PMP Grey Campus Guide

PMP
WORK BOOK
ALIGNED WITH PMBOK® GUIDE FIFTH EDITION
Name ________________________________
Version 5.5.4
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Contents Page No
PRESENTATION SLIDES
0. ABOUT THE PMP® CREDENTIAL 5
1. INTRODUCTION 13
2. ORGANIZATIONAL INFLUENCES & PROJECT LIFE CYCLE 21
3. PROJECT MANAGEMENT PROCESSES 33
4. PROJECT INTEGRATION MANAGEMENT 45
5. PROJECT SCOPE MANAGEMENT 65
6. PROJECT TIME MANAGEMENT 87
7. PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT 111
8. PROJECT QUALITY MANAGEMENT 127
9. PROJECT HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT 145
10. PROJECT COMMUNICATIONS MANAGEMENT 163
11. PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT 177
12. PROJECT PROCUREMENT MANAGEMENT 197
13. PROJECT STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT 215
14. PMI’S CODE OF ETHICS AND PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT 229
PRACTICE EXAM 239
ANSWERS TO CHAPTER END QUIZ 253
ANSWERS TO PRACTICE EXAM 269
FLASHCARDS 277
BRAIN DUMP 287
3
0. ABOUT THE PMP® CREDENTIAL
About the PMP® Credential
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8
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1. INTRODUCTION
INTRODUCTION
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INTRODUCTION
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INTRODUCTION
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INTRODUCTION
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INTRODUCTION
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2. ORGANIZATIONAL
INFLUENCES &
PROJECT LIFE CYCLE
ORGANIZATIONAL INFLUENCES &
PROJECT LIFE CYCLE
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PROJECT LIFE CYCLE
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PROJECT LIFE CYCLE
25
PROJECT LIFE CYCLE
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PROJECT LIFE CYCLE
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CHAPTER END QUIZ
ORGANIZATIONAL INFLUENCES & PROJECT LIFE CYCLE
CHAPTER END QUIZ
1.You have been assigned to a project in which the objectives are to expand three
miles of the north-to-south highway through your city by two lanes in each
direction. You are in charge of the demolition phase of this project, and you
report to the project manager in charge of this project. You have been hired on
contract and will be released at the completion of the demolition phase. What
type of organizational structure does this represent?
A. Functional organization
B. Weak matrix organization
C. Projectized organization
D. Balanced Matrix Organization
2. You work in an organization where staff members are grouped according to

their specialty such as production, engineering, and accounting and projects are
generally undertaken within these respective groupings. What is this type of
organizational structure known as?
A. Strong matrix
B. Projectized
C. Functional
D. Weak Matrix
3. You are the project manager working in an organization where the functional
manager (that some of your staff reports to when not working on your project)
controls the project budget and resource availability. This type of organization
is commonly referred to as _____.
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Weak Matrix
D. Strong Matrix
4. The collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project

phases is known as _____.
A. Project Management Office

B. Project Management Information systems
C. Project Life Cycle
D. Project Management methodology
5. You have just been assigned a project that is in progress and is two weeks
behind schedule. The team members are about to be distributed to another
project based on the original time estimates by the functional manager. What
type of organization are you in?
A. Projectized
B. Tight Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix
D. Functional
6. You are trying to complete a project, but cannot get enough attention for the
same. Resources are focused on completing process related work and the you
have little authority to properly assign resources. What form of organization
must be working in?
A. Functional
B. Matrix
C. Expediter
D. Coordinator
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CHAPTER END QUIZ
7. During a project's execution, a project manager from the information systems

department is trying to complete the project, yet is constantly faced with
interference from the manager of the engineering department. The engineering
department keeps changing the resources assigned to the project team and
their availability. What type of Organization does this represent?
A. Strong matrix
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional matrix
D. Tight matrix
8. Which form of organization retains many characteristics of a functional

organization and treats the project manager’s role as more of a coordinator
or expediter than a manager?
A. Projectized
B. Functional
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak matrix
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3. PROJECT MANAGEMENT
PROCESSES
PROJECT MANAGEMENT PROCESSES
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CHAPTER END QUIZ
CHAPTER END QUIZ
1. Which process group authorizes the project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling
2. A Software project manager is working on collecting requirements and estab-

lishing estimates for the project. Which process group are we looking at here?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Monitoring and Controlling
3. Which of the following is not true about the initial phase of a project?
A. The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.

B. Stakeholders have maximum influence during this phase.
C. The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project.
D. All the above statements are correct.
4. At which stage does a project has maximum cost?
A. Initial stage
B. Middle stage
C. Final stage
D. Cost is same at all stages
5. At which stage in a project will stakeholders have maximum influence?
A. Initial stage
B. Middle stage
C. Final stage
D. Shareholders have similar influence at all stages
6. You are the project manager for Fun Days Vacation Resorts. Your new project
assignment is to head up the Fun Days resort opening in Austin, Texas. You
are estimating the duration of the project plan activities, devising the project
schedule, and monitoring and controlling deviations from the schedule. Which
of the Project Management Knowledge Areas are you working in?
A. Project Scope Management

B. Project Quality Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Time Management
7. As a project manager, you know that the most important activity to ensure
customer and stakeholder satisfaction is which of the following?
A. Documenting and meeting the requirements

B. Documenting and meeting the performance measurements
C. Reporting changes and updating the project plan and other project docu-
ments where appropriate
D. Reporting project status regularly and in a timely manner
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8. A detailed project budget is created in which project management process

group?
A. Initiating
B. Before the project management process
C. Planning
D. Executing
9. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate thing to do during the
planning process group?
A. Work with stakeholders to determine their communication preferences

B. Determine the initial project organization
C. Refine control limits
D. Verify Scope
10. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate thing to do during the
executing process group?
A. Focus on checking team member productivity

B. Manage communication channels
C. Manage configuration
D. Evaluate the effectiveness of implemented corrective actions
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4. PROJECT INTEGRATION
MANAGEMENT
PROJECT INTEGRATION MANAGEMENT
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CHAPTER END QUIZ
INTEGRATION MANAGEMENT
CHAPTER END QUIZ
1. Interoperating Systems Corp operates in an industry where network and

physical security are always top-of-mind. They are extremely sensitive to
any security threats. This security risk aversion is an example of which of the
following?
A. Organizational Process Assets

B. Enterprise Environmental Factors
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk mitigation
2. Silver Springs Financial Services has strict policies dealing with employee ac-
ceptance of gifts. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Enterprise Environmental Factors

B. Organizational Process Assets
C. Reputational Risk Control
D. Control Risk
3. Project A has a BCR of 1.4. What can we infer from this?
A. That Breaking distance is 140 percent of the cornering radius in a standard-

ized performance test
B. That benefits are forty percent above costs
C. The costs exceed benefits by 40%
D. That Project A should be cancelled immediately and all investments should
be viewed as sunk costs
4. Project D has an IRR of 13%. What can we infer from this?
A. Project D is a money loser

B. Project D is rather profitable
C. Thirteen percent of the implemented risk response plans in Project D have
resulted in the manifestation of secondary risks.
D. With an Integrated Risk Register of 13 percent, Project D is experiencing
thirteen percent of the risks identified in the Risk
management plan.
5. Project A has an NPV of $1.2 million; Project B has a BCR of 1.035; Project
C has an IRR of -0.03 percent. Which of these project appears to be most
attractive?
A. Project A
B. Project B
C. Project C
D. Project C is least attractive, but we can’t be sure whether A or B is most
attractive
6. As the project manager at ISC develops the Project charter, several inputs are
used. Which of the following is one of these inputs?
A. Project scope statement, which is a narrative of what the project will build
B. Project statement of work, which references business need, product scope
description and strategic plan
C. Project management plan, which describes how the project charter will be
created
D. Requirements traceability matrix, which identifies requirements and where
they come from
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7. What are the first two processes within the Integration Knowledge area, and
what is output from one, into the other?
A. Develop Project Management Plan and Develop Project Charter are the first
and second processes, respectively. The Project Management Plan flows
from the first to the second.
B. The first process is Develop Project Charter, the second is Develop Project
Management Plan. The Project charter is output from the first, and is an
input to the second.
C. Requirements flow from the first process, Collect Requirements, to the sec-
ond process, Plan Project Work.
D. The Stakeholder register flows into the second process, Develop Project
Charter, from the first process, Identify Stakeholders.
8. The acting project manager at Magic Marketing is integrating plans for sched-
ule, cost, risk, and communications into a single document to be held within the
PMIS system and made available to all via the company Intranet. What process
is she in the midst performing?
A. Push Communications
B. Manage Communications
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Pull Communications
9. Validated changes are an input to Monitor and Control Project Work. From
what process did these come?
A. Validate changes were output from Perform Integrated Change Control,

after ensuring they were approved to be implemented.
B. Validated changes were output from Direct and Manage Project Work, after
ensuring they were completed.
C. Validated changes were output from Control Quality, after ensuring that the
approved change requests were properly implemented.
D. Validated Changed were output from Validate Scope, where deliverables and
changes are inspected to ensure they fully meet requirements.
10. Approved change requests are an input to Direct and Manage Project Work.
From what process did these originate?
A. Approved change requests came from Control Quality, where the change
requests were inspected with regard to quality.
B. Approved change requests came from Validate Scope, where change requests
are compared to requirements
C. Approved change requests came from Perform Integrated Change Control,
where change requests are reviewed and either approved or rejected.
D. Approved change requests came from Monitor and Control Project Work,
where change requests are monitored to ensure they don’t slip through the
cracks.
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5. PROJECT SCOPE
MANAGEMENT
PROJECT SCOPE MANAGEMENT
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CHAPTER END QUIZ
SCOPE MANAGEMENT
CHAPTER END QUIZ
1. Carmen is just about to deliver the case study commissioned by Raz-ma-TAZ

RAGS. Before she does, she arranges a meeting with the steering committee
and project sponsor over at TAZ RAGS to take them through the case study,
answer any questions or concerns they may have, and seek to get an official
confirmation that the case study meets their expectations. What process is she
performing here?
A. Deliverables Acceptance
B. Accept Deliverables
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Validate Scope
2. The Project scope statement, output from Define Scope will include which of
the following?
A. Scope description, Deliverables, Acceptancecriteria

B. Approved scope statement and Exclusions
C. Constraints and Assumptions
D. A & C
3. Interoperable Systems Corp is developing a network intrusion detection sys-

tem for Silver Springs Financial Services. A number of network access points
and other vulnerabilities have been identified. The project manager is over-
seeing the development of a requirements traceability matrix for the project.
Which of the following is most true about this matrix?
A. It will track percent completion of requirements over the life of the project
B. It will list the various identified requirements and associated information for
each requirement, such as source, owner, status, associated test cases
C. The Requirements traceability matrix is an output of Plan Scope
Management and an input to Control Scope
D. The Requirements traceability matrix is an output of Plan scope manage-
ment, and an input to Validate Scope
4. Interoperable Systems Corp is developing a network intrusion detection sys-

tem for Silver Springs Financial Services. The system will dynamically adjust to
varying work loads to adjust monitoring-induced latency, based on over two
dozen system configuration parameters. The resulting collection of require-
ments is so complex, that a detailed plan will be required, just to deal with man-
aging all of these capabilities. This plan is called a Requirements management
plan. In what process is it created?
A. The Requirements management plan is a subsidiary plan to the Project man-

agement plan, created in Plan Scope Management
B. The Requirements management plan, is a sub-set of the Scope management
plan output from Plan Scope Management
C. The Requirements management plan is created within Collect Requirements.
D. The Requirements management plan is created within Develop Project
Management Plan, and is a separate output from the
Project management plan itself.
5. Which of the following statements about the WBS is most correct?
A. WBS stands for Work Breakdown Statement

B. The WBS includes 100 percent of the work of the project
C. Any work not included in the WBS is out of scope
D. B & C
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CHAPTER END QUIZ
6. With regard to the Create WBS process, which of the following is most correct?
A. Within Create WBS the work of the project is decomposed to the work
package level. Each work package should be about
two reporting periods-worth of work. There are two levels above this -Planning
packages and Control accounts
B. This is where the work of the project is decomposed down to the work
package level —a level granular enough
for activities to be estimated and managed
C. Within Create WBS the work of the project and deliverables are decomposed
to a level appropriate for the
degree of control needed to effectively manage the project.
D. Create WBS is where identified activities are bundled up into work packages
in a hierarchical structure designed
for cost accounting purposes. The structure is otherwise arbitrary.
7. Carmen wants to experiment with tracking project costs in a more rigorous

way. She has set-up a chart of accounts, in which each work package has a
unique code of account identifier. Where will she store these code of account
IDs?
A. In her company’s asset management software package

B. In an Excel spreadsheet, which will be considered a project document
C. Within the WBS dictionary
D. In the PMIS, a tool or technique used in Plan Scope Management
8. Bubba’s Bait Shop and Colo, LLC is responding to an RFI for data center capacity
issued by Silver Springs Financial Services. There is a large unit price reduction
for capacity if the leased space exceeds 100 square meters. Prior to issuing
the RFP, the project manager at Silver Springs wants to explore the option of
taking down more space vs. achieving a higher level of server consolidation
and fitting within the 75 square meters that was originally defined as the space
requirement. What is the project manager engaged in?
A. Gold plating
B. Alternatives generation, which is a tool or technique used within Define
Scope
C. Dithering
D. Requirements clarification, which is a tool or technique used in Collect
Requirements
9. Interoperable Systems Corp (ISC) is developing a network intrusion

detection system for Silver Springs Financial Services. New requirements
are being identified as a result of client plans to relocate the existing
secondary data center to Bubba’s Bait Shop and Colo, LLC. as a cost saving
measure. ISC’s project manager has scheduled a meeting with Silver
Springs’ corporate real estate manager to learn what he can about physical
security expectations at Bubba’s colo facility, as this could affect network
security also. What is the project manager engaged in?
A. Inspection - a tool or technique used within Validate Scope

