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A 1. A book ready for inspection by the BFAD anytime during business hours and should be kept for two years:
a. poison book d. prescription book
b. salesbook e. purchase book
c. additional opium book

C 2. A type of drug distribution system wherein all drugs are retained in the main pharmacy until receipt of the
physician's initial order:
a. floor stock system c. individual prescription system
b. decentralization unit dose system d. both a & c

B 3. Which of the following is not an antiasthma preparation?

a. terbutaline d. salbutamol
b. nifedipine e. theophylline
c. prednisolone

D 4. Oral hypoglycemics are usually most useful in:

a. Type I diabetes d. Type II diabetes
b. ascariasis e. UTI
c. asthma

B 5. It enables the pharmacist to monitor drug utilization of each patient confined in the hospital:
a. admission history d. adverse drug reaction report
b. patient medication profile e. progress note
c. patient chart

C 6. FeSO4 is used for

a. cough d. parasitism
b. pain e. arthritis
c. anemia

C 7. A laminar flow hood is used when intravenous solutions are:

a. labeled d. administered
b. stored e. both a & c
c. prepared

E 8. San Lazaro Hospital specializes in:

a. mental health d. bone disorder
b. childbirth e. contagious diseases
c. pulmonary diseases

A 9. The purpose of the Pharmacy and Therapeutic Committee are the ff:
a. advisory & educational d. dispensing & inventory
b. advisory & planning e. both a & d
c. educational & planning

B 10. Hospital department that supplies sterile linen, operating room packs and other medical surgical supplies:
a. nursing department d. laboratory service dept.
b. central service dept. e. pharmacy dept.
c. medical social dept.

D 11. Ranitidine is used for:

a. high blood pressure d. peptic ulcer
b. asthma e. diabetes
c. allergy

D 12. Total parenteral nutrition should be protected from light because it contains:
a. fats d. vitamins
b. carbohydrates e. proteins
c. electrolytes

B 13. The first recognized representative of pharmaceutical profession:

a. community pharmacist d. industrial pharmacist
b. hospital pharmacist e. clinical pharmacist
c. manufacturing pharmacist

A 14. A person who is engaged in managing, directing, and performing both professional and administrative services
associated with the operation of the hospital pharmacy department:
a. chief pharmacist d. pharmacy and therapeutics committee
b. staff pharmacist e. medical director
c. pharmacy supervisor

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C 15. Serve as a tool with which the pharmacist assures appropriateness, safety, and effectiveness of drug therapy:
a. medical staff
b. pharmacy & therapeutics committee
c. patient medication profile
d. physicians original order

A 16. The following person performs some of the pharmacist's technical functions except:
a. governing body d. secretary
b. clerk e. pharmacy aide
c. intern

E 17. These are administrative and management responsibilities of pharmacist, except:

a. preparation of reports
b. inventory control
c. plan and integrate professional services
d. budget

A 18. Men are not accepted in this department for treatment:

a. gynecology d. nephrology
b. urology e. cardiology
c. internal medicine

D 19. PSHP was established in what year?

a. 1930 d. 1962
b. 1942 e. 1970
c. 1950

A 20. Which is not a primary function of hospital?

a. preventive medicine c. providing health care
b. giving health information d. conduct scientific research

C 21. All of the following are minimum standards for hospital pharmacy, except:
a. facilities c. drug administration
b. research d. assuring rational drug therapy

C 22. The pharmacy department is not responsible for:

a. inspecting unused/expired drugs
b. preparing parenteral nutrition
c. distributing sterile linen
d. informing the hospital staff pertaining to medication

D 23. Primary source of income for private hospitals:

a. gift shop c. pharmacy dept.
b. canteen d. patient's bill

C 24. Which is not a clinical pharmacy service?

a. monitor patient response
b. conduct drug utilization review
c. prepare patient bed
d. obtain & document medication histories

B 25. Incumbent president of PSHP:

a. Lourdes Echauz d. Gloria Arroyo
b. Normita Leyesa e. Siopin Co
c. Eladio Tinio

C 26. Responsible for creating a hospital formulary:

a. pharmacy d. medical staff
b. medical director e. both b & c
c. board of trustees

A 27. Through a _______, the policies of the hospitals are implemented on a day-to-day basics:
a. chief executive officer d. doctors
b. corporation e. pharmacist
c. board of trustees

E 28. The act of a pharmacist in supplying one or more drug products to, or for patient, usually in response to an order
from a doctor”
a. administering d. giving
b. corporation e. dispensing
c. procuring

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B 29. It is a list of medications which are available only in that hospital:

a. MIMS d. RPS
b. Formulary e. both a and b
c. PDR

E 30. Most hospitals provide the following modalities:

a. surgery d. drug therapy
b. hypnosis e. a & d
c. acupuncture

C 31. The pharmacy department should have floor space for the ff., except:
a. office d. compounding & dispensing area
b. store room e. circulation
c. rest room

D 32. Emergency box in the hospital contains the following drugs, except:
a. Phenobarbital d. guaifenesin
b. epinephrine e. morphine
c. heparin

B 33. Pharmacy department is best classified under what division of hospital:

a. general c. administrative
b. clinical d. medical

B 34. During chickenpox, measles or smallpox outbreak, this department would be very busy:
a. dermatology c. pediatric
b. infectious disease d. neurology

A 35. This should be performed if the patient died while in the hospital:
a. autopsy c. biopsy
b. surgery d. physical examination

C 36. All of these should be taken into consideration in preparing dosage form not available commercially, except:
a. stability d. pharmacokinetic
b. quality assurance e. economic factor
c. availability of the patient

B 37. The following are general sections of a pharmacy procedural manual, except:
a. facilities d. services & activities
b. library e. personnel
c. organization

B 38. Who is not qualified to be a member of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee?
a. cardiologist d. hospital administrator
b. pharmacy intern e. nurse
c. gastroenterologist

E 39. Drugs approved by the Pharmacy & Therapeutics Committee may be classified into the following categories,
except:
a. specialized formulary
b. investigational drug
c. drug approved on a conditional trial period
d. formulary drug
e. nonformulary drug

A 40. First President of PSHP:

a. Rosario Capistrano Tan d. Marcelia Itturalde
b. Lourdes Echauz e. Siopin Co
c. Violeta Alvarez

D 41. Nutritional solution prepared by hospital pharmacist for patients who has dysfunctional GIT:
a. IV mixture d. TPN
b. D5W e. NTP
c. NSS

