010 090eng - v3

LAPL(A)/PPL(A) question bank
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
TRAINING QUESTION BANK
The bank will be released on 13th June 2016
1
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
AIRLAW
010
2
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
1 Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of

an ICAO member state?
[A] Certificate of Registration.
[B] Flight crew birth certificates.
[C] Certificate of Airworthiness.
[D] Flight crew licences.
2 Which of the following statements concerning the theoretical knowledge

examinations for the issue of EASA FCL license is correct?
[A] All exams shall be completed within 12 months.
[B] All exams shall be completed under the responsibility of one Member State.
[C] There are no limitations on how many times you can retake the examination paper.
[D] Applicant has successfully completed theoretical knowledge exams if he/she passes 75%
of examination papers.
3 No aircraft or personnel who have endorsed certificates or licences may

participate in international navigation:
[A] Except with the permission of the State whose territory is entered.
[B] Under any circumstances.
[C] Except when a general exemption has been awarded by any ICAO contracting state.
[D] Except when a general exemption has been awarded by the State in which the aircraft is
registered or which issued the licence.
4 Which right is conferred on contracting states by Article 16 of the ICAO

Convention?
[A] The right to search, without unreasonable delay, an aircraft from another contracting state
landing on or departing from its sovereign territory.
[B] The right to search an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from
its sovereign territory if it is felt that the aircraft is carrying unlawful goods or persons
being pursued in law.
[C] The right to search an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from
its sovereign territory, given due cause.
[D] The right to search, with the permission of the pilot in command, an aircraft from another
contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory.
5 The Rules of the Air applicable to an aircraft registered in one state flying over
another state shall be:
[A] Those stipulated by JAA operational procedures.
[B] Those of the state of the visiting aircraft.
[C] Those agreed by ICAO contracting states to apply in all contracting states.
[D] Those of the state whose airspace is entered and transited.
3
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
6 Which classes of medical certificate meet the requirement for a PART-FCL PPL?
[A] Class 2 or 3.
[B] Class A or B.
[C] Class 1 or 2.
[D] Class B or C.
7 Who is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft operating in a state's sovereign

airspace complies with the rules and regulations which prevail in that airspace?
[A] The state in which the aircraft is registered.
[B] The state which issued the current Certificate of Airworthiness for the aircraft.
[C] The pilot-in-command of the aircraft.
[D] The state which issued the licence held by the pilot of the aircraft.
8 What was the outcome of the Chicago Convention?

[A] ICAO.
[B] The Convention on International Civil Aviation.
[C] PICAO.
[D] The 18 Annexes to the Chicago Convention.
9 A PPL holder is not permitted to:

[A] Give flying instruction with an FI(A) rating.
[B] Carry fare paying passengers.
[C] Tow a glider.
[D] Drop parachutists.
10 A pilot in command of a flight during which an aircraft enters the sovereign

airspace of a foreign state with the intention of landing:
[A] Must have ensured that all necessary and relevant documentation is carried on board the
aircraft, including the Certificate of Airworthiness, that the aircraft is in an airworthy
condition and that it is correctly registered.
[B] Must ensure before departure that his pilot's licence has been validated by the foreign
state.
[C] Must ensure that aircraft is equipped with operational radio and transponder.
[D] Must be satisfied that the aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness is current, that he holds a
type rating for the aircraft, and that he has passed an Air Law examination set by the
foreign state.
4
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
11 The pilot in command of an aircraft which enters the sovereign airspace of

another contracting state for the purpose of landing must:
[A] Hold a licence issued by any ICAO contracting state.
[B] Hold a licence issued or accepted by the authority of the state in which the aircraft is
registered.
[C] Hold a licence issued by any member state of the JAA.
[D] Hold any valid and current pilot's licence.
12 When are navigation lights required to be shown?

