Professional Documents
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Meteorology
Chapter 1 – The Atmosphere
5. The captain of an aircraft needs to know the height of the Tropopause because:
a) it normally represents the limit of weather
b) density starts to increase
c) there are no longer jet streams and CAT
d) it indicates the height of the thermal wind
7. The level in the atmosphere where the air temperature ceases to fall with increase in height is known
as:
a) The troposphere.
b) The Stratopause.
c) The Stratosphere.
d) The tropopause.
8. Which statement is correct when considering the lower layers of the atmosphere:
a) the majority of the weather is contained in the stratosphere and its upper boundary is the tropopause
b) the majority of the weather is contained in the troposphere and its upper boundary is the tropopause
c) the majority of the weather is contained in the tropopause and its upper boundary is the troposphere
d) the majority of the weather is contained in the troposphere and its upper boundary is the stratosphere
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11. The International (ICAO) Standard Atmosphere assumes that the sea level atmospheric pressure is:
a) 1013.25 mbs and decreases with an increase in height
b) 1013.25 mbs and increases with an increase in height
c) 1013.25 mbs and falls to about half this value at 30000
d) 1013.25 mbs and decreases with an increase in height up to the tropopause. Above the tropopause it
remains constant
13. Which of the following statements is most correct when describing ISA:
a) the MSL pressure is 1013.25 mbs and the temperature is + 15°C
b) the MSL pressure is 1013.25 mbs and the temperature is +15° C with a lapse rate of 1.98°C/1000 ft
c) the MSL pressure is 1013.25 mbs and the temperature is +15° C with a lapse rate of 1.98°C/1000ft up to
36090 ft above which there is frequently an 'inversion
d) the MSL pressure is 1013.25 mbs and the temperature is +15° C with a lapse rate of 1.98°C/1000 ft up to
36090 ft
15. Pressure will with increase of height and in the ISA pressure will be at 10 000 ft and
at 30 000 ft:
a) Increase 800 mb 400 mb
b) Decrease 700 mb 300 mb
c) Increase 200 mb 800 mb
d) Decrease 500 mb 200
Chapter 2 – Pressure
1. The barometric Pressure at the airfield datum point is known as:
a) QNE
b) QNH
c) QFE
d) Standard Pressure
2. The instrument that gives a continuous printed reading and record of the atmospheric pressure is:
a) barometer
b) hygrometer
c) anemograph
d) barograph
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7. With 1013.25 mb set on the altimeter sub scale with an aircraft stationary on the airfield the
altimeter will read:
a) QNE
b) QNH
c) QFE
d) QFF
8. The aircraft altimeter will read zero at aerodrome level with which pressure setting set on the
altimeter sub scale:
a) QFF
b) QNH
c) QNE
d) QFE
9. You are passed an altimeter setting of `29.53'. You would then set your altimeter subscale to:
a) QFF
b) 1013
c) 1000
d) QFE
11. When an altimeter sub scale is set to the aerodrome QFE, the altimeter reads:
a) the elevation of the aerodrome at the aerodrome reference point
b) zero at the aerodrome reference point
c) the pressure altitude at the aerodrome reference point
d) the appropriate altitude of the aircraft
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13. A line drawn on a chart joining places having the same barometric pressure at the same level and at
the same time is
a) an isotherm
b) an isallobar
c) a contour
d) an isobar
14. An isobar on a meteorological chart joins all places having the same:
a) QFE
b) QFF
c) QNH
d) QNE
15. Pressure will------------with increase of height and will be about------------- at 10000 ft and --------- at
30000 ft.
a) Increase 800 mb 400 mb
b) Decrease 700 mb 300 mb
c) Increase 200 mb 800 mb
d) Decrease 500 mb 200 mb
16. An airfield in England is 100m above sea level, QFF is 1030hPa, temperature at the surface is -15°C.
What is the value of QNH?
a) Impossible to determine
b) Less than 1030hPa
c) Same as QFF
d) More than 1030hPa
Chapter 3 – Density
1. Consider the following statements relative to Air Density and select the one which is correct:
a) Because air density increases with decrease of temperature, air density must increase with increase of
height in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA).
b) At any given surface temperature the air density will be greater in anticyclone conditions than it will be
when the MSL pressure is lower.
c) Air density increases with increase of relative humidity.
d) The effect of change of temperature on the air density is much greater than the effect of change of
atmospheric pressure.
4. In the troposphere:
a) over cold air, the pressure is higher at upper levels than at similar levels over warm air
b) over cold air, the pressure is lower at upper levels than at similar levels over warm air
c) over warm air, the pressure is lower at upper levels than at similar levels over warm air
d) the upper level pressure depends solely on the relative humidity below
4. An area of indeterminate pressure between two lows and two highs is called:
a) a trough
b) a ridge
c) a col
d) a saddle
6. If in the southern hemisphere an aircraft in flight at 2000 ft is experiencing starboard drift, the
aircraft is flying towards:
a) an area of high pressure
b) an area of low pressure
c) a warm front
d) a depression
7. In the Southern Hemisphere, the surface winds at B1; and C2 would be respectively:
a) clockwise across the isobars away from the centre: and anti-clockwise across the isobars towards the
centre.
b) Anti-clockwise across the isobars towards the centre: and clockwise across the isobars away from the
centre.
c) Anti-clockwise across the isobars away from the centre: and clockwise across the isobars towards the
centre.
d) Clockwise across the isobars towards the centre: and Anti-clockwise across the isobars away from the
centre.
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10. The pressure systems at A2; B1; 132; 133; and C2 are respectively:
a) Depression; Anticyclone; Col; Ridge; and Trough.
b) Ridge; Anticyclone; Col; Trough; and Depression.
c) Trough; Depression; Col; Ridge; and Anticyclone.
d) Ridge; Depression; Col; Trough; and Anticyclone.
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12. Haze in summer and radiation fog in winter can be expected at:
a) C2
b) B3
c) BI
d) B2
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Chapter 6 – Altimetry
1. An aircraft is flying at 3000 feet indicated with the altimeter sub scale set to 1020 mb towards a
mountain range with an elevation of 1600 feet. If during the flight the QNH in the area falls to 989
mb and the altimeter sub scale is not reset, the expected clearance over the mountain range will be:
(assume 27 feet = 1 mb)
a) 1400 ft
b) 470 ft
c) 930 ft
d) 563 ft
2. When flying towards a depression at a constant indicated altitude, the true altitude will be:
a) Lower than indicated.
b) Higher than indicated.
c) The same as indicated.
d) Lower than indicated at first then the same as indicated later.
