Pre-foundation Career Care Programmes (PCCP) Division

NTSE (STAGE-II) TEST SERIES

MOCK TEST PAPER # 2
CLASS -X

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

Time : 1½ Hr. Date : 12-03-2018 Max. Marks : 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.

2. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of

HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

3. The question paper contains 100 questions, 40 Questions from Science (1-40), 20 Questions from
mathamtics (41-60), 40 Question from Social Science (61-100), each carries one mark.

4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any
form is not allowed.

5. Write your Name & Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.

6. There is 1/3 negative marking for each wrong answer.So attempt each question carefully.

7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet.

8. In case of any dispute, the answer sheet available with the institute shall be final.

PCCP Head Office:

Address : J-2, Jawahar Nagar, Main Road, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
Contact. No. : +91-0744-2434727, 8824078330, Fax : 0744-2427146
Website : www.pccp.resonance.ac.in E-mail : pccp@resonance.ac.in
 SAT PAPER

SCIENCE
1. If R1 and R2 are the filament resistances of a 200 W bulb and a 100 W bulb respectively designed to
operate on the same voltage, then :
(A) R1 = 2 R2 (B) R2 = 2 R1 (C) R2 = 4 R1 (D) R1 = 4 R2

2. The drift velocity of electrons in a conducting wire is of the order of 1mm/s, yet the bulb glows very quickly
after the switch is put on because
(A) The random speed of electrons is very high, of the order of 106 m/s
(B) The electrons transfer their energy very quickly through collisions
(C) Electric field is set up in the wire very quickly, producing a current through each cross section,
almost intantaneously
(D) All of above

3. STATEMENT–1 : Two charged particles are released from rest in gravity free space. After some time,
one particle will exert a non-zero magnetic force on the other particle in addition to electrostatic force.
STATEMENT–2: A moving charge produces magnetic field. Also a magnetic force may act on a charged
particle moving in an external magnetic field.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

4. Two circular coils A and B are facing each other as shown in figure. The current i through A can be altered
A B

(A) there will be repulsion between A and B if i is increased

(B) there will be attraction between A and B if i is increased
(C) there will be neither attraction nor repulsion when i is changed
(D) attraction or repulsion between A and B depends on the direction of current. It does not depend
whether the current is increased or decreased.
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5. The frequency of a man’s voice is 300 Hz and its wavelength is 1 meter. If the wavelength of a child’s
voice is 1.5 m, then the frequency of the child’s voice is:
(A) 200 Hz (B) 150 Hz (C) 400 Hz (D) 350 Hz.

6. A hollow sphere of volume V is floating on water surface with half immersed in it. What should be the
minimum volume of water poured inside the sphere so that the sphere now sinks into the water
(A) V / 2 (B) V / 3 (C) V / 4 (D) V

7. An earth satellite is moved from one stable circular orbit to another higher stable circular orbit. Which
one of the following quantities increases for the satellite as a result of this change
(A) gravitational force (B) gravitational potential energy
(C) centripetal acceleration (D) Linear orbital speed

8. In a tug of war each of the two teams apply 1000 Newton force at the ends of a rope, which is found to
be in equilibrium, the tension in the rope is-
(A) 2000 newton (B) 1000 newton (C) 500 newton (D) zero

9. A rigid body of mass m kg is lifted uniformly by a man to a height of one metre in 30 sec. Another man
lifts the same mass uniformly to the same height in 60 sec. The work done on the body against
gravitation by them are in ratio
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1

10. A man 180 cm high stands in front of a plane mirror. His eyes are at a height of 170 cm from the floor.
Then the minimum length of plane mirror for him to see his full length image is-
(A) 90 cm (B) 180 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 360 cm

11. A plane glass slab is placed over v arious coloured letters. The letter which appears to be
raised the least is:
(A) violet (B) yellow (C) red (D) green

