Vallabhi 2018 PDF

VALLABHI
2018
A GUIDE FOR PROMOTION TEST
Prepared by
STATE BANK LEARNING CENTRE

BHAVNAGAR
Phone 0278-2560288
(Updated up to 15th Dec. 2017)
1
Preface
As the promotion tests to be held for promotions to various cadres in the year 2018-
19 are fast approaching, a guide to promotion test has been prepared keeping in
view various areas covered in such tests. The book covers information relevant from
the point of view of Bank's promotional tests and will assist the aspirants in preparing
well and acquiring requisite knowledge to get through the tests. We have added a
new topic of “Macro Economic Environment/General Awareness” in this year’s
edition.
While the book incorporates the developments up to 15th December 2017, for further
development in the areas covered in this book, the uses are requested to refer latest
Govt. guidelines and notifications/circulars issued by RBI/SBI.
Shri Parag Buch, Assistant General Manager

Shri Sanu Tandon, Chief Manager
Shri Biren Solanki, Manager
Shri Vikas Anand, Manager
Shri Navin Kumar Singh, Manager
Bhavnagar
Date: 04.01.2018
Disclaimer
While every effort has been made by the said faculty members of the State Bank
Learning Centre, Bhavnagar to avoid errors or omissions in this publication, any
error or discrepancy noted may be brought to our notice through e-mail to
sblcbvn@sbi.co.in which shall be taken care of in the subsequent editions.
2
FOREWORD
It gives me immense pleasure in presenting the sincere efforts made by Team SBLC
Bhavnagar in preparing a promotional guide keeping in view the upcoming
promotional tests for the year 2018-19. The guide, titled “Vallabhi”, is named after
the name of SBLC Bhavnagar. The guide has been prepared by incorporating the
developments in the covered subjects up to 15th December 2017.
The guide contains information relevant from the point of view of Bank's promotional
Tests in the form of multiple choice questions. The prospective candidates aspiring
for promotions to JMGS-I, MMGS-II and MMGS-III under various channels will find
the guide useful. The faculties of SBLC, Bhavnagar under the leadership of Mr.
Parag Buch AGM SBLC have taken due care to present the most relevant and latest
information in this guide.
The questions/ answers in this guide are illustrative, so every prospective candidate
will benefit immensely by keeping themselves abreast with the latest data and
information in order to come out successful in the promotional examinations.
Wishing all the best to “Team SBLC Bhavnagar”.
Saroj Kumar Pattnaik

Deputy General Manager and Circle Development Officer
Ahmedabad Circle
15.12.2017
3
Index
S Description Page No.
No.
1. Technology products 5-24
2. Macro Economic Environment /
25-46
General Awareness
3. General Banking 47-69
4. Systems & Procedures 70-91
5. Home Loan and its variants 92-100
6. Auto Loans 101-105
7. Education Loan & P-Gold Loan 106-111
8. SME Segment 112-142
9. Agriculture Segment 143-173
10. International Banking 174-196
4
TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS – 1
Q1. What is TPD ?
a) Transaction Printing Device b) Transaction processing Device
c) Third Party Device d) None of these
Q2. In NEFT the settlement is on DNS basis, what is DNS?

a) Data Network Server b) Digital Network Software
c) Deferred Net Settlement d) None of these
Q3. Name of software used by our Bank at AML-CFT Cell, Jaipur for generation of
Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) ?
a) STRike b) AMLock c) MSLock d) Translink
Q4. The software used by our Bank at AML-CFT Cell, Jaipur for generation of
Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is provided by which company ?
a) Mphasis b) 3i InfoTech c) TCS d) Infosys
Q5. The ceiling for single transaction through GRC card for remitting cash is
a) Rs.50000 b) Rs.100000 c) Rs.25000 d) Rs.15000
Q6. What is the full form of YONO?

a) Your Note b) You Need One c) You Only Need One d)You Need None
Q7. How many Administrators can be there in Vyapaar ?

a) One b) Two
c) As many Administrators as the Corporate desires d) None of the above
Q8. How many Administrators can be there in Vistaar ?

a) One b) Two
c) As many Administrators as the Corporate desires d) None of the above
Q9. There can be how many types of users in CINB?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
Q10. What is e-Handshake?

a) Integration of INB site with another site b) Integration of INB and
credit card c) Integration of Mobile banking and INB d) Virtual handshake
with VC
Q11. What is MOPS?

a) Mobile Operated Payment Solution b) Mobile Operated Payment System
c) Multi Option Payment System d) Multi Option Payment System
5
Q12. In MOPS which is not a payment option?
a) Internet Banking of all major banks b) Debit/Credit Card
c) Any Bank Cheque d) SBI Cheque/Cash
Q13. The Merchant website should have minimum ……………. bit or more SSL
certification for e-Handshake?
a) 64 b) 128 c) 256 d) 320
Q14. In case of private Merchants (Other than Govt.) the merchant site must be
audited from ………….. auditors for e-Handshake.
a) NIC b) Cert-In c) Earnest & Young d) Any CA
Q15. In case of Govt. sites the site must be audited from ………….. auditors for e-
Handshake.
a) NIC b) Cert-In c) Earnest & Young d) Statutory Auditors
Q16. What is chargeback?

a) Acquirer refunds disputed amount
b) Merchant refunds the disputed amount
c) Charging PoS device
d) Charges on e-transactions
Q17. Audit tolerance limits for the Corporate is set up by

a) Administrator b) Authoriser c) Rule Authoriser d) Regulator
Q18. Internet service provider for internet banking of SBI is……………

a) Tech Mahindra b) Infosys c) TCS d) Microsoft
Q19. IFSC stands for

a) Indian Financial System Code b) Indian Financial Service Code
c) Indian Financial Solutions Code d) Indian Financial System Circular
Q20. The DD limit through Vistaar CINB is ………..?

a) 50 lacs b) 1 crore c) 500 crores d) 99,99,999.99
Q21. Role of Super Enquirer is available in ……………?

a) CBS b) Vyapaar c) Vistaar d) e-Handshake
Q22. In CINB Super Enquirer can be created by whom?

a) Maker at Branch b) Administrator c) Uploader d)
Regulator
6
Q23. Auditor facility is available in which product of CINB?
a) Saral b) Vistaar c) Vyapaar d) in both b & c
Q24. Which App is for OTP creation for doing transactions through INB or State
Bank Anywhere-Personal App?
a) SBI Quick b) SB OTP c) SB 3D Secure d) SB Secure OTP
Q25. Who can deactivate the users available at the Branch Interface – INB?
a) Circle Admin b) Maker-Checker c) Service Desk d) Checker
Q26. Who can deactivate the Single Checker available in the Branch Interface –
INB?
a) Circle Admin b) Maker-Checker
c) Service Desk d) Checker himself/herself
Q27. The Saral user if adds a party as supplier then up to what maximum amount he
can transfer to supplier in a single transaction?
a) 10 lacs b) 15 lacs c) 20 lacs d) 25 lacs
Q28. When a Corporate registers the mobile number of their Regulator/Admin/other

users, Which form is generated?
a) C10 b) C11 c) C9 d) C8
Q29. The Branch reset the Transaction password of Corporate users

(maker/authorizer) after Administrator of the Corporate creates a request and sends
form ………….. to branch?
a) C7a b) C7b c) C10 d) C11
Q30. Which of the following is NOT true in CINB Once the Admin is deactivated?
a) All accounts mapped to the Admin and to the users created by him will be
unmapped
b) All users created by him will be permanently deactivated
c) All the beneficiaries added/approved by the Admin will be permanently
deleted.
d) Corporate Admin, once deactivated can be reactivated
Q31. In YONO app the Digital account customer is provide with which type of ATM
card?
a) Gold Card b) Plastic Card c) Platinum Card d) Plutonium Card
Q32. In YONO app what is the CIBIL cut-off score for non-CSP customers for Pre-
Approved Personal Loan?
a) 800 b) 750 c) 700 d) 650
7
Q33. In YONO app what is the CIBIL cut-off score for CSP customers for Pre-
Approved Personal Loan?
a) 800 b) 750 c) 700 d) 650
Q34. In CINB the Admin creates the requests for re-issue of login password for a
user with which form?
a) C7a b) C7b c) C7 d) C11
Q35. Which facility Corporate users can opt for Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) in
CINB instead of mobile SMS based OTP?
a) Saral b) Vyapaar c) Vistaar d) All of these
Q36. Which CINB user can not access State Bank Anywhere-Corporate App?
a) Saral b) Vyapaar c) Vistaar d) Khata Plus
Q37. State Bank Collect facility cannot be given in which type of accounts?
a) OD b) SB c) CA d) Can be given to All of these
Q38. State Bank Collect facility cannot be given in which type of CINB facility?
a) Vyapaar b) Vistaar c) Khata Plus d) Saral
Q39. While uploading logo of corporate in State Bank Collect the size of the logo file
must not exceed……..?
a) 10 MB b) 32 KB c) 20 KB d) 1 MB
Q40. Who is the Authority for giving Administrative Clearance for State Bank Collect
in accounts of branches under the control of Regional Manager (RBO)?
a) Regional Manager b) DGM (B&O)
c) DGM (Anytime Channels) d) GM Network
Q41. E-Return Intermediary (e-RI) facilitate the E- filing process for the tax payers.
We have since started SBI E-file services through M/s Span across IT Solutions
Private Limited who work under WHICH brand name to provide this service to our
customers.
a) Taxman b) TaxSpanner c) TaxFile d) TaxIndia
Q42. Which one of the following is not a variant of SBI e-File?

a) Diamond b) Platinum c) Gold d) Silver
Q43. SBI e-file services can be accessed through which platform/s?

a) SBI e-file App b) Internet Banking
c) SBI website d) Both b & c
Q44. In SBI e-file the scustomer is redirected to which website?
8
a) taxman.com b) spanacross.com
c) taxspanner.com d)taxfile.com
Q45. The rate of interest for YONO Pre Approved personal Loan is ……………?
a) 400 bps+1 year MCLR b) 400 bps+2 year MCLR
c)560 bps+1 year MCLR d) 500 bps+2 year MCLR
Q46. What are the requirement for YONO?

a) Android phone 5.0 or above version/iOS 8.0 or above
b) 3G/4G/1 MBPS wireless connection
c) Both above
d) Any version of Android/iOS mobile
Q47. In digital account how customer can get his Debit Card ?
a) SBIinTouch branch
b) At correspondence address
c) a or b
d) At any branch through welcome kit
Q48. Which of the following is a pre-requisite for opening a Digital Account through
YONO?
a) Aadhar Card b) PAN Card c) Age above 18 years d) All of the
Above
Q49. All the Banks in India must migrate all of their existing card base to EMV cards
by ………………….?
a) March 2018 b) March 2019 c) December 2018 d) December 2019
Q50. If customer is not getting the SMS for ATM related transactions then branch
may e-mail to which email id for resolution of the issue?
a) epg.support@sbi.co.in b) atm.sms@sbi.co.in
c) sms.asc@sbi.co.in d) asc.sms@sbi.co.in
TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS – 1 ANSWERS

1-b 6-c 11-c 16-a 21-c 26-d 31-c 36-a 41-b 46-c
2-c 7-a 12-c 17-d 22-d 27-d 32-b 37-a 42-a 47-c
3-b 8-c 13-b 18-a 23-b 28-c 33-c 38-d 43-d 48-d
4-b 9-a 14-b 19-a 24-d 29-b 34-a 39-c 44-c 49-c
5-c 10-a 15-a 20-b 25-d 30-d 35-d 40-a 45-c 50-c
9
Q1. What is the expansion of URIB?
a) User Registration for Internet Banking
b) User Driven Registration for Internet Banking
c) Unified Registration for IMPS Banking
d) Universal Rules of Internet Banking
Q2. Software used by our bank at abroad branches is………?

a) B@ncs24 b) Finacle c) OPUS d) Base 24
Q3. POS Limit for State Bank Platinum Debit Card is Rs.
a) 50000/- b) 100000/- c) 200000/- d) 500000/-
Q4. In YONO app which of the following old SBI Life policies can be added as of
now?
a) Policy purchased through Bancassurance Channel
b) Policy purchased through Agents
c) Policy purchased through online mode
d) Any of the above
Q5. Complementary Accidental Insurance available on State Bank Platinum Debit

Card is Rs………..?
a) 1,00,000 b) 2,00,000 c)
5,00,000 d) 10,00,000
Q6. Validity for SBI Smart Payout Card is _______years?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 10
Q7. Daily Cash limit at ATM for State Bank Business Debit Card – Premium is
Rs……?
a) 1,00,000 b) 2,00,000 c) 3,00,000 d) 5,00,000
Q8. In Phase-I of YONO launch Bank is offering how many variants of SBI Card to
the Customer?
a) 5 b) 8 c) 12 d) 16
Q9. The full form of USSD is………?

a) Unstructured Supplementary Services Data
b) Unstructured Services Supplementary Data
c) Unique Services Supplementary Data
d) Unique Supplementary Services Data
10
Q10. What are the first 4 digits for SBI’s MMID?
a) SBIN b) 9001 c) 9002 d) 9003
Q11. What is the per transaction limit for a customer who opens an Insta Digital
Savings Account through YONO?
a) 49900 b) 49999 c) 50000 d) 100000
Q12. Gift Card is valid upto……?

a) 6 months b) 1 Year c) 3 Years d) 5 Years
Q13. The validity of Green Remit Card is ……years from date of issue
a) 1 year b) 3 years c) 5 years d) 10 years
Q14. State Bank SME Insta Deposit Card is valid for years
.a) 5 Yeas b) 10 Years c) 3 Years d) Upto the year 2049
Q15. A maximum of ……….accounts of the customer under same CIF can be linked
to SME Insta Deposit card?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5
Q16. The maximum number of currency notes that can be deposited in CDM at a
time?
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 150
Q17. Which cards can not be used on GCC?

a) SBI Credit Card b) Green Remit card
c) SBI ATM Debit card d) SME Insta Deposit Card
Q18. Validity period of ACHIEVER card is………….?

a) 1 year b) 3 years c) 10 years d) 5 yerars
Q19. What is the maximum amount of issue for ACHIEVER card?

a) Rs.50000/- b) Rs.25000/- c) Rs.100000/- d) Rs.10000/-
Q20. State Bank MobiCash in partnership with which company has been launched?
a) BSNL b) Vodafone c) Idea d) Jio
Q21. State Bank MobiCash App is available on which platforms?

a) Android b) iPhone c) Blackberry d) both a & b
Q22. Non-smartphone users can use Mobicash facility using SMS facility by send
SMS to which number?
a) 9223966666 b) 9418399999 c) 9438199999 d) 9418300000
11
Q23. Mobicash subscribers can also use this service over USSD by dialing which
numbers?
a) *121* b) *595# c) *511# d) *495#
Q24. In Mobicash the OTP received for a transaction shall be valid for how much
time?
a) 24 hours b) 12 hours c) 30 minutes d) 1 hour
Q25. In Mobicash if the customer enters wrong MPIN for three consecutive times,
his Mobile Wallet will be locked for how much time?
a) 24 hours b) 12 hours c) 6 hours d) 1 hour
Q26. In Mobicash if the wallet is not used for ……….., the account will be treated as
suspended/dormant.
a) 12 months b) 6 months c) 3 months d) 1 month
Q27. The suspended/dormant wallet account may be re-activated through

a) BSNL CSP b) State Bank Contact Centre
c) SBI Home Branch d) Any SBI Branch
Q28. What is the Maximum Balance limit per Wallet for Non KYC compliant Wallet in
Mobicash?
a) 5000 b) 10000 c) 20000 d) 50000
Q29. What is the Maximum Balance limit per Wallet for KYC compliant Wallet in
Mobicash?
a) 25000 b) 100000 c) 20000 d) 50000
Q30. What is the Cash in /Top up limit through any channel per month for KYC/Non-
KYC compliant Mobicash wallet?
a) 5000 b) 10000 c) 20000 d) 25000
Q31. What is the validity of State Bank Smart Payout Card, a prepaid Card issued in
Indian Rupees in association with VISA?
Q32. What is the maximum amount storage limit of Smart Payout Card?
a) 5000 b) 10000 c) 49000 d) 50000
Q33. What is the maximum amount storage limit of EZ-Pay Card?

a) 100000 b) 10000 c) 49000 d) 50000
12
Q34. In INB the maximum transaction limit through IMPS between 8.00 P.M. to 8.00
A.M. (Night Region) is………?
a) 50000 b) 100000 c) 200000 d) 40000
Q35. In Insta Digital Account opend through YONO the aggregate of all credits in a
financial year shall not exceed Rs. ………… only
a) 50000 b) 100000 c) 200000 d) 40000
Q36. Contact less card work on which Technology?

a) Bluetooth b) Wifi
c) Near Field Communication d) New Frequency Code
Q37. At CBS level, provision has been made to choose the language for receiving
SMS. State True or False?
a) True b) False c) May be d) Don’t Know
Q38. Using SBI Mingle, the Bank’s customers can do a host of banking services on
which of their preferred social platform?
a) Twitter b) Facebook c) a or b d) Instagram
Q39. Green PIN initiative for creating ATM PIN cannot be generated through which
of the following?
a) SMS b) IVR c) INB d) SBI Pay
Q40. Single Sign On in State Bank group can be accessed through which link?
a) http://sso.sbi.co.in b) https://singlesignon.com
c) http:// singlesignon.com d) https://sso.sbi.co.in
Q41. What is IRATA full form?

a) Income Recognition from ATM Related Accounts
b) Internet Banking Request Approval through ATM
c) Indian Railway Account Transaction Amount
d) Indian Resident Anytime Transaction Approval
Q42. Which is the Nodal Branch for ASBA?

a) Mumbai Main Branch b) Capital Market Branch, Mumbai
c) CAG, Kolkata d) CAG, Mumbai
Q43. What is the full form of ASBA?

a) Application for Savings Bank Account
b) Application for State Bank Anywhere
c) Application Supported By Blocked Amount
d) Application Support for Buddy App
13
Q44. As per the SEBI’s new guidelines w.e.f. 01.01.2016 the IPO process time is T+
…………. days (T is closing date of IPO).
a) 12 b) 7 c) 6 d) 8
Q45. While opening Savings Bank account through TABLET the signature of the
prospective customer will have to be obtained on ………………..?
a) Not Required b) Tablet c) Single Page Form d) Small Slip
Q46. The data captured by the TABLET for opening Savings Bank account will be
retained and available in the …………….?
a) CBS Srver b) INB Server
c) TAB Server d) ATM Switch Centre
Q47. The data captured by the TABLET for opening Savings Bank account will be
retained and available in the Server for how many days?
a) 7 b) 14 c) 21 d) 30
Q48. After expiry of prepaid cards (all variants) the unutilized balances up to what
amount shall lapse to the Bank and Card will be closed?
a) 100/- b) 250/- c) 500/- d) 1000/-
Q49. In case after expiry, balance in the rupee prepaid cards is above certain
balance an annual maintenance charge of Rs………….. will be recovered each year
from the unused balance lying on the expired cards.
a) 50 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200
Q50. The Imprest Card Validity is ………… years?


1-b 6-d 11-b 16-b 21-d 26-b 31-d 36-c 41-b 46-b
2-b 7-b 12-c 17-a 22-b 27-b 32-b 37-a 42-b 47-d
3-c 8-d 13-d 18-c 23-c 28-b 33-d 38-c 43-c 48-c
4-a 9-a 14-b 19-c 24-d 29-d 34-d 39-d 44-c 49-b
5-c 10-c 15-c 20-a 25-a 30-b 35-c 40-d 45-c 50-d
14
TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS - 3
Q1. Which of the following is not eligible to register as a Merchant on “SBI Buddy
Merchant”?
a) Debit Card linked to your Current Account
b) Corporate Internet Banking User
c) Mobile number is registered in the current account
d) Debit Card linked to your Savings Account
Q2. “State Bank Buddy” And “SBI Buddy Merchant” Apps can be used on
…………..?
a) Same mobile number b) on different mobile numbers
c) One App at a time on same mobile number d) Any of the above
Q3. Maximum balance at any point of time in “SBI Buddy Merchant” App can be Rs.
……….?
a) 10000 b) 20000 c) 50000 d) 100000
Q4. What is the expansion of UPI?

a) Universal Payment Initiative b) Unified Payment Interface
c) Unified Paperless Interface d) Unified Paperless Initiative
Q5. What is VPA?

a) Virtual Payment Address b) Vital Payment Address
c) Virtual Paperless Algorithm d) Vital Paperless Algorithm
Q6. In which of the following case of fund transfer with SBI Pay App the beneficiary
must be registered for UPI?
a) Account+IFSC b) Mobile+MMID
c) Aadhar number d) Virtual Payment Address
Q7. What is the per transaction limit for BHIM SBI Pay/UPI?
a) 5000 b) 10000 c) 1000 d) 20000
Q8. Through SMS to which mobile number you can switch ON or OFF your Debit
Card usage at ATM/POS/ECOM/DOM/INTL?
a) 9223488888 b) 9223766666 c) 9223866666 d) 9223966666
Q9. How many digits of Debit card are required in the SMS to be sent for switching
ON or OFF limit for ATM/POS/ECOM/DOM/INTL usage?
a) Any 4 digits b) first 4 digits c) last 4 digits d) last 6 digits
15
Q10. In Retail Internet Banking (RINB) while lodging of Online Request for Issue of
Demand Draft (DD) the customer can get DD issued through which of the following
option?
a) Home branch b) Any Domestic SBI branch
c) Any SBI branch d) a or b
Q11. ATM Switch Centre has been awarded with the “ISO Certification -…………..”
indicating highest technical and Security/safety standards
a) 27001 b) 20001 c) 29001 d) 9001
Q12. MMID (Mobile Money Identifier) comprises of how many digits?

a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 11
Q13. What is the maximum per day limit for GCC transaction for cash and transfer?
a) 25000 b) 200000 c) 40000 d) 50000
Q14. The maximum deposit allowed through cash deposit machine is?
a) 200000 b) 49900 c) 50000 d) 100000
Q15. The settlement of funds in IMPS is through which body-

a) TRAI b) SBI c) RBI d) NPCI
Q16. ez-trade@sbi is a 3in 1 a/c because it provides an integrated platform of

a) TDR a/c, demat a/c, and online trading a/c
b) S/B / current a/c, demat a/c, and online trading a/c
c) loan a/c , online trading a/c , and demat a/c
d) PPF a/c, online trading a/c , and demat a/c
Q17. ez-trade@sbi is provided by SBI in association with

a) Reliance infocom, ICICI securities
b) SBI Securities and NSDL
c) Online SBI and Motilal Oswal securities ltd
d) SBI Caps Securities Limited
Q18. mPassbook facility is available in?

a) Swayam b) Self Service Kiosk
c) State Bank Anywhere-Personal d) Mobile Banking
Q19. Computer Security day is observed on

a) 30th November b) 1st November c) 1st December d) 17th May
Q20. SWIFT stands for………?

a) Society for Worldwide Inter-Bank Financial Telecommunication
b) Society for Worldwide Inter Bank Financial Transfer
16
c) Society for Worldwide Inter Bank Fund Transfer
d) None of the above
Q21. Linking of 5 self a/c to Mobile Banking can take place at……….?
a) ATM b) Branch c) Both of the above d) INB
Q22. What does B@ncs24 mean?

a) Bank’s Automation and Network Connecting Software for 24 hours
b) Bank’s Automation and Networking Control System for 24 hours
c) Bank’s Accounting and Network Connecting Software for 24 hours
d) Bank’s Accounting and Network Control Software for 24 hours
Q23. What is the maximum per day limit for card to card transfer through ATM?
b) 15000 b) 25000 c) 40000 d) 50000
Q24. What is the maximum per day limit for card to account transfer through ATM?
a) 15000 b) 25000 c) 40000 d) 50000
Q25. What is IMT?

a) Instant Money Transfer b) Immediate Money Transfer
c) Internet Mobile Transfer d) Immediate Mobile Transfer
Q26. What is the name of facility in which the beneficiary can withdraw money from
State Bank Group ATMs to begin with, without using a Debit Card?
a) Instant Money Transfer b) Immediate Money Transfer
c) Internet Mobile Transfer d) Immediate Mobile Transfer
Q27. What is the sequence in SMS sent after BREG for doing IMT?
i) PIN ii) Address iii) Beneficiary mobile number iv) Name of beneficiary
a) i+ii+iii+iv b) iv+iii+ii+I c) iii+iv+ii+i d) iii+ii+i+iv
Q28. For IMT SMS needs to be sent to which number?

a) 9223440000 b) 567676 c) 9223766666 d) 9223988888
Q29. What is the minimum per transaction limit for IMT?

a) 10/- b) 100/- c) 500/- d) 1000/-
Q30. What is the maximum per transaction limit for IMT?

a) 10000/- b) 15000/- c) 25000/- d) 40000/-
Q31. What is the monthly cap for IMT transactions per beneficiary?
a) 10000/- b) 15000/- c) 25000/- d) 40000/-
17
Q32. What is the maximum amount limit, per sender, in a calendar month for IMT?
a) 10000/- b) 25000/- c) 40000/- d) 50000/-
Q33. What is the fee for IMT (inclusive of GST) per transaction?
a) 10/- b) 22/- c) 25/- d) 30/-
Q34. In IMT the service charge is applicable on……………?

a) Sender b) Receiver c) Born by the Bank d) both a & b
Q35. In IMT the receiver can withdraw the money within………….. days?
a) T+1 b) T+2 c) T+3 d) 2
Q36. The IMT ID generated is of …………….. digits?

a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 15
Q37. What is the time period for the lodgement of disputed ATM complaints from the
date of transaction?
a) 90 days b) 45 days c) 30 days d) 15 days
Q38. What is SBI FASTAG?

a) Cash Management Product b) Toll Collection Card
c)Forex Remittance Product d) Customer Service App
Q39. What is the issuance fee of SBI FASTAG, inclusive of taxes?

a) 100/- b) 120/- c) 150/- d) 173/-
Q40. Where is DCPK installed?

a) CACs b) LCPCs c) InTouch Branches d) All of the above
Q41. What is DCPK?

a) Document Captured Printing Kiosk b) Debit Card Printing Kiosk
c)Document Capture Product Kiosk d) None of these
Q42. The ribbon cartridge of DCPK needs to be …………… by joint custodians?

a) Stored in BD b) Destroyed
c) Kept in record room d) None of these
Q43. In Retail Internet Banking what is the per day limit of Quick Transfer option?
a) 10000/- b) 5000/- c) 1000/- d) 25000/-
Q44. What is the full form of IMPS?

a) Immediate Payment Service b) Immediate Payment System
18
c) Interbank Mobile Payment Service d) Interface Mobile Payment System
Q45. What does MIT refer to in case of INB?

a) Manual of information and technology b) Main internet technology
c) Manual intervention transactions d)Manual information transaction
Q46. Which is the first Bank in India to launch its website on gTLD protocol?
a) ICICI Bank b) SBI c) SBT d) Axis Bank
Q47. What is gTLD?

a) General Top Level Domain b) Generic Top Level Domain
c) Generic Top Level Database d) Gateway Triple Layer Datamining
Q48. Which one had never been bank’s website address?

a) bank.sbi b) sbi.co.in c) statebankofindia.com d) sbi.com
Q49. In Retail Internet Banking what is the per transaction limit of Quick Transfer
option?
a) 10000/- b) 5000/- c) 1000/- d) 25000/-
Q50. mCash facility is provided to customers to send money through

a) INB b) GCC c) ATM d) Branch

1-d 6-d 11-a 16-b 21-b 26-a 31-c 36-d 41-b 46-b
2-b 7-b 12-b 17-d 22-b 27-c 32-d 37-a 42-b 47-b
3-c 8-d 13-c 18-c 23-c 28-b 33-c 38-b 43-d 48-d
4-b 9-c 14-b 19-a 24-c 29-b 34-a 39-c 44-a 49-a
5-a 10-d 15-d 20-a 25-a 30-a 35-b 40-c 45-c 50-a
19
Q1. To remit through mCash the sender requires...... of the beneficiary
a) Mobile Number b) E-Mail ID
c) Both d) a or b
Q2. The per transaction charges under mCash is…….+GST?

a) Rs.3.00 b) Rs.1.00 c) Rs.2.50 d) Rs.1.50
Q3. Maximum amount of money that can be remitted per transaction by mCash
is…..?
a) Rs.5001/- b) Rs.1101/- c) Rs.1501/- d) Rs.2501/-
Q4. Maximum amount of money that can be remitted per day by mCash is…….?
a) Rs.2202/- b) Rs.5101/- c) Rs.11001/- d) Rs.5505/-
Q5. The maximum amount of money that can be remitted in mCash in a month
is…….?
a) Rs.2202/- b) Rs.5101/- c) Rs.11001/- d) Rs.5505/-
Q6. Money can be send through mCash to ................ Bank?

a) Within SBI b) Within SB Group c) Any Bank d) None of these
Q7. The passcode generated in mCash to claim money by the beneficiary is valid
upto….?
Q8. A customer can be registered for INB facility by?

a) Home Branch b) Any branch at his convenience
c) Self using ATM card credentials d) Any of the above
Q9. The per transaction limit in INB for Remxout is USD………….?

a) 1000 b) 2000 c) 5000 d) 10000
Q10. The maximum per day limit for IMPS transactions in retail internet banking is
Rs.……………?
a) 10000 b) 40000 c) 50000 d) 200000
Q11. Which type of card can not be got issued using RINB?
a) Gift Card b) Smart Payout Card c) Credit Card d) Debit Card
Q12. The RINB password can be delivered through e-mail to……………..?

a) HNIs b) NRIs c) Any customer d) None of these
20
Q13. Login password for retail Internet Banking customers is mandatory to be
changed after …….. days.
a) 180 b) 45 c) 365 d) 90
Q14. Cooling Period for Third Party Transfer through RINB is……….?
Q15. The transfer limit during cooling period in RINB is ……………..?

a) Rs.50000/- b) Rs.100000/- c) Rs.200000/- d) Rs.400000/-
Q16. What is the validity period of e-Card(Virtual Card) created under SBI Online
Banking?
a) 24 hrs b) 48 hrs
c) 24 hrs or till the transaction is complete, whichever is earlier
d) 48 hrs or till the transaction is complete, whichever is earlier
Q17. What is the cut off time for creating e-TDR / e-STDR online banking?
a) 24 hrs without any restriction on timing b) 6.00 AM IST to 6.00 PM IST
c) 8.00 AM IST to 8.00 PM IST d) None
Q18. For ______________ email is mandatory while registering internet banking

a) SB account customers b) NRI Customers
c) Corporate Customers d) For all the customers
Q19. New beneficiary activation for INB in normal case gets activated within ....
a) Immediately b) One day c) One hour d) 4-16 hours
Q20. How many third party accounts can be added in a single day in RINB
a) 2 b) 3 c) Unlimited d) 5
Q21. What is the full form MTSS

a)Money Transfer Service System b) Money Transfer Service Scheme
c) Mobile Transfer Service Scheme d) Mobile Transfer Service System
Q22. The maximum limit per transaction in Western Union money transfer is
a) USD 2000 b) USD 3000 c) USD 1500 d) USD 2500
Q23. The maximum number of transaction beneficiary can receive in a calendar year
in Western Union (WU) is
a) Unlimited b) 50 c) 45 d) 30
Q24. The nodal branch for handling Western Union is
21
a) Mumbai Main b) NRI Mumbai c) NRI Kochi d) New Delhi
Main
Q25. For activation of INB, NRI customer has to send an SMS containing activation
code in the prescribed format to from his/her registered mobile number.
a) +91-922358888 b) +91-9223040040
c) +91-9224040040 d) +91-9223766666
Q26. Which of the following is not permissible through Western Union?

a) Inward Donations to Trusts b) Inward Remittance to NRE accounts
c) Outward Remittance from India d) All of the above
Q27. In Western Union the cash can be paid up to which amount?

a) Only DD/BC to be issued b) 20000
c) 50000 d) Only credit to account
Q28. Which frontend software is used for Western Union?

a) Translink b) Amlock c) Kuber d) MercuryFx
Q29. The full form of USSD is

a) Unstructured Supplementary Services Data
b) Unstructured Services Supplementary Data
c) Unique Services Supplementary Data
d) Unique Supplementary Services Data
Q30. ATM Cardholder cannot block his Card through which?

a) SBI Quick b) INB c) SMS d) BHIM SBI Pay
Q31. The following company has developed Active Directory Services:

a) Oracle b) Mphasis c) Microsoft d) TCS
Q32. EMV stands for

a) Euro Pay, Master Card & Visa b) Electronic Money Value
c) Euromoney Master Card & Visa Pay d) Electronic Master Card & Visa
Q33. First ATM was installed by SBI Bank at

a) Mumbai b) New Delhi c) Cochin d) Jamshedpur
Q34. ATM was installed by SBI Bank in

a) 1987 b) 1993 c) 1991 d) 1989
Q35. What is the issuance fee for SBI FASTag?

a) 50 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200
22
Q36. The Contact Centre is functioning from …………….. locations
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5
Q37. First Contact Centre of SBI started at which Centre?

a) Kolkata b) Agra c) Vadodara d) Bangluru
Q38. What is the expansion of BAS?

a) Biometric Authentication System
b) Biometric Authentication Solution
c) Biometric Authenticity Solution
d) Biometric Authenticity System
Q39. The primary centre for Anti-virus solution is located at…………….

a) Hyderabad b) Belapur c) Chennai d) Jaipur
Q40. What is the full form of TCRN?

a) Temporary Customer Reference Number
b) Temporary Customised Reference Number
c) Token Customer Reference Number
d) Token Customised Reference Number
Q41. Which Id and password would be required for accessing the TAB Banking
application?
a) EMS b) HRMS c) CBS d) ADS
Q42. What is a White label ATM?

a) White colour ATMs
b) It is the ATM owned and operated by Reserve Bank of India
c) It is the ATM run by Public Sector Banks
d) It is an ATM owned and operated by non-Bank parties
Q43. CINB Saral is a --------- product

a) Single user b) Multiple user
c) Enquiry rights only d) Corporate desired number of users
Q44. Khata can be upgraded to

a) Khata Plus b) Vyapaar c) Vistaar d) not upgradable
Q45. Bulk Upload facility is available in

a) Khata Plus b) Vistaar only c) Vyapaar and Vistaar d) Saral Only
Q46. The administrator of the corporate prints the following form for getting the PPKs
of other corporate users issued from the branch
23
a) Form C1 b) Form C5 c) Form C7 d) Form C8
Q47. Which form is used for registering the Corporate in CINB?

a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4
Q48. Which form is used for registering the Regulator in CINB?

a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4
Q49. Which form is used for registering the Administrator in CINB?

a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4
Q50. The access channel that is set for a Khata user in CBS is …………?
a) 10 b) 02 c) 04 d) 09

1-d 6-c 11-c 16-d 21-b 26-d 31-c 36-c 41-b 46-c
2-c 7-b 12-b 17-c 22-d 27-c 32-a 37-c 42-d 47-a
3-d 8-d 13-a 18-b 23-d 28-a 33-d 38-b 43-a 48-b
4-b 9-c 14-d 19-d 24-c 29-a 34-b 39-a 44-d 49-c
5-c 10-d 15-b 20-b 25-b 30-d 35-c 40-a 45-c 50-d
24
MACRO ECONOMIC ENVIRONMENT / GENERAL AWARENESS
1. How much amount of agricultural credit to farmers has been proposed in the
Union Budget 2017-18?
A. Rs. 15 lakh crore
B. Rs. 10 lakh crore
C. Rs. 20 lakh crore
D. Rs. 5 lakh crore
2. As mentioned in the Union Budget 2017-18, the Indian Railways coaches

would be completely fitted with bio-toilets by which year?
A. 2020
B. 2018
C. 2022
D. 2019
3. According to the Union Budget 2017-18, what is the total allocation made
under Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana?
A. Rs. 2.44 Lakh crore
B. Rs. 1.20 Lakh crore
C. Rs. 2.50 Lakh crore
D. Rs. 1.75 Lakh crore
4. Recently, Stock market regulator SEBI has imposed trade restrictions on 331
firms which are suspected of being “shell companies”. Which of the following is
NOT an activity generally carried out using shell companies?
A. Trade and normal business
B Financial manoevour for some unstated objectives
C Illegal financial activities
D Violation of intellectual rights and properties
5. From July 1, 2017, the nationwide GST (Goods & Services Tax) has been
rolled out in India, making the country a single market. What is the current size
of Indian economy?
A USD 1 Trillion
B USD 2 Trillion
C USD 3 Trillion
D USD 4 Trillion
6. What is the size of new Rs.500 Bank Note?