B. Variance analysis - a tool or technique used in Control Scope
C. Expert judgment - a tool or technique used in Plan Scope Management
D. Interviews - a tool or technique within Collect Requirements
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CHAPTER END QUIZ
10. Which of the following is correct about the flow of deliverables through
Validate Scope?
A. Verified deliverables are an input to Validate Scope, and Accepted

deliverables are an output
B. Validated deliverables are an input to Validate Scope, and Verified
deliverables are output
C. Accepted deliverables are an input to Verify Scope, and Verified deliverables
are the output
D. Accepted deliverables are an input to Validate Scope, and Verified
deliverables are an output
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6. PROJECT TIME MANAGEMENT
PROJECT TIME MANAGEMENT
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TIME MANAGEMENT
CHAPTER END QUIZ
1. Which of the following is the full and correctly ordered list of processes in the
Project Schedule Management Knowledge Area?
A. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Estimate

Activity Resources, Develop Schedule, Control Schedule
B. Define Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Estimate Activity Resources,
Develop Schedule, Control Schedule
C. Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate
Activity Resources, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule, Control
Schedule
D. Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate
Activity Durations, Estimate Activity Resources, Develop Schedule, Control
Schedule
2. The Scope baseline is an input to what process in Schedule Management?
A. The Scope baseline is an input to Plan Schedule Management

B. The Scope baseline is an input to Define Activities
C. The Scope baseline is an input to Estimate Activity Resource Requirements
D. The Scope baseline is an input to Control Scope
3. Which of the following are outputs of Define Activities?
A. Sequenced activities
B. Milestone chart
C. Activity attributions
D. None of the above
4. Which of the following are outputs of Define Activities?
A. Activity list
B. Milestone list
C. Activity attributes
D. All of the above
5. The Schedule baseline is an output of which process?
A. Plan Schedule Management

B. Develop Schedule
C. Define Activities
D. Control Schedule
6. Which of the following is true of Schedule forecasts?
A. Schedule forecasts are an input to Develop Schedule

B. Schedule forecasts are a tool or technique within Develop Schedule
C. Schedule forecasts are in output of Control Schedule
D. Schedule forecasts are an output of Develop Schedule and an input to
Control Schedule
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CHAPTER END QUIZ
7. Which of the following is true of Resource optimization techniques?
A. Resource optimization techniques are a tool or technique within Estimate

Activity Resources, to design resource allocations so as to optimize resource
utilization
B. Resource optimization techniques are a tool or technique within Develop
Schedule, to adjust resource load levels to make them less variable
C. Resource optimization techniques are a tool or technique within Estimate
Activity Durations, to adjust durations so as to optimize resource load levels
D. Resource optimization techniques are a tool or technique within Plan
Schedule Management, to establish the target rate of resource churn
8. Phase 2 planning is underway for a new feature to be built at an amusement

park in Lime Peru. The tasks for this phase have all been defined, working with
the WBS. What process will be performed next?
A. Estimate Activity Durations

B. Define Activities
C. Estimate Costs
D. Sequence Activities
9. What does “Finish-to-Start” mean?
A. Successor activity must finish before predecessor activity can start

B. Predecessor activity must start before successor activity can finish
C. Predecessor activity must finish before successor activity can start
D. You gottafinish this project before you can get assigned to the next one. It is
not professional to leave a project for another without first finishing what
you started.
10. Acting project manager at Magic Marketing, Carmen Diaz, is defining activities
for her a new ad campaign project in Lima. A local contract administrator will
be on the project team, billing twenty hours per week for a certain six week
period. His actual work load may fluctuate up and down dramatically, based on
need. There is no way to define or anticipate the need in advance. Which of the
following is a correct description of this?
A. The contract administrator is a PtTM(Part-time Team Member), based on the

20 hours per week billing level
B. The contract administrator function can be characterized as “Apportioned
Effort” effort type, meaning that it is estimated as some percentage of
underlying discrete effort.
C. The contract administrator function can be characterized as a “Level of
Effort” (LOE) effort type and identified as such in the activity attributes for
the corresponding activities.
D. An engagement about to head South. Any project needing a contract
administrator should have a dedicated, full time contract administrator with
proper certifications and training.
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7. PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT
PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT
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1. Interoperable Systems Corp is estimating costs for a new project they recently
won. Funding limits will be set based on these cost estimates, and if they’re too
low, it could cause serious delays and adverse management attention. What
type of estimating will be most appropriate and why?
A. Analogous estimating because this will capture previous project experience.

B. Parametric estimating because nearly 20 percent of project cost is fencing,
which has a predictable cost per linear foot.
C. Bottom-up estimating, because this will be most thorough.
D. Top-down estimating because the estimates need to be aligned with
anticipated funding limits.
2. Interoperable Systems Corp is developing a project plan for an RFP response.

Many activities have been defined that are of quite a short duration -1 to 3
days in many cases. What earned value recognition scheme would be most
appropriate for these tasks?
A. Weighted milestone
B. Fixed Formula
C. Physical Measurement
D. Percent Complete
3. Which of the following is an accurate description of the Cost baseline?
A. The cost baseline is compared against plan to calculate cost variances and
CPI
B. The cost baseline is an output of Determine Budget, is subject to formal
change control and does not include any management reserves
C. The Cost baseline is an input to Determine Budget
D. The Cost baseline is an output of Determine Budget, is subject to change
control and includes contingency and management reserves
4. Which of the following is the correct list of processes in the Cost Management
Knowledge Area?
A. Estimate Costs; Create Budget; Control Costs

B. Plan Cost Management, Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, Minimize Costs
C. Plan Cost Management, Estimate Costs, Secure Funding, Minimize Costs
D. Plan Cost Management, Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, Control Costs

Unit testing is expected to amount to an additional ten percent on top of the
cost to complete the programming of code modules. What EVM effort type
would be most appropriate here?
A. Apportioned effort B. Discrete effort

C. Level of Effort D. Abstract effort
6. The server refresh project has incurred costs of $675,000, while the work
completed was expected to cost $525,000. What is the CPI?
A. 0.778 B. 1.29
C. 0.286 D. $150,000
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7. Silver Springs Financial Services is migrating servers as part of a data center

exit project, triggered by a need to slash costs -the fallout of a recent rogue
trading fiasco. The project manager’s EVM report today is showing a CPI of 1.1
and an SPI of 0.9. What should we understand from this?
A. Trading controls need to be tightened

B. The project is over budget
C. The project is ahead of schedule
D. The project is under budget and behind schedule
8. Razz-ma-TAZ RAGS is mid-way through a project to develop a new line of

expensive, high-end T-shirts with celebrity-themed graphics. Two thirds of the
work has been completed at a cost of $400,000, out of a total project budget of
$525,000. What TCPI is required to ensure the final budget is exceeded by no
more than 20 percent?
A. 0.875 B. 1.15
C. 0.761 D. $105,000
9. Magic Marketing’s project manager is contemplating his firm’s Enterprise

Environmental Factors as he estimates costs on a new digital marketing
campaign. Which of the following are Enterprise Environmental Factors he
might take into account?
A. Demand for the programming talent he is going to need to hire for the
project
B. Magic Marketing’s on-boarding procedures
C. The programming talent already resident within Magic Marketing
D. B and C
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8. PROJECT QUALITY
MANAGEMENT
PROJECT QUALITY MANAGEMENT
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1. Interoperable Systems Corp is engaged to improve manufacturing processes at

a plant Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS just opened in Lima. Production volumes are large
and the testing needed is destructive. Which testing approach makes the most
sense and why?
A. Population testing should be done to ensure no issues are missed.

B. Population testing should be used because testing is destructive
C. Sample testing should be used because production volumes are large and the
testing is destructive
D. Sample testing should be used to ensure that no issues remain undetected
2. Which of the following is a correct description of population testing?
A. Population testing is the sample testing of a random, representative portion

of a population, to survey customer satisfaction, as a follow-up quality
control measure.
B. Population testing is the sample testing of a domain of quality metrics
to ensure that quality metrics are being met. If rejects are found, the
proportion of domain testing is increased -up to 100 percent, if necessary.
C. Population testing is the testing of 100 percent of a population.
D. Population testing is a tool or technique used in Control Quality to inspect a
random sample of a production run.
3. The accuracy of the punch press operation is monitored through a series of

seventeen measurements on each piece of work, which are then run through an
algorithm to obtain three indices (called A, B, and C) that are plotted on a strip
chart recorder. Index B has a running average of 8, a lower specification limit of
6, and an upper specification limit of 8.9. The company is quite happy with the
punch press operation. Which of the following is true of the upper control limit?
A. The upper control limit is below 8 and above 8.9

B. The upper control limit is above 6 and below 8.9
C. The upper control limit is above 8 and below 8.9
D. The upper control limit is above 8.9
4. Interoperable Systems Corp is developing a punch press automation

application for a new customer. A defect in the punching operation is being
found and several parameters are suspected causes. Which of the following
quality tools is most likely to be of help in identifying the actual causation
parameter?
A. Flow charts, as they will help associate process flow steps with flaw
causation.
B. Check lists, as they will list potential causes of defects
C. Scatter diagrams, as they can help identify two parameters that have a high
degree of correlation
D. Control charts, as they indicate what parameters were out of limits when the
punch press flaws occurred
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5. In planning the materials flow for the new punch press station, careful
consideration has been given to each step of the manufacturing process leading
up to the punch press operation. Which of the following quality tools would be
more helpful in this effort?
A. Scatter diagrams, as they illustrate how materials are scattered about during
manufacturing process flow
B. Flow diagrams, as they help illustrate the sequence of steps in a process
C. Histograms, as they illustrate historical accumulation points, where material
stocks tend to build-up
D. Pareto diagrams, as they illustrate where material shortages are most likely
to occur
6. Magic Marketing is working with Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS to develop a quality image

and message for their new marketing campaign which will include a $200,000
ad buy, $75,000 of which will go to social media sites. Which of the following is
PMI’s definition of Quality?
A. “The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill requirements”

B. “You can’t go wrong, if it’s big and strong”
C. “Fitness for use”
D. “Commercially aesthetic”
7. Which of the following is PMI’s definition for quality assurance?
A. “Do it right the first time”

B. “Auditing quality requirements and the results of quality control
measurements to ensure appropriate
quality standards are used”
C. “Inspecting, detecting, correcting and selecting”
D. “Continuous process improvement toward the ultimate goal of the inherent
characteristics”
8. Magic Marketing has identified an issue. Based on follow-up customer surveys,

one out of five customers is reporting defective stitching around button holes.
Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS has borrowed against accounts receivable, with help from
Silver Springs Financial Services to attack this quality problem. Interoperable
Systems Corp has gathered statistical data on the five known causes of
the stitching defect. Which quality tool will be most helpful in prioritizing
remediation efforts?
A. Rule of 7
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Tally sheets
D. Scatter diagrams
9. Which of the following is the best explanation of the difference between

Benchmarking and Design of experiments (DOE)?
A. Benchmarking is a tool or technique used in Control Quality, while DOE is a

tool or technique used in Perform Quality Analysis
B. Benchmarking is a tooling set-up technique, while DOE is an energy
conservation methodology promoted by the Department of Energy
C. Benchmarking is a way of comparing your project practices to practices
in other similar projects, while DOE is an approachto systematically
experiment to find ways to improve your processes
D. Benchmarking focuses on process throughput, while DOE focuses on process
consistency
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10. Which of the following is true of the Approved change requests review?
A. Approved change requests are reviewed if a Change Control Review Board

decision is appealed
B. Approved change requests review is a tool or technique used in estimate
activity costs, to evaluate the cost impact of
change requests
C. Approved change requests review is a tool or technique used in Control
Quality to check and ensure that approved
change requests are implemented
D. Approved change requests review is an output of Perform Integrated Change
Control change requests are implemented
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9. PROJECT HUMAN RESOURCE
MANAGEMENT
PROJECT HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
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153
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155
156
157
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1. Which of the following are tools and techniques used in Acquire Project Team?
A. Advertise, offer, and hire

B. Beg, borrow and steal
C. Pre-assignment, Acquisition, Collocation
D. Pre-assignment, Acquisition, Virtual Teams
2. Which of the following is the most accurate description of Multi-criteria deci-

sion analysis?
A. This is an interpretation tool used in intelligence gathering activities

B. This is a tool or technique used in Plan Human Resources Management, used
to help determine which
personality types will work best given the organization’s structure and culture,
and project nature
C. This is a personality assessment tool developed by Herzberg and used in
Manage Project Team
D. This is a tool or technique used in Acquire Project Team
3. Which of the following is true of Team performance assessments
A. First impressions are always bad, but usually they improve with time.
B. They are an input to Develop Project Team
C. They are an output from Develop Project Team
D. They are a tool or technique within Manage Project Team
4. Which of the following is true of the Staffing management plan?
A. There is no such a thing… it is called the Human Resource Management Plan

B. It is a sub-plan of the Human Resource Management Plan, where perfor-
mance appraisals are kept for future reference.
C. It describes plans for staff acquisition, training and staff release
D. It is a subsidiary plan of the Project Management Plan, addressing staff per-
formance remediation measures
5. Which of the following is true of change requests?
A. They are an output of Manage Project Team

B. They are a tool or technique within Develop Project Team
C. They are an output of Plan Human Resource Management
D. They are an output of Develop Project Team
6. The issue log is used how in the management of human resources?
A. The Issue log is a tool or technique used in Develop Project Team

B. The Issue log is an input to Manage Project Team
C. The Issue log is an output from Develop Project Team
D. The Issue log is an output from Manage Project Team
7. When a project team member is selected in advance, she is considered what?
A. Holder of the short straw

