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ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2017

Test Booklet Series

TEST NO-4

GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- I A


Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

I N S T R U C T I O N S

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD


CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
Provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English.
Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you
want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct
response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY
ONE response for each item.
4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
5. All items carry equal marks.
6. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the
Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per
instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
7. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
8. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
9. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN
THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even
if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.

D O NO T O P E N T H I S B O O K L E T U N T IL Y O U A R E A SK ED T O DO SO

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Space for Rough work

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1. Rashtriya Sanskriti Mahotsav - d) 1 ,2, and 4 only


2016’ a celebrated festival organised
by the Ministry of Culture, consider 4. Genetically engineered plants are
the following statement regarding created to
dance forms and state, which of the (a) Increase resistance to pests.
following is correctly matched. (b) Enable them to withstand
1. Kathi Samu - drought.
AndraPradesh (c) Increase their nutritive value.
2. Margam – Kerala Select the correct answer using the
3. Devarattam – Tamil Nadu codes given below.
4. Lava dance – a) 1 and 2 only
Lakshadweep b) 1 and 3 only
Choose correct option using code c) 2 and 3 only
below, d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 5. Arun Jaitly is a member of Rajya
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only sabha as well as the Finance
(d) All of the above minister. Being a minister he has
some rights in Lok sabha too. In this
2. Light year is a unit to measure context which of the following is/are
(a) Time correct?
(b) Distance (a) He can speak in Loksabha.
(c) Speed (b) He can participate in the
(d) None proceeding of Lok sabha.
(c) He can vote in Loksabha.
3. Which of the following can be (d) He can become member of
included under the process of public account committee.
privatization? Select the correct answer using the
1. De-nationalisation codes given below.
2. Cross border movement of capital a) 1 and 2 only
3. Disinvestment b) 2 and 3 only
4. De-licensing of industries c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the d) 1 and 4 only
codes given below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 ,3 and 4 only
c) 2 ,3 and 4 only

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6. Who among the following can alter 9. In business, bullion is a term


the boundaries of a national park? commonly used. Bullion includes
(a) Parliament (a) Gold
(b) State legislature (b) Silver
(c) Ministry of environment and (c) Platinum
forest. Select the correct answer using the
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
codes given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
10. With reference to agricultural
7. With reference to Lakshadweep, pricing the term `issue price’ is
consider the following statements: defined as the price at which
(a) They were formed by the (a) PDS shop sells food grains to
accumulation of coral sand. people
(b) The main occupation of (b) FCI sells its food grains
people there is agriculture. (c) Government procures from
Which of the statements given above farmers
is/are correct? (d) None
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 11. With reference to stem cells,
(c) Both 1 and 2 consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Stem cells are found only in
multi-cellular organism.
8. Which of the following are properties (b) Placenta is a rich source of
of neutrinos? stem cell.
(a) No charge Which of the statements given above
(b) No mass is/are correct?
(c) Speed close to that of light (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the (b) 2 only
codes given below. (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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12. Soil acidification can occur due to 15. Earthworms help in improving the
(a) Heavy rainfall soil health by
(b) Application of fertilizer (a) stimulating microbial activity
(c) Shifting cultivation (b) mixing up the soil
Select the correct answer using the (c) decreasing infiltration
codes given below. Select the correct answer using the
(a) 1 and 2 only codes given below.
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Consider the following statements:
1. Borrowers benefit from 16. Which of the followings is/are a part
inflation. of unorganized money market?
2. Tax payers suffer due to (a) Chit funds
inflation. (b) Call money market
Which of the statements given above (c) Money lenders
is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the
(a) 1 only codes given below.
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
14. Moderator is used in which of the
following type of nuclear reactor? 17. There has been a steady decline in
1. Pressurized water reactor the number of olive ridley turtles.
2. Fast breeder reactor This has been due to
3. Boiling water reactor (a) Artificial illumination near
4. Heavy water reactor beaches.
Select the correct answer using the (b) Widespread use of diclofenac
codes given below. (c) Loss of nesting habitat
a) 1, 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the
b) 1 ,3 and 4 only codes given below.
c) 2 ,3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 ,2, and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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18. The rivers in India that flows (d) Neither 1 nor 2


