SBI PO Preliminary Model Paper 15 PDF

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Sections Number of questions Marks Duration of Exam
1. English Language 30 30
2. Reasoning 35 35 60 minutes
3. Quantitative Aptitude 35 35
Total = 100 Qs. Total marks = 100
Test – English Language
Q. (1 – 5): In each question below, a part is printed in bold. It may contain an error. If so, find out which
of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the part printed in bold in the following
sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is
and ‘no correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer
Q. 1. When they start investigating, several irregularities were detected.
(1) started investigate
(2) started an investigation
(3) start investigation
(4) started off investigation
(5) No correction required
Q. 2. You must be stopped these undesirable activities immediately.
(1)must have been stopped
(2)may have been stopped
(3)might have been stopped
(4) must stop
Q. 3. Farmers in our country suffer because of an over dependence on rain and the threat to natural
calamities like floods.
www.ibpsexamguru.in Page 1
(1) threat of natural calamities
(2) threat against natural calamities
(3) threatened due to natural calamity
(4) natural calamities threatened
Q. 4. Automation in agriculture and farm management is considered a boon but in fact, it is not true as
they lid to more unemployment.
(1) it lids to more employment
(2) they lead to more employment
(3) they lead to more unemployment
(4) it leads to more unemployment
Q. 5. The agricultural sector deserves more attention than the industrial sector in our country.
(1) deserves attention more
(2) deserving more attention
(3) deserve more attention
(4) deserve to be attended more
Q. (6 – 15): In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers
are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Some of India's largest companies have begun opening the (6) of what they say will be thousands of new
supermarkets across the country in the next few years. At the same time foreign retail chains are (7) to
enter the market through joint ventures and by (8) the government to change protectionist laws so that
they can set up wholly owned chains. The opportunities are (9)- McKinsey Global Institute estimates
that India's retail market will be (10) $1.52 trillion by 2025 and the food and beverage category will
account for 25 percent of all retail spending in twenty years. Building new stores to (11) that demand is
easy. The difficulty lies in supplying them with fresh, safe and clean fruits and vegetables through a (12)
chain that links farms and consumers, country and cities. It is here that the real revolution lies. At (13)
India has one of the most fragmented supply chains in the world. On an average goods pass through six
or seven middlemen before a consumer can buy it. (14), in tortuous journeys and poor quality. Replacing
that system requires not just building a modern efficient network but (15) it to Indian conditions.
Q. 6. (1) Economical (2) Initial (3) First (4) Ideal (5) Premium
Q. 7. (1) Pressing (2) Arrived (3) Urgent (4) Intent (5) Pursuing
Q. 8. (1) Inviting (2) Threatening (3) Warning (4) Campaigning (5) Lobbying
Q. 9. (1) Local (2) Immense (3) Mysterious (4) Remote (5) Greatest
Q. 10. (1) Depleted (2) Priced (3) valued (4) Worth (5) Account
Q. 11. (1) Create (2) Generate (3) Experience (4) Saturate (5) Meet
Q. 12. (1) Rigid (2) Elaborated (3) sophisticated (4) Routine (5) flexible
Q. 13. (1) Moment (2) Present (3) Current (4) Last (5) Par
Q. 14. (1) Investing (2) filling (3) dealing (4) resulting (5) allowing
Q. 15. (1) Adapting (2) Adhering (3) complying (4) Adopting (5) attaching
Q. (16 – 20): In each of the following questions five words are given which are denoted by (A),(B),(C),(D)
and (E).By using all the five words, each only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically
correct sentence. The correct order of the words is your answer. Choose from the five alternatives the
one having the correct order of words and mark it as your answer on the answer sheet.
Q. 16. A. he B. up C. has
D. to E. woken F. reality
(1) CADFEP (2) ACEBDF (3) BDFACE (4) FCEBDA (5) BDEACF
Q. 17. A. now B. she C. formal
D. should E. charge F. take
(1) BDCFEA (2) BDAFCE (3) ABFDCE (4) ABEDCF (5) CDEABF
