1st Mock Test by Fcps prep.

batch 2005-10 held on 20th April 2014

By Chief Admin Chordae Tendineae

1. Which of the following is an example of cartilaginous joint?

A. Humeroulnar joint

B. Middle radioulnar joint

C. Intervertebral disc joint

D. Cranial sutural joint

E. Tibiotalar joint

Ans: C

2. A surgeon mistakenly lacerates the thoracic duct during lung surgery.Which one
of the following will be the immediate consequence of this iatrogenic action:

A. High blood pressure

B. Low blood pressure

C. Decreased immunity

D. Chylothorax

E. Lymphedema

Ans: D

3. While performing digital per vaginal examination which of the following

structure is palpable through the posterior fornix :

A. Urethra

B. Ovaries

C. Ischial spines

D. Perineal body

E. Ureters

Ans:D (Ureters,ovaries,ischial spines,uterine tubes can be palpated through lateral vaginal

fornix.Urethra can be palpated through anterior vaginal fornix.Perineal body lies in the
midline directly posterior to the vagina and can be readily palpated.)

4. A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital after blunt trauma to her

sternum by the steering wheel during a car crash. Radiographic examination
reveals a cardiac tamponade. ECG data indicate that the heart has been severely
injured. Which of the following cardiac structures will most likely be injured :
A. Right ventricle

B. Obtuse margin of the left ventricle

C. Right atrium

D. Left atrium

E. Apex of the left ventricle

Ans: A (The sternocostal surface of the heart consists mostly of the right ventricle.
Therefore, an anterior injury to the thorax would mostly likely first affect the right ventricle
because it is adjacent to the deep surface of the sternum.)

5. A 54-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with a stab wound of the

thoracic wall in the area of the right fourth costal cartilage. Which of the following
pulmonary structures is present at this site :

A. The horizontal fissure of the left lung

B. The horizontal fissure of the right lung

C. The oblique fissure of the left lung

D. The apex of the right lung

E. The root of the left lung

Ans: B

6. The median nerve :

A. Supplies flexor carpi ulnaris and half of flexor digitorum profundis

B. Gives rise to most of its braches in the upper arm

C. Gives rise to the common interosseous nerve which divides anterior to the radial head

D. May be compressed between the two heads of pronator teres

E. Enters cubital fossa lateral to the brachial artery

Ans: D

7. An 18-year-old man, in shock and bleeding profusely is brought to the

emergency department after being stabbed in the chest. An examination shows a
knife wound to the right first intercostal space,immediately lateral to the
manubrium. The knife entered parallel to the ground and penetrated to a depth of
6.5 cm. which of the following structures is most likely injured :

A. Left common carotid artery

B. Ascending aorta

C. Superior vena cava

D. Right ventricle
E. Right subclavian artery

Ans: C (Just lateral to the sternum on the right side, from superior to inferior, would be the
superior vena cava and the right atrium of the heart. Because the knife entered lateral to
the manubrium in the first intercostal space, above the sternal angle, the structure entered
must be the superior vena cava. The right atrium is located inferior to the sternal angle)

8. The right coronary artery supplies all of the following parts of the conducting
system in the heart except:

A. SA Node

B. AV Node

C. AV Bundle

D. Right bundle branch

Ans: D

9. The woman undergoes hip surgery. If all of the arteries that are part of the
cruciate anastomosis of the upper thigh are ligated, which of the following arteries
maintains blood flow :

A. Medial femoral circumflex

B. Lateral femoral circumflex

C. Superior gluteal

D. Inferior gluteal

E. First perforating

Ans: C (The superior gluteal artery does not participate in the cruciate anastomosis of the
thigh. The inferior gluteal artery, transverse branches of the medial and lateral femoral
circumflex arteries, and an ascending branch of the first perforating artery form the cruciate
anastomosis of the thigh.)