[A] From sunset to sunrise or when specified by the Authority.
[B] When moving on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome.
[C] Whenever the pilot in command thinks it is sensible to switch them on.
[D] At night or when specified by the authority.
13 When an aircraft is flying, under which flight rules must the flight be conducted?
[A] Either IMC or VMC.
[B] IFR in IMC and VFR in VMC.
[C] Either IFR or VFR.
[D] In accordance with ATC instructions.
14 When may you fly over any congested area of a city, town or settlement at a
height from which it would not be possible to land safely in the event of an
emergency arising?
[A] Only when necessary for take-off and landing.
[B] Never.
[C] Only to keep clear of cloud and remain in visual contact with the ground.
[D] Only where the operator has given permission.
15 When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level the one that
has the other on its right is required to give way. True or false?
[A] True, unless the other aircraft has a glider on tow.
[B] False. The one that has the other on its left has right of way
[C] True.
[D] False, provided the other aircraft is not towing anything.
5
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
16 Which of the following statements most correctly completes the following

statement?
When two or more aircraft are approaching same aerodrome for landing:
[A] The lower aircraft has the right of way unless ATC has already specified a landing order.
[B] The higher aircraft always has the right of way.
[C] The lower aircraft always has the right of way.
[D] The aircraft which has the least horizontal distance to run to the runway threshold has the
right of way.
17 Except when taking off or landing, or under certain other defined circumstances,
a VFR flight shall not be flown lower than ____ above the ground or water, or
150m above the highest obstacle within a radius of ____ from the aircraft.
[A] 1000 ft / 500 ft.
[B] 500 ft / 500 ft.
[C] 800 ft / 1000 ft.
[D] 1500 ft / 1000 ft.
18 Two aircraft flying according to the Visual Flight Rules, are closing at an
apparent constant relative bearing. The aircraft which has the right of way
should maintain:
[A] Altitude and speed.
[B] Height and speed.
[C] Altitude and course.
[D] Heading and speed.
19 While flying at night, as the pilot in command, you see an anti-collision light and
a steady red light at the same altitude, at a constant relative bearing of 050
degrees, there is a risk of collision? And who has right of way?
[A] No. The other aircraft does.
[B] Yes. You do.
[C] Yes. The other aircraft does.
[D] No. You do.
6
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
20 If a PPL holder, who has no additional ratings, while receiving a Radar Advisory
Service, receives instructions to change heading, climb or descend, such that if
the instructions are complied with the pilot will be unable to maintain Visual
Meteorological Conditions, the pilot should:
[A] Continue on the present heading, at the present altitude, and tell air traffic why he cannot
comply.
[B] Comply with instructions, anyway, but go onto instruments early.
[C] Continue on present heading and at present altitude, say nothing, and wait for the
controller's next instruction.
[D] Comply as closely as he can with the controller's instructions but on no account go into
Instrument Meteorological Conditions.
21 A Control Area (CTA) established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity
of one or more major aerodromes is known as:
[A] An Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ).
[B] An Airway.
[C] A Control Zone (CTR).
[D] A Terminal Control Area (TMA).
22 What is the international Aeronautical VHF Distress Frequency?

[A] 243.00 MHz.
[B] 123.45 MHz.
[C] 121.50 MHz.
[D] 406.00 MHz.
23 How often are Aeronautical Information Circulars published?

[A] Yearly.
[B] Weekly.
[C] On demand.
[D] Quarterly.
24 If a LAPL/PPL holder receives a Special VFR clearance to enter a control zone

(CTR) but, before entering the CTR, finds that he can no longer receive or
transmit RT messages, he must:
[A] Carry on into the CTR and await light signals for clearance to land.
[B] Carry on into the CTR via the assigned Visual Reference Point complying with the last
clearance received.
[C] Remain clear of the CTR.
[D] Carry on into the CTR, complying with the last clearance received while transmitting blind.
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FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
25 What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency?

[A] 7777.
[B] 7700.
[C] 7000.
[D] 7600.
26 An aircraft marshaller extends his right arm and wand in 90 degree angle from
body and make "come ahead" signal with his left arm, that means: (See annex
PPL(A) 010-01)
[A] Start your engine.
[B] Turn right.
[C] Keep moving ahead.
[D] Turn left.
27 What is the meaning of a steady green light from ATC to an aircraft in the air?
[A] You have priority to land.
[B] Return to this airfield and await landing clearance.
[C] Land immediately.
[D] Clear to land.
28 What color are paved taxiway markings?

[A] Green.
[B] Red.
[C] Yellow.
[D] White.
29 What color are runway markings?