Q. 18. A. emerged B. leverage C. greater
D. the E. party F. with
(1) BDAFCE (2) DAFBCE (3) DEAFCB (4) EAFDCB (5) AFCBDE
Q. 19. A. to B. strike C. were
D. unable E. alliances F. they
(1) ABEFCD (2) FCDABE (3) ACDBFE (4) BFEACD (5) FCEDAB
Q. 20. A. turbine B. prices C. event
D. the E. fell F. after
(1) DABEFC (2) BEFDCA (3) BAEDCF (4) ABCDEF (5) ABEFDC
Q. (21 – 30): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it The error, if any, will be in
one part off the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5).
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
Q. 21. 1) It is not worthy /2) the company’s reputation /3) to compromise with quality /4) for the sake
of profit. /5) No error
Q. 22. 1) The company which has /2) won the government contract /3) also plans to invest /4) with the
power sector /5) No error
Q. 23. 1) Implementing these measures /2) will help the government /3) to save more of /4)
400croreseach year. /5) No error
Q. 24. 1) You have failed to produce /2) no evidence to support /3) the charge that he /4) is responsible
for the error. /5) No error
Q. 25. 1) As per the agreement /2) scientists from both of /3) the countries will work /4) together to find
a solution. /5) No error
Q. 26. 1) Negotiations with the bank /2) are at an advanced /3) stage and we hope to /4) signed the deal
soon. /5) No error
Q. 27. 1) These goods have been /2) damaged and as such /3) should be declared /4) unsuitable for sale.
/5) No error
Q. 28. 1) On account of the /2) high land prices we /3) are set up the factory /4) on the outskirts of the
city. /5) No error
Q. 29. 1) Bhutan is a beautiful /2) country which almost /3) eighty percent of the /4) population lives in
villages. /5) No error
Q. 30. 1) Out of the six companies /2) short-listed for the project /3) five have already /4) made its
presentations. /5) No error
Answers
Q. 1. (2) The sentence is of past so past form of verb should be used.
The verb is followed by a noun–which can be an abstract noun (investigation), gerund form of verb
investigating or to + infinitive (investigate).
Q. 2. (4) must is followed by first form of verb (stop) when we want to express, command, order or
compulsion.
Q. 3. (1) Threat of– fear of (danger of)
Q. 4. (4) "is" used in the sentence expresses that "Automation agriculture and farm management" stand
for a single idea. So singular pronoun (it) should be used
Q. 5. (5) No correction required.
Q. 6. (2) initial–the beginning step here they are talking about companies (plural) and first (denotes
singular) can not be used her
Q. 7. (4) Intent–when you want something or plan something to do.
Q. 8. (5) Lobbying–trying to convince or persuade (esp. a government or official)
Q. 9. (2) immense–great in amount. Greatest is used for superlative
eg. The opportunity this time, is greatest of all times.
Q. 10. (4) worth– the retail market will be of that value.
valued– given importance.
Q. 11. (5) meet the demand–fulfill the requirement.
Q. 12. (3) Sophisticated– clever and complicated way. (having so many middle men in the chain it
becomes difficult to transfer the things cleverly through the complicated procedure)
Q. 13. (2) At present mean–now or now-a-days.
Q. 14. (4) the passage of goods through six or seven middlemen results in torturous journey and poor
quality.
Q. 15. (1) adapting to something means to change in order to suit a different condition or use.
Q. 16. (2)
Q. 17. (1)
Q. 18. (3)
Q. 19. (2)
Q. 20. (5)
Q. 21. (1) Replace worthy with worth. worth is an adjective that is not used before a noun.
worth something or doing something means used to recommend the action or thing mentioned because
you think It may be useful, important or enjoyable.
worthy is also an adjective but it means having the qualities that deserve somebody or something.
Q. 22. (4) Replace with in invest is used with in or sometimes with on.
Q. 23. (3) Replace of with than more is used with than in comparative degree.
Q. 24. (2) Replace no with any Two negative words can not be used in a sentence. Here failed is used
which gives a negative implication so no can not be used with it.
Q. 25. (2) Remove of. both the countries is the correct form. Use of of is superfluous.
Q. 26. (4) Replace signed with sign as the sentence is in present tense and hope gives an indication of
near future.
Q. 27. (5)
