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IBPS Specialist IT Officer 2012 Question Papers

1.A special type gateway that can keep external users from accessing resources on the
LAN users access the external info is called:
(a) Repeater
(b) Firewall
(c) Encryption
(d) Hub
(e) None of these
2. What is the name given to the exchange of control signals which is necessary for
establishing a connection between a modem and a computer at one end of a line and
another modem and computer at the other end?
(a) Handshaking
(b) Modem options
(c) Protocol
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
3. In SQL, which command is used to changes data in a data table?
(a) UPDATE
(b) INSERT
(c) BROWSE
(d) APPEND
(e) None of these
4. In SQL, which of the following is not a data definition language command?
(a) RENAME
(b) REVOKE
(c) GRANT
(d) UPDATE
(e) None of these
5. Which command(s) is (are) used to redefine a column of the table in SQL ?
(a) ALTER TABLE

(b) DEFINE TABLE
(c) MODIFY TABLE
(d) ALL of the these
(e) None of these
6. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called
(a) Relations
(b) Domains
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(c) Queries
(d) All of the these
(e) None of these
7. An indexing operation
(a) Sorts a file using a single key

(b) Sorts file using two keys
(c) Establishes an index for a file
(d) Both (1) and (3)
(e) None of these
8. Data security threats include
(a) Hardware failure

(b) Privacy invasion
(c) Fraudulent manipulation of data
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
9. The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred
to as the
(a) DML
(b) DDL
(c) Query language
(d) DCL
(e) None of these
10. A ___ contains the smallest unit of meaningful data, so you might call it the basic
building block for a data file.
(a) File structures

(b) Records
(c) Fields
(d) Database
(e) None of these
11. A ___ means that one record in a particular record type is related to only one record
of another record type.
(a) One to one relationship

(b) One to many relationship
(c) Many toone relationship
(d) Many to many relationship
(e) None of these
12. Through linked list one can implement
(a) Stack
(a) Graph
(c) Queue

(d) All of these

(e) None of these
13. A heap allows a very efficient implementation of a
(a) Doubled ended queue

(b) Priority queue
(c) Stack
(d) Trees
(e) None of these
14. In files, there is a key associated with each record which is used to differentiate
among different records. For every file there is at least one set of keys that is unique.
Such a Key is called
(a) Unique key

(b) Prime attribute
(c) Index key
(d) Primary Key
(e) Null key
15. ____ is primarily used for mapping host names and email destinations to IP address
but can also be used for other purposes.
(a) TCP(transfer control protocol)

(b) DNS(Domain Name System)
(c) SHA (Secure Hash Algorithm)
(c) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
(d) None of these
16. Override is a method
(a) For an operation that replaces an inherited method for the same operation
(b) For a data that replaces an inherited method for the same operation
(c) For an operation that takes arguments form library function
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
17. Local variables
(a) Are created outside a block

(b) Are known only to that block
(c) Continue to exist when their block ends
(d) Are illegal in C++
(e) None of these
18. ____ is virus that inserts itself into a system’s memory. Then it take number of
actions when an infected file is executed.
(a) Web scripting virus

(b) Polymorphic virus

(c) Macro virus
(d) Boot sector virus
(e) Resident virus
19. This ___ data mining technique derives rules from real world case examples.
(a) Waterfall model

(b) RAD
(c) White Box
(d) Spiral model
(e) Case based reasoning
20. The ___ remains operative until the software is required.
(a) Waterfall model

(b) Incremental model
(c) Spiral model
(d) Prototyping model
(e) Incremental model
21. Data mining evolve as a mechanism to cater the limitations of ___ systems to deal
massive data sets with high dimensionality, new data type, multiple heterogeneous data
resource etc.
(a) OLTP
(b) OLAP
(c) DSS
(d) DWH
(e) None of these
22. An important application of cryptography, used in computerized commercial and

financial transaction
(a) Data mining

(b) Data warehousing
(c) Digital signature
(d) Media convergence
(e) None of these
23. Rows of a relation are called:
(A) Relation
(b) Tuples
(c) Data structure
(e) An entity
(f) None of these
24. The drawbacks of the binary tree sort are remedied by the
(a) Linear sort

(b) Quick Sort

(c) Heap Sort
(d) Insertion Sort
(e) None of these
25. Which layer of OSI determines the interface of the system with the user?
(a) Network
(b) Application
(c) Data link
(d) Session
(e) None of these
26. The tracks on a disk which can be accused without repositioning the R/W heads is
(a) Surface
(b) Cylinder
(c) Cluster
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
27. Which of the following is true about GUIs?
(a) They make computers easier to use for nonprofessionals

(b) They use icons and menus that users can select with a mouse
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(d) All of the these
(e) None of these
28. A computer system consisting of its processor, memory and I/O devices accepts
data, processes it and produces the output results .Can you tell in which component is
the raw data fed?
(a) Mass Memory

(b) Main Memory
(c) Logic Unit
(d) Arithmetic unit
(e) None of these
29. The mechanical diskette drive in which you insert your diskette is connected to the
computer’s—bus
(a) Data
(b) Communication
(c) Address
(d) Parallel
(e) None of these

30 . A set of programs that handle firm’s database responsibilities is called a
(a) Data base Management System (DBMS)

(b) Data Base Processing System (DBPS)
(c) Data Management System (DMS)
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
31. You are in the process of analyzing a problem that requires you to collect and store
TCP/ IP Packets. Which of the following utilities is best suited for this purpose?
(a) NBTSTAT
(b) Performance Monitor
(c) NETSTAT
(e) Network Monitor
(f) DHCP Management Console
32. top to bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a
(a) Hierarchical Schema

(b) Network Schema
(c) Relational Schema
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these
33. The process of transferring data intended for a peripheral device into a disk (or
intermediate store) so that it can be transferred to peripheral at a more convenient time
or in bulk is known as
(a) Multiprogramming
(b) Spooling
(c) Caching
(d) Virtual programming
(e) None of these
34. Which of the following system program forgoes the production of object code to
generate absolute machine code and load it into the physical main storage location from
which it will be executed immediately upon completion of the assembly?
(a) Two pass assembler

(b) Load and go assembler
(c) Macro processor
(d) Compiler
(e) None of these
35. Relocation bits used by relocating loader are specifically (generated) by:
(a) Relocating loader itself

(b) Linker
(c) Assembler or translator
(d) Macro processor

(e) None of these
36. From what location are the 1st computer instructions available on boot up ?
(a) ROM BIOS

(b) CPU
(c) Boot.ini
(d) CONFIG.SYS
(d) None of these
37. Abstraction is
(a) The act of representing the essential features of something without including much detail.
(b) The act of representing the features of something much detail
(c) A tree structure
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
38. Aggregation is a special for of
(a) Generalization
(b) Specialization
(c) Association
(d) Object
(e) None of these
39. Consider an operation of addition. For two numbers, the operating will generate a
sum. If the operand are strings, and the same operation would produce a third string by
concatenation. This features is called ____.
(a) Inheritance
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Binding
(e) None of these
40. In ER diagrams, the term cardinality is a synonym for the term—
(a) Attribute
(b) Degree
(c) Entities
(d) Cartesian
(e) None of these
41. An oracle server index—
(a) Is a schema object

(b) Is used to speed up the retrieval of rows by using a pointer
(c) Is independent of the table it indexes
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

42. Which of the following is not a context free grammar components?
(a) Terminal symbols

(b) Nonterminal symbol
(c) Production line
(d) List
(e) None of these
43. Which of the following is a phase of RAD model?
(a) Data modeling

(b) Application generation
(c) All of the above
(d) None of these
44. ____ is a set design steps that allows a DFD with transform flow characteristics to be
mapped into a predefined template for program structure.
(a) Transaction flow

(b) Contributor
(c) Transform mapping
(d) Design evaluation
(e) None of these
45. A combinational logic circuit which is used to send data coming from a single source
to two or more separate destinations is called as
(a) Encoder
(b) Multiplexer
(c) Demultiplexer
(d) None of these
46. Which of the following is a universal gate?