12. Which of the following cannot be used to produce electricity ?

(A) Nuclear fission (B) Hydro energy (C) Geothermal energy (D) Nuclear fusion

13. The above graph represents :

(A) zero velocity (B) constant velocity

(C) increasing velocity (D) decreasing velocity

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14. In the process of burning of magnesium in air , magnesium undergoes -
(A) oxidation (B) reduction (C) sublimation (D) All of these

15. Correct set of all four quantum number for an unpaired electron for 3d9 is :
(A) 3, 2, – 3, + 1/2 (B) 3, 2, –2, – 1/2 (C) 3, 3, + 2 + 1/2 (D) 3, 3, + 2, – 1/2

16. The pair of compounds which cannot exist in solution is -

(A) NaHCO3 and NaOH (B) Na2SO3 and NaHCO3
(C) Na2CO3 and NaOH (D) NaHCO3 and NaCl

17. Which of the following is a displacement reaction ?

(A) CaO + H2O  Ca(OH)2 (B) MgCO3  MgO + CO2
(C) 2Na + 2H2O  2NaOH + H2 (D) H2 + Cl2  2HCl

18. p-block includes the elements belonging to the category of -

(A) metals (B) non-metals (C) metalloids (D) All of these

19. At 80ºC, pure distilled water has H3O+ concentration equal to 1 × 10 – 6 mol L – 1. The value of Kw at this
temperature will be -
(A) 1 × 10 – 8 (B) 1 × 10 – 12 (C) 1 × 10 – 14 (D) 1 × 10 – 6

20. Arrange the radicals in their decreasing order of stability.

CH3
• • •
(I) CH3 (II) CH3 – CH2 (III) CH3 – CH (IV) CH3 – C •

CH3 CH3
(A) IV > I > III > II (B) IV > III > II > I (C) I > II > III > IV (D) IV > III > I > II

21. Which of the following is used as fungicide in agriculture ?

(A) Caustic soda (B) Bordeax mixture (C) Alum (D) Blue vitriol

22. In the radioactive change -

A
 AZ1Q 
ZP  ZA–1
–4
 AZ –1
R –4
S
The radiations emitted in sequence are -
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 

23. Windows of aeroplane are made up of -

(A) polyethene (B) polypropylene
(C) PVC (D) polymethylmethacrylate

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24. Red phosphorus is less reactive than yellow phosphorus because -
(A) its colour is red (B) it is highly polymerised
(C) it is tetratomic (D) it is hard

25. The number of neutrons accompanying the formation of 54Xe139 and 38Sr94 from the absorption of a slow
neutron by 92U235, followed by nuclear fission is -
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 3

26. Select the correct pair–

Phase of meiosis Events that occurs
1. Prophase I Crossing over occurs
2. Metaphase I Sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles
3. Anaphase I Homologous chromosomes arrange in linear sequence.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false
(C) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false (D) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false

27. Succus entericus is the name given to :

(A) Junction between ileum and large intestine (B) Intestinal juice
(C) Swelling in the gut (D) Appendix
28. The blood returning to the heart from lungs via pulmonary vein has more
(A) RBC per ml of blood (B) Haemoglobin per ml of blood
(C) Oxygen per ml of blood (D) Nutrient per ml of blood
29. Which of the following term / s are true for pteridophytes ?
(i) amphibians of plant kingdom (ii) non vascular cryptogams
(iii) Vascular cryptogams
(A) only (i) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) & (iii) (D) only (iii)
30. Match the enzyme with their respective substrate and choose the right one among options given
Column I Column II
A. Lipase i. Dipeptides
B. Nuclease ii. Fats
C. Carboxypeptidase iii. Nucleic acids
D. Dipeptidases iv. Proteins, peptones and proteoses.
Options :
(A) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (B) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(C) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (D) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

