluated a. – 20 kJ

between any two given states give the b. + 20 kJ
same value c. – 80 kJ
a. Isenthalpic d. + 80 kJ
b. Isothermal 99. Van der Waals’ equation of state is given
by (p + a /v2) (v – b) = RT. The constant b
c. Isentropic in the equation in terms of specific volume

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d. Polytropic at critical point vc is equal to

95. Which one of the following phenomenon a. vc/3
occurs when gas in a piston-in-cylinder b. 2 v
assembly expands reversibly at constant
c. 3 v
pressure?
d. 8a / (27 vc R)
a. Heat is added to the gas
100. Saturated liquid at a high pressure p1
b. Heat is removed from the gas

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having enthalpy of saturated liquid 1000

c. Gas does work from its own stored
energy
d. Gas undergoes adiabatic expansion
96. During steady flow compression process
of a gas with mass flow rate of 2 kg/s,
increase in specific enthalpy is 15 kJ/kg
kJ/kg is throttled to a lower pressure p2 . At
pressure p2 enthalpy of saturated liquid
and that of the saturated vapour are 800
and 2800 kJ/kg respectively. The dryness
fraction of vapour after throttling process
is
a. 0.1

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and decrease in kinetic energy is 2 kJ/kg.
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The rate of heat rejection to the b. 0.5

environment is 3 kW. The power needed c. 18/28
to drive the compressor is d. 0.8
a. 23 kW 101. Match List I (Terms) with List II
b. 26 kW (Relations) arid select the correct answer :
c. 29 kW List I
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d. 37 kW
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A. Specific heat at constant volume Cv

97. Consider the following statements : B. Isothermal compressibility kT
1. Zeroth law of thermodynamics is C. Volume expansivity 
related to temperature. D. Difference between specific heats at
2. Entropy is related to first law of constant pressure and at constant
thermodynamics. volume, Cp – Cv
3. Internal energy of an ideal gas is a List II
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1. 1/ v  v / T  p
function of temperature and pressure.
4. van der Waal’s’ equation is related to
an ideal gas. 2. T  p / T v  v / T  p
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3. T  s / T v 3. Incorporation of intercooling process
in a multi-stage compression system
4. 1/ v  v / p T increases specific work output but the
A B C D heat input also increases.
a. 3 4 2 1 4. Incorporation of intercooling process
b. 4 1 3 2 in a multi-stage compression system

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increases specific work putput, the heat

c. 3 4 1 2
addition remains uncharged.
d. 4 1 2 3
Which of the above statements are correct?
102. Consider the following statements
a. 1 and 3
pertaining to the features of a regenerative
steam cycle plant as compared to a non- b. 1 and 4
regenerative plant: c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4

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1. It increases the cycle efficiency.
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2. It requires a bigger boiler. 106. Match List I with List II and select the
3. It requires a smaller condenser. correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists :
Which of the above statements are correct?
List I
a. 1, 2 and 3
A. Bell Coleman cycle
b. 1 and 2
B. Stirling cycle
c. 2 and 3

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C. Ericsson cycle
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d. 1 and 3
D. Diesel cycle
103. For a steady flow process from state 1 to 2,
enthalpy changes from h1 = 400 kJ/kg to h2 List II
= 100 kJ/kg and entropy changes from s1 = 1. One constant pressure, one constant
1.1 kJ/kg-K to s2 = 0.7 kJ/kg-K. volume and two isentropic
Surrounding environmental 2. Two constant pressure and two
temperature is 300K. Neglect changes in isentropic

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kinetic and potential energy. The change in 3. Two constant pressure and two
availability of the system is isothermal
a. 420 kJ/kg 4. Two constant volume and two
b. 300 kJ/kg isothermal
c. 180 kJ/kg A B C D
d. 90 kJ/kg a. 2 3 4 1
104. For a heat engine operating on the Carnot b. 1 4 3 2

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cycle, the work output is 1/4th of the heat c. 2 4 3 1

transferred to the sink. The efficiency of d. 1 3 4 2
the engine is 107.
a. 20%
b. 33.3%
c. 40%
d. 50%
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1.
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105. Consider the following statements about

modification in a gas turbine power plant
working on a simple Brayton cycle
1. Incorporation of regeneration process
increases specific work output as well
2.
as thermal efficiency.
2. Incorporation of regeneration process
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increases thermal efficiency but

specific work putput remains
uncharged.
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3. 2. Sherwood Number
3. Match Number
4. Biot Number
5. Grashoff Number
A B C D

