Q Question Answer

1 If the mass of an aircraft is increased: The range is reduced and the altitude for
maximum range is lower
2 What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after The drag remains almost constant
take off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass)

3 What is the effect on the stalling speed ( IAS ) with (i) increased mass, (ii) (i) increases (ii) remains the same (iii)
increased altitude, and (iii) increased flap angle : decreases
4 You are the commander of a light twin piston aircraft. The aircraft The performance will be degraded, the
performance has been calculated, but before departure another passenger performance calculations should be
is taken on board. What will be the effect of the extra passenger on board? performed again
5 In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1: the take-off must be continued
6 An aircraft is climbing at VX. If the speed is increased, maintaining the the climb gradient will decrease and the rate
power setting, of climb increase
7 Total air temperature is defined as: The static air temperature plus adiabatic
compression rise
8 For a multi engine aircraft not certified under JAR 25 and in Performance the altitude which at maximum power the
Class B, service ceiling is defined as: rate of climb of an aircraft has fallen to 100ft
per minute
9 Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting: decreases the rate of climb and the angle of
climb
10 Which statement regarding V1 is correct? VR may not be lower than V1
11 With increasing altitude, the rate of climb: decreases because power available
decreases and power required increases
12 Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct? Executing a desired step climb at high
altitude can be limited by buffet onset at g-
loads larger than 1
13 Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart? The values of the Mach number at which
low speed and Mach buffet occur at various
masses and altitudes
14 VR for a jet aircraft must be faster than, the greater of: 1.05 Vmca and V1
15 With regards to the optimum altitude during the cruise, the aircraft is: flown as close to the optimum altitude as
ATC will allow
16 Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: windshear is reported on the take-off path
17 For normally aspirated reciprocating engines the brake horsepower Decreases with decreasing air density
delivered:
18 The minimum height of flap retraction for a Class A aeroplane is: 400 ft
19 The operational regulations regarding scheduled performance are Joint Airworthiness Requirements -
contained in the following document: Operations (JAR-OPS)
20 During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the decrease / decrease
maximum range speed, the IAS / the drag will:
21 The speed VLO is defined as landing gear operating speed
22 What are the three types of hydroplaning? Dynamic, reverted rubber, viscous
23 The net take-off flight path gradient for a 2 engine aircraft is the gross 0.8 percent
gradient reduced by:

24 Given that control requirements are adequate, the speed at the screen 20 percent above the stall speed
must not be less than (single engine class B):
25 Which of the following combinations will most likely cause the greatest 1, 3, 5
increase in the take-off distance? 1. Tailwind 2. Headwind 3. Upslope 4.
Downslope 5. High temperature 6. Low Temperature
26 Most jet aircraft cruise at.... of their maximum RPM. 85% to 90%
27 The optimum cruise altitude increases: if the aeroplane mass is decreased
28 An aircraft has a climb gradient of 7 percent after take-off. There is an 108 ft
obstacle having a height of 320ft at a distance of 5400ft from the screen.
The aircraft will clear the obstacle by:
29 When a stopway and/or a clearway is available the take-off distance must: not exceed TORA and when multiplied by
1.3 not exceed ASDA and when multiplied
by 1.15 not exceed TODA
30 The height below which turns are not permitted after take-off is: 50ft or half wing span whichever is higher
31 Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following 5° , the obstacle limit is increased but the
limitations with flap 10° selected: Runway limit: 5 270 kg Obstacle limit: 4 runway limit decreases
630 kg Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg Considering a take-off with
flaps at:
32 When take off mass is limited by VMBE, an increase in the uphill slope allow an increase in the mass
will:
33 After takeoff, which airspeed should be flown in order to gain the highest Vy
altitude in a given period of time?
34 Take off is to be made with the anti skid system inoperative. Compared to (i) decrease (ii) decrease (iii) remain the
normal operation from the same aerodrome in the same ambient same
conditions, the maximum take off mass (i) the V1 speed (ii) and the
accelerate- stop distance (iii) would:
35 The speed for minimum power in a turbojet will be: slower than the speed for minimum drag
36 If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of The take-off is not permitted
the following is correct?
37 Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass lower
will be
38 The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel Maximum range
between two airfields. Which flight procedure should the pilot fly?
39 In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the reduce the engine thrust
pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
40 With a low angle of attack drag is mostly: Profile
41 May the whole runway always be used for landing? No, obstacles in the approach area may
decrease the usable part of the runway
42 At the moment of lift off: lift is equal to weight
43 V1 has to be: equal to or higher than VMCG
44 Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? The speed for which the ratio between rate
 of climb and forward speed is maximum
45 Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for High field elevation, distant obstacles in the
the take-off? climb-out path, long runway and a high
ambient temperature
46 Which of the following statements is true regarding the performance of an The maximum level flight speed will be
aeroplane in level flight? obtained when the power required equals
the maximum power available from the
engine
47 When landing on a dry paved runway (class B performance aircraft) with a 1.1
downhill slope of 2 percent, what factorisation must be used?
48 The allowable landing weight will: Increase with uphill runway slope
49 The pilots of a jet aircraft wish to reach the destination with minimum use Max Range Cruise Speed
of fuel. They should fly at:
50 Vr for transport category aircraft must be at least: 1.05 x Vmca
51 Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the VY and VX are increased
rate of climb whereas:
52 Considering the undercarriage assembly, the factors that limit aircraft wheel rotation speed and brake energy
performance are...
53 Which of the following combinations will give the most limiting takeoff An up-sloping runway with a tailwind
weight if identical slope and wind component values exist? component
54 Which force compensates the weight in un-accelerated straight and level the lift
flight?
55 During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found By selecting a higher flap setting
to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what
way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting
obstacles.
56 The effect of increasing the V2 speed for a given take off mass and the climb gradient increases and the take
aerodrome conditions is: off distance increases
57 If the runway is wet, the landing distance required for a dry runway: must be increased by 15 percent
58 Which of the following statements is correct? The climb limited take-off mass is
independent of the wind component
59 Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial High temperature and high relative humidity
climb performance?
60 A constant headwind: increases the angle of the descent flight
path
61 The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet narrows with increasing mass and
increasing altitude
62 Density altitude is the: Pressure altitude corrected for 'non
standard' temperature
63 Given: BRP: 3420 ft AMSL Runway slope: 1.3% downhill TODR: 2760 m 482.7ft
Obstacle elevation: 3785 ft Calculate the obstacle height above reference
zero for the MRJT:
64 An obstacle is positioned at 2400m from the end of TODA and is offset 10m outside the obstacle accountability
400m from the centre-line. For an aeroplane making a 10° turn after the area
end of TODA and unable to maintain the required navigational accuracy
this obstacle is considered to be:
65 The take-off climb gradient requirement for a single engine class B aircraft 4 percent with maximum take-off power and
is: flaps in the take-off position
66 What is meant by 'Equivalent Weight' in figure 4.27 of CAP 698? The weight compensated for temperatures
greater than ISA+10º C
67 Which conditions are most suited to a selection of low flap for take off? Low airfield elevation, close obstacles, long
runway, high temperature
68 What factors would cause V2 to be limited by Vmca? Combination of the above
69 What will be the influence of the aeroplane performance if aerodrome It will increase the take-off distance
pressure altitude is increased?
70 For a piston engine aircraft the service ceiling corresponds to: The altitude at which the aircraft is capable
of a climb rate of 100 feet per minute
1 An aircraft is in straight, level flight has a CL of 0.42, and a 1° increase in n = 1.7
angle of attack would increase the CL by 0.1. Following a gust that
increases the angle of attack by 3° , what load factor would the aircraft be
subject to?
2 The aerofoil polar is: a graph of the relation between the lift
coefficient and the drag coefficient.
3 Induced drag on a wing in level flight: is greatest at the tip.
4 An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the centre of gravity is .
located behind the aft centre of gravity limit. One undesirable flight
difficulty in recovering from a stalled
characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be: condition.
5 For a given Indicated airspeed (IAS), a swept wing compared to a straight less lift, improved lateral stability and less
wing of the same wing area and same angle of attack produces: total drag.
6 For a steady unaccelerated climb: lift is less than weight.
7 Induced drag: increases when reducing the wing aspect
ratio.
8 Which of the following is the cause of wing tip vortices? Air spilling from the bottom surface to the
top surface at the wing tip.
9 Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following statements is The temperature increases.
correct?
10 An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 kts IAS and 1.000 weight is greater than lift.
feet/min vertical speed. In this condition: .
11 Which of the following gives an unstable contribution in sideslip? Flap extension.
12 An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL 350. It increases as temperature increases.
What is the effect on true airspeed?
13 If an aircraft has a stalling speed of 90 kts IAS (n=1), what will be the 127 kts
stalling speed in a 60° level and coordinated turn?
14 The stall speed: .
increases with an increased weight.
15 If the sum of moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane will rotate about: the centre of gravity.
16 Which of the following statements about static lateral and directional An aeroplane with an excessive static
stability is correct? directional stability in relation to its static
lateral stability, will be prone to spiral dive.
(spiral instability).
.
17 The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where: pitching moment coefficient does not vary
with angle of attack.
18 The critical angle of attack: remains unchanged regardless of gross
weight.
19 When an aircraft is in a non-accelerated level flight, what are the Lift is equal to weight and thrust is equal to
relationships between lift, weight, thrust and drag? drag.
20 How do vortex generators work? Take energy from free stream and introduce
it into the boundary layer.
21 On take-off with the CG at the forward limit: elevator stick forces will be higher at VR.
22 To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be: the one which gives the highest lift/drag
ratio.
23 What effect on induced drag does entering ground effect have: Decrease.

24 The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an aeroplane is as 1: no effect, 2: negative, 3: positive
follows: (1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional)
25 What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence: swept wings.
26 The lift formula is: L= CL 1/2 RHO V? S
27 With a propeller feathered: there will be minimum drag on the propeller.
28 Wing loading is: the ratio of aircraft weight to wing area.
29 Which of the following aircraft designs would be most prone to super stall? Swept back wing.
30 What will happen in ground effect? The induced angle of attack and induced
drag decreases.
31 To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to determine the: Mach Number.
32 The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the air pressure beneath to the top of the wing via the wing
on top and beneath the wing and its direction of movement goes from: tip.
33 An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0° , 15° , 30° and 45° . Slats Flaps from 30° to 45° .
can be selected too. Which of the above selections will produce the
greatest negative influence on the CL/CD ratio?
34 The effect of differential ailerons in a turn will be: increased profile drag on the inner wing.
35 How does the wings centre of pressure move with increasing angle of Forward.
attack?
36 When an aircraft wing stalls: a swept back wing will stall from the tip and
the CP will move forward.
37 When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 times its basic 59%.
stalling speed, the coefficient of lift as a percentage of the maximum lift
coefficient (CLmax) would be:
38 The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept-wing aeroplane may be: buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to
(assume no corrective devices, straight and level flight) pitch down.
39 Which of the following statements are correct? Drag acts in the same direction as the
relative airflow and lift perpendicular to it.
40 The service ceiling of an aircraft is: the altitude where a low specific rate of
climb is achieved.
.
41 During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at the centre of pressure moves aft.
constant IAS and weight:
42 The location of the centre of pressure of a positive cambered wing at shift forward.
increasing angle of attack will:
43 Which of the following is the reason for putting the horizontal stabiliser on to improve the aerodynamic efficiency of the
top of the fin, known as a T-tail? vertical tail.
44 How is the pitching moment affected if flaps are deployed in straight and Pitch down.
level flight?
45 What increases the stalling angle of attack? Use of: slats.
46 The effect of Mach trim on stick forces for power operated controls: is to maintain the required stick force
gradient.
47 Propeller blades are said to be feathered when: the blades leading edges face forward in
the direction of the flight.
48 The torque reaction of a clockwise turning propeller will cause: roll to the left.
49 A twin-engine aeroplane loses both engines. How many feet will it sink in 2,600 feet.
10 nautical miles if its lift-to-drag ratio is 23:1?
50 What is the relationship of VMO and MMO, in a climb and descent? If climbing at VMO, it is possible to exceed
MMO.
51 In a high speed descent at MMO you will reach VMO at: FL270
52 The margin between the power available and the power required: decreases when the aircraft climbs.
53 What is the purpose of the ailerons? To give lateral control about the longitudinal
axis.
54 A deployed slat will: increase the boundary layer energy, move
the suction peak from the fixed part of the
wing to the slat, so that the stall is
postponed to higher angles of attack.
55 As it applies to airfoils. which statement is in agreement with Bernoullis The static pressure of a fluid decreases at
Principle? points where the speed of the fluid
increases.
56 What is the effect on EAS as height is increased when you are holding a EAS falls.
constant IAS?
57 When the undercarriage is lowered in flight: form drag will increase and the aircrafts
nose down pitching moment will increase.
58 Shock stall is: separation of the boundary layer behind the
shock wave.
59 In a twin-engined jet powered aeroplane (engines mounted below the low Down.
wings) the thrust is suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will be
required to maintain the pitching moment zero?
60 The axes of an aircraft by definition must all pass through the: center of gravity.
61 What is the most effective flap system? Fowler flap.
62 By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady level turn at 45° 41%
angle of bank, compared to straight and level flight?
63 For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies. VA is: the speed at which the aeroplane stalls at
the manoeuvring limit load factor at MTOW.
64 What comes about due to an increase of the effectiveness of the spoiler Mach buffet.
due to increase in parasite drag.
65 An aircraft flying at a given EAS is subject to a positive gust of 50kt EAS. More with a high aspect ratio straight wing.
Which of the following correctly describes the increase in positive g felt by
 the aircraft?
66 When ailerons are deployed: induced drag increases on the up going
wing.
67 The short-period mode of longitudinal dynamic stability is: a rapid oscillation about the lateral axis.
68 With the centre of gravity on the forward limit, the stalling speed would be: higher than with the centre of gravity on the
aft limit.
69 When forward speed ..., the ... of the propeller blades (fixed pitch)... increases, angle of attack, decreases.
70 The propeller noise can be minimised by: Increase number of blades.
1 Groundspeed measurement using DME equipment is most accurate flying: from the station at long range.
2 When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly? a great circle track.
3 What is the Rate of Descent required to maintain a 3° glidepath at a 675 fpm.
groundspeed of 135 knots.
4 ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring + or - 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance
Equipment (DME) should not exceed: measured.
5 The FMS database can be: only read by the pilots.
6 The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order .
to:
detect areas of possible severe turbulence
in cloud.
