SECTION ONE - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (Atempt all questions:1 point

each)
1. The most active site of protein synthesis is the:

a. Nucleus
b. Ribosome
c. Mitochodrion
d. Cell sap

2. The Golgi complex:

a. Synthesizes proteins
b. Produces ATP
c. Provides a pathway for transporting chemicals
d. Forms glycoproteins

3. The general formula of monosaccharides is:

a. CnH2nOn
b. C2nH2On
c. CnH2O2n
d. CnH2nO2n

4. A triose sugar is:

a. Glycerose
b. Ribose
c. Erythrose
d. Fructose

5. A pentose sugar is:

a. Dihydroxyacetone
b. Ribulose
c. Erythrose
d. Glucose

6. The number of isomers of glucose is:

a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16

7. Two sugars which differ from one another only in configuration around a single carbon
atom are termed:

a. Epimers
b. Anomers
c. Optical Isomers
d. Stereoisomers
8. The most important epimer of glucose is:

a. Galactose
b. Fructose
c. Arabinose
d. Xylose

9. The sugar found in RNA is:

a. Ribose
b. Deoxyribose
c. Ribulose
d. Erythrose

10. The sugar found in milk is:

a. Galactose
b. Glucose
c. Fructose
d. Lactose

11. Sucrose consists of:

a. Glucose + glucose
b. Glucose + fructose
c. Glucose + galactose
d. Glucose + mannose

12. Starch is a:

a. Polysaccharide
b. Monosaccharide
c. Disaccharide
d. None of these

13. The most abundant carbohydrate found in nature is:

a. Starch
b. Glycogen
c. Cellulose
d. Chitin

14. Branching occurs in glycogen approximately after every

a. Five glucose units

b. Ten glucose units
c. Fifteen glucose units
d. Twenty glucose units

15. The optically inactive amino acid is:

a. Glycine
b. Serine
c. Threonine
d. Valine
16. At neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids in solution would be predominantly:

a. Dipolar ions
b. Nonpolar molecules
c. Positive and monovalent
d. Hydrophobic

17. An example of polar amino acid is:

a. Alanine
b. Leucine
c. Arginine
d. Valine

18. An amino acid not found in proteins is:

a. β-Alanine
b. Proline
c. Lysine
d. Histidine

19. In proteins the α-helix and β-pleated sheet are examples of:

a. Primary structure
b. Secondary structure
c. Tertiary structure
d. Quaternary structure

20. At the lowest energy level α-helix of polypeptide chain is stabilized:

a. By hydrogen bonds formed between the H of peptide N and the carbonyl O of

the residue
b. Disulphide bonds
c. Non polar bonds
d. Ester bonds

21. Denaturation of proteins results in:

a. Disruption of primary structure

b. Breakdown of peptide bonds
c. Destruction of hydrogen bonds
d. Irreversible changes in the molecule

22. At a pH below the isoelectric point, an amino acid exists as:

a. Cation
b. Anion
c. Zwitterion
d. Undissociated molecule

23. Primary structure of a protein is formed by:

a. Hydrogen bonds
b. Peptide bonds
c. Disulphide bonds
d. All of these
24. Which of the following statement about the peptide bond is true?

a. It is a carbon-carbon bond
b. It has cis hydrogen and oxygen groups
c. It is planar
d. It has rotational freedom

25. Which of the following techniques is used to separate proteins based upon differences in
their mass?

a. Isoelectric focusing
b. Dialysis
c. SDS-gel Electrophoresis
d. Western blotting

26. Optically active compounds are capable of:

a. Different reactions
b. Rotating plane of polarized light
c. Showing same chemical properties
d. None of these

27. Side chains of all amino acids contain aromatic rings except:

a. Phenylalanine
b. Alanine
c. Tyrosine
d. Tryptophan

28. A zymogen is:

a. An intracellular enzyme
b. Serum enzyme
c. A complete extracellular enzyme
d. An inactivated enzyme

