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PLANT ENGINEERING: FACTORIES

PRACTICE EXAM 6
Date last revised: 24 October 2017
Revision: 00

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Government Certificate of Competency
Plant Engineering: Factories
Practice Exam 6
Revision: 00

Plant Engineering Factories practice exam is created by Palucraft GCC-Study (a division of Palucraft
Pty (Ltd)) for preparation for Government Certificate of Competency (GCC) issued by the
Department of Labour and exam administered by the Department of Education.

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answering all the questions presented in this practice exam will increase your chances of passing the GCC Factories exam dramatically

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PREAMBLE

1. The practice exam consists of five (5) questions with a total of 100 marks.

2. Candidates must answer all questions.

3. Candidates must complete this practice exam within three (3) hours.

4. The memorandum of this practice exam is included on the Palucraft GCC Study Basic
Package Study Material. Please visit https://www.palucraft-gccstudy.com/gcc-
factories-study-material to purchase our Study Material.

5. Candidates need to show all the calculations.

6. The memorandum of this practice exam will show the mark allocation and steps
which need to be included for each question. Please visit https://www.palucraft-
gccstudy.com/gcc-factories-study-material to purchase our Study Material.

7. Reference tables and charts are included on the Candidate platform. To access the
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Access to the Candidate platform will be provided once account is activated. Please
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our Study Material to get access to the Candidate platform.

8. Candidates can use relevant textbooks to access reference tables and charts. NOTE:
during actual exam, candidates are expected to make reasonable assumptions where
table and charts are not provided. The Palucraft Plant Engineering Study Guide
includes reasonable assumptions candidates need to know during exams. The Plant
Engineering Study Guide is included with a purchase of a Basic or Premium Package.
Please visit https://www.palucraft-gccstudy.com/gcc-factories-study-material to
purchase our Study Material and compare the features of the two packages.

9. The practice exam is NOT an open-book. Try to answer all questions without making
any reference to other material. The actual exam will NOT be open-book.

10. Candidates need to write neatly and legibly. This will be expected of the Candidate
during the actual exam.

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addressed to the Customer Support Department via email
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QUESTION 1

1.1. The stroke length of the low-pressure cylinder of two stage single acting reciprocating
air compressor is 1,13 times its cylinder diameter.

The compressor delivers air at pressure of 2 106 kPa and a temperature of 164,752 °C to an
after-cooler. Intercooling is complete and the stage pressures are in geometric progression
for maximum efficiency.

The atmospheric temperature is 31 °C. The heat loss during compression in the low-
pressure cylinder is 0,957 kJ. The pressure in the intercooler is 468 kPa.

The volumetric efficiency, based on inlet conditions, for the low-pressure cylinder is 93%.
The rotational frequency of the compressor is 240 r/min. The clearance volume for the first
stage is 4% of its cylinder volume. Take R for air as 0,287 kJ/kg.K and Cv as 0,718 kJ/kg.K.

Calculate the following:


1.1.1. The stage pressure ratio and the initial pressure of the compressor in kPa
[2]
1.1.2. The index (n) for compression and expansion
[2]
1.1.3. The mass of air delivered in kg/min
[2]
1.1.4. The effective swept volume, the clearance volume and the cylinder volume for low
pressure cylinder in m³/stroke.
[3]
1.1.5. The diameter of the low-pressure cylinder in mm
[2]
1.2. A centrifugal machine compresses 4 m³ of air per second from an absolute pressure of
100 kPa and a temperature of 15 °C to an absolute pressure of 400 kPa and a temperature
of 203 °C. Its mechanical efficiency is 96% and the ratio of the two specific heats are 1,41.

Calculate:
1.2.1. The isentropic efficiency of the compressor
[5]
1.2.2. The power required to drive the compressor assuming mechanical efficiency of 96%
[4]
[Q1 TOTAL = 20 Marks]
QUESTION 2

2.1. A rectangular tank with a capacity of 12 m^3 has a discharge orifice close to the bottom
of the tank. The diameter of the orifice is 0,025 m. The area of the tank is 4 m^2 and the
value of Cd for the orifice is 0,62.

How long will a driver have to wait to tap 6 000 liter into a tanker below the outlet,
assuming the tank was full?
[10]

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2.2. A transformer, the line voltage of which is 400 V, is provided with earth fault protection.
The impedance of resistance between each phase and earth is 3 kΩ, while the minimum
reliable pick-up current of the relay is 25 mA for a zero-impedance earth fault.

