Worksheet SEP

1. The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is
controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as:

a) VS1.
b) VS.
c) VMC.
d) VSO.

2. What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?

a) Decreases.
b) Depends on the aeroplane type.
c) No change
d) Increases.

Wind has no effect on ROC, time to TOC or fuel burn.

3. During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:

a) Increases the climb time.

b) Increases the amount of fuel for the climb.
c) Decreases the climb time.
d) Decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.

4. How does the thrust of a propeller vary during take-off run, assuming un stalled flow
conditions at the propeller blades? The thrust:

a) Varies with mass changes only.

b) Decreases while the aeroplane speed builds up.
c) Has no change during take-off and climb.
d) Increases while the aeroplane speed builds up.

Thrust falls off with increasing speed on a fixed pitch propeller.

5. Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag
ratio speed?

a) The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.
b) The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.
c) The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.
d) The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.

The maximum lift to drag ratio speed is VMD. The heavier aircraft will have a higher VMD.

6. Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag
ratio speed?

a) A headwind component increases the ground distance.

b) A tailwind component increases the ground distance.
c) A tailwind component increases the time in the descent
d) A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.

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7. The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass:

a) Increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.

b) Decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the
lower air density.
c) Increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air
density.
d) Is independent of altitude.

If Vx = Vy then we will be at the absolute ceiling where the theoretical ROC is zero.

8. The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft

pressure-altitude. Using the following corrections: ± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation, - 5 m /
kt headwind,+ 10 m / kt tail wind, ± 15 m /% runway slope,± 5 m / °C deviation from
standard temperature. The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation,
temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is:

a) 685 m
b) 715 m
c) 755 m
d) 555 m
Corrections:
Elevation = + 20m
Tailwind = + 100m
Slope = + 15m
Temperature = + 20m
Total correction = +155m
600m + 155m = 755m.

9. The pilot of an aircraft has calculated a 4000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast
general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3250 kg. If the take-off mass is
3000 kg. the service ceiling will be:

a) Only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or
lower than
b) 4000 m.
c) Less than 4000 m.
d) Higher than 4000 m.
e) Unchanged, equal to 4000 m.

The service ceiling for a prop is when the ROC has reduced to 100fpm (Due to the low
altitudes quoted we can assume it’s a prop). As the aircraft is lighter its service ceiling will be
higher.

10. The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:

a) A shorter ground roll.

b) A longer take-off run.
c) An increased acceleration.
d) A higher V1.

Increasing flap, S in the lift formula L = CL ½ r v² S, shortens the ground roll for the same
mass.

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11. How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations
Manuals?

a) Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered.
b) Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind.
c) Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.
d) Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.

12. An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35°
instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:

a) A reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance

b) An increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
c) A reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
d) An increased landing distance and better go-around performance

The higher the flap setting the lower the VREF, and the LDR will decrease. However the
higher flap setting will decrease the go around gradient.

13. What percentages of the head wind and tail wind component are taken into account
when calculating the take off field length required?

a) 50% head wind and 100% tail wind.

b) 150% head wind and 50% tail wind.
c) 100% head wind and 100% tail wind.
d) 50% head wind and 150% tail wind.

14. During a descent a headwind will:

a) Increases the angle of the descent flight path.

b) Increases the descent distance over ground.
c) Increases the rate of descent.
d) Increases the angle of descent.

The descent flight path vector GAMMA increases

15. When compared to still air conditions, a constant headwind component:

a) Increases the best rate of climb.

b) Increases the maximum endurance.
c) Decreases the angle of climb.
d) Increases the angle of flight path during climb.

The flight path vector GAMMA will be affected by the headwind and will increase. The angle
of climb, ROC and time will be unaffected.

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16. With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine
the maximum allowable take off mass. Given:
O.A.T : ISA,
Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft,
Headwind component: 5 kt,
Flaps: Up,
Runway: Tarred and Dry.
Factored runway length: 2000 ft,
Obstacle height: 50 ft
(Refer to Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)

a) 3200 lbs
b) 3000 lbs
c) 2900 lbs
d) > 3650 lbs

17. With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine
the take off distance to a height of 50 ft. Given:
O.A.T : -7°C
Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Tarred and Dry
(Refer to Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)

a) Approximately: 2450 ft
b) Approximately: 1950 ft
c) Approximately: 1150 ft
d) Approximately: 1260 ft

The question asks for the take-off distance to a height of 50 ft on a dry asphalt runway. No
regulation factor is required. Graph output 1900 ft. Close enough to given answer.

18. With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine
the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft. Given:
O.A.T : ISA+10°C
Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Up
Runway: Tarred and Dry
(Refer to Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)

a) 68 and 78 KIAS
b) 65 and 75 KIAS
c) 73 and 84 KIAS
d) 71 and 82 KIAS

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19. The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft

pressure-altitude. Using the following corrections : "± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation " "- 5
m / kt headwind " "+ 10 m / kt tail wind " "± 15 m /% runway slope " "± 5 m / °C deviation
from standard temperature " The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation,
temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is :

a) 810 m
b) 870 m
c) 970 m*
d) 890 m

Elevation =+40m (+20m per 1000ft) ISA deviation = +50m ( temp is +10 on ISA / +5m per
degree) Slope = +30m ( +15m per % of slope) Tailwind= + 50m ( +10m per knot of tailwind)
Total correction =170m add this to 800m = 970m

20. With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine
the climb speed (ft/min). Given:
O.A.T : ISA + 15°C,
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft,
Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs,
Flaps: Up.
Speed:100 KIAS
(Refer to Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)

a) 1210 ft/min
b) 1370 ft/min
c) 1290 ft/min*
d) 1150 ft/min

Graph output is 1290 fpm.

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