3. The name given to the lowest forecast mean sea level pressure in an area is:
a) QFE
b) Regional QNH
c) QFF
d) QNE
5. An aircraft at airfield P elevation 270 ft has the airfield QNH 1012 mbs correctly set. The altimeter
setting is not changed. Later on landing at airfield Q elevation 450 ft the aircraft altimeter reads 531
ft. What is the correct QNH at airfield Q? (Assume 27 ft = 1 mb)
a) 1014.7 mbs
b) 1009.3 mbs
c) 1015 mbs
d) 1009 mbs
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6. The altimeter subscale is set to 1030 mbs and the altimeter reads 4500'. QNH is 996 mbs. What is
the altitude of the aircraft ? (Assume 1 mb = 27')
a) 3480'
b) 3990'
c) 5418'
d) 3582'
7. An aircraft flies level with a mountain peak shown on a chart as 8000'ft above MSL. If the
temperature of the air is ISA + 2, what will be indicated on the pressure altimeter?
a) 8064ft
b) 7936ft
c) 8000ft
d) 7968ft
8. An aircraft, flying at FL 100 at a constant RAS, flies from an area of warm air into an area of
cold air. The QNH is unchanged. How has the aircraft altitude and TAS changed? Altitude TAS
a) decreased increased
b) Increased increased
c) decreased decreased
d) Increased decreased
9. On a flight from Capetown (QNH 1005 hPa) to Dakar (QNH 1018 hPa) at FL 240 you notice a
decrease in true altitude. Why might this be the reason?
a) it is warmer in Dakar than in Capetown
b) it is colder in Capetown than in Dakar
c) the static vent is blocked
d) it is colder in Dakar than in Capetown
10. QNH at Johannesburg is 1025 hPa, elevation is 1600m amsl. What is the QFE. (Assume I mb = 8m)
a) 1000.8 hPa
b) 830.6 hPa
c) 1002 hPa
d) 825 hPa
11. When flying from Paris (QNH 1012) to London (QNH 1015) at FL 100. You neglect to reset your
altimeter but why does your true altitude remain the same throughout the flight.
a) Paris has a higher pressure than London
b) The air at London is warmer than Paris
c) London is at a lower altitude than Paris
d) The air at Paris is warmer than London
12. An airfield in Holland is 20m below sea level, QFF is 1020 hPa, temperature at the surface is +30°C.
What is the value of QNH.
a) Impossible to determine
b) Less than 1020 hPa
c) Same as QFF
d) More than 1020 hPa
Chapter 7 – Temperature
1. The measurement of surface temperature is made:
a) at ground level
b) at approximately 10 metres from ground level
c) at approximately 4 feet above ground level
d) at approximately 4 metres above ground level
7. Which of the following surfaces is likely to produce a higher than average diurnal variation of
temperature:
a) rock or concrete
b) water
c) snow
d) vegetation
9. The method by which energy is transferred from one body to another by contact is called:
a) radiation
b) convection
c) conduction
d) latent heat
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13. The sun gives out _____ amount of energy with_____ wavelengths.
The earth gives out relatively_____ amounts of energy with relatively______ wavelengths:
a) Large, large, small, small.
b) Small, small, large, large.
c) Large, large, small, large.
d) Large, small, small, large.
14. With a clear night sky, the temperature change with height by early morning is most likely to show:
a) A steady lapse rate averaging 2°C per 1000 ft.
b) A stable lapse rate of 1 °C per 1000 ft.
c) An inversion above the surface with an isothermal layer above.
d) An inversion from near the surface and a 2°C per 1000 ft lapse rate above.
15. Over continents and oceans, the relative temperature conditions are:
a) Warmer in winter over land, colder in summer over sea.
b) Colder in winter over land, warmer in winter over sea.
c) Cold in winter over land and sea.
d) Warmer in summer over land and sea.
Chapter 8 – Humidity
1. Throughout the 24 hrs of a day the Relative Humidity can be expected to:
a) Increase during the day and decrease at night.
b) Stay reasonably constant throughout the 24 hours.
c) Reduce during the day and increase at night.
d) Only change with a change of airmass.
2. During a night with a clear sky, surface temperature will RH will and Dewpoint will
a) Fall, Rise, Rise.
b) Rise, Rise, Fall.
c) Fall, Rise, Remain the same.
d) Fall, Fall, Remain the same
7. Air is classified as dry or saturated according to its relative humidity. If the relative humidity were
95% the air would be classified as:
a) conditionally saturated
b) partially saturated
c) saturated
d) dry
8. On a wet bulb thermometer in an unsaturated atmosphere there will be a reduction of temperature
below that of the dry bulb thermometer because:
a) heat is absorbed during the process of condensation
b) heat is released during the process of condensation
c) heat is absorbed by the thermometer during the process of evaporation
d) heat is released from the thermometer during the process of evaporation
11. Wet bulb temperature would normally be lower than the dry bulb temperature because:
a) condensation causes a release of latent heat
b) evaporation causes cooling
c) latent heat is absorbed by the bulb thermometer
d) of condensation on the muslin wick of the bulb
13. Which one of the following statements relating to atmospheric humidity is correct:
a) If the air temperature falls then the absolute humidity must increase.
b) The absolute humidity is the mass of water vapour contained in unit volume of air.
c) The diurnal variation of dewpoint temperature is greatest when skies are clear at night.
d) The dewpoint temperature is the temperature indicated by the wet bulb thermometer.
14. When condensation takes place, the higher the temperature, the…………..the amount of latent
heat………
a) lesser; released.
b) greater; absorbed.
c) greater; released.
d) lesser; absorbed.
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2. ELR is PC/100m
a) Neutral when dry
b) Absolute stability
c) Absolute instability
d) Conditional stability
4. From which of the following can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?
a) surface pressure
b) surface temperature
c) DALR
d) ELR
6. The temperature at the surface is 15°C, the temperature at 1000ft is 13°C. Is the atmosphere
a) Unstable
b) Conditionally unstable
c) Stable
d) Cannot tell
8. A mass of unsaturated air is forced to rise till just under the condensation level. It then settles back to
its original position
a) Temp. is greater than before
b) Temp. stays the same
c) Temp. is less than before
d) It depends on QFE
9. What happens to the stability of the atmosphere in an inversion? (Temp increasing with height)
a) Absolutely stable
b) Unstable
c) Conditionally stable
d) Conditionally unstable
10. What happens to stability of the atmosphere in an isothermal layer? (Temp constant with height)
a) Absolutely stable
b) Unstable
c) Conditionally stable
d) Conditionally unstable
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13. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when forced to descend?
a) it heats up more than dry because of expansion
b) it heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c) it heats up more than dry because of sublimation
d) it heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during condensation
15. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when descending?
a) it heats up more than dry because of expansion
b) it heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c) it heats up more than dry because of compression
d) it heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during condensation
Chapter 10 – Turbulence
1. Maximum turbulence associated with the standing waves is likely to be:
a) Two wavelengths down wind and just above the surface.
b) Approximately one wavelength down wind of, and approximately level with, the top of the ridge.
c) Just below the tropopause above the ridge.
d) Down the lee side of the ridge and along the surface.
2. For the formation of mountain waves, the wind above the level of the ridge should:
a) Decrease or even reverse direction.
b) Increase initially then decrease.
c) Increase with little change in direction.
d) Increase and then reverse in direction.
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3. When flying in IMC in a region close to a range of hills 2000 ft. high, in stable air and with wind
direction at right angles to the axis of the range of hills, which of the following is probably the most
dangerous practice:
a) Flying towards the hills, into the wind, at flight level 65 .
b) Flying parallel to the hills on the downwind side at flight level 40.
c) Flying towards the hills downwind at flight level 55.
d) Flying parallel to the hills on the upwind side at flight level 40.
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10. A mountain range is aligned in an East/West direction. Select the conditions from the table below
that will give rise to Standing Waves:
2000 ft 5000 ft 10 000 ft
a) 020/40 020/30 020/50
b) 170/20 190/40 210/60
c) 270/15 270/20 270/40
d) 090/20 090/40 090/60
11. For standing waves to form, the wind direction must be near perpendicular to a ridge or range of
mountains and the speed must:
a) Decrease with height within a stable layer above the hill.
b) Increase with height within an unstable layer above the hill.
c) Decrease with height within an unstable layer above the hill.
d) Increase with height within a stable layer above the hill.
