Dr.

Ranjan’s Pharmacology Mock Test - 2015

1. Β1 receptor was discovered by:

a. Langley
b. Black
c. Anderson
d. Hamilton
2. A 45 year old patient was diagnosed with hypertension. Which of the following is the best drug
for initiation of therapy?
a. Labetalol
b. Nifedipine
c. Chlorthiazide
d. Enalapril
3. The first drug to be used in pulmonary hypertension is:
a. Bosentan
b. Sildenafil
c. Epoprosterenol
d. Nifedipine
4. A 28 year old female suffering from JME on valproate comes to neurology OPD for counselling
regarding pregnancy. Which is the next best step?
a. Continue valproate with TDM
b. Change to lamotrigine
c. Change to levetiracetam
d. Give the patient a valproate free interval and then decide regarding pregnancy
5. Anti-diabetic drug that causes maximum decrease in HbA1c is:
a. Metformin
b. Glyburide
c. Exenatide
d. Pioglitazone
6. A patient enquired about the drug with maximum effect on progression of multiple sclerosis.
Which of the following drug the doctor must have advised?
a. Natalizumab
b. Fingolimod
c. IFN β
d. Methotrexate
7. Which of the following is longest acting sulfonylurea?
a. Glyburide
b. Acetohexamide
c. Chlorpropamide
d. Tolbutamide
8. A patient of nephrotic syndrome went in to remission with steroids, but after a week of
stopping steroids, he revisited the OPD with symptoms of exacerbation. Which of the following
drug is to be given next?
a. Cyclosporine
b. Mycophenolatemofetil
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Azathioprine

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9. Which of the following is the analgesic of choice in rheumatic arthritis?

a. Indomethacin
b. Acetaminophen
c. Aspirin
d. Tramadol

10. Which of the following is preferred anticoagulant for cerebral stroke prevention in patients of
atrial fibrillation?
a. Warfarin
b. Apixaban
c. Argatroban
d. Fondaparinux

11. Basiliximab is an immunomodulator that acts on:

a. Resting CD-4 cells
b. Active CD-4 cells
c. Resting CD-8 cells
d. Active CD-8 cells

12. Which of the following is not a tertiary amine:

a. Trospium
b. Scopalamine
c. Darifenacin
d. Oxybutinin

13. As compared to oral route, rectal route of drug administration has

a. Lower first pass metabolism
b. Lower bioavailability
c. Slower onset of action
d. Poor absorption
14. All are first line drugs for treatment of malignant melanoma except?
a. Thalidomide
b. Vemurafenib
c. Lenalidomide
d. Ipilimumab
15. Which of the following is drug of choice for acromegaly?
a. Bromocriptine
b. Carbegoline
c. Pergolide
d. Pramipexole
16. The prophylactic dose of folic acid in homocystinemia is
a. 400 mcg
b. 4000 mcg
c. 100 mcg
d. 1000 mcg
17. Which is the drug of choice for campylobacter?
a. Ceftriaxone
b. Azithromycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Carbepenams

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18. All of the following drugs are used to decrease mortality in CHF except:
a. Ivabridine
b. Aliskiren
c. Enalapril
d. Losartan
19. A substandard drug is result of
a. Negligence of legal companies
b. Negligence of illegal companies
c. Negligence of drug regulatory authorities
d. Negligence of drug distributors
20. An elderly patient with partial seizure, should be prescribed
a. Carbamazepine
b. Valproate
c. Oxcarbazepine
d. Levetiracetam
21. The only disease modifying drug in parkinson’s disease is:
a. Levodopa
b. Selegeline
c. Entecapone
d. Bromocriptine
22. Which of the following is used for treatment of diabetes?
a. Colesevelam
b. Carbegoline
c. Ragaglitazar
d. Rotigotine
23. A drug has a volume of distribution of 200 litres. Which of the following statement is correct
regarding the drug?
A. High first pass metabolism
B. High loading dose
C. High plasma concentration
D. High maintenance dose
24. Vitamin B12 is given with
a. Pemetrexed
b. Methotrexate
c. Both
d. None
25. Leucovorin is given along with 5FU to
a. Decrease toxicity
b. Increase bioavailability
c. Decrease metabolism
d. Increase sensitivity
26. Not a mechanism of 5FU resistance
a. TS induction
b. TS gene mutation
c. TS gene amplification
d. Dihydrouracil dehydrogenase overproduction
27. Maximum sterilising action is shown by which anti TB drug
a. Rifampicin
b. INH
c. Pyrazinamide