C 42. Medical staff who are responsible for taking care of patient and who has direct involvement with the staff
organizational and administrative duties:
a. resident medical staff d. consulting medical staff
b. honorary medical staff e. honorary medical staff
c. attending medical staff

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E 43. Responsibilities of Pharmacy & Therapeutics Committee, except:

a. develop a mechanism for reporting & reviewing ADR
b. prepare policies governing the activities of medical representative
c. develop a book containing the list of medications available in the hospital
d. prepare list of emergency drugs
e. interview pharmacy staff

C 44. Information which is not necessary in an inpatient prescription:

a. date when the order was written
b. name and strength of medication
c. patient’s addressograph information
d. printed name of physician

B 45. Which will not help in ensuring the safety of a pharmacy department in the hospital
a. segregation of poisonous materials from non-poisonous materials
b. employment of a sufficient number of nonqualified personnel
c. policy with regards to the use of investigational drugs
d. availability of adequate and safe working space

C 46. Which may not lead to an adverse drug reaction?

a. error in compounding
b. use of the wrong drug
c. rashes due to sudden change in temperature
d. overdose
e. underdose

D 47. Pharmacy division responsible for improving formulations of existing products:

a. assay and quality control division
b. manufacturing and packaging division
c. department services division
d. pharmaceutical research division
e. administrative services division

A 48. Responsible for preparing the pharmacy newsletter:

a. drug information services division
b. education and training division
c. administrative services division
d. pharmaceutical research division
e. departmental services division

A 49. This is not a necessary information in drug evaluation for inclusion in the hospital formulary:
a. available sizes of drugs d. therapeutic indication
b. adverse reactions e. bioavailability
c. source of supply

C 50. Takes charge of interviewing medical sales representatives:

a. educational and training division
b. in-patient services division
c. purchasing and inventory control division
d. administrative services division
e. departmental services division

A 51. Drug recalls may emanate from the following agencies, except:
a. nursing department d. manufacturer
b. BFAD e. pharmacy department
c. Pharmacy & Therapeutic Committee

D 52. Nursing stations are inspected or visited by the pharmacist due to the ff. reasons, except:
a. to check labels for legibility c. to remove deteriorated drugs
b. to remove expired products d. to remove empty containers

A 53. Patient drug profile is maintained in the pharmacy department for the ff. purposes, except
a. to lower down the patient's expenses
b. to prevent potential drug interactions
c. to promote rational use of drugs
d. to detect drug-induced laboratory test abnormalities
e. to prevent drug allergies

B 54. Which one is not useful to the pharmacist in evaluating the quality of care provided to patient with a certain
disease state?

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a. proper choice of dosage form d. proper route of administration

b. proper price of medication e. proper strength of medication
c. proper choice of therapeutic agent

B 55. The process used to determine the “waiting period” of an outpatient for his prescription?
a. drug recall c. flow process chart
b. queuing theory d. activity chart

C 56. Which question is not of importance in the pharmacist's review of the patient's drug therapy record?
a. Were tests for predicting drug allergies done on patients with suspicious history?
b. Was the drug employed one with a special effect upon the diagnosed ailment?
c. Was the drug taken with water?
d. Did the patient receive his therapy via oral route when the topical route should have been employed?

B 57. An enteric-coated tablet that disintegrates upon passing through the stomach falls under what type of a defective
product?
a. faulty drug delivering apparatus c. inadequate packaging
b. defective dosage form d. deteriorated product

E 58. All of the following are direct responsibilities of the chief pharmacist, except:
a. schedules work hours for pharmacy staff
b. establishes and/or implements written policies & procedures for pharmacy operation
c. evaluates job performance of pharmacy staff
d. selects, hires and institutes disciplinary action & discharges pharmacy staff
e. performs packaging and labeling functions to promote product stability

C 59. Filling of prescription is lawfully the job of:

a. physician d. sales clerk
b. nurse e. patient
c. pharmacist

C 60. The following are pharmacist's responsibilities, except:

a. review patient's drug administration form to insure that all doses are being administered and charted
correctly
b. assist the physician in selecting dosage regimen schedules
c. transcribe accurately new drug administration forms
d. provide drug information to physicians, nurses and other health care personnel

B 61. The pharmacy department does not supply one of the following:
a. IV admixture d. light
b. sterile linen e. biological
c. narcotics

A 62. What is the most important storage condition for narcotic drugs?
a. security d. light
b. sanitation e. moisture
c. temperature

A 63. Which is not an acceptable method of drug information dissemination?

a. megaphone d. leaflets
b. pharmacy bulletin e. seminar
c. newsletter

C 64. This pharmacy division coordinates and control all drug delivery and distribution systems:
a. departmental services division c. purchasing & inventory control division
b. administrative services division d. central supply services division

D 65. Not a suitable location for the hospital pharmacy department:

a. first floor c. near the emergency room
b. near the information area d. basement

A 66. Control substance which is non-refillable:

a. schedule II c. schedule IV
b. schedule III d. schedule V

E 67. Which duty should not be assigned to a pharmacy technician?

a. maintain drug inventory records
b. clean prescription equipment
c. print labels for prepackaged product
d. weigh ingredients in bulk compounding
e. compound prescriptions

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E 68. A very important liaison between the hospital, patient and his community
a. administrator d. pharmacist
b. P & TC e. medical social service
c. priest

C 69. The service generally under the supervision of a licensed physician who has a basic interest in hematology:
a. pathology d. dietetic service
b. anesthesia e. morgue
c. blood bank
A 70. Psychiatric, AIDS and leprosy-victims must be attended by:
a. custodial hospital d. short-term hospital
b. general hospital e. long-term hospital
c. non-accredited hospital

B 71. Which of the following is not needed in the admission sheet?

a. patient's name and address d. occupation
b. monthly income e. family status
c. sex & date of birth

A 72. Which is not included in the laboratory report of a patient?

a. manufacturing data d. hematology data
b. microbiology data e. chemistry
c. pathology data

E 73. The hospital which is affiliated with a university:

a. Philippine Heart Center d. National Kidney Institute
b. Quezon Institute e. Philippine General Hospital
c. San Lazaro Hospital

C 74. This is one of the items in the medical record for the purpose of providing the physician with a chronologic picture
and analysis of the clinical course of the patient:
a. special examination d. pathologic findings
b. history of present illness e. physical examination
c. progress notes