through a rift valley are
1. Luni 21. Which of the following ensures that
2. Damodar the principle of federalism is upheld
3. Tapi in the Indian polity?
4. Betwa (a) Any change to the
Select the correct answer using the constitution that affects the
codes given below. power of the states must be
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only ratified by a majority of state
(b) 1 ,3 and 4 only assemblies.
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) Union Territories (UTs) are
(d) 1 ,2, and 4 only administered by the Centre.
(c) The Judiciary plays an
19. Which of the following is/are important role in overseeing
example of vegetative propagation? the implementation and
(a) Sucker removal amendment of constitutional
(b) Tissue culture provisions.
(c) Stem cutting Choose the correct answer using the
(d) Grafting codes below:
Select the correct answer using the (a) 1 and 2
codes given below. (b) 2 and 3
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3
(b) 1 ,3 and 4 only (d) All of the above
(c) 2 ,3 and 4 only
(d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4 only 22. The MRI scanning used in medical
diagnosis uses
20. With reference to laterite soil, (a) Electrostatic charges inside
consider the following statements: the human body
1. They are the result of intense (b) Magnetic field inside human
leaching. body
2. They are poor in organic (c) Micro waves inside cells
matter. (d) All of the above
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

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23. What foods can be contaminated by (c) The Red Panda of this park
Alfatoxins? are world famous.
1. Oilseeds The above refer to which of the
2. Cereals following?
3. Dried fruit and figs (a) Dibru-Saikhowa National
4. Chilli peppers Park
Select the correct answer using the (b) Dachigam National Park
codes below. (c) Anamudi Shola National Park
(a) 1 and 3 only (d) Nokrek National Park
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only 27. Which of the following can be used
(d) All of the above as bio-fertilizer(s)?
(a) Bacteria
24. Jataka tales have been painted in (b) Fungi
(a) Warli Temple (c) Viruses
(b) Ajanta Caves Which of the above is/are correct?
(c) Lepakshi Temple (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
25. Which of the following pairs of (d) 1 only
geographical feature with region is
matched INCORRECTLY? 28. Samkhya school of Hindu
(a) Abyssinian Plateau: Africa philosophy can be described as one
(b) Atlas Mountains: Northern of the
Europe (a) Rationalist school of Indian
(c) Guiana Highlands: South philosophy
America (b) Ascetic school of Indian
(d) Okavango Basin: South- philosophy
western Africa (c) Devotionist school of Indian
philosophy
26. Consider the following statements (d) Ritualistic school of Indian
about a national park. philosophy
(a) Dense, thick and semi
evergreen and moist
deciduous forest
(b) Entire territory is hilly.

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29. The refraction of light is responsible (b) The strength of a material


for which of the following increases with its decreasing
phenomena? density
(a) Twinkling of stars Which of the above statements
(b) Apparent delayed sunset is/are correct?
(c) Mirage (a) 1 Only
Choose the correct answer using the (b) 2 Only
codes below:
(c) Both
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 (d) None
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above
33. PM10 and PM2.5 are of major
concern for pollution control bodies
30. Which of the following phenomena
in urban centres. These are related
in plants show their response to the
to,
environmental stimuli?
(a) Water pollution
(a) Phototropism
(b) Noise pollution
(b) Geotropism
(c) Air pollution
(c) Hydrotropism
(d) None of the above
Choose the correct answer using the
codes below:
34. Danger signal lights are red in
(a) 1 and 2
colour because
(b) 2 and 3
(a) Red light is most scattered in
(c) 1 and 3
fog and smoke
(d) All of the above
(b) Red light is least scattered in
fog and smoke
31. Which of the following gases is not
(c) Human eye is most sensitive
considered as a major air pollutant?
to red colour
(a) Carbon Monoxide
(d) It is a convention followed to
(b) Carbon Dioxide
ensure uniformity of
(c) Ozone
standards
(d) Lead