(a) AND
(b) OR
(c) EXOR
(d) NAND
(e) None of these
47. The two’s compliment of binary number 010111.1100 is
(a) 101001.1100
(b) 101000.0100
(c) 010111.0011
(d) 101000.0011
(e) None of these
48. In 8086 the overflow flag is set when

(a) The sum is more than 16 bits

(b) Signed numbers go out their range after an arithmetic operation
(c) Carry and sign flags are set
(d) During subtraction
(e) None of these
49. What does microprocessor speed depends on?

(a) Clock
(b) Data bus width
(c) Address bus width
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
50. The TRAP is one of the interrupts available its INTEL 8085. Which one statement is
true of TRAP?
(a) It is level triggered
(b) It is negative edge triggered It is positive edge triggered
(c) It is positive edge triggered
(d) It is both positive edge triggered and level triggered
(e) None of these

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IBPS
Specialist Officer (IT)
Previous Year Exam
Papers
2013
1. Which of the following microprocessors is not 8bit microprocessor?

1. 8085
2. 6502
3. Z80
4. 68000
5. None of these
2. Microprocessor 8085 is the enhanced version of which essentially the same
construction set
1. 6800
2. 8080
3. 6800A
4. 8000
5. All of these
3. Which of the following interrupts has the lowest priority?
1. RST 5.5
2. RST 7.5
3. TRAP
4. INTR
5. None of these
4. The Data control language (DCL).
1. is used to manage user access to data bases
2. is used to manipulate the contents of a database in some form
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Used for inserting, deleting and updating data in a database
5. None of these
5. A collection of fields is called a record with respect of DBMS, a record corresponds
to
1. Tuple
2. Relation
3. File
4. Attribute
5. None of these.
6. Multiplexer means
1. One into many
2. Many into one
3. Many into many
4. All of these
5. None of these
7. Which gate is known as universal gate ?
1. NOT gate
2. NAND gate
3. AND gate
4. XOR gate
5. None of the above
8. Which of the following is the first integrated logic family?
1. TCL

2. T1L
3. DTL
4. MOS
5. RTL
9. A top to bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a
1. Hierarchical schema
2. Network Schema
3. Relational Schema
4. Both (1) and (2)
5. Both (2) and (3)
10. In the relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called.
1. Relations
2. Domains
3. Queries
4. Both (1) and (2)
5. Both (1) and (3)
11. The modify operation is likely to be done after.
1. Delete
2. Insert
3. Look up
4. All of the above
5. None of these
12. The way a particular application views the data from the database that the
application uses is a :
1. Module
2. Relational model
3. Schema
4. Subschema
5. None of these
13. Which two files are used during operation of the DMBS?
1. Query language and utilities
2. Data manipulation language and query language:
3. Data dictionary and transaction log
4. Data dictionary and query language
5. None of these
14. Which normal form is considered adequate for relational database design?
1. 2 NF
2. 3 NF
3. 4 NF
4. BCNF
5. None of these
15. An attribute of one matching the primary key another table, is called as
1. Foreign key
2. Secondary key
3. Candidate key
4. Composite key

5. None of these
16. Which of the following SQL commands can be used modify existing data in a
database table?
1. MODIFY
2. UPDATE
3. CHANGE
4. NEW
5. None of these
17. Each node in a linked list must contain at least:
1. Three fields
2. Five fields
3. Four fields
4. One fields
5. Two fields
18. The average number of key comparisons done in a successful sequential search in
a list of length “n” is
1. Log n
2. (n-1)/2
3. n/2
4. (n+1)/2
5. None of these
19. The order of the binary search algorithm is
1. n
2. n2
3. nlog(n)
4. log(n)
5. None of these
20. Which of the following is useful in implementing quick sort?
1. Stack
2. Set
3. List
4. Queue
5. None of these
21. OSI model consists of ____ layers
1. Three
2. Five
3. Six
4. Eight
5. Seven
22. Which data communication method is used to transmit the data over a serial
communication link.
1. Simplex
2. Full duplex
3. Half duplex
4. Both (1) and (2)
5. Both (2) and (3)

23. Encryption and decryption are functions of the ____ layer.

1. Transport
2. Session
3. Application
4. Physical
5. Presentation
24. Which of the following is not a connecting device?
1. Bridge
2. Trans receiver
3. Router
4. Repeater
5. None of these
25. Repeaters function in the ___ layer
1. Physical
2. Data link
3. Network
4. Both (1) and (2)
5. None of these
26. How many hosts are attached to each of the local area network at your site?
1. 128
2. 256
3. 254
4. 64
5. None of these
27. Which of the following types of software should we use if we often need to create,
edit and print documents?
1. Word processing
2. Spread sheet
3. Object program
4. UNIX
5. None of these
28. Thrashing
1. Can always be avoided by swapping
2. Is a natural consequence of virtual memory system Always occurs on large
computers
3. Can be caused by poor paging algorithms
4. None of these
29. _____ is present in spiral model

1. Code generator
2. Risk analysis
3. Code optimizer
4. Reengineering

5. None of these
30. The approach used in top down analysis and design is :

1. To identify the top level functions by combining many smaller components into a
single entity
2. To identify a top level function and then create hierarchy of lower level modules
and components
3. To prepare flowcharts after programming has been completed
4. All of these
5. None of these
31. B2C ecommerce focuses on customer ___.

1. Respond to customer
2. Obtain customer feedback
3. Establish buyerseller transaction
4. All of the above
5. None of these
32. OLAP stands for

1. Online Analytical project
2. Online Analytical problem
3. Online Application process
4. Online Application Problem
5. Online Analytical processing
33. Data mining is

1. Storing data when in need
2. Automatic extraction of patters of information
3. Searching data on Internet
4. All of these
5. None of these
34. Decision support system are based on ____ analysis

1. Query and reporting
2. Data mining
3. OLAP
4. All of the above
5. None of these
35. The term push and pop is related to the

1. Array
2. Lists
3. Stacks
4. All of the above
5. None of these

36. The break statement causes an exit.

1. From the innermost loop only
2. Only from the innermost switch
3. From the loops and switches
4. From the innermost loop or switch
5. None of these
37. Backup procedure helps in

1. Restoring the operation whenever there is a disk failure
2. Restoring both application and system software whenever there is disk
corruption
3. Restoring the data sites whenever there is a system crash
4. All of the above
5. None of these
38. Software testing is

1. The process of demonstrating that error are not present
2. One process of establishing confidence that a program does what it is supposed
to do
3. The process of executing a program to show that it is working as per
specifications
4. The process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors
5. None of these
39. Regression testing in primarily related to

1. Functional testing
2. Data flow testing
3. Development testing
4. Maintenance testing
5. None of these
40. Which of the following is easiest software development process model?