A 68 mmX150 mm
B 68 mmX155 mm
C 66 mmX150 mm
D 66 mmX152 mm
7. Which of the following countries / group of countries are known as G3

economies?
25
A India, China, Africa
B US, EU, Japan
C India, Japan, China
D US, China, Japan
8. Which among the following places is not a site for India’s currency notes
printing press?
A Nasik B Mysuru C Salboni D Jhansi
9. Which of the following is an example of passive investment instrument?

A Mutual Funds B Gold ETFs C Stocks D Preference shares
10. Which of the following firms has been recently named as the world’s biggest
private equity firm?
A Aditya Birla Group
B Blackstone Group
C Goldman Sachs
D General Atlantic
11. Which of the following is/are Money Market Instruments?

A Treasury Bills
B Commercial Papers
C Certificate of Deposits
D All of the above
12. India is the biggest producer, as well as the largest consumer and importer of
which of the following crops?
A Wheat
B Cotton
C Sugarcane
D Pulse
13. Who has taken charge as the new Vice Chief of Naval Staff (VCNS)?
A D K Dewan
B P N Murugesan
C Ajit Kumar P
D Karambir Singh
14. Who has won the 2017 Swiss Indoors men’s singles tennis tournament?
A Roger Federer
B Roberto Bautista Agut
C David Goffin
D Juan Martin del Potro
15. Which ministerial committee has been constituted by the Central Government
on PSU bank mergers?
A Piyush Goyal committee
B Arun Jaitley committee
C Rajiv Kumar committee
D Nirmala Sitharaman committee
26
16. Which Indian shuttler has won the 2017 men’s singles French Open
Superseries badminton tournament?
A B. Sai Praneeth
B Kidambi Srikanth
C HS Prannoy
D Parupalli Kashyap
17. Who has been honoured with the Hridaynath Mangeshkar Award 2017?
A Vishwanathan Anand
B AR Rahman
C Javed Akhtar
D Sulochana Tai
18. Who has been appointed as the new Special Director of Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI)?
A Deepak Mishra
B Sudeep Lakhtakia
C Rakesh Asthana
D Javeed Ahmed
19. Who has been named as the 2017 Best FIFA Men’s Player?
A Gianluigi Buffon
B Cristiano Ronaldo
C Neymar
D Lionel Messi
20. Which of the following commodity exchange has launched India’s first
commodity options in gold?
A Indian Commodity Exchange Limited (ICEX)
B National Spot Exchange Limited (NSEL)
C Multi-Commodity Exchange of India Ltd (MCX)
D National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX)
21. Who has won the 2017 Man Booker Prize?

A George Saunders
B Zadie Smith
C Sebastian Barry
D Colin Thubron
22. Which e-commerce company has tied up with Union Ministry of Textile to
promote handloom industry?
A Myntra
B HomeShop18
C Amazon
D Indiatimes
23. Who has become the 1st cricketer from Bangladesh to be inducted in MCC
World Cricket Committee?
A Mehedi Hasan Miraz
B Soumya Sarkar
27
C Shakib Al Hasan
D Nasir Hossain
24. Which of the following has been named as the India’s best FMCG company in
the food sector by the International Advertising Association (IAA)?
A Patanjali Ayurved
B Nestle India
C Amul
D Dabur India
25. What is the India’s GDP forecast for FY18 by the World Bank (WB) in its South
Asia Economic Focus (Fall 2017) report?
A 7.2%
B 7.1%
C 7.0%
D 7.2%
26. What is the India’s GDP forecast for FY18 by IMF in its latest World Economic
Outlook (WEO) report?
A 7.0%
B 6.7%
C 7.1%
D 6.5%
27. Who has been appointed as the new chairman of the Film and Television
Institute of India (FTII)?
A Anupam Kher
B Ragini Sharma
C Jagdish Bhagwati
D Rishi Kapoor
28. Which IIT institute has signed a MoU with Samsung for digital academy?
A IIT-Bombay
B IIT-Madras
C IIT-Kharagpur
D IIT-Indore
29. Which state has become the India’s first state to incorporate skill development
programme in higher education?
A Himachal Pradesh
B Chattisgarh
C Punjab
D Rajasthan
30. Who has won the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences 2017?
A George F. Loewenstein
B Colin F Camerer
C Stewart C. Myers
D Richard. Thaler
28
31. The 2017 Nobel Peace Prize has been awarded to International Campaign to
Abolish Nuclear Weapons (ICAN). Where is the headquarters of ICAN?
A London
B New York
C Warsaw
D Geneva
32. Who of the following has won the Nobel Prize for Literature 2017?
A Svetlana Alexievich
B Mo Yan
C Patrick Modiano
D Kazuo Ishiguro
33. Who of the following have won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2017?
A Jean-Pierre Sauvage, Fraser Stoddart and Ben Feringa
B Tomas Lindahl and Paul L. Modrich
C Brian K. Kobilka and Robert J. Lefkowitz
D Jacques Dubochet, Joachim Frank and Richard Henderson
34. Who has become the first Indian to hold deputy director general post at World
Health Organisation (WHO)?
A Ritu Karidhal
B Soumya Swaminathan
C Minal Sampath
D Anuradha TK
35. What is the current repo rate, according to recently released 4th bi-monthly
monetary policy review statement for the year 2017-18?
A 6%
B 6.25%
C 5.75%
D 5.5%
36. Who of the following have won the Nobel Prize in Physics 2017?
A Rainer Weiss, Kip Thorne and Barry Barish
B John Kosterlitz and Duncan M. Haldane
C Takaaki Kajita, Barry Barish and Rainer Weiss
D David J. Wineland, John Kosterlitz and Rainer Weiss
37. Who of the following has/have won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine
2017?
A Jeffrey C. Hall
B Michael Rosbash
C Michael W. Young
D All of the above
38. Which bank has launched ‘Project Nishchay’ to improve financial

performance?
A PNB
B SBI
29
C ICICI Bank
D IDBI Bank
39. Which was the first big state after Goa to use EVMs with VVPAT?
A Himachal Pradesh
B Gujarat
C Karnataka
D Rajasthan
40. Which state has won the ‘Best Tourism State’ National award-2017?
A Karnataka
B Madhya Pradesh
C Odisha
D Punjab
41. What is the India’s rank in the 2017 Global Competitiveness Rankings (GCR)?
A 40th B 55th C 67th D 35th
42. The Union government has set up special fund ‘DPIDF’ to boost dairy sector.
What does “DPIDF” stands for?
A Dairy Processing and Infra Development Fund
B Dairy Processing and Internal Development Fund
C Dairy Processing and Infrastructure Development Fund
D Dairy Processing and Internet Development Fund
43. Who is the newly appointed CMD of Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)?
A Shashi Shanker
B Nirmala Kaur
C K S Rajput
D Dinesh Sarraf
44. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has downgraded India’s GDP growth
forecast for FY18 from 7.4% to ____?
A 6.9%
B 7.2%
C 7.1%
D 7%
45. Who is the author of the book “The Shershah of Kargil: Captain Vikram Batra”?
A Deepak Surana
B Vikram Batra
C Neeraj Jain
D Sunny Rajput
46. Who is the head of the newly constituted Prime Minister Economic Advisory
Council (PMEAC)?
A Bibek Debroy
B Surjit Bhalla
C Ratan Watal
D Ashima Goyal
30
47. Which web portal has been launched by the Union Government for effective
implementation of National Child Labour Project?
A Care
B Pencil
C Corner
D Platform
48. Who is the newly appointed Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
A Rajiv Gauba
B Sunil Arora
C R.K. Raghavan
D Rajiv Mehrishi
49. Who has become the first Indian to be picked as AIBA representative at IOC
athletes’ forum?
A Sachin Tendulkar
B Milkha Singh
C Abhinav Bindra
D Mary Kom
50. Who has been appointed as the new interim chairman of National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI)?
A M Balachandran
B B Sambamurthy
C K K Rao
D M S Jadon
51. Which of the following has become the India’s first payments bank to integrate
the UPI on its digital platform?
A FINO Payments Bank
B Airtel Payments Bank
C Paytm Payments Bank
D India Post Payments Bank
52. Which international organisation has granted $175,000 for healthcare of

Rohingya refugees in Cox’s Bazar of Bangladesh?
A FAO
B UNICEF
C WHO
D UNISDR
53. Which of the following cricket team is not directly qualified for the ICC Cricket
World Cup 2019?
A West Indies
B New Zealand
C South Africa
D Sri Lanka
54. Who has been appointed as new Indian High Commissioner to Pakistan?
A Ajay Bisaria
B Gautam Bambawale
31
C Satish Chandra
D Sharat Sabharwal
55. Who has won the 2017 Formula One Singapore Grand Prix tournament?
A Daniel Ricciardo
B Valtteri Bottas
C Sergio Perez
D Lewis Hamilton
56. President Ram Nath Kovind has launched a nationwide campaign ‘Swacchata
Hi Seva’ from which city?
A Kanpur
B New Delhi
C Gandhinagar
D Guwahati
57. Which committee has been constituted by the Union Finance Ministry to
monitor tech issues of GST?
A T M Thomas Isaac committee
B Krishna Byre Gowda committee
C Etela Rajender committee
D Sushil Modi committee
58. Which city to host the 2028 Summer Olympics?

A London B Paris C Tokyo D Los Angeles
59. Who will be the first recipient of the lifetime achievement award instituted by
the Badminton Association of India (BAI)?
A Chetan Anand
B Aparna Popat
C Pullela Gopichand
D Prakash Padukone
60. The Punjab National Bank (PNB) has signed an agreement with which telecom
company to roll out open mobile wallet Speedpay?
A Vodafone India
B BSNL
C Reliance Jio
D Idea Cellular
61. Who has taken over charge as new Director-General (DG) of National
Investigation Agency (NIA)?
[A] Jainam Shah
[B] Ankit Awasthi
[C] Sharad Kumar Sinha
[D] Yogesh Chander Modi
62. Who has been appointed as the Karnataka’s first woman Director General and
Inspector General of Police (DG-IGP)?
[A] Neelmani N. Raju
[B] Minal Reddi
32
[C] Pooja Chandra
[D] Deepali Murthy
63. What is the India’s rank in the latest World Bank (WB)’s Ease of Doing
Business ranking 2018?
[A] 111th
[B] 130th
[C] 115th
[D] 100th
64. Which Indian bollywood personality has been honoured with the 2017 Parmod
Mahajan Smriti Award?
[A] Amitabh Bachchan
[B] Shatrughan Sinha
[C] Sharmila Tagore
[D] Anupam Kher
65. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code was passed by Lok Sabha on _____
A. 1 October 2016
B. 1 November 2016
C. 5 March 2016
D. 5 May 2016
66. The headquarters of AU Small Finance Bank is ______

A. Hyderabad
B. Chennai
C. Jaipur
D. Bengaluru
67. Which of the following has been authorized by RBI as the Bharat Bill
Payment Central Unit (BBPCU)?
A. NACH
B. NHB
C. NPCI
D. All of these
68. How many promoter banks are there is NPCI?

A. 10
B. 12
C. 11
D. 13
69. Which of the following is the headquarters of NPCI?

A. Chennai
B. Kolkatta
C. Mumbai
D. Hyderabad
33
70. _____ is a USSD based mobile banking service from NPCI that brings
together all the Banks and Telecom Service Providers.
A. NUUP
B. QSAM
C. UPI
D. BHIM
71. In NUUP, a customer can access banking services by just pressing ______
from his/her mobile phones.
A. *99#
B. *999#
C. *149#
D. *99*99#
72. MMID stands for ________

A. Money Market Identifier
B. Macro Money Identifier
C. Mobile Money Identifier
D. Mandatory Mortgage Identifier
73. MMID is a ______ digit number, issued by banks.

A. 6
B. 7
C. 5
D. 9
74. In Rupay Card, CVD stands for _____

A. Card Validation Data
B. Card Validity Data
C. Card Verification Data
D. Card Verified Data
75. CVV stands for ____

A. Card Validation Value
B. Card Verification Value
C. Card Validity Value
D. Card Verified Value
76. The new Rs. 50 denomination has a motif of _______ on the reverse,
depicting the country’s cultural heritage.
A. Mangalyan
B. Hampi with Chariot
C. Sanchi Stupa
D. Red Fort
34
77. The dimension of the NEW Rs.50 banknote is _______
A. 66 mm × 166 mm
B. 66 mm x 135 mm
C. 66 mm × 146 mm
D. 66 mm × 150 mm
78. An Authorised Dealer (AD) is any person specifically authorized by the RBI
under ______ of FEMA, 1999.
A. Section 10(1)
B. Section 11(1)
C. Section 12(1)
D. Section 13(1)
79. Who among the following set up the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro
and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE)?
A. GOI
B. Ministry of MSME
C. SIDBI
D. All of these
80. Who among the following can issue Commercial Paper(CP)?

A. Corporates
B. Primary Dealers
C. All India Financial Institutions
D. All of these
81. If the tangible net worth of the company, as per the latest audited balance
sheet, is not less than ______ crore, then the corporate would be eligible to
issue CP.
A. 4 crore
B. 3 crore
C. 2 crore
D. 5 crore
82. As per MSMED Act 2006, In production/Manufacture, Micro Enterprise is

an enterprise where investment in plant and machinery does not exceed
_________
A. 15 lakh
B. 25 lakh
C. 35 lakh
D. 45 lakh
83. As per MSMED Act 2006, In production/Manufacture, Medium Enterprise is

an enterprise where investment in plant and machinery is more than
_________
A. 8 crore
35
B. 7 crore
C. 6 crore
D. 5 crore
84. Banking Ombudsman may award compensation not exceeding _____ to

the complainant for mental agony and harassment.
A. 1 lakh
B. 2 lakh
C. 3 lakh
D. 5 lakh
85. If the compensation sought from the Banking Ombudsman is beyond

_____the Banking Ombudsman may reject a complaint at any stage.
A. Rs. 5 lakh
B. Rs. 10 lakh
C. Rs. 15 lakh
D. Rs. 20 lakh
86. Bank loans up to a limit of ______ per borrower for building social
infrastructure under priority sector.
A. Rs. 1 crore
B. Rs. 2 crore
C. Rs. 3 crore
D. Rs. 5 crore
87. Bank loans up to a limit of _____ to borrowers for purposes like solar based
power generators under priority sector.
A. Rs. 10 crore
B. Rs. 18 crore
C. Rs. 15 crore
D. Rs. 20 crore
88. What are the taxes levied on an intra-State Supply?

A. CGST
B. SGST
C. CGST and SGST
D. IGST
89. Which of the following public sector banks has the largest number of branches
in foreign countries?
a. Bank of India
b. Bank of Baroda
c. Punjab National Bank
d. Corporation Bank
36
90. Which of the following regulates Credit Rating agencies in India?
a. RBI
b. NSE
c. SEBI
d. ICAI
91. Which state is hosting the first-ever India-US Ocean Dialogue?

[A] Goa
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Assam
[D] Gujarat
92. Who has taken over charge as new Director-General (DG) of National
Investigation Agency (NIA)?
[A] Jainam Shah
[B] Ankit Awasthi
[C] Sharad Kumar Sinha
[D] Yogesh Chander Modi
93. Who has been appointed as the Karnataka’s first woman Director General and
Inspector General of Police (DG-IGP)?
[A] Neelmani N. Raju
[B] Minal Reddi
[C] Pooja Chandra
[D] Deepali Murthy
94. Pension regulator PFRDA has increased maximum age of joining National
Pension Scheme (NPS) Private Sector from 60 to _____?
[A] 70 years
[B] 65 years
[C] 63 years
[D] 67 years
95. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constituted high-level task force on public
credit registry (PCR) for India. It will be chaired by
[A] Y M Deosthalee [B] Minal Reddi
[C] Pooja Chandra [D] Deepali Murthy
96. What is the current reverse repo rate, according to recently released 4th bi-
monthly monetary policy review statement for the year 2017-18?
A 6%
B 6.25%
C 5.75%
D 5.5%
97. What is the current Bank rate, according to recently released 4th bi-monthly
monetary policy review statement for the year 2017-18?
A 6%
B 6.25%
37
C 5.75%
D 5.5%
98. What is the CRR, according to recently released 4th bi-monthly monetary
policy review statement for the year 2017-18?
A 4%
B 4.25%
C 4.75%
D 4.5%
99. What is the current Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) according to recently
released 4th bi-monthly monetary policy review statement for the year 2017-
18?
A 20 %
B 18%
C 19.5%
D 18.5%
100. State Bank of India (SBI) along with FTSE Russell, global index and data
provider, launched FTSE SBI Bond Index series at London Stock Exchange
(LSE)
A London Stock Exchange
B New York Stock Exchange
C Shanghai Stock Exchange

D Euronext
101. India and which country have recently signed pacts for technical
cooperation in the field of Railways?
[A] Switzerland
[B] Nepal
[C] Malaysia
[D] Bhutan
102. Who has been appointed as the new Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog?
[A] Rutvak Agrawal
[B] Vijay Parasher
[C] Umesh Singhal
[D] Rajiv Kumar
103. NTPC has signed a Rs 3,000-crore term loan agreement with which
bank for partially funding its capital expenditure?
[A] State Bank of India
[B] Punjab National Bank
[C] ICICI Bank
[D] HDFC Bank
104. Which Indian-origin personality has been appointed as the acting

President of Singapore?
[A] S R Nathan
[B] J Y Pillay
38
[C] P K Krishnan
[D] M S Ganesha
105. Which city has been formally accorded the status of India’s first World
Heritage City by UNESCO?
[A] Udaipur
[B] Mathura
[C] Ujjain
[D] Ahmedabad
106. Which of the following airports has bagged the National Award for
‘Excellence’ in Energy Management?
[A] Chennai International Airport
[B] Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
[C] Chaudhary Charan Singh International Airport
[D] Vijayawada International Airport
107. Where is the headquarters of the Indian Council of Agricultural

Research (ICAR)?
[A] New Delhi
[B] Bareilly
[C] Mumbai
[D] Karnal
108. Who is the newly elected chairman of Press Trust of India (PTI) ?
[A] Mahendra Mohan Gupta
[B] M.P. Veerendra Kumar
[C] Viveck Goenka
[D] Hormusji N. Cama
109. Who is the present Chairman of IRDAI?
(a) Harsh Kumar Bhanwala

(b) Kshatrapati Shivaji
(c) Urjit Patel
(d) Ajay Tyagi
(e) TS Vijayan
110. The Government of __________ has launched the Atal-Amrit Abhiyan

health insurance scheme, which would offer comprehensive coverage for six
disease groups to the below-poverty line (BPL) and above poverty line (APL)
families, with annual income below Rs 500,000 (US$ 7,500).
(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Assam
(c) West Bengal
(d) Bihar
(e) Uttarakhand
39
111.Which among the following public sector banks has announced that BNP
Paribas Cardiff is keen to increase its stake from 26 percent to 36 percent?
(a) ICICI Bank

(b) Indian Bank
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Punjab National Bank
(e) Bank of Baroda
112.Who is the present Chairman of Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)?
(a) Urjit R Patel

(b) VK Sharma
(c) MS Sahoo
(d) Alice G. Vaidyan
(e) A V Girija Kumar
113.____________ a/an is the section of an insurance policy dealing with various

coverages, exclusions, duties of the insured, locations covered and conditions
that terminate coverage.
(a) Actuary
(b) Broker
(c) Agent
(d) Clause
(e) None of the given options is true
114.In ________ insurance, schemes are offered by insurance companies to

provide certain classes of individuals, the benefit of insurance coverage at
moderate cost.
(a) group insurance

(b) motor insurance
(c) travel insurance
(d) life insurance
(e) health insurance
115. Which Bank and Bajaj Allianz General Insurance have signed an agreement
for the distribution of insurance products through the branches?
(a) Axis Bank

(b) Punjab National Bank
(c) Indian Bank
(d) Bank of Baroda
(e) ICICI Bank
40
116.Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has set up Supervisory Colleges for six
Scheduled Commercial Banks which have sizeable international presence
recently. Which among the following Banks is not them?
(a) State Bank of India

(b) ICICI Bank Limited
(c) Indian Overseas Bank
(d) Bank of Baroda
(e) Axis Bank Limited
117.Aurionpro Solutions a global leader in digital innovation, enterprise security

and banking solutions, announced its Branch-in-a-Box product, the VTM a
fully integrated self-service kiosk for automating 90% of banking transactions
at the branch level. VTM stands for-
(a) Virtual Truncated Machine

(b) Vehicle Teller Machine
(c) Virtual Timer Machine
(d) Virtual Teller Management
(e) Virtual Teller Machine
118.SIDBI has started full-fledged merchant banking operations to benefit the

expanding number of growth-oriented MSMEs, especially those with a strong
technology and innovation quotient. What is the meaning of "D" in SIDBI?
(a) Development
(b) Department
(c) District
(d) Doing
119.The Banking Ombudsman Scheme was introduced under __________ of the

Banking Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI with effect from 1995.
(a) Section 25A

(b) Section 35A
(c) Section 45A
(d) Section 15A
(e) Section 55A
120.National Housing Bank (NHB), a wholly owned subsidiary of the central bank
(RBI) was established in 1988 under the-
(a) National Housing Bank Act, 1987

(b) National Housing Bank Act, 1988
(c) National Housing Bank Act, 1986
(d) National Housing Bank Act, 1985
41
121. The Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) came into
existence in-
(a) 1999
(b) 1995
(c) 1991
(d) 1987
(e) 1982
122. National Securities Depository Limited is an Indian central securities

depository based in _______
(a) New Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Mumbai
(e) Bengaluru
123.NSDL is the first and largest depository in India, established in-
(a) August 2003

(b) August 1991
(c) August 1989
(d) August 1999
(e) August 1996
124 India Infrastructure Finance Company Ltd (IIFCL) is a wholly-owned

____________ company set up in 2006.
(a) NABARD
(b) SEBI
(c) RBI
(d) Finance Ministry
(e) Government of India
125.From 01st September 2017 Punjab National Bank's customers will have to
pay charges for depositing cash above _______ in a non-base branch even if
it is located in the same city.
(a) Rs. 15,000

(b) Rs. 25,000
(c) Rs. 5,000
(d) Rs. 10,000
126.Kotak Mahindra Bank has launched Kotak Remit— an Aadhaar-based

integrated outward forex remittance solution for both customers and non-
customers recently. Who is the Executive Vice Chairman and Managing
Director of Kotak Mahindra Bank?
42
(a) VY Reddy
(b) Aditya Kapoor
(c) Shikha Sharma
(d) Uday Kotak
(e) Nita Ambani
127. Name the smartphone maker company, which has tied up with State Bank
of India to store higher variants of SBI debit cards on the app.
(a) Samsung
(b) Motorola
(c) Apple
(d) Lava
(e) Sony
128.Private sector lender Axis Bank reduced interest rate on savings bank
accounts by 50 basis points to 3.5 percent for deposits up to-
(a) Rs 1 lakh
(b) Rs 80 lakh
(c) Rs 20 lakh
(d) Rs 50 lakh
(e) Rs 10 lakh
129.Which of the following payments bank has announced a strategic partnership

with Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) to give the further boost to
digital payments in the country and add to customer convenience?
(a) Aditya Birla Nuvo
(b) Department of Posts
(c) Airtel Payments Bank
(d) FINO PayTech
(e) National Securities Depository
130.When there is a difference between all receipts and expenditure of the

Government of India both capital and revenue it is called-
(a) Revenue Deficit
(b) Budgetary Deficit
(c) Zero Budgeting
(d) Trade Gap
(e) Balance of Payment Problem
131. Which of the following economic concepts is categorised on the basis of

Current Account or Capital Account or both?
(a) Balance of Payments
(b) Value of the food grain stock of a country
(c) Gross National Product
(d) Gross National Income (GNI)
(e) Total collection of Direct Taxes in a year
43
132.Part of company’s earning or profit which is paid out to shareholders is known as
_______
(a) Premium
(b) Dividend
(c) Bonus
(d) Sum Assured
(e) Return
133. According to the Income Tax Act of 1961, the age of Super Senior Citizens
should be-
(a) 60 years
(b) 70 years
(c) 80 years
(d) 75 years
(e) 65 years
134. As per the amendment, the pecuniary jurisdiction of the Banking Ombudsman
to pass an award has been doubled to _____ rupees.
(a) 20 lakh rupees
(b) 10 lakh rupees
(c) 25 lakh rupees
(d) 50 lakh rupees
(e) 5 lakh rupees
135. Which of the following is the country’s largest custodian and depository
participant?
(a) CIBIL
(b) SEBI
(c) NABARD
(d) SHCIL
(f) USA
136.Security Paper Mill (SPM) was formally inaugurated and dedicated to the nation
on the 9th March, __________ by the then Deputy Prime Minister, Shri Morarji
Desai.
(a) 1956
(b) 1968
(c) 1949
(d) 1962
(e) 1971
137. Which among the following bank is the first bank to launch the Mudra Card
based on the RuPay platform?
(a) SBI
(b) Corporation Bank
(c) Vijaya Bank
(d) PNB
(e) HDFC Bank
44
138. Which bank has launched India’s first contactless mobile payment solution-?
(a) ICICI
(b) Kotak Mahindra Bank
(c) IndusInd Bank
(d) South Indian Bank
(e) Axis Bank
139. Which bank has launched India’s first golf-centric credit card?
(a) SBI
(b) UBI
(d) PNB
(d) RBL
(e) ICICI
140. A signed undertaking from one party containing a promise to pay a stated sum
to a specified person or a company is known as ________
(a) Power of Attorney
(b) Promissory Note
(c) Purchasing Power Parity
(d) Plastic Notes
141. ICRA Limited (formerly Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of
India Limited) was set up in _________ by leading financial/investment institutions,
commercial banks and financial services companies as an independent and
professional Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency.
(a) 2004
(b) 1999
(c) 1995
(d) 1987
(e) 1991
142 National Securities Depository Limited is an Indian central securities depository

based in _______
(a) New Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Mumbai
(e) Bengaluru
143.Which of the following is mainly used by the banks in order to meet their
temporary requirement of Cash on a daily basis?
(a) Commercial Paper
(b) Certificate of Deposit
(c) Collateralized Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO)
(d) Call Money
45
KEY FOR MCQ MACRO ECONOMIC ENVIRONMENT / GENERAL AWARENESS
1 B 31 D 61 D 91 A 121 D
2 D 32 D 62 A 92 D 122 D
3 A 33 D 63 D 93 A 123 E
4 A 34 B 64 D 94 B 124 E
5 B 35 A 65 D 95 A 125 C
6 C 36 A 66 C 96 C 126 D
7 B 37 D 67 C 97 B 127 A
8 D 38 D 68 A 98 A 128 D
9 B 39 B 69 C 99 C 129 C
10 B 40 B 70 A 100 A 130 B
11 D 41 A 71 A 101 A 131 A
12 D 42 C 72 C 102 D 132 B
13 C 43 A 73 B 103 C 133 C
14 A 44 D 74 A 104 B 134 A
15 B 45 A 75 B 105 D 135 D
16 B 46 A 76 B 106 B 136 B
17 C 47 B 77 B 107 A 137 B
18 C 48 D 78 A 108 C 138 A
19 B 49 D 79 D 109 E 139 D
20 C 50 B 80 D 110 B 140 V
21 A 51 B 81 A 111 C 141 E
22 A 52 C 82 B 112 B 142 D
23 C 53 A 83 D 113 D 143 D
24 C 54 A 84 A 114 A
25 C 55 D 85 D 115 B
26 B 56 A 86 D 116 C
27 A 57 D 87 C 117 E
28 C 58 D 88 C 118 A
29 D 59 D 89 B 119 B
30 D 60 B 90 C 120 A
46
GENERAL BANKING
1. Commercial banks can obtain funds by way of rediscounting of eligible bills with
RBI under section:
a. 17(2) and 17(3) of RBI Act 1934

b. 17(5) of RBI Act
c. 17(1) of Banking Regulation Act
d. Section 19 of RBI Act
2. The bank rate means:

a. Rate of interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers
b. Rate of interest at which commercial banks discounted bills of their borrowers
c. Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits
d. Discount rate at which RBI rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks
to provide credit to commercial banks
3. What is the meaning of a scheduled bank?

a. The bank functioning under provisions of Banking Reg. Act 1949
b. The bank included in 2nd schedule of RBI Act 1934
c. The bank incorporated under Banking Companies Act 1956
d. The bank authorized to do banking functions
4. Bank notes issued by RBI are exempted from payment of stamp duty as per
which of the following:
a. Section 12, Indian Stamp Act 1899
b. Section 23, Banking Regulation Act
c. Section 5, Negotiable Instrument Act
d. Section 29-RBI Act
5. As per Section 20, 21 and 21A of RBI Act :

a. RBI provides refinance facilities to NABARD for agricultural loans
b. RBI manages public debt and issue new loans on behalf of Central or State
Govt.
c. RBI regulates flow of credit to economy by variations in SLR and CRR
d. RBI fixed CRR
e. None of the above
6. Banks have to maintain cash balances with RBI in a special current account for
maintenance of Cash Reserve Ratio as per :
a. Banking Regulation Act Section 42

b. RBI Act Section 42
c. Banking Regulation Act Section 24
d. Negotiable Instrument Act
7. What is the highest denomination bank note that RBI can issue as per provisions
of RBI Act?
a. Rs. 1000 b.Rs. 2000 c. 5000 d. Rs. 10000
47
8. Cash in a currency chest is held by a bank as:
a. Licensee b. A bailer c. Agent d. Owner
9. U/s 49 of RBI Act, which of the following is done by RBI:

a. Announces bank rate
b. Publishes fortnightly statement of assets and liabilities
c. Prepares annual balance sheet
d. Frames RBI (Note Refund) rule
10. The Banking Regulation Act came into force w.e.f:
a. April 1, 1934 b. July 1, 1956 c. March 16, 1949 d.March 26, 1950
11. Under Section 5(a) of the Banking Regulation Act 1949, approved securities
denote:
a. Securities approved by Indian Banks Association
b. The securities which have been defined under Section 20 of the Indian Trusts
Act 1882
c. The securities approved by IDBI
12. .As per Section 17 of Banking Regulation Act 1949, every banking company
incorporated in India is required to create a reserve fund and to transfer to it at least:
a. 50% of profits after dividend b.20% of profit before dividend
c.15% of total profits d.20% of total profits
13. .Under which section of Banking Regulation Act 1949, a banking company is
prohibited to grant a loan or an advance against security of its own shares:
a. 19(2) b.20(1) c. 17(2) d. 24
14. Under which section of Banking Regulation Act 1949, every banking company
has to maintain statutory liquidity ratio:
a. 19(d) b.25 c.24 d.None
15. Under which section of Banking Regulation Act 1949, every banking company
has to submit annual statement of all those accounts which are lying under
inoperative category for the last 10 years to RBI :
a. 17
b. 25
c. 19(2)
d.26
16. A customer wants return of his paid cheques. He can ask his bank to return him
the paid instruments under the provisions of which of the following :
a. RBI Act Section 45
b. Negotiable Instruments Act Section 45 Z
c. Banking Regulation Act Section 45 Z
d. Negotiable Instrument Act Section 45 ZA
e. Negotiable Instrument Act Section 45 ZC
48
17.Banks can undertake the business of banking and ‘banking’ as a term has been
defined under :
a. Banking Regulation Act Section 5(b)
b. Banking Regulation Act Section 17
c. RBI Act Section 2(2)
d. Negotiable Instruments Act Section 1
e.All the above
18. What is the maximum extent, up to which a bank can hold the shares of a
company when it is a pledge or mortgagee or absolute owner?
a. No ceiling
b. 5% of the total unsecured loans
c. 30% of its own paid up capital and reserves or 30% of the paid up capital of
the company, whichever is lower
d. 30% of its own paid up capital and 30% of the paid up capital and reserves of
the company, whichever is lower
e. 30% of the capital
19. Under which Section of NI Act, the bank has obligation to make payment of
cheque issued by a customer:
a. 85 b. 131 c.30 d. 31
20. As per provisions of NI Act Section 48, an order cheque is transferable

(negotiated) only by:
a. Delivery b. Endorsement and delivery
c. Blank endorsement d. All the above
21. Which of the following is negotiable?

a. Bank FDR b.Airway bill
c. National Saving Certificate d.None of the above
22.The Negotiable Instrument Act 1881 as amended from time to time is applicable
in all parts of India except J&K.
a. True b. False
23.Which among the following parties are liable on the negotiable instruments either
as drawer or as acceptor or endorser :
a. A minor b.An insolvent c.A lunatic d.None
24.Which among the following instruments is a negotiable instrument as per

provisions of Section 13 of Negotiable Instrument Act?
a. Bill of lading b. Railway receipt c. Goods receipt
d .Airway bill e.None of the above
25.Protection is available to paying banker for paying draft with endorsement u/s
……. Of NI Act:
a. 85 b.85 A c. 131 d.130
49
26.An instrument is inchoate if the amount or the date or the name of payee, all are
left blank.
a. True b.False
27. Which of the following is payment in due course :

a. Crossed cheque paid over counter
b. Cheque with forged signatures of the bearer
c. Bearer cheque with forged endorsement on it
d.Cheque paid after receipt of garnishee order
28. Negotiation of an order instrument is complete with delivery.

