Quiz questions Answer-Sheet

Chapter 1
Quizlet Links
● https://quizlet.com/44887608/bio-flash-cards/
● https://quizlet.com/160792277/unit-exam-1-flash-cards/
● https://quizlet.com/13538189/biology-test-ch1-4-flash-cards/
● https://quizlet.com/46736139/chapter-1-vocabulary-and-concepts-flash-cards/

Practice test 1
1) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a

A) biosystem.

B) community.

C) population.

D) ecosystem.

E) family.

2) Organisms interact with their environments, exchanging matter and energy. For example,
plant chloroplasts convert the energy of sunlight into

A) the energy of motion.

B) carbon dioxide and water.

C) the potential energy of chemical bonds.

D) oxygen.

E) kinetic energy.

3) The main source of energy for producers in an ecosystem is

A) light energy.

B) kinetic energy.

C) thermal energy.

D) chemical energy.

E) ATP.

4) Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their genetic
material but do not have their DNA encased within a nuclear envelope?

A) animal

B) plant

C) archaea

D) fungi

E) protists

5) To understand the chemical basis of inheritance, we must understand the molecular structure
of DNA. This is an example of the application of which concept to the study of biology?

A) evolution

B) emergent properties

C) reductionism

D) the cell theory

E) feedback regulation

6) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?

A) a membrane-bounded nucleus
B) a cell wall made of cellulose

C) ribosomes

D) flagella or cilia that contain microtubules

E) linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein

7) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?

A) Bacteria and Eukarya

B) Archaea and Monera

C) Eukarya and Monera

D) Bacteria and Protista

E) Bacteria and Archaea

8) A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a single-celled organism that had a cell
wall but lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification?

A) Eukarya

B) Archaea

C) Animalia

D) Protista

E) Fungi

9) A filamentous organism has been isolated from decomposing organic matter. This organism
has a cell wall but no chloroplasts. How would you classify this organism?

A) domain Bacteria, kingdom Prokaryota

B) domain Archaea, kingdom Bacteria

C) domain Eukarya, kingdom Plantae

D) domain Eukarya, kingdom Protista

E) domain Eukarya, kingdom Fungi

10) Which of the following is (are) true of natural selection?

A) It requires genetic variation.

B) It results in descent with modification.

C) It involves differential reproductive success.

D) It results in descent with modification and involves differential reproductive success.

E) It requires genetic variation, results in descent with modification, and involves differential
reproductive success.

11) Charles Darwin proposed a mechanism for descent with modification that stated that
organisms of a particular species are adapted to their environment when they possess

A) non-inheritable traits that enhance their survival in the local environment.

B) non-inheritable traits that enhance their reproductive success in the local environment.

C) non-inheritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local
environment.

D) inheritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local
environment.

E) inheritable traits that decrease their survival and reproductive success in the local
environment.

12) Which of these individuals is likely to be most successful in an evolutionary sense?

A) a reproductively sterile individual who never falls ill

B) an organism that dies after five days of life but leaves 10 offspring, all of whom survive to
reproduce

C) a male who mates with 20 females and fathers one offspring

D) an organism that lives 100 years and leaves two offspring, both of whom survive to
reproduce

E) a female who mates with 20 males and produces one offspring that lives to reproduce

13) Through time, the lineage that led to modern whales shows a change from four-limbed land
animals to aquatic animals with two limbs that function as flippers. This change is best
explained by

A) natural philosophy.

B) creationism.

C) the hierarchy of the biological organization of life.

D) natural selection.

E) feedback inhibition.

14) What is the major difference between a kingdom and a domain?

A) A kingdom can include several subgroups known as domains.

B) All eukarya belong to one domain.

C) All prokaryotes belong to one domain.

D) The importance of fungi has led scientists to make them the whole of one domain.

E) Only organisms that produce their own food belong to one of the domains.

15) What is the major distinguishing characteristic of fungi?

A) gaining nutrition through ingestion

B) being sedentary

C) being prokaryotic

D) absorbing dissolved nutrients

E) being decomposers of dead organisms

16) What are archaea?

A) Prokaryotes characterized as extremophiles that share some bacterial and some eukaryotic
traits.

B) Organisms that are adapted to high temperature environments, such as in volcanic springs.

C) Single-celled organisms that are killed by the application of antibiotics at certain

concentrations.

D) Bacteria-like organisms that can live only in extreme salt environments.

E) Primitive protist-like creatures possessing fewer than two chromosomes per cell.

17) According to Darwinian theory, which of the following exhibits the greatest fitness for
evolutionary success?

A) the species with the longest life

B) the individuals within a population that have the greatest reproductive success

C) the phylum with members that occupy the greatest number of habitats

D) the community of organisms that is capable of living in the most nutrient-poor biome

E) the organism that produces its own nutrients most efficiently

18) Why is the theme of evolution considered to be the core theme of biology by biologists?

A) It provides a framework within which all biological investigation makes sense.

B) It is recognized as the core theme of biology by organizations such as the National Science
Foundation.

C) Controversy about this theory provides a basis for a great deal of experimental research.

D) Since it cannot be proven, biologists will be able to study evolutionary possibilities for many
years.

E) Biologists do not subscribe to alternative models.

19) The method of scientific inquiry that describes natural structures and processes as
accurately as possible through careful observation and the analysis of data is known as

A) hypothesis-based science.

B) discovery science.

C) experimental science.

D) quantitative science.

E) qualitative science.

20) Collecting data based on observation is an example of ________; analyzing this data to
reach a conclusion is an example of ________ reasoning.

A) hypothesis-based science; inductive

B) the process of science; deductive

C) discovery science; inductive

D) descriptive science; deductive

E) hypothesis-based science; deductive

21) Which of the following are qualities of any good scientific hypothesis?

I. It is testable.

II. It is falsifiable.

III. It produces quantitative data.

IV. It produces results that can be replicated.

A) I only

B) II only
C) III only

D) I and II

E) III and IV

22) When a hypothesis cannot be written in an "If...then" format, what does this mean?

A) It does not represent deductive reasoning.

B) It cannot be a scientific hypothesis.

C) The subject cannot be explored scientifically.

D) The hypothesizer does not have sufficient information.

E) It cannot be testable.

23) Which of the following is the best description of a control for an experiment?

A) The control group is kept in an unchanging environment.

B) The control is left alone by the experimenters.

C) The control group is matched with the experimental group except for the one experimental
variable.

D) The control group is exposed to only one variable rather than several.

E) Only the experimental group is tested or measured.

24) Which of these is an example of inductive reasoning?

A) Hundreds of individuals of a species have been observed and all are photosynthetic;
therefore, the species is photosynthetic.

B) These organisms live in sunny parts of this area so they are able to photosynthesize.

C) If horses are always found grazing on grass, they can be only herbivores and not omnivores.

D) If protists are all single-celled, then they are incapable of aggregating.

E) If two species are members of the same genus, they are more alike than each of them could
be to a different genus.

25) In a high school laboratory, which of the following constitutes an experiment?

I. learning to use a microscope by examining fixed specimens on slides

II. being able to examine swimming protists under a microscope

III. extracting pigments from plant leaves and separating the types of pigments for identification

IV. preparing root tips for examination by staining them

A) I only

B) II only

C) III only

D) II and III only

E) II, III, and IV

26) Why is a scientific topic best discussed by people of varying points of view, a variety of
subdisciplines, and diverse cultures?

A) They can rectify each other's approach to make it truly scientific.

B) Robust and critical discussion between diverse groups improves scientific thinking.