1. Waterfall Model
2. Prototyping
3. Interactive enhancement
4. Spiral model
5. All of these
41. Banker’s algorithm for resource allocation deals with

1. Deadlock prevention
2. Deadlock avoidance
3. Deadlock recovery
4. Mutual exclusion
5. All of these
42. In Queues, the items deleted at one end is called.

1. Rear
2. Front
3. Top
4. Base
5. None of these
43. Pointer is used in

1. Direct Addressing
2. Indirect Addressing
3. Indexed mode
4. Immediate Addressing
5. None of these
44. An array can be passed in a functions in C language through

1. ‘Call by value’ only
2. ‘Call by reference’ only
3. Both (1) & (2)
4. Call by preference
5. None of these
45. HTTP refers to

1. Hyper Text Transmission Protocol
2. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
3. Hyper Text Tie Protocol
4. Hyper Text Total Protocol
5. None of these
46. An email account includes a storage area, often called a (n)

1. Attachment
2. Hyperlink
3. Mailbox
4. Ip address
5. None of these
47. A(n) ____ is a collection of information that determines which files you can access
and which setting you use.
1. Network
2. User account
3. Operating system
4. File system
5. None of these
48. To print a document

1. Select the print command and then select OK
2. Select the Ready printer and then select OK
3. Type PRINT and then press Enter

4. Close the document, select the print command then select OK

5. None of these
49. Which part of the computer provides only temporary storage of files?
1. ROM memory
2. Processor
3. Hard drive
4. Mother board
5. RAM memory
50. What will be the output of “a” in following code?
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
int a=20;
int a=10;
printf(“%d”,a);
printf(“%d”,a); return 0;
answer choices
1. 20 20
2. 10 20
3. 20 10
4. 10 10
5. Compilation Error

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IBPS
Law Officer
Previous Year Exam
Papers
2012
Question 1 to 25
1. Under outsourcing of banking services, the customer is to be

allowed a time period of _ for lodging complaint with the
Ombudsman, if the customer does not get satisfactory response
from the bank:
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
e. 75 days
2. “Escrow” is a term used to denote:
a. negotiability of the instrument
b. an instrument incomplete in respect of date
c. an instrument without consideration
d. conditional delivery of the instrument
e. None of these
3. What is the maximum amount of fee payable for filing a Recovery
case with the Debt Recovery Tribunal?
a. Rs.1 lakh
b. Rs.1,20,000.
c. Rs.1,50,000.
d. 12% of the debit amount.
e. None of these.
4. Which of the following statements, is correct regarding
securitization of Asset?
a. Bank can take possession of Asset and sale itself or it can
hand over to Re-construction Company.
b. Securitised Company can act as secured creditor.
c. Securitised Company gets all the Right of secured creditor.
d. All of the above.
e. None of these.
5. The unfair Trade Practice includes:
a. Quality and Quantity
b. Potency and Purity

c. Standard and price of goods and services.

e. None of these.
6. Which of the following complaints can be lodged with the Banking
Ombudsman regarding loans?
a. Non-charging of interest as per RBI guidelines.
b. Delay in disposal of loan applications beyond prescribed time
limit of RBI.
c. Not granting the loans as per guidelines.
e. None of these.
7. The difference between Sale and Bailment is:
a. Ownership is transferred to Buyer in the sale.
b. Buyer has no obligation to return the goods.
c. In the contract of Bailment- both (1)and (2)are not applicable.
d. both (1) and (2).
e. None of these.
8. Which of the following is not the essential of a contract?
a. Transfer of ownership.
b. Immediate delivery of the goods.
c. The contract must satisfy essentials of a valid contract.
d. Goods must be a movable property.
e. None of these.
9. A private company is which:
a. Restricts the right to transfer its shares.
b. Limits the number of members to 50.
c. Restricts the subscription of shares or debentures from the
public.
d. All of the above
e. None of these.
10. Which of the following are the duties of a Bailor?
a. To disclose all the faults and defects in the goods Bailed.
b. Bailor must compensate the loss to Bailee.
c. Duty of the Bailor is to make aware the Bailee all the risk
factors associated with the goods.
e. None of these.
11. The essentials of a valid contract are:

a. There should be an offer.

b. Offer must be accepted.
c. The parties to the consent must have free consent.
e. None of these.
12. When a guaranteed loan is repaid by the guarantor the:
a. guarantor steps in shoes of the bank
b. securities in possession of creditors will be handed over to
him
c. guarantor is not entitled to the securities
d. both (1) and (2)
e. None of these
13. A minor is competent to endorse an instrument:
a. Subject to approval of the guardian
b. without incurring any liability
c. with the consent of all parties
d. the statement is not true
e. None of these
14. Which of the following statement is correct regarding Bankers
Book Evidence Act?
a. No officer of a Bank can be compelled to produce any
Bankers Books unless it is specially ordered by the court.
b. The above position (1) applies only when Bank is not a party
to the case.
c. An investigating Police officer can compel a Bank officer to
produce the Books without court order.
d. All of the above
e. None of these
15. Where is Appellate Tribunal is located?
a. Thiruvanthpuram
b. Mumbai
c. Each State Head Quarter
d. All of these
e. None of these
16. What are the Rights available to a secured creditor?
a. To sell the Assets.
b. File application with DRT for recovery of full or remaining
dues.

c. To proceed against the guarantor.

d. All of the above
e. None of these
17. Which of the following Rights of a consumer are protected
under consumer protection Act,1986?
a. The Right to be protected against making of goods which are
hazardous of life and property.
b. The Right against unfair trade practices.
c. The Right to be assured access to a variety of goods and
services at competitive prices.
d. All of the above
e. None of these
18. The complaints which can be lodged with the Banking
Ombudsman are:
a. Delay in providing various services.
b. Complaints regarding exporters.
c. Delay in remittance to NRI.
e. None of these.
19. Which of the following loan accounts can be referred to Lok
Adalat?
a. All NPA accounts.
b. Both suit filed and non-suit filed accounts.
c. Where liability does not exceed Rs.20 lacs.
e. None of these.
20. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. When neither the Bailor nor the Bailee is entitled to any
remuneration is called gratitous Bailment.
b. Where either the Bailee or the Bailor is entitled to
remuneration is called non-gratitous Bailment.
c. Motor car let out for hire is a contract of non-gratitous
Bailment.
e. None of these.
21. The essential elements of sale are:
a. There should be a minimum of two parties.
b. The subject matter of a contract of sale must be goods.

c. The consideration of sale must be in money.