Q. 28. (3) Replace set up with setting up is/am/are/ was/were are generally used with progressive form
of the verb in continuous tense.
Q. 29. (2) Add in before which Bhutan is a beautiful country in which almost eighty percent live in
villages. which just serves as a relative pronoun and in shows position/includes something
Q. 30. (4) Replace its with their companies is a plural noun so a plural pronoun should be used for it.
Test – Reasoning
Q. (1 – 5): Each of the following series consists of seven figures, two of which at the end are
unnumbered. One of the five numbered figure does not fit into the series. Find out the figure.
Q. (6 – 10): In the following question, a related pair of figures is followed by five numbered pairs of
figures. Select the pair that has a relationship similar to that in the original Pair.
Q. (11 – 15): In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figure on the right
should come after the problem figures on the left, If the sequence were continued.
Q. 16. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters AMRE using each letter only
once in each word?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q. 17. How many such digits are there in the number 42519673 each of which is as far away from the
beginning in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
Q. 18. In a certain code MODERN is written as 5% 3 8#@ and WIN is written as 6©@. How is RIDE
written in that code?
(1) # © 3 8 (2) #@ 3 8 (3) # © 8 3 (4) © @ 3 8 (5) None of these
Q. 19. What should come next in the following number series?
2232342345234562345672345678
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 9 (4) 7 (5) None of these
Q. 20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
(1) Sodium (2) Chlorine (3) Magnesium (4) Nitrogen (5) Glucose
Q. 21. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BAROMETER each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) Radish (2) Carrot (3) Garlic (4) Gourd (5) Ginger
(1) 39 (2) 69 (3) 57 (4) 129 (5) 117
Q. 24. In a certain code HEALING is written as BFIKHOJ. How is BEDTIME written in that code?
(1) EFCSJNF (2) EFCSFNJ (3) EFCUFNS (4) CFESFNJ (5) None of these
Q. 25. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the fifth, the seventh
and the eleventh letters of the word STAKEHOLDER, which of the following will be the third letter of that
word? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be
formed, give ‘Y’ as the ‘ answer.
(1) T (2) R (3) E (4) X (5) Y
Q. (26 – 30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II.
You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Given answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question
Q. 26. What does ‘Pe’ mean in a code language?
I. ‘Na Si La Lo’ means ‘you may go now’ and ‘Ne Si Na Pe’ means ‘he may go there’ in that code language.
II. ‘Ki Se Pe Bo’ means ‘come there and see’ and ‘Se Ni Bo Ki’ means ‘come here and see’ in that code
language.
Q. 27. What is Keshav’s rank in a class of 50?
I. Amit, ranking 18th in the class from the top, and 7 ranks below Vivek, who is 5 ranks above Kasha.
II. Saurav, the 10th from the bottom, and 20 ranks below Suresh, who is 5 ranks below Keshav.
Q. 28. How is Ram related to Nitin?
I. Revati, Nitin’s mother, is cousin of Sukesh, the uncle of Ram.
II. Pravin, Ram’s father-in-law, is the grandfather of Sachin, the nephew of Nitin.
Q. 29. Who among M, N, O, P and Q is the youngest?
I. N, the 2nd youngest, and Q younger than O and M.
II. O, the 2nd oldest, is older than N.
Q. 30. Who among P, Q, R, S and T is the shortest?
I. R, though not the shortest, is shorter than only Q.
II. S, though not as tall as P, is not the shortest.
Q. (31 – 35): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II,III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q. 31. Statements: Some desks are mirrors.
Some mirrors are combs.
Some combs are pins.
Conclusions: I. Some pins are desks.
II. Some combs are desks.
III. Some pins are mirrors.
IV. Some pins are either desks or mirrors.
(1) None follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only I follows (4) Only IV follows (5) Only III follows
Q. 32. Statements: All blades are hammers.
All hammers are road.
All road are buckets.
Conclusions: I. Some buckets are hammers.
II. Some road are blades.
III. All hammers are buckets.
IV. All blades are road.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only II and III follow