7 When using ADF, the sky-wave (night) effect: Is most dominant around dusk and dawn.
8 The maximum range of primary radar depends on: pulse recurrence frequency.
9 On switching on the AWR a single line appears on the display. This means the antenna is not scanning.
that:
10 A DME and VOR have the same ident, are associated and are: within 2.000 feet of each other.
11 The coverage of the ILS localiser at 17 nm is guaranteed up to an angle 35 degrees.
either side of the extended centreline of:
12 A long range NDB is likely to transmit on ... and be classified as … Select 200 KHz; A1A.
the answer to complete this statement.
13 In an MLS system, the azimuth coverage is: +/- 40°
14 The AWR can be checked on the ground provided: i. the aircraft is clear of i, ii, iii
personnel, buildings and vehicles ii. conical beam is selected iii. maximum
uptilt is selected iv. the AWR must never be operated on the ground
15 The definition of a radar display will be best with: narrow beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth.
16 For a parabolic reflector to make a narrow beam: the size must be large compared to the
wavelength.
17 What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground 600 m
installations if they are to have the same morse code identifier?
18 Which of the following correctly describes the ILS glidepath radiation two overlapping lobes on the same UHF
pattern: carrier.
19 An aircraft at FL360 is 10 nm plan range from a DME. The DME reading in 11.7 nm.
the aircraft will be:
20 The maximum theoretical range of a radar whose PRF is 750 is: 108 nm.
21 A VOR frequency is selected and VOR and DME indications are received at two independent positions and are not
on the appropriate indicators. The VOR ident is GDV and the DME MFT. related.
This indicates that VOR and DME transmitters are:
22 The Doppler Navigation System is based on: radar principles using frequency shift.
23 The maximum PRF required for a range of 50 nm is: 1620 pps.
24 An aircraft at 6.000 amsl is attempting to receive a VOR signal from a 116 nm
station at 240 amsl. Assuming no other factors are involved the maximum
range at which the signal could be detected is:
25 Given: Magnetic heading 280° VOR radial 090° What bearing should be 270°
selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR
deviation needle with a TO indication?
26 A VOR frequency is selected and VOR and DME indications are received serving the same location and may be
on the appropriate indicators. The VOR ident is CPL and the DME CPZ. plotted after checking the two positions.
This indicates that VOR and DME transmitters are:
27 The GPS Navstar system transmits in the L1 and L2 frequency bands. Higher frequency for the C/A and P codes.
Which bands are used for the P codes and which for the C/A codes?
28 Using primary radar, super refraction may play a role, because: super refraction may cause the direct wave
range to be considerably increased.
29 In which navigation system does the master station transmit a continuous Loran C.
string of pulses on a frequency close to 100 kHz?
30 The ILS glidepath operates between: 329.3 to 335 MHz in the UHF band.
31 Which of the following types of radar systems are most suited for short Primary continuous wave.
range operation?
32 The SSR ground transceiver interrogates on ... and receives responses on 1030 MHz, 1090 MHz.
...
33 An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Fly right and fly down.
Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters.
The ILS indication will show:
34 In day to day use the greatest cause of error in Doppler is: input error.
35 During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance aeroplane is below the line of sight altitude.
indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The
reason for this is that the:
36 In respect of the use of GNSS, Dilution of Precision (DOP) is a loss of relative position of the visible satellites.
accuracy due to:
37 A relative bearing indicator shows 030° . The heading of the aeroplane is 60°
090° M. The intercept angle for a course to the NDB of 180° M is:
38 In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is timing the period that is taken for a satellites
obtained by: transmission to reach the aircrafts receiver.
39 An aeroplanes RMI shows an NDB bearing 070° , w/v calm. The fly to the NDB and join the pattern.
aeroplane is to join a right hand holding pattern at the NDB, the inbound
leg of which is 330° . The aeroplane should:
40 Category I ILS is certificated down to: 200 ft barometric height.
41 What causes echoes on airborne weather radar screens? Hail.
42 The principle advantage of Doppler VOR is that: site errors are considerably reduced.
43 Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems white.
(EFIS), armed modes are coloured:
44 An aircraft heading 137(M) has a small island showing on the AWR at Range 45 nm and QTE 275 from the centre
45nm range on the 30 left azimuth line. of the island.
45 The distance measured between a satellite and a receiver is known as a it includes receiver clock error.
 pseudo-range because:
46 The period of validity of the navigational database is: 28 days.
47 Using a primary radar: All 3 answers are correct.
48 A radio facility transmits on a wavelength of 2.22 cm. The facility could be doppler; 13500 MHz.
a ... operating on a frequency of...
49 An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the 284° with the TO flag showing.
following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
50 Ground direction finding at aerodromes utilises which frequencies? VHF at civil aerodromes and UHF at military
aerodromes.
1 What is meant by a wet sump engine? One that carries its oil supply in the engine
itself
2 The operating principle of an anti skid system. The brake pressure will be: Decreased on the slower turning wheels.
3 Adjustment may have to be made to an aircraft fuel system if it has been the change in specified gravity of the fuel
refuelled with JET B instead of its normal JET A1 fuel. These adjustments
are to cater for:
4 Tyre wear can be reduced while taxiing by: taxiing at 25 knots or less.
5 Tyre creep is most likely to occur: when the tyre is newly fitted.
6 The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following change Higher frequency and higher position of the
in circumstance occurs: reflecting ionosphere layer
7 In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately 9:1, rich
the mixture is said to be:
8 The purpose of protecting a circuit against excessive current conditions is: to prevent deterioration and failure of the
aircraft's wiring and switch gear by excess
heat.
9 To prevent leakage of a mineral based fluid in two directions which seal is a synthetic '0' seal.
used?
10 In accordance with JAR-OPS 1; 10 % of the passengers in a non- 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft minus
pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire 30 minutes
flight time when the cabin altitude pressure is greater than:
11 Primary airflow is routed: to the fuel nozzle area for combustion
12 When the destination field elevation is set on the pressurisation control the barometric controller adjusts cabin
system: pressure to approximately 0.1psi above
ambient pressure (at destination).
13 In electronic terms, what is a flip-flop? a bistable multivibrator.
14 With increase in altitude, exhaust back pressure will: decrease and engine power will decrease
15 In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the HF
following frequencies:
16 Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main
occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height gear or nose gear collapse
above the ground greater than:
17 Engine vibration pick-ups are usually installed... on the front and aft bearings
18 Emergency air bottle may be used for: an emergency power supply in the event of
main system fluid pressure loss.
19 What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller? Permits the pilot to select the blade angle
for the most efficient performance
20 Regulations governing the fitting, marking and use of safety equipment is Joint Airworthiness Requirements
contained in:
21 Hydraulic fluids used in systems of modern airliners are: Phosphate ester base fluids.
22 With RTO (rejected take-off) selected and armed, the brakes will be reverse thrust is selected at any time.
automatically applied if:
23 The noisiest part of a gas turbine engine is the: Jet efflux
24 Regarding carburettor ice, state the environmental caution areas for the Temperature between ÷ 5° C and + 18° C,
formation of this type of ice. visible moisture or relative humidity greater
than 60 %.
25 On an aircraft equipped with a compensated capacitance type fuel the same amount.
quantity indication system graduated to read in kg, the temperature
increases just after the tanks are half filled with fuel. If the fuel expands by
10%, the gauges will show:
26 What happens to pressure, temperature and velocity of the air in the Velocity decrease, pressure and
diffuser of a centrifugal compressor? temperature increase
27 At what altitude will the diluter-demand oxygen regulator provide 100% 34 000 ft
pure oxygen?
28 On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with oil over-temperature and low oil pressure.
means of monitoring the:
29 A 12 volt battery that has 1 dead cell: is unserviceable.
30 Crew emergency oxygen is provided from: Gaseous oxygen cylinders
31 The pressure filter in a hydraulic system: is fitted down stream of the pump.
32 Freezing point depressant (FPD) is supplied in two types: Type 1 fluid (unthickened) - Type 2 fluid
(thickened)
33 A sine wave has a peak-to-peak voltage of 400 V. Its: RMS value is 141 V.
34 In which of the following logic gates are contained the six most common NAND, NOR, EXOR
gates?
35 If the volume of air passing through a carburettor venturi is reduced, the increase
pressure at the venturi throat will:
36 If the swept volume of an engine is 1,300 cm' and the total cylinder volume 5.33:1
is 1,600 cm' then the compression ratio is:
37 The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aeroplane is to: provide safe distribution of electrical
charges and currents.
38 Concerning the centrifugal compressor, the compressor diffuser is a pressure rises and velocity falls
device in which the:
39 To convert from an RMS value to an amplitude it is necessary to: divide the RMS value by 0,707
40 In a modern airliner what is hydraulic fluid used? Synthetic.
41 During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed high manifold pressure and low RPM
propeller, a wrong combination of manifold pressure and RPM values
results in excessive pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when one
simultaneously selects a...
42 With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor:
may form at OAT's higher than +10° C
43 A turbocharger is: an exhaust driven supercharger
44 Brake Mean Effective Pressure is: the average useful working pressure
 applied to the piston during the working
stroke
45 The function of the selector valve is to: communicate system pressure to either side
of an actuator.
46 The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths: metric.
47 Bonding is used to protect the aircraft against fire by: ensuring the same electrical potential of all
metal components in the aircraft's structure.
48 On an aircraft with an earth return electrical system: one lead of the battery and one lead of the
electrical components are connected to the
aircraft structure
49 If the forward oil seal in an axial flow compressor fails, compressed air: will be contaminated with oil.
50 Capacitive fuel quantity measurement systems compensate for fuel using more than one measuring probe per
movement in the tanks by: tank.
1 When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase TRANSMITTING Advise the time of its next intended
BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE during an en-route flight, the aircraft transmission.
station shall also:
2 READABILITY 1 means: Unreadable.
3 BREAK BREAK is used to: Indicate the separation between parts of a
message or messages.
4 The callsign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be: DELIVERY
5 The signal that is used to identify an urgency call is: PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN
6 The clearance: CLEARED FOR IMMEDIATE TAKE-OFF RUNWAY 03 is: A flight safety message.
7 What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message? Hotel Bravo Juliet Yankee Charlie
8 A VASIS Indicates through the: location of lights positioned at the
touchdown end of a runway, the vertical
disposition of an aircraft with regard to the
correct height down the glideslope.
9 What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH? QNH one zero zero one.
10 Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc.) belong to the Flight safety messages.
category of:
11 RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: X-BC IDENTIFIED. What does this mean? Radar identification has been achieved.
12 What is the last thing you say in the readback of a flight clearance? Your callsign.
13 When is an aircraft station allowed to use its abbreviated call sign? After it has been addressed in this manner
by the aeronautical ground station.
14 Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase Wait and I will call you.
STANDBY?
15 The Squawk code for radio failure is: 7600
16 The message to an aeronautical ground station PLEASE CALL A TAXI- An unauthorized message.
CAB FOR US. WE WILL ARRIVE AT 1045 is:
17 In an urgency condition the frequency to use first is: The air-ground frequency currently in use.
18 A call to a station followed by the suffix ARRIVAL after its callsign is a Approach control radar arrivals.
transmisson to:
19 The initial call from an aircraft, callsign FASTAIR 285 weighing more than FASTAIR 285 HEAVY
than 136 tonnes would be:
20 The order of priority when passing flight details is as follows: Callsign, aircraft type, position, heading,
altitude, condition, estimate, request.
21 What does QDM mean? Magnetic heading to the station (no wind).
22 The time is 4:15 PM. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if One six one five.
there is any possibility of confusion about the hour?
23 Which Q-code is used to report altitude? QNH
24 The expected approach time (EAT) means the time at which: ATC expects that an arriving aircraft,
following a delay, will arrive at the holding
point to complete its approach for landing.
25 Which phrase shall be used if you want to say PASS ME THE Report.
FOLLOWING INFORMATION...:
26 The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as: An international emergency frequency.
27 If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would QFE
you refer?
28 The term DISREGARD means: Consider the last message as not sent.
29 The callsign suffix for an airfield without radar would be: APPROACH
30 An aircraft call sign be abbreviated, once contact has been established The first and at least the last two characters
and provided that no confusion is likely to occur, to the form of? of the registration letters or, the telephony
designator of the operating agency and at
least two characters of the aircraft
registration.
31 A SIGMET is issued when: Significant weather phenomena which may
affect the safety of the aircraft is forecast for
enroute operations.
32 A route clearance should be ideally passed to an aircraft: Prior to start when work loads are low,
mistakes are less likely to happen and
aircraft manoeuvring is not taking place.
33 The frequency range of a VDF station is: 30 MHz to 300 MHz
34 To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of Very high frequency.
the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong?
35 The transponder code for radio failure is: 7600
36 Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the 25 KHz
VHF band:
37 A Notice to Airmen NOTAM is issued when: Information concerning the establishment,
condition or change in any aeronautical
facility, service, procedure or hazard needs
to be promulgated.
38 RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: X-BC SQUAWK IDENT. What does this X-BC shall operate the IDENT button.
mean:
39 What does the phrase SQUAWK 1234 mean: Select code 1234 on the SSR transponder.
40 What does QTE mean? True bearing from the station.
41 What does the term BLIND TRANSMISSION mean? A transmission from one station to another
station in circumstances where two-way
communication cannot be established but it
is believed that the called station is able to
receive the transmission.
42 The abbreviation SSR stands for: Secondary surveillance radar.
43 An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates: It is unable to establish communication due
to radio equipment failure.
44 Which phrase shall be used if you want to say Yes: Affirm.
45 The callsign for a radar station (general) would be: RADAR
46 The words TAKE OFF are only to be used when: An aircraft is cleared for take-off or, when
cancelling a take-off clearance. At all times
the words DEPARTURE or AIRBORNE is
used. Readback is mandatory.
47 Cherokee XY-ABC receives the following instruction: X-BC CLIMB Straight ahead, at 2500 feet right turn,
STRAIGHT AHEAD UNTIL 2500 FEET BEFORE TURNING RIGHT, cleared for take-off, X-BC.
WIND 270 DEGREES 6 KNOTS, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF. What is the
correct read back:
48 When may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of When satisfactory communication has been
an aeronautical station be omitted? established and provided it will not be
confusing to do so.
49 The abbreviation IMC means: instrument met conditions.
50 Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated Correct.
correctly:
51 A PAN message is defined as follows: A conditions concerning the safety of an
aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person
on board or within sight, but does not
require immediate assistance.
52 The transponder code for radio failure is: 7600
53 Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back: Yes, unless authorized otherwise by ATS
authority concerned.
