Day 1

1. [Day 1]It is desired to separate quartz particles from galena particles by taking advantage of their different specific gravities.
es. A hydraulic classifier is employed

under free-settling conditions. Separation is to be carried out in water at 68oF. The specific gravity of quartz is 2.65 and that of galena 7.5. The original mixture of
particles has a size range from 0.00052- 0.00250 cm.It is found that three fractions are obtained, 1 of quartz only, 1 of galena only, and 1 of a mixture of quartz &
galena. The viscosity of H2O @ 68oC is 0.01 poise (1 poise=1gmass/cm-sec.) The size range of the galena particles in the combined fraction is: (Hint: Laminar
flow)
a) 0.00126-0.00250 mm c) 0.00103-0.00250 mm
b) 0.00052-0.00103 mm d) 0.00103-0.00126 mm
2. [Day 1]What is the power required to crush 100 tons per hour of limestone if 80% of the feed passes a 2-inch screen & 80% of the product passes a 1/8 inch
screen? Work index for limestone is 12.74.
a) 200 hp c) 300 hp
b) 250 hp d) 228 hp
3. [Day 1]For a binary particle, the degree of liberation of phase B, fB, when the ratio of grain size to particle size equals 4 and the relative volumetric equals 3 of the
two phases (A>B) is:
a) 42.2% c) 78.6%
b) 63.3% d) 31.3%
4. [Day 1]If lead recovery in a lead concentrate is 95% and gangue rejection in deleaded pulp is 96%, the selectivity index is:
a) 21.3 c) 27.8
b) 4.4 d) 4.9
5. [Day 1]If the concentrate is absolutely free of waste constituents and the tailing is absolutely free of minerals, the selectivity index is:
a) 1 c) 
b) 0 d) -1
6. [Day 1]The collectors prepared by reacting an alkali hydroxide, an alcohol and carbon disulphide are:
a) carboxylates c) xanthates
b) sulphates d) sulphonates
7. [Day 1]The heteropolar structure of the frother molecule leads to its adsorption, that is:
a) The molecules concentrate in the surface layer w/ nonpolar oriented towards the air and the polar group towards the water.
b) The molecules concentrate in the surface layer w/ nonpolar ends oriented towards the bulk solution and the polar group reacts with water.
c) The molecules concentrate in the surface layer w/ nonpolar oriented towards the water and the polar group towards the air.
d) The molecules concentrate in the surface layer w/ nonpolar ends reacting w/ water & the polar group oriented towards the bulk solution.
8. [Day 1]The flotation of sulfide minerals with the use of iso-amyl xanthates as compared to ethyl xanthates produce a:
a) higher recovery c) equal recovery
b) lower recovery d) optimum recovery
9. [Day 1]A flotation cell of a long rectangular trough, divided into sections, each containing a rotor-dispenser assembly rather than an impeller:
a) Agitair c) Wemco-Fagregren flotation cell
b) Outokumpo flotation cell agitator d) Denver Sub-A flotation cell
10. [Day 1]What is the theoretical recovery?
Weight (tons) Assay (% metals)
Feed 3000 3.00
Concentrate 1 185 39.00
Concentrate 2 105 11.00
Tailings 2710 0.19
a) 80.17 c) 94.28
b) 93.00 d) 81.45
11. [Day 1]When the concentration criterion is less than 1.25
a) gravity separation is relatively easy
b) efficiency of separation decreases
c) efficiency of separation increases
d) gravity concentration is not commercially feasible
12. [Day 1]How many cubic feet of CO are required when one ton of Fe2O3 is reduced to iron by carbon monoxide?
a) 8548 cu. ft. c) 13,643 cu. ft.
b) 6411 cu. ft. d) 16,318 cu. ft.
13. [Day 1]How much lime can be obtained by burning one ton of limestone?
a) 56 lbs c) 35 lbs
b) 1120 lbs d) 880 lbs
14. [Day 1]If one ton of Fe2O3 is reacted with carbon to form CO2 (assuming no CO is formed), the number of cu. ft. of CO2 produced will be approx.
a) 6731 cu. ft.
b) 161,550 cu. ft.
c) 1034 cu. ft.
d) 2992 cu. ft.
15. [Day 1]One hundred lbs. of carbon is burned in air. The minimum vol. of air necessary if the combustion product is carbon monoxide is: C + «O 2 ---> CO
a) 2665 cu. ft. c) 7123 cu. ft.
b) 206,425 cu. ft. d) 49542 cu. ft.
16. [Day 1]A solute will distribute itself between two immiscible solvents until at equilibrium the ratio of the activities of the solute in the two liquids is constant at
any given temperature, irrespective of the absolute value of the activities.
a) Henrian activity c) Partition Law
b) Henry's Law d) activity coefficient
17. [Day 1]The ionic strength (I) of 1 molal CaCl2 solution is:
a) 1 c) 3
b) 2 d) 4
18. [Day 1]The ionic strength (I) of 1 molal NaCl solution is:
a) 1 c) 3
b) 2 d) 4
19. [Day 1]Given the activity coefficients (a) of the following electrolytes at ionic strength (I) = 0.50, the activity coeeficient of Cu++ (acu++) in a solution of ionic
strength (I) = 0.50 is:
a) 0.13 c) 2.42
b) 0.26 d) 1.44
20. [Day 1]Given the Gibbs free energy (-Go) of the ff. species:
-GoFe3O4 = -242.4 kcal/mole
-GoH+ = 0
-GoFe+3 = -2.54 kcal/mole
-GoH2O = -56.59 kcal/mole
The standard potential (Eø) and the oxidation potential (E) in very dilute solution for the the ff. rex'n: 3Fe +3 + 4H2O + e- --->Fe3O4 + 8H+, is:
a) 0.348 volt c) 0.591 volt
E=0.348 + 0.472 pH + 0.177 log[Fe+3] E=0.591 + 0.472 pH + 0.177 log[Fe+3]
b) 0.0591 volt d) 23.06 volts
E=0.0591 + 0.472 pH + 0.177 log[Fe+3] E=23.06 + 0.472 pH + 0.177 log[Fe+3]
21. [Day 1]The leaching method which best fits the following general characteristics, ore size of < 10 mm., 80% in 1 week of characteristic extraction rate and high
capital cost:
a) agitation leaching c) dump leaching
b) percolation or vat leaching d) in-situ leaching
22. [Day 1]Calculate Eo for the half cell reaction,
Fe++ ----> Fe+3 + e-
E (Fe/Fe++) = 0.441v ; E (Fe/Fe+++) = 0.036v
a) 0.340 c) -0.774
b) 0.774 d) -0.340
23. [Day 1]A copper dump leach liquor contains 1 g/L of Cu++ and 5 g/L of Fe++. If this solution is allowed to come to equilibrium with pure iron scrap, what will be
the final Fe++ concentration? Assume activity coefficient equals 1.
E (Fe/Fe++) = 0.441v ; E (Cu/Cu++) = -0.344v
a) 0.09 M
b) 0.016 M
c) 0.074 M
d) 0.106 M
24. [Day 1]In order to produce metallic sulfate in the roasting reactions of sulfide ores it is necessary to:
a) provide excess oxygen to convert SO2 to SO3 c) start with cokes or sintered ore
b) maintain a high roasting temperature d) employ a chlorinating agent
25. [Day 1]A slag with V-ratio, CaO/SiO2 of 1/2 (less than 1) would be classed as:
a) a reducing slag
b) a slag with low content of silica
c) an oxidizing slag
d) an acid slag
26. [Day 1]The chemical symbol for elemental iron is
a) Iron, Hf
b) Iron, I
c) Iron, Fe
d) Iron, Pr
e) Iron, Ir
27. [Day 1]Zinc blende, ZnS, is converted to oxide by roasting in air and reduced by smelting with coke and air in a blast furnace to form Zn + CO 2. How
much air is transferred in the reactions in BTU/#-mole?
ZnS + 3/2 O2 ---> ZnO + SO2
ZnO + C + 1/2 O2 ---> Zn + CO2
Heats of formation: ZnS = +82,000 BTU/#-mole
CO2 = +169,500 BTU/#-mole
ZnO = +155,000 BTU/#-mole
SO2 = +124,500 BTU/#-mole
a) 251,500
b) 212,000
c) 206,500
d) 237,000
28. [Day 1]The final product of the copper converter is known as:
a) matte c) tough pitch copper
b) set copper d) blister copper
29. [Day 1]Green wood is sometimes used to reduce oxides by providing reducing gases generated by destructive distillation of the wood in the production of:
a) aluminum is reduced at the cathode and oxidized at the anode
b) oxygen is reduced at the cathode and aluminum is oxidized at the anode
c) aluminum and oxygen are reduced at the cathode
d) aluminum and oxygen are oxidized at the anode
30. [Day 1]The process for producing pure aluminum from leaching sodium aluminate is:
a) Hall-Heroult Process c) Bayer process
b) Harris process d) Parkes process
31. [Day 1]What is the ideal voltage for the electrolysis of Al2O3 at 1000øC?
2/3 Al2O3 + C ---> 4/3 Al + CO2
-Go(Al/Al2O3) at 1273oC = -204 kcal
-Go(C/CO2) at 1273oC = -95 kcal
a) -1.21v c) -2.20v
b) -1.17v d) -1.58v
32. [Day 1]In order to produce metallic sulfate in the roasting reactions of sulfide ores it is necessary to:
a) provide excess oxygen to convert SO2 to SO3
b) maintain a high roasting temperature
c) start with cokes or sintered ore
d) employ a chlorinating agent
33. [Day 1]How much copper will be obtained from 1200 lbs of Cu2S charged into a copper smelter?
Cu2S + O2 ----> 2Cu + SO2
a) 1000 lbs c) 959 lbs
b) 859 lbs d) 900 lbs
34. [Day 1]How much heat is released or absorbed in producing titanium dioxide, TiO2 plus magnesium?
(Heats of formation for TiO2 is 391,500 BTU/#-mol and that of MgO is 261,000.)
a) 120,787 BTU
b) 130,500 BTU
c) -130,500 BTU
d) -129,787 BTU
35. [Day 1]Which of the following is the Boudouard reaction?