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 Dr.Ranjan’s Pharmacology Mock Test - 2015
d. Streptomycin
28. IV diazepam has which of the following effect which is not seen by other routes
a. Analgesia
b. Sedation
c. Hypotension
d. Coronary dilatation
29. Cromakalim is used for treatment of
a. Angina
b. CHF
c. COPD
d. Asthma
30. Omalizumab is not used if asthma is associated with
a. Atopic dermatitis
b. Neoplasia
c. Hypertension
d. Ulcerative Colitis
31. Which of the following is the drug of choice for Crhon’s disease?
a. Infliximab
b. Sulfasalazine
c. Prednisolone
d. Cyclosporine
32. Which of the following immunomodulator is a prodrug of an anticancer drug?
a. Mycophenolatemofetil
b. Azathioprine
c. Tacrolimus
d. Thalidomide
33. Which of the following is shortest acting benzodiazepine?
a. Triazolam
b. Temazepam
c. Diazepam
d. Lorazepam
34. Selective beta 2 blocker is
a. Butoxamine
b. Betoxolol
c. Esmolol
d. Bisoprolol
35. Which of the following beta blockers has 100% bioavailability?
a. Carvedilol
b. Propranolol
c. Pindolol
d. Timolol
36. All of the following are sideeffects of phenytoin except
a. Tremor
b. Ataxia

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 Dr.Ranjan’s Pharmacology Mock Test - 2015
c. Nystagmus
d. Hyperglycemia
37. Bevacizumab is used in
a. Carcinoma colon
b. Liver carcinoma
c. Renal cell carcinoma
d. Pancreatic carcinoma
38. Which of the following SSRI is a prodrug?
a. Fluoxetine
b. Paroxetine
c. Citalopram
d. Fluvoxamine
39. Absolute indication of dialysis is with a lithium concentration of more than
a. 2 meq/L
b. 3meq/L
c. 4 meq/L
d. 5 meq/L
40. All of the following are used in rheumatoid arthritis except
a. Ocrelizumab
b. Methotrexate
c. Leflunomide
d. Ofatumumab
41. Which of the following is not used in breast cancer
a. Trastuzumab
b. Lapatinib
c. Pertuzumab
d. Lenvatinib
42. All of the following are enzyme inducers except
a. Alcohol
b. Ketoconazole
c. Itraconazole
d. Isoniazid
43. Which is the most preferred drug for ampicillin resistant enterococcus?
a. Daptomycin
b. Vancomycion
c. Meropenam
d. Ceftaroline
44. Daclizumab acts through
a. cGMP activation
b. Adenylcyclase inhibition
c. IL 2 receptor blocker
d. IL 10 receptor blocker

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 Dr.Ranjan’s Pharmacology Mock Test - 2015
45. Following is false about aripiprazole except
a. Only antipsychotic with D1 agonistic activity
b. It has 5HT1A antagonistic action
c. It has maximum sedating potential
d. It is the drug of choice in treatment of acute mania
46. Pegvisomant is an inhibitor of
a. GH-2 receptor
b. GH-1 receptor
c. IGF-1 receptor
d. IGF-2 receptor
47. Which of the following is the drug of choice for Hutigton’s disease?
a. Haloperidol
b. Aripiprazole
c. Clonidine
d. Tetrabenazine
48. All are seen with Cyclosporine except
a. Nephrotoxicity
b. Hepatotoxicity
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hirsutism
49. For approval of generic drugs, bioequivalence should be within
a. 20% upper limit
b. 20% lower limit
c. Both
d. None
50. Amifostine is a radioprotecter that acts by
a. Free radical scavengering
b. Inactivating cell death genes
c. Activating cell protective genes
d. Binding to proteins
51. Mechanism of action of actinomycin D is
a. Inhibits DNA dependent RNA synthesis
b. Activates DNA dependent RNA synthesis
c. Inhibits RNA dependent DNA synthesis
d. Activates RNA dependent DNA synthesis
52. Which of the following is IL6 antagonist?
a. Tocilizumab
b. Ocrelizumab
c. Infliximab
d. Secukinumab
53. A patient presented to the emergency with headache and a blood pressure of 230/130.
Which of the following drug is to be used?