B. Pre-assigned
C. A weak player
D. “Sponsor’s Pet”
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8. What is the general pattern of transition of management approach over

the life cycle of a project, as the project team becomes more and more high
functioning?
A. Command, Control, Communicate

B. Dictate, Direct, Define, Dissolve
C. Be, Know, Do
D. Directing, Coaching, Facilitating, Delegating
9. Which of the following is the correct list and sequence of Maslow’s Hierarchy
of Needs?
A. Physiological, Safety, Belonging, Esteem, Self-actualization

B. Safety, Physical, Belonging, Self-actualization, Esteem
C. Psychosomatic, Safety, Belonging, Esteem, Self-actualization
D. Physiological, Safety, Belonging, Self-actualization, Esteem
10. What are five general techniques for resolving conflict?
A. Avoid, Capitulate, Compromise, Force, Direct

B. Withdraw, Accommodate, Compromise, Direct, Collaborate
C. Withdraw, Smooth, Reconcile, Direct, Force
D. Avoid, Accommodate, Compromise, Collaborate, Problem Solve
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10. PROJECT COMMUNICATIONS
MANAGEMENT
PROJECT COMMUNICATIONS MANAGEMENT
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168
169
170
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1. Which of the following are the most fundamental components of the communi-
cations model?
A. Sender, Receiver, Medium and interference

B. Sender, Receiver, Feedback
C. Sender, Message, Medium and noise
D. Sender, Receiver, Message
2.Interactive, Push, and Pull are examples of a tool or technique called what?
A. Communication techniques
B. Communication Styles
C. Communication methods
D. Communication modes
3. Which of the following is an accurate description of communications medium?
A. The email system used

B. The moderator of a SharePoint site
C. The air surrounding the sender and receiver
D. The average round trip delay of the message
4. Six team members report to a project manager. How many channels of commu-
nication are there?
A. 24
B. 21
C. 15
D. 18
5. Pull communication is best for what?
A. Distributing information to many, in an efficient way

B. Puts version control at greater risk
C. Is most appropriate for small amounts of information
D. Is most appropriate for low numbers of communication channels
6. Performance reporting
A. Is a tool or technique within Manage Communications

B. Is an output of Manage Communications
C. Is an output of Control Communications
D. is a tool or technique within Control Communications
7. An updated risk register and revised probability impact matrix would be found
in which report type?
A. Status report
B. Variance report
C. EVM report
D. Forecast report
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8. You are managing a team of 6 members and once the project entered the
next phase three more members are added and two of the current team
members leave. How many new communication channels need to be added
due to these changes.
A. 21
B. 7
C. 5
D. No changes are needed
9. Outputs from Manage Communications might include what?
A. Change requests
B. Expert judgment
C. Meetings
D. Project document updates, including updates to Issue log
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11. PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT
PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT
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183
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185
186
187
188
189
190
191
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1. Which of the following is true of Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)?
A. The RBS is a model for how things can go wrong

B. It is a way of structuring risk categories and is developed in Plan Risk
Management
C. The RBS is output from Identify Risks
D. It is often illustrated using a Probability and Impact Matrix
2. Which of the following is an accurate description of a Probability and Impact

Matrix?
A. It is a tool or technique used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

B. it enables one to compare risks to see which one has largest EMV impact
C. It will help you to see which risks that have the highest probability of
occurrence
D. It is the best tool to use to understand the cumulative probability curve of
outcomes for a complex system
3. Which of the following is the best description of a tornado diagram?
A. A weather risk map published by the USGS

B. A data center site selection map published by the Uptime Institute
C. A tool or technique used in perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. A graphic of horizontal bars, showing risk magnitude, with largest risks at top
of graphic
4. Which of the following is the best description of Monte Carlo Analysis?
A. A risk analysis tool developed in Monaco

B. A math model developed in Italy in 1778
C. An example of Quantitative risk analysis and modeling techniques, in which a
math model is used to simulate all or a portion of a project
D. A tool or technique used in Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is which a
graphic model is used obtain a cumulative distribution curve of potential
outcomes for a complex system
5. Some risks associated with the new digital marketing campaign have risk trig-
gers associated with them. Which of the following describes a risk trigger?
A. Rick will zero-out the pre-paid funds account for automated social media ad
buys if a risk occurs.
B. If inventory on hand runs below a two day supply, based on cumulative sales
history of past 72 hours, a certain agreed upon action will be taken.
C. Customer complaints are coming in, triggered by notices that their purchase
will be delayed pending arrival of new stock.
D. Rick will implement an agreed-upon risk response measure upon receipt of
the corresponding risk trigger.
6. The software development project requires an expensive Direct-Attached

Storage Device for testing. This device is sensitive to vibration and the tenant
one floor above runs a punch press from time to time that can create enough
vibration to cause issues with the storage device. Which of the following is an
example of risk mitigation?
A. Speak with the punch press operator, and ask him to please notify you when
he is about to operate the punch press, so that you can shut down the DASD
ahead of time
B. Mount the storage device in a special rack with elastic mounts to achieve
some level of vibration isolation
C. Purchase a service contract for the storage device so that it will be replaced
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at no charge if it is damaged
D. Cross your fingers and hope you don’t run into trouble
7. Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS has identified a number of risks associated with their

production expansion project, many of which have an explicitly identified risk
owner. Which of the following is a risk owner?
A. The insurance company holding the policy

B. The affected party, if a risk does occur
C. The person responsible for monitoring the manifestation of the correspond-
ing risk trigger(s)
D. The person responsible for taking pre-planned measures, should a particular
risk actually occur
8. Risks can be found where?
A. From focusing on cost estimates with wide ranges

B. From focusing on task durations with wide ranges
C. From identifying positive side-effects of a project that might not be immedi-
ately apparent
D. All of the above
9. Task G has a range of estimated durations and costs. There is 80 percent likeli-
hood the cost will be 2000 Swiss Francs. 15 percent the cost will be 3500 Swiss
Francs. And 5 percent chance the cost will come in at 8200 Swiss Francs. What
is the EMV of the cost for Task G?
A. 4567 US Dollars
B. 2535 US Dollars
C. 4567 Swiss Francs
D. 2535 Swiss Francs
10. SWOT is which of the following?
A. Silver Whisker Optimization Technique

B. A tool or technique used in identifying risks
C. A structured way of ranking risks
D. A graphic view of relative probabilities
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12. PROJECT PROCUREMENT
MANAGEMENT
PROJECT PROCUREMENT MANAGEMENT
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201
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1. Make or buy decisions are made in which process?
A. Control Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Plan Procurement Management
D. Make or buy decisions are an input to Conduct Procurements
2. Silver Springs Financial Services is preparing a pitch to underwrite a bond

issuance by Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS and needs to hire a creative graphic artist to
brighten-up the pitch presentation materials. Which of the following contract
types would be most suitable?
A. Firm Fixed Price, so that total costs are known up front

B. Cost-Plus Incentive Fee, so that the scope of work can be adapted to the
needs of the project.
C. Time and Materials
D. Fixed Price Incentive Fee, so that the graphic artist is incentivized to do bet-
ter work.
3. Activity resource requirements is which of the following?
A. An input to Control Procurements

B. An output from Conduct Procurements
C. An input to Plan Procurement Management
D. An output from Plan Procurement Management
4. Which of the following is true of Procurement negotiations?
A. They are a tool or technique in Conduct Procurements

B. They are a tool or technique in Close Procurements
C. Procurement negotiations are a tool or technique in both Conduct
Procurements and in Close Procurements,
but the nature of the activity is different between the two processes.
D. They are where Sourcing folks get to prove their worth --keeping the
seller back on his heels, uncertain of
where he stands, so as to end up with the best possible price for the
buyer.
5. Silver Springs Financial Services is looking for new office space. They need
60,000 SF, but would like to take down more, so that they have room for
growth. At the same time, they would like to preserve the right to hand-back
space before lease-end, in case their fortunes deteriorate. What type of pro-
curement document would be most appropriate?
A. A 10-year lease with early exit clause

B. An RFI
C. An RFP
D. An IFB
6. Three potential respondents to an RFP are attending a bidder conference.

What’s going on here?
A. PMI’s core value of fairness is being violated as the bidders meet and cospire
to coordinate their responses to the buyer’s procurement document.
B. Anti-Trust Regulations are being violated through anti-competitive behavior.
C. Choices A and B
D. The Buyer is holding a meeting to share information about the procurement
with all interested potential sellers
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7. Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS recent bond issuance was a big disappointment. The funds
raised barely covered the underwriting fees agreed with Silver Springs Financial
Services. The CFO and contract administrator for TAZ RAGS are meeting with
the Silver Springs’ sales guy who calls himself “Silver Fox”. Promises and
expetations are reviewed and contrasted with results and fees. The CFO pro-
poses a reduced fee, and mentions that his industry association is tight knit and
word travels fast about business arrangements that don’t work out. This is an
example of which of the following?
A. Close Procurements, in which lessons learned are captured.

B. Procurement negotiations in the Conduct Procurements process, in which
terms and conditions are set.
C. Procurement negotiations in the Close Procurements process, in which final
contract settlements are worked-out.
D. A cry baby who can’t handle bad news delivered by the market
8. Interoperable Systems Corp is seeking ways to shrink their ULF transceiver

package size. They believe one option is to move some of the PC Board func-
tionality onto the inside surface of the enclosure itself, using some of the new
coating materials technologies that are starting to be mentioned in the trade
rags. The senior systems engineer is interested in learning what might be possi-
ble in this regard. Which of the following would be most appropriate?
A. Issue an RFP, describing the solution desired

B. Issue an RFQ
C. Issue an IFB
D. Issue an RFI
9. Silver Springs Financial Services has hired Petrov, Pavlov and Partners to
review legal documents associated with a new business license application in
Russia. PP&P is requesting additional fees to cover translation costs, so that
Silver Springs Managers in New York can review draft documents. How should
this be handled?
A. Silver Spring’s project manager should tell PP&P that the translation services
are clearly part of the original scope of work and no addition compensation
will be forthcoming.
B. The project budget should be adjusted to reflect the increased costs.
C. PP&P should be asked to submit a formal change request, with a total cost
impact included.
D. Silver Spring’s project manager should start looking around for other
Russian-to-English translation services, in case this issue does not get
resolved soon.
10. Upon acquisition of the business license in Russia, Silver Springs Financial
Services' project manager provides formal notice to his contact at Petrov,
Pavlov and Partners that the contract for their legal services has been fully
satisfied. What would this action be called?
A. Closed procurements
B. Common business courtesy
C. A silly move: additional help from PP&P could be had if the contract is left
open, and this might be needed once business operations get started over
there in Russia.
D. A waste of time. Obviously the work is complete, as it was PP&P that
obtained the license for Silver Springs in the first place.
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11. The contract is expected to cost $560k. Actual cost is $510k. There is a
50%/50% share of any costs savings. What is the total value of the
contract?
A. $535k
B. $510k
C. $560k
D. $610k
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13. PROJECT STAKEHOLDER
MANAGEMENT
PROJECT STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT
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1. Which of the following is an output of Identify Stakeholders and an input to
Plan Stakeholder Management?
A. Stakeholders
B. Stakeholder roster
C. Stakeholder register
D. Stakeholder management plan
2. Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS has procured their new fabric cutting tool, but during com-
missioning, problems have been observed. In the daily stand-up team meet-
ing, the project manager learns that cuts toward the East end of the table are
ragged, leaving loose threads and a rough edge finish. After three days of trying,
the seller has still not been able to resolve the problem.Where should this prob-
lem be recorded and tracked?
A. In procurement evaluation documents.

B. In the Change log
C. In all meeting agendas until resolved.
D. In the Issue log
3. The Power Interest Grid is used how?
A. The Power interest Grid is an example of Analytical techniques used in

Manage Stakeholder Engagement
B. The Power Interest Grid is an example of Stakeholder Analysis, used in
Identify Stakeholders
C. The Power Interest Grid is used to compel better stakeholder engagement,
which has been found to be a key indicator of project success.
D. The Power Interest Grid is an input to Control Stakeholder Engagement,
where it is referenced as Issues need to be escalated
4. Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS is just kicking off a project to start a new fabrication

plant in Bogotá, Colombia. Stakeholders there and in California need to be
kept informed of status and their action items and due dates. Many
stakeholders are involved and the pace of change is quite rapid.
Communications have been flowing fast and furious, and people are getting
overwhelmed with the volume of e-mail, as everyone is copied on everything.
What change might help allevi-ate this?
A. Change the default communications mode from push to pull.