E 75. This department enables the physician to assume the care of the patient at any time:
a. pharmacy d. nursing
b. medical social service e. medical records
c. central sterile supply

A 76. This type of hospital provides care to patients with various types of illnesses:
a. general hospital d. not-for-profit hospital
b. special hospital e. hospital with 50-99 beds
c. short-term hospital

D 77. This is not a chronic ailment:

a. asthma d. diarrhea
b. cancer e. diabetes
c. epilepsy

B 78. This is not a function of the dietetic service:

a. participate in ward rounds and conferences
b. recording medication histories of patients
c. plan patient's menu
d. interview patients regarding their food habits
e. counseling patients concerning normal or modified diet regimen

B 79. One of the responsibilities of the pharmacy department is to control all drugs used in the hospital. Which of the ff.
does not fall in this responsibility?
a. drug samples must be distributed only through the pharmacy
b. chief pharmacist should have a private office
c. maintenance of an up-to-date formulary
d. routine inspection of drug storage areas

A 80. Hospital maybe classified in different ways, except:

a. location d. type of service
b. ownership e. length of service
c. bed capacity

D 81. This group consists of medical practitioners of recognized professional ability:

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a. active d. consulting
b. associate e. honorary
c. courtesy

B 82. Serves as the secretary of the P & TC:

a. medical director c. nursing director
b. pharmacy director d. administrator

C 83. It serves as a guide to the hospital pharmacist in the development and execution of effective and proficient
pharmaceutical services in the hospital:
a. formulary system d. patient's medication profile
b. P & TC e. blue book
c. pharmacy procedural manual

B 84. The type of ambulatory care sought for by most outpatients:

a. tertiary care c. emergency case
b. primary care d. secondary care

B 85. Contains one discreet pharmaceutical dosage form:

a. unit dose d. multiple dose package
b. single unit package e. both b & c
c. unit dose package

B 86. A process of lifelong learning availed of by pharmacists for maintaining and improving professional competence:
a. undergrad studies c. graduate studies
b. continuing education d. intensive program

A 87. Represents the type of transaction that involves purchase of goods on specific volume and receiving certain
merchandise at no additional cost:
a. deals c. discount
b. volume contract d. group purchasing

C 88. A modern usage of the term ambulatory patient:

a. in-patient d. institutionalized patient
b. ward patient e. hospitalized patient
c. non-institutionalized patient

B 89. Medication administered to the wrong patient may be classified as:

a. wrong dose error c. wrong time error
b. unauthorized drug error d. omission error

A 90. Which of the following elements are common to ambulatory care but not to inpatient pharmaceutical service
program?
a. information on the proper use of the drug will be disseminated
b. medications dispensed will be completely labeled & packaged
c. the pharmacy program must be directed by a qualified pharmacist
d. drugs will be properly controlled

A 91. Which of the ff. does not correctly describe formulary system?
a. detrimental to the free enterprise system
b. appraises drug therapy
c. controls drug cost
d. assures quality of drug

B 92. A prescription label must contain all of the ff. except:

a. patient name c. patient age
b. patient address d. name of drug

D 93. This consists of routine systematic review of the body:

a. provisional diagnosis d. physical examination
b. special examination e. pathologic findings
c. personal family history

C 94. Medical staff is composed of:

a. pharmacists d. medical technologists
b. nurses e. both b & c
c. physicians

A 95. This ensures that drug orders are not inappropriately continued:

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a. automatic stop order d. professional care service

b. P & TC e. group purchasing
c. formulary system

A 96. The final decision as to which drugs should be included in the ward stock rests upon:
a. P & TC d. physician
b. pharmacist e. administrator
c. nurse

D 97. With respect to other drug distribution methods, the advantages of unit dose include the ff, except:
a. safer for the patient
b. more effective method of utilizing professional resources
c. less workload to the pharmacists
d. less manpower requirement
e. both a & b

B 98. The ff. are true, except:

a. two preparations each labeled with the same active chemical components are generic equivalents
b. Two preparations each labeled with different active ingredients are clinically effective equivalents
c. both high and poor quality pharmaceuticals are available under both generic names and brand names
d. a relationship exists between quality pharmaceuticals and therapeutic efficacy

D 99. Hospital Pharmacy

a. patient, physician, nurse, pharmacist relationship
b. practice of pharmacy in hospital setting
c. stepping stone to clinical pharmacy
d. all of the above

D 100. Purpose of P and TC, except:

a. develops a formulary of accepted drugs for used in the hospital
b. evaluates clinical data concerning drug for use in the a hospital
c. adds or deletes from the list of drugs accepted for used in the hospital
d. advises the doctor as to what brand of drug to use

D 101. Injections are often indicated as the correct form of administering a drug when
a. the drug is a suspension c. the drug is insoluble
b. the drug contains alcohol d. the drug is not easily absorbed from the GIT

D 102. Functions of the P and TC, except:

a. review adverse drugs reactions to drugs administered
b. to recommend addition and deletion of drugs
c. to serve as advisory to medical staff and pharmacists
d. approval of duplicate preparation to be listed in the formulary

A 103. Biological and other thermolabile medications should be kept in:

a. separate compartment in a refrigerator
b. locked cabinet
c. the display cabinet together with other drugs
d. none of the above

B 104. Basic function of hospital except:

a. education c. patient care
b. delivery of drugs to various outlets d. research

B 105. Medical staff primarily concerned with regular care of patient:

a. honorary medical staff d. residential medical staff
b. active medical staff e. consulting medical staff
c. associate medical staff

D 106. An authorized, structure and continuing program that reviews, analyzes and interprets pattern of drug usage in a
given health care delivery system against predetermined standards:
a. adverse drug reaction review c. P & TC
b. formulary system d. drug use review

C 107. Type of drug distribution system for government hospital:

a. individual prescription order system
b. unit dose
c. combination of individual prescription and floor stock
d. complete floor stock

D 108. Advantages of unit dose distribution:

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a. reduction in the incidents f medication error

b. decrease in the total cost of medication related activities
c. more accurate billings for drugs
d. all of the above

A 109. An extension of the main hospital pharmacy

a. satellite pharmacy c. both a & b
b. clinic d. none of the above

D 110. Institutional pharmacy is basically:

a. extended-care pharmacy c. manufacturing pharmacy
b. community pharmacy d. hospital pharmacy