a. True b. False
29.A cheque has already been negotiated by X to Y and by Y to Z. How many times
more, this instrument can be negotiated?
a. Thrice
b. Twice
c. Once
d. No limit
30.As per Section 13 of NI Act, 1881, the negotiable instrument has not been defined
directly but it is defined indirectly.
a. True b .False
31. Which of the following statements is not correct as per NI Act:

a. The holder can convert special crossing into general crossing or he can
cancel any crossing under his signatures
b. The holder can cross a cheque
c. If a cheque is simply crossed, he can add special crossing
d. If cheque is simply or specially crossed, he can add the words ‘not-negotiable’
in it
32.Holder in due course is defined u/s ………. of NI Act:

a. 10 b.9 c.18 d.8 e.1
33.The assignee of a negotiable instrument is:

a. Holder in due course
b. Endorser
c. Holder
d. a to c
34.The holder of a negotiable instrument is holder in due course if (a) he has right of
possession (b) he receives the instrument for lawful consideration (c) the instrument
is in his possession. Which of these is correct :
a. a and b only
b. b and c only
c. a and c only
d. a to c all
50
35.Which of the following is not a condition essential for constituting a person as
holder of a negotiable instrument:
a. he could be payee of the instrument
b. he could be an endorsee of the instrument
c. he should receive the instrument for valuable consideration only and not
otherwise
d. he has the right of possession to the instrument.
36.Who among the following is only a holder and not a ‘holder’ in due course?
a. Holder of a bearer cheque
b. Holder of a crossed order cheque
c. Holder of a non-negotiable crossed cheque
37.A is payee of a cheque but court prohibits him to receive the payment :
a. In this case A will remain holder of the cheque
b. In this case A will lose rights of holder
c. In this case A will receive the payment
d.In this case A will become agent of the drawer
38. On an endorsement on a ‘payee’s account cheque’ OR cheque endorsed after

restricted endorsement, the endorsee cannot be holder in due course.
a. True b.False
39. Holder is defined u/s …… of NI Act:

a. 10 b.9 c18 d.8
40.A customer tenders to the bank an outstation cheque of Rs. 10000 for collection
and also requests for instant credit of the cheque, to which bank agrees. What would
bank be called :
a. Agent of the customer
b. Holder for value
c. Holder
d. Holder in due course
41.In case of a gift cheque, the payee cannot be holder in due course.
a. True b .False
42.Endorsee of a forged cheque is deemed to be holder in due course, if he has

obtained the instrument for value, lawful consideration in good faith.
a. True b.False
43.A has received an order cheque which bears a forged endorsement in his favour.
The cheque was originally issued in favour of Mr. X who endorsed in favour of Y but
Y misplaced it and Z who found this cheque endorsed it in favour of A by forging X’s
signature. The holder of cheque will be:
a. A b.Y c. Z d.None
44. Promissory note has been defined as per section …… of NI Act:

a. 3 b. 4 c.5 d.6 e.11
51
45. Cheque has been defined as per section …… of NI Act:
a. 3 b.4 c.5 d.6 e.11
46. Who is liable on a usance bill of exchange:

a. Drawer only
b. Acceptor only
c. Drawer and acceptor both
d. After acceptance primary liability of acceptor and secondary liability of drawer
47.Under Section 31 of RBI Act, who can issue the bill of exchange or promissory
note payable to bearer (a) RBI (b) Central Govt. (c) Commercial Banks (d) any
person in India :
a. a to d all
b. a to c all
c. c and d only
d. a and b only
48. The definition of banking has been given in --------

a.Banking Regulation Act b.RBI Act
c.NI Act d.Contract Act
49.If a bill is lost, the holder can get its duplicate as per section 45 A of NI Act.
a. True b. False
50. Currency notes are promissory notes as these have features similar to
promissory notes.
a. True b. False
51. Noting or protesting is compulsory in case of:

a. Foreign Bill
b. Inland Bill
c. Accommodation Bill
d. Usance bill of exchange
52.A bill is presented to drawee. What is the period during which he is to give his
acceptance (Under section 63 of NI Act )?
a. 3 days including holidays
b. 3 days excluding holidays
c. 48 hours including holidays
d. 48 hours excluding holidays
e. 48 hours excluding Sunday
53.On dishonor of a bill of exchange, if the payee forgets to send a notice of

dishonor u/s 93 of NI Act to the drawee :
a. The parties entitled to such notice, stand discharged
b. The drawer stand discharged
c. The discounting bank has been discharged
d. All parties remain liable
52
54.Where due date of a usance of bill of exchange is to be calculated, the day on
which it is drawn/accepted, shall be included.
a. True b. False
55.Where the time period is not mentioned in a promissory note, it is :

a. Invalid instrument
b. Inchoate instrument
c. No payment can be demanded
d. Payable on demand
56.X draws a bill of exchange on Y in consideration of sale of goods. He does not

mention the date of payment of the bill. What would be the date of payment of the
bill?
a. It will be treated as usance bill and due date would be worked out after
acceptance of the bill
b. It will be treated as a demand bill and payment would be claimed as per
mutual consent of both the party
c. It will be treated as a demand bill and paid accordingly
d. It will be treated as an ambiguous instrument and as such invalid
e. It is not a valid document. Hence X has to withdraw the instrument
57.A formal notorial certificate based on noting, to attest that the bill has been
dishonored is called:
a. Noting of the bill
b. Protesting of the bill
c. Notice of dishonor
d. Court direction
e. Any of the above
58.The 3 days of grace for payment of usance bills or promissory notes are allowed
as per Section ….. of NI Act :
a. 22 b.23 c.24 d.25 e. 26
59.A bill of exchange is dated 31.08.2016 and is payable 3 months after date. It is
presented on Sept 02, 2016 and accepted by the drawee on Sept 03, 2016. What
will be its due date?
a. Dec 03, 2016
b. Dec 04, 2016
c. Dec 05, 2016
d. Dec 02, 2016
60.A bill of exchange has been received by your branch for collection from London
branch of a foreign bank. The bill is dishonoured on presentation for payment :
a. Protesting would be required under the provisions of UCPDC
b. Protesting would be required under the provisions of FEMA
c. Protesting would be essential under the provisions of Section 99 of NI Act
d. Protesting of the bill will be under the provisions of Section 100 of NI Act
e. Protesting would not be required as the bill is under collection only.
53
61.X and Y deal with each other by sale and purchase of goods. X draws a bill of
exchange on Y which Y accepts for payment, but no sale purchase has taken place
for this bill. In this case the bill is :
a. Clean bill of exchange
b. Documentary bill of exchange
c. Foreign bill
d. Genuine bill
e. Accommodation bill
62.The authority to declare holiday u/s 25 of NI Act is originally with the State Govt.
a. True b. False
63.Banks issue demand draft payable to order only instead of making it payable to
bearer or order in terms of which of the following :
a. Banking Regulation Act Section 49 A
b. Reserve Bank of India Act Section 31
c. Negotiable Instrument Act Section 85
d. Bills of Exchange Rules 1881
64.A bill of exchange is defined u/s ….. of NI Act :

a. 10 b.131 c.5 d.4 e.13
65.Where interest rate is not mentioned on a promissory note it shall be 18% p.a. as
per Section 82 of NI Act:
a. True b. False
66.Your branch receives a cheque of Rs. 500 written in figures and Rs. Five lac in
words. Under Section 18 of the NI Act, the bank:
a. Is required to return the cheque, as the mandate is not clear
b. Is required to pay the amount written in words
c. Is required to pay the amount in figures
d. Is required to pay the lower of the amount written in words and figures
67.Alterations are not allowed on cheques under CTS-2010. The effective date of
implementation is :
a. April 01, 2011
b. Dec 01, 2010
c. Oct 01, 2010
d. April 01, 2010
68.As per Sec 17 of Stamp Act, all the instruments or document chargeable with
duty if they are executed in India must be stamped before or at the time of execution.
a. True .b. False
69.A complaint under COPRA Act can be made by:

a) Any consumer; or
b) Any voluntary consumer association; or
c) The Central Government or any State Government; or
54
d) Any one or more consumers where there are numerous consumers having the
same interest, i.e., they should have a common cause of action.
e) All of the above
70.Under which section of NI Act Minor may draw, endorse and accept a negotiable
instrument so as to bind all parts except himself
a) 24 b)25 c)26 d) 35
71.Under which section of Partanership Act 1932, partners are Jointly and severally
liable for all acts done while he is a partner
a) 21 b) 25 c) 26 d) 85
72. Section 42 of partnership act defines

a) Minor can be admitted to the benefits of a partnership.
b) Implied authority of a partner can be curtailed or enlarged by all partners.
c) Death, insolvency etc of a partner dissolves the partnership.
73. Maximum penalty for giving false compliance certification in the rectification of
irregularities in RFIA is Marks:
a. 20 b.30 c.40 d.50
74.Customer Service Committee at the Branch will consist of following

a. Branch Manager
b. 2 Officials (50% of the strength)
c. 3 Award Staff member (50% of the strength) and one subordinate staff, 2
customers (one of whom will be senior citizen)
d. a+b
e. All of the above
75.Under Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002 banks have to report suspicious
transactions to:
a. RBI b.CBI c. FIU-IND New Delhi d.LHO
76. Which section of BR Act prohibits a bank from buying, selling or dealing in goods
except in connection with the realization of a security :
a.8 b.4 c.7 d.9
77.With whom has SBI entered into an agreement for setting up a Payment Bank
Joint Venture?
a. Reliance Industries Ltd.
b. Tata Finance
c. Birla Cements Ltd
d. Sundaram Finance Ltd.
78.Which Bank has launched ‘SME Bank’ that will provide complete digital banking
services?
a. ICICI Bank Ltd
55
b. HDFC Bank
c. Kotak Mhindra Bank
d.Axis Bank
79.If a person is missing for more than 1 year, balance in the account may be
disposed off without insisting of death certificate upto amount:
a. Rs 50000 b.Rs 100000 c. Rs 25000
80.RBI is not controlling:
a. MCLR b.LAF c.CRR d. d.MSF
81. For financial inclusion following is set up by RBI:
a.Facility Management Centre

b.Financial Literacy Centre
c. Financial Management Centre
82. Interest is Tax free in case of:

a. PPF b.SB c.TDR
83. Payment of cheque can be stop by:
a. Drawer b. Drawee c.Payee
84. Mutual Fund is regulated by whom:
a. SEBI b.AMFI c.RBI d.IRDA
85. Which of the following activities cannot be undertaken by a Banker?

a. Securitization of future lease rentals b.Derivatives
c. Prepaid payment instruments d. None of the above
86. The transactions relating to payment of pensions are routed through:

a) Branch Clearing General Account b) Government General Accounts
c.)IBTS d.) None
87. The rates of dearness relief on pensions are revised:

a) Yearly in April b) Half yearly in Jan/July c) Quarterly d) Yearly in January
88. The validity period of a challan/bill passed by a Treasury Officer is:

89. A branch can be kept open for government business on a public holiday on the
requisition made by the
a) District Collector b) Judicial Magistrate c) Treasury Officer d) None of these
56
90. A Life Certificate is required to be furnished by the pensioners/family pensioners
in the prescribed form:
a) Once in a year in the month of November
b) Twice in a year in the month of June and December
91. The transactions relating to PPF accounts are reported to

a) Branch Clearing General account
b) Focal Point/Receiving Branch Govt General Account
c) GAD Mumbai direct
92. The deposit mobilized by the Bank under Capital Gains Accounts Scheme are
credited to
a) Government accounts b) Term Deposits c. SB account d. either b or c
93 What is the rate at which the Govt commission is paid to the Bank for Govt
Receipts in physical mode?
a) Rs.25 per transaction b) Rs.45 per transaction
b) c) Rs.30 per transaction d) Rs.50 per transaction
94. What is the rate at which the Govt commission is paid to the Bank for Govt
Receipts in digital mode :
a) Rs.25 per transaction b) Rs.12 per transaction
c) Rs.30 per transaction d) Rs.50 per transaction
95. Premature closure of PPF account needs permission of:

a) Controlling authority b) RBI c) CBDT d) GOI
96. Government Pension for the month of March is payable on:

a) 31st March b) 1st April c) 1st working day of April
97.In case of excess payment of pension the maximum recovery which can be
effected from future pension every month is:
a) 1/4th of pension b) 1/3rd of pension
c) 1/2nd of pension d) whole amount to be recovered
98. Govt commission receivable for the last quarter is debited to account for arriving
at correct Profit/Loss of the branch :
a) Suspense Account b) Sundries Account c) Adjusting Account
99. The PPF scheme can be extended after 15 years:

a) 2 five- years’ terms b) 3 five years terms
c) in five years block with no limit on number of extensions
100. In case of no nomination in PPF account the outstanding amount will be paid to
legal heirs of the deceased without Succession Certificate up to
a) Rs.10000 b) Rs.50000 c) Rs.1 lacs d) Rs. 5 lacs
101. Loan against PPF can be given between ------and-------- financial years
a. 2 & 3 b. 1 &3 c. 4 & 8 d. 3 & 6
57
102. Maximum amount of withdrawal from PPF account is linked to % of the balance
at the credit at the end of 4th year immediately preceding the year in which the
amount is withdrawn or at the end of the preceding year whichever is lower.
a) 40 % b) 25% c) 50% d) 75%
103. Which are the following activities cannot be outsourced:

a. Internal audit
b. Compliance function
c. Compliance with Know Your Customer (‘KYC’) norms
d. Sanction of loans
e. All of the above
104. Which section of NI Act deals with payment in due course?

a.10 b.11 c.12 d.13
105. The passing of challan by Treasury Officer/Head of Department is known as:

a) Enfacement b) Endorsement
106. ITRO is valid for months.

a) 3 months b) 6 months c) 9 months d) 12 months
107. Income tax refunds up to Rs. ------------ are now credited through ECS.
a) Rs.20000 b) Rs.25000 c) Rs.50000 d) Rs.100000
108. SBI is conducting Government business under section ------------of RBI Act &
--------of SBI Act.
a) 45 & 32 b) 40 & 32 c) 45 & 30
109 In case of original Government Challan 'Duplicate' can be issued :

a) True b) False
110. Minimum deposit in the PPF account is Rs ------ per annum and multiple
of Rs ----------.
a) 500 & 5 b) 500 & 100 c) 100 & 5
111. PPF Account can be attached by Court for debt / liability of depositor.
a) True b) False
112. In case PPF deposit is made by means of a local cheque or demand draft by
the subscriber, following is correct
a) The date of realization of the amount will be the date of deposit.
b) The date of cheque/draft will be the date of deposit.
c) The date of credit to the account will be the date of deposit.
113. In SCSS, more than one account can be maintained subject to the condition
that deposits in all accounts taken together shall not exceed the maximum limit of
Rs.15 lakh
a) True b) False
58
114. TCRN stands for:
a) Temporary Customer Reference Number
b) Temporary Customer Reference Note
c) Technical Consumer Reference Number
d) Technical Customer Reference Number
115. CORE in CBS stands for:

a) Centralized Online Real-time Environment
b) Central Online Real-time Environment
c) Centralized Official Real-time Environment
d) Central Official Real-time Environment
116. Computer Security Day observed on:

a) 1st August b) 30th November c) 30th August d) 1st November
117. CIN in OLTAS stands for:

a) Challan Index Number b) Challan Identification Number
118. 3. Name the Encryption Mechanism implemented for online banking www.onlinesbi
a. 32 Bit SSL b. 64 Bit SSL c. 128 Bit SSL d. 256 Bit SSL
119. Small files that are deposited on a user’s hard drive when they visit a Web
site are called
a)Codes b) cookies c) profiles d) Trackers
120. The Process of attempting to acquire sensitive information is called:

a) Phishing b) Spoofing c) Sparm
121. Sabbatical Leave can be availed by

a) Management Trainees
b) Part Time Employess
c) Contractual employees
122. Asset & Liability of all employees of the Bank have to declare under which
section of Lokapal Act 2013
a) 41 b) 42 c)43 d)44
123. Banking industry has been declared “Public Utility Service” under act:
a) Company Act b) Banking regulation Act
c). Industrial Dispute Act d ) RBI Act
124.Punchline of “Project Saksham” is :

a) Meri Unnati Mere Hath b) Meri Pragati Mere Hath
c). Mere Hath Meri Unnati d) Mere Hath Meri Pragati
125. Maker-Checker concept in CBS beyond the amount Rs:

126 Security features in SBIs , CTS-2010 cheque are:
59
a) Bank’s logo & name (water mark)
b) Fugitive ink
c) Secondary florescent ink
d) All of the above
127 Fraud cases below Rs 3.00 Crore are to be referred to:

a) Local Police/State Police b) CBI
c)ACB d) LHO
128 Per transaction limit for CDM is Rs:

a) 40000 b) 49900 c)50000 d)100000
129 Under CSR our Banks has taken new steps beneficial to environment:
a) Green Champion b) Blue Champion
c)Ozone Champion d) a & c
130 As per Money Laundering (Amendment) Act, 2012,Amendment to section

13 (2), it is imperative to note that employees who fail to comply with the
obligations under this chapter, will be personally liable to fines :
a) Ten thousand rupees to one lakh rupees for each failure.
b) Five thousand to fifty thousand rupees for each failure.
c) No penalty.
131. The counterfeit Bank notes can be impounded by

a) All PSBs b ) All Treasuries & Sub treasuries
c)All Cooperative Banks d) All of the above
132. Claims upto Rs 20 lacs under COPRA 1986 are settled at:
a) District Forum b) State Commission c) National Commission
133.Claims above Rs 20 lacs to 1 Crore under COPRA 1986 settled at

a)District Forum b) State Commission c) National Commission
134. Banking ombudsman is appointed under BR Act:

a) True b) False
135. Noble Branch for Gold Deposit Account is

a) Bullion Branch , Mumbai b) Overseas Branch New Delhi
c)Main Branch, Mumbai d) Overseas Branch, Mumbai
136 To ensure regular payment of locker rent, banks obtain at the time of
allotment of locker, fixed deposit which cover rent of ---- years
a) 2 yesr b) 3 year c ) 5 year d) 1 year
137. Number of cheque leave free per year in SB Account for senior citizen is:
60
a) 20 b) 30 c) 40 d)50
138. Petty Cash is checked by :

a) Accountant b) Cash Officer c) FO d) BM
139 Applicant of DD/IOI can stop its payment after delivery to beneficiary, before
payment.
a) True b) False
140 Hand Balance of Cash Officer should be verified by the Accountant/BM.

a) Once in a week b) Once in a month
b) At any time d) Quarterly
141 RTI fee Rs 10/- collected from the customers in cash, is to be credited to
a) Commission A/C b) Exchange A/C
b) Interest A/C d)P&T charges recovered A/C
142 Under RTI, CPIO, in respect of Admin Office will be:

a) CM (GB) b) Senior AGM/RM
c)DGM (B&O) d) None
143. FIR to be lodged at every instance, if counterfeit notes impounded are—or

more.
a) 3 b) 7 c) 5 d)10
144 Under how many grades revised Risk rating is divided under RFIA
a) 3 b)4 c)5 d)6
145 Relationship in case of Standing Instruction, between Banker-Customer is:

a) Agent - Principal b) Lisencer- Licencee
c)Creditor- Debtor d)None
146. Probate issued under which Act:

a) Indian Contract Act b) Company Act
c)NI Act c) Indian Succession ACT
147 Bancassurance is:

a)Insurance sold to Bank Employees
b)Assurance of Insurance Company
c)Selling insurance products through the Bank
d) Insurance Sector Mutual Fund
148 Once fraud established, debit raised in Customers account to be restored:

a) After Staff Accountability
b) After Police investigation
c) After FIR
d) Immediately
149 The Disaster Recovery Centre of Bank is located at Chennai :
61
a) True b) False
150 For Change in Nomination which form used:

a) DA1 b) DA2 c)DA3 d)DA4
151 We cannot allot locker to :

a) NRI b) Visual impaired c) Minor d) illiterate
152 What is Inchoate instrument :

a) Incomplete instrument b) Ineligible instrument
c)Post dated instrument d) Partially destroyed instrument
153 The objective of the "State Bank of India Compensation Policy is to

establish a system whereby the Bank compensates the customer for the loss or
inconvenience due to deficiency in service on the part of the Bank or any act of
omission or commission, directly attributable to the Bank.
a) True b) False
154 As per Banks compensation policy, where neither the Bank is at fault nor
the customer, but the fault lies elsewhere in the system, the Bank will help in
restoring the actual amount involved and, as a gesture of goodwill & to deal with
the customers fairly, will also compensate the customer with Rs.100/- per
Rs.5000/- (maximum Rs.1000/-) for each instance.
a) True b) False
155 As per Banks compensation policy, where the Bank had issued an ATM /
Debit card without written consent of the customer, which has been disputed by
the customer without using the card, the said ATM/Debit card will be taken back
by the Bank and cancelled. The Bank would reverse the charges, if levied
a) True b) False
156 The compensation on account of delay in collection of instruments in foreign

currency would be paid in Foreign Currency:
a) True b) False
157 As part of the compensation policy of the bank, the bank will pay interest to
its customers on the amount of collection instruments in case there is delay in
giving credit beyond the time period specified in Bank’s Cheque collection policy,
in case of Metro/Major A cities for SBI Branches----days & days-----in case of
Branches of other Banks.
a) 5,7 b) 7,10 c) 6,9 d) 6,7
158 The bank will pay interest to its customers on the amount of collection
instruments in case there is delay in giving credit beyond the time period
specified in Bank’s Cheque collection policy for collection of instruments forState
Capitals (other than North Eastern States & Sikkim) and Area I Cities for SBI
Branches -----days, & for Branches of other Banks-------days.
a) 5,7 b) 8,10 c) 7,10 d) 10, 15
159 As per Banks compensation policy, for collection of instruments at other
62
centres Bank will pay interest if it is delayed beyond ---------days for SBI
Branches and ---------days for branches of other Banks.
a) 8,10 b)10,14 c) 10,15 d) 15,30
160 As per Banks compensation policy, where the delay is beyond 14 days,
interest will be paid at the rate applicable for term deposit for the corresponding
period or Saving Bank rate, whichever is higher.
a) True b) False
161 As per Banks compensation policy, in case of extraordinary delay, i.e.

delays exceeding 90 days, interest will be paid at the rate of 2% above the
corresponding Term Deposit rate.
a) True b) False
162 As per Banks compensation policy, minimum interest shall be payable in for
compensation is Rs:
a) 10 b)20 c)25 d) 5
163 As per Banks compensation policy, Bank would also compensate the
customer for any reasonable charges which he/she incurs in getting duplicate
cheque/instrument upon production of receipt, in the event the instrument is to
be obtained from a Bank/institution who would charge a fee for issue of duplicate
instrument, subject to a maximum of Rs. 250/-.
a) True b) False
164 As per RBI’s instructions/guidelines stipulate that the time limit for resolution
of customer’s ATM complaints by the issuing banks is ------ working days from
the date of receipt of customer complaint.
a) 2 b)3 c)5 d)7
165 As per RBI instructions/guideline in case of ATM complaints, failure to re-

credit the customer’s account within 7 working days of receipt of the complaint
shall entail payment of compensation to the customer @ Rs. ---------/- per day by
the issuing bank, provided the claim is lodged with the issuing bank within 30
days of the date of transactions and branch has failed to establish the proof of
payment/disbursement by ATM.
a) 50 b)100 c) 150 d)200
166 In case of dispute in regard to delayed credit to the customer’s account from
Cash Deposit Machine (CDM), the Bank will pay the interest at the applicable
rate of the customer’s deposit/overdraft/loan account for the delayed period.
a) True b) False
167 Duplicate IOI will be issued within ---------- working days from the receipt of
such request from the purchaser thereof. In the event of any delay beyond
above days, a compensation of Rs----------- will be paid.
a) 2, 10 b) 3,100 c)5,100 d) 7, 200
168 The Bank would pay the compensation for delay in return of
63
securities/documents/title deeds of the mortgaged property beyond 15 days of
repayment of all dues agreed to or contracted, subject to above conditions, @
Rs.100/- per day (maximum Rs.5000/-) to the borrower”.
a) True b) False
169 As per Banks policy for dealing with incidents of frequent dishonour. in the
event of 3rd dishonour of cheque during a financial year, a cautionary notice will
be sent to the customer intimating him that no fresh cheque book will be issued
after dishounor of cheque on 4th occasion and the Bank will have the right to
close the account after serving a notice of 30 days to the customer.
a) True b) False
170 “SMS UNHAPPY”, to be send to which number :

a) 9008005040 b) 8008202020
c) 8008202000 d) 8000820202
171 Full form of CAPIO :

a) Central Associate Public Information Officer
b) Central Assistant Public Information Officer
c) Central Associate Public Informative Officer
d) Centrals Assistant Public Informative Officer
172 Under RTI,if an applicant is not supplied information within the prescribed
time of thirty days or 48 hours, as the case may be, or is not satisfied with the
information furnished to him, he may prefer an appeal to the First Appellate
Authority who is an officer senior in rank to the Central Public Information
Officer.
a) True b) False
173 As per CRISIL rating Agency, Banks rating as on 31.03.16 is:

a) AAA/Stable b) BAA3/P3/Positive c) BBB/Stable
174 As per FITCH rating Agency, Banks rating as on 31.03.16 is:

a) AAA/Stable b) BAA3/P3/Positive c) BBB-/F3/Stable
175 The definition of Customer is defined under:

a) Banking Regulation Act 1949 b) NI Act
c)KYC Guidelines d) Consumer Protect Act
176What percentage of ATMs should be installed as talking ATMs with Braille

keypads?
a.33 b.66 c.45 d.25
177 Which is the following are mandatory for banks in relation to ATM?
a. The message regarding non-availability of cash in ATMs should be displayed
before the transaction is initiated by the customer.
b. The ATM ID may be displayed clearly in the ATM premises to enable a
customer to quote the same while making a complaint/suggestion.
c. To make available the forms for lodging ATM complains within the ATM
64
premises
d. Display the name and phone number of the official with whom the complaint
can be lodged complaints.
e. All of these
178 In which year, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted the Committee on
Procedures and Performance Audit of Public Services under the Chairmanship
of Shri S.S. Tarapore (former Deputy Governor) to address the issues relating to
availability of adequate banking services to the common person.
a.2003 b.2004 c.2005 d.2006
179. Who can be a member of BCSBI?

a. Scheduled Commercial Bank b.RRB
c.Co-operative Bank d.All of the above
180. How many codes have been evlolved by BCSBI?

a.2 b.3 c.1 d.4
181. PML Act was passed in the year -------------

a.2002 b.2003 c.2004 d.2005
182. Prevention of Money-Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules were

framed in the year
a.2002 b.2003 c.2004 d.2005
183. Where the customer is a partnership firm, the beneficial owner is the
natural person(s), who, whether acting alone or together, or through one or more
juridical person, has/have ownership of/entitlement to more than ------ per cent of
capital or profits of the partnership.
a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d.30
184. Which if the following is not a ‘Officially Valid Document’

a. Passport
b. the driving licence
c. the Permanent Account Number (PAN) Card
d. Letter issued by post office.
185. Where ‘simplified measures’ are applied for verifying, for the limited
purpose of, proof of address the following additional documents are deemed to
be OVDs :
a. Pension or family Pension Payment Orders (PPOs) issued to retired
employees by Government Departments or Public Sector Undertakings, if they
contain the address;
b. Letter of allotment of accommodation from employer issued by State or
Central Government departments, statutory or regulatory bodies, public sector
undertakings, scheduled commercial banks, financial institutions and listed
companies. Similarly, leave and license agreements with such employers
allotting official accommodation; and
c. Documents issued by Government departments of foreign jurisdictions or
letter issued by Foreign Embassy or Mission in India.
65
d. All of the above
186. Suspicious Transaction means

a. gives rise to a reasonable ground of suspicion that it may involve proceeds of
an offence specified in the Schedule to the Act, regardless of the value involved;
or
b. appears to be made in circumstances of unusual or unjustified complexity; or
c. appears to not have economic rationale or bona-fide purpose; or
d. gives rise to a reasonable ground of suspicion that it may involve financing of
the activities relating to terrorism.
e.All of the above
187. A ‘Small Account' means a savings account in which:

a. the aggregate of all credits in a financial year does not exceed rupees one
lakh;
b. the aggregate of all withdrawals and transfers in a month does not exceed
rupees ten thousand; and
c. the balance at any point of time does not exceed rupees one lakh.
d. a and b above
188. “Politically Exposed Persons” (PEPs) are

a. individuals who are or have been entrusted with prominent public functions in
a foreign country,
b. Heads of States/Governments, senior politicians, senior
government/judicial/military officers,
c.senior executives of state-owned corporations, important political party
officials,
d.All of the above
189. Shell Bank means :

a. a bank which is incorporated in a country where it has no physical
presence
b. Is unaffiliated to any regulated financial group.
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
190. Which of the following is not a key element of KYC policy?

(a) Customer Acceptance Policy;
(b) Risk Management;
(c) Customer Identification Procedures (CIP); and (d) Sanction of loans
191. Customer Identification Procedure is required when the bank is carrying out
transactions for a non-account based customer, that is a walk-in customer,
where the amount involved is equal to or exceeds rupees -----------, whether
conducted as a single transaction or several transactions that appear to be
connected.
a. 25000
b. 50000
c. 100000
d. 200000
66
192. In case it is observed that the address mentioned as per ‘proof of address
has undergone a change, Banks shall ensure that fresh proof of address is
obtained within a period of ------- months.
a. 6 b.9 c.3 d.12
b.
193. For which of the following Savings Bank account can be opened?
a. government departments
b. municipal corporations
c. any political party
d. professional concern
194. Banks should display the list of unclaimed deposits/inoperative accounts

which are inactive/ inoperative for -------- years or more on their respective
websites.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 8
d. 7
195. A current account cannot be opened by:

a . Minors. However, accounts of minors to be operated by the natural guardian
may be opened.
b. Purdanashin Women
c. Illiterate persons.
d..All of the above
196. A minor attains majority at the age of 21 when
(a) he is of foreign domicile

(b) a guardian of his property or person has been appointed by Court
(c) His property is under the superintendence of a Court of Wards.
(d)All of the above
197. Garnishee orders are issued by the

a. Court
b. IT authorities
c. Sales Tax Department
d. Any Govt Department
198. Attachment orders are issued by

a. Court
b. IT authorities
c. Sales Tax Department
d. Any Govt Department
199. If a locker is operated jointly, can there be more than one nominee?
a. Yes b. No
67
200. Which of the following is not true about periodic updation of KYC
a. Low Risk-10 years
b. Medium Risk- 5 years
c. High Risk -2 years
68
KEY - GENERAL BANKING
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A D B D B B D C A C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B B B C D C A C D B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D B E E A A C B D A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A B C D C C B A D B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A B B B D D D A A B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A D A B D C B A A D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
E B B C A B B A E C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B C D E C A A B B A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B A A A D B B B A A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C D D B D C B C C C
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
D C E A A A B B B A
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
B A A A A B B D B A
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
D D C A B D A B D A
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
D A B A D B D D B A
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
D C C B A C C D A C
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
C A A A A B D B B A
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A C A D B A C A A B
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
B A A C C A E A D A
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
A D A D D E D D C D
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
B A E B D D A B A B
69
SYSTEMS & PROCEDURES
1. The size of the new 2000 RUPEE note is …………….?
a) 66mm x 150mm b) 66mm x 166mm

c) 72mm x 160mm d) 72mm x 150 mm
2. The size of the new 500 RUPEE note is …………….?
a) 66mm x 150mm b) 66mm x 166mm

c) 72mm x 160mm d) 72mm x 150 mm
3. How many bleed lines are there on new 500 rupee note?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9
4. How many bleed lines are there on new 2000 rupee note?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9
5. Specified Bank Notes (Cessation of Liabilities) Ordinance 2016 In terms of Section

5 of the Ordinance, from December 31, 2016 no person shall knowingly or voluntarily
hold, transfer or receive any specified banknotes. After the expiry of grace period,
holding of not more than ………. notes in total, irrespective of denomination.
a) 5 b) 10 c) 25 d) 50
6. Specified Bank Notes (Cessation of Liabilities) Ordinance 2016 In terms of Section

5 of the Ordinance, from December 31, 2016 no person shall knowingly or voluntarily
hold, transfer or receive any specified banknotes. After the expiry of grace period,
holding of not more than ……. notes for the purpose of study/ research/ numismatics
is permitted.
a) 5 b) 10 c) 25 d) 50
7. Counterfeit Currency Notes detected and impounded at the branch are required to
be reported on real-time basis directly to corporate centre and its effective monitoring
the application can be accessed at which URL?
a) https://ccr.sbi.co.in b) https://ccr.statebanktimes.in
c) https:// sbi.co.in/ccr d) https://statebanktimes.in/ccr
8. Manual preparation and submission of the counterfeit currency reporting has been
discontinued wef which date?
a) 01.04.2017 b) 01.01.2017 c) 01.10.2016 d) 08.11.2016
9. The currency chests should invariably report all transactions through ICCOMS on
the same day by …… PM by uploading data through the Secured Website to their
respective link offices.?
70
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10
11. Penal interest shall be levied at the rate of ………. % over the prevailing Bank
Rate for the period of delayed reporting/wrong reporting/non-reporting /inclusion
of ineligible amounts in chest balances.
a) 0.50 b) 1.00 c) 1.5 d) 2.00