a) CO + H2O ---> CO2 + H2 c) CO + 1/2 O2 ---> CO2
b) C + CO2 ----> 2CO d) C + H2O ---> CO + H2
36. [Day 1]Which of the following is the water gas reaction?
a) C + H2O (g) ----> CO + H2 c) CO + 1/2 O2 ----> CO2
b) C + CO2 ------> 2CO d) H2 + 1/2 O2 ----> H2O
37. [Day 1]The radioactiove decay of uranium 238 is first order and the half life is 4.51 x 10[exp(9)] years. The specific reaction rate is:
a) 1.535 x 10[exp(3)] per year c) 1.432 x 10[exp(17)] per seconds
b) 1.535 x 10[exp(-10)] per year d) 2.555 x 10[exp(12)] per year
38. [Day 1]The radioactiove decay of uranium 238 is first order and the half life is 4.51 x 10[exp(9)] years. In how many days will 75 percent of a given amount of
uranium disappear?
a) 812 x 10[exp(10)] days c) 330.4 x 10[exp(10)] days
b) 2.255 x 10[exp(10)] days d) 1.532 x 10[exp(12)] days
39. [Day 1]The heat of evaporation of copper at its normal boiling point is 74.5 kcal/mole (311.71 kJ/mol). The vapor pressure of copper at 1500 oC (1773 K) is 0.256
mmHg (34 N/mý). The boiling point of copper is:
a) 2,823 oK c) 2,773 oK
b) 2,577 oC d) 2,477 oC
40. [Day 1]Determine which of the following metals can be produced by the reduction of metal sulphide with metal oxide at 1000 oC (1272oK) and 1 atm pressure
(101,325 N/m2).
Given: Cu2S + 2Cu2O --> 56Cu + SO2
-Go=28,530+14.06T log T-70.43T cal
(119,370+58.83T log T-294.68T J)
PbS + 2PbO ---> 3Pb + SO2
-Go=98,440+16.1T log T-121.14T cal
(411,873+67.36T log T-506.85T J)
Ni3S2 + 4 NiO --> 7Ni + 2SO2
-Go=139,800 - 98.59T cal
(584,923-412.5T J)
a) Cu
b) Pb
c) Ni
d) Cu2S
41. [Day 1]An accumulation of mineral in sufficient quantity as to be capable of economic extraction.
a) rocks c) ore e) sulfides
b) gangue d) oxides
42. [Day 1]Aggregation refers to the size of the valuable minerals. Which refer to distibution:
a) dissemenation c) concentration e) homogenization
b) liberation d) classification
43. [Day 1]The extraneous rocky material in ores:
a) rocks c) ore e) sulfides
b) gangue d) oxides
44. [Day 1]A mineral may be a metallic ore,i.e., when it is used to prepare the metal. Bauxite, for example, is a metallic ore when used to make aluminum.
When will bauxite be classed as non-metallic ore?
a) when it is not milled at all d) when the ore supply is insufficient
b) when it is not economically feasible for extraction e) bauxite is always a metallic ore
c) when it is milled for refractory and abrasive application
45. [Day 1]Ores are frequently classed according to the nature of the valuable mineral. If a metal is present in elementary form it is a native ore, it is a sulfide ore
when it contains the metal in the sulfide form, and if the valuable mineral may be present as oxide, sulphate, silicate, carbonate or some hydrated form of these
then it is an oxidized ore. Ores that contain more than one mineral are often referred as:
a) metallic c) compound e) mixed
b) complex d) associated
46. [Day 1]Ores are sometimes classified by the nature of their gangues. One is silicious or acidic, and the other is
a) calcareous c) haloysitic e) rocky
b) ferritic d) clayish
47. [Day 1]Mineral dressing or milling is a process of physically separating the grains of valuable minerals form the gangue minerals, to produce an enriched portion
or concentrate and a discard called:
a) gangue c) rock e) tailing
b) middling d) slime
48. [Day 1]A mineral processing plant is often called as a
a) mill c) flotation plant e) separation plant
b) mine d) concentration plant
49. [Day 1]There are two fundamental operations in mineral proscessing, namely the release, or liberation, of the valuable minerals from their waste gangue minerals,
and separation of these values from the gangue. The latter operation is often called
a) flotation c) comminution e) sorting
b) classification d) concentration
50. [Day 1]A separation process dependent on optical and radioactive properties, etc. It commonly include hand selection of high grade ores.
a) froth flotation c) gravity concentration e) heavy media separation
b) magnetic separation d) sorting
51. [Day 1]A separation process dependent on gravity differences. This utilizes the differential movement of minerals due to mass effects usually in hydraulic
currents. This has the advantage of producing less environmental pollution.
a) froth flotation c) electrostatic separation e) gravity concentration
52. [Day 1]This separation process utilizes the different surface properties of the minerals. It is affected by the degree of affinity of the minerals for rising air bubbles
within the agitated pulp.
a) gravity concentration c) magnetic separation e) electrostatic separation
b) froth flotation d) filtration
53. [Day 1]A separation widely applied in the processing of non-metallic minerals, e.g., removing hematite (Fe2O3) from tin ores. It is also commonly used in
concentrating iron ores.
a) froth flotation c) electrostatic separation e) gravity concentration
54. [Day 1]This separation theoretically represents the "universal" concentrating method; almost all minerals show differences in conductivity and it should be
possible to separate almost any two by this process.
a) froth flotation c) high tension, electrostatic separation e) gravity concentration
55. [Day 1]The diagrammatic sequence of operations in the plant is
a) process flow c) operation flow e) process and operation diagram
b) flowsheet d) block diagram
56. [Day 1]Complete mineral liberation has not been attained. This statement is
a) true b) false
57. [Day 1]The particles of "locked" mineral and gangue are known as
a) ores c) middlings e) slimes
b) tails d) concentrate
58. [Day 1]This refer to the percentage of the mineral occuring as free particles in ore in relation to the total content. This dependent on the adhesion between
valuable mineral and the gangue.
a) optimum mesh of grind c) recovery e) enrichment ratio
b) degree of liberation d) grade of ore
59. [Day 1]It is the percentage of the total metal contained in the ore that is recovered in the concentrate. Its purpose is to determine the distribution of the metal in
the feed among the various products of mineral dressing operations.
a) degree of liberation c) recovery e) enrichment ratio
b) ratio of concentration d) grade of concentrate
60. [Day 1]It is the ratio of the weight of the metal in the feed to the weight of concentrate. It is a measure of efficiency of the concentration process.
b) ratio of concentration d) weight ratio
61. [Day 1]Grade of concentrate and ratio of concentration are very much related. How would you evaluate this statement:
"An increase in the ratio of concentration would mean a decrease in the grade of
concentrate."
a) true b) false
62. [Day 1]An increase in recovery would generally mean an increase in the grade of concentrate.
a) true b) false
63. [Day 1]This is the ratio of the grade of concentrate to the grade of the metal in the feed.
b) ratio of concentration d) grade of concentrate
64. [Day 1]Evaluate this statement:
"It is possible to obtain a 100% recovery."
a) true b) false
65. [Day 1]This account for 30-60% of the total delivered price of raw materials, covers the processes of transportation, storage, feeding and washing of the ore
during its various stages of treatment in the mill.
a) ore processing c) ore handling e) ore preparation
b) ore treatment d) ore inspection
66. [Day 1]This harmful material is a major problem in many mills as this is ground into a fine pulp and causes choking or blocking of screens, etc. It can also choke
flotation cell ports, consume flotation reagents by absorption and decompose to give depressants, which render valuable minerals unfloatable.
a) clay c) iron & steel e) wood
b) slimes d) stones
67. [Day 1]Large pieces of these materials broken off from mine machinery can jam the crushers.
a) clay c) iron & steel e) wood
b) slimes d) stones
68. [Day 1]These materials adhere to the ore hindering screening, filtration and thickening, and they consume valuable flotation reagents.
a) clay & slimes c) steel e) wood
b) iron d) stones
69. [Day 1]The following are used in removing harmful materials from the feed ore except
a) washing
b) hand sorting
c) grinding
d) vibrating screen
e) metal detector
70. [Day 1]The following are equipment for ore transportation to the different stages of the milling process except:
a) belt conveyor c) launders e) thickener
b) gravity bucket elevator d) centrifugal pump
71. [Day 1]This necessity arises from the fact that different parts of the operation of mining and milling are performed at different rates, some being in- termittent
and some continuous, some being subject to frequent interruption for repair and others being essentially batch processes. It is accomplished in stock piles, bins
or tanks.
a) ore processing c) ore storage e) ore treatment
b) ore handling d) ore preparation
72. [Day 1]Lead sulfide is galena, sphalerite is zinc sulfide and cassiterite is
a) tin oxide c) aluminum oxide e) copper oxide
b) titanium oxide d) nickel oxide
73. [Day 1]Which mineral does not belong to group?
a) chalcopyrite c) sphalerite e) calcite
b) galena d) chalcocite
74. [Day 1]The following are oxides excepts:
a) hematite c) dolomite e) magnetite
b) pyrite d) chromite
75. [Day 1]Which of the following does not match?
a) Cu2S - chalcocite c) FeCr2O4 - chromite e) PbS - marcasite
b) FeS2 - pyrite d) ZnS - sphalerite
76. [Day 1]This is the chemical formula of chalcopyrite
a) Cu2S c) FeS2 e) FeCr2O4
b) CuFeS2 d) Fe3O4
77. [Day 1]This is an essential feature of all efficient metallurgical operations. Not only is it used to determine the distribution of the various products of a mill, and
the values contained in them, but it is also used to control the operations.
a) mineral dressing c) laboratory analysis e) extractive metallurgy
b) sampling d) metallurgical accounting
78. [Day 1]A sampling method used for moisture determination is the least accurate but the cheapest and most rapid. Small quantities of material are chosen at
random from different spots in the large bulk and these are mixed together to form the base for the final sample. Samples are heated below 105øC.
a) grab sampling c) table sampling e) splitting
b) crude sampling d) coning and quartering
79. [Day 1]It consist of pouring the material into a conical heap and relying on its radial symmetry to give four identical samples when the heap is flattened and
divided by a cross-shaped metal cutter. Two opposite corners are taken as the sample, the other two being discarded. The portion chosen as the sample may again
be coned and quartered, and the process continued until a sample of required size is produced.
a) coning and quartering c) moisture sampling e) splitting
b) grap sampling d) table sampling
80. [Day 1]The material of this sampling method which uses a sampling table is fed to the top of and inclined plane in which there are series of holes. Prisms placed
in the path of the stream break it into fractions, some material falling through the holes to be discarded, while the material remaining on the plane passes onto the
next row of prisms and holes until it reaches the bottom of the plane as the sample.
a) splitting c) coning and quartering e) moisture sampling
b) table sampling d) grab sampling
81. [Day 1]This splitter is an open V-shaped box in which a series of chutes is mounted at right angles to the long axis to give a series of rectangular slots of equal
area alternately feeding two trays placed as either side of the trough.
a) Jones Riffle c) sample splitter e) none of these
b) table sampler d) Jones sampler
82. [Day 1]The principle below is the principle of
Source
³
³exciting radiation
³
³ characteristic emitted
À>Sample ------------------------------> Detector
radiation cause by excitation ³
³
conversion of detected radiation to assay <Ù
a) on-stream x-ray analysis c) atomic absorption methods e) microscopy
b) chemical methods d) fire assaying
83. [Day 1]Given the following data for 1 liter pulp. Cal- culate the %solid by weight in the pulp.
specific gravity = 7.49
pulp density = 2.85
a) 75% c) 80% e) 77%
b) 60% d) 82%
84. [Day 1]There are two methods of accounting:
1) The retrospective system in w/c the theoretical recovery is assumed to be correct and the plant intake is calculated from production.
2) The ________ system in which the plant intake is measured by accurate weighing and sampling and the actual recovery calculated from production.
a) two-product c) trial-and-error e) sample-weigh-calculate
b) check-in/check-out d) actual-recovery
85. [Day 1]Calculate the number of tons of the tailings and the recovery when 249.2 tons of concentrate are produced assaying 42% metal, from a head grade of 3.5%
leaving tailings of 0.79%.
a) 3541.1 tons / 88.9% c) 3541.1 tons / 78.9% e) 3011.5 tons / 88.9%
b) 2416.54 tons / 87.1% d) 3011.5 tons / 78.9%
86. [Day 1]Using the two-product formula the ratio of concentration can be deduced as
F c-t
----- = -------
C f-t
Basing from above equation this equation is for
Cc (f - t)c
------ x 100 = -------- x 100
Ff (c - t)f
a) enrichment ratio
b) recovery
c) poisson's ratio
d) grade of concentrate
e) degree of liberation
87. [Day 1]This determines the quality of grinding and es- tablishing the degree of liberation of the values from the gangue at various particle sizes. In separation
stage, it determines the optimum size of the feed to the process for maximum efficiency and to determine the size range at which any losses are occuring in the
plant so that they may reduced.
a) size analysis c) process analysis e) assaying
b) screening d) process efficiency
88. [Day 1]"Equivalent diameter" refers to the diameter of a sphere that would behave in the same manner as the particle when submitted to specified operation.
Stokes' diameter is measured by sedimentation and elutriation techniques; the projected area diameter is measure microscopically. This "equivalent diameter" is
measured by means of sieving and it refers to the diameter of a sphere equal to the width of the aperture to which the particle passes.
a) screen diameter c) sieve-aperture diameter e) particle diameter
b) mesh diameter d) grain diameter
89. [Day 1]This one of the oldest methods of size analysis and is accomplished by passing a known weight of sample material successfully through finer sieves and
weighing the amount collected on each sieve to determine the percentage weight in each size fraction. This is carried out with wet or dry materail and sieves are
usually agitated to expose all the particles to the openings.
a) elutriation c) microscopy e) on-stream analysis
b) sieve analyis d) sedimentation
90. [Day 1]Water is the most frequently used in wet sieving. Which of the following requires a wetting agent instead of water?
a) chromite c) coal e) feldspar
b) lime d) cassiterite
91. [Day 1]There are two most common methods in representing particle - size distribution curves by means of equation which are often applied to communution
studies. One is the Gates-Gaudin-Schuhmann method and the other is
a) Bond's method c) Kick's law e) Rosin-Rammler method
b) Rittingers law d) Hukki's method
92. [Day 1]Sieving is rarely carried out on a routine basis below about 40 æm; below this size the operation is referred to as ____________. The most widely used
procedures of analysis are sedimentation, elutration and microscopy.
a) subsieving c) post sieving e) Stokes' sieving
b) under sieving d) fine sieving
93. [Day 1]There are many concepts in use for designating particle size within the sub-sieve range,i.e., about below 40 æm, and it is important to be aware of them
when combining size distribution determined by different methods. The approximate conversion factor from sieve size to Stokes' diameter is 0.94 and from sieve
size to projected diameter is
a) 1.5 c) 2.2 e) 1.0
b) 1.9 d) 1.4
94. [Day 1]The equation below is used in the determination of either sedimentation or elutriation diameters where V = terminal velocity of particle size in m/s; d =
particle diameter in meter; g = acceleration due to gravity in m/sý; Ds = particle density in Kg/cu.m.; Df = fluid density in Kg/cu.m.; and n = fluid viscosity in
Ns/mý is the famous
dýg (Ds-Df)
V = ------------------
18n
a) Rittinger's Law c) Bernoulli's equation e) Archimedes' principle
b) Fick's Law d) Stokes' law
95. [Day 1]Reynold's Number, a dimensionless quantity defined by,
vùdùDf
R = -------------
n
should not be exceeded by what value if the error in using Stokes' law is not to excedd 5%.
a) 0.2 c) 0.5 e) 0.4
b) 0.1 d) 0.3
96. [Day 1]This is an absolute method of particle size analysis since it is the only method in which individual particles are observed and measured. The image of a
particle seen is two-dimensional and from this image an estimate of particle size is made. This is applicable to particle size ranging form 0.8-150 æm, and down
to 0.001 æm.
a) subsieve analysis d) electrical resistance method
b) sieve analysis c) microscopy e) on-stream analysis
97. [Day 1]Because most minerals are finely dissemenated and intimately associated with the gangue, they must be initially "unlocked" or "liberated" before
separation can be undertaken. This is achieved by _________ in which particle size of the ore is progressively reduced until the clean particles of mineral can be
separated.
a) comminution c) crushing e) breaking
b) grinding d) attrition
98. [Day 1]This is accomplished by compression of the ore against rigid surfaces, or by impact against surfaces in a rigidly constrained motion path. This is usually a
dry process.
a) blasting c) grinding e) pulverizing
b) crushing d) attrition
99. [Day 1]This is accomplished by abrasion and impact of the ore by the free motion of unconnected media such as rods, balls, or pebbles.
a) attrition c) grinding e) crushing
b) pulverizing d) breaking
100. [Day 1]It is defined as the ratio of maximum particle size entering to maximum particle size leaving.
a) degree of liberation c) enrichment ratio e) concentration ratio
b) reduction ratio d) particle size ratio
101. [Day 1]Comminution theory is concerned with the relationship between energy input and the product particle size made from a given feed size. This also
assumes that the material is brittle, so that no energy is absorbed in processes such as elongation or contraction which is not finally utilized in breakage. The
following are related to or theories of comminution except
a) Rittenger's law c) Bond's Equation e) Rosin-Rammler method
b) Kick's Law d) Work index
102. [Day 1]This is the first theory of comminution which states that the energy consumed in the size reduction is proportional to the area of the new surface
produced. The surface area of a known weight of particles of uniform diameter is inversely proportional to the diameter. The equation below is the mathematical
expression of the law: E = k (1/D2 - 1/D1)
where E=energy input; D1=initial particle size; D2=final particle size; k=constant
a) Rittinger's law b) Hukki's Equation c) Kick's Law
d) Bond' Law e) Fick's Law
103. [Day 1]This law is the second theory of comminution. It says that the energy required for a quantity of material to be reduced from D to D/2 will also be the
needed amount of energy in reducing the same quantity of material from D/2 to D/4. It is expressed by this equation
E = k log Rr / log 2
where E=energy input;k=constant;R=reduction ratio
a) Rittinger's law c) Kick's Law e) Fick's Law
b) Hukki's Equation d) Bond' Law
104. [Day 1]This is a shear failure that occurs due to particle-particle interaction or interparticle comminution.
a) attrition c) crushing e) pulverizing
b) grinding d) blasting
105. [Day 1]This third theory of comminution states that the work input is proportional to new crack tip length produced in particle breakge and the equals the work
represented by the product minus that represented by the feed. In particles of similar shape, the surface area of unit volume of material is inversely proportional to
the diameter. The crack length in unit volume is considered to be proportional to one side of that area and therefore incersely proportional to the square root of the
diameter. The equation is
W = (10W1/ûP) - (10Wi/ûF); where W=work input; Wi=work index; and P & F are 80% product and feed passing.
a) Rittinger's law c) Kick's Law e) Fick's Law
b) Hukki's Equation d) Bond's Law
106. [Day 1]This is a comminution parameter which expresses the resistance of the material to crushing and grinding; and numerically it is kilowatt hours per short ton
required to reduce te material from theoreticall infinite feed size to 80% passing 100 æm.
a) work index c) abrasion resitance e) breaking index
b) ore hardness d) crack index
"Ore grindability refers to the ease with which materials can be comminuted is measured in terms of Bond work index, Wi."
a) true b) false
108. [Day 1]A Cu concentrator is to have a capacity of 1,500 ST per day. The proposed size reduction scheme/sequence is the following:
ORE (80% passing 3")
Hydrocone crusher (80% passing 3/4")
Rod mill (80% passing -28mesh 833 æm)
Ball mill (80% passing -100mesh 147 æm)
Product
Assume a work index of 12.0 over the entire size range. The crusher is operating at 75% of the available time while the rod and ball mill are continuous. Calculate
the total power consumption of the three equipment in just one day.
a) 9.46 KW c) 600 KW
b) 36.32 KW d) 200 KW
109. [Day 1]50% fluorspar, Wi=8.91, 30% quartzite, Wi=9.58, and 20% quartz, Wi=13.57 are feed into a ball mill. The 80% commulative passing is 1/2" and the
reduction ratio is is 12. Calculate the total power requirement of the mill in KWH per short ton.
a) 0.60 c) 0.77 e) 2.58
b) 1.09 d) 0.72
110. [Day 1]In this type of primary crusher, the oscillating movement of the swinging jaw is effected by vertical movement of the pitman. This moves up and down
under the influence of the eccentric.The back toggle plate causes the pitman to move sideways as it is pushed upward. This motion is transferred to the front
toggle plate and this is in turn causes the swing jaw to close on the fixed jaw. Downward movement of the pitman allows the swing jaw to open under the
combined influence of a return spacing and its own weight.
a) double-toggle Blake crusher c) dodge crushers e) cone crushers
b) single-toggle jaw crusher d) gyratory crushers
111. [Day 1]The distance between the jaw of jaw crushers at feed opening is called
a) throw c) width e) set
b) gape d) length
112. [Day 1]The _____________ of jaw crushers is the maximum amplitude of swing of the jaw, and it is usually adjusted by changing the eccentric. It is highest for
tough, plastic materials and lowest for hard, brittle orea.
a) throw c) width e) set
b) gape d) length
113. [Day 1]During each "bite" of the jaws in jaw crushers, the rock swells in volume, due to the creation of voids between the particles. Since the ore is also falling in
a gradually reducing cross- sectional area of the crushing chamber. Choking of the crusher would soon occur if it were not for the increasing amplitude of swing
towards the discharge end of the crusher. This accelerates the material through the crusher, allowing it to discharge a rate sufficient to leave space for material
entering above. Crushing is by jaws only.
a) free crushing c) jaw crushing e) force crushing
b) choked crushing d) pulverizing
114. [Day 1]In jaw crushers, this occurs when the material arriving at a particular cross-section is greater than that leaving. Particles break each other (interparticle
comminution) leading to excessive production of fines and may damage the crusher.
a) free crushing c) jaw crushing e) force crushing
b) choked crushing d) pulverizing
115. [Day 1]The angle between the jaws of jaw crushers is usually less than
a) 34ø c) 26ø e) 22ø
b) 24ø d) 14ø
116. [Day 1]In this type of crusher the swing jaw is suspended on the swing shaft. The swing jaw move towards the fixed jaw under the action of the toggle plate and it
moves vertically as the eccentric rotates. This elliptical jaw motion assists in pushing rock through the crushing chamber. The eccentric movement, however,
increases the rate of wear on the jaw plates. Direct attachment of the swing jaw to the eccentric imposes a high degree of strain on the drive shaft, posing a high
maintenance cost.
a) double-toggle Blake crusher d) Universal jaw crusher
b) single-toggle jaw crusher e) Brown-Lenox jaw crusher
c) Dodge jaw crusher
117. [Day 1]The swing jaw of this jaw crusher is designed to crush with motion of the jaw plates squarely against the rock, so that no abrasion occurs and there is
significant reductions in wear and power consumption .
a) double-toggle Blake crusher d) Universal jaw crusher
b) single-toggle jaw crusher e) Brown-Lenox jaw crusher
c) Dodge jaw crusher
118. [Day 1]In this jaw crusher, the swing jaw is pivoted from below and there is a constant discharge opening or set, which allows close control of the product size.
This is restricted to laboratory use, where close sizing is required and it is never used for heavy duty operations due to choking when feeding is not controlled.
a) double-toggle Blake crusher b) single-toggle jaw crusher
c) Dodge jaw crusher e) Brown-Lenox jaw crusher
d) Universal jaw crusher
119. [Day 1]The speed of jaw crushers varies inversely with the size and usually lies in the range of 100-350 rev/min.
a) true b) false
120. [Day 1]These crushers are principally used in surface crushing plants. It consists essentially of a long spindle, carrying a hard steel conical grinding element, the
head, seated in an eccentric sleeve. The spindle is suspended from a spider and as it rotates, it sweeps out a conical path within the fixed crushing chamber, or
shell, due to gyratory action of the eccentric. The maximum movement of head occurs near the discharge. This tends to relieve choking due to swelling, the
machine thus being a good arrested crusher. These are used when large tonnage capacities is desired.
a) double-toggle Blake crushers c) jaw crushers e) Cone crusher
b) single-toggle jaw crushers d) Gyratory crushers
"Gyratory crusher can be regarded as an infinitely large number of jaw crushers each infinitely small width"
a) true b) false
122. [Day 1]The crushing shell of gyratory crushers is protected by manganese steel liners called concaves. Large crushers use sectionalized concaves called ________,
which are wedge-shaped, and either rest on a ring fitted between the upper and lower shell or are bolted to the shell.
a) staves c) mantle e) throw
b) convex d) gape
123. [Day 1]The head of gyratory crusher is one of the steel forgings which make up the spindle. It is protected by a manganese steel _______, which is fastened on to
the head by means of nuts, or threads which are pitched so that they are self-tightening during operations.
a) staves c) mantle e) throw
b) convex d) gape
124. [Day 1]This useful relationship is used in deciding when to use jaw crusher or gyratory crusher:
if tonnes/hr < 0.115 ù (gape in inches)ý
- use a jaw crusher otherwise use
gyratory crusher
Who deduce this relationship?
a) Taggart c) Kick e) Ross
b) Bond d) Rittinger
125. [Day 1]This crusher is a modified gyratory. The essential difference is that the shorter spindle of this crusher is nos suspended as in gyratory, but is supported in a
curved, universal bearing below the gyratory head.
a) cone crusher c) impact crusher e) jaw crusher
b) Roll crusher d) Hammer mill
126. [Day 1]This is a specialized form of cone crusher, used for producing very fine material. The main modification to the conventional cone crusher is that the
machine has very short angle for the lower liner. Crushing is by interparticle comminution by impact and attrition of a multi- layered mass of particles.
a) gyradisc crusher c) impact crusher e) roll crusher
b) jaw crusher d) hammer mill
127. [Day 1]These crushers may consist of two horizontal cylinders which revolves towards each other. The set is determined by shims which cause the spring loaded
roll to be held back from the solidly mounted roll. These are also manufactured with only one rotating cylinder which revolves towards a fixed plate. Other uses
three, four or six cylinders. They have the advantage of being able to handle wet, sticky and frozen feeds and materials which has a tendency to pack. Their great
disadvantage is the very low reduction ratio and the fact that very large rolls are required to nip small particles and therefore have the highest capital cost of all the
crushers.
128. [Day 1]In roll crushers the particle will slip when the angle of nip is
a) = 30ø c) > 30ø e) > 26ø
b) < 30ø d) < 26ø
129. [Day 1]In this calss of crusher, comminution is by impact rather than compression, by sharp blows applied at high speed to free falling rock. The moving parts are
beaters, which transfer some of their kinetic energy to the ore particles on contacting them. The internal stresses created in the particles are often large enough to
cause them to shatter.
a) force crusher c) cone crusher e) jaw crusher
b) impact crusher d) gyratory crusher
130. [Day 1]What type of crusher causes immediate fracture with no residual stresses.
131. [Day 1]The last stage in comminution process.
a) crushing c) grinding e) sizing
b) blasting d) pulverizing
132. [Day 1]A rotating cylindrical steel vessels which contain a charge of loose crushing bodies or the grinding medium which is free to move inside thus comminuting
the ore particles.
a) grinding cylinder c) grinding chamber e) trunnion
b) tumbling mill d) feed chamber
133. [Day 1]The ore with a particle size of 10-20 cm after primary crushing will have _________ particle size range after secondary crushing.
a) 5-7 cm c) 1-4 cm e) 3-5 cm
b) 4-6 cm d) 0.5-2 cm
134. [Day 1]In grinding process, particles between 5 and 50 mm are reduced in size to between 10 and 300 æm.
a) false b) true
135. [Day 1]This result in a product which is too coarse, with a degree of liberation too low for economic extraction; poor recovery and enrichment ratio will be
achieve in the concentration stage.
a) poor grinding c) optimum grinding e) overgrinding
b) good grinding d) undergrinding
136. [Day 1]This results needlessly reduces the particle size of substantially liberated major constituent (usually the gangue) and reduces the particle size of the minor
constituent (usually the mineral value) below the size required for most efficient separation. Much energy is wasted in the process.
a) poor grinding c) optimum grinding e) overgrinding
b) good grinding d) undergrinding
137. [Day 1]The comminution process which subject to laws of probability.
a) crushing c) blasting e) screening
b) grinding d) pulverizing
138. [Day 1]Grinding can take place by several mechanisms. This mechanism distort the particles and change their shape beyond certain limits determined by their
degree of elasticity, which causes them to break. This includes impact or compression, due to forces applied almost normally to particle surface; chipping due to
oblique forces; and __________ due to forces acting parallel to the surfaces.
a) shear c) attrition e) penetration
b) abrasion d) flaking
139. [Day 1]The mixture of grinding medium, ore and water.
a) feed c) crop load e) overflow
b) pulp d) underflow
140. [Day 1]At relatively low speeds, or with smooth liners, the medium shapes tend to roll down to toe of the mill and essentially abrasive comminution occurs. This
________ motion leads to finer grinding, with increased slimes production and increased liner wear.
a) cataracting c) centrifuging e) falling
b) cascading d) sliding
141. [Day 1]At higher speeds (optimum) the medium shapes are projected clear of the crop load to describe as series of parabolas before landing on about the toe of the
charge. This _________ motion leads comminution by impact and coarser end product with reduced liner wear.
142. [Day 1]At the critical speed of the mill the theoretical trajectory of the medium is such that it would fall outside the shell. In practice __________ occurs and the
medium is carried around in an essentially fixed position against the shell.
143. [Day 1]This critical speed of the mill expressed by the equation below where D = mill diameter ans d = medium diameter.
42.3
Nc = ---------- rev/min
û (D - d)
A 12" x 12" ball mill is turning at 70 RPM. Is the operating speed optimum?
a) Yes b) No
144. [Day 1]To allow for a margin of error, it has been common practice to increase the value of the calculated critical speed of grinding mills by as much as
a) 10% c) 20% e) 30%
b) 15% d) 25%
2038. [Day 1]The internal working faces of grinding mills consists of renewable __________, which must withstand impact, be wear resistant and promote the
most favourable motion of charge. These are a major cost in mill operations.
a) liners c) bearings e) drive
b) shell d) feeders
2039. [Day 1]Dry mills are usually fed by
a) spout feeder c) combination drum-scoop feeder e) no feeder
b) drum feeder d) vibratory feeder
2040. [Day 1]This is the simplest form of feeder used in wet mills. It consists of a cylindrical or elliptical chute supported independently of the mill and projecting
directly in to the trunnion liner. Material is feed by gravity to feed mills operating in open circuit or in closed circuit with hydrocylones classifier.
a) spout feeder c) combination drum-scoop feeder e) Scoop feeder
2041. [Day 1]These feeders may be used in lieu of a spout feeder when headroom is limited. The entire mill feed enters the drum via chute or spout and an internal
spiral carries it into the trunnion liner. It also provides a convenient method of adding grinding balls to a mill.
a) spout feeder c) combination drum-scoop feeder e) scoop feeder
2042. [Day 1]These feeders are generally used for wet grinding in closed circuit with a spiral or rake classifer. New material is fed directly into the drum, while the
scoop picks up the classifier sand for regrinding.
a) spout feeder c) combination drum-scoop feeder e) scoop feeder
2043. [Day 1]This type of mill may be considered as either fine crushers or coarse grinding machines. They are capable of taking feed as large as 50mm and
making a product as fine as 300 æm. They are often preferred to fine crushing machines when the ore is "clayey" or damp, thus tending to choke crushers. The
length of the cylindrical shell is between 1.5 and 2.5 times its diameter.
a) rod mill c) autogeneous mill e) crushing mill
b) ball mill d) vibratory mill
2044. [Day 1]At 50% vol. loading, a certain ball mill whose inner volume is 10 liter has a ball cahrge consisting of 25 pcs. of 1.5" diameter balls and 250 1"
diameter balls. If the pulp were to occupy the interstices between the balls, compute the weight of water and ore required if the density of the pulp should be 1.5
g/cc. The ore has a specific gravity of 2.8. What is the pulp density in terms of % solid.
a) Wt. of H2O = 1531 gm; Wt. of ore = 1664 gm ; % solid pulp = 52.1
b) Wt. of H2O = 1214 gm; Wt. of ore = 1123 gm ; % solid pulp = 42.4
c) Wt. of H2O = 1123 gm; Wt. of ore = 1111 gm ; % solid pulp = 62.21
d) Wt. of H2O = 1444 gm; Wt. of ore = 1234 gm ; % solid pulp = 67.2
e) Wt. of H2O = 1334 gm; Wt. of ore = 1744 gm ; % solid pulp = 53.1
2045. [Day 1]This class of rod mills are fed at both ends through the trunnions and discharge the ground product through circumferential ports at the center of the
shell. This mill can be used for wet or dry grinding and it has found its greatest use in preparation of specification sands where high tonnage rates and an
extremely coarse product are required.
a) center peripheral discharge mills c) trunnion overflow e) vibratory mills
b) end peripheral discharge mills d) Hardinge mills
2046. [Day 1]This type of rod mills are fed at one end through the trunnion, discharging the ground product from the other end of the mill by means of several
peripheral apertures into a close-fitting circumferential chute. This type is used mainly for dry and damp grinding, where moderately coarse product are involved.
a) center peripheral discharge mills d) Hardinge mills
b) end peripheral discharge mills e) vibratory mills
c) trunnion overflow
2047. [Day 1]This is the most widely type of rod mill in the mining industry in which feed is introduced through one trunnion and discharges through the other.
This is used only for wet grinding and its principal function is to convert crushing-plant product into ball mill feed.
a) center peripheral discharge mills d) Hardinge mills
b) end peripheral discharge mills e) vibratory mills
c) trunnion overflow
2048. [Day 1]When %H2O by weight in the pulp ranges from 8-15%, the pulp is said to be a stiff mud; it is too watery when it has 40-60% H2O; and it has a good
fluidity when % H2O is
a) 15-30% c) 25-45% e) 15-35%
b) 20-40% d) 30-40%
2049. [Day 1]The term ball mill is restricted to those having a length to diameter ratio of 1.5 to 1 and less. When the length to diameter ratio is between 3 and 5 , it
is designated as
a) rod mill c) autogeneous mill e) centrifuge mill
b) tube mill d) cascade mill
2050. [Day 1]Tube mill having a charge of hard, screened ore particles as the grinding medium are known as
a) ore mills c) autogeneous mill e) cascade mill
b) rod mill d) pebble mill
2051.a) grate-discharge
[Day 1]This type millof mill is fitted with discharge gates between the cylindrical mill boady and discharge trunnion. The
c) tube mills pulp can
e) pebble millflow freely through the
openings
b) in the grate and
trunnion-overflow mill is then lifted up to the level of discharge trunnion.
d) trunnion-discharge mill
2052. [Day 1]Ball mills should operate at what %solid by weight
a) 40-50% c) 50-60% e) 30-70%
b) 70-90% d) 65-80%
2053. [Day 1]Segregation of the ball charge within a mill is achieved in the ___________. The conventional drum shape is modified by fitting a conical section,
the angle of the cone being about 30ø. Due to centrifugal force generated, the balls are segragated so that the largest are at the feed end of the cone.
a) rod mill c) grate-discharge mill e) vibratory mills
b) autogeneous mill d) Hardinge mill
2054. [Day 1]These mills uses tumbling to effect comminution but instead of utilizing media susch as steel balls or rods, comminution is achieved by the action of
the ore particle on each other.
a) Autogeneous mill c) semi-autogeneous mill e) vibratory mills
b) pebble mill d) Hardinge mills
2055. [Day 1]These mill are using a combination of the ore and reduced load of steel rods or balls, as the medium.
a) Autogeneous mill c) semi-autogeneous mill e) vibratory mills
2056. [Day 1]Which of the following is an autogeneous mill?
a) cascade mill c) tube mill e) vibratory mills
2057. [Day 1]These mills are designated for continuous, or batch, grinding to give a very fine end product from a wide variety of materials, the operation being
performed either wet or dry. Two tubes functioning as vibrating cylinders are located one above the other in a plane inclined at 30øC to the perpendicular. Between
them lies an eccentrically supported weight connected by a flexible universal joint to 1000-1500 RPM motor.
a) tube mill c) rod mill e) vibratory mill
2058. [Day 1]Which of the following is not an "advantage" of dry grinding?
a) less wear on the liners d) less wear on grinding media
b) there is a higher proportion of fines in the product e) all of the above
c) higher capacity per unit mill volume
2059. [Day 1]This type of grinding circuit is rarely used in mineral processing applications. The material is fed into the mill at a rate calculated to produce correct
product in one pass. There is no control on product size distribution.
a) closed circuit c) semi-closed circuit e) free circuit
b) open circuit d) semi-opened circuit
2060. [Day 1]In this type of grinding circuit, material of the required size is removed by the classifier which returns the oversize to mill.
a) closed circuit c) semi-closed circuit e) free circuit
b) open circuit d) semi-opened circuit
2061. [Day 1]The material returned by the classifier is known as the __________. Its weight is expressed as a percentage of the weight of new feed.
a) feed c) circulating load e) crop load
b) oversize d) undersize
2062. [Day 1]The circulating load ratio is given by the equation below where C is circulating load (i.e. classifier underflow) in tonnes/hr abd F is the new feed rate
in tonnes/hr.
C a-c
CLR = --- = ---------
F b-a
What is a, b & c represents respectively?
a) cummulative percentages in the mill product, circulating load and classifier underflow
b) cummulative percentages in the circulating load, classifier underflow and mill product
c) cummulative percentages in the mill product, classifier underflow, and circulating load
d) cummulative percentages in the classifier underflow, circulating load and mill product
e) cummulative percentages in the circulating load, classifier underflow and mill product
2063. [Day 1]Efficiency of screening decreases rapidly with fineness.
a) true b) false
2064. [Day 1]Screening is generally limited to materail above about 250 æm in size, finer sizing normally being taken by
a) concentration c) classification e) flotation
b) comminution d) separation
2065. [Day 1]The following are main purposes of screening except
a) to prevent the entry of undersize into crushing machines, so increasing their capacity and effeciency
b) to prevent oversize materail from passing to next stage in closed circuit fine crushing and grinding operations
c) to prepare the closedly sized feed to certain gravity concetration processes
d) to produce a closedly sized end product
e) to prevent oversize particles being taken for grinding
2066. [Day 1]This is a surface having a multiplicity of apertures of given dimensions
a) sieve c) screen e) sized ore
b) mesh d) crushed ore
2067. [Day 1]The grindability test for a Cu porphyry ore at 48 mesh gave the following results:
Period Revs Grams (-48 mesh)
(In Product) (In feed)
1 100 381.3 216.7
2 146 332.7 15.1
3 136 294.6 65.1
4 148 302.3 58.1
5 155 311.8 59.6
6 156 316.2 61.4
From the ave. of the data of the last 3 periods. Calc. % Circulating Load (CL) and grindability at 48-mesh (297 æm). Total feed per run is 1100 gms. If F80 is 2000
æm and P80 is 210 æm. Calc.the Wi.
a) %CL=71.8; Gbp=2.03 g/rev; Wi=14.41 d) %CL=70.3; Gbp=1.99 g/rev; Wi=15.91
b) %CL=61.3; Gbp=6.03 g/rev; Wi=12.61 e) %CL=69.0; Gbp=2.00 g/rev; Wi=13.99
c) %CL=76.6; Gbp=3.33 g/rev; Wi=13.31
2068. [Day 1]Determine the 80% cummulative passing.
Aperture Size Wt. retained
(æm) (grams)
2360 0
1651 28.3
840 36.0
600 56.5
417 52.1
297 57.6
212 49.6
150 80.7
106 14.0
74 51.0
a) 916 æm c) 1000 æm e) 899 æm
b) 1006 æm d) 900 æm
2069. [Day 1]The equation below where y = wt % finer than size x, m = distribution modulus and k = size modulus (value of x at y = 100)
Ú ¿m
³ x ³
y = 100 ³ --- ³ is
³ k ³
À Ù
a) Rosin-Rammler equation c) Kick's Law e) Rittinger's Law
b) Schuhmman equation d) Hukki's Theory
2070. [Day 1]This equation where P = % cummulative passing;
b = constant; d=particle size; n = constant
100 - p = 100 exp (-bdü) is
a) Rosin-Rammler equation c) Kick's Law e) Rittinger's Law
b) Schuhmman equation d) Hukki's Theory
2071. [Day 1]From the data below, calculate the oversize recovery, undersize recovery and the overall effieciency of the screen.
F = feed tonnage = 20 tons Xo = fraction of coarse size in oversize = 100%

Xf = fraction of coarse in feed = 50% U = undersize = 10 tons
O = oversize tonnage = 10 tons Xu = fraction of coarse size in undersize = 0%
c) 98%; 98%; 92% respectively
a) 78%; 78%; 72% respectively d) 68%; 68%; 62% respectively
b) 88%; 88%; 82% respectively e) 100%; 100%; 100% respectively
2072. [Day 1]The following are factors which affects screen performance except
a) particle shape c) feed rate e) number of screen apertures
b) nature of feed material d) vibration rate
2073. [Day 1]The chance of passing through the aperture is proportional to the percentage of ______________. This is defined as the ratio of the net area of the
apertures to the whole area of the screening surface.
a) open area c) screening area e) screening efficiency
b) surface area d) aperture area
2074. [Day 1]Evaluate this statement :
"Screen efficiency is very low on damp feed."
a) True b) False
2075. [Day 1]This screen is stationary and has a curved screen surface of horizontal wedge bars. Feed slurry enters the upper surface of the screen tangentially and
flows down the surface in a direction perpendicular to the openings between the wedge bars. Separation can be undertaken down to 50 æm and screen capacities
are up to 180 cu.m./hr. for every square meter screen area and single units are built to handle 450 cu.m./hr.
a) Sieve bend c) Shaking screen e) reciprocating screen
b) Hukki screen d) grizzly
2076. [Day 1]This is a stationary screen consisting of the series of heavy parallel bars set in a frame. Its common use is for sizing the feed to primary crushes for
sculping or remaining undersize. This is usually inclined at an angle 20-50ø and tapered to reduce clogging.
2077. [Day 1]This screen employs a combination of classification and screening. It consist of an open stationary vessel with a cylindrical top section and conical
base. The top section includes a cylindrical screen. Feed enters centrally at the top and distributed inside the cylindrical screen by means of a low speed rotating
mechanism. Wash water is introduced into the conical section. The undersize passes through the cylindrical screen which consist of wedge bars, into a collecting
launder, while the oversize fraction is discharge to the apex.
2078. [Day 1]It is one of the oldest screening devices. It is an inclined, rotating cylindrical screen, which can be used wet or dry. Material is fed in at one end of the
drum, undersize material passing through the screen apertures and the oversize material coming off the opposite end.
b) Hukki screen d) trommel
2079. [Day 1]These screens have a reciprocating movement mechanically induced in the horizontal direction and are mounted either horizontally or with a gentle
sloop. They at 60-800 strokes per minute.
2080. [Day 1]These screens employ a horizontal gyratory motion to the feed end of a rectangular screen by means of an unbalanced rotating shaft, rotating at about
1000 rev/min. The horizontal circular motion at the feed end gradually diminishes through the length of the machine to an elliptical movement, and finally to an
approximate straight line reciprocating motion at the discharged end.
2081. [Day 1]This type of screen, which imports gyratory motion throughout the whole screen cloth, is becoming widely used for fine screening operations, wet or
dry, down to 40 æm. The basic components consists of a nest of sleves supported on a table which is mounted on springs on a base; suspended from beneath thable
is a motor with double-shaft extensions, which drives eccentric weights and in doing so effects horizontal gyratory motion. Vertical motion is imported by the
bottom weights, which swing the mobile mass about its center of gravity, producing a circular tipping motion to the screen, the top weights producing the
horizontal gyratory motion.
b) gyratory screen d) grizzly
2082. [Day 1]These screens are the most important screening machine for mineral processing applications. Vibration is induced vertically either by rotation of a
mechanical reciprocating device applied to the casing or by electrical devices operating directly on the screens.
b) Vibrating screen d) grizzly
2083. [Day 1]This operates on the principle that there is a definite and quantifiable probability that a particle will pass through an aperture larger than the
maximum diameter of that particle. The material is allowed to fall freely through a system of oscillating and sloping screens all of which are a much size larger
than the biggest particle to be treated.
a) Mogensen sizer c) Resonance screen e) full-floating screen
b) Hummer screen d) Shaking screen
2084. [Day 1]Evaluate:
"The type of screening surface chosen for a particular duty will not depend on the aperture required and the nature of the work."
a) false b) true
2085. [Day 1]It is a method of separating mixtures of minerals into two or more products on the basis of the velocity with which the grains fall through a fluid
medium. In mineral processing, this is usually water, and wet classification is generally applied to mineral particles which are considered too fine to be sorted
efficiently by screening.
a) separation c) concentration e) flotation
b) comminution d) classification
2086. [Day 1]In a viscous medium, such as air or water, there is resistance to this movement and value increases with velocity. When equilibrium is attained
between the gravitational and fluid resistance forces, the body reaches a "certain velocity" and thereafter falls at a uniform rate. What is this "certain velocity"?
a) constant velocity c) equilibrium velocity e) viscous velocity
b) terminal velocity d) resistance velocity
2087. [Day 1]All resistance to motion is due to the shear forces or viscosity of the fluid and is hence called viscous resistance. At high velocities the main
resistance is due to displacement of fluid by the body and viscous resistance is relatively small; this is known as
a) internal resistance c) turbulent resistance e) body resistance
b) turbid resistance d) fluid resistance
2088. [Day 1]Classifiers consists of a sorting column, in which a fluid is rising at a uniform rate. The sorting column therefore separates the feed into two products
- an overflow consisting of particles with terminal velocities less than the velocity of the fluid and an underflow or spigot product with terminal velocities
a) greater than the rising velocity d) greater than the velocity of the overflow
b) lesser than the velocity of the medium e) equal to the velocity of the overflow
c) equal to the rising velocity
2089. [Day 1]This refers to the sinking of particles in a volume of fluid which is large with respect to the total volume of particles, hence particle crowding is
negligible. This predominates when the percentage of solids by weight is less than about 15%.
Vol. of particle <<< Vol. of fluid
a) hindered-settling c) equal settling e) solid settling
b) free-settling d) particle settling
2090. [Day 1]The equation below is the Stokes' Law which is valid for viscous resistance and for particles below about 50 æm in diameter.
dýg (Ds-Df)
V = ------------------
18n
This next equation is for turbulent resistance and holds true for particles larger than about 0.5 cm in diameter.
3dg (Ds-Df)
Vý = ------------------
Df
a) Rittinger's Law c) Newton's Law e) Kick's Law
b) Taggart's Law d) Reynold's Law
2091. [Day 1]Consider two mineral particles fo densities Da and Db and diameter da and db respectively falling in a fluid of density Df, at exactly the same
settling rate. What is the expression below which is derived from Stokes' Law (for small particles and n=0.5) and Newton's Law (for large particles and n=1)
respectively?
Ú ¿n
da ³ Db - Df ³
---- = ³-----------³
db ³ Da - Df ³
À Ù
This is the ratio of particle size required for the two minerals to fall at equal rates.
a) particle size settling ratio c) mineral settling ratio ratio e) particle-density settling ratio
b) hindered settling ratio d) free settling ratio
2092. [Day 1]As the proportion of solids in the pulp increases, the effect of particle crowding becomes more apparent and the falling rate of the particles begins to
decrease. The system begins to behave as a heavy liquid whose density is that of the pulp rather than that of the carrier liquid. What settling condition will
prevail?
a) hindered-settling c) equal settling e) solid settling
b) free-settling d) particle settling
"Because of the high density and viscosity of the slurry through which a particle must fall in a separation by hindered settling, the resistance to fall is mainly
due to the turbulence created."
a) true b) false
2094. [Day 1]What is the expression below where Da & Db are densities of particles of a and b respectively and da and db are their corresponding diameter & Dp
is the pulp density.
Ú ¿
da ³ Db - Dp ³
---- = ³-----------³
db ³ Da - Dp ³
À Ù
a) particle size settling ratio c) mineral settling ratio ratio e) particle-density settling ratio
b) hindered settling ratio d) free settling ratio
"Hindered settling classifier are used to increase the effect of size on separation whereas free-settling classifier use
relatively dilute suspensions to increase the effect of density on separation."
a) true b) false
2096. [Day 1]As the pulp density increases a point is reached where each mineral particle is covered only with a thin film of water. This condition is known as
quicksand and because of surface tension, the mixture is a perfect suspension and does not tend to separate. The solids are in a condition of __________, which
means that each grain is free to move, but is unable to do so without colliding with other grains and as a result stays in place.
a) full teeter c) coagulation e) agglomeration
b) mass effect d) passivation
2097. [Day 1]The hindered settling sorting columns are known as _________. They are either tapered or a grid is inserted into the base. They are used in removing
any entrained or adhering slime particles.
a) hydrocyclones b) hydraulic chambers c) settling cone
d) teeter chamber e) mechanical classifier
2098. [Day 1]In these classifers, the pulp feed is introduced into an inclined trough and forms a settling pool in whihc particles of high falling velocity quickly fall
to the bottom of the trough. Above this coarse sand is a quicksand zone where essentially hindered settling takes place. Above the quicksand is a zone of
essentially free-settling material, comprising a stream of pulp flowing horizontally across the top of the quicksand zone from the the feed inlet to the overflow
weir, where fines are removed. The settled sands are conveyed up the inclined trough by mechanical rakes of by a helical screw.
a) hydrocylones c) settling cones e) teeter chamber
b) mechanical classifier d) hydraulic classifiers
2099. [Day 1]The following are factors that affects operation in mechanical classifiers except
a) feed rate c) height of the overflow weir e) length of rakes or spiral
b) speed of rakes or spiral d) pulp dilution
2100. [Day 1]In finer separation overflow pulp density in mechanical classifiers is above a value known as the critical dilution. Below this density, the effect of
increasing velocity with dilution becomes more important than the increase in particle-settling rates produced by decrease of pulp density. What is the value of
critical dilution?
a) about 10% solids c) about 8% solids e) about 13 solids
b) about 5% solids d) about 15 solids
2101. [Day 1]This is a continuously operating classifying device which utilizes centrifugal forces to accelerate the settling rate of particles. It consists of a
conically shaped vessel, open at its apex, or underflow, joined to a cylindrical section, which has a tangential feed inlet. The top of the cylindrical section is closed
with a plate through which it passes an axially mounter overflow pipe. The pipe is extended into the body of the cyclone by a short, removable section known as
the vortex finder, which prevents short circuiting of feed directly into the overflow.
2102. [Day 1]In hydrocylones there exist on outer region of downward flow and an inner region of upward flow which necessitates a position at which there is no
vertical velocity. This applies throughout the greater part of the cylone and __________ can be traced.
a) envelope of zero vertical velocity d) an overflow motion
b) envelope of zero horizontal velocity e) equal terminal velocity
c) terminal velocity
"In hydrocyclones, the particles thrown outside the envelope of zero vertical velocity by the greater centrifugal force will exit via the overflow, while particles
swept to the center by the greater drag force will leave in the underflow."
a) true b) false
2104. [Day 1]The efficiency of separation of this type of classifier is given by the so-called imperfection I,
d75 - d25
I = -----------
2d50
where d75, d25 and d50 are particle sizes obtained from the Tromp curve. What particular type of classifier is this?
2105. [Day 1]This is often defined as that point on the Tromp curve, or performance curve, for which 50% of particles in the feed of that size report to underflow.
a) cut point c) separation point e) Tromp point