[A] Red.
[B] White.
[C] Yellow.
[D] Green.
30 You are on final approach and you see a steady red light from ATC. This means:
[A] Do not land. Airfield closed.
[B] Continue approach and await a green light.
[C] Continue circling, give way to other aircraft.
[D] Do not land. Divert to your alternate airfield.
8
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
31 What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured

above mean sea level, when QNH is set on the altimeter subscale?
[A] Elevation.
[B] Altitude.
[C] Height.
[D] Flight level.
32 What action should a pilot take if he suffers radio communications failure during
a VFR flight in VMC?
[A] Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report his arrival to
his destination airfield.
[B] Continue to his destination, transmitting blind and attempting to avoid IMC.
[C] Fly to the nearest aerodrome, orbit on the dead side of the circuit and await a steady
green from the control tower.
[D] Carry out the radio failure procedure in the RAF Flight Information Handbook and await
the arrival of a Shepherd aircraft.
33 Which of the following flight levels would be suitable for an aircraft maintaining
a magnetic track of 146 degrees in VFR?
[A] FL 70.
[B] FL 50.
[C] FL 85.
[D] FL 75.
34 A light aircraft is taking off behind a Heavy or Medium category aircraft. What
period of separation is required?
[A] 6 minutes.
[B] 4 minutes.
[C] 2 minutes.
[D] 5 minutes.
35 What is the definition of "Transition level''?

[A] The lowest available Flight Level above the transition altitude.
[B] The Flight Level below which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as "height".
[C] The transition altitude expressed as a Flight Level.
[D] The Flight Level at or above which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as
altitude.
9
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
36 What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured

above an airfield datum level, when QFE is set on the altimeter subscale?
[A] Elevation.
[B] Height.
[C] Altitude.
[D] Flight Level.
37 A PPL pilot who is flying in accordance with Special VFR must have the
following minima:
[A] A minimum visibility of 1,5 km or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the
surface.
[B] A minimum visibility of 3,0 km or more and remain clear of cloud.
[C] A minimum visibility of 5 km or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.
[D] A minimum visibility of 10 km or more and remain in sight of the surface.
38 Who is responsible for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness?

[A] ICAO.
[B] EASA.
[C] The authority of the state of registration.
[D] The operator.
39 Which of the following normally defines 'runway in use ' on an uncontrolled

airfield?
[A] The defined takeoff and landing portion of an aerodrome.
[B] A part of the maneuvering area defined for takeoff and landing.
[C] A runway into the downwind.
[D] A runway into the headwind.
40 Who may not suspend VFR operations at an aerodrome on safety grounds:

[A] The appropriate ATS authority.
[B] The duty Aerodrome Controller.
[C] The local Area Control Centre (ACC).
[D] The Approach Controller.
41 The holder of a EASA PPL(A) who wishes to carry passengers must have made a
minimum of take-offs and landings within the preceding:
[A] 31 days.
[B] 29 days.
[C] 90 days.
[D] 60 days.
10
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
42 If the holder of a pilot's licence learns that he is to undergo surgery, what are his
obligations in terms of informing the aviation medical authority?
[A] He should contact his aviation medical authority without delay and seek their advice on
his circumstances.
[B] There is no requirement to do so provided the pilot does not fly again as pilot in command
until after the surgical operation.
[C] He should advise the medical authority of the circumstances only if he is due to receive a
general anesthetic.
[D] He has no obligations to tell anyone as this is a private matter.
43 How long is a EASA PPL(A)/PPL(H) issued for?

[A] 5 years.
[B] 3 years.
[C] Indefinitely.
[D] 8 years.
44 The skill tests for a class or type rating must be taken within ____ of completing
flying instruction.
[A] One year.
[B] 6 months.
[C] 4 months.
[D] 3 months.
45 Application for the grant of a EASA PPL licence must be made within ____
completing the theoretical knowledge examinations.
[A] 12.
[B] 24.
[C] 36.
[D] 18.
46 A pilot's licence issued by one EASA member State may be converted to a