e. None of these.
22. Which of the following is not an advantage of a company?
a. In case of liquidation shareholders do not get priority in
payment.
b. Transfer of company‟s shares provides liquidity.
c. Members share the profits by the way of dividend.
d. Company affords better borrowing facilities.
e. None of these.
23. Who can be a partner of a firm?
a. Any person who is competent to contract.
b. Any adult individual who is of sound mind.
c. HUF represented by “Karta”.
e. None of these.
24. The special category of clients includes:
a. Politically exposed persons.
b. Companies offering foreign exchange.
c. Clients in high risk countries.
e. None of these.
25. Which of the following is correct regarding obtaining of
information?
a. A person seeking information has to give in writing.
b. PIO has to provide information within 30 days.
c. If information is relating to life or liberty of a person,it will be
provided within 48 hours.
e. None of these.
Question 26-50
26. The word “verify” in relation to a digital signature signifies:

a. The initial electronic record was affixed with the digital
signature.
b. It is retained in fact.
c. Both (1) and (2).
d. only (1)

e. None of these.
27. If one of the joint guarantors pays the dues:

a. he may claim the respective shares from others
b. he cannot claim anything from others as the liability is joint
and
c. he has to bear the loss himself
d. All of the above
e. None of these
28. Bank XYZ Limited receives a letter of credit of EURO 20,000

in favour of M/s ABC Exports Pvt Ltd for exports to Germany. After
verification of the genuineness of the credit.it is forwarded to the
beneficiary through registered letter. Unfortunately,due to political
strike, by the time the letter of credit is delivered,its validity period
expires. The exporter threatens legal action against the bank:
a. bank is liable as bank has not handed over the credit in time
to the beneficiary.
b. postal department is liable for the loss and exporter has to
take up the matter with the postal department
c. bank is not liable as it does not assume any liability for the
consequences arising out of delay in transit due to actions
beyond its control.
d. bank could persuade the opening bank to extend the validity
date so that it is not put to loss
e. any of the above.
29. Your branch has received a garnishee order in the name of

your customer having saving bank account, with following
transactions. Which among these is not subject matter of the
garnishee order:
a. an advice ready for dispatch to another branch after debit to
the account in payment of cheque
b. an advice received for a cheque which was sent in collection
from another branch but not credited to the account so far
c. a cheque sent in clearing,the amount of which has been
credited to the account
d. an amount of Rs.4000 relating to his wife‟s account credited
by mistake to the account of the customer

e. all of the above
30. If the ATM has not dispensed the cash but account has been
debited, the dispute regarding such transactions is to be resolved
by the banks within?
a. one week
b. 10 days
c. 12 days
d. 15 days
e. None of these
31. A cheque is presented for payment through clearing house

but due to certain reasons,it is returned unpaid.The returning
memo is enclosed to comply with:
a. Negotiable Instruments Act
b. RBI Act
c. Banking Regulations Act
d. It is a paractice
e. RBI clearing House rules.
32. A company has failed to file particulars of charge for a loan

raised from bank and a period of 4 months have already lapsed:
a. the change can be filed by the company any time by paying
penalty
b. the change can be filed by the company and bank together
c. the charge can be filed with the permission of Company Law
Board,by paying penalty
d. None of these.
33. For Term loan the period of limitation is three years from:
a. Date of documents
b. Date of default
c. Date of sanction
d. Due date of each instalment
e. Date of default of each instalment
34. In case the debt is acknowledged after the expiry of limitation

period,the limitation period will be:
a. Extended by another three years from this date

b. Extended for another three years from date of expiry

c. extended for 3 years
d. Not be extended
e. None of these
35. Z is reported to have died.Some amount has been deposited

by one of the debtors of Z in the bank account of Z.
a. bank cannot credit the amount
b. bank can credit the amount
c. bank can credit the amount with the permission of the
nominee or legal heirs.
d. bank can credit the amount with the permission of court only
e. None of these
36. Charge created by a borrower in favour of a secured creditor

on movable assets without possession,is known as_ as per
provisions of _ Act.
a. Lien,Indian Contract Act
b. Assignment,SARFAESI Act
c. Mortgage,Transfer of Property Act
d. Hypothecation,SARFAESI Act.
e. None of these.
37. Mr.Abhay Lal informs the bank that he signed a cheque as

Abhay instead of Abhay Lal,which are his usual signatures.Bank
has paid the cheque but the customer claims refund of the amount:
a. customer cannot seek refund as bank has made the payment
as per his mandate
b. customer can seek refund as the signatures do not tally
c. customer can seek refund as bank is negligent
d. the issue can be decided by a court,being a dispute
e. None of these.
38. Which of the following confers on the trustees,the power to

obtain loan:
a. Trust deed
b. Trust deed writer
c. Beneficiary
d. Resolution from the trustees

e. Commissioner of Charity
39. Under which of the following categories,a contract of

insurance is categorized?
a. contract of agency
b. contract of guarantee
c. contract of indemnity
d. contract of guarantee and indemnity
e. an actionable claim
40. A bank branch has received a mail transfer for credit to

account of Mr.X who has expired.Which of the following would be
the most appropriate option:
a. the amount would be credited to the account if all particulars
tally with the records
b. the amount would be credited to the account if the legal heirs
have no objection
c. the amount would be credited to the account if survivors,
nominees or legal heirs have authorised to do so
d. the amount would not be credited to the account if
survivirs,nominees or legal heirs have not given any authority
e. 3 and 4 both
41. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to a

cheque:
a. Maximum validity period is 6 months as per provisions of NI
Act
b. cheque written in different handwritings, different inks in
different scripts can be paid
c. where bearer and order both appear on a cheque,the cheque
is payable to the bearer
d. payment of a cheque with forged endorsement is a payment
in due course by the paying bank
e. a non-negotiable ctossed cheque cannot be
transferred/endorsed
42. Mr.X gave a power of a attorney to Y operations of X‟s

account on Jan 12,2011.Y signed three cheques of Rs.5000 each
and dated the cheques as Jan 14,2011 Jan 06,2011 and Jan

31,2011.He however died on Jan 26,2011.The cheques are

presented on Feb 12,2011 .Which of the following is not matched
in this connection:
a. cheque dated Jan 14,2011 shall be paid
b. cheque dated Jan 06,2011 shall be paid
c. cheque dated Jan 31,2011 shall be returned
d. All of these
e. None of these
43. Under the Ombudsman Scheme for Banks effective from Jan
01,2006,the Ombudsman functions as:
a. advisor for bank and customer
b. court for banks and customer
c. lok adalat for banks and customers
d. arbitrator between banks and customers
e. None of these.
44. Which of the following crossing restricts further endorsements

of a cheque and which one takes away the element of negotiation:
a. general crossing and payee‟s account crossing
b. not-negotiable crossing and payee‟s account crossing
c. payee‟s account crossing and not-negotiable crossing
d. payee‟s account crossing and special crossing
e. not-negotiable crossing and special crossing
45. Banks maintain secrecy of accounts of their customers as a

result of which of the following:
a. as per provisions of NI Act
b. as per provisions of Banking Regulation Act
c. as per contractual obligation under implied contract
d. as per prevailing practices among banks
e. as per provisions of RBI Act.
46. Garnishi order has been received in the name of Mr.X who is
associated with the following accounts. Which of these accounts
shall be attached:
a. Cash credit account of XYZ,a partnership firm, where limit is
unavailed and X is a partner in the firm.
b. An overdraft account in the name of “X”.

c. An account of a Trust where he is a Trustee.

d. An account styled as ownership of X
e. None of the above
47. Which of the following would be a „holder for value‟:

a. X,getting a gift cheque from Y
b. Z,getting a cheque from A for sale of goods to A
c. National Bank, purchasing a cheque from its customer
K,under instant credit facility
d. National Bank,receiving a cheque from its customer for
collection
e. All of the above
48. What is the time period prescribed by RBI for preservation of

records under Prevention of Money Laundering Act and what is the
time period during which suspicious transaction report is to be sent
within _ days on confirmation:
a. 2 years,15 days
b. 4 years,12 days
c. 5 years,10 days
d. 10 years,7 days
e. 12 years,3 days
49. As per FEMA 1999,foreign exchange means foreign currenct

and include (a) all deposits (b) credits and balances payable in
foreign currency (c) any drafts,travellers‟ cheques,LCs and Bill of
Exchange, payable in foreign currency. Which of the following is
correct out of the above:
a. a and b only
b. a and c only
c. b and c only
d. a,b,c all
e. None of these
50. As per amendment to the Prevention of Money Laundering