C) Scientists can explain to others that they need to work in isolation to utilize the scientific
method more productively.

D) This is another way of making science more reproducible.

E) Scientists need to exchange their ideas with other disciplines and cultures so that all groups
are in consensus with the course of future research.

27) A controlled experiment is one that

A) proceeds slowly enough that a scientist can make careful records of the results.

B) tests experimental and control groups in parallel.

C) is repeated many times to make sure the results are accurate.

D) keeps all variables constant.

E) is supervised by an experienced scientist.

28) Which of the following statements best distinguishes hypotheses from theories in science?

A) Theories are hypotheses that have been proved.

B) Hypotheses are guesses; theories are correct answers.

C) Hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power.

D) Hypotheses and theories are essentially the same thing.

E) Theories are proved true; hypotheses are often falsified.

29) Which of the following best describes the logic of scientific inquiry?

A) If I generate a testable hypothesis, tests and observations will support it.

B) If my prediction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypothesis.

C) If my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis.

D) If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results.

E) If my experiments are set up right, they will lead to a testable hypothesis.

30) Which of the following is a correct sequence of levels in life's hierarchy, proceeding
downward from an individual animal?

A) brain, organ system, nerve cell, nervous tissue

B) organ system, nervous tissue, brain

C) organism, organ system, tissue, cell, organ

D) nervous system, brain, nervous tissue, nerve cell

E) organ system, tissue, molecule, cell

31) The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose is known as

A) technology

B) deductive science

C) inductive science

D) anthropologic science

E) pure science

32) The following is a list of biology themes discussed in Chapter 1. Use them to answer the
following.

I. New properties emerge at each level in the biological hierarchy.

II. Organisms interact with other organisms and the physical environment
III. Life requires energy transfer and transformation
IV. Structure and function are correlated at all levels of biological organization
V. Cells are an organism’s basic units of structure and function
VI. The continuity of life is based on heritable information in the form of DNA
VII. Feedback mechanisms regulate biological systems
VIII. Evolution accounts for the unity and diversity of life

Which theme(s) is/are illustrated when a biology class is comparing the rates of
photosynthesis between flowering plant species (Gerbera jamesonii) and a species of
fern (Polypodium polypodiodes)?
A) I only

B) II only

C) I and III

D) I and VII

E) I, III, and V
33) Which of the following is a correct sequence of levels in life’s hierarchy, proceeding
downward from an individual animal?

A) brain, organ system, nerve cell, nervous tissue

B) organ system, nervous tissue, brain

C) organism, organ system, tissue, cell, organ

D) nervous system, brain, nervous tissue, nerve cell

E) organ system, tissue, molecule, cell

34) Golden algae are a group of protists whose color is due to carotenoid pigments: yellow and
brown. Most have two flagella and all are photosynthetic. A group of students was given a
significant sample of one of these (Dinobryon) that is colonial. Their instructions for the project
were to design two or more experiments that could be done with these organisms.

The students decide that for one of their experiments, they want to see whether the organisms
can photosynthesize. Which of the following is the best hypothesis?
A) If the Dinobryon can live > 5 days without added food, they must be able to photosynthesize

B) If the Dinobryon can live without exposure to light for > 5 days, they must be able to
photosynthesize
C) If the Dinobryon photosynthesize, they must need no other minerals or nutrients and will be
able to live in distilled water and light alone

D) If the Dinobryon are kept in the dark, one-half will be expected to die in 5 days

E) If the Dinobryon are able to photosynthesize, the students should be able to extract
photosynthetic pigments

35) Golden algae are a group of protists whose color is due to carotenoid pigments: yellow and
brown. Most have two flagella and all are photosynthetic. A group of students was given a
significant sample of one of these (Dinobryon) that is colonial. Their instructions for the project
were to design two or more experiments that could be done with these organisms.

For their second experiment, the students want to know whether the Dinobryon have to live in
colonies or can be free living. How might they proceed?
A) Observe each day to see whether new organisms are ever reproduced as single cells

B) Observe whether only specialized cells are able to divide to produce new colonies

C) Divide a sample into single cells and measure the length of time they remain this way

D) Divide a sample into single cells and observe them

E) Divide a sample into single cells and see whether they come back together

36) Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of fungi?

A) obtaining nutrients by absorbing them from the environment

B) obtaining nutrients by ingesting other organisms

C) producing sugars by photosynthesis

D) living in extreme environments like boiling hot springs

37) Which of the following best describes a model organism?

A) It is often pictured in textbooks and easy for students to imagine.

B) It lends itself to many studies that are useful to beginning students.

C) It is well studied, easy to grow, and results are widely applicable.

D) It is small, inexpensive to raise, and lives a long time.

E) It has been chosen for study by the earliest biologists.

38) Why is Darwin considered original in his thinking?

A) He provided examples of organisms that had evolved over time.

B) He demonstrated that evolution is continuing to occur now.

C) He described the relationship between genes and evolution.

D) He proposed the mechanism that explained how evolution takes place.

E) He observed that organisms produce large numbers of offspring.

39) When the body's blood glucose level rises, the pancreas secretes insulin and, as a result,
the blood glucose level declines. When the blood glucose level is low, the pancreas secretes
glucagon and, as a result, the blood glucose level rises. Such regulation of the blood glucose
level is the result of

A) catalytic feedback

B) positive feedback

C) negative feedback
D) bioinformatic regulation

E) protein-protein interactions

40) Which branch of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying of organisms?

A) informatics

B) schematic biology

C) taxonomy

D) genomics

E) evolution

41) Membrane-enclosed components of cells that carry out specialized functions are

A) tissues

B) molecules

C) organelles

D) organs

42) What are archaea

A) Prokaryotes characterized as extremophiles that share some bacterial and some eukaryotic
traits

B) Organisms that are adapted to high temperature environments, such as in volcanic springs

C) Single-celled organisms that are killed by the application of antibiotics at certain

concentrations

D) Bacteria-like organisms that can live only in extreme salt environments

E) Primitive protist-like creatures possessing fewer than two chromosomes per cell
43) Similarities and differences among/between life-forms over time are most efficiently
recorded by scientists in which field(s) of study?

A) paleontology

B) paleontology and anatomy

C) paleontology, anatomy, and taxonomy

D) paleontology, anatomy, taxonomy, and genetics

E) paleontology, anatomy, taxonomy, genetics, and ecology

44) Which of the following cells lack a nucleus?

A) protists

B) fungi

C) animal

D) plant

E) archaea
45)

What do these two plants have in common?

A) adaptations to extreme heat

B) adaptations to conserve water

C) identical stem structures

D) identical flower structures

E) lack of photosynthesis

46) Which of the following statements is false?

A) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen are the most abundant elements of living matter.

B) Some trace elements are very abundant on Earth.

C) Virtually all organisms require the same element needed by all organisms.

D) Iron is an example of an element needed by all organisms.

E) Other than some trace elements, animals are mostly made up of the same elements as
plants, in similar proportion
Practice Test I Answer Key
1) C

2) C

3) A

4) C

5) C

6) C

7) E

8) B

9) E

10) E

11) D

12) B

13) D

14) B

15) D

16) A

17) B

18) A

19) B

20) C

21) D

22) A

23) C

24) A

25) C

26) B
27) B

28) C

29) D

30) D

31) A

32) E

33) D

34) E

35) C

36) A

37) C

38) D

39) C

40) C

41) C

42) A

43) E

44) E

45) B

46) C

Possible Questions with Answers

All of the individuals of the same species living within a specified area is known as a

population.

Organisms interact with their environments, exchanging matter and energy. For example, plant
chloroplasts convert the energy of sunlight to

chemical energy.