licence of any other EASA member State (the new member State), provided that:
[A] The new Member State is the licence holder's normal State of residence or that full-time
employment has been taken by the licence holder in that State.
[B] The licence holder has resided in the new Member State for at least 31 days.
[C] The licence holder intends to follow a course of study in the new Member State lasting at
least three months.
[D] The new Member State has no reasonable grounds for refusing to convert the licence.
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FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
47 There are three conditions that a holder of a EASA PPL(A) / PPL(H) must fulfill
before he/she may act as pilot in command, or as a co-pilot. Which of the
following is not a requirement?
[A] Holds a Type or Class rating pertinent to the aircraft to be flown.
[B] Holds an Instrument Rating.
[C] Holds a valid medical certificate.
[D] Is not flying for remuneration.
48 The departure and arrival time entered by a LAPL/PPL holder in his flying log
book is taken as follows:
[A] The time the aircraft begins to move under its own power and the time it comes to rest
following the last
[B] The time of the first take-off and the time of the last landing of the sortie.
[C] The time of engine start and the time of engine shut-down.
[D] The time the aircraft enters the active runway for the first take-off and the time it vacates
the runway after the last landing.
49 How long is an Instrument Rating valid for?

[A] 18 months.
[B] 6 months.
[C] 12 months.
[D] The IR is valid provided regular skill tests are completed at intervals dictated by the
authority.
50 If a pilot holding a medical certificate issued under the authority of EASA-FCL

receives an injury or is suffering from a medical condition which affects his
ability to act as the crew member of an aircraft:
[A] The medical certificate will remain valid.
[B] The medical certificate will be suspended after 25 days following the date of the injury or
onset of the illness unless the pilot has again been declared fit.
[C] The medical certificate will be suspended if the illness or injury has been reported to the
authority.
[D] The medical certificate ceases to be valid.
51 An applicant for a Private Pilot Licence must be at least ____ years old.
[A] 16.
[B] 15.
[C] 17.
[D] 18.
12
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
52 When should the student pilot present his Pilot Medical Certificate?
[A] Before the beginning of a practical training.
[B] Before the beginning of theoretical lessons.
[C] Before his first solo flight.
[D] At giving in the exam's application.
53 What Medical Certificate is required for a holder of a Private Pilot Licence?

[A] Class A or Class B Medical Certificate.
[B] Class 1 Medical Certificate only.
[C] Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate.
[D] Class 2 Medical Certificate only.
54 What Medical Certificate is required for a student pilot (PPL)?

[A] Class A or Class B Medical Certificate.
[C] Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate.
[D] Class 2 Medical Certificate only.
55 At least how many hours of dual instructions on aeroplane must have an

applicant for a PPL?
[A] 15 hours.
[B] 10 hours.
[C] 25 hours.
[D] 20 hours.
56 How many hours of total flying hours, required for the practical skill test for an
issue of a Private Pilot Licence, may be completed on a Flight & Navigation
Procedures Trainer or Simulator?
[A] 7.
[B] 5.
[C] 10.
[D] 15.
57 At least how long must be the cross-country flight, required for the eligibility for
the Private Pilot Licence skill test, and how many full stop landings at different
aerodromes shall be made at this flight?
[B] 100 NM; 4 landings.
[B] 150 NM; 2 landings.
[C] 200 NM; 4 landings.
[D] 100 NM; 2 landings.
13
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
58 At least how long must be the cross-country flight, required for the eligibility for
the Light Aircraft Pilot Licence, LAPL(A), skill test, and how many full stop
landings at different aerodromes shall be made at this flight?
[A] 100 NM; 2 landings.
[B] 80 NM; 1 landing.
[C] 150 NM; 1 landing.
[D] 80 NM; 2 landings.
59 At least how many hours of flying experience as a pilot of aircraft must have an
applicant for a Private Pilot Licence?
[A] 35 hours.
[B] 45 hours.
[C] 50 hours.
[D] 40 hours.
60 What does the term "solo flight time" mean?

