IE Review

Mock Test

1. Properties of materials that describes how well a material withstands applied forces:
A. Mechanical B. Electrical C. Thermal Properties D. Optical Properties
Properties Properties

2. Different ways for shaping materials into useful components or changing their properties:
A. Properties B. Structure C. Manufacturing D. Processing

3. A non-ferrous alloy whose application includes automotive radiators, coins, cartridge

casing, musical instruments and jewelry.
A. Magnesium B. Aluminum C. Titanium D. Copper

4. What explains why semiconductors have different electrical properties from metals?
A. More Valence B. Fewer Valence C. Band Gap Structure D. No Difference
Electrons Electrons

5. The following are processes used in shaping plastics EXCEPT this:

A. Injection B. Extrusion C. Blow D. Fusion

6. The regular geometrical arrangement of points in crystal space is called:

A. Crystal B. Unit Cell C. Lattice D. Plane
Structure

7. Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity because of this:

A. Crystallinity B. Ionic Bonding C. Opacity D. Valence

8. These are hard, brittle ceramic-like compound Fe3C that, when properly dispersed,
provides the strengthening in steels:
A. Ferrite B. Austenite C. Pearlite D. Cementite

9. In processing of clay products, one major difference between these ceramic materials
before and after firing is the noticeable change in which property?
A. Density B. Viscosity C. Hardness D. Absorption
Capacity

10. These kinds of defects normally lead to edge dislocations:

A. Vacancy B. Substitution C. Interstitial D. Area

11. These are type of materials that are employed in components implanted into the human
body for replacement of diseased or damaged body parts:
A. Biomaterials B. Biomedicals C. Bioplastics D. Bioceramics
12. It is the ability to gain or lose electrons.
A. Electron Affinity B. Electron State C. Electronegativity D. Valence Electron

13. Adding another element that goes into interstitial or substitutional positions in a solid
solution increases.
A. Ductility B. Strength C. Malleability D. Hardness

14. It is the synthesis of high polymers from raw materials like oil or coal
A. Polymerization B. Vulcanization C. Molding D. Thermoforming

15. It is those materials that are made of polymers joined together by chemical bonds
acquiring a highly crosslinked polymer structure.
A. Thermosets B. Thermoplastics C. Elastomers D. Polymers

16. An additive used for the purpose of softening a polymer:

A. Stabilizer B. Plasticizer C. Colorants D. Fillers

17. A step growth process which involves individual chemical reaction between pairs of
reactive monomers and is a much slower process.
A. Addition B. C. Propagation D. Hydroxyl
Polymerization Condensation Polymerization Polymerization
Polymerization

18. All of the following are advantages of polymer matrix composites EXCEPT:
A. Ease of B. High Specific C. Limited Temp. Service D. Chemical
Fabrication Strength Inertness

19. A composite that is composed of continuous fibers of carbon that are imbedded in a carbon
matrix.
A. Polymer Matrix B. Carbon-Carbon C. Metal Matrix D. Hybrid Matrix
Matrix

20. An advanced composite material process wherein a continuous fiber reinforcement pre-
impregnated with a polymer resin that is then partially cured.
A. Calendaring B. Pultrusion C. Prepegging D. Filament Winding
21. Electrostatic precipitators remove:
A. Sulfur dioxide C. Both (A) and (B)
B. Particulate matter D. None of them

22. Process of predicting and evaluating the likely impacts of a project on the environment:
A. Environmentally Critical Projects (ECP) C. Environmental Compliance
Certificate (ECC)
B. Environmental Management Projects (EMP) D. Environmental Impact
Assessment (EIA)
23. The general idea of this chemical process is to add chemicals which have positively
charged ions to water containing negatively charged particles:
A. Flocculation B. Disinfection C. Sedimentation D.
Coagulation

24. Test used to measure the concentration of biodegradable organic matter present in a
sample of wastewater:
A. COD test B. CBOD test C. NBOD test D.
BOD5 test

25. A device in which the dust in a gas is separated by allowing it to travel in double vertex
inside is called;
A. Fabric filter B. Cyclone C. Electrostatic precipitator D. Gravity
settling chamber

26. What are the settled particles of sewage in the sedimentation tank called:
A. Flocs B. Suspended solids C. Sludge D. Scum

27. The portion of the rainfall that flows on the ground surface is called:
A. Run-off B. Water-table C. Spring D. Yield

28. An ecological unit composed of a group of organisms of different species occupying

a particular area, usually interacting with each other and their environment.
A. Population B. Inhabitant C. Community
D. People

29. Turbidity in water is an indication of the presence of :

A. dissolved solids B. suspended inorganic matter C. floating solids D. dissolved
gases

30. Which of the following is most readily recyclable?

A. Plastic B. Paper C. Metal D. Glass

31. The function of a skimming tank is to remove:

A. Suspended solids B. Gritty substances
C. Inorganic substances D. Oil and fatty substance

32. The cycle listed that has the most immediate effect on acid precipitation would be
the______.
A. carbon cycle B. sulfur cycle C. water cycle D. phosphorous cycle