35. Sky appears dark to passengers


32. Consider the following statements
flying at very high altitudes because
(a) The low dense materials carry
(a) There is no atmosphere
more weight when the load is
(b) There is no scattering of light
distributed equally across
that is apparent to them
their surface

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(c) The light is not reflected by (d) All of the above


any particles in the
atmosphere near to the 39. Consider the following statements
passengers about Epiphytes – a plant species:
(d) Both (a) and (b) 1. They grow parasitically upon
another plant
36. There is an industrial practice of 2. They derive their moisture
making an alcohol denatured for and nutrients from the air
making it unfit for human and rain.
consumption. This is done by 3. They may harm the forest
adding trees.
(a) Ethanol Which of the following is/are true in
(b) Ethyl mercuptane this connection?
(c) Methanol (a) 1 and 3
(d) Butanol (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 2
37. You can see a full-length image of a (d) All of the above
tall building/tree in a
(a) Concave Mirror 40. Oxygen is returned to the
(b) Convex Mirror atmosphere in which of the following
(c) Plane Mirror processes?
(d) Hydraulic Mirrors (a) Photosynthesis
(b) Formation of Ozone
38. Consider the following about (c) Nitrogen-fixation by legume
‘Nuclear fusion’. bacteria
(a) It is triggered by fundamental Select the correct answer using the
particle neutrinos. codes below.
(b) Few nuclear reactors (a) 1 and 2 only
operational in India use this (b) 2 and 3 only
technology. (c) 1 only
(c) Fusion is the process by (d) 1 and 3 only
which the sun and other
stars generate light and heat.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only

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41. The term biotype means: 44. Consider following products , which
(a) All individuals having the of the product/s is/are acidic in
same phenotype. nature
(b) All individuals having the (a) Milk
same genotype. (b) Human Blood
(c) All individuals having (c) Sea water
different phenotype (d) Coffee
comprising a whole group. Choose correct option using below
(d) All individuals having code,
different genotype comprising (a) 1 and 4 only
a whole group. (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 , 3 and 4 only
42. Consider the following statements (d) Only 4
about Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
(a) HFCs cause ozone depletion 45. Consider the following statements
and are banned under with reference to genetic diversity
Montreal protocol (a) Humans differ in height, color
(b) HFCs are super-greenhouse and physical appearance
gases with an extremely high because of genetic diversity
global warming potential. (b) Genetic diversity refers to the
(c) HFCs also figure in the variation of genes within
basket of six greenhouse species
gases under the Kyoto (c) Genetic diversity is essential
Protocol for a healthy breeding of
Which of the statements given above population of species.
is/are incorrect? Which of the above statements
(a) 1 Only is/are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 Only (a) 1 and 2 Only
(c) 3 Only (b) 2 and 3 Only
(d) None (c) 3 Only
(d) All Three
43. Which is NOT part of Female
Reproductive System? 46. An artificial satellite orbiting around
(a) Ovaries the earth does not fall down. This is
(b) Fallopian tube so because the attraction of earth?
(c) Testosterone (a) Does not exist at such
(d) Uterus distance.

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(b) Is neutralized by the (d) All of the above


attraction of the moon.
(c) Provides the necessary speed 49. In context with Cholesterol in
for its steady motion. Human Body, consider the following
(d) Provides the necessary statements:
acceleration for its motion. (a) It is synthesized in Human
Body
47. Cooking food in a pressure cooker (b) It is essential for life
has various advantages apart from (c) It is precursor for the
cooking in short time, such as: biosynthesis of Vitamin D
(a) Cooking in Pressure cooker (d) The level can of cholesterol in
retains vitamins and minerals body can be controlled by
better Statins
(b) Cooking in Pressure cooker Which among the above statements
prevents oxidation of food is / are correct?
material (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) Cooking in Pressure cooker is (b) 3 and 4 only
easier in high altitudes (c) None of the above
Which among the above statements (d) All of the above
is / are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 Only 50. In context with the Trans-Fats,
(b) 2 and 3 Only consider the following statements:
(c) 3 Only (a) They are always unsaturated
(d) All Three (b) They increase level of LDL
(i.e. Bad Cholesterol) however
48. Which among the following features they don't impact at the level
of Viruses is / are common with of HDL (i.e. Good Cholesterol)
other living organisms? Which among the above statements
1. Presence of genes is / are correct?
2. Evolution (a) 1 only
3. Replication (b) 2 only
4. Metabolism (c) Both
Choose the correct option from the (d) None
codes given below:
(a) 1,2 and 4 Only
(b) 2 and 3 Only
(c) 1,2 and 3 Only