B. Whenever a message goes out where everyone is copied, send out a reminder
to everyone to only copy the
people who need to be copied on a message
C. Trim the stakeholder register down to essential staff to reduce the email
distribution list
D. Have more meetings, so that there is less reliance on email
5. Code named, “Big-O”, Silver Springs Financial Services is evaluating potential

outsource partners to take over the management of their Information Systems.
The project manager is populating his Stakeholder Engagement Assessment
Matrix. Which of the following is an accurate description of the Stakeholder
Engagement Assessment Matrix?
A. This is a tool or technique used in Manage Stakeholder Engagement

B. This is an output of Identify Stakeholders
C. This is an example of Analytical Techniques used in Plan Stakeholder
Management
D. This is an assessment test used to determine levels of compatibility between
people with different personality types
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6. Which of the following is an output of Manage Stakeholder Engagement and an
input to Control Stakeholder Engagement?
A. Change log
B. Issue log
C. Stakeholder concerns
D. Stakeholder issues
7. In the Stakeholder Knowledge Area, Procurement documents are used how?
A. They are an input to Plan Stakeholder Management, used to help plan how
suppliers will be managed.
B. They are an input to Manage Stakeholder Engagement, used to plan how
suppliers will be managed.
C. They are an input to Identify Stakeholders, used to help identify key
stakeholders.
D. They are an output of Plan Stakeholder engagement, used to help manage the
procurement engagement.
8. Interpersonal Skills used in Manage Stakeholder Engagement include:
A. Building trust
B. Overcoming resistance to change
C. Minimizing conflict
D. A and B
9. Which of the following statements about changes is correct?
A. Change requests are an input to Control Stakeholder Engagement, and the

Change log is an output of Control Stakeholder Engagement
B. Change requests are an output of Manage Stakeholder Engagement and the
Change log is an output of Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
C. Change requests are an output of Manage Stakeholder Engagement and the
Change log is an input to Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Change requests and the Change log are both outputs of Control Stakeholder
Engagement
10. As project manager for Magic Marketing, you’ve been tasked with working
with Silver Springs Financial Services to develop a new ad campaign. Your
customer contact has a concept in his head that is just terrible. Which of the
following is your best response?
A. “That is a terrible idea -I’m sure we can do much better than that”
B. “Sure… we can start with that, and see how it goes”
C. “Well… I think I see where you a going with this idea, but I believe I see some
problems with it. May I just share my thinking with you?”
D. “Huh… OK, well how about this idea my team has been developing, instead.”
228
14. PMI’S CODE OF ETHICS AND
PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT
PMI’S CODE OF ETHICS AND PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT
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1. What are the four core values within PMI's Code of Ethics and Professional
Conduct?
A. Responsibility, Respect, Fairness, Honesty
B. Reasonableness, Respect, Fairness, Honor
C. Responsibility, Reasonableness, Fairness, Honor
D. Responsibility, Respect, Fairness, Honor
2. PMI’s Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct includes two tiers. What are
these tiers called?
A. Obligatory and Optional

B. Mandatory and Aspirational
C. Required and Best Effort
D. Felony and Misdemeanor
3. The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct applies to which of the
following?
A. All PMI members

B. All PMI members and non-members who hold PMI certifications
C. All PMI members and non-members who hold PMI certifications, or who have
ever held a PMP certification
D. All PMI members and non-members who hold PMI certifications, or who
apply to commence a PMI certification process, or who work for PMI in a
volunteer capacity
4. Mandatory standards for Responsibility include which of the following?
A. We do what we say we will do

B. Know and uphold policies, regulations and laws that govern our work
C. We report unethical or illegal conduct to appropriate management and, if
necessary, to the parties affected by the conduct
D. B & C
5. Mandatory standards for Respect include which of the following?
A. We approach directly those persons with whom we have a conflict

B. We negotiate in good faith
C. We do not act in an abusive manner toward others
D. B & C
6. Mandatory standards for Honesty include which of the following?
A. We do not engage in or condone behavior that is designed to deceive others,

including making misleading or false statements.
B. We provide accurate information in a timely manner
C. We make commitments and promises in good faith
D. We strive to create an environment in which others feel safe to tell the truth
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7. What are the consequences of failing to abide by the mandatory standards

within PMI’s Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct?
A. Failure to abide by the mandatory standards may result in criminal or civil

prosecution.
B. Practitioners who fail to abide by the mandatory standards may be subject to
disciplinary procedures before PMI’s Ethics Review Committee.
C. Practitioners who fail to conduct themselves in accordance with the manda-
tory standards will be flagged on PMI’s web site as bad actors
D. Practitioners who fail to conduct themselves in accordance with the manda-
tory standards will have to perform 200 hours of volunteer services for PMI
or one of its local chapters or communities of practice.
8. Mandatory standards for Responsibility include which of the following?
A. We bring violations of this code to the attention of the appropriate body for
resolution
B. We only file ethics complaints when they are substantiated by the facts
C. When we make errors, we take ownership and make corrections promptly
D. A & B
9. Project manager at Silver Springs Financial Services is meeting once a week

with several others, as they are all studying for the PMP exam. One of them
brags of having a sister who works at a training company and has somehow
managed to get a list of 699 actual PMP exam questions. Sure enough, the
questions are produced at the study group the following week, marked “PMI
Confidential -Internal Only”. What should the project manager do?
A. Make a copy and study hard

B. Advise the group to not use the questions
C. Report the violation of PMI’s materials to his manager
D. Report the violation to PMI
10 .Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS is developing a joint venture with Bonnets of Beverly Hills.

The project manager at TAZ RAGS discovers that his primary point of contact at
Bonnets is a former fellow Crew team mate from when they were in college to-
gether. They used to be best buds back in those days. The joint venture involves
large investments, and the TAZ RAGS project manager want to keep everything
above board, naturally. What should he do?
A. Recuse himself from the project to avoid any potential conflict of interest
B. Ask for a different point of contact at Bonnets, to avoid any appearance of a
conflict of interest
C. Cancel plans for the joint venture, as the potential for conflict is just too high
D. Disclose his former friendship and association with the contact at Bonnets to
his manager and other senior stakeholders, and receive their concurrence
before continuing work on the joint venture
238
PRACTICE EXAM
This is a miniature sample of the PMP exam. In a

PMP exam you need to answer 200 questions in
4 hrs. We have condensed the full length exam
to a 50 question exam and to be taken in 1 hr. To
experience a full length exam you may login to the
eLearning and practice on one of the Mock tests
available there.
PRACTICE EXAM
1. Carmen is acting project manager at Magic Marketing, which has so little

appreciation for project management that Carmen has found it best to
introduce best practices in stealth mode. What type of organization is Magic
Marketing most likely to be?
A. Projectized
B. Balanced matrix
C. Functional
D. Strong Matrix
2. Which of the following is the most accurate and comprehensive description of

stakeholders
A. Stakeholders include project team members and the sponsor
B. Stakeholders include, team members, the sponsor and others who might be
impacted by the project
C. Stakeholders include team members, the sponsor, others who might impact
or be impacted by the project
D. Stakeholders include team members, the sponsor, others who might impact
or be impacted by the project, and even others, who simply perceive that
they may be impacted by the project.
3. Interoperable Systems Corp is evaluating which of two RFPs to bid on. Project
A is estimated to require an investment of $535,000, with a return of $1.5
million expected at the end of year 3. The interest rate is four and a quarter
percent. What is the net present value of Project A?
A. 789000
B. 798000
C. 1320000
D. Not enough information
4. Project A has an NPV of $1.2 million; Project B has a BCR of 1.035; Project
C has an IRR of -0.03 percent. Which of these project appears to be most
attractive?
A. Project A
B. Project B
C. Project C
D. Project C is least attractive, but we can’t be sure whether A or B is most
attractive
5. The acting project manager at Magic Marketing is integrating plans for

schedule, cost, risk, and communications into a single document to be held
within the PMIS system and made available to all via the company Intranet.
What process is she in the midst performing?
A. Push Communications
B. Manage Communications
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Pull Communications
241
PRACTICE EXAM
6. Accepted deliverables are an input to Close Project or Phase. What Process
produced this?
A. Accepted deliverables were output from Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Accepted deliverables were output from Validate Scope, after ensuring that
the deliverables fully satisfied all requirements.
C. Accepted deliverables were output from Perform Quality Assurance, after
ensuring that deliverables complied with all identified quality metrics.
7. Accepted deliverables were output from Control Quality, after ensuring that
the deliverables complied with all quality requirements Magic Marketing
is engaged to create a social media marketing campaign for Silver Springs
Financial Services. The project is well underway. The acting project manager
at Magic Marketing is struggling to keep scope creep from rocketing out of
control. The client is constantly dreaming up new ideas — some good, some
horrible, but mostly ideas that are simply beyond the originally agreed and
contracted scope. What process is she performing and what are the key inputs
to this process?
A. Manage Scope Creep. Inputs include the Project management plan and the
Requirements traceability matrix
B. B. Control Scope, into which flow Requirements documentation and the
Requirements traceability matrix, as well as the Project management plan
C. Monitor and Control Scope. The inputs include the Project management
plan and Requirements documentation
D. Manage Scope. Inputs include the Project management plan, Requirements
traceability matrix, and work performance information
8. Variance analysis is a tool or technique used in which of the following

processes?
A. In Validate scope, to compare deliverables to requirements
B. In Create WBS, to compare hierarchical structure to templates and policies
for appropriate levels of decomposition
C. In Define Scope, to compare clarity of Project scope statement to
Organizational Process Assets, such as guidelines for clear written
communication
D. In Control Scope, as product scope is compared to scope baseline
9. The overall Project management plan includes subsidiary plans and baselines
from the various knowledge areas. What subsidiary plans and baselines
from the Scope Management Knowledge Area become a part of the Project
management plan?
A. Scope management plan
B. Scope management plan and Configuration management plan
C. Scope management plan and Requirements management plan
D. Scope management plan, Requirements management plan and Scope
baseline
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PRACTICE EXAM
10. In what process is the Scope baseline produced, and what does it contain?
A. The Scope baseline is created in Create Scope Baseline, and the output
includes the Project scope statement
B. Scope baseline is an output of Define Scope, and it includes the project scope
statement and the requirements traceability matrix.
C. Create WBS is the process in which the Scope baseline is created. Scope
baseline is an output of this process. It contains the approved version of the
project scope statement, the WBS and the WBS dictionary.
D. Scope baseline is an output of Create WBS and an input to Control Scope. It
includes the WBS and the WBS dictionary.
11. Carmen has drafted a proposed project scope statement for the case study
commissioned by Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS. She is meeting with the steering
committee, which is debating which requirements should be kept or deleted,
and tweaking the scope statement to try to reach agreement on a final version
that can be approved. The process is contentious, with several forceful
personalities digging in with opposing positions. What are the various group
decision-making techniques?
A. Unanimous decision, Majority, Faction aggregation, and Dictatorial edict
B. Unanimous decision, Majority, Faction aggregation, and Dictatorship
C. Unanimity, Majority, Plurality, and Dictatorship
D. Unanimous decision, Majority, Plurality, and Dictatorship
12. Carmen is acting as project manager at Magic Marketing. Her manager does
not understand or appreciate project management, and Carmen needs to
implement best practices in stealth mode, or they won’t be accepted. She
is working up a new project schedule and considering whether to use some
smoothing or perhaps some leveling. In this context, what are “Leveling” and
“Smoothing” and what are the differences between them?
A. They are tools or techniques used in Estimate Activity Durations to level or
smooth out resource utilization levels.
B. “Smoothing” and “Leveling” are both examples of Resource Optimization - a
tool or technique within Develop Schedule. Leveling achieves more level
utilization levels, while Smoothing achieves smoother utilization levels
C. “Smoothing” and “Leveling” are both examples of Resource Optimization.
Leveling achieves smoother utilization levels, while Smoothing achieves
utilization levels which are more level
D. “Smoothing” and “Leveling” are both examples of Resource Optimization
- a tool or technique within Develop Schedule. The former will not extend
project end date… the later will most likely do so.
243
PRACTICE EXAM
13. Carmen - acting as project manager at Magic Marketing - is wresting with a
project that needs to be completed by the end of next week, and achieving this
is looking unlikely, based on trends to date. She is considering Crashing the
project, but also studying for potential ways to fast-track the project. What are
“Crashing” and “Fast-tracking” and what are their differences?
A. They are forms of schedule compression. Crashing is where you crash or
bang heads to make people work faster and get the work done faster. Fast-
tracking is where you find ways to minimize wait times between processes.
B. Fast-tracking and Crashing are both methods of compressing schedule. The
former is less drastic, the later is more risky.
C. Crashing and Fast-tracking are two examples of Schedule Compression - a
tool or technique used within Control Schedule. The former involves adding
more resources, the later involves relaxing discretionary logic.
D. Crashing and Fast-tracking are two examples of Schedule Compression - a
tool or technique used within Develop Schedule. The later involves adding
more resources, the former involves relaxing discretionary logic.
14. Acting project manager at Magic Marketing, Carmen Diaz, is defining activities
for her a new ad campaign project in Lima. A local contract administrator will
be on the project team, billing twenty hours per week for a certain six week
period. His actual work load may fluctuate up and down dramatically, based on
need. There is no way to define or anticipate the need in advance. Which of the
following is a correct description of this?
A. The contract administrator is a PtTM (Part-time Team Member), based on
the 20 hour per week billing level
B. The contract administrator function can be characterized as “Apportioned
Effort” effort type, meaning that it is estimated as some percentage of
underlying discrete effort.
C. The contract administrator function can be characterized as a “Level of
Effort” (LOE) effort type and identified as such in the activity attributes for
the corresponding activities.
D. An engagement about to head South. Any project needing a contract
administrator should have a dedicated, full time contract administrator with
proper certifications and training.
15. An amusement park in Lima Peru has hired Magic Marketing to design an ad
campaign for a new water park feature called “Ride the Wave”. Carmen - acting
project manager at Magic Marketing - is doing detailed planning now for phase
2, as phase 1 is nearing completion. The focus group feedback from phase 1
deliverables has been consolidated into a summary report which will provide
valuable guidance during the planning of phase 2. What is this sort of planning
approach called?
A. Rolling wave, which is a form of new product development
B. Rolling wave planning, which is an iterative planning technique in which
work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work to
be done much later is planned in less detail.
C. JIT planning, in which detailed planning is done in a just in time fashion.
D. Scrum planning, in which near term work is planned in more detail than later
work
244
PRACTICE EXAM
16. Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS is building a new production facility in Alberta, Canada

