2016- 8‫اخر تحديث‬

‫في روابط لملفات خارجية تحتاج لتنزيلها‬

‫امتحان البورد‬2014

In haemorrhagic shock, Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone system is

mainly stimulated
Low effective circulating volume

All the following are causes of locked knee except :

Posterior cruciate ligament tear

. Which of the following is the most sensitive test to detect Clostridium

difficile?

Stool polymerase chain

A 55-year-old man With acute appendicitis. Final pathology reveals the

presence of a 2-cm carcinoid tumor

Right hemicolectomy

most common uterine tumor

rfibroid
dislocation of the hip
post most common

Absent distal peristalsis, elevated resting lower esophageal sphincter

pressure with failure to relax during deglutition
Achalasia

pilonidal sinus
Shaving and local hygiene decreases the necessity for a surgical
procedure.

To assess cardiac risk in patients with AAA

Cardiac echography with dobutamine test.

 In upper limb ischemia

Color changes in the fingers is the commonest presentation

wrist drop
radial nerve injery

Hereditary spherocytosis
is associated with increased red cell fragility
A 54- year vehicle crash. A Foley catheter returns 450 ml of grossly
bloody urine .
CT cystogram

postsplenectomy
vaccination is not recommended after conservative management of
grade IV splenic injury

Most common form of Down synd

mutation mosaic

(HIT) all are true except:

Thrombocytopenia is usually severe.
Reperfusion syndrome after arterial embolectomy:

Is induced by metabolic acidosis and myoglobinuria.

Fasciotomy
clinical feeling

(SIRS) include the following except:

PCO2 < 32 mmHg

ABO matching of donor and recipient is unnecessary in the patient

receiving:
Platelets.

The most important radiographs used in evaluating an adult trauma

patient are:
Lateral cervical spine, chest, pelvis.
HELP
LOW PLATLET

pyrexia occurring 48 hours after an abdominal operation?

Chest infection.

.Insulin has all the following actions except:

Increased gluconeogenesis.

MCC of bleeding after delivery

atony

Intussussception in children:
Hydrostatic reduction

The diagnosis of acute appendicitis is most difficult to establish in:

Infants younger than 1 year.

rectum and its relations is incorrect?

The upper 1/3 is entirely invested in peritoneum.
Femoral canal
a dead space allowing distension of femoral vein during exercise
Defenitive treatment of preeclampsia
Delivery
SIADH
increased urine sodium

correct respiratory alkalosis in a patient on mechanical ventilation

should be:
Decrease respiratory rate.

adrenal insufficiency include:

Low sodium, high potassium, low glucose.

Crohn’s diseas
involve the small bowel only, the colon only, or both (as in ileocolitis)

eclampsia most common occure

within 28 hour post delivery
 structures can be found outside of the spermatic cord during a
hernia repair?
direct hernia sac

pt stop coumodin after trated from old DVT develop new DVT whats
the treatment
Life long coumodin
supracondyler fracture
interoseos ant median nerve

cardiac anomaly associated with down synd

VSD

walking pneumonia
mycoplasma
‫امتحانات الضفه للمزاولة و البورد و التوظيف‬

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2015/11 ‫امتحان الوكالة‬

‫تجميع د احمد نبهان‬

endocrinology last
Question 7
Which one of the following statements regarding maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) is true?
A. There is usually a strong family history
B. Body mass index is typically > 30
C. Doesn’t respond to glimepiride
D. Autosomal recessive inheritance
E. Frequent episodes of diabetic ketoacidosis are typical
Question 30
Which of the following secondary causes of hyperlipidaemia result in predominantly
hypercholesterolaemia?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Bendrofluazide
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Alcohol
E. Obesity
Question 36
Which one of the following skin disorders is least associated with hypothyroidism?
A. Xanthomata
B. Pruritus
C. Pretibial myxoedema
 D. Eczema
E. Dry, coarse hair
Question 63
Which one of the following is least characteristic of Addison's disease?
A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Hyponatraemia
D. Hyperkalaemia
E. Positive short ACTH test
Question 71
Which of the following statements is true regarding the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus?
A. Concordance between identical twins is higher in type 2 diabetes mellitus than type 1
B. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus are rarely HLA-DR4 positive
C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is associated with HLA-DR3
D. Haemochromatosis is an example of primary diabetes
E. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is thought to be inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion
Question 83
Which one of the following statements regarding the management of diabetes mellitus during pregnancy is
incorrect?
A. A previous macrosomic baby is a risk factor for gestational diabetes
B. Diabetes complicates around 1 in 40 pregnancies
C. A higher dose of folic acid (5 mg/day) should be used
D. Metformin is contraindicated
E. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates
Question 88
Which one of the following regarding the management of thyroid problems during pregnancy is incorrect?
A. Maternal free thyroxine levels should be kept in the upper third of the normal reference range
B. Increased levels of thyroxine-binding globulin are seen in pregnancy
C. Block-and-replace is preferable in pregnancy compared to antithyroid drug titration
D. Breast feeding is safe whilst on thyroxine
E. Untreated thyrotoxicosis increases the risk of pre-eclampsia
Question 106
What is the most common hormone secreted from pituitary tumours?
A. TSH
B. LH
C. GH
D. Prolactin
E. ACTH

gastroentrology last
Question 9
Which one of the following is the most likely presentation of Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning?
A. Tenesmus
B. Watery diarrhoea
C. Dysentery
D. Severe vomiting
E. Presentation 24-48 hours after eating affected food
Question 16
Which one of the following medications is least associated with dyspepsia?
A. Isosorbide mononitrate
B. Prednisolone
C. Aminophylline
D. Atenolol
E. Amlodipine
Question 22
A 23-year-old man develops watery diarrhoea whilst travelling in Egypt.Which one of the following is the
most likely responsible organism?
A. Salmonella
B. Shigella
C. Campylobacter
D. Escherichia coli
E. Bacillus cereus
Question 27
Which one of the following is true regarding bacterial exotoxins?
A. They are mainly produced by Gram positive bacteria
B. Cholera toxin inhibits cAMP release in intestinal cells
C. Diphtheria toxin necrosis is limited to the pharynx, nasopharynx and tonsils
D. Staph. aureus exotoxins are not known to cause gastroenteritis
E. 'Lockjaw' seen in tetanus is secondary to blockade of the neuromuscular junction by Botulinus toxin
Question 28
Each one of the following is a risk factor for gastric cancer, except:
A. Smoking
B. Blood group O
C. Nitrates in diet
D. Chronic atrophic gastric
E. H. pylori infection
Question 41
Which one of the following is least likely to complicate hepatitis B infection?
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Chronic infection
E. Polyarteritis nodosa
Question 44
A 42-year-old woman is investigated for lethargy and diarrhoea. Investigations reveal positive anti-
endomysial antibodies. Each of the following food stuffs should be avoided, except:
A. Beer
B. Rye
C. Maize
D. Bread
E. Pasta
Question 47
Which one of the following is least likely to cause malabsorption?
A. Systemic sclerosis
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Primary biliary cirrhosis
D. Whipple's disease
E. Haemochromatosis

Question 51
Ulcerative colitis is associated with each one of the following, except:
A. Pseudopolyps
B. Drainpipe colon
C. Loss of haustrations on barium enema
D. Rose thorn ulcers
E. Crypt abscesses
Question 62
Which one of the following is least associated with hepatosplenomegaly?
A. Glandular fever
B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
C. Alcoholic liver disease
 D. Amyloidosis
E. Infective endocarditis
Question 89
A 54-year-old female is admitted two weeks following a cholecystectomy with profuse diarrhoea. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Campylobacter
B. E. coli
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Salmonella
E. Staphylococcus aureus

haematology last
Question 12
A 42-year-old female is noted to have a Hb of 17.8 g/dL. Which one of the following is least likely to be
the cause?
A. Polycythaemia rubra vera
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C. Hypernephroma
D. Haemochromatosis
E. Dehydration
Question 24
Each one of the following may cause eosinophilia, except:
A. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
B. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
C. Churg-Strauss syndrome
D. Psoriasis
E. Toxocara infection
Question 37
What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?
A. Haemophilia A
B. Activated protein C resistance
C. Haemophilia B
D. Antithrombin III deficiency
E. von Willebrand's disease
Question 42
A 35-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant presents with a swollen, painful right calf. A deep vein
thrombosis is confirmed on Doppler scan. What is the preferred anticoagulant?
A. Clopidogrel
B. Aspirin
C. Intravenous heparin
D. Warfarin
E. Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin
Question 48
Each one of the following is associated with iron-deficiency anaemia, except:
A. Atrophic glossitis
B. Onycholysis
C. Post-cricoid webs
D. Koilonychia
E. Angular stomatitis

Question 62
Each one of the following is associated with hyposplenism, except:
A. Sickle-cell anaemia
B. Liver cirrhosis
C. Systemic lupus erythematous
 D. Coeliac disease
E. Splenectomy
Question 89
Which one of the following is least associated with microcytic anaemia?
A. Iron deficiency
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Thalassaemia
D. Sideroblastic anaemia
E. Anaemia of chronic disease

Rheumatology last
Question 4
Which one of the following is least associated with Behcet's syndrome?
A. Mouth ulcers
B. Genital ulcers
C. Conjunctivitis
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Aseptic meningitis
Question 21
A 57-year-old man presents with pain in his right knee. An x-ray shows osteoarthritis. He has no past
medical history of note. What is the most suitable treatment option for the management of his pain?
A. Diclofenac with omeprazole
B. Glucosamine
C. Diclofenac
D. Ibuprofen
E. Paracetamol
Question 23
Which of the following is associated with a good prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Rheumatoid factor negative
B. HLA DR4
C. Female sex
D. Rheumatoid nodules
E. Insidious onset
Question 61
A 69-year-old man presents with an acute episode of gout on his left first metatarsal-phalangeal joint. What
is the most likely underlying mechanism?
A. Sedentary lifestyle
B. Decreased renal excretion of uric acid
C. Increased endogenous production of uric acid
D. Starvation
E. Too much protein in diet

Neurology last
Question 9
Which one of the following statements regarding the development of a headache following lumbar
puncture is incorrect?
A. Occurs in one-third of patients
B. May last several days
C. More common in females
D. Usually develops within the first 24 hours
E. Worsens with upright position
Question 30
Which one of the following features is not associated with an oculomotor nerve palsy?
A. Miosis
B. Ptosis
 C. Eye is deviated 'down and out'
D. Pain if due to a posterior communicating artery aneurysm
E. Diplopia
Question 55
Which of the following is least associated with Parkinsonism?
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Progressive supranuclear palsy
C. Dementia pugilistica
D. Lead poisoning
E. Wilson's disease
Question 66
Which one of the following is most likely to cause bilateral facial nerve palsy?
A. Acoustic neuroma
B. Cholesteatoma
C. Bell's palsy
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Amyloidosis
Question 81
Which one of the following causes of peripheral neuropathy is most associated with demyelination?
A. Vasculitis
B. Alcohol
C. Hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) type I
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
E. Diabetes mellitus

NEPHROLOGY LAST
Question 30
Fanconi syndrome is associated with each one of the following, except:
A. Hydronephrosis
B. Osteomalacia
C. Aminoaciduria
D. Glycosuria
E. Proximal renal tubular acidosis
Question 35
Which one of the following types of glomerulonephritis is most characteristically associated with
streptococcal infection in children?
A. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
B. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
C. Membranous glomerulonephritis
D. Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis
E. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
Question 41
Which of the following types of renal stones are said to have a semi-opaque appearance on x-ray?
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Cystine stones
C. Urate stones
D. Xanthine stones
E. Triple phosphate stones
Question 56
Each one of the following is a cause of sterile pyuria, except:
A. Renal stones
B. Acute glomerulonephritis
C. Renal TB
D. Bladder/renal cell cancer
E. Appendicitis
infectious diseases&STD last
Question 2
Which one of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
A. Yellow fever
B. Rabies
C. Pertussis
D. Typhoid
E. Tetanus