11. In the event of non-payment of rental for a locker, the locker can be broke
open effectively after----------- from the due date.
a) 12 months b) 18 months
c) 9 months d) 3 months
12. Relationship between Customer & Banker in case of Safe Deposit Article
a) Bailer- Bailee b) Debtor- Creditor
c) Licensor- Licensee d) None of the above
13. In case of Joint A/c (E or S), locker can be surrendered and the account
closed
a) By both of them jointly b) By either of them
c) By First Hirer singly d) Either a or b
14. Nomination facility is available in case of Safe Deposit Lockers under which
act ?
a) Sec 45Z of BR Act b) Sec 45ZA of BR Act
c) Sec 45ZC of BR Act d) Sec 45 ZE of BR Act
15. Locker rent for New/existing hirers is to be paid every year in advance on
a) 31 st March b) 1 st April
c) 2 nd April d) Date of Allotment of Locker
16. Periodicity for balancing Safe custody/Security is
a) Monthly b) Quarterly
c) Half yearly d) Yearly
17. Lockers cannot be allotted to
a) Resident Individuals b) Non Resident Indians
c) Blind Persons d) Minors
18. While closing an account
a) Customer’s ID is to be b) Ensure that no lien is marked on
established beyond doubt deposits
c) Ensure that there is no d) All of these
direct/indirect liability to the Bank
19. Security forms should be stocked to meet
a) 6 months requirements b) 12 months requirements
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c) 9 months requirements d) 18 months requirements
20. All state Government transactions are reported to
a) FSLO at LHO b) GAD, Belapur
c) GAS, Nagpur d) None of the above.
21. Security forms should be in the custody of
a) Accountant b) Branch Manager
c) Joint custodians d) None of these
22. Various audit reports and Branch Manager’s Monthly Certificate register
should be in the custody of
a) Record Keeper b) Accountant
c) Branch Manager d) Any officer
23. EXIM Bills is the software used in
a) LCPC b) LPC
c) RACPC/RASMECC d) CCIL
24. Disaster Recovery Site for ATM Switch is at
a) Mumbai b) Chennai
c) Kolkata d) Bangalore
25. The stages of Pre Sanction Credit Process are
a) Appraisal and Sanction b) Assessment, Appraisal and
Sanction
c) Appraisal and recommendation, d) Appraisal and Assessment
Assessment and Sanction
26. CGTMSE stands for
a) Credit Guarantee Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises
b) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises
c) Credit Guarantee Trust for Manufacturing & service Enterprises
d) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Manufacturing & service Enterprises
27. RTGS business hours as per the revised RBI guidelines are
a) 8 AM TO 2 PM b) 8 AM TO 8 PM
c) 10 AM TO 4 PM d) 8 AM TO 4 PM
28. Foreign Department (FD), Kolkatta has been renamed as
a) Global Link Services b) Global Marketing Unit
c) None of these d) No change
29. OPERATION SANKALP is the name of campaign announced by Bank for
a) Promotion of RINB b) Promotion of GCC & GRC
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c) NPA reduction d) None of the above
30. i-Probe is mandatory for all loan applications of
a) Rs.50 lacs & above b) Rs.75 lacs & above
c) Rs.10 lacs & above d) Rs.1 cr & above
31. Maximum capability that can be given to Employee in CBS is
a) 7 b) 9 c) 10 d) 12
32. Maximum amount of subscription to be made in a PPF account in a financial
year is
a) Rs.1 lac b) Rs.1.50 c) Rs.1.75 lacs d) Rs.0.50 lac
33. The ceiling on MCCSs as per CTS 2010 Standard cheques at Home branch is
a) Rs.5 lacs b) No Ceiling c) Rs.15 lacs d) Rs.20 lacs
34. Succession certificate does not cover
a) Gold loan ornaments b) Safe deposit lockers
c) Articles in safe custody d) All of the above
35. The Manager, CAC is having reporting relationship with
a) AGM, FSLO b) DGM (B&O)
c) Regional Manager of the d) None of the above
Region in which the CAC
is Located
36. Which of the following roles is not stipulated by BPR manual for CAC?
a) Mobile messengers b) Dy Manager (transportation)
c) Deputy Manager(Maintenance) d) Mobile Cashiers
37. Issuance of a cheque without balance is punishable under
a) Cr.CPC b) IPC c) Banking Regulation Act d) NI Act
38. Small coin depot transaction reported to
a) SGLO b) FSLO c) CAG d) ITS
39. A depositor of PPF account can nominate ____persons
a) One b) Two c) Three d) No limit
40. When interest is applied to PPF accounts?
a) 31st December b) 31st March c) 30th June d) 30th September
41. CDR mechanism covers only multiple banking/consortium/syndication
accounts with outstanding exposure of Rs. __ Cr. And above.
a) 10 b) 15 c) 25 d) 20
42. CRA is applicable to trade advances of ______
a) Above Rs.15 lacs b) Above Rs.10 lacs
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c) Above Rs.5 lacs d) Above Rs.25 lacs
43. What are the KYC conditions we have to fulfill to open Small accounts?
a) Photograph and Address proof b) Two Photo proof and self certification
c) Photo proof and address proof d) Photograph and self certification for the
address
44. In Centralized Pension Processing Centers concept the commission between
Dealing/Home branch and Focal Point branch/ CPPC is distributed ------
a) 75%-25% b) 100%by CPPC
c) 100% by Dealing/ Home branch d) 80%-20%
45. A authorizes B for operating his locker. B approaches the bank for surrender
thereof. How would you react?
a) B can surrender the locker b) B cannot surrender the locker
c) If contents are nil he can surrender d) None of the above
46. The packets or boxes accepted for keeping in safe custody must bear which
one of the following seals------------:
a) Seal of the Bank b) Seal of the depositor
c) Both the above d) None of the above
47. When a person dies without leaving behind a will, a person appointed by court
to manage his estate is called
a) An executor b) An attorney
c) An administrator d) A trustee
48. In the event of Original and duplicate IOI are presented for payment through
clearing, by two different banks on the same day, the Bank----------
a) Will pay the duplicate b) Will pay the original
c) Will return both d) Both will have to be paid
49. Maximum amount for which an IOI can be issued is
a) Rs. 99,99,999 b) Rs. 99,99,99,999
c) Rs. 99,00,00,000 d) none of these
50. If the collection is realized beyond 45 days it is treated as---------
a) Normal Delay b) Abnormal delay
c) Delay is delay, it hardly whether d) No such classification matters
normal or abnormal
51 If the memorandum of securities is lost by the customer duplicate
memorandum is issued,
a) After obtaining indemnity
b) Duplicate is not issued is issued against a simple letter.
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c) Duplicate is issued against a simple letter
d) None of these
52. What is the name the Project rolled out by NPCI In respect of CTS-2010?
a) Payee Name Project b) Project CTS-2010
c) Project Vijay d) Project MCC
53. Nomination facility is available in case of Deposit accounts, under which act?
a) Sec 45Z of BR Act b) Sec 45ZA of BR Act
c) Sec 45ZC of BR Act d) Sec 45 ZE of BR Act
54. All branches should ensure that all cases of counterfeit currency note to be
reported by way of counterfeit currency report to principal office (KYC/AML)
through?
a) DGM& CFO and money b) GM & CFO
laundering officer
c) CGM & CFO d) AGM & CFO
55. Forgery of valuable security / cash transaction where forged or counterfeit
currency note have been used, the report should be furnished to FIU-IND?
a) Every month by 5th day of b) Every month by 15th day of
succeeding month succeeding month
c) Every month by 10th day of d) None of the above
succeeding month
56. Maximum number of deposits that can be made in a PPF account in a
financial year is
a) 24 b) 18 c) 21 d) 12
57. What is the name the campaign for Deposit Mobilization through BC channel?
a) Lakshya 1000 b) Lakshya 7000
c) Lakshya 3000 d) Lakshya 2000
58. When scrip is withdrawn for renewal, it will be entered in which register?
a) Miscellaneous register b) Branch Document Register
c) Securities Exchange Custody d) Securities Register
register
59 Nomination of safe custody and safe deposit articles is available under what
Section?
a) Sec 45ZC of BR Act b) Sec 45ZC of SBI Act
c) Sec 45ZAof BR Act d) Sec 45ZF of SBI Act
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60. Two currency Note press owned by RBI are at?
a) Devas and Nashik b) Devas and Salboni
c) Devas and Salboni d) Mysore and Salboni
61. Difference between Day’s deposit and withdrawal in the chest is known as?
a) Chest Transfer b) Currency Transfer
c) Amount Transfer d) Balance Transfer
62. In case if counterfeit notes found in remittance from currency chest to RBI,
how much amount is debited from banks current account?
a) Entire amount + ( Bank Rate+2%) b) Entire amount + (Base Rate+ 2%)
c) Entire amount + (Base Rate ) d) Entire amount + (Bank Rate+ 1%)
63. What is the Fidelity insurance for SWO?
a) 1 Lac b) 2 Lac c) 5 Lac d) 10 Lac
64. What is the size of the aluminium box of SWO?
a) 14x11x4 b) 11x10x4 c) 14x11x14 d) None of the above
65. IOI can be paid by ______ irrespective of the location of the drawee branch
a) Drawee branch only b) Clearing branch
c) Issuing branch only d) Any branch
66. Under Deceased account what is the aggregate balance upto which surety is
not required?
a) 0.50 Lac b) 2.50 Lac c) 10 Lac d) 5 Lac
67. Under Pahla Kadam and Pehli Udaan what is the threshold limit for Auto
Sweep?
a) 5000/- b) 15000/- c) 20000/- d) 10000/-
68 Under Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan the transaction limit for Internet Banking
per day is--?
a) 2000/- b) 3000/- c) 1000/- d) 5000/-
69. Under Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan the transaction limit for Mobile Banking
per day is --?
a) 1000/- b) 2000/- c) 3000/- d) 4000/-
70. Duplicate draft is to be issued within a maximum period of
71. Which one of the following is NOT a BPR initiative ?
a) Grahak Mitra b) Drop Box c) Project Ambience d) Cross Selling
72. How many compartments does the Drop Box have, to accept the
instruments/Cheques through it for processing ?
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a) One b) Two c) Three d) None of these
73. Which one of the following Business Unit is not a part of National Banking
Group (NBG) at Corporate Centre ?
a) SME Business Unit b) Government Business Unit
c) Financial Institutions Business d) Agri Business Unit
Unit
74. What is the Annual Turnover Range defined for any unit to be classified under
Mid Corporate Group ?
a) Rs. 25 Cr to Rs.100 Cr b) Rs. 10 Cr to Rs.500 Cr
c) Rs. 500 Cr to Rs.1000 Cr d) Rs. 50 Cr to Rs.500 Cr
75. Which one of the following is the major role of Green Banking Cell that has
been set up in the Bank ?
a) Setting up of Green Channel to all b) Providing Internet Banking Facility
Counters in the Branch
c) Providing Green Remit Cards d) Undertaking various initiatives like
Energy efficient lighting, tree
plantation, water & waste
management etc, to the Customers.
76. CENMAC (Central Office Management Committee) consists of
a) CGM, CDO, MDs b) Chairman, MDs, DMDs
c) MDs, DMDs, Circle CGMs d) None of these
77. The Bank's Registered Office is at
a) Mumbai b) Kolkatta c) New Delhi d) Chennai
78. The reduction of liquidity and interest rate risk and optimization of returns is
managed by which committee ?
a) Asset Liability Management b) Inspection and Audit Committee
Management System
c) Bank Risk Management d) Corporate Risk Mitigation
Department Committee
79. BPR is introduced as per the recommendations of which consultancy

organization
a) Rangarajan Committee b) Narasimham Committee
c) Mckinsey & Co d) Tata Consultancy Services
80. The functionality of Loan Origination Software (LOS) refers to
77
a) Designing a Loan Product b) Registration, Processing and
Generation of Loan using the
software Documents and tracking
the status of Loan applications
c) NPA Tracking d) None of these d) None of these
81 As per the revised Bank's organizational structure, The Regional Manager of

a Region will directly report to
a) DGM (O & C) b) DGM (B & O)
c) GM (Net Work) d) CGM of the Circle
82. Which of the following is not a profitability Ratio for the Bank ?
a) Gross Rate of Return b) Net Profit Per Employee
c) Rs. Expenses Ratio d) Net Interest Margin
83. At what rate commission on state government pensions to be calculated
a) at 5.5 paisa per Rs.100/-. b) Rs.100 per each pension payment
c) Rs.50 per each pension payment d) at 6.5 paisa per Rs.100/-.
84. Which is the software used at Currency Administration Cells ?
a) Finance One b) B@ncs 24
c) Bancslink d) Kubera
85. The Role of CRO is linked to which Cell under BPR initiative ?
a) Currency Administration Cell b) Liability CPC
c) Multi Product Sales Team d) RACPC
86. Trade Finance Central Processing Center deals with
a) Letters of Credit b) Bank Guarantees
c) LC & BG d) LC, BG and Bills both rupees and
foreign currencies
87. As per the RBI clean note policy, writing on a currency note is
a) A crime b) An offence
c) A punishable Offence d) None of these
88. All CBS enabled banks are to issue only MCC cheques as per which act?
a) BR Act b) RBI Act
c) NI Act d) Payment & Settlement System Act
89. What is the role of Document Archival Centre (DAC) under BPR ?
a) Decongest the Branches by b) Execution of Bank's Loan
removing records maintenance
c) Printing of Bank's Loan d) None of these
Documents
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90. Who is a Manager (BO) in a BPR Branch?
a) Accountant b) Branch Manager
c) CRO d) RMPB
91. Number of Inward Remittance Cell in the country are
a) Only two b) 14 at all LHOs
c) 3 at Delhi, Chennai, Calcutta d) Only one
92. Limitation period of a TDR is 3 years from the date of

a) Demand b) Maturity
c) No Limitation period d) None of the Above
93. Limitation period of a mortgage is _____years from the date the mortgage
money falls due.
a) 15 b) 12 c) 13 d) 11
94. Scheduled banks have to be registered with

a) SEBI b) RBI c) Finance Ministry d) Govt.of India
95. Who is responsible for the genuiness and purity of the gold ornaments ?
a) Cash Officer b) Branch Manager
c) Joint Custodians d) Accountant
96. Bank cannot file a suit after the expiry of
a) The due date of installment b) The limitation period
c) None of these d) Both A&B
97. All the accounts where mortgage has been created has to keyed in the
system within___ days failing which Rs.5000 has to be paid an additional fee.
a) 45 b) 30 c) 31 d) 90
98. License for Gun at the branch is obtained in the name of
a) Regional Manager b) Armed Guard
c) Bank d) Branch Manager
99. LIC Policy given as Security for Overdrafts are entered in

a) Miscellaneous Security Register b) Branch Documents Register
c) Risk Register d) Safe custody register
100. DRP and BCP is prepared in the first week of __________every year for
Approval by C.A.
a) February b) January c) May d) April
101. Currency held by non-chest branches of SBI is the property of ?
a) Govt of India b) SBI
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c) RBI d) None of these
102. Strong Room fitness certificate has to be renewed once in ?
a) Once in two months b) A quarter
c) Once in a year d) Six months
103. Balances in Currency Transactions account are transferred to FSLO on last
working day of ?
a) April & October b) April & September
c) February & August d) January & July
104. Excess cash found in the cash balance of a SWO has to be credited to ?
a) Suspense account b) Charges account
c) Sundry Deposit account d) Commission account
105. The deposit and withdrawal of Cash Box in/from Vault under IBCH will be
entered in ?
a) Cash Receipt / Delivery Register b) Cash officer’s jotting book
c) Cash box receipt Delivery d) None of these
Register
106. Cash held in the cash box overnight, will be treated as ?
a) Sundry balance b) Petty cash balance
c) Branch Cash balance d) None of these
107. Specific gravity of pure gold is ?
a) 18.1 b) 20.1
c) 19.3 d) 18.3
108. Cash officer is responsible for ______ while sanctioning gold loan ?
a) Purity b) Weight
c) Value d) All the above
109. Gold ornaments of deceased borrower pending their settlement will have to
be kept in ?
a) Joint custody b) Safe Deposit Articles
c) In a separate locker d) None of these
110. Vault Register will always be kept in ?
a) Accountant’s Hand Safe b) Strong Room
c) With Cash Officer d) None of these
111. Minimum Transaction that can be made to currency chest ?
a) Rs 1 lakh & multiples of Rs 5 lak b) Rs 1 lakh & in multiples of Rs
only 50,000 there of
c) Rs 50,000 & multiples of Rs 50,000 d) None of these
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112. Currency Chest is the property of ?
a) Government of India b) SBI
c) Reserve Bank of India d) None of the above
113. Small Coin Depot consists of ?
a) All coins b) Coins upto Rs. 1/-
c) Coins below Re. 1/- d) Coins upto Rs. 5/-
114. Small Coin Depot (SCD) is the property of ?
a) SBI b) RBI
c) Govt. of India d) None of these
115. Rs 1/- notes are issued by ?
a) Govt of India b) RBI
c) SBI d) None of these
116. Min. withdrawal / deposits in SCD ?
a) Rs 100/- & multiples of Rs 50/- b) Rs 50/- & multiples of Rs 50/-
c) Rs 1000/- & multiples of 100/- d) Rs 500/- & multiples of Rs 50
117. Small coin depot transactions are to be reported to ?
a) Zonal Office b) RBI
c) FSLO d) None of these
118. Clean Note Policy (CNP) is governed by ?
a) Sec 35 of Indian Currency Act b) Sec 35 A of B.R Act
c) Sec 35 A of RBI Act d) None of these
119. Relationship between RBI & SBI in case of currency chests is
a) Principal & Agent b) Bailor & Bailee
c) Agent & Principal d) None of these
120. Person preparing the note packet is responsible for both quality & quantity
upto ?
a) Rs 100/- b) Rs 50/-
c) Rs 1000/- d) Rs 500/-
121. IBCH overnight cash retention limit is ?

a) Rs 2 lakh b) Rs 0.50 lakh
c) Rs 1 lakh d) Rs 5 lakh
122. In Branch Cash Handling (IBCH) is applicable to ?
a) Metro branches b) Non currency chest branches
c) All branches d) Currency chest branches
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123. For Rs 500/- & Rs 1000/- person preparing the note packet is responsible for?
a) Quantity only b) Quality only
c) Both quality & quantity d) None of these
124. Balances in Currency Chest have to be verified by an official other than the
joint custodians once in ?
a) Once in two months b) Half year
c) Once in three months d) Once in a year
125. The difference between day’s total withdrawals and day’s total deposits in the
Chest is ?
a) Treasury Transfer b) Cash Transfer
c) Currency Transfer d) None of these
126. The certificate of chest balance as on ____ is submitted to RBI by the Chest
branch?
a) 31st March b) 31st May
c) 31st July d) 31st Dec
127. In a soiled note remittance to RBI if more than ___% of notes is found to be
issuable notes, then entire remittance will be returned by RBI at sending
bank’s cost ?
a) 10 b) 5
c) 20 d) None of these
128. Name the of the Register to record exchange of Cash between SWOs in Cash
Dept.?
a) Cash Transfer Register b) Cash Receipts Delivery Register
c) Cash Officer’s Jotting Book d) Cash Transaction Register
129. What type of insurance cover is obtained for Cash Remittances?
a) Comprehensive insurance cover b) Fidelity Insurance cover
c) Transit Insurance cover d) None of these
130. As per the latest instructions of the RBI, FIR has to be lodged in case of Fake
Currency notes, if the no. of notes is ?
a) 4 b) 5 or more c) 3 d) 2
131. Days net Withdrawal/ Deposit to reported to FSLO through ?
a) ICCOMS b) IFAMS c) Fax d) email
132. Verification of Currency Chest balances by officials other than Joint custodian
is done at___________ intervals ?
a) Once in a month b) Once in 2 months
c) No periodicity stipulated d) Once in a quarter
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133. Surprise verification of Critical Currency Chests is made by LHO at ?
a) Monthly Interval b) Quarterly Interval
c) Half Yearly Interval d) No periodicity stipulated
134. Which of the following is true when remittance is sent from one currency chest
to another currency chest ?
a) Branch Cash Balance is credited and RBI’s Account is debited
b) Branch Cash Balance is debited and RBI’s Account is credited
c) No Entry is passed
d) None of these
135. Charges towards police escorts, transport etc. for chest to chest remittances
of treasure is ?
a) Borne by Bank b) Paid by RBI
c) Paid initially by Bank, then d) None of these
reimbursed by RBI
136. Repository is part of ?
a) Branch Cash Balance b) Currency Chest
c) Small Coin Depot d) None of these
137. Printing & Circulation of forged Indian currency notes is an offence u/s ?
a) Sec 292 of Criminal Procedure b) Sec 489A to 489E of Indian Penal
Code Code
c) Both d) None
138. Forged Note Vigilance Cell (FNVC) of the bank is required to submit data on
counterfeit notes detected during a month on all India basis by email to
____before the end of succeeding month.
a) RBI Issue Office b) FIU-IND, New Delhi
c) National Crime Records Bureau,New Delhi
d) Currency Management Dept. of RBI, Mumbai
139. Fidelity insurance cover for single window operator is obtained for ?
a) Rs 0.50 Lakh b) Rs 1 Lakh
c) Rs 5 lakh d) Rs 10 Lakh
140. Recounting of note packets is not required for denominations upto ?
a) Rs 50/- b) Rs 100/-
c) Rs 500/- d) All note packets to be recounted
141. Who will be responsible for tampered bundles / note packets kept in the vault?
a) Cash-in-Charge alone b) Joint Custodian of Vault
c) Accountant alone d) Branch Head alone
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142. In respect of soiled notes bundles prepared for remittance to RBI, who is/are
responsible for Quality & Quantity of notes in the bundle ?
a) Person preparing the bundle b) Cash-in-charge
c) Accountant d) Joint Custodian
143. Interest will be credited to the SB accounts at half year intervals on:
a) 30th June and 31st december b) 31st January and 31st july
c) 25th June and 25th december d) 31st March and 30th September
144. Ceiling for petty cash expense is?
a) Rs.100/- b) Rs.25/- c) Rs.50/- d) Rs.500/-
145. Petty Cash should be checked by ____________ at _____________ interval
a) BM, Monthly Irregular b) Accountant, Regular
c) RM, Monthly d) BM, Fortnightly
146. Interest will be calculated on a _____ product basis and credited to the SB
accounts at half yearly intervals
a) Daily b) weekly
c) 10th to last working day minimum balance d) monthly
147. Safe deposit receipt relating to deposit of duplicate keys is entered in BD
register and the safe deposit receipt is held by _________________ ?
a) Accountant outside the strong b) Accountant inside the strong room
room
c) BM outside the strong room d) BM inside the strong room
148. One Re coin is issued under _______ act
a) Coinage Act, 1906 b) RBI c) SBI d) BR Act
149. Currency Notes are printed at ?

a) Nasik, Dewas, Mysore & Salboni b) Nasik, Pune, Indore & Kanpur
c) Nasik, Pune, Dehradun &Mysore d) Nasik, Hissar, Salboni & Pune
150. Cash retention limit of the branch will be reviewed by _________ every year
in the month of__________ ?
a) RM or CM (Admin), May b) CM (Admin), May
c) Regional Manager, Nov d) RM or CM (Admin), Nov
151. RBI has extended the date of exchange pre-2005 bank notes to ?
a) 30 June, 2016 b) 01 January, 2015
c) 30 June, 2015 d) None of the above
152 The Controller of the branches will arrange for periodical cash verification of
Hand Balance Branches ____ ?
84
a) at half yearly interval by the Branch Managers of nearby branches
b) By the Branch Manager of the Branch
c) No need for verification
153 The coverage of cash-in transit insurance will be limited to _____?
a) The cash retention limit of the branch.
b) Upto 50,00,000/-
c) Upto 49,00,000/-
154. What is the minimum amount that can be withdrawn from SB a/c using
withdrawal form
a) Rs.25/- b) Rs.10/- c) No such stipulation d) Rs.50/-
155 While sending Soiled Note Remittance to RBI, remittance should sent in
multiples of ________?
a) Rs.100000/- b) Rs.50000/ c) Rs.500/- d) Rs.1000/
156 The counterfeit bank notes cannot be impounded by-------------
a) All PSBs b) All Treasuries and Sub-treasuries
c) All NBFCs d) All Co-operative banks & RRBs
157 Cash shortage up to which is made good by the employee same day and if
there is no suspicion of fraud, it need not be reported as fraud.
a) Rs.1,000/- b) Rs.5,000/-
c) Rs.10,000/- d) None of these
158 In order to keep FCN(Foreign Currency Notes) at optimum level, branches are
advised to handover the FCNs to …........
a) Overseas Branch at monthly intervals
b) M/s Thomas Cook India Limited(TCIL) at regular interval
c) Reserve Bank of India
d) Need not to hand over FCNs, to be retained at branch
159 Full form of FATF which is pertaining to KYC AML standards
a) Financial Administration Task Force b) Financial Action Task Force
c) Foreign Administration Task Force d) Financial Action Technical Force
160 KYC AML standards are implemented as per ___ guidelines
a) RBI b) Government of India
c) Basel d) FEMA
161 Every year, Bank celebrates KYC Compliance and Fraud Prevention Day on
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a) 1st August b) 1st November
c) 1st December d) 31st July
162 Money Laundering is defined under ___ Act
a) RBI Act b) BR Act
c) Sec.2 of PML Act d) Section 3 of PML Act
163 All records pertaining to prescribed transactions need to be preserved for a
period of
a) 5 years b) 7 years
c) 9 years d) 10 years
164 All records pertaining to prescribed transactions need to be preserved for ___
years after cessation of relationship with the clients in respect of account
opening and KYC forms
165 Full KYC exercise will be required to be done at least every __ years for high
risk individuals and entities
a) 1 year b) 2 years
166 Full KYC exercise will be required to be done at least every __ years for
medium risk individuals and entities
167 Full KYC exercise will be required to be done at least every ___ years for low
risk individuals and entities
168 Positive confirmation will be required to be completed at least every __ years
for medium risk individuals and entities.
a) 1 year b) 2 years
169 Positive confirmation will be required to be completed at least every __ years
for low risk individuals and entities.
170 In case of transfer of account, the following are the guidelines of RBI.
a) Fresh proof of address to be submitted to the transferee branch
within 15 days
b) Fresh proof of address to be submitted to the transferee branch within 30
days
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c) Fresh proof of address to be submitted to the transferee branch
within 6 months
d) Self-declaration from the account holder about his/her current address
171 The following is not officially valid document proof for KYC
a) PAN Card b) Voter Identity Card
c) NREGA card d) Telephone bill
172 In respect of walk-in customers where the amount of transaction is ____,
customer’s
identity and address should be verified.
a) Rs.20000 and above b) Rs.25000 and above
c) Rs.50000 and above d) Rs.1 lakh and above
173 Choose the odd one from criteria for a Small Account
a) Aggregate of all credits does not exceed Rs.50000
b) Aggregate of all withdrawals and transfers in a month does not exceed
Rs.10000
c) Balance at any point does not exceed Rs.50000
d) None of these
174 The following is false statement in respect of accounts opened for SHGs
a) KYC of all the members need to be done
b) KYC of all the office bearers is to be done
c) No separate verification for credit linkage
d) All the statements are true
175 Individual account holder with credit/debit summations of ___ is classified as a

high risk
a) Rs.1 crore b) Rs.2 crore
c) Rs.5 crore d) Rs.10 crores
176 Non individual account holder with credit/debit summations of ___ is classified
as high risk
a) Rs.1 crore b) Rs.2 crore
c) Rs.5 crore d) Rs.10 crore
177 Individual account holder with credit/debit summations of ___ is classified as
medium risk
a) Rs.50 lakhs to below Rs.2 crores b) Rs.1 crore to Rs.5 crores
c) Rs.1 crore to Rs.10 crores d) Rs.2 crores to Rs.10 crores
87
178 Non-individual acct holders with Cr/Dr summations of __ is classified as
medium risk
a) Rs.50 lakhs to below Rs.2 crores b) Rs.1 crore to Rs.5 crores
c) Rs.1 crore to Rs.10 crores d) Rs.2 crores to Rs.10 crores
179 Individual account holder with credit/debit summation below ___ is classified
as low risk
a) Rs.50 lakhs b) Rs.1 crore
c) Rs.2 crore d) Rs.5 crore
180 Non-Individual account holders with credit/debit summation below ___ is
classified as low risk
a) Rs.50 lakhs b) Rs.1 crore
c) Rs.2 crores d) Rs.5 crores
181 AMLOCK software for tracking suspicious transactions is acquired from ___
a) M/s 3i-infotech LTD b) M/s TCS Ltd
c) M/s Infosys LTD d) M/s Softech Infotech Ltd
182 The following is the threshold amount in respect of low risk customers for
filtering transactions for generation of alerts
a) Rs.10 lakhs b) Rs.30 lakhs
c) Rs.50 lakhs d) Rs.1 crore
183 In respect of receipts in foreign currency to the accounts of non-profit
organizations, a report needs to be sent to FIU-IND for value of transactions
more than ___
a) Rs.10 lakhs b) Rs.25 lakhs
c) Rs.50 lakhs d) Rs.1 crore
184. IBTS is
a) Inter branch transfer system b) Inter branch transaction system
C Inter branch transfer scheme D Inter branch transaction scheme
185. IBTS is meant for
a) Inter branch transfers other than SC/DDPs
b) Inter Branch transfers including SC/DDP
c) Inter Branch transfers other than staff purpose.
186 How many new BGL accounts have been created for IBTS purpose?
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 8
187 The purpose of IBTS is
a) To ensure better control on inter Branch transactions.
88
b) To replace Branch Clearing General Account (BCGA) as IBTS is self
reconciliation facility.
c) Due to RBI compulsions.
d) To enable faster realization of SCs/DDPs
188 In IBTS, the transaction originated by the originating Branch

a) Can be monitored till the same is responded by other Branch.
b) The other Branch should be responding instantly.
c) The originating branch can’t view the status after originating transaction.
d) The controllers will be able to see the status for follow up.
189 The transaction originated by the originated Branch

a) Should be accepted by the responding Branch.
b) Can be accepted or declined by the responding Branch.
c)Can be reversed by it at any point of time.
d) Can’t be reversed by the originating Branch
190 The transaction originated by the originating Branch in IBTS
a) Can be reversed by the originating Branch at any point of time without the
involvement of the responding Branch.
b) Can be reversed by the originating Branch on the same day without
involvement of the responding Branch.
c) Can’t be reversed by the declining Branch without getting declined by the
responding Branch.
d) None of the above.
191 Once the transaction in IBTS is declined by the responding Branch
a) The originating Branch has no option but to reverse it.
b) The originating Branch can either reverse or re-originate the same.
c) The originating Branch can only re-originate the entry after reversal.
d) Both (a) & (c)
192 Re-origination of entry in IBTS by the originating Branch involves
a) Accounting entries.
b) No accounting entries.
c) Automatic accounting entries at originating Branch by the system.
d) Automatic accounting entries both at originating Branch and at receiving
Branch by the system.
193 While re-origination of the entry by the originating Branch, which of the
following can be changed/modified.
89
a) Destination Branch code, amountCand narration
b) Destination Branch BGL No, amount and narration.
c)Destination Branch code, amount and destination BGL account.
d) Destination Branch code, BGL account and narration.
194 For responding a IBTS entry, the responding Branch
a) Need not depend on any documents.
b) It can respond after receiving system generated forward letter and
documents.
c) It can respond on the strength of Branch Clearing General Account.
d) None of the above.
195 Under COPRA Act District forum deals with claims up to______
(a) Rs.20 lacs (b) Rs.25 lacs (c) Rs.5 lacs (d) Rs.50 lacs
196 The Bank has the right to sell the gold ornaments pledged, after giving
reasonable notice to the borrower vide section ___ of the Indian Contract Act.
(a) 138 (b) 25 (c) 167 (d) 176
197 The apex appellate authority under the provisions of the COPRA is.....
(a) Supreme Court (b) High Court
(c) National Forum (d) None of these.
198 what is the maximum limit on the amount of compensation as specified in an
award by the Banking Ombudsman
(a) 10 lac (b) 15 lac
(c) 20 lac (d) 30 lac
199 Who can seek information from the Bank
(a) Individual (b) Organisation
(c) Association (d) All of these
200 Under the provisions of the RTI act, the appellate authority for branches in the
circle is......
(a) GM of the Network (b) CGM
(c) DGM of Module (d) None of these
90
KEY - SYSTEMS & PROCEDURES
1 B 26 B 51 C 76 B 101 B 126 B 151 B 176 D
2 A 27 B 52 A 77 B 102 C 127 B 152 A 177 A
3 B 28 B 53 B 78 A 103 A 128 B 153 A 178 D
4 C 29 C 54 A 79 C 104 C 129 C 154 D 179 A
5 B 30 C 55 B 80 B 105 C 130 B 155 B 180 C
6 C 31 B 56 D 81 B 106 C 131 B 156 C 181 A
7 B 32 B 57 B 82 C 107 C 132 B 157 A 182 C
8 C 33 B 58 C 83 A 108 D 133 B 158 B 183 A
9 C 34 D 59 A 84 D 109 B 134 C 159 B 184 B
10 D 35 B 60 D 85 B 110 B 135 C 160 A 185 A
11 A 36 C 61 B 86 D 111 B 136 B 161 A 186 A
12 A 37 D 62 A 87 C 112 C 137 B 162 D 187 B
13 A 38 B 63 C 88 D 113 C 138 D 163 A 188 A
14 D 39 D 64 A 89 A 114 C 139 C 164 C 189 B
15 C 40 B 65 D 90 A 115 A 140 B 165 B 190 B
16 C 41 C 66 D 91 D 116 A 141 B 166 C 191 B
17 D 42 D 67 C 92 A 117 C 142 A 167 D 192 B
18 D 43 D 68 D 93 B 118 B 143 C 168 B 193 D
19 A 44 A 69 B 94 B 119 A 144 C 169 C 194 B
20 A 45 B 70 A 95 A 120 A 145 A 170 D 195 A
21 C 46 B 71 D 96 B 121 C 146 A 171 D 196 D
22 C 47 C 72 C 97 B 122 C 147 C 172 C 197 A
23 D 48 A 73 C 98 D 123 B 148 A 173 A 198 A
24 B 49 B 74 D 99 A 124 A 149 A 174 A 199 D
25 C 50 B 75 D 100 B 125 C 150 A 175 B 200 A
91
HOME LOAN AND ITS VARIANTS
1. Minimum Loan Amount: under SBI Maxgain is
a) 10 lacs b) 15 lacs c) 20 lacs d) None of these
2. Maximum Loan Amount under SBI Maxgain is
a) 100 lacs b) No Cap c) 200 lacs d) None of these
3. Whether we need to take into consideration the existing Home Plus loans for
determining eligibility of Home Top-Up Loan?
a) Yes b) No
4. Individual(s) over 18 years of age with steady source of income,
includingpersons engaged in agriculture & allied activities
a) 20 years b) 21 Years c) 18 years d) None of these
5. In case the property holder is not having independent source of income, the
income earning near relative may join as co-borrower/ guarantor for the loan
and his or her income can be taken forarriving at loan eligibility.
a) True b) False
6. Maximum age limit for a Home Loan borrower is fixed at ______ years, i.e.
the age by which the loan should be fully repaid, subject to availability of
sufficient, regular and continuous source of income for servicing the loan
repayment.
a) 70 years b) 60 years c) 75 years d) 65 years
7. Ordinarily maximum ______number of co-borrowers, including
spouse/children/parents/siblings , is permitted in Home Loan
a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2
8. AGM (Region)/AGM (Branch) can relax maximum number of co-borrowers for
Home Loan provided the repayment is made through an account with Bank in
the joint names of all the borrowers
a) True b) False
9. EMI/NMI Ratio for Net Annual Income > 10 lacs is
a) 50 % b) 60 % c) 70 % d) 75 %
10. EMI/NMI Ratio for Net Annual Income >Rs. 3 lacs &<= Rs. 5 lacs is
a) 55 % b) 65 % c) 70 % d) 75 %
11. EMI/NMI Ratio for Net Annual Income > Rs. 8 lacs &<= Rs. 10 lacs is
a) 50 % b) 65 % c) 70 % d) 75 %
12. In cases where the customer opts to avail loan for funding premium of SBI
Life policy Margin on Premium is_______ %
a) Zero b) Ten c) Five d) Fifteen
92
13. Loan to Value (LTV) ratio Home Loan Amount Upto Rs. 30 lacs is
a) 80 % b) 70% c) 75% d) 90%
14. Loan to Value (LTV) ratio Home Loan Amount Above Rs. 30 lacs and upto
Rs. 75 lacs is
a) 80 % b) 70% c) 75% d) 90%
15. Loan to Value (LTV) ratio Home Loan Amount Above Rs. 75 lacs is
a) 80 % b) 70% c) 75% d) 90%
16. Dicretionary power for approving concession in LTV NIL
a) True b) False
17. The maximum loan amount for repairs / renovations should not normally
exceed Rs_______.
a) 2 lacs b) 5 lacs c) 10 lacs d)15 lacs
18. Home loan may be sanctioned for reimbursement of investment made by the
borrower in housing during the preceding 24 months
a) True b) False
19. Reimbursement of investment made by the Home Loan borrower will be
restricted to the investments made by the borrower from own resources or
through borrowings from friends, relatives and employers
a) True b) False
20. Small expenditure like furnishing, wood work will be considered for
reimbursement. Reimbursement will also not be permitted for investment
made in acquiring vacant plots
a) True b) False
21. One criteria to get Special interest rate available to women borrowers under
Her Ghar Scheme is The woman should be the sole owner or one of the co-
owners of the property proposed to be financed by the Bank
a) True b) False
22. Interest rates of our Home Loans and other RE products namely (i) SBI Home
Top-up Loan (ii) SBI Reverse Mortgage Loan (iii) Loan against Property (LAP)
are linked to 2 year MCLR.
a) True b) False
23. Fixed rate option is available on new Home Loans sanctioned on or after 1st
May 2011.
a) True b) False
24. The discretionary powers made available to Chief General Manager (Circle)
for approving concession in interest rate for Home Loans > Rs 75 lacs is
_____
93
a) 10 bps b) 2 bps c) 15 bps d) nil
25. Minimum Loan Amount under SBI Flexipay Home Loan is