54 If an aircraft radio receiver fails the aircraft should: transmit using the phrase TRANSMITTING
BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE at
the scheduled time or positions on the
frequency in use and state the time of the
next transmission. The SSR, if fitted, should
be selected to 7600.
55 What is the transponder code for radio communication failure: 7600
56 The words TAKE OFF are only to be used when: An aircraft is cleared for take-off or, when
cancelling a take-off clearance. At all times
the words DEPARTURE or AIRBORNE is
used. Readback is mandatory.
57 The transponder code for unlawful interference is: 7500
58 How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be VOLMET
obtained by aircraft in flight:
59 Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call: The air-ground frequency in use at the time.
60 An urgency call content is to be as follows: PAN PAN PAN (on the frequency in use),
name of station addressed, the nature of
the urgency condition, the intention of the
person in command.
61 If the rate of speech from the ground station is high, then you should say: SPEAK SLOWER
62 What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13.500? one three thousand five hundred
63 The priority of messages, in descending order, is: Distress, urgency, direction finding
messages.
64 When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase TRANSMITTING Advise the time of its next intended
BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE during an en-route flight, the aircraft transmission.
station shall also:
65 On hearing an Urgency message a pilot should: Maintain a listening watch to see if you can
assist in any way.
66 An example of the content of a flight regularity message is as follows: Messages concerning the servicing of the
aircraft.
67 BREAK BREAK is used to: Indicate the separation between parts of a
message or messages.
68 If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot Transmitting blind.
of an airplane shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase:
69 CAVOK means: No cloud below 5.000 feet or below the
minimum sector altitude, whichever is
greater; no CB thunderstorms or
precipitation; visibility 10 km or more, no
shallow fog, or low drifting snow.
70 What does QTE mean? True bearing from the station.
71 If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use I SAY AGAIN
the phrase:
72 What does the abbreviation HJ mean? Sunrise to sunset.
73 Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the 25 KHz
VHF band:
74 The frequency range of a VDF station is: 30 MHz to 300 MHz
75 The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is: 118.0 to 136.975 MHz
76 What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing GROUND
surface movement control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area:
77 To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of Very high frequency.
the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong?
78 What is meant by good microphone technique? Use a normal conversation tone, speak
clearly and distinctly.
79 The callsign for a radar station (general) would be: RADAR
80 You would use the phrase WORDS TWICE when you: Want each word repeated twice.
81 An example of a general call is: ALL STATIONS
82 What cannot be left out from a position report? Callsign, Position and Time.
83 Before transmitting the pilot should... listen out on the frequency to ensure no
interference with another station already
transmitting will occur.
84 The initial frequency for a blind transmission is: The frequency currently in use.
85 An altitude of 13,500 feet would be spoken as: ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED
FEET
86 What does the phrase SQUAWK 1234 mean: Select code 1234 on the SSR transponder.
87 A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is: A flight regularity message..
88 What does QDM mean? Magnetic heading to the station (no wind).
89 The priority of message REQUEST QDM is: Greater than for TURN LEFT.
90 The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: Give no response.
91 The clearance: CLEARED FOR IMMEDIATE TAKE-OFF RUNWAY 03 is: A flight safety message.
92 Word for the expression PERMISION NOT GRANTED is: NEGATIVE
93 If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: May proceed with the flight with ATC
permission.
94 When the term Overcast is used in an aviation routine weather report 100%
(METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
95 What does the instruction VACATE LEFT mean? Turn left to leave the runway.
96 What does the phrase GO AHEAD mean: Proceed with your message.
97 In an urgency condition the frequency to use first is: The air-ground frequency currently in use.
98 The abbreviation IMC means: instrument met conditions.
99 The condition that defines the state of Urgency is that: There is concern about the safety of the
aircraft or a person on board but it does not
require immediate assistance.
100 What is meant by the phrase READABILITY 2? Readable now and then.
1 An aircraft that has the right of way shall maintain its: Heading and speed
2 A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for cloud ceiling and RVR
the departure airfield are satisfactory:
3 The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and 20 NM
each aircraft on track uses DME stations, is:
4 A black letter - C - on a yellow background indicates: where a visiting pilot should report on arrival
5 When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above
made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the FL200
straight leg segments defined with a radius of:
6 When should the aerodrome controller pass the correct time to an aircraft? Prior to taxiing for take off
7 A landing aircraft is not normally permitted to cross the beginning of the Started a turn
runway on its final approach until the preceding departing aircraft has:
8 When flying in IFR you experience a total communications failure in VMC land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and
conditions. What should you do? report your arrival by the most expedious
means to the appropriate ATCU
9 In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "
supplemented: L" and " R" - for 3 " L" , " C" and " R"
10 An aircraft being towed by night must display: the same lights that are required in flight
11 An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider Last 2 NM of the approach
executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar
display for any significant interval during the:
12 At least how many days in advance of the effective date must AIRAC 42
information be distributed?
13 A visual manoeuvring (circling) area may be sectored to exclude a The obstacle is outside the final approach
prominent obstacle. When is this is permitted? or missed approach areas
14 The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, 250 KT IAS
when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
15 Where does the initial sector of a missed approach procedure end? When the climb is established
16 In an offset entry into an omni directional racetrack procedure, the time on 1 minute 30 seconds
the 30° offset track is limited to:
17 What is Special VFR? A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate
within a CTR in meteorological conditions
below VMC
18 Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done: at transition altitude during climb and
transition level during descent
19 A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended,
signals: horizontally in front of body , then clench fist
20 Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration: information signs; yellow or black
background with black or yellow inscriptions
21 Wake turbulence separation minima are based on the grouping of aircraft. Aircraft types less than 136 000 kg but more
Medium is classed as: than 7000 kg
22 What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the Initiate a missed approach
downwind leg?
23 A double white cross displayed in the signal square means: Glider flying is in progress
24 NOZ is: Airspace of defined dimensions extending
to either side of an ILS localiser course
and/or MLS final approach track centre line
25 How is a taxiway holding position marked? One or three different line arrangements
painted across the taxiway
26 Descend below MDA/H is only allowed when... visual reference with the runway is
established and can be maintained
27 Which of the following has the highest order of priority: Aircraft landing
28 On a wet runway: the surface is soaked but no significant
patches of standing water are visible
29 The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and annex 9
their baggage in international flights is:
30 What is the radar wake turbulence separation between a heavy category 6 nm
aircraft and a light category aircraft, where the light aircraft is operating
directly behind the heavy?
31 The minimum height to which an aircraft may safely continue a precision decision height
approach, without visual reference is known as the:
32 Airfield beacons (aeronautical beacons) usually show: white flashing strobe light
33 A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end Base turn
of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final
approach track is a:
34 Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the accompanied baggage or under another
procedure applicable to: simplified customs procedure distinct from
that normally applicable to other cargo
35 What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument 1/2 of the total width of the airspace used to
approach? determine the minimum obstacle clearance
for the approach
36 An AIRAC is: An Acronym for a system aimed at advance
notification based on common effective
dates, of circumstances necessitating
significant changes in operating procedures.
37 What is a danger area? An airspace of defined dimensions within
which activities dangerous to the flight of
aircraft may exist at specified times
38 When two taxiing aircraft are converging: the one that has the other in its right gives
way
39 Which of the following has had a significant effect on the role and The introduction of RNAV, RNP and
importance of aeronautical information and flight data? computer systems
40 When an aircraft is operating in class F airspace above 900 m amsl the 1000 ft
minimum vertical distance from cloud for VFR flight is:
41 An aircraft flying to another contracting state: Is admitted to that state temporarily free of
customs duty
42 What is the only object permitted to protrude through the plane of a An ILS or MLS azimuth (centreline
precision approach CAT II and CAT III lighting system within 60 m of the guidance) antenna
centre line of the approach lights?
43 Which of the following group shows the correct designators for three 29L, 29C, 29R
parallel runways seen from the direction ot the approach?
44 The factors considered in the calculations of DA /DH are: The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle
in the approach or missed approach paths
including an allowance for aircraft speed
and height loss on any go around, plus a
margin for operational factors
45 The approach categories of aircraft are based upon: 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing
configuration at maximum certified landing
mass
46 Having filed a flight plan to a particular destination and having landed at within 30 minutes of your intended ETA at
another destination, you should notify ATC: your original destination
47 Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you You are to assume responsibility for your
are on the airway and to " resume own navigation" . This phrase means own navigation
that:
48 You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3,000ft. Your 1,000 ft vertically and 1.5 km horizontally
distance from the cloud should be:
49 Where are taxiway centre line lights showing alternatively green and From the beginning of a taxiway near the
yellow installed? runway centre line to the perimeter of the
ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area
50 Where no barrettes are used, each centre line light position of a category I A single light source in the innermost 300
precision approach lighting system shall consist of: m, two light sources in the central 300 m
and three light sources in the outer 300 m
51 Where an operator establishes an aerodrome operating minima, the Shall not be lower than any that may be
minima: established for such aerodromes by the
state in which the aerodrome is located
52 Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in AIRAC procedures and identified by the
accordance with: acronym AIRAC
53 What is the meaning of ATCRU? Air traffic control radar unit
54 Runway centre line markings shall be provided on: paved runways
55 The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be The nationality letters for location indicators
composed by: assigned to the state or territory, followed
the letters P. R and D and figures
56 A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means: Disregard any previous instructions, do not
land for the time being
57 Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR? A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a
CTR in conditions below VMC
58 A marshaller has his arms above his head in vertical position palms facing you should proceed to this bay
inward. This means that:
59 What is the deviation allowed either side of track between entry sectors 5 degrees
when joining a hold?
60 A holding pattern is established on inbound radial 000 degrees to VOR Parallel entry (sector 1).
NTM. You are approaching the VOR from the Southwest. What type of
entry procedure is required?
61 Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in- 2 of each
command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure
of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo
Manifest and stores list. The numbers of th
62 Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation 25 NM
to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
63 A NOTAM is to be issued to addressees for whom the information is of 7
operational significance provided they would not have... days prior
notification.
64 What is the meaning of WIP? Work in progress
65 Which of the following is not considered when establishing Aerodrome The frequency of meteorological reports.
Operating Minima?
66 The still air time for flying the outbound heading should not exceed... if 1,5 minutes
above 14,000ft.
67 The QNH is 1040 mbar and you are flying over the sea at 800 ft altitude. FL 0
What would your flight level be assuming the transition altitude is 0 ft?
68 A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track Procedure turn
followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to
intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called
a:
69 Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this follow the instructions of the intercepting
aircraft conflict with ATC instructions. aircraft
70 For VFR flights, continuous two way radio communication with ATS is B, C, D
required in the following airspace classes.
71 Runway centre line lights must be provided: on a precision approach runway category II
or III
72 High intensity obstacle lights should be: Flashing white
73 What SSR squawk indicates communications failure? 7600
74 With QFE set a serviceable altimeter will indicate: The elevation of the point selected plus the
height of the altimeter above this point
within a tolerance of ± 25 m for altimeters
with a test range of 0 to 50 000 ft
75 When using parallel runway operations and vectoring aircraft for an ILS 2 nm
approach, how far in advance of intercepting the glideslope should an
aircraft be established on the localiser?
76 A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a Advisory airspace
 specified upper limit is:
77 A red square with a yellow diagonal displayed in the signals area the state of the manoeuvring area is poor
indicates:
78 What is DER? Departure end of runway
79 The optimum descent gradient in the final approach should not exceed: 5 percent
80 You are flying inbound on radial 232 towards VOR EDI. When you are A parallel or offset entry
required to hold overhead the VOR on radial 052, what type of entry will
you perform?
81 When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest: 60 minutes before departure or, if filed in
flight, 10 minutes before the aircraft is
estimated to reach the intended point of
entry into a control area or advisory area or
the point of crossing an airway or advisory
route
82 A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when B
operating in controlled airspaced classified as:
83 A black letter " C" on a yellow background indicates: The location where visiting pilots should
report.
84 Which signal from a Marshaller indicated 'engage brakes'? Raise arm and hand with fingers extended
horizontally in front of the body, then clench
fist
85 Which of the following statements is true about the signals area of an It is only used for VFR operations
aerodrome?
86 Which is the normal still air outbound time in a holding pattern? One and one half minute for altitudes above
14 000 ft
87 Where no minimum flight altitudes have been established for IFR flights, Over high terrain or in mountainous areas,
which statement concerning minimum flight altitudes for IFR flights is at a level which is at least 600 m (2000 ft)
correct: above the highest obstacle located within 8
km of the estimated position of the aircraft
88 When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot: Shall continuously operate this mode unless
otherwise directed by ATC
89 What is the principle requirement for a signals area on an aerodrome? It must be clearly visible from the air
90 What is the meaning of MEHT? Minimum eye height
91 A detailed description of lower ATS routes can be found in part... section... 2, ENR3
of the AIP.
92 On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome aircraft taking off or about to take off
shall give way to:
93 What is the most important factor when designing an instrument departure Terrain
procedure?
94 What is the normal minimum missed approach gradient? 2.50%
95 If the aircraft can not squawk ident, what directions can ATS give to the switch to STBY then ON
pilot, without directing him to turn the aircraft?