Question 9
A 38-year-old man presents to the genitourinary clinic with multiple, painless genital ulcers. A diagnosis of
granuloma inguinale is made. What is the causative organism?
A. Klebsiella granulomatis
B. Chlamydia
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Haemophilus ducreyi

Question 30
Which one of the following features is least likely to occur in a patient with visceral leishmaniasis?
A. Massive splenomegaly
B. Diarrhoea
C. Pyrexia
D. Pancytopaenia
E. Grey skin
Question 36
Which one of the following statements regarding toxoplasmosis is true?
A. It is a type of flagellate
B. Congenital toxoplasmosis results in optic nerve atrophy
C. Ceftriaxone should be used initially in patients with HIV-associated toxoplasmosis
D. The cat is the only known animal reservoir
E. infection is usually self-limiting

Question 44
What is the mechanism of action of macrolides?
A. Causes misreading of mRNA
B. Interferes with cell wall formation
C. Inhibits DNA synthesis
D. Inhibits RNA synthesis
E. Inhibits protein synthesis

Question 46
Which one of the following features is not associated with Lyme disease?
A. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
B. Meningitis
C. Prolonged PR interval on ECG
D. Erythema marginatum
E. Arthralgia
Question 55
Which of the following is true regarding the Salmonella species?
A. Rose spots appear in all patients with typhoid
B. They are normally present in the gut as commensals
C. They are anaerobic organisms
D. A relative bradycardia is often seen in typhoid fever
E. Salmonella typhi can be categorised into type A, B and C
 Question 65
Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with sensorineural
deafness?
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Parvovirus B19
C. Rubella
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Cytomegalovirus
Question 92
A 27-year-old pregnant woman is found to have Chlamydia. What is the most appropriate treatment?
A. No antibiotic therapy is indicated
B. Cefixime
C. Erythromycin
D. Doxycycline
E. Ciprofloxacin

Question 95
Which one of the following is least associated with a false negative tuberculin skin test?
A. Lymphoma
B. Miliary tuberculosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Chronic renal failure
E. HIV
Question 119
Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis A is false?
A. Has an incubation period of 2-4 weeks
B. It is a DNA virus
C. Doesn't cause chronic hepatitis
D. May cause hepatosplenomegaly
E. A vaccine is available

10/2015 ‫بورد‬
2015 ‫اسئلة امتحان البورد سلكشن االخير‬
‫تجميع زميلنا مشكورا د احمد عبد الهادي‬
‫الشكر موصول ل د احمد القهوجي و د محمد الدحدوح‬

1. Pre operative cardiac risk except:

a. MI within 30 day
b. Supraventricular tachycardia
c. Decompensated heart failure
d. Aspirin
2. Anti-biotic before surgery except:
a. Antibiotic within 1 hour of incision
b. If there is tourniquet you should inject drug before remove it
c. If the operation is long you should repeat the antibiotic with short half life.
3. Anatomy of pelvic floor except : may be prostate located directly on pelvic floor.
4. Innervation of pudendal nerve:
 a. s2 S3 S4
b. S2S3
c. S1
d. L5
5. Burn and fluid: 40Kg 80% ( 4ml* 50%* 40Kg) + 2L =
a. 14.4 Ringer lactate
b. 19.9 glucose + ringer
6. About breaking bad news: major stress for doctor…….. and patient …….( before
and within conversation )
7. Study for incidence:
a. Prospective chore
b. Case control
c. Case study
8. About carpal tunnel syndrome: Tinlle and fanill examination
9. Hypokalaemia except:
a. tetany
b. Abdominal distention
c. ECG change
10. 14y old female, good performance in school, small goitre in neck,
hypercholestremia:
a. Hashimoto
b. Congenital hypothyroidism
11. DM in pregnancy complications except:
a. caput succedaneum
b. Macrosomy
c. IUFD
d. Preterm
12. Macrocytosis except: B12 deficiency
13. Portal triad except: hepatic vein
14. Clubbing except: Asthma
15. Sever asthma except: Diffuse wheeze
16. About caput succedaneum: resolve spontaneously
17. Case about AAA
18. Cause of splenectomy: Thalassemia and hyperspleenism
19. RA except: RF must be positive in all patient
20. DVT+ chest pain+ tachycardia and tachypnea: PE
21. PE diagnostic = Angiography
22. Increase ESR except: osteoporosis
23. Nutritional rickets: normal Ca low phosphate
24. Epiglotitis ttt: endotracheal intubation
25. About croup except: transport immediately to ER.
26. Biophysical profile true: decrease score increase mortality
27. Apgar score except: BP
28. ANA except: Aspirin poisoning
29. Testicular cancer except: spread to superficial LN
30. Bronchial breathing: pneumonia
31. HF drugs contraindication except : Ivabridine
32. Needle stick unvaccinated HBV…. Give him vaccine
33. Craniopharynigoma: except..
34. Induction of delivery breech baby except: First presentation during labour
35. Breast abnormal secretion: serosinguanious bloody
36. Treatment of hypernatremia complication .. cerebral edema
37. Diabetic hyperosmolar except… osmolality 310
38. Melanoma… superficial spread the most common type
39. About parotid pleomorphic adenoma
a. Treat by inoculation
b. Core biopsy
c. Rapid transform to malignancy
40. About turner syndrome except: good breast
41. Temporal arteritis true: steroid
42. Vaginal ph: 6-7
43. Co2 35-45
44. Most common complication of HTN: stroke
45. About aneurism: Berry is caused by hyperchololestremia
46. Breast feeding increase by:
a. Bed rest
b. Vitamins and minerals
c. A+B
47. Myelofibrosis : splenomegaly, tear drop all
48. On warfarin bleeding treat by: FFP
49. MG manifestation: Ptosis and weak extraocular muscle
50. To detect diabetic nephropathy: urine albumin
51. About febrile convulsion: may be AD
52. LP except: infection at the site
53. Most common complication of meningitis … hearing loss
54. Physiological anaemia in pregnancy the cause: increase plasma volume more than
RBC size
55. True about kidney in pregnancy except: decrease renal plasma flow
56. TSS except: Thrombocytosis
57. Child 4 year: Wt 16 ( 2*age + 8)
58. Excretion of milk: oxytocin
59. Sheean syndrome most important ttt: Cortisone
60. Addison : symptoms mimic Acute abdomen.
61. Trophoblast gestation follow up: B- hcg gonadotropin
62. The most common sign of trophoblast gestation
a. Bleeding
 b. Increase uterus size
63. The sign of very early sign of cervical cancer: symptomless
64. About EBV except: CMV more sore throat than EBV
65. About typhoid fever except:
66. About food poisoning except: staph cause vomiting during 2 day
67. About shoulder dystocia
68. Cause WBC chemotaxis…. Leckuterine B4
69. The most symptomatic fibroid… cervical
70. To stimulate heart and decrease peripheral resistance …
a. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
b. Dopamine and dobutamine
71. Contraindication to pregnancy: sever pulmonary HTN
72. Increase of encephalopathy… all ( constipation, bleeding..)
73. Complication of DM except: liver cirrhosis
74. Case about MI first thing .. ECG
75. Breast milk rich in … IgA immunoglobulin
76. Child and foreign body… bronchoscopy
77. Breast cancer true … DIC mirocalcification
78. Thalassemia except .. direct coomb
79. Contraindication of vaccination… hypotension and wheezing
80. Cause of spontaneous peritonitis rather than E. coli
81. Cause of thrombocytopenia… pernicious anemia
82. About inguinal hernia true…. Vigorous reduction increase risk of strangulation
83. Furosemide side effect…. Hypokalaemia, hyponatremia, All
84. Acromegaly treatment …. Tans sphenoid surgery
85. Anatomy of ischiorectal area….
86. To decrease early mortality and morbidity…. Decrease
a. Suicidal
b. Smoking
87. Maternal mortality rate… 100.000 live birth
88. Statistical question

2015/8 ‫امتحان حكومة‬

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‫السالم عليكم‬
‫ سؤال هادي األسئلة الي قدرنا نتذكرها‬50 ‫االمتحان كان مكون من‬
5 ‫االمتحان ما كان بيعتمد على مصدر معين واألسئلة المكررة يمكن ما تجاوز عددها‬
‫فالسنوات الجاية ركزوا على الدراسة اكتر من األسئلة‬
‫الملف تم كتابته من قبل محمود قشطة و احمد عبد الهادي و احمد الهمص‬
1. To prevent rheumatic fever as a complication of pharyngitis when to start antibiotic
In the first 48h
4days
8 days
10 fays
2. Antibiotic to prevent RF: IM penicillin
3. To increase lactation:
a. Rest and nutrition
b. 5000 cal
c. Vitamin
d. A+B
4. Not important to assess bleeding risk preoperatively
a. Bleeding time
5. Infant able to sit with little support …. 6 Mo
6. Cause of Wheeze
a. Foreign body
b. Bronchiolitis
c. All of the above
7. Female with graves dz does not want to be pregnant which of these less choice for
longterm
management
a. Thyroidectomy
b. Iodine
c. Methimazole
d. Propulthiouracl
e. Short term propanol
8. About asthma in pregnancy all true except
decrease the wheezes and dyspnoea in the last trimester
Decrease in FEV1
9. About obesity in pregnancy
10. About physiological changes in pregnancy false
a. Systolic pressure start to decrease in the last trimester
11. Not cause of systolic pressure..----- Aortic incompetence
12. The most dangerous in pregnancy…… .. Aortic stenosis
13. About appendicitis false….
WBC> 20000
the best test to confirm the Dx is CT with contrast
14. Acute cholecystitis ---- Dx with US with gallstone and pericystic fluid collection
15. GCS false Pupil size
16. Testicular torsion false: the pain decrease with elevation
17. About UTI correct: Pyuria
18. 32 Female with hirsutism and clitromegaly and 2 years amenorrhea .. .. adrenal
tumour
ovarian tumour
19. About diarrhea false:
a. Prebiotic in mild case
b. Antiviral, antibacterial routine use
20. Acute blood loss: 20ml/kg 30min boles of ringer lactate
21. About whole blood transfusion:
a. Most effective for acute blood loss
b. More dz
c. Only blood cells
22. About vitamin D rickets false: cranitabes is a late sign
23. Cause of haemolysis except … vitamin K deficiency
24. About pyloric stenosis.. at 4-6 weeks
25. Preeclampsia… HTN+ Proteinuria
26. Urine analysis red urine after centrifuge become clear with precipitant red sediment
the
cause ----- RBC hemoglobine myoglobine
27. HUS false … give Antibiotic
28. Reynold disease except … systemic sclerosis SLE BB none of the above
29. Life threatening asthma except… PEFR<50
30. Most common traveller diarrhoea… E. coli
31. Neurogenic shock except… Tachycardia
32. The most common cause of stroke is ---- HTN
33. All of these are true about pyrexia of unknown origin except
>38.3 for 3 weeks
if the cause is not known after all investigation is a bad prognosis
34. About induction of labour are true except
the most effective is PGE2
the main plane is to achieve vaginal delivery
35. The most common time for infection of IUD is ------- during insertion
36. Pt with suicidal attempt with unknown tablet presented with vomiting and on
abdominal X
ray a radiopaque tablet was seen ----- iron tablets
37. All of these are features of Addison disease except? hypokalaemia
38. The most diagnostic test for GERD ---- 24hr intraluminal PH monitoring
39. Salicylate poisoning the early symptom is
tachypnea --- vomiting
40. Question about PID
41. Breath holding spells ----- assure the family that it will resolve spontasously
42. Drug not to give during pregnancy ----- warfarin
43. False about jejnoilial atresia ----- presences double bubble sign
2015 ‫مزاولة يوليو‬

Gyne & Surgery Question :