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31. Cushing’s syndrome and myxoedema are associated with these glands respectively
(A) Thyroid, adrenal (B) Adrenal, thyroid (C) Parathyroid, thyroid (D) Adrenal, pituitary
32. Deficiency in the activity of adrenal cortex leads to
(A) Addison’s disease (B) Simmond’s disease (C) Cohn’s syndrome (D) Cushing’s disease
33. The process of spermatogenesis and sperm formation is under the regulatory influence of
(A) FSH (B) ADH (C) LH (D) LTH
34. The junction between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of the next is called
(A) junction point (B) a synapse (C) a joint (D) constant bridge
35. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth
(A) Hydrogen (B) Methane (C) Oxygen (D) Water vapor
36. Mendel formulated the law of purity of gametes on the basis of :
(A) Monohydrid cross (B) Test Cross (C) Back cross (D) Dihybrid cross
37. Food webs are prominent in an Ecosystem because
(A) one consumer is not dependent on a single kind of food from the same food chain.
(B) carnivores can feed on herbivores as well as plants.
(C) herbivores can feed on plants as well as animals.
(D) food chains cannot extend beyond a few trophic levels
38. In the diagram of multipolar myelinated neuron given below, different parts have been indicated by alphabetes;
choose the answers in which these alphabetes have been correctly matched with the parts which they
indicate
C D F

E G
B
A

(A) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Nucleus, D = Dendrites, E = Naked portion of axon, F =
Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier
(B) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Naked portion of axon, D = Dendrites, E = Nucleus, F =
Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier
(C) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Naked portion of axon, D = Nucleus, E = Dendrites, F =
Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier
(D) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Dendrites, D = Nucleus, E = Naked portion of axon, F = Myelin
sheath, G = Node of Ranvier
39. The extra chromosomes that causes Down’s syndrome is
(A) 19th chromosomes. (B) 20th chromosomes. (C) 21st chromosomes. (D) 22nd chromosome.
40. A person appears fat, short and stocky and has stupid look and protruding tongue due to the hormonal
deficiency of
(A) Parathyroid (B) Thyroid (C) Adrenal (D) Pineal
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 MATHEMATICS
41. Which of the following numbers are rational ?
(A) sin15° (B) cos15° (C) sin15° cos15° (D) none of these

1 13
42. If cos P = and cos Q = , where P and Q both are acute angles. Then, the value of P – Q is
7 14
(A) 30° (B) 60° (C) 45° (D) 75°

43. cos A cos2A cos22 A cos 23 A .... cos 2n–1 A = ?

sin 2n A sin 2n A sin 2n A

(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
sin A 2n sin A 2 sin A

44. A circle is inscribed in a rhombus, one of whose angles is 60°. Find the ratio of area of the rhombus to the
area of the inscribed circle.

(A) 7 :  3 (B) 8 :  3 (C) 4 :  3 (D) None of these

45. ABCD is square AB produced to Q such that AC intersect DQ at P, BPQ intersect BC at R. Such that
DP = 3, PR = 2. Find RQ
(A) 2.5 (B) 3.2 (C) 3.5 (D) 4

46. In a rhombus one of the diagonals is twice the other diagonal. Let A be the area of the rhombus in square
units. Then each side of the rhombus is :

1 1 1
(A) A (B) 2A (C) 5A (D) 4A
2 2 4

47. (a  b ) 2  (b  a)2 is
(A) Always zero (B) Never zero
(C) Positive if and only if a > b (D) Positive only if a  b

48. One hundred identical coin each with probability P of showing up heads are tossed. If 0 < p < 1 and
the probability of heads showing on 50 coins is equal to that of heads on 51 coins, then the value of P
is

1 49 50 51
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 101 101 101
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49. Median of a data set is a number which has an equal number of observations below and above it. The
median 1,9,4,3,7,6,8,8,12,15 is
(A) 7·5 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) any number between 7 and 8

50. How many triplets (x, y, z) of positive real numbers can be found such that xy = z, yz = x, zx = y
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3

51. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + px + q = 0 are tan 30º and tan 15º respectively, then the
value of 2 + q – p is :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