under a design-build contract with a trusted general contractor. Winter is
approaching and the project manager wants to get the concrete foundation
poured before it gets too cold. Normally he would not do this without sign-off
of the finalized construction drawings. 90 percent construction drawings have
been approved and the remaining design focus is on ventilation ducting in the
roof area, so the decision is made to go ahead with the concrete foundation
pour, even though the “100% CDs” (final construction documents) have not yet
been approved. This is an example of which of the following?
A. The sloppy management practices that are usually found in design-build
projects
B. Fast-tracking
C. Crashing
D. Violation of PMI’s code of ethics and professional conduct, which requires
honesty and adherence to procedures.
17. Silver Springs Financial Services is doing a server refresh project as part of a
data center consolidation exercise. A lower level of server consolidation than
expected is being realized due to business-aligned IT staff resistance. As a
result, purchase costs for new hardware are trending high and the project is
running way over budget. On the other hand, server migration work is going
faster than planned and the project is taking less time than expected. Which of
the following is correct?
A. The TCPI required to bring the project in on budget is greater than one
B. CPI and SPI are both less than one
C. CPI is greater than one and SPI is less than one
D. CPI and SPI are both greater than one
They need to estimate costs quickly in order to respond to the RFP within a
two-week deadline. Which estimation approach would be most appropriate
and why?
A. Analogous estimating, because it can be done relatively quickly based on
similar projects done in the past.
B. Parametric estimating, because it can be done quickly and reasonably
accurately, based on simple, high-level information like estimated lines of
code, number of data elements, type of physical host infrastructure, etc.
C. Bottom-up estimating, because workers at the bottom know what it costs to
get the work done
D. Three-point estimating, because all you need to establish are three data
points and you are good to go
245
PRACTICE EXAM
19. The project manager at Silver Creek Financial Services is providing a project
status update. Cumulative CPI has been trending between 0.7 and 0.8 for the
past several months. Now people are starting to ask how the activity cost
estimate were determined in the first place. To address this request the project
manager should do which of the following?
A. Direct the estimating engineer to re-estimate all the activity costs and
prepare a presentation summarizing the cost breakdown structure
B. Ask the entire project team to work overnight to summarize all their past
activities, and associated labor and material costs so he can present this
information first thing the next morning
C. Summarize costs and cost variances for all activities completed to date
D. Identify the several activities with the largest cost variances and summarize
these along with the original cost estimates and the basis of those estimates
20. The marketing campaign is ahead of schedule, with an SPI of 1.08 and over
budget, with a CPU of 0.92. Assuming this continues all the way through until
completion of the project, what is the expected final cost of the project? The
originally estimated project cost was 735,000 Euro. The work completed so far
was expected to cost 350,000 Euro.
A. 765,435 Euro
B. 767,915 Euro
C. 798,913 Euro
D. 739,700 Euro
21. The marketing campaign is ahead of schedule, with an SPI of 1.08 and over
budget, with a CPU of 0.92. The primary cause of the budget overruns was a
weak player on the team, who has now been replaced. Assuming the rest of
the project progresses according to plan, what is the expected final cost of
the project? The originally estimated project cost was $735,000. The work
completed so far was expected to cost $350,000.
A. $798,913
B. $765,435
C. $767,915
D. $735,000
22. Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS has finally gotten a handle on their button hole defect
problem. They’ve identified a pattern of four attributes, which taken together,
will predict the button hole durability defect will manifest. The quality
assurance inspection practices at the button hole stations need to be sure to
examine the four attributes in a holistic way. Which of the seven basic quality
tools will be most suitable for this?
A. Visual inspection
B. Histograms
C. Fishbone Diagrams
D. Check sheets
246
PRACTICE EXAM
23. Quality control measurements at Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS include fabric tensile
strength tests. 15 cm wide by 23 cm long specimens are pulled until complete
separation or 80 percent reduction in coefficient of elasticity occurs, and
the peak tensile load is recorded. Which of the following is true of these
measurements?
A. They are gold plating
B. They are an output of Perform Quality Assurance
C. They are a tool or technique within Perform Quality Assurance
D. They are an output of Control Quality and an input to Perform Quality
Assurance
24. An engineer at InterSecNet is working on a traffic monitoring application

module. There is intermediate data that needs to be stored in cache. While it
can be stored sequentially, first in, first out, the engineer creates a sub-routine
to alphabetize the intermediate data, “just for the heck of it and because
it might help a tiny bit when reviewing log files after a system crash” (and
because it happens to be an assignment for a night school class he is taking).
What is this called?
A. Gold plating
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Direct and Manage Project Work
D. Perform Quality Assurance
25. Which of the following is a is a correct description of the “Cost of Quality”?

A. The additional cost required to inspect 100 percent of production,
necessitated by the high incidence rate of rejects
B. The cost of hiring a consultant to help improve processes to help reduce the
incidence rate of rejected product
C. The higher price seen by the customer for a custom-made shirt with
monogram
D. A and B
26. Which of the following is true of Flowcharts?

A. They may help in estimating the “Cost of Quality” in a process
B. They are also called “Process Maps”
C. They display the sequence of steps and branching possibilities for a process
D. All of the above
27. The project manager for the new product development project at Raz-ma-TAZ
RAGS is searching for ways to improve team performance. She is hoping that
establishing some agreed ground rules might help. Which of the following is an
accurate description of ground rules?
A. They are an output of Develop Project Team, and an input to Manage Project
Team
B. They establish clear expectations for acceptable behavior by project team
members.
C. They are a tool or technique used within Manage Project Team
D. They set expectations for behavior out in the field - i.e., “on the ground”.
247
PRACTICE EXAM
28. Which of the following is the correct list and sequence of Maslow’s Hierarchy
of Needs?
A. Physiological, Safety, Belonging, Esteem, Self-actualization
B. Safety, Physical, Belonging, Self-actualization, Esteem
C. Psychosomatic, Safety, Belonging, Esteem, Self-actualization
D. Physiological, Safety, Belonging, Self-actualization, Esteem
29. Interoperating Systems Corp recognizes that some of their project managers
are better than others at influencing team members and other stakeholders on
their projects. PMO management is trying to figure out how to cross-train and
spread the best to the rest. Which of the following are key influencing skills
listed in the PMBOK?
A. Ability to be persuasive and clearly articulate points and positions
B. Political connections within the organization
C. Loud deep voice, height, and force of personality
D. B and C
30. The project manager at Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS is an engineer, and she’s found that
she always needs to be particularly careful around creative types because
they are so different from her. The fashion designer on the new product
development team has been hurting team cohesion as he chats at the water
cooler - critiquing everyone’s manner of dress, hair, makeup, fashion sense and,
by extension, worth to the company and the human race in general. What tools
and techniques can the project manager use in Manage Project Team?
A. Change control review board (get the fashion designer off the team!)
B. Conflict management
C. Observation and conversation
D. B and C
31. Tools and techniques within Perform Quality Assurance include which of the
following?
A. Quality Audits, Process analysis and Quality management and control tools
B. Quality audits and Process analysis
C. Quality audits
D. Quality audits, Process analysis and the Seven basic quality tools
32. Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS is in the process of negotiating the purchase of a textile

company in Costa Rica as part of a project to diversify production capacity.
Negotiations are coming to a head and some of the terms and conditions are
getting quite technical and specific. As draft agreements are being sent around
to contract administrators on both sides, as well as to retained attorneys and
senior managers, which of the following communication styles would be most
appropriate?
A. Formal, Verbal
B. Informal, Written
C. Informal, verbal, with lots of voice inflection for emphasis
D. Formal, Written
248
PRACTICE EXAM
33. Project communications flow from Manage Communications to Control
Communications. What is this flow representing?
A. A link enabling project communications to be released to stakeholders as
appropriate, based on format, level of formality, level of detail and the level
of confidentiality of the information.
B. A data feed so that corrective actions can be taken if communications of
poor quality are being distributed.
C. Monitoring issue log, meeting minutes and progress reports to ensure that
open action items are not being ignored and left undone
D. All of the above
34. Performance reporting

A. Is a tool or technique within Manage Communications
B. Is an output of Manage Communications
C. Is an output of Control Communications
D. Is a tool or technique within Control Communications
35. Outputs from Manage Communications might include what?

A. Change requests
B. Expert judgment
C. Meetings
D. Project document updates, including updates to Issue log
36. The software development project requires an expensive Direct-Attached

Storage Device for testing. This device is sensitive to vibration and the tenant
one floor above runs a punch press from time to time that can create enough
vibration to cause issues with the storage device. Which of the following is an
example of risk acceptance?
A. Speak with the punch press operator, and ask him to please notify you when
he is about to operate the punch press, so that you can shut down the DASD
ahead of time
B. Mount the storage device in a special rack with elastic mounts to achieve
some level of vibration isolation
C. Purchase a service contract for the storage device so that it will be replaced
at no charge if it is damaged
D. Cross your fingers and hope you don’t run into trouble
37. Which of the following is true of the Risk management plan?

A. It is output from Plan Risk Management, and will include the RBS
B. It is where contingency response measures are developed
C. It uses SWOT analysis to help identify what might go wrong
D. The Risk Management Plan is where risks are evaluated and plotted to
highlight the greatest risks
249
PRACTICE EXAM
38. Your project is in the competitive phase, where you are still trying to win it.
To make your proposal more attractive, you partner with another firm, and
divide the scope of work each of you will do. Through this strategy you believe
you can increase your chances of winning the work. As a result however, your
profits will be just about half of what they would be if you were to propose a
solution by yourself. This is an example of what?
A. Illegal collusion and a clear violation of the PMI code of ethics and
professional conduct
B. Partner-preferred Contract (PPC)
C. A Risk Share strategy for a positive risk
D. A Risk Transfer strategy for a negative risk
39. How can risks be found?

A. By focusing on cost estimates with wide ranges
B. By focusing on task durations with wide ranges
C. By identifying positive side-effects of a project that might not be
immediately apparent
D. All of the above
40. Which of the following is true of the Risk management plan?

A. It is output from Plan Risk Management, and will include the RBS
B. It is where contingency response measures are developed
C. It uses SWOT analysis to help identify what might go wrong
D. The Risk Management Plan is where risks are evaluated and plotted to
highlight the greatest risks
41. 41. Upon acquisition of the business license in Russia, Silver Springs Financial
Services’ project manager provides formal notice to his contact at Petrov,
Pavlov and Partners that the contract for their legal services has been fully
satisfied. Which of the following is true of this formal notice?
A. It is be archived in Silver Springs records management system.
B. It is official project correspondence and hence will be a part of
Organizational Process Assets Updates flowing from the Control
Procurements process.
C. It is called ‘Deliverable acceptance’, and will become a part of Organizational
Process Assets Updates flowing as an output from the Close Procurements
process.
D. All of the above
42. Which of the following would be the strongest Proposal evaluation technique
for the procurement of a complex solution?
A. Select seller with lowest cost
B. Select seller with strongest relevant project experience, so long as cost is not
the highest
C. Select the seller proposal scoring highest on previously defined weighted
criteria
D. Select the seller with best references, so long as their financials appear
strong and they have no pending litigation as claimant
250
PRACTICE EXAM
43. Make or buy decisions are made in which process?
A. Control Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Plan Procurement Management
D. Make or buy decisions are an input to Conduct Procurements
44. Seller proposals are which of the following?

A. An output of Conduct Procurements
B. An input to Control Procurements
C. An input to Conduct Procurements
D. An output of Plan Procurements
45. The Stakeholders Engagement Assessment Matrix indicates various levels of

stakeholder engagement. What are these levels called?
A. Unaware; Resistant; Neutral; Supportive; Leading
B. Unaware; Reluctant; Neutral; Supportive; Leading
C. Unaware; Resistant; Neutral; Supportive; Charging
D. Aware; Resistant; Supportive; Leading
46. Interoperating Systems Corp is developing a new CRM system for Silver
Springs Financial Services. The marketing director is the sponsor, and he has
tasked a new associate with acting as the primary point of contact with ISC.
The project manager at ISC is frustrated because his team is suffering from a
lack of clear direction. They are spinning their wheels, trying to guess what
the customer wants, and running way behind schedule. The customer point of
contact is missing most meetings, is slow in replying to inquiries, and does not
seem to know what is really needed. What should the project manager do?
A. Tell the customer point of contact to “step it up” and start attending all
meetings and “get with the program”.
B. Document the problem by making it clear in meeting minutes who attended
and who did not.
C. Escalate the problem to the project Sponsor.
D. Submit a change request to extend the schedule to adapt to the project
challenges.
47. During the Identify Stakeholders process, you gather a lot of valuable insight
into various stakeholders. Some of this information is quite sensitive. How
should this information be handled?
A. It should all go into the Stakeholder Register and become a part of the
project documentation, in the spirit of transparency.
B. Any information which is personal and subjective should be disregarded and
not recorded.
C. At the discretion of the project manager, certain sensitive information may
be kept separate, as personal notes, and left out of the official Stakeholder
register, to avoid compromising the confidentiality understanding that was
explicitly established when the information was shared.
D. Any information that is so sensitive that it cannot go into the Stakeholder
register should be immediately reported to the project Sponsor.
251
PRACTICE EXAM
48. Which of the following is an output of Manage Stakeholder Engagement and
an input to Control Stakeholder Engagement?
A. Change log
B. Issue log
C. Stakeholder concerns
D. Stakeholder issues
49. Raz-ma-TAZ RAGS is developing a joint venture with Bonnets of Beverly Hills.
The project manager at TAZ RAGS discovers that his primary point of contact
at Bonnets is a former fellow Crew team mate from when they were in college
together. They used to be best buds back in those days. The joint venture
involves large investments, and the TAZ RAGS project manager want to keep
everything above board, naturally. What should he do?
A. Recuse himself from the project to avoid any potential conflict of interest
B. Ask for a different point of contact at Bonnets, to avoid any appearance of a
conflict of interest
C. Cancel plans for the joint venture, as the potential for conflict is just too
high
D. Disclose his former friendship and association with the contact at
Bonnets to his manager and other senior stakeholders, and receive their
concurrence before continuing work on the joint venture
50. A project manager at Silver Springs Financial Services is contacted by