(3) Only I, II and III follow
(4) Only II, III and IV follow
(5) All follow
Q. 33. Statements: All trees are chairs.
No chair is flower.
Some flowers are bangles.
Conclusions: I. No tree is bangle.
II. No chair is bangle.
III. Some flowers are trees.
IV. Some bangles are trees.
(1) None follows
(2) Only either I or IV follows
(3) Only either II or III follows
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) Only III and IV follow
Q. 34. Statements: All rocks are balls.
Some balls are rings.
All rings are stones.
Conclusions: I. Some stones are rocks.
II. Some rings are rocks.
III. Some balls are rocks.
IV. No stone is rock.
(1) Only I and III follow
(2) Only III and IV follows
(3) Only either I or IV and III follow
(4) Only either I or IV follows
(5) None of these
Q. 35. Statements: All books are papers.
All pencils are papers.
All tables are papers.
Conclusions: I. Some books are pencils.
II. Some pencils are tables.
III. Some tables are books.
IV. Some papers are tables.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only IV follows
(5) None of these
Answers
Q. 1. (1) In the question figure, main figure rotates. 900 CW while 'line' moves '2' sides inner and outer
side respectively.
Q. 2. (2) In the question figure, a new 'arc' is added To main figure.
Q. 3. (4) In the question figure, first from the begining and first from the end, second from the begining
and second from the end and third from the begining and last from the end get changed by moving
side CW.
Q. 4. (5) In the question figure, in each next step '4' figures move inner and outer side respectively.
Q. 5. (5) In the question figure, middle 3 figures get changed from step 1-2 and 2-3 by moving side
ACW and again come in step 4. While design rotates 90° CW and horizontal lines of the figure #
rotates 90° CW from step 1-2 and vertical line rotates 90° CW and ACW in alternate step.
Q. 6. (5)
Opposite figures are made
Q. 7. (5)
Fig. rotates 90° clockwise and making mirror image.
Q. 8. (3) In the question figure, from(I) to (II) a new design is added to outer side.
Q. 9. (4)
(2) fig breaks in to two parts
Q. 10. (5)
Q. 11. (2) In the question figure black blocks move ACW by blanking 2 blocks from back side and in each
next step the number of black blocks increases by '1'
Q. 12. (5) In the question figure, in each next step first and third design move side by rotating 90° CW
while the middle design moves side by rotating 90° ACW
Q. 13. (1)
Note: The direction of design in place of '*' gets reversed.
Q. 14. (4)
Q. 15. (3)
Note: Anew figure comes in place of '*'
Q. 16. (3) MARE and REAM
Q. 17. (3)
Q. 18. (1) M O D E R N = 5 % 3 8 # @
WIN=6©@
∴RIDE=#©38
Q. 19. (2) 2 | 2 3 | 2 3 4 | 2 3 4 5 | 2 3 4 5 6 | 2 3 4 5 6 7| 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 | 2
Q. 20. (5) Except Glucose all other are chemical.
Q. 21. (4)
Q. 22. (4) Except 'Cucumber', all others are grow underground.
Q. 23. (5) (1) 3 + 9 = 12 (4) 1 + 2 + 9 = 12
(2) 6 + 9 = 15 (5) 1 + 1 + 7 = 9
(3) 5 + 7 = 12
∴ 117 is different because it addition is a square of 9.
Q. 24. (2)
Q. 25. (5) The desired letters are T, E,O and R. The meaningful words that can be formed are TORE and
ROTE.
Q. 26. (2)
Ki Se Pe Bo come there and see
Se Ni Bo Ki come here and see
∴ From statement II only Pe means there.
Q. 27. (3) From statement (I) top
Statement (II)
From statement (I) Keshav's rank is 16th from the top whereas from statement II Keshav's rank is 35 from
the bottom in a class of 50 students.
Therefore Either I or II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Q. 28. (2)
∴Uncle has many meaning therefore, we could not reach to answer from (1)
(II)
Therefore, Ram is Brother-in-law of Nitin.
Q. 29. (4) From statement (I) & (II) we could not reach to the answer.
Q. 30. (5) From statement (I) : Q > R
From statement (II): P > S By together statement (I) & II Q > R > P > S > T
Q. 31. (1) I-type statements can’t be combined.
Q. 32. (5) 5; All hammers are road + All road are buckets = A + A = A = All hammers are buckets Hence III
follows. And I follows by converting III. Similarly, IV follows by combining the first two statements. While
II follows by converting IV
Q. 33. (2) All trees are chairs + NO chair is flower =
A + E = E = No tree is flower conversion No flower is tree (E)Hence III does not follow. No chair