a) 10 Lacs b) 15 Lacs c) 20 Lacs d) None of the above.
26. For Home Loans above Rs.25000/- , if the irregularity exceeds EMI or
Installment amount, for a period of one month, then penal interest should be
recovered @ _____% p.a. (over and above the applicable interest rate) on the
overdue amount for the period of default.
a) 0.50 b) 1.5 c) 2.00 d) 1.75
27. If part installment or part EMI remains overdue, then also penal interest
should be levied.
a) True b) False
28. Interest certificates are despatched centrally to all Home Loan borrowers at
addresses recorded in CBS
a) True b) False
29. In terms of RBI instructions, Risk Weight on Home Loans Above Rs. 75 lacs is
_____%
a) 75 b) 70 c) 80 d) 65
30. In terms of RBI instructions, Standard Asset provisioning on Home Loans
Above Rs. 75 lacs is _____%
a) 0.15 b) 0.50 c) 0.40 d) 0.25
31. In terms of RBI instructions, Standard Asset provisioning on CRE Home
Loans Above Rs. 75 lacs is _____%
a) 0.65 b) 1.00 c) 0.90 d) 0.75
32. In terms of RBI instructions, Risk Weight on CRE Home Loans Above Rs. 75
lacs is _____%
a) 75 b) 100 c) 80 d) 65
33. The registration charges (on actual basis) payable to CERSAI will be
recovered from Home Loan borrowers at the time of documentation
a) True b) False
34. The registration charges (on actual basis) payable to CERSAI for Home Loan
upto Rs 5 lacs is Rs_________plus applicable Service Tax
a) 75 b) 100 c) 80 d) 50
35. The registration charges (on actual basis) payable to CERSAI for Home Loan
aboe Rs 5 lacs is Rs_________plus applicable Service Tax
a) 75 b) 100 c) 80 d) 50
94
36. A separate BGL account number (followed by five digit Branch Code and a
check digit) has since been rolled out in CBS for crediting CERSAI charges
recovered from the Home Loan borrowers.
a) 3199841 b) 3199842 c) 3199843 d) 3199840
37. No pre-payment and or pre-closure penalty is levied on Home Loans
irrespective of the period for which the account has run or the
source of funds.
a) True b) False
38. The sanction of a home loan will be valid for ______ months from the date of
sanction.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 6 d) 12
39. Discretionary Powers to approve deviation for any default/write-off appearing
in CIBIL in respect of non-Credit Card dues above Rs 10000/- and upto Rs
50000/- is AGM (Branch)/ (CPC)/(RBO) or concerned Credit Committee
a) True b) False
40. NRIs eligible for Home Loans under the Scheme may include NRIs, with total
work experience of ______ years in India or abroad, who have taken up
jobs/professions/other economic activity abroad for better prospects
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
41. SBI Privilege Loan is applicable to

a) State Govt Employees b) Central Govt. Employees
c) PSU of Central Govt. d) All of the above
42. Minimum Loan Amount for NRI Home Loan is Rs_______lacs
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
43. Maximum loan amount under SBI Realty is Rs______Cr
a) 5 b) 7.5 c) 4 d) 15
44. Maximum period for construction of house inder SBI Reality is __months from
the date of availment of the loan.
a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 60
45. What is the maximum loan amount sanctioned under SBI Home Loan
Scheme
a) Permissible EMI/NMI ratio b) Max permissible LTV ratio
c) Applied Loan Amount d) Lower of a, b, c
46. Annual maintenance charges or folio charges on overdraft accounts opened
under ‘MAXGAIN’ facility is Nil
a) True b) False
95
47. Nature of Facility under Home Top-up Loans upto Rs. 20 lacs is
a) Only Term Loan
b) Only Overdraft Facility
c) Term Loan and Overdraft with reducing drawing power
d) None of These
48. At any point of time not more than _____ loans will be allowed to exist under
the Home Top-up Loan scheme.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
49. Under Home Top-up Loan Scheme, Second loan may be considered only after
a gap of ___ year from the date of disbursement of first loan
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
50. Under Home Top-up Loan Scheme the maximum permissible tenor of the loan
will be the residual tenure of underlying Home Loan or ____ years, whichever
is higher, subject to liquidation of the loan before the borrower attains the age
of 70 years.
a) 10 b) 20 c) 5 d) 15
51. Under Home Top-up Loan Scheme, Loan upto Rs_____ lacs ,Extension of the
mortgage on the residential property already mortgaged with the Bank will not
be mandatory. However, loan period in such case should be co-terminus with
Home Loan
a) 10 b) 20 c) 5 d) 15
52. Under Home Top-up Loan Scheme, Loan above Rs 20 lacs & upto Rs. 2
crores , can be given as Overdraft facility & TL.
a) True b) False
53. Interest concession of ____ bps to women borrowers under Her Ghar
Scheme.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 10
54. TIR in respect of POA Sales/Gift Deed will invariably be obtained from ______
empanelled advocates, irrespective of loan amount.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
55. Home Loans to Staff and loans with limits less than Rs. _______ lacs will not
be eligible for assessing performance under Griha Tara campaign.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
56. After creation of mortgage, creation of charge needs to be registered on the

Central Registry portal within ______days of the creation of charge.
96
57. Minimum age of the borrower in Reverse Mortgage Loan is ____ Yeas and
above.
a) 50 b) 55 c) 60 d) 70
58. Extension of mortgage for loan under SBI Home Top -up loan is not
mandatory up to the loan amount of Rs. _________ lacs
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 10
59. SBI Home Equity Name renamed as ____
a) SBI Home Plus b) SBI Home Top up Loan
c) SBI Home Equity Plus d) No Change
60. Applicants having net annual income of less than Rs. ___ lacs would not be
eligible for loan under the revised Home Top-Up loan scheme.
a) 1.00 b) 2.00 c) 3.00 d) 5.00
61. No deviation will be permitted in cases where the default/write-off/settled

amount exceeds Rs. ______ appearing in CIBIL in respect of non-credit card
dues:
a) 20000 b) 50000 c) 75000 d) 100000
62. In case of House loan Take over above 75 lacs Max Permissible LTV is ___%.
a) 60 b) 75 c) 80 d) 90
63. Pre-approved Loan Arrangement Letter(PLAL) will be valid for a period of

____ months
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
64. All salaried applicants with minimum ----- year experience are eligible for SBI
Flexi Loan.
a) 2 b) 1 c) 1 d) 4
65. For SBI Flexi Loan, the maximum age of the applicant should be ------years.
a) 40 b) 45 c) 48 d) 50
66. Minimum Net Monthly salary of the applicant should be ---------lacs for SBI
Flexi Loan
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) No minimum stipulation
97
67. Minimum loan amount under SBI Flexi Loan is Rs.-------lac
a) 10 b15 c) 20 d) 25
68. Under SBI Flexi Loan, ------- times the loan quantum calculated as per the
normal EMI/NMI Ratio method, subject to stipulated LTV norms.
a) 1.2 b1.3 c) 1.4 d) 1.5
69. Under SBI Flexi Loan, minimum and maximum loan tenor are
a) 25 years/30 years b)20 years/30 years

c) 15 years/30 years d) None of the above
70. To be eligible for top up loan under category 1, minimum home loan limit
should be ------lacs.
a) 20 b)25 c) 30 d) 50
71. Category 1 borrowers enjoying home loan limit up to Rs.75 lac are eligible for
top up loan up to
a. 10% of the home loan limit

b. 15% of the home loan limit
c. 20% of the home loan limit
72. Minimum and maximum amount of top up loan are
a. Rs.2 lac/Rs.5 crore

b. Rs.3 lac/Rs.5 crore
c. Rs.2 lac/Rs.3 crore
73. For top up loans above Rs.2 crore and up to Rs.5 crore which type of facilities
can be sanctioned.
a. Term Loan
b. Overdraft
c. Both Term Loan and Overdraft
d. Dropline OD
74. Which of the following conditions should be satisfied for the borrower to be
eligible under Insta Top up Loan.
a. Minimum Home Loan Limit of Rs. 20 lacs with INB facility,

b. Minimum residual tenure of Home Loan of 5 years,
c. Satisfactory track record of 3 years or more,
d. The customer should not have any live Home Top-up Loan,
e. All of the above
98
75. For insta top up loan CIBIL score should be
a. 600 or higher
b. 650 or higher
c. 700 or higher
d. 750 or higher
76. Maximum loan amount under insta top up loan is Rs.-----lac
a) 1 b)2 c) 3 d) 5
77. The type of facility under Insta top up loan is

a. Term Loan
b. Overdraft
c. Both Term Loan and Overdraft
78. For residual tenor of the existing housing loan of more than 120 months, insta
top up loan is to be repaid in -----months.
a) 60 b)72 c) 120 d) None of the above
79. Margin on SBI Rin Raksha is ____
a) 5% b) 10% c) 20% d) Nil
80. Maximum loan amount under Tribal Plus Home Loans Scheme is Rs. ____
lacs
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20
99
HOME LOAN AND ITS VARIANTS - KEY
1 C 11 B 21 A 31 B 41 D 51 C 61 B 71 A
2 B 12 A 22 B 32 B 42 B 52 A 62 B 72 A
3 A 13 D 23 B 33 A 43 D 53 C 63 D 73 A
4 C 14 A 24 C 34 D 44 D 54 B 64 A 74 E
5 A 15 C 25 C 35 B 45 D 55 A 65 B 75 C
6 A 16 A 26 C 36 A 46 A 56 B 66 D 76 D
7 C 17 C 27 B 37 A 47 A 57 C 67 C 77 B
8 A 18 B 28 A 38 B 48 B 58 C 68 A 78 C
9 C 19 A 29 A 39 B 49 A 59 B 69 A 79 D
10 A 20 B 30 C 40 A 50 D 60 C 70 C 80 B
100
AUTO LOANS
Q1. What is the age group to whom Auto Loans can be given?
a) 18-65 years b) 21-65 years c) 20-70 years d) 21- 70 years
Q2. Which of the following Income criteria grouping is wrong for SBI Car Loan, SBI
Car Loan Overdraft and SBI Combo loan schemes?
a) Salaried/Pensioners – 250000/-
b) Salaried/Pensioners – 300000/-
c) Self-employed, Professionals, Proprietary/Partnership firms/Businessmen-
400000/-
d) Agriculturist – 400000/-
Q3. In Auto Loan the maximum number of co-borrowers can be……….?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) no restriction
Q4. Which of the following pair is wrong about maximum loan amount permissible?
a) Salaried-48 month NMI
b) Businessmen/Self Employed- 4 times Net Profit/Gross Taxable Income +
Depreciation
c) Agriculturist – 3 times NAI
d) Agriculturist – 4 times NAI
Q5. What is the EMI/NMI ratio for Car Loan seekers who have already availed a
Home Loan from our Bank and their Annual income is above 10 lakhs?
a) 50% b) 60% c) 65% d) 70%
Q6. Which fact is correct about SBI Two Wheeler Loan product?
a) Minimum Loan 30000/- Maximum Loan 300000/-
b) Minimum Loan 30000/- Maximum Loan < 300000/-
c) Minimum Loan 20000/- Maximum Loan 300000/-
d) Minimum Loan 25000/- Maximum Loan 250000/-
Q7. Which of the following is the maximum EMI/NMI ratio for SBI Two wheeler loan?
a) 40% b) 45% c) 50% d) 60%
Q8. Which fact is incorrect about SBI Two Wheeler Loan product?
a) It can be given to old and new both types of customers
b) Minimum NMI is 12500/-
c) Minimum NAI is 150000/-
d) Margin is 25% of on-road price
Q9. The concessions in rate of interest linked to CIC scores to various types of
customers for Auto loan limit of Rs. …………… and above have been approved.
Q10. If the Net Annual Income of the applicant is above Rs. 10 Lakhs what will be
the minimum margin for car loan for other than salary package/tie-up accounts?
a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 25%
101
Q11. Which fact is true regarding accessories, extended warranty and total
maintenance in car loan scheme?
a) 5% of on-road price or Rs.50000/- whichever less
b) 5% of ex-showroom price or Rs.50000/- whichever less
c) 5% of on-road price or Rs.50000/- whichever is higher
d) 5% of ex-showroom price or Rs.50000/- whichever is higher
Q12. What is the minimum margin for car loan, on the on-road price, for salary
package/tie-up accounts irrespective of their salary amount?
a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 5%
Q13. As per Bank’s instruction which BGL a/c needs to be credited for sending
RTGS/NEFT to the Dealers account in other Bank?
a) 98516 b) 98565 c) 98534 d) 98576
Q14. Under which product name SBI’s Pre Approved Car Loan Product for TDR
Customers has been launched?
a) SBI Loyalty Car Loan b) Assured Car Loan
c) Super Car Loan d) Luxury Car Laon
Q15. In Bank’s Pre Approved Car Loan Product for TDR Customers the Reapyment
period is upto the age of ……. Years?
a) 70 b) 75 c) 67 d) 72
Q16. In Bank’s Pre Approved Car Loan Product for TDR Customers theminimum
loan amount is Rs…………..?
a) 50,000 b) 100,000 c) 200,000 d) 500,000
Q17. In Bank’s Pre Approved Car Loan Product for TDR Customers the Reapyment
period is……….years?
a) 1-3 b) 3-5 c) 5-7 d) 3-7
Q18.Which of the following fact about Auto Loan is correct?

a) Registration no. to be verified from vahan.com website
b) Registration no. to be verified fron vahan site within 90 days of disbursement
c) Verify hypothecation details each time EMI is not paid
d) RC details to be fed into CBS
Q19. Which of the following fact about Auto Loan is correct?

d) RC details to be fed into LOS

c) Verify hypothecation details each time account slips into NPA
d) RC details to be fed into LOS
102
a) Registration no. to be verified from vahan.nic.in website
d) RC details to be fed into Digital Inspection Tool
Q22. For payment of service fee / incentive to Dealers/DSEs/ALCs/SSL aspecial

BGL account number has been created. Which is the account number for Charges
AC Auto Loan –Sourcing Fee?
a) 4599522 b) 4599523 c) 4599284 d) 4599525
Q23. For car loan for Self Employed, Professionals, Proprietary/Partnership firms &
Businessmen the ITR is required for previous …….. years?
Q24. We may also reimburse finance for the cars purchased out of own funds which
are not more than ………………. Old?
a) 1 year b) 1 month c) 3 months d) 6 months
Q25. Which Form is used as Application for Registration Certificate of vehicle signed
by BM?
a) Form-20 b) Form-35 c) Form-34 d) Form-16
Q26. Penalty is to be recoved if the borrower fails to get the vehicle registered, with
hypothecation charge in favour of the Bank, within ………… days from the date of
disbursement?
a) 30 b) 60 c) 90 d) 120
Q27. What is the penal amount to be recovered per month from borrower if he fails
to get vehicle registered in certain number of days prescribed by the bank or charge
of bank gets vacated before liquidation of the loan?
a) 1000+GST b) 2000+GST b) 3000+GST d) 5000+GST
Q28. Vehicle search Charges are to be debited from Charges A/c -Vehicle
Registration Verification Charges. Which one of the following is that a/c number?
a) 4599284 b) 4599522 c) 4599523 d) 4599524
Q29. For what amount of Auto Loans Insurance copy for 2 nd year onwards is
required to be obtained every year during the loan life?
a) >10 lacs b) >5 lacs c) >= 10 lacs d) >= 20 lacs
Q30. The List of website of car manufacturers is available on PBBU SITE under Auto
Loan segment. State True or False?
a) True b) False c) May be d) Not Sure
103
Q31. Which of the following is untrue in case of CIC reports?
a) A single credit card default ( settled or otherwise) more than 5 years old,
regardless of amount, may be ignored provided there are no other instances
of overdues
b) A single credit card default ( settled or otherwise) more than 3 years old,
regardless of amount, may be ignored provided there are no other instances
of overdues
c) One overdue monthly payment in 24 months would be allowed provided DPD
did not exceed 30 days, but not in the last 6 months
d) If the Account Status for a secured loan/unsecured loan /credit card is Suit
filed & Written-off then one must reject the loan proposal.
Q32. What is the meaning of -1 CIBIL TransUnion Score?

a) Low Risk b) High Risk
c) No Loan Record d) < 6 month credit history
Q33.What is the meaning of Zero CIBIL TransUnion Score?

a) Low Risk b) High Risk c) No Loan Record d) < 6 month credit history
Q34. What is the meaning of less than 600 CIBIL TransUnion Score?
Q35. What is the meaning of more than 800 CIBIL TransUnion Score?
Q36. In case of takeover of car loans the loan should be repaid within how many
years from the date of the original purchase of the vehicle?
a) 2 b) 5 c) 7 d) 4
Q37. Combo Loan Scheme is for purchase of ………….?

a) Two Cars b) Car and Scooter
c) Car and Bike d) Car & 2 Wheeler
Q38. In case of Combo Loan the disbursement to be completed within ……………?

a) 15 days b) fortnight c) 1 month d) 2 months
Q39. In case of Combo Loan which loan is to be disbursed first?

a) 2 Wheeler b) Car c) Any one d) Both on the same day
Q40. In case of Combo Loan how many loan accounts are opened?
a) 1 b) 2 c) None d) SB a/c linked to credit card
Q41. Which of the following product is not available in Loyalty Car Loan?
a) Combo Loan b) NRI Car Loan c) Assured Car Loan d) Used Car Loan
Q42. What is the margin to be provided by borrower in Loyalty Car Loan Scheme?
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a) 5% b) Nil c) 10% d) 15%
Q43. In case of Loyalty Car Loan above which amount of car loan extension on
mortgaged property is required?
a) 5 lacs b) 10 lacs c) not required d) 20 lacs
Q44. Maximum processing fees collected under SBI Auto Loan.

a) Rs.9100 b) Rs.5000 c) Rs.6100 d) Rs.3000
Q45. The maximum age up to which we can finance under high value super bike
loan scheme?
Q46. The car financed in certified pre-owned car loan scheme should not be more
than …………. years old?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5
Q47. The RC book of a car is duplicate. Can we finance it under used car loan?
a) Yes b) No
c) Yes, if other parameters qualify d) subject to deviation approval
Q48. The repayment period for 2 wheeler loan is …………?

Q49. The eligible income for getting Super Bike loan is ……………?
Q50. Which of the following statement is incorrect in case of Super Bike Loan?
a) The minimum loan amount is 3 lacs
b) The margin is 15% of on-road price
c) The margin is 15% of ex-showroom price
d) Repayment period is 5 years
AUTO LOAN - ANSWERS

1-b 6-b 11-b 16-c 21-a 26-d 31-b 36-c 41-c 46-d
2-b 7-c 12-a 17-d 22-a 27-d 32-c 37-d 42-b 47-b
3-b 8-a 13-a 18-d 23-b 28-a 33-d 38-c 43-b 48-b
4-d 9-b 14-b 19-b 24-c 29-d 34-b 39-b 44-a 49-d
5-d 10-b 15-b 20-c 25-a 30-a 35-a 40-a 45-b 50-b
105
EDUCATION LOAN & P-GOLD LOAN
1. Loans to student entering into the chartered accountancy course conducted by

ICAI only may be considered under Student Loan Scheme. Maximum loan of
Rs
a) 2 lacs b) 5 lacs c) 7.50 lacs d) 10 lacs
2. Maximum amount of Loan for live virtual classes for Chartered Accountancy
course is Rs:
a) 40000 b) 50000 c) 42250 d) 100000
3. Under student loan scheme, “Caution deposit /building fund/refundable

deposit supported by Institution bills/receipts the amount considered for loan
should not exceed ------% of the tuition fees for the entire course.
a) 10 b) 20 c) 15 d) 25
4 Under Student loan scheme Cost of a two-wheeler up to Rs. ---------- can be

included in the expenses considered eligible for finance where the loan
amount is secured by a suitable third party guarantee and/or tangible
collateral security.
a) 40000 b) 45000 c) 50000 d)60000
5. Maximum loan amount under Student Loan Scheme for study in India is Rs
--------lacs for study in abroad are Rs -------lacs.
a) 10, 20 b) 15, 30 c) 10, 30 d) 10, 15
6. As per Reserve Bank of India guidelines, education loans upto the ceilings of
Rs.----- lacs for studies in India and Rs.----- lacs for studies abroad, are
reckoned under priority sector advances
a) 5, 10 b) 10, 20 c)15 ,30 d)No limit
7. Margin under Student Loan scheme up to Rs 7.50 lacs is Nil.

a) True b) False
8. Margin above Rs 7.50 lacs for study in India is ----% & for abroad …....%
under Student Loan Scheme:
a) 5, 15 b) 10, 15 c) 10, 20 d) 10, 25
9. Can Scholarship/ assistantship may be included in margin ?

a) Yes b) No
10. Security for loan upto 7.50 lacs with co-obligation of parent is :
a) 50 % b) 100 % c) Nil
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11 Security for loan above Rs 7.50 lacs, Co-obligation of parent(s) together with
tangible collateral security of suitable value, along with the assignment of
future income of the student for payment of installments is require.
a) True b) False
12. Maximum no of loans in a family under Student Loan Scheme is 2 only ?

a) True b) False
13. What is the concession in interest rate to the Girl student under the Scheme ?
a) 0.50 % b) 1% c) 1.50 % d) No concession
14. 1% concession in rate of interest to be provided for full tenure of the student
loan if full interest is serviced during the moratorium period (including course
duration).
a) True b) False
15. Under Student Loan Scheme, simple interest to be charged during

moratorium period.
a)True b) False
16. Penal interest @ --------% to be charged for loans above Rs.4 lacs for the
overdue amount and overdue period.
a) 1 b)2 c)3 d)Nil
17 Under Student Loan Scheme, sanction/ rejection will be communicated within

---- days of receipt of duly completed application with supporting documents.
a) 10 b) 15 c) 30 d) immediately
18 All those students who approach us for an education loan of more than
Rs.4.00
lacs for studies abroad will be required to make a deposit of Rs............
a) 1000 b) 2000 c) 5000 d) Nil
19. If the applicant avails the loan, the amount of Rs.5000/- will be adjusted
against the contribution of margin money by him.
a) True b) False
20. ‘No dues’ certificate need not be insisted upon as a pre -condition for
considering educational loan. However, a declaration/an affidavit confirming
that no loans are availed from other banks may be obtained.
a) True b) False
21. All the SBI Branches are authorized for sanctioning Student Loan Scheme.
a) True b) False
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22. Interest rate for Student Loan to Childre/Wards of Staff ?
a) 7 % pa b) 8% pa c) 9% pa d) Same as to Public
23 Administrative clearances is necessary for members of staff seeking loan

under the scheme.
a) True b) False
24. Nodal Branch for interest subidy for economically/weaker section claims is:
a) Chennai Main b)Kolkata Main c) Mumbai Main d)Delhi Main
25 Loans will be granted to deserving/meritorious students for pursuing full time

courses in India at selected premier and reputed institutions identified by the
Bank under which Scheme:
a) SBI Scholar Loan b) Skill Loan c) Student Loan
26. Under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme loan will be granted without any tangible
collateral, only Parent/ Guardian as co-borrower up to Rs ----------lacs for AA
Category Institutions.
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 25
collateral, only Parent/ Guardian as co-borrower up to Rs ----------lacs for A &
BCategory Institutions.
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 25.
28 Under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme loan will be granted without any tangible
collateral, only Parent/ Guardian as co-borrower up to Rs --------lacs & with
tangible collateral of full value and Parent/ Guardian as co-borrower upto Rs
------lacsfor A Category Institutions
a) 20, 30 b) 10, 20 c) 20, 25 d) 10, 15
collateral, only Parent/ Guardian as co-borrower up to Rs --------lacs & with
tangible collateral of full value and Parent/ Guardian as co-borrower upto Rs
------lacs for C Category Institutions.
a) 7.50,10 b) 7.50,20 c) 7.5,30 d)10, 30
30. Margin under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme is Nil.

a) True b) False
31. Under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme, maximum ….... years after commencement
of repayment. Repayment starts 1 year after the completion of the course.
a) 10 b) 12 c) 15 d) 7
32. Rate of interest under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme for lisy AA & all IIMs is :
a) 1 year MCLR +1.35 % pa b) 1 year MCLR +1.45 % pa
c) 1 year MCLR +1.50 % pa d) 1 year MCLR +1.55 % pa
108
33. Rate of interest under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme for list C upto Rs 7.50 lacs is
a) 1 year MCLR +1.35 % pa b) 1 year MCLR +1.45 % pa
c) 1 year MCLR +1.50 % pa d) 1 year MCLR +2 % pa
34. SBI Global ed-vantage Scheme is for full time regular courses in foreign
colleges/universities :
a) True b) False
35 Loan amount under SBI GLOBAL ED-VANTAGE SCHEME, is Minimum Rs

------- lacs & Maximum Rs …......lacs.
a) 20, 50 b) 20,150 c) 30, 50 d) 30,150
36. Processing fee under SBI GLOBAL ED-VANTAGE SCHEME,is Rs :

a) Nil b) 5000 c) 10000 d) 15000
37. Margin under SBI GLOBAL ED-VANTAGE SCHEME is:

a)5 % b)10 % c)15% d) 20%
38. Rate of interest under SBI GLOBAL ED-VANTAGE SCHEME is :

a) 1 year MCLR+2% pa b) 1year MCLR+2.50% pa
c) 1 year MCLR + 1.50 % PA d) 1 year MCLR+3.00% pa
39. Repayment period under SBI GLOBAL ED-VANTAGE SCHEE is maximum of

15 years. However, a tenor premium of 1% will be charged in case of
repayment period of more than 10 years.
a) True b) False
40 Under Skill Loan Scheme, minimum loan amount is Rs --------- & maximum
loan amount is Rs …..0
a) 5000, 1.50 lacs b) 10000, 1.50 lacs c) 15000, 1 lacs d) 20000, 1 lacs
41. Under Skill Loan Scheme, repayment period upto Rs 50000/- is -----year.
a) 1 year b) 2 year c) 3 year d) 5 year
42 Moratorium periods under Skill Loan Scheme for Courses of duration upto 1
year is 6 months from the completion of the course
a) True b) False
43 Under Skill Loan Scheme, repayment period above Rs 100000/- is -----year.

a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 10
44 Interest concession if, full interest is paid during moratorium period is :

a) 0.50 % b) 1 % c) 1.50 % d) 2%
109
45 Non home Branches can sanctioned the loan against TDR/STDRs
a) True b) False
46 What is the minimum & maximum amount of OD against TDR/STDRs opened

by by customer thorough RINB:
a) 25000, 5 Crore b) 50000, 1 Crore c) 1 lacs, 1 Crore
47. There is no minimum or Maximum loan amount, in case of OD agaisnt

TDR/STDRs availed through Brnach :
48.
a)True b) False
48 Minimum age for Gold loan to individuals is:

a)18 year b) 21 year c)25 year
49 Maximum repayment periods under Gold Loan to individuals ---- months for
Demand Loan and ------ months for Overdraft.
b) 30, 36 b) 24, 36 c) 12, 24 d) 24, 36
c)
50. Minimum and maximum loan amount under Gold loan to individuals is
a) 20000, 10 lacs b) 20000, 20 lacs c) 10000,10 lacs d) 10000, 20 lacs
110
KEY - STUDENT LOAN, SCHOLAR LOAN, P-GOLD LOAN
1 A 11 A 21 B 31 C 41 C
2 B 12 B 22 B 32 A 42 A
3 A 13 A 23 A 33 D 43 C
4 C 14 A 24 C 34 A 44 B
5 C 15 A 25 A 35 B 45 B
6 B 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 A
7 A 17 B 27 B 37 B 47 A
8 A 18 C 28 A 38 B 48 B
9 A 19 A 29 C 39 A 49 A
10 C 20 A 30 A 40 A 50 B
111
SME SEGMENT
1.Which units are eligible for getting the loan under SME Smart Score Scheme?
a. The chief promoters/chief executives should be 18 to 65 years of age

b. All promoters/chief executives should be 18 to 65 years of age
c. The chief promoters/chief executives should be 18 to 70 years of age
d. All the promoters/chief executives should be 18 to 66 years of age
2.What is the minimum score for eligibility under SME Smart Score Scheme?
a. The applicant must obtain a minimum overall score of 50% with a minimum of
50% under each sub-head
b. The applicant must obtain a minimum overall score of 60% with a minimum of
c. The applicant must obtain a minimum overall score of 60% with a minimum of
d. The applicant must obtain a minimum overall score of 50% with a minimum of
60% Under each sub-head
3.Which types of units are eligible for getting loan under SME Smart Score Scheme?
a. Manufacturing and Trade Units

b. Manufacturing and Service Units
c. Trade and Service Units
d. Manufacturing Trade and Service Units
4.What is the maximum quantum of finance under SME Smart Score Scheme for
Trade and service units?
a. Rs. 10 lacs to Rs. 50 lacs

b. Rs. 5 lacs to Rs. 50 lacs
c. Rs. 5 lacs to Rs. 25 lacs
d. Rs. 10 lacs to Rs. 40 lacs
Manufacturing units?
a. 15% of annual turnover for WC loan and 67% of project cost for TL
b. 20% of annual turnover for WC loan and 67% of project cost for TL
c. 20% of annual turnover for WC loan and 75% of project cost for TL
d. 15% of annual turnover for WC loan and 75% of project cost for TL
Trade and service units?
a. 15% of annual turnover for WC loan and 67% of project cost for TL
b. 15% of annual turnover for WC loan and 75% of project cost for TL
c. 25% of annual turnover for WC loan and 75% of project cost for TL
d. 25% of annual turnover for WC loan and 67% of project cost for TL
112
7.What is the repayment period for TL under SME Smart Score Scheme?
a. Not more than 7 years excluding moratorium not exceeding 12 months

b. Not more than 5 years excluding moratorium not exceeding 6 months
c. Not more than 7 years excluding moratorium not exceeding 12 months
d. Not more than 7 years excluding moratorium not exceeding 6 months
8.What is the periodicity of renewal and review of WC for finance under SME Smart
Score Scheme?
a. WC loan to be reviewed bi-annually and renewed once in two years

b. WC loan to be reviewed annually and renewed once in three years
c. WC loan to be reviewed bi-annually and renewed once in four years
d. WC loan to be reviewed annually and renewed once in two years
9.If a proposal does not fit into SME Smart Score Scheme Model, what is the
solution?
a. It can not be considered at all

b. It cannot be considered under SMECC but with additional collaterals at least
50% of loan amount.
c. It can be considered under normal credit dispensation based on specific
considerations
d. It can be considered under SMECC but with additional collaterals at least 50%
of loan amount.
10.What is the minimum amount of loan that can be granted under SBI Asset
Backed Loan ?
a. Rs. 10 lacs
b. Rs. 5 lacs to
c. Rs. 20 lacs
d. Rs. 25 lacs
11.What is the maximum amount of loan that can be granted under SBI Asset
Backed Loan
a. Rs. 10 crore
b. Rs. 20 crore
c. Rs. 15 crore
d. Rs. 50 crore
12.Whether take over is considered under SBI ABL?
a. Take over can be considered subject to take over norms and approval from
CGM
b. Take over can be considered subject to take over norms and approval from
GM-NW
c. Take over can be considered subject to take over norms and approval from
CCC
d. Takeover of existing units from other Banks/ FIs with satisfactory track record.
113
13.Which type of facilities can be granted under SBI ABL?
a. Demand Loan and Term Loan
b. Cash Credit, Demand Loan and Term Loan
c. Cash Credit & Demand Loan
d. Drop-line OD facility
14.What is the maximum repayment period under SBI ABL?

a. Up to maximum of 180 months based on cash flows
b. Up to maximum of 96 months based on cash flows in monthly installments
c. Up to maximum of 84 months based on cash flows in monthly / quaretely / half
yearly installments
d. Up to maximum of 60 months based on cash flows in monthly / quaretely / half
yearly installments
15.What is the periodicity of inspection in case of SBI ABL?

