AERODYNAMICS 2 EXAM #5

1) What is the effect, if any, of an increase in weight on aircraft climb performance?

a) Maximum angle of climb increases

b) Maximum rate of climb increases
c) Maximum angle of climb and rate of climb decrease
d) Maximum angle of climb and rate of climb will not be affected

2) On a weekend cross-country in your T-34, you decide to go to Maine to pick up live lobster. The lobsters add 200
pounds of weight to you airplane. What will be the effect on your rate of climb and why?

a) Increase, because the heavier the airplane, the better the rate of climb
b) Decrease, because the heavier the airplane, the more THP required, decreasing THP excess
c) Decrease, because the heavier the airplane, the less THP is required
d) Increase, because the heavier the airplane, the less THP is required

3) What does the thrust required curve (Tr) on the thrust graph represent?

a) The amount of thrust necessary to equal aircraft total lift in equilibrium flight
b) The amount of thrust necessary to equal aircraft total drag in equilibrium level flight
c) The amount of thrust the engine produces in equilibrium flight

4) What change in L/D max AOA and velocity values depicted on a thrust curve occur when the thrust data is
converted into power data?

a) L/D max AOA and velocity increase because of the effect of a force acting over a distance
b) L/D max AOA and velocity decrease because of the effect of converting work value to power value
c) L/D max AOA and velocity values remain constant because no change has been made to the aircraft or
the operating environment

5) What change in angle of attack is required to go from maximum glide range to a maximum glide endurance
profile?

a) Increase the AOA to a value greater than CLMAX

b) Increase the AOA to a value greater than L/D max
c) Decrease the AOA to a value greater than L/D max, which equates to minimum induced drag
d) Keep AOA at L/D max, which equates to minimum total drag

6) A fully loaded airplane will glide faster than a lighter loaded airplane of the same type. What will the minimum
angle of glide for the heavier airplane be?

a) The same as the lighter airplane

b) Dependent upon altitude
c) Greater than the lighter airplane
d) Less than the lighter airplane

7) In order to clear obstacles on the field boundary after a short takeoff, a pilot should climb at:

a) Max rate of climb

b) Max angle of climb
c) Airspeed where THPa - THPr is greatest
d) Maximum vertical velocity

8) Which of the following is true about a prop aircraft climbing at full throttle to clear a mountain peak. The aircraft
should:
 a) Climb at an angle of climb that is the same airspeed as max rate of climb
b) Climb at CL max to obtain the greatest lift and the steepest angle of climb
c) Climb at max angle of climb that would be the same as max range airspeed
d) Climb at max angle of climb that is obtained where the greatest excess thrust exists

9) Increasing weight in a prop driven aircraft?

a) Result in an increase in the TAS and decrease in the AOA for max range
b) Result in a decrease of TAS for max range
c) Have no effect on the TAS at which the aircraft will fly for max range
d) Result in a greater TAS and the same AOA for max range

10) An increase in altitude will increase glide endurance but have no affect on glide range.

a) True
b) False

11) You are flying your T-34 at max range airspeed at 500 feet over the bay when suddenly your engine stops. You
should:

a) Establish a glide into the wind to increase your total time aloft
b) Glide for max range by maintaining your present AOA
c) Tell your instructor to bail out to reduce weight and give you a better chance at making it back
d) Glide for max range by increasing your AOA

12) The ailerons control:

a) Pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw

13) Trimming reduces the force required to hold the control surfaces in a position to maintain flight attitude.

a) True
b) False

14) The T-34 rudder and elevator trim will be adjusted:

a) Once after takeoff

b) Frequently during flight because they are sensitive to power and airspeed changes
c) Never

15) Power changes take precedence at low speed.

a) True
b) False

16) For aerodynamic balance, the T-34 uses _____ on the elevator and rudder, and _____ on the ailerons.

a) An overhang, shielding horn

b) Shielding horn, an overhang
c) Flaps, flaps

17) The T-34's control CG's are located:

 a) Aft of the hindgeline
b) Forward of the hindgeline
c) On the hidgeline

18) The bobweight on the T-34's elevator increases the force required to pull the stick _____ during maneuvering
flight.

a) Forward
b) Aft
c) Right
d) Left

19) Static stability does not ensure dynamic stability, but static instability ensures dynamic instability.

a) True
b) False

20) Which of the following are negative contributors to longitudinal static stability?

a) Wing sweep, horizontal stabilizer, neutral point location

b) Straight wings and fuselage
c) Neutral point location only

21) Directional static stability is stability of the longitudinal axis around the:

a) Horizontal axis
b) Vertical axis
c) Lateral axis

22) Which type of wing has the greatest positive contributors to lateral static stability?

a) Swept
b) Dihedral
c) Low mounted wings

23) Spiral divergence when an airplane has:

a) Strong directional stability and weak lateral stability

b) Weak directional stability and strong lateral stability
c) Strong directional stability and strong lateral stability
d) Weak directional stability and weak lateral stability

24) The tendency of an airplane to yaw away from the direction of aileron roll input is called:

a) Proverse yaw
b) Adverse yaw
c) Pilot induced oscillation

25) The T-34 is not subject to pilot induced oscillations since it does not have strong longitudinal static stability.

a) True
b) False

26) Autorotation is:

a) An aggravated stall
 b) A combination of roll and yaw that propagates itself and progressively gets worse due to an asymmetric
stalled condition on the wings
c) A combination of roll and yaw that propagates itself and progressively gets worse due to a symmetric
stalled condition on the wings