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51. A wave of ‘anti-establishment’ 53. The “Royal Flying Service of


fervour is said to be spreading Australia”, popularly known as
across the United States of America “Flying Doctors” provides aid and
and Europe, fracturing mainstream primary health care service in rural
parties. and remote areas of Australia. A
In this context, consider the “Mobile Air Dispensary” along
following pairs: similar lines has been proposed to
Political Party – Country serve which part/region of India?
1. Podemos – Spain (a) Northeast
2. Five Star Movement – France (b) Fifth Schedule areas
3. The Pirate Party – Iceland (c) It is a state initiative launched by
Which of the pairs given above Odisha.
is/are correctly matched? (d) The Red Corridor
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 54. Which of the following statements
(c) 1 and 3 only about ‘PRAGATI’ is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. It stands for ‘Pro-Active-
Governance Aimed at
52. The Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT), Transformation of India’.
one of the world’s biggest telescopes 2. It brings on one stage the
when built, is a project being funded Secretaries of Government of
by scientific organisations of India and the Chief Secretaries of
1. Canada the States.
2. USA Select the correct answer using
3. Japan codes given below:
4. India (a) 1 only
5. China (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the (c) Both 1 and 2
code given below: (d) None of the above
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only 55. In the wake of outbreak of H5N8
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Avian Influenza, ‘Biosecurity’
(d) It is a purely indigenous project measures are being strictly
being constructed at Hanle in enforced. What are ‘Biosecurity’
Ladakh. measures

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(a) It refers to ways to avoid


contact between animals and 58. The ‘Radcliffe Line’, named after its
microbes. architect – Sir Cyril Radcliffe – it is
(b) These refer specifically to borders
measures to mitigate the (a) India-Pakistan border
transmission of avian flu in (b) India-China border
cases of its outbreak. (c) India-Bangladesh border
(c) Steps to be taken to avoid (d) Both a and c
transmission of microbes
which infect animals, to 59. The central government has recently
humans. approved Rs.515 crore grant for
(d) Keeping humans and animals making the Sagar port. It is located
in quarantine and in which of the state,
maintaining strict vigilance (a) Maharashtra
on their health conditions. (b) Gujarat
(c) West Bengal
56. The ‘Ease of Doing Business’ reports (d) Odisha
were introduced in 2004, in order to
review business regulations and 60. India Kabaddi team in the finals of
their enforcement across countries. Kabaddi World Cup 2016, wins the
These reports are issued by third consecutive title , which
country India beats,
(a) World Bank (a) Iran
(b) World Economic Forum (b) Bangladesh
(c) Asian Development bank (c) ShriLanka
(d) OPEC (d) Pakistan

57. Quetta, often seen in the news, is 61. The prime objective of the
located in the geographical region ‘Sagarmala project’ is to
represented by which of the (a) Aid the construction of world-
following groups? class port facilities in Indian
(a) Gulf Cooperation Council Ocean littoral nations.
(b) Organisation of the Petroleum (b) Develop naval bases in Indian
Exporting Countries Ocean littoral nations.
(c) South Asian Association for (c) Promote port-led direct and
Regional Cooperation indirect development in India.
(d) The European Union