52. The remainder when x100 is divided by x2–3x + 2 is :

(A) (2100 –1) x + (–2100 + 2) (B) (2100 +1) x + (–2100–2)
(C) (2100 –1) x + (–2100 – 2) (D) None

53. What is the sum of all two-digit numbers that give a remainder of 3 when they are divided by 7?
(A) 666 (B) 676 (C) 683 (D) 777

54. If a1 , a2 , a3 ..... an are in A.P. where ai > 0 for all i, then the value of
1 1 1
  ........ 
a1  a 2 a 2  a3 an1  an is

n 1 n 1 n
(A) a1  an (B) a1  an (C) a1  an (D) None of these

55. If x and y are two positive real numbers such that their sum is one, then the maximum value of x4y +
xy4 is -
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 8 12 16

56. The value of

2( 2  6 )
 2  3  2 – 3 is :
3 2 3

34 6 43 6 34 6 4–3 6

(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 4 3

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57. In the figure, the area of square ABCD is 4 cm2 and E any point on AB. F, G, H and K are the mid point of
DE, CF, DG, and CH respectively. The area of KDC is -

1 1 1 1
(A) cm2 (B) cm2 (C) cm2 (D) cm2
4 8 16 32

58. There are several human beings and several dogs in a room. One tenth of the humans have lost a leg. The
total numbers of feet are 77. Then the number of dogs is
(A) not determinable due to insufficient data (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

59. Find a four-digit perfect square such that its first two digits are the same and its last two digits are
the same.
(A) 7474 (B) 5600 (C) 4488 (D) 7744

60. Let logab = 4, logcd = 2 where a, b, c, d are natural numbers. Given that b – d = 7, the value of c – a is :
(A) 1 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) – 2

SOCIAL SCIENCE

61. From about 13th century to the time of the French Revolution sumptuary laws were expected to be
followed strictly to:
(A) regulate the behaviour of the royalty.
(B) regulate the income of people by social rank.
(C) control the behaviour of those considered social inferiors.
(D) provide religious sanctity to social behaviour.

62. The Balkans, which was a serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871, was a region
comprising of :
(A) Romaina, Germany, Poland, Bulgaria
(B) Romania, Prussia, Bulgaria, Slovakia and Poland.
(C) Serbia, Austria, Bulgaria, Slovakia and Poland
(D) Serbia, Bulgaria, Greece, Croatia, Romania
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63. Printing created possibilities of wider circulation of ideas. Who of the following hailed printing as the
ultimate gift of God?
(A) Martin Luther (B) Menocchio
(C) Roman Catholic Church (D) Gutenberg
64. Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:
Statement I : Hitler said 'In my state the mother is the most important citizen',
Statement II : In Nazi Germany while boys were taught to be aggressive, muscular and steel hearted;
girls were told that they had to become good mothers.
(A) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(B) Both statement I and statement II are true but statement II is not the: correct explanation of statement I.
(C) Both the statements are false.
(D) Both statement I and statement II are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
65. Read the following statements carefully-
(i) Hindi has been given the status of National Language by the constitution.
(ii) Hindi is the mother tongue of only 40 percent of Indians.
(iii) Besides Hindi there are 21 other languages recognised as Scheduled languages by the Constitution.
(iv) A candidate appearing in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions has the
option to take the examination in any of the scheduled languages.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect regarding the language policy of India-
(A) Only i (B) Only ii (C) Only iii (D) Only iv
66. Read the following statemant carefully :
(A) (i) Bahujan Samaj Party is a State Party.
(ii) The founder of Bahujan Samaj Party was Kashiram
(iii) BSP wants full territorial and political integration of J & K with India
Which of the following is/are incorrect :
(A) Only (ii) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) Only (iii) (D) (i) and (iii)
. O. Chandu Menon tried to translate into Malayalam an English novel called
(A) Henrietta Temple. (B) Jane Eyre.
(C) Mayor of Casterbridge. (D) Pride and Prejudice.
67. What led to the production of children’s literature in nineteenth century in Europe?
(A) Primary education became compulsory from the nineteenth century.
(B) Demand increased for children’s books.
(C) New schools were opened.
(D) New story books were published.