29. Isoelectric pH of an amino acid is that pH at which it has a:

a. Positive charge
b. Negative charge
c. No charge
d. None of these

30. In mammals, the major fat in adipose tissues is:

a. Phospholipid
b. Cholesterol
c. Sphingolipids
d. Triacylglycerol

31. The importance of phospholipids as constituent of cell membrane is because they

possess:

a. Fatty acids
b. Both polar and nonpolar groups
c. Glycerol
d. Phosphoric acid
32. Triglycerides are:

a. Heavier than water

b. Major constituents of membranes
c. Non-polar
d. Hydrophilic

33. The major storage form of lipids is:

a. Esterified cholesterol
b. Glycerophospholipids
c. Triglycerides
d. Sphingolipids

34. All the following have 18 carbon atoms except:

a. Linoleic acid
b. Linolenic acid
c. Arachidonic acid
d. Stearic acid

35. Fischer’s ‘lock and key’ model of the enzyme action implies that:

a. The active site is complementary in shape to that of substance only after interaction
b. The active site is complementary in shape to that of substance
c. Substrates change conformation prior to active site interaction
d. The active site is flexible and adjusts to substrate

36. From the Lineweaver-Burk plot of Michaelis-Menten equation, Km and Vmax can be
determined when V is the reaction velocity at substrate concentration S, the X-axis
experimental data are expressed as:

a. 1/V
b. V
c. 1/S
d. S

37. The kinetic effect of purely competitive inhibitor of an enzyme:

a. Increases Km without affecting Vmax

b. Decreases Km without affecting Vmax
c. Increases Vmax without affecting Km
d. Decreases Vmax without affecting Km

38. In reversible non-competitive enzyme activity inhibition:

a. Inhibitor bears structural resemblance to substrate

b. Inhibitor lowers the maximum velocity attainable with a given amount of
enzyme
c. Km is increased
d. Km is decreased
39. An example of group transferring coenzyme is:

a. NAD+
b. NADP+
c. FAD
d. CoA

40. Isoenzymes are:

a. Chemically, immunologically and electrophoretically different forms of an

enzyme
b. Different forms of an enzyme similar in all properties
c. Catalyzing different reactions
d. Having the same quaternary structures like the enzymes

41. Factors affecting enzyme activity:

a. Concentration
b. pH
c. Temperature
d. All of the above

42. Lineweaver – Burk double reciprocal plot is related to:

a. Substrate concentration
b. Enzyme activity
c. Temperature
d. Both (a) and (b)

43. Characteristic features of active site are:

a. Flexible in nature
b. Site of binding
c. Acidic
d. Both (a) and (b)

44. An example of enzyme inhibition:

a. Reversible inhibition
b. Irreversible inhibition
c. Allosteric inhibition
d. All of these

45. Allosteric inhibition is also known as:

a. Competitive inhibition
b. Non-competitive inhibition
c. Feedback inhibition
d. None of these

46. An allosteric enzyme is generally inhibited by:

a. Initial substrate of the pathway

b. Substrate analogues
c. Product of the reaction catalyzed by allosteric enzyme
d. Product of the pathway
47. Competitive inhibition can be relieved by raising the:

a. Enzyme concentration
b. Substrate concentration
c. Inhibitor concentration
d. None of these

48. Regulation of some enzymes by covalent modification involves addition or removal of:

a. Acetate
b. Sulphate
c. Phosphate
d. Coenzyme

49. An inorganic ion required for the activity of an enzyme is known as:

a. Activator
b. Cofactor
c. Coenzyme
d. None of these

50. Enzymes accelerate the rate of reactions by:

a. Increasing the equilibrium constant of reactions

b. Increasing the energy of activation
c. Decreasing the energy of activation
d. Decreasing the free energy change of the reaction