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(d) Counter China’s rising geo- 64. Recently NEERDHUR was in news ,
political prominence in India’s it is
neighbourhood. (a) Low price water filter developed
by IIT Madras
62. ‘Mission 11 Million’ refers to (b) A novel multi-fuel domestic
cooking stove.
(a) A programme to engage more (c) Name of new species found in
than 11 million children in western ghat
activities relating to football, (d) None of the above
initiated by the Ministry of Youth
Affairs and Sports in 65. Consider the following statements
coordination with FIFA. regarding KIGALI AGREEMENT
(b) A project to establish world-class 1. The Kigali Amendment amends
sports infrastructure across Tier- the 1987 Montreal Protocol
II and Tier-III cities with a 2. Under Kigali Amendment, in all
primary objective to facilitate countries, have agreed to a
full-fledged training of 11 million timeline to reduce the use of
sports-men and women by 2025. HFCs by roughly 85% of their
(c) A target-based initiative of the baselines by 2045
Ministry of Skill Development 3. The Kigali Agreement will be
and Entrepreneurship to binding on countries from 2019
produce 11 million qualified 4. It also has provisions for
teachers by 2019. penalties for non-compliance.
(d) The Election Commission of 5. Kigali is capital of Rwanda.
India’s outreach programme to
rid the electoral rolls of an Choose correct option using code below,
estimated 11 million bogus (a) 1, 4 and 5 only
voters before the 2019 general (b) 2 and 3 only
election. (c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
63. India’s first ‘island district’ is located
in which state?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Kerala
(c) Assam
(d) Odisha

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66. A high-altitude research station in post-independence which went


Himalaya called HIMANSH has been against the Tamil community?
established by the National Centre 1. Sinhala was accepted as the
for Antartic and Ocean Research, official language of SL,
1. Help researchers to quantify the disregarding Tamil.
glacier melting and its relation to 2. The new constitution stipulated
changing climate that the state shall protect and
2. Help in digitizing the glacier foster Buddhism.
motion and snow cover 3. Preferential policy for Sinhalese
variations with utmost precision. in government jobs.
3. It is Under the Ministry of Ocean Choose the correct answer using the
and research codes below:
Choose correct option using code below, (a) 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) All of the above
(d) All of the above
69. Which of these countries practice
67. Recently Prime Minister laid the federalism?
foundation of the highly ambitious 1. Pakistan
gas pipeline project in Varanasi, 2. Russia
Uttar Pradesh. It aims to provide 3. Brazil
piped cooking (PNG) gas to residents Choose the correct answer using the
of the eastern region of the country codes below:
and CNG gas for the vehicles. a) 1 and 2
What is name of this project? b) 2 and 3
(a) TAPI pipe line c) 1 and 3
(b) Ujala Scheme d) All of the above
(c) Urja Ganga Project
(d) Bharat Stage- VII 70. Which of the following directions by
the Central government (CG), if
68. The conflict between the Sinhalese given, to the state governments
and the Tamil community in Sri (SGs) would go against the Indian
Lanka has been going on since Sri federal structure?
Lankan independence. Which of the 1. CG forces SGs to adopt a specific
measures were taken by the policy in dealing with naxalism.
Sinhalese community government

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2. CG decides to launch a defence equality within religious


missile from a particular state, communities.
which the state is denying. Choose the correct answer using the
3. CG forces the state to adopt the codes below:
newly introduced Rs. 20 (a) 1 and 2
currency note. (b) 2 and 3
Choose the correct answer using the (c) All of the Above
codes below: (d) None of the above
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 73. Women in India enjoy reservation in
(c) 1 only which of the following
(d) 1 and 3 constitutional/statutory/executive
bodies?
71. Which of the following would 1. National Commission for Women
definitely threaten the democracy of 2. National Commission for
a socially and culturally diverse Protection of Child Rights
nation? 3. Child Welfare Committees
1. Existence of social differences. 4. Zila panchayat
2. Political expression of social Choose the correct answer using the
differences. codes below:
3. Economic inequality a) All of the above
Choose the correct answer using the b) 1, 3 and 4
codes below: c) 1 and 4 only
a) 1 and 2 d) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 only 74. Match the following popular civil
d) None of the above society movements to their
country/place of origin.
72. Which of the following provisions 1. The Green Belt movement –
make India a „secular‟ country? Kenya
1. There is no official religion for 2. The Chipko movement –
the Indian state. Himachal Pradesh
2. Fundamental rights to holding 3. Kittiko-Hachchiko – Karnataka
and propagating religious beliefs Choose the correct answer using the
3. The Constitution allows the state codes below:
to intervene in the matters of (a) 1 and 2
religion in order to ensure (b) 2 and 3