flower + Some flowers are bangles = E +I = O* = Some bangles are not chairs. Hence II does not follow.
Again, No tree is flower + Some flowers are bangles = E + I = O* = Some bangles are not trees. This does
not lead to I or IV.
However, these two conclusions form a complementary E-I pair. Hence either I or IV follows.
Q. 34. (3) All rocks are balls (A) conversion Some balls are rocks (I) Hence III follows. All rocks are
balls + Some balls are rings =A+ I = No conclusion Hence Ii does not follow. Nor can we get a “rock=stone”
relationship (I or IV) as the route lies via “ring”. However, I and IV form a complementary I E pair. Hence
either I or IV follows.
Q. 35. (4) All books are papers + Some papers are pencils (conversion of All pencils are papers) = A +I =
No conclusion. Hence II does not follow. Similarly. II and III also do not follow. But IV follows by
converting the last statement.
Test – 3 Quantitative Aptitude
Q. (1 – 5): Study the pie-chart carefully to answer the following questions.
Q. 1. Number of girls enrolled in Dancing is what per cent of total number of students in the school
(rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(1) 12.35 (2) 14.12 (3) 11.67 (4) 10.08 (5) None of these
Q. 2. What is the respective ratio of number of girls enrolled in Swimming to the number of boys
enrolled in Swimming?
(1) 47 : 49 (2) 23:29 (3) 29 : 23 (4) 49 : 47 (5) None of these
Q. 3. What is the approximate percentage of boys in the school?
(1) 34 (2) 56 (3) 28 (4) 50 (5) 42
Q. 4. How many boys are enrolled in Singing and Craft together?
(1) 505 (2) 610 (3) 485 (4) 420 (5) None of these
Q. 5. What is the total number of girls enrolled in Swimming and Drawing together?
(1) 480 (2) 525 (3) 505 (4) 495 (5) None of these
Q. (6 – 10): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions:
Number of units produced (In crores) and exported (in crores) by a Company over the years
Q. 6. In which year is the difference between the units produced and exported the maximum?
(1) 2002 (2) 2003 (3) 2004 (4) 2005 (5) None of these
Q. 7. In which year is the percent of units exported to the units produced the maximum?
(1) 2003 (2) 2004 (3) 2005 (4) 2006 (5) None of these
Q. 8. What is the difference between the number of units exported in 2002 and 2005?
(1) 100000000 (2) 1000000 (3) 10000000 (4) 100000 (5) None of these
Q. 9. In which year is the percent of units exported to the units produced the minimum?
(1) 2001 (2) 2002 (3) 2003 (4) 2004 (5) None of these
Q. 10. What is the average number of units exported over the years?
(1) 40000000 (2) 38333333 (3) 36666666 (4) 20000000 (5) None of these
Q. 11. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs. 536/- is the same as loss incurred after selling the
article for Rs. 426/-. What is the cost price of the article?
(1) Rs.448/- (2) Rs. 470/- (3) Rs.481/- (4) Rs. 500/- (5) None of these
Q. 12. The ages of Surabhi and Neerja are in the ratio of 6 : 7 respectively. After 6 years the ratio of their
ages will be 15 :17. What is the age of Neerja?
(1) 24 years (2) 32 years (3) 26 years (4) 28 years (5) None of these
Q. 13. A sum of money is divided among W,X Y and Z in the ratio of 3 : 7 : 9 :13 respectively. If the share
Of W and Y together is Rs.. 11,172, then what is the difference between the amounts of X and Z?
(1) Rs. 7672 (2) Rs. 6,834 (3) Rs. 5586 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q. 14. In a class of 90 students, amongst 50% of the students each student got number of sweets that
are 20% of the total number of students and the amongst remaining 50% of the students each student
got number of sweets that are 10% of the total number of students. How many sweets were distributed
among 90 students?
(1) 1620 (2) 1215 (3) 960 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q. 15. Mrs. Sharma invests 15% of her monthly salary, i.e. Rs. 4,428/- in Mutual Funds. Later she invests
18%of her monthly salary on Pension Policies; also she invests another 9%of her salary on Insurance
Policies. What is the total monthly amount invested by Mrs. Sharma?
(1) Rs.113356.8 (2) Rs. 12,398.4 (3) Rs. 56,678.4 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q. (16 – 20): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
NUMBEROFARTICLES (IN THOUSANDS) MANUFACTUREDAND SOLD BY SIX DIFFERENT COMPANIES OVER