Act, effective from June 01,2009,which of the following is not
required to furnish Suspicious Transaction Report to FDI India
a. Banks
b. Financial Institutions

c. Authorised Persons
d. None of the above
e. All of these

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IBPS
Law Officer
Previous Year Exam
Papers
2013
Specialist Law officer 2013 Paper (SPL-II)

Question 1 to 25
1. A cheque may be drawn for a maximum period of

1. three months
2. six months
3. one year
4. forever
5. None of these
2. Guarantee is defined
1. as a contract
2. to perform the promise or discharge the liability
3. of a third person in care of his default
4. All of the above
3. Which of the following committees also recommended the set up of
Debt Recovery Tribunals?
1. Committee on Financial sector reforms
2. Committee on custom service
3. Committee on RRBs
4. All of the above
4. Partnership firm is
1. the relation between persons
2. who have agreed to share their of a business
3. business may be carried on by all or any of them
4. All of the above
5. As per explanation given in sub clause of 2 (b) of section 35 of
Banking Regulation Act. inspection of branches of Indian Banks
situated abroad is to be carried out by
1. Comptroller and Auditor General
2. Reserve Bank of India
3. World Bank

4. Exim Bank
5. Dept. to Company Affairs
6. A fraud involving a fake demand draft has taken place in X branch
of Canara Bank which has paid this DD, purportedly issued by Y
branch. Z branch of Axis Bank had presented this DD in clearing.
Which branch will report this fraud
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. All of these
5. None of these
7. Borrower has raised an objection to a notice received from the
Bank for taking possession of securities under SARFAESI Act.
1. Bank must justify the possession within 15 days
2. Bank should send another notice of 30 days
3. Bank should approach DRT within 7 days
4. All of the above
8. A cheque is presented for payment through clearing house but due
to certain reasons, it is returned unpaid. The returning memo is
enclosed to comply with
1. Negotiable Instruments Act
2. RBI Act
3. Banking Regulations Act
4. It is a paractice
5. RBI clearing house rules
9. Evidence means
1. all statements presented before a court by way witnesses
2. it is in relation to a matter of fact under inquiry
3. such statements are called oral evidence
4. All of the above
10. Which of the following is not a duty of pawner?
1. To compensate pawnee for extra ordinary expenses
2. Not to sue pawnee for any default
3. To meet his obligation on stipulated date
4. To comply with the terms and conditions of contract

11. What period is available as limitation in case of mortgage?

1. 3 years from date of mortgage
2. 12 years from date of mortgage
3. 12 years from the date when the mortgage money has
become due
4. 12 years from date of loan
5. 12 years from date of loan or date or mortgage whichever
lower
12. The maximum number of directors in public limited company
can be
1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 15
5. No limit, but if the number goes beyond 12, Govt. Permission
is required
13. For which among the following instruments, the amount of
stamp duty can be different in different states?
1. Promissory note
2. Bill of exchange
3. Money receipt
4. Guarantee deed
5. All of these
14. Clean note policy, has been framed by RBI under the
authority vested in it by
1. RBI Act Section 45
2. RBI Act Section 35
3. Banking Regulation Act Section 45
4. Banking Regulation Act Section 35A
5. Companies Act Section 125
15. The endorsement on a cheque is valid for a period of
1. six months from the date of endorsment
2. six months from the date of cheque
3. six months from the date of delivery
4. All of the above

16. Universal Bank decides to perfer an appeal against the

decision of Debt Recovery Tribunal. What is the time period during
which this appeal could be field DRAT ?
1. Within 15 days of the order
2. Within 30 days of the order passed by DRT
3. Within 30 days of receipt of the order
4. Within 15 days of the order passed by the President of DRT
5. Within 45 days of the receipt of order by the bank
17. 217.The limitation available to the bank for execution of
degree is
1. 3 years from the date of receipt of copy of decree
2. 3 years from date of decree
3. 12 years from date of receipt of copy of decree
4. 12 years from date of decree
18. Customer can make appeal against the award of
Ombudsman to the Appellate Authority within
1. 45 days of date of award
2. 45 days of date of receipt of award
3. 30 days of date of award
4. 30 days of date of receipt of award
19. Under SARFAESI Act, borrower is required to be given a
notice of days by the bank, for taking possession of the security
1. 30 days from date of notice
2. 60 days from date of notice
3. 30 days from date of receipt of notice by the borrower
4. 60 days from date of receipt of notice by the borrower
20. Under which provisions, the RBI has introduced the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949?
1. Section 33 of Banking Ombudsman Scheme
2. RBI Act, 1934
3. Consumer Protection Act, 1986
4. All of the above
21. A cheque is payable on
1. demand

2. 24 hours after presentation

3. happening of certain event
4. a fixed future date
22. Public seeking information under section 6 (1) of the Right to
Information Act (RIA) should submit the application accompanied
by a fee of
1. Rs.1
2. 10
3. 100
4. No fees prescribed
5. None of these
23. Which of the following type of charge is extended by bank
while financing against LIC policy?
1. Pledge
2. Hypothecation
3. Mortgage
4. Assignment
5. None of these
24. Any implied warranty may be varied by
1. express agreement
2. course of dealing between parties
3. if usage is such as to bind parties to the contract
4. Any of the above
25. A quasi contract is a contract that exists by
1. order of a court
2. agreement of the parties
3. Either (1) or (2)
4. (1) and (2)
Question 26-50
26. Can a minor become a partner?

1. Yes (a minor become a partner)
2. No (Reason: a minor can be admitted to the benefits of a
partnership. But he cannot become a partner also documents
will be signed by the guardian on minor‟s behalf).

3. (1) and (2)

27. Limitation period for execution of a decree is

1. 12 years from the date it was decreed
2. 3 years from the date of the decree
28. Section 131 and NI Act provides statutory protection to a

collecting banker if
1. the cheque is crossed
2. the cheque is collected for a customer
3. the cheque is collected in good faith and without negligence
4. All of the above
29. What is meant by document of title to goods?