D 111. Pyrogenic contamination may cause the patient to have

a. fever d. a & b
b. chills e. a & c
c. infection

C 112. Education and training division

a. coordinate programs of undergraduate pharmacy students
b. participate in hospital-wide educational programs involving doctors, nurses. etc.
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

D 113. Which is/are true about the DDB prescription form?

a. original copy-pharmacist copy c. triplicate copy – doctor copy
b. duplicate copy – patient’s copy d. all of the above

B 114. Any drug that has not yet been released for general use and has not been cleared for marketing by the BFAD.
a. prototype drug c. prodrug
b. investigational drug d. controlled drug

D 115. Responsible for specifications as to the quality, quantity, and source of drugs
a. purchasing agent c. medical staff
b. president d. pharmacist

A 116. A modern and reliable means of controlling the volume of purchases

a. computation o inventory turn-over c. all of the above
b. non-purchase d. none of the above

D 117. In inventory control, the turnover rate is calculated by which of the ff. formula?
a. annual purchases + annual inventory
b. annual purchases – annual inventory
c. annual purchases – annual inventory
d. annual purchases/annual inventory

C 118. The least acceptable method of transmitting prescription orders of physician:

a. by imputing the order into a computer terminal
b. by sending a carbon copy of the physician’s original medication order
c. transcribing by nursing personnel to a requisition form
d. the physician write the medication order on a separate blank and send it to the pharmacy

A 119. The leading and major organization of hospital pharmacists in the country:
a. PSHP c. ASHP
b. AMA d. PPHA

D 120. Injections are randomly tested for fever-producing agents which are called
a. analgesics c. histamines
b. antitussives d. pyrogens

D 121. Abilities required of hospital pharmacists, except:

a. through knowledge of drugs and their action
b. ability to develop and conduct a pharmaceutical manufacturing program
c. ability to conduct and participate in research
d. manage a hospital

A 122. Total parenteral nutrition is administered, through:

a. subclavian vein c. none of the above
b. femoral artery d. both a & bd.

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D 123. Which is not a part of patient’s medication history?

a. past and present medication
b. drug allergies
c. previous adverse effects associated with medication use
d. cost of medication

C 124. Fundamental functions of hospitals, except:

a. patient care d. research
b. education e. public health
c. housing

C 125. Medication orders (Chart Orders) differ from prescription in that they:
a. are intended for ambulatory use
b. contains only the generic name of the drug
c. may contain nonmedication instructions from the practitioner
d. contain the quantity of medication to be dispensed

C 126. A patient medication orders states that he is to receive ampicillin 500 mg.p.o.q8H. How many doses of ampicilln
250 capsules should be placed in the patient’s unit dose drawer daily?
a. 2 c. 6
b. 4 d. 10

B 127. Providing the correct medicine at the correct time in the correct dose and correct route of administration:
a. patient care c. research
b. rational drug therapy d. drug information

C 128. The primary goal of a hospital formulary is to:

a. strictly control prescribing in a hospital
b. save hospital money
c. insure that the patients receive the best drug therapy possible
d. influence medical staff to use approved drugs only

C 129. It shows the flow of authority and services on hand:

a. pharmacy procedural manual c. organizational chart
b. hospital pharmacy d. journal

A 130. Manner of affixing the label to an IV admixture preparation container:

a. upside down c. vertically
b. sideways d. normal way

C 131. The ideal drug distribution system

a. complete floor stock system c. unit dose system
b. individual prescription system d. none of the above

A 132. Additives of TPN are:

a. electrolytes and vitamins c. amino acids and anesthetics
b. antibiotics and fats d. none of the above

A 133. Continuous I.V. infusion means:

a. administration of a large volume of drug at a constant rate usually 100-150 mL/hr for 8-24 hrs.
b. rapid IV pushing less than 30 seconds
c. administration at a rate not to exceed 1 mL/min
d. none of the above

D 134. A separate sterile room is required for:

a. reconstitution of lyophilized injections
b. ophthalmic preparations
c. preparation of IV admixtures
d. all of the above

B 135. A sign to the pharmacist that the patient is overusing a certain product:
a. not purchasing c. healthy patient
b. frequency of refills d. discharge patient

C 136. Responsible for the procurement, distribution and control of all drugs used within the hospital:
a. purchasing agent c. pharmacist
b. medical staff d. lay personnel

D 137. Feature/s of the unit dose drug distribution system

a. maintains duplicate copy of the doctor’s order
b. maintains patient medication profile

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c. delivers medications in “unit of use” form

d. all of the above
e. a and c only

D 138. Pharmacist’s monitoring drug therapy would typically be checking all of the ff., except:
a. proper utilization of drug d. appropriate diagnosis
b. drug interactions e. none
c. allergy contraindications

A 139. True statements about D5W include all of the ff. except:
a. pH of 8 to 10
b. isotonic
c. often used in IV admixture
d. should be used with caution among diabetic patients
e. none
B 140. A method of administering IV fluids & medications that provides a slow, primary line infusion to maintain
therapeutic drug level or provide electrolyte replacement
a. IV push d. heparin lock
b. drip infusion e. none
c. piggyback

A 141. A health care supply described as a portable toilet.

a. commode d. rectal tube
b. truss e. none
c. bedpan

D 142. Which of the ff. is not a method of operating a unit dose dispensing program:
a. Centralized UDDS d. non-charge
b. decentralized UDDS e. none
c. combination of a and b

B 143. Attending staff is also known as:

a. associated medical staff d. honorary medical staff
b. reactive medical staff e. none
c. combination of a and b

B 144. A rubber, plastic, or glass tube inserted into the bladder in order to withdraw urine from patients unable to void
naturally.
a. rectal tube d. incontinence
b. catheter e. none
c. urinals

C 145. The injection of small amount of undiluted medication directly into the vein or through a heparin lock.
a. drip infusion d. IV piggyback
b. intermittent infusion e. none
c. IV bolus

B 146. A method of administering IV fluids and medication using a volume control device designed to administer small
amount of fluid over a specified time.
a. heparin lock d. IV push
b. additive set e. none
c. IV piggyback

C 147. Purpose of a pharmacy policy and procedure manual

a. ensure uniformity and consistency
b. the best defense in the event of litigation
c. both of the above
d. none of the above

C 148. Responsibilities often delegated to hospital pharmacy technicians include:

a. counseling patients d. pharmacokinetic monitoring
b. review physician’s order e. none
c. prepare IV admixture

C 149. All of the following are considered desirable functions of contemporary hospital pharmacy, except:
a. clinical consultation d. purchasing & inventory control
b. IV mixture programs
c. floor stock distribution