THE YEARS
Company A B C D E F
Year Manu. Sold Manu. Sold Manu. Sold Manu. Sold Manu. Sold Manu. Sold
2001 28.2 18.6 18.1 14.4 24.5 20.1 14.5 9.7 30.0 24.4 24.4 17.9
2002 16.7 11.2 23.4 16.5 18.8 11.1 29.7 20.5 23.5 16.9 31.6 21.7
2003 30.1 23.4 20.2 12.8 24.9 13.5 29.0 19.4 26.2 17.7 21.4 15.5
2004 22.5 15.9 30.5 17.6 22.7 16.2 16.8 10.2 26.2 21.4 20.8 14.3
2005 18.9 12.8 29.6 19.3 31.4 18.9 28.3 11.8 29.9 22.2 19.3 14.2
2006 15.4 10.3 33.5 24.6 28.8 21.3 19.8 13.5 24.3 18.2 27.8 18.5
Q. 16. What is the respective ratio of number of articles not sold by Company C in the year 2005 to
those not sold by Company D in the same year?
(1) 33 : 25 (2) 21 :44 (3) 25 : 33 (4) 44 : 21 (5) None of these
Q. 17. What is the average number of articles not sold by all companies together in the year 2006?
(1) 7200 (2) 43.2 (3) 43,200 (4) 7.2 (5) None of these
Q. 18. What is the approximate average percentage of articles sold by Company B to those
manufactured by it over the years?
(1) 54 (2) 77 (3) 42 (4) 68 (5) 83
Q. 19. Which Company sold the least number of articles overall the years together?
(1) C (2) A (3) F (4) B (5) None of these
Q. 20. Number of articles sold by Company E in the year 2003 is what percent of the articles
manufactured by it in that year? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(1) 71.48 (2) 67.56 (3) 52.43 (4) 44.29 (5) None of these
Q. (21 – 25): In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve
both the equations and—
Give answer
(1) If X > Y (2) If X > Y (3) If X < Y (4) If X < Y (5) If X = Y or the relationship cannot be established.
Q. 21. I. Y = X
Q. 22. I. 4X + 2Y = 8.5 II. 2X + 4Y = 9.5
Q. 23. I. X = II. Y = +
Q. 24. I. X2 + 17X + 72 = 0 II. Y2 + 15Y + 56 = 0
Q. 25. I. X2 + 12X + 27 = 0 II. Y2 + 11Y + 30 = 0
Q. (26 – 30): Study the pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Percentage of employees in different departments of our Organization out of which the number of
employees promoted
Q. 26. What is the percentage of employees promoted from the Maintenance and Accounts
departments together to the total number of employees from these two departments? (Rounded off to
two digits after decimal)
(1) 7.58 (2) 6.27 (3) 9.15 (4) 8.34 (5) None of these
Q. 27. What is the respective ratio of number of employees not promoted from HR department to those
from Production department?
(1) 216:389 (2) 337:417 (3) 389:216 (4) 417:337 (5) None of these
Q. 28. What is the number of employees working in the IT department?
(1) 1020 (2) 1045 (3) 1150 (4) 1140 (5) None of these
Q. 29. Which department has the highest percentage of promoted employees to the total number of
employees of that department?
(1) IT (2) Marketing (3) Maintenance (4) HR (5) None of these
Q. 30. The number of employees who got promoted from the Marketing department is what percent of
total number of employees in that department? (rounded off to the nearest integer)
(1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 3 (4) 6 (5) None of these
Q. (31 – 35): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
Q. 31. 73% of 8523 + 32% of 6245 = ?
(1) 8042.21 (2) 8136.28 (3) 8625.35 (4) 8220.19 (5) None of these
Q. 32. =?
(1) 93 (2) 76 (3) 83 (4) 86 (5) None of these
Q. 33. 81.3 x 40.6 x 160.2 =2?
(1) 2.1 (2) 3.8 (3) 5.9 (4) 4.7 (5) None of these
Q. 34. 8226 ÷ 15 ÷ 5 = ?
(1) 2156 (2) 109.68 (3) 185.56 (4) 2742 (5) None of these
Q. 35. (3?)? = 19683
(1) 6 (2) 9 (3) 4 (4) 8 (5) None of these
Answers
Q. (1 – 5):
Activities Total no. of students Girls Boys