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12. A north/south mountain range, height 10,000 ft is producing marked mountain waves. The greatest
potential danger exists for an aircraft flying:
a) on the windward side of the ridge
b) at FL 350 over and parallel to the ridge
c) towards the ridge from the lee side at FL 140
d) above a line of clouds parallel to the ridge on the lee side at FL 25
Chapter 11 – Winds
1. For a constant distance between the isobars the geostrophic wind will be greatest at a latitude of
a) 45°
b) 60°
c) 35°
d) 20°
2. A cyclone and an anticyclone have the same pressure gradient and the same 2000 ft wind speed. This
can only happen when:
a) They are at identical latitudes in opposite hemispheres.
b) They are in the same hemisphere but the cyclone is at a lower latitude.
c) They are in the same hemisphere but the anticyclone is at a lower latitude.
d) The cyclone is due north of the anticyclone in the northern hemisphere.
3. During the day the surface wind in western Australia is 270/30 kt. After dusk the wind is most likely
to be:
a) 255/40
b) 260/20
c) 290/20
d) 290/40
4. On a day in summer with a slack pressure gradient, an airfield on the south coast of England has a
surface W/V of 080/06 at dawn. The coast/line is in an East/West direction. The most probable W/V
at noon would be:
a) 360/12
b) 080/18
c) 180/18
d) 080/06
5. A gust of wind often causes a veer in the surface wind (Northern Hemisphere) because:
a) It strengthens pressure gradient force.
b) It increases coriolis force.
c) It increases centrifugal force.
d) It lifts the air above the friction layer.
6. The surface wind direction in the Northern Hemisphere is backed from the 2000 ft wind by an
average of 30° over land due to:
a) Friction reducing the wind speed, thus reducing the coriolis force, allowing the pressure gradient force to
pull the wind across the isobars towards low pressure.
b) The frictional effect at the surface, causing the surface isobars to curve more than those at 2000 ft.
c) The geostrophic wind only flowing between straight and parallel isobars with an unchanging pressure
gradient with time, whereas the surface pressure gradient changes diurnally with surface heating.
d) The effect of the centrifugal force, which is strongest at the surface due to increased curvature.
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11. A strong wind that rises suddenly, last for some minutes and dies comparatively suddenly away is
called:
a) a gust
b) a squall
c) a gale
d) a blast
12. The force which causes the air to flow parallel to the curved isobars is called:
a) pressure force
b) centrifugal force
c) coriolis force
d) gradient force
13. The deflection of the surface wind direction from the geostrophic is, on average:
a) over the land by night - 35 ° in cloudy conditions
b) over the land by day - 35' in cloudy conditions
c) over the sea - 30°
d) over the sea - 10°, veered in the southern hemisphere
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15. In an anticyclone at 2000 ft, in the northern hemisphere, the wind was 060/20 kt. The likely surface
w/v over land is:
a) 070/15 kt
b) 050/10 kt
c) 030/10 kt
d) 030/15 kt
Chapter 13 – Clouds
1. The size of raindrops from a cloud is greater if:
a) Air is stable and cloud is layer type.
b) Air is unstable and cloud is heap type.
c) Cloud type is AC or NS.
d) The relative humidity is high.
3. In aerodrome reports and forecasts the height of the cloud base refers to:
a) the height above mean sea level
b) the height above aerodrome elevation
c) the pressure altitude of the cloud base
d) the height above the average ground level for the area
4. Cloud types are classified under three basic family headings, these are:
a) Cirriform, Stratiform, Cumuliform
b) Stratiform, Heap, Cirriform
c) Cirrus, Cumulus and layer
d) Cumulus, Layer and Heap
5. Low cloud in temperate climates, excluding heap are those existing from:
a) the surface to 6500 ft
b) 1000 ft to 6500 ft
c) the surface to 7500 ft
d) the surface to 7500 metres
8. Typical base heights in temperate latitudes, of altocumulus cloud are in the range of.
a) 6500 ft to 23000 ft
b) 5000 ft to 15000 ft
c) 8500 ft to 18000 ft
d) 1000 ft to 6500 ft
10. The expected average height ranges for low, medium and high layer clouds in temperate latitudes
are:
12. When the met observer reports the amount of cloud present at a station, it will be given as:
a) Clear, scattered, broken or overcast
b) The amount of cloud, in tenths of the sky covered , using the term oktas
c) The amount of cloud, in quarters of the sky covered, using the term oktas
d) The amount of cloud, in eighths of the sky covered, using the term oktas.
13. On weather charts, the station circle shows the height of the cloud base:
a) above ground level
b) above mean sea level
c) at a pressure altitude
d) in metres above surface level
3. If you observe drizzle falling, the cloud above you is most likely to be:
a) AS
b) CU
c) ST
d) NS
4. Turbulence cloud is usually a sheet of Stratus, Strato Cumulus some 2000 ft thick with a flat top
because:
a) The air is usually at low temperatures containing little water vapour.
b) Turbulence steepens the lapse rate producing an inversion above the friction layer.
c) Air is not allowed to remain in contact with the surface due to the strong wind thus maintaining cool
surface air with warm air above
d) The lapse rate becomes stable in the friction layer, due to turbulent mixing.
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6. With reference to anticyclones affecting the UK, which of the following statements is correct:
a) The pressure gradient is greatest towards the centre of the anticyclone.
b) Anticyclones are more common in winter than they are in summer. This is why radiation fog is much
more frequent in the winter.
c) Apart from turbulence cloud, the formation of all other cloud types is unlikely in anticyclonic conditions.
d) Warm anticyclones are those which are caused by the extreme air density associated with warmer
weather.
7. The type of cloud from which continuous moderate or heavy rain is likely to fall is:
a) large cumulus
b) altostratus
c) nimbostratus
d) cumulonimbus
8. The movement of cool moist air over a warmer surface is likely to cause:
a) cumulus or cumulonimbus cloud
b) advection fog
c) nimbostratus cloud
d) alto cumulus lenticular cloud
9. Over the British Isles, a polar maritime returning airmass would have:
a) stability
b) instability
c) potential instability
d) neutral stability
12. Precipitation in the form of snow will not reach the surface unless the surface temperature is:
a) less than +4°C
b) less than 0 ° C
c) less than 45°F
d) less than 30°F
14. The type of precipitation usually associated with shallow stratocumulus is:
a) Mainly water droplets which can be supercooled if the temperature is low enough.
b) Ice crystals.
c) Supercooled water droplets only.
d) Large water droplets due to the strong up-currents associated with this type of cloud
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15. If there are small cumulus in the morning in summer, it is reasonable to forecast later in the day:
a) Clear skies.
b) St and drizzle.
c) CB Cloud.
d) Haze.