68. Which of the following are the fatures of Andaman and Nicobal islands -
(i) Islands located in the Bay of Bengal extending from north to south.
(ii) Are bigger in size and are more numerous and scattered.
(iii) It is believed that these are been formed by corals.
(iv) Are of great strategic importance for the country.
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct (B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (D) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
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69. One important feature of Civil Disobedience Movement was :
(A) Gandhiji’s belief that women should not join it and remain at home.
(B) The complete change in the status of women in society.
(C) The large-scale participation of women in the movement, in protest marches, manufacturing salt,
picketing, boycotting foreign cloth and even going to jail
(D) The large-scale participation of the Dalits or Harijans

70. Match the following

Column-A Column-B
(a) Treaty of Constantinople (i) 1804
(b) Revolt of weavers in Silesia (ii) 1707
(c) Napoleonic Code (iii) 1845
(d) The Act of Union (iv) 1832
(A) a-(iv),b-(iii),c-(i),d-(ii) (B) a-(ii),b-(iii),c-(i),d-(iv)
(C) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) (D) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)

71. Match the following:

Area Population
A. Uttar Pradesh (i) 5.5 per cent of the total population of India
B. Sikkim (ii) 16 per cent of the country’s population
C. Lakshadweep (iii) Just about 0.5 million population
D. Rajasthan (iv) 60 thousand people
(A) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) (B) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(C) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) (D) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)

72. The only active volcano of India is located in :

(A) Lakshadweep island. (B) Malabar coast.
(C) Konkan coast. (D) Andaman and Nicobar.

73. The part of India that receive rainfall in month of December is :

(A) Northeastern India. (B) Southwestern India.
(C) Northwestern India. (D) Southeastern India.

74. India can only use 20% of water of Indus due to one of following treaty :
(A) Chenab treaty, 1965 (B) Jhelum treaty, 1961
(C) Ravi treaty, 1972 (D) Indus water treaty, 1960

75. Acacias, palms, euphorbia and cacti are plants common in the :
(A) Thorn forest. (B) Tropical deciduous forest.
(C) Mangrove forest. (D) Montane forest.

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76.  The summit of Rio de Janeiro was convened for addressing urgent problems of development concerning
(A) economic issues. (B) political issues.
(C) socio-economic issues. (D) social issues.

77. The increase in urbanization and industrialization has effected not only the quantity , but also the :
(A) salinity of water resources. (B) quality of water resources.
(C) accumulation of water resources. (D) potential of water resources.

78.  Deepest landlocked port is located at :

(A) Kochi. (B) Vishakapatnam. (C) Bombay. (D) Chennai.

79.  Read the following statement and choose the best possible choice. “Energy saved is energy produced”
(A) It’s about industrial energy planning (B) It’s about consumption of energy
(C) It’s about sustainable energy (D) It’s about conservation of energy resources

80.  The first successful textile mill was established in Mumbai in the year
(A) 1824 (B) 1854 (C) 1864 (D) 1884

81. Match the following :

Column I
A. Buffer Stock
B. Minimum Support Price
C. Issue Price
D. Fair Price Shop
(A) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(C) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
Column II (year 2000)
(i) farmers paid a pre-snnounced price for their crops
(ii) stock of foodgrains procured by the government
(iii) keep stock of foodgrains, sugar, kerosene oil for cooking
(iv) a price lower than the market price
(B) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(D) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)

82. The current anti-poverty strategy of the government is based on :

(A) promotion of education (B) promotion of economic growth
(C) promotion of housing facilities (D) promotion of Industries

83. A large number of people represented with low income and productivity are counted as :
(A) unemployed (B) employed (C) underemployed (D) seosanally unemployed

84. Surplus produce in the market is supplied by :

(A) small and landless farmers. (B) small and medium farmers.
(C) large and medium farmers. (D) farmers having land holdings.