b) ideal underflow point d) ideal overflow point
2106. [Day 1]This equation is widely used in the determination of the cut point is:
Ú ¿0.5
81 (DoDi)exp[0.68] ³ 1.73 ³
d50 = --------------------- ³------³
Qexp[0.53] ³ S-L ³
À Ù
where d50 =cutpoint in microns; Do=overflow diameter in inches; Di=inlet diameter in inches; Q=total flow rate in US gallons/minute; S = specific gravity of
solids; L = specific gravity of liquid. Who deduce this equation?
a) Dhalstrom c) Plitt e) Kick
b) Bradley d) Hukki
2107. [Day 1]This method of concentration separate minerals of different specific gravity by their relative movement in response to gravity and forces due to
resistance to motion offered by a viscous fluid susch as water or air.
a) gravity concentration c) electrostatic separation e) magnetic separation
b) heavy media separation d) froth flotation
2108. [Day 1]The effectivity of the gravity concentration method is determined by this expression
Dh - Df
------------
Dl - Df
where Dh = specific gravity of heavy mineral; Dl = specific gravity of light mineral and Df = specific gravity of the fluid medium.
a) Stoke's law c) Newton's constant e) settling ratio
b) Reynold's parameter d) concentration criterion
2109. [Day 1]Gravity concetration is relatively easy when concentration criterion is greater than 2.5 and sepration is not commercially feasible when it is below
a) 2.5 c) 1.25 e) 1.75
b) 2.0 d) 1.5
2110. [Day 1]Given the calcite-quartz mineral combination in a carbon tetrachloride medium (sp.gr.=1.58). Does the combined mineral can be easily separated?
(sp.gr. of quartz = 2.65;sp.gr. of calcite = 2.7)
a) yes b) no
2111. [Day 1]It is one of the oldest methods of gravity concentration, separating particle size range from 25 mm to 75 mm. This is accomplished in a bed which is
rendered fluid by a pulsating current of water so as to produce stratification. The aim is to dilate the bed of material being treated and to control the dilation so that
the heavier, smaller particles penetrate the interstices of the bed and the larger high specific gravity fall under a condition probably similar to hindered settling.
a) jigging c) pulsating e) compacting
b) flowing-film concentration d) settling
2112. [Day 1]This is a constant volume of water in jigs which creates a constant upward flow through the bed. This decreases the suction, thus, coarse ore
penetrates the bed more easily and the horizontal transport of the feed over the jig is also improved.
a) hutch water c) wash water e) water penetrant
b) resistance flow d) suction resistance
2113. [Day 1]The jig is an open tank filled with water, with a horizontal jig screen at the top, provided with a spigot in the bottom, or hutch compartment, for
concetrate removal. The jig bed consists of a layer of coarse, heavy particles called ________, placed on the jig screen on to which the slurry is feed.
a) particle bed c) screen bed e) jig bed
b) ragging d) feed bed
2114. [Day 1] Evaluate this statement on gravity concentration: "The initial acceleration of the mineral
grains is independent of size & dependent only on the densities of the solid and the fluid."
a) true b) false
2115. [Day 1]At the end of the a pulsion stroke in jigging process, as the bed begins to compact, larger particles interlock, allowing the smaller grains to move
downwards through the interstices under the influence of gravity. The fine grains may not settle as rapidly during this phase. But if this can be made to last long
enough, recovery of the fine heavy minerals can be considerable. What is this phase?
a) hindered settling c) consolidation trickling e) interlocking
b) free settling d) pulsation
2116. [Day 1]This is one of the oldest type of jig in which the plunger moves up and down vertically in a separate compartment. Up to four successive
compartments are place in series in the hutch. A high-grade concnetrate is produced in the first compartment, successivley lower grades being produced in other
compartments, tailings overflowing the final compartment.
a) Denver Mineral jig c) Batac jig e) simple jig
b) Baum Jig d) Harz jig
2117. [Day 1]This jig is widely used, especially for removing heavy minerals from closed-grinding circuits, thus preventing overgrinding. The rotary water valve
can be adjusted so as to open at any desired part of the jig cycle, synchronization between the valve and the plungers being achieved bu a rubber timing belt. By
suitable adjustment of the valve, any deisred variation can be achieved, from complete neutralization of the suction stroke with a hydraulic water to a full balance
between suction and pulsion.
2118. [Day 1]This coal jig is air pulsated. Air under pressure is forced into a large air chamber on one side of the jig vessel causing pulsations and suction to the
jig water, which in turn causes the pulsations and suction through the screen plates upon which the raw coal is feed, thus cuasing stratification.
2119. [Day 1]This pneumatically controller jig has no side air chamber, it is designated with a series of multiple air chamber, usually two to a cell, extending under
jig for its full width, thus giving uniform air distribution. This jig uses electronically controlled air valves which are infinitely variable with regard to speed and
length of strokes, allowing for the desired variation in pulsation and suction bywhich proper stratification of the bed may be achieved for differing raw coal
characteristics.
a) Denver Mineral jig
b) Baum Jig
c) Batac jig
d) Harz jig
e) simple jig
2120. [Day 1]This is an inclined launder about 1m long, narrowing from about 200mm in width at feed end to about 25mm at the discharge. Pulp between 50 and
65% solid enters gently and stratifies as it descneds; at the discharge end these strata are separated by adjustable splitters.
a) jigs c) shaking table e) tilting frame
b) pinched sluice d) spiral
2121. [Day 1]This is a wet gravity concentrating device designed for hi-capacity applications. It comprises several cone sections stacked vertically so as to permit
several stages of upgrading. The feed pulp is distributed evenly around the periphery of the cone. As it flows towards the center of the cone the fine and heavy
particles separate to the bottom of the film. This concentrate is removed by an annular slot in the bottom of the concentrating cone; the port of the film flowing
over the slot is the tailings.
a) Reichert cone c) spiral e) shaking table
b) Sluice box d) jig
2122. [Day 1]This concentrator is composed of a helical conduit of modified semicircular cross-section. Fed pulp of between 15-45% solids by weight and in the
size range 3 mm to 75 æm is introduced at the top of the spiral and, as it flow spirally downwards, the coarsest and heaviest particle concentrate in a band along
the inner side of the stream. Ports for the removal of the higher specific gravity particles are located at the lowest points in the cross-section. Wash water, added at
the inner edge of the stream, flows outwardly across the concentrate band. The grade of concentrate which is taken from descending ports progressively decreases,
tailings being discharged from the lower end of the spiral conduit.
a) Reichert cone c) spiral e) shaking table
b) Sluice box d) jig
2123. [Day 1]Given the CuFeS2-FeS2 mineral combination in a tetrabromoethane medium (sp.gr.=2.96). Does the combined mineral can be easily separated?
(sp.gr. of CuFeS2 = 4.2;sp.gr. of FeS2 = 5.0)
a) yes b) no
2124. [Day 1]What should be the velocity of the hutch water to effect separation of zircon and pyrite particles that are fed to a jig at size range of 5-10mm? (sp.gr.
of pyrite = 5.0; sp.gr. of zircon = 4.65)
a) 1.04 m/s c) 1.05 m/s e) 1.00 m/s
b) 1.08 m/s d) 1.01 m/s
2125. [Day 1]This concentrator which utilized flowing-film separation, consists of a slightly inclined deck, A, onto w/c feed,@ about 25% solids,is introduced @
the feed box and distributed along C;wash water is distributed along the balance of the feed side from launder D.The table is vibrated longitudi- nally w/c cause
the mineral particles to "crawl" along the deck parallel to the direction of motion. The minerals,thus,are subjected to forces due to table motion and,
perpendicular to it, due to flowing film of water. The particles move diagonally across the deck from the feed end and, fan out on the table, the smaller, denser
particles riding highest towards the concentrate launder, while the larger lighter particles are washed into the tailings launder.
a) Reichert cone c) spiral
b) Sluice box d) shaking table
2126. [Day 1]What separation method is also known as sink-and-float process?
a) gravity concentration c) electrostatic separation e) flotation
b) heavy medium separation d) magnetic separation
2127. [Day 1]This separation method employs a heavy liquid of suitable density so that those minerals lighter than the liquid float, while those denser than it sink.
a) gravity concentration c) electrostatic separation e) flotation
b) heavy medium separation d) magnetic separation
2128. [Day 1]"Heavy medium used for industrial applications are mostly from laboratories."
a) false b) true
2129. [Day 1]The following liquids are used for heavy medium separation but their uses is limited for laboratories only because
- tetrabromoethane - Stannic bromide
- carbon tetrachloride - Clerrici liquids (mixture of thallium salts and water)
- Bromoform
a) they are inexpensive c) they are not readily available e) none of the above
b) they are toxic d) all of the above
2130. [Day 1]Agitation is necessary in maintaining a stable suspension in heavy medium suspension because it increases the apparent viscosity of the medium.
a) false b) true
2131. [Day 1]In shaking tables, fine feed requires higher speed and shorter stroke than a coarse feed.
a) false b) true
2132. [Day 1]Ferrosilicon are the most widely used medium for preparation of metalliferrous ore for HMS. Ferrosilicon must contain not less than 82% iron and
what amount of silicon
a) 15-16% c) 17-18% e) 10-12%
b) 13-14% d) 19-20%
2133. [Day 1]Removal of the sinks is the most difficult part of the Heavy media separator design.
a) false b) true
2134. [Day 1]This separator is widely used for ore treatment, since it has a relatively high sinks capacity. The cone, which has a maximum diameter of up to 6m,
accomodates feed particles of up to 500 tons/hr. The feed is introduced onto the surface of the medium by free-fall which allows it to plunge several centimeters
into the medium. Gentle agitation by rakes mounted on the central shaft helps keep the medium in suspension. The float fraction simply overflows a weir while
the sinks are removed by pump or by external or internal air lifts.
a) Wemco cone separator c) Dyna Whirlpool separator e) drum separator
b) Vorsyl separator d) cone separator
2135. [Day 1]In these separators, separation is accomplished by the continuous removal of the sink product through the action of lifters fixed to the inside of the
rotating drum. The lifters empty into the sink launder when they pass the horizontal portion. The float product overflows a weir at the opposite end of the drum
from the feed chute. Longitudinal partitions separate the float surface from the sink-discharge action of the revolving lifters.
2136. [Day 1]This separator is used in many coal preparation plants for the treatment of small coal sizes. The feed to the separator consisting of deslimed raw coal,
together with the separating medium of magnetite, is introduced tangentially at the top of the 60-cm diameter separating chamber under pressure. Material of
specific gravity less than that of the medium passes into the clean coal outlet via the vortex finder, while the near gravity material and the heavy shale particles
move to the wall of the vessel due to the centrifugal acceleration induced. The shale and a proportion of the medium, discharge through the throat to a second
shallow chamber known as the vortextractor for the separation of the shale and medium.
2137. [Day 1]This separator is widely used for treatment of fine coal and metalliferrous ores. It consists of a cylinder of predetermined length having identical
tangential inlet & outlet sections at either end. The unit is operated in an inclined position and medium if required density is pumped under pressure into the lower
outlet. The rotating medium creates a vortex throughout the length of the unit & leaves via the upper tangential discharge and the lower vortex outlet tube. Raw
feed entering the upper vortex tube is sluiced into the unit by a small quantity of medium & rotational motion is quickly imparted open vortex. The float are
discharged from the lower vortex outlet tube. The sink penetrate the rising medium towards outer wall of the unit and are discharged with medium through the
sink discharge pipe.
a) cone separator c) Vorsyl separator
b) drum separator d) Dyna Whirlpool separator
2138. [Day 1]The percentage of the feed material of a particular specific gravity which reports to the sink product.
a) sink percentage c) sink coeffient e) Tromp percentage
b) partition coefficient d) feed-sink coeficient
2139. [Day 1]The probable error of separation or the _________ given by the equation below is defined as half the difference between the density when 75% is
recoverd to the sinks (A) and that at which 25% is recovered to float (B). When its value is zero the separation is said to be ideal.
A-B
Ep = -------
2
a) Ecart probable c) Elton probable e) Ecart partition
b) Ecci probable d) Ecci partition
2140. [Day 1]The relative motion of the particles in a fluid medium is dependent solely on the specific gravity and not on the particle size.
a) true b) false
2141. [Day 1]The efficiency of gravity concentration increases with the size of the mineral particles.
a) true b) false
2142. [Day 1] The initial acceleration of mineral grains in jigging is dependent on size and densities of the minerals and the fluid.
a) true b) false
2143. [Day 1]To separate small heavy minerals from large and light particles, longer jigging cycle is necessary.
a) true b) false
2144. [Day 1]During hindered settling in a jigging process, the settling velocities of the mineral particles play greater role than initial acceleration.
a) true b) false
2145. [Day 1]The suction stroke in jigging is when the bed is lifted as a mass, then as the velocity decreases, it tend to dilate with the bottom particles falling first
until the whole bed is loosened.
a) true b) false
2146. [Day 1]Heavy organic liquids such as carbon tetrachloride and bromoform are effective media for separation of metalliferrous ores in open pit mines.
a) true b) false
2147. [Day 1]Providing there is density difference between minerals there is no upper size limit on minerals
that could be processed in HMS circuits.
a) true b) false
2148. [Day 1]A stable suspension must be of sufficiently high density and viscosity, and able to resist chemical attack susch as corrosion.
a) true b) false
2149. [Day 1]In HMS, efficiency decreases with particle size due to the slower rate of settling of the particles.
a) true b) false
2150. [Day 1]When a flowing film of water flows over a flat, inclined surface the water closest to the surface is retarded by friction of water absorbed on the
surface.
a) true b) false
2151. [Day 1]The forces acting on the particles on a shaking table are due to the table motion and the flowing film of water that must be parallel to each other to
effect separation.
a) true b) false
2152. [Day 1]In shaking table particles with higher specific gravity move slowly than lighter particles.
a) true b) false
2153. [Day 1]The ________ for a vessel can be used to determine the amount of misplaced material which will report to the products for any particular fuel
materials.
a) analysis c) ecart probable e) sink analysis
b) partition curve d) efficiency
2154. [Day 1]This separation process utilizes the differences in physico-chemical surface properties of various minerals.
a) gravity concentration c) magnetic separation e) froth flotation
b) heavy media separation d) electrostatic separation
2155. [Day 1]In flotation concentration, the minerals is usually transferred to the froth, leaving the gangue in the pulp or tailing. This is
a) direct flotation c) reverse flotation e) irreversible flotation
b) indirect flotation d) forward flotation
2156. [Day 1]The gangue is separated into the float fraction leaving the concentrate in the pulp. This is
a) direct flotation c) reverse flotation e) irreversible flotation
b) indirect flotation d) forward flotation
2157. [Day 1]The air bubbles can only stick to the mineral particles if they can displace water from the mineral surface which can only happen if the mineral is to
some extent water repellent, or
a) hydrophobic c) homophillic e) heterophobic
b) hydrophillic d) homophobic
2158. [Day 1]In froth flotation the air bubbles, having reached the surface, can only continue to support the mineral particles if they can form a stable
____________, otherwise they will burst and the mineral particles. To achieve these conditions it is is necessary to use the numerous chemical reagents known as
flotation reagents.
a) bubbles c) froth e) interface
b) lather d) surface
2159. [Day 1]The force required to break the particle-bubble interface is called _________, Ws/a and is equal to the work required to separate the solid-air
interface and produce separate air-water and solid water interfaces, i.e.
Ws/a = ëw/a (1 - cos é)
where ëw/a = the surface energies between water and air, and é is the contact angle between the mineral surface and the bubble.
a) work of adhesion c) energy of adhesion e) bubble strength
b) force of adhesion d) surface adhesion
2160. [Day 1]The floatability of a mineral decreases with increasing contact angle between the mineral surface and the bubble.
a) true b) false
2161. [Day 1]The reagents adsorb on mineral surfaces, rendering them hydrophobic (aerophilic) and facilitating bubble attachment.
a) collectors c) regulators e) activators
b) frothers d) depressants
2162. [Day 1]These reagents help maintain a reasonably stable froth
2163. [Day 1]These reagents are used to control the flotation process; these either activate or depress miinerals attachment to air bubbles and are also used to
control the pit of the system.
2164. [Day 1]These surfactants added to the pulp and time is allowed for adsorption during agitation in what known as conditioning period. They are organic
compounds which render selected minerals water-repellent by adsorption of molecules or ions on to the mineral surface, reducing the stability of the hydrated
layer separating the mineral surface from the air bubble to such a level that attachment of the particle to the bubble can be made on contact.
2165. [Day 1]Regulator molecules may be ionizing compounds which dissociate into ions in water, or non-ionizing compounds, which are practically insoluble,
and render the mineral-repellent by covering its surface with a thin film.
a) true
b) false
2166. [Day 1]Ionizing collectors have complex molecules which are asmmetric in structure and are _______, i.e the molecule contains a non-polar hydrocarbon
group and a polar group which may be one of a number of types. The non-polar hydrocarbon radical has a pronounced water-repellent properties, cohere as the
polar group reacts with water.
a) homopolar c) polarized e) aeropolar
b) heteropolar d) hydropolar
2167. [Day 1]Because of chemical, electrical or physical attraction between the polar portions and surface sites, the collectors adsorb on the particles with their
ends oriented towards the bulk solution, thereby importing hydrophobicity to particles.
a) polar c) both e) all of the above
b) non-polar d) non of the above
2168. [Day 1]Increased collector concentration reduces selectivity
a) true b) false
2169. [Day 1]In flotation, it is always harder to eliminate collector already adsorbed than prevent its adsorption. To prevent loss of selectivity which of the
following will you recommend?
a) increase the concentration of the collector d) use a shorter chain collector
b) use a collector with a longer hydrocarbon chain e) a or c
c) decrease the concentration of the collector
2170. [Day 1]Since the solubility of the collector in water rapidly diminishes with increasing length, the chain length collector is limited to _________.
a) 2 to 5 carbon atoms c) 5 to 6 carbon atoms e) 1 to 5 carbon atoms
b) 1 to 3 carbon atoms d) 4 to 5 carbon atoms
2171. [Day 1]These collectors are liquid, non-polar hydrocarbons which do not dissociate in water.
a) ionizing collectors c) anionic collectors e) sulphydryl
b) non-ionizing collectors d) oxyhydryl
2172. [Day 1]These are the most widely used collectors in mineral flotation and may be classified ain two types according to the structure of the polar group.
a) anionic collectors c) sulphydryl e) non-ionizing
b) oxyhydryl d) cationic
2173. [Day 1]These anionic collectors have organic and sulpho-acid anions as their polar groups and as with all anionic collectors, the cation takes no significant
part in the reagent's mineral reaction.
a) oxyhydryl c) xanthates e) Amine collectors
b) sulphydryl d) Dithiophosphates
2174. [Day 1]Which of the following is not an oxyhydril.
a) carboxylic c) xanthates e) all of the above
b) sulphates d) sulphonates
2175. [Day 1] The carboylates, known as fatty acids and occur naturally in vegetable oils and animal fats, are strong collector and have relatively high selectivity.
They are used for flotation of minerals of calcium, varium, strontium, and magnesium, the carbonates of non ferrous metals, and the soluble salts of allcali metals
and allcaline earth metals.
a) false b) true
2176. [Day 1]The sulphates and sulphonates possess high collecting power but lesser selectivity and are used for floating cassiterite, barite, kyanite and scheelite.
a) false b) true
2177. [Day 1]The polar group of these collectors contains bivalent sulfur. They are very powerful and selective in the floatation of sulphide materials.
a) sulphydryl c) carboxylic e) sulphonates
b) oxyhydryl d) sulphates
2178. [Day 1] Which of the following are sulphydryl collectors?
a) carboxylic c) dithiophosphates e) b and c
b) xanthogenates d) sulphonates
2179. [Day 1]These collectors are the most important for sulfide mineral flotation. They are prepared by reacting alkali hydroxide, an alcohol and carbon
disulphide ;
ROH + CS2 + KOH <---> RO.CS.SK + H2O
where R is the hydrocarbon group and contains normally one to six carbon atoms. These includes ethyl, isoprophyl, isobutyl, amyl and hexyl.
a) xanthates c) hydroxyl e) carbonyl
b) dithiphosphates d) carboxyl
2180. [Day 1]These collectors have pentavalent phosphorus in the polar group, rather than tetravalent carbon. They are comparatively weak collectors but give
good result if combined with xanthogenates.
a) xanthates c) hydroxyl e) carbonyl
b) dithiphosphates d) carboxyl
2181. [Day 1]The characteristic property of this group of collectors is that the water repulsion is produced by cation where the polar group is based on pentavalent
nitrogen, the amines being the most common. Adsorption on mineral surfaces primarily due to electrostatic attraction between the polar head of the collector and
the changed electrical double layer on the mineral surface.
a) cationic collector c) xanthate e) carboxylic
b) anionic collector d) dithiophosphate
2182. [Day 1]Too stable froth is designed for most flotation processes.
a) false b) true
2183. [Day 1] A frother should have high collecting power.
a) false b) true
2184. [Day 1]The most effective frothers include in their composition one of the following groups: hydroxyl; carboxyl; carbonyl; amino group; and sulpho group.
The following are frothers except
a) terpineols, C10H17OH c) Dowfroth - 250 e) dithiophosphate
b) cresol (cresylic acid), CH3C6H4OH d) ethyl acetal & diacetone alcohol
2185. [Day 1]These reagents are often called modifiers. They are used extensively in flotation to modify the action of the collector, either intensifying or reducing
its water-repellent effect on the mineral surface. They thus make collector action more selective towards certain minerals. They are classed as activators,
depressants or pH modifiers.
a) frother
b) collector modifer
c) regulators
d) xanthate
e) carboxyl
2186. [Day 1]These reagents alter the chemical nature of mineral surfaces so that they become hydrophobic due to the action of the collector. These are generally
soluble salts which ionize in solution, the ions then reacting with the mineral surface.
a) frother c) pH modifiers e) xanthates
b) depressants d) activator
2187. [Day 1]These reagents are used to increase the selectivity of flotation by rendering certain minerals hydrophilic (water avid), thus preventing their flotation.
a) frother c) pH modifiers e) xanthates
b) depressants d) activator
2188. [Day 1]Slime coating is an example of depression.
a) true b) false
2189. [Day 1] The following are depressants except
2199. [Day 1] In this flotation machine, the cell meets the needs for both mineral recovery and cleaning and recleaning of flotation concentrates. The flotation
mechanism is suspended in an individual square cell separated from adjoining cell by an adjustable weir. A feed pipe conducts the flow of pulp from the weir of
the preceding cell to the mechanism of the next cell, the flow being aided by the suction action of the impeller. The positive suction created by the impeller draws
air down the hollow stand-pipe surrounding shaft. This air stream is sheared into fine bubbles by the impeller action and is intimately mixed with the pulp which
drops directly as to the rotating impeller.
a) Wemco Fagergren cell d) Davcra cell
b) Denver sub-aeration cell e) flotation column
c) Agitair flotation machine
2200. [Day 1] This flotation machine was developed as a result of the need for a machine to handle larger tonnages in bulk-flotation circuits. These units are
characterized by the absence of intermediate partitions and weirs between cells. Individual cell feed pipes have been eliminated, and pulp is free to flow through
the machine without interference. The pullp level in controlled by a single tailings weir at the end of the trough.
a) Davcra cell c) Denver free-flow cell e) Agitair flotation machine
b) flotation column d) Wemco Fagergren cell
2201. [Day 1] his flotation cell consists of a rotor-disperser assembly, rather an impeller, and the unit usually comprises a long rectangular trough, divided into
sections, each containing a rotor-dispenser assembly. The feed enters below the first partition, and tails go over partitions from one section to the next, the froth
level being adjusted at the end-tailings weir. Pulp passing through each cell, or compartment, is drawn upwards into the rotor by the suction created by the
rotation.
a) Davcra cell c) Denver sub-aeration cell e) Agitair flotation machine
2202. [Day 1]This flotation machine offers a straight-line flow of pulp though a suitably proportional row of cells, flow being produced by a gravity head. IN each
compartment, which may be up to 17 cu.m. in volume, is a separate impeller rotating in a stationary baffle system. Air is blown into the pulp at between 175 and
1000 kg/mý through the hollow standpipe surrounding the impeller shaft, and is sheared into fine bubbles, the volume of air being controlled separably for each
compartment.
a) Davcra cell c) Denver sub-aeration cell e) Agitair flotation machine
2203. [Day 1]The following are criteria in assessing flotation cell performance except
a) metallurgy performance, i.e., product recovery and grade d) economics, e.g., initial costs, operating and maintenance costs
b) capacity in tons treated per unit volume e) proper reagents
c) power consumption per ton
2204. [Day 1]This flotation technique has been deviced for particles below 10æm in size. Extremely fine bubbles are genrated to improve attachment of particles.
Such bubbles are generated by in situ electrolysis in a modified flotation cell. D.C. current is passed through the pulp within the cells by two electrodes, generating
stream of hydrogen and oxygen bubbles. Main applications include sewage treatment and in food industry.
a) direct flotation
b) electrically-induced flotation
c) superfine bubble flotation
d) electroflotation
e) reverse flotation
1) chalcopyrite - CufeS2 3) Covellite - Cu5FeS4
2) Chalcocite - Cu2S 4) Bornite - CuS
a) 1 c) 3 & 4 e) they all match