96 A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH
weather conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH
three flying hours away. The take-off minima to be observed at departure required for landing, with an available
airfield are: instrument approach procedure
97 The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the 7600
transponder to Mode A Code:
98 At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind 2 KT
information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean
surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The
mean tail- wind component significant cha
99 When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their shall not impose penalties, fines, customs
intended destination but are unladen at another international airport, the duties and taxes on the operator
contracting state where the unloading takes place; if satisfied that there
has been no gross negligence or care
100 What is the speed limit below 10 000 ft in Class B airspace? not applicable
1 311148KJFK 311139Z 311212 06008KT P6SM OVC025 TEMPO1215 35012G20
3SM – SNPE OVC012 FM1500 04010KT 5SM BR OVC020 TEMPO1719
2SM – SNPE BR OVC010 FM0100 35012G20KT P6SM BKN045
TEMPO0103 SCT045 FM0100 35012G20KT P6SM BKN045 TEMPO0103
SCT045 FM0300 35012KT P6SM SCT045 FM0600 35008KT P6SM
SKC= At 0200 the forecast surface wind is:
2 An airway is marked FL 80 1500 a. This indicates that: the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is FL
80
3 Given the following: D = flight distance X = distance to Point of Equal Time X = D x GSr / (GSo + GSr)
GSo = groundspeed out GSr = groundspeed return The correct formula to
find distance to Point of Equal Time is:
4 EDDF SA 201720 03015KT 8000NE FEW045 SCT250 14/10 Q1016 060/18G30kt
NOSIG SA 201650 03011KT 6000NE SCT042 BKN250 15/10 Q1015
NOSIG FC 201500Z 201601 04010KT CAVOK FT 201600Z 210018
04015KT 3000 HZ BKN030 BECMG 0709 06018G30KT CAVOK The W/V
at 211000 is expected to be:
5 Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass: 64 400 kg Maximum landing 11 100 kg
mass: 56 200 kg Maximum zero fuel mass: 53 000 kg Dry operating mass:
35 500 kg Estimated load: 14 500 kg Estimated trip fuel: 4 900kg Minimum
take-off fuel: 7 400 kg Find the maximum allowable take-off fuel:
6 You have a mode A transponder (4 digits, 4096 codes) and mode C. Item C
10 of the flight plan should show:
7 During a flight at night a position has to be reported to ATC. The 5649 kHz
aeroplane is at a distance of 750 NM from the groundstation and at flight
level 350. The frequency to be used is:
8 When an ATS flight plan is submitted for a flight outside designated ATS 30 minutes flying time or 370 km
routes, points included in Item 15 (route) should not normally be at
intervals of more than:
9 Given: Wind component: +40 kts Distance NGM: 150 Time: 19 minutes 137 NAM
Calculate NAM:
10 Given flight details: Usable Endurance: 4 hrs TAS: 390 kts W/C outbound: 767.7 NM
+32 kts W/C homebound: -38 kts Calculate the distance to the Point of
Safe Return:
11 The purpose of the decision point procedure is? To reduce the minimum required fuel and
therefore be able to increase the traffic load
12 Given: Wind Component: -30 kts Distance NAM: 89 Time: 42.5 minutes 68 NGM
Calculate NGM:
13 On IFR Airways Chart, what does the small letter ‘ D’ in the navaid box The presence of a co-located frequency
 indicate? paired DME facility
14 The navigation plan reads: Trip fuel: 100 kg Flight time: 1h35min Taxi fuel: 2h 49min
3 kg Block fuel: 181 kg The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should
read:
15 Given: Maximum Take-off Mass: 62,800 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 2600 kg
51,300 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 54,900 kg Dry Operating Mass:
35,000 kg Traffic Load: 12,000 kg Total trip fuel required (including all
reserves and diversion fuel): 13,200 kg Estimated reserve on landing:
3,100 kg Calculate the extra fuel uplift available:
16 At 0600 Z the temperature at an airfield (Pressure Altitude 3575 feet) was 1807 ft
+12° C. At 1400 Z the temperature rose to +27° C. The increase in
Density Altitude was:
17 Given: Ground Speed: 150 kts Wind component: -30 kts Distance NGM: 103 NAM; 180 kts
86 Calculate NAM and TAS:
18 KPIT 1212 10013KT 0800 – DZ VV004 TEMPO 2400 – RA OVC008 030/12
BECMG 1416 03012KT 3200 – RA OVC010 TEMPO 1620 1200 +RA
OVC005 PROB40 TEMPO 0800 TS VV002 BECOMG 1820 4800 SCT008
OVC015 TEMPO 2024 3200 – RA OVC008 PROB40 TEMPO 1200 TS
OVC005CB BECMG 0003 SCT025 TEMPO 0307 1600 BKN006 BECMG
0709 0800 FG VV003= The forecast surface wind velocity at
PITTSBURGH (PIT) at 2200 UTC is:
19 Given: TAS: 169 kts Ground Speed: 181 kts Distance NGM: 96 Distance +12 kts; 31.5 minutes
NAM: 90 Calculate Wind component and time:
20 311148KJFK 311139Z 311212 06008KT P6SM OVC025 TEMPO1215 2 statute miles
3SM – SNPE OVC012 FM1500 04010KT 5SM BR OVC020 TEMPO1719
2SM – SNPE BR OVC010 FM2100 01012G21KT P6SM OVC025
TEMPO2101 SCT025 BKN045 FM0100 35012G20KT P6SM BKN045
TEMPO0103 SCT045 FM0300 35012KT P6SM SCT045 FM0600
35008KT P6SM SKC= The lowest forecast visibility is:
21 You have a flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London. In the flight plan it The route according to the flight plan is
is noted that you will deviate from the ATS route passing the FIR boundary accepted
Amsterdam/London. The airway clearance reads: Cleared to London via
flight planned route. Which of the following statements is correct?
22 Assume for a flight from A to B: Maximum Take-off Mass: 53,500 kg Dry 9,270 kg
Operating Mass: 32,000 kg Mean TAS: 220 kts Distance A to B: 1320 NM
Mean consumption: 1340 kg/hr Reserve fuel to be carried (assume
unused): 2400 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 44,500 kg Calculate the
maximum Traffic Load which can be carried with a headwind of 40 kts:
23 For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must take place on a 10 occasions
regular basis on at least:
24 Given flight details for a flight from A to B: Total fuel onboard: 11 000 kg; 307 min
Reserve fuel: 1 500 kg TAS out: 310 kts; TAS in: 270 kt Wind
Component Outbound: +45 kts; Wind Component homebound: -45 kts
F/F out: 2100 kg/hr; F/F home: 1700 kg/hr Calculate the time from A to
the PSR to A:
25 An aircraft in the cruise has a calibrated airspeed of 150 kt, a true airspeed N0180
of 180 kt and an average ground speed of 210 kt. The speed box of the
flight plan must be filled as follows:
26 On an ATC flight plan, the letter Y is used to indicate that the flight is IFR followed by VFR
carried out under the following flight rules:
27 Given: Dry operating mass (DOM ) = 33510 kg; Load = 7600 kg Trip fuel Estimated landing mass at destination =
(TF) = 2040 kg; Final reserve fuel = 983 kg Alternate fuel = 1100 kg; 43295 kg
Contingency fuel = 5% of trip fuel Which of the listed estimated masses is
correct?
28 METAR EGLY 3012202 24015KT 200V280 8000 -RA SCT010 BKN025 Temporarily 5-7 oktas of cloud at 800 ft
OVC080 18/15 Q0983 TEMPO 3000 RA BKN008 OVC020= Select the
correct information that is contained in the above report:
29 If the pressure altitude is 5,000 feet and the ambient outside air 7,800 feet
temperature is ISA +20° C what is the density altitude?
30 A turbine powered aircraft is tasked to fly to an isolated airfield for which a 3920 kg
destination alternate does not exist. Given the following planning data:
Contingency fuel: 850 kg Time and fuel flow in the cruise to the
destination: 3 hrs and 2 100kg/hr Fuel flow in the cruise: 1960 kg/hr from
overhead the destination Destination Holding fuel flow: 2380 kg/hr The
additional fuel planned for at departure should be not less than:
31 Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass: 64400 kg; Maximum landing 3000 kg
mass: 56200 kg Maximum zero fuel mass: 53000 kg; Dry operating
mass: 35500 kg Traffic load: 14500 kg; Trip fuel: 4900 kg Take-off fuel:
7400 kg Find: Maximum additional load.
32 When the MRJT is holding which of the following assumptions are made: The aircraft is at VIMD in a racetrack pattern
33 An aeroplane flies at an airspeed of 380 kt. it flies from A to B and back to 2h 32min
A. Distance AB = 480 NM. When going from A to B, it experiences a
headwind component = 60 kt. The wind remains constant. The duration of
the flight will be:
34 Given: DOM: 33 000 kg; Traffic load: 8 100 kg Final fuel reserve: 983 kg; 42 195 kg
Alternate fuel: 1 100 kg Contingency fuel: 102 kg The estimated landing
mass at an alternate airport is:
35 An aircraft is airborne from an airfield, elevation 800 ft, on a track of 090° 6184 ft
(M); QNH 996mb. VFR cruising Flight Level is maintained in order to clear
an obstacle, 4400 ft amsl, by 1000 ft. What height is climbed to this Flight
level?
36 Flights certified as complying with MNPS and RVSM should insert, after S XW
in item 10 of their ICAO Flight Plan, the letter:
37 Given the following TAF / METAR, Which best describes the weather, if Light rain associated with thunderstorms
any, at Lyon / Satolas at 1330 UTC? LYONS/SATOLAS LFLL/LYS
SA1330 121330Z 14007KT 9000 -TSRA FEW020CB SCT033TCU
BKN046 09/07 Q1003 NOSIG= FC1100r 121100Z 121221 VRB03KT
9999 FEW010 SCT020 BKN040 BECMG 1821 33006KT TEMPO 1221
VRB15G20KT 4000 SHRA SCT008 BKN015= FT1000 121000Z 121812
33004KT 9999 SCT025 BKN060 BECMG 2224 VRB02KT 8000 SCT010
SCT020 BECMG 0204 1500 BR BKN003 TEMPO 0407 0800 FG OVC002
BECMG 0810 33006KT 9999 SCT015 BKN030=
38 An aircraft, following a 215° true track, must fly over a 10 600 ft obstacle 140
with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1 500 ft. Knowing the QNH received
from an airport close by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the
temperature is ISA -15° C, the minimum flight level will be:
39 Given: Airway Centreline: 286° TK (M) Which of the following is an FL310
appropriate standard flight level at which to conduct a flight?
40 Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, the time take-off until reaching the IAF (initial
information which should be entered in box 16 (total elapsed time) is the approach fix) of the destination aerodrome
 time elapsed from:
41 In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a TAS
Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as:
42 311143 KEWR 311139Z 311212 09007KT P6SM OVC025 TEMPO1215 light snow and ice pellets
3SM – SNPE OVC015 FM1500 05009KT 5SM BR OVC020 TEMPO1719
2SM – SNPE BR OVC010 FM2100 01012G20KT P6SM OVC025 TEMPO
2101 SCT025 BKN045 FM0100 35012G18KT P6SM BKN045
TEMPO0103 SCT045 FM0300 34012KT P6SM SCT045 FM0600
35009KT P6SM SKC= – SNPE means:
43 Given a leg distance of 650 NGM, with a TAS of 400 kts and wind 703
component of – 30 kts. Calculate the NAM:
44 On the North Atlantic Track (NAT) System, what is the extent of the RVSM from FL290 up to FL410
System?
45 Details of a flight are as follows: MTOM: 142,500 kg; Dry Operating 9,930 kg
Mass: 68,000 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 85,500 kg; Mean TAS: 410
kts Distance P to Q: 3600 NM; Mean Fuel consumption: 6500 kg/hr
Reserve Fuel (assume unused): 7500 kg; Maximum Landing Mass:
96,000 kg Find the maximum Traffic Load in still air:
46 The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is: 30 min
47 The Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to 13 000 kg
the destination aerodrome is 5 350 kg. Fuel consumption in holding
mode is 6 000 kg/h. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out one
go- around and land on the alternate airfield is 4 380 kg. The destination
aerodrome has a single runway. What is the minimum quantity of fuel
which should be on board at take-off?
48 An aircraft is flying to an isolated destination airfield. The forecast weather The commander must divert to the en-route
conditions at the destination comply with the JAR-OPS regulations and the alternate airfield
destination airfield has a single runway. Prior to the point of last possible
diversion to a suitable en-route airfield the following data is logged:
Expected fuel remaining at said point: 7100 kg Fuel required to the en-
route diversion: 6060 kg Contingency required: 5% Final Reserve Fuel:
1040 kg
49 The temperature deviation under the following conditions is: Cruise -4.5° C
altitude: FL120 OAT: -13.5° C
50 A maximum wind speed is given in a METAR when: The maximum wind speed in the 10 minutes
prior to the report exceeds the mean wind
speed by 10kts or more
51 When the MRJT FMS is used in the ECON Mode: The cost index adjustment must be used
and adjustments to the long range cruise
trip fuel and time are necessary in order to
account for the different speed profiles
52 On a flight from A to B aircraft performance outbound is 0.423 GNM/KG 1760 NM
and aircraft performance returning to B is 0.527 GNM/KG. Total Fuel on
board is 9000 KG which includes a 1500 KG reserve. The distance to the
PNR keeping the reserve fuel intact is :
53 When completing an ATS flight plan for a European destination, clock UTC
times are to be expressed in:
54 Refer to weather information for Birmingham. What is the lowest visibility 5000m
forecast at 280800Z? BRMINGHAM EGBB/BHX SA0850 280850 18014kt
9999 SCT024 BKN030 BKN045 12/08 Q1011= FC0600 280600Z 280816
 190015G27kt 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 0812 5000 - DZ BKN012 BECMG
1214 19022G37= FT0400 280434Z 281212 19022G37 9999 BKN025
TEMPO 1902 5000 RA BKN010 BECMG 2201 25007kt
55 In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard both should be entered in the ATS plan
departure (SID) and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist: where appropriate
56 Planning a flight for a SEP1 from Perth (PTH) to Jersey (JSY). Climb from 410 lbs
1000 ft overhead Perth to FL 110 and cruise at this FL to overhead Jersey.
Use a TAS of 120 kts for the climb. Cruise at the recommended power
settings of 23.0 inches HG at 2300 RPM. Your take-off weight is 3400 lbs
and fuel in tanks at take-off is 400 lbs. Your destination alternate
aerodrome is Guernsey. Assume a level cruise from overhead Jersey to
overhead Guernsey for the diversion at FL60. If the taxi fuel is 10 lbs the
ramp fuel is:
57 METAR EGLY 3012202 24015KT 200V280 8000 -RA SCT010 BKN025 Presently light rain
OVC080 18/15 Q0983 TEMPO 3000 RA BKN008 OVC020= Select the
correct information that is contained in the above report:
58 Given: True course (TC) 017° W/V 340° /30 kt True air speed (TAS) 420 WCA -2° , GS 396 kt
kt Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS):
59 The measured course 042° T The variation in the area is 6° W and the 052°
wind is calm The deviation is 4° W In order to follow this course, the pilot
must fly a compass heading of:
60 Given: 15,000 kg total fuel; Reserve 1,500 kg TAS 440 kt; Wind 1368 nm
component 45 head outbound Average fuel flow 2150 kg/hr; What is the
distance to the point of safe return?
61 Total fuel available overhead X (excluding reserves): 24,000 kg Distance 532 NM
X to Y: 850 NM; Mean TAS (4 engines): 310 kt; Mean TAS (3 engines):
275 kt Mean F/F (4 engines): 6500 kg/hr; Mean F/F (3 engines): 6350
kg/hr Mean wind component out: -45 kt; Mean wind component home:
+35 kt What is the most distant point from which the aircraft can return to
X if one engine becomes unserviceable?