Why is it important that an experiment include a control group?

 Without a control group, there is no basis for knowing if a particular result is due
to the variable being tested.
A controlled experiment is one in which

here are at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental
treatment.

Which of the following best demonstrates the unity among all organisms?

DNA structure and function

All of the living things on Earth along with all of the places where life exists is known as

the biosphere.

Burning of fossil fuels releases large amounts of carbon dioxide (CO2) into the atmosphere.
Approximately what proportion of this CO2 remains in the atmosphere, contributing to the
trapping of heat close to the Earth's surface?

50%

The primary source of energy for producers in an ecosystem is

light energy.

Over time, the lineage that led to modern whales shows a change from four-limbed land animals
to aquatic animals with two limbs that function as flippers. This change is best explained by

natural selection.

A single-celled organism isolated from a deep-sea, hot thermal vent was found to have a cell
wall but lacked a nucleus. This organism is most likely a member of which of the following
domains?

Archaea

Chapter 2 + 3
Quizlet links
● https://quizlet.com/109664084/final-chapter-2-flash-cards/
● https://quizlet.com/80129655/bio-final-ch-2-flash-cards/
● https://quizlet.com/65620576/ap-bio-chapter-2-flash-cards/
● https://quizlet.com/50422601/biology-sc002-chapter-2-flash-cards/
● https://quizlet.com/49266413/unit-2-flash-cards/
● https://quizlet.com/92363464/biology-quiz-1-flash-cards/
 ● https://quizlet.com/170634427/bio-chapter-2-practice-questions-flash-cards/
● https://www.easynotecards.com/notecard_set/62192 (A good one for a practice
test)

Practice Test II
1) Phosphorus-32, a radioactive isotope of phosphorus-31 (atomic number 15), undergoes a
form of radioactive decay whereby a neutron turns into a proton and emits radiation in the form
of an electron. What is the product of such radioactive decay of phosphorus-32?
A) phosphorus-31

B) a positively charged phosphorus-31 ion

C) a negatively charged phosphorus-32 ion

D) sulfur-32 (atomic number 16)

E) the conversion of the phosphorus-32 atom into pure energy

2) An atom with atomic number 12 would have what type of chemical behavior in bonding with
other elements?
A) It would form ions with a +1 charge.

B) It would form ions with a +2 charge.

C) It would form ions with a -1 charge.

D) It would form ions with a -2 charge.

E) It would form two covalent bonds with other atoms.

3) The atomic number of neon is 10. Therefore, which of the following is most correct about an
atom of neon?
A) It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell.

B) It is inert.

C) It has an atomic mass of 10 daltons.

D) It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell and it is inert

E) It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell, it is inert, and its has an atomic mass of 10
daltons.

4) Fluorine has an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19. How many electrons are
needed to complete the valence shell of a fluorine atom?
A) 1

B) 3

C) 0

D) 7

E) 9

5) What is the maximum number of covalent bonds an element with atomic number 8 can make
with hydrogen?
A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 6

6) The organic molecules in living organisms have a measurably lower ratio of carbon-
13/carbon-12, two stable isotopes of carbon that comprise approximately 1.1% and 98.9% of
atmospheric carbon, respectively. What is a reasonable explanation for this phenomenon?

A) Photosynthesis preferentially uses carbon dioxide molecules with carbon-12, and the lower
carbon-13/carbon-12 ratio propagates through the food chain.

B) Carbon dioxide molecules with carbon-13 stay in the upper atmosphere and are less
available to terrestrial plants and algae.

C) Carbon-13 has a different valence electron configuration and is therefore less chemically
reactive than carbon-12.

D) Oxygen atoms preferentially react with carbon-13, thereby enriching the atmopsphere with
carbon dioxide molecules containing carbon-13 atoms.

E)Carbon dioxide molecules containing carbon-13 are heavier and sink into the ocean depths,,
making them less available to living organisms.

7) Why (if you are careful) are you able to float a needle on the surface of water?

A) The covalent bonds that hold a water molecule together are responsible for this ability.

B) The surface tension that is a result of water’s cohesive properties make this possible.

C) A single needle is less dense than water.

D) Water has adhesive properties.

8) The partial negative charge in a molecule of water occurs because

A) the oxygen atom has two pairs of electrons in its valence shell that are not neutralized by
hydrogen atoms.

B) one of the hydrogen atoms donates an electron to the oxygen atom.

C) the oxygen atom acquires an additional electron.

D) the oxygen atom forms hybrid orbitals that distribute electrons unequally around the oxygen
nucleus.

E) the electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms spend more time around the
oxygen atom nucleus than around the hydrogen atom nucleus.

9) As water freezes, __.

A) its molecules move farther apart

B) it cools the surrounding environment

C) its hydrogen bonds break apart

D) it loses it polarity

10) Temperature usually increases when water condenses. Which behavior of water is most
directly responsible for this phenomenon.
A) the change in density when it condenses to form a liquid or solid

B) the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds

C) the high surface tension of water

D) reactions with other atmospheric compounds

E) the release of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds

11) A covalent chemical bond is on in which

A) electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that two atoms
become oppositively charged.

B) protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both
atoms.
C) outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill the outer electron shell
of both atoms.

D) outer shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of another
atom.

E) an electron occupies a hybrid orbital located between the nuclei of two atoms.

12) Which statement is true of all atoms that are anions?

A) The atom has more electrons than protons.

B) The atom has more protons than electrons.

C) The atom has fewer protons than does a neutral atom of the same element.

D) The atom has more neutrons than protons.

E) The net charge is 1-.

13) Which of these systems is least likely to be at chemical equilibrium?

A) a test tube of living cells

B) a test tube of organic molecules, kept in the freeze

C) a test tube of dry organic molecules, kept at room temperature

D) a test tube of organic molecules dissolved in water, kept at room temperature

E) a test tube of dead cells in water, kept at room temperature

14)

How many electrons does an atom of sulfur have in its valence shell (see the figure above)?
A) 4

B) 6

C) 8

D) 16
E) 32

15) What is the maximum number of hydrogen atoms that can be covalently bonded in a
molecule containing two carbon atoms?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 6

E) 8

16)

What is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction illustrated above?
A) 1

B) 8

C) 10

D) 11

E) 16

17) About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which 4 of these 25

elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?

A) carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen

B) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen

C) oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen

D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen

E) carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium

18) Why is each element unique and different from other elements with respect to its chemical

properties?

A) Each element has a unique atomic mass.

B) Each element has a unique atomic number.

C) Each element has a unique number of protons.

D) Each element has a unique number of neutrons.

E) Each element has different radioactive properties.

19) Knowing just the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following?

A) the number of electrons in the element

B) the number of protons in the element

C) the number of neutrons in the element

D) the number of protons plus neutrons in the element

E) the number of protons plus electrons in the element

20) The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 7 neutrons and 7 protons. Which of the following is
a correct statement concerning nitrogen?

A) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 7 and an atomic number of 14.

B) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 and an atomic number of 7.

C) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 and an atomic number of 14.

D) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 7 and an atomic number of 21.

E) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 and an atomic number of 21

21) One difference between carbon-12 ( C) and carbon-14 ( C) is that carbon-14 has

A) two more protons than carbon-12.

B) two more electrons than carbon-12.

C) two more neutrons than carbon-12.

D) two more protons and two more neutrons than carbon-12.

E) two more electrons and two more neutrons than carbon-12.

22)An atom has 6 electrons in its outer shell. How many unpaired electrons does it have?