Calculate the resistance, in series with the relay, which will permit double the minimum
pick-up current to flow through the relay.
[10]
[Q2 TOTAL = 20 Marks]
QUESTION 3

3.1. An elevator at OR Tambo airport has the following details:

Cage mass 1 580 kg

Drum mass 320 kg

Radius of gyration of drum 0,485 m

Diameter of drum 1m

Balance mass 750 kg

Frictional resistance between guides and cage 620 N

Frictional resistance between guides and balance cage 400 N

Frictional torque on the drum 290 Nm

The load has an upward velocity of 2 m/s and upward acceleration of 0,9 m/s².

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Calculate:
3.1.1. The total torque required on the drum.
[5]
3.1.2. The power required at an instant, when the load has an upward velocity of 2 m/s and
an upward acceleration of 0,09 m/s².
[2]
3.2. Name THREE types of bucket elevators.
[3]
3.3. According to SANS 10142-1: 2009 the classification of the location and selection of
equipment permitted shall be in accordance with SANS 10108. The installation of electrical
equipment in explosive atmosphere SANS 10086-1 and in petroleum industry shall be in
accordance with SANS 10089-2.

Name EIGHT examples of the hazardous location as mentioned above according to SANS.
[4]
3.4. People, animals and property should be protected against harmful earth fault currents
by means of protective measures.

What are the FOUR earth fault current protective measures that can be used?
[4]
3.5. There are types of wiring and methods of installations based on SANS 10 142-1:2009.

Name FOUR factors to keep in mind before installation can be done.


[2]
[Q3 TOTAL = 20 Marks]

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QUESTION 4

4.1. Name the function of each of the following and state where each is installed on a steam
generator plant:
4.1.1. Economiser
4.1.2. Evaporator
4.1.3. Superheater
4.1.4. Air preheater
[2x4 = 8 Marks]
4.2. The primary cause of steam-generator problems is operational

Give FOUR characteristics of feed water for a typical industrial package, fire-tube steam
generator that should be checked and indicate what the ideal values or condition should be.
[4]
4.3. A pipe carrying wet steam with a pressure of 1,35 MPa at 193 °C has an external radius
of 100 mm. It is lagged to a radius of 150 mm with insulation with a thermal conductivity of
0,04 W/m. °C.

The temperature of the surrounding air is 20 °C and the loss from the surface of the
insulation is 8,3 W/.°C. Neglect the effect of the conductivity of the pipe itself.

Calculate the heat loss in kJ/h per 10 m of lagged pipe.


[8]
[Q4 TOTAL = 20 Marks]
QUESTION 5

5.1. A machine which has reciprocating components is purchased from an auction of


liquidated stock. Consequently, no installation details are available. When the new machine
is erected in the production line of the new owner and run at 1200 rpm, it is found to
vibrate to such an extent that it causes other sensitive machinery in the line to malfunction.
Reference to the specifications of the sensitive equipment reveals that the maximum
periodic force which acts on its foundation must not exceed 30 Newtons.

Measurements are taken at the new machine and the following is found:
(i) Mass of the new machine is 121,5 kg
(ii) The primary vertical distributing force caused by its is 1375 N
(iii) There is no angular or horizontal movement

It is decided to mount the new machine on three helical springs so as to reduce the
maximum total periodic force on the foundations to 20 N when it runs at 1200 rpm.

Determine the:
5.1.1. Stiffness of each of the springs
[6]
5.1.2. Speed of the machine, when mounted on the springs, at which resonance will occur
[2]

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5.1.3. Magnitude of the total periodic force relayed to the foundation when the machine
mounted on the springs, runs at 900 rpm
[2]
5.2. Name TWO types of loads that helical springs can be used for
[2]
5.3. South Africa is predominantly dependent on coal power generation for electricity.

Name FIVE alternative energy sources for generating electricity.


[5]
5.4. A distribution board for an electrical installation needs to be installed in the change
room and dining room.

Name THREE positions where the distribution board may not be mounted if it is not
correctly IP-rated.
[3]
[Q5 TOTAL = 20 Marks]
[GRAND TOTAL = 100 Marks]

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