B 150. Pharmacist’s clinical function includes the ff. except:

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a. drug utilization review d. pharmaceutical care

b. drug dispensing e. drug informatratix
c. pharmacokinetic monitoring

B 151. Place or critically and seriously ill patients:

a. intermediates care unit d. all of the above
b. intensive care unit e. none of the above
c. long term care unit

A 152. IV administration of a large amount of fluid over a prolonged period of time:

a. infusion c. IV push
b. IV bolus d. piggyback

A 153. Under the administrative organization chart, the central sterile supply fall under the:
a. clinical services d. all of the above
b. ambulatory service e. none of the above
c. administrative services

A 154. It helps improve drug prescribing practice by promoting the safe and rational use of drug
a. drug utilization review d. all of the above
b. patient medication profile e. none of the above
c. adverse drug reaction

B 155. Area which offer the hospital great financial savings and pharmacist’s pride and prestige:
a. dispensing d. all of the above
b. extemporaneous compounding e. none of the above
c. drug consultant

B 156. Emergency drugs are considered as:

a. OR drug order d. automatic stop order
b. STAT order e. none of the above
c. follow up order

D 157. The risk of medication misuse or errors are often due to:
a. increase frequency of changes in medication use
b. increase number of medications for patient
c. increase potency of new drugs
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

D 158. Automatic stop-order policy for drugs:

a. when patient goes to the operating room
b. when the patient is transferred to another service
c. after 24 hours of administration
d. a and b only
e. all of the above

E 159. Best method of providing service when pharmacy if closed

a. provide an emergency cart for all unit
b. allow access of a nurse or doctor into the pharmacy
c. have a pharmacist on call
d. a & b only
e. a & c only

A 160. The responsible provision of drug therapy for the purpose of achieving definite outcomes that improve the quality
of life of a patient is:
a. pharmaceutical care d. all of the above
b. clinical pharmacy e. none of the above
c. traditional hospital pharmacy

C 161. Legal document which contains all the treatment done to the patient:
a. patient medical profile d. doctor’s sheet
b. therapeutic sheet e. all of the above
c. patient chart

E 162. In-charge of inspecting the contents of emergency box daily:

a. P & TC c. both a and c
b. pharmacist e. both b & c
c. nurse

D 163. Parts of formulary system, except:

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a. information of hospital policies and procedures concerning drugs

b. drug product listing
c. special information
d. special formularies

D 164. Three potential benefits of formulary systems, except:

a. economic c. education
b. therapeutic d. expensive

C 165. Advantages of unit dose drug distribution, except:

a. more efficient use of personnel c. increased floor stock
b. minimization of credits d. greater workload control

C 166. A potent analgesic emergency drug:

a. epinephrine c. pethidine
b. dopamine d. ephedrine

B 167. It encompasses the collection, organization, retrieval, interpretation, evaluation, and dissemination of information
pertaining to all aspects of medicine.
a. PTC c. LAFH
b. DIS d. EDL

B 168. The group established in the Phil. For hospital pharmacists

a. ASHP c. ASHP
b. PSHP d. PACOP

C 169. Which one is used as antiviral?

a. Terramycin c. Zovirax
b. Garamycin d. Vibramycin

B 170. Which of the following is not an antiasthma preparation?

a. terbutaline c. salbutamol
b. cimetidine d. prednisolone

E 171. Betadine is used as:

a. antifungal d. both a & b
b. antibacterial e. all of the above
c. antiinfective

D 172. These are acceptable colors of pharmacy wall, except:

a. white d. orange
b. cream e. baby pink
c. mint

B 173. The drug atropine sulfate is used as:

a. antiasthmatic c. anti anginal
b. anticholinergic d. anthelmintinc

C 174. Excessive rapidity of respiration:

a. Cytopenia c. tachypnea
b. Necrosis d. tachycardia

C 175. Surgical puncture of the heart

a. pericardium c. cardiocentesis
b. colostomy d. necroscopy

A 176. Functional disorder of the nervous system

a. neurosis c. meningitis
b. tachycardia d. phlebotomy

B 177. The drug used to paralyze the patient during surgical procedure:
a. penthotal sodium c. nubain
b. vecuronium d. Phenobarbital

E 178. These are examples of objective parameters, except:

a. blood level d. blood pressure
b. laboratory tests e. degree of pain

c. x-ray tests
B 179. NPO means:

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a. non-progressive operation d. nothing after six

b. nothing by mouth e. none of the above
c. with full stomach

D 180. The most accurate method in calculating children’s dose based on weight and height is:
a. Young’s rule c. Cowling’s rule
b. Fired’s rule d. BSA

C 181. The active ingredients of Desenex powder is:

a. tolnatrate c. undecylenic acid
b. salicylic acid

D 182. During eye examination, the following are noted except:

a. visual acuity c. EOM
b. papillary reflex d. presence of tears

A 183. The breath of an alcoholic patient may smell:

a. fruity c. musty
b. ammoniacal d. sweet

C 184. Cromolyn sodium is useful in asthma only in:

a. oral tabs c. inhalation
b. pills d. injectable

B 185. It is ideal and proper condition for aseptic handling of hyperalimentation and intravenous fluids:
a. HEPA filters c. TPN
b. LAFH d. ventilator

B 186. The normal drop rate in TPN therapy is:

a. 1 ml/min c. 1ml/min
b. 2 ml/min d. 5 ml/min

B 187. The starting dose of TPN per day is:

a. 6 L/day c. 5L/day
b. 2.5 L/day d. 2L/day

B 188. Patient who is not bedridden, who can take care of himself and administer his own medication:
a. patient care c. geriatric
b. ambulatory patient d. pediatric

D 189. Assessment of the musculoskeletal system includes:

a. assessment of posture and gait c. ROM testing
b. measurement of the extremities d. all of these

D 190. The skin is assessed for:

a. lesions c. mobility
b. hydration d. all of these

D 191. Inspection involves:

a. concentrated visualization of the patient
b. listening to sounds that may emanate from the patient
c. noting particular odors from the patient
d. all of these

B 192. Blood pressure is determined by:

1)palpation 2) percussion 3) auscultation 4) inspection
a. 1,2,3,4 c 2,4
b. 1,3 d. 1,2,3