A) 0

B) 2

C) 4

D) 6

E) 2 or 4

23) The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen-15 is heavier than nitrogen-14 because the

atomic nucleus of nitrogen-15 contains how many neutrons?

A) 6

B) 7

C) 8

D) 12

E) 14

24) Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs

sufficient energy, a possible result is that

A) an electron may move to an electron shell farther away from the nucleus.

B) an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.

C) the atom may become a radioactive isotope.

D) the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation, and become a radioactive
isotope.

E) the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion

25) The atomic number of each atom is given to the left of each of the following elements.
Which of the atoms has the same valence as carbon (12/6C)?

A) 7N nitrogen

B) 9F fluorine
C) 10Ne neon

D) 12Mg magnesium

E) 14Si silicon

26) Two atoms appear to have the same mass number. These atoms
A) must have the same atomic number.

B) must have the same number of electrons.

C) must have the same chemical properties.

D) must have the same number of protons + neutrons.

E) must have the same atomic number, the same number of protons + neutrons, the same
number

of electrons, and the same chemical properties.

27) Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and a mass number of 16. Thus, what is the atomic
mass
of an oxygen atom?

A) approximately 8 grams

B) approximately 8 daltons

C) approximately 16 grams

D) approximately 16 daltons

E) approximately 24 grams

28) What is the maximum number of electrons in a single 2 p orbital of an atom?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 5

29) What bonding or interaction is most likely to occur among a broad array of molecules of
various types (polar, nonpolar, hydrophilic, hydrophobic)?
A) covalent bonding

B) polar covalent bonding

C) ionic bonding
D) hydrogen bonding

E) van der Waals interactions

30) Which of the following molecules contains the most polar covalent bond?

A) H2

B)O2

C) CO2

D) H2O

E) CH4

31) The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is attracted to the slight
positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?
A) an ionic bond

B) a hydrogen bond

C) a hydrophilic bond

D) a covalent bond

E) a van der Waals interaction

32) What name is given to substances that resist changes in pH?

A) buffers

B) bases

C) salts

D) sugars

33) The tendency of molecules of the same kind to stick together is called ___.

A) bonding

B) polarity

C) cohesion

D) adhesion
34) Sweating cools your body by ____.

A) evaporative cooling

B) radiation

C) hydrogen bonding

D) cohesion

35) Which of the following statements correctly describes any chemical reaction that has
reached equilibrium?

A) The concentrations of products and reactants are equal

B) The reaction is now irreversible

C) Both forward and reverse reactions have halted

D) The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal

E) No reactants remain

36) The bonds that are broken when water vaporizes are

A) polar covalent bonds

B) ionic bonds

C) covalent bonds between atoms within water molecules

D) hydrogen bonds between water molecules

E) nonpolar covalent bonds

37) Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface tension of water?

A) Lakes don’t freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.

B) Water flows upward from the roots to the leaves in plants.

C) A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.

D) Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical
reactions.

E) Evaporation of sweat from the skin helps to keep people from overheating.
38) Why is water considered a polar molecule?

A) The oxygen end of the molecule has a slight negative charge, and the hydrogen end has a
slight positive charge.

B) The oxygen atom attracts the hydrogen atoms.

C) The oxygen is found between the two hydrogens.

D) Both hydrogens are at one end of the molecule, and oxygen is at the other end.

39) The lower the pH of a solution, the ____.

A) higher the OH- concentration

B) less toxic the solution

C) greater the number of oxygen atoms

D) more acidic the solution

Practice Test II Answer Key

1) D
2) B
3) D
4) A
5) B
6) A
7) B
8) E
9) A
10) B
11) C
12) A
13) A
14) B
15) A
16) D
17) D
18) C
19) D
20) B
21) C
22) B
23) C
24) A
25) E
26) D
27) D
28) B
29) E
30) D
31) B
32) A
33) C
34) A
35) D
36) D
37) C
38) A
39) D

Practice Test III

1) About twenty-five of the ninety-two natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which
four of these twenty-five elements make up approximately 96 percent of living matter?
A) carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen
B) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen
C) oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen
D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen

2) Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities. Which of the
following is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates, but not by other
organisms such as bacteria or plants?
A) calcium
B) iodine
C) sodium
D) phosphorus
3) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen are the most abundant elements of living matter.
B) Some naturally occurring elements are toxic to organisms.
C) All life requires the same essential elements.
D) Iron is needed by all humans.

4) Which of the following are compounds?

1. A) H2O, O2, and CH4
2. B) H2O and O2
3. C) O2and CH4
4. D) H2O and CH4, but not O2

5) Knowing the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following?
A) the number of electrons in the element
B) the number of protons in the element
C) the number of protons plus neutrons in the element
D) the number of protons plus electrons in the element

6) In what way are elements in the same column of the periodic table the same? They have the
same number of _____.
A) protons
B) electrons when neutral
C) electrons in their valence shells when neutral
D) electron shells when neutral

7) Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. Several common isotopes exist, with mass
numbers from 92-100. Therefore, which of the following can be true?
A) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons.
B) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 protons.
C) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 electrons.
D) Isotopes of molybdenum have different numbers of electrons.

8) Carbon-12 is the most common isotope of carbon and has a mass number of 12. However,
the average atomic mass of carbon found on a periodic table is slightly more than 12 daltons.
Why?
A) The atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons.
B) Some carbon atoms in nature have an extra proton.
C) Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons.
D) Some carbon atoms in nature have a different valence electron distribution.
9) Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described below?
Atom 1 Atoms 2
1 3
1 H 1H
A) They are isomers.
B) They are isotopes.
C) They contain 1 and 3 protons, respectively.
D) They each contain only 1 neutron.

10) The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen-15 has a greater mass number than nitrogen-
14 because the atomic nucleus of nitrogen-15 contains _____.
A) 7 neutrons
B) 8 neutrons
C) 8 protons
D) 15 protons

11) From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has _____.
A) 5 neutrons, 5 protons, and 5 electrons
B) 15 neutrons and 15 protons
C) 8 electrons in its outermost electron shell
D) 15 protons and 15 electrons

12) Fluorine has an atomic number of 9. Which of the following would you do to a neutral
fluorine atom to complete its valence shell?
A) add 1 electron
B) add 2 electrons
C) remove 1 electron
D) Nothing. If fluorine is neutral, it has a complete valance shell.

13) Magnesium has an atomic number of 12. What is the most stable charge for a magnesium
ion?
A) a +1 charge
B) a +2 charge
C) a -1 charge
D) a -2 charge
14) Refer to the figure above (first three rows of the periodic table). What element has
properties most similar to carbon?
A) boron
B) silicon
C) nitrogen
D) phosphorus

15) How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus-32 (32P) atom (see the
figure above)?
1. A) 15
2. B) 16
3. C) 17
4. D) 32
16) How many electrons will a single atom of sulfur with no charge and no bonds have in its
valence shell (see the figure above)?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32

17) Based on electron configuration, which of the elements in the figure above would exhibit a
chemical behavior most like that of oxygen?
A) carbon
B) nitrogen
C) sulfur
D) phosphorus

18) Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form a cation with a charge of +1?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
19) Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form a cation with a charge of -1?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

20) Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and most commonly, a mass number of 16. Thus, what
is the atomic mass of an oxygen atom?
A) approximately 8 grams
B) approximately 8 daltons
C) approximately 16 grams
D) approximately 16 daltons

21) If you change the number of neutrons in an atom, you create _____.
A) a cation
B) an anion
C) an isotope
D) a different element

22) Can the atomic mass of an element vary?