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 Dr.Ranjan’s Pharmacology Mock Test - 2015
a. Hydralazine
b. Labetalol
c. Nitroprusside
d. Clonidine
54. Which of the following is used for treatment of LTBI (Latent Tuberculosis Infection)?
a. Rifampicin
b. Isoniazid
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Ethambutol
55. Mazzotti reaction is seen with
a. Ivermectin
b. Pyrantelpamoate
c. Praziquantel
d. Albendazole
56. Ranolazine is an inhibitor of
a. Sodium channel
b. Calcium channel
c. Potassium channel
d. Funny current
57. Xenobiotics are metabolized to
a. Increase water solubility
b. Increase lipid solubility
c. Make them nonpolar
d. None of the above
58. Branch that deals with medicinal drugs obtained from plants and other natural resources
a. Pharmacognosy
b. Pharmacogenetics
c. Pharmacogenomics
d. Pharmacopeia
59. Ethambutol is associated with
a. Red colour blindness
b. Yellow colour blindness
c. Green colour blindness
d. Blue colour blindness
60. Red discolouration of urine is seen with
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Ifosfamide
c. Doxorubicin
d. Bleomycin
61. Clopidogrel is activated by
a. CYP3A4
b. CYP2C9

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 Dr.Ranjan’s Pharmacology Mock Test - 2015
c. CYP2C19
d. CYP2D6
62. Uricosuric drug not used in acute gout is
a. NSAIDs
b. Colchicine
c. Corticosteroids
d. Sulfinpyrazone
63. Umeclidinum is a recent drug approved by FDA for
a. COPD
b. Bronchial asthma
c. Ulcerative Colitis
d. Nephrotic syndrome
64. Treatment of choice for atrial fibrillation
a. Ibutilide
b. Amiodarone
c. Dofetilide
d. Cardioversion
65. Cross resistance of isoniazid to ethionamide is seen because of
a. Inh A gene overexpression
b. Inh A gene mutation
c. Kat G gene mutation
d. Kat G gene overexpression
66. Dexloxiglumide is used
a. For peptic ulcer disease
b. As prokinetic
c. As antacid
d. For ulcerative colitis
67. Theophylline by stimulating histone deacetylase
a. Increases effect of corticosteroids
b. Decreases effect of corticosteroids
c. Increases effect of SABA
d. Decreases effect of SABA
68. Antihistaminic used in motion sickness is
a. Loratidine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Dimenhydrinate
d. Chlorpheniramine
69. Transdermal patch is not used for following drugs
a. GTN
b. Fentanyl
c. Nicotine
d. Naloxone

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 Dr.Ranjan’s Pharmacology Mock Test - 2015
70. Which of the following drugs has both antihelminth and antiprotozoal activity
a. Nitazoxanide
b. Emetine
c. Chloroquine
d. Diloxanidefuroate
71. Orlistat inhibits lipase in the
a. GIT
b. Plasma
c. Adipocytes
d. All of the above
72. Which antidiabetic drug is under trial for treatment of obesity
a. Liraglutide
b. Metformin
c. Bromocriptine
d. Glibenclamide
73. Counterfeit drug is
a. Fake medicine
b. Contains the wrong ingredient
c. They have active ingredient in wrong dose
d. All the above
74. Patient on treatment on carbidopa + levodopa for 10 yrs now has weaning off effect. What
should be added to restore action
a. Tolcapone
b. Amantadine
c. Rasagiline
d. Benzhexol
75. Which is the most preferred drug for treatment of Rickettsia
a. Tetracycline
b. Gentamicin
c. Streptomycin
d. Doxycycline
76. Anotia is a teratogenic effect of
a. Isotretinoin
b. Alcohol
c. Valproate
d. Phenytoin
77. Prophylactic vitamin K is given in pregnancy if female is on
a. Valproate
b. Lamotrigine
c. Phenytoin
d. Carbamazepine
78. A drug A is more potent than a drug B. This means drug