51. In enzyme assays, all the following are kept constant except

a. Substrate concentration
b. Enzyme concentration
c. pH
d. Temperature

52. If a coenzyme is required in an enzyme reaction, the former usually has the function of:

a. Acting as an acceptor for one of the cleavage products of the substrate

b. Enhancing the specificity of the apo enzyme
c. Increasing the number of receptor sites of the apo enzyme
d. Activating the substrate

53. When [s] is equal to Km, which of the following conditions exist?

a. Half the enzyme molecules are bound to substrate

b. The velocity of the reaction is equal to Vmax
c. The velocity of the reaction is independent of substrate concentration
d. Enzyme is completely saturated with substrate

54. In which of the following types of enzyme water may be added to a C—C double bond
without breaking the bond?

a. Hydrolase
b. Hydratase
c. Hydroxylase
d. Esterase
55. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Enzymes have names ending ase

b. Enzymes are highly specific in their action
c. Enzymes are living organisms
d. Enzymes get activated on heating

56. An enzyme catalyzes the conversion of an aldose sugar to a ketose sugar would be
classified as one of the:

a. Transferases
b. Isomerases
c. Oxido reductases
d. Hydrolases

57. A nucleoside consists of:

a. Nitrogenous base
b. Purine or pyrimidine base + sugar
c. Purine or pyrimidine base + phosphorous
d. Purine + pyrimidine base + sugar + phosphorous

58. The chemical name of guanine is:

a. 2,4-Dioxy-5-methylpyrimidine
b. 2-Amino-6-oxypurine
c. 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine
d. 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine

59. The carbon of the pentose in ester linkage with the phosphate in a nucleotide structure is:

a. C1
b. C3
c. C4
d. C5

60. The most abundant free nucleotide in mammalian cells is:

a. ATP
b. NAD
c. GTP
d. FAD

61. In RNA molecule guanine content does not necessarily equal its cytosine content nor
does its adenine content necessarily equal its uracil content since it is a:

a. Single strand molecule

b. Double stranded molecule
c. Double stranded helical molecule
d. Polymer of purine and pyrimidine ribonucleotides

62. Double helical structure model of the DNA was proposed by:

a. Pauling and Corey

b. Peter Mitchell
c. Watson and Crick
d. King and Wooten

63. DNA rich in A-T pairs have:

a. 1 Hydrogen bond
 b. 2 Hydrogen bonds
c. 3 Hydrogen bonds
d. 4 Hydrogen bonds

64. The fact that DNA bears the genetic information of an organism implies that:

a. Base composition should be identical from species to species

b. DNA base composition should charge with age
c. DNA from different tissues in the same organism should usually have the same
base composition
d. DNA base composition is altered with nutritional state of an organism

65. In a DNA molecule the thymine concentration is 30%, the guanosine concentration will be:

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%

66. Genetic information flows from:

a. DNA to DNA
b. DNA to RNA
c. RNA to cellular proteins
d. DNA to cellular proteins

67. Genetic code is:

a. Collection of codon
b. Collection of amino acids
c. Collection of purine nucleotide
d. Collection of pyrimidine nucleotide

68. Degeneracy of genetic code implies that:

a. Codons do not code for specific amino acid

b. Multiple codons must decode the same amino acids
c. No anticodon on tRNA molecule
d. Specific codon decodes many amino acids

69. mRNA is complementary to the nucleotide sequence of:

a. Coding strand
b. Ribosomal RNA
c. tRNA
d. Template strand

70. In nucleotides, phosphate is attached to sugar by:

a. Salt bond
b. Hydrogen bond
c. Ester bond
d. Glycosidic bond
71. Left handed double helix is present in:

a. Z-DNA
b. A-DNA
c. B-DNA
d. None of the above

72. Mitochondrial DNA is present in:

a. Bacteria
b. Viruses
c. Eukaryotes
d. All of the above

73. Transfer RNA transfers:

a. Information from DNA to ribosome’s

b. Information from mRNA to cytosol
c. Amino acids from cytosol to ribosomes
d. Proteins from ribosomes to cytosol