Dancing 720 350 370
Craft 750 385 365
Drawing 420 280 140
Swimming 480 245 235
Singing 630 490 140
Q. 1. (3) Percent = × 100
= 11.67%
Q. 2. (4) Ratio = = = 49 : 47
Q. 3. (5) No. of boys = 3000 - 1750= 1250
Percent = × 100
= 41.67 = 42%
Q. 4. (1) Boys in singing = 140
Boys in Craft = 365
= 140 + 365
= 505
Q. 5. (2) Girls in Swimming = 245
Girls in Drawing = 280
= 245 + 280
= 525
Q. 6. (3) Maximum difference between (units produced) and unit exported in year 2004
= (6–1) crores units
= 5 crores units
Q. 7. (5)
Years Units Produced Units Export Percentage of units
exports
2001 8 5 × 100 = 62.5%
2002 10 6 × 100 = 60%
2003 7 4 × 100 = 57.14%
2004 6 1 × 100 = 16.67%
2005 8 5 × 100 = 62.5%
2006 5 3 × 100 = 60%
In 2001 and 2005, the exported units Are maximum in percentage.
Q. 8. (3) Number of units exports in 2002 = 6,00,00,000 unit
Number of units exports in 2005 = 5,00,00,000 unit
Difference = (6,00,00,000 – 5,00,00,000) units.
= 1,00,00,000 units.
Q. 9. (4) See table in question no. 117 In 2004, unit exported to the units produced is minimum.
Q. 10. (1) Total number of units exports in given years = 24,00,00,000 units
Average =
= 4,00,00,000 units
Q. 11. (3 )Let cost price be Rs. X Then,
536 - x = x - 426
= 2x = 962
= x = 481
So cost price is Rs. 481.
Q. 12. (4) Suppose the ages of Surabhi and Neerja are 6x and 7x respectively.
According to question,
= =
= 102x + 102 = 105x + 90
= 102 - 90 = 105x - 102x
= 3x = 12
=x=4
The age of Neerja is 7x then = 7 × 4
= 28 years
Q. 13. (3) Suppose the sum of W, X, Y and Z be
= 3x, 7x, 9x and 3x respectively
Sum of W and Y = 3x + 9x
11172 = 12x
x = 931
Difference between Z and X = 13x - 7x = 6x
= 6 × 931= Rs. 5586
Q. 14. (2) According to the question
= 45 × (20% of 90) + 45 × (10% of 90)
= 45 × 18 + 45 × 9
= 1215
Q. 15. (2) Let the salary be Rs. x
According to the question
15% of x = Rs.4,428/-
X= × 100
= Rs. 29,520
Again total investment =
= (15% + 18% + 9%) of 29520
= × 29520
= Rs. 12398.40
Q. 16. (3) Ratio = 12.5 : 16.5 = 25 : 33
Q. 17. (1) Average =
= 7200
Q. 18. (4) B's sold article = 14.4 + 16.5 + 12.8 + 17.6 + 19.3 + 24.6= 105.2
Average = 105.2 ÷ 6
= 17.53
B's manufactured article = 18.1 + 23.4 + 20.2 + 30.5 + 29.6 + 33.5 = 155.3
Average = 25.88
∴ × 100 = 67.73 or 68%
Q. 19. (5) A's sold article = 18.6 +11.2 + 23.4 + 15.9 + 12.8 + 10.3 = 92.2
B's sold article = 14.4 + 16.5 + 12.8 + 17.6 +19.3 + 24.6 = 105.2
C's sold article = 20.1 + 11.1 + 13.5 + 16.2 + 18.9 +21.3 = 101.1
D's sold article = 9.7 + 20.5 +19.4 + 10.2 + 11.8 + 13.5 = 85.1
E's sold article = 24.4 + 16.9 + 17.7 + 21.4 + 22.2 + 18.2 = 120.8
F's sold article = 17.9 + 21.7 + 15.5 + 14.3 + 14.2 + 18.5 = 102.1
Thus, D sold the least number of articles in all the given years together.
Q. 20. (2) Percent = × 100
= 67.56
Q. 21. (1) II. y = 24.1 - 19.6 = 4.5
putting the value of y in equation (I)
x = 5.0625
So, x > y
Q. 22. (3) From equation (I) and (II) y = 1.75
putting the value of y in equation (I)
4x + 3.5 = 8.5
4x = 5
x = 1.25
So, x < y
Q. 23. (2) I. x = 22
II. y + 22
So, x > y
Q. 24. (4) I. x2 + 17x + 72 = 0
x2 + 9x + 8x + 72 = 0
x = -8, -9
II. y2 + 15y + 56 = 0
y2 + 7y + 8y + 56 = 0
y = - 7, - 8
So, x < y
Q. 25. (5) I. x2 + 12x + 27 = 0
x2 + 9x + 3x + 27 = 0
x = -3, -9
II. y2 + 11y + 30 = 0
y2 + 6y + 5y + 30 = 0
y = - 6, -5
So relationship cannot be established between x and y.
Q. 27. (1) Number of Promoted employees from maintenance & account department = 46 + 24 = 70
Total Number of employees in Maintenance & accounts department
Together = 4200 × = 924
∴ × 100
= 7.58%
Q. 28. (2) Ratio = (42 × 18) - 82 : (42 × 21) – 48 = 674 : 834 = 337 : 417
Q. 29. (5) Total no. of employees in IT dept = = 1050
Q. 30. (3) % of promoted employees in IT
= × 100
= 7.42%
% of promoted employees in maintenance department
= × 100
% of promoted employees in HR-department
= × 100 = 10.84%
% of promoted employees in account dept
= × 100 = 6.12%
% of promoted employees in marketing dept
= × 100 = 6.12%
% of promoted employees in productions dept
Q. 31. (4) 73% of 8523 + 32% of 6245 = ?
= 6221.79 + 1998.4
= 8220.19
Q. 32. (1)
= 93
When the unit digit is 7 & 8 the, the unit digit in the square root must be 3 & 2 respectively. After that
the we compare the rest number after excluding three digit from your right hand i.e. 804. And we know
that 804 is comes under the range of 9 & 10. We always take less than range. So, finally 93 is the answer.
Q. 33. (3) 23 × 1.3 × 22 × 0.6 × 24 × 0.2 = 2?
? = 3.9 + 1.2 + 0.8 = 5.9
Q. 34. (2) 8226 ÷ 15 ÷ 5 = ?
= 109.68
Q. 35. (5) (33)3 = 19683
∴?=3