Chapter 15 – Thunderstorms
1. The conditions which must exist to allow thunderstorms to develop are:
a) a trigger action, a plentiful supply of moisture and a very stable atmosphere
b) a steep lapse rate, a stable atmosphere through a large vertical extent and a plentiful supply of moisture
c) a plentiful supply of moisture and a steep lapse rate through a large vertical extent and a trigger action
d) a steep lapse rate through a large vertical extent, a low relative humidity and a trigger action
2. When moist air moves across France in the ............ TS activity is common in southern UK in
the...........Complete the above statement correctly using one of the following:
a) winter/morning
b) summer/late afternoon or evening
c) winter/late afternoon or evening
d) summer/morning
5. Thunderstorms require a trigger action to release the conditional instability. Which of the following
would be the least suitable as a trigger:
a) convergence in temperate latitudes
b) convergence in tropical latitudes
c) subsidence in tropical latitudes
d) convection in polar latitudes
6. During the ......... stage of a thunderstorm cell, the cloud contains ........ Complete the above statement
correctly using one of the following:
a) building/up currents and down currents
b) mature/up currents and down currents
c) dissipating/up currents and down currents
d) building/down currents only
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10. How long approximately does a Cumulonimbus cell take to complete the full cycle from the Cumulus
(building) to dissipating stage:
a) 2-3 hours
b) 1-2 hours
c) 4-5 hours
d) About 1 hour
11. When approaching at flight level 300 a cumulonimbus cloud with an anvil top, pilots should aim to
avoid the cloud by ---- rims horizontally if avoiding visually, or by ---- rims horizontally if using
cloud avoidance radar. Select the appropriate respective ranges from those given below:
a) 10 20
b) 15 10
c) 10 15
d) 5 10
13. Thunderstorms caused by……….are most common in the summer and by……….in the………….
a) lapse rate air masses late spring
b) air masses frontal activity winter
c) cold fronts air masses autumn
d) air masses frontal activity summer
14. When flying through an active CB cloud, lightning strikes are most likely:
a) Above 5000' and underneath the anvil.
b) In the clear air below the cloud in rain.
c) In the temperature band between +10°C and -10°C.
d) At or about 10 000 ft AMSL.
15. Regarding thunderstorms, the most accurate statement amongst the following is:
a) There will always be windshear under the cloud.
b) The average movement is in accord with the wind at 10 000 ft.
c) If the cloud base has a temperature below 0°C then freezing rain will occur.
d) The number of lightning flashes is directly proportional to the degree of turbulence.
Chapter 16 – Visibility
1. Which of the conditions given below will lead to the formation of radiation fog?
Wind speed Cloud Cover Temperature Dew Point
a) 7 kt 8/8 St 12°C 11 °C
b) 15 kt NIL 15°C 14°C
c) 3 kt 1/8 Ci 8°C 7°C
d) 2 kt NIL -2°C -3°C
2. When………..moist air passes over a surface which is………..than the dew point of the
air,…………fog can form. This occurs over………. . Examine the statement above; the line which
contains the correct words in the correct order to complete the statement is:
3. Radiation fog is most likely at an inland airfield in the UK with a relative humidity of 80% in
the……….with……and a wind of….……..
a) Autumn clear skies 2-8 knots
b) Spring 6/8 ST& SC 2-10 knots
c) Winter clear skies 15/20 knots
d) Summer clear skies no wind
4. Advection fog is formed when……… air moves over a………….surface and is………… its dewpoint:.
5. On a night when radiation fog is forming over most of southern England, the aerodromes likely to be
first to experience the fog will be those situated:
a) Near the coast with a light onshore wind and clear skies.
b) At the bottom of the hill with a light katabatic wind blowing .
c) Near the coast with a land breeze and cloudy skies.
d) At the top of a hill with clear skies and no wind.
7. If a station equipped with International Runway Visual Range (IRVR) equipment reports RVR 1000,
this means:
a) RVR at touchdown is 1000 metres.
b) RVR at touchdown is 1000 metres and at 'mid point' and 'stop end' the RVR is 800 metres or more.
c) RVR at touchdown is 1000 metres and 'mid point' and 'stop end' equipment is unserviceable.
d) RVR all along the runway is 1000 metres or more.
11. Several types of pressure distribution may be associated with radiation fog but all have one feature in
common which is:
a) closely spaced isobars
b) a tight pressure gradient
c) a slack pressure gradient
d) a rapidly falling pressure
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
12. .............. forms when moist air .......... over a surface which is .......... than the dew point of the air. Fill
in the missing 3 words from the list given below:
14. In circumstances where there is a clear sky, calm wind and a high relative humidity in Autumn:
a) Radiation fog is likely over night.
b) Advection fog will form.
c) Radiation fog is likely at sunrise after previous mist.
d) Hill fog can be expected.
15. At a station equipped with International Runway Visual Range (IRVR), reports are given:
a) Every '/2hour.
b) When the normal visibility is 1500 m or less.
c) When there is mist.
d) When there is haze.
Chapter 17 – Icing
1. At temperatures of between 0°C and -10°C clouds will consist of:
a) entirely water droplets
b) entirely ice crystals
c) mostly water vapour
d) mostly supercooled water droplets and a few ice crystals
2. Turbulent clouds are most serious from the icing standpoint because:
a) strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of large supercooled water droplets will be present
b) strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of small supercooled water droplets will be present
c) turbulent clouds produce hail which sticks to the aircraft
d) turbulent clouds indicate a low freezing level
4. Most cases of serious piston engine icing occur in cloud, fog, or precipitation with a temperature
range between:
a) -10°C to +25°C
b) -18°C to +5°C
c) -10° C to 0°C
d) -20°C to +15°C
5. Stratus cloud of limited depth at a temperature of-5°C will most likely give:
a) moderate to heavy rime ice
b) moderate to heavy glaze ice
c) light to moderate rime ice
d) light to moderate glaze ice
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
7. Orographic uplift in stable conditions gives a strong vertical component to air movement thus
supporting larger supercooled droplets in orographically formed cloud. Consideration should also be
given to the fact that in this cloud:
a) the 0°C isotherm will be higher
b) the 0°C isotherm will be lower
c) the lapse rate will be isothermal
d) an inversion can be anti-cyclonic
8. Which of the following conditions is most favourable for the formation of carburettor icing if the
aircraft is descending with glide power set:
9. Flying in large CU at a temperature of -200C, the amount of each cloud droplet that will freeze on
impact with the aircraft will be:
a) All the droplet.
b) ½ of the droplet.
c)¼ of the droplet.
d) 20% of the droplet.
11. Flying 50 nm ahead of a warm front out of cloud at 1000 ft in winter, with an ambient temperature of
-8 ° C, there is a strong risk of.
a) Hoar frost.
b) Rime icing and carburettor icing.
c) Structure damage caused by hail.
d) Clear ice in the form of rain ice.
12. In AS cloud at FL 170 and a temperature of -20°C the airframe icing most likely to be experienced is:
a) Moderate clear icing.
b) Light rime icing.
c) Hoar frost.
d) Severe clear icing.
13. Mixed (rime and clear) icing is most likely to be encountered:
a) in nimbostratus at a temperature of -10°C
b) in stratocumulus cloud at a temperature of-20°C
c) in fair weather cumulus at a temperature of -15 °C
d) in towering cumulus at a temperature of-10°C
14. When considering icing in cloud over high ground compared with icing in other clouds, the effect of
orographic lifting is to:
a) Cause the height of the freezing level to fall and increases the intensity of the icing.
b) Cause the height of the freezing level to rise and increases the severity of the icing.
c) Cause the free water content of the cloud to increase and the freezing level to rise so reducing the icing
risk.
d) Increase the temperature inside the cloud due to the release of extra latent heat so reducing the icing risk.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
Chapter 18 – Documentation
1. Frankfurt-Main EDDF : The W/V at 211000 is expected to be:
Frankfurt Main: EDDF
SA201720 03015KT 8000NE FEW045 SCT250 14/10 Q1016 NOSIG SA201650 03011KT 6000NE
SCT042 BKN250 15/10 Q1015 NOSIG FC20150OZ 201601 04010KT CAVOK
FT20160OZ 210018 04015KT 3000HZ BKN030 BECMG 0709 06018G30KT CAVOK
a) 060/18G30KT
b) 040/15KT
c) 060/18KT
d) 040/10KT
a) low stratus.
b) fog.
c) mist.
d) showers.