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Yearly
16.The equity assistance is provided under SBI SMILE……………………….

a. Only to persons genuinely not able to meet the necessary project cost
b. Only to persons genuinely not able to meet the NWC
c. Only to persons genuinely not able to meet the necessary margin from their
own sources
17.To be eligible for loan under SBI SMILE, in which type of activities the unit should
be engaged?
a. The unit should be engaged in activities eligible for classification as SSI
b. The unit should be engaged in activities eligible for classification as Micro and
Small Enterprises under MSMED Act including Retail Trade
c. The unit should be engaged in any type of commercial activities
d. The unit should be engaged in activities eligible for classification as Micro and
Small Enterprises under MSMED Act excepting Retail Trade
18.What is the full name of the Scheme ‘SBI SMILE’?

a. SBI Small and Micro Investment Loan for Equity
b. SBI Small and Micro Inter-changeability Loan for Equity
c. SBI Small and Micro Interest-margin Loan for Equity
d. SBI Small and Micro Interest-free Loan for Equity
19.What is the initial moratorium period to be granted for loan under SBI SMILE?
a. Initial moratorium period of 5 to 7 years
b. Initial moratorium period of 3 to 5 years
c. Initial moratorium period of 1 to 3 years
d. Initial moratorium period of 6 months to 18 months
114
20.What are the norms for charging interest for the funds lent under the equity Loan
Assistance Scheme (SBI SMILE)?
a. Funds lent under the Equity Loan Assistance Scheme will bear interest at
Base Rate.
b. Funds lent under the Equity Loan Assistance Scheme will bear no interest.
c. Funds lent under the Equity Loan Assistance Scheme will bear interest similar
to the rate of interest charged for other loans granted to the unit
d. Funds lent under the Equity Loan Assistance Scheme will bear interest at
SBAR.
21.What is the maximum quantum of finance that can be finance under Artisan
Credit Card Scheme?
a. Rs. 1 lac
b. Rs. 3 lacs
c. Rs. 5 lac
d. Rs. 2 lac
22.For the finance under Artisan Credit Card Scheme assessment to be made under
nayak Committee norms and will be based on the simplified Scoring Model. What is
the minimum score required for being eligible for finance?
a. The minimum score to obtained for being eligible for finance is 50%
b. The minimum score to obtained for being eligible for finance is 60%
c. The minimum score to obtained for being eligible for finance is 45%
d. The minimum score to obtained for being eligible for finance is 65%
23.What is the target group under Artisan Credit Card Scheme for financing?
a. Artisans in the handicraft sector and NOT covered by the Govt. Sponsored
Loan Schemes
b. Artisans in the handicraft sector and also covered by the Govt. Sponsored
Loan Schemes
c. Artisans in the handicraft sector only covered by the Govt. Sponsored Loan
Schemes
d. Artisans in the handicraft sector from SC/ST category and also covered by the
Govt. Sponsored Loan Schemes
24.The beneficiaries under Artisan Credit Card Scheme registered with Development
Commissioner (Handicraft) will be eligible for insurance under Group Guarantee
Scheme for which the premium will be paid by the Government and the beneficiaries.
What is the ratio of sharing the premium?
a. Ratio of sharing the premium is 50: 50
b. Ratio of sharing the premium is 75: 25
c. Ratio of sharing the premium is 60:40
d. Ratio of sharing the premium is 25:75
25.The working capital component should be reviewed every year. What is the
criteria for credit summations for review under SME Credit Card Scheme?
a. Credit summations should not be less than 50% of the projected turnover
b. Credit summations should not be less than 75% of the projected turnover
c. Credit summations should not be less than 100 of the limit
d. Credit summations should not be less than 200 of the limit
115
26.What is the validity period of WC limit for finance granted under SME Credit Card
Scheme?
a. The limit will be valid for 2 years but is subject to annual review
b. The limit will be valid for 5 years but is subject to bi-annual review
c. The limit will be valid for 1 year and to be renewed every year
d. The limit will be valid for 3 years but is subject to annual review
27.What is the method for assessment of WC limit for finance under SME Credit
Card Scheme granted to Small Business units and Retail Traders?
a. 20% of annual turnover or 20% of turnover of the last 12 months in their
accounts, which ever is higher
b. 25% 0f annual turnover or 20% of turnover of the last 12 months in their
c. 20% 0f annual turnover or 25% of turnover of the last 12 months in their
d. 25% 0f annual turnover or 25% of turnover of the last 12 months in their
28.What is the method of assessment of WC limit for finance under SME Credit Card
Scheme granted to Self-employed and Professionals?
a. 200% of gross annual income as declared in their Income Tax returns
b. 150% of gross annual income as declared in their Income Tax returns
c. 50% of gross annual income as declared in their Income Tax returns
d. 75% of gross annual income as declared in their Income Tax returns
29.A scoring model has been designed under SME Credit Card Scheme. What is the
minimum score required for qualifying for finance?
a. Minimum 50% to qualify under the scheme
b. Minimum 60% to qualify under the scheme
c. Minimum 67% to qualify under the scheme
d. Minimum 65% to qualify under the scheme
30.Period of repayment in case of TL in SME Credit Card is ?

a. 3 years b.4 years c.6 years d.5 years
31.What is the maximum quantum of finance that can be granted under SME Credit
Plus Scheme?
a. 20% of aggregate working capital limit subject to maximum of Rs. 25 lacs
b. 20% of aggregate working capital limit subject to maximum of Rs. 50 lacs
c. 25% of aggregate working capital limit subject to maximum of Rs. 25 lacs
d. 25% of aggregate working capital limit subject to maximum of Rs. 50 lacs
32.Credit facilities granted under SME Credit Plus Scheme to be repaid within how
many months?
a. Each amount of withdrawal should be repaid within 2 months
b. Each amount of withdrawal should be repaid within 3 months
c. Each amount of withdrawal should be repaid within 6 months
d. Each amount of withdrawal should be repaid within 12 months
116
33.What is the maximum quantum of finance that can be granted under Standby
Line of Credit (Working Capital)?
a. 30% of working capital facility subject to maximum of Rs. 5 crore
b. 20% of working capital facility subject to maximum of Rs. 2 crore
c. 15% of working capital facility subject to maximum of Rs. 20 crore
d. 15% of working capital facility subject to maximum of Rs. 2 crore
34.How the credit under Standby Line of Credit (Working Capital ) is calculated for
seasonal industry?
a. Calculated separately for peak and non-peak seasons
b. Calculated separately for peak level only
c. Calculated non-peak seasons only
d. There is no such separation for peak and non-peak seasons
35.What are the eligibility criteria under General Purpose Term Loan for SSI Sector?
a. Should have earned profits in each of the preceding 5 years
b. Should have earned profits in each of the preceding 2 years
c. Should have earned profits in each of the preceding 1 years
d. Should have earned profits in each of the preceding 3 years
36.What is the unique feature of Open Term Loan for Service Sector Scheme?
a. A loan limit with the option of multiple purpose of single disbursements to be
sanctioned on case to case basis
b. Pre-approved term loan facility with option of multiple disbursements for
multiple purposes.
c. A pre-sanctioned WC limit along with TL
d. A pre-sanctioned term loan limit with the single disbursements to be
sanctioned along with the working capital limit
37.What is the maximum quantum of finance permitted under Open Term Loan
Product for Term Loan?
a. No upper ceiling
b. Rs. 500 lacs
c. Rs. 200 lacs
d. Rs. 100 lacs
38. How much is the eligible limit under SME SBI TIE UP CARD scheme?
a. 2% of aggregate fund based working capital limit
b. 5 % of aggregate fund based working capital limit
c. 2% of the aggregate limit
d. 5% of the aggregate limit
39. How much is the maximum limit under SME SBI TIE UP CARD scheme ?
a. Rs. 10.00 lac per unit

b. Rs. 15.00 lac per unit
c. Rs. 20.00 lac per unit
d. Rs. 25.00 lac per unit
40.What should be the base for assessment of loan mount under SME Car Loan
Scheme?
117
a. The personal net worth and repayment capabilities of the unit
b. The unit’s net worth and repayment capabilities of the individual(s)
c. The unit’s net worth and repayment capabilities of the unit
d. The personal net worth and repayment capabilities of the individual(s)
41.In Entrepreneur Scheme, maximum project cost is Rs.______lac

a. 15 b.20 c.25 d.30
42.In Stree Shakti Scheme, concessions in margin is available up to ___%

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
43.Maximum loan amount under Stree Shakti Scheme is Rs._______lac

a. 20
b. 10
c. 15
d. 25
44.Which of the following cannot be accepted as a purpose for general purpose term
loan?
a. shoring up NWC
b. substitution of high cost debt,
c. R&D, quality up-gradation for ISO certification
45.To be eligible for General purpose term loan, CRA Rating should be
a. SB-5
b. SB-6
c. SB-7
d. SB-8
46.Maximum loan amount under General Purpose Term Loan is Rs._____lac

a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100
47.The purpose of SME Credit Plus is

a. For meeting unforeseen expenditure of SSI units related to their capital
requirements
b. For meeting unforeseen expenditure of SSI units related to their capital
expenditure requirements
c. For meeting expenditure of SSI units related to setting up new units
d. For meeting unforeseen expenditure of SSI units related to their working
capital requirements
48.What is true about SME credit plus ?
118
a. The additional limit can be used twelve times in a year but there should be gap
of at least 15 days between total repayment of funds drawn under the facility
and its next utilisation.
b. The additional limit can be used ten times in a year but there should be gap of
at least 15 days between total repayment of funds drawn under the facility and
its next utilisation.
c. The additional limit can be used four times in a year but there should be gap
of at least 15 days between total repayment of funds drawn under the facility
and its next utilisation.
d. The additional limit can be used six times in a year but there should be gap of
at least 5 days between total repayment of funds drawn under the facility and
its next utilisation.
49.To be eligible for SME credit plus, minimum CRA Rating should be
a. SB-5
b. SB-6
c. SB-7
d. SB-9
50.What is true about Stand-by Line of Credit ?

a. It can be availed for a maximum period of 3 months at any one instance.
b. It can be availed for a maximum period of 6 months at any one instance.
c. It can be availed for a maximum period of 2 months at any one instance.
d. It can be availed for a maximum period of 4 months at any one instance.
51.Maximum loan amount for purchasing a used car in SME Car Loan is
Rs._____lac
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
52.In Doctor Plus Scheme, minimum DSCR should be
a. 1.50
b. 1.75
c. 2.00
d. 2.50
53.Which of the following is not true about Doctor Plus.
a. For Non Allopathic doctors (Unani, Ayurvedic, and Homeopathic): Maximum

loan of Rs.10 lacs of which a sub ceiling for working capital limits at 10% of
total loan amount.
b. Rural/Semi-Urban: Individual/Proprietorship – Maximum loan amount is Rs.5
crore
c. Minimum CRA Rating should be SB-9
54.Minimum amount of loan under flexi loan scheme is Rs.______lacs
119
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
55.Maximum amount of loan under flexi loan scheme is Rs.______lacs

a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100
56.Which of the following is not true about Flexi Loan scheme.

a. The ‘Flexi Loans’ Scheme has been devised to meet most of the requirements
of the units under the Small Business sector through a single product.
b. Minimum: Rs. 5 lacs Maximum: Rs. 50 lakh
c. The loan may be repaid in 3 to 5 year’s time
d. Tangible collateral security equivalent of at least 35% of advance in respect of
borrowers with a satisfactory tack record of 3 years
57.How many categories of loans are there in PMMY ?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
58.In case of take over in SME Car Loan, the vehicle should not be more than
___years old.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 1
d. 2
59.In view of the demonetization, it has been decided that WC limits of MSME units
(availing Fund Based Working Capital requirement upto Rs. 5 crores) will be
assessed at 31.25% of the projected annual turnover and unit will be sanctioned limit
of a minimum -------------% of the projected annual turnover
a. 25
b. 30
c. 24
d. 21
60. Under SBI OD product for business correspondents , all National/State level
Business Correspondents having valid agreement with SBI and having satisfactory
business relationship with SBI for at least -------- years are eligible.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
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61.In SME segment detailed opinion report is not required for limits up to Rs.
Lacs.
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
62 Maximum repayment period in doctor plus for setting up a clinic is-------years.
a 10 years
b 5 years
c 7 years
d 9 years
63 Margin in doctor plus is --------%.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
64.In Open Term Loan, loan amount for business development expenditure incurred
for creation of intangible assets applicable to both manufacturing and services sector
is:
a. 20% of total limit sanctioned with a maximum of Rs. 2 crores
b. 25% of total limit sanctioned with a maximum of Rs. 2 crores
c. 20% of total limit sanctioned with a maximum of Rs. 3 crores
d. 20% of total limit sanctioned with a maximum of Rs. 1 crores
65. In Doctor Plus, for loans above Rs. 2 crore and upto Rs. 5 crores, Minimum ----%
tangible collateral security is to be obtained.
a. 20
b. 25
c. 30
d. 35
66.In open term loan margin is --------%.
a. 20
b. 25
c. 30
d. 35
67.In SME Open Term Loan, the borrower has to avail disbursement of the loan
within___months
a. 6
b. 9
c. 12
d. 15
68.Which of the following statements is true about repayment under SME Open TL.
a. Repayment period generally not to exceed 3 years.
b. Repayment period generally not to exceed 5 years.
c. Repayment period generally not to exceed 7 years.
d. Repayment period generally not to exceed 8 years.
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69.Which of the following is true about SBI ABL.
a. Property mortgaged needs to be within a radius of 25 km from the Branch,
wherein account is maintained.
b. Property mortgaged needs to be within a radius of 20 km from the Branch,
wherein account is maintained.
c. Property can be located anywhere.
70.In Entrepreneur Scheme, maximum loan amount to craftsman is Rs.____lac

a.
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
71.Which of the following is eligible under Entrepreneur Scheme

a. A Technically qualified person (degree / diploma holder in Engineering
Technology)
b. A Craftsman with adequate experience or training in the line of activity
proposed.
c. A person possessing degree in Business Industrial Management
b. All of the above
72.How many times the borrower can utilize the facility sanctioned under Open Term
Loan Manufacturing Sector?
a. On multiple occasions as per their needs
b. Once only
c. Twice only
d. Once in a quarter
73.In SME fleet finance scheme, maximum loan can be sanctioned up to Rs.-----
crore.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
74.Maximum loan amount under Stree Shakti Scheme for SSI units is Rs.____lacs
a. 20
b. 25
c. 50
d. 75
75.SBI ABL is required to reviewed
a. Half-yearly
b. Annually
c. Quarterly
d. Not required for regular accounts
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76.LTV Ratio under ABL is-----% of realizable value of security
a. 40
b. 50
c. 60
d. 70
77.Which of the following properties can be accepted as collateral security under

ABL?
a. Industrial property both leased & freehold / land/plot
b. SEZ property
c. Property with Power of Attorney
78.Margin in case of acquisition of fixed assets in ABL is -------%
a. 10
b. 15
c. 0
d. 25
79.What should be primary security under ABL?

a. Charge over current assets
b. Charge over fixed assets
c. Both a and b
80.Moratorium under ABL scheme should not be more than -------months

a. 12
b. 15
c. 18
d. 24
81.Drawing power in ABL should be reduced on ---------basis.

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Annually
82. Operational Data in ABL is to be submitted on -----------basis.
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Annually
83. Unit with CRA of ----- and below is not eligible for finance under ABL.
a. SB-7
b. SB-8
c. SB-9
d. SB-10
84.What is true about ECR in ABL ?
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a. ECR is mandatory for loans above Rs.10 crore
b. ECR is mandatory for loans above Rs.5 crore
c. ECR is mandatory for loans above Rs.8 crore
d. ECR is not mandatory
85. Existing term loan or cash credit loan be converted into SBI ABL if CRA of the
unit is ------------ or better and conduct of account is fully satisfactory.
a. SB-7
b. SB-5
c. SB-9
d. SB-10
86. In ABL If the credit summations in the account are less than ------% of sales
realization, penal interest @ 0.25% will be charged
a. 50
b. 55
c. 65
d. 75
87. In ABL, TIR should be obtained from two different panel advocates in case of
loan above Rs. --------- lacs.
a. 100
b. 50
c. 25
d. 20
88.Which of the following facilities can be sanctioned under Doctor Plus ?

a. Cash credit
b. Term Loan
c. Dropline OD
d. All of the above
89.Maximum loan amount under Doctor Plus is--------crore

a. 1 b.2 c.5 d.10
90. Under Doctor Plus, units with CRA rating of ------ and above will only be
considered
a. SB-7
b. SB-5
c. SB-9
d. SB-10
91.Margin under Mudra Loan up to Rs.50000/- is --------%.
a. 5
b. 0
c. 10
d. 5% for loan amounts more than Rs.25000/-
92. In PMMY, Tarun category covers loans above -------- lakh to 10 lakh25
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a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
93.Maximum loan amount under Medical Equipment Scheme is -------crore

a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
94.In Medical Equipment Scheme, minimum CRA rating should be --------.
a. SB-7
b. SB-5
c. SB-9
d. SB-10
95. SIMPLIFIED SMALL BUSINESS LOANS are sanctioned, to the unit with a
minimum requirement of above Rs. 10 lacs and less than Rs. ---------- lacs
a. 20
b. 25
c. 50
d. 100
96. The minimum collateral security under SIMPLIFIED SMALL BUSINESS LOANS
is -----%.
a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 40
97.Type of facility sanctioned under Simplified Small Business Loan is
a. Cash credit
b. Term Loan
c. Dropline OD
d. All of the above
98. Under Simplified Small Business Loan scheme, existing business for at least ---
years in the same location are eligible.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
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99. Under Simplified Small Business Loan scheme, Unit should be situated within a
radius of ----- km from the financing branch.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
100.Loan amount under Simplified Small Business Loan scheme is calculated as
a. 10 times of average monthly balance in current account in previous 12

months
b. 10 times of average monthly balance in current account in previous 12
months subject to Min 10 lac and maximum 25 lac
c. 5 times of average monthly balance in current account in previous 12 months
101. Under Simplified Small Business Loan scheme, stock statement is to be

submitted on ------ Basis.
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Annually
102.New scheme code for Stand up India is

a. 09121
b. 09122
c. 09124
d. 09157
103.Which of the following limits have been discontinued ?
a. Rice Mill Plus

b. School Plus
c. SBI Shoppe
d. Both a and b
104. PRADHAN MANTRI MUDRA YOJANA (PMMY) New Scheme Code is------
a. 09119
b. 09118
c. 09147
d. 09148
105.Under Stand Up India scheme, bank loans between Rs. ---- lakhs and Rs.----
crore are to be sanctioned.
a. 10 lac/1 crore
b. 25 lac/1 crore
c. 5 lac /50 lac
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106. SIDBI’s interactive Stand up India portal is called--------------.
a. www.standupindia.in
b. www.standuploan.in
c. www.standupmitra.in
107.What is the purpose of Stand up India Loan?

a. To meet all kinds of credit requirement for expansion of existing projects
under manufacturing, services or the trading sector
b. To meet all kinds of credit requirement for setting up Greenfield projects under
manufacturing, services or the trading sector
c. To meet only Term Loan Component of credit requirement for setting up
Greenfield projects under manufacturing, services or the trading sector
108.Maximum period of repayment under Stand up India is --------years.
a. 5 b.6 c.7 d.8
109.Frequency of inspection under Stand up India is----------.

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Annually
110. SIMPLIFIED CASH CREDIT FACILITY (SCCF) is available to

a. Manufacturing units
b. Trading units
c. Service units
d. All of the above
111.To be eligible for SIMPLIFIED CASH CREDIT FACILITY (SCCF) the unit should
be in existence for ------- years.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
112.Maximum loan amount under SCCF is Rs.-------crore

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
113.Which of the following methods is adopted for assessing the working capital
required under SCCF.
a. FBWC limits will be assessed on the basis of actual peak inventory plus
receivables levels for the previous 12 months.
b. 25% of the turnover during previous 12 months
c. Lower of a or b
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114.Under SCCF, facility fee of -------- per crore or part thereof to be recovered
annually on 1st April every year plus service tax & Swachh Bharat Cess.
a. 10000
b. 15000
c. 20000
d. 25000
115. For irregularity in Cash Credit Account under SCCF, penal interest is recovered
at ---- per annum over and above the applicable rate, on the irregular portion for the
period of irregularity.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
116.Under SME Fleet Finance scheme, the finance should be for

a. Minimum 10 new vehicles
b. Minimum loan amount Rs.50 Lacs.
c. Either a or b
d. Both a and b
117. Fleet operator having existing fleet of minimum ------- vehicles are eligible under
SME Fleet Finance Scheme.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 2
118. Under SME Fleet Finance Scheme Average Gross DSCR:Min should be --------.
a. 1.25
b. 1.50
c. 1.75
d. 2.00
119. Minimum amount of Facility under Mortgage Dealer Finance Scheme is Rs.-----
Lakhs.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100
120. Minimum -------% Tangible Collateral Security (realizable value) in the form of
Land & Building / Cash Collateral / Bank’s Approved securities should be obtained
under m-DFS.
a. 100
b. 75
c. 150
121.Which of the following is incorrect with regard to PMMY ?
128
a. Shishu : covering loans upto 50,000/-
b. Kishore : covering loans above 50,000/- and upto 5 lakh
c. Tarun : covering loans above 5 lakh to 10 lakh
122.Margin under PMMY for loan amount from Rs.50001 to Rs.10 lac is
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
123. In PMEGP, the maximum cost of the project/unit admissible under

manufacturing sector is Rs. --------lakhs.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
124. In PMEGP, the maximum cost of the project/unit admissible under

business/service sector is Rs. --------lakhs.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
125.In PMEGP, For setting up of project costing above Rs.10 lakhs in the
manufacturing sector and above Rs. 5 lakhs in the business /service sector, the
beneficiaries should possess at least -------- standard pass certificate.
a. V
b. VI
c. VII
d. VIII
126.For deciding micro, small and medium enterprise, investment in plant and
machinery is taken at
a. original cost excluding land and building
b. original cost including land and building
c. Book value excluding land and building
d. Book value including land and building
127.A manufacturing enterprise is called small enterprise when investment in plant

and machinery is
a. More than Rs. 25 lakh but does not exceed Rs. 2 crore
b. More than Rs. 50 lakh but does not exceed Rs. 5 crore
c. More than Rs. 2 crore but does not exceed Rs. 5 crore
d. More than Rs. 25 lakh but does not exceed Rs. 5 crore
128.A service enterprise is called micro enterprise where the investment in

equipment does not exceed
129
a. Rs.25 lac
b. Rs.5 lac
c. Rs.10 lac
d. Rs.15 lac
129.A service enterprise is called medium enterprise where the investment in

equipment is
a. more than Rs. 1 crore but does not exceed Rs. 5 crore
b. more than Rs. 2 crore but does not exceed Rs.10 crore
c. more than Rs. 5 crore but does not exceed Rs.10 crore
d. more than Rs. 2 crore but does not exceed Rs. 5 crore
130.The priority sector target for Foreign Banks operating in India with more than 20
branches is
a. 40%
b. 25%
c. 32%
d. 30%
131.In terms of the recommendations of the Prime Minister’s Task Force on MSMEs,
banks are advised to achieve a ___ per cent year-on-year growth in credit to micro
and small enterprises
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 15%
d. 10%
132.What per cent of MSE advances should go to the micro enterprises

a. 50%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 75%
133.Banks are mandated not to accept collateral security in the case of loans upto
Rs. _______ lakh extended to units in the MSE sector
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
134.Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) for Technology Upgradation of

Micro and Small Enterprises is applicable for loans up to
a. Rs.50 lac
b. Rs.1 crore
c. Rs.2 crore
d. Rs.5 crore
135.All advances granted to units in the KVI sector, will be treated as

a. Micro enterprises
130
b. Small enterprises
c. Classification will depend on investment in plant and machinery
136.Time norm for disposal of loan applications for loans up to Rs.5 lac is
a. within 2 weeks from the date of receipt of the loan application
b. within 4 weeks from the date of receipt of the loan application
c. within 6 weeks from the date of receipt of the loan application
d. within 8 weeks from the date of receipt of the loan application
137.The working capital limits of MSE units shall be assessed on the basis of a
minimum _________% of the projected annual turnover as per Nayak Committee.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
138.As per the RBI directive, the ceiling on the Composite Loan Limits has been
fixed at Rs.-------- lacs through a single window
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 200
139.The stock statements should be submitted by the borrower within -------- days of
the end of the month.
a. 7
b. 20
c. 15
d. 12
140.Bank has now decided to mandatorily coverall eligible MSE loans only up to
Rs.____ Lacs under Credit Guarantee Scheme (CGS) of CGTMSE.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100
141.The annual guarantee fee for CGTMSE covered accounts with limits above
Rs.50 lac
a. Will be borne by the bank

b. Will be borne by the borrower
c. Will be shared by the Bank and borrower in the ratio of 50:50
d. Will be shared by the Bank and borrower in the ratio of 25:75
142.CGTMSE has reduced the guarantee cover from 62.50% to ____% in the loan
range of >Rs.50 lacs to Rs.100 lacs.
a. 40
131
b. 50
c. 55
d. 45
143.For advances under SME segment, which of the following documents will be
taken as “Arrangement Letter”
a. SME-1
b. SME-2
c. SME-3
d. SME-4
144.For advances under SME segment, which amongst the following documents is
the main document of loan
a. SME-1
b. SME-2
c. SME-3
d. SME-4
145.A confirmation by mail/e-mail will be obtained from Chartered Accountant who

have signed the financial statements of our borrowers enjoying fund based limit of
Rs. _____crore and above
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
146.How many Risk Grades are there ?

a. 6
b. 7
c. 9
d. 8
147. An operating cycle means:

a. Six months
b. One calendar year
c. The period during which cash is converted back into cash in WC operations
148.MSMED Act was passed in the year

a. 2004 b.2005 c.2006 d.2007
149.Which of the following is not a Current Assets

a. Advance given to supplier
b. Prepaid expenses
c. dues from partners
d. Interest accrued on investment
150.“Cost of Sales” is
a. Cost of Raw Material consumed and direct expenses including depreciation
b. Cost of Raw Material consumed and direct expenses excluding depreciation
132
c. Cost of Production plus indirect expenses
d. Cost of production plus opening stocks of finished goods minus closing stocks
of finished goods
151.When there is no production, the net loss will be equal to

a. Fixed Costs
b. Variable Costs
c. Total Costs
152.Cash Accrual is
a. Cash received minus cash paid during the year
b. Profit Before Interest and tax plus depreciation
c. Profit after interest and tax plus depreciation
d. Savings with housewives
153.Various Parties to a Bank Guarantee are

a. Applicant, Beneficiary and Guarantor
b. Debtor, Creditor and Surety
c. Promiser, Promisee and Bank
d. None of above
154.Packing Credit is granted for

a. Packing goods
b. Importing goods
c. Advance against Exports
155.Ability to meet immediate liabilities of a unit is indicated by

a. Quick Ratio
b. DER
c. Current Ratio
d. DSCR
156.What is Working Capital Gap (WCG)?
a. Current Assets minus Current Liabilities

b. Fixed Assets minus Term Liabilities
c. Current Assets minus Current Liabilities excluding bank borrowings
d. None of above
157.The Bench Mark for Current Ratio is

a. 1.00
b. 1.25
c. 1.33
d. 1.50
158.The Tangible Net Worth of a unit is

a. Current assets – current liabilities
b. Capital + Reserves
133
c. Capital + Current assets
d. capital + Res. – Intangible assets
159.Special Mention Account means

a. Account of a valued constituents
b. An excellent account
c. A potentially weak loan account
d. Demat account
160.Which of the following terms are related to CRA

a. PD
b. LGD
c. EAD
d. All of the above
161.QAB in case of power pack account is Rs.-----lacs

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
162.Cash deposit charge at home branch for power pack account is

a. Free up to Rs. 60 lacs/month Free cash deposit up to Rs. 60 lacs/month
b. Free up to 12 times of last quarter avg balance
c. None of the above
163.QAB in case of power gain account is Rs.-----lacs

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
164.In case of power gain account cash deposit charge at home branch is free up to
Rs----lacs
a. 10 b.15 c.20 d.25
165.QAB in case of power base account is Rs.-----lacs

a. 0.15
b. 0.20
c. 0.25
d. 0.50
166.Penalty for closing power pack account within a period of 12 months is

a. Rs.5000/-
b. Rs.6000/-
c. Rs.7000/-
d. Rs.10000/-
167.Minimum QAB for SAHAJ account is

a. Rs.1000/-
134
b. Rs.2000/-
c. Rs.3000/-
d. Rs.4000/-
168.Penalty for non-maintenance of QAB in case of SAHAJ account is

a. Rs.100/-
b. Rs.200/-
c. Rs.300/-
d. Rs.400/-
169.Minimum balance in case SURABHI account is
a. Rs.5000/-
b. Rs.6000/-
c. Rs.7000/-
d. Rs.10000/-
170.Threshold in case of SURABHI account is

a. Rs.100000/-
b. Rs.60000/-
c. Rs.25000/-
d. Rs.10000/-
171.Auto sweep is done in SURABHI account on

a. Daily basis
b. Weekly basis
c. Fortnight basis
d. Monthly basis
172.Maximum tenor of deposit in SURABHI account is --------months

a. 24 b.36 c.48 d.60
173.In SURABHI account auto sweep is done in multiples of
a. Rs.10000/-
b. Rs.2000/-
c. Rs.6000/-
d. Rs.1000/-
174.QAB of power jyoti account is Rs.----------/-

a. 5000
b. 50000
c. 75000
d. 100000
175.How many types of fees can be collected in power jyoti account?
a. 5
b. 7
c. 9
d. 10
176.What is true about cheque book in power jyoti account ?

a. Cheque book can be given
135
b. Cheque book cannot be given
c. 100 cheques can be given per year
177.Overdraft in Power POS account is available maximum up to Rs.------lacs
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
178.Overdraft in Power POS account can be given after -------months.

a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
179.Penalty for closure of power jyoti account within one year is

a. Rs.1000/-
b. Rs.2000/-
c. Rs.3000/-
d. Rs.4000/-
180.Penalty for non-maintenance of QAB in power jyoti account is

a. Rs.1000/-
b. Rs.2000/-
c. Rs.2500/-
d. Rs.4000/-
181.In power jyoti account, rate of commission to be collected from the remitter is
a. Rs.50/-
b. Rs.60/-
c. Rs.75/-
d. Rs.25/-
182.One Insta deposit card can be linked to _______ accounts under the same CIF
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
183.Maximum limit of Rs. ----------/- can be deposited in CDM per transaction.

a. 50000/-
b. 49900/-
c. 49000/-
d. 49990/-
184.In CDM, maximum _____ pieces of currency notes can be deposited per
transaction.
a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
136
d. 400
185.Business debit card is available in ______variants

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
186.Customers with average balance of more than Rs. ______ lakh are eligible for
Premium Business Debit Card
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
187.Daily cash limit in case of State Bank Pride Card is Rs. ______ lakh
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
188.Power POS Current Account may be opened at ZERO balance with QAB of
____.
a. Rs.1000/-
b. Rs.2000/-
c. Rs.3000/-
d. Rs.5000/-
189.Penalty for non-maintenance of QAB in power POS account is

a. Rs.250/-
b. Rs.500/-
c. Rs.100/-
190.Time norms for disposal of loan applications for loans up to Rs.25000/- is

a. within 2 weeks from the date of receipt of the loan application
b. within 4 weeks from the date of receipt of the loan application
c. within 6 weeks from the date of receipt of the loan application
d. within 8 weeks from the date of receipt of the loan application
191.In CGTMSE covered accounts, NPA status of the account is to be marked
a. By end of the quarter in which the account has become NPA
b. By end of the next calendar quarter
c. By end of next month
192.In SME segment, margin for loans up to Rs.25000/- is

a. 5%
b. 10%
c. Nil
137
193.A trader approaches you for a working capital requirement of Rs.15 lacs. Under
which schemes he is eligible for finance?
a. SME Credit Card and SME Smart Score
b. SME Smart Score
c. SME Smart Score and Asset Backed Loan
194.Given below are few statements. Identify the correct statement.
(1) When the MVS exceeds AVS, the MVS is taken into consideration for drawing
power.
(2) When the AVS is greater than the limit, then the limit must be taken as the
drawing power.
(3) When the AVS is less than the limit sanctioned, then drawing power is equal to
the limit sanctioned.
a Only (1)
b Only (2)
c Only (3)
d Both (1) & (2)
195.SME-11 is to be executed by
a Borrower
b Guarantors
c Third Party Mortgagors
d All of the above
196.Assistance under PMEGP is available for
a. New Projects
b. Expansion of the existing units
c. Term Loan requirement of the existing units
d. All of the above
197.Under warehouse receipt financing, CC facility will be given when the limits is
more than Rs.--------crore.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
198. Under warehouse receipt financing Demand Loan should be liquidated as and
when the produce is sold during the interim period not exceeding ------ months.
a. 6
b. 9
c. 12
d. 3
138
199. Under warehouse receipt financing, for individual warehouse receipts of value
over Rs 50 lacs and for limits over Rs 1 crore, the Branch should inspect the
underlying commodity every -------- months at irregular intervals
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6
200.Udyami Tara relates to
a. Stand up India
b. PMMY
c. e-DFS
201. How many documents are covered under “Initial Document” category of SME
Simplified Documentation?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2
202. How many documents are covered under “Complementary Document” category
of SME Simplified Documentation?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2
203. Which of the following document is used as Agreement for Loan cum
Hypothecation?
a. SME-1
b. SME-2
c. SME-3
d. SME-4
204. SME-1 stands for?

a. Letter of Arrangement
b. Guarantee Agreement
c. Mortgage Recital
d. Letter for pledge
205. Guarantee if obtained thorugh which of the following document?

a. Guarantee deed
b. Guarantee Agreement
c. Letter of Guarantee
d. Special agreement for guarantee
206. Equitable mortgage is created through this document.

a. SME-5
b. SME-2
c. SME-3
139
d. SME-4
207. Letter of confirmation of mortgage is done through which document.

a. SME-5
b. SME-2
c. SME-6
d. SME-4
208. Registered Mortgage is created through …?

a. SME-11
b. SME-8
c. SME-9
d. SME-4
209. SME-11 is used for …?
a. Revival Letter
b. Evergreening Letter
c. Letter of Undertaking
d. Lien Letter
210. SME-12 is used for …?
a. Link Letter
b. Garnisee Order
c. Letter of Undertaking
d. Lien Letter
211. For covering the enhanced portion of working capital finance, this document is
used as supplemental agreement for Loan cum Hypothecation.
a. SME-11
b. SME-8
c. SME-9
d. SME-4
212. The effect of a valid acknowledgement (Revival Letter) is that it commences a fresh
period of limitation from the date
a. it is executed
b. it is stamped
c. it is registered
d. none of these
213. Who signs the Letter of Arrangement?

a. Borrower
b. Guarantor
c. Borrower & Guarantor both
d. Third party Guarantor
214. Who signs the Deed of Mortgage?
140
a. Borrower
b. Guarantor
c. Bank official
d. Owner of the property
215. Who signs the Guarantee Agreement?

a. Borrower
b. Guarantor
c. Borrower & Guarantor both
d. Anyone of the above
216. Mortgage of registered as which place?