D 193. During palpation, the ff. are used, except:

a. fingers c. back of the hands
b. palms d. fist

C 194. Borborygmi is:

a. discontinuous, bubbling abdominal sound of short duration
b. accurse abdominal sound that disappears on coughing
c. loud gurgling and tinkling sounds heard over the abdomen
d. also known as crepitation

C 195. It is a technique that delivers an amount of electrolyte solution over a period of several hours and is used to
replace electrolytes needed by the patient

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a. drop factor c. fluid blousing

b. metabolism d. loading dose

B 196. Drug which is an antineoplastic agent:

a. gentamycin c. furocemide
b. cisplexin d. plasil

A 197. Daily administration of aspirin can impair:

a. hearing c. both a and b
b. seeing

A 198. This service is responsible for the procurement, planning and preparation of food for the patient and hospital
staff:
a. dietary service c. record service
b. nursing service d. laboratory service

B 199. The purpose of laboratory examination and radiological services is for:

a. therapeutic c. treatment
b. diagnostic d. exercise

C 200. Powerful tool for the orderliness, cleanliness, and sanitary procedures in the hospital pharmacy department:
a. chief pharmacist d all of the above
b. assistant chief pharmacist e. none of the above
c. staff pharmacist

D 201. Objectives of drug information service:

a. answering inquiries d. a and b
b. publication e. all of the above
c. budget preparation and printing scheme

E 202. The formulary is very important so it should be:

a. complete d. a and b
b. concise e. all of the above
c. easy to use

A 203. A bulk supply of each drug product is stored on the nursing station
a. floor stock d. all of the above
b. individual prescription order e. none of the above
c. emergency cart

B 204. Which of the following solutions should be sterile when dispensed?

a. tinctures d. sprays
b. ophthalmic solution e. none of the above
c. spirit

E 205. Function of the Chief Pharmacist in Pharmacy and Therapeutic Committee

a. maintenance of an adequate up to date library and drug therapy references
b. interviewing and screening of professional medical representative
c. preparation and dissemination of accurate minutes of committee meeting
d. all of the above
e. a & c

C 206. One who shall initiate regulation pertaining to the professional policies of the Pharmacy Department:
a. pharmacy & therapeutic committee d. clinical pharmacist
b. therapeutic sheet e. all of the bill
c. patient chart

A 207. Relevant pharmaceutical services:

a. quality control, IV admixtures
b. drug information, education and training
c. extemporaneous compounding
d. drug dispensing
e. all of the above

A 208. Pharmacy records on all drugs dispensed to the patient are in:
a. nursing department c. patient bill
b. therapeutic sheet d. all of the bill
c. patient chart

B 209. A department that supplies sterile line, sterile kits, operating room packs, needles, syringes and other medical
surgical supplies:

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a. nursing department c. medical social department

b. central service department d. laboratory service dept.

C 210. Which of the ff. sulfonylureas has the longest duration of action?
a. acetazolamide d. tolazamide
b. glyburide e. acetohexamide
c. chlorpropamide

D 211. Insulin preparation is usually administered by:

a. intradermal injection c. intravenous bolus
b. intramuscular injection d. subcutaneous injection

E 212. Function/s of purchasing and inventory control:

a. maintain drug inventory control
b. purchase all drugs
c. receive, store and distribute drugs
d. coordinate and control all drug delivery and distribution system
e. all of the above

A 213. Levels of patient care requiring hospital setting

a. intermediate & intensive care c. self care & ambulatory care
b. self care and home care d. b & c only

D 214. To achieve the goals of pharmacy service department, the hospital pharmacist should:
a. perform technical task
b. practice in patient care areas
c. perform task that require professional judgment
d. b & c
e. all of the above

B 215. The following are the responsibilities of pharmacy and therapeutic committee, except:
a. develop formulary
b. update the policies of the pharmacy department
c. choice of drugs to be requisitioned
d. add and delete from the list of drug
e. none of the above

B 216. The most common side effect of erythromycin therapy is:

a. hysterical laughing c. weight gain
b. abdominal cramping d. drowsiness

C 217. These are H2 blockers, except:

a. cimetidine c. felodipine
b. nizatidine d. ranitidine

C 218. Prepare the hospital pharmacy newsletter:

a. administrative services c. pharmacy information service
b. education & training service d. Pharmaceutical research division

B 219. The final decision as to which drugs shall be placed on the pavilion in the selection of charge floor stock drugs
rests on:
a. chief pharmacist c. medical staff
b. pharmacy & therapeutic committee d. both a & d

A 220. Advantage/s of the floor stock system of drug distribution

a. minimized return of medication
b. increased nursing time in medication activities
c. decreased potential for drug misadventuring
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

B 221. Chlorazepate dipotassium

a. antiepileptic c. major tranquilizer
b. minor tranquilizer d. anesthetic

C 222. These are primary centers for clinical investigation on new drugs.
a. school d. a & b
b. manufacturing firm e. all of the above
c. hospital

A 223. The following are services that involve primary the professional care of the patient except:

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a. admitting section d. medical record service

b. nutrition service e. anesthesia service
c. pathology service

C 224. First hospital pharmacist in the United States

a. Charles Rice c. Jonathan Roberts
b. Jonathan Wilbert d. none of the above

B 225. The ff. brought about the increasing need of hospital formularies except:
a. increasing number of new drugs being marketed
b. unbiased advertising & unscientific drug literature
c. highly competitive marketing practices of the pharmaceutical industry
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

B 226. Drug distribution system used more frequently in small private hospital
a. floor stock d. all of the above
b. individual prescription number e. none of the above
c. unit dose

B 227. Pharmacy technician performs the following responsibilities except:

a. receives deliveries of medicine
b. compounds prescription and fill requisition
c. responsible for cleanliness of the pharmacy
d. do the lifting of heavy drugs

C 228. This provides the patient the best possible therapy and also provides guidelines to physicians and veterinarian
a. pharmacy and therapeutic committee
b. medical dictionary
c. hospital formulary
d. a & c
e. none of the above

C 229. Duphaston is a/an

a. cathartic c. infertility drug
b. laxative d. anti-TB drug

C 230. A generic substitute means:

a. therapeutic equivalent d. all of the above
b. bioequivalent e. both a & c
c. chemical equivalent

C 231. The hospital department which is responsible for the safe and proper distribution of drugs to all patients
a. purchasing c. pharmacy
b. medicine d. nursing

C 232. Disadvantage/s of the individual prescription order system of drug distribution:

a. increased potential for medication errors
b. increased drug inventory
c. delay in drug administration
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