someone on the Ethics Review Board at PMI, who is investigating the head of
Silver Springs’ IT PMO. Apparently the head of this PMO is accused of sharing
extensive amounts of PMI copyright-protected material with his staff, to help
them get PMP certified with minimal expense. The project manager tells the
IT PMO head about the call from PMI and the PMO head orders him to “stay
the heck out of it, and mind his own business, or suffer the consequences”.
What should the project manager do?
A. Keep these issues within the company, reporting the situation to his own
manager, but otherwise leaving it alone.
B. Get back to work and pretend he never heard anything.
C. Report the contact from PMI to the Silver Springs’ Managing Director of
Compliance and Legal
D. Cooperate with PMI’s investigation
252
ANSWERS TO
CHAPTER END QUIZ
ANSWERS TO CHAPTER END QUIZ
2. ORGANIZATIONAL INFLUENCES & PROJECT LIFE CYCLE
1. Option C is correct .
Projectized organizations are focused on the project itself. One issue with this
type of structure is determining what to do with project team members when
they are not actively involved in the project. One alternative is to release them
when they are no longer needed.
The situation describes an organization divided into its functional
responsibilities. A project manager will often have to deal with staff and
resources from different areas across the organization that are ultimately
controlled by the functional manager.
This situation describes a matrix organization where the functional manager
retains most of the power. Therefore, it is a weak matrix, reflecting the small
amount of power the project manager has to influence resources and budget on
the project.
Knowing the project life cycle and how projects and project management fit
gives you the context and provides a basic framework for managing a project,
regardless of the specific work involved.
5. Option D is correct.
This is a functional organization with weak project manager authority.
6. Option A is correct .
In a functional organization, you would have least support for the project and
the functional manager has the authority to assign resources.
7. Option B is correct .
In a weak matrix, the functional manager has the power. There is no such thing as
a functional matrix, and tight matrix means co-location.
8. Option D is correct .
The description is one of a weak matrix organization where the project manager
does not have much power.
255
3. PROJECT MANAGEMENT PROCESSES
“Authorizes” means officially start a project. That occurs during the initiating
process group.
The Planning process is where requirements are fleshed out, stakeholders are
identified, and estimates on project costs and time are made.
There is a minimum requirement of personnel and hence minimum cost at the
project initiation stage.
4. Option B is correct.
In the middle stages, the resources and cost usage is maximum.
It is easy to make changes to project goals and approach at the initial stage.
Stakeholders have maximum influence at this stage.
Project Time Management involves the following processes: Define Activities,
Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity Durations,
Develop Schedule, and Control Schedule.
Documenting the requirements and meeting them is one of the key things
you can do to ensure customer satisfaction. The requirements describe what
the customer is looking for, and the final product is compared against them to
determine whether all of the requirements were met.
Notice the use of the word “detailed.” Such a budget is created during the
planning process group.
Choice A is the most appropriate.

Since communications is #1 reason for a successful or unsuccessful project,
Choice B is better than Choice A. Choices C and D are parts of the monitoring
and controlling process group
256
4. INTEGRATION MANAGEMENT
Aspects of corporate culture, such as risk tolerances, are an example of
Enterprise Environmental Factors.
Policies and procedures fall in the category of Organizational Process Assets .
BCR stands for Benefit-to-Cost Ratio. A BCR of greater than one is ‘GOOD’, as it
means benefits exceed costs. Choice B is correct.
IRR stands for Internal Rate of Return. A positive IRR is good - it means the
project is profitable to the degree that a discount rate would have to be raised to
13 percent (in this case) to make the project just break even. So long as the actual
discount rate is less than this, the project has a positive NPV. The simple fact you
need to remember for the test, is that larger IRRs are better than smaller IRRs.
It is not possible to compare NPV, BCR and IRR figures directly except as ‘good’
or ‘bad’. Since both Projects A and B have ‘good’ figures, we can’t say which of
the two is better than the other. It is clear that Project C has a ‘bad’ figure, with
a negative IRR.
PMBOK section 4.1.1.1
The question asks about the first two processes, specifically within the
Integration Knowledge Area. This eliminates Choices C and D. Choice B is
correct.
As she integrates the various subsidiary plans into a single document, she is
developing the overall project plan, so the process she is performing is called
Develop Project Management Plan, Choice C
Choice C is correct. Validated changes are output from Control Quality, after
ensuring that the approved change requests were properly implemented.

Approved change requests are an output of Perform Integrated Change Control,
where change requests are reviewed and either approved or rejected. PMBOK
section 4.5.3.1
257
5. SCOPE MANAGEMENT
This is a description of Validate scope, which is the process in which deliverables
are reviewed with the customer and compared to requirements, to ensure that
the requirements are fully satisfied, prior to beginning the Close Project or Phase
process.
The project scope statement, as output from Define Scope, includes Scope
description, Acceptance criteria, Deliverables, Exclusions, Constraints and
Assumptions. The Approved version of the scope statement is not created until
later, within the Create WBS process, and is found in the output Scope baseline.
Hence Choice B is not correct.
The Requirements traceability matrix is an output of Collect Requirements
and an input to Validate Scope and to Control Scope. It will list identified
requirements and associated information. See PMBOK section 5.2.3.2 and
Figure 5-6. Also Figure 5-1.
4. Option A is correct.
In addition to the Scope management plan, another output of Plan Scope
Management is the Requirements management plan, a subsidiary plan of the
overall Project management plan. The Requirements management plan is where
Configuration management activities will be defined and planned. PMBOK
section 5.1.3.2
The “hundred percent rule” states that 100 percent of the work in the project is
covered within the WBS. Any work not included in the WBS is therefore NOT a
part of the project. Reference: PMI’s “Practice Standard for Work Breakdown
Structures”, 2nd ed., section 2.4
6. Option C is correct.
See PMBOK section 5.4.2.1 Choice D is incorrect for a couple of reasons. The
WBS decomposition happens first, the further decomposition to individual
activities happens subsequently. The work breakdown structure takes a form
designed not only for cost accounting purposes, but also for management and
reporting of scope and schedule as well.
The code of account IDs associated with each work package are found in the
WBS Dictionary. PMBOK section 5.4.3.1
As the project manager considers alternative project scenarios, whether driven
by cost or other considerations, such as risk,heis engaged in Alternatives
generation, a tool or technique within Define Scope. Careful consideration of
scope options is neither gold plating nor dithering.
The question is describing a situation in which additional requirements
are being explored, and Interviewing is the method being used.

Verified deliverables are an input to Validate Scope, and Accepted deliverables
are an output. Study PMBOK Figure 5-1.
258
6. TIME MANAGEMENT
See PMBOK Figure 6-1
The Scope baseline is an input to Define Activities. It includes the WBS, which is
further decomposed in the process of defining activities
All the other choices are distractors
All the other choices are valid outputs from Define Activities
The Schedule baseline is created in Develop Schedule and is an output of that
process. PMBOK section 6.6.3.1
Schedule forecasts are in output of Control Schedule. See PMBOK section
6.7.3.2
Resource optimization techniques are a tool or technique within Develop
Schedule, to adjust resource load levels to make them less variable. PMBOK
section 6.6.2.4
The questions states “The tasks for this phase have all been defined” which tells
us that Define Activities has just been completed. The next Process to be done is
Sequence Activities.
“Finish-to-Start” means: Predecessor activity must finish before successor
activity can start. It is the most common of the four “precedence relationships”
seen in PDM (“precedence diagramming method”). You read these things
from left to right, andthe left corresponds to earlier in time as well -that is, the
predecessor is on the left, the successor is on the right side ofthe relationship
statement.

The description is of a “Level of Effort” type of effort, which would be reflected
in the activity attributes for the corresponding activities. See PMBOK section
6.2.3.2
259
7. PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT
Bottom-up estimates are made by looking at the very most granular level of
detail appropriate for the task and have potential to yield the most accurate
estimates, albeit with significant effort. Where tasks lend themselves to being
estimated with parametric estimating techniques, this can certainly be adopted
within a bottom-up estimating effort.
Option B is correct .
Fixed Formula is appropriate for very short duration activities. See Section
7.3.1.1 and Table 7-2 in PMI’s “Practice Standard for Earned Value Management”,
2. available at no charge to PMI members. This is one of many examples where you
need a little more information than you will find in the PMBOK alone, in order to
do well on the PMP exam.
Management reserves are not a part of the Cost baseline. See PMBOK section
7.3.3.1. Also note Figure 7-8, where you can see that Cost baseline plus
Management reserve equals “Project Budget”.
4. Choice D is correct
5. Choice A is correct
Apportioned effort is where an activity’s earned value is estimated and assigned
as a percent of some underlying discrete effort which it supports. See section
7.3.2 in PMI’s Practice Standard for Earned Value Management. Abstract effort
is a distractor.
CPI = EV / AC = 525,000 / 675,000 = 0.778
CPI is greater than 1 -this is good -project is under budget.
SPI is less than 1 -this is bad -project is behind schedule.
BAC = $525,000; EV = (2/3)*BAC = $350,000; AC = $400,000 CPI = EV/
AC=0.875 EAC = BAC*1.2 (the final budget should not exceed by more than
20%)= $630,000 TCPI = (BAC-EV) / (EAC-AC) = ($525,000 - $350,000) /
($630,000 - $400,000) = 0.761
Choice A represents an Enterprise Environmental Factor. Choices B and C are
both Organizational Process Assets.
260
8. PROJECT QUALITY MANAGEMENT
Population testing means testing the entire output of the production plant.
Since the testing is destructive, this means that the entire output would have to
be scrapped as a result. In a situation like this, a suitable sample testing scheme
needs to be devised.
See PMBOK section 8.1.2.6 and read further on population testing and statistical
sampling.
In a controlled state, the upper control limit be above the long-term average, and
below the upper specification limit. See PMBOK section 8.1.2.3
Scatter diagrams that cluster to define a clear best-fit line, help identify strong
relation (Correlation) between parameters, and might be useful in identifying the
parameter that is associated with and causing the flaws occurring in the punch
press operation.
5. Choice B is correct
Flow charts help define and visualize the sequence of steps in a process, which
might be helpful in designing materials flow towards a production station.
See definition for “Quality” in PMBOK glossary at page 556.
See first sentence of PMBOK section 8.2
Pareto diagrams are good for identifying the small, 20 percent of causes that
account for the large 80% of problems.
See PMBOK sections 8.1.2.4 and 8.1.2.5

See PMBOK section 8.3.2.4: “All approved change requests should be reviewed
to verify that they were implemented as approved”.
261
9. PROJECT HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
See PMBOK Figure 9-7
Team performance assessments are an output of Develop Project Team and an
input to Manage Project Team. Compare 9.3 and 9.4 in Figure 9-1 of the PMBOK
The Staffing management plan is a sub-set of the Human Resource Management
Plan, which is itself a subsidiary plan to the overall Project Management Plan.
The Staffing management plan addresses staff acquisition, resource calendars,
staff releaseplan, training needs, recognition and rewards, compliance and
safety.See PMBOK section 9.1.3.1
Change requests are output from the process Manage Project Team. PMBOK
Section 9.4.3.1
The Issue log is an input to Manage Project Team. Choice B is correct. See
Only alluded to in the PMBOK at section 9.1.2.3. Search “Situational Leadership”
and “Ken Blanchard” for references and additional reading.
Choice A contains the correct list of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, in the correct
sequence, from most basic to the very highest level, Self-actualization. While not
covered in the PMBOK, you may very well see this on the exam. For additional
reading, Wikipedia has a good article on this.

PMBOK Section 9.4.2.3 lists the following five general techniques:
Withdraw / Avoid
Smooth / Accommodate
Compromise / Reconcile
Force / Direct
262
10. PROJECT COMMUNICATIONS MANAGEMENT
The most fundamental components of the communications model are the sender,
the receiver, and the message itself.
Communication methods is a tool or technique within Plan Communications, and
includes Interactive, Push and Pull.
”The medium is the technology medium and includes the mode of
communication…” (PMBOK Section 10.1.2.3).
N * (N-1)/2 = (7 * 6)/2 = 42/2 = 21 (N = 7, including the project manager).
Pull communication is used for large volumes of information or large audiences
(PMBOK Section 10.1.2.4)
Performance reporting is a tool or technique within Manage Communications
A status report shows overall status of the project, including risks and current risk
assessments
You have to include in the count, so to begin with you need 21 channels – 7
members would need 7*(7-1)/2. The changes effectively add one more person
to the team size, so you need 28 channels – 8 members would need 8*(8-1)/2.
You need to add 28 – 21 = 7 channels for an effective communication to
happen.
Receive must decode message to ensure it was successfully received before he
can acknowledge receipt

Project document updates output from Manage Communications may include
updates to the Issue log (PMBOK Section 10.2.3.3)
263
11. PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT
Risk Breakdown Structure is a way of structuring risk categories and is defined in
Plan Risk Management (See PMBOK Section 11.1.3.1)
The Probability and Impact Matrix will allow you to see the risks that have the
highest probability of occurrence and impact if they do occur. Since it is purely
qualitative, it cannot reliably be counted upon to determine the expected
monetary value (EMV) of a risk. It is a tool or technique within Perform
Qualitative Risk Analysis.
(See PMBOK Figure 11-15)
Monte Carlo Analysis involves running a math model through with varying inputs
to learn the range of outputs of a complex system. It can be used to simulate all
or a part of a project.
Option B describes very specific conditions that will be taken as indicating that
an out of stock condition is imminent. Option A describes the response. Option
C is a bit late, the risk has hit full force by this time. Option D does not describe
the risk trigger itself in any detail, and suggests a passive waiting for receipt of a
trigger, rather than a pro-active monitoring for its manifestation.
The risk of damage is reduced but not eliminated, so this is an example of risk
mitigation. If we assume option A is fully effective, then it is risk avoidance,
rather than risk mitigation. In option B it is clear that it is not fully
effective: “some level of vibration isolation”, so it is the best answer.
The risk owner is responsible for seeing to it that agreed-upon actions are taken
as required, when a risk event occurs. (Section 8.8.4 of PMI’s “Practice Standard
for Project Risk Management”, available to PMI members on PMI’s web site).
This is an example of material you may see on the exam, which is not covered in
the PMBOK.
Risks are suggested in cost or duration estimates with wide ranges. Positive risks
might be found if careful thought is given to positive side-effects of a project.
(PMBOK Sections 11.2.1.7 and 11.2.1.8)
0.8*2000 + 0.15*3500 + 0.05*8200 = 2535. The currency is Swiss Francs

SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats) is a tool or technique
used within Identify Risks
264
12. PROJECT PROCUREMENT MANAGEMENT
Make-or-buy analysis is a tool or technique used in Plan Procurement
Management. Make-or-buy decisions are made within this process, so option C
is correct. Make-or-buy decisions is an information flow from Plan Procurement
Management, flowing on into Conduct Procurements, so option D is certainly a
true statement... but it does not answer the question.
Time and materials is generally the preferred contract type for staff
augmentation situations. PMBOK Section 12.1.1.9, last paragraph.
Activity resource requirements are an input to Plan Procurement Management.
Option C is correct. Compare PMBOK Sections 12.2.2.7 and 12.4.2.2
This situation calls for an RFP. The resulting contract may very well be a 10-year
lease with early exit clause, but that would be found in the agreement, not in the
procurement documents.
See PMBOK section 12.2.2.1
The situation describes Procurement negotiations within the Close Procurements
process, in which final settlements are worked-out between buyer and seller. The
threat of bad references may be just about the only leverage the buyer has at this
point. PMBOK Section 12.4.2.2
The Request for Information (RFI) is the more appropriate procurement
document approach to explore the availability and capabilities of new
technologies in the market.
This is a typical change request situation. It may or may not be a legitimate
request… it is up to Change Control Board at Silver Springs Financial Services
to make that determination. It is not the project manager’s place to simply say
‘no’ (or ‘yes’, for that matter). It is too soon to be spinning cycles looking for other
options for the translation services.