Milan: LIML
SA 201720 OOOOOKT CAVOK 16/14 Q1007 NOSIG SA 201650 OOOOOKT CAVOK 16/15 Q1007
NOSIG FC 20170OZ 201803 VRB05KT 8000 SCT025 TEMPO 3000 -RA
FT 20160OZ 210018 VRB05KT 5000 SCT030 TEMPO 0206 0900 PRFG BKNO08 BECMG 1218
+RA BKN020
a) 5000m in mist.
b) 5 km in haze.
c) 9000m in fog.
d) 900m in fog banks.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
Zurich: LSZH
SA201720 04005KT 7000 SCT016 OVC022 12/08 Q1013 NOSIG
SA201650 04008GI9KT 7000 SCTO16 SCT022 BKN040 12/08 Q1012 NOSIG FC20150OZ 201601
05005KT 6000 SCT013 OVC028 BECMG 2124 2500BR OVCO10 FT20160OZ 210018 05005KT
2500BR OVCO10 TEMPO 0008 1500 BR BECMG 0811 04010KT OVCO15 PROB30 TEMPO 1218
BKN020
a) 7 KM
b) 7000m
c) 2500m
d) 6000m
a) 5,000 feet
b) unlimited (no cloud)
c) 2,500 feet.
d) 3,000 feet.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
10. At which of these stations and at what time is the highest relative humidity to be found:
Frankfurt Main: EDDF
SA201720 03015KT 8000NE FEW045 SCT250 14/10 Q1016 NOSIG SA201650 03011KT 6000NE
SCT042 BKN250 15/10 Q1015 NOSIG FC20150OZ 201601 04010KT CAVOK
FT20160OZ 210018 04015KT 3000HZ BKN030 BECMG 0709 06018G30KT CAVOK
Rome: LIRA
SA 201720 OOOOOKT 9999 FEWO15 SCT017CB BKN025 16/16 Q1006 SA 201650 OOOOOKT
9999 FEWO15 SCT017CB SCT025 17/16 Q1005 FC 20170OZ 201803 VRB05KT 9999 SCT020
SCT070
FT 20160OZ 210018 VRB05KT 9999 SCT025 SCT070 TEMPO 1218 SCT015CB
Milan: LIML
SA 201720 OOOOOKT CAVOK 16/14 Q1007 NOSIG SA 201650 OOOOOKT CAVOK 16/15 Q1007
NOSIG FC 20170OZ 201803 VRB05KT 8000 SCT025 TEMPO 3000 -RA
FT 20160OZ 210018 VRB05KT 5000 SCT030 TEMPO 0206 0900 PRFG BKNO08 BECMG 1218
+RA BKN020
Geneva: LSGG
SA201720 06004KT 4000NE -RA SCT009 BKN040 OVC080 13/11 Q1012 NOSIG SA201650
05004KT 5000N -RA SCT009 BKN040 14/12 Q1012 NOSIG FC20150OZ 201601 04008KT 7000
SCT020 BKN025
FT20160OZ 210018 03005KT 5000 OVC020 TEMPO 1118 BKN030
a) EDDF at 1650.
b) LIRA at 1720.
c) LIML at 1720.
d) LSGG at 1650.
Milan: LIML
SA 201720 OOOOOKT CAVOK 16/14 Q1007 NOSIG SA 201650 OOOOOKT CAVOK 16/15 Q1007
NOSIG FC 20170OZ 201803 VRB05KT 8000 SCT025 TEMPO 3000 -RA
FT 20160OZ 210018 VRB05KT 5000 SCT030 TEMPO 0206 0900 PRFG BKNO08 BECMG 1218
+RA BKN020
a) 3000m.
b) 8000m.
c) 5000m.
d) l0km or more.
2. Characteristic weather associated with a Pm airmass transitting the British Isles in Summer would
include:
a) widespread Cu and Cb activity overland during the day
b) clear quiet settled weather overland by day with good visibility
c) warm moist conditions with some Sc or Cu and moderate to poor visibility
d) extensive low stratus cloud giving drizzle to light rain overland by day
5. Polar maritime air is ........... and can bring ........... in the UK in winter but ...... .... in summer.
Complete the above sentence correctly using one of the following:
7. Referring to the area of the North Atlantic, the mean position of the polar front in January is:
a) from Florida to south west England
b) from Newfoundland to the north of Scotland
c) from Florida to the north of Scotland
d) from Newfoundland to south west England
8. When air from an air mass moves to a lower latitude, it can be expected that:
a) Surface layer air will become warmer, the RH will rise and the air will become unstable.
b) Surface layer air will become colder, the RH will rise and the air will become more stable.
c) Surface layer air will become warmer, the RH will fall and the air will become unstable.
d) Surface layer air will become warmer, the RH will fall and the air will become more stable.
9. In the N. hemisphere when flying in the troposphere above the surface friction layer in the polar
maritime airmass behind the cold front of a fully developed frontal depression:
a) The wind will tend to veer in direction and increase in speed with progressive increase of altitude.
b) The wind will tend to veer in direction with increase of altitude but the speed may remain constant in the
lower layers of the atmosphere.
c) The windspeed will reduce progressively with increase of altitude until at about 10 000 feet above mean
sea level where it will then tend to increase in speed from another direction.
d) The wind will tend to back in direction and increase in speed with progressive increase of altitude.
10. The average surface level winds at A3, B3 and C3 in Appendix 'A' are respectively:
a) Easterly, westerly, southwesterly.
b) Westerly, westerly, southwesterly.
c) Southwesterly, westerly, northwesterly.
d) Southwesterly, westerly, northerly.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
11. The average upper winds at A 1, B 1 and C 1 in Appendix `A' are respectively:
a) easterly, westerly, northwesterly
b) northwesterly, westerly, southwesterly
c) southwesterly, westerly, northwesterly
d) southwesterly, westerly, northerly
13. The airmasses involved in the development of a Polar Front Depression are:
a) Polar Maritime and Polar Continental.
b) Tropical Maritime and Polar Continental.
c) Tropical Continental and Polar Maritime.
d) Polar Maritime and Tropical Maritime.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
Chapter 21 – Occlusions
1. The cloud in grid square M 11 is most likely to be:
a) Cirrus.
b) Nimbostratus.
c) Altocumulus.
d) Stratus fractus. 32
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
3. In grid square M6 The worst cloud conditions for flying could be:
a) Altrocumulus
b) Cumulo nimbus embedded in nimbostratus
c) Cumulonimbus
d) Nimbostratus
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
4. Which of the conditions below would lead to the worst icing condition?:
Size of Drop Ambient Temp.
a) 2 mm -30°C
b) 1 mm -1 °C
c) 5 mm -4°C
d) 3 mm -12°C
5. Refer to Appendix `B'. In a warm occlusion flying at 20000' where will the most turbulence be
found?
a) A
b) B
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c) C d) A and C
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
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d) CB
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d) NS
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
15. When flying from west to east through a cold occlusion (below the warm air) over the north Atlantic
you would expect the wind to .......... and the temperature to ..............
a) veer decrease
b) back increase
c) back decrease
d) veer increase
5. Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non-frontal thermal depression because
of:
a) Surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression.
b) Surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression.
c) Surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression.
d) Surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
9. Trade winds:
a) blow towards the sub tropical anticyclones.
b) are caused by lifting over the heat equator and the subsequent air movements from the sub tropical
anticyclones.
c) only blow in the winter months.
d) blow from the equatorial low pressure systems throughout the year.