1. It entities and enable its rightful holder to deal with the goods
represented by it as an owner
2. It is a proof of ownership of goods
3. It confers a right on the possessor to transfer the goods to
another person
4. All of the above
30. A surety has rights against

1. the creditor
2. the principal debtor
3. the co-sureties
4. All of these
5. None of these
31. What is the time limit for disposing an appeal by Appellate

Authority?
1. Within 2 months
2. Within 3 months

3. Within 6 months
4. No such limit
5. All of the above
32. A Proclaimed person whose property has been attached can

claim the property or the sale proceeds,on appearance
1. within 6 months of attachment
2. within 2 years of attachment
3. within 3 years of attachment
4. within 1 year of attachment
33. A boy over 11 years but below 12 years of a pow up knife

and proceeding towards with a gesture saying that he would cut
him into pieces actually stabs him to death.
1. The boy will not be guilty, as a child under 12 years of age
cannot be guilty of an offence
2. The boy will be guilty because he had attained maturity of
understanding to judge the nature and consequence of his
conduct of mind and the act concurred in this case
3. The boy will not be guilty of murder
4. The boy will not be guilty of murder as he had not attained
sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and
consequence of his conduct
34. On which date the Amendments to the IPC by the criminal

law (Amendment) Act, 2005 came into force
1. 16th April, 2006
2. 11th January,2006
3. 23rd January, 2006
4. 21st June, 2006
5. None of these
35. A contract with or by a minor is a

1. valid contract
2. void contract
3. voidable contract
4. voidable at the option of either party

36. A contract can be discharged

1. by performance of the contract
2. by frustration of the contract
3. (1) and (2)
4. Neither (1) nor (2)
37. „X‟ and „Y‟ agreed to marry each other on a certain date and
before that „X‟ goes mad. „Y‟ cancer contract and sued for
damager.
1. No cause of action arises till the date of marriage.
2. On account of X‟s going mad, the contract frustrated and
void. Y has no right to sue for damages.
3. The contract itself is void
4. Y is guilty of breach of contract
38. Liability of the surety is

1. conditional on default
2. independent of default
3. can be conditional and can be independent
39. „Bailee‟ is a person

1. who delivers the goods
2. to whom the goods are delivered
3. through whom the goods are delivered
4. who carries the goods
40. An action for indemnity against a partner can be brought by

1. the firm only
2. an individual partner
5. None of these

41. An act done by a partner on behalf on the firm beyond the

implied authority
1. can be ratified expressly
2. can be ratified impliedly by conduct
4. cannot be ratified
42. The liability by holding out can be incurred by

1. a minor
2. a major
4. (1) and (2)
5. None of these
43. Once a minor, who has been admitted for benefits of the
partnership severs his connection with that firm the minor has right
to sua
1. for accounts and his share
2. for dissolution of the firm
3. (1) and (2)
44. The status of a partner who has been expelled is that of

1. an existing dormant partner
2. an insolvent partner
3. a retired partner
45. The dissolution by notice as described under section 43 of

the Indian partnership Act, 1932 is applicable where the
partnership is
1. at will
2. for a fixed term
3. for a specific adventure
4. All of these
5. None of these

46. The parties to the arbitration agreement shall appoint

arbitrator within
1. 30 days
2. 60 days
3. 40 days
4. 90 days
5. None of these
47. The mandate of an arbitrator shall terminate

1. when he withdraws from his office for any reason
2. when he become de jure or de facto unable to act without
undue delay
3. when the parties have agreed to terminate arbitrator‟s
authority
4. All of the above
48. Which is incorrect statement?

1. The arbitral tribunal is bound by code of civil procedure, 1908
2. The arbitral tribunal is bound by Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
3. (1) and (2)
4. All of the above
49. Admissions
1. must be in writing
2. must be oral
3. Either oral or in writing
4. Only in writing and not oral
5. None of these
50. Oral evidence under section 60 of Evidence Act may be

1. direct only
2. hearsay
3. (1) and (2)
5. None of these

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IBPS
Marketing Officer
Previous Year Exam
Papers
2012
IBPS Specialist Officer 2012
Marketing Officer - Professional Knowledge
1. What the basis of marketing organisation ?

(A) Functions
(B) Products
(C) Regions
(D) Types of customers
(E) All of above
2. What is one of the types of organisations ?

(A) Functional Organisation
(B) Product Organisation
(C) Market Organisation
(D) Market oriented Organisation
(E) All of above except
3. In which organisation the work is divided as per the functions?

(A) Functional Organisation
(B) Product Organisation
(C) Market Organisation
(D) Social Organisation
(E) Abnormal Organisation
4. What is one of the main divisions of Functional organisation ?

(A) Financing Manager
(B) Marketing Research Manager
(C) Production Manager
(D) Sales Promotion Manager
(E) All of above
5. Who is the head of Advertising department in a normal business enterprise ?

(A) Sales Manager
(B) Advertising Manager
(C) Distribution Manager
(D) Customer Relation Manager
(E) None of above
6. Under which organisation each region is subdivided under the sales supervisor ?
(A) Functional organisation
(B) Product organisation
(C) Market oriented organisation
(D) Customer organisation
(E) Combined organisation
7. Who said, "A poor marketing organisation may destroy a good product, but a sound
marketing organisation, having a poor product may compete a better product" ?
(A) F. Drucker
(B) C. Kenneth
(C) J.F. Pyle
(D) Tousley
(E) L. Urwick

Page 1 of 8 http://www.bankexamportal.com/study-kit
8. “To determine the objects and targets of sales department" is the basic objective of_.
(A) Sales Forecast
(B) Sales Management
(C) Sales Organisation
(D) Sales Ratio
(E) Sales Orientation
9. "To create an atmosphere of healthy competition among sales employees" is :

(A) Strategy of Sales Organisation
(B) Objective of Sales Organisation
(C) Function of Sales Organisation
(D) Meaning of Sales Organisation
(E) Basis of Sales Organisation
10. Selection of salesman means the selection of—

(A) Objective of Sales Organisation
(B) Strategy of Sales Organisation
(C) Function of Sales Organisation
(D) Meaning of Sales Organisation
(E) Basis of Sales Organisation
11. Selection of salesman should consider which of the following capabilities of a person ?
(A) Capable
(B) Educated
(C) Trained
(D) Experienced person
(E) All of above
12. Which is the first step in the process of selection of salesman ?

(A) Inviting Application
(B) Interview
(C) Security
(D) Written Test
(E) None of above
13. Second step in the process of selection of salesman is

(A) Security of Application
(B) Inviting Application
(C) Written Test
(D) Interview
(E) Medical Exam
14. Third step in the process of selection of salesman is

(A) Application
(B) Interview
(C) Security of Application
(D) Written test
(E) Appointment
15. Fourth step in the process of selection of salesman is—

(A) Interview
(B) Written test
(C) Security of Application
(D) Appointment
(E) Reference
16. Last step in the process of selection of salesman is—

(A) Appointment
(B) Interview
(C) Apraisal
(D) Reference
(E) Security of Application
17. Why an enterprise required salesman ?

(A) For sales
(B) For Games
(C) For cricket
(D) For mob the floor
(E) For eat food
18. Inefficient and unable salesman can be replaced with—

(A) Selling of existing product
(B) Selling of new product
(C) Selling of upcoming products (Booking)
(D) (A) and (C)
(E) (A), (B) and ©
19. Inefficient and unable salesman can be replaced with—

(A) Intelligent salesman
(B) Capable salesman
(C) Experience salesman
(D) (A) and (C)
(E) (A), (B) and (C)
20. Vacancies created by retirement or death or resignation or termination of old

employees, can be filled with—
(A) New appointments
(B) Old people
(C) Terminated one
(D) Staff reference
(E) Young people
21. What is the main function relating to the selection of salesman ?

(A) Determination of the nature of salesman
(B) Determination of the No. of salesman
(C) Determination of the sources of salesman
(D) Selection of salesman
(E) All of above
22. How many sources of recruitment of salesman we have ?

(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 4
(E) 6
23. What is the important source of recruitment of salesman ?