A) No, it is fixed. If it changes at all then you have formed a different element.
B) Yes. Adding or losing electrons will substantially change the atomic mass.
C) Yes. Adding or losing protons will change the atomic mass without forming a different
element.
D) Yes. Adding or losing neutrons will change the atomic mass without forming a different
element.

23) Which of the following is the best description of an atom's physical structure?
A) An atom is a solid mass of material.
B) The particles that form an atom are equidistant from each other.
C) Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated at the center of the bubble.
D) Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated on the outside surface of the
bubble.

24) A salamander relies on hydrogen bonding to stick to various surfaces. Therefore, a

salamander would have the greatest difficulty clinging to a _____.
A) slightly damp surface
B) surface of hydrocarbons
C) surface of mostly carbon-oxygen bonds
D) surface of mostly carbon-nitrogen bonds

25) A covalent chemical bond is one in which _____.

A) electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms
become oppositely charged
B) protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both
atoms
C) outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill their respective
orbitals
D) outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of another
atom

26) What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that an oxygen atom with atomic number 8
can make with hydrogen?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6

27) Nitrogen (N) is more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following is a correct
statement about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)?
A) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen atom has a partial negative
charge.
B) Ammonia has an overall positive charge.
C) Ammonia has an overall negative charge.
D) The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a partial negative
charge.

28) Bonds between two atoms that are equally electronegative are _____.
A) hydrogen bonds
B) polar covalent bonds
C) nonpolar covalent bonds
D) ionic bonds

29) What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?

A) a nonpolar covalent bond
B) a polar covalent bond
C) an ionic bond
D) a hydrophobic interaction
30) A covalent bond is likely to be polar when _____.
A) one of the atoms sharing electrons is more electronegative than the other atom
B) the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative
C) carbon is one of the two atoms sharing electrons
D) the two atoms sharing electrons are the same elements

31) What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds?
A) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of pairs of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve
the sharing of single electrons between atoms.
B) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the
electrical attraction between charged atoms.
C) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the
sharing of protons between charged atoms.
D) Covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons between charged atoms; ionic bonds involve
the sharing of electrons between atoms.

32) The atomic number of chlorine is 17. The atomic number of magnesium is 12. What is the
formula for magnesium chloride?
A) MgCl
B) MgCl2
C) Mg2Cl
D) MgCl3

33) How many electron pairs are shared between carbon atoms in a molecule that has the
formula C2H4?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

34) Which bond or interaction would be difficult to disrupt when compounds are put into water?
A) covalent bonds between carbon atoms
B) hydrogen bonds
C) ionic bonds
D) ionic and hydrogen bonds

35) Water molecules are attracted to one another by _____.

A) nonpolar covalent bonds
B) ionic bonds
C) hydrogen bonds
D) hydrophobic interactions

36) Van der Waals interactions may result when _____.

A) electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule
B) molecules held by ionic bonds react with water
C) two polar covalent bonds react
D) a hydrogen atom loses an electron

37) What is the maximum number of hydrogen atoms that can be covalently bonded in a
molecule containing two carbon atoms?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8

38)

What results from the chemical reaction illustrated above? The reactants have no charge.
A) a cation with a net charge of +1 and an anion with a net charge of +1
B) a cation with a net charge of -1 and an anion with a net charge of -1
C) a cation with a net charge of -1 and an anion with a net charge of +1
D) a cation with a net charge of +1 and an anion with a net charge of -1
39) What is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction illustrated above?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 11
D) 16

40) What causes the shape of the molecule shown above?

A) the shape of the 2 p orbitals in the carbon atom
B) the shape of the 1 s orbital in the carbon atom
C) the shape of the sp3hybrid orbitals of the electrons shared between the carbon and hydrogen
atoms
D) hydrogen bonding configurations between the carbon and hydrogen atoms

41) How many electrons are involved in a single covalent bond?

A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four

42) How many electrons are involved in a double covalent bond?

A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four

43) If an atom has a charge of +1, which of the following must be true?
A) It has two more protons than neutrons.
B) It has the same number of protons as electrons.
C) It has one more electron than it does protons.
D) It has one more proton than it does electrons.

44) Elements found on the left side of the periodic table contain outer shells that are _____;
these elements tend to form _____ in solution.
A) almost empty; cations
B) almost empty; anions
C) almost full; cations
D) almost full; anions

45) An atom has four electrons in its valence shell. What types of covalent bonds is it capable of
forming?
A) single, double, or triple
B) single and double only
C) single bonds only
D) double bonds only

46) When are atoms most stable?

A) when they have the fewest possible valence electrons
B) when they have the maximum number of unpaired electrons
C) when all of the electron orbitals in the valence shell are filled
D) when all electrons are paired

47) When the atoms involved in a covalent bond have the same electronegativity, what type of
bond results?
A) an ionic bond
B) a hydrogen bond
C) a nonpolar covalent bond
D) a polar covalent bond

48) Nitrogen (N) normally forms three covalent bonds with a valence of 5. However, ammonium
has four covalent bonds, each to a different hydrogen (H) atom (H has a valence of 1). What do
you predict to be the charge on ammonium?
A) +1
B) -1
C) +2
D) -2
49) You need to write down information about a molecule, but need to indicate only the type and
number of atoms it contains. Which representation would work best?
A) molecular formula
B) structural formula
C) ball-and-stick model
D) space-filling model

50) You need to represent a molecule to best illustrate the relative sizes of the atoms involved
and their interrelationships. Which representation would work best?
A) molecular formula
B) structural formula
C) ball-and-stick model
D) space-filling model

51) Which of the following is true for this reaction?

3 H₂ + N₂ ↔ 2 NH₃
A) The reaction is nonreversible
B)Hydrogen and nitrogen are the reactants of the reverse reaction.
C) Ammonia is being formed and decomposed simultaneously.
D) Only the forward or reverse reactions can occur at one time.

52) Which of the following correctly describes all chemical equilibrium?

A) Forward and reverse reactions continue with no net effect on the concentrations of the
reactants and products.
B) Concentrations of products are higher than the concentrations of the reactants.
C) There are equal concentrations of products and reactants while forward and reverse
reactions continue.
D) There are equal concentrations of reactants and products, and the reactions have stopped

53) Which of the following correctly describes a reaction that has reached chemical equilibrium?
A) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
B) All of the reactants have been converted to the products of the reaction.
C) All of the products have been converted to the reactants of the reaction.
D) Both the forward and the reverse reactions have stopped, with no net effect on the
concentration of the reactants and the products.
Practice Test III Answer Key
1) D
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) C
6) C
7) A
8) C
9) B
10) B
11) D
12) A
13) B
14) B
15) C
16) A
17) C
18) A
19) D
20) D
21) C
22) D
23) C
24) B
25) C
26) B
27) A
28) C
29) B
30) A
31) B
32) B
33) B
34) A
35) C
36) A
37) C
38) D
39) C
40) C
41) B
42) D
43) D
44) A
45) A
46) C
47) C
48) A
49) A
50) D
51) C
52) A
53) A

Chapter 5
Links -
● http://www.hbwbiology.net/quizzes/chapter-quizzes/ch5-macromolecules.htm
● https://quizlet.com/92941236/biology-chapter-5-multiple-choice-flash-cards/
● https://quizlet.com/251183161/capp-biology-chapter-5-multiple-choice-flash-cards/
● https://quizlet.com/13439810/chapter-5-the-structure-and-function-of-large-biological-
molecules-flash-cards/

Practice Test IV
1. Which of the following categories includes all others in the list?
a. monosaccharide
b. polysaccharide
c. starch
d. carbohydrate

2. The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the
monomers are in in the "a" form. Which of the following could amylase break down?
a. glycogen, starch, and amylopectin
b. glycogen and cellulose
c. cellulose and chitin
d. starch, chitin, and cellulose

3. Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is true?

a. They are more common in animals than in plants
b. They have double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids
c. They generally solidify at room temperature
d. They contain more hydrogen than do saturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms

4. The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is the:
a. Primary level
b. Secondary level
c. Tertiary level
d. Quaternary level

5. Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join
nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated with these enzymes?
a. The two strand of the double helix would separate
b. The phosphodiester linkages of the polynucleotide backbone would be broken
c. The pyrimides would be separated from the DNA sugars
d. All bases would be separated from the DNA sugars

6. Humans and mice differ because

A) their cells have different small organic molecules.
B) their cells make different types of large biological molecules.
C) their cells make different types of lipids.
D) their cells have some differences in the sequence of nucleotides in their nucleic acids.
E) their cells make different types of proteins.