10. A 52-year-old woman slipped and fell and now complains of being unable to
extend her leg at the knee joint. Which of the following muscle was paralyzed as a
result of this accident :

A. Semitendinosus

B. Sartorius

C. Gracilis

D. Quadriceps femoris

E. Biceps femoris

Ans: D
11. A 78-year-old man is suffering from ischemia of the suprarenal glands. This
condition results from rapid occlusion of direct branches of which of the following
arteries :

A. Aorta, splenic, and inferior phrenic arteries

B. Renal, splenic, and inferior mesenteric arteries

C. Aorta, inferior phrenic, and renal arteries

D. Superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric, and renal arteries

E. Aorta and hepatic and renal arteries

Ans: C

12. An elderly man with prostatic hypertrophy returns to his urologist with
another case of epididymitis. An acute infection involving the dartos muscle layer
of the scrotum most likely leads to an enlargement of which of the following
lymph nodes :

A. Preaortic nodes

B. Lumbar nodes

C. External iliac nodes

D. Superficial inguinal nodes

E. Common iliac nodes

Ans: D

13. A 43-year-old woman is admitted to a hospital because of deep abdominal pain

in her epigastric region. On examination, it is observed that a retroperitoneal
infection erodes an artery that runs along the superior border of the pancreas.
Which of the following arteries is likely injured :

A. Right gastric artery

B. Left gastroepiploic artery

C. Splenic artery

D. Gastroduodenal artery

E. Dorsal pancreatic artery

Ans: C (The splenic artery arises from the celiac trunk, runs along the superior border of the
pancreas, and enters the spleen through the lienorenal ligament and the hilus of the
spleen.)

14. A 33-year-old woman develops Bell's palsy. She must be cautious because this
can result in corneal inflammation and subsequent ulceration. This symptom
results from which of the following conditions

A. Sensory loss of the cornea and conjunctiva

B. Lack of secretion of the parotid gland

C. Absence of the corneal blink reflex

D. Absence of sweating on the face

E. Inability to constrict the pupil

Ans: C

15. The pupil in the eye of a 43-year-old patient remains small even when room
lighting is dim. Which of the following nerves would be injured :

A. Trochlear nerve

B. Superior cervical ganglion

C. Oculomotor nerve

D. Ophthalmic nerve

E. Abducens nerve

Ans: B

16. During a cardiac cycle, the first part of the ventricles to contract is:

A. Apex of left ventricle

B. Base of left ventricle

C. Septum

D. Epicardium at base of left ventricle

E. Right ventricle

Ans: C ( The first portions of the ventricles to be excited are the interventricular septum
(except at its basal portion) and the papillary muscles. The last part of the heart to be
depolarised is the posterobasal portion of the LV, the pulmonary conus and uppermost
(basal) portion of the septum)

17. The retromandibular vein is formed by the junction of the maxillary vein and
the:

A. Facial vein

B. Middle temporal vein

C.Ttransverse facial vein

D. Posterior auricular vein

E. Superficial temporal vein

Ans: E
18. A 2-day-old newborn male is cyanotic after attempts to swallow milk result in
collection of the milk in his mouth. After 2 days he develops pneumonia. A
tracheoesophageal fistula is suspected. Which of the following structures has
failed to develop properly :

A. Esophagus

B. Trachea

C. Tongue

D. Tracheoesophageal septum

E. Pharynx

Ans: D

19. A 32-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department with groin pain.
Examination reveals that the patient has an indirect inguinal hernia. Which of the
following nerves is compressed by the herniating structure in the inguinal canal to
give the patient pain :

A. Iliohypogastric

B. Lateral femoral cutaneous

C. Ilioinguinal

D. Subcostal

E. Pudendal

Ans: C

20. A 55-year-old man was admitted to the hospital with severe abdominal pain.
Gastroscopy and CT scan examinations revealed a perforating ulcer in the
posterior wall of the stomach. Where would peritonitis most likely develop
initially:

A. Right subhepatic space

B. Hepatorenal space (of Morison)

C. Omental bursa (lesser sac)

D. Right subphrenic space

E. Greater sac

Ans: C

21. Red bone marrow in bones of adults are found every where except :

A. Shaft of tibia

B. Thoracic cage
C. Cranium

D. Vertebra

E. Ribs

Ans: A

22. Which of the following inhibits the activity of Acetyl CoA Carboxylase :

A. Citrate

B. Glucagon

C. High carbohydrate diet

D. Low fat diet

E. Insulin

Ans: B

23. A 50yrs old patient is having atrial fibrillation and cardiac failure.The
management of this patient requires :

A. Beta blocker

B. Digoxin

C. Captopril

D. Lidocaine

E. Losartan

Ans: B

24. A 20 yrs old patient is on steroid therapy for cushing disease supplementation
of which of the following is required for this patient :

A. Vitamin B12

B. Iron

C. Niacin

D. Calcium

E. Carotene

Ans: D

25. Which of the following structure is responsible for production of protein :

A. Peroxisome

B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondria

D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

E. None of the above

Ans: E

26. Neurogenic shock may not develop due to.. :

A. Widespread vasoconstriction

B. Cerebral haemorrhage

C. Hepatic failure

D. Cerebral trauma

E. Anaesthesia

Ans: A ( neurogenic shock develops due to widespread vasodilation and not due to
vasoconstriction.)