12. The large change in the direction of trade winds is caused by:
a) local pressure differences.
b) an excess of air at height in association with the Hadley cells.
c) the change in geostrophic force when crossing the geographic equator.
d) the cyclostrophic force in the equatorial regions.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
30. The average surface level winds at A3, B3 and C3 in Appendix A are respectively:
a) easterly, westerly, southwesterly.
b) westerly, westerly, southwesterly.
c) southwesterly, westerly, northwesterly.
d) southwesterly, westerly, northerly.
31. The average upper winds at A1, B1 and C1 in Appendix A are respectively:
a) easterly, westerly, northwesterly.
b) northwesterly, westerly, southwesterly.
c) southwesterly, westerly, northwesterly.
d) southwesterly, westerly, northerly.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
32. The names of the air masses indicated A, B, C and D at Appendix B are respectively:
a) Polar Maritime, Polar Continental, Tropical Maritime, Tropical Continental.
b) Returning Polar Maritime, Arctic, Tropical Continental, Tropical Maritime.
c) Polar Maritime, Arctic, Tropical Continental, Tropical Maritime.
d) Polar Maritime, Arctic, Polar Continental, Tropical
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
Maritime.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
33. The names of the air masses indicated E, F, G and H at Appendix B are respectively:
a) Tropical Maritime, Polar Continental, Tropical Continental, Arctic.
b) Polar Continental, Tropical Maritime, Tropical Continental, Arctic.
c) Polar Continental, Tropical Continental, Tropical Maritime, Arctic.
d) Tropical Maritime, Polar Maritime, Tropical Continental, Polar
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
Maritime.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
Additional Questions
1. MSA given as 12,000 ft, flying over mountains in temperatures +9°C, QNH set as 1023 (obtained
from a nearby airfield). What will the true altitude be when 12,000 ft is reached ?
a) 11,940
b) 11,148
c) 12,210
d) 12,864
2. In the Northern Hemisphere a man observes a low pressure system passing him to the south, from
west to east. What wind will he experience?
a) Backs the Veers
b) Constantly Backs
c) Veers then Backs
d) Backs then steady
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
4. What are the conditions under which advection fog will be formed?
a) Warm moist air over cold surface
b) Cold dry air over warm surface
c) Warm dry air over cold surface
d) Cold moist air over warm surface
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
16. What causes low level cloud in front of the warm front?
a) Rain falling into the cold air
b) Rain falling into warm air
c) Warm air passing over cold surface
d) Cold air passing over warm surface
23. Flying over an airfield, at the surface the temp. is -5°C, freezing level is at 3000ft, rain is falling from
clouds with a base of 4000ft caused by warm air rising above cold air. Where would you experience
icing?
a) Never
b) No icing because your not in cloud
c) Between 3000 - 4000ft
d) Below 3000ft
29. What cloud type are you least likely to get icing from?
a) Ci
b) Cu
c) St
d) Ns
34. If you fly with left drift in the Northern Hemisphere, what is happening to your true altitude ?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Stays the same
d) Cannot tell
37. Sublimation is :
a) Solid to vapour
b) Vapour to liquid
c) Liquid to vapour
d) Liquid to solid
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38. Standing in the Northern Hemisphere, north of a polar frontal depression travelling west to east, the
wind will
a) Continually veer
b) Continually back
c) Back then veer
d) Veer then back
40. Which of the following would lead to the formation of Advection fog:
a) warm moist air over cold surface, clear night and light winds
b) cold dry air over warm surface, clear night and light winds
c) cold moist air over warm surface, cloud night with strong winds
d) warm dry air over cold surface, cloudy night with moderate winds
41. Which of the following would lead to the formation of Steaming fog:
a) cold air over warm sea
b) warm air over cold sea
c) cold sea near coast
d) warm air over land
45. FL 180, Northern Hemisphere with a wind from the left, what can you say about temperature with a
heading of 360° ?
a) Not possible to tell without a pressure
b) Increases from South to North
c) Increases from North to South
d) Nothing
46. From which of the following can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?
a) surface pressure
b) surface temperature
c) DALR
d) ELR
47. How do you define convection?
a) Horizontal movement of air
b) Vertical movement of air
c) Same as advection
d) Same as conduction
48. In a class A aircraft if you encounter freezing rain, do you:
a) Climb to the cooler air above
b) Climb to the warmer air above
c) Accelerate
d) Descend
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
51. Where do you find the majority of the air within atmospher?
a) Troposphere
b) Stratosphere
c) Tropopause
d) Mesosphere
55. At a certain position the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C. According to the chart the
tropopause is at FL330. The most likely temperature at FL350 is:
a) -54°C
b) -50°C
c) -56.5°C
d) 58°C
63. Where is the surface wind usually westerly in a Northern Hemisphere polar front depression?
a) In front of the warm front
b) In front of the cold front
c) Behind the cold front
d) To the north of centre of the depression
64. What causes the Geostrophic wind to be stronger than the gradient wind around a low?
a) Centrifugal force adds to the gradient force
b) Centrifugal force opposes the gradient force
c) Coriolis force adds to the gradient force
d) Coriolis force opposes the centrifugal force
66. A METAR for Paris gave the surface wind at 260/20. Wind at 2000ft is most likely to be:
a) 260/15
b) 210/30
c) 290/40
d) 175/15
68. The QNH at an airfield 200m AMSL is 1009 hPa; air temperature is 10°C lower than standard.
What is the QFF ?
a) Not possible to give a definite answer
b) Less than 1009
c) 1009
d) More than 1009
69. A plain in Western Europe at 500m (1600ft) AMSL is covered with a uniform alto - cumulus cloud
during summer months. At what height AGL is the base of the cloud expected ?
a) 100 - 1500ft
b) 15000 - 25000ft
c) 7000 - 15000ft
d) 1500 - 7000ft
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
70. A pilot experiences severe turbulence and icing. A competent met. man would issue:
a) SPECI
b) METAR
c) TEMPO
d) SIGMET
71. Which of these would cause your true altitude to decrease with a constant indicated altitude?
a) Cold/Low
b) Hot/Low
c) Cold/High
d) Hot/High
78. Microbursts:
a) Only affect tropical areas
b) Average lifespan 30mins
c) Typical horizontal dimensions 1 - 3km
d) Always associated with CB clouds
80. Clouds classified as low level are considered to have a base height of:
a) 500 - 1000ft
b) 1000 - 2000ft
c) the surface - 6500ft
d) 100 - 200ft
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
88. Where would you expect to find the strongest wind on the ground in temperate latitudes?
a) In an area of Low pressure
b) In an area of High pressure
c) In the warm air between two fronts
d) In a weak anticyclone
89. Landing at an airfield with QNH set the pressure altimeter reads:
a) Zero feet on landing only if ISA conditions prevail
b) Zero
c) The elevation of the airfield if ISA conditions prevail
d) The elevation of the airfield
94. Airfield is 69 metres below sea level, QFF is 1030 hPa, temperature is ISA -10°C. What is the QNH?
a) Impossible to tell
b) Less than 1030Hpa
c) 1030Hpa
d) More than 1030Hpa
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95. The QNH is 1030Hpa and at the Transition Level you set the SPS. What happens to your indicated
altitude?
a) Drops by 510ft
b) Rises by 510ft
c) Rises
d) Drops
98. At a coastal airfield, with the runway parallel to the coastline. You are downwind over the sea with
the runway to your right. On a warm summer afternoon, what would you expect the wind to be on
finals?