b) 2 & 3 d) 1 & 4
2206. [Day 1]Magnetic intensity is measured in Tesla. In cgs system, it is gauss. A gauss is equivalent to
a) 10exp[2] Tesla c) 10exp[4] Tesla e) 10exp[6] Tesla
b) 10exp[3] Tesla d) 10exp[5] Tesla
2207. [Day 1] Basing from this relationship where F is the force on the particle, H is the field intensity, dH/dl is the field gradient,
F à H (dH/dl)
Evaluate this statement: " The capacity of a magent to lift a particle mineral is dependent not only on the value of field intensity, but also on the field gradient,i.e., the
rate at which the field intensity increases towards the magnet surface. "
a) false b) true
2208. [Day 1]Dry low-intensity separation is confined mainly to the concentration of coarse sands which are strongly magnetic, the process being known as
____________ and often being carried out in drum separators.
a) cobbing c) sanding e) repulsing
b) intensifying d) attracting
2209. [Day 1]Diamagmetics are repelled along the lines of magnetic force to a point where the field intensity is smaller. Paramagnetics are attracted along the lines
of magnetic force to points of greater field intensity. Ferromagnectics have very high susceptibility to magnetic forces and retain some magnetism when removed
from the field or remanence. Which of the following can be concentrated with low-intensity magnetic separators?
a) paramagnetics c) ferromagnetics e) a & c
b) diamagnetics d) b & c
2210. [Day 1]Low-intensity wet separation is widely used for purifying the magnetic medium in HMS, as well as for the concentration of ferromagnetic sands. In
this magnetic separator, an endless belt that travels up against a bank of magnets is dipped into the trough into which the pulp is fed. The magnetic particles are
drawn up against the belt and are carried to concentrate discharge where the magnetics are washed from the belt by a water spray. The non-magnetic fraction is
discharged into the tailing compartment. The magnets in the bank have alternating polarity, so that constrained gangue particles are given the chance to be released
being carried to concentrate compartment.
a) Crockett separator d) roll separator
b) cross-belt separator e) drum-type separator
c) rapid-disc separator
2211. [Day 1]This magnetic separator consists esentially of a rotating non-magnetic drum containing three to six stationary magnets, of alternating polarity.
Magnetic particles are lifted by the magnets and pinned to the drum and are conveyed out of the field, leaving the gangue in the tailings compartment.
a) Crockett separator c) rapid-disc separator e) drum-type separator
b) cross-belt separator d) roll separator
2212. [Day 1]In this magnetic separator, dry material is fed in a uniform layer on to the conveyor belt and is carried between the poles of the magnetic system, this
consisting of two or more horshoe electromagnets, the poles are arranged on above the other. The poles of the upper magnets are wedge-shaped while the lower
poles are flat. This concentrates the field and attracts the paramagnetic minerals towards the wedge-shaped poles.
2213. [Day 1]The operating principle of this magnetic separator lies in the provision of series of discs, incorporating concentrating grooves, revolving above a
conveyor belt and magnetized by induction from powerful stationary electromagnets situated below the belt. Each disc is situated such that the leaving edge
provides a greater air-gap than the tracking edge, permitting each disc to extract and separate two magentic products of different permeability.
2214. [Day 1]This is the geometrical mean of the relative recoveries and relative rejections of two minerals, metals, or groups of minerals or metals. If assays for
substances a and b are M and N in the concentrate and m and n in the tailing, thus,
S.I. = û [(M/m) ù (n/N)]
a) selectivity index c) special index e) simple index
b) separation index d) sintering index
2215. [Day 1]This magnetic separator uses an induced roll with very field intensity. Field strength of up to 22 kG are attainable in the gap between feed pole and
roll. Non-magnetic particles are thrown off the roll into the tailings compartment, whereas the magnetics are gripped, carried out of the influence of the the field
and deposited into magnetics compartment.
2216. [Day 1]This magnetic separator consists of a strong main frame made of structural steel. The magnets yokes are welded to this frame, with the
electromagnetic coils enclosed in air-cooled cases. The actual separation takes place in the plate boxes which are on the periphery of the one or two rotors attached
to the central shaft. The feed, which is thoroughly mixed slurry, flows through the separator via fitted pipes and launders into the plate boxes, which are grooved to
concentrate the magnetic field at the tip of the ridges.
a) Crockett separator c) rapid-disc separator e) Jones hi-intensity separator
2217. [Day 1]A large percentage of the commercial application of high-tension separation has been made using the ____________, in which nonconducting
mineral particles, having received a surface charge from the electrode, retain this charge and are pinned to the oppositely charged separator surface by positive-
negative attraction.
a) lifting effect c) conducting effect e) surface charge effect
b) pinning effect d) attrtacting effect
2218. [Day 1]The attraction of particles carrying one kind of charge is known as the _______________, as such particles are lifted from the separating surface
toward the electrode.
a) lifting effect c) conducting effect e) surface charge effect
b) pinning effect d) attrtacting effect
2219. [Day 1]Sorting is feasible when the ore is ecomically liberated at less than about 10mm.
a) false b) true
2220. [Day 1]This sorter is the mechanized form of hand-sorting, in which the ore is divided into components of differing value by visual examination. The basis
of this sorter is a laser light source and sensitive photomultiplier, used in scanning system to detect light reflected from the surfaces of rocks passing through the
sorting zone. Electronic circuitry analyzes the photomultiplier signal, which changes with the intensity of the reflected light and produces control signals to actuate
the appropriate values of an air-blast rejection device to remove certain particles selected by means of the analysing process.
a) photometric sorter c) electronic sorter e) ore sorter
b) photomultiplier sorter d) Doornfontein sorter
2221. [Day 1]The following are classification of dewatering methods:
1) sedimentation 2) filtration 3) thermal drying
Which classification does thickening belong?
a) 1 c) 3 e) 2 & 3
b) 2 d) 1 & 2
2222. [Day 1]Sedimentation produces 55-65% up to 80% solids by weight. Filtration produces 80-90% solids. Thermal drying produces
a) about 95% solids by weight c) 92-97% solids by weight e) exactly 100% solids by weight
b) 90-100% solids by weight d) 95-100% solids by weight
2223. [Day 1]Coagulation causes extremely fine colloidal particles to adhere directly to each other. Normally this adhesion is prevented by the presence around
each particle of an electrically cahrged atmosphere which generates repulsion forces between particles approaching each other. The addition of a coagulant reduces
the zeta potential of particles, and allows them to come into contact and adhere as a result of molecular forces. Which of the following does not describe a
coagulant?
a) an electrolyte d) mostly inorganic salts
b) have an opposite charge to the particles e) generate attractive forces
c) can cause charge neutralization when dispersed
2224. [Day 1]This involves the formation of much more agglomerates and relies upon molecules ofo reagent reacting as bridges between separate suspended
particles. The reagents used to form "bridges" are long-chain organic polymer, which were formerly natural materials such as strach, glue, gelatin and guar gum
bet which are now synthetic materials, lossely termed polyelectrolytes.
a) coagulation c) polymerization e) dispersion
b) flocculation d) bridging
2225. [Day 1]Which does not describe good flocs?
a) optimum dosage rate of polymer c) relatively strong bridges e) none of the above
b) vigorious pulp agitation d) diluted polyelectrolytes
2226. [Day 1]Gravity sedimentation, or __________, increases the concentration of the suspension accompanied by the formation of a clear liquid. In most cases
the concetration of the suspension is high and hindered settling takes place. This is a relative cheap, high-capacity process, which involves very low shear forces,
thus providing good conditions for flocculation of fine particles.
a) thickening c) suspension e) clarification
b) coagulation d) settling
2227. [Day 1]This consists of a cylindrical tank, the diameter ranging from about 2m to 200m in diameter, and of depth 1-7m. Pulp is feed into the center via a
feed-well palced up to 1m below the surface, in order to cause as little disturbance as possible. The clarified liquid overflows a peripheral launder, while the solids
which settle over the entire bottom of the tank are withdrawn as thickened pulp from an outlet at the center.
a) filter c) conditioning tank e) thickener
b) settling tank d) storage tank
2228. [Day 1]Given the settling zones below, label this thickener from top to bottom:
Feed
ÚÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄ¿ ÚÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄ¿ Zone T:
³ ÀÄÄÄÄÄÙ ³ clear water
³ (?) ³ or solution
ÃÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄ´ Zone R:
³ (?) ³ pulp in com-
ÃÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄ´ pression
³ (?) ³ Zone Q:
ÃÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄ´ pulp of feed
³ (?) ³ consistency
ÀÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄ´ ÃÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÙ Zone S:
pulp in tran-
Product sition
a) T, Q, S & R c) S, Q, R & T e) T, S, R & Q
b) Q, T, R & S d) R, Q, T & S
2229. [Day 1]This thickener has a single long arm mounted with one end on the central support column while to the other are fixed traction wheels that run on a
rail on top of the arm and which therefore travel around with it.
a) traction thickener c) tray thickener e) settling cone
b) conventional thickener d) lamella thickener
2230. [Day 1]This thickeners are often installed to save space. In essence, this is a series of unit thickeners mounted vertically above one another. They operate as
separate units but a common central shaft is utilized to drive the sets of rakes.
2231. [Day 1]If F is the liquid to solids ratio by weight at any region, D is the liquid to solids ratio by weight at the discharge, W is the ton/hr of dry solids that are
fed to the thickener, A is the area of the thickener and S is the specific gravity of the liquid (kg/li) then from the equation below, developed by Coe and Clevenger,
what is R? A = (F-D)W/RS
a) universal gas constant c) Reynold's number e) none of the above
b) settling rate of particles in m/hr d) rate of hutch water
2232. [Day 1]This thickener utilizes a nest of inclined parallel plates which reduces settling distance and at the same time increases the effective area. Space
reqirement is only 20% of the conventional thickener. The effective settling area is the horizontal projection of the inclined parallel trays.
Aeff = nA cosà
where n=no.of trays; A= surface area of each plate and à = angle between trays and horizontal plane.
2233. [Day 1]This is the process of separating solids from liquid by means of a porous medium which retains the soild but allow the liquid to pass.
a) filtration c) thickening e) sedimentation
b) suction d) drying
2234. [Day 1]Which of the following is not a factor affecting filtration rate?
a) pressure drop from the feed to the far side of b) area of the settling surface d) resistance of filter cake
the filter medium c) viscosity of filtrate e) feed rate
2235. [Day 1]In this method of tailings disposal, a small starter dam is placed at the extreme downstream point and the dam wall is prograssively raised on the
upstream side. The tailings are discharged by spigoting off the top of the starter dyke asn when the initial pond is nearly filled, the dyke is raised asn cycle
repeated.
a) upstream method c) centerline method e) leftstream method
b) downstream method d) rightstream method
2236. In this method of tailings disposal, the dam is raised, the centerline shifts downstream and the dam remains founded on coarse tailings.
2237. [Day 1] In this mehod of tailings disposal, the dam is raised. This has the advantage of requiring smaller volumes of sand-fill to raise the crest to any given
height. The dam can be raised more quickly and there is less trouble keeping it ahead of the tailings pond during the early stages of construction.
2238. [Day 1]This is define as that field of engineering which deals with the exrtaction of metals from their raw materials and with the refining of metals by
chemical processes on an industrial scale.
a) physical metallurgy c) powder metallurgy e) adaptive metallurgy
b) chemical metallurgy d) smelting
2239. This deals with the physical nature, or structure, of metals and the factor controlling their behaviour.
a) physical metallurgy c) powder metallurgy e) adaptive metallurgy
b) chemical metallurgy d) smelting
2240. [Day 1]Coal is an ore.
a) true b) false
2241. [Day 1]The "tenor of an ore" means
a) the amount of valuable mineral in the ore d) the luster of an ore surface
b) the amount of gangue mineral in the ore e) none of the above
c) the appearance of the ore surface
2242. [Day 1]The following are the most important iron ores except:
a) magnetite, Fe3O4 c) pyrite, FeS2 e) limonite, Fe2O3.xH2O
b) hematite, Fe2O3 d) siderite, FeCO3
2243. [Day 1]Which of the following has high phosphorus content?
a) non-Bessemer iron ore b) Bessemer iron ore
2244. [Day 1]The following are lead ores but only one is of commercial importance. Which of the folowing?
a) galena, PbS b) anglesite, PbSO4 c) Cerrusite, PbCO3
2245. [Day 1]The following are zinc ores but only one is of commercial importance. Which of the following?
a) Zincite, ZnO c) Smithsonite, ZnCO3 e) Sphalerite, ZnS
b) Willemite, Zn2SiO4 d) Calamine, Zn2(OH)2SiO3
2246. [Day 1]Which of the following comprises Bauxite?
a) Sphalerite, ZnS c) diaspore, Al2O3.H2O e) b & c
b) gibbsite, Al2O3.3H2O d) dolomite, MgO
2247. [Day 1]Given the screen efficiency equation
10,000 U
E = -------------
uF
where U=undersize; F=feed; and u = %undersize in feed, is it possible to have a 100% efficiency?
a) true b) false
2248. [Day 1]Galena, PbS, will float readily without the addition of any collecting reagent to the pulp.
a) true b) false
2249. [Day 1] This are substances added to the pulp to maintain the proper pH to protect such salts as NaCN which would decompose in acid circuit. NaCO3 and
CaO are the most common of these reagents.
a) activators c) collectors e) conditioner
b) regulators d) frother
2250. [Day 1]This is a continuous filter made in the form of a cylindrical drum with filter cloth stretched over the convex surface of the drum. The drum rotate
slowly about a horizontal axis, and the lower part of the drum is immersed in a tank containing
the pulp to be filtered.
a) Oliver filter c) plate and frame press e) pan filter
b) Chamber press d) rotary-disc filters
2251. [Day 1]An ore containing metallics is sampled by the following scheme: the original sample weighed 10 pounds. This was crushed to pass a 40-mesh screen
and 0.125 pound of metallics remained on screen. The 9.875 pounds of -40mesh material was ground to pass a -120mesh screen and cut 200 gram. The -120mesh
pulp was assayed by the regualar method. Two grams of +120mesh metallics was obtained from the 200 gm pulp.
Assays:
Metallics on 40mesh 1000 oz Ag per ton
Metallics on 120mesh 1000 mg Ag in 2 gm
Minus 102-mesh pulp 200 oz Ag per ton
Required:The silver assay of the original sample.
a) 340 c) 352 e) 343
b) 450 d) 123
2252. [Day 1] In a laboratory flotation tast the following dat were obtained:
Weight Assay
Head 2000 g 2.1% Pb
Tailing 0.1% Pb
Concentrate 70 g 55.1% Pb
Calculate the ratio of concetration and recovery. Assuming that the weight of the tailing may be found by difference, calculate the theoritical head assay.
a) 28.6, 90.1%, 2.1% c) 22.2, 98%, 2.1% e) 28.6, 93.3, 2.025%
b) 28.6, 91.8%, 2.025% d) 27.4, 92.3, 2.1%
2253. [Day 1]Assume that the capacity of a ball mill varies directly with the length of the mill and with the 2.6 power of the diameter. If a 4' x 4' ball mill has a
capacity of 20 tons per day, calculate the diameter of a ball mill 5 feet long that would grind 100 tons per day.
a) 6.82 feet c) 4.00 feet e) 5.16 feet
b) 3.17 feet d) 6.00 feet
a) sodium carbonate - conditioner c) ferrosoferric oxide - magnetite e) ferric oxide – frother
b) sodium cyanide - depressant d) primary amine - collector
2255. [Day 1] Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a) magnetite c) pyrite e) covellite
b) hematite d) Ilmenite
2256. [Day 1]A mixture of three different minerals was ground and subsequently processed in a fluid medium classifier. Which of the three will most likely
comprise the bulk of the overflow:
a) the mineral with the smallest density d) the mineral(s) with higher terminal velocities
b) the mineral(s) with the bigger diameter than that of the fluid medium
c) the mineral(s) with lower terminal velocities e) none of the above
than that of the fluid medium
2257. [Day 1]Considering a mixture of galena (density = 7.5) and quartz (density = 2.65), which of the following are most likely to happen with water as the
settling medium. Assume the mixture's particles are sized enough to obey Stoke's law.
a) the bulk of the overflow product will consist of the galena from the mixture
b) the underflow will contain both quartz and galena with the smallest quartz particle about two times bigger than the smallest galena particles
c) the underflow will contain both quartz and galena with the smallest quartz particle about four times bigger than the smallest galena particles
d) the ratio of the diameters of equal-settling particles of quartz and galena will be about four
e) none of the above
2258. [Day 1] Flotation machines perform certain critical functions all at the same time to effect an efficient mineral recovery. Which among the ff. are the more
critical functions of flotation machines?
I. Maintain all particles in suspension w/in the pulp by rising pulp rates well in excess of the settling rates of the coarsest particles
II. Provide enough turbulence in the pulp to ensure suspension of the particles w/in the pulp while ensuring the segregation of the
particles according to density or size
III.Promote particle-bubble collisions to provide oppurtunity for the selective attachment and transport of the desired mineral particles
into the froth
IV. Provide efficient transport of feed-pulp into the cell,froth concentrate and tailing slurry out of the circuit to ensure active flotation
a) I, II & III only c) I, II & IV only
b) I, III & IV only d) I & IV only
2259. [Day 1]This deals with relations between the quantities analyses of the materials entering, leaving, and participating in a process.
a) quantitative analysis c) pyrometallurgy e) thermochemistry
b) qualitative analysis d) stoichiometry
2260. [Day 1] The chemical behaviour of an atom id determined by its _______________ , which is the number of positive charges on the nucleus and which in an
electrically neutral atom must be equal to the total number of electrons in orbits around the nucleus.
a) proton c) neutron e) atomic number
b) electron d) atomic weight
2261. [Day 1]This law states that:
"The quantity of any element is neither decreased nor increased by chemical or physical processes taking place in systems that contain the element."
a) Law of Conservation of Elements c) Law of Combining Weights e) Charle's Law
b) Ideal Gas Law d) Boyle's Law
2262. [Day 1]Atoms of the same atomic number but of different weight are
a) isotopes c) components e) elemental
b) isotopic d) isoatomic
2263. [Day 1]The quantity of a element represented by the atomic weight in grams (gram atomic weight) contains
a) 6.02 x 10exp[20] atoms c) 6.02 x 10exp[21] atoms e) 6.02 x 10exp[23] atoms
b) 6.02 x 10exp[19] atoms d) 6.02 x 10exp[22] atoms
2264. [Day 1] "The relative weights in which elements combine or react with each other can be expressed accurately by the products of the atomic weights and
small whole numbers."
a) Law of Conservation of Elements c) Law of Combining Weights e) Charle's Law
b) Ideal Gas Law d) Boyle's Law
2265. [Day 1] Boyle's Law states that at constant temperature the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. Gay-Lussac's law states
that at constant pressure the volume is proportional to absolute temperature. All these laws can be deduced from this law which mathematical expression is shown
below
PV = nRT
where P=pressure; V=volume; n=number of moles of gas; R=gas constant; and T=absolute temperature
a) Law of Conservation of Elements c) Law of Combining Weights e) Combined gas Law
b) Ideal Gas Law d) Dalton's Law
2266. [Day 1]At STP, one mole of gas has temperature of 0øC and pressure of one atmosphere and
1 gm-mole = 22.4 li at standard conditions
1 kg-mole = 22.4 cu.m. @ standard conditions
1 lb-mole = (?) cu.ft. @ standard conditions
a) 349 c) 348 e) 344
b) 359 d) 358
2267. [Day 1]"The relative volumes of the gaseous reactants involved in a definite chemical reaction and measured at the same temperature and pressure are whole
numbers."
a) Law of Conservation of Elements c) Law of Combining Weights e) Law of Combining volume
2268. [Day 1]For a system operating continuously in this state, the variables expressing conditions in the system are constant and do not vary with time, and the
flows of material and energy in and out of the system are at uniform rates.
a) steady state c) constant state e) unstable state
b) unsteady state d) stable state
2269. [Day 1]This is in terms the quantity of feed material, quantity of metal through, or quantity of the important product, and for continuous process usually is
expressed in terms of the tons of solid charge per 24 hours.
a) rate of treatment c) retention e) flow rate
b) capacity d) batch rate
2270. [Day 1]This is the maximum rate of treatment. This in most cases nominal figures based on standard conditions and easily exceeded in others.
a) capacity ratings c) product rate e) quantity rate
b) feed rate d) retention
2271. [Day 1]This is also called time of treatment or time of residence. This is defined by the equation
quantity in system
é = -------------------------
rate of treatment
a) retention time c) interaction time e) material time
b) reaction time d) internal time
2272. [Day 1]Ordinary chemical analysis consist of determination of the percentages of individual chemical elements known as
a) ultimate analysis c) mineralogical analysis e) quatitative analysis
b) rational analysis d) proximate analyis
2273. [Day 1]A kind of rational analysis, in that the composition is given in percentage of the various minerals product.
b) rational mineral analysis d) proximate analyis
2274. [Day 1]This analysis gives the results of a standardized analytical or testing procedure such as might be used and does not necessarily give the true chemical
composition. In coal this is expressed as fixed carbon, volatile matter, ash and moisture.
b) rational analysis d) proximate analyis
2275. [Day 1] If we take the approximate composition of air as 21% O2 and 79% N2 then the average molecular weight of air is
a) 26.0 c) 28.8 e) 29.8
b) 14.4 d) 28
2276. [Day 1]This law states that the products resulting from a chemical reaction have the same mass of the reactants.
a) Law of Conservation of Elements c) Law of Combining Weights e) Law of Conservation of Matter
2277. [Day 1] The following equations are
1) Total pressure = ä partial pressures
2) Vol % = mol % = Pi/Pt x 100
b) Ideal Gas Law d) Dalton's Law of Gases
2278. [Day 1]This the temperature at which condensation of moisture begins during cooling. This is also the temperature at which the partial pressure of water
vapor equals to the saturation pressure.
a) Dew point c) critical point e) condensation point
b) Saturation point d) vapor point
2279. [Day 1]This is law states that energy can not be created nor destroyed, it can only be converted from one form to another. This means that the total energy of
a system and its surrounding remain constant.
Mathematically,
dU = dq - dw
where U = internal energy;q=heat absorbed/evolved
and w=work done on/by the system
b) Second Law of Thermodynamics d) First Law of Thermodynamics
2280. [Day 1]This is the amount of heat change in the system at constant pressure. Mathematically,
-H = H2 - H1 = Qp and
dH = CpdT
Cp = heat capacity at constant pressure.

Cp - Cv = R
where Cv = heat capacity at constant volume
= dU/DT
a) entropy c) internal energy e) heat capacity
b) heat energy d) enthalpy
2281. [Day 1]This is the amount of heat required to form a compound from its elements at 25øC and 1 atm pressure.
a) heat of formation c) heat of transformation e) heat of vaporization
b) standard heat of formation d) heat of condensation
2282. [Day 1]This law states that the heat of reaction at any other temperature may be calculated if the heat capacity and the heat of reaction is known at one
temperature. Mathematically,
ôT2
-HøT2 - -HøT1 = ³ -CpdT
õT1
ôT2
= ³ [n(Cp)products - m(Cp)reactants] dT
õT1
a) Law of Conservation of Elements c) Kirchoff's Law e) Law of Conservation of Matter
b) Second Law of Thermodynamics d) First Law of Thermodynamics
2283. [Day 1]A metallurgy which involves high temperatures.
a) pyrometallurgy c) physucal metallurgy e) hydometallurgy
b) heat treatment d) adaptive metallurgy
2284. [Day 1]This involves chemical changes.
a) unit process c) batch process e) pyrometallurgy
b) unit operation d) continuous unit process
2285. [Day 1]This involves physical changes except change of state.
2286. [Day 1]This involves treatment of a definite batch of material to pass through different processes.
2287. [Day 1] In this process, continuous stream of material is fed and continuously recovering the product.
2288. [Day 1]In this conditon variables do not vary with respect to time.
a) usteady state c) stable state e) constant state
b) steady state d) unstable state
2289. [Day 1] In this condition, variation of variables with respect to time can be noted.
a) usteady state c) stable state e) constant state
b) steady state d) unstable state
2290. [Day 1] This are oxides mainly silicates, also borates and flux waste material separated in molten stage during extractionof the metal.
a) matte c) speiss e) fuel
b) slag d) calcine
2291. [Day 1]This are molten sulfide phase produced during smelting.
b) slag d) calcine
2292. [Day 1]This are arsenides and antimonides.
b) slag d) calcine
2293. [Day 1]This are gaseous waste product ( also known as chimney gas) consisting of combustion products due to combustion
a) matte c) speiss e) flue gas
b) slag d) calcine
2294. [Day 1] This process removes the mechanically held water.
a) drying c) heating e) water removal
b) calcining d) roasting
2295. [Day 1] This process removes the chemically combined water or decomposes carbonates.
2296. [Day 1]This process involves heating of the ore in a controlled atmosphere to effect a chemical change mainly by interaction between the ore and the
atmosphere.
2297. [Day 1]This process combines fine ore into lumps or cakes to increase suitability for subsequent testing.
a) pyroagglomeration c) smelting e) refining
b) fusion d) melting
2298. [Day 1] This is done by melting of material usually ore in the presence of fluxes and reagents to effect separation of the extraneous undesired material (in a
slag) and the metal of interest in a crude product or highly concentrated sulfide phase.
2299. [Day 1]A process in which a metal or impurity is vaporized and subsequently condensed to effect separation of metal from their impurities. This is applicable
to metals which have low normal boiling point such as zinc (9050C), Hg (3570C) and Cd (7650C). This is carried out usually in retorts.
b) fusion d) distillation
2300. [Day 1]This is a selective melting.
b) liquation d) melting
2301. [Day 1]This is applied in Fe and Cu processes in which invloves blowing of air into the metal phase to effect selective oxidation.
a) smelting c) converting e) pyroagglomeration
b) melting d) distillation
2302. [Day 1] The following are slag composition, levels of temperature and furnace atmosphere in removing temperature or recovering certain important
impurities during steelmaking:
1) basic slag, low temperature, oxidizing 4) basic slag, high temperature, reducing
2) basic slag, high temperature, oxidizing
3) basic slag, low temperature, oxidizing
Which combination above Si removal, Mn recovery, P removal and Sulfur removal respectively?
a) 1, 2, 3 & 4 c) 3, 4, 1 & 2 e) 2, 3, 1 & 4
b) 2, 4, 1 & 3 d) 4, 1, 2 & 3
2303. [Day 1]The ________ of the blast furnace is designed with a considerable height to allow pre-heating and indirect reduction of the iron oxides by the
counter-current principle.
a) shaft c) hearth e) tuyeres
b) bosh d) tapping hole
2304. [Day 1]The diameter of the shaft (or stack) of the blast furnace decreases downwards to facilitate descent of stock since swelling accompanies indirect
reduction of hematite and magnetite to wustite. There is also the possibility of carbon deposition from sooting reactions as the temperature of the gas cools which
may hamper countercurrent flow of gas and make descent of charge more difficult.
a) true b) false
2305. [Day 1]The diameter of the bosh increases downwards because at the bosh region the iron and slag start to melt (shrinkage in volume). The sloping side of
the bosh serves as pathway for the downward trickling of the molten phase to the hearth.
a) false b) true
2306. [Day 1]In blast furnace, the diameter of the bosh decreases downwards while the diameter of the stack increases downwards.
a) true b) false
2307. [Day 1]The purpose of the hearth of the blast furnace is
a) support d) collection of the hot metal and slag
b) provide a room for reduction of impurities e) all of the above
c) facilitate easy slag removal
2308. [Day 1]Which of the following is not correct about acid versus basic steel refining processes:
a) acid processes uses acid slag and refractories and vice versa
b) acid processes cannot refine high-P and high-S iron
c) acid processes usually involves single slag practice while basic processes involves multiple slag practice
d) shorter oxidizing period for acid process (since usually single slag practice)
e) lower recovery of iron in acid process due to large slag volume for single slag practice
2309. [Day 1]In converting, longer blowing time lowers the carbon and metal impurities in iron, increases the amount of dissolved gases, and less of the iron goes
to the slag.
a) true b) false
2310. [Day 1]In converting, higher temperature means higher amount of dissolved gases and higher the lifetime of refractories.
a) true b) false
2311. [Day 1]In converting, the only way of controlling the temperature is by adding scrap.
a) true b) false
2312. [Day 1]In basic open hearth, scrap is charged first because it has lower silicon content. If pig iron is charged first, the following will not tend to happen
except
a) basic refractories will corrode since very acidic slag will be produced d) there will be a great temperature increase
b) slag will not be formed e) acid refractories will be deoxidized
c) slag will be basic
2313. [Day 1]In open hearth, boiling action facilitates heat transfer from the flame to metal bath temperature. One of this boiling action is due to the oxidation of
carbon in hot metal to carbon monoxide - carbon boil. The other is
a) silicon boil c) nitrogen boil e) carbon boil is the only boiling action
b) lime boil d) hydrogen boil
2314. This basic steelmaking process uses fuel as source of heat. The refining occurs at the metal-slag interface and requires very long refining time for better
control of the process. This can also treat purely scrap and is not capable of producing high-alloy steel. The final product has no blowholes.
a) Converter process c) Open Hearth Process e) Basic oxygen process
b) Electric arc process d) Blast furnace process
2315. [Day 1] In this basic oxygen process, refining is through direct injection of O2 through the bath and the process is fast and autogenous. This is a simple
process but cannot treat purely scrap and produces high-nitrogen steel if air is used. Also, this can't produce high-alloy steel.
a) Converter process c) Open Hearth Process e) Basic oxygen process
b) Electric arc process d) Blast furnace process
2316. [Day 1]This basic steelmaking process uses electricity in producing heat. This can treat purely scrap and there is good temperature control. During refining
for maximum recovery of alloying elements in scrap, this can form reducing slag making it suitable for high-alloy production.
a) Converter process
b) Electric arc process
c) Open Hearth Process
d) Blast furnace process
e) Basic oxygen process
2317. [Day 1] The following are drawbacks of blast furnace ironmaking except
a) highly dependent on availability of coking coal d) need to refine product
b) high capital and maintenance cost e) waste gases production is high
c) requires many auxiliary equipment
2318. [Day 1]Low carbon steels have high amount of dissolved oxygen. If one will add a lot of deoxidizers, the steel is said to be
a) a fully-killed steel
b) semi-killed steel
c) capped steel
d) rimmed steel
e) ingot
2319. [Day 1]Oxidation of carbon to CO involves formation of gas. Nucleation of CO is rather difficult to accomplish in a relatively quiescent bath such as in the
open hearth furnace. So when small amounts of Mn and Si are present in the melt, CO evolution generally occurs.
In a purely thermodynamic viewpoint, which of the following are oxidized first in the open hearth operation?
a) carbon
b) Manganese
c) silicon
d) sulfur
e) phosphorus
2320. [Day 1]The alloying element are produced usually in the form of ferroalloy because of the following
1) the alloying element is present in the ore together with large amounts of iron as in FeCr (chromite) or FeMn
2) iron is deliberately added to facilitate reduction of the alloying element (FeSi)
3) Addition of iron lowers the melting point of the ferroalloy (FeW, FeMo)
4) pure iron is difficult to produce
a) 1, 2 & 4 only c) 2, 3 & 4 only e) 1, 2, 3 & 4
b) 1, 2 & 3 only d) 1, 3 & 4 only
2321. [Day 1]In electric arc production of steel, carbon is oxidized during the melting stage. Melting is then followed by refining wherein charcoal is added to
provide carbon. The carbon added during refining is the formation of _______ in the slag. This will return certain alloying elements which were previously
oxidized into the slag phase back to the metal phase. This also facilitate sulfur removal as _________.
a) calcium carbide, calcium sulfide d) aluminum carbide, aluminum sulfide
b) silicon cabide, silicon sulfide e) manganese carbide, manganese sulfide
c) carbon dioxide, carbon sulfide
2322. [Day 1]Indicate during what stage of Electric Arc Steelmaking this following happens
- use of immersion pyrometer to take temperature reading
- ladle preheating
- steel composition adjustment
a) before tapping c) refining e) charging
b) teeming d) scrap preparation
2323. [Day 1]During scrap preparation in electric arc steelmaking, scrap is segregated, which of the following will likely to happen during melting stage?
a) oxidation of impurity element c) formation of fluid slag e) proper arrangement of scrap in arc furnace
b) ferro-alloy addition d) CaC2 formation
2324. [Day 1]Which of the following is not true regarding converting
a) in steelmaking converting takes place in a pear-shaped converter while in copper extraction in a cylindrical converter
b) most of impurities in iron converter go to the slag phase, except for carbon which leaves the metals as gas, the flux being lime
c) in copper converter, the sulfur is being oxidized as a gas and iron goes to slag the flux being silica
d) the initial phase in iron converting is hot metal
e) copper converter uses blister copper for converting
2325. [Day 1]There are two stages in copper converting
I. Oxidation of FeS to FeO and SO2