7. Molecules with which functional groups may form polymers via dehydration reactions?
A) hydroxyl groups
B) carbonyl groups
C) carboxyl groups
D) either carbonyl or carboxyl groups
E) either hydroxyl or carboxyl groups

8. Which of these molecules is not formed by dehydration reactions?

A) fatty acids
B) disaccharides
C) DNA
D) protein
E) amylose
9. In animal metabolism, most of the monomers released by digestion of food macromolecules
are metabolized to provide energy. Only a small portion of these monomers are used for
synthesis of new macromolecules. The net result is that
A) water is generated by animal metabolism.
B) water is consumed by animal metabolism.
C) the water consumed is exactly balanced by the water generated, to maintain homeostasis.
D) water is consumed during homeostasis, but water is generated during periods of growth.
E) water is generated during homeostasis, but water is consumed during periods of growth.
10. Which of these classes of biological molecules consist of both small molecules and
macromolecular polymers?
A) lipids
B) carbohydrates
C) proteins
D) nucleic acids
E) lipids, carbohydrates, proteins, and nucleic acids all consist of only macromolecular polymers

11. Which of the following is not a polymer?

A) glucose
B) starch
C) cellulose
D) chitin
E) DNA

12. What is the chemical reaction mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers?
A) phosphodiester linkages
B) hydrolysis
C) dehydration reactions
D) ionic bonding of monomers
E) the formation of disulfide bridges between monomers

13. How many molecules of water are needed to completely hydrolyze a polymer that is 11
monomers long?
A) 12
B) 11
C) 10
D) 9
E) 8
14. Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and
hydrolysis?
A) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break down polymers.
B) Dehydration reactions eliminate water from lipid membranes, and hydrolysis makes lipid
membranes water permeable.
C) Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
D) Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down polymers.
E) Dehydration reactions ionize water molecules and add hydroxyl groups to polymers;
hydrolysis reactions release hydroxyl groups from polymers.

15. Which of the following polymers contain nitrogen?

A) starch
B) glycogen
C) cellulose
D) chitin
E) amylopectin

16. The molecular formula for glucose is C₆ H₁ 2O₆ . What would be the molecular formula for a
molecule made by linking three glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?
A) C₁ ₈ H₃ ₆ O₁ ₈
B) C₁ ₈ H₃ ₂ O₁ ₆
C) C₆ H₁ ₀ O₅
D) C1₈ H₁ ₀ O₁ ₅
E) C₃ H₆ O₃

17. The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the
monomers are the α form. Which of the following could amylase break down?
A) glycogen
B) cellulose
C) chitin
D) glycogen and chitin only
E) glycogen, cellulose, and chitin

18. On food packages, to what does the term insoluble fiber refer?
A) cellulose
B) polypeptides
C) starch
D) amylopectin
E) chitin

19. A molecule with the chemical formula C₆ H₁ ₂ O₆ is probably a

A) carbohydrate.
B) lipid.
C) monosaccharide
D) carbohydrate and lipid only.
E) carbohydrate and monosaccharide only.

20. Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic
linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?
A) as a pentose
B) as a hexose
C) as a monosaccharide
D) as a disaccharide
E) as a polysaccharide

21. All of the following are polysaccharides except

A) lactose.
B) glycogen.
C) chitin.
D) cellulose.
E) amylopectin.

22. Which of the following is true of both starch and cellulose?

A) They are both polymers of glucose.
B) They are cis-trans isomers of each other.
C) They can both be digested by humans.
D) They are both used for energy storage in plants.
E) They are both structural components of the plant cell wall.

23. Which of the following is true of cellulose?

A) It is a polymer composed of enantiomers of glucose.
B) It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells.
C) It is digestible by bacteria in the human gut.
D) It is a major structural component of plant cell walls.
E) It is a polymer composed of enantiomers of glucose, it is a storage polysaccharide for energy
in plant cells, it is digestible by bacteria in the human gut, and it is a major structural component
of plant cell walls.

24. Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because

A) the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is galactose.
B) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the β glycosidic linkages of starch but not the α
glycosidic linkages of cellulose.
C) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the α glycosidic linkages of starch but not the β
glycosidic linkages of cellulose.
D) humans harbor starch-digesting bacteria in the digestive tract.
E) the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is glucose with a nitrogen-
containing group.

25. Which of the following statements concerning saturated fats is not true?
A) They are more common in animals than in plants.
B) They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
C) They generally solidify at room temperature.
D) They contain more hydrogen than unsaturated fats having the same number of carbon
atoms.
E) They are one of several factors that contribute to atherosclerosis.
26. A molecule with the formula C₁ ₈ H3₆ O₂ is probably a
A) carbohydrate.
B) fatty acid.
C) protein.
D) nucleic acid.
E) hydrocarbon.

27. Which of the following statements is true for the class of biological molecules known as
lipids?
A) They are insoluble in water.
B) They are made from glycerol, fatty acids, and phosphate.
C) They contain less energy than proteins and carbohydrates.
D) They are made by dehydration reactions.
E) They contain nitrogen.

28. The label on a container of margarine lists "hydrogenated vegetable oil" as the major
ingredient. What is the result of adding hydrogens to vegetable oil?
A) The hydrogenated vegetable oil has a lower melting point.
B) The hydrogenated vegetable oil stays solid at room temperature.
C) The hydrogenated vegetable oil has more "kinks" in the fatty acid chains.
D) The hydrogenated vegetable oil has fewer trans fatty acids.
E) The hydrogenated vegetable oil is less likely to clog arteries.

29. Which of the following is true regarding saturated fatty acids?

A) They are the predominant fatty acid in corn oil.
B) They have double bonds between carbon atoms of the fatty acids.
C) They are the principal molecules in lard and butter.
D) They are usually liquid at room temperature.
E) They are usually produced by plants.

30. Large organic molecules are usually assembled by polymerization of a few kinds of simple
subunits. Which of the following is an exception to this statement?
A) a steroid
B) cellulose
C) DNA
D) an enzyme
E) a contractile protein

31. Which modifications of fatty acids will best keep triglycerides solid at warmer temperatures?
A) creating cis double bonds to the fatty acids
B) adding hydrogens to the fatty acids
C) creating trans double bonds to the fatty acids
D) adding hydrogens and trans double bonds to the fatty acids
E) adding cis double bonds and trans double bonds to the fatty acids

32. Why are human sex hormones considered to be lipids?

A) They are essential components of cell membranes.
B) They are not soluble in water.
C) They are made of fatty acids.
D) They are hydrophilic compounds.
E) They contribute to atherosclerosis

33. All of the following contain amino acids except

A) hemoglobin.
B) cholesterol.
C) antibodies.
D) enzymes.
E) insulin

34. The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires
A) the release of a water molecule.
B) the release of a carbon dioxide molecule.
C) the addition of a nitrogen atom.
D) the addition of a water molecule.
E) the release of a nitrous oxide molecule.