[A] Flight time as a pilot-in-command.
[B] Entire flight time when a pilot is alone in the aircraft.
[C] Entire flight time, when a pilot is alone in the aircraft, and 50% of the co-pilot flight time.
[D] Solo flight time of a student-pilot.
61 To act as pilot in command of an airplane carrying passengers, the holder of PPL

must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an airplane of the
same class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the
preceding:
[A] 12 calendar months.
[B] 90 days.
[C] 24 calendar months.
[D] 3 calendar months.
62 The one takeoff and landing during the last 90 days that are required to act as
pilot of an airplane, in case carrying passengers at night, must be done during
the time period from the:
[A] The end of evening civil twilight when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the
horizon to the beginning of morning civil twilight when the centre of the sun's disc is 6
degrees below the horizon.
[B] 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
[C] Sunset to sunrise.
[D] Sunrise to sunset.
14
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
63 The Flight Time is the total time from the moment:

[A] Than an aircraft first moves under its own or external power for the purpose of taking off
until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight.
[B] Than an aircraft starts its engine(s) for the purpose of taking off or when a non-powered
aircraft first moves, until the moment engine(s) stop(s) operating or when a non-powered.
[C] Aircraft comes to rest at the end of the flight.
[D] Than an aircraft becomes completely airborne until the moment it finally touches the
ground at landing.
64 Flight time during which the flight instructor will only observe the student acting
as pilot-in-command and shall not influence or control the flight of the aircraft is:
[A] Solo flight time under supervision.
[B] Flight time as student pilot-in-command (SPIC).
[C] Flight time as pilot-in-command.
[D] Solo flight time.
65 Which aircraft, and under which conditions, may a holder of a private pilot
licence fly, provided he is properly endorsed?
[A] All single-engined airplanes provided no payment or refund is done for such flight.
[B] All airplanes without exceptions provided no payment or refund is given to the pilot.
[C] All airplanes without exceptions provided no payment or refund is done for such flight.
[D] All airplanes up to the maximum takeoff mass 1,500 kg, provided no payment or refund is
given to the pilot.
66 As a substitute for the proficiency check with an examiner, what minimum flight
time and what number of takeoffs and landing is required for the revalidation of a
single pilot single engine airplane class rating?
[A] 12 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6
hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings.
[B] 12 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 5
hours of pilot-in-command time, and 5 takeoffs and landings.
[C] 10 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6
[D] 5 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6
67 How long is the period before the expiry date of a single pilot single engine
rating, during which a proficiency check for a revalidation may be done?
[A] 1 month.
[B] 15 days.
[C] 3 months.
[D] 2 months.
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FCL.215, FCL.120
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25.5.2016
68 To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the private pilot

licence holder must have three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90
days as the sole manipulator of the controls in an airplane the same:
[A] Make and model.
[B] Type or class.
[C] Class, but not the type.
[D] Type, but not the class.
69 With the respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

[A] SEP(land), SEP(sea), MEP(land), MEP(sea), SET(land), SET(sea) and TMG.
[B] Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
[C] SEP(land), SEP(sea), MEP(land) and MEP(sea).
[D] Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas lifter.
70 Holder of a medical certificate, when becoming aware of hospital admission of

more than 12 hours, surgical operation or invasive procedure, the regular use of
medication, the regular use of correcting lenses:
[A] Can continue flying with pilot's own discretion.
[B] Must pass the aviation medical exam again.
[C] Must inform the CAA within the period of 21 days.
[D] Must, without undue delay, seek aero-medical advice.
71 In which of the following cases should the aviation medical certificate deem to
be suspended?
[A] All answers are correct.
[B] Any surgical operation or invasive procedure and pregnancy.
[C] Any surgical operation or invasive procedure.
[D] Any illness involving incapacity to his functions as a member of flight crew throughout a
period of 21 days or more, or any significant personal injury involving incapacity to
undertake his functions as a member of the flight crew.
72 How long are single pilot single engine class ratings valid?
[A] 1 years.
[B] 6 months.
[C] 2 year.
[D] 3 years.
16
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev.1.2
25.5.2016
73 Maximum validity of the EASA-PPL pilot licence is:

[A] 3 years.
[B] 5 years.
[C] 2 years.
[D] It is not limited.
74 The validity of a pilot licence is determined by the validity of:

(PPL)
[A] The ratings contained therein and the Medical Certificate.
[B] The Medical Certificate only.
[C] The licence itself, as endorsed in the licence.
[D] It is valid eternally after completion of required skill test.
75 Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport,
shall include:
[A] The designation of an alternate airport.
[B] An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
[C] A study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use.
[D] A study of departure procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use.
76 In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the
departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
determine:
[A] Check CVR funtion prior departure.
[B] Review traffic control light signal procedures.
[C] Check the accuracy of the navigational equipment and the emergency locator transmitter
(ELT).
[D] Runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance
data.
77 Pilots are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened
during:
[A] Takeoffs and landings.
[B] All flight conditions.
[C] Flight in turbulent air.
[D] Level flight.
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FCL.215, FCL.120
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25.5.2016
78 What does "AAL" mean?