II. Oxidation of Cu2S to metallic copper and SO2
If copper converting were conducted using only one continuous blow there will be higher losses of copper in the slag as
a) Cu2O.xSiO2 c) CuO.3SiO2 e) CuFeO.3SiO2
b) Cu2S d) Cu2S.3SiO2
2326. [Day 1]The need for an afterblow is eliminated in __________ for pneumatic steelmaking processes because in this steelmaking, a slag metal-gas emulsion
is formed when injected at high pressure above the bath through the lance. The very high area of resultant slag-metal interface is coupled with more oxidizing
conditions (since commercial oxygen is used) will make it possible for the simultaneous removal of phosphorus together with other impurities like carbon, silicon
and manganese.
a) LD process c) QBOP process e) open hearth process
b) top-blown oxygen process d) AOD process
2327. [Day 1] The greater the amount of coke to be burned, the longer the combustion time, the slower the descent of the charge and longer the smelting time.
Thus, increasing productivity of the blast furnace process.
a) true b) false
2328. [Day 1] The following are means of decreasing coke rate in blast furnace operation. Which of the following should not be included?
a) use lime instead of limestone c) proper sizing of burden e) fuel injection
b) use higher blast preheat temperature d) use porous sintered ore
2329. [Day 1]There are several ways of increasing the combustion rate of coke. Which of the following does not hold true in increasing the combustion rate of
coke?
a) oxygen enrichment c) use a more reactive coke e) none of the above
b) increase coke rate d) increase blast pressure
2330. [Day 1]When reduction is to be indirect, absorption of carbon by the iron will be small. The product tends to be solid unless enough heat is released from the
combustion of gaseous fuel for the product to attain the melting point of essentially pure iron. If melting does, the absence of permeable layer of coke at the
smelting zone will hinder the upward flow of the reducing gases.
From the statements above, assuming that both the thermal and chemical process can be satisfied using a gaseous fuel, a COKELESS blast furnace is not possible
because
a) the ore will not be reduced d) ore reduction will be very slow
b) the countercurrent principle will not work e) the combustion rate will be very slow
c) the decomposition of limestone need so much heat
2331. [Day 1] This is measure of escaping tendency of impurity.
With increasing lime-to-silica ratio, this seem to increase thus increasing metal impurity.What is this?
a) difussivity coefficient c) escape coefficient e) basicity coefficient
b) activity coefficient d) slag coeficient
2332. [Day 1] Blast pressure may decrease refractory life when applied at very high pressure in order to decrease coke rate.
a) true b) false
2333. [Day 1]In acidic slag, the activity coefficient of an impurity decreases.
a) true b) false
2334. [Day 1]This is the most critical variable in the operation of the LD converter. This will determine the refining rate, residual concentration of impurities in the
metal phase and lifetime of the refractories and oxygen height.
a) lance height c) bosh diameter e) heart diameter
b) vessel volume d) tapping hole
2335. [Day 1]In this smelting process, roasting and smelting occur in the same reactor, therefore conditions are more oxidizing leading to higher copper losses in
the slag.
a) blast iron smelting c) flash smelting e) open heart smelting
b) matte smelting d) basic oxygen smelting
2336. [Day 1]This type of smelting process wherein oxides are reduced and crude product is produced.
a) reduction smelting c) matte smelting e) basic oxygen smelting
b) flash smelting d) blast iron smelting
2337. [Day 1] This smelting process is essentially a melting operation. This collects metal in a highly concentrated phase.
a) reduction smelting c) matte smelting e) basic oxygen smelting
b) flash smelting d) blast iron smelting
2338. [Day 1]What purpose of roasting when sulfur is burnt out from sulfides and replaced with a whole or in part with oxides?
a) oxidizing roast c) chloridizing roast e) magnetizing roast
b) volatilizing roast d) sulphating roast
2339. [Day 1]This purpose of roasting eliminate volatile sulfides such as As2O3, Sb2O3 or ZnO which can be recovered as fume - a suspension of fine solid
particles condensed out of the vapor phase.
2340. [Day 1]This roast convert certain metals to chlorides carried out either under reducing or oxidizing conditions).
2341. [Day 1] This roast convert sulfides to sulfates prior to leaching.
2342. [Day 1] This roasting process enable magnetic separation to be effected.
2343. [Day 1] This roast oxide prior to leaching or smelting.
a) oxidizing roast c) chloridizing roast e) reducing roast
2344. [Day 1]This roasting is done for a purpose of preparing calcine for chlorination.
a) calcine roast c) chloridizing roast e) Carburizing roast
2345. [Day 1]This roasting purpose modifies the physical condition of the ore.
b) volatilizing roast d) sintering or blast roasting
2346. [Day 1] In this roasting process the ore is dried and preheated on two top hearths and then allowed to fall through central section of furnace against oxidizing
furnace gases.
a) oxidizing roast c) suspension roasting e) magnetizing roast
2347. [Day 1]This is a modern development in roasting which involves injection of preheated ore through a burner with preheated air.
b) volatilizing roast d) flash roasting
2348. [Day 1]This roasting process requires no fuel. It simply burns the sulfur present in ore.
a) oxidizing roast c) chloridizing roast e) autogeneous roasting or pyritic roast
2349. [Day 1]This roast fine ore or concentrate on a fluidized bed. There is higher dust losses, higher sulfur dioxide concentration of exit gases, lower heat loss per
unit of production, higher reaction rates and less fuel requirements.
b) volatilizing roast d) Fluidized-bed roast
2350. [Day 1]This smelting process is done in an electric arc furnace for smelting of copper concentrates and calcines. There is no air blown in the furnace but
some air is drawn through the brick work to oxidize some of the sulfides and produce furnace gas rich in sulfur dioxide. This is applicable in when the smelting
temperature for fusion is higher than can be conveniently reach with carbonaceous fuel (>1550øC) as in the production of ferroalloy. This usually a batch or semi-
continuous process.
a) matte smelting c) reduction smelting e) electric hearth smelting
b) flash smelting d) electic arc smelting
2351. [Day 1]This smelting process makes use of the reverberatory hearth furnace where very reducing conditions are unnecessary or undesirable.
a) matte smelting c) reduction smelting e) hearth smelting
b) flash smelting d) electic arc smelting
2352. [Day 1]This process involve final adjustment of composition of molten metal. Metal impurites are removed by selective chemical reactions which renders
them insoluble in the molten metal. The reagents which may be used are oxygen, sulfur, chlorine, carbon, lime and zinc.
a) fire refining c) converting e) purification
b) smelting d) fire assaying
2353. [Day 1] This is the fire refining of noble metals, e.g., Pb is selectively oxidized by melting in air or by jetting air on to the molten alloy leaving behind the
dorŠ.
a) purification c) cupellation e) liquation
b) extraction d) distillation
2354. [Day 1]In this refining process a very fusible metal is freed of impurities by raising its melting point by heating it on a sloping hearth to a temperature just
above the melting point of the pure metal as in refining of tin and silver ( the pure metal melts and runs down the hearth leaving behind the impurities). This is
also use in removing fusible sulfides from the gangue, e.g., antimony and bismuth.
a) purification c) cupellation e) liquation
b) extraction d) distillation
2355. [Day 1]This is a process of agglomerating and fluxing fine ore into a rigid, coherent, hard but porous and highly reducible product through partial fusion.
a) sintering c) pelletizing e) nodulizing
b) briquetting d) coagulation
2356. [Day 1]Direct reduction involves reduction of iron oxides by CO or any other gaseous product while indirect reduction involves reduction of iron ores by
solid carbon.
a) true b) false
2357. [Day 1]The following are advantages of using sintered ore in blast furnace process except
a) self-fluxing charge - earlier slag formation
b) carbonates and hydrates are decomposed during the sintering process
c) 95% of sulfur in ore removed during sintering
d) addition of CaCO3 and MgCO3 during sintering increases reducibility of fayalite and other ferroaluminates in the ore
e) increases the combustion time of coke
2358. [Day 1]This agglomeration process provides agglomeration with a greater degree of recrystallization applied to ores which can not be sintered successfully.
There is lesser fusion that recrystallization results in bonding.
a) sintering c) pelletizing e) nodulizing
b) briquetting d) coagulation
2359. [Day 1]Which of the following is not a characteristic of pellets.
a) have higher reducibility than sintered ore because of limited fusion
b) stronger than sintered ore
c) uniform ball structure of pellets results in a very permeable bed
d) earlier slag formation
e) no self-fluxing pellet can be produced
2360. [Day 1]The rate of combustion of coke in kg coke/MT Fe controls the descent of the charge.
a) true b) false
2361. [Day 1] A decrease in coke rate implies a decrease in productivity (MT fe/day).
a) true b) false
2362. [Day 1]Which of the following is/are function(s) of coke?
a) reducing agent
b) fuel
c) maintains permeability of the stock to the ascending gas necessary for countercurrent
heating and reduction
d) all of the above
2363. [Day 1]This steelmaking process is either acid or basic. Refining is usually done in open hearth and oxygen for refining usually comes from hematite ore,
mill scale, furnace air and oxygen lance.
a) open hearth process c) LD process e) Q-BOP process
b) bessemer process d) Kaldo process
2364. [Day 1]For Bessemer steelmaking processes, air is blown through tuyeres at bottom of pear-shaped converter. The only difference between the basic and acid
Bessemer process is the
a) feed c) reaction time e) reactions involved
b) slag d) tapping time
2365. [Day 1]In this BOF steelmaking proces, commercial oxygen is blown on top of the lance.
a) LD process c) OLP e) Rotor process
b) LD-AC process d) Kaldo Process
2366. [Day 1] The BOF steelmaking process introduces lime powder and oxygen top blown through lance.
a) LD process c) OLP e) b & c
2367. [Day 1]In this BOF process, the pear-shaped converter is top-blown, rotating and inclined.
a) LD process c) OLP e) Rotor process
2368. [Day 1] This BOF process uses a rotating cylindrical instead of pear-shaped converter with two oxygen lances used.
a) LD process
b) LD-AC process
c) OLP
d) Kaldo Process
e) Rotor process
2369. [Day 1] This BOF process is bottom blown and uses methane as protecting gas. The converter haas less number of tuyeres.
a) LD process c) Q-BOP e) Rotor process
2370. [Day 1]This BOF converter is side blown.
a) LD process c) Tropenas Converting e) Rotor process
2371. [Day 1]In this steelmaking process, refining is done in an electric arc furnace whether acid or basic. The oxygen comne from furnace airm oxygen lance or
hematite.
a) open hearth process c) LD process e) electric arc process
b) bessemer process d) Kaldo process
2372. [Day 1]Whenever a quantity of one kind of energy is produced an exactly equivalent amount of another kind (or other kinds) must be used up."
a) Law of Conservation of Mass c) Law of definite Proportions e) Law of Conservation Energy
b) Law of Combining Weights d) Law of Combining Volumes
2373. [Day 1] The kind of energy that passes from one body to another solely as a result of a difference in temperature.
a) Heat c) Electrical Energy e) Potential Energy
b) Mechanical Energy d) Internal Energy
2374. [Day 1]The work done when a force acts on a body and a displacement of the body occurs in the direction of application of the force.
a) Heat c) Electrical Work e) Potential Energy
b) Mechanical Work d) Internal Energy
2375. [Day 1]The work which is equal to the product of the voltage and current in a simple direct current.
a) voltage work c) electrical work e) mechanical work
b) current work d) heat
2376. [Day 1]This energy is stored within a system by virtue of the relative motions, forces, and arrangement of the atoms and molecules in the system.
2377. [Day 1]An energy possessed by a body by virtue to its relative motion.
a) Kinetic energy c) Electrical Energy e) Potential Energy
2378. [Day 1]It is an energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position and the force of gravity, and is converted to other kinds of energy when the body falls.
2379. [Day 1]Mills are driven in practice at what percent of the critical speeds.
a) 40-80% c) 45-85% e) 30-70%
b) 50-90% d) 60-70%
2380. [Day 1]Liners, which are to have high impact strength, are made usually from manganese or
a) chrome-molybdenum steels c) chrome-silicon steels e) nickel-silicon steels
b) chrome-nickel steels d) cast irons
2381. [Day 1]Rod and other grinding mills are rated by what?
a) capacity c) speed e) grindability
b) power d) life span
2382. [Day 1]Grinding within a tumbling mill is influenced by the following except:
a) quantity d) retention time
b) size e) spaces between the individual pieces of medium
c) type of motion
2383. [Day 1]Chemicals used to achieve the desired froth condition
a) regulators c) frothers e) floatation reagents
b) activators d) collectors
2384. [Day 1] Which of the following is not an impact of flotation on the mineral dressing industry?
a) replacement of gravity method
b) increase in grade of feed available for smelter
c) cut-off grade is lowered
d) increase in product output
e) agglomeration processes were developed because of the very fine product of flotation
2385. [Day 1] Organic compounds which absorb on ineral surfaces rendering them hydrophobic and facilitating bubble attachment
a) regulators c) collectors e) floatation reagents
b) frothers d) activators
2386. [Day 1]The following are charactersitics of a collector except:
a) must consist of a hydrocarbon group to impart non-polarity to mineral surface
b) must be sufficiently active to take selective minerals away from water
c) must be able to be dispersed evenly through at the pulp for selectivity efficiency
d) must be selective so that not all particles will be plated
2387. [Day 1]Organic and sulpho-acid anions as their polar groups; typically these are organic acids or scraps; used for flotation of minerals of calcium, barium,
strontium and magnesium.
a) oxyhydryl collectors c) anionic collectors e) molecular collectors
b) sulphydryl collectors d) cationic collectors
2388. [Day 1]The polar group contains bivalent sulphur; these are very powerful and selective in the flotation of sulphide minerals; most widely used are xanthates
and dithiophosphates
a) oxyhydryl collectors c) anionic collectors e) molecular collectors
b) sulphydryl collectors d) cationic collectors
2389. [Day 1] This improves the selectivity of collectors, make possible the utilization of collectors under optimum condition, control and prevent mutual mineral
and interactions and may affect favorably or adversely the ability of certain minerals to acquire a floating film.
a) Regulators c) Activators e) Depressants
b) Modifiers d) Molecular Collectors
2390. [Day 1]Enhance collectors adsorption
2391. [Day 1]Inhibits adsorption of collector.
2392. [Day 1]The following are general characteristic of a frother except one
a) heteropolar surface active organic reagents, capable of being adsorbed on the air-water interface
b) must be to some extent soluble in H2O for even distribution of an aqueos solution
c) should break easily after being removed from flotation cell to facilitate subsequent processing
d) chemicals whose molecules contain both a polar and a non-polar group
2393. [Day 1]A mechanism of collection which states the theory that all dissolved reagents, which in flotation pulps, either by action on the to be floated or on the
not-to-be floated particles affect their flotability function by reason of chemical reactions of well recognized types between reagent and particle affected.
a) Ionic Adsorption Theory c) Chemical Reaction Theory
b) Neutral Molecule Adsorption Theory d) Rosin-Rammler Theory
2394. [Day 1]This theory states that the mechanism of collection is by an effective collector which is non-ionic but is derived from hydrolysis of ionic collector.
2395. [Day 1] This mechanism of collection theory states that
"All ions in a flotation pulp adsorb at minerals surfaces. At each mineral surface, the adsorption of each dissolved ion is specific, i.e., it depends on the dissolved ion
and on the mineral; this is a fucntion of the concentration of the dissolved ion under condideration and of the other dissolved."
2396. [Day 1]What kinetics index is denoted by the expression
Q = r/cv per min
where r = rate of recovery (flotation) of constituent in g/min; c= concentration of constituent in g/li of water; and v= volume of water in vessel
a) relative floatability c) selectivity index
b) specific flotation rate d) coefficient of mineralization
2397. [Day 1]What kinetics index is denoted by this equation
è = Qa/Qb
if è=1 then no separation will occur; if è>1 then particle a is more flotable than particle b; and if è<1 then particle b is more flotable than a.
2398. [Day 1]Ratio of concentration of a constituent in the de-aerated watery float to the concentration of the same constituent in the pulp from which the float
came. Mathematically
è = Ma/Mb
if M>1 then solid is floated preferentially to water; if M=1 then solid behaves like water; and if M<1 then solid lags behind water.
2399. [Day 1]Given: froth contains 42g bornite/li of water in froth pulp contains 1.05 g bornite/li of water.
Determine the floatability of bornite.
a) 153.83 c) 40 e) 160
b) 135.38 d) 0.0065
2400. [Day 1]What is the effect of the amount of frothers on the coefficient of mineralization,M, and specific flotation rate, Q.
a) increases Q, increases M
b) little increases Q, little increases M
c) much increases Q, much increases M
d) little effect on Q, slightly increases M
e) slightly increases Q, little effect on M
2401. [Day 1]These are heterogeneous products skimmed from the surface of liquid metals during refining or simply after melting
a) drosses c) melt e) matte
b) slags d) speiss
2402. [Day 1]In dealing with lower grade deposits of ore, pyrometallurgical processes stands superior over hydrometallurgical operations.
a) false
b) true
2403. [Day 1] This is the extraction and production of metals from non-renewable reserves utilizing reactions in or associated with aqueous media.
a) pyrometallurgical extraction c) hydrometallurgical reclamation e) metallurgy
b) hydrometallurgical extraction d) chemical extraction
2404. [Day 1] This is the extraction and production of metals from recyclable reserves utilizing reactions in or associated with aqueous media.
a) pyrometallurgical extraction c) hydrometallurgical reclamation e) metallurgy
b) hydrometallurgical extraction d) chemical extraction
2405. [Day 1] The process of dissolution of the value minerals of an ore or concentrate, generally by a lixiviant.
a) leaching c) chemical extraction e) cyaniding
b) acid treatment d) chemical concentration
2406. [Day 1] Metal rich solution produced during leaching process
a) electrolyte c) distillate e) leaching solution
b) pregnant solution d) solution residue
2407. [Day 1] Upgrading of ore concentrate by leaching process.
a) hydrometallurgical beneficiation c) leaching beneficiation e) leach cyaniding
b) chemical extraction d) concetration
2408. [Day 1] These reactions do not involve electrons and quite a number of metallic oxide dissolves in this way.
a) nonredox reactions c) chemical dissolution e) nonionizing dissolution
b) oxidative dissolution d) reductive dissolution
2409. [Day 1] An electrochemical cell in which the anodic process is sustained by a suitable cathodic reaction.
a) oxidative leaching c) non-oxidative leaching e) neutral leaching
b) reductive leaching d) non-reductive leaching
2410. [Day 1] Cathodic reaction will consist of the reduction of the oxidized species of a redox system that has a potential more positive than that of the anodic
process.For the cathodic reaction to be effective the difference of the cathodic and anodic reactions is usually
a) at least 0.2 volts c) less than 0.2 volts e) exactly 0.1 volts
b) exactly 0.2 volts d) at least 0.1 volts
2411. [Day 1] It is the ratio of the fugacity (f) of the substance at its present state to the fugacity of substance at standard state (fo)
f
(?) = -------
fo
a) activity of a substance, a c) equilibrium constant, k e) none of the above
b) molality of a substance, m d) ionization constant, I
2412. [Day 1] Electrolytes are substances which readily form ions in a solution. They are classified in terms of
a) no. of ions formed c) activity of ions formed e) ionizations of ions
b) nature of ions formed d) dissociation of ions
2413. [Day 1] Binary electrolytes are strong electrolytes which forms two ions in solution. Ternary electrolytes forms more than two ions in solution. Weak
electrolytes when in solution, all not ionic species formed.
Which of the following is not a binary electrolyte?
a) NaCl c) KCl 2) all of the above
b) MgSO4 d) CaCl2
2414. [Day 1] This law states that the value of the activity coefficient, çø, approaches the constant value, (sometimes unity) at infinite dilution.
a) Henry's Law c) Partition law e) none of the above
b) Raoult's Law d) Sievert's law
2415. [Day 1] Molarity is moles of species per liter of solution while molality is moles of species per
a) 1 kg of solvent c) 100 li solvent e) 500 gram solvent
b) 100 gram of solvent d) 100 cu. cm. solvent
2416. [Day 1] The formula denoted below is
z
I = 1/2 ä mizi
where z = charge of ions and m = molality of ions
a) Ionic dissociation of solution c) Ionic molality of solution e) none of the above
b) Ionic strength of solution d) Ionic activity of solution
2417. [Day 1] Calculate the ionic strength of 2 molal MgSO4 solution.
a) 4 c) 6 e) 3
b) 8 d) 2
2418. [Day 1] Leaching process involves the following stages:
Stage (i) : Transfer of the gaseous reactants from the gaseous phase to, and dissolution in, solution.
Stage (ii): Transport of the reactant through the solution to the solid-solution interface.
Stage (iii): Reaction at the interface, which may be chemical or electrochemical and may involve adsorption & desorption &, in the case of an electrochemical rxn,
transfer of electrons and ions across an electrical double layer.
Stage (iv): Transport of the products from the interface into the bulk of solution.
Which of the stages involves diffusion, and frequently control the rate of the overall process?
a) stage (i) c) stage (iii)
b) stage (ii) d) stage (iv)
2419. [Day 1] Leaching process involves the following stages:
Stage (i) : Transfer of the gaseous reactants from the gaseous phase to, and dissolution in, solution.
Stage (ii) : Transport of the reactant through the solution to the solid-solution interface.
Stage (iii): Reaction at the interface, which may be chemical or electrochemical and may involve adsorption & desorption &, in the case of an electrochemical rxn,
transfer of electrons and ions across an electrical double layer.
Stage (iv) : Transport of the products from the interface into the bulk of solution.
Evaluate this: "Under some circumstances, stage (i) maybe rate-controlling for a large scale process."
a) true b) false
2420. [Day 1] For a diffusion-controlled reaction, the rate is inversely proportional to concentration of reagent in the bulk of solution and thickness of the diffusion
layer, while proportional to the interfacial area and to the value of diffusion coefficient.
a) true b) false
2421. [Day 1] Agitation leaves no importance in leaching process.
a) false b) true
2422. [Day 1] This law states that the rate of any reaction is at each instant proportional to the concentrations of the reactants, with each concentration raised to a
power equal to the number of molecules of each species participating in the process.
a) Law of Conservation of Mass c) Clausius-Clapeyron Law e) Law of Definite Mass
b) Law of Mass Action d) Law of Combining Mass
2423. [Day 1] The method chosen for leaching an ore or waste material will depend mainly on the following except:
a) the ease from which the metal wil be recovered from the pregnant solution
b) metal content of the material
c) the cost of mining and of bringing the ore to the surface
d) the cost of any milling and other preleaching treatment such as roasting and melting
e) the ease of dissolution
2424. [Day 1] This leaching method is carried out on finely ground ore -30 mesh (<0.5 mm), on melted and granulated alloy scrap, and on scrap alloy turnings and
borings; extraction rate is 90-95% in 24 hours; high capital and operating cost is required. When elevated pressures are used and high temperatures above 100øC,
rapid dissolution can result.
a) Agitation leaching c) heap leaching e) in-situ leaching
b) dump leaching d) percolation or vat leaching
2425. [Day 1] Agitation leaching may use reaction vessels which utilize air agitation. The pulp can be readily heated in this type of vessel by the introduction of
live steam with the air, and temperatures up to 60-700C are readily achieved. This well-established and very effective vessel is
a) autoclave c) reaction tank e) none of the above
b) agitation leaching tank d) Pachuca tank
2426. [Day 1] This leaching method is applied to relatively low-grade ores of coarse particle size (9-12.5 mm) and hence it is also referred to as sand leaching. The
ore is treated in large vats or tanks which are often fitted with filter type bottoms to facilitate solution flow through the ore bed. Extraction rate at about 80% in
one week and poses high capital cost.
2427. [Day 1] Dump and heap leaching are essentially similar to each other in operation but differ in
a) type of material being processed c) leaching reagent used e) a, b & c
b) amount of material being leached d) a & b only
2428. [Day 1] Heap leaching used as mined ores and in several months about 50% of the metal is extracted. Dump leaching, on the other hand, the ore is broken
and takes one or two years for the 50% of metal in feed is extracted. Both two processess benefit the fact of having low capital and operating costs.
a) false b) true
2429. [Day 1] The leaching method which has the benefit of having no problem with tailings disposal.
2430. [Day 1] This is the sum of all the exponents to which the concentrations in the rate equation are raised.
a) Law of Mass Action c) reaction rate equation e) Van Hoff's Theorem
b) Order of reaction d) Clasius-Clapeyron equation
2431. [Day 1] The order of reaction is identical with the number of molecules of reactants participating in the reaction. Which of the following is a zero order
reaction?
a) A --> products c) A + B --> products e) reaction rate is independent of reactant
b) 2A --> products d) 2A + 2B --> products concentration
2432. [Day 1] When one-half of the reactant in a certain reaction has undergone decomposition, the time necessary for this to occur is
a) half life c) half time e) Half order
b) decomposition time d) half reaction
2433. [Day 1] Given the following
-Hø1200 = -93.42 kJ
-Sø1200 = 29 J
Calculate the equilibrium constant at 1200øK for the reaction:
Cu2O(s) + H2(g) <--> 2Cu(s) + H2O(g)
a) 7.22 x 10exp[12] c) 7.22 x 10exp[5] e) 6.22 x 10exp[5]
b) 3.84 x 10exp[5] d) 3.84 x 10exp[12]
2434. [Day 1] The reduction of hematite in the blast furnace may occur at 1600øC with the following reaction:
Fe2O3 + 3C + 3/2 O2 --> 2Fe + 3CO2
Coke is charged with the ore and air is blown into the furnace. Calculate the entalphy change -H for the reaction at 16000C and given the ff:
3/2 C + 3/2 O2 -> 3/2 CO2 -H = -593.3 kJ
3/2 CO2 + 3/2 C -> 3 CO -H = 259.6 kJ
Fe2O3 + 1/3CO ->2/3 Fe3O4 + 1/3CO2 -H = -17.6 kJ
2/3 Fe3O4 + 8/3 CO -> 2Fe + 8/3CO2 -H = -10.5 kJ
a) -361.8 kJ c) -621.4 kJ e) -231.1 kJ
b) 231.5 kJ d) 361.8 kJ
2435. [Day 1] This may be regarded as a corrosion process in which the precipitant metal undergoes corrosion. The major cathodic process sustaining the anodic
dissolution reaction is that of reduction of the more noble metal ions from solution.
a) cementation c) solvent extraction e) ion precipitation
b) precipitation d) ion exchange
2436. [Day 1] In leaching the effect of the size of mineral is inversely proportional to the rate of leaching process. The smaller the interfacial area the fast the
reaction will occur.
a) true b) false
2437. [Day 1] In leaching, agitation increase the diffusion layer thickness thus rate of reaction is also increased.
a) false b) true
2438. [Day 1] During leaching, the diffusion-controlled step is inversely proportional to temperature.
a) true b) false
2439. [Day 1] A furnace burns the following coal using 40% excess air:
%C=78.6; %H=4.6%; %N=1.3; %H2O=5.0; %Ash=6.3
Carbon is not totally burned and the ash is found to analyze 20% carbon. The air used for combustion is moist and carries about 20g of water vapor per cu.m. of dry
air. Calculate the theorertical amount of dry air required per kg of coal referred to standard conditions; and the actual moist air use.
a) 12.87 cu.m. and 13.18 cu.m. respectively d) 15.38 cu.m. and 14.33 cu.m. respectively
b) 13.18 cu.m. and 12.87 cu.m. respectively e) 11.17 cu.m. and 12.18 cu.m. respectively
c) 14.33 cu.m. and 15.38 cu.m. respectively
2440. [Day 1] Bayer process is still used today for alumina production. Which of the following reaction is not related to Bayer process?
a) Al(OH)3 + NaOH <--> NaAlO2 + 2H2O d) Al2O3 <--> 2Al + 3/2 O2
b) AlO(OH) + NaOH <--> NaAlO2 + H2O e) none of the above
c) NaAlO2 + 2H2O <--> Al(OH)3 + NaOH
2441. [Day 1] During leaching of bauxite using bayer process, which of the following is not true?
a) NaOH concetration is 3-12 M d) precipitate calcination to Al2O3 at 1400øC
b) pressure is 4-8 atm e) leaching periood varies from 1-4 hours
c) temperature at 140-180øC
2442. [Day 1] Evaluate: The combined silica and alumina in clays, during leaching using Bayer process will represent the loss of aluminum after the process.
a) true b) false
2443. [Day 1] In bacterial leaching process, mineral oxidative dissolution is brought about by the acidophilic bacteria. Which of the following is/are the bacteria?
a) thiobacillus ferro-oxidan d) a & b only
b) thiobacillus thio-oxidan e) a, b & c
c) bacillus oxidans
2444. [Day 1] The reaction below is the overall reaction of which gold is leached by cyanide
4Au + 8CN~ + O2 + 2H2O <--> 4Au(CN)2~ + 4OH~
Which of the following is the cathodic reaction?
a) 4Au + 8CN~ <--> 4Au(CN)2~ + 4e~ d) O2 + H2O + 2e~ <-> 4OH~
b) O2 + 2H2O + 4e~ <-> 4OH~ e) 2H+ + 2e~ <--> H2
c) 2Au + 8CN~ <--> 2Au(CN)2~ + 2e~
2445. [Day 1] In bacterial leaching, Thio bacillus ferro- oxidans, derives its energy from the oxidation reaction of Fe+2 to Fe+3 and reduction of H+ ions by O2
while Thiobacillus oxidans derives energy from the oxidation of
a) elemental sulfur c) hydrogen gas e) a & d
b) hydrogen ions d) S2O3 ions
2446. [Day 1] This has long been utilized in electroplating and electrorefining processes and this also occurs unintentionally in metallic corrosion phenomena.
a) electro-oxidative leaching c) reductive leaching e) electrolysis
b) direct anodic dissolution d) electroforming
2447. [Day 1] It is a phenomenon that occurs readily in nature with alumino-silicates providing the solid, three dimensional network with which exchangeable
ions are associated.
a) solvent extraction c) ion exchange e) aging
b) bacterial leaching d) leaching
2448. [Day 1] This may be visualized as a three-dimensional network of polymer chains bonded to each other at intervals by cross-linking molecules. The attached
functional groups undergo ionization to yield cations or anions, there being capable of exchange with other ions present in the solution.
a) ion exchange c) solvent e) chelate
b) resin d) ligand
2449. [Day 1] The equation _
B [ B+] x [ H+]
K = ÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄ
H _
[ H+] x [ B+]
where [ ] represents concentrations of ions in the aqueous phase and [~] concentrations of ions in the resin phase.
B
K is _______________ and expresses the ability
H
of the resin to take up B+ cations in preference to H+ ions from a solution containing equal concetrations of H+ and B+ ions.
a) relative selectivity coefficient c) distribution coefficient e) solubility constant
b) equilibrium constant d) diffusivity coefficient
2450. [Day 1] The affinity of metal ions for an ion exchange resin may be expressed alternatively by
mass of metal
(?) = ------------------------------
mass of metal per cu.cm. sol'n
a) distribution coefficient, d c) selectivity coefficient, s e) separation factor, à
b) diffusivity coefficient, d d) equilibirum coefficient, k
2451. [Day 1] This is an expression for the selectivity of one ion relative to another and is analogous to the selectivity coefficient. This is expressed as the ratio of
distribution coefficient.
dB
(?) = ---------
dA
a) distribution coefficient, d
b) diffusivity coefficient, d
c) selectivity coefficient, s
d) equilibirum coefficient, k
e) separation factor, à
2452. [Day 1] An ion exchange reaction represented by RA + B+ <------> RB + A+