a) crosswind from the right
b) Headwind
c) Tailwind
d) Crosswind from the left
99. The temperature at the surface is 15°C, the temperature at 1000m is 13°C. Is the atmosphere
a) Unstable
b) Conditionally unstable
c) Stable
d) Cannot tell
100. Altostratus is
a) A low level cloud
b) A medium level cloud
c) A high level cloud
d) A heap type cloud
101. Which of the following would give you the worst airframe icing?
a) GR
b) SN
c) FZFG
d) +FZRA
102. Small super cooled water droplets hit the aerofoil, will it
a) Freeze on impact giving clear ice
b) Partially freezing and running back giving clear ice
c) Freeze on impact giving rime ice
d) Partially freezing and running back giving a cloudy rime ice
103. In a METAR you see the coding R16/P1300. What does this imply?
a) RVR assessed to be more than 1300 meters
b) RVR equipment is problematic
c) RVR is improving
d) RVR is varying
106. Several aircraft report clear air turbulence in a certain area en route
a) ATC should issue a storm warning
b) ATC should close the specified area
c) A competent ATC should issue a SPECI
d) A competent ATC should issue a SIGMET
109. ICAO statement no diversion necessary, de-icing is not required or is effective; the icing in this case
is
a) Light
b) Moderate
c) Severe
d) Extreme
111. If an Isohypse on a surface pressure chart of 500hPa shows a figure of 522, this indicates
a) Topography of 522m above MSL
b) Topography of 522 decametres above MSL
c) Pressure is 522mb
d) A low surface pressure
113. RVR is
a) Measured using ceilometers along the runway
b) Displayed in TAF=s and METAR=s
c) Usually greater than met visibility
d) Given when the met visibility is below 2000m
117. Which of the following METARs at 1850UTC will most likely give fog formation over the coming
night?
a) 240/04 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC 3000 17/14 Q1002 NOSIG=
b) VRB002 9999 SCT150 17/M08 Q1012 NOSIG=
c) VRB001 8000 SCT280 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000
d) VRB002 8000 FEW 100 12/09 Q1025 BECMG 0800
119. What is the relationship between the 5000ft wind and the surface wind in the southern hemisphere:-
a) Surface winds are veered from the 5000ft and have the same speed.
b) Surface winds are backed from the 5000ft and have a slower speed.
c) Surface winds are veered from the 5000ft and have a slower speed.
d) Surface winds are backed from the 5000ft and have a faster speed.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
128. Which of the following will give the greatest difference between temperature and dew point?
a) Dry air
b) Moist air
c) Cold air
d) Warm air
130. How are CBs that are not close to other CBs described on a SIGMET?
a) Isolated
b) Embedded
c) Frequent
d) Occasional
134. Air temperature in the afternoon is +12°C with a dew point of +5°C. What temperature change must
happen for saturation to occur?
a) cool to +5°C
b) cool by 5°C
c) cool to +6°C
d) cool to +7°C
135. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?
a) Inversion
b) Advection
c) Adiabatic
d) Subsidence
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137. You have to fly through a warm front. The freezing level in the warm air is at I0,000ft and the
freezing layer in the cold air is at 2,000ft. Where are you least likely to encounter freezing rain?
a) 12,000ft
b) 9,000ft
c) 5,000ft
d) 3,000ft
138. You are flying at FL 170. The pressure level which is closest to you is the
a) 300mb
a) 700mb
c) 500mb
d) 850mb
145. Air temperature is 12°C, Dew point is 10°C and the sea temperature is 8°C. What might you expect if
the air is blown over the sea ?
a) Steaming fog
b) Radiation fog
c) Arctic smoke
d) Advection fog
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
146. A cold pool over land in summer would give rise to:
a) Clear skies
b) Low stratus with intermittent rain
c) A potentially very unstable atmosphere
d) Extensive industrial haze
147. Near industrial areas with lots of smoke what the worst situation is for met vis:
a) Low level inversion
b) Strong winds
c) Fast moving cold fronts
d) Cb's in the area
148. Upper level winds are forecast in significant weather charts as:
a) True/knots
b) Magnetic/knots
c) Magnetic/km/h
d) True/km/h2
149. METAR winds are meaned over the.............. period immediately preceding the time of observation.
a) 10 minute
b) 30 minute
c) 1 hour
d) 1 minute
152. Which of the following constituents in the atmosphere has the greatest effect on the weather?
a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen
d) Water Vapour
153. When would you mostly likely get fair weather Cu?
a) 15:00
b) 12:00
c) 17:00
d) 07:00
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
162. What are the TRS off the coast of Madagascar called and when would you expect to find them?
a) Cyclones, in December and January
b) Hurricanes, in July and August
c) Typhoons, in May to November
d) Cyclones, in June and July
164. On rare occasions TS can be found along the warm front. What conditions could lead to this ?
a) The warm sector being stable
b) The warm sector being unstable
c) The cold air being stable
d) The cold air being unstable
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
167. If an Aerodrome is 1500ft AMSL on QNH 1038, what will the actual height AGL to get to FL75?
a) 6670 ft
b) 8170 ft
c) 8330 ft
d) 2330 ft
170. Altimeter set to 1023 at aerodrome. On climb to altitude the SPS is set at transition altitude. What
will indication on altimeter do on resetting to QNH?
a) Dependent on temperature
b) Decrease
c) Increase
d) Same
173. An aircraft is stationary on the ground. With the passage of an active cold front its altimeter will
show:
a) An increase then a decrease
b) Will fluctuate 50ft
c) A decrease then an increase
d) Remain constant
179. On a descent through cloud cover at high level you notice a white, cloudy or opaque, rough powder
like substance on the leading edge of the wing. This contamination is likely to be:
a) Frost
b) Clear ice
c) Mixed ice
d) Rime ice
180. In association with CB in temperate latitudes, at about what levels can hail be anticipated?
a) Ground to FL 100
b) Ground to FL200
c) Cloud base to FL200
d) Ground to FL450
187. As an active cold front passes, the altimeter of an a/c parked on the apron
a) Increases then decreases
b) Fluctuates by 50 ft
c) Decreases then increases
d) Remains unchanged
192. The Geostrophic Wind blows at your flight level in Northern Hemisphere, true altitude and indicated
altitude remain constant, is the crosswind
a) From the left
b) From the right
c) No crosswind
d) Impossible to determine
196. What happens to an aircraft altimeter on the ground once a cold front has passed?
a) increases
b) decreases
c) increases then decreases
d) remains the same
197. What happens to an aircrafts altimeter on the ground at the approach of a cold front?
a) increases then decreases
b) decreases then increases
c) remains the same
d) increases
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
198. Even pressure system, no CB - what would you notice the altimeter in an aircraft on the ground to do
during a 10 min period
a) remains the same as any fluctuations are small
b) increases
c) rapidly fluctuates
d) impossible to tell
207. On a significant weather chart you notice a surface weather front with an arrow labelled with the no.
5 pointing outward perpendicular from the front. This would indicate
a) Front speed is 5kts
b) Front movement is 5nm
c) Front thickness is 5km
d) front is 5000ft AMSL
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
208. With all other things being equal with a high and a low having constantly spaced circular isobars.
Where is the wind the fastest.
a) Anticyclonec
b) Cyclonic
c) Where the isobars are closest together
d) Wherever the PGF is greatest.