62 You must fly IFR on an airway orientated 135° magnetic with a MSA at 7 90
800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 1025 hPa and the temperature is ISA + 10° ,
the minimum flight level you must fly at is:
63 How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75? Given: Departure 6300 ft
aerodrome elevation = 1500 ft QNH = 1023 hPa Temperature = ISA 1 hPa
= 30 ft
64 KBOS 271212 VRB05 CAVOK BECMG 1819 06012KT BECMG 0204 40% chance of moderate snow
05025G35KT 5000 OVC030 PROB40 1012 2800 SN At KBOS at 1100 Z
which of the following weather conditions are expected:
65 Which statements are correct about computer flight plans? 1. They can file 1 only
the flight plan for you 2. In the event of an in-flight re-routing computer
automatically generates a new flight plan
66 In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 F320
feet would be entered as:
67 CAS is 120 kts, true height is 9000 feet and temperature is -34° C. What 130 kts
is the TAS of the aircraft?
68 If the destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in box 16 of your ATS ZZZZ
flight plan, you write:
69 An executive pilot is to carry out a flight to a French aerodrome, spend the in the FAL section of the French
 night there and return the next day. Where will he find the information Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
concerning parking and landing fees?
70 Using the following information, what is the minimum flight level FL140
considering the temperature? True track: 215° Mountain elevation: 11,600
ft Local airfield gives QNH as 1035 mb Required terrain clearance: 1500 ft
Temperature: ISA - 15C
71 It is possible, in flight, to: 1. file an IFR flight plan 2. modify an active IFR 1, 2, 3, 4
or VFR flight plan 3. cancel an active VFR flight plan 4. close an active
VFR flight plan Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?
72 In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min 120 NM
descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS
will remain constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is
standard. The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of:
73 The still air distance for a climb is 170 NAM. The climb takes 30 minutes 190 nm
with a tailwind component of 40 knots the NGM covered are:
74 You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the 800 kg
following conditions: dry operating mass: 2800 kg trip fuel: 300 kg payload:
400 kg maximum take-off mass: 4200 kg maximum landing mass: 3700
kg
75 Given: TAS: 273 kts Distance NGM: 30 Time: 6 minutes Calculate Wind +27 kts; 300 kts; 27 NAM
component, Ground speed and NAM:
76 You are flying to a destination airport that has no ICAO indicator, what DEST/(the name of the airfield)
should be written in Item 18?
77 An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich EDDM 0215
(EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the ATS flight plan Item 16 (destination / EET)
should be entered with:
78 In an ATS flight plan an aircraft will be classified as (L) if its MTOM is: 7 000 kg
79 On a flight from A to B, the wind component outbound is 50kt H/W. The all 1200 NM
engines operating TAS is 500 kt and the aircraft’ s safe endurance is 4
hrs. If the PSR to A is 330 NM beyond the PET between A and B, the
distance between A and B is:
80 A TREND is often added to the end of a METAR. Which of the following When no significant change in certain
statements regarding the TREND is correct? weather elements is expected in the period
of the TREND, NOSIG is added to the
METAR
81 What minimum height should civil VFR traffic plan to fly at to avoid 2000 ft agl
confliction with military low-level flights?
82 311148KJFK 311139Z 311212 06008KT P6SM OVC025 TEMPO1215 1000 ft
3SM – SNPE OVC012 FM1500 04010KT 5SM BR OVC020 TEMPO1719
2SM – SNPE BR OVC010 FM2100 01012G21KT P6SM OVC025
TEMPO2101 SCT025 BKN045 FM0100 35012G20KT P6SM BKN045
TEMPO0103 SCT045 FM0300 35012KT P6SM SCT045 FM0600
35008KT P6SM SKC= The lowest forecast cloud at 1800 is:
83 When using decision point procedure, you reduce the: contingency fuel by adding contingency only
from the burnoff between decision point and
destination
84 On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1° quadrant of longitude and latitude, the minimum safe altitude is 8 000 ft
appears the following information: 80. This means that within this
 quadrant:
85 Given the following TAF / METAR, What maximum wind speed (kt) is 30
forecast for BORDEAUX / MERIGNAC AT 1600 UTC? Bordeaux /
Merignac LFBD / BOD SA1330 121330Z 21005KT 9000 FEW030TCU
FEW 033CB SCT040 BKN100 09/08 Q1005 TEMPO 25015G25KT 3000
TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB= FC1100r 121100Z 121221 28010KT 9999 -
RA SCT020 FEW025CB SCT040 TEMPO 1218 25015G25KT 6000 SHRA
SCT008 SCT020CB BKN033 PROB30 TEMPO 1218 28020G30KT 3000
TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB BECMG 1821 22004KT 8000 NSW FEW006
BKN030= FT1000 121000Z 121812 30010KT 9999 SCT020 FEW025CB
BKN040 BECMG 1822 22004KT 8000 FEW006 BKN030 BECMG 0306
24005KT 6000 SCT007 SCT015 BKN090 BECMG 1012 -RA=
86 Reference item 19 of the ICAO flight plan, endurance is? fuel endurance of the aircraft
87 An operator must select at least one destination alternate for each IFR 1 and 2 or 3 are correct
flight unless: 1. the planned duration of the flight from take-off to landing
does not exceed 6 hours 2. two separate runways are available at the
destination and the prevailing meteorological 3. conditions are such that
for a period from one hour before until one hour after the 4. destination
ETA, the approach from the relevant minimum sector altitude and the 5.
landing can be made in VMC 6. the destination is isolated and no
adequate destination alternate exists 7. no meteorological information is
available
88 Mark the correct statement: If a decision point procedure is applied for the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is
flight planning, … to be calculated via the decision point
89 Given: Wind component: +83 kts Ground speed: 539 kts Distance NGM: 456 kts; 31 minutes
280 Distance NAM: 237 Calculate TAS and Time:
90 The navigation plan reads: Trip fuel: 100 kg Flight time: 1 hr 35 min Taxi 249
fuel: 3 kg Block fuel: 181 kg How should ENDURANCE be shown on the
flight plan?
91 The standard temperature at 13 000 ft pressure altitude is: -9° C
92 When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given flight, one must 1, 2, 3, 4
take into account: 1. the wind 2. foreseeable airborne delays 3. other
weather forecasts 4. any foreseeable conditions which may delay landing
The combination which provides the correct statement is:
93 At 0600 Z the temperature at an airfield (Pressure Altitude 3575 feet) was 1807 ft
+12° C. At 1400 Z the temperature rose to +27° C. The increase in
Density Altitude was:
94 An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that: the minimum obstruction clearance altitude
(MOCA) is 3500 ft
95 For a radio equipped aircraft, the identifier in the ATS flight plan item 7 be the RTF callsign to be used
must always:
96 Given: Dry Operating Mass: 48,500 kg; Maximum take-off Mass: 76,500 9040 kg
kg Maximum landing Mass: 59,740 kg; Route fuel excluding reserve:
14,220 kg Fuel reserve: 2,200 kg; Assuming that the fuel reserve will be
unused, determine the maximum Traffic Load:
97 According to the chart the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) 8800 ft
is 8500 ft. The meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of -
20° C at FL 85. The QNH, given by a meteorological station at an
elevation of 4000ft, is 1003 hPa. What is the minimum pressure altitude
which should be flown according to the given MOCA?
98 What is Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? From take-off to overhead destination
99 During a flight at night a position has to be reported to ATC. The 5649 kHz
aeroplane is at a distance of 750 NM from the groundstation and at flight
level 350. The frequency to be used is:
100 Given: Maximum authorised Take-off Mass: 45,000 kg; DOM: 24,500 kg 1275 NM
Maximum authorised Zero Fuel Mass: 36,500 kg; Mean TAS: 425 kts
Maximum fuel capacity: 13,300 kg; Mean fuel consumption: 2400 kg/h
Reserve fuel (assume unused): 1300 kg; Maximum Landing Mass:
39,500 kg Assuming still air conditions determine the greatest distance
over which the maximum traffic load in can be carried. (Assume reserve
fuel unused).
1 A direct Mercator graticule is baaed on a projection that is: cylindrical.
2 On a Lamberts conformal conic chart, the distance between parallels of reduces between, and expands outside, the
latitude spaced the same number of degrees apart: standard parallels.
3 What is the Local Mean Time at 65° 30N 123° 45W at 22:00 UTC on 6th 13:45 on 6th.
September?
4 The initial straight track from A(75N 60E) to B(75N 60W) on a Polar 330 deg.
Stereographic chart is:
5 An aircraft is at FL140 with an IAS of 210 and a true OAT of -5C. The wind 20 knots.
component is -35 knots. When the aircraft is at 150 nm from a reporting
point, ATC request the crew to lose 5 minutes by the time they get to the
beacon. How much do they need?
6 Given: True HDG = 233° TAS = 480 kt Track (T) = 240° GS = 523 kt 110/75kt
Calculate the W/V?
7 An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BRIOUDE (altitude 1 483 FT, 6 400 FT.
QFE = 963 hPa, temperature = 32° C). Five minutes later, passing 5 000
FT on QFE, the second altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate
approximately:
8 An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. What is its 160 kt.
groundspeed?
9 An aircraft at FL370, M0.86, OAT -44° C, headwind component 110 kt, is M0.81
required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later
than planned. If the speed reduction were to be made 420 NM from the
reporting point, what Mach Number is requi
10 An aircraft is climbing at a constant CAS in ISA conditions. What will be Both increase.
the effect on TAS and Mach No?
11 A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.75. The 34° W.
initial course of a straight line track drawn on this chart from A (40° N 050°
W) to B is 043° (T) at A; course at B is 055° (T). What is the longitude of
B?
12 The sensors of an INS measure: acceleration.
13 One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input Dither.
rotation rates tending towards zero when a phenomenon known as lock-in
is experienced. What is the name of the technique, effected by means of a
piezo-electric motor, that is used to
14 At 65 nm from a VOR you commence a descent from FL330 in order to 1420 feet/min.
arrive over the VOR at FL 100. Your mean groundspeed in the descent is
240 knots. What rate of descent is required?
15 Given: TAS = 170 kt HDG(T) = 100° W/V - 350/30kt Calculate the Track (° 109 - 182 kt
T) and GS?
16 For an FMS, during pre-flight: Information from the flight plan and load
sheet is entered into the CDU.
17 An aircraft is on final approach to runway 32R (322° ); The wind velocity 328°
reported by the tower is 350° /20 kt. TAS on approach is 95 kt. In order to
maintain the centre line, the aircrafts heading (° M) should be:
18 Track = 090 (T), TAS = 460 knots, W/V = 360 (T) / 100, Variation = 10 E, 069 450 knots
Deviation = -2. What is compass heading and groundspeed?
19 The alignment time, at mid-latitudes, for an Inertial Reference System 10 MIN.
using laser ring gyros is approximately:
20 The poles on the surface of the earth may be defined as: The points where the earths axis of rotation
cuts the surface of the earth.
21 An aircraft is at 75° N 140° W steering 330° T. For a grid aligned with the 110° .
Prime meridian the grid track on a polar stereographic chart will be:
22 At 60° N the scale of a direct Mercator chart is 1 : 3 000 000. What is the 1 : 6 000 000
scale at the equator?
23 Given: Distance A to B is 475 NM, Planned GS 315 kt, ATD 1000 UTC, 340 kt.
1040 UTC - fix obtained 190 NM along track. What GS must be
maintained from the fix in order to achieve planned ETA at B?
24 The value of magnetic variation on a chart changes with time. This is due movement of the magnetic poles, which can
to: cause either an increase or a decrease.
25 On a Lambert conformal conic chart the quoted scale is correct: along the two standard parallels.
26 An aircraft at FL290 is required to commence descent when 50 NM from a 1900 FT/MIN.
VOR and to cross that VOR at FL80. Mean GS during descent is 271kt.
What is the minimum rate of descent required?
27 The sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is: proportional to the horizontal component of
the earths magnetic field.
28 An island is observed by weather radar to be 15° to the left. The aircraft 268°
heading is 120° (M) and the magnetic variation 17° W. What is the true
bearing of the aircraft from the island?
29 An aircraft is landing on runway 23 (QDM 227° ), surface wind 180° /30 kts 23 kts.
from ATIS; variation is 13° E. The cross wind component on landing is:
30 Given: TAS = 465 kt HDG (T) = 124° W/V = 170/80kt Calculate the drift 8L - 415 kt
and GS?
31 The pressure alt is 29000 feet and the SAT is -55C. What is density 27500 feet.
altitude?
32 Which of the following lists the first three pages of the FMC/CDU normally IDENT - POS INIT - RTE.
used to enter data on initial start-up of the B737-400 Electronic Flight
Instrument System?
33 What is the approximate date of perihelion, when the Earth is nearest to Beginning of January.
the Sun?
34 An aircraft is planned to fly from position A to position B, distance 250 NM 1115 UTC.
at an average GS of 115 kt. It departs A at 0900 UTC. After flying 75 NM
along track from A, the aircraft is 1.5 MIN behind planned time. Using the
actual GS experienced, what is
35 An aircraft leaves point A (75N 50W) and flies due North. At the North 1800 nm
 Pole if flies due south along the meridian of 65° 50E unit reaches 75N
(point B). What is the total distance covered?
36 The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic (dead beat) by: keeping the magnetic assembly mass close
to the compass point and by using damping
wires.
37 On an aeronautical chart it is common that: the exact scale vary within the chart.
38 During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed at right angles by groundspeed.
an aircraft. The time between these roads can be used to check the
aircraft:
39 An aircraft passes position A (60° 00N 120° 00W) on route to position B 279° .
(60° 00N 140° 30W). What is the great circle track on departure from A?
40 For a landing on runway 23 (227° magnetic) surface W/V reported by the 22 kt
ATIS is 180/30kt. VAR is 13° E. Calculate the cross wind component?
41 Given: Magnetic heading 311° Drift angle 10° left Relative bearing of NDB 221° .
270° What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from the aircraft?
42 Consider the following statements on the shape of the earth: It is slightly flattened at the poles.
43 An aircraft takes off from 40° 20N 078° 38E and flies a Rhumb Line track 83° 25E
of 090° . What is the longitude after it has flown 219 nm:
44 In a ring laser gyro, the purpose of the dither motor is to: overcome laser lock.
45 Which of the following statements is correct concerning Ring Laser Gyros? They are not necessarily fixed to true north
and are quick to erect.
46 Compass deviation is defined as the angle between: Magnetic North and Compass North.
47 Consider the following statements on rhumb lines: Most rhumb lines will run as spirals from the
one pole to another.