can be considered to occur as a series of steps:
i) Transport of B+ ions from the bulk of solution across the diffusion layer surrounding the resin bead.
ii) Diffusion of B+ ions into the interior of the the resin
iii) Exchange between A+ ions and B+ ions
iv) Diffusion of A+ ions outwards the surface of the bead
v) Diffusion of A+ ions across the diffusion layer into the bulk of solution.
Which of the following stages is referred as particle diffusion, i.e., the process occuring within the resin phase?
a) i & iv d) ii & v
b) ii & iii e) i & ii
c) i & v
2453. [Day 1] The following are purpose of ion exchange resin except:
a) recovering metal values
b) removing unwanted, toxic or dangerous constituents
c) recovery of activated carbon
d) purifying water for reuse
2454. [Day 1] These processes utilize the ability of certain solid substances to take up ionic or molecular species preferentially from fluids.
a) adsorption c) solvent extraction e) cementation
b) ion exchange d) precipitation
2455. [Day 1] This is prepared by heating a carbonaceous material in the absence of air (pyrolysis) to produce a residue of carbon while simultaneously volatilizing
other constituents.
a) coke c) activated carbon e) solid fuels
b) charcoal d) carbon fuel
2456. [Day 1] Activation is generally achieved by heating the carbon in steam at a temperature of
a) 600-8000C c) 700-9000C e) 450-5500C
b) 700-8000C d) 500-6000C
2457. [Day 1] The following factors favours the adsorption of gold and silver by activated carbon except:
a) charcoal with a high density of active sites and, to decrease diffusion path length, of as small particles as is practicable
b) higher temperatures
c) lower pH values of solution commensurate with stability of the cynide ions
d) presence of calcium ions
e) low free cyanide ion concentration
2458. [Day 1] The addition of 10% alcohol to the basic alkaline cyanide solution decreases the desorption period during the stripping of gold from activated carbon
from 60-80%.
a) true b) false
2459. [Day 1] Reactivation is brought by heat treatment by steam at
a) 600-8000C c) 500-7000C e) 600-10000C
b) 600-9000C d) 400-5000C
2460. [Day 1] Charcoal adsorption practice for gold and silver has been applied both to solutions from heap leaching that are relatively free from solids and to
leach slurries or pulp without prior solution/solid separation. The latter is referred to as
a) carbon-in-pulp process c) carbon-in-heap process e) carbon adsorption process
b) carbon-in-leach process d) carbon-in-slurry process
2461. [Day 1] The value of the partition constant depends on the nature of the solute and the solvent involved, independent on temperature.
Pø = aB/aA
a) true b) false
2462. [Day 1] For a given metal, the ratio of the total metal concentration in the organic solvent phase to the total of the metal concentration in the aqueous phase
ä [M]o
(?) = -------------
ä [M]aq
a) relative selectivity coefficient, k c) distribution coefficient, d e) recovery factor, R
b) diffusivity coefficient, d d) distribution ratio, D
2463. [Day 1] When a volume Vo of organic solvent is equilibriated with a volume Vaq of the metal-rich aqueous phase, the fraction of the metal extracted into the
organic phase is given by
D
fraction extracted = ------------
D + (Vaq/Vo)
This is also known as
a) relative selectivity coefficient, k c) distribution coefficient, d e) recovery factor, R
b) diffusivity coefficient, d d) distribution ratio, D
2464. [Day 1] The presence of the solvating water molecules increases the similarity between the ionic solvent and the solute. In contrast most organic solvents
are covalent in character, having low dielectric constants. To effect transfer, the metal species must change to a form compatible with the organic solvent. The
following are requirement(s) to bring this about is/are:
a) charge neutralization
b) replacement of the solvating water molecules by covalent type of ligands.
c) replacement of the solvating water molecules by nonchelating agents
d) a & c
e) a & b
2465. [Day 1] Conventional physical chemistry defines the establishment of equilibrium of a solute between two immiscible liquids in terms of this law."A solute
will distribute itself between two immiscible solvents until at equilibrium the ratio of the activities of the solute in two liquids is constant at any given temeprature,
irrespective of the absolute value of the activities."
a) Henry's law c) Partition law e) First law of thermodynamics
b) Sievert's law d) Raoult's law
2466. [Day 1] These compounds are formed between complexing agents which have excess electron pairs, and metal ions with electron pair deficiences. The
transition elements, which have unfilled lower electron orbitals, are particularly susceptible to complex formation.
a) coordination compounds c) transition compounds e) metallic compounds
b) complexing compounds d) alloy compounds
2467. [Day 1] These are the most important group pf coordination compounds from the solvent extraction viewpoint. They are reagents having at least two ligand
atoms in the molecule and thus give rise to ring formation. They are generally insoluble in the aqueos phase but readily soluble in non-polar solvents.
a) chelates c) activated carbon e) ring complexes
b) resin d) liquid cation exchanger
2468. [Day 1] The following are solvent extraction mechanisms except
a) by the formation of uncharged coordination compounds d) by adsorption using activated carbon
b) by ion exchange processes e) none of the above
c) by solvation with ion association
a) cation exchangers
2469. [Day 1] Cation exchange processes involve the exchange
c) acidic cation
of metal
exchangers
cations with the hydrogen ions of the reagent
e) none
dissolved
of the in
above
the organic phase. Such
b) liquid
extractants
cation exchangers
include organic acids such as alkyl phosphoric d) organic
acids and
cation
carboxylic
exchangers
acids. These extractants are termed
2470. [Day 1] Anion exchange processes involve exchange of complex metal anions with anions of long-chain alkyl amines. These include all classes of amines
from tertiary and quartenary ammonium types. These extractants are called
a) amine anion extractant c) liquid anion exchanger e) amine anion exchanger
b) anion exchanger d) ammonium anion exchanger
2471. [Day 1] This involves the replacement of the solvating water molecules of an aquo-cation by organic solvent molecules. Extractants of this type includes
ethers, esters, and ketones. Charge neutralization is achieved by association with an ion of opposite charge.
a) solvation c) adsorption e) solvating water replacement
b) ion exchange d) solvent extraction
2472. [Day 1] The extraction behaviour of a metal may be expressed by the distribution ratio.
a) true b) false
2473. [Day 1] The resin is contained in a column and the metal-rich solution is fed through it slowly enough to allow exchange to occur. This is called
a) sorption step c) absorption step e) reaction step
b) adsorption step d) exchange step
2474. [Day 1] This curve is obtained by monitoring the metal ion concentration in the effluent during the sorption step, and plotting this as a ratio of the influent
solution passing passing through the resin column or against the quantity of metal ions it contains.
a) E-pH diagram c) Breakthrough Curve e) regeneration curve
b) Ellingham diagram d) elution curve
2475. [Day 1] This is the quantity of ions that can be taken up by a resin column under particular conditions before leakage occurs in the effluent.
a) total capacity c) capacity e) adsorption capacity
b) breakthrough capacity d) elution capacity
2476. [Day 1] The ________ of the resin column is an expression of the total number of exchange groups it contains in terms of ion equivalents.
a) total capacity c) capacity e) adsorption capacity
b) breakthrough capacity d) elution capacity
2477. [Day 1] Evaluate this statement for ion-exchange:
For an infinitely slow rate, the breakthrough capacity is identical to total capacity.
a) true b) false
2478. [Day 1] The factors affecting the value of breakthrough capacity are the following except:
a) flow rate c) column dimension e) pressure
b) resin bead size d) temperature
2479. [Day 1] Retained ions are displaced from the resin by passing an excess of an electrolyte, termed the regenerant or eluant, through the resin column.
a) elution step c) sorption step e) a or b
b) regeneration step d) adsorption step
2480. [Day 1] This is a plot of metal ion concentration versus the volume of solution leaving the column, the eluate, is referred to as
a) elution curve c) breakthrough curve e) E-pH diagram
b) regeneration curve d) Ellingham diagram
2481. [Day 1] The following are commonly employed eluting agents except:
a) acids c) complexing agents e) none of the above
b) bases d) salts
2482. [Day 1] The term applied to the more usual ion exchange separation technique where the sought metal is taken up on the resin column while unwanted
elements pass through unsorbed.
a) elution analysis c) selective cation exchange analysis e) sorption analysis
b) frontal analysis d) regeneration analysis
2483. [Day 1] Any substance that decreases the capacity of the ion exchanger is
a) resin c) resin inhibitor e) none of the above
b) resin poison d) resin killer
2484. [Day 1] When two immiscible phases, not at equilibrium are brought into contact, the rate of transfer of a metal from one phase to the other depends on the
extent to which the concentrations of the metal in the two phases differ from the equilibrium values. A concentration gradient is considered to exist at either side of
the interface. If it is assumed that extraction of metal solute involves transfer from phase B to phase S and if symbol C represents concentrations, thus
mathematically
(dn/dt) = k A (C-C) = (dn/dt) = k A (C-C)
B B B Bo S S S So
where A is the area of interface and k is the proportionality constant referred to as mass transfer coefficient. What is this theory?
a) two-film theory d) diffusivity theory
b) penetration theory e) one-film theory
c) surface renewal theory
2485. [Day 1] In this theory on kinetics of solvent extraction,
residence times of eddies (elements of fluids brought by agitation) at the interface are considered to be short and of constant duration.
a) two-film theory c) surface renewal theory e) one-film theory
b) penetration theory d) diffusivity theory
2486. [Day 1] This theory on kinetics of solvent extraction assumes that eddies (elements of fluid brought by agitation) will experience a variety of residence times
before they are swept away to be replaced by further elements of fluid.
a) two-film theory c) surface renewal theory e) one-film theory
b) penetration theory d) diffusivity theory
2487. [Day 1] The maximum degree of separation that can be achieved between two metals (A & B) in a single equilibrium of two phases is governed by the
separation factor, à, and the other is
a) phase ratio c) partition constant e) none of the above
b) distribution ratio d) selectivity ratio
2488. [Day 1] In solvent extraction, it is the ratio of the volume of organic phase to the volume of the the aqueous phase,
r = Vo/Vaq
a) phase ratio c) volume ratio e) selectivity ratio
b) separation ratio d) distribution ratio
2489. [Day 1] In this technique a volume of fresh organic phase is equilibrated with the aqueuos phase at each stage as illustrated below
solvent solvent solvent
ÚÄÄÄÄÄÄÄ¿ ÚÄÄÄÄÄÄÄ¿ ÚÄÄÄÄÄÄÄ¿

Aqueous -->³ 1 ³-->³ 2 ³-->³ 3 ³ ->
feed ÀÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÙ R1ÀÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÙ R2ÀÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÙ R3
extrant 1 extrant 2 extrant 3

where R1, R2 & R3 are the volume of raffinates.
a) cross current extraction c) counter-current batch extraction e) a or b
b) multiple batch extraction d) counter-current continuous extraction
2490. [Day 1] In cross-current or multiple batch, it is possible to calculate the concetration of metal remaining in the raffinate. The concentration of metal
remaining in the aqueous phase after n equilibriation is given by
ä [Maq]n = ä [Maq]o x (Vaq/(Vaq/DVo))ü
where [Maq]o is the initial aqueous concetration.
There are provisions in order for this equation to hold true. Which of the following is not appropriate?
a) distribution ratio remains constant with concentration d) n equilibriations should be large enough
b) mutual solubility of the two phases is zero e) none of the above
c) volume of organic solvent used at each stage is constant
2491. [Day 1] In this batch extraction, the aqueous phase is extracted with the successive volumes of solvent such that fresh organic phase always extracts from the
strongest aqueous phase. This provides the lowest residual concentration of solute in the final raffinate while at the same time producing maximum solute loading
of the organic phase.
Aqueous
feed -->ÚÄÄÄÄÄ¿-->ÚÄÄÄÄÄ¿-->ÚÄÄÄÄÄ¿--> R3
³ 1 ³R1 ³ 2 ³R2 ³ 3 ³
Loaded <--ÀÄÄÄÄÄÙ<--ÀÄÄÄÄÄÙ<--ÀÄÄÄÄÄÙ<-- Organic
solvent E2 E1 phase
where R1, R2 and R3 are raffinates and E2 and E1
are extracts.
a) cross current extraction d) counter-current continuous extraction
b) multiple batch extraction e) a or b
c) counter-current batch extraction
2492. [Day 1] Two phases are equilibriated and then separated in the settler section on counter-current to each other, as shown in the figure below. This type of
processing, although involves continuous flow, does not involve continuous contacting.
mixer settler mixer
ÚÄÄÄÄÄÄ¿ ÚÄÄÄÄÄÄ¿ ÚÄÄÄÄÄÄ¿
AqueousÄ>ÅÄ¿ Ú Å < Å ¿ ÚÄÄÅÄ>ÄÅÄ¿ Ú Å Ä>Organic
feed ÃÄÅÄÄÅÄ´ ³ ³ ³ ³ ÃÄÅÄÄÅÄ´ phase
³³ ³³ ³³³ ³ ³³ ³³
³ ³ ³ ÃÄÄÄÅÄÄ´ ³ ³ ³
³ ÀÄÄÅÄÅÄ>ÄÅÄÅÄÙ ³ ³ ÀÄÄÅÄÅÄ> Raffi-
Loaded<Ä ´Ä Ä Ù ³ ³ À Ä ÄÅ < Å Ä ÄÙ ³ nate
solvent ÀÄÄÄÄÄÄÙ ÀÄÄÄÄÄÄÙ ÀÄÄÄÄÄÄÙ
settler mixer settler
a) cross current extraction c) counter-current batch extraction
b) multiple batch extraction d) counter-current continuous extraction
2493. [Day 1] Certain amounts of unwanted impurities tend to extract into organic phase along with the sought metal, since dissolution ratios are usually not low
enough to neglible concentrations in the solvent. A process to clean up the extract is _________. A suitable aqueous phase is used to encourage the selective
removal of the unwanted constituents.
a) cleaning c) pickling e) stripping
b) scrubbing d) selection
2494. [Day 1] The process of recovery of solute metal from the organic phase with the simultaneous regeneration of the organic phase for futher use. Usually the
metal is extracted back into the aqueous phase by utilizing conditions that favour reversal of the extraction process.
a) stripping c) scrubbing e) regenerating
b) reversing d) pickling
2495. [Day 1] The most effective resin for ion exchange of lanthanoid metals
a) ethylene diamine tetra acetate (EDTA) d) LIX 64N
b) lactate e) NH3
c) XFS 4196
2496. [Day 1] If the copper in copper rich solution after solvent extraction will be recovered by electolysis, which of the following should not be a "property" of
extractant during solvent extraction of copper?
a) it should extract copper selectively from the sulphate leach solution in the range pH 2-3 in the presence of considerable concentrations of Fe +3 and Fe+2
b) it should allow ready stripping from the organic phase with sulfuric acid to provide an aqueous solution that is amenable to copper recovery by electrolysis
c) it should have high toxicity towards the thiobacillus bacteria possibly detrimental in the leaching process
d) it should be stable and have low solubility in aqueous phase
2497. [Day 1] These processes utilize the same basic extraction and stripping reactants that are involved in liquid-liquid solvent extraction processes. The
difference is the greatly reduced amount o organic solvent phase employed. It functions essentially as a membrane via which the metal is transferred from the feed
solution to the stripping agent solution with the extraction and stripping reaction ocurring simultaneously at opposite sides of the membrane.
a) membrane processes c) extraction-stripping membrane processes e) none of the above
b) liquid membrane processes d) extraction-stripping combination
2498. [Day 1] The formation from solution of solid product as the result of dilution or of the addition of a reagent to the solution.
a) adsortion c) leaching e) saturation
b) precipitation d) deposition
2499. [Day 1] The use of a metal to precipitate a second metal is frequently referred to as
a) cementation c) redcutive precipitation e) ion precipitation
b) metal-metal precipitation d) chemical precipitation
2500. [Day 1] This process can be used to separate a metal or group of metals from others, either fro purpose of removing impurities or minor metallic
constituents, or for the recovery from solution of the major metal. This also be used as a scavenging process in the recovery of metals present in solution in low
concentrations prior to such solution going to waste.
a) ion exchange c) precipitation e) concentration
b) metal exchange d) sedimetation
2501. [Day 1] The process in separating the precipitate from solution after precipitation
a) thickening c) filtration e) a and/or c
b) decantation d) elutriation
2502. [Day 1] The particle size of a precipitate is largely determined by this. Mathematically defined as
c - c*
å = ----------
c*
where c is the concentration of the substance to precipitate and c* is its equilibrium solubility.
a) relative supersaturation d) solubility supersaturation
b) concentration saturation e) none of the above
c) solubility saturation
2503. [Day 1] Evaluate this statement on precipitation:

"High relative supersaturation involves a high nucleation rate and a precipitate of small particle size."
a) true b) false
2504. [Day 1] Evaluate this statement on precipitation:
"Precipitate of coarse particle size may be achieved by inducing precipitation from a hot, dilute solution."
a) true b) false
2505. [Day 1] Occlusion of foreign substances may occur as precipitation proceeds. This is decreased by soaking the precipitate with the hot mother liquor for
several hours. During the digestion, smaller particles, having a higher solubility, tend to dissolve slowly while further growth of the larger crystal occurs. This
redissolution liberates contaminating substances which tend to remain in the mother liquor. The process is called
a) heat treatment c) ageing e) pit soaking
b) annealing d) soaking
2506. [Day 1] This is the separation of a solid subsequent to main precipitation process. It mainly occurs on the surface of the original precipitate, thereby
contaminating it. It may occur if there are present in the solution impurity metal ions which also from sparingly soluble salts with the precipitating agent but with
higher solubility.
a) filtration c) sedimentation e) separation
b) post-precipitation d) thickening
2507. [Day 1] Colloids divide into two groups lyophobic and lyophillic colloids. The particles in both types of dispersions are electrically charged. Teh sign of the
charge of one colloid remains constant, the other can change their charge. What is that "other" colloids?
a) lyophillic b) lyophobic
2508. [Day 1] A strong alkali such as sodium hydroxide is generally satisfoactory as precipitating agent for metal hydroxides.
a) true b) false
2509. [Day 1] A common reagent capable of precipitating a number of metal sulphides.
a) H2SO4 c) HCl e) HF
b) H2S d) KBr
2510. [Day 1] Determine the pH of a solution containing Fe+3 ions at an activity of 1 x 10exp[-5] M and Ksp = 3.8 x 10exp[-38]. Does below this value hydrolysis
is possible?
a) 10.8 ; yes c) 3.2 ; yes e) 8 ; yes
b) 10.8 ; no d) 3.2 ; no
2511. [Day 1] During hydrolysis, to control a solution at a specific pH requires the use of an appropriate metallic oxide, hydroxide or carbonate. The other is by
using a
a) buffer c) water e) no other way
b) catalyst d) lime
2512. [Day 1] Iron is ubiquitous and is found in many leach solution as an impurity in small or much larger concentrations. It may be present in the iron(+2) and
iron(+3) oxidation states. Does the two forms behave differently in their tendency to undergo electrolysis?
2513. a) yes b) no c) uncertain
2514. [Day 1] Which of the following oxidized state of iron will precipitate as an impurity at high pH (about pH 8) and remain in solution at lower pH?
a) Fe0 c) Fe++ e) Fe++++
b) Fe+ d) Fe+++
2515. [Day 1] This process introduce roasted zinc calcine into the neutral leach stage where it is leached with the solution from from jarosite separation made up
with spent electrolyte. Much of the zinc oxide calcine dissolves, but there is sufficient excess to effect hydrolysis of the iron(III) remaining in solution. An
important aspect of this reaction is the coprecipitation of a group of impurities including As, Sb, Sn and Ge which if not removed would adversely affect the
cathodic zinc deposition.
a) jarosite process c) Fe(III) hydrolysis e) none of the above
b) neutral leach process d) coprecipitation
2516. [Day 1] Evaluate: To obtain the reduction of a metal from aqueous solution of the reducing system
must be more negative than the potential of the metal system undergoing reduction.
a) true b) false
2517. [Day 1] Evaluate: The change of potential decreases the activation energy for the cathodic process allowing it to take place more readily, and raises it for
the anodic reaction.
a) true b) false
2518. [Day 1] The reuired shift in potential from the equilibrium value to bring about deposition or dissolution and may be prefixed "cathodic" or "anodic"
appropriately.
a) activation overpotential c) dissolution potential e) anodic overpotential
b) reverse potential d) cathodic overpotential
2519. [Day 1] Evaluate: The activation overpotential is strictly positive for a cathodic process and negative
for an anodic process.
a) false b) true
2520. [Day 1] This is an electrolytic extraction processes in which cathodic reduction is used to recover the sought metal from the electrolyte which is derived
from a leaching process.
a) electrorefining c) electrodissolution e) electroextraction
b) electrowinning d) electroleaching
2521. [Day 1] The overpotential required to overcome the resistance of any film on the electrode surface and of the electrolyte.
a) ohmic overpotential c) anodic overpotential e) electrode overpotential
b) activation overpotential d) cathodic overpotential
2522. [Day 1] In electrorefining, the anodes used in the electrolytic cells are inert and generally support a gaseous support a gaseous evolution reaction.
a) true b) false
2523. [Day 1] The anodic reaction is a metal dissolution reaction.
a) electrowinning c) electrodissolution e) electroleaching
b) electrorefining d) electroextraction
2524. [Day 1] The cathodes used in aqueous electrowinning have been traditionally in the form of __________. These are thin sheets of the same metal as that
being deposited. These are usually prepared in special separate electrolytic cells where the metal is deposited on cathode blanks from which the thin
electrodeposited sheet can be readily stripped.
a) cathode sheet c) anode sheet e) copper sheet
b) starting sheet d) mother blank
2525. [Day 1] The __________ of an electrode process is the ratio of the actual extent of electrode reaction to that expected theoretically.
a) current efficiency c) reaction efficiency e) voltage efficiency
b) electrode efficiency d) deposition efficiency
2526. [Day 1] This is the ratio of the mass of metal actually deposited to theoretical mass that could be deposited in accordance with Faraday's laws.
a) current efficiency c) deposition efficiency e) anode current efficiency
b) electrode efficiency d) cathode-current efficiency
2527. [Day 1] This is the potential that must be applied to an electrolytic cell to produce a current through the cell.
a) decomposition c) voltage drop e) a or b or c
b) applied potential d) a or b
2528. [Day 1] This is a technique where higher current densities are allowed to be used by increasing the limiting current density and this is also used to reduce
nodulation. Optimum conditions are claimed to involve a ratio of forward to reverse of between 30:1 and 20:1 with the reverse time of 0.5 to 10 seconds.
a) electrolysis c) forward-reverse current technique e) electrorefining
b) periodic current reversal d) electrowinning
2529. [Day 1] This manifest as a dark powdery deposit occuring as usually on the edges and upper surfaces of the cathodes. It is believed to be associated with the
presence of entrained extractant in the electrolyte abd has been controlled by modifying conditions in the settlers to improve separation of the organic phase of
more effective flotation techniques.
a) organic burn c) nodules e) entrained deposit
b) organic deposit d) dark deposit
2530. [Day 1] This causes short circuiting between anodes and cathodes. This is the result of starting sheet imperfections or from the adhesion of particles
suspended in solution.
a) nodules c) suspended defect e) none of the above
b) organic burn d) organic deposit
2531. [Day 1] In electrowinning of this metal, an aluminum mother blank with a plating area of 1.1 m2.
a) zinc c) nickel e) aluminum
b) copper d) cobalt
2532. [Day 1] Electrowinning of this metal is practiced with soluble and insoluble anode.
b) copper d) cobalt
2533. [Day 1] Which of the following is a nickel anode?
a) nickel-matte c) lead e) a or c
b) antimonal-lead d) a or b
2534. [Day 1] The electrowinning of this metal uses diaphragm cells to separate anode and cathode compartments, and the anodes are encased in loose fitting, open
weave bags to facilitate the removal of slime with the anodes. The anolyte is continuously removed for treatment and the resulting purified nickel solution is fed
into the cathode compartments where deposition occurs on the cathodes.
b) copper d) cobalt
a) fused salt
2535. [Day
electrolysis
1] This is used for the electrowinning of reactive
c) nickel-matte
metals which
electrolysis
cannot be effectively deposited from aqueous
e) electrolyte
solutiondeposition
because hydrogen evolution
b) electroysis
occurs preferentially. d) electrodeposition
2536. [Day 1] What metal is produced by fused salt electrolysis?
b) copper d) cobalt
2537. [Day 1] Fused salt electrolysis is prone to this phenomenon which is a condtion where small particles of the metal are finely dispersed in the electrolyte. It
may be favoured by excessive temperature of by too small anode/cathode spacing. Its occurence decreases current efficiency.
a) metal suspension c) particle dispersion e) particle fog
b) metal dispersion d) metal fog
2538. [Day 1] The electrolytic aluminum reduction cell or pot consists of a steel lined with with carbon blocks. The lining serves as the current conductor to and
container for the layer of reduced molten aluminum above it which actually as the anode during the operation of the cell.
a) true b) false
2539. [Day 1] The recovery of aluminum using Hall-Heroult process is an electrorefining process.
a) true b) false
2540. [Day 1] The cathodic reaction is the reverse of the anodic reaction, i.e., there is no net cell reaction. The impure metal constitute the anode material and
dissolves while at the cathode, metal ions are reduced from solution and deposit.
a) electrodeposition c) electrorefining e) electroextraction
b) electrowinning d) electrodissolution
2541. [Day 1] Those anodes impurities which have potentials more positive than the anode potential will remain undissolved as a residue. This is termed as
a) anode precipitate c) anode remains e) undissolved anode impurity
b) anode slimes d) anode residue
2542. [Day 1] Electrolytic refining is a two-stage purification process in which ideally the elements less noble than the metal being refined remain insoluble at the
anode, and the elements more noble dissolves but do not deposit at the cathode.
a) true b) false
2543. [Day 1] The following are used to produce tough pitch copper (about 0.5% Cu2O) except
a) coke c) coal e) none of the above
b) air d) green wood
2544. [Day 1] Aluminum produced by the Hall-Heroult process is of high purity.
a) true b) false
2545. [Day 1] Which of the following process yields 99.99+% aluminum?
a) Hall-Heroult process c) Hoope's process e) there's no such a process
b) Gadeau process d) Bayer process
2546. [Day 1] Hoope's process is a three layer process. The three layers in the cell consist of Anode (bottom layer): Al-Cu containing 25-33% Cu with some silicon
to decrease the melting point (sp. gr. 2.6 for 25% Cu alloy)
Electrolyte: AlF3 30-37%, NaF 25-30%, BaF2 30-38%, Al2O3 7% (sp.gr. 2.5-2.7)
Cathode: high-purity aluminum (sp.gr. 2.3)
What process basically similar to the Hoope's process except in its use of a mixed chloride/flouride electrolyte having a composition 23% AlF3, 17% NaF, 68% BaCl2?
a) Gadeau process c) Bayer process e) none of the above
b) Hall-Heroult process d) Sheritt-Gordon process
2547. [Day 1] All matter is considered to be composed of unit substances known as
a) atoms c) chemical elements
b) molecules d) electrons
2548. [Day 1] Almost the entire mass of the atom is concetrated in the nucleus which contains
a) protons & electrons c) neutrons and protons
b) electrons and neutrons d) neutrons
2549. [Day 1] It is not possible to determine the exact orbit of an electron but rather its position is determined by the probability that it will be found in a given
region of the atom. This probability is represented mathematically by a certain wave function and the solution of the wave equation leads to four quantities as the
a) energy levels c) energy state
b) shells d) quantum numbers
2550. [Day 1] The atomic weight of an element is the weight of the particular atom relative to the atomic weight of
a) hydrogen c) oxygen
b) nitrogen d) gold
2551. [Day 1] Largely responsible for the chemical behaviour of elements.
a) atoms c) atomic number
b) valence electrons d) protons
2552. [Day 1] Liquids are easily compressed.

a) true b) false
2553. [Day 1] An increase in temperature can change liquids to solid.
a) true b) false
2554. [Day 1] Metals are built up of molecules.
a) true
b) false
2555. [Day 1] The atoms of varying atomic weight are called the ____________ of the element
a) transition atoms c) isotopes
b) energized atoms d) excited state
2556. [Day 1] The double weight form of hydrogen is known as
a) tritium
b) deuterium
c) helium
d) ruthium
2557. [Day 1]A type of bond where there is a transfer of electrons from one atom to another resulting in a strong electrostatic attraction between the positive and
the negative ions.
a) ionic c) metallic
b) covalent d) homopolar bond
2558. [Day 1]A type of bond where the strong bond is due to the attraction of the shared electrons by the positive nuclei.
b) covalent d) van der waals
2559. [Day 1]This bond necessitate the sharing valence electrons by more than two atoms. Each atom contributes its valence electrons to the formation of a
negative electron cloud.
b) covalent d) homopolar
2560. [Day 1]This type of bond arises in neutral atoms such as the inert gases.
b) covalent d) van der waals
2561. [Day 1]Evaluate: "The atomic diameter increases as the no. of occupied shell increases and decreases as the number of valence electrons increases."
a) true b) false
2562. [Day 1]A three-dimesional network of imaginary lines connecting the atoms.
a) crystal c) space lattice
b) unit cell d) crystal structure
2563. [Day 1]The smallest unit having the full symmetry of the crystal.
a) unit cell c) crystal plane
b) crystal lattice d) crystal direction
2564. [Day 1]The property of a material to exist in more than one type of space lattice in the solid state.
a) polymorphism
b) allotrophy
c) amorphous
d) mulit-lattice
2565. [Day 1]These processes are concerned with the production of metals, metallic compounds and metal-based reagents from primary and secondary
metallurgical raw materials wherein some of the chemical reactions are carried in aqueous solutions at ambient temperatures and pressures.
a) mineral processing c) chemical metallurgy e) physical metallurgy
b) pyrometallurgy d) hydrometallurgy
2566. [Day 1]. The dissolution of the ore, or some minerals in the ore involving aqueous solvent.
a) leaching c) solvent extraction e) precipitation
b) hydrometallurgy d) ion exchange
2567. [Day 1]The desired metals is brought into solution for subsequent recovery.
a) concentration leaching c) dissolution e) solvent leaching
b) separation leaching d) metal leaching
2568. [Day 1]This involves dissolution of undesirable constituent in the ore leaving a valuable residue (chemical beneficiation).
a) concentration leaching c) reverse leaching e) solvent leaching
b) separation leaching d) metal leaching
2569. [Day 1]Which of the following is/are not the objective(s) of solution purification and concentration?
a) removing any undesirable constituent in the pregnant solution which may interfere in subsequent recovery of metals
b) removing any undesirable constituent in the pregnant solution which may result ion recovery of the impure metal
c) removing any undesirable constituent in the pregnant solution which may consume reagents in the final recovery stage
d) to increase concentration of metal in the pregnant solution and make final metal recovery economically viable
e) to recover the desired metal directly from the pregnant solution
2570. [Day 1]This process make use of synthetic polymer resins (C-based), specifically designed to "exchange" with particular metal ion species.
a) species exchange c) ion-exchange e) leaching
b) solvent extraction d) metalwinning
2571. [Day 1]In this process the desired metal is extracted from the pregnant solution using organic solvent which is particularly insoluble in water.
a) liquid ion exchange c) solvent extraction e) a or c
b) ion exchange d) insoluble solvent extraction
2572. [Day 1] The following are the basis in choosing leaching reagents except
a) chemical/physical property of the material to be leached d) duration of leaching process
b) cost, toxicity and amenability to regeneration e) reagent selectivity, i.e., dissolving only the desired metal
c) corroding action of the reagent and materials of construction
2573. [Day 1]Higher concentration of leaching reagent means less selectivity and lower concentration means lower rate of leaching.
a) true b) false
2574. [Day 1]Temperature enhances leaching and increases the amount of impurity.
a) true b) false
2575. [Day 1]The higher the contact time between the leaching reagent and the ore results in dissolution of impurities.
a) true b) false
2576. [Day 1]This is used in leaching calcines from sulphating or chloridizing roast.
a) water c) bases e) chlorine water
b) salts solution d) acids
2577. [Day 1] This is once used for gold recovery.
2578. [Day 1]This is the most important acid leachant being the cheapest and has the least corrosion effects.
a) HCl c) H2SO4 e) H2CO3
b) HNO3 d) HF
2579. [Day 1]These leaching reagents have minimum corrosion effect, suitable for carbonaceous ores and very selective. These are also regenerable.
2580. [Day 1]This leaching process is done in reactors which are sealed under high temperatures and pressures. This has faster leaching rates , e.g., leaching of
bauxite and nickeleferrous laterites. Special materials are used for vessels construction.
a) pressure leaching c) agitation leaching e) vat leaching
b) high-temperature leaching d) reaction leaching
2581. [Day 1] These are phase equilibrium stability diagrams that gives the stable phases or species to be expected at certain pH and reaction potential.
a) elution curve c) breakthrough curve e) Eh-pH diagram
b) regeneration curve d) Ellingham diagram
2582. [Day 1]The following are related to Eh-pH diagram except
a) Equilibrium constant c) pH e) activation energy
b) Gibb's Free Energy d) Nernst Equation
2583. [Day 1]Two kinds of information that can be obtained from reaction rates: (i) valuable engineering data for plant design and (ii) detailed analysis of reaction
mechanism, allowing the prediction of results under a variety of conditions (characterization of the effect of variables), and the effect is a mathematical model
which describes the physical behaviour of the system.
a) true b) false
2584. [Day 1]The energy barrier which must be overcome during the transformation from one metastable state to another.
a) Gibb's Free Energy c) activation energy e) metastable energy
b) internal energy d) transformation energy
2585. [Day 1]In 1889, Arrhenius proposed the rate law expression,
thermal dpepndence given its simplest form where k = specific rate constant, A=freq factor constant, -E = energy of activation, R = gas constant, T = temperature. Who
tried to give Arrhenius equation a theoretical basis?
a) Wenzel c) Vant Hoff e) Clausius
b) Wilhelmy d) Eyring
2586. [Day 1] This reactions occurs completely within one phase (liquid/gas). The steps involved are
(i) diffusion of reactants toward each other -E = 3 to 5 kcal
(ii) chemical reaction, -E = 10 to 25 kcal
(iii) diffusion of products, -E = 3 to 5 kcal
a) heterogeneous reaction c) homogeneous reaction e) none of the above
b) solution reaction d) diffusion reaction
2587. [Day 1]This process which tends to equalize concentration in a single-phase. The driving force is the difference in concentration (flow from high to low
concentration; entropy -driven). Mathematically,
where J = flux = rate of movement of materials;

D = diffusivity; dc/dx = concentration gradient in x direction.
a) heterogeneous reaction c) homogeneous reaction e) none of the above
b) solution diffusion d) diffusion reaction
2588. [Day 1]This process is a distribution reaction wherein the valuable metal is allowed to partition itself between two immiscible phases.
a) ion exchange c) leaching e) stripping
b) solvent extraction d) immiscible extraction
2589. [Day 1]Losses of solvent during solvent extraction process are due to the solubility of organic phase in a aqueous phase and mechanical entrainment.
a) true b) false
2590. [Day 1]This is an active (and expensive) constituent of organic phase. It must be selective, high extractive capacity, easily stripped, safe to handle, can
separate easily from water, stable during storage, and relatively cheap.
a) resin c) extractant e) none of the above
b) solvent d) liquid resin
2591. [Day 1]These extractant are light, volatile & highly flammable. The general formula id R - O - R' and extracts metal ions from HF, HCl and HNO3 solutions
but not from H2SO4. The extraction capacity decreases with increasing molecular weight.
a) ethers c) alcohols e) oximes
b) esters d) aldehydes
2592. [Day 1]This extractant has chemical formulae
R
³
R - CH2OH R - CHOH - R R - COH - R
primary secondary tertiary
Their solubility in water decreases with increasing molecular weight and used to separate cobalt from nickel.
2593. [Day 1]Its common form is formaldehyde. Its formula is
HC ÄÄÄÄÄÄÄÄ HC
º º
HC ÄÄ O ÄÄ C - CHO
It is colorless, pleasnt smelling and 9% soluble in water. It is use in purification of lubricating oils.
2594. [Day 1]These extractant are used for extraction of metal ions in the ammonia system. Its commercial form is LIX 54 (á diketone), a liquid ion extractant.
CH3
³
CÍO
³
CH2
³
CÍO
³
CH3
a) ion extractants c) ketones e) formaldehyde
b) diketones d) alcohol
2595. [Day 1]These extractants are compounds containing the
Í N - OH group which are used primarily for
metal precipitation. Example
CH3 - C - C - CH3 OH NOH
º º 3 ³ ³
N N R ÄÄ C ÄÄÄÄÄÄ C ÄÄ P
³ ³ ³
OH OH Rý
Dimethyl Glyoxime LIX 63 / à-hydroxyoxime
(DMG) (used for copper)
2596. [Day 1]In this extraction mechanism electrically neutral molecules interact with the extractant to form addition compounds. The most suitable are those
having oxygen with electron lone pairs,e.g.,
C2H5 C2H5
³ ³
O + HFeCl4 --> O.HFeCl4
³ ³
C2H5 C2H5
diethyl ethers extracting Fe from HCl solution
a) ion-pair transfer c) chelate extraction e) lone pair extraction
b) ion-exchange d) electron exchange
2597. [Day 1]In this process the metal ion transfer from aqueous to organic phase accompanied by a transfer from the organic in order to preserve electrical
neutrality.
a) ion-pair transfer c) chelate extraction e) lone pair extraction
b) ion-exchange d) electron exchange
2598. [Day 1] In cation exchange the extracted species is a positively charged ion and the the extractant is an acid.
a) true b) false
2599. [Day 1]These are organic solvents in which the extractant is soluble but is immiscible with water. Common of these solvents are kerosene, naphtha, benzene,
toluene and carbon tetrachloride. They are not able to extract metals ions but could greatly affect behaviour of extractant.
a) carriers c) liquid resin e) extractant
b) resin d) semi-extractant
2600. [Day 1] Mixed extractant extraction use more than one extractant and a synergistic effect is sometimes observed wherein mixed extraction is better than the
sum of individual effects. The following are posible reasons except:
a) addition mechanisms where one extractant reacts metal ions producing a complex readily soluble in the other extractant.
b) substitution mechanisms where one extractant becomes available after its combined complex react with the other extractant
c) the metal ions will readily react with the mixed extractants
d) solvation mecahnisms where the decrease in hydration causes an increase in extraction
2601. [Day 1]Multiple extraction is preferred over single extraction for the same for the same organic phase volume.
a) true b) false
2602. [Day 1]Calculate the amount of copper extracted with 50 ml organic phase using single extraction.
Given: 50 ml pregnat solution (aqueous) analyzing 500 gpl Cu; distribution ratio (D) = 10.
a) 22.72 g c) 24.305 e) 3.472
b) 25 g d) 20.833
2603. [Day 1]Calculate the amount of copper extracted with 50 ml organic phase using 2 extraction 25 ml organic phase each. Given: 50 ml pregnat solution
(aqueous) analyzing 500 gpl Cu; distribution ratio (D) = 10.
a) 22.72 g c) 24.305 e) 3.472
b) 25 g d) 20.833
2604. [Day 1] This diagram is used for estimating the theoretical no. of stages required in a solvent extraction system. It has two components
i) distibution isotherm - equilibrium diagram of metal partitioning between the organic and
aqueous phase. This is experimentally determined.
ii) operating line which based on engineering decision defined by this equation Y1 = A/O (Xo-Xn) + Yn+1
where A =volumetric flow rate of aqueous phase
O =volumetric flow rate of organic phase
Xo=initial metal conc. in aqueous phase
Xn=final metal conc. in aqueous phase
Yn+1=initial metal conc.in organic phase
Y1 = final metal conc.in organic phase
a) Eh-pH diagram d) Ellingham diagram
b) elution curve e) breakthrough curve
c) McCabe-Thiele diagram
2605. [Day 1]The following are the steps involved during ion-exchange.
i) sorption iii) elution step
ii) water wash iv) water wash
What step when adsorbed metal ions impurities from the bed is removed?
a) i c) iii e) ii or iv
b) ii d) iv
2606. [Day 1]The following are the steps involved during ion-exchange.
i) sorption iii) elution step
ii) water wash iv) water wash
What step when adsorbed metal ions are discharged into a small volume of stripping solution?
a) i c) iii e) i or iv
b) ii d) iv
2607. [Day 1] The following are types of exchangers