85. It is not easy to gather evidence against the seller because in most purchases the :
(A) process is time-consuming. (B) process is expensive.
(C) cash memos are not issued. (D) consumers buy from retailers.

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86. Consumers International is operating in :
(A) over 100 countries. (B) over 200 countries.
(C) over 300 countries. (D) over 400 countries.

87. Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children attending school of age group 6-10 as a percentage
of total number of children in the :
(A) same age group. (B) age group of 8-10.
(C) age group of 10-12. (D) age group of 12-14.

88. The basic function of foreign trade is to :

(A) connect markets of two countries only. (B) create an opportunity for buyers for foreign goods.
(C) connect markets of different countries. (D) connect developed countries only.

89. Agreement in which the borrower lends money, goods and services in return for the promise of future
payment is known as :
(A) credit. (B) deposit. (C) borrowing. (D) withdrawl.

90. National income is the total of the :

(A) Value of raw material. (B) Value of semi-finished goods.
(C) Value of intermediate goods and services. (D) Value of final goods and services.

91. Match the list (I) and (II)

List I List II
A.South Africa 1. Suu Kyi
B.Pakistan 2.Nkrumah
C.Myanmar 3.Musharraf
D.Ghana 4.Mbeki
(A) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4 (B) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
(C) A-2, B-3; C-4; D-1 (D) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2

92. Mark the correct statement :

(A) Social divisions affect politics in democracy
(B) Social diversity is healthy and for democracy
(C) Social division lead to casteism and regionalism during elections.
(D) Politics is the root cause of social division

93. Article of Indian Constitution often used by the Centre to topple state governments in 1970s was
(A) Article 370. (B) Article 371. (C) Article 356. (D) Article 352

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94. The statement that is true regarding the feminist movement is :
(A) It strengthens relationship between man and woman .
(B) It improves women’s role related to political mobilisation.
(C) It does not give much liberty to women in society.
(D) It does not provide equal opportunities for men and women.

95. Match List I to List II:

List I List II
A. Congress Party (i) NDA
B Bhartiya Janata Party (ii) State Party
C. Communist Party of India (iii) United Progressive Alliance
D. Telegu Desam party (iv) Left Front

(A) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv (B) A-iii; B-i; C-iv; D-ii
(C) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i (D) A-(i); B-iii; C-iv; D-ii

96. Match the List I to List II :

List I List II
A. BJP (i) Mayavati
B. BSP (ii) L.K. Advani
C. NCP (iii) Sharad Pawar
D. INC (iv) Sonia Gandhi

(A) A-ii; B-i; C-iii; D-iv (B) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv
(C) A-iii; B-ii; C-iv; D-i (D) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i

97. Kerala Sasthra Sahitya Parishath is a :

(A) people’s science movement. (B) people’s unity movement.
(C) people’s environment movement. (D) people’s rights movement.

98. Democracy originated in the

(A) UK, after the signing of Magna Carta. (B) France after the Revolution.
(C) Ancient Greece. (D) US after freeing itself from British tyranny.

99. Power sharing is desirable because it :

(A) ensures the stability of political order.
(B) imposes the will of the majority community over others.
(C) helps in promoting the communal feeling.
(D) helps the people of different communities to celebrate their festivals freely.

Space For Rough Work

SAT _NTSE STAGE-II_MOCK TEST-1_PAGE # 14

100. Match the following:
Column I Column II
(A) Rasputin (i) Argued that the Bolshevik party rename itself the
Communist party to indicate its new radical aims.
(B) Father Gapon (ii) a monk and advisor of Tsarina Alexandra
(C) Lenin (iii) A Military Revolutionary Committee was appointed
under him by the Soviet to organise the seizure
(D) Leon Trotskii (iv) led the procession of workers to winter Palace
(A) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii) (B) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(C) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv) (D)-(ii) (D) (A)-(iv) (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)