33. Which of the following is NOT a physical characteristics of wastewater:

A. Odor B. Hardness C. Turbidity D. Color

34. The type of mixing needed to bring the floc into contact and keep it from settling:
A. turbulent B. rapid C. gentle D. fast
35. The part of the earth and its atmosphere in which living organisms exist or that is capa
ble of
supporting life:

A. Biology B. Botany C. Biosphere D. Biometric

36. Based on the study of greenhouse gases, which of the following is a good transmitter of
sunlight, but partially restrict infrared radiation going back from the earth into space:
A. Carbon dioxide B. Carbon monoxide C. Methane D. Water Vapor

37. Diseases such as typhoid are caused by bacteria called:

A. Pathogenic Bacteria B. Non Pathogenic Bacteria
C. Anaerobic Bacteria D. Aerobic Bacteria

38. Republic Act 8749 which provides a comprehensive pollution control policy:
A. Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004 C. Ecological Solid Waste Mgt Act
of 2004
B. Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999 D. Toxic Subs. & Hazardous and Nuclear
Waste Control of 1990

39. These are Ozone Depleting Substances that are found in various compounds used as
aerosol propellants, solvents and refrigerants which contributes to the breakdown of the
stratospheric ozone layers:
A. Halogen Compounds C. Chloroflourocarbons
B. Total Organic Gases D. Volatile Organic Compounds

40. In the study of Water Quality Management in Rivers, which of the following DOES NOT
cause oxygen depletion:
A. Carbonaceous and nitrogeneous waste discharge
B. DO in the waste discharge is less
C. Photosynthesis of aquatic plants
D. Respiration of organisms living in the sediments
41. Which of the following is not a physical property?

A) Density
B) Color
C) Ability to be drawn into a wire
D) Ability to burn
42. The average atomic mass of Ga is 69.72. Naturally occurring Ga is composed of
60.0% 69Ga, which has an atomic mass of 68.91, and 40.0% of 71Ga. What is the
atomic mass of 71Ga?
a) 69.72 amu b) 69.92 amu c) 70.94 amu d) 71.00 amu
43. What is the simplest formula of a compound that contains 53.1% C, 37.2% N, and
9.77% H by mass?
a) C5N3H11 b) C22N15H4 c) C2NH4 d) C10N6H22
43. Which of the following cannot be determined from the molecular formula of the
compound C5H12?
a) The molecular mass
b) The mass percent of the compound that is C
c) The mass percent of the compound that is H
d) The density of the compound
44. The density of CO gas at 1.00 atm and 323K is 1.06 g/L. The density of a second
gas is 1.74 g/L at the same temperature and pressure. What is the molar mass of the
second gas?
a) 72 g/mol b) 46 g/mol c) 92 g/mol d) 36 g/mol
45. What is the temperature of a sample of NO2(g) if it has a pressure of 1.63 atm and
its density is measured to be 2.60 g/L?
a) 351K b) 2380K c) 56.2K d) 2.36K
46. What mass of Al is required to react with an acid and produce 1.00 L of H2(g) at
700 torr and 350K?
a) 0.0320 g b) 0.577 g c) 0.865 g d) 1.30 g
47. A water solution contains 90.0 g of glucose, C6H12O6. It has a density of 1.10
g/cm3 and a total volume of 900 mL. What is the molality of the solution.
a) 0.495 m b) 0.556 m c) 0.500 m d) 0.100 m
48. How many moles of sugar must be added to 100 g of water to lower the freezing
point of the solution by 1oC? The value of Kf for water is —1.86K/m.
a) 0.54 mol b) 0.27 mol c) 0.054 mol d) 0.027 mol
49. The following reaction is endothermic. What combination of changed conditions
would cause it to proceed more to the right as written?
2CO2(g) → 2CO(g) + O2(g)
A) raising the temperature and increasing the pressure
B) raising the temperature and decreasing the pressure
C) lowering the temperature and increasing the pressure
D) lowering the temperature and decreasing the pressure
50. What is the final water temperature if 100. g of water at 15.0°C is thoroughly
mixed with 250. g of water at 50.0°C? Assume that the vessel in which the mixing
occurs is perfectly insulated.
a) 31.4°C b) 40.0°C c) 44.0°C d) 50.0°C
51. At STP the density of chlorine is 3.22 kg/m³. What is the weight of this gas is
contained in a flask of 100 cubic centimeters at 24°C and 100kPa?
A. 0.563 g
B. 0.420 g
C. 0.292 g
D. 0.321 g
52. Ammonia weighing 22 kg is confined inside a cylinder equipped with a piston has an initial
pressure and temperature of 413 kPa at 38°C. If 2900 kJ of heat is added to the ammonia until its
pressure and temperature are 413 kPa and 100°C, respectively. What is the amount of work done by
the fluid in kJ? ( Note: Molecular Weight of NH3 = 17 )

A. 667
B. 420
C. 304
D. 502

53. A 30 kg iron was put in a container with water. The water is at 10°C and the iron has an initial
temperature of 493 K, until the iron was in thermal equilibrium with the water. Find the change in
entropy.