D 233. All are policies of a hospital pharmacy, except:

a. prescription written by the physician who is not a member of the hospital staff should not be dispensed
by hospital pharmacy
b. only those orders & prescription within the hospital should be dispensed by hospital pharmacy
c. all employees of the hospital should be given a 36% discount
d. there should be no ongoing formal program of quality pharmaceutical service

A 234. Which of the following drugs is administered solely by inhalation?

a. beclomethasone dipropionate c. dexamethasone
b. epinephrine HCL d. none of the above

A 235. Commercially available amino acids include

a. Amynosyn c. Lyposin
b. Intralipid d. all of the above

D 236. A modern pharmaceutical library shall have the following reference material, except:
a. United States Pharmacopeia
b. National Formulary

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c. Pharmacology, toxicology & therapeutics

d. almanac
e. bacteriology

C 237. These are personnel utilized whenever possible but never in activities requiring knowledge of the pharmacist:
a. nurse c. pharmacy helper
b. dietician d. all of the above

A 238. One who prepares reports on the progress of the pharmacy department and submits them to the director of the
hospital:
a. chief pharmacist d. all of the above
b. asst, chief pharmacist e. none of the above
c. staff pharmacist

E 239. IV medications maybe administered as:

a. infusion d. saddleback
b. bolus e. a,b, & c
c. piggyback

E 240. Each entry to the drug products listing of the hospital formulary must include, except:
a. cost information d. all of the above
b. size/s stocked by the pharmacy e. none of the above

A 241. This section is the heart of the formulary and consists of one or more descriptive entries for each formulary item
plus one or more indexes facilitate use of formulary:
a. drug product listing c. inventory control
b. formulary system d. drug management & supply

C 242. Physiological antidote for narcotics.

a. atropine c. naloxone
b. ephedrine d. codeine

D 243. Allotment of space in the pharmacy should be based on:

a. establishment of formulary system to reduce the amount of storage space capacity
b. based on the ability of the director to haggle for more available space
c. basic functions to be carried on in the pharmacy
d. a & c only

D 244. Medication histories are taken by pharmacist of every patient admitted to the hospital or on ambulatory care
section and which are taken:
a. to detect drug-induced laboratory test abnormalities
b. to help improve drug prescribing practices
c. to help prevent potential drug toxicities
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

D 245. A hospital pharmacist must develop physical assessment skills to:

a. be able to decipher and interpret common findings in the physical examination
b. have at least a basic understanding of such skills
c. have a background for more direct patient-care responsibilities
d. all of these

C 246. The most relaxed and comfortable position for examination of a patient with abdominal pain is:
a. Sim’s position c. dorsal position
b. lithotomy position d. supine position

B 247. This enables the pharmacist to screen for drug reactions and incompatibilities, drug allergies of drug prescribed
a. nurses notes d. patient history
b. patient drug profile e. all of the above
c. pharmacy record book

E 248. In-patient pharmacist’s responsibilities:

a. keeps the central dispensing area neat and orderly
b. provides drug information as necessary to the pharmacy, medical and nursing staff
c. insure that good techniques are used in compounding IV mixture
d. a and b.
e. b and c

A 249. Another name of cost-plus rate method of pricing of goods in the hospital pharmacy.
a. Zugish system c. a and b
b. Storage system d. none of the above

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D 250. Automated drug delivery system:

a. carboys c. pneumatic tubes
b. dumbwaiters d. all of the above

A 251. The following can legally receive drug samples, except:

a. nurses c. dentists
b. pharmacists d. veterinarians

B 252. Chest percussion is done to:

a. identify the tactile fremitus
b. determine the amount of liquids in the lungs
c. assess the size of the lungs
d. all of these

A 253. TPN therapy is most frequently complicated by septicemia due to:

a. Candida c. Pseudomonas
b. Enterobacter d. E coli

D 254. The use of an investigational new drug within a particular institution requires that the
a. institution be certified by BFAD
b. licensed prescriber to be approved by the chief investigator like pharmacy and therapeutics committee
c. hospital administrator, licensed prescriber and pharmacy be certified by BFAD
d. institution and the physicians be certified by the BFAD

B 255. The otosccope is used to:

a. measure the angle of bone and muscle movement
b. inspect the internal ear and tympanic membrane
c. assess the cardiovascular function
d. elicit reflexes

C 256. Non-licensed personnel play an important role in the hospital pharmacy because
a. many of them aspire to be pharmacists, and working in the hospital pharmacy provides training
b. they can be trained to act in the place of a pharmacist within 3 months
c. they can perform certain functions under the supervision of a registered pharmacist and therefore free
other pharmacists to perform more professional duties

C 257. Administrative policies for a pharmacy unit are generally developed

a. with the approval of the pharmacy and therapeutics committee
b. with the approval of the medical and/or nursing staffs
c. with the approval of the administrative officers of the hospital
d. by the pharmacy unit alone

C 258. The pharmacy and therapeutics committee is not designed to:

a. serve an educational function
b. advise on professional policies involving the use of drugs in the hospital use
c. dispense drugs for hospital use
d. recommend in-service programs relating to drugs

B 259. Drug samples are used for the following purposes, except:
a. to encourage clinical use by the physician
b. to be sold to indigent patients
c. for wounded civilians
d. for medical outreach purposes

A 260. Which one of the following does not have to be in the form of a written policy and procedure in the pharmacy?
a. patient admission c. orienting new pharmacy employee
b. handling flammable materials d. handling of narcotics

D 261. The following are abnormal heart sounds, except

a. S3 and S4 c. murmurs and hums
b. rubs and gallops d. S1 and S2

D 262. The following information can be deducted from the assessments of the skin, except:
a. scabs and scars – old and recent wounds
b. reddish skin – recent exposure under the sun
c. yellowish stains on the second and third fingers-chronic smoker
d. produce sweating – dehydration

A 263. Hair is important to assess since

a. it is useful indicator of a patient’s health/emotional status
b. hair coloring gives the approximate age of the patient

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c. length of hair implies the presence or absence of lice

d. amount of hair implies proper grooming

B 264. The clinical functions of a hospital pharmacist may include all of the following, except:
a. monitoring drug interactions
b. administration of medications pharmacokinetic consultation
d. participation on a nutritional support team
e. making rounds with physicians

D 265. The clinical functions of a hospital pharmacist may include all of the following, except:
a. monitoring drug interactions
b. participation on a nutritional support team
c. making rounds with physicians
d. administration of medications