i) natural or synthetic (zeolityes and diatomite) - water softeners iii) cationic or anionic
ii) organic or inorganic iv) water
a) true b) false
2608. [Day 1] This old and simple way of recovering metal from solution utilizes difference in solubility. Generally this produces a metallic compound.
a) crystallization c) saturation e) chemical saturation
b) cementation d) supersaturation
2609. [Day 1]The following are true regarding solubility except
a) T < 1000C - solubility increases
b) 1000C < T < 2000C 0 complex formation
c) T > 2000C - solubility is nil and precipitation occurs
d) solubility is increased by addition of organic solvents miscible in water
e) use of complexing agents ease precipitation
2610. [Day 1]The best activated carbon is coconut shell carbon.
a) true b) false
2611. [Day 1]The heating of carbonaceous material at 600øC in absence of air.
a) carbonization c) activation e) adsorption
b) pyrolysis d) reactivation
2612. [Day 1]This is heating in absence of air.
2613. [Day 1]This is the controlled burning of carbon with steam or air at temperature between 4000C & 8000C.
2614. [Day 1]Which of the following substances from cyanide solutions can poison activated charcoal? This substances block the pores of the activated carbon.
a) sodium cyanide c) sulfuric acid e) none of the above
b) lime d) dissolved metal impurities
2615. [Day 1]Reactivation of charcoal is necessary prior to recycle. The required heating is up to 10000C for
a) 30 min c) 90 min e) 150 min
b) 60 min d) 120 min
2616. [Day 1]This has advanced the field of powder metallurgy by producing metal in powdered state.
a) precipitation by gases c) electrodeposition e) solvent extraction
b) cementation d) ion exchange
2617. [Day 1]The following are theoretical guidelines in precipitation using gases except
a) solubility of salts increases to about 1500C, then decreases with further increase in temeprature
b) metal ions will likely to precipitate in the presence of soluble salts at high temperatures
c) presence of other salts influence solubility of a particular salt
d) solubility of gases decrease with temperature up to 1000C, then increases markedly as T is increased further
e) precipitation occurs rapidly at high temperature
2618. [Day 1]This gas which may exist as by-product of petroleum refinery, is used to recover Ni and Co by precipitation. The precipitation rate is greatly
enhanced by addition of a seed. When precipitation rate is high, fine precipitates may result which are harder to filter. This also generate acid during preicipitation.
a) hydrogen sulfide c) carbon monoxide e) hydrogen
b) sulfur dioxide d) carbon dioxide
2619. [Day 1] This gas produces copper sulfite from copper solution at room temperature and at 1000C & 150 psi, this produces metallic copper. This is also used
to precipitate metallic selenium from selenous acid, obtained from scrubbing SeO2 fumes during acid treatment of anodic slimes from copper electrolysis, and
water.
b) sulfur dioxide d) carbon disulfide
2620. [Day 1] This the most versatile gas used in precipitation. It can precipitate ions as metal oxide or sulfides. Its commercial applications includes recovery of
copper from ammonia solutions and in Sherritt-Gordon process.
b) sulfur dioxide d) carbon dioxide
2621. [Day 1]The precipitation of gold using zinc dust is
a) reductive precipitation c) chemical precipitation e) oxidative precipitation
b) cementation d) cementation
2622. [Day 1] This law states that for every 96,500 coulumbs (Ampere-sec) of current passed through the electrolyte, one chemical equivalent of substance is
collected at the cathode and one chemical equivalent is liberated at the anode.
a) Coulumb's law c) Faraday's law e) Electrodeposition law
b) Ampere's law d) Law of chemical equivalence
2623. [Day 1]. The cathodic reaction by electolytic deposition is
M+2 + 2e- -----> M0
What is the anodic reaction?
a) 2H+ + 2e- ---> H2 c) H2O ---> 1/2 O2 + 2H+ + 2e- e) any reaction which involves loss of electrons
b) M0 ----> M+2 + 2e- d) H2 --> 2H+ + 2e-
2624. [Day 1] This is the actual quantity of substance deposited divided by the theoretical amount as defined by Faraday's law.
a) current efficiency c) deposition effeciency e) none of the above
b) voltage efficiency d) process efficiency
2625. [Day 1]The potential needed to make reactions proceed.
a) cell voltage c) polarization overpotential e) there is no voltage needed to make the
b) voltage drop d) reversible electrochemical potential reactions proceed.
2626. [Day 1]This defined by this mathematical expression
E = IR;
IR
where R = r(l/s); r = electrolyte resistivity and is a function of electrolyte type and ion concetrations; l = electrode spacing; and
s = cross sectional area of electrode.
a) cell voltage c) polarization overpotential e) ohmic potential
b) potential drop in electrolyte d) reversible electrochemical potential
2627. [Day 1]The potential due to resistance at electrical contacts and is about 0.15 V.
a) cell voltage c) polarization overpotential e) ohmic potential
b) voltage drop d) reversible electrochemical potential
2628. [Day 1]The potential required to overcome passivation of the electrodes.
a) cell voltage
b) voltage drop
c) polarization overpotential
d) reversible electrochemical potential
e) ohmic potential
2629. [Day 1]In electrowinning of zinc, the zinc concentration is 100 gpl and the H2SO4 concentration is 100 gpl. Calculate for the cell voltage.
a) 0.826 c) 1.40 e) 3.72
b) 0.40 d) 3.67
2630. [Day 1]Calculate the thickness of Cr plating deposited in 2 1/2 minutes at a current of efficiency of 14%. Cr is in the form of CrO3 in solution and has a
density of 7.1 g/cc. Applied current is 100 ampereres.
a) 0.000052 cm c) 0.034122 cm e) 0.020313 cm
b) 0.000321 cm d) 0.000021 cm
2631. [Day 1]In a copper electrowinning plant, the average resistivity of the electrolyte is 5.00 ê per cm. The electrode spacing is 4.0cm. Gas overpotential at the
anode is 0.5 volts. Current density is 165 amp/mý, current efficiency is 85% and current per tank is 1000 amperes, voltage drop from cathode plate to bus bar is
0.05v, anode plate to bus bar is 0.10v. The overall reaction is
CuSO4 + H2O->Cu0+ H2SO4 + 1/2 O2 -H = -56,620 cal
What is the potential drop in the electrolyte, the reversible potential, total cell potential, the weight of copper deposited per day per tank, power consumption, in KW,
per tank, and power consumption, in KWH, per kg copper recovered respectively?
a) 0.33v,1.23v,2.21v,24.20kg,2.21KW &2.19KWH/KgCu c) 0.33v,1.23v,2.21v,22.20kg,2.14KW &1.39KWH/KgCu
b) 0.33v,1.23v,2.21v,20.20kg,1.21KW &4.19KWH/KgCu d) 0.33v,1.23v,2.21v,22.20kg,2.22KW &3.11KWH/KgCu
2632. [Day 1]In gold cyniding two chemical equation was formulated. One is the Bodlander equation
2Au + 4NaCN + 2H2O + O2 -> 2NaAu(CN)2 + H2O2 + NaOH
or (another form of Bodlander equation)
2Au + 4NaCN + H2O2 -> 2NaAu(CN)2 + 2NaOH
The other equation is
4Au + 8KCN + H2O + O2->4KAu(CN)2 + KOH
a) Elnersk equation c) Debye-Huckle equation e) Conventional cyniding equation
b) Bayer's Equation d) Mac-Arthur-Forrest equation
2633. [Day 1] Lime is added during the leaching of gold by cyanide in order to keep a pH of greater or equal to 10. This is done in order to
a) make the gold-cyanide system basic so that no corrosion will occur
b) to prevent the action of cyanicides
c) to prevent the formation of a highly toxic and volatile HCN gas
d) to balance the feed
2634. [Day 1]These are substances that consumes the cyanide, thus, increasing the cyanide requirement.
a) lime c) dissolution inhibitors e) cyanide eaters
b) cyanicides d) metallic impurities
2635. [Day 1] High lime content can prevent the dissolution of gold in a cynidation process.
a) true b) false
2636. [Day 1]This process is used in recovering gold by electrowinning, at 48 hours for one batch. The loaded activated carbon is stripped first at the elution tank
before feeding the stripped solution to the electrowinning tank at current density of 2.5 amperes/ft 2, the cathode being a steel wool. The cell voltage is 2.5 volts.
The electrolyte from the electrowinning tank is heated/boiled at temperature temperature greater than 90 0C and then recirculated to the elution tank for stripping.
a) Zadra process c) Bodlander process e) none of the above
b) Bayer process d) Elsnerk process
2637. [Day 1]This is a branch of analytical chemistry generally defined as the quantitative estimation of the metals in ores and furnace products.
a) fire assaying c) metallurgical accounting e) chemical analysis
b) quantitative analysis d) assaying
2638. [Day 1]This is the quantitative determination of metals in ores and metallurgical products by means of heat and dry reagents. This involves the separation of
the metal from the other constituents of the ore and weighing it in the of purity.
a) fire assaying c) heat assaying e) quantitative analysis
b) dry assaying d) assaying
2639. [Day 1]It is something which converts compounds infusible at a certain temperature into other form which melt at this temperature. In other words, this
lower the melting temperature of the ore.
a) reducing agent c) flux e) sulfurizing agent
b) slag d) oxidizing agent
2640. [Day 1]For a basic substance, a basic flux such as litharge, sodium carbonate, limestone, or iron oxide should be added while for an acidic substance, an
acid flux such as silica or borax should be used.
a) true b) false
2641. [Day 1]This causes the separation of a metal from the substances chemically combined with it, or effects the "stepping down" of a compound from a higher
to a lower degree of oxidation.
a) reducing agent c) oxidizing agent e) flux
b) sulphurizing agent d) desulphurizing agent
2642. [Day 1]A reagent with gives up its oxygen readily.
a) reducing agent c) oxidizing agent e) flux
b) sulphurizing agent d) desulphurizing agent
2643. [Day 1]A substance which has a strong affinity for sulfur and which has the capability to separate it from some of its compounds.
a) reducing agent
b) sulphurizing agent
c) oxidizing agent
d) desulphurizing agent
e) flux
2644. [Day 1] Any solution is composed of 2 points: a solute and a solvent. The amount of solute that may be dissolved by the solvent is generally a function of
what?
a) rate of dissolution c) temperature
b) agitation d) volume of solvent
2645. [Day 1] If the solvent is dissolving less of the solute than it could dissolve at a given temperature and pressure, it is said to be
a) supersaturated
b) unsaturated
c) saturated
d) semi-saturated
2646. [Day 1]In fire assaying, this the strongest available acid reagent. This combine with metal oxides to form silicates which are the foundation of almost all
slags.
a) borax c) silica e) potassium carbonate
b) glass d) litharge
2647. [Day 1]Which of the following is the chemical formula of borax?
a) Na2B4O7.10H2O
b) Na2B4O7
c) NaHB4O7
d) Na2B4O7.SiO2
e) KNO3.B4O7
2648. [Day 1]This is made by fusing borax to drive its water of crystallization and then cooling and crushing the solidified glassy residue.
a) fused borax c) hydrated borax e) none of the above
b) borax glass d) crystallized borax
2649. [Day 1]A basic flux and by far the cheapest one for assay purposes; may act as desulfurizing and oxidizing agent due to the ease in which sulphides and
sulphates are formed.
a) Na2CO3 c) K2CO3 e) PbO
b) KNO3 d) NaHCO3
2650. [Day 1]This is used by some assayers as an alkaline flux, mainly because of its cheapness and purity. This contributes to so-called "dusting" loss.
b) KNO3 d) NaHCO3
2651. [Day 1]A basic flux, similar in its action to sodium carbonate but more expensive.
b) KNO3 d) NaHCO3
2652. [Day 1]A readily fusible basic flux. It is a deoxidizing and desulfurizing agent and when reduced, supplies the metal necessary for the collection of gold and
silver.
a) PbO c) CaCO3 e) NaHCO3
b) Na2CO3 d) K2CO3
2653. [Day 1]The purity of litharge is
a) 92.8% c) 76.1% e) 95.0%
b) 89.2% d) 82.0%
2654. [Day 1]This is used in scorification assy as a collector of metals and as a flux. If it is in the form of foil is used it is used in the fire assay of gold, silver and
lead bullion.
a) PbO c) Na2CO3 e) K2CO3
b) Pb d) Borax
2655. [Day 1] A powerful oxidizing agent. It is used in fire assay to oxidize sulphides, arsenides, antimonides, etc. When present in large amounts cause boiling of
the crucible charge and neccesitates careful heating to prevent loss.
a) niter c) K2CO3 e) NaNO3
b) AgNO3 d) PbO
2656. [Day 1]The following are furnace room supplies in fire assaying except
a) muffles c) scorifier e) furnace tools
b) crucibles d) furnace
2657. [Day 1] This is a semi-cylindrical receptacle of fireclay or other refrctory material, set horizontally and so arranged that the fuel or products of combustion
pass around and under it.
a) muffle c) scorifier e) furnace tool
b) crucible d) furnace
2658. [Day 1]These are mixture of raw and burned clay or mixture of sand and clay.
a) muffles c) scorifier e) furnace tools
b) crucibles d) furnace
2659. [Day 1] The following are properties of good crucibles except
a) can withstand high temperature without softening
b) good strength to stand handling and shipping without breaking
c) permeable to substances fused in them and to the products of combustion
d) can withstand the chemical action of the substances fused in them
e) can stand to sudden changes in temperature without cracking
2660. [Day 1]These are shallow fireclay dishes used in the scorification assay of gold and silver ores.
a) muffles c) scorifiers e) furnace tools
b) crucibles d) furnaces
2661. [Day 1]In fire assaying these are the crucible tongs, scorifier tongs, cupel tongs, annealing and parting cup tongs, muffle scrapers and spatulas, molds, cupel
trays, etc.
a) furnace tools c) muffles e) scorifiers
b) furnace accesories d) furnace equipments
2662. [Day 1] One avoirdupois short ton is
a) 2000 lbs c) 1000 lbs e) 988 kg
b) 1000 kg d) 2200 lbs
2663. [Day 1]A troy ounce is
a) 16 grams c) 30.0 grams e) 29.166 grams
b) 31.1 grams d) 28.166 grams
2664. [Day 1]One dry metric ton is
a) 1000 kg c) 2000 lbs e) 988 kg
b) 2000 kg d) 1200 kg
2665. [Day 1]Gold is measured in terms of fines or carats. Fines is parts per thousand (ppt) and carats is parts Au per 24, e.g., 900 fines Au is 90% Au and 24 K is
100% gold. What is the number of carats for 800 fines Au?
a) 19.2 K c) 22 K e) 16.2 K
b) 20 K d) 18.4 K
2666. [Day 1]A quantity of ore in which 1 mg of Au or Ag is equivalent to 1 troy ounce per short ton.
a) avoirdupois short ton c) long ton e) ton
b) assay ton d) dry metric ton
2667. [Day 1]An assay ton is equal to
a) 21.759 grams c) 25.849 grams e) 29.269 grams
b) 29.167 grams d) 28.196 grams
2668. [Day 1]In fire assaying, this is used as a flux when the ore is deficient in silica and serves to protect the crucible and scorifiers from the corrosive action of
the litharge.
a) silica b) lime e) sodium carbonate
b) borax d) potassium carbonate
2669. [Day 1]In fire assaying, this is used in place of silica.
a) borax c) glass e) lime
b) borax glass d) Na2CO3
2670. [Day 1] Assay litharge should be free from this element as this will be reduced during the fusion and, owing to its slow rate of oxidation will concentrate in
the lead during cupellation finally giving irregular silver results.
a) bismuth c) lithium e) silicon
b) cobalt d) boron
2671. [Day 1]This is a reducing agent and basic flux. It is a crude bitortrate of potassium obtained from wine barrels and is one of the best reducing agents.
a) KNO3 c) K2CO3 e) Na2CO3
b) Argols d) KCl
2672. [Day 1]This metal should be always be used in lead assay. It is desulphurizing and reducing agent. It decomposes all fusible lead silicates by replacing the
lead.
a) copper c) cobalt e) nickel
b) bismuth d) iron
2673. [Day 1]This is used as a cover to exclude the air, and to wash the sides of the crucible and prevent small particles of lead from adhering thereto.
a) BaCl2 c) NaCl e) K2SO4
b) KCl d) Na2SO4
2674. [Day 1]The "undesirables" fusion products in fire assaying.
a) matte and slag c) lead button and matte e) matte and speiss
b) lead button and slag d) slag and speiss
2675. [Day 1]Which of the following is not an appropriate property of lead button?
a) bright and soft c) should contain practically all the gold and d) ductile
b) should separate easily from slag silver e) malleable
2676. [Day 1] It is a fusible compound of earthy or metallic oxides and silica or other acid constituents. In fire assaying these are usually silicates or borates of the
metallic oxides contained in the ore and fluxes used.
a) lead button c) matte e) cover
b) speiss d) slag
2677. [Day 1] It is an artificial sulphide of one or more metals, formed in the dry way. In assaying it is most often encountered in the niter fusion of sulphide ores
when the charge is acid. It is found lying just above the lead button and always carry some of the gold and silver and as it is brittle, it is usually broken off and lost
in the slag in cleaning of the lead button.
b) speiss d) slag
2678. [Day 1]It is an artificial, metallic arsenide or antimonide formed in smelting operations. As obtained in the fire assay, it is usually an arsenide of iron
approaching the composition of Fe5As.
b) speiss d) slag
2679. [Day 1]In muffle furnaces, the crucible is in direct contact with the fuel or flame and the contents, therefore, more or less subject to the action of the products
of combustion. It has also the advantage of size.
a) true b) false
2680. [Day 1]It is a small amount of which contains all the components in the proportions in which they occur in the original lot.
a) assay c) representative e) none of the above
b) sample d) feed
2681. [Day 1]A sample of 23.75 kg was crushed to pass a 40-mesh sieve. On sieve 25 grams, this yielded 6.2750 grams of gold. Through sieve 23,600 grams (loss
125 grams). A sample from this of 5825 grams was crushed to pass a 120-mesh sieve. On sieve 3 grams. This yielded 1.6720 grams of gold. Through the sieve
5803 grams (loss 20 grams). The fine ore assays 1.21 ounces gold per ton. Calculate the ore assay in oz per ton.
a) 17.27 c) 6.725 e) 0.981
b) 14.06 d) 6.180
2682. [Day 1] In fire assaying, this is the melting of the charges with the acid of heat and fluxes. The impurities are slagged off and presious metals are collected in
a lead button. The need of knowing the approximate amount of mineral is important.
a) cupellation c) heating e) smelting
2683. [Day 1]In fire assaying, a good slag is more or less glassy and not brittle.
a) true b) false
2684. [Day 1]In fire assaying, too acidic slag is lumpy and breaks off short of pouring and too basic slag is viscous abs stringy, and the last drop form a thread
when pouring.
a) false b) true
2685. [Day 1]This is freed salts on top of slag layer which prevents contact between atmosphere and other fusion products. It may be white or black, depending on
the type of salt.
a) salt cover c) atmosphere cover e) none of the above
b) cover layer d) top cover
2686. [Day 1]The lead button is separated from the slag and then treated by this process. This consists of an oxidizing fusion in a porous vessel.
a) fusion c) cupellation e) washing
b) inquartation d) parting
2687. [Day 1]In this process Pb is oxidized to PbO which is selectively absorbed by the cupel leaving a rounded Au-Ag bead called the DorŠ bead.
2688. [Day 1]What process responsible for the greatest normal errors in fire assaying.
2689. [Day 1] In fire assaying, this is usually blue-gray in color, nearing galena in composition, and very brittle.
a) slag c) matte e) Dore
b) speiss d) Pb button
2690. [Day 1] Bone ash cupel is made from the calcination of animal bones; characterized by the presence of organic matter and carbonates, nitrates, etc. which
can decompose at cupellation temperature is undesirable because of the evolution of gases causing
a) spitting c) splitting e) sprouting
b) boiling d) spattering
2691. [Day 1]This cupel gives lower losses than pure bone ash cupels and it is stronger due to internal bonding.
What is this cupel?
a) composite bone-ash-lime cupel c) composite bone-ash-cement cupel e) composite magnesia-lime cupel
b) composite bone-ash-dextrene cupel d) composite magnesia-cement cupel
2692. [Day 1]This cupel has the advantage of having better heat capacity and thermal conductivity resulting to lower silver losses. This is purchased as finished
products.
a) magnesia cupel c) cement cupel e) none of the above
b) bone ash cupel d) lime cupel
2693. [Day 1]Complete the cupel making procedure below:
Mixture - 1 part bone ash, ______________ part(s)
cement, water just enough mixture will cohere
when firmly pressed in the hands.
Molding - use of foot-lever machine at __________
psi, pressure for a cupel height of 1.25 inches
(can handle a 30 g Pb lead button)
Air Drying - air dried at least ___________ days
before use.
a) 3; 900-1500; and 3 respectively c) 2; 800-1600; and 2 respectively e) 2; 900-1600; and 3 respectively
b) 2; 900-1500; and 2 respectively d) 3; 800-1600; and 2 respectively
2694. [Day 1] Too dense a cupel, increases the cupellation time and cupellation temperature, thus increasing silver loss. Too porous a cupel, there is a danger of
greater loss, due to the ease with which small particles of alloy can pass into the cupel. The bowl of the cupel should be made to hold a weight of lead equal to the
weight of the cupel.
a) true b) false
2695. [Day 1]Flat shallow cupels minimizes losses of precious metals.
a) true b) false
2696. [Day 1]In cupellation, this signifies that lead has begun to oxidize rapidly, raising the temperature of the molten alloy considerably above that its
surrounding, whence it appears bright.
a) uncovering b) brightening c) oxidizing
d) covering e) none of the above
2697. [Day 1]The following are factors to be closely controlled for successful cupellation except
a) muffle temperature - should be kept uniform c) cupel dimensions - should be kept uniform e) a & c
b) furnace draft - to provide oxidizing and carefully measured to prevent losses
atmosphere d) b & c
2698. [Day 1] If the buttons are practically pure lead the temperature of uncovering is 8500C. In the presence of impurities such as antimony, cobalt, nickel, etc.,
uncovering temperature will decrease.
a) false b) true
2699. [Day 1]In cupellation, this is the formation of thick concentric rings of PbO which stops further oxidation of cupellation caused by too low temperatures or
too fast oxidation
a) freezing c) blick e) sprouting
b) brightening d) uncovering
2700. [Day 1]As the litharge covering (in cupellation) becomes very thin and being variable thickness, gives an effect of interference of light, so that the bead
appears to revolve and presents a sucession of rainbow colors. This phenomenon is termed
a) rainbowing c) arraying of colors e) none of the above
b) play of colors d) prismism
2701. [Day 1]In cupellation, this follows the phenomenon "play of colors". The lead becomes dull and after a few seconds appears bright and silvery.
a) freezing c) blick e) sprouting
b) brightening d) uncovering
2702. [Day 1]In cupellation, as the bead solidifies it will ______________,i.e., suddenly emit a flash of light due to the release of the latent heat of fusion, which
raises the temperature very much for a short time.
a) blick c) uncover e) none of the above
b) brighten d) spark
2703. Day 1]In cupellation, this is the formation of the caulifower-like growth on the surface of the bead due to sudden escape of oxygen dissolved in the molten
silver and expelled where the bead solidifies.
a) sprouting c) blicking e) a or b
b) spitting d) uncovering
2704. [Day 1] This is the selective dissolution of the silver and other base metals from the dorŠ bead using dilute nitric acid leaving a dull gold flake.
a) inquartation c) cupellation e) semi-leaching
b) leaching d) parting
2705. [Day 1]In fire assaying, borax can prevent mechanical loss when put on top as a cover.
a) true b) false
2706. [Day 1]During cupellation, what part of PbO volatilize?
a) 2% c) 1.5% e) all is adsorbed in the cupel
b) 2.5% d) 1%
2707. [Day 1] In parting, the optimum range of silver to gold ratio in the dorŠ bead is 2-3. If the ratio is less than 2 then no parting will occur and when the ratio is
greater than 3 then
a) gold falke may volatilize c) silver will volatilize e) none of the above
b) gold flake may break up d) silver flake may break up
2708. [Day 1]Flattening of the bead is employed to inrease surface area and rapidity of completeness of parting.
a) true b) false
2709. [Day 1]Sulfuric acid is preferred over nitric acid during parting since it noet spatter during dilution with hot water.
a) false b) true
2710. [Day 1]The acid to water ratio during parting should be
a) 0.25 to .125 c) 0.25 to .100 e) 2 to 4
b) 0.55 to .110 d) 0.50 to .125
2711. [Day 1]In parting, acid temperature should just below boiling temperature to minimize bumping action caused by boiling.
a) true b) false
2712. [Day 1]Prior to this treatment, gold has black color due to uneven surface causing differences in reflection of light. This treatment consist of heating the gold
flake to bring luster and to remove volatile matter.
a) heat treatment c) recovering e) none of the above
b) annealing d) recrystallization
2713. [Day 1]This is the simplest method for determination of gold and silver in ore and furnace products. It consists simply of an oxidizing muffle fusion of the
ore with granulated lead and borax glass.
a) scorification assay c) bullion assay e) solution assay
b) crucible assay d) fire assay
2714. [Day 1]The following are reducing agents in fire assaying except
a) cream of tartar c) charcoal e) cryolite
b) flour d) iron
2715. [Day 1]Ores are sometimes classified according to slag forming constituents. To flux the acid, it is necesarry to add bases and to flux any of the basic oxides
acids must be added.
a) true b) false
2716. [Day 1]According to their oxidizing or reducing character in the crucible assay, ores may be divided in to three classes:
Class 1 : neutral ores
Class 2 : Ores having a reducing power
Class 3 : Ores having an oxidizing power
Which class of ore is silicious, oxides and carbonate ores or ores containing no sulphides, arsenides, antimonides, tellurides, etc..
a) class 1 c) class 3 e) class 2 & 3
b) class 2 d) class 1 & 2
2717. [Day 1]According to their oxidizing or reducing character in the crucible assay, ores may be divided in to three classes:
These ores contain sulphides, arsenides, antimonides, tellurides, carbonaceous matter etc. or ores which decompose litharge with a reduction of lead in the crucible
fusion.
2718. [Day 1] According to their oxidizing or reducing character in the crucible assay, ores may be divided in to three classes:
These ores contains ferric oxides, manganese dioxide, etc. or ores which when fused with fluxes oxidize lead or reducing agents.
2719. [Day 1]Metallurgical slags are classified according to _________. This is the ratio of the no. of oxygen atoms in acids over the no. of oxgen atoms in bases
(oxygen ratio).
a) basicity c) silicate degree e) none of the above
b) acidity d) calcarous degree
2720. [Day 1]Assay slags high in litharge and low in silica, borax and other acids are
a) oxide slag c) acid slag e) sulphide slag
b) basic slag d) semi-basic slag
2721. [Day 1]The weight of Pb in grams reduced by the total amount of the substance in the charge.
a) reducing power b) reducing effect c) oxidizing power
d) oxidizing effect e) none of the above
2722. [Day 1]The weight of Pb in grams reduced by the total amount of the substance in the charge.
a) reducing power c) oxidizing power e) none of the above
b) reducing effect d) oxidizing effect
2723. [Day 1]The amount of lead which 1 gram of the ore or substance will oxidize in a fusion, or more exactly it is the lead equivalent of a certain amount of
reducing agent which is capable of being oxidized by 1 gram of the ore or substance.
2724. [Day 1]The weight of Pb (in grams) oxidized or prevented from being reduced by the total amount of the substance in the charge.
2725. [Day 1]An oxidizing fusion in which atmosphere air is the oxidizing agent.
a) scorification assay c) crucible assay e) fire assay
b) oxidizing assay d) atmospheric assay
2726. [Day 1]The amount of lead that one gram of the ore or substance will reduce when fused with an excess litharge.
2727. [Day 1]TABLE OF SLAG CLASSES
X = SiO2; Y = Na2O.2B2O3
_______________________________________________
Silicate Oxygen ratio Formula Formula
Degree (acid/base) w/ X & with Y
MO-base MO-base
________________________________________________
subsilicate 0.5 4MO.X 11MO.Y
monosilicate 1.0 2MO.X 5MO.Y
sesquisilicate 1.5 4MO.X 3MO.Y
bisilicate 2.0 MO.X 2MO.Y
trisilicate 3.0 2MO.X MO.Y
------------------------------------------------
Calculate the amount of Na2CO3 required to form a sesquisilicate slag with 10 g SiO2.
a) 22.5 g d) 29.6 g c) 28.3 g
b) 23.6 g e) 29.1 g
2728. [Day 1]TABLE OF SLAG CLASSES
X = SiO2; Y = Na2O.2B2O3
_______________________________________________
Silicate Oxygen ratio Formula Formula
Degree (acid/base) w/ X & with Y
MO-base MO-base
________________________________________________
subsilicate 0.5 4MO.X 11MO.Y
monosilicate 1.0 2MO.X 5MO.Y
sesquisilicate 1.5 4MO.3X 3MO.Y
bisilicate 2.0 MO.X 2MO.Y
trisilicate 3.0 2MO.3X MO.Y
------------------------------------------------
Find the weight of silica required to slag off 10 grams of CuFeS2 forming a monosilicate.
a) 2.45 g d) 2.26 g b) 6.33 g e) 2.50 g c) 1.96 g
2729. [Day 1]In fire assaying, the ideal lead button size is
a) 28-30 g c) 27-29 g e) 29-30 g
b) 25-28 g d) 26-28 g
2730. [Day 1]In socrification assay, the production of Pb-button is started with PbO in charge and this is reduced just enough Pb for the button.
a) true b) false
2731. [Day 1]In crucible assay, the production of Pb-button is started with excess granulated lead and this is oxidized to just amount of lead for button.
a) true b) false
2732. [Day 1] Calculate the RP of flour (85% C6H10O5)
a) 13.0 g c) 10.0 g e) 14.0 g
b) 12.0 g d) 9.0 g
2733. [Day 1]Calculate the RP of sphalerite
i) without Na2CO3 but with excess PbO
ii) with excess Na2CO3 and PbO
a) 6.4 g and 8.5 g respectively c) 6.4 g and 9.5 g respectively e) 5.4 g and 7.5 g respectively
b) 7.4 g and 8.5 g respectively d) 9.4 g and 10.5 g respectively
2734. [Day 1] Calculate the OP of Fe2O3
a) 1.3 c) 3.3 e) 5.3
b) 2.3 d) 4.3
2735. [Day 1] Calculate the OP of MnO2
a) 2.4 c) 3.4 e) 6.4
b) 5.4 d) 1.4
2736. [Day 1]A slag suitable for assay purposes should have the following properties except
i) should have comparatively low formation temp.
ii) should be thin & fluid when heated above its melting pt. so that shots of Pb settle readily
iii) should not violently attack crucible mat'l.
iv) low sp.gr.to allow separation of Pb & slag
v) should contain all the impurities of the ore & should be free from the higher metal oxides
vi) when cold,it should separate readily from the Pb and be homogeneous, indicating complete decomposition of the ore
vii) should have a low Au & Ag capacity, & should allow a complete ore decomposition by fluxes
viii) should be pasty at end & near its formation temp.,to hold up the particles of reduced
Pb until Au & Ag are liberated from their mech.& chem.bonds & are free to alloy w/ Pb
a) viii c) iii e) none of the above
b) i d) iv
1938. [Day 1] If a metal is extracted from ores, natural brines, or ocean water, the metal is know as
a) elementary metal c) seocndary metal
b) primary metal d) extracted metal
1939. [Day 1] Metals are extracted commercially except
a) metal bearing beds c) placer deposits e) igneous rocks
b) veins d) solutions
1940. [Day 1] The general term oxide or oxidized ores refers to those ores that contain
a) oxide c) carbonate e) all of the above
b) sulfate d) silicate
1941. [Day 1] Taconite is a ferroginous chert consisting of iron minerals embedded in a flintlike matrix of silica and siliceous minerals. It is
the source rock of the high-grade
a) hematites c) siderite e) Pyrites
b) magnetites d) limonites
1942. [Day 1] t is the only commercial ore of aluminum, a rock containing hydrated oxides of aluminum, gibbsite and diaspore.
a) bauxite c) kaolinite
b) corundum d) cyanite
1943. [Day 1] It is probably the primary ore mineral of copper and is the most widely distributed of all copper minerals.
a) chalcocite (Cu2S), copper glare c) Covellite (CuS) , indigo copper
b) chalcopyrite (CuFeS2, copper pyrites d) Bornite (Cu3FeS3), peacock ore
1944. [Day 1] There are 4 kinds of principal operations in mineral dressing, except,
a) comminution c) sizing e) dewatering
b) screening d) concentration
1945. [Day 1] These are special machines for soft material edsigned to limit overproduction of fines or to crush selectively the more friable
constituents of soft materials, except
a) hammer mills c) disc crushers e) roll crushers
b) steam stamp d) swing-hammer crusher and pulverizer
1946. [Day 1] The best measure of the size of the product discharged is the average opening of
a) mouth c) throw
b) throat d) crushing zone
1947. [Day 1] Which is not an advantage of choke feeding for rolls?
a) possibility of using very large circulating load c) greater capacity
b) reduction of wear by grinding "ore in ore" d) increased efficiency
rather than "ore on metal"
1948. [Day 1] In practical manufacturing reasons, the reference screen opening in laboratory screening is
a) STD 200-mesh screen ( 74 microns or 0.074 c) 2exp[«] x aperture of next screen
mm) d) 2exp[¬] x mesh number
b) STD 3-mesh screen e) (aperture of next screen)/2exp[«]
1949. [Day 1] In microscopic sizing to determine the size of tine material. It is necessary to first wash and to size the material.
a) true b) false
1950. [Day 1] The quantitative make-up of locked particles is of paramount importance in gravity concentration, since all menirals respond
to gravity.The quantitative make-up of locked particles is of less importance in dealing with magnetic separation since the relative
susceptibilities of minerals to magnetic forces differ enormously.
In flotation does the quantitative make-up of locked particles becomes of no real importance?
a) yes b) no
1951. [Day 1] Ball mills consist of 4 zones, except
a) empty zone c) zone of circular path e) active zone
b) dead zone d) zone of parabolic path
1952. [Day 1] This deals with relations between the quantities analyses of the materials entering, leaving, and participating in a process.
a) quantitative analysis c) pyrometallurgy e) thermochemistry
b) qualitative analysis d) stoichiometry
1953. [Day 1] The chemical behaviour of an atom id determined by its _______________ , which is the number of positive charges on the
nucleus and which in an electrically neutral atom must be equal to the total number of electrons in orbits around the nucleus.
a) proton
b) electron
c) neutron
d) atomic weight
e) atomic number
1954. [Day 1]Match the following:

I. Chalcocite i. 2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
II. Chrysocolla ii. Cu2S
III. Azurite iii. CuSiO3.2H2O
IV. Malachite iv. CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
a) I-ii, IV-i, III-iv, II-iii c) I-ii, IV-iii, III-iv, II-i e) I-i, II-ii, III-iii, IV-iv
b) I-ii, IV-iii, III-i, II-iv d) I-ii, IV-iv, III-i, II-ii
1955. [Day 1]Match the following:
I. PbS i. Cerussite
II. PbCO3 ii. Anglesite
III. PbSO4 iii. Tenorite
IV. CuO iv. Galena
a) I-iv, II-i, III-ii, IV-iii c) I-iii, II-i, III-ii, IV-iv e) I-i, II-ii, III-iii, IV-iv
b) I-iv, II-ii, III-i, IV-iii d) I-iii, II-ii, III-i, IV-iv
1956. [Day 1]Which of the following is an ore of vanadium?
a) smithsonite c) patronite e) pyrolusite
b) franklinite d) brucite
1957. [Day 1]The following are sources of magnesium except
a) dolomite c) brucite e) pyrolusite
b) carnallite d) ocean water
1958. [Day 1]The following are sources of aluminum except
a) diaspore c) gibbsite e) olivine
b) clay d) bauxite
1959. [Day 1]Identify smithsonite.
a) ZnO c) ZnCO3 e) ZnO.(Fe,Mn)2O3
b) Zn2SiO4 d) ZnS
1960. [Day 1]Which is not a nickel ore?
a) millerite c) psilomelane
b) pentlandite d) garnierite
1961. [Day 1]Gold ore occur as native metal. Metallic gold is often associated with pyrite and other sulfides, and ores containing only free
gold are usually the result of natural oxidation of the accompanying sulfides. In few cases gold is found as
a) calaverite c) sphalerite e) Aurelite
b) tenorite d) enargite
1962. [Day 1]It is one of the most important antimony mineral.
a) stibnite c) pyrolusite e) cassiterite
b) antimonite d) bragite
1963. [Day 1]Which copper ore is the source of arsenic?
a) bornite c) famatinite e) Atacamite
b) enargite d) tennantite
1964. [Day 1]The following are manganese ores except
a) pyrolusite c) rhodochrosite
b) olivene d) psilomelane
1965. [Day 1]The economic mineral in chromium ore is chromite. What is the chemical formula?
a) FeCr4O7 c) FeCr2O4 e) FeCrO2
b) Fe2CrO2 d) Fe3Cr3O6
1966. [Day 1]Which of the following is an ore of mercury?
a) cinnabar c) enargite e) cassiterite
b) scheelite d) patronite
1967. [Day 1]Which of the following is not a tungsten ore?
a) wolframite c) patronite e) ferberite
b) scheelite d) hubernite
1968. [Day 1]The only important ore of molybdenum is molybdenite. What is the correct chemical formula?
a) MoO2 c) MoS2 e) Mo(OH)4
b) Mo2O3 d) Mo2O3
1969. [Day 1]One of the source of platinum is bragite. Which of the following is also a source of platinum?
a) cupperite c) pitchblende e) carnotite
b) platinite d) monazite
1970. [Day 1]This the principal ore mineral of thorium which is a phosphate of the cerium metals containing small amounts of thorium.
a) cupperite c) pitchblende e) carnotite
b) platinite d) monazite
1971. [Day 1]Which is not a uranium ore?
a) uraninite
b) carnotite
c) pitchblende
d) monazite
e) bragite

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1. [Day 1]It is desired to separate quartz particles from galena particles by taking advantage of their different specific gravities.

es. A hydraulic classifier is employed

35. [Day 1]Which of the following is the Boudouard reaction?

Hydrocone crusher (80% passing 3/4")

Rod mill (80% passing -28mesh 833 æm)

Ball mill (80% passing -100mesh 147 æm)

F = feed tonnage = 20 tons Xo = fraction of coarse size in oversize = 100%

a) cut point c) separation point e) Tromp point

a) 1 c) 3 & 4 e) they all match

Cp = heat capacity at constant pressure.

2324. [Day 1]Which of the following is not true regarding converting

I. Oxidation of FeS to FeO and SO2

2452. [Day 1] An ion exchange reaction represented by RA + B+ <------> RB + A+

ÚÄÄÄÄÄÄÄ¿ ÚÄÄÄÄÄÄÄ¿ ÚÄÄÄÄÄÄÄ¿

extrant 1 extrant 2 extrant 3

2503. [Day 1] Evaluate this statement on precipitation:

2552. [Day 1] Liquids are easily compressed.

where J = flux = rate of movement of materials;

2607. [Day 1] The following are types of exchangers

1954. [Day 1]Match the following:

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