1.the shortest diameter is :
a. conjugate diameter
b. diagonal diameter
c. Intraspinous diameter
d. all of above
2. per vaginal exam is contraindicated in case of :
a. Cervical cancer
b. placenta previa
c. Abruptio placenta
d. uterine rupture
3. the following cancer is not have carcinoma in situ :
a. endometrial cancer
b. ovarian cancer
c. vaginal cancer
d. cervical cancer
4. definition of Preeclampsia :
a. systolic hypertension more than 140 mmHg and diastolic hypertension more than 90
mmHg.
b. hypertension + pedal edema
c. hypertension + proteinuria
d. hypertension + eclampsia
5. common presentation vesicular mole is :
A. Vaginal bleeding
b. Vaginal discharge
c. LAP
d. Dyspanurea
6. the treatment of Sheehan syndrome is :
a. Estrogen
b. progesterone
c. Cortisone
d. thyroid atom
7. After evacuation of vesicular mole , it should follow
a. Radiotherapy
b. Chemotherapy
c. hysterectomy
d. contraceptive pills
8. the most common cause of ectopic pregnancy is :
a. congenital anomalies of uterus
b. Follicular saplingitis
c. Coagulation diseases
d. salipigopalsty
9. clinical manifestation of sever preeclampsia include all the following except :
a. liver tenderness
b. sever headache
c. Nystagmus
d. epigastric pain
10. one is true about Cord prolapse :
a. may be reaily detected during screening method in 3rd trimester of pregnancy
b. when it detect by PV during labor CS must be done
c. Frank presentation is commonly dangerous type of cord prolapse
d. CS delivery is contraindicated in IUFD
11. In management of PET . one is wrong :
Answer is : ACE drugs in treatment of choice in case preeclampsia
12. pyometria in post menopause should be considered as she may had :
a. Endometriosis
b. PID
c. Asherman syndrome
d. Malignancy
13. About DUB , one is true :
a. it defined as irregular menstrual vaginal bleeding
b. it defined as polymenorrhea
c. usually physical examination is unremarkable
d. D&C is mainly indicated in every women less than 40 years
14. the most common cause of recurrent abortion is
a. genetic anomalies
b. uterine anomalies
c. hormone disease
d. pelvic congestion
15. 40 years old female has history of IUCD , has serum pregnancy positive , which of
the following is high risk to develop it ?
a. recurrent abortion
b. vesicular mole
c. Ectopic pregnancy
d. congenital abnormalities
16. which of the following is not consider as antepartum hemorrhage ?
a. Abruptio placenta
b. placental previa
c. undetermined cause
d. uterine rupture

17. The most common cause of PPH is

a. uterine atony
b. retained placenta tissue
c. Coagulapathy
d. all of above
18. one of the following is true about physiological changes in pregnancy :
a. blood volume is increased about 100 %
b. increase vascular resistance 50 %
c. leukocytosis
d. decrease plasma renal follow
19. obstetric complication of diabetic mother is all of following except :
a. IUFD
b. PTL
c. Macrosomia
d. PPH
20. about PET , one is true :
a. sever PET may persist after delivery of fetus
b. Eclampsia may occur up to 4 weeks after delivery
c. patient with sever PET, renal function test should not performed after delivery
d. I forget it .. sorry..
21. As regard the mechanism of labor , which of the following sequences is correct
A Descent , internal rotation , flexion
B Engagement , flexion , descent
C Engagement , internal rotation , descent
D Engagement , descent , flexion
E Descent , flexion , engagement
22. Maternal mortality refers to the number of maternal deaths that occur as the
result of the reproductive process per
A 1000 births
B 10.000 births
C 100.000 births
D 10.000 live births
23. Ovulation in the human:
a. a) Is associated with a surge of luteinising hormone.
b. b) Is characteristically followed by the development of secretory
endometrium.
c. Is associated with an increase in motility of the fallopian tube.
d. Is associated with a sustained rise in basal body temperature.
e. Is followed by a rise in urinary pregnantriol.
24. The normal Vaginal PH is
a. 7-10
b. 3-4
c. 0-3
d. 6-8
25. Myoepithelial epithelial cell contraction can be achieved by :
A. prolactin
b. oxytocin
c. progesterone
d. estrogen
26. Viral infection of the cervix one true
A. Papilloma viruses are RNA viruses.
B. Human papilloma virus (HPV) types 16 and 18 are the RNA viruses most commonly
associated with cervical cancer
C. Human papilloma virus infection can regress spontaneously
D. Viral infections involving the cervical epithelium are only manifested by dyskaryosis
27. 38. All of the following are true in regards to vulvar Paget's disease with the
EXCEPTION of
A. Presents as an erythematous, eczematoid lesion of the vulva
B. Most common in postmenopausal, Caucasian women
C. Presenting complaints of pruritus and vulvar soreness
D. Pathologic extent of disease corresponds well to the visual assessment of the lesion
28. Regarding the broad ligament, the following are true except
A Contains tissues of mesonephric origin
B has the fallopian tube in its upper free border
C has the ovarian artery in its lower attached border
D. has the ureter passing forward in its lower attached border
29. Neck US is useful for giving possible find of :
a. multiplicity
b. Lymph node status
c. differentiation between malignant and benign
d. nodular size
30. The most common complication of pelvic fracture is :
a. hemorrhage
b. pelvic pain
c. urine retention
d. rectal tenzmus
31. DVT prevention is achieved by :
a. Calf compression during surgical operation
b. Elevation of bed floor .
c. both
d. Neither
32. according to Paget disease one is true
a. usually present with eczematous of nipple and aerola
b. it precancerous lesion
c. mostly bilateral
d. usually treatment by simple mastectomy
33. one is incorrect about breast cancer :
a. usually has history of painful breast mass
b. often present in upper outer quadrant
c. can be detected preoperatively by experience physicians 95 %
d. surgical operation is usually is treatment of choice
34. blood stained nipple discharge commonly associated with
a. breast ductal cancer
b. Dutacl ectasia
c. Fibroadenoma
d. intraductal papilloma
35. all of the following are true about scaphoid fracture except :
a. usually present by mechanism of outstretched hand
b. occur usually by young age
c. the most common sign Localized tenderness in the anatomic
snuffbox
d. Avascular necrosis is rare
36. Median nerve compression syndrome in which the patient
has motor weakness of the flexor pollicis longus and the
flexor digitorum profundus of the index finger without
alteration in sensibility is due to:
A. Compression of the median nerve at the elbow by the
lacertus fibrosus.
B. Compression of the median nerve in the axilla.
C. Compression of the anterior interosseous nerve by the
arcade of Frohse.
D. Compression of the anterior interosseous nerve by an
aberrant accessory forearm muscle.
37. auto-immune thyroiditis (Hashimoto’s disease):
A. Characteristically occurs in young females.
B. Often presents with hyperthyroidism.
C. Produces a soft diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland.
D. Is associated with regional lymph node enlargement.
38. Recurrent Fanculosis is usually indicate :
a. DNS
b. DM
c. nasal polyp
d. ??
39. Concerning to intestine obstruction . one is correct :
a. The majority of case is usually treat by mean of conservative method
b. In high bowel obstruction , vomiting occur as earlier than abdomen pain
c. multiple gases in bowel present due to bacteria proliferation in bowel
d. loss of fluid and electrolyte is mainly produced by secondary abdomen sistension
40. one is correct about rectal cancer :
a. It squamous cell cancer
b. usually spread by lymphatic spread
c. more common in male
d. usually present as painful rectal bleeding
41. Right colon cancer usually present with :
a. Anemia
b. Rectal bleeding
c. bowel obstruction

42. Concerning to cholangitis , one is incorrect :

a. present usually with fever , pain , jaundice
b. always present with biliary tract disease
c. most common cause CBD stone
d. ??
43. according to ureteric stone :
a. usually present with hemispherical shape
b. if it causes colicky pain , surgery is indicated
c. Neither
b. both
44. about cholycystitis all are incorrect except :
a. US is useful method for diagnosis
45. open chest trauma :
a. immediate thoracotomy
b. associated with medistinal flap
c. usually connected with water seal
d. none of above
45. most common cause of rectal bleeding in young adult patient is :
a. colonic can
b. angidysplasia
c. diverticilatis
d. hemorrhoids
46. common picture of chronic anal fissure :
a. rectal bleeding
b. painful defecation
c. priritis of anus
d. anal discharge

47. anal fissure :

a. mucosal ulcer in anal mucosa
b. usually in anterior
c. more common in male
d. the best treatment by medication

48. A 44-year-old man presents with painless rectal bleeding of 1 month's duration.
He reports a history of constipation. He works in heavy labor.
For this patient, which of the following statements regarding internal hemorrhoids
is true?

a. Stapled hemorrhoidectomy should be done for grade 1 and 2 hemorrhoids

b. Internal hemorrhoids are located proximal to the dentate line and therefore
are usually painless
c. A grade 1 internal hemorrhoid represents bleeding with prolapse
d. All of the above

49. A 35-year-old man presents with severe acute abdominal pain of sudden onset.
The pain initially began in the upper abdomen and has now settled in the whole
abdomen. On examination, the abdomen was rigid. Chest X-Ray showed free gas
under diaphragm.
Which of the following is the most appropriate course of management for this
patient?
a. Observation
b. Urgent laparotomy
c. Non urgent laparotomy
d. Laparoscopy

50. Regarding volvulus of the sigmoid colon, each of the following is true except :

a. likely results from redundant sigmoid colon with an elongated narrow mesocolon
b. there appears to be a congenital predisposition sigmoid volvulus.
c. diagnostic barium enema for sigmoid colon is essential
d. diagnostic x-ray for sigmoid volvulus shows a dilated loop of colon which points
toward the right upper quadrant.

51. Benign prostatic hypertrophy:

• Can readily be assessed on rectal examination.
• Can be effectively treated with hormones.
• Is most effectively treated by surgery.
• Is a premalignant condition.
52. In deep venous thrombosis of the lower limb:
A. One of the most common sites of origin is the short saphenous vein.
B. One of the common sites of origin is in the iliofemoral segment.
C. The diagnosis can usually be made by clinical examination.
D. Tender swollen thrombosed veins are usually palpable.
53. The following are correct of acute painful of lower limb except :
a. acute ischemia
b. muscular tear
c. fracture of bone
c. DVT
54. which of the following not need donor investigation during transfusion :
a. plasma
b. whole blood
c. packed RBC
d. platelet
55. Following head injuries surgical intervention is usually required for:
A. Linear skull fractures.
B. Cerebral edema.
C. Depressed skull fractures.
d. all of above

56. Extradural hematomata:

A. Are usually arterial origin .
B. Have a characteristic concave appearance on CT scan
C. usually caused by posterior branch of middle meningeal artery.
D. All of above.
57. The characteristic signs of chronically raised intracranial pressure include:
a. Papilloedema.
b. Epilepsy.
c. both.
d. neither
58. Patients with major burns:
A. Are in a negative nitrogen balance.
B. Have normal calorie requirements.
C. Do not generally become anaemic.
D. Are resistant to septicaemia
59. The dressing of a small burn should be:
A. Occlusive.
B. Non-absorbtive.
C. Non-compressive.
D. Changed daily as a routine.
60. Which of the following statement is true concerning the management of chest
trauma?
A. The majority of injuries to the chest require surgical intervention
B. The posterior lateral thoracotomy is the optimal approach for emergency thoracotomy
C. Either computed tomography or angiography are suitable methods for detecting aortic
disruption in a patient with an abnormal chest x-ray.
D. Persistent bleeding associated with a penetrating injury to the chest is often due to
injury to an artery of the systemic circulation
61. Indications for Cesarean section during laparotomy for trauma include all
except?
A. Maternal shock after 28 weeks gestation
B. Unstable thoracolumbar spinal injury
C. Mechanical limitation for maternal repair
D. Maternal death if estimated gestational age is at least 28 weeks
62. In head trauma patient after control of air way , the first diagnostic study
A. X-rays of the skull.
B. CT scan of the head.
C. X-rays of cervical spine
D. Carotid angiography.