48 What is the longitude of a position 6 NM to the east of 58° 42N 094° 00W? 093° 48.5W.
49 An aircraft takes-off from an airport 2 hours before sunset. The pilot flies a 97 NM
track of 090° (T), W/V 130° / 20 kt, TAS 100 kt. In order to return to the
point of departure before sunset, the furthest distance which may be
travelled is:
50 Aircraft flying from RIX (N56° 53.8 E023° 58.0) to KEPIT (N57° 15.8 E025° 141°
21.2) is required to report at AMOLI (N57° 15.8 E025° 21.2). At AMOLI the
RMI bearing to GL (N56° 57.0 E025° 45.1) will be:
1 The respiratory control centre is primarily sensitive to: carbon dioxide.
2 What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required by physical need)? 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 5 is false.
1. Pressure breathing. 2. Anxiety or fear. 3. Overstress. 4. Strong pain. 5.
Jogging.
3 What are easily observable indications of stress? Perspiration, flushed skin, dilated pupils,
fast breathing.
4 Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of Active listening
interpersonal conflicts?
5 What is the audible range of the human ear: 20 – 20.000 Hz.
6 With regard to the average influence of age on pilot performance, it may has little impact when the pilot is able to
be said that age: compensate for it by his/her flight
experience.
7 Decompression sickness can be prevented by: 1. avoiding cabin altitudes 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
above 18.000 ft 2. maintaining cabin pressure below 8.000ft when flying at
 high altitudes 3. performing physical exercises before and during the flight
4. breathing 100 % oxygen for 30 min prior and during the flight
8 The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a: shortage of CO2 in the blood.
9 The cabin pressure in airline operation is: normally not exceeding 6.000 to 8.000 feet.
10 Solar Radiation is ... than Galactic (Cosmic) radiation but can be more ... lower energy; intense; unpredictable;
and is...
11 The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to: linear acceleration and gravity.
12 It will not happen to me, can be used as an example to illustrate which Invulnerability.
attitude?
13 Workload essentially depends on: the current situation, the pilots expertise
and the ergonomics of the system
14 How much of the air is occupied by oxygen? 20.94%.
15 Which of the following is most true? Regular exercise is beneficial to general
health, but the most efficient way to lose
weight is by reducing caloric consumption.
16 What is the purpose of respiration? Intake of O2, which the living cells need for
the metabolic process.
17 What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very demanding stress The subjective evaluation of the situation by
situation? the individual.
18 Hypoxia effects visual performance. A pilot may: get blurred and/or tunnel vision.
19 What is hypertension? A physiological condition involving
increased pressure on the arterial walls.
20 Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in aviation shows that: there is hardly ever a single cause
responsible
21 Which of the following statements regarding interpersonal interactions are 1 and 3 are correct.
correct? 1. If the sender finds the receiver competent, he/she tends to
reduce verbal redundancy content of his sentences. 2. If the interlocutor is
of non-native tongue, the sender will reinforce what he is saying by using
more complicated words so as to optimize understanding. 3. If he/she
finds him incompetent, he tends to simplify the content of sentences. 4.
Simplification of check list in a crew who know each other essentially takes
place in the case of interpersonal conflict. The correct statement(s) is
(are):
22 Which statement is correct? High performers tend to be people who
enjoy their work situation; to perform well
one must be motivated by feeling trusted
and involved.
23 We know that, in the mechanism of sight, the retina allows for: the acquisition of the visual signal and its
coding into physiological data.
24 The heart muscle is supplied with blood from: the coronary arteries.
25 What is meant by groupthink? More or less unconscious support of a
solution from group member(s).
26 Cardiac output is: stroke volume times the pulse rate and is
normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
27 What is hyperventilation? Excessive rate and depth of respiration
leading to abnormal loss of CO2 from the
blood.
28 Sunglasses with variable filtration (phototropic glasses): can have disadvantages when used in the
cockpit due to their dependence on
ultraviolet light which is screened by the
cockpit glass.
29 The earths atmosphere consists of different gases in various 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B
concentration. Match the following: 1. nitrogen A 0,03% 2. oxygen B
0,92% 3. carbon dioxide C 20.95% 4. rare gas D 78,10%
30 What is ozone? A toxic gas.
31 How much of our knowledge is acquired through sight? 75%.
32 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 1. The retina has rods 1, 3
on its peripheral zone and cones on its central zone. 2. The retina has
cones and the crystalline lens has rods. 3. The rods allow for night-vision.
4. The cones are located on the peripheral zone of the retina.
33 Ozone: consists of molecular oxygen.
34 The altitudes in the Standard atmosphere that pressure will be 1/4, 1/2 36,000, 18,000 8,000 ft
and 3/4 of MSL pressure is approximately:
35 The most important requirement in the design of both displays and standardisation
controls is:
36 The Eustachian tube serves for the pressure equalization between: middle ear and external atmosphere.
37 Which of the following statements about psychosomatic stress is or are Neither.
correct? 1. Psychosomatic stress should hardly affect aviation because of
good crew selection procedures. 2. Psychosomatic stress causes
physiological symptoms to have psychological effects.
38 The organ which eliminates alcohol from the body is/are the: Liver
39 Which of the following personality characteristics makes crew decision Assertiveness.
making most effective?
40 The Black hole phenomenon occurs during approaches at night and over being too high and too far away, dropping
water, jungle or desert. When the pilot is lacking of visual cues other than low and landing short.
those of the aerodrome there is an illusion of:
41 Which of the following statements concerning hypovigilance is correct? may occur at any moment of the flight.
Hypovigilance:
42 The momentum of gas exchange in respiration is: dependent on the pressure gradient
between the participating gases during
respiration.
43 Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Modern aircraft allow for 2, 3
50 - 60% relative humidity in the cabin air under any conditions of flight,
which is satisfactory for the body. 2. Thirst is a belated symptom of
dehydration. 3. Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such as
dizziness and fatigue. 4. Drinking excessive quantities of water must be
avoided since resistance to periods of low hydration will otherwise be lost.
44 List the primary function(s) of effective leadership: Regulating information flow, directing and
co-ordinating crew activities, motivating
crewmembers and decision making.
45 Vibrations can cause blurred vision. This is due to tuned resonance eyeballs.
oscillations of the:
46 The Stroboscopic Effect normally is caused by flash frequencies between 5 20.
... Hz and ... Hz:
47 The optic system of the eye consists of: cornea, lens, vitreous humor.
48 An excessive need for safety: hampers severely the way of pilot decision
making.
49 Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity The sacculus and utriculus.
and linear acceleration?
50 Which of the following symptoms is not typical for a decompression red out
sickness:
1 The international emergency frequency is: 121.500 MHz
2 An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in Until the expected approach time last
IMC has to hold over the designated navigation aid serving the destination received and acknowledged.
aerodrome:
3 What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345? No abbreviated form.
4 What does the abbreviation AIS mean? Aeronautical information service.
5 The theoretical VHF range that you can obtain at FL50 is: 85 nm
6 What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating ...ARRIVAL
approach control radar arrivals:
7 The Q code for a magnetic bearing from a station is: QDR
8 Which phrase shall be used if you want to say COMMUNICATION IS Words twice.
DIFFICULT. PLEASE SEND EVERY WORD OR GROUP OF WORD
TWICE?
9 The abbreviation HJ in the operating hours column for an aerodrome Open from sunrise to sunset.
means that the aerodrome:
10 What does the word APPROVED mean? Permission for proposed action granted.
11 What does the word CANCEL mean? Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
12 In METARs SCATTERED means cloud cover of: 3-4 octas
13 What does the word ACKNOWLEDGE mean? Let me know that you have received and
understood this message.
14 When told RE-CYCLE SQUAWK 1015 you should: Reselect the digits on the transponder
mode A.
15 What does the abbreviation RVR mean: Runway visual range.
16 The call PAN PAN MEDICAL indicates that: The flight is concerning a protected medical
transport pursuant to 1949 Geneva
Convention.
17 When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say: SAY AGAIN
18 When reporting a frequency the use of the word DECIMAL can be omitted: Never.
19 When flying on a SW heading at 3500 feet you would report your heading HEADING 225 AT THREE THOUSAND
and level as: FIVE HUNDRED
20 A message concerning a protected medical transport operated by aircraft PAN PAN MEDICAL
assigned exclusively to medical transportation shall be preceded by the
signal:
21 The VOLMET broadcasts include information about: METARs for selected airfields.
22 On what frequency do you transmit your first MAYDAY call? The frequency in use.
23 Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back? SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed
instructions.
24 An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
failure. The aircraft is assumed to:
25 What does the phrase VERIFY mean: Check and confirm with originator.
26 What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station DELIVERY
indicating clearance delivery?
27 What does the abbreviation MLS mean: Microwave landing system.
28 An aircraft at FL100 over flat terrain on a clear day will have a maximum 120 nm
VHF communications range of about:
29 The true bearing from a station is: QTE
30 A Flight Safety message is one that: Is of immediate concern to an aircraft in
flight or preparing to depart.
31 What is the correct readback of the ATC clearance X/BC climb straight Climb straight ahead. At 2500 feet turn
ahead. At 2500 feet turn right. Wind 270E 10kts. Cleared for take-off? right. Cleared for take off X-BC.
32 CAVOK means that the values of visibility and cloud are: > 10 km and no significant clouds
33 Blind transmission shall be made: On the designated frequency (frequency in
use).
34 What does the abbreviation INS mean: Inertial navigation system.
35 The definition of the Distress condition is that: The aircraft is in imminent danger and
requires immediate assistance.
36 Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted? Aircraft identification, position, time.
37 The procedure for an aircraft that suffers communications failure during an Land at the nearest suitable airfield.
IFR flight in visual met conditions, should:
38 you are flying an aircraft without a transponder then the reply to an NEGATIVE TRANSPONDER
instruction to SQUAWK should be:
39 The Q code for altitude is: QNH
40 A waypoint is: A geographical location relating to area
navigation (RNAV).
41 When shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the In the initial call to the aerodrome control
word HEAVY immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy: tower and the approach control unit.
42 If you are told to SQUAWK 1250 you should: Set code 1250 on SSR transponder (mode
A).
43 The frequency on which ATIS can be found is? Discrete VHF or VOR frequency.
44 The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC X-CD 118.7 X-CD
CHANGE FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7 is:
45 An aircraft under IFR in IMC has radio failure. If not EAT has been At or as close as possible to the flight plan
received the pilot should aim to start descent over the Navaid serving the ETA.
approach to the airfield:
46 The call from an aircraft for a missed approach is: GOING AROUND
47 Which of the following messages sent by ATC to an aircraft in flight must 1, 3, 4, 5
be read back? 1. descend to (altitude) 3.000 feet 2. wind 240° , 15 knots,
gusts 30 knots 3. turn right heading 210 4. reduce speed to 160 knots 5.
squawk 1723 6. braking action poo
48 What does the word NEGATIVE mean? That is not correct.
49 Who do you talk to on the manoeuvring area? GROUND
50 The VHF range for an aircraft at FL 50 is: 85 nm
51 CAVOK means that the values of visibility and cloud are: > 10 km and no significant clouds
52 When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message ...cancel distress.
cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include?
53 If a radar station says B-LOGG IDENTIFIED it means that aircraft callsign has been identified on radar
B-LOGG:
54 What information does VOLMET broadcast (on VHF)? METARs for various aerodromes.
55 A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and
MAYDAY MAYDAY means: immediate assistance is required.
56 Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or I say again.
emphasis?
57 In case of a SSR transponder failure occurring after departure of an IFR Inform the competent ATC unit immediately.
flight, the pilot shall:
58 How is the time 9.20 am reported on RT if there is no possibility of TWO ZERO
confusion about the hour?
59 If you are told to SQUAWK 1250 you should: Set code 1250 on SSR transponder (mode
A).
60 On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall: Monitor the frequency to ensure assistance
if required.
61 What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing APPROACH
approach control (no radar service)?
62 The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring GROUND
area would be:
63 The abbreviation AFIS stands for: Aerodrome flight information service.
64 What does the word RECLEARED mean? A change has been made to your last
clearance.
65 The highest to lowest priority of message categories are: Emergency / DF / Flight Safety / Met / Flight
Regularity
66 The abbreviation SAR stands for: Search and Rescue
67 QDM stands for: Magnetic bearing to station.
68 The callsign suffix of a station giving flight information is: INFORMATION
69 The international emergency frequency is: 121.500 MHz
70 When shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the In the initial call to the aerodrome control
word HEAVY immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy: tower and the approach control unit.
71 QDM means: magnetic bearing to the station
72 The maximum VHF range when flying at FL100 would be: 120 nm
73 What does the word REPORT mean? Pass me the following information.
74 A controller would say BREAK BREAK when he: Is in a busy environment and has
communications with more than one aircraft.
75 The abbreviation HJ in the operating hours column for an aerodrome Open from sunrise to sunset.
means that the aerodrome:
76 The call PAN PAN MEDICAL indicates that: The flight is concerning a protected medical
transport pursuant to 1949 Geneva
Convention.
77 Part of the procedure for an aircraft suffering radio failure IMC en route is Commence descent from the navigation aid
to: at the holding point as close as possible to
the EAT last received or the ETA Resulting
from the current flight plan and to land
within 30 minutes of this time.
78 The distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by Distress traffic ended
transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include?
79 If you wish to say WAIT AND I WILL CALL YOU the corect phrase to use STANDBY
is:
80 Which phrase shall be used if you want to say COMMUNICATION IS Words twice.
DIFFICULT. PLEASE SEND EVERY WORD OR GROUP OF WORD
TWICE?
81 Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a separation between Break.
portions of a message?
82 The VOLMET broadcasts include information about: METARs for selected airfields.
83 What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345? No abbreviated form.
84 Which of the following statements is correct? The urgency communications have priority
over all the other communications, except
distress.
85 The abbreviation for a control zone is: CTR
86 What does the word ACKNOWLEDGE mean? Let me know that you have received and
understood this message.
87 When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC will use RVR runway 16 touchdown ... metres, mid-
the following phrase? point ... metres, stop end ... metres.
88 What does the word NEGATIVE mean? That is not correct.
89 A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the
flight under radar vectors has to: route indicated in the current flight plan in
the most direct manner.
90 An example of a Flight Safety message is: An ATC instruction.
91 The suffix in the callsign of an aerodrome control service would be: TOWER
92 What does SELCAL mean: A system which permits the selective calling
of individual aircraft over radiotelephone
channels linking a ground station with the
aircraft.
93 During radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of XY-ABC to turn on Heading three six zero, X-BC.
to heading 360° . The correct read back of this instruction is:
94 What shall the pilots readback be for CLIMB TO 2.500 FEET? Climbing to two thousand five hundred feet.
95 Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a Going around.
missed approach procedure:
96 An aircraft at FL100 over flat terrain on a clear day will have a maximum 120 nm
VHF communications range of about:
97 An Automatic Terminal Information Service provides: Routine information to arriving and
departing aircraft by means of continuous
and repetitive broadcast.