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(c) 1 and 3 1. Sri Lanka is a federation because


(d) All of the above the country is divided into
provinces.
75. Consider the following statements: 2. A country can no longer remain a
1. The Election Commission treats federation if some powers of the
all parties equally. No special States have been devolved to the
facility is offered for large and local government bodies.
established parties. Which of the statements given above
2. „Recognized parties‟ are allotted are correct?
a unique election symbol by the (a) 1 only
Election Commission. (b) 2 only
3. A political party that has formed (c) Both 1 and 2
government in a state cannot be (d) None
recognized as a national party.
Choose the correct answer using the 78. Match the following examples
codes below: correctly with the democratic
(a) 2 Only principle involved.
(b) 2 and 3 1. The Dutch and the French
(c) 1 and 3 community share power –
(d) 1 and 2 Community government
2. The Panchayats and the state
76. Which of the following subjects fall government in India share
in the State list under the seventh powers – Federal government
schedule of the constitution? 3. The Department of Personnel
1. Banking and Training and the Central
2. Education administrative tribunal (CAT)
3. Forests share powers - separation of
4. Police powers
5. Agriculture Choose the correct answer using the
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
codes below: (a) 1 and 2
(a) 4 and 5 only (b) 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
(d) All of the above

77. Consider the following statements:

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79. Culturable waste land is a category 82. Consider the following about the
of land use in India. It means the Lepchas.
land which 1. They are the aboriginal
(a) Is used only once in an inhabitants of Uttarakhand.
agricultural season and rest of 2. They have developed their own
the time as pasture lands language.
(b) Has not been sown more than 3. The famous ‘Khaddar’ shawl in
once during periods of drought woven by the community.
(c) Has the potential to be used for Select the correct answer using the
agriculture but is not being used codes below.
for cultural reasons a) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
80. ‘X’ develops on crystalline igneous d) None of the above
rocks in areas of low rainfall in the
eastern and southern parts of the 83. Apart from Chipko movement, which
Deccan plateau. It can be found in of the following are
the piedmont zone of the Western environmental movements?
Ghats and can be diffused with iron. 1. Save Silent Valley
‘X’ here refers to 2. Beej Bachao Andolan
(a) Peaty and marshy soils 3. Navdanya Movement
(b) Red and Yellow Soil 4. Namantar Andolan
(c) Laterite Soil Select the correct answer using the
(d) Forest Soil codes below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
81. Strip cropping method involves (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) Cutting strips up and down the (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
slope to form channels for the (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
quick flow of irrigation water
(b) Establishing sand dunes in and
around the crop in dry regions
(c) Cropping different crops in
alternate rows to reduce soil
erosion
(d) Leaving strips of grass to grow
between the crops

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84. Multi-purpose river projects can instead of groundwater irrigation