Procurements should always be closed before the project is closed. Otherwise,
you might see the seller submitting additional expenses later-on. See PMBOK
section 12.4.3.1

There is resulting $50k cost savings. $25k of the savings goes to the seller and the
other $25k goes to the buyer. The actual cost of $510k and $25k savings makes
the total value of the contract worth $535k. [PMPBok® Guide 12.1.1.9]
265
13. PROJECT STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT
The Stakeholder register is an output of Identify Stakeholders and an input to
Plan Stakeholder Management. Compare PMBOK sections 13.1.3.1 and 13.2.1.
Persistent problems that need resolution should be recorded and tracked in the
Issue log. The problem may not warrant being included in the agenda of every
project meeting that happens. PMBOK section 13.3.3.1
The Power Interest Grid is an example of Stakeholder Analysis, used in Identify
Stakeholders. PMBOK section 13.1.2.1
By keeping the most current information in a repository where everyone can
access it as needed, the volume of information flying around via email can be
dramatically reduced. This is what is meant by ‘Pull’ communications -people pull
what they need, when they need it. Now the trick is just making sure they know
what they need, when they need it, and how to find it
The Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix is an example of Analytical
techniques used in Plan Stakeholder Management. PMBOK section 13.2.2.3
The Issue log is an output of Manage Stakeholder Engagement and an input to
Control Stakeholder Engagement. Compare PMBOK sections 13.3.3.1 and
13.4.1.2
Procurement documents are an input to Identify Stakeholders, used to help
identify key stakeholders. PMBOK section 13.1.1.2
Building trust and Overcoming resistance to change are both listed as
Interpersonal skills in Manage Stakeholder Engagement, as is Resolving conflict,
but not Minimizing conflict. PMBOK section 13.3.2.2
Change requests are an output of Manage Stakeholder Engagement and the
Change log is an input to Manage Stakeholder Engagement. See PMBOK Figure
13-1.

The customer is not always right… but he is always the customer. He needs to
be handled tactfully. You can’t tell him he is full of baloney, and you can’t just
ignore his bad ideas… but you have a duty to steer him in the right direction.
Tactisalmost always a good strategy.
266
14. PMI’S CPMI’S CODE OF ETHICS AND PROFESSIONAL
CONDUCT
Choice A is correct. The Code is not included within the PMBOK, but should be
studied for the exam. It can be found on PMI’s web site. One place where it can
be found is within the PMP Handbook, under “Certifications”.
Mandatory and Aspirational
The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct applies to all PMI members
and non-members who hold PMI certifications, or who apply to commence a PMI
certification process, or who work for PMI in a volunteer capacity
Choice A is an aspirational standard within the Responsibility section of the code
(Code, section 2.2.3)
Choice A is an aspirational standard within the Responsibility section
Choices B, C, and D are aspirational standards within the Honesty section of the
code. Code, sections 5.2.3, 5.2.4 and 5.2.5
Practitioners who fail to abide by the mandatory standards may be subject to
disciplinary procedures before PMI’s Ethics Review Committee. Code, section
1.5
Choice C is an aspirational standard within the Responsibility section. Code,
section 2.2.4
When it comes to PMI’s intellectual property, the correct answer for the exam is
generally going to be, report the situation to PMI. In most other situations you
follow the chain of command and keep things within your own company as much
aspossible… but not when PMI’s intellectual property is concerned.

The previous acquaintance relationship is minor enough that it can probably be
accepted, so long as it is fully disclosed and approval to proceed is received from
management within both companies. The PM and the contact at Bonnets might
be the best two people to make the joint venture a success, and the joint venture
might be far too important to cancel over such a minor potential conflict of
interest. In situations like this disclosure is the anesthetic of choice.
management within both companies. The PM and the contact at Bonnets might be
the best two people to make the joint venture a success, and the joint venture might
be far too important to cancel over such a minor potential conflict of interest. In
situations like this disclosure is the anesthetic of choice.
267
ANSWERS TO
PRACTICE EXAM
ANSWERS TO PRACTICE EXAM
With so little appreciation for project management, the company’s
organizational structure is most likely functional.
PMBOK section 2.2
The question is asking for the net present value (NPV), which means the present
value of the return, net of the investment. In other words, calculate the present
value of the return so that it is expressed in time zero dollars, comparable to the
investment dollars, and then subtract the investment dollars from this present
value figure to get the net present value. “Net of the investment” means “after
subtracting out the investment. This is the meaning of “Net” in Net Present
Value.
1,500,000 / (1.0425)^3 - 535,000 = 789,000 = Choice A
It is not possible to compare NPV, BCR and IRR figures directly except as ‘good’
or ‘bad’. Since both Projects A and B have ‘good’ figures, we can’t say which of
the two is better than the other. It is clear that Project C has a ‘bad’ figure, with a
negative IRR.
As she integrates the various subsidiary plans into a single document, she is
developing the overall project plan, so the process she is performing is called
Develop Project Management Plan, Choice C
Accepted deliverables were output from Validate Scope, after ensuring that the
deliverables fully satisfied all requirements. PMBOK section 5.5.3.1
PMBOK section 5.6.1
PMBOK section 5.6
See PMBOK section 4.2.1.2 and sections 5.1.3.1, 5.1.3.2 and 5.4.3.1

See PMBOK section 5.4.3.1

Unanimity, Majority, Plurality, and Dictatorship are the four group decision
making techniques listed in the PMBOK. PMBOK section 5.2.2.5

”Smoothing” and “Leveling” are both examples of Resource Optimization - a tool
or technique within Develop Schedule. Smoothing is a less severe form, adjusting
resource levels to reduce the ups and downs, but only within available float, so
as not to push out the final project end date. Leveling goes further and typically
will extend the project end date, but will also make the resource utilization levels
even less variable. See PMBOK section 6.6.2.4
271

Crashing and Fast-tracking are two examples of Schedule Compression - a tool
or technique used within Control Schedule. Crashing involves adding more
resources (“putting more cooks in the kitchen”), Fast-tracking involves relaxing
discretionary logic - doing some tasks in parallel that would normally be done in
series, for example. PMBOK section 6.6.2.7

The description is of a “Level of Effort” type of effort, which would be reflected
in the activity attributes for the corresponding activities. See PMBOK section
6.2.3.2

The planning described is Rolling wave planning, a form of progressive
elaboration. It is a tool or technique within Define Activities. PMBOK section
6.2.2.2

The situation describes a relaxation of the normal preferred sequence of tasks in
which 100 percent complete construction documents are approved before the
concrete foundation is poured. In the interest of time, the discretionary logic can
be relaxed. There is often some associated risk involved. The preferred sequence
of tasks was preferred for a reason! Choice A is a distractor, although there are
some people who feel this way about design-build project engagements.

With costs running over plan, the cumulative CPI is less than one, and the TCPI
required to bring the project in on budget will need to be greater than one in
order to compensate for this. The SPI is greater than one, so choice B is not
correct (“project is taking less time than expected”).

Analogous estimating is going to allow you to make a quick estimate, based on
similar past project experience. Parametric estimating is going to take longer,
as you will need to create estimates for the relevant parameters which may be
difficult so early in the project life cycle.

By focusing on just the several tasks with the largest cost variances and the
original cost estimates and the basis of those estimate (which should all be
captured in the project documentation), the project engineer should be able to
present a clear, high-level summary of the main cost over runs and where the
estimates proved wide of the mark. Some detailed effort may be required to drill
into the cost variances to determine where the basis of the estimates proved
wrong. If the basis of the estimates are not carefully recorded in the first place, as
the estimates are being made, the other fire-drill scenarios are a real risk.

The proper EVM formula to use for this scenario is:
EAC = AC + (BAC-EV) / CPI * SPI
We know the BAC = 735,000 Euro
We know the EV = 350,000 Euro
We know CPI = EV / AC, and we have the EV, so we can find the AC as AC = EV /
CPI
AC = 350,000 / 0.92 = 380,435 Euro
EAC = 380,435 +(735,000 - 350,000) / (0.92 * 1.08)
EAC = 380,435 + 387,480 = 767,915 Euro
272
The correct EVM equation to use for this scenario is:
EAC = AC + (BAC-EV)
BAC = $735,000
EV = $350,000
We need the AC...
We know CPI = EV / AC = 0.92 and we can use this to find the AC, as
AC = EV / CPI (don’t memorize this - it is just a simple algebraic manipulation
from CPI = EV / AC)
AC = 350,000 / 0.92 = 380,435
EAC = AC + (BAC-EV) = 380,435 + (735,000 - 350,000) = $765,435

Check sheets are used to organize facts and collect data, and are especially
useful for gathering attributes data while inspecting for defects. PMBOK section
8.1.2.3

Quality control measurements are an output of Control Quality and an input
to Perform Quality Assurance. Compare PMBOK Figures 8-11 and 8-8, or see
Figure 8-1.

This is gold plating - going beyond requirements, spending more time on a
task than is needed, and basically steeling time from the project. No PMBOK
reference

Choices A and B are both correct. “Cost of Quality” refers both to the cost of
ensuring quality and the cost of the consequences when it is not achieved.


Ground rules establish clear expectations for acceptable behavior by project
team members. They are a tool or technique found within Develop Project Team.

Choice A contains the correct list of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, in the correct
sequence, from most basic to the very highest level, Self-actualization. While not
covered in the PMBOK, you may very well see this on the exam. See your study
guide and your flashcards. For additional reading, Wikipedia has a good article on
this.

See “Influencing” in PMBOK section 9.4.2.4

Conflict management and Observation and conversation are tools and
techniques within Manage Project Team. PMBOK section 9.4.2

Tools and techniques within Perform Quality Assurance include Quality Audits,
Process analysis and Quality management and control tools. See PMBOK Figure
8-8.
273

Contract drafts, going back-and-forth will need to be in writing and quite formal -
using the actual contract format and context.

Compare PMBOK Sections 10.2.3.1. and 10.3.1.2. Project communications
are created, distributed, received, etc. in Manage Communications… and
they are “monitored, acted upon and released to stakeholders” in Control
Communications. So any faux pas where info is sent to someone who should
not receive it is a break-down in the Control Communications process.
Communications of poor quality will be addressed through feedback as a result
of Control Communications. Failure to complete action items will be addressed
through the Control Communications process.

Performance reporting is a tool or technique within Manage Communications

Project document updates output from Manage Communications may include
updates to the Issue log (PMBOK Section 10.2.3.3)

Risk acceptance means you take no preventive measures - you just take your
chances

The Risk management plan is output from Plan Risk Management, and will
include any Risk Breakdown Structures that have been created.

Winning the project and earning some profit is a positive risk. Taking a lower
profit in return for a higher probability of occurrence is an example of the ‘Share’
strategy for positive risks

Risks are suggested in cost or duration estimates with wide ranges. Positive risks
might be found if careful thought is given to positive side-effects of a project.
(PMBOK Sections 11.2.1.7 and 11.2.1.8)

The Risk management plan is output from Plan Risk Management, and will
include any Risk Breakdown Structures that have been created.

Compare PMBOK sections 12.4.2.3, 12.3.3.5, and 12. 4.3.2

Assuming the scheme is well-designed, and well-scored, the weighted decision
criteria will account for all of the factors that need to be considered, with proper
weighting of each criterion.

Make or buy analysis is a tool or technique used in Plan Procurement
Management. Make or buy decisions are made within this process, so option C
is correct. Make or buy decisions is an information flow from Plan Procurement
Management, flowing on into Conduct Procurements, so option D is certainly a
true statement... but it does not answer the question.
274
Seller proposals are submitted by the sellers, and they are an input to Conduct
Procurements. (PMBOK Section 12.2.1.4)

Unaware; Resistant; Neutral; Supportive; Leading are the correct levels of
stakeholder engagement found in the Stakeholder Engagement Assessment
Matrix.