98 What does the phrase BREAK BREAK mean? It indicates the separation between
messages transmitted to different aircraft in
 a very busy environment.
99 What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Information Golf.
Golf has been received:
100 The procedure for an aircraft that suffers communications failure during an Land at the nearest suitable airfield.
IFR flight in visual met conditions, should:
1 With reference to GPWS: Mode 4A activates when the aircraft
descends below 500 ft radio altitude at a
speed less than .35 Mach with the landing
gear retracted
2 While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is with damping and a period of about 84
necessary to use a device with the following characteristics, in order to minutes
keep the vertical line with a pendulous system:
3 The heading reference used on the EHSI is: True or Magnetic.
4 An IRS is aligned in order to: calculate the computed trihedron with
respect to the earth.
5 A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from: the flux valve
6 The flight data recorder must start data recording automatically: before the airplane is able to move by under
its own power.
7 In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from: Measurement of absolute barometric
pressure from a static source on the
fuselage.
8 The Yaw Damper signal for a given rate of oscillation, is: varied inversely according to the airspeed.
9 The Airspeed Indicator measures: Differential pressure
10 The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control channel may be computer input deviation data and the
defined as the relationship between the: output control deflection signals.
11 When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an aeroplane stabilisation with attitude hold or
automatic pilot enables: maintaining vertical speed and possibly
automatic trim
12 Indicated airspeed (as read on the airspeed indicator] will: Remain unchanged in headwind and
tailwind.
13 An autopilot is selected " ON" in mode " altitude hold," the pilot alters the aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the
barometric pressure set on the sub- scale of his altimeter the: autopilot takes its pressure information from
the static source.
14 The main advantage of a ratiometer type temperature indicator is that it: carries out an independent measurement of
the supply voltage.
15 An aircraft flies from A to B with QNH at A of 1019mb set on the altimeter over indicating by 180 feet
subscale throughout the flight. Assuming all other errors are zero and that
1 mb = 30 feet, when overhead B, QNH 1013 mbs, the altimeter will be:
16 During an approach to an autoland at 1500 feet: Localiser is controlling the roll channel, off
line channels are automatically engaged
and flare mode is armed
17 The measure of a torque can be made by measuring: oil pressure at a fixed crown of an
epicyclical reduction gear of the
transmission box.
18 Where are the flight director and autopilot modes displayed on? On the PFD.
19 A direct reading aircraft thermometer usually consists of a bimetallic different coefficients of expansion of the two
element protruding into the airstream. Movement of the pointer over the
 temperature scale will depend on: metals.
20 According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of a 1,2,4,5,6.
50 seat multi-engined aircraft having been granted the airworthiness
certificate after 1st April 1998 will record: 1. the radiotelephonic
communications transmitted or received by the c
21 When carrying out a turn at the magnetic equator there will be: a tendency to underread turns due to liquid
swirl.
22 If the needle and the ball of a Turn & Slip indicator both show right, what .
does it indicate:
turn to right & too much bank.
23 The static air temperature (SAT) is: an absolute temperature expressed in
degrees Celsius.
24 You engage CWS, what happens when you let go of the control wheel The auto-pilot will hold the attitude that
after making a manoeuvre? exists when the wheel is released.
25 Three types of electronic display are used in aircraft, they are: LED, LCD and CRT
26 The purpose of the automatic trim is to: 1. reduce to zero the hinge 1, 2, 3.
moment of the entire control surface in order to relieve the load on the
servo- actuator 2. ensure the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the
autopilot is disengaged 3. maintain the same
27 In an auto-pilot system, a/c flight path modes include which of the 3, 4 & 5
following: 1. Pitch attitude holding. 2. Horizontal wing holding. 3. VOR axis
holding. 4. Inertial heading holding. 5. ASI & Mach hold. 6. Yaw damper.
28 The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not modified if one or several contact points are maintained at equal
intermediate metals are inserted in the circuit provided that: temperature between these different metals.
29 The operating principle of Flowmeters, or " unit flow meters," the most quantity of fuel movement.
commonly used at the present time, is to measure across their system the:
30 The auto-pilot disconnects (or the auto-land is completed) at: roll out.
31 The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red and maximum speed in VMO operation versus
white hatched pointer. This pointer indicates the: altitude.
32 The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of: 1. a magnetic sensor 1, 2, 3, 4.
supplying an induced AC voltage 2. a DC generator supplying a DC
voltage 3. a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage 4. a
three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase vol
33 The weather radar display data can be shown on: the Captain's and First Officer's EHSI
simultaneously.
34 A standby artificial horizon must have the following properties: 1. a remote 2&4
gyro 2. its own power supply 3. only to be used in emergency 4. its own
gyro 5. one for each certified pilot
35 The term 'toppling', when applied to gyros is: wander in the vertical plane.
36 The indications on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to 1,2,3,5.
errors, due to: 1. rotation of Earth. 2. aeroplane motion on Earth. 3. lateral
and transversal aeroplane bank angles. 4. north change. 5. mechanical
defects. Choose the combination w
37 An aircraft is passing 6,500 ft in a descent when the static line becomes 6,500 ft
blocked. The altimeter then reads:
38 Inside an artificial horizon: the inner ring is pivoted laterally inside the
outer ring and the outer ring is pivoted
longitudinally inside the case.
39 The " heading hold" mode is selected on the flight director (FD) with a is centered if the aircraft is on optimum path
course to steer of 180° . Your aircraft holds a heading of 160° . The to join heading 180° .
vertical bar of the FD:
40 A laser gyro consists of: a laser generating two light waves.
41 VLE is the maximum: flight speed with landing gear down.
42 During a steady climb the pitot head becomes totally blocked by ice. As increase no matter what the actual Mach
the climb continues the indications of the machmeter will: number
43 In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar
gauge utilises a: metals.
44 If the intake probe of an EPR system becomes blocked with ice this will over-read during take off.
cause the EPR gauge to:
45 The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with information regarding the: yaw damper action on the rudder.
46 Change of temperature as an aircraft climbs or descends: is compensated at the metering unit by
means of a capillary and orifice.
47 To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are thermocouple.
equipped with thermometers which work on the following principle:
48 When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and attitude and bank correct.
bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon:
49 TCAS II obtains information from: 1. Pressure encoding from mode S 1, 2, 3, & 4
transponder 2. Radio altimeter 3. Aircraft specific configurations 4. Inertial
reference unit (IRU)
50 On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the: pressure altitude.
1 For an aircraft that is part of a fleet mass, what is the maximum time 9 yrs
allowed between each weighing?
2 The empty mass of an aeroplane is recorded in: the weighing schedule and is amended to
take account of changes due to
modifications of the aeroplane
3 Prior to departure an MRJT is loaded with maximum fuel of 20,100 lt. at an 13092 kg
SG of 0.78. Calculate the maximum allowable traffic load that can be
carried given the following data: Performance Limited TOM 67200 kg
Performance Limited LM 54200 kg DOM 34930 kg Taxi fuel 250 kg Trip
fuel 9250 kg Contingency and holding fuel 850 kg Alternate fuel 700 kg
4 The aircraft datum is a _____ (i) reference point that is defined on or (i) fixed (ii) arms
relative to the aircraft about which the _____ (ii )of any load locations are
known.
5 If standard mass tables are being used for checked baggage and a must determine the actual mass of such
number of passengers check in baggage that is expected to exceed the baggage by weighing or adding an
standard baggage mass, the operator: adequate mass increment
6 The CG limits of an aircraft are from 83 inches to 93 inches aft of the 55.38 lb
datum. The CG as loaded is bound to be at 81 inches aft of the datum.
The loaded mass is 3240 lb. How much mass must be moved from the
forward hold, 25 inches aft of the datum, to the aft hold, 142 inches aft of
the datum, to bring the CG onto the forward limit?
7 In relation to an aeroplane, the term ' Basic Empty Mass' includes the found in the latest version of the weighing
mass of the aeroplane structure complete with its power plants, systems, schedule as corrected to allow for
furnishings and other items of equipment considered to be an integral part modifications
of the particular aeroplane configuration. Its value is:
8 The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the mass of the aeroplane with no listed in the Flight Manual as a fixed value.
usable fuel on board. It is a limitation which is: It is a structural limit
9 If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will: require elevator trim which will result in an
increase in fuel consumption
10 The C of G of an aircraft is 196 inches aft of datum at an all up mass on 12 192.72”
500 lbs. If 200 lbs of baggage is moved from FS 325 to FS 120, the new C
of G will be:
11 An aeroplane has its centre of gravity located 7 metres from the datum line 343 000 Nm
and it has a mass of 49000 N. The moment about the datum is:
12 The interval between 2 fleet mass evaluations must not exceed: 48 months
13 The effect of operating an aeroplane with a CG too far forward is to Inability or difficulty in flaring on touchdown,
experience: resulting in nosewheel landing first
14 The mass of 16 858 kg in Lbs is? 37 166 lbs
15 Aeroplane loading: A. must be performed under the supervision of A, B, C, D and E
qualified personnel B. must be consistent with the data used for
calculating the mass and balance C. must comply with compartment
dimension limitations D. must comply with the maximum load per running
metre E. must comply with the maximum mass per cargo compartment
16 When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty mass standard empty mass plus specific
is defined as the sum of the: equipment mass plus trapped fluids plus
unusable fuel mass
17 A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg. Following 3 000 kg from cargo 4 to cargo 1
cargo loading, the crew is informed that the centre of gravity at take-off is
located at 38 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond limits.
The captain decides then to redistribute part of the cargo load between
cargo 1 (3.5 m from reference point) and cargo 4 (20.39 m from reference
point) in order to obtain a new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC.
Given: Distance from reference point to leading edge: 14 m Length of
MAC = 4.6 m. He asks for a transfer of:
18 The loading limitations shall include: all limiting mass, centres of gravity position,
mass distributions and floor loadings
19 2588 USG of fuel has been loaded into an aircraft, what is the volume in 9796.65 L
litres ?
20 The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by: structural considerations
21 You require 63,000 kg of fuel for your flight, the aircraft currently has 16,660 US gallons
12,000 kg indicated on the gauges. How many US gallons of fuel do you
request if the density is 0.81?
22 If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the become heavier making the aeroplane more
elevator control will: difficult to manoeuvre in pitch
23 The maximum load per running metre of an aeroplane is 350 kg/m. The A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions
width of the floor area is 2 metres. The floor strength limitation is 300 kg 1.2 m x 1.2 m x 1.2 m
per square metre. Which one of the following crates (length x width x
height) can be loaded directly on the floor?
24 An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The 29280 kg
Dry Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the
take-off mass is 64280 kg the useful load is:
25 Determine the position of the CG as a percentage of the MAC given that 17.40%
the balance arm of the CG is 724 inches and the MAC extends from a
 balance arm of 517 in to 1706in.
26 Who determines what items to include in the dry operating weight? The JAA
27 Given an aeroplane with: Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kg 75000 kg and 17200 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kg Maximum Structural Take-off Mass:
78200 kg Dry Operating Mass: 48000 kg Scheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg
and the reserve fuel is 2800 kg Assuming performance limitations are not
restricting, the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load
are respectively:
28 An average dry operating mass and CG position may be used for a fleet or A, B, C and E only
group of aeroplanes: A. if they are of the same model and configuration B.
providing the individual masses and CG positions meet specific tolerances
specified in JAR OPS section J C. providing the dry operating mass of any
aeroplane does not vary by more than 0.5% of the maximum structural
landing mass of the fleet D. providing that the CG position varies by more
than 0.5% of the mean aerodynamic chord of the fleet E. providing
appropriate corrections to mass and CG position are applied to aircraft
within the fleet which have a physical, accurately accountable difference
29 A scheduled flight of three hours estimated flight time, within Europe, is 1,047 kg
being planned. Calculate the maximum mass of freight that may be loaded
in the following circumstances: Structural limited take-off mass: 62,800 kg;
MZFM : 51,300 kg; Structural limited landing mass: 54,900 kg Dry
Operating Mass: 34,960 kg; Fuel on board at ramp: 15,800 kg; Taxi
fuel: 450 kg; Trip fuel: 10,200 kg Passengers (adults each 84 kg): 115;
Passengers (children each 35 kg): 6; Standard baggage for each
passenger: 13 kg Flight crew (each 85 kg): 2; Cabin crew (each 75 kg): 3
30 To measure the mass and CG-position of an aircraft, it should be weighed 3 points of support
with a minimum of:
31 The term USEFUL LOAD as applied to an aeroplane includes: traffic load plus useable fuel
32 Given the following: Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg; 47 800 kg
Maximum structural landing mass: 44 000 kg; Maximum zero fuel mass:
36 000 kg Taxi fuel: 600 kg; Contingency fuel: 900 kg; Alternate fuel:
800 kg Final reserve fuel: 1 100 kg; Trip fuel: 9 000 kg; Determine the
actual take-off mass:
33 The handling and performance problems encountered when an aircraft is The stall speed is increased
overloaded include:
34 On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to 84 kg
use standard mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If
the flight is not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for
an adult is:
35 In mass and balance calculations the " index" is: the moment divided by a constant
36 Mass and balance documentation: A. must be established prior to each All of the above
flight B. must enable the commander to determine that the load and its
distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not
exceeded C. must include the name of the person preparing the document
D. must be signed by the person supervising the loading to the effect that
the load and its E. distribution is in accordance with the data on the
document F. must include the aircraft commander signature to signify
acceptance of the document
37 The operator of an aircraft equipped with 50 seats uses standard masses the operator should use the individual
for passengers and baggage. During the preparation of a scheduled flight masses of the passengers or alter the
a group of passengers present themselves at the check-in desk, it is
 apparent that even the lightest of these exceeds the value of the declared standard mass
standard mass.
38 The responsibility for determination of the mass of OPERATING MASSES the operator
and CREW MEMBERS included within the Dry Operating Mass lies with:
39 The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. Operational items 18400 kg
(including crew standard mass of 1060 kg) are 2300 kg. If the maximum
zero fuel mass is given as 65500 kg, the maximum traffic load which could
be carried is:
40 The weight of 1292 Litres of fuel (SG 0.812) is: 2313 lbs
41 The aircraft basic mass and CG position is found in: The weighing schedule in the Aircraft Flight
Manual and is adjusted to take account of
any mass changes
42 Given a runway of unrestricted length, with oceanic views and a high Long take-off, a low climb angle but Vmc
pressure altitude, what, for a heavy aircraft at a constant IAS, are the (IAS) will be reduced
effects on performance factors?