211. Cu is an indication of
a) vertical movement of air
b) stability
c) the approach of a warm front
d) the approach of a cold front
218. From which of the following clouds are you least likely to get precipitation in summer?
a) CS/NS
b) CS/AS
c) CB/CU
d) CU/ST
221. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when forced to descend?
a) it heats up more than dry because of expansion
b) it heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c) it heats up more than dry because of sublimation
d) it heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during condensation
223. What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50ft below MSL?
a) QFE = QNH
b) QFE < QNH
c) QFE > QNH
d) There is no clear relationship
225. Up to FL180 ISA Deviation is ISA +10°C. What is the actual depth of the layer between FL60 and FL
120?
a) 6000ft
b) 6240ft
c) 5760ft
d) 5700ft
232. On a significant weather chart you notice a symbol with the letter "H" and the number "400" inside.
What does this imply?
a) The height of the significant weather chart
b) Tropopause "low"
c) Tropopause "high"
d) Tropopause "middle"
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
233. You are at 12,000 ft (FL 120) with an outside air temperature is -2°C. Where would you find the
freezing level?
a) FL 110
b) FL 100
c) FL 090
d) FL 140
236. What weather might you expect behind a fast moving cold front ?
a) 8 oktas of layered cloud
b) Scattered ST
c) Isolated CB's and showers
d) Continuous rain
240. The wind in the Northern Hemisphere at the surface and above the friction layer at 2000 ft would
be?
a) Veered at the surface, veered above the friction layer
b) Backed at the surface, veered above the friction layer
c) Veered at the surface, backed above the friction layer
d) Backed at the surface, backed above the friction layer
242. In a shallow pressure distribution you observe the aneroid altimeter of a parked aircraft for 10
minutes (no TS observed ). The reading of the instrument will -
a) not be influenced by the air pressure
b)increase greatly .
c)slow no appreciable change due to such a minor pressure fluctuation. .
d) experience great changes..
247. The surface wind circulation found between the sub tropical highs and the equatorial lows are
called?
a) The doldrums
b) The trade winds
c) The easterlies
d) The westerlies
248. An occlusion is mimicking a cold front, where would the coldest air be found?
a) Behind the original cold front.
b) Behind the original warm front
c) In front of the occlusion.
d) In front of the original warm front.
253. On the route London to Bombay, which feature would you most likely encounter between 30E and
50E.
a) Polar front jet in excess of 90kts
b) Sub tropical jet in excess of 90kts
c) Variable winds less than 30kts
d) Easterly winds
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
272. An aircraft flies into an area of supercooled rain with a temperature below zero, what kind of icing is
most likely
a) Clear
b) Rime
c) Hoar frost
d) Granular frost
274. An unsaturated parcel of air is forced to rise through an isothermal layer. As long as it stays
unsaturated the temperature of the parcel will
a) Remain the same
b) Become equal to the temperature of the isothermal layer
c) Decrease at 1.0 deg C per 100m
d) Decrease at 0.65 deg C per 100m
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
275. 1n the Northern Hemisphere a man observes a low pressure system passing him to the south, from
west to east. What wind will he experience?
a) Backs then Veers
b) Constantly Backs
c) Veers then Backs
d) Backs then steady
279. If you fly with left drift in the Northern Hemisphere, what is happening to your true altitude?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Stays the same
d) Cannot tell
281. In a shallow pressure distribution (widely spaced Isobars or low pressure gradients) you observe the
aneroid altimeter of a parked aircraft for 10 minutes (no thunderstorms observed). The reading of
the instrument will...
a) Not be influenced by the air pressure
b) Increase greatly
c) Show no appreciable change due to such a minor pressure fluctuation
d) Experience great changes
283. Above a stable layer in the lower troposphere in an old high pressure system is called:
a) radiation inversion
b) subsidence inversion
c) frontal inversion
d) terrestrial inversion
285. How does the level of the tropopause vary with latitude in the Northern Hemisphere?
a) Decreases North - South
b) Decreases South - North
c) Constant
d) It varies with longitude not latitude
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
287. What affects how much water vapour the air can hold?
a) RH
b) Temperature
c) Dew point
d) Pressure
290. Landing at an airfield with QNH set the pressure altimeter reads:
a) Zero feet on landing only if ISA conditions prevail
b) Zero
c) The elevation of the airfield if ISA conditions prevail
d) The elevation of the airfield
291. The geotropic wind blows at your flight level in the Northern Hemisphere, the true altitude and
indicated altitude remain constant, is the cross wind :-
a) From the left
b) From the right
c) No cross wind.
d) Impossible to determine.
294. What happens to an aircrafts altimeters on the ground ones a cold front has passed?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Increases then decreases
d) Remain the same
296. Which of the following will give the greatest difference between temperature and dew point?
a) Dry air
b) Moist air
c) Cold air
d) Warm air
298. An early morning fog over the sea lasts all day. As the land heats up, the sea fog -
a) May drift over the land
b) will always disperse
c) will always remain over the sea
d) will always remain over the land.
301. NOAA is a polar orbital Meteorological satellite which was launched by:
a) Russia
b) USA
c) Japan
d) ESA
302. Satellite Data Distribution System (SADIS) is a system for distribution of:-
a) Radar imageries
b) Meteorological data distribution system
c) Telecommunication system
d) Rainfall measurement system
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
308. For a short range weather forecast which observation is more effective:
a) Satellite observation
b) Radar observation
c) Radio sonde observation
d) Ship observation
311. Which type of Nor’wester reaches upto Meghna estuary through Rajshahi Division :-
a) Type-A
b) Type-B
c) Type-C
d) Type-D
315. Most of the active western disturbance that comes towards Bangladesh are:-
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) None of the above
316. Western disturbance do not precisely travel west to east but their normal track is slightly:-
a) N/NE-ward
b) South-SE ward
c) E/NE-wards
d) North to South ward
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
325. For graphical record of air surface temperature the instrument used :-
a) Barograph
b) Thermometer
c) Thermograph
d) Hygrograph
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
329. Which of the following constituents in the atmosphere has the greatest effect on weather:-
a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Water vapor
d) Hydrogen.
335. Air at the upper levels of the atmosphere is diverging, what would you expect at he surface ?
a) Rise in pressure with clouds dissipating
b) Rise in pressure with clouds dissipating
c) Fall in pressure with cloud dissipating
d) Fall in pressure with cloud forming.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Meteorology (CPL/IR )
339. If ice forms over the static vent of an aeroplane and blocks it during the climb , the air speed
indicator will read
a) Zero
b) Too fast
c) Too slow
d) Correctly
340. Flying into an area where the cloud base is lowering to within 1000ft of the terrain , ice starts to form
on the wings your of course of action is to -
a) climb, even though it means entering cloud.
b) Descend into warmer air, but continue on.
c) maintin track and level .
d) turn back
341. A man is flying East to West in the Northern Hemisphere. What is happening to the altitude ?
a) Flying into a head wind will decrease altitude
b) If the wind is from the south, he will gain altitude
c) If the wind is from the north, he will gain altitude
d) Tail wind will increase altitude
343. Weather formation for certain aerodromes is available in recorded form on the VOLMET service -
a) Through the post
b) By radio
c) Via the public telephone network.
d) From ATC prior to flight.
346. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude ?
a) Inversion
b) Advection
c) Adiabatic
d) Subsidence
349. In association with CB in temperature latitude at about what levels can hail be anticipated
a) Ground to FL 100
b) Ground to FL 200
c) Cloud base FL 200
d) Ground to FL 450
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