63. he diagnosis of an inguinal hernia:

 In infants often depends on the history given by its mother.
 In the adult is most easily made with the patient in the sitting position.
 Depends on the hernial sac or cough impulse being felt below the inguinal
ligament.
d. Is supported by the presence of a trans illuminable scrotal swelling
64. which of the following is sever type of pneumothorax ?
a. spontaneous
b. closed
c. open
d. non of above
65. Which of the following concerning the Femoral sheath is false:
A. Contains the femoral artery
B. Contains lymph nodes
C. Contains the femoral canal
D. Contains femoral nerve
66. which of the following are common cause of child bowel obstruction ?
Hirschsprung's disease
67. which of the following is not considered with Ranson criteria of acute
pancreatitis ?
a. serum LDH more than 350
b. serum of glucose level is high than 10 mmol
c. serum amylase more than 1000
d. level of WBC more than 20000
68. The preferred operation for initial management of a thyroid nodule 
that is considered suspicious for malignancy by FNAB is:
A. Excision.
B. Partial lobectomy.
C.. Total lobectomy and isthmusectomy.
d. Total thyroidectomy.
69. The most common indication for operation in Crohn's disease of the colon is:
A. Obstruction.
B. Chronic debility.
C. Bleeding.
D. Perforation.
70. A 9 month old boy presents with an acute scrotal swelling. The following
diagnoses are likely:
a. Epididymitis
b. Torsion of the testicular appendage
c. orchitis
d. Irreducible inguinal hernia
: ‫مالحظة‬
.. ) ‫ معظمها كيسات ( حاالت‬.. ‫االسئلة المتبقية كانت من متوسطة الى صعبة‬
.. ‫ بالتوفيق و النجاااااح للجميع‬.. ‫ال تنسونا من خالص دعاؤكم‬

2015/3 ‫مزاولة‬

‫اعداد الزملء د محمود قشطه و د احمد عبد الهادي‬

Pictures
1. What is your Dx ….. Imperforated hymen
2. Bartholine abscess What is you management …. Incision and drainage
3. ECG about pericarditis Friction rub, depress PR, elevated ST
4. Case about anterior MI + pan systolic murmur radiated to Axilla + Pulmonary
oedema…. MR
5. Infection between toes... Tenia pedies
6. Child with cheek and lips redness Kawasaki What is your treatment… IVIg
7. X-ray for female Hyperinflation lungs and her father has the same picture what is your
treatment ….. pool of a 1 antitrypsin
8. CT for brain case about lesion in the left parietal lobe of brain
9. CT for Abdomen … pancreatic cancer
10. X-ray for patient has seizure … Shoulder dislocation.. gleno humeral Joint
1. What is you treatment for cluster headache ??
a. Oxygen with mask bag
b. Ergotamine
2. What is you treatment for about 2 cm SCC in the lung without mets or LN
involvement??
a. Pneumoectomy
b. Lobectomy
3. 27 Y old male patient decide to travel to Japan what is your vaccination?
a. Tdap
b. No
c. Yellow fever
d. Japan encephalitis
4. Female patient has a cancer and has signs of pain and depression what is your next step
a. Increase the dose of morphine
b. Give treatment for depression
5. Patient had surgery for pituitary ectomy today suffered from DI without signs of
Hypernatremia what is your next step?
a. Give him IV normal saline
b. Desmopressine
6. Case about sinusitis The most common cause? Streptococcus pneumonia
7. Old man patient has Systolic murmur grade 1 at apex, S4 and chest pain increase with
exercise relive by rest What is your diagnosis
a. Unstable angina
b. Aortic stenosis
8. 70 Y old female patient with back pain, hip pain What is the most risk factor?
a. If osteoporosis the answer.. gender
b. If osteoarthritis the answer is .. Age
9. Female patient after resuscitation in the hospital is complaining of epigastric pain
relive by
eating what is your next step for diagnosis? Endoscope
10. Anaphylactic shock what is the substance responsible for this? Histamine
11. Child With Scald skin syndrome
12. Child has ADHD now He is suffering from symptoms of MDD.
13. Agitated in the hospital …. Lorazepam
14. Hypernatremia and Hypotension… Normal saline
15. Heat stroke … external cool
16. Pneumothorax… 2
nd rib needle thoracotomy
17. Muffled heart sounds, distended neck vessels next step… pericadiocentesis
18. Symptoms of hypothyroidism the most common cause… Thyroiditis
19. HTN + Hypokalaemia ….. Hyper aldosterone
20. 12 y old female patient without secondary sexual characterise….. Follow up next 6
MO
21. Child 3 y old able to ride tricycle and talk about 100 words … good motor delayed
language
22. 37 y old female patient with irregular and heavy menstruation next step…
Endometrial
biopsy
23. Another case about endometrial cancer with same answer
24. About 70 y old female patient with scaly nipple next step? Biopsy
25. Elderly female with hard mass, irregular on u/s ….. Malignancy
26. Bipolar disorder + polyuria …. Drug side effect
27. Pharyngitis + Fluctuant mass ….. Bacterial infection
28. HIV patient + Multiform rash ….. Varicella chickenpox
29. Child with pain in his shoulder increase by flexion against resistant … Biceps
tendinitis
30. Male patient with 5 year history of trauma in his Knee, anterior drawer test positive
what is
your treatment ……. Reconstruction of anterior cruciate ligament
31. Child with pain his hip, alkaline phosphatase 137, x ray irregular bone and soft tissue
Dx??
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Blast sarcoma
c. Osteomyelitis
32. Carpal tunnel syndrome … EMG
33. Pregnant has low appetite, RUQ abdominal pain and tenderness…. Appendicitis
34. Percutaneous Iliocecal fistula …..
a. Central line TPN
b. Peripheral Line TPN
c. Elemental TPN
35. Thin patient before surgery to improve health and weight next step … Encourage
elemental
diet
36. Elderly patient with rectal bleeding and negative occult blood next step…
colonoscopy
37. Patient with hoarseness of voice, Wt loss, smoker next step… laryngoscope
38. Anal pain, Hx of fissure and skin tag and bleeding …… Anal fissure
39. Nystagmus in the right eye, conversion in the left eye MS… Medial longitudinal
fasciculus
40. Testicular torsion next step… U/S ( Operation was not present)
41. Trauma + Abdominal guarding and rigidity…… Laparotomy
42. Urge incontinence …. Detrusors muscle hyperactivity
43. Cystocele….. Stress incontinence
44. Perineum hematoma ….. retrograde urethra graph
45. Placenta Previa + bleeding …. CS
46. Acute cholangitis, Hypotensive next step
a. ERCP
b. Fluid + Antibiotic
47. Africa American 14 y old female patient has cheek redness and photosensitivity? Anti
dsDNA
48. Acute gout??
a. Paracetamol
b. Aspirin
c. Colchicine
49. Parameter of sepsis Decrease Vascular resistance, Decrease PCWP, increase CO
50. Pre renal Acute renal Failure … Urine osmolality increase, Blood osmolality
increase,
Hypernatremia
51. Male child with UTI and family history of Renal disease …. US
52. Female with recurrent UTI…. Reinfection
53. Case with signs of sryngiomyelia
54. Case of picture of sryngiomyelia where is the lesion … centre of the cervical cord
55. Case about ALS
56. Raynaud phenomenon …. Nefidepine
57. Raynaud phenomenon …. CCB
58. DM + Micro albumin in the urine …. Enalapril
59. Case about COPD…. FEV/FVC < 80%
60. Improve outcome in the patient with asthma exacerbation … systemic steroid
61. Case about CF next step…. Chloride sweat test
62. Patient with carotid stenosis 30 R 50 L , AF to prevent further strokes next step ..
Warfarin
63. Female HTN in the upper limbs …. Coarctation of aorta
64. Chest pain, Different blood pressure and Wide mediastinum ….. Aortic dissection
65. Sever trauma, large hematoma in right thigh, red urine, no RBC there is Myoglobin
…… Acute
renal failure
66. Hospitalize patients …. Selective bias
67. Lacunar infarction
68. Confidant interval
69. Stroke with homonymous hemianopia only ….. posterior cerebral artery
70. Ascites ….. spironolactone
71. CML… Bone marrow biopsy
72. Back pain + Hypercalcemia … MM Malignancy
73. Patient has not HBV vaccination expose to HBV next step …. HBV Ig and vaccine
74. Skin lesion in the face black change in colour and size next step .. excision
75. Actinic keratosis + Skin ulcer in the face …….. SCC
76. Bilateral brown scaly skin in both feet and medial aspect of the legs ( venous stasis )
treatment .. Compression and elevation
77. Bag of worm ….. Varicocele
78. DM + osteomyelitis the most common source …. Contiguous wound
79. Young female with HTN … Renal artery fibromascular dysplasia
80. Patient with history of PSGN develop chronic renal failure to prevent this give ……
Anti HTN
drugs
81. Red urine 6 weeks post skin infection …… PSGN
82. Child with anaphylaxis should avoid … Nuts
83. Transit red cell aplasia should avoid …. Salfa drugs
84. G6PD
85. Placenta accrete… previous CS, post-partum bleeding difficult to remove placenta
86. Mask face, monotonous speak and bradykinesia …. Parkinson
87. Recurrent ITP….. splenoectomy
88. Young patient .. Pneumonia with bilateral infiltration, not response to convention
treatment .
….. Mycoplasma pneumonia
89. Patient has cancer in her Right frontal lobe able to ask and answer question .. about
consent
form … reassurance you can sign it
90. Female with recurrent pelvic pain, nulliparous all investigations are normal, avoid
intercourse
because of pain ???? Next step
91. Nurse maid elbow treatment supination with hyper flexion
92. Female patient unconscious in her room with dilated pupils and normal CNS … Drug
effect
93. Hydrops fetalis ….. RH incompatibility
94. Chronic HTN in pregnancy …….. Placenta insufficiency
95. Child with posterior valve syndrome, distended bladder next step …. Urethra Foley
catheter
96. IgA deficiency …….. Follow up ( I am not sure )
97. Good test …. 1st test Highly sensitive, 2nd highly specific with high acceptance to
participate
98. Huntington syndrome there is high sensitive and specific test
99. Samter syndrome avoid NSAID
100. Plural effusion and mass at the base of pleura in construction worker ….. Asbest
101. Large amount of sputum depend on the position …. Bronchiectasis
102. Saturday palsy ….. Radial nerve injury
103. After delivery the next step …… keep the baby warm
104. ERDS increase the permeability of capillaries
105. Patient with cryptorchidism notice increase the size of the mass in his groin ….
Malignancy
106. Acne …. Propiniobacterium
107. Anemia of chronic disease
108. Case about Alzheimer
109. Patient with anterior MI …. LAD occlusion
110. HIV + 5cm PPD + normal x-ray … latent TB
111. Jaundice + pain next … US
112. Screening of Female patient > 65 year ….. DEXA scan .
113. Loge term DVT prophylaxis in patient with protein S deficiency ….. Warfarin
114. Exercise induce amenorrhea the problem in…. Hypothalams
115. The ring become tight the problem in … anterior pituitary
116. Case about Cushing syndrome … What is your diagnosis
‫الحمد ل الذي بنعمته تتم الصالحات‬

Medicine Question :
1. patient has history of chest pain , the best method to diagnosis :
a. history
b. ECG
c. Echocardiography
D. CXR
2. All of the following are complication of acromegaly except :
a. colocrectal polyp
b. pulmonary hypertension
c. cardiomyopathy
d. spinal cord compression
3. he following condition is true about pathological manner
a. brucella ... fecal oral route
b. hepatitis A ... blood transfusion
c. staphylococcus .. fecal oral rote
d. meningococous ... fecal oral route
4. Clubbing finger can present in all except
a. fibrosing alvelotis
b. bronchogenic cancer
c. lung abscess
d.bronchial asthma
5. all of the following cause of transudate of pleural effusion :
a. CCF
b. liver cirrhosis
c. nephrotic syndrome
d. pulmonary embolism

6. clinical picture of right lower lobe consolidation except :

a. decrease chest expansion
b. bronchial breathing
c. stony dullness of affected lobe
d. increase of vocal breathing
7. Long term dialysis include all of the following except :
a. GIT malignancy
b. Carpal tunnel syndrome
c. hyperproteinemia
d. ??
8. The definitive test for Dx of COPD :
a. CXR
b. Blood gases
c. Spirometry
d. None of above
9. Emphysema caused by :
a. acute bronchitis
b. Bronchial asthma
c. Chronic bronchitis
d. Pneumonia
10. the most common cause of renal failure in child is
a. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
b. sever dehydration.
c. prerenal cause of renal failure
d. acute tubular necrosis

11. Patient 50 years old has history of DM and IHD .. come to Emergency
complaining of Dyspnea , dizziness , tender hepatomegaly , increase jugular vein
distension , your diagnosis is :
A. LVF
b. CCF
c. Liver cirrhosis
d. superior vena cava obstruction
12. 75 years old male patient, presented to emergency room, with dyspnea ,
orthopnea, sweating , high BP , by auscultation his lung fields full of crepitation,
and wheezy all of the following drugs can be used as emergency management for
this patient , except:
a. Verapamil.
b. Morphine.
c. Frusemide.

d. Nitroglycerin.
13. All of the following used in treatment of HOCM except :
a. Verpmail
b. propanol
c. nitroglycerine
d. Intra cardiac device
14. A 56-year-old man is reviewed in the Cardiology outpatient clinic following a
myocardial infarction one year previously. During his admission he was found to be
hypertensive and diabetic. He complains that he has put on 5kg in weight in the past 6
months. Which of his medications may be contributing to his weight gain?