(A) Internal Sources
(B) Single Sources
(C) External Sources
(D) Casual Sources
(E) (A) and (C)
24. Examples of Internal source of recruitment of salesman is

(A) Transfer
(B) Promotions
(C) Employees reference
(D) All of above
(E) None of above
25. Examples of External sources of recruitment of salesman—

(A) Educational Institution
(B) Training Centres
(C) Employment Agencies
(D) Applications on Gate
(E) All of Above
26. What is the main point to be considered while selecting salesman ?

(A) Education
(B) Age
(C) Health
(D) Nature
(E) All of above
27. Salesmanship is a/an -

(A) Art
(B) Science
(C) Ability
(D) Study
(E) Quantum
28. How packaging protect from monetary loss ?

(A) Protect loss of Quality
(B) Protect loss of Quantity
(C) Protect loss of Profit
(D) Protect loss of Goodwill
(E) (A) and (B)
29. What is one of the promotional functions of packaging ?

(A) Self Service

(B) Consumer Affluence

(C) Integrated Marketing
(D) Innovations Opportunities
(E) All of above
30. Who said "The label is an information/informative tag, wrapper or seal attached to a
product or product's package"?
(A) Mason & Rath
(B) William J. Stanton
(C) Marshal
(D) Robinson
(E) Philip Kotler
31. What is one of the main contents of Label ?

(A) Name of Producer
(B) Name of Product
(C) Qualities of Product
(D) Data of Production
(E) All of above
32. Which part of the product shows important instructions for using the product ?
(A) Cap
(B) Bottle
(C) Label
(D) Tag
(E) Polybag
33. What is one of the types of labels ?

(A) Brand label
(B) Grade label
(C) Descriptive label
(D) (A) and (C)
(E) (A), (B) and ©
34. Which of the following is one of the examples of Brand label ?

(A) Bajaj Scooter
(B) Tajmahal Tea
(C) Taj Tea
(D) Red label Tea
(E) (B), (C) and (D)
35. When manufacturer produces many type of product, the lable he uses is called—
(A) Simple label
(B) Grade label
(C) Descriptive label
(D) Brand label
(E) None of these
36. Examples of Grade label is

(A) Different types of Britania Bread

(B) Different type of Usha Fans

(C) Hero Honda Splendour Bike
(D) All of above
(E) None of above
37. Determination of standards with respect to the quality, utility, size,

form colour etc., of the product to be produced is called-
(A) Grouping
(B) Standardisation
(C) Grading
(D) Mixing
(E) Expansion
38. What is one of the advantages of standardisation ?

(A) Increase in Demand
(B) No need of Expansion
(C) Convenient sale
(D) Advantage of Manufacturer
(E) All of above
39. Marketing of standard goods is

(A) Very difficult
(B) Easy
(C) Difficult
(D) Not possible
(E) Very easy
40. What is one of the advantages of standardisation for manufacturer ?

(A) Increase in Goodwill
(B) Brand loyalty from the customer
(C) Increase in profit
(D) Black Marketing
(E) All of above except 4
41. What is one of the other advantages of standardisation ?

(A) Stability in lost
(B) Helpful in Physical Distribution
(C) Helpful in Packaging
(D) Helpful in Sales Promotion
(E) All of above
42. The division of products into several homogeneous groups on the basis of their
common characteristics is called—
(A) Grading
(B) Standardisation
(C) Simplification
(D) Quality Control
(E) Quantity Control
43. What is one of the advantages of Grading ?

(A) Helpful in Selling

(B) Helpful in Producing at Large scale
(C) Helpful in Future Contract
(D) Certainty of Quality
(E) All of above
44. How grading is helpful in producing at large scale 7

(A) Increase in Demand
(B) Produce Large Quantity
(C) Quality
(D) (A) and (B)
(E) None of above
45. An ideal salesman should posses

(A) Angry Mood
(B) Polite Nature
(C) Co-operative Nature
(D) Reserve Nature
(E) (B) and (C)
46. The salesman should have

(A) Strong self confidence
(B) Loose self confidence
(C) Loose Character
(D) Aptitude
(E) All of above
47. Generally how many reference are required to check while selecting salesman ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 1 or 2
48. What is one of the desirable qualities of a salesman ?

(A) Physical Attributes
(B) Mental Attributes
(C) Moral Attributes
(D) Vocational Attributes
(E) All of above
49. What is one of the qualities included in physical attributes ?

(A) Attractive Personality
(B) Sound health
(C) Cheerful
(D) Ability to work hard
(E) All of above
50. What is the quality included in Mental attributes ?

(A) Intelligent

(B) Imaginative
(C) Foresightedness
(D) Alertness
(E) All of above
ANSWER KEY
1. B 26. E
2. E 27. A
3. A 28. E
4. E 29. E
5. B 30. A
6. C 31. E
7. A 32. C
8. B 33. E
9. A 34. E
10. E 35. B
11. E 36. D
12. A 37. B
13. A 38. E
14. D 39. E
15. A 40. E
16. A 41. E
17. A 42. A
18. E 43. E
19. E 44. D
20. A 45. E
21. A 46. A
22. C 47. E
23. E 48. E
24. D 49. E
25. E 50. E

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IBPS
Marketing Officer
Previous Year Exam
Papers
2013
IBPS Specialist Officer Marketing Solved Paper

1. Customisation is used for
(A) Distinguishing customer specific problems
(B) Advertisements
(C) Publicity
(D) Motivating the staff
(E) Customer Survey
2. Marketing channels mean
(A) Delivery Period
(B) Delivery Time
(C) Delivery Person
(D) Delivery Place
(E) Delivery Outlets
3. ‘Push’ marketing style requires
(A) Proper Planning
(B) Good pushing strength
(C) Team Work
(D) Ability to identify the products
(E) Aggressive Marketing
4. Viral styles of marketing includes – Find the wrong answer
(A) Digital Marketing
(B) Tele-Marketing
(C) Sending bulk SMS

(D) e-mail solicitation
(E) Door to Door marketing
5. Service Marketing is the same as
(A) Internet Marketing
(B) Tele Marketing
(C) Internal Marketing
(D) Relationship marketing
(E) Indirect Marketing
6. A DSA means
(A) Direct Selling Agent
(B) Detective Service Agency
(C) Direct Supplying Agent
(D) Distribution and Sales Agency
(E) Dreadfully Superfast Agent
7. A DSA is required to be adept in
(A) Online Marketing
(B) Designing Products
(C) Sending e-mails
(D) Advertisements
(E) Communication skills
8. Indirect marketing is undertaken
(A) By way of advertisements
(B) By delivering speeches
(C) At bank counters

(D) By DSA
(E) By Cross-selling
9. Incentives are paid to sales persons
(A) For achieving targets
(B) For surpassing targets
(C) For identifying leads
(D) For designing products
(E) For talking
10. Buyer resistance can be overcome by
(A) Cordial relation between buyer and seller
(B) Good negotiation
(C) Good after sales service
(D) Persuasive communication
(E) TeleMarketing
11. One of the following is not included in the 7 P’s of marketing. Find the same
(A) Placement
(B) Price
(C) Production
(D) Promotion
(E) Product
12. Analysis of marketing problems helps in
(A) Evaluating marketing opportunities
(B) Reducing marketing staff
(C) Reducing profits