a. Notified center
b. Place where Branch is located
c. Place of property
d. Anywhere as per convenience of the borrower
217. Mortgage Deeds are to be registered with the Sub-Registrar of Assurances within
a. 4 months of execution
b. 3 months of execution
c. 2 months of execution
d. 6 months of execution
218. In case of compaies, charges needs to be registered with ROC within

a. 45 days of execution
b. 20 days of execution
c. 30 days of execution
d. 60 days of execution
di.
219. Recording the creation mortgage by depositing of title deed is called;

a. Recital
b. Recording
c. Noting
d. Underwriting
220. Recording the creation mortgage by depositing of title deed is written by;
a. Borrower
b. Guarantor
c. Bank official
d. Sub Registrar
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SME KEY
1 A 46 B 91 B 136 B 181 B
2 B 47 D 92 C 137 C 182 B
3 D 48 A 93 C 138 B 183 B
4 C 49 D 94 C 139 B 184 B
5 B 50 A 95 B 140 B 185 A
6 A 51 B 96 D 141 B 186 D
7 B 52 A 97 C 142 B 187 A
8 D 53 A 98 C 143 A 188 D
9 C 54 A 99 A 144 B 189 B
10 A 55 D 100 B 145 A 190 A
11 B 56 B 101 B 146 C 191 B
12 D 57 B 102 A 147 C 192 C
13 D 58 D 103 D 148 C 193 C
14 A 59 A 104 A 149 C 194 B
15 C 60 B 105 A 150 D 195 D
16 C 61 B 106 C 151 A 196 A
17 D 62 C 107 B 152 C 197 A
18 D 63 B 108 C 153 A 198 C
19 A 64 A 109 B 154 C 199 C
20 B 65 B 110 A 155 A 200 A
21 D 66 B 111 C 156 C 201 A
22 B 67 C 112 D 157 C 202 D
23 A 68 B 113 A 158 D 203 B
24 C 69 A 114 C 159 C 204 A
25 A 70 A 115 D 160 D 205 B
26 D 71 D 116 C 161 D 206 A
27 A 72 A 117 B 162 A 207 C
28 C 73 B 118 B 163 B 208 C
29 B 74 B 119 B 164 B 209 A
30 D 75 B 120 C 165 B 210 A
31 A 76 B 121 D 166 A 211 D
32 A 77 D 122 B 167 A 212 A
33 C 78 C 123 D 168 C 213 C
34 D 79 D 124 D 169 D 214 D
35 D 80 C 125 D 170 A 215 B
36 B 81 A 126 A 171 B 216 A
37 B 82 B 127 D 172 B 217 A
38 B 83 B 128 C 173 A 218 C
39 A 84 D 129 D 174 B 219 A
40 B 85 B 130 A 175 D 220 C
41 B 86 C 131 A 176 B
42 A 87 C 132 C 177 D
43 D 88 A 133 A 178 B
44 D 89 C 134 B 179 A
45 C 90 C 135 A 180 C
142
AGRICULTURE SEGMENT
1. In rural and semi-urban areas for all types of loans including under Government
Sponsored Schemes (GSS) no due certificate is to be obtained when
a. Loan amount is more than Rs.25000

b. Loan amount is more than Rs.50000
c. Loan amount is more than Rs.100000
d. Not to be obtained
2.Under tie-up arrangement the ceiling for collateral free contract farming loan per
farmer is enhanced to Rs.------ lacs.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
3.Collateral security can be Nil for crop loans (ACC / KCC) upto Rs.----- lacs to
farmers having legal ownership of agricultural land with good repayment track record
for last three years and not covered under Agriculture Debt Waiver & Debt Relief
Scheme, 2008
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
4.Interest on overdue crop loans/term loans should be charged at --------intervals.
a. Monthly
b. Quaterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Annually
5. Irregular crop loans (any amount) – visits for recovery should be undertaken.
a. Monthly
b. Quaterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Annually
6. Agri Term Loans (all limits):Where movable assets are created out of our finance:
One post disbursement inspection within ------- month should be undertaken and
Creation of the asset to be invariably ensured and recorded.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
143
7. Regular term loans (any amount) – inspection once in ------- months for verification
of asset (preferably at harvest time) will suffice.
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
8.Pre-sanction: Agri Assistants / Senior Assistant / Special Assistants as members of

the Marketing and Recovery Teams (MRTs) can conduct pre-sanction inspections in
respect of all agricultural loans upto a limit of Rs.-------.
a. 25000
b. 50000
c. 75000
d. 100000
9.In terms of RBI guidelines, the branches may waive insurance of assets financed
by the bank in all categories of priority sector advances upto Rs.-------/-.
a. 10000
b. 25000
c. 50000
d. 100000
10.Upto------% of the maximum powers delegated to the officials or Rs.25000/-,

whichever is higher, fortnightly control returns by way of simple listing will have to be
submitted in respect of all advances sanctioned at the branch.
a. 25
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30
11. Hypothecation Agreement is

a. AB-1
b. AB-2
c. AB-3
d. AB-4
12. Deed of Guarantee to be executed by the guarantor to a loan, wherever such

guarantees
are obtained. The form used for this is
a. AB-1
b. AB-2
c. AB-3
d. AB-4
13.The deed of mortgage in Agri advances is
144
a. AB-1
b. AB-2
c. AB-3
d. AB-4
14.Revival letter is obtained in the form

a. AB-1
b. AB-2
c. AB-3
d. AB-4
15.Letter to the borrower demanding repayment of crop loan is sent in .
a. AB-5
b. AB-6
c. AB-7
d. AB-8
16. Letter to be addressed to the Bank by the borrower and the guarantor for
conversion of Crop Loan to Term Loan or re-scheduling repayment of exiting Term
Loans in form no
a. AB-5
b. AB-6
c. AB-7
d. AB-8
17.In terms of Section ------ of the Contract Act, an agreement to pay a time barred
debt is a valid contract.
a. 25
b. 26
c. 27
d. 28
18.The scales of finance i.e. crop-wise estimates for cost of cultivation and loan
requirement per acre are worked out by the -------- for the various crops grown locally
in the district.
a. SLBC
b. DLTC
c. Financing Bank
d. Lead Bank
19.Crop loans upto Rs.---------/- may be disbursed in cash at the request of the
borrowers.
a. 25000
b. 50000
c. 10000
d. Any amount
145
20. Which of the following is not considered for assesment of KCC
a. Maintenance expenses of farm assets

b. crop insurance
c. Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS)
d. Life insurance of farmer.
21.Marginal farmers will be sanctioned a composite limit (as Flexi KCC limit) of
Rs.10,000/- to Rs.---------/- based on the land holding and crop grown + small term
loan investments,
a. 15000
b. 25000
c. 50000
d. 100000
22. ------- has to be consideredfor the purpose of fixing collateral security

requirement.
a. MDL
b. MPL
c. Either a or b
23.Processing charges for limits up to Rs.50000/- in KCC is

a. 100
b. 500
c. 250
d. Nil
24. Processing charges for limits more than Rs.50,000 and upto Rs.1.00 lac in KCC
is
a. 100
b. 500
c. 250
d. Nil
25. Processing charges for limits more than Rs.1 lac and upto Rs.3 lac in KCC is
a. Rs.100/- per lac or part thereof

b. Rs.200/- per lac or part thereof
c. Rs.300/- per lac or part thereof
26.Maximum processing charge in KCC is
a. 0.20%
b. 0.30%
c. 0.50
d. 0.75%
146
27.The main objective of “SBI Krishak Uthaan Yojna” is
a. to provide easy access to short term production and consumption credit to
meet genuine requirements of tenant farmers, share croppers and oral
lessees having no recorded land records
b. To sanction higher loan amount
c. To form cluster of village to undertake developmental activities
28. Maximum Limit under SBI Krishak Uthaan Yojna is upto Rs.--------/- (maximum)
a. 50000
b. 100000
c. 200000
d. 300000
29. Which of the following facilities can be sanctioned for Agricultural Gold Loans
a. Demand loan
b. Cash Credit
c. Overdraft
d. Term Loan
e. All of the above
30. Against ornaments made of which metals can loan be sanctioned ?
a. Gold
b. Silver
c. Brass
d. a and b above
e. all of the above
31.Application and Appraisal for gold loan is to be carried out in
a. SIM/GL-1
b. IM/GL-2
c. SIM/GL-3
d. SIM/GL-4
32. Gold Ornaments take delivery letter is to be obtained in
a. SIM/GL-1
b. SIM/GL-2
c. SIM/GL-3
d. SIM/GL-4
33. Generally margin of gold loan should be ----%
a. 30
b. 20
c. 25
d. 40
147
34.In gold loan Branch Manager has the discretion to reduce margin up to
a. 30
b. 20
c. 25
d. 40
35.------ is responsible for fineness, purity and weight of gold ornaments.
a. Field Officer
b. Accountant
c. Branch Manager
d. Cash Officer
36.In cases of loan above Rs.-------/-, branches other than Chennai cirle should get
the gold ornament assayed by a local jeweller for their genuineness.
a. 50000
b. 100000
c. 25000
d. 200000
37.Service charges of local jweller verifying purity of gold is to be borne by
a. Branch
b. Borrower
c. Both in the ratio of 50:50
d. For loans more than Rs.50000 charges are to be borne by beneficiary
38.Maximum period of repayment in case of gold loan is -----months.
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48
39.Can loan be sanctioned against gold ornaments bearing names, initials or other
marks, which are, prima-facie, not those of the borrowers ?
a. Yes after Cash Officer satisfies himself through discreet enquiries that the
borrowers have full title to the ornaments despite the existence of initials or
marks thereon.
b. Yes after the borrower proves that ornamemts belong to him
c. Cannot be sanctioned
40. KCC is valid for ------years and reviewed at ------periodical intervals
a) 1, 3 b) 5, 1 c) 1, 2 d) 2, 1
148
41. Inter Cropping means:
a) Cultivation of Paddy along with goat rearing

b) Cultivation of short duration crops between the rows of main crops on the same
land
c) Cultivation of crops once in two years on the same land
42. While converting crop loan into term loan, interest portion is:
a) Paid by the borrower

b) Written off by the Bank
c) May be paid by the borrower or clubbed with the principal
d) Contributed by the State Government
43. Crop loan is secured by __________ of the standing crop

a) Pledge
b) Lien
c) Mortgage
d) Hypothecation
44. ATM card can be issued under which of the following schemes:
a) KCC
b) GCC
c) KGC
d) Artisan Credit Card
45. In case of finance to weaker section in Agricultural segment, cost of photo graph
is to be borne by ------
a) Borrower
b) Bank
c) Borrower: Bank 50:50
d) Photograph not required
46. Obtaining Revival Letters in Agri segment is dispensed with, in case of

____which are repaid regularly and are Standard Assets.
a) KCC Loan accounts

b) Agri Term Loan accounts
c) Both KCC & Agri Term Loan accounts
d) Agricultural Gold loans
47. APEDA means
a) Allied Agrl. Products Export Development Agency

b) Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority
c) Agri. and Processed Food Products Export Dev. Agency
d) None of the Above
149
48. MPEDA stands for
a) Multi Purpose Employment Dev. Agency

b) Marine Pisciculture Employment Dev. Authority
c) Marine Products Exports Development Authority
49.The second five year plan was based on
a. Mohalanobis model
b. Vakil and Brahmananda wage goods model
c. Harrod-Domar Growth model
50. RBI has decided to Issue _______ coins to commemorate the 150th anniversary
of Swami Vivekananda.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 50
d. 100
51.Which of the following is not true about Produce Marketing Loan?
a. Produce marketing loan is a short-term loan

b. It provides farmers liquidity
c. Enables farmers to avoid distress sale of their farm produce at the time of
harvest.
52.Maximum loan amount under PML is -----lac

a. 10
b. 20
c. 50
d. 50
53.Maximum tenor of PML is ----------months.

a. 6
b. 9
c. 12
d. 24
54.Who are eligible for PML ?

a. where farmers have availed crop loans for raising the crop
b. Farmers, including group of farmers, who have availed crop loan from
other Banks
c. Both a and b
150
55.Can PML be sanctioned to Farmers, including group of farmers,. who have not
availed crop loan from any Bank ?
a. Yes PML can be sanctioned against ware house/cold storage receipts of

approved
warehouses/cold storages only.
b. PML up to 6 months can be sanctioned
c. Both a and b
d. PML up to 10 lac can be sanctioned
56. In case of PML, Credit Informaiton Report is to be obtained from which CIC ?
a. CIBIL
b. Highmark
c. Equifax
d. Either a or b
57. In PML the commodity offered for pledge is to be valued by considering the
a. Minimum Support Price, wherever declared.
b. Price genrally prevailing at the time of harvest of the commodity in the current
year
c. Current Market Price.
d. d.The lowest of the all the above
58.In PML Collateral Security for amount exceeding Rs.1.00 lakh, is

a. Not required
b. Waived up to Rs.10 lac
c. Mortgage of land
d. Waived up to 5 lac
59.As regards collateral security in PML, in cases where WHR issued by approved
warehouses,
a. Not required
c. Mortgage of land
60.As regards collateral security in PML, in cases where WHR issued by Banks
approved collateral
managed warehouses
a. Not required
c. Mortgage of land
61.Margin in case of PML where goods are stored in farmer’s warehouse
a. 25% b.30% c.35% d.40%
151
62.Cash disbursement in PML can be made up to
a. 10000
b. 20000
c. 50000
d. 100000
63.In case the farmer stores the pledged produce in his house / custody and if the
value of the stock exceeds Rs.-------/- the entire stock should be insured for its full
value with an insurance company .
a. 10000
b. 15000
c. 25000
d. 50000
64. In PML, where the loan amount exceeds Rs-------/-, the hypothecated stocks
should be inspected at monthly intervals, otherwise the stocks should be inspected
once in two months.
a. 25000
b. 50000
c. 100000
d. 200000
65.Total PML of Rs.------ crore can be sanctioned per private Warehouse /Cold
storage (both financed by us and otherwise) for circles other then Hyderabad circle.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10
66.Interest subvention is available in PML only up to----months
a. 6
b. 9
c. 12
67.Interest subvention in PML is available to

a. To Small and Marginal farmers having KCC
b. To all farmers
c. To non borrowers
68. The tenor of the term loans would be for a fixed period exceeding --- years.
a. 2 b.3 c.5 d.7
152
69.The Economic Unit as per NABARD in respect of cross-bred milch cattle is-----
animals
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
70.Due dates for repayment may be fixed based on the harvesting time, giving
reasonable time of, say, ---- months for the farmer to market his produce.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
71.In case of Modified New Tractor Loan Scheme and Stree Shakti Tractor Loan
Scheme minimum land criteria is fixed at ------ acres.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
72.In tractor loan (modified new tractor loan scheme) Minimum ---- hours work per
annum should be available for the tractor including the custom hiring service.
a. 500
b. 600
c. 700
d. 400
73. In tractor loan (modified new tractor loan scheme), at least -----% of total amount
required for repayment of loan instalment together with interest shall come from
incremental income derived out of mechanisation of borrowers’ farm.
a. 50
b. 40
c. 60
74.Loans for small lift irrigation scheme can be given subject to total financial outlay
not to exceed Rs.---- lacs.
a. 5
b. 7
c. 10
d. 8
75.NABRAD refinance is is available for traditional and routine activities financed by

banks under farm sector with limits not exceeding Rs.------ lacs.
153
a. 10
b. 15
c. 25
d. 50
76.As regards refinance fromNABARD, presently bank’s policy is
a. To avail refinance
b. Not to avail refinance
c. To avail refinance in select cases
d. To avail refinance only for loans more than Rs.10 lac
77.Amounts not collected during the year of occurrence of the calamity, should be
converted into term loans for a period upto ----- years and for small and marginal
farmers upto ----- years in the normal circumstances.
a. 3/5
b. 5/7
c. 2/4
78.In extreme cases of hardship arising out of very severe loss to the crops, or
occurrence of three successive crop failures and the debt burden being found to be
beyond the immediate repaying capacity of the borrowers, conversion for longer
period upto a maximum period of ---- years may also be considered, in consultation
with the Task Force /SLBC.
a. 5
b. 7
c. 9
d. 8
79. Swarna Dhara compaign relates to:
a) Sprinkler Irrigation
b)Drip Irrigation
c)Canal irrigation
d)Agri Gold loan
80. Interest Subvention of ----% is available in case of gold loans for crop production
purpose.
a)1.0%
b) 1.5%
c) 2.0%
d) 3.0%
81. Our Bank stipulates a margin of _______in case of Agri Gold Loan.
154
a) 30%
b) 25%
c) 20%
d) 15%
82. Gold Smith charges are paid by debit to
a) Borrower's A/c
b) Bank's Commission A/c
c) Bank's Charges A/c
d) Bank's Interest A/c
83. Which among the following is correct regarding sanction of Agri Gold Loans?
a) Agri Gold loans can be sanctioned to illiterate borrowers.

b) Gold loans can be sanctioned for investment purpose
c) Ornaments pledged should be in joint custody.
d) All of above
84. Maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned under Agri Gold Loan is
a) Rs 3.00 lacs
b) Rs 10. 00 lacs
c) 5 times of Annual Farm Income
d) No limit is stipulated
85. Repayment period stipulated for Agri Gold Loan sanctioned for crop production is
a)6 Months
b)12 Months
c)18 Months
d)30 Months
86. Agri Gold loan under the non interest subvention category can be financed for
persons
a) engaged in agriculture, cultivating own and / or leased land

b) for allied activities like Dairy, Poultry, Piggery, Sheep etc.
c) to meet the investment credit needs of farmers including farm mechanization, land
development, irrigation, horticulture, floriculture,farm house, transportation of
agriculture produce etc
a) All of the above
87. In case of agricultural gold loan, delivery of ornaments to a third party, signature
of the receiver will be obtained on-------
a) Gold loan ledger
b) COS 49
c) Both a & b
d) Not required
155
88. Agricultural gold loans can be sanctioned as
a) Demand Loan
b) Term Loan
c) Over Draft
d) Cash Credit
e) All of these
89.In the event of fall of market price or in the case of adverse fluctuation of more
than ---% during the course of month, PMD will flash special alerts through SBI
Times and based on that branches have to initiate corrective action, if needed.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
90.In the case of gold below ---- Ct. the borrower should be properly introduced by a
person well-known to the branch in addition to usual KYC due diligence.
a. 24
b. 22
c. 18
91. In gold in circles other than Chennai and Hyderabad, in case of loans above
Rs.-------/-, branches should get the gold ornament assayed by a local jeweller for
their genuineness.
a. 50000
b. 100000
c. 25000
d. 200000
92. RBI in their Monetary Policy Statement 2013-14 announced on 03.05.2013,

restricted the facility of advances against the security of gold coins per customer to
gold coins weighing upto ---- gms.
a. 30
b. 50
c. 100
d. 75
93. Ad vance value of the gold is avised by
a. LHO
b. Corporate Centre
c. Region Office
d. SLBC
156
94.In which of the following cases, gold loans are eligible for interest subvention
a) Upto the repayment due date fixed by the Bank.

b) Upto the date of actual repayment by the farmer (which shall be before the
repayment due date fixed by the Bank)
c) 12 months from the date of first disbursement of such loan
d) a or b or c whichever is earlier.
95.Which of the following is not a method for verifying the purity of the gold ?
a. Touch stone method

b. Nitric acid method
c. Specific gravity method
96.Which of the following is correct formula for specific gravity method?
a.19.3 = X /X-Y (where 19.3 is the specific gravity of 24 carat gold)

b.19.4 = X /X-Y (where 19.3 is the specific gravity of 24 carat gold)
c.19.5 = X /X-Y (where 19.3 is the specific gravity of 24 carat gold)
d.19.6 = X /X-Y (where 19.3 is the specific gravity of 24 carat gold)
97.Gold assaying machines are called
a. Karatometer
b. Goldmeter
c. Machmeter
98.Memorandum in respect of Gold Ornament(s) deposited as security is obtained

in form
a. SIM – GL/7
b. SIM – GL/9
c. SIM – GL/8
d. SIM – GL/6
99. Delivery of ornaments to a third party, who must be identified, may be made on
repayment of loan only in very exceptional circumstances and on undoubted
authority of the borrower. The letter of authority in such cases should be obtained as
per
a. SIM – GL/7
b. SIM – GL/4
c. SIM – GL/8
d. SIM – GL/6
100. In case of tractor loan, one post disbursement inspection within ----- month
should be undertaken.
a. 1
157
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6
101.In scoring model proposals with credit score of ----- & above are considered
‘Good Loans’ for sanction
a. 66
b. 61
c. 81
d. 71
102. In scoring model, proposals with credit score of ----- and below should not be
considered for sanction.
a. 41
b. 51
c. 25
d. 26
103. In case of regular accounts (any amount) - inspection once in----- months for
verification of asset (preferably at harvest time) will suffice.
a. 6
b. 3
c. 9
104.In Kharif Mono crop, disbursement can be made up to
a. 31st August
b. 30th September
c. 31st Ocober
d. 31st March
105. In Rabi Mono crop, disbursement can be made up to

a. 31st August
b. 30th September
c. 31st Ocober
d. 31st March
106.In Double/multiple crop, disbursement can be made during
a. Between 1st April to 31st August

b. Between 1st April to 30th September
c. Between 1st April to 31st Ocober
d. Between 1st April to 31st March
107.---------- provide due date structure for each crop based on the crop season
period of their States / districts and local farming conditions, which is not in line with
our common due dates.
158
a. RBI
b. NABARD
c. SLBC
d. DLTC
108. Borrowers are required to route their farm proceeds or other credits into the
KCC account, with a minimum of ------------- and other charges, if any, within the
repayment due date.
a. 110% of loan amount

b. 115% of loan amount
c. 125% of loan amount
d. Loan amount plus interest
109. If the KCC borrower needs enhanced MDL, beyond the regular 10% increase
(10% in short term loan component) for reasons of enhancement of scale of finance
or otherwise, during a particular year to meet his / her genuine farming requirement
a. it may also be considered by the branch, within the sanctioned KCC limit
(MPL)
b. It cannot be considered by the branch
c. Only additional 5% can be given
110, If the KCC borrower fails to repay or route the proceeds or other credits into his/
her KCC as on the due date of repayment which of the following would happen ?
a. will not be eligible for additional interest subvention for prompt repayment.
b. Interest beyond the due date will be at card rate and compounded half yearly.
c. MDL of the KCC account will become zero and no further drawals will be
allowed.
d. Branch will have to initiate recovery process immediately.
e. All of the above
111.In case the KCC borrower repays the loan, but after the due date of repayment
a. Revised MDL cannot be released

b. Revised MDL for the relevant year can be released
c. The limit is to be reassessed
112.As per IRAC norms, KCC accounts will be become NPA if they remain overdue
a. For 2 crop season for long duration crop
b. For 1 crop season for multiple crop
c. For 2 crop season for multiple crop
113.In case of non-payment within the repayment due dates, interest will be applied
at ---------, beyond the repayment due date, compounded at half yearly rests.
159
a. 2% higher
b. 3% higher
c. 4% higher
d. Card Rate
114. As per RBI guidelines, additional interest subvention (@----% as of now) will
be paid to the farmer only if he / she repays the loan on or before the due date.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
115. Credit balances in KCC account will fetch interest at ------------ rate.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. Savings Bank Rate
116.To whom KCC limit cannot be sanctioned ?
a. All farmers-individuals/Joint borrowers who are owner cultivators.

b. Tenant farmers, Oral lessees and Share Croppers etc.
c. SHGs or Joint Liability Groups of farmers including tenant farmers, share
croppers etc.,
117. Short term credit limit is fixed for the first year depending upon
a. the crops cultivated as per proposed cropping pattern & scale of finance
b. post harvest/household/ consumption requirements and
c. Maintenance expenses of farm assets, crop insurance, Personal Accident
Insurance Scheme (PAIS) and Asset insurance.
d. All of the above
118. Investment credit requirement of small value in the nature of farm implements/
equipments etc (like sprayer, plough etc.,) and repayable within a period of one year
will be included while fixing KCC limit. Select the statements which are true.
a. There can be automatic step up of this limit during 2nd to 5th year.
b. This portion of the credit will not be included for automatic step up during 2nd
year to 5th year
c. credit requirement for this portion in each year will be reckoned for arriving at
the maximum drawal limit for the respective year
d. only b and c
119.What is true about MPL
a. It is the limit for 5th year
160
b. The short term loan limit arrived for the 5th year plus estimated investment
loan requirement as in (highest among the five years )
c. It is the limit for which documents are executed
d. Both b and c
120. Processing charges waived for KCC limit up to Rs.----- lacs.
a. 2
b. 0.50
c. 5
d. 1
121. Rate of interest for KCC account is based on the ------------
a. MDL
b. MPL
c. Actual amount disbursed
d. All accounts will have same rate
122. Under NHB Scheme, subsidy is calculated on the basis of .
a. Project Cost
b. Bank loan
c. Land holding and type of crop
d. Subsidy
123. The concept of Farmers Club was initiated by …………………
a. SBI
b. RBI
c. NABARD
d. GOVT.
124. AB1 (SIMPLE) is applicable to farmers sanctioned with loan of Rs
a. Rs.50000
b. Rs.1 lac
c. Rs.2.00 lac
d. none of the abov
125. Production credit under Krishak Uthaan Yojana is extended as
a. Revolving credit
b. Overdraft
c. Term Loan
d. Composite Term Loan
126.Under SSTL Minimum annual income of borrower(s) should be Rs. -------- /- from
all sources
161
a. 100000
b. 150000
c. 200000
127. Under SSTL, EMI/NMI ratio shall not exceed -------%.
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60
128. in SSTLwith liquid collateral, Security of gold ornaments, NSC, Time Deposits
(advance value of gold ornaments, time deposits, NSC) to the extent of a minimum
----% is obtained for loans sanctioned under ‘SSTL with Collateral’
a. 30
b. 35
c. 40
d. 45
129. In SSTL with liquid collateral margin is to be obtained at -------% for tractor on
original invoice and taxes
a. 20
b. 10
c. 25
d. 30
130.SSTLwith liquid collateral is to be repaid in -----months.
a. 24
b. 36
c. 48
d. 60
131.Mortgage free SSTL without liquid securities is to be repaid in ------ months.
a. 24
b. 36
c. 48
d. 60
132.Maximum loan amount under new tractor loan scheme is -----lacs
a. 5
b. 7
c. 10
d. No upper limit
133.Minimum land holding for new tractor loan scheme is -----acre
a. 2
162
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
134.Margin under new tractor loan scheme is -----%

a. 15
b. 25
c. 20
d. 10
135.Repayment period in new tractor loan scheme is ------months.
a. 24
b. 36
c. 48
d. 60
136. Under Tatkal Tractor loan scheme, free accidental insurance cover up to
Rs.------- Lakhs is given.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 5
137. Margin under Tatkal tractor loan scheme is -----%
a. 15
b. 25
c. 20
d. 10
138.For combined harvester loan, the Farmer should own minimum ------- acres of
irrigated land
a. 2
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
139.Repayment period in combined harvester loan is ------years.

a. 3
b. 6
c. 5
d. 9
140. Dairy Society Plus loan is provided to dairy societies for modernization and
creating infrastructures like
a. Construction of "milk house or society office"
b. Purchase of "Automatic milk collection system"
163
c. Purchase of transport vehicles.
d. Purchase of Bulk chilling unit
e. All of these
141. To be eligible under Dairy Society Plus, the society should be supplying an
average of ------ litres of milk to the milk union per day.
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 3000
d. 4000
142.Maximum loan amount under dairy society plus is----lacs

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
143. Margin under dairy society plus scheme is -----%
a. 15
b. 25
c. 20
d. 10
144.Repayment period under dairy society plus-----months.
a. 36
b. 48
c. 60
d. 72
145.Which of the following is not a condition for financing under dairy society plus?
a. Audited balance sheet for at least previous two years.

b. Earned pre-tax profits in the last two years
c. If borrowed from other banks- prior liquidation and no dues certificate is
necessary.
146.The collateral security under poulty loan is Mortgage of land on which the poultry
shed and other infrastructure are available or proposed to be constructed covering at
least -----% of advance
a. 25
b. 50
c. 60
d. 75
147.Margin under poulty loan is
a. 15%
164
b. 25%
c. 20%
d. 10%
148.Repayment period under poultry loan ----years.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 6
149.Repayment period of fisheries loan is ----months.

a. 36
b. 48
c. 60
d. 72
150.Under Scheme for debt swapping of borrowers, the quantum of loan granted
shall be 100% if the debt is on account of cultivation or agri activity, with a maximum
of Rs ----------/.
a. 50000
b. 100000
c. 200000
151.Maximum loan amount under land purchase scheme is------- lacs
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
152.Land purchase scheme is applicable to
a. Small and marginal farmers

b. Any farmer
c. Any borrower
d. Only marginal farmers
153.Under Land purchase scheme, entire loan amount together with interest may be
recovered over a maximum period of ------ years
a. 3 to 5
b. 5 to 7
c. 9 to 10
165
154.Under Kisan Gold Card Scheme, the loan limit would be equal to five times the
Annual Farm Income or ----% of the value of the land mortgaged as collateral
security, whichever is less.
a. 50
b. 60
c. 40
d. 75
155. Withdrawals for consumption purposes under Kisan Gold Card scheme should
not, however, exceed -------% of the limit sanctioned.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 25
156.What is the ceiling on maximum subsidy in any category for the finance under
the scheme Capital Investment Subsidy for Construction/Renovation of Rural
Godowns
a. Rs. 2 Crore
b. Rs.2.25 Crore
c. Rs.1.35 Crore
d. Rs. 3 crore
157.Location of the “GODOWN”, under Rural “Godown Scheme” should be :
a. Within Municipal Corporation Area

b. Outside Municipal Corporation Area
c. There is no such restriction
158.Permissible project cost under Rural Godown Scheme , upto 1000 tonne is:
a. As per appraised by the Bank

b. Actual Cost
c. Rs 3500/- per MT Storage Capacity
d. Lower of a,b,c.
159.Margin under cold storage finance is-----%.

a. 20
b. 25
c. 30
d. 15
160.Subsidy for RURAL GODOWN is provided by:

a. RBI
b. NABARD
166
c. IDFC
d. STATE GOVT.
161.Objective of the scheme for debt swapping of borrowers is :

a. To mitigate acute distress, due to the heavy burden of debt from non-
institutional lenders.
b. To extend finance for paying off loans taken from non- institutional lenders
(e.g. money lenders etc.)
c. To enable such farmers in distress, meet their crop production needs.
d. All the above
162.Margin under KRISHAK UTHAAN SCHEME is ----%

a. Nil
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15
163.The validity of Kisan Gold Card Scheme is --------year

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
164.Under combined harvester loan, at least at least ----- percent of repayment
(principal and interest) should come from incremental income.
a. 40
b. 50
c. 60
d. 35
165.What is crop season period for long duration crop.
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. 36 months
166.What is crop season period for multiple crops.

a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. 36 months
167.NPA reckon date is arrived at by crop season period to

a. MDL due date
b. KCC account opening date
c. KCC renewal date
167
168.ATL for purchasing pump becomes NPA if it remains overdue for
a. 2 crop seasons
b. 1 crop seasons
c. 1 year
d. 2 year
169. TATKAL (mortgage free) tractor loan can be sanctioned to High Net worth
farmers who are capable of purchasing tractor with cash and who secures ----- &
above under Tractor Credit Scoring Model.
a. 51
b. 61
c. 71
d. 66
170. Under TATKAL (mortgage free) tractor loan if Combined marks scored under
(Hiring Potential + Percentage of income from allied activities) is between 11-14, the
repayment frequency should be
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Annually
171.ASSET BACKED AGRI LOAN amount will be fixed on the basis of how many
times of annual farm income/ non farm income from all verifiable sources?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
172.ASSET BACKED AGRI LOAN the Minimum Loan Amount is ………..?

a. 5 lakhs
b. 3 lakhs
c. 2 lakhs
d. 1 lakh
173.ASSET BACKED AGRI LOAN the Maximum Loan Amount is ………..?

a. 50 lakhs
b. 200 lakhs
c. 25 lakhs
d. 100 lakhs
174.What is the LTV for ASSET BACKED AGRI LOAN ?

a. 50%
b. 60
c. 65%
d. 75%
168
175.What is the repayment period for ASSET BACKED AGRI LOAN?
a. 12-60 months
b. 12-72 months
c. 18-84 months
d. 12-84 months
176.ASSET BACKED AGRI LOAN the Immovable Property (Land and Building) for
value not less than …………..% of the loan amount by way of first charge?
a. 170%
b. 150%
c. 165%
d. 155%
177.The processing fee for ASSET BACKED AGRI LOAN is ……..% of the loan
amount?
a. 0.25
b. 0.50
c. 0.75
d. 1.00
178.In Financing Farmers’ Receivables under Corporate Tie-up the Internal Credit
Rating should be …….. and above?
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10
179. For financing dairy units, the farmer should own minimum ----- acre land for
cultivation of fodder for every 5 animals.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
180. For financing dairy units, individual farmers, who are members of the dairy
societies for more than 2 years and producing & selling at least ----- lts. of milk per
year to the society,
are eligible to avail the scheme.
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 3000
d. 1500
181.For financing Combine Harvesters (as an attachment / equipment) the farmer

should own a tractor of not less than ……… HP?
a. 50
b. 45
c. 40
d. 35
169
182.What is the minimum margin for Financing of Combine Harvester?
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 35%
183. Self Help Group (SHG) is a voluntary homogenous group of maximum------

individuals from the weaker sections.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
184.What is the inspection period prescribed for Financing of Combine Harvester?

a. Monthly
b. Bi-monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Half Yearly
185.What is the Turn Around Time (TAT) for Financing of Combine Harvester from
the date of submission of all the required documents/papers by the prospective
borrower/s?
a. 5 days
b. 7 days
c. 10 days
d. days
186.In Special SBI OTS 2016-17 for Tractor, Combine Harvester and Farm
Mechanization loan accounts with outstanding upto what amount are eligible, which
are classified as Doubtful or Loss asset as on 30.09.2016 and disbursed on or
before 30.09.2011.
a. 10 lakhs
b. 25 lakhs
c. 50 lakhs
d. 30lakhs
187.In Pradahn Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana what is the premium In case of annual
commercial and horticultural crops?
a. 1.5%
b. 2%
c. 3.5%
d. 5%
188.In Pradahn Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana what is the premium In case of Kharif
crops?
a. 1.5%
b. 2%
c. 3.5%
d. 5%
170
189.In Pradahn Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana what is the premium In case Rabi crops
and for food crop, oilseeds and pulses.?
a. 1.5%
b. 2%
c. 3.5%
d. 5%
190.In Pradahn Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana Banks are eligible for commission /
service charges at what percentage of the premium collected from farmers from
Insurance Company.
a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. 4%
191.PMFBY is not exempted from Service Tax, State True or False?

a. True
b. False
192.What is the eligibility of land ownership in acres required for FINANCING OF