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Test – English Language

Q. 1. When they start investigating, several irregularities were detected.

(1) started investigate

(2) started an investigation

(3) start investigation

(4) started off investigation

(5) No correction required

Q. 2. You must be stopped these undesirable activities immediately.

(1)must have been stopped

(2)may have been stopped

(3)might have been stopped

(4) must stop

(5) No correction required

(2) threat against natural calamities

(3) threatened due to natural calamity

(4) natural calamities threatened

(5) No correction required

(1) it lids to more employment

(2) they lead to more employment

(3) they lead to more unemployment

(4) it leads to more unemployment

(5) No correction required

(1) deserves attention more

(2) deserving more attention

(3) deserve more attention

(4) deserve to be attended more

(5) No correction required

Q. 17. A. now B. she C. formal

D. should E. charge F. take

Q. 18. A. emerged B. leverage C. greater

D. the E. party F. with

Q. 19. A. to B. strike C. were

D. unable E. alliances F. they

Q. 20. A. turbine B. prices C. event

D. the E. fell F. after

Q. 1. (2) The sentence is of past so past form of verb should be used.

Q. 3. (1) Threat of– fear of (danger of)

Q. 5. (5) No correction required.

Q. 7. (4) Intent–when you want something or plan something to do.

Q. 8. (5) Lobbying–trying to convince or persuade (esp. a government or official)

Q. 9. (2) immense–great in amount. Greatest is used for superlative

Q. 10. (4) worth– the retail market will be of that value.

valued– given importance.

Q. 11. (5) meet the demand–fulfill the requirement.

Q. 13. (2) At present mean–now or now-a-days.

(1) # © 3 8 (2) #@ 3 8 (3) # © 8 3 (4) © @ 3 8 (5) None of these

Q. 19. What should come next in the following number series?

(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 9 (4) 7 (5) None of these

(1) 39 (2) 69 (3) 57 (4) 129 (5) 117

(1) T (2) R (3) E (4) X (5) Y

Q. 26. What does ‘Pe’ mean in a code language?

Q. 27. What is Keshav’s rank in a class of 50?

I. Revati, Nitin’s mother, is cousin of Sukesh, the uncle of Ram.

Q. 29. Who among M, N, O, P and Q is the youngest?

I. N, the 2nd youngest, and Q younger than O and M.

II. O, the 2nd oldest, is older than N.

Q. 30. Who among P, Q, R, S and T is the shortest?

I. R, though not the shortest, is shorter than only Q.

II. S, though not as tall as P, is not the shortest.

Q. 31. Statements: Some desks are mirrors.

Some mirrors are combs.

Some combs are pins.