[A] Acknowledge.
[B] Above aerodrome level.
[C] Angle of attack limitation.
[D] Aerodrome altitude level.
79 Which aircraft speed should be entered into the "Cruising Speed" block of an
ICAO Flight Plan?
[A] Indicated Air Speed.
[B] Calibrated Air Speed.
[C] True Air Speed.
[D] Ground Speed.
80 What should be entered into the "LEVEL" block of an ICAO VFR Flight Plan?
[A] The phrase "VFR: variable".
[B] It is left blank for VFR flights.
[C] The proposed cruising altitudes.
[D] Either the word "VFR" or the proposed cruising altitude.
81 What is the meaning of "WIP"?

[A] With effect from.
[B] With permission.
[C] Work in progress.
[D] Weight increase procedure.
82 An aircraft is cleared by ATC to "maintain 3000 feet or below in terminal area".

The responsibility for ensuring adequate terrain clearance rests with:
[A] The aircraft commander.
[B] Finnish Civil Aviation Authority.
[C] ATC only.
[D] ATC and the aircraft commander.
83 The Air Traffic Control may issue a permission for a SVFR flight:
[A] For flights overflying of the terminal zone.
[B] For all flights in the restricted zone.
[C] For flights entering or leaving the control zone only.
[D] For flying an airport traffic circuit inside the control zone only.
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FCL.215, FCL.120
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25.5.2016
84 The vertical limits of a control zone are:

[A] From the surface to the defined FL.
[B] From GND to the bottom limit of a terminal area.
[C] From the surface to the defined altitude.
[D] From the surface to 900m MSL.
85 What is the definition of a term "Control Zone"?

[A] Airspace of defined dimensions within which all air traffic is controlled.
[B] Airspace immediately above an airport.
[C] A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth.
[D] All answers are correct.
86 A part of the airspace of defined dimensions above defined area where flights
are not allowed, is called:
[A] Restricted zone.
[B] Terminal area.
[C] Prohibited airspace.
[D] Control zone.
87 What is the definition of the term "Controlled Airspace"?

[A] Airspace around an airport.
[B] Airspace of defined dimensions within which all aircrafts are controlled.
[C] Airspace immediately above an airport with more than one runway.
[D] An airspace within which air traffic control services are not provided.
88 The controlled airspace, extending from the surface to the specified altitude, is
the:
[A] Terminal control area.
[B] Control area.
[C] Control zone.
[D] Flight information region.
89 When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in