pose which of the following techniques?
environmental and geological (a) Water cannot be directed
problems? using pipes in the hills
1. Triggering earthquakes (b) Soil has low water retention
2. Excessive sedimentation of capacity due to rocky terrain
river bed (c) Due to presence of traditional
3. Making migration difficult for terrace agriculture
fishes (d) There is large scale problem
Select the correct answer using the of water stagnation and water
codes below. logging
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 87. Blue colour of the sky and the
(c) 1 and 3 only reddish appearance of the Sun at
(d) All of the above the sunrise or sunset is due to
(a) Autokinetic effect
85. PROJECT INSIGHT is related to , (b) Tyndall effect
(a) finance ministry to widen the (c) Bezold Effect
tax base by detecting tax (d) None of the Above
evaders using technology
(b) PMO to identify loop holes in 88. Which of the following are Rabi
the working of government crops?
offices. 1. Mustard
(c) Ministry of HRD to enhance 2. Groundnut
Global ranking of Indian 3. Gram
Universities 4. Maize
(d) Ministry of Defence to Select the correct answer using the
improve condition of foot codes below.
soldiers. 1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 4 only
86. In Meghalaya, a 200-year-old 3. 3 and 4 only
system of tapping stream and spring 4. 1 and 3 only
water by using bamboo pipes, is
prevalent among tribal farmers of
Khasi and Jaintia Hills. Why
bamboo drip irrigation is used

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89. Which of the following measures, Select the correct answer using the
generally invoked by the codes below.
government, help contain price rise (a) 1 and 2 only
in certain food commodities? (b) 2 only
(a) Invoking Essential (c) 1 and 3 only
Commodities Act (d) None of the above
(b) Zero export duty on those
food crops 92. The National Sample Survey
(c) Promoting futures and Organisation (NSSO) is responsible
forward trading in those food for conducting nation-wide surveys
commodities to stabilize food on various socio-economic aspects.
prices It comes under
Select the correct answer using the 1. Ministry of Social Justice and
codes below. Empowerment
1. 1 only 2. Ministry of Statistics and
2. 3 only Programme Implementation
3. 1 and 3 only 3. Ministry of Home Affairs
4. 1 and 2 only 4. Ministry of Human Resource
Development (MHRD)
90. The toothpaste, that you use daily,
contains which of the following 93. Consumers international is
minerals to fight cavities? (a) a not-for-profit company fighting
1. Petroleum Jelly for consumer rights
2. Anatase (b) an inter-governmental
3. Titanium Oxide organization laying down
4. Fluoride framework of global consumer
rights
91. Suppose ‘Nation A’ has a higher Gini (c) an agency of United Nations
coefficient than ‘Nation B’. What can entrusted with implementing
you definitely conclude from this? 1958 UN Guidelines for
(a) Nation A is economically Consumer Protection
wealthier than Nation B. (d) a NGO affiliated to United
(b) Nation B has better social Nations for creating and
indicators than Nation A. maintaining a database of
(c) Nation A has higher level of consumer rights violations
environmental degradation across the world
than Nation B.

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94. ‘World Development Indicators’ (c) It can hold moisture.


report is published by (d) It is formed after the weathering
(a) World Bank of metamorphic rocks over a long
(b) United Nations Development period of time
Programme
(c) United Nations Economic and
Social Councild) 98. As per State of Forest Report
(d) World Health Organization published in India, which of the
following is correct in order of lowest
95. Consider the following statements to highest area?
about Grameen Bank. (a) Open forests, Mangroves, Dense
1. It was found jointly by Nobel Forests, Plantations
laureates Muhammad Yunus (b) Mangroves, Open forests, Dense
and Amartya Sen. Forests
2. It is a community development (c) Dense forests, Plantations,
bank which provides loans to the Mangroves, Open forests
poor without demanding (d) Mangroves, Dense Forests, Open
collateral. forests, Plantations
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 99. Commercial farming always differs
(b) 2 only from subsistence farming in
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Selection of crops
(d) None 2. Use of modern agricultural
inputs
96. Which of the following is NOT a 3. Farm size
trade barrier? 4. Sale of farm produce in market
(a) Import tariff Select the correct answer using the
(b) Import Quota codes below.
(c) Subsidies (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) WTO agreements (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
97. Which of the following statements is (d) All of the above
correct about black soil?
(a) It is generally rich in phosphoric
contents.
(b) It is made up of very coarse
material.

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100. Which of the following statements


about cultivation of Coffee in India
is incorrect?
1. Kerala leads in production.
2. Majority of production is
exported.
3. India grows only inferior varieties
of coffee.
Select the correct answer using the
codes below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

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