D 266. These are developing trends in pharmacists functions, except

a. use of generics
b. advise physician on dosage regimen
c. influence physician in choice of drugs
d. diagnosis

B 267. The focal point about which all activities of the hospital revolves:
a. physician c. governing board
b. patient d. administrator

C 268. All of the following are advantages of unit dose drug distribution system, except:
a. pharmacist review of medication errors
b. participation on a nutritional support team
c. prompt delivery of a new medication orders
d. reduced pharmacy costs

D 269. Information sources utilized by drug information centers may include all of the following, except:
a. medical journals c. on-line computer information sources
b. textbooks d. popular literature

B 270. All of the following are competencies required in institutional pharmacy practice, except:
a. assimilation and provision of comprehensive information on drugs and their actions
b. effective administration and management of hospital
c. development and conduct of product formulation and packaging program
d. conduct of and participation in research

A 271 Which of the following does not correctly describes formulary system?
a. detrimental of the free enterprise c. control drug cost system
b. appraise drug therapy d. assume quality of drug

B 272. Pharmacist’s responsibility

a. taking blood pressure c. laboratory testing
b. monitoring drug abuse d. diagnosis

B 273. Total parenteral nutrition contains the following compounds

a. carbohydrates, lipids and antibiotics
b. lipids, vitamins, electrolytes and amino acid
c. water and carbohydrates only
d. none of the above

B 274. A unit dose package can be defined as a

a. vial of 1gm of Keflin to be reconstituted by the nurse sent to the nursing unit
b. package containing the exact dose of drugs to be administered to a patient at a specific time
c. bottle containing enough medication for 24 hours
d. package containing enough medication for the next three doses

D 275. Responsibilities often delegated to hospital pharmacy technicians include

a. counseling of patients being discharged
b. review of physician’s medication orders
c. pharmacokinetic monitoring
d. affix pre-printed labels to containers of pre-packaged drugs

A 276. When a supervising pharmacist serves on the pharmacy and therapeutics committee, which of the ff. types of
detailed information should be supplied by him for consideration and evaluation?
a. information pertaining to the therapeutic, pharmaceutics and economic aspects of a drug
b. information pertaining to the economic aspects of a drug only

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c. information pertaining to the therapeutic and economic aspects of a drug

D 277. The risk of medication misuse or errors are often due to

a. increase frequency of change in medication use
b. increase number of medications for patient
c. increased potency of modern medication
d. all of the above

C 278. The major reason for drug use review

a. drug cost d. drug administration
b. patient drug history e. all of the above
c. quality of drug therapy

E 279. Life support techniques used to treat critically ill patient, except:
a. pulmonary wedge pressures d. hemodialysis
b. intraaortic ballons e. none of the above
c. extracorporeal membrane oxygenation

B 280. A trade name for chorpropamide is:

a. Tolinase d. Micronase
b. Diabenese e. Orinase
c. dimelor

E 281. In disease management, pharmacists are responsible for:

a. drug therapy d. both a & c
b. improving patient outcomes e. all of the above
c. decreasing the cost of drug therapy

D 282. The following statement is true about Drug Utilization Review

(DUR), except
a. DUR is a system for assessing drug distribution and medication system
b. DUR is a system for monitoring adverse drug reaction
c. DUR is expected to predict potential drug interaction
d. DUR recommends the use of brand names in prescribing medicines
e. all of the above are correct

E 283. The following are focus of DUR, except:

a. drugs d. health providers
b. patients e. diagnosis
c. research

E 284. It is considered as the backbone of any hospital staff

a. medical staff c. clinical department
b. administration d. all of the above

D 285. Treatment of hypoglycemia includes:

a. insulin d. both b & c
b. candy e. all of the choices
c. fruit juice

C 286. What extra label should be included on the Mycostatin prescription?

a. shake well d. apply early in the morning
b. avoid alcoholic beverages e. dissolve in water
c. do not take by mouth

A 287. Characteristic/s of a TPN preparation

a. complete source of nutrition d. contains great amount lipids
b. hypoosmolar e. all of the above
c. can be infused together with blood products

D 288. The purpose of medical records

a. serve as a basis for planning and continuity of patient care
b. to provide date for use in research education
c. to serve as a basis for interview and evaluation of the care
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

E 289. All of these are possible indications for the use of ibuprofen, except:
a. dental pain c. bursitis
b. dysmenorrheal d. acne

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A 290. A patient complains that his urine has become bright orange-red. Which of his current prescription medications
maybe responsible?
a. rifampicin d. INH
b. acyclovir e. Ethembutol
c. erythromycin

D 291. The smallest diameter of needle cannula is gauge:

a. 18 c. 25
b. 20 d. 27

B 292. Which of the following is not a minimum standard for pharmacies in hospitals:
a. facilities d. research
b. drug administration e. drug distribution & control
c. assuring rational drug therapy

D 293. Which of the following may increase the absorption of iron?

a. antacid d. ascorbic acid
b. folic acid e. milk
c. high protein meal

C 294. Which of the following iron preparations is not available in an oral dosage form?
a. ferrous fumarate c. iron dextran
b. ferrous sulfate d. ferrous gluconate

E 295. Another name for regular insulin is:

a. isophane insulin d. NPH
b. crystalline zinc insulin e. Semilente
c. protamine zinc insulin

C 296. Which vitamins and minerals should be supplemented routinely in the pregnant woman?
a. iron & pyridoxine d. calcium & pyridoxine
b. iron & thiamine e. calcium & vit. A
c. iron & folate

E 297. Total parenteral nutrition is administered through:

a. jugular artery d. carotid artery
b. antecubital vein e. subclavian vein
c. femoral artery

A 298. Used to treat infections associated with COPD

a. erythromycin 500 mg qid d. sulfamethoxasole 400 mg/day
b. ampicillin 100 mg bid e both b and

D 299. The maximum dose of theophyline in children under 9 years of age is 24 mg/kg/day, while the maximum in
adults is:
a. 40 mg/kg/day d. 16/mg/kg/day
b. 36 mg/kg/day e. 10 mg/kg/day
c. 100 mg/kg/day

B 300. The pharmacist has been asked to educate the patient about signs of Digoxin toxicity that require immediate
notification of the physician. Which require immediate notification of the physician? Which of the ff. is not a sign
of toxicity?
a. dyspnea d. drowsiness
b. bradycardia e. confusion
c. visual disturbance

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