43 Which of the following statements is correct? A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and
stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy
aeroplane
44 It is intended to fly a certified aircraft with both a full traffic load and a full The CG limits will be in limits all of the flight
fuel load.
45 A box having dimensions of 1 metre by 1.2 metres by.8 metres, weighing In the forward position of the forward cargo
600 kgs is loaded and secured onto a 4 ft square pallet weighing 30 kg. compartment
Using the information on CAP 696 - Figure 4.9, where could the pallet be
positioned?
46 Give the following CG location as a percentage of MAC. Where the CG 68.09%
located at 79.9” aft of the datum, the LEMAC is located at – 9.5” and the
MAC is 131.3”
47 Give the distance of the CG from the datum for an aircraft where the CG is + 341”
23% MAC. The MAC is 90” and LEMAC is located 321" aft of the datum.
48 With respect to the arm ____ (i) of the aircraft datum the arm is _____ (ii) (i) aft (ii) positive (iii) forward (iv) negative
and _____ (iii) of the aircraft datum it is _____ (iv).
49 The maximum zero-fuel mass: 1. is a regulatory limitation 2. is calculated 1, 3, 5
for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g 3. is due to the maximum permissible
bending moment at the wing root 4. imposes fuel dumping from the outer
wings tank first 5. imposes fuel dumping from the inner wings tank first 6.
can be increased by stiffening the wing The combination of correct
statements is:
50 What mass must be relocated to move the CG into limits for the following 923 kg
aircraft? Fwd hold = +1 ft CG located = +5 ft Fwd CG limit = +7 ft Safe
range = 6 ft Aft hold = +14 ft Gross mass = 6 000 kg
1 Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the NE Trade winds.
trade winds are applicable to zone?
2 When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor? When gusts are at least 10 knots above the
mean wind speed.
3 The Bora is a: cold katabatic wind with the possibility of
violent gusts.
4 A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most freeze immediately and create rime ice.
likely:
5 Tropical revolving storms occur in ... They then usually move ... and on late summer, west, decay
reaching a land mass they...
6 The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is More than 1018 hPa.
1018 hPa. The air temperature is 10° C higher than a standard
atmosphere. What is the QFF?
7 You have landed at an airport, local QNH 993 hPa. After landing, you 660 ft AMSL.
notice, that your altimeter subscale is still set to 1013,2 hPa. Your
altimeter indicates 1200 ft. What is the airport elevation?
8 The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is: below 5 kt.
9 In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes wind speed decreases and therefore
direction towards the low pressure area because: Coriolis force decreases.
10 A typical tornado diameter is: 100 - 150m.
11 In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate? East of Greenland.
12 At an airport in California (69 m below MSL), a QNH of 1018 hPa and a The QFF is higher than 1018 hPa.
temperature 10° C higher than standard is observed:
13 While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a Rime ice.
white and rough powder like contamination is detected along the leading
edge of the wing. This contamination is called:
14 FL 140, an OAT -12° C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL -6° C.
110, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard
Atmosphere?
15 Carburettor icing may be expected to occur in clear air when the relative 30%; +30° C; descent
humidity is ..., the temperature is ... and with ... power set.
16 The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal reduced to sea level.
pressure:
17 Unsaturated air moving downwards is heated at a certain rate of Dry adiabatic.
temperature change, called:
18 What are the typical tops of alto type cloud? 23,000ft.
19 On a weather chart an occlusion is indicated by a coloured line of: Violet.
20 A temperature of 15° C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea +2° C.
level. If the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere,
what will the temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres
above sea level?
21 The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising 1° C.
parcel of air is:
22 The observed temperature at the surface is 11° C. This can be described ISA -4.
as:
23 An anticyclone is an area where at the surface: pressure is high at the centre and the air is
descending.
24 If you fly at right angles to a jet stream in Europe with a decreasing outside starboard drift.
air temperature, you will experience...
25 The height of the lifting condensation level is determined by: temperature and dewpoint at the surface.
26 The inland climate is characterized by: a cold winter and a warm summer.
27 Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement It reaches its maximum northerly position of
of the ITCZ in the region of West Africa? 15° - 20° N in July.
28 What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front? At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some
 300 km NS until the front.
29 With the passage of an active polar front depression the surface winds veer; back
will... and the upper winds will ... in the northern hemisphere:
30 How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an unsaturated airmass When temperature increases, the relative
change with varying temperature? humidity decreases, and the dewpoint
remains constant.
31 In January, mean high pressure areas are usually present over: the Azores, the Aleutians, the South Pacific.
32 At FL 180, the air temperature is -35° C.The air density at this level is: greater than the density of the ISA
atmosphere at FL 180.
33 You are making a long-distance flight and have chosen a suitable cruising you are approaching a region of low
altitude for the whole flight. Towards the end of your flight, you have pressure.
descended. What may be to reason for this?
34 What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere Water vapour.
from a weather stand-point?
35 During July flights from Bangkok (13° N - 100° E) to Karachi (25° N - 67° The wind components correspond to the
E) experience an average tailwind component of 22 kt. In January the seasonal change of the regional wind
same flights, also operating at FL 370, have an average headwind of 50 system.
kt. What is the reason for this differen
36 The tropopause is a level at which: temperature ceases to fall with increasing
height.
37 When are thunderstorms most likely in Europe? Late afternoon.
38 At an airport (200 m AMSL), a QNH of 1022 hPa is observed and the The QFF cannot be determined.
temperature is unknown:
39 What weather conditions are most likely to affect an approach to Dakar Wet and thundery due to the proximity of
during July? Intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ).
40 Two factors which contribute to the formation of radiation fog are: a high relative humidity and clear night
skies.
41 An aerodrome is 10m below sea level with a QNH of 1034. If the less than 1034.
temperature is 12.5 deg C, what would the QFF most likely be:
42 Consider the following statements regarding local winds: 1. The Pampero 2 and 3 are correct.
is a Foehn type wind 2. The Mistral is a valley wind 3. The Sirocco and the
Ghibli are similar winds which blow in North African coastal regions giving
poor visibility 4. The Bora blo
43 What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dewpoint lapse Cloud bases form.
rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge?
44 Turbulence and windshear may be encountered at low level up to ... km 32 km ; 6000 ft
ahead of a mature thunderstorm and up to ... feet.
45 The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. Less than 1016 hPa.
The air temperature is 10° C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is
the QNH?
46 What is sublimation? The change of state from ice to water
vapour or from water vapour to ice.
47 An air mass is a body of air that: covers an extensive area and has fairly
uniform properties of temperature and
moisture.
48 What is evaporation? The change of state from water to water
vapour.
49 The region of the atmosphere which is normally stable and has few clouds Stratosphere.
is known as the:
50 What is the temperature decrease with height below 11km? 0.65° C - 100m.
51 The heights of cloud bases in TAFs are reported as being: AAL
52 Which of the following would lead to the formation of Advection fog? Warm moist air over cold surface.
53 Clouds classified as low level are considered to have a base height of: the surface - 6500ft.
54 When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa? March to May and October to November.
55 A mountain range is aligned in an East West direction. Select the 180/20kt 180/40kt 180/60kt.
conditions from the table below that could give rise to standing waves.
2.000 ft 5.000 ft 10.000 ft
56 Stratiform clouds indicate stable air. Flight generally will be: Smooth with low ceiling and visibility.
57 The mechanical turbulence will increase when: the wind increases.
58 What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the Bora.
northern Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
59 Which of the following processes can produce both fog and clouds? Advection.
60 The Equatorial African rains occur... March to May and October to November.
61 A temperature of 10° C above ISA is observed at FL 180. What is the 6240 ft.
effective distance between FL 60 and FL 120:
62 If the same sample of air is heated, it immediately becomes: unsaturated.
63 Subsidence in an anticyclone produces... dry air and an inversion.
64 If you see Alto Castellanus what does it indicate? Middle level instability.
65 You are flying in an atmosphere which is warmer than ISA, what might you True altitude to be higher than Indicated
expect? altitude.
66 You are flying at 2.500 ft AGL, with a southerly wind, and intend to land at South-southeast.
an airport at sea level directly below. From approximately which direction
would you expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)?
67 How is wind measured? 8-10 m above the ground on a mast with an
anemometer.
68 What is the meaning of the abbreviation BKN? 5 - 7 octas.
69 Which of the following has the greatest effect upon ice accretion? Size of droplet and temperature.
70 For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The 160 metres.
approximate elevation of the airfield is:
1 Technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air are ICAO document 9248.
published in:
2 In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down 1, 3
wind which forces you to go around. 1. maintain the same aircraft
configuration (gear and flaps) 2. reduce the drags (gear and flaps) 3.
gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker 4. avoid
excessive attitude change The combination of correct statements is:
3 Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude 15° /h.sin Lm.
of the tangent The correct formula expressing the travel precession
applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to:
4 An airplane creates a wake turbulence when: generating lift.
5 For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it 90 seconds.
must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating
 capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be
evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in:
6 Considering additional take off requirements regarding aeroplane mass: In determining the runway length available
account shall be taken of any loss
encountered due to the alignment of the
aeroplane.
7 To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is: useless because the toxic cabin smoke is
mixed with the breathing oxygen.
8 In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry hazardous materials on transport document for hazardous
board a public transport airplane, they must be accompanied with a: materials.
9 When planning a minimum time route, the air isochrone is taken over the Wind at K.
ground isochrone and wind vector KK is plotted from point K (original
point) to K to achieve heading and ground speed. What is the wind used?
10 The minimum crew for all turbo propeller aeroplanes is 2 when: The seating configuration is more than 19.
11 An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing it is rotating (before taking-off).
fluid free at the latest when:
12 The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in 13000 ft.
pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are
that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin
pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:
13 Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of 1, 2, 3
a runway, under the following circumstances: 1. When cross wind
component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots. 2. When the tail wind
component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots. 3. When the runway is not
clear or dry. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
14 ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a the safety of the air transport of hazardous
document dealing with: materials.
15 In MNPS, at FL 370, you need to change your clearance but have no Climb or descend 500 ft.
communications with ATC. You turn left or right and get a 30 nm.
separation from your assigned track. Do you then:
16 Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is 20750 ft.
limited to 2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14.000
feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
17 An aeroplane suffers cabin decompression at 31.000ft, what is the crews Don O2 masks.
initial reaction:
18 The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1. 2, 3, 4
H2O 2. CO2 3. dry-chemical 4. halogen Which of the following
combinations contains all of the correct statements:
19 The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the 3
passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating
configuration is between 61 and 200 is:
20 For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes.
radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less
than 136.000 kg and more than 7.000 kg) is following directly behind a
heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
21 Flying under VFR rules, an SSR unit is required: As required by the route being flown.
22 Who is responsible for ensuring that the regulatory procedures for the Sender.
transportation of dangerous goods is complied with?
23 An aircraft is scheduled to operate to a destination where the weather at least 115%.
reports and forecasts indicate the runway likely to be used at the expected
time of arrival may be wet. The landing distance available compared to the
required landing distance on a dry runway is to be:
24 A class A fire is a fire: involving ordinary combustible materials
where extinguishment is best obtained by
using a fire extinguisher.
25 In a mountainous region you encounter windshear and see an increase in allow speed to increase while staying on the
airspeed. You: glidepath and monitoring speed.
26 When braking action is medium, the measured braking coefficient is: between 0.30 and 0.35.
27 What precludes a runway being used for noise abatement procedures if No ILS or visual guidance.
landing in VMC?
28 What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC? Not already hold an AOC issued by another
authority.
29 A dry runway is one which: can be wet if it has specially prepared
grooved or porous surfaces, which maintain
effectively dry breaking action.
30 The purpose of the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) is: To permit the operator to change the
content of the MEL whilst keeping a master
copy in an unammended state.
31 The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on the manufacturer and approved by the
which certain in-flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under certification authority.
which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
32 When taking-off after a wide body aircraft which has just landed, you beyond the point where the aircrafts wheels
should take-off: have touched down.
33 Before any flight is commenced, forms must be completed certifying, The Commander.
amongst other things, that the aircraft is airworthy. Who must be satisfied
that all the pre-flight requirements have been complied with?
34 Under which conditions will ice form on the airframe? Water in a liquid state, ambient air
temperature below 0° C and airframe
temperature below 0° C.
35 When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or 1, 3, 5
frost will cause the following effects: 1. An increase in the take-off
distance. 2. A decrease of the take-off run. 3. An increase in the stalling
speed. 4. A decrease of the stalling speed. 5. A decrease of the climb
gradient. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
36 Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is: subject to a mandatory clearance.
37 When considering obstacle data to be calculated the situations to be Take off, en-route, landing and go around.
reviewed are:
38 For a flight above 10.000 ft the stored breathing oxygen carried must be all crew members and 10 per cent of the
sufficient for: passengers for any period in excess of 30
minutes that the pressure in compartments
occupied by them will be between 700 hPa
and 620 hPa, 4.000m/13.000ft.
39 For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic 1, 2.
hydroplaning as soon as: 1. Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre
grooves. 2. Speed is greater than 132 kt. 3. Water height is equal to the
half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4. Speed is greater than 117 kt. The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
40 The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located 1
in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger
seating configuration is between 7 and 30 is:
41 Medical equipment is to be carried on aircraft usually in the form of first aid 30
kit. On aeroplanes certified to carry more than a specified number of
passengers, a kit for use by medically qualified personnel is to be carried
(emergency medical kit) if any point on the planned route is more than 60
minutes flying time from an aerodrome at which qualified medical
assistance could be expected to be available. The specified number of
passengers is:
42 At 600N 0300W, the true heading is 090° and the Gyro is 000° . At 620N 3280
0100W, the True heading is 095° and it has taken 1.5 hours to travel the
distance. What will the Gyro read assuming no Latitude Nut correction:
43 In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of
board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed the operator and ICAO.
after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
44 An aircraft has a threshold speed of 135kts. Into which ICAO aircraft C
approach category is such an aircraft designated?
45 In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can 1000 ft.
be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is:
46 Who compiles the MEL and where does it go? The operator and in the Operations Manual.
47 When you have been unlawfully interfered with the commander is required (i), (ii) and (iii)
to inform certain people: i. State of the Operator. ii. ICAO iii. State of
registration of aircraft. iv. JAA.
48 Routing from Shannon to Canada, when not MNPS equipped, how are At FL280 or below.
you able to fly:
49 Which of the following limitations are included in the aircraft flight manual? Power plant and airspeed limitations.
50 If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be: Greater than the actual.