A. Metformin
B. Losartan
 C. Clopidogrel
D. Glicazide

15. adult male complain of recurrent syncope , which of the following is diagnosed ?

a. Mitral stenosis
b. Aortic stenosis
c. Aortic regurigation
d. pulmonary stenosis

16. all of the following are cause of wheezing except :

a. bronchial asthma
b. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
c. rhinitis
d. Foreign body inhalation

17. Ulcerative colitis is associated with each one of the following findings, except
a) Inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria.
b) Pseudopolyps.
c) Non-caseating granulomas.
d) Depletion of goblet cells.

18. what is the ECG changes seen in hypocalcemia patients ?

a. Short P-R interval
b. Prolonged P-R interval
c. prolong Q-T interval
d. Short Q-T interval
19. A 12 months old boy presents to the emergency department with a 6 hour
history of vomiting, colicky abdominal pain, and irritability. On physical
examination a sausage like mass is palpable in the right upper quadrant of the
abdomen

What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Order a CT scan of the abdomen

B. Order a barium swallow
C. Obtain a surgical consultation
D. Follow up examination after 4 hours
20. A 2 week old infant develops fever, 38.9 C, vomiting, and irritability. His heart
rate is 170/min, and RR is 40/min. The infants anterior fontanelle is full, but there is
no nuchal (neck-related) rigidity. The rest of examination is unremarkable.

What is the appropriate management?

A. Oral fluid and follow up in 24 hr

B. Oral amoxicillin and follow up in 1 week
C. Admission to hospital for investigation and ttt
D. IM ceftriaxone and follow up in 1 week
21. A 12 years old female came to hospital with fever, difficulty in breathing, severe
effort intolerance and joint pain which started in the rt. wrist and later involved the
lt. knee. By examination BP was 90/60, HR was 140, RR was 35 and Temp. was 39 c.
Abdominal examination revealed enlarged tender liver.

The first action to be done:

1- Starting antifailure treatment.
2- NSAID administration.
3- IV fluid administration.
4- Blood culture .
Mostly topics should be consider important to study it :
1. Hypertension secondary causes and management ( Action of treatment )
2. DDx of hypertriglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia
3. causes of hyperressonce , bronchial breathing , dullness percussion ..
4. crohn and ulcerative colitis
5. SLE treatment & Rheumatoid arthritis diagnosis and anotimical site
6. Subarchonoid hemorrhage CSF
7. murmur of vulvopathy
8. causes of endocarditis
9. rhumeatic heart disease Diagnostic creteria
10. causes of heart failure

)‫سؤال‬100( 2007 ‫امتحان التوظيف لديوان الموظفين العام‬

BY Ahmed Rawhi Dabour
 2015 -1 ‫اسئلة المزاولة االردنيه االعوام السابقه لغاية شهر‬

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‫ نتقدم بالشكر للزمالء د محمود قشطه‬Mahmoud Qeshta ‫و د احمد عبد الهادي‬Ahmed Abdul
Hadiabdul ‫ سؤال من امتحان االيفوم االخير كما نتقدم لهم بالتهنئه لحصولهم‬120 ‫على تجميع حوالي‬
‫على اعلى الدرجات و نتمنى لهم التوفيق ان شاء هللا‬

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‫تنظيم الدكتورة والء سمور‬

2013 3 ‫مزاولة‬
by mhmd al hooby
1) What is the disease that may transmit as autosomal recessive and the choices was !! :-
A)sickle cell anaemia
B) thallasemia
C)paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
D)last one i don't remember !
*amswer:both A&B are true
__________________________
2)In dilated cardiomyopathy all of the following are true except :-
A)Dilated neckveins
B)S4
C)S3
D)hepatomegaly
*the answer is B

_________________________
3)Which one of the following may disturb the glycemic control :
A) fibratesB)ezetimibeC)cholesteramineD) nicotinic acid * answer
D__________________________
4) During appendectomy you find that the appendex is normal and there are thickening of
the uterine tube with pus on the outer surface, what should you do?
A) Appenectomy
B)Appendicectomy & salpingectomy
C)salpingectomyD) no thing
* answer is A____________________________
5)In the neoborn, the oxygen reserve in the blood is enough for ____
A) 30 seconds
B) 60-120 seconds
C) 3-4 minutes D)5-7 minutes
*answer is B !!
____________________________________
6)The most pregnancy loss occur in the first trimester, what is the percentage of genetic
problem that cause it?
A)20
B)50
C)75 D)95
*answer is B !!
__________________________________________
7)What is the commonest source of infection of the surgical wound?
A) skin of the patient
B) nasopharyngeal flora of the patient
C)Air in the operating room D) surgical instruments*answer is B !
_______________________________________
8)In testicular cancer the common presenting sign
A)secondary hydrocele
B)testicular pain
C)painelss testicular mass D)enlarged inguinal node
* the answer is C_____________________________________
9)central abdomenal pain with periambilical bruises, what is diagnoses?
ِA)acute choleycystitis
B) gall stone ilieus
C) acute pancreatitis D) perforated peptic ulcer*answer is C
______________________________
10)All of the following is a risk factor of neonatal jaundice except
A)post date
B)family history of neonatal jaundice
C)diabetic motherD)____*answer is A
___________________________
11)All of the following is normal heart sound in pregnancy except:
A) diastolic B) systolic murmur
C) S3 D) S4 *answer is A
_________________________________
12)the most common complication of frontal sinusitis
A)meningitis
B)subdural abscess
C)frontal bone osteitis D) brain abscess
*answer : i dont know !______________________________
13)Most common important (or common) manifestation of acute otitis media
A)pain
B)tinitus
C)otorrhea D)deafness
*answer is A__________________________________
14)chronic otitis media with effusion, complication except:
A)nerve deafness
B)menigitis
C)mastoiditis D)____!
*answer is A

__________________________

15)The priority in burn patient in the first 24 hours?

A) antibiotics
B)dressing and wound management
C)IV fluids
D)skin grafting
*answer is C

____________________________

16)All the following cause splenomegaly except

A) myeloprolefrative diseases
B) spherocytosis
C) diabetes mellitus
D) Infectious monoclusis
*answer is C

_____________________________

17)The most common complication of hemorroidectomy

A)urinary retention
B)ulcer
C)stenosis
D)! fistula
*answer is A

___________________________
18)causes of microcytosis in the peripheral blodd all except :
A)Iron deficiency
B)hypthyroidsim
C)haemolytic anaemia
D)chronic blodd loss
*answer is B

_________________________

19)Schistocytes can be seen in the following except :

A)TTP
B)DIC
C)Autoimmune haemolytic anemia D)Metastatic adenocarcinoma
*answer is D________________________
20)Rapid ventricular filling causes :
A)S1
B)S4
C)S3
D)S2
*answer is C

_______________________

21)child 5 years presented with sudden onset of cyanosis and dyspnea , dysphagia
A) epiglotitis
B)forrign body
C)bronchiolitis
D)____
*answer is B

___________________________

22)All the following is causes of stridor after 2 hours of thyroidectomy except

A)hematoma
B)laryngomalacia
C)hypocalcemia
D)recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
*answer is D !
___________________________

23)2 week new born develped stridor the cause:

A) laryngomalacia
B) forrign body
C) epiglottitis
D) croup
*answer is A
___________________________

24)Iron in infant enough for

A)3 month
B)6 month
C)9 month
D)12 months
*answer is B
_____________________

25)Hemoglbin F formed in the fetus by

A)liver
B) bine marrow
C) yolk sack
D)spleen
*answer is A !

____________________

26)In which trimester the lowest blood pressure occur

A)first
B)second
C)third
D)after delivery
*answer is B

_____________________

27)All the following is the function of placenta except:

A) kidney
B)adrenal
C)lung
D)liver
*answer is B !!
_________________________

28) All of the following are major criteria for rheumatic fever except:
A)craditis
B)erythyma choronicum migrans
C)sydenham chorea
A)polyarthritis
*answer is B

_______________________
29)Cannular size in hypovolemic shock:
A)19G
B14G
C)22G D)24G*answer is B30)Causes of IUGR are the following except:
A)rubella
B)herpes 2
C)toxoplasmosis
D)syphilis
*answer is B !

___________________

31)the most common organ injured in blunt truama to abdomin:

A)spleen
B)pancreas
C)iver
D)small intestine
*answer is C

___________________

32)the most common organ injuried in car accident on patient with seat belt
A)pancreas
B)small intestine
C)liver
D)spleen
*answer is B!

_______________________

33)Dehydrated child 30 Kg, IV fluid needed as a maintenance in the first 24 hours:

A)1700 mL
B)2100 mL
C)2400 mL
D)1300 mL
*answer is A

____________________________

34)All of the following abdominal injury can be treated observatly except:

A)spleen hematoma
B)liver laceration
C)perforated viscous
D)pancreas laceration
‫‪*answer is C‬‬

‫______________________________‬

‫‪35)Complications of blood transfusion are the following except:‬‬

‫‪A)hypercalcemia‬‬
‫‪b)hyperkalemia‬‬
‫‪c)hypothermia‬‬
‫‪D)hemolytic reaction‬‬
‫‪*answer is A‬‬

‫____________________________‬

‫‪36)Strict vegetarian person has deficiency in:‬‬

‫‪A)B12‬‬
‫‪B)B6‬‬
‫‪C)folic acid‬‬
‫‪D)vitamin A‬‬
‫?‪*answer is B12 !37) What is the most common cause of preterm labour‬‬
‫‪A)Idiopathic‬‬
‫‪B)Premature rupture of membranes‬‬
‫‪C)others.....................*Answer A‬‬

‫بسم هللا الرحمن الرحيم‬

‫السالم عليكم ورحمة هللا وبركاته‬
‫كيف حالكم جميعا‬
‫بفضل هللا تعالى اليوم اكتمل رفع الملفات الخاصة بامتحان مزاولة المهنة والتوظيف وهيا بتشمل المواد الي بتيجي‬
‫) في الورقة األولى ( الباطنة واألطفال ) والورقة التانية ( الجراحة والنساء والوالدة‬

‫الملفات مرفوعة ع حسابي الخاص وما يخافه إخوانا من حذفهم وأنا فتحت فولدر اسمه مزاولة ع الرابط التالي‬
‫حتالقه ملفات المواد األربعة مرفوعة فيه‬
‫‪http://www.mediafire.com/?7oulq5abux5es‬‬

‫‪ :‬وهي روابط المواد بشكل مباشر‬

‫ملف الباطنة وبحتوي على ‪ 386‬سؤال وتم تنسيقه بشكل كامل وجاهز للطباعة‬
‫‪http://www.mediafire.com/?g68rh2qadl2f5r0‬‬