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 Dr.Ranjan’s Pharmacology Mock Test - 2015
a. A is more efficacious than B
b. A requires less dose than B
c. B is more efficacious than A
d. B requires more dose than A
79. Which of the following is known as soft steroid?
a. Butixocort
b. Fluticasone
c. Dexamethasone propionate
d. Clobetasol propionate
80. Patient on verapamil should not be given beta blocker as
a. Conduction block
b. Bronchospasm
c. Neurogenic shock
d. Anaphylaxis
81. Which of the following is a SEGRA (Selective Glucocorticoid Receptor Antagonist)?
a. Mapracorat
b. Mitemcinal
c. Natezepide
d. Betamethasone
82. Giribabu is about to visit an endemic area of chloroquine resistant malaria for 7 weeks.
Which of the following drugs should be prescribed for prophylaxis of malaria?
a. Mefloquine
b. Doxycycline
c. Malarone
d. Quinine
83. Antifungal which can be used orally but not iv is-
a. Voriconazole
b. AmphoterecinB
c. Terbinafine
d. None of the above
84. All are used for treatment of hepatitis B except
a. Lamivudine
b. Clevudine
c. Telbivudine
d. Zidovudine
85. Which o the following is used for empirical treatment of influenza A?
a. Amantidine
b. Oseltamivir
c. Zanamivir
d. Rimantidine
86. Following are the advantages of sustained release preparation over the conventional
preparations except

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 Dr.Ranjan’s Pharmacology Mock Test - 2015
a. Decreased frequency of administration
b. Improved compliance
c. Less incidence of high peak side effects
d. Drugs with half life > 4 hours are suitable
87. Ivabridine is used in
a. Angina
b. CHF
c. Both
d. None
88. Approximate dose of drug in a 5 years old child
a. Same as adult dose
b. 1/2 of adult dose
c. 1/3 of adult dose
d. 1/4 of adult dose
89. Which of the following is not an ion channel receptor?
a. 5HT-3 receptor
b. Nicotinic receptor
c. GABA-A receptor
d. Cannabinoid receptor
90. A drug having 40% absorption and hepatic extraction ratio of 0.6. What is the bioavailability
of that drug?
a. 16%
b. 24%
c. 20%
d. 28%
91. Secukinumab is used for treatment of
a. Psoriasis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Ulcerative colitis
d. Gout
92. Beta blocker with maximum plasma protein binding
a. Propranolol
b. Pindolol
c. Penbutalol
d. Carvedilol
93. Which of the following is drug of choice for COPD?
a. Ipratropium
b. Tiotropium
c. Oxitropium
d. Salbutamol
94. Pigmentation and icthyosis are side effects of
a. Clofazamine

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 Dr.Ranjan’s Pharmacology Mock Test - 2015
b. Rifampicin
c. Dapsone
d. Ethionamide
95. XDR TB is resistance to
a. Isoniazid
b. Isoniazid + Rifampicin
c. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol
d. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Kanamycin
96. Which is the most preferred drug for jet lag?
a. Ramelteon
b. Zolpidem
c. Alprazolam
d. Eszopicolne
97. Essential drugs-
a. Included in national pharmacopoeia
b. Should always be present at PHC
c. Those that satisfy the primary health care needs of the population
d. Life saving medications
98. Beta blockers mask all effects of hypoglycemia except
a. Sweating
b. Palpitations
c. Dizziness
d. Tremors
99. Treatment of choice for non-small cell cancer of lung
a. Cisplatin
b. Cisplatin + Etoposide
c. Cisplatin + Etoposide + Gemcitabine or Pemetrexed
d. Cisplatin + Gemcitabine or Pemetrexed
100. Which of the following is used for treatment of methemoglobinemia?
a. Sodium thiosulphate
b. Methylene blue
c. Sodium nitrite
d. Hydroxocobalamin

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