35. There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?
A) different side chains (R groups) attached to a carboxyl carbon
B) different side chains (R groups) attached to the amino groups
C) different side chains (R groups) attached to an α carbon
D) different structural and optical isomers
E) different asymmetric carbons

36. The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires which of the
following?
A) removal of a water molecule
B) addition of a water molecule
C) formation of a glycosidic bond
D) formation of a hydrogen bond
E) both removal of a water molecule and formation of a hydrogen bond

37. Polysaccharides, triacylglycerides, and proteins are similar in that they

A) are synthesized from monomers by the process of hydrolysis.
B) are synthesized from subunits by dehydration reactions.
C) are synthesized as a result of peptide bond formation between monomers.
D) are decomposed into their subunits by dehydration reactions.
E) all contain nitrogen in their monomer building blocks.
38. Dehydration reactions are used in forming which of the following compounds?
A) triacylglycerides
B) polysaccharides
C) proteins
D) triacylglycerides and proteins only
E) triacylglycerides, polysaccharides, and proteins

39. Upon chemical analysis, a particular polypeptide was found to contain 100 amino acids.
How many peptide bonds are present in this protein?
A) 101
B) 100
C) 99
D) 98
E) 97

40. What aspects of protein structure are stabilized or assisted by hydrogen bonds?
A) primary structure
B) secondary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) quaternary structure
E) secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures, but not primary structure

41. How many different kinds of polypeptides, each composed of 12 amino acids, could be
synthesized using the 20 common amino acids?
A) 4¹²
B) 12²⁰
C) 240
D) 20
E) 20¹²

42. Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein?
A) peptide bonds
B) hydrogen bonds
C) disulfide bonds
D) phosphodiester bonds
E) peptide bonds, hydrogen bonds, and disulfide bonds

43. What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?

A) peptide bonds
B) hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of
another peptide bond
C) disulfide bonds
D) hydrophobic interactions
E) hydrogen bonds between the R groups

44. Which type of interaction stabilizes the α helix and the β pleated sheet structures of
proteins?
A) hydrophobic interactions
B) disulfide bonds
C) ionic bonds
D) hydrogen bonds
E) peptide bonds

45. Which level of protein structure do the α helix and the β pleated sheet represent?
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary

46. The amino acids of the protein keratin are arranged predominantly in an α helix. This
secondary structure is stabilized by
A) covalent bonds.
B) peptide bonds.
C) ionic bonds.
D) polar bonds.
E) hydrogen bonds.

47. The tertiary structure of a protein is the

A) bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds.
B) order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain.
C) unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide.
D) organization of a polypeptide chain into an α helix or β pleated sheet.
E) overall protein structure resulting from the aggregation of two or more polypeptide subunits.

48. What type of covalent bond between amino acid side chains (R groups) functions in
maintaining a polypeptide's specific three-dimensional shape?
A) ionic bond
B) hydrophobic interaction
C) van der Waals interaction
D) disulfide bond
E) hydrogen bond

49. At which level of protein structure are interactions between the side chains (R groups) most
important?
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) all of the above

50. The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is -CH₂ -OH. The R group or side chain
of the amino acid leucine is -CH₂ -CH-(CH₃ )₂ . Where would you expect to find these amino
acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution?
A) Serine would be in the interior, and leucine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
B) Leucine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
C) Both serine and leucine would be in the interior of the globular protein.
D) Both serine and leucine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
E) Both serine and leucine would be in the interior and on the exterior of the globular protein.

51. Misfolding of polypeptides is a serious problem in cells. Which of the following diseases are
associated with an accumulation of misfolded polypeptides?
A) Alzheimer's only
B) Parkinson's only
C) diabetes mellitus only
D) Alzheimer's and Parkinson's only
E) Alzheimer's, Parkinson's, and diabetes mellitus

52. Changing a single amino acid in a protein consisting of 325 amino acids would
A) alter the primary structure of the protein, but not its tertiary structure or function.
B) cause the tertiary structure of the protein to unfold.
C) always alter the biological activity or function of the protein.
D) always alter the primary structure of the protein and disrupt its biological activity.
E) always alter the primary structure of the protein, sometimes alter the tertiary structure of the
protein, and affect its biological activity.

53. Normal hemoglobin is a tetramer, consisting of two molecules of β hemoglobin and two
molecules of α hemoglobin. In sickle-cell disease, as a result of a single amino acid change, the
mutant hemoglobin tetramers associate with each other and assemble into large fibers. Based
on this information alone, we can conclude that sickle-cell hemoglobin exhibits
A) altered primary structure.
B) altered secondary structure.
C) altered tertiary structure.
D) altered quaternary structure.
E) altered primary structure and altered quaternary structure; the secondary and tertiary
structures may or may not be altered.

54. What methods may be used to elucidate the structures of purified proteins?
A) X-ray crystallography
B) bioinformatics
C) analysis of amino acid sequence of small fragments
D) NMR spectroscopy
E) both X-ray crystallography and NMR spectroscopy

55. In a normal cellular protein, where would you expect to find a hydrophobic amino acid like
valine?
A) in the interior of the folded protein, away from water
B) on the exterior surface of the protein, interacting with water
C) in the transmembrane portion interacting with lipid fatty acid chains
D) in the interior of the folded protein, away from water, or in a transmembrane portion
interacting with lipid fatty acid chains
E) anywhere in the protein, with equal probability

56. Of the following techniques uses the amino acid sequences of polypeptides to predict a
protein's three-dimensional structure?
A) X-ray crystallography
B) bioinformatics
C) analysis of amino acid sequence of small fragments
D) NMR spectroscopy
E) high-speed centrifugation

57. If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive ³⁵S, which of these molecules will be
labeled?
A) phospholipids
B) nucleic acids
C) proteins
D) amylose
E) both proteins and nucleic acids

58. What is the term used for a protein molecule that assists in the proper folding of other
proteins?
A) tertiary protein
B) chaperonin
C) enzyme protein
D) renaturing protein
E) denaturing protein

59. DNAase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join
nucleotides together. What would first happen to DNA molecules treated with DNAase?
A) The two strands of the double helix would separate.
B) The phosphodiester bonds between deoxyribose sugars would be broken.
C) The purines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
D) The pyrimidines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
E) All bases would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
60. Which of the following statements about the 5' end of a polynucleotide strand of DNA is
correct?
A) The 5' end has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
B) The 5' end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
C) The 5' end has phosphate attached to the number 5 carbon of the nitrogenous base.
D) The 5' end has a carboxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
E) The 5' end is the fifth position on one of the nitrogenous bases

61. One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is to

A) transmit genetic information to offspring.
B) function in the synthesis of proteins.
C) make a copy of itself, thus ensuring genetic continuity.
D) act as a pattern or blueprint to form DNA.
E) form the genes of higher organisms

62. If ¹⁴C-labeled uridine triphosphate is added to the growth medium of cells, what
macromolecules will be labeled?
A) phospholipids
B) DNA
C) RNA
D) both DNA and RNA
E) proteins

63. Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides?
A) a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
B) a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar
C) a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar
D) a phosphate group and an adenine or uracil
E) a pentose sugar and a purine or pyrimidine

64. Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the pyrimidine type?
A) guanine and adenine
B) cytosine and uracil
C) thymine and guanine
D) ribose and deoxyribose
E) adenine and thymine

65. Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the purine type?
A) cytosine and guanine
B) guanine and adenine
C) adenine and thymine
D) thymine and uracil
E) uracil and cytosine
66. If a DNA sample were composed of 10% thymine, what would be the percentage of
guanine?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 40
D) 80
E) impossible to tell from the information given

67. A double-stranded DNA molecule contains a total of 120 purines and 120 pyrimidines. This
DNA molecule could be composed of
A) 120 adenine and 120 uracil molecules.
B) 120 thymine and 120 adenine molecules.
C) 120 cytosine and 120 thymine molecules.
D) 120 adenine and 120 cytosine molecules.
E) 120 guanine and 120 thymine molecules.