‫ملف األطفال انا بعتذر انه ما تم تنسيقه‬

‫‪http://www.mediafire.com/?waw7ocaeuocrhci‬‬

‫ملف الجراحة وبحتوي على ‪ 1364‬سؤال وتم تنسيقه وجاهز للطباعة‬

‫‪http://www.mediafire.com/?rlcwn2x3ur9jm78‬‬

‫ملف النساء والوالدة ويحتوي على ‪ 1180‬سؤال وتم تنسيقه بشكل كامل وجاهز للطباعة‬
‫‪http://www.mediafire.com/?l5ctqyv6kx9q9hc‬‬

‫طبعا األسئلة هاي تجميع أخونا الدكتور وسام المصري وتم تنسيقها وإعادة ترتيبها من طرفي الدكتور محمد عبد‬
‫‪ .‬المجيد اسليم وذكر األسماء هان فقط عشان ما تنسونا من دعواتكم ال أكثر‬
‫وبنشكر الدكتورة أميرة العسولي ع مجهودها في مراجعة نصف أسئلة مادة النساء والوالدة وبشكر زوجتي الغالية‬
‫‪ .‬الدكتورة عال إبراهيم السدودي ع مجهودها الكبير في المساهمة في العمل هاد وجعله هللا في ميزان حسنات الجميع‬

‫كان إلي نصيحة إلخواني وكررتها في األربع بوستات إلي تم إضافتها باألسئلة بشكل منفصل انه كل واحد فينا يعمل‬
‫اله فولدر خاص فيه عشان هاي األسئلة كمان راح يتم دراستها في امتحان التوظيف بإذن هللا‬

‫الملفات زي ما راح تشوفوها جاهزة مباشرة للطباعة فما راح تتغلبه لو حبيته تطبعوها للي ما بحب يدرس ع‬
‫الكمبيوتر‬

‫ويا شبابنا الغوالي ما تنسه انه في ورق في مكتبة السلطان بتحتوي ع اسئلة مش موجودة في االسئلة المحوسبة‬
‫والزم تتطلعه عليها النها مهمة كمان‬

‫بتمنى من شبابنا يكمله هالمشروع بأنه بعد انتهاءهم من االمتحان تاع المزاولة يحاوله يعملوها كتاب صغير ينباع‬
‫ويكون مطبوع وبأيد الجميع‬

‫تمنياتي للجميع بالتوفيق والنجاح‬

‫وأنا آسف ع أي تقصير بدر مني في إعداد الملفات‬
‫وما تنسونا من صالح دعائكم‬

‫مزاولة ‪2013 5‬‬

‫‪by Nour El-haddad Mohamed Alaa Yazji‬‬

‫‪1- the most common cause of massive hemoptysis = TB‬‬

‫‪2- most common cause of hemoptysis = broncholitis‬‬
‫‪3- all of the following complication of meningitis except = ventricular hge‬‬
‫‪4- sudden death of MI cause by =vf‬‬
‫‪5- complication of CP all except = blindness‬‬
‫‪6- all can cause microamenia except = hypothyrodism‬‬
‫‪7- all can cause macrocytosis except = IDA‬‬
‫= ‪8- auscaltation of dialted cardiomypathy‬‬
‫‪9- sit with minimal support can roll from prone tho supine abcent pencer grasp = 6‬‬
‫‪months‬‬
‫‪10- Hb A1C = 2 MONTHS‬‬
‫‪11- rhumatic fever major criteria all except = erythema camcm margin‬‬
‫‪12- case of DM2 which drug can use to control HTN = ACEI‬‬
‫= ‪13- all can cause gynecomastia except‬‬
‫‪14- causes of AF = 1 HTN 2 pneumonia 3 fever 4 all‬‬
‫‪15- turner syndrom = web neck delayed femoral pulse‬‬
‫‪16- down syndrom most common condinetal hreat disease = AV defect‬‬
‫‪17- case of insomia and urine incontinance female defect in which lobe of brain‬‬
‫‪18- case ph 7.2 hco3 15 pco2 22 =metabolic acidosis compensated respiratory alkalosis‬‬
19- minimal chage nephritic syndrom how to confirm dX = respond to steroid
20- most common cause of HTN in infancy is = renal disease
21- nephrotic sundrom how to investigate coagutalion profile = antithrombin 3
22- streal pyruia ?
23- according to urine analysis which is true ?
24- thalassima A which is true
25- urine analysis in infant ?
26- case of warfin and hge = CT
27- case of retinal hge and distarbed concious = ct
28- oligohydryminosis associated with all except = oesophygeal atreasia
29- toxic schock syndrome caused by = staph aures
30- strept A all r true regim in ttt except = gentamicin im
31- rhumatoid arthritis confirm dx by = distal myopathy
32- cystic fibrosis all r true except ?
33- paciarticular juvinile arthritis associated with uvitis
34- 1 year cough at night = reactive airway obstruction
35- itchy all r true except =hyperlidemia
36- case shortness of breath ???/
37- supine postion prevent = sudden infant death syndrom
38- chrons disease and UC DD BY ?
39- paracetamol intoxication all r true except ?
40- drug increase glucose = necotic acid
41- drug decrease parkinsoism tremors ?
42- G6PD all true except =indication of splenomectomy
43- sound of rapid filling of lt ventriclle is s 3
44- high s1 and rumbble murmur and v wave in the jugualr vein = mitral stenosis and
tricuspid regirge
45- rheumatic fever mosty cause = mitral stenosis
46- not indication of oral rehydration ? ta2reban el egaba cant = sever dehydration and
metabolic acidosis
47- case of bilateral basal trackels and hepatomegally and pitting odema = CHF
48- all causes of excudate ascitis except = bud charri syndrome
49- all can casue pain in left hypochondrium except = ta2reban SCA
50- not a cause of splenomegally = ITP
51- case of pyloric stenosis mainly IX by = US
52- case of food poisoning the cause is = staph aures
53- case of staph pneumonia the most emergency = tension pneumothorax
54- fever and dullness on the right and trachia shift to the left (case ) mostly = pneumonia
and pleural effuion
55- 30 kg infant daily fluid requriment is = 1700
56- chest pain most important IX IS = history
57- febril convulsion on true = EEG not indicated
58- prolctenima can cause in associted to ......... is = hyperpigmentation
59- addison disease ???? but i think the answer is decrease BUN
60- case knee swelling and ankle pain and diarreha = UC
61- drolling saliva case = acute epiglotitis
62- broncholitis one true = diffecull fooding
63- all case hypercallcimia except = hypothyrodism
64- acromegally can case all except = 1 rectal polyps 2 spinal stenosis 3 cardiac failure 4
pul HTN
65- al zahymer disease eary sign is = short memory loss
66- cow milk in compare to human milk have = more protein concentration
67- kwashincour = sun exposed
68- all case cyanosis in infancy except = coarctiation of aorta
69- idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis = mesh metzaker bass ta2reban el answer was plueral
effusion
70- sever anaphylactic shock of inscit bite give = epinephrine
71- septic shock early sign is = dealy capillary refill
72- increased cardiac work = early in seplic shock i think
73- complication of hypernatrimic dehydration = cerebral odema
74- distention and decreased WT after begin of weaning of infant due to = cealaic disease
75- acute abd non surgical = hyperthyrodism
76- hypothyrodism diagnosis = TSH
77- chronic otitis media with wffusion can cause = hearing loss fee nas bte7ki learning
diffecullty
78- hepatitis A route of transmission = fecooral
79- entamebia hystilotica route of transmission = fecooral
80- all the following are true about neonatal jundice except ?
81- schictocyte charactarstic of all except ?
82- NSAID = increase bleeding time
83- case HB 17 all can cause it except ?
84- early sign of DVT is = pain
85- most common orgn injury while wearing seat bult is = SI
86- most common organ injury in blunt truma is spleen
87- most common organ injury in penetrating truma is = SI
88- the most accurate method in estimated good therapy in burn pt is = UOP
89- the most common cause of PPH is = uterine atony
90- all r true except in induction of vaginal delivery = placenta previa
91- HB F synsethis by = i think liver
92- oxygen carrier to the featous how many min
93- all r causes of blood trasfusion except ?
94- tall p wave on ECG dt = hyperkalemia
95- the most common compliction of ceaserian hysterctomy is = uterine retention
96- decrease cardiac work in pregnency at which time = 2nd trimester
97- the most dagnostic test for PE = angio ct
98- case of 80% burn = 14.1 ringer lactate
99- stridor increase by lieing on supine postion ?
100- which infection will affect featous growth /
101- q about sinusitis complication
102- case sever abd pain + bleeding per vagina = uterine rupture
103- OCPS increase risk of = breeast cancer
104- overian canscer increased by /
105- all can cause cervical cancer except = late 1st intercourse
106- pt with trauma and he is concious first piority is to = abc
107- gall bladder ly on ?
108- the femoral vein in relation to the femoral canal or sheath ?
109- on surgery the appendix was normal and there wa suppurative FT what to do =
appendectomy
110- all can cause splenomegally except DM mesh 3aref eza kan fee so2l heek wala la2
bas hey elly fakroh
111- firm nodule of the thyriod mostly ?
112- the most dagnostic test in mutinodular goiter is ?
113- fall on the flexed elbow with abcent pulse distal what to do = close reduction and
check for pulse
114- gun shot on the chest with tacycardia and ........ what to do ?
115- the most common cause of nipple discharge is = duct ectasia
116- DUB means ?
117- 54 year old have bleeding ....... what to do ?
118- the most type of hernia that can be strangulated is ? = femoral
119- appendacitis the most important sign is = tendrenss in RIF
120- fever pain jundice ?
121- fee so2al 3an diverticula ? 1 dudemun 2 ilum 3 jujemum 4 rectum
122- initial fluids in hypovomlic shock is
123- size of canula in mulitruma pt = 14
124- folicular thyroid cancer
125- the investigation done in all antenatal care is = BP
126- the cause of recurent abortion is ?
127- genital prolapse all except ?
128- DDH ?
129- watery nasal discharge
130- testicular torsion the most common age is = less 20
131- complication of thyrodictomy
132- calcitonin production from ?
133- the most common cause of prematurty = PROM
134- prevent gas gangrin =
135- the piority in trauma pt in 1st 24 hs is = fluid

‫اسئلة الرعاية‬
55 years old businessman has daily headache since 3months with nausea and vomiting ??
most appropriate diagnosis brain tumour sinus headache cluster headache tension
headache ?

"commonest `lumbar spine prolapse ??

"Q its answr was adenoid and tonsillar hypertrophy common causes of obstructive sleep
apnea"

"seventh report of the joint national committe on prevention detection treatment of

hypertension suggest treatment for hypertension in other wise normal person ?"

"recurrebt vitiligo, tinnitus and hearing loss hallmark of ?? menier's cholestatoma

vestibular neuritis ACoustin neuroma"

"most sensitive test to detect maxillary sinusitis ??"

"THE greatest risk factor for pregnant women to develop pyelonephritis ?"

"most likely mode of transmission of IMN ??"

"first sign of puberty in male ??"

"neonatal jaundice dt neonatal septicemia appear after ??"

"Most common symptoms of MI ?? another Q but if in eldery ?"

"3months old infant presented with erythematous rash in groin that spre the skin folds ??"

"most appropriate life style modification allivate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome
??"

Duaa Akram
‫ اسئلة الرعاية االولية في عيادة صبحة‬:

most common presentation of MI - chest pain

metabolic syndrome all except - peripheral obesity

vaccine mostly caues fever and irritability - pertussisage of presentation of pyloric
stenosis

most common preventable cause of peripheral vascular dz

itching and crusting eye - blepheritistime of breast self exam - within one week of
mensesq about chronic bronchitis it descibe its definitionmost common cause of chronic
cough - postnasal driptreatment of ameaba - metronidazole

treatment of pinworm - mebendazoleq about hepatits c - most cases develope into chronic
formdefenition of migraine - unilateral throbbing headache

symmetric synovitis with morning stiffness - RAneonatal jaundice to be considered as

sepsis - at fifth day

3months old infant presented with erythematous rash in groin that spre the skin folds -
diaper dermatits

vertigo , tinnitus and hearing loss - meniers dzfirst sign of puberty in males - testicular
enlargement

the initial antihypertensive drug should be used in pt without comorbiditeis according to

JNC7 is - thiazide

q about acute appendictis

- most appropriate medication for the treatment of hypertension in a diabetic patient-

ACEi
lumbar disc dz - L5 S1most common cause of UTI in children - ???? Ecoli

absolut breastfeeding should be in - 1st 6 months

q about diagnosis of DM

q about gout ( pt was taking hydrochlorothiazide

best test to evaluate thyroid dz - TSH

most commont cuase of male infertility - varicocele

"most common endocrinopathy in reproductive age group ???"