Space For Rough Work

SAT _NTSE STAGE-II_MOCK TEST-1_PAGE # 15

 MOCK TEST PAPER # 2
NTSE STAGE-II
CLASS-X [SAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

ANSWER KEY
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B C D A A A B B B A C D C A B
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A C D B B B B D B D B B C D D
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. B A A B C A A D C B C B B B A
Que s. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. C D D D A D A B A C B B C D A
Que s. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. C D A B A A A D C A C D D D A
Que s. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. C D B D B A B C C C A A C A D
Que s. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. D A C B B A A C A A

SCIENCE
5. (A) f 1 l1 = f 2 l2
14. Egg albumin is used for the treatment of mercury
(300) (1) = (f 2) (1.5)
poisoning. Albumin binds up with mercury and
200 Hz = f 2
helps pass them through the system without
being absorbed.
6. When body (sphere) is half immersed, then 16. NaHCO3 beings an acid salt will react with NaOH
upthrust = weight of sphere as,
 liq NaOH + NaHCO3  Na2CO3 + H2O
V
  liq  g  V    g   
2 2 17. Reactions (A) and (D) are combination reactions.
When body (sphere) is fully immersed then, Reaction (B) is a decomposition reaction while
Upthrust = wt. of sphere + wt. of water reaction (C) is a single displacement reaction in
poured in sphere which sodium (Na) is displacing hydrogen (H)
 V × liq × g = V ×  × g + V' × liq × g from water (H2O).
V   liq 19. Kw of pure distilled water is - Kw = [H3O+] [OH¯]
 V × liq = + V' × liq
2 and in pure distilled water [H3O+] = [OH¯]
At 80º C [H3O+] =1 × 10–6 mol L–1
V So value of Kw at this temperature will be -
 V' =
2 Kw = [1 × 10–6] [1 × 10–6] = 1 × 10–12 M2

H 180 A β A α A–4 γ A–4

10. Lmin = = = 90 cm 22. ZP
 Z 1Q 
 Z –1 R 
 Z –1 S
2 2

SOL. _NTSE STAGE-II_MOCK TEST-2_PAGE # 1

25. When 92U235 absorb slow neutron it undergoes
(sin(2.2 A) cos 2 A ....cos 2
2 3 n1
A 
nuclear fission and produce 54Xe139, 38Sr94 and
neutron. 1
 LHS = 3
235 1
U + 0n  54X + 38Sr + 30n
92
139 94 1
2 sin A
A nuclear reaction is balanced on the basis
atomic mass [A] and atomic number (Z).
(sin 2 3
A cos 23 A cos 2 4 A....cos 2n 1 A 
so, 1
Atomic mass of reactant = 235 + 1 = 236  LHS = ..... = n1
2 sin A
Atomic mass of product =139 +94 + x = 233 + x
Atomic mass of reactant is equal to atomic sin 2 n1
A cos 2n1 A 
mass of product (According to Law of mass
1
conservation)  LHS = n
2 sin A
2 sin 2 n 1
A cos 2n1 A 
233 + x = 236
x = 236 – 233 1 1
 LHS = n sin (2  2n–1A) = n
=3 2 sin A 2 sin A
No. of neutron is 3 sin2nA = RHS

MATHEMATICS

43. We have,
LHS = cos A cos 2A cos 22 A cos23A ....
cos2n–1 A
44.
1
 LHS =
2 sin A

(2 sin A cos A) cos 2A cos 2 A cos 2 A....cos 2

2 3 n1
A 
1
 LHS =
2 sin A

(sin 2A cos 2A cos 2 A cos 2 A....cos 2

2 3 n1
A 
1
 LHS = 2
2 sin A W e need only the ratio. W ithout loss of
generality we assume that the side length of
(2 sin 2A cos 2A )cos 2 A cos 2 A....cos 2
2 3 n 1
A  the rhombus = 2 units.
Draw a perpendicular AM from the top corner of
1 the rhombus to the base. We get a 30° – 60° –
 LHS =
2 2 sin A 90° triangle.