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a. 5 1 2 3
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The correct sequence of the cycles given in b. 2 1 5 4

the above T-S diagrams is c. 4 2 1 3
a. Vapour compression refrigeration, d. 2 3 5 4
Rankine, Diesel, Otto
112. The velocity and temperature distribution
b. Rankine, Vapour compression in a pipe flow are given by u(r) and T(r). If
refrigeration, Diesel, Brayton um is the mean velocity at any section of

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c. Rankine, Carnot, Otto, Brayton the pipe, the bulk mean temperature at that
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d. Vapour compression refrigeration, section is

Carnot, Diesel, Otto r0

 u (r )T (r )r dr
2
108. The absolute jet exit velocity from a jet a.
engine is 2800 m/s and the forward flight 0
r0
velocity is 1400 m/s. The propulsive u (r ) T (r )
efficiency is b. 
0
3r 2r
dr

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a. 33.33%
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r0
u (r )T (r )dr

b. 40% c.
c. 66.67% 0
2 r03
d. 90% r
2 0
um r02 0
109. The efficiency of jet engine is d. u (r )(Tr )rdr
a. higher at high speeds
b. lower at low speeds 113. For fully-developed turbulent flow in a

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pipe with heating, the Nusselt number Nu,
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c. higher at high altitudes

varies with Reynolds number Re and
d. same at all altitudes Prandtl number Pr as
110. A metal rod of 2cm diameter has a a. Re0.5 Pr1/3
conductivity of 40 W/m K, which is to be
b. Re0.8 Pr0.2
insulated with an insulating material of
conductivity of 0.1 W/m K. If the c. Re0.8 Pr0.4
convective heat transfer coefficient with d. Re0.8 Pr0.3

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the ambient atmosphere is 5 W/m2 K, the
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114. Consider the following statements in

critical thickness of insulation will be respect of automobile engine with
a. 1 cm thermosyphon cooling
b. 2 cm 1. Heat transfer from gases to cylinder
c. 7 cm walls takes place by convection and
radiation.
d. 8 cm
2. Most of the heat transfer from radiator
111. Match List I(Process) with List II
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to atmosphere takes place by radiation.
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(Predominant Parameter Association With

the Process) and select the correct answer 3. Most amount of heat transfer from
using the codes given below the Lists: radiator to atmosphere takes place by
convection.
List I
4. Heat transfer from cylinder waits takes
A. Mass transfer
place by conduction and convection.
B. Forced convection
Which of the above statements are correct?
C. Free convection
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a. 1, 2 and 4
D. Transient conduction
b. 1, 3 and 4
List II
c. 2, 3 and 4
1. Reynolds Number
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d. 1 and 2 d.
115. A body at 500 K cools by radiating heat to
ambient atmosphere maintained at 300 K.
When the body has cooled to 400 K, the
cooling rate as a percentage of original
cooling rate is about

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a. 31.1
b. 41.5 119. Match List I (Process) with List II (Type)
c. 50.3 for Bell Coleman or Joule or Reverse
d. 80.4 Brayton cycle for gas cycle refrigeration
116. Fraction of radiative energy leaving one and select the correct answer:
surface that strikes the other surface is List I
called A. Compression

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a. Radiative flux B. Heat rejection

b. Emissive power of the first surface C. Expansion
c. View factor D. Heat absorption
d. Re-radiation flux List II
117. A finned surface consists of root or base 1. Isobaric
area of 1 m2 and fin surface area of 2 m2. 2. Isothermal

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The average heat transfer coefficient for
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3. Isentropic.
finned surface is 20 W/m2 K. Effectiveness
4. Isenthalpic
of fins provided is 0.75. If finned surface
with root or base temperature of 50°C is A B C D
transferring heat to a fluid at 50°C, then a. 3 1 4 2
rate of heat transfer is b. 3 1 3 1
a. 400 W c. 3 2 3 2
b. 800 W d. 3 1 2 2

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c. 1000 W 120. Consider the following statements in

d. 1200 W respect of absorption refrigeration and
118. Which one of the following is the p-v vapour compression refrigeration systems :
diagram for air refrigeration cycle? 1. The former runs on low grade energy.
a. 2. The pumping work in the former is
negligible since specific volume of
strong liquid solution is small.

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3. The latter uses an absorber while

former uses a generator
4. The liquid pump alone replaces
compressor of the latter.
b. Which of these statements are correct?
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b. 1 and 3
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c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 4

c.
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