27. Cynosis is a feature of all of the following except ..:

A. Transposition of great vessels

B. Atrial septal defect

C. Eisenmenger's syndrome

D. Congenital aortic stenosis

E. Cardiac failure

Ans: D (Conginital aortic stenosis does not manifested by cynosis.)

28. A 22 yr old female comes to you complaining of neck pain. On examination no

neck regidity is found. you order a CSF examination. Following is true regarding
this fluid...:

A. Is actively secreted by the choroid plexus

B. Is the major source of brain's nutrition

C. Has the same Ph as arterial blood

D. Is virtually glucose free.

E. Has low osmolality as compared to plasma

Ans: A

29. ECG shows long PR interval and otherwise a clueless normal

electrocardiogram. This is... :

A. Bradycardia
B. 1st degree heart block

C. Normal

D. Tachycardia

E. A need of cardioversion

Ans: B

30. Starlings law of heart..:

A. Does not operate in failing heart

B. Does not operate during excercise

C. Explains the increase in heart rate produced by excercise

D. Explains the increase in cardiac output that occurs when venous return is increased

E. Explains the increase in cardiac output when the sympathetic nerves supplying the heart
are stimulated.

Ans: D

31. A 75-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with the chief
complaint of hearing loss. His physician, who has known him for several years,
notices that his skull seems somewhat larger. On direct questioning, the patient
admits that many of his hats no longer fit him. He is found to have a profound
hearing loss bilaterally.

What is the suspected pathogenic mechanism of this disease?

A. Mutation of chromosome 22

B. Paramyxovirus

C. Hydrocephalus

D. Inadequate sunlight exposure

E. Immunoglobulin light chains

F. HIV infection in past

Ans: B

32. Secondary active transport occurs through..:

A.glucose

B.Na

C.K

D.urea
E. Bicarb

Ans: B

33. L dopa traetment of parkinsson disease is most likely in dramatic

improvements in..:

A. mood

B. tremor

C. long term disease progression

D. strength

E. hypokinesia

Ans: E (parkinson is hypokinetic disease)

34. Warfarin, effect inc by....:

A. Cimetidine

B. ciprofloxacin

C. gentamycin

D. scopolamin

E. heparin inj

Ans: A

35. alpha recptors effects ...:

A. inc HR

B. lipogenesis

C. midriasis

D. piloerector contraction

E. bronchodilator

Ans: C

36. Capillary permeability is inc by...:

A. hypertension

B. plasma colloid osmotic pressure

C. intersitial hydrostatic press

D. altered permeabilitY

E. All of above
Ans: B

37. Enzyme induction occurs in:

A. liver

B. kidney

C. heart

D. adrenals

E. brain

Ans: A

38. Humidity in OT should be...:

A.27

B.45

C.37

D.31

E. 25

Ans: B (The operation theatre (OT) temperatures should be between 20 and 24°C and the
relative humidity 40–60%.)

39. what is true about critical temperature:

A. applies on mixture of gas.

B. of co2 is 31c

C. of oxygen is 121c

D. of nitrogen is 21c

E. is temperature below which pressure can keep gas liquid

Ans: B (The critical temperature of a substance is the temperature at and above which
vapor of the substance cannot be liquefied, no matter how much pressure is applied.

substance critical temperature (oC)

NH3 132

O2 -119

CO2 31.2

H2O 374)

40. Digoxin toxicity....:

A. Inc K*

B. Inc Mg*

C. dec Ca**

D. dec Na*

E. alkalosis

Ans: E

41. Which of the following substances is secreted in response to an oral glucose

load..:

A. Secretin

B. Gastrin

C. Cholecystokinin

D. Vasoactive intestinal peptide

E. Glucose dependent insulotropic peptide

Ans: E

42. Which step in the steroid hormone synthetic pathway is required for the
development of female secondary sex characteristics, but not male secondary sex
characteristics....:

A. Aldosterone

B. Aromatase

C. Cholesterol desmolase

D. 17, 20 -lyase

E. 5 alpha reductase

Ans: B

43. Causes of hypokalemia..

A. K* sparing diuretics

B. Excercise

C. Acidosis

D. Beta adrenargic agonists

E. Digitalis

Ans: D

44. Factors that increase ADH secretion...:

A. ANP

B. alpha agonists

C. Ethanol

D. increase Blood pressure

E. Pain

Ans: E

45. Factors that decrease insuin secretion...:

A. Glucagon

B. inc blood glucose

C. Epinephrine

D. inc fatty acids

E. Acytylcholine

Ans: C

46. A woman has hirsutism, hyperglycemia, obesity, muscle wasting and increased
circulating levels of adrenocorticotropic hormone. The most likely cause of her
symptoms is...:

A. Primary adrenocortical defficiency

B. Pheochromocytoma

C. Primary overproduction of ACTH

D. Treatment with exogenous glucocorticoids

E. Hypophysectomy

Ans: C (Cushing disease)

47. The tidal volume in a normal man at rest is about...:

A. 0.5 Lit

B. 1.2 Lit

C. 2.5 Lit

D. 4.9 Lit

E. 6.0 Lit

Ans: A

48. Inj of a drug that stimulates the carotid bodies would be expected to cause...:
A. A decrease in the Ph of arterial blood

B. An increase in PO2 of arterial blood

C. An increase in the HCO3 concentration of arterial blood

D. An increase in urinary Na* excretion

E. An increase on plasma Chloride

Ans: B

49. Glucose reabsorption occurs in the...:

A. Proximal tubule

B. Loop of henle

C. Distal tubule

D. Cortical coollecting duct

E. Medullary collecting duct

Ans: A

50. A loss of function mutation in the gene for which of the following proteins is
associated with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus...:

A. Aquaporin-1

B. Aquaporin-2

C. Aquaporin-3

D. Aquaporin- 4

E. Aquaporin-5

Ans: B

51... an elderly obese man with severe atherosclerosis developed acute abdominal
pain. In laparotomy the small intestine was dark purple in colur, SMA was
atheroslcerosed and thrombosed. Mesenteri vein was patent. this Small intestine
pathology is called

a. Dry gangrene

b. GIT bleeding

c. Red infarct

d. Volvulous formation

e. Wet gangrene

Ans: E
52. the change which does not occur in irreversible cell injury is

a. Appearance of myelin figures

b. Autolysis

c. Karyolysis

d. Karyorhexsis

e. Mitochondrial shrinkage

Ans: E ( robin page 9.... dont confuse it..... read that topic from robin and concentrate on
diagram too)

53.. evaluation of hypercoagulable state will not include measurement of

a. Anticardioloipn antibody

b. Antithrombin III

c. Plasma prothrombin

d. Protein C

e. Protein S

Ans: C

54. irreversible cell injury is associated with

a. Decreased glycolysis

b. Efflux of Na

c. Increase in pH

d. Influx of Ca

e. Shrinkage of cell

Ans: D

55. platelet transfusion is not indicated in

a. DIC

b. Patient with H/O multiple transfusion

c. Patient with splenomegaly

d. Post splenectomy period

e. Thrombocytopenia due to antibodies

Ans: D ( after splenectomy the platelet count inreases due to the fact that platelets are
stored in the spleen...)
56. . a 43 yr old male has microcytic anemia and low serum ferritin and high TIBC.
The most likely pattern of intestinal iron absorption in this patient will be

a. Dietry ron will be readily absorbed

b. Free iron will be more readily absorbed than boun iron

c. Iron absorption depends upon intrinsic factor

d. Iron in Fe+3 will be morereadily absorbed than in Fe+2

e. Iron will be absorbed in distal ilium

Ans: A

57. factor VIII is produced in

a. Bone marrow

b. Endothelial cells

c. Hepatocytes

d. Kupffer cells

e. Lymph node follicles

Ans: C

58.metaplasia

a. Irreversible change

b. Is trandifferantiation of mature cells of epthilium into another type

c. Provides survival advantages

d. Occurs always in direction of from columner to squamuos epithelium

e. Occurs Due to excess of vit A

Ans: C (not B coz its differantiaion of stem cells into another type not the mature cells )