‫امتحان المنحه االردنيه االم الماضي‬

By Mohammed Alhoobi
1) 58 Year old female c/o pruritis, jaundice and statorrhea o/e jaundice, spider navi and
hepatosplenomegaly what is the most likely diagnosis ?
A)alcoholic liver disease
B)wilson's
C)autoimmune hepatitis
D)primary biliary cirhosis

2) what is the most common cause of congenital infection :

(ans) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most common cause of congenital infection
affecting about 1% of all the live births worldwide
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3 people like this.

Here we will write the Q of the Jordanian scholarship In Shaa Allah

decrease COP Will occur if abdominal pressure exceed ?

10
25
30
40
50

COP After cardiac arrest became ______ of precardiac output ??!!

10 %
25 %
50 %
80%
90 %v

what's the most common outcome of PE ?

Sudden death
dyspnea
no outcome
infarction
haemoptysis

ECG finding in hypothermia

short QT
polong PR interval
2nd degree heart block
U wave

The most important psthogenesis of OM ?

Obstruction of eustuchian tube
impaired cellular immunity
bad ciliary motilty
>
>
>

Investigation of choice in obstructive jaundice ?

US
CT
cholangiography
MRI
March 18, 2013 at 7:19pm · Like

in patient with G6PD deficiency the following drug CI ??

Primaqine
mefloqine
trufen

Acute leg pain except dvt or siatics

Mohammed Alhoobi yeas 70 old fema;e present with abd cramping for two hour with
vomiting abd film show dilated loop what are the cuse:
1-sigmoid volvulous
2-ceacal volvuolus.
3-ileal obstruction
4-jejunal obstruction.

Charactetsics of neurogenic shock all except

Tachycardia
Bradycardia and hypotesion
>
>

cardiac output increased in

Cariogenic shok
Early septic shok
Late septic shok
Neutogenic shok

complication of bacterial meningitis in children except:

1-deafness
2-CP
3-intraventricular hemorhage
4-seizure.

all of the following cause gynecomastia except::

digoxin
furosmeid...See More

in lead poisoning are true except :-

microcytic anaemia
haemolytic anaemia
decrease erythrocyte portoporphyrin
wrist drop
acute encephalopathy

pyloric stenosis cause persistant high hyperbilirubinemia or abdominal distension !?

1 day neonate with abdominal mass what is the most likely cause of this mass ?
posterior urethral valve
polycystic kidney
willm's
neuroblastoma

causes of catract :_
malnutrition
UV rays
alcohol
smoking
>
 all are true

Pre & post test on Communicable Disease Surveillance

For questions 1-9, please answer each of the statements by true (T) or false
(F):

1. A case of AFP needs not be reported immediately to the Field Office

until the results of stool examination are disclosed.

2. Confirmation of neonatal tetanus depends on bacteriological.

3. A suspected case of diphtheria is an illness characterized by

laryngitis or pharyngitis or tonsillitis and an adherent membrane of
the tonsils, pharynx and/or nose.

4. When Corynebacterium diphtheriae is cultured from an

asymptomatic person, the case should be reported as a confirmed
case of diphtheria.

5. A case of pertussis is suspected when a person presents with a

cough lasting at least 2 weeks with paroxysms of coughing or
inspiratory whoop or post-tussive vomiting without other apparent
cause.

6. A case of suspected cholera need not be investigated during an

outbreak of the disease.

7. Acute bloody diarrhoea should be confirmed by

stool analysis and/or culture.

8. Administration of several vaccines to a child in one

immunization session exposes the child to risk.

9. Measles and/or MMR should not be given to child

with acute upper respiratory tract infection.

Section II: Tick the correct answer

11. The Daily Tally Sheet and the Weekly Return on incidence of communicable
diseases should be completed by:

a) Medical Officer.
b) Staff nurse.
 c) Clerk.
d) Any of the above.

12. The functions of disease surveillance include the following:

a) Collection of data.
b) Analysis and interpretation of data.
c) Disease control activities.
d) All of the above.
e) (a) and (b) only.
13. Purposes of surveillance include:

a) To identify deviation from expected patterns.

b) To identify outbreaks in order to institute prevention and control
activities.
c) To evaluate the impact of control programmes.
d) (a) and (b) only.
e) All of the above.

14. Common indicators of morbidity include:

a) Incidence rate.
b) Prevalence rate.
c) Crude death rate.
d) All of the above.
e) (a) and (b) only.

15. A confirmed polio case is:

a) Any child under 15 years of age with acute flaccid paralysis.

b) An AFP case in which after 60 days of onset there is still residual
paralysis.
c) An AFP case which died or lost for follow-up.
d) (b) or (c).
e) Any of the above.

16. AFP cases should:

a) Be reported to Field Office immediately.

b) Be investigated within 48 hours.
c) Have stool specimens collected within 14 days of onset of paralysis.
d) All of the above.

17. A case of “Rash and Fever” could be:

a) Measles.
b) Rubella.
c) Dengue.
d) (a) or (b) only.
e) Any of the above.

18. Which of the following conditions is contraindication for vaccines?

a) Low birth weight

b) Underweight.
c) Cough with mild fever
d) Mild diarrhoea
e) Hyperpyrexia  39
19. The diagnosis in case of “Rash and Fever” could be established by:

a) IgM ELISA test.

b) IgG ELISA test.
c) Any of the above.
d) None of the above.

20. A child with acute diarrhoea, the most appropriate line of treatment is:

a) Prescribe antibacterial medicines.

b) Treatment with oral rehydration salt.
c) Refer to the hospital.
d) a & b.

21. Meningitis is suspected when a patient presents with:

a) Sudden onset of fever.

b) Stiff neck.
c) Bulging fontanels in an infant.
d) All of the above.
e) a & c, only.

22. Acute watery diarrhoea is passage of:

a) 3 or more loose or watery stools in 24 hours.

b) 5 or more loose or watery stools in 24 hours.
c) 5 or more loose stools with signs of dehydration during the past 2
days.
d) None of the above.

23. For notification purposes, acute bloody diarrhoea is defined as:

a) Passage of at least 3 loose stools with visible blood in the stools.

b) Isolation of E. coli from stools.
c) Identification of E. histolytica cysts.
d) None of the above.

24. Cholera is suspected in a case of watery diarrhoea in a patient aged 5

years or more associated with/or resulting in:

a) Severe dehydration.
b) Death.
c) Any of the above.
25. An acute illness presenting with jaundice, dark urine, anorexia, malaise,
acute fatigue and right upper quadrant tenderness in a 6-year-old child is:

a) Acute chloecystitis.
b) Tumor of the head of the pancreas.
c) Viral hepatitis.
d) Rh incompatibility.

26. An asymptomatic HIV-positive case is suspected in the following

conditions:

a) A young man who came recently from an area with HIV/AIDS high
endemic rate.
b) A lady with vaginal discharge.
c) A person who asks for an HIV testing.
d) Any of the above.
e) (a) or (b) only.

27. Major clinical manifestations of a case of AIDS are:

a) Intermittent fever for more than one month.

b) Diarrhoea for more than one month.
c) Persistent cough for more than one month.
d) Any of the above.
e) (a) and (b) only.

28. An ulcer on penis or scrotum in men, and on labia, vagina or cervix in

women could be:

a) Syphilis.
b) Herpes simplex.
c) Gonorrhea.
d) (a) or (b).
e) (b) or (c).

29. Gonorrhea is suspected in a man with:

a) Scrotal swelling.
b) Urethral discharge.
c) Ulcer on glans penis.
d) (a) and/or (b).
e) Any combination of the above.

30. Vaginal discharge in a woman could be caused by:

 a) Chlamydia.
b) HIV.
c) Gonorrhea.
d) (a) or (c).
e) Any of the above.

31. Acute food-borne enteric illness could be caused by:

a) Staphylococcus aureus.
b) Salmonella.
c) Insecticides.
d) Rotavirus.
e) Any of the above.
32. Descriptive epidemiology includes all EXCEPT:

a) What?
b) Who?
c) When?
d) Where?
e) Why?

33. During the second week of February, 87 persons in a small community

(population 460) attended a social event which included a meal prepared
by several of the participants. Within 3 days, 39 of the participants
became ill with salmonellosis. The attack rate among the participants
was:

a) 0.45/100
b) 8.5/100
c) 18.9/100
d) 44.8/100
e) Cannot be calculated from the information given.

34. The most common way that a Medical Officer detects outbreaks in a camp is by:

a) Receiving information from affected residents.

b) Receiving information from other health care providers.
c) Reviewing all case reports received each week to detect common
features.
d) Performing analysis of surveillance data each week.
e) Any of the above.

35. For an investigation of an outbreak, what is the logical order of the

activities listed below?

1. Analyze data by time, place, and person.

2. Generate hypotheses.
3. Conduct active surveillance for additional cases.
4. Verify the diagnosis.
5. Confirm that the number of cases exceeds the expected number.

a) 1-2-3-4-5.
b) 5-4-1-2-3.
c) 5-1-3-2-4.
d) 5-4-1-3-2.
e) 5-1-3-2-4.
 36. A case during an outbreak investigation should be specified in terms of:

a) Clinical criteria.
b) Time.
c) Place.
d) Person.
e) All of the above.

37. In a 7 month old infant with cough, how many breaths /minute is fast
breathing?

a) 60 or more
b) 50 or more
c) 40 or more
d) Non of the above.

38. Match the three definitions on the right-hand side with the diseases on the
left-hand side:

a) Meningococcal meningitis. ____1) Suspected case of meningitis with

turbid CSF
b) Bacterial meningitis. _____2) Identification of diplocci by gram stain/or
culture.
c) Viral meningitis. _____3) “Normal” CSF.

39. Match each of the following three statements on the right-hand side with
one of the four terms on the left-hand side:

a) Endemic ___1) Last week 28 cases; but usually 10 cases/week.

b) Epidemic ___2) Last week 55 cases; but usually 50-70 cases/week
c) Pandemic ___3) Last week 28 cases; but usually 25 cases/week.
d) Hyper-endemic

40. Match the three definitions on the right-hand side with the diseases on
the left-hand side:

a) Brucellosis ___1) An acute illness characterized

by acute onset of fever, night sweats, undue
fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, headache and
arthralgia and is epidemiologically - linked to
 consumption of contaminated animal
products.

b) Viral hepatitis___2) Systemic disease

characterized by insidious onset of sustained
fever, severe headache, malaise, anorexia,
relative bradycardia, non-reproductive cough
in the early stages of illness and
constipation.

c) Malaria ____3) An illness characterized by fever, headache, back

pain, chills, sweats, myalgia, nausea and vomiting in a
person coming from an endemic country.
d) Typhoid

Assessment of KAPs of Medical Officers

On Prevention and Control of NCDs

SECTION I:
For questions 1-24, please answer each of the statements by true (T) or false
(F):

1. FPG  110mg/dl and  126mg/dl on two separate occasions should

be confirmed by 100gm OGTT.

2. In management of type 1 DM, the usual starting insulin dose is 0.5-

1 units/kg body weight.

3. Glibenclamide is given in minimum daily dose of 20mg in two

divided doses.

4. Gliclazide is prescribed for type 2 patients  65 years and/or

patients with microalbuminuria.

5. Change of dosage of an anti-diabetic drug or change from one type

of treatment to another should be made after 3 months of follow-
up provided that compliance with lifestyle modification and drug
intake is ensured.
6. Dislipidaemia in most diabetic patients can be managed by lifestyle
modification.

7. Hypoglycaemia starts with sweating, shaking, trembling, hunger

and headache.

8. Hyperglycaemia is managed by taking rapidly absorbable

carbohydrates or sweetened drink.