POWER TILLER?
a. 0.50 acre
b. 1 acre
c. 2 acres
d. 3 acres
193.If a farmer is not having minimum land ownership then maximum how many
farmers can join together to fulfill the criteria of minimum land ownership to avail loan
for POWER TILLER?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. No such criteria
194.What is the repayment period for FINANCING OF POWER TILLER?
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 9 years
d. 3 years
195.What is the minimum margin required for FINANCING OF POWER TILLER?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 25%
171
196.For financing New High Tech Product: Poly House/Net House/Green House
Cultivation what is the minimum score required in Credit Scoring Model?
a. 25 marks
b. 50 marks
c. 61 marks
d. 76 marks
Cultivation what is the repayment period?
a. 60 months
b. 36 months
c. 72 months
d. 48 months
Cultivation what is the value of collateral to be obtained for loans above 1 lakh
amount?
a. 150%
b. 155%
c. 170%
d. 200%
Cultivation what is the minimum size required for the unit?
a. 500 sq.m
b. 1000 sq.m.
c. 1200 sq.m
d. 1500 sq.m.
200.In New Dairy Product Under Tie-up to finance existing farmers associated with
anchor companies (co-operative societies/recognized private milk dairies) for
purchase of milch animals the loan is given for minimum ………milch animals?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
172
KEY - AGRICULTURE SEGMENT
1 D 41 B 81 A 121 A 161 D
2 B 42 C 82 A 122 A 162 A
3 B 43 D 83 D 123 C 163 A
4 C 44 A 84 D 124 B 164 B
5 A 45 B 85 B 125 A 165 B
6 A 46 B 86 D 126 B 166 B
7 B 47 B 87 A 127 D 167 A
8 B 48 C 88 E 128 A 168 A
9 A 49 A 89 A 129 B 169 B
10 A 50 A 90 B 130 C 170 A
11 A 51 D 91 A 131 B 171 D
12 B 52 D 92 B 132 D 172 B
13 C 53 C 93 B 133 A 173 B
14 D 54 C 94 D 134 A 174 C
15 B 55 A 95 D 135 D 175 B
16 C 56 D 96 A 136 B 176 D
17 A 57 D 97 A 137 B 177 D
18 B 58 C 98 B 138 C 178 C
19 C 59 B 99 B 139 D 179 A
20 D 60 D 100 A 140 E 180 A
21 C 61 D 101 D 141 A 181 A
22 A 62 B 102 C 142 B 182 C
23 D 63 B 103 A 143 A 183 C
24 A 64 A 104 B 144 C 184 C
25 A 65 C 105 D 145 D 185 B
26 B 66 A 106 D 146 B 186 B
27 A 67 A 107 C 147 B 187 D
28 B 68 B 108 D 148 B 188 B
29 E 69 A 109 A 149 B 189 A
30 D 70 B 110 E 150 B 190 D
31 A 71 A 111 B 151 C 191 B
32 B 72 B 112 C 152 A 192 B
33 A 73 A 113 D 153 C 193 B
34 C 74 A 114 B 154 A 194 A
35 D 75 B 115 D 155 B 195 B
36 A 76 B 116 D 156 D 196 B
37 B 77 A 117 D 157 B 197 C
38 C 78 C 118 D 158 D 198 D
39 A 79 D 119 D 159 B 199 B
40 B 80 C 120 B 160 B 200 B
173
INTERNATIONAL BANKING
1.An individual shall be deemed to be a non-resident as per FEMA & Indian Income
Tax Act:
a. When he / she stays in India for less than 182 days

b.When he / she stays in India up to 182 days
c. When he / she stays in India for less than or up to 180 days
d.Only a and b above
2. Which of the following criterion is to be fulfilled to be considered as PIO (not being

a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh or Sri Lanka or Afghanistan or China or Iran or
Nepal or Bhutan)
a.at any time, held an Indian Passport

b.who or either of their parents / grandparents / great grandparents was born
and permanently resident in India as defined in Government of India Act, 1935
c. who is a spouse of a citizen of India or PIO
d.Any of the above
3.A person who is returning to India after 9 years of stay outside India (and who was
non-resident for each of the 9 years under the Income Tax Act, 1961), shall remain
RNOR for the period of ----- years only.
a.One b.Two c.Three d.Four
4.Under NRE which of the following accounts can be opened ?
a. Current Account b. Special Term Deposit (STDR)

c. Recurring Deposit (RD) d.All of the above
5.Under FCNR(B) which of the following accounts can be opened ?
a. Term Deposit (TDR) b. Special Term Deposit (STDR)

c. Recurring Deposit (RD) d.Only a and b
6.Minimum tenor of term deposit under NRE account is ……?

a.1 year b.6 months c.2 years d.7 days
7.Maximum tenor of term deposit under NRE account is
a.7 years b.10 years c.3 years d.8 years
8. In NRE accounts proceeds of Foreign Currency Notes / Travelers cheques

tendered by NRI / PIO / OCI, while visiting India can be credited. Amounts in excess
of USD -------- (or equivalent) in currency or USD -------- (or equivalent) in Travelers
cheques should be accompanied by a Currency Declaration Form.
a.5000/10000 b.10000/20000
c.7500/10000 d.5000/15000
174
9.Which of the following are permissible credits in NRE account.
a.Transfer from another NRE / FCNR (B) account

b.Transfer from another NRO account (subject to limit)
c.Fresh remittance from abroad through banking channel
d.All of the above
10.In NRE/NRO accounts in Personal Banking Branches: Minimum TDR/STDR

balance should be Rs. --------for Metro / Urban areas and Rs.-------- for Semi-Urban /
Rural areas.
a.100000/50000 b.10000/20000
c.75000/50000 d.5000/15000
11. For NRE accounts in General Branches: minimum amount of deposit in TDR is
a.Rs.1000/- b.Rs.100/- c.Rs.5000/- d.No minimum deposit
12. For NRE accounts in RD, minimum monthly installment is Rs.--------.
a.100/- b.500/- c.1000/- d.No such stipulation
13. NRIs are permitted to open NRE account with their resident close relative as a
joint holder on ------------------------- basis.
a.Either or survivor b.Former or survivor

c.Latter or survivor d.Any mode of operation
14.Minimum tenor of term deposit under NRO account is ……….?
15.Maximum tenor of term deposit under NRE account is
16. In NRO account principal & interest amount are partly repatriable, subject to
overall ceiling of ------------- or equivalent in a financial year
a.USD 1 mio
b.USD 10 mio
c.Any amount can be repatriated
d.Only interest amount can be repartriated before maturity
17.Minimum tenor of Speical term deposit under NRO account is ………?
18.Minimum tenor of RD under NRO account is ……….?
175
19. If interest income is less than or equal to Rs. 1 crore, tax in NRO account will be
deducted at-------------%
a.30.90 b.33 c.20.60 d.25
20. DTAA benefit can be availed by submitting which of the following documents:
a. Tax Residency Certificate issued by the revenue authorities of current

country of residence
b. Self-declaration
c. Form No. 10F
d. All of the above
21. In FCNR(B) account, Interest is paid at a frequency of ------- from date of Term
Deposit
a.Monthly b.Quarterly c.Annually d.180 days
22.In how many currencies FCNR(B) deposit can be accepted ?
a.6 b.7 c.8 d.5
23.Minimum tenor of FCNR(B) deposit account is……..?
24. Maximum tenor of FCNR(B) deposit account is …….?
25.Which of the following is true about FCNR(B) account?
a.Principal & interest amount are fully repatriable

b. Loan/overdraft against deposit permissible
c. Premature withdrawal permissible
d. All of the above
26.RFC account can be opened in how many currencies ?
a. 3 b.4 c.2 d.6
27. Maximum tenor of RFC deposit account is ………?
28.Minimum amount which can be accepted for RFC deposit in acceptable

currencies is….?
a. 1000 b.2000 c.10000 d.25000
176
29. In case of NRO accounts opened by Foreign Students , within a period of -----
days of opening the account, the foreign student should submit to the branch where
the account is opened, a valid address proof giving local address,
a. 60 b.30 c.90 d.45
30. Pending verification of address, in case of NRO accounts opened by Foreign

Students remittances not exceeding USD ---------- into the account should be
allowed.
a. 5000 b.7000 c.10000 d.1000
31. In case of NRO accounts opened by Foreign Students, continuation of account

beyond ---- months will require RBI’s approval.
a. 3 b.4 c.5 d.6
32.When Power of Attorney (POA) is executed outside India by a Non Resident

Indian: Stamp duty should be paid in India within ------- months of receipt in India, as
applicable in the state where it is to be submitted.
a. 3 b.4 c.6 d.2
33. What is true about Letter of Authority (LOA) for NRI account operations
a. Operations in NRI accounts are not permitted on the basis of LOA.

b. Operations in NRI accounts are permitted on the basis of LOA.
c. Operations in NRI accounts are permitted on the basis of LOA after obtaining
approval from the controller.
d. None of the above.
34.Which of the following conversions is not permitted.
a. Domestic to NRO b. NRO to Domestic

b. NRE to Domestic d. NRE to NRO
35.What is true about risk category of NRI accounts ?
a. All accounts are classified in High Risk Category

b. The risk category can be as per profile of the depositor
c. Risk Category can be based on transactions during a year
36.Minimum age for availing NRI home loan is …..?
a. 18 b.21 c.25 d.None of the above
37.Minimum home loan amount under NRI home loan scheme is…………?
a. 3 lac b.5 lac c.10 lac d.25 lac
177
38.Which of the following is true about NRI car loan?
a. NRI will be an Applicant (Borrower), with a Resident Indian as a Guarantor

b. Both Applicant & Guarantor, should be of an age between 21 - 65 years
c. Loan must be repaid before the applicant reaches the age of 65
d. All of the above
39. For availing car loan an NRI has to maintain an NRI account with other Banks for
last 24 months with a minimum balance/fixed deposits of ………………?
a. USD 1000 b. Rs.50000
b. USD 5000 d. Rs.100000
40.For availing car loan, the NRI should have a minimum Net Monthly Income of
USD -------- or a minimum Net Annual Income of USD---------- (equivalent amount in
other currencies)
a. 2000/24000 b. 3000/36000
c.1000/12000 d. None of the above
41.In NRI Car Loan, in addition to hypothecation of vehicle, Collateral to be obtained

is……….?
a. 25% b. Waived c. 35% d. 40%
42.Loan to NRI against NRI deposits cannot be granted for which of the following
activities
a. re-lending
b. carrying out agricultural / plantation activities
c. for investment in real estate
d. All of the above
43.NRI can avail loan against NRI deposits in
a. India Rupees
b. Foreign currency
c. Both Indian Rupees and Foreign currency
d. Only some loans can be availed in foreign currency
44.Which of the following is correct condition regarding premature payment of FCNR

(B) deposits?
a. Interest on premature payment will be paid by the bank only for the period,
FCNR (B) deposit has remained with the Bank.
b. Above interest will be paid at the rate prevailing at the time of opening the
related FCNR (B) deposit account.
c. Minimum period of FCNR (B) deposit prescribed by RBI is one year, no
interest will be paid on premature payment of FCNR (B) deposit if it is paid
within one year from the date of deposit.
d. All of the above
178
45.Loan against FCNR(B) Demand loan can be availed maximum up to…..?
a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 5 years
46.Minimum loan amount under FCNR(B) in USD is…….?
a. 25000
b. 50000
c. 10000
d. 20000
47. Minimum loan amount under FCNR(B) in GBP is……..?

a. 25000
b. 50000
c. 10000
d. 15000
48. Interest rate on Foreign Currency loan is -------- % over prevalent FCNR (B)
deposit rate for the relative period at the time of processing the loan
a. 2.50
b. 2.00
c. 1.00
d. 1.50
49. Normal time taken for SBI Rupee Instant Flash from associated Exchange
Houses or Banks in Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and UAE is…….?
a. 10 min
b. 20 min
c. 1 day
d. 3 hours
50.Under SBI Express Remit UK money is received within …….?

a. 1 day
b. 2 days
c. 3 days
d. 5 days
51. Under SBI Express Remit UK, minimum amount of remittance is GBP ---- and
maximum amount is GBP --------
a. 100/10000
b. 50/25000
c. 50/50000
d. 150/25000
52.”A" Category Branches are authorized to:
a. Open Nostro accounts only

b. Open Vostro accounts only
179
c. Open foreign currency accounts
d. None of these
53.It is a credit where an exporter receiving it from his foreign buyer can approach
his banker to open credits in favour of one or more of his suppliers
a. Transferrable credit
b. Back to Back credit
c. Negotiation credit
d. None of these
54.In case of spot settlement, the settlement happens on
a. T+1 basis
b. On the same day
c. T+2 Basis
d. T+3 basis
55.Which of the following currencies are indirectly quoted
a. EUR
b. GBP
c. AUD
d. All of the above
56.Which of the following factors are taken into consideration for deciding the margin
in rate to the customers.
a. Our wallet share of the customer’s business

b. Credit rating of the company
c. Volumes of business given to us.
d. All of the above
57.Beneficiary of an LC is….?
a. Buyer
b. Seller
c. LC Issuing Bank
d. LC Negotiating Bank
58.Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600 have been revised
wef :
a. 1.4.2007
b. 1.7.2007
c. 1.10.2007
d. 1.1.2007
59.Which of the following is not a correct statement as per UCPDC-600 :
a. Branches of a bank in different countries are different bank

b. If an LC does not state anything, it will be treated as revocable LC
180
c. LC is a separate transaction from contract of sale of goods and services and
not bound by such contract
60.Under Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600, the banks
deal with documents and not with goods, services or performance to which
document relate. This is stated as per Article------------:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
61.Under Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600, which of the
following statement is not correct regarding an advising bank :
a. A credit and any amendment is to be advised to a beneficiary through the

same advising bank
b. An advising bank advises the credit and any amendment without any
undertaking to negotiate
c. By advising the credit, the advising bank signifies that it has satisfied itself as
to the apparent authenticity of the credit
62.Under Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600, a nominated

(negotiating) bank shall have a maximum of ------- days following the day of
presentation to determine if documents are in order :
a. 5 banking days
b. 5 business days
c. 5 working days
d. 5 calendar days
63.Under Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600, what is true
regarding discrepant documents :
a. When a nominated bank determines that the documents do not comply, it

may refuse to honour
b. When a nominated bank determines that the documents do not comply, it
may negotiate at its own risk
c. When an issuing bank determines that the documents do not comply, it
may approach the applicant for a waiver of discrepancies
d. All the above
64.Which of the following is not correct regarding shipping documents under Uniform
Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600 :
a. The date of issuance of the transport document will be deemed to be the

date of shipment
b. A transport document indicating that trans-shipment will or may take place
is acceptable, even if the credit prohibits trans-shipment
181
c. A bill of lading, must indicate that the goods have been shipped on board a
named vessel at the port of loading stated in the credit
65.Under Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600, an insurance

document can not be which of the following?
a. Insurance policy
b. Insurance certificate
c. Declaration under open cover
d. Cover note
66.Under Uniforms Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600, the words
“about” or “apprx” used in connection with the amount of LC or quantity of goods, or
price per unit, the LC are to be construed as allowing a tolerance not to exceed
--------- the amount, quantity or price to which they refer :
a. 15% more or 15% less than

b. 10% more or 10% less than
c. 5% more or 5% less than
d. 2% more or 2% less than
67.Under Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600, if a drawing

or shipment by installments within given periods is stipulated in the credit and any
installment is not drawn or shipped within the period allowed for that installment, the
credit :
a. Ceases to be available for that installment only

b. Ceases to be available for subsequent installments only
c. Ceases to be available for that and any subsequent installment
d. Credit remains available
68.An exporter of your branch receives letter of credit for export of hand-tools to UK
but there is no mention of partial shipment in the credit conveniently. In order to
conveniently dispatch the goods, the exporter wishes that he could partially ship and
also trans-ship the exported material :
a. Only trans-shipment is allowed where the credit is silent

b. Only partial shipment is permitted where the credit is silent
c. Where both of these are not mentioned these are not permitted
d. If the credit is silent, both the partial as well as trans-shipment are allowed
e. a to c
69.State Bank opened a letter of credit on behalf of M/s Mansukhlal and Company
for purchase of goods for trading purpose. Their managing partner comes to your
branch and informs that their booking agent has informed him over phone that the
supplier has sent the goods of a different specification, which are substandard also.
He makes a request to the bank not to make payment of the documents when
received from the negotiating bank :
182
a. The request of the party will be accepted by the bank since the bank has to
deal with the party for business
b. Bank can accept the request of the party since it is a fraud both on the
customer and also the bank
c. Bank cannot accept the request of the party since all the parties deal with
documents in letter of credit instead of goods and services
d. Customer can be advised to file a suit in a court of law and bring a stay
from court
70.An LC provides for allowing pre-shipment credit to the beneficiary, it is called :
a. Confirmed LC
b. Irrevocable LC
c. Back to back LC
d. Red clause LC
71.Under an LC repeated negotiation have been permitted subject to payment of

documents under the previous negotiations by the applicant. It is called :
a. Confirmed LC
b. Irrevocable LC
c. Revolving LC
d. Standby LC
72.The payment by the opening bank has been guaranteed by another bank in an
LC. It is called :
a. Confirmed LC
b. Irrevocable LC
c. Revolving LC
d. Standby LC
73.An exporter gets a letter of credit for export of garments to US but the expiry date
of the credit falls on January 26, which is a public holiday. In such situation the
documents for negotiation can be submitted to the negotiating bank on :
a. Succeeding working day

b. Succeeding business day
c. The succeeding banking day
d. The preceding business day
74.Transferable letter of credits can be transferred :
a. Any no. of times

b. 5 times
c. 2 times
d. A transferred credit cannot be transferred at the request of a second
beneficiary to any subsequent beneficiary
75.When a letter of credit is confirmed by a confirming bank, the request for such
confirmation should come from which of the following :
183
a. Negotiating bank
b. Exporter
c. Importer
d. Issuing Bank
76.In letter of credit transactions, the bank which is allowed to make payment against
the documents is called :
a. Confirming bank
b. Nominated bank
c. Advising bank
d. Issuing bank
e. Reimbursing bank
77.RBI issues directives on export credit under which of the following :
a. Section 12 and 21 of RBI Act

b. Section 21 and 35A of Banking Regulation Act
c. Section 23 and Section 56 of Banking Regulation Act
d. Section 27 of RBI Act
78.Packing credit can be allowed in excess of the export value, in which of the
following circumstances :
a. Where by-product can be exported

b. Where partial domestic sale is involved
c. Export of de-oiled/defatted cakes
d. Any of the above
79.Where running account pre-shipment credit is allowed, which of the following is

correct :
a. Adjustment is on first in first out basis
b. Period of individual credit is not to exceed the prescribed 360 days
c. Pre-shipment credit can be adjusted from proceeds of those exports also
for which no pre-shipment credit has been obtained
d. All the above
80.The term ‘normal transit period’ (NTP) in the context of post shipment export
credit represents :
a. The time taken by documents to reach the importer’s country
b. The time taken by goods to reach the importer’s country
c. The time taken from date of purchase of documents to credit to NOSTRO
account of the bank
d. The time taken by documents to be realized and credited to NOSTRO
account of the bank
81.Which of the form does not match its purpose :
a. EFC – opening of foreign currency account with a bank in India or abroad
by exporters
b. ETX – seeking extension in realization of bills from RBI
184
c. XOS – Statement of export bills outstanding more than 6 months
d. BEF – Application for payment of import payment
82.Gold card for exporters can be issued to which of the following type of exporters
(which one is more appropriate) :
a. All exporters
b. All creditworthy exporters
c. All creditworthy exporters including SME having 3 year standard account
d. All the above
83.Export trade in India is regulated by :

a. RBI
b. SEBI
c. DGFT
d. All the above
84.The amount of export proceeds can be received by the exporters through an AD

bank in the form of (a) bank DD, pay prder or banker’s cheque (b) foreign currency
notes or traveller’s cheque from buyer during visit to India (c) payment from
FCNR/NRE account of the buyer (d) international credit card of the buyer :
a) a, b and d only
b) b, c and d only
c) a, c and d only
d) a to d all
85.A diamond dollar account can be opened by companies/firms etc. dealing in

purchase/sale of rough or cut or polished diamonds, if they are having a track record
of ----- years and annual average turnover is at least ------- during the last 3 licensing
years :
a. 5 years, Rs. 5 cr
b. 3 years, Rs. 5 cr
c. 2 years, Rs. 3 cr
d. 2 years, Rs. 2 cr
86.When a seller undertakes to make the goods available for export, at his factory,
such arrangement is called :
a. Ex-works
b. FOB
c. CIF
d. FOR on ship
87. Advance remittance for import of services, without a bank guarantee, that an AD
can allow, can be up to :
a. USD 100000
185
b. USD 200000
c. USD 500000
d. USD 5000000
88. AD banks can issue bank guarantee for import of services to a maximum extent
of
a. USD 100000
b. USD 200000
c. USD 500000
d. USD 5000000
89.Your branch opens a letter of credit on behalf of a customer for which the
documents have been received but the customer has not been retiring the
documents. The bill in foreign currency will be crystallized if it is not paid within :
a. 180 days
b. 90 days
c. 45 days
d. 30 days
e. 10 days
90.What is the maximum amount that AD category-I banks can release to an Indian
residents for going abroad for employment :
a. USD 10000
b. USD 25000
c. USD 250000
d. USD 200000
91.What is the maximum amount that AD category-I banks can release to an Indian
residents for going abroad for business tour :
a. USD 10000 per trip

b. USD 250000 per annum
c.USD 100000 lump sum
d. USD 2000000 lump sum
92. Drawal of foreign exchange by a person in India is not permitted in respect of

which of the following :
a. Transactions given in Schedule I to FEMA

b. Travel of Nepal and Bhutan
c. Transactions with persons resident in Nepal and Bhutan
d. All the above
93.The visits by a resident Indian to which of the following countries are not eligible
for obtaining foreign exchange under forex facilities to residents :
a. All SAARC countries

b. ALL EEC countries
186
c. All CIS countries
d. Iraq and Libya
e. Nepal and Bhutan
94.Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Banks) account can be opened in the name of
following :
a. Non-resident Indian
b. Person of Indian origin
c. Overseas corporate bodies
d. All the above
95.An NRO account can not be opened by which of the following :
a. An NRI
b. A person of Indian Origin (PIO)
c. A foreign national on temporary visit to India
d. A resident Indian
96.ADs are empowered under FEMA to release foreign exchange up to

USD_______ for maintenance of close relatives abroad.
a. 1,00,000
b. 1,50,000
c. 2,00,000
d. 2,50,000
97.While cancelling a foreign draft issued by a branch, which rate will be applied?
a. TT selling
b. TT Buying
c. Currency Selling
d. Currency Buying
98.EDF Form is submitted to__________________for certification.
a. RBI
b. Authorized Dealers (AD)
c. Customs
99.IEC No( Import-Export Code No.) issued by
a. DGFT
b. Ministry of Finance
c. Enforcement Directorate
d. Ministry of Commerce
100.A contract to buy or sell a specified amount of currency at a specified price on a
specified future date is called
a. Futures
b. Forward Contract
c. Hedging
d. Derivatives
187
101.ECGC covers risks/ issues policies to
a. Exporters
b. Financing Banks
c. Importers
d. a&b
102.FCNR (B) account cannot be opened in following currency
a. USD
b. GBP
c. AUD
d. SAR
103. Foreign trade policy is announced by _________________
a. Commerce & Industry Ministry, Govt.of India

b. Ministry of External Affairs,Govt.of India
c. Home Ministry,Govt.of India
d. Finance Ministry, Govt.of India
104.UCPDC has been issued by
a. International Chamber of Commerce

b. World Bank
c. RBI
d. Govt.of India
105.Charges in respect of foreign Letter of Credit/Guarantee are to be recovered as

per
a. IBA regulations
b. FEDAI rules
c. RBI
106.How is a foreign spouse of NRI treated for the purpose of opening an NRI
Account?
a. As an Indian Resident
b. As a foreigner
c. As a Person of Indian Origin
d. As an alien friend
107.When funds from NRE accounts are repatriated, the exchange risk is borne by
a. RBI
b. Authorized Dealers
c. Depositor
d. b & c equally
188
108.The account maintained by Foreign branches/Correspondents with our domestic
branch (In India) is called
a. Loro A/c
b. Vostro A/c
c. Nostro A/c
d. Special A/c
109.Under the liberalized Remittance Scheme, all resident individuals, including

minors are allowed to repatriate freely up to USD ________________ in a financial
year
a. 1,00,000
b. 1,50,000
c. 2,50,000
d. No limit
110.Students studying abroad can receive remittance up to USD________ as per

FEMA guideline.
a. 2,00,000
b. 2,50,000
c. 50,000
d. 75,000
111. These branches authorised to maintain Foreign Currency accounts including

ACU accounts and would handle all types of forex transaction. Such branches are
categorized as
a. A
b. B
c. C-1
d. C-2
112.These Branches authorised to handle service-related transactions

denominated in Indian rupees including opening and maintenance of NRE
accounts. Such branches are categorized as
a. A
b. B
c. C-1
d. C-2
113.As per the extant instructions, residents while making remittances exceeding
USD ------- for remittances other than Imports need to submit declaration cum
undertaking in Form A2.
a. 5000
b. 10000
c. 15000
d. 25000
189
114. Import licenses are normally issued for the ------- value of the goods to be
imported
a. CIF
b. FOB
c. Either a or b
115.If the due date of a bill falls on a holiday or Saturday the importer's liability shall
be crystallized on---------------.
a. The next working day

b. Previous working day
c. Within three days from the due date
d. Within two days from the due date
116.In case of all imports, where value of foreign exchange remitted/paid for import
into India exceeds USD --------- or its equivalent, it is obligatory on the part of the
authorised dealers through whom the relative remittance was made, to ensure that
the importer submits the Exchange Control copy of the Bill of Entry for home
consumption
a. 50000
b. 5000
c. 100000
d. 200000
117.Authorised dealers may accept either Exchange Control copy of Bill of Entry for
home consumption or a certificate from the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) or auditor
of the company that the goods for which remittance was made have actually been
imported into India provided :-
a. the amount of foreign exchange remitted is less than USD 1,000,000 or its
equivalent,
b. the importer is a company listed on a stock exchange in India and whose net
worth is not less than Rs.100 crores as on the date of its last audited balance
sheet,
c. the importer is a public sector company or an undertaking of the Government
of India or its departments.
d. All of the above
118. Cases of default in submission of Bill of Entry are reported to RBI on
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Anually
190
119.The half-yearly statement of Bill of entry is to be submitted to the Regional Office
of Reserve Bank under whose jurisdiction the authorised dealer is functioning, within
----- days from the close of the half-year to which the statement relates.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 30
120.Foreign exchange up to USD -------- can be released to travellers proceeding to

Iraq or Libya.
a. 30000
b. 5000
c. 25000
d. 15000
121. Foreign exchange up to USD -------- can be released to travellers proceeding to

Iran.
a. 30000
b. 250000
c. 100000
d. 150000
122. A returning traveller is permitted to retain with him, foreign currency, travellers’
cheques and currency notes up to an aggregate amount of USD --------
a. 2000
b. 3000
c. 4000
d. 5000
123. General permission is available to any resident individual to surrender

received / realised / unspent / unused foreign exchange to an Authorised Person
within a period of ----- days from the date of receipt / realisation / purchase /
acquisition / date of return of the traveller, as the case may be.
a. 90
b. 60
c. 120
d. 180
124. General permission is available to persons other than individuals to remit

towards donations up-to --------- per cent of their foreign exchange earnings during
the previous three financial years or USD 5,000,000, whichever is less
a. 5
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1
191
125. With a view to liberalizing the procedure, it has also been decided by RBI to
enhance the limit for direct receipt of import bills / documents from the present limit
of USD 100,000 to USD---------.
a. 200000
b. 300000
c. 500000
d. 250000
126. Credit report on the overseas supplier (where the import documents are
received directly) need not be obtained in cases where the invoice value does not
exceed USD --------, provided that the branches are satisfied about the bonafides of
the transaction and track record of the importer constituent.
a. 200000
b. 300000
c. 500000
d. 250000
127.As per RBI earlier directives Suppliers' and Buyers' Credit (trade credit)
including the usance period of Letters of Credit opened for import of precious stones
and semi-precious stones should not exceed --- days from the date of shipment.
a. 90
b. 120
c. 60
d. 180
128.For issue of Foreign Currency Travelers cheques, the rate applied is
a. TC selling rate
b. TC buying rate
c. TT buying rate
d. TT selling rate
129. A swap transaction involves _________.

b. Purchase of Currency
c. Sale of Currency
d. Purchase of currency against sale or forward sale of the currency
e. Simultaneous purchase and sale of one currency against another for different
settlement dates.
130.Forfaiting means ___________
a. Export bills discounting without recourse

b. Retirement of Import bills
c. Crystallisation of bills
192
131. Crystallisation means ____________
a. retirement of an import bill

b. conversion of FC liability into Rupee liability
c. conversion of Rupee liability into FC liability
d. all of these
132. Authorised Dealers are allowed upto ___________ for advance remittance for
import of services into India without insisting on foreign bank guarantee.
a. USD 500,000
b. USD 200,000
c. USD 100,000
d. USD 50,000
133. EEFC accounts are maintained with

a. Foreign Dept.
b. Foreign Banks
c. Domestic branches of Banks
d. All of the above
134.The term "SOFTEX form" relates to
a. Software for export transactions

b. Software for handling import transactions
c. Declaration form for software export in non-physical form.
d. Declaration form for software imports
135. ISBP stands for _________
a. International Standard Best Practices.

b. Indian Standard Bureau Products.
c. International Standard Banking Practices.
d. Institute of State Bank of Patiala
136.What does BRC stand for?
a. Bills Rediscounted Credit

b. Bill Realisation certificate
c. Bills Restructured Certificate
d. Bank Realisation Certificate
137. In forex transactions, a Bill of entry in Indian context is _________
a. evidence of import of goods into India issued by customs

b. a form to be filled by importers with RBI
c. a form issued by authorised dealer to enable importer to clear the goods
d. a form issued by FEDAI
193
138. Loro account means _________
a. Your account with us

b. Our account with you
c. Their account with you
d. Our account with them
139. In case of Exports by Indian Company under a CIF contract, the insurance
charges are to be borne by :
a. Exporter
b. Importer
c. to be shared between (a) & (b)
d. none of the above
140. If a letter of credit is advised by the Bank, it is responsible for _________
a. Financial standing of the issuing bank

b. Financial standing of the applicant
c. Payment of the LC amount
d. Genuineness of the LC
141. What is the purpose of opening Resident Foreign Currency (RFC)account?
a. To facilitate resident Indians park their fund in Foreign Currency denominated

deposits
b. To facilitate NRIs park their fund in Foreign Currency denominated deposits
c. To facilitate NRIs, who are returning to India for permanent settlement to park
their funds in foreign currency
142. For education abroad, ADs can release foreign exchange upto USD ……..
a. 5000
b. 10000
c. 30000
d. 250000
143. INCOTERMS stands for _________
a. Commercial Certification terms
b. International Commercial Terms
c. International Companies Terms
144.These Branches are authorised to handle trade-related and Service-related

transactions denominated in foreign currencies and Indian rupees and
authorised to operate on Bank's Foreign Currency accounts. The category of
these branches is
a. A
b. B
c. C1
d. C2
194
145.With a view to providing operational flexibility to exporters and importers to
hedge their foreign exchange risk, RBI has decided to allow exporters to cancel and
rebook forward contracts to the extent of -------- percent of the contracts booked in a
financial year for hedging their contracted export exposures
a. 25
b. 50
c. 40
d. 35
146. With a view to providing operational flexibility to exporters and importers to

hedge their foreign exchange risk, RBI has decided to : allow importers to cancel and
rebook forward contracts to the extent of ------ percent of the contracts booked in a
financial year for hedging their contracted import exposures.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 40
d. 35
147.Branches may also allow importers and exporters to book forward contracts on
the basis of a declaration of an exposure and based on past performance upto the
average of the previous------- financial years
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
148.How many articles are there in UCPDC 2007.

a. 24
b. 39
c. 34
d. 32
149.Issuing Bank undertaking is dealt in article----- of UCPDC 2007.
a. 5
b. b.6
c. c.7
d. d.8
150.XOS statement pertains to
a. Overdue export bills

b. Overdue import bills
c. Overdue bill of entry
195
INTERNATIONAL BANKING KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D D B D D A B A D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A B D B A B A A D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D A A B D A B A B D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A A D A A A D D C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B D C D C A D D A B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B C B C D D B B B D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
D A D D D B C D C D
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C A C D D B B D D C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
D C C D C A C C E C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B D E D D D B C A B
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
D D A A D C C B C B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A D A A A C D C B B
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
B A D D B B A A D A
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
B A C C C D A C A D
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
C D B B B A C B C A
196

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VALLABHI

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTRE

Shri Parag Buch, Assistant General Manager

Wishing all the best to “Team SBLC Bhavnagar”.

Saroj Kumar Pattnaik

Q2. In NEFT the settlement is on DNS basis, what is DNS?

Q6. What is the full form of YONO?

Q7. How many Administrators can be there in Vyapaar ?

Q8. How many Administrators can be there in Vistaar ?

Q9. There can be how many types of users in CINB?

Q10. What is e-Handshake?

Q11. What is MOPS?

Q16. What is chargeback?

Q17. Audit tolerance limits for the Corporate is set up by

Q18. Internet service provider for internet banking of SBI is……………

Q19. IFSC stands for

Q20. The DD limit through Vistaar CINB is ………..?

Q21. Role of Super Enquirer is available in ……………?

Q22. In CINB Super Enquirer can be created by whom?

Q28. When a Corporate registers the mobile number of their Regulator/Admin/other

Q29. The Branch reset the Transaction password of Corporate users

Q42. Which one of the following is not a variant of SBI e-File?

Q43. SBI e-file services can be accessed through which platform/s?

Q44. In SBI e-file the scustomer is redirected to which website?

Q46. What are the requirement for YONO?

TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS – 1 ANSWERS

Q2. Software used by our bank at abroad branches is………?

Q5. Complementary Accidental Insurance available on State Bank Platinum Debit

Q6. Validity for SBI Smart Payout Card is _______years?

Q9. The full form of USSD is………?

Q12. Gift Card is valid upto……?

Q17. Which cards can not be used on GCC?

Q18. Validity period of ACHIEVER card is………….?

Q19. What is the maximum amount of issue for ACHIEVER card?

Q21. State Bank MobiCash App is available on which platforms?

Q27. The suspended/dormant wallet account may be re-activated through

Q33. What is the maximum amount storage limit of EZ-Pay Card?

Q36. Contact less card work on which Technology?

Q41. What is IRATA full form?

Q42. Which is the Nodal Branch for ASBA?

c) CAG, Kolkata d) CAG, Mumbai

Q43. What is the full form of ASBA?

Q50. The Imprest Card Validity is ………… years?

TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS – 2 ANSWERS

Q4. What is the expansion of UPI?

Q5. What is VPA?

Q12. MMID (Mobile Money Identifier) comprises of how many digits?

Q15. The settlement of funds in IMPS is through which body-

Q16. ez-trade@sbi is a 3in 1 a/c because it provides an integrated platform of

Q17. ez-trade@sbi is provided by SBI in association with

Q18. mPassbook facility is available in?

Q19. Computer Security day is observed on

Q20. SWIFT stands for………?

Q22. What does B@ncs24 mean?

Q25. What is IMT?

a) i+ii+iii+iv b) iv+iii+ii+I c) iii+iv+ii+i d) iii+ii+i+iv

Q28. For IMT SMS needs to be sent to which number?

Q29. What is the minimum per transaction limit for IMT?

Q30. What is the maximum per transaction limit for IMT?

Q34. In IMT the service charge is applicable on……………?

Q36. The IMT ID generated is of …………….. digits?

Q38. What is SBI FASTAG?

Q39. What is the issuance fee of SBI FASTAG, inclusive of taxes?