68. The difference between the sugar in DNA and the sugar in RNA is that the sugar in DNA
A) is a six-carbon sugar and the sugar in RNA is a five-carbon sugar.
B) can form a double-stranded molecule.
C) is an aldehyde sugar and the sugar in RNA is a keto sugar.
D) is in the α configuration and the sugar in RNA is in the β configuration.
E) contains one less oxygen atom.

69. Which of the following statements best summarizes the differences between DNA and
RNA?
A) DNA encodes hereditary information, whereas RNA does not.
B) The bases in DNA form base-paired duplexes, whereas the bases in RNA do not.
C) DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than RNA nucleotides.
D) DNA contains the base uracil, whereas RNA contains the base thymine.
E) DNA encodes hereditary information, whereas RNA does not; the bases in DNA form base-
paired duplexes, whereas the bases in RNA do not; and DNA nucleotides contain a different
sugar than RNA nucleotides

70. If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5'ATTGCA3', the other
complementary strand would have the sequence
A) 5'TAACGT3'.
B) 5'TGCAAT3'.
C) 5'UAACGU3'.
D) 3'UAACGU5'.
E) 5'UGCAAU3'.

71. What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate?

A) sugar-phosphate backbone
B) complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases
C) disulfide bonding (bridging) of the two helixes
D) twisting of the molecule to form an α helix
E) three-component structure of the nucleotides
72. A new organism is discovered in the forests of Costa Rica. Scientists there determine that
the polypeptide sequence of hemoglobin from the new organism has 72 amino acid differences
from humans, 65 differences from a gibbon, 49 differences from a rat, and 5 differences from a
frog. These data suggest that the new organism
A) is more closely related to humans than to frogs.
B) is more closely related to frogs than to humans.
C) evolved at about the same time as frogs, which is much earlier than primates and mammals.
D) is more closely related to humans than to rats.
E) is more closely related to frogs than to humans and also evolved at about the same time as
frogs, which is much earlier than primates and mammals.

73. Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis?

A) the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a disaccharide with the release of water
B) the synthesis of two amino acids, forming a peptide with the release of water
C) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the release of water
D) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the consumption of water
E) the synthesis of a nucleotide from a phosphate, a pentose sugar, and a nitrogenous base
with the production of a molecule of water

74. If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive ³²P-labeled phosphate, which of these
molecules will be labeled?
A) phospholipids
B) nucleic acids
C) proteins
D) amylose
E) both phospholipids and nucleic acids

75. If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive ¹⁵N, which of these molecules will be
labeled?
A) fatty acids only
B) nucleic acids only
C) proteins only
D) amylase only
E) both proteins and nucleic acids

76. How will brief heating (to 95°C) affect macromolecular structures in aqueous solution?
A) DNA duplexes will unwind and separate.
B) Proteins will unfold (denature).
C) Starch will hydrolyze into monomeric sugars.
D) Proteins will hydrolyze into amino acids.
E) DNA duplexes will unwind and separate, and proteins will unfold (denature).
77. Which of the following is not a monomer/polymer pairing?
A) monosaccharide/polysaccharide
B) amino acid/protein
C) triglyceride/phospholipid bilayer
D) deoxyribonucleotide/DNA
E) ribonucleotide/RNA

78. Approximately 32 different monomeric carbohydrate subunits are found in various natural
polysaccharides. Proteins are composed of 20 different amino acids. DNA and RNA are each
synthesized from four nucleotides.
Among these biological polymers, which has the least structural variety?
A) polysaccharides
B) proteins
C) DNA
D) RNA

79. Which class of biological polymer has the greatest functional variety?
A) polysaccharides
B) proteins
C) DNA
D) RNA

80. Professor Jamey Marth at the University of California, Santa Barbara, identified 70
molecules that are used to build cellular macromolecules and structures. These include at least
34 saccharides, 8 nucleosides, and 20 amino acids. In theory, then, which class of biological
polymer has the greatest information-coding capacity?
A) polysaccharides
B) proteins
C) DNA
D) RNA

81. Which of the following categories includes all others in the list?
A) monosaccharide
B) disaccharide
C) starch
D) carbohydrate
E) polysaccharide

82. The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the
monomers are in the α form. Which of the following could amylase break down?
A) glycogen, starch, and amylopectin
B) glycogen and cellulose
C) cellulose and chitin
D) starch and chitin
E) starch, amylopectin, and cellulose

83. Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is true?

A) They are more common in animals than in plants.
B) They have double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
C) They generally solidify at room temperature.
D) They contain more hydrogen than do saturated fats having the same number of carbon
atoms.
E) They have fewer fatty acid molecules per fat molecule

84. The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is the
A) primary level.
B) secondary level.
C) tertiary level.
D) quaternary level.
E) All structural levels are equally affected.

85. Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join
nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated with these enzymes?
A) The two strands of the double helix would separate.
B) The phosphodiester linkages of the polynucleotide backbone would be broken.
C) The purines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
D) The pyrimidines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
E) All bases would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.

86. The molecular formula for glucose is C₆ H₁ ₂ O₆ . What would be the molecular formula for
a polymer made by linking ten glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?
A) C₆ ₀ H₁ ₂ ₀ O₆ ₀
B) C₆ H₁ ₂ O₆
C) C₆ ₀ H₁ ₀ ₂ O₅ ₁
D) C₆ ₀ H₁ ₀ ₀ O₅ ₀
E) C₆ ₀ H₁ ₁ ₁ O₅ ₁

87. Which of the following pairs of base sequences could form a short stretch of a normal
double helix of DNA?
A) 5'-purine-pyrimidine-purine-pyrimidine-3' with 3'-purine-pyrimidine-purine-pyrimidine-5'
B) 5'-AGCT-3' with 5'-TCGA-3'
C) 5'-GCGC-3' with 5'-TATA-3'
D) 5'-ATGC-3' with 5'-GCAT-3'
E) All of these pairs are correct
Practice Test IV Answer Key
1. D
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. B
6. D
7. E
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. A
12. C
13. C
14. A
15. D
16. B
17. A
18. A
19. E
20. D
21. A
22. A
23. D
24. C
25. B
26. B
27. A
28. B
29. C
30. A
31. D
32. B
33. B
34. A
35. C
36. A
37. B
38. E
39. C
40. E
41. E
42. A
43. B
44. D
45. B
46. E
47. C
48. D
49. C
50. B
51. D
52. E
53. E
54. E
55. D
56. B
57. C
58. B
59. B
60. B
61. B
62. C
63. C
64. B
65. B
66. C
67. B
68. E
69. C
70. B
71. B
72. B
73. D
74. E
75. E
76. E
77. C
78. C
79. B
80. A
81. D
82. A
83. B
84. A
85. B
86. C
87. D