59. . growth factors that influence the process of regeneration are the following
except

a. Angiogenesis factor

b. Epidermal growth factor

c. Growth hormones

d. Malanocyte growth factor

e. T cell growth factor

Ans: C ( robin page 64)

60. . following are charecteristics of transudate except

a. Albumin is the most abundant protein

b. Cells are few

c. High fibrinogen

d. Low specific gravity

e. Total protein less than 3g/l

Ans: C

61. . as a result of direct injury the mast cells granules release the following
agents excepts

a. 5 hdroxy tryptamine

b. Bradykinin

c. Heparin

d. Histamine

e. Platelet activating factor

Ans: B (kinins are produced in liver)

62. . tumor which is not an APUDOMA is

a. carcinoid tumor

b. carcinoma pancreas

c. gastrinoma

d. medullary ca thyroid

e. pheochromocytoma

Ans: B (apudoma are tumors arising from APUD cells. These are nural crest origin)

63. . the most diagnostic microscopic criteria of premalignant lesion is

a. Enlargement of cells

b. High N/C ratio

c. Mitotic figures

d. Pleomorphism

e. Presence of nucleolus

Ans: D
64. . a 30 yr male developed a brain tumour. On histology It revealed B cell
lymphoma. The most usefull investigation is antibody test for

a. CMV

b. EBV

c. HIV

d. Herpes simplex

e. Respiratory syncitial virus

Ans: C ( it occurs in HIV due to the EBV.. so investigate the disease first ie HIV)

65. . least likely to be affected by ionoizing radiation directly is

a. Gonads

b. GIT mucosa

c. Spleen

d. RBC

e. Bone marrow

Ans: D (mature RBCs are radioresistant. they dont have nucleas and they dont replicate)

66. one of the following is affected first after ionizing radiation exposure

a. Brain

b. Circulating Lymphocytes

c. GIT tract mucosa

d. Gonads

e. Myocardium

Ans: B (after exposure to ionizing radiation the lymphocyte count decreases in hours.. robin
page 302)

67. a 23 yr old man has a pheochromocytoma, BP 190/120, and Hct of 50%.

Pulmonary function and renal function tests are normal. Catecholamine level is
raised and he has well defined abdominal tumour on MRI. He is schedualed for
surgery. Which of the following anesthetic should not be included in anesthesia
protocol.

a. Desflurane

b. Fentanyl

c. Halothane

d. Midazolam
e. Thiopental

Ans: C (katzung page 225) )it sensitizes cardiac cells to cetechoalmines and increase the
risk of arrythmiasa)

68. . a patient needs antibiotic treatment for native valve, culture positive
infective endocarditis . his medical history shows severe anaphylactic reaction to
penicillin G during last year. Drug with best results will be

a. Amoxicilline-clavulonic acid

b. Aztreonam

c. Cefazolin plus gentamycin

d. Meropenem

e. Vancomycin

Ans: E

69. regarding barr bodies all statements are true except

a. Can be seen under light microscope

b. Consists mostly of hetero chromatin

c. Is X chromosome

d. Is completely inactive

e. Is seen in some cases of turner syndrome

Ans: D ( they are not completely inactive... some genes are active in barr bodies....)

70. a 50 yr old patient is short statured because he upper and lower limbs are
short. Trunk is normal in length but with the marked lumber lordosis. Intelligence
is normal. Tsi condition is

A. Autosomal dominant

B. Atosomal recessive

C. Not inherited

D. X linked dominant

E. X linked recessive

Ans: A

71. occlusion of capillaries by red cells is associated with all of the following
except

a. Acquired hemolytic anemia

b. Cerebral malaria
c. Raynaud diseases

d. Sickle cell anemia

e. Thalasemia

Ans: E

72. in a live donor for kidney transplant the following tests are mandatory except

a. Blood grouping

b. HLA typing

c. Imaging of urinary tract

d. Renal function tests

e. Serum rennin level

Ans: E

73. . the best source of factor IX is

a. Cryprecipitate

b. FFP

c. Packed cells

d. Platelet comcemtrate

e. Whole blood

Ans: B

74. . reaction of poison ivy or poison oak is

a. Cell mediated

b. Arthus reaction

c. IgE mediated

d. Ig G mediated

e. Either a type I, Type II or type IV response

Ans: E

75. . low serum complement is feature of

a. ankylosing spondylitis

b. dermatomyosis

c. SLE
d. Rheumatide arthritis

e. Scleroderma

Ans: C