9. If a diabetic patient has proteinuria by dipstick, s/he should have

the microalbuminuria test.

10. One of the earliest signs of diabetic neuropathy is the absence of

vibration sense.

11. Vibration sense can be checked by the reflex hammer.

12. OGTT should be performed for some diabetic patients on every

routine visit.

13. Lifestyle modification should be discussed with the patient on every

visit.

14. Urine ketones testing is important when the diabetic patient suffers
for sweating, tremor, vision disturbances and loss of concentration.

15. Hypertension is defined as a systolic BP higher than 140mmHg

and/or a diastolic BP higher than 90mmHg on multiple blood
pressure measurements.

16. If the initial BP measurement is found < 130/85mmHg, it should be

re-checked in 2 years and the patient should be counselled on
lifestyle modification.

17. PG should be checked annually for patients with hypertension.

18. BP should be measured every other scheduled visit for diabetic

patients.

19. The only aim of treatment of hypertension is to reduce the raised

BP.

20. Lasix is a diuretic used in mild hypertension without a co-existing

condition
21. The maximum antihypertensive daily dose of atenolol is 100mg.

22. If 25mg of hydrochlorothiazide does not control BP, the dose

should be increased to 50mg.

23. The Initial Assessment section of the PRF should be completed with
respect to new patients only.

24. Emphasis in patient care should be placed on management of end-

stage complications rather than prevention of early complications.

SECTION II:
Questions 25-60 are multiple choice questions. Tick the correct answer.

25. Body Mass Index (BMI) is measured by:

a) Weight/height in centimeter
b) Weight2/height in meters
c) Weight / height2 in meters
d) Weight2 / height2 in meters
e) Weight3 / height in meters

26. Non-communicable diseases include:

a) Diabetes mellitus and hypertension only

b) “a” and cancer.
c) “b” and mental disorders and rheumatoid arthritis.

27. NCD patients should be educated to:

a) Develop a sense of reliance.

b) Acquire adequate knowledge skills in applying health lifestyle
behaviors.
c) Deal with expected medical emergencies.
d) “b” and “c” only.
e) All of the above.
28. Type 2 DM is characterized by:

a) Acute onset.
b) Ketonuria.
c) Weight loss and sweating.
d) Any combination of the above.
e) None of the above.

29. The following person has a higher risk for diabetes:

a) Age 50 years and diabetic father.

b) Age 45 years and diabetic parents.
c) Sedentary life, age 45 and diabetic mother.

30. Maintenance of near-normal PG and BP levels:

a) Has minimal effect on reduction of complications.

b) Averts chronic complications.
c) Aggravates acute complications.
d) Significantly delays the development of early complications.

31. Early detection of diabetes and/or hypertension:

a) Leads to early management and early development of

nephropathy.
b) Poses unnecessary responsibilities on the health team and the
patient.
c) Has minimal effect on the quality of life of the patient.
d) Should be considered only in case of patients with symptoms.
e) None of the above.

32. Type 2 DM is suspected in:

a) A 15-year-old obese child with polyuria.

b) A 70-year-old man with Ketonuria, weight loss and severe polyuria.
c) A 45-year-old multiparous lady without the clinical symptoms of
hyperglycaemia.
d) “a” or “c”.

33. Symptoms of marked hyperglycaemia include the following EXCEPT:

a) Blurred vision.
b) Polydipsia.
c) Sweating.
 d) Weight loss.

34. Proper management of diabetes mellitus aims at all the following EXCEPT:

a) Prevention of acute and long-term complications.

b) Monitoring development of complications.
c) Detection of diabetes in other family members.
d) Provision of timely interventions.
35. Diet management in diabetes includes the following EXCEPT:

a) Carbohydrates should include 60% of the total energy intake.

b) Protein intake should be limited to small amounts, especially in
children and pregnant women.
c) Saturated fat should be reduced to small amounts.
d) Commercially-prepared diabetic foods are not required and
sometimes are harmful.

36. Type 1 diabetics should be educated on the following:

a) Interaction of food intake and physical activity with OHAs.

b) Insulin injection technique.
c) Blood glucose monitoring.
d) “b” and “c”.

37. When exercise is initiated for a diabetic or hypertensive patient, the

following should be observed EXCEPT:

a) Condition of the heart and lungs.

b) Presence of complications.
c) Gradual increase in intensity of exercise and duration of physical
activity.
d) Possible development of hyperglycaemia.

38. Controlled diabetic or hypertensive patients without TOD should be

monitored every:

a) One month.
b) Two months.
c) Three months.
d) Six months.

39. The best indicator of acceptable glycaemia control includes:

a) 2-hour PPG of  180mg/dl.

b) Absence of symptoms.
c) Absence of sugar in urine.
d) Any of the above.

40. All pregnant women should be screened for hypertension:

a) At registration.
b) At 24-28 weeks.
 c) At every visit.
d) When the lady develops oedema of the ankles.

41. Diagnosis of hypertension in pregnancy is established by:

a) A rise of 15mmHg in DBP from the first trimester.

b) BP > 160/90mmHg.
c) A rise of 25mmHg in SBP from the first trimester.
d) “a” or “c”.
42. All pregnant women are screened for diabetes using:

a) 100gm OGTT.
b) 75gm OGTT.
c) Fasting plasma glucose.
d) Post-pranidal plasma glucose.

43. The following statements are false EXCEPT:

a) 100gm OGTT is performed for pregnant woman whose FPG falls

between 110 and 125mg/dl.
b) Acceptable glycaemia control in GDM is 140-160mg/dl post-
prandially.
c) If plasma glucose is not controlled in a pregnant diabetic with 0.2-
0.3 units of insulin/kg body weight, the insulin dose can be
gradually increased by 1-2 units every other day without the need
for referral to diabetologist.
d) The woman with GDM should be followed-up during the six weeks
following delivery.

44. The following statements are true EXCEPT:

a) Pre-eclampsia occurs primarily among primigravida and after the

20th week of gestation.
b) Pregnant women who show a tendency for increase of BP values
during repeat antenatal visits should be monitored until the end of
the post-partum period for possible development of pre-eclampsia.
c) BP for pregnant women should be measured either in the sitting
position or while lying on the back.
d) Pre-eclampsia should be only managed at hospital.

45. Very few cases of type 1 DM can be managed with:

a) Lifestyle modification only.

b) Sulphonylureas.
c) Insulin and small doses of OHAs.
 d) Biguanides.
e) None of the above.

46. Insulin vials when stored at room temperature have a shelf life of:

a) 2 weeks.
b) 3 weeks.
c) 4 weeks.
d) 5 weeks.

47. All the following factors slow insulin absorption rates from the injection
site, EXCEPT:

a) Excess alcohol.
b) Cold climate.
c) Smoking.
d) Fasting.

48. People with type 2 DM:

a) Are ketonic.
b) Are mostly young.
c) Are definitely obese.
d) Have a gradual onset of disease.

49. When there is severe lack of insulin, blood glucose levels increase and the
following develops, EXCEPT:

a) Polyuria.
b) Dehydration.
c) Oedema.
d) Ketosis.

50. The following are risk factors for a diabetic foot, EXCEPT:

a) Hypertension.
b) Smoking.
c) Lack of exercise.
d) Hyperuricaemia.

51. The following statements are true in respect of exercise, EXCEPT:

a) Strenuous exercise should be avoided if the person with diabetes

has late complications.
 b) Exercise may demand an increase in insulin dosage.
c) Exercise is best carried out when injections are given in the
abdominal wall.
d) May cause hypoglycaemia.

52. Microalbuminuria in diabetes:

a) Can be diagnosed by dipstick.

b) Can predict the presence of retinopathy.
c) Is difficult to manage with diet.
d) Is the most important indicator for renal disease.

53. In diabetic nephropathy:

a) BP should be kept below 160/90mmHg.

b) BP should be kept below 140/90mmHg.
c) BP control does not play any role.
d) Low-fat diet can retard progression to renal failure.

54. In gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM):

a) FPG should be done to all pregnant women during the first weeks
of pregnancy.
b) Combination therapy can help some mild cases of GDM.
c) After delivery, the women with GDM will not be at risk for
subsequent development of diabetes mellitus.
d) Management should include insulin with lifestyle modification.
55. In gestational hypertension the recommended anti hypertensive drugs is:

a) Hydrochlorothiazide.
c) Atenolol.
d) ACE-inhibitors.
e) Ca-channel blockers.
f) Methyldopa.

56. In patients with type 2 diabetes uncontrolled by OHA, it is important to

rule out all, EXCEPT:

a) Poor patient compliance to his diabetes management plan.

b) Possibility of the patient being ill.
c) Possibility of the patient undergoes a stressful period.
d) The patient is taking high doses of OHA.

57. A young married woman with type 1 DM:

 a) Should achieve good metabolic control before conceiving.
b) May have frequent vaginal infections associated with diabetes of
long duration.
c) Is forbidden to conceive since diabetes will cause malformation of
the child.
d) “a” and “b”.

58. The following applies to diabetic foot, EXCEPT:

a) Uncommon and inexpensive disability.

b) Caused by a combination of peripheral neuropathy, peripheral
vascular disease and infection.
c) Can progress from a superficial ulcer to gangrene of the whole
foot.
d) Is preventable by education and screening.

59. Patients with diabetes and/or hypertension should be taught to recognize

early symptoms of acute and chronic complications and report to the MO:

a) On the next scheduled visit.

b) As soon as possible.
c) After one week.
d) When they get a second attack of symptoms.

60. Patients with elevated BP usually present:

a) With drumming in the ears.

b) With headache and blurred vision.
c) Without symptoms.
d) With “a” and/or “b”.
SECTION III:
For the following questions, match the terms on the left-hand side with the
statements on the right-hand side.

61. Match the following:

a) IGT _____1) Fasting PG 126mg/dl or more

on two separate occasions.
b) IFG _____2) Fasting PG 110mg/dl.
c) Normal FPG ____3) FPG 110mg/dl but less than
126mg/dl.
d) Diabetes mellitus ____4) 2-hr PG 7.8mmol/L and
<11.1mmol/L in OGTT.

62. Match the following:

a) 2-hr PPG. ____1) Acceptable control value of:

140 - 180mg/dl.
b) Total serum cholesterol. ____2) Acceptable control value of:
200 - 250mg/dl.
c) Serum triglycerides. ____3) Acceptable control value of:
150 - 200mg/dl.

63. Match the following antihypertensive drugs on the right-hand side with the
compelling contraindication on the left hand side.

a) Diuretics _____1) Chronic obstructive airway

disease.
b) Beta-blockers _____2) Pregnancy.
c) ACE inhibitors ____3) Heart block.
d) Calcium antagonists ____4) Gout
e) Methyldopa

SECTION IV: Answer the following questions:

64. List 5 factors used for risk stratification for cardiovascular disease:

1. __________________________________________________
2. __________________________________________________
3. __________________________________________________
4. __________________________________________________
5. __________________________________________________
6. __________________________________________________
65. List target organ damage (TOD) in hypertension:
 1. _______________________________________________
___
2. _______________________________________________
___
3. _______________________________________________
___
4. _______________________________________________
___
5. _______________________________________________
___
66. The main management regimens for management of hypertension are (list
in order of treatment of choice):

1. _________________________________________________
_
2. _________________________________________________
_
3. _________________________________________________
_
4. _________________________________________________
_
5. _________________________________________________
_
6. _________________________________________________
_

67. List four criteria for consideration of acceptable control in an individual

with diabetes and/or hypertension.

6. _______________________________________________
___
 7. _______________________________________________
___
8. _______________________________________________
___
9. _______________________________________________
___
10. ______________________________________________
____

68. List three lifestyle measures for prevention and control of NCDs:

1. ________________________________________________
__
2. ________________________________________________
__
3. ________________________________________________
__
4. ________________________________________________
__
5. ________________________________________________
__

69. Fill the missing cells in the following table:

Early complications Late complications

Eyes -
Cardiovascular
system
-

Kidneys -
Cerebrovascular
system
Nerves -
Feet

BY
Marwa Abu Amro