A. – 12.56 kJ/K
B. – 42.58 kJ/K
C. – 25.78 kJ/K
D. – 6.6 kJ/K

54. When 0/6g of liquid is completely evaporated and collected in a liter manometer, the pressure is
0.25 atm and the temperature is 27°C. Assume ideal gas behaviour, find the molecular weight if the
gas constant is R = 0.0821 atm/mole.K.

A. 49.2 g/mole
B. 12.3 g/mole
C. 2.2 g/mole
D. 64.0 g/mole

55. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is heated and
expands from a volume of 0/04 m3 to o.12 m3 at a constant pressure of 200 kPa. Find the work done on
the system.

A. 6 kJ
B. 10 kJ
C. 14 MJ
D. 12 kJ

56. The steam flow of an steam turbine is 104 kg/hr with steam specific volume of 0.05 m3/kg. The inlet
and the outlet diameters are 100mm and 200mm respectively. If the specific volume of the steam at
the outlet is 0.10 m3/kg, determine the exit velocity.

A. 8.84 m/s
B. 9.87 m/s
C. 4.54 m/s
D. 7.54 m/s

57. Compute the pressure ratio (P1/P2) of nitrogen that is expanded isentropically from 620°F to 60°F.

A. 14.5
 B. 12.9
C. 11.5
D. 15.4

58. A Carnot engine operates between 800°R and 1000°R. What is its thermal efficiency?

A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%

59. An ideal gas (at STP, standard temperature and pressure) occupies a volume of 22.4 liters. While
absorbing heat from the surroundings, the gas isobarically expands to 32.4 liters. What is the change
in the internal energy of the gas?

A. 1.52 kJ
B. 2.53 kJ
C. 4.45 kJ
D. 0.75 kJ

60. An air conditioner extracts 100 J of heat from the interior of the house for every 40 J of electric
energy required to operate it. Determine the coefficient of performance.

A. 2.5
B. 3.5
C. 4.5
D. 1.5

61. How much is heat needed to double the pressure of one-half mole of helium gas confined in a rigid
container if initially the gas is standard pressure and temperature? Note: Helium cv = 3.10 kJ/kg.K,
M = 4 kg/mol

A. 1693 kJ
B. 1786 kJ
C. 1985 kJ
D. 3457 kJ

62. When 0.05 m3 of air at STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure) is isothermally compressed to
0.010 m3, compute the amount of heat flow from the gas?

A. – 8.154 kJ
B. – 7.564 kJ
C. – 6.578 kJ
D. – 5.786 kJ

63. Find the change in internal energy of a system that absorbs 500 kJ of heat and at the same time
does 400 kJ of work.
 A. 900 kJ
B. 450 kJ
C. 100 kJ
D. No work is done on the system

64. How much heat was removed from a cubic meter of helium at STP when cooled at constant pressure
to a final volume of 0.75 m3? (Note: MWhelium = 4 kg/kmol and Cv = 3.10 kJ.kg.k)

A. – 63.20 kJ
B. – 78.88 kJ
C. – 45.98 kJ
D. – 67.87 kJ

65. Three lb of water at 100°F is added to 5 lb of water at 40°F. What is the final temperature of the
mixture?

A. 62.5°F
B. 67.5°F
C. 60.7°F
D. 64.3°F

66. How much heat is required to raise 5 kg of water from 25°C to 55°C?

A. 670 kJ
B. 630 kJ
C. 640 kJ
D. 856 kJ

67. How many calories of heat are required by 100 gms of ice at -5°C to change to steam at 120°C?

A. 73,210 Cal
B. 76,303 Cal
C. 86,407 Cal
D. 88,567 Cal

68. The condition called standard temperature and pressure (STP) for a gas is defined to be a
temperature of 0°C (273 K) and a pressure of 1 atm (101.325 kpa). How big is the container needed to
keep a mole of ideal gas as STP?

A. 34.5 liters
B. 45.7 liters
C. 22.4 liters
D. 27.5 liters
69. A tire is inflated to gage pressure of 2 atm. The tire’s temperature increases from 20°C to 45°C the
moment the car moves with the simultaneous increase in the tire’s volume by 5%. Compute the gauge
pressure of the tire at the higher temperature?

A. 2.7 atm
B. 3.1 atm
C. 2.1 atm
D. 4.3 atm

70. A motor is used to stir a 5 kg water at 0.4 Hp. Assuming that there was no losses and all the work
went into heating, how long will it take to increase the temperature of water by 6 C°?

A. 7 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 12 minutes