sin 2(2A).cos 2 A cos 2 A....cos 2

2 3 n1
A  h= 3

1 Area of rhombus = 2 3
 LHS = 3
2 sin A
Diameter of circle = height h.
(2 sin 2 2
A cos 2 2 A ) cos 23 A....cos 2n1 A  3
 Radius of circle =
2
1
 LHS = 3
2 sin A
2
 3
 Area of circle =    = 3
2  4
 

SOL. _NTSE STAGE-II_MOCK TEST-2_PAGE # 2

 3 1
 Ratio required = 2 3 : = 8 3 : 3 = 8  3( x 4 y  y 4 x )
4 2

: 3 1
4
 3(x4y + y4x)
D C
3
2 1
P R =  (x4y + y4x)
z 12
 
Q
A x B y 1
= .
12
PDC ~ PQA
3 x 2( 2  6 )
= 56. Let =x
2z xy
3 2 3
on solving we get
x 3 4(8  2 2 )
= ...(i)  x2 =
y z 1 9(2  3 )
RDC ~ RQB
5 x 16(2  3 ) 16
= y  x2 = =
z 9(2  3 ) 9
5 3
= from (i) 4
z z 1
x=
5z – 5 = 3z 3
5
z= = 2.5 Let 2  3 = a and 2 3 = b
2

47. ( a  b )2 + (b  a )2 (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

= |a – b| + |b – a| (a + b) = a 2  b 2  2ab
Let a > b Let a < b
then then = 2 3 2 3 2 43
|a – b| + |b – a| |a – b| + |b – a|
=a–b+a–b =b–a+b–a = 42 = 16
= 2a – 2b = 2b – 2a
i.e. +ve i.e. +ve 4 43 6
 + 6 
3 3
So answer is always +ve if a  b

48. 100
C50 P50  (1 – p)50 = 100C51 P51  (1 – p)49 57. const = Join EC

51 1 1
p= area(EDC) = (ABCD) =  4 = 2cos2
101 2 2

55. x+y=1 1
area(KDC) = area (HDC)
(x + y)3 = 13 2
x3 + y3 + 3xy (x + y) = 1
1
x3 + y3 + 3xy = 1 area (HDC) = arae(GDC)
2
x3 + y3 + 3xy = 1
A.M.  G.M. 1
area (GDC) = area (FDC)
2
x3 + y3 + 3xy  ( x 2  y 3 )3 xy 1
area FDC = area EDC
2
SOL. _NTSE STAGE-II_MOCK TEST-2_PAGE # 3
 1 1 1
area (KDC) = area (EDC) = 2=
16 16 8
cm2

58. Let there are x human being and y dogs

 Total legs = 2x + 4y
one tenth of x human beings lost a leg.
x
 (2x + 4y) – = 77
10
19 x
+ 4y = 77
10
when x = 10
4y = 77 – 19 = 58 (Which is not possible).
when x = 30
57 + 4y = 77
4y = 20
y=5
 Number of dogs = 5

59. Let the square be of the form aabb.

Its value = 1000 a + 100a + 10b + b
= 11(100a + b)
Now, 11(100a + b) is a perfect square which
means that 100a + b is a multiple of 11.
100a + b = 99a + a + b  99a is a multiple of
11, therefore, a + b should be a multiple of
11
 a + b = 11.
 11(100a + b) = 11(99a + a + b)
= 11 (99a + 11) = 121(9a + 1)  9a + 1 should
also be a perfect square  a = 7  b = 4.
Therefore, the square = 7744.

60. loga b = 4 & logcd = 2

b = a4 & d =c2
a4 – c2 = 7
(a2 – c) (a2 + c) = 7
a2 – c = 7 & a2 + c =1 not possible
or a2 – c = 1 & a2 + c = 7
2a2 = 8
a = ±2
a = 2, c = 3
c – a = 1.

SOL. _NTSE STAGE-II_MOCK TEST-2_PAGE # 4