(D) Good communication
(E) Motivation
13. Innovation in marketing is same as
(A) Motivation
(B) Perspiration
(C) Aspiration
(D) Creativity
(E) Team Work
14. Market segment is required for
(A) Professional Marketing
(B) OTC marketing
(C) Internal marketing
(D) Identifying sales persons
(E) Identifying prospects
15. Bank ATMs are
(A) Delivery outlets
(B) Market Plans
(C) Personalised Products
(D) Tools for overcoming buyer resistance
(E) Motivating tools
16. Internet Banking helps in
(A) Door to Door Canvasing
(B) Making more number of cold calls
(C) Easy access to customer transactions

(D) Market survey
(E) Market Research
17. Cross-Selling means
(A) Selling by a cross section of people
(B) Selling to HNIs
(C) Selling to a cross section of people
(D) Selling to NRIs
(E) Selling other products to existing customers
18. The USP of a current account is
(A) High Minimum balance
(B) No restriction in transactions
(C) No interest payable
(D) Restricted Deposits
(E) Easy credits
19. The USP of car loans is
(A) High Rate of interest
(B) Easy EMIs
(C) Lump-sum Loans
(D) Available only to doctors
(E) Available only to businessman
20. Leads for home loans can be obtained from
(A) Corporate societies
(B) Existing borrowers
(C) Builders

(D) Traders
(E) Trusts
21. Leads for industrial loans can be available from
(A) Reserve bank of India
(B) District Industries centre
(C) Colleges
(D) Export Houses
(E) Trade Centres
22. SME means
(A) Selling and marketing Establishment
(B) Selling and marketing employees
(C) Sales and Marketing entity
(D) Small and Medium Enterprises
(E) Small and Micro Entities
23. The target group of SME loans is
(A) All salaried persons
(B) Government undertakings
(C) All Entrepreneurs
(D) All students
(E) All housewives
24. Leads for tractor loans can be availed from
(A) Farm labourers
(B) Authorised dealers of tractors and farm equipment
(C) Bullock cart owners

(D) Marginal land owners
(E) RTA officers
25. Customisation results in
(A) Customer exodus
(B) Customer retention
(C) Customer complaints
(D) Training of staff
(E) Varying the interest rates
26. Find the correct sentence
(A) Higher the price, higher the sales
(B) More number of sales persons leads to more number of sales
(C) Mission statement is a part of market plan
(D) Better sales incentives means better performance
(E) All customers are profitable customers
27. Bancassurance can be sold to
(A) All banks
(B) All insurance companies
(C) Insurance agents
(D) All existing and prospective bank customers
(E) Stock brokers
28. The target group for bulk deposits is
(A) Salaried persons
(B) Small traders
(C) Corporate MNCs

(D) Housewives
(E) Minor children
29. Debit cards can be sold to
(A) Existing customers
(B) School children
(C) Trusts
(D) Hospitals
(E) Educational Institutions
30. Low EMI indicates
(A) High loan burden
(B) Long repayment period
(C) Cheap loans
(D) Costly loans
(E) Very short repayment periods
31. EMI can be a marketing tool when
(A) EMI is very low
(B) EMI is very high
(C) EMI is fluctuating
(D) EMI is constant
(E) EMI is ballooning
32. Advertisements are necessary for
(A) Only old products
(B) Launching new products
(C) Only costly products

(D) Only obsolete products
(E) Advertisements are wasteful expenses
33. Publicity is required for
(A) Generating more number of leads
(B) Better training of sales persons
(C) Market survey
(D) Product designing
(E) OTC marketing
34. NAV is the price of
(A) Entire fund value
(B) One unit of a fund
(C) Surrender value
(D) Average value of shares
(E) Dividends paid in a year
35. A master policy in the case of life insurance indicates
(A) Policy is stale
(B) Policy is in the name of servant
(C) Only one life is assured
(D) There are several beneficiaries
(E) Life assured should be a male
36. Customer Database is useful for
(A) Advertisements
(B) Word of mouth publicity
(C) CRM functions

(D) PR functions
(E) Sales persons’ trainings
37. CRM (Customer Relationship Management) is
(A) A pre-sales activity
(B) A tool for lead generation
(C) An ongoing daily activity
(D) The task of a DSA
(E) Back office duty
38. Find the incorrect answer
(A) Cross selling is an inexpensive way of marketing
(B) Market segmentation can boost generations
(C) Customer Lifetime Value is a marketing tool
(D) Surrogate marketing is a type of viral marketing
(E) Internet banking can replace ATMs
39. Financial inclusion needs canvasing the accounts of
(A) Financial Institutions
(B) NRIs
(C) HNIs
(D) Housewives
(E) Persons below a specified income level
40. Effective retail banking proposes
(A) Large premises
(B) Huge kiosks
(C) Big sales force

(D) Coordination between marketing and front office staff
(E) More products
Answers
1. (A) 2. (E) 3.(E) 4. (E) 5.(D)
6. (A) 7. (E) 8.(E) 9. (A) 10.(A)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13.(D) 14. (E) 15.(A)
16. (C) 17. (E) 18.(B) 19. (B) 20.(C)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23.(C) 24. (D) 25.(B)
26. (C) 27. (D) 28.(B) 29. (A) 30.(B)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33.(A) 34. (B) 35.(D)
36. (C) 37. (B) 38.(E) 39. (E) 40.(D)

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IBPS Specialist IT Officer 2012 Question Papers

3. In SQL, which command is used to changes data in a data table?

4. In SQL, which of the following is not a data definition language command?

5. Which command(s) is (are) used to redefine a column of the table in SQL ?

(a) ALTER TABLE

6. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called

Study Material for IBS, SBI Bank Exams:

(a) Sorts a file using a single key

8. Data security threats include

(a) Hardware failure

(a) File structures

(a) One to one relationship

12. Through linked list one can implement

Study Material for IBS, SBI Bank Exams:

(d) All of these

13. A heap allows a very efficient implementation of a

(a) Doubled ended queue

(a) Unique key

(a) TCP(transfer control protocol)

16. Override is a method

17. Local variables

(a) Are created outside a block

(a) Web scripting virus

Study Material for IBS, SBI Bank Exams:

(b) Polymorphic virus

(a) Waterfall model

20. The ___ remains operative until the software is required.

(a) Waterfall model

22. An important application of cryptography, used in computerized commercial and

(a) Data mining

23. Rows of a relation are called:

(a) Linear sort

Study Material for IBS, SBI Bank Exams:

(b) Quick Sort

27. Which of the following is true about GUIs?

(a) They make computers easier to use for nonprofessionals

(a) Mass Memory

Study Material for IBS, SBI Bank Exams:

30 . A set of programs that handle firm’s database responsibilities is called a

(a) Data base Management System (DBMS)

32. top to bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a

(a) Hierarchical Schema

(a) Two pass assembler

(a) Relocating loader itself

Study Material for IBS, SBI Bank Exams:

(e) None of these

(a) ROM BIOS

38. Aggregation is a special for of

40. In ER diagrams, the term cardinality is a synonym for the term—

41. An oracle server index—

(a) Is a schema object

Study Material for IBS, SBI Bank Exams:

42. Which of the following is not a context free grammar components?

(a) Terminal symbols

43. Which of the following is a phase of RAD model?

(a) Data modeling

(a) Transaction flow

46. Which of the following is a universal gate?

47. The two’s compliment of binary number 010111.1100 is

48. In 8086 the overflow flag is set when

Study Material for IBS, SBI Bank Exams:

(a) The sum is more than 16 bits