27) The higher the pitch attitude the _____ the vertical component of thrust, and the _____ the stall speed.

a) Greater, higher
b) Greater, lower
c) Lesser, higher
d) Lesser, lower

28) In a stall the down-wing has:

a) A higher AOA, less lift, and more drag

b) A lower AOA, less lift, and more drag
c) A higher AOA, more lift, and more drag
d) A lower AOA, and more lift

29) In an inverted spin, which of the following would not be characteristic of the cockpit indicators?

a) Altimeter rapidly decreasing

b) Airspeed 80-100 knots
c) AOA 2-3 units
d) Turn needle pegged in the same direction of the spin

30) How does the configuration of the empennage and placement of the horizontal control surfaces affect spin
recovery?

a) The horizontal control surface deflects the relative wind towards or away from the vertical stabilizer
b) The horizontal control surface has no effect on the vertical components of the empennage
c) The empennage has on effect on spin recovery

31) Forward stick and opposite rudder are the procedures for spin recovery in the T-34.

a) True
b) False

32) AOA in an inverted spin will be:

a) Pegged at 30 units
b) Indicated between 2 and 3 units
c) Pegged in the direction of the spin

33) What will occur if excessive AOA is applied while operating at maneuver airspeed?

a) The aircraft will exceed its ultimate load factor

b) The aircraft will be overstressed
c) The aircraft will stall before an overstress occurs
d) The aircraft will experience aileron reversal due to aeroelastic effects

34) In turbulence, if you fly below maneuver airspeed, you might stall the airplane; if above maneuver airspeed you
might:

a) Exceed redline
b) Experience aeroelastic effects
 c) Overstress the airplane

35) If an aircraft increases angle of bank in a turn, what change in total lift and power-on TAS (Vso) is necessary to
maintain a constant altitude?

a) An increase in total lift and true stall speed

b) A decrease in total lift and true stall speed
c) An increase in total lift as true stall speed decreases
d) No change is required

36) What is the primary danger in flying above maneuver airspeed and below redline airspeed in turbulent air?

a) Overstress
b) Stall
c) Aileron reversal
d) Spiral divergence

37) Increasing altitude will decrease redline airspeed.

a) True
b) False

38) What should you use to plot the V-n diagram?

a) IAS and load factor

b) TAS and load factor
c) IAS and altitude
d) G limits and altitude

39) Aileron reversal is caused by:

a) Turbulent air and requires the use of opposite ailerons

b) Gust loads imposing different angles of attack on the wing
c) Pulling high G forces
d) Exceeding the Vmax of the aircraft

40) What airspeed is the best trade-off between getting the smallest radius of turn while achieving the best turn rate?

a) Minimum straight and level airspeed

b) Maneuver airspeed
c) Max straight and level airspeed
d) Redline airspeed

41) What happens to typical aircraft metal at low values of applied stress?

a) The metal incurs no permanent deformation and the material does not return to the original unstressed
shape when the stress is released
b) The metal incurs no permanent deformation and the material does return to the original unstressed shape
when the stress is released
c) The metal incurs permanent deformation and the material does not return to the original unstressed shape
when the stress is released
d) The metal incurs permanent deformation and the material does return to the original unstressed shape
when the stress is released

42) What is the effect of an increased velocity on the maximum attainable load factor?
 a) Maximum attainable load factor increases
b) Maximum attainable load factor decreases
c) Maximum attainable load factor is not affected

42) In what region must an airplane be operated to prevent structural damage and ensure that the anticipated service
life is obtained?

a) Altitude regime
b) Weight windows
c) Safe flight envelope
d) Manila envelope

44) What is the effect of an increase in density an landing rollout?

a) Increased
b) Not affected
c) Decreased
d) Disappears

45) What kind of winds are best for landing?

a) Tailwind
b) Crosswind
c) No wind
d) Headwind

46) Which of the following situations would give you the shortest runway requirements on takeoff?

a) Sea level, 10 knot crosswind, 30o F

b) Sea level, 10 knot crosswind, 90o F
c) 4000 ft altitude, no wind, 80o F
d) 4000 ft altitude, no wind, 88% humidity

47) What is the effect of an increase in density altitude on takeoff performance?

a) Takeoff velocity increases, thrust and net acceleration force increase

b) Takeoff velocity increases, thrust and net acceleration force decrease
c) Takeoff velocity decreases, thrust and net acceleration force increase
d) Takeoff velocity decreases, thrust and net acceleration force decrease

48) What effect does an increase in aircraft weight have on runway length requirement for landing?

a) Required runway length increases

b) Required runway length decreases
c) Required runway length remains constant

49) What is the coefficient of braking friction dependent upon?

a) Runway surface condition, weight, headwind

b) Runway length, thrust, tailwind
c) Runway surface condition, tire type, temperature
d) Runway surface condition, tire type, degree of brake application

50) What change in power setting is required in the final phase of field approach to maintain the desired flight path
as the airplane nears the ground?
 a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) No change is required

KEY

1) c
2) b
3) b
4) c
5) b
6) a
7) b
8) d
9) d
10) b
11) b
12) b
13) a
14) b
15) a
16) b
17) c
18) b
19) a
20) b
21) b
22) b
23) a
24) b
25) a
26) b
27) b
28) a
29) b
30) a
31) a
32) b
33) c
34) c
35) a
36) a
37) a
38) a
39) d
40) b
41) b
42) a
43) c
44) c
45) d
46) a
47) b
48) a
49) d
50) b