The project Sponsor should be viewed as a key point for escalations, and this
situation calls for immediate escalation. It is far past time to just tell the associate
to “step it up”… it does not appear that he is even capable of doing so

Sometimes stakeholders will share information with the project manager that
is intended to help him manage certain other stakeholders, but which is not
intended for wider publication. Such confidences should generally be respected,
or they won’t ever been shared again.

The Issue log is an output of Manage Stakeholder Engagement and an input
to Control Stakeholder Engagement. Compare PMBOK sections 13.3.3.1 and
13.4.1.2

management within both companies. The PM and the contact at Bonnets might
be the best two people to make the joint venture a success, and the joint venture
might be far too important to cancel over such a minor potential conflict of
interest. In situations like this disclosure is the anesthetic of choice.

The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct requires practitioners subject
to the code to cooperate with PMI investigations into ethics violations. Code -
see comment following section 2.3.4

management within both companies. The PM and the contact at Bonnets might be
the best two people to make the joint venture a success, and the joint venture might
be far too important to cancel over such a minor potential conflict of interest. In
situations like this disclosure is the anesthetic of choice.
275
FLASHCARDS
FINISH -to- START
(Predecessor -to- Successor Precedence Relationship)
FINISH -to- START Reading from left to right...
Precedence Relationship Predecessor activity A must FINISH before Successor
activity (B) can START
(Most common / default relationship)
1. Fixed Formula (e.g. 25 / 75) - tasks scheduled to take less than

two reporting periods.
Progress Reporting...Four 2. Weighted Milestone (e.g. 30% at first milestone, balance upon
methods of recognizing completion of the task)
Earned Value (Of some discrete 3. Percent Complete (e.g. estimate 40% of task is complete, recog-
effort) nize 40% of task PV)
4. Physical Measurement (e.g. 270 miles of fiber optic cable layed
along route)
1. Discrete Effort (measurable work accomplished)

2. Apportioned Effort (e.g. QA, Inspection, Testing,
Three types of Effort involved in at 10% of underlying discrete effort)
creating Earned Value 3. Level of Effort (e.g. PM, Contract Admin, at $X
perreporting period - never see any SV)
What is ‘Quality’?
Quality “The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill
(Definition per PMBOK) requirements”
* PMBOK, pg. 228
What is ‘Quality Assurance’?

Quality Assurance “Auditing quality requirements and the results of quality control
(Definition per measurements to ensure appropriate quality standards
PMBOK) are used”
* PMBOK, pg. 242
Created “Fitness for Use” concept

(Meeting actual needs of customers / stakeholders)
Juran Also, big believer in value of using the Pareto Principle
(80-20 rule)
279
Created the “Total Quality Management” (TQM) concept Key
points:
- Be proactive, not reactive (in ensuring quality)
- Utilize leadership and accountability
Edward Deming - Measure and strive for constant improvement
- Continuous Improvement
- Testing early on, to identify problems early-on.
Created “Zero Defects” concept

(Do it right the first time to avoid re-work and extra cost in the
Philip Crosby
long run)
Invented by Motorola, 1981 Registered Service and Trade Mark

6 Sigma of Motorola. black belts, green belts, etc. Provides margin for a
(Quality Mgmt Methodology) later 1.5 Sigma shift in mean DMAIC
• Define • Measure • Analyze • Improve • Control
X - old school, top-down specific direction, labor does not want

to work.
McGregor’s Theory X and Y Y - newer, management provides big picture
and direction, labor wants to work and enjoys it
• Self Actualization
• Esteem
Maslow’s Hierarchy • Belonging
of Needs • Safety
• Physiological
He says two main areas for workplace success:

(1) Hygiene (safe environment, steady pay, stable job)
Herzberg Motivational Theory (2) Motivating Agents (non-financial in nature -- opportunity to
improve, education, responsibility)
280
Revolves around a mix of: Achievement (being successful)
Power (influencing others)
McClelland’s Achievement Affiliation (belonging)
Theory Aside: this aligns closely with Daniel Pink’s
“Autonomy, Mastery, Purpose” keys to motivation
Interpersonal Skills
(Examples of some that project managers use
most often):
Interpersonal Skills 1. Leadership
(HR Context) 2. Influencing
3. Effective Decision Making
Building trust
Resolving conflict
Interpersonal Skills Active listening
(SH Mgmt Context) Overcoming resistance to change
Interpersonal Skills “Ability to establish & maintain relationships with other people”
(PMBOK Definition)
Risk Strategies Negative Risks: Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept

(for positive and negative risks) Positive Risks: Exploit, Enhance, Share, Accept
• Scatter Diagrams • Fishbone Diagrams

• Tally Sheets (aka chec sheets) • Flowcharts • Histograms
• Control Charts • Pareto Diagrams
7QC Tools • Scatter Fish! Tally Flow, History Control: Pareto
• (“Tally Ho” becomes “Tally Flow”)
• -- History, please control this character named Pareto!
281
PTA
Point of Total Assumption
PTA is Seller’s COST where PRICE = CEILING PRICE
PTA PTA = TARGET COST + (CEILING PRICE - TARGET
PRICE) / BUYER’S SHARE
Responsibility -- know and uphold rules and laws; report unethi-

cal and legal violations
Respect -- negotiate in good faith; don’t be self-serving or
PMI’s Code of Ethics and abusive;
Professional Conduct The respect property rights of others
Four Core Fairness -- duty to make decisions and act impartially and
Values at its Foundation objectively.
Honesty - duty to understand the truth and to act in a truthful
manner
Run Rabbit -- Faster! Hurry!
Staffing Management Plan - a sub-set of the HR Management

Plan
Includes:
- Staff acquisition
Staffing Management Plan
- Resource calendars
Values at its Foundation
- Staff release plan
- Training needs
- Recognition & rewards
- Compliance &Safety
Unaware
Resistant
Neutral
Supportive
Stakeholder Engagement - Leading
Levels of engagement You will see these used in the ‘Stakeholder Engagement
Matrix’
- an example of a tool or technique called “Analytical
Techniques”
which falls within “Plan SH Management”
Panel of experts is polled. Results kept anonymous. Two or

more rounds of polling with feedback from previous polls
Delphi Technique should tend to converge towards “right” answer
“Tuckman ladder of team development”:

Forming -- team first meets and gets acquainted with the
project and
each-other Storming
Norming -- team begins to work together and adjust to
Five Stages of Team each-other,
Development with some level of trust
Performing -- team functions as a well-organized, interdepen-
dent unit.
Adjourning -- team members move on from project as work is
completed
282
Withdrawing / Avoiding
Smoothing / Accommodating
Compromising
Conflict Resolution Techniques
Forcing
Collaborating
Is an output of “Create WBS” Is a component of the Project

Management
Plan Consists of:
Scope Baseline - Approved Scope Statement
- WBS
- WBS Dictionary
FINISH -TO- FINISH

(Predecessor -to- Successor)
Finish -to- FINISH Reading from left to right...
Precedence Relationship Predecessor activity (A) must FINISH before
Successor activity (B) can FINISH
START -to- START

Start -to- START Reading from left to right...
Precedence Relationship Predecessor activity (A) must START before Successor
activity (B) can START
START -to- FINISH

Start -to- FINISH Reading from left to right...
Precedence Relationship Predecessor activity (A) must start before Successor
activity (B) can FINISH
Memory hook: “I see the crazy queen hunting cute red puppies
stealthily”
I - Integration S - Scope
T - Time C - Cost
Q - Quality
10 Knowledge Areas H - Human Resources
C - Communications
R - Risk
P - Procurement
S - Stakeholder Management
283
Memory hook: “Initial planning exhausted my cat”
I - Initiation
P - Planning
5 Process Groups E - Execution
M - Monitoring & Control
C - Closing
Parkinson’s law is the adage:

Work expands so as to fill the time available for its completion.
Generalization:
Parkinson’s Law The demand upon a resource tends to expand to match the
supply of the resource.
Scope; Time; Cost

Triple Constraint (Mnemonic: “See The Crazy”)
Note: these are the three Knowledge Areas immediately
following the Integration knowledge area
Organizational Types:
- Functional
- Projectized
- Weak Matrix (more functional than projected)
Organizational Structure - Balanced Matrix
- Strong Matrix
- Composite (of matrix and projected - may have a PM Silo)
Project Coordinator vs. Project Expeditor:

- Either can support a PM
- Either can be used when organization can not support a
Project Coordinator fullscale
vs. Project Management environment
Project Expeditor Project - Coordinator has some limited decision-makingability
- Expeditor typically does NOT have decision-making ability
CPM
Critical Path Method
CPM The activity on node project scheduling method we normally
use
Also called the PDM, Precedence Diagramming Method
284
Involves Resource Leveling Project and Feeder Buffers Used
Generally results in extending project timelines (this is the
Critical Chain Method tradeoff to keep resource levels more steady)
Focus is on improving speed by improving processes and work

Lean 6 Sigma (Quality Mgmt flow Slow down, improve discipline, to speed up.
Methodology)
Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) is a process

CMMI improvement approach that helps organizations improve their
(Quality Mgmt Methodology) performance.
CMMI can be used to guide process improvement
across a project, a division, or an entire organization
A risk diagram showing a horizontal bar for each risk category.

Tornado Diagram Range of outcomes is indicated along the horizontal axis
Plus or minus 1 Sigma pass = 68.26% pass 31.74% fail

1 Sigma
3 Sigma

2 Sigma
6 Sigma Plus or minus 6 Sigma pass = 99.9997% pass 0.0003% fail
285
Variance = Sigma ^ 2;
Where Sigma = Standard Deviation = (P - O) / 6
Variance
(This is per PMBOK - the actual formula for standard deviation
is
more involved)
The Four Core Values within PMI’s Ethics Code:
Responsibility -- know and uphold rules and laws;

PMI’s Code of Ethics and
Professional Conduct report unethical and legal violations [Aspirational: make ‘good’
Core Value: Responsibility decisions; stay within capabilities; keep commitments and own
errors; protect confidential information entrusted to us]
PMI’s Code of Ethics and Respect -- negotiate in good faith; don’t be sel serving or
Professional Conduct abusive;
Core Value: Respectd respect property rights of others
Professional Conduct [Aspirational: be respectful, listen to others’ point of
Core Value: Respect view; be direct; act professionally]
Fairness -- duty to make decisions and act impartially and

PMI’s Code of Ethics and objectively.
Professional Conduct Disclose actual and potential conflicts of interest; disclose
and mitigate conflicts before proceeding
Core Value:
FairnessProfessional Conduct [Aspirational: be transparent and impartial; provide equal
Core Value: Fairness access to information and opportunities to those qualified]
Honesty - duty to understand the truth and to act in a truthful

manner
PMI’s Code of Ethics and [Aspirational: provide accurate information in a timely manner,
Professional Conduct make commitments in good faith, strive to create an
Core Value: Honesty environment
in which others feel safe telling the truth]
286
BRAIN DUMP
BRAIN DUMP
BRAIN DUMP

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PMP

0. ABOUT THE PMP® CREDENTIAL 5

2. ORGANIZATIONAL INFLUENCES & PROJECT LIFE CYCLE 21

3. PROJECT MANAGEMENT PROCESSES 33

4. PROJECT INTEGRATION MANAGEMENT 45

5. PROJECT SCOPE MANAGEMENT 65

6. PROJECT TIME MANAGEMENT 87

7. PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT 111

8. PROJECT QUALITY MANAGEMENT 127

9. PROJECT HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT 145

10. PROJECT COMMUNICATIONS MANAGEMENT 163

11. PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT 177

12. PROJECT PROCUREMENT MANAGEMENT 197

13. PROJECT STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT 215

14. PMI’S CODE OF ETHICS AND PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT 229

PRACTICE EXAM 239

ANSWERS TO CHAPTER END QUIZ 253

ANSWERS TO PRACTICE EXAM 269

BRAIN DUMP 287

2. You work in an organization where staff members are grouped according to

4. The collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project

A. Project Management Office

7. During a project's execution, a project manager from the information systems

8. Which form of organization retains many characteristics of a functional

1. Which process group authorizes the project?

2. A Software project manager is working on collecting requirements and estab-

A. The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.

4. At which stage does a project has maximum cost?

5. At which stage in a project will stakeholders have maximum influence?

A. Project Scope Management

A. Documenting and meeting the requirements

8. A detailed project budget is created in which project management process

A. Work with stakeholders to determine their communication preferences

A. Focus on checking team member productivity

1. Interoperating Systems Corp operates in an industry where network and

A. Organizational Process Assets

A. Enterprise Environmental Factors

3. Project A has a BCR of 1.4. What can we infer from this?

A. That Breaking distance is 140 percent of the cornering radius in a standard-

4. Project D has an IRR of 13%. What can we infer from this?

A. Project D is a money loser

A. Validate changes were output from Perform Integrated Change Control,

1. Carmen is just about to deliver the case study commissioned by Raz-ma-TAZ

A. Scope description, Deliverables, Acceptancecriteria

3. Interoperable Systems Corp is developing a network intrusion detection sys-

4. Interoperable Systems Corp is developing a network intrusion detection sys-

A. The Requirements management plan is a subsidiary plan to the Project man-

5. Which of the following statements about the WBS is most correct?

A. WBS stands for Work Breakdown Statement

7. Carmen wants to experiment with tracking project costs in a more rigorous

A. In her company’s asset management software package

9. Interoperable Systems Corp (ISC) is developing a network intrusion

A. Inspection - a tool or technique used within Validate Scope

A. Verified deliverables are an input to Validate Scope, and Accepted

A. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Estimate

2. The Scope baseline is an input to what process in Schedule Management?

A. The Scope baseline is an input to Plan Schedule Management

3. Which of the following are outputs of Define Activities?

4. Which of the following are outputs of Define Activities?

5. The Schedule baseline is an output of which process?

A. Plan Schedule Management

6. Which of the following is true of Schedule forecasts?

A. Schedule forecasts are an input to Develop Schedule