Class G airspace, the pilot should:
[A] Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
[B] Enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AAL.
[C] Fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AAL.
[D] Make all turns to the right, unless otherwise indicated.
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90 The minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight in class
G airspace at altitudes above 300m from ground or 900 m MSL, whichever is
higher, is:
[A] 8,000 m.
[B] 300 m.
[C] Clear of cloud and with the surface in sight.
[D] 1,500 m.
91 No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies
within Class D airspace unless the:
[A] Ground visibility at that airport is at least 5.0 km.
[B] Ground visibility at that airport is at least 1.5 km.
[C] Flight visibility at that airport is at least 1.5 km.
[D] Ground visibility at that airport is at least 3.0 km.
92 The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D:
[A] Airspace is clear of clouds and 3.0 km visibility.
[B] 450 meter ceiling and 1.5 km visibility.
[C] 450 meter ceiling and 5.0 km visibility.
[D] 450 meter ceiling and 8.0 km visibility.
93 Which are the meteorological minima, that allow the tower to permit an SVFR
flight in a control zone during daytime? The flight visibility must be at least:
[A] 1,200 m.
[B] 800 m.
[C] 1,500 m.
[D] 5,000m.
94 A VFR flight should adhere to the table of prescribed flight level at flight
altitudes, higher than:
[A] 2,200 ft GND.
[B] 3,000 ft GND.
[C] 700 ft MSL.
[D] 3,000 ft MSL.
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95 Which of the cruising flight level listed is appropriate for a VFR flight over 3,000
ft MSL, while maintaining true course 170° and if the local variation value is
20°W?
[A] FL 55.
[B] FL 65.
[C] FL 40.
[D] FL 30.
96 Which of the aircraft listed has always the right-of-way over all other participants
in air traffic?
[A] A balloon.
[B] An aircraft in final approach for landing.
[C] An aircraft in distress.
[D] Helicopter.
97 When two aircraft are approaching each other head-on and there is a danger of
collision, which way should each aircraft turn?
[A] Each aircraft should turn to the right.
[B] Heavier aircraft should turn to the right, easier aircraft should turn to the left.
[C] Heavier aircraft should turn to the left, easier aircraft should turn to the right.
[D] Each aircraft should turn to the left.
98 What actions should the pilots of aircraft take if on head-on collision course?
[A] Both should make a climbing turn to the left.
[B] Both should turn to the right.
[C] Both should make a climbing turn to the right.
[D] Both should turn to the left.
99 How shall aircraft in the air avoid each other on a head-on collision course?
[A] Powered-aircraft has a right of way, non-powered aircraft shall deviate to the right.
[B] Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the right.
[C] Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the left.
[D] Non-powered aircraft has a right of way, powered aircraft shall deviate to the left.
100 What action should the pilots of an airplane and a glider take if on a head-on
collision course?
[A] Both pilots should give way to the right.
[B] The airplane pilot should give way, because his aircraft is more controllable.
[C] The airplane pilot should give way.
[D] The glider pilot should give way, because a glider is more controllable than an airplane.
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101 What should the glider pilot do, if on head-on collision course with the two-
engined Cessna?
[A] He should deviate to the left thus giving way to the airplane.
[B] He may maintain heading and speed, because a glider has always the right-of-way,
however he should pay extra attention.
[C] He should deviate to the right.
[D] He should open the air brakes immediately, because a multi-engine airplane has the
right-of-way.
102 Aircraft A with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control
area. Aircraft B with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same
altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?
[A] Aircraft A if B is on its right.
[B] Aircraft A regardless of the direction which B is approaching.
[C] Aircraft B regardless of the direction A is approaching.
[D] Aircraft B if A is on its left.
103 Which aircraft must give way when two airplanes are converging at the same
altitude?
[A] The airplane on the right.
[B] Bigger airplane.
[C] The airplane which has another airplane at his right side.
[D] The ultralight airplane.
104 An airplane and another airplane, towing a glider, are on crossing courses. If the
aerotow is on the left of the airplane, which has the right-of-way?
[A] Both aircraft.
[B] The aerotow.
[C] Depends on the magnetic heading of separate aircraft.
[D] The aircraft in free flight.
105 Which of the following statements, concerning heavier-than-air aircraft right-of-

way during landing, is correct?
[A] Aircraft at higher level shall give way to aircraft at lower level, but the latter shall not take
advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is in the final stage of an approach
to land, or to overtake that aircraft.
[B] Aircraft in final stage of an approach to land or which is first in an airport traffic circuit, has
the right-of-way over all other aircraft.
[C] Aircraft which is the highest has the right-of-way over all other aircraft with the exception
of turbojet aircraft, which has the right-of-way over propeller aircraft.
[D] Aircraft which is the highest has the right-of-way over all other aircraft with the exception
of turboprob aircraft, which has the right-of-way over propeller aircraft.
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106 When overtaking an aircraft in flight, you should:

[A] Alter your course to the right.
[B] Alter your course to the left.
[C] Fly below or above it.
[D] Fly below it exclusively.
107 A night flying inside the territory of Finland is defined by the state regulations as
a flying between:
[A] 30 minutes after sunset and 30 minutes before sunrise.
[B] 30 minutes before sunset and 30 minutes after sunrise.
[C] 60 minutes before sunset and 60 minutes after sunrise.
[D] Sunset and sunrise.
108 How often is a glider or an aeroplane state of airworthiness inspected by the

authorized person?
[A] Regularly each year before beginning of a flying season.
[B] Regularly every two years and after a hard landing.
[C] One year after the last regular inspection and in case of changing ownership.
[D] Regularly each year and in case if changing ownership or after repairs.
109 Requested national mark of an aircraft registered in Finland is:

[A] A fife-placed mark consisting of a certain combination of letters.
[B] The country flag of Finland.
[C] The letters O and H.
[D] A random four-placed number.
110 An ATC clearance provides:

[A] Priority over all other traffic.
[B] Authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
[C] Adequate separation from all traffic.
[D] Adequate separation from VFR traffic.
111 What action should be taken if a pilot receives a clearance that will cause a
deviation from a rule?
[A] Refuse the clearance as stated and request that it be amended.
[B] Accept the clearance, because the pilot is not responsible for the deviation.
[C] Accept the clearance and advise Air Traffic Control when deviation occurs.
[D] Accept the clearance and advise Air Traffic Control that he believes a rule deviation will
occur.
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112 If a pilot has to deviate from an air traffic control clearance due to unforseen
circumstances, he has to:
[A] Inform all ATC stations concerned by transmitting a multiple call.
[B] Transmit a general call giving all details concerning his deviation from the ATC clearance.
[C] Notify the competent ATC unit without delay and obtain an amended ATC clearance.
[D] Notify the Aeronautical Information Service.
113 When intercepted by a military aircraft, the pilot of an VFR aircraft should:
[A] Squawk 7700.
[B] Attempt to establish communications with the intercepting aircraft over 121.5 MHz and
comply with the intercepts signals.
[C] Acknowledge receipt of intercepting aircraft instructions with the appropriate visual
signals.
114 During a cross-country flight you notice the military aircraft approaching your
left wingtip and flying along; after a short time it makes an abrupt break-away
maneuver of a climbing turn to the left. What does this mean?
[A] Land at the aerodrome in the direction of my flight!
[B] You have been intercepted. Follow me!
[C] You may proceed!
[D] Leave the prohibited area immediately!
115 What is the meaning of a double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal
area? (See annex PPL(A) 010-02)
[A] "Closed runways or taxiways."
[B] "Glider flights in operation."
[C] "Prohibition of landing."
[D] "Cleared to land."
116 What Medical Certificate is required for a student pilot (LAPL)?

[A] Class 1, Class 2 or LAPL Medical Certificate.
[C] Class A or Class B Medical Certificate.
[D] Class LAPL Medical Certificate only.
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AIRCRAFT GENERAL
KNOWLEDGE
020
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1 A HALON fire extinguisher:

[A] Is quite safe to use in an enclosed cockpit if the cockpit is subsequently ventilated.
[B] Gives off highly toxic fumes and should never be used in an enclosed cockpit
[C] Is safe to use in an enclosed cockpit.
[D] Is only suitable for wood or fabric fires and is, therefore, of no use in a cockpit
2 If you suspect carburettor icing when flying an aircraft whose engine is not fitted
with a carburettor air-temperature gauge, the correct action would be:
[A] To select the appropriate amount of carburettor heat depending on the amount of icing
suspected.
[B] To always select full carburettor heat.
[C] To always select full carburettor heat unless the engine starts to run roughly, at which
point the carburettor heat should be selected to cold.
[D] To open the throttle to make up for the lost power.
3 Aquaplaning speed:
[A] Can be calculated, in knots, by multiplying the square root of the tyre pressure by nine.
[B] Increases as the depth of tread on the tyres reduces.
[C] Increases as the depth of water on the ground increases.
[D] Is measured in miles per hour.
4 Connecting two 12 volt, 40 ampere-hour, capacity batteries in series will provide

a battery of:
[A] 24 volts and 80 ampere-hours capacity.
[B] 12 volts and 80 ampere-hours capacity.
[C] 24 volts and 40 ampere-hours capacity.
[D] 12 volts and 40 ampere hour's capacity.
5 If a blockage occurs in the oil cooler of an aircraft engine while the aircraft is in
flight, a by-pass valve allows the oil to by-pass the cooler. The by-pass functions
on the principle of:
[A] Temperature dependence.
[B] Pressure dependence.
[C] Mechanical selection.
[D] Hydraulic selection.
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6 A propeller blade is twisted along its length in order to:

[A] Give a progressively increasing blade angle from root to tip.
[B] Maintain the optimal Angle of Attack from root to tip.
[C] Give a progressively increasing pitch from root to tip.
[D] Compensate for the decreasing linear speed of the blade from root to tip.
7 Magnetos are:
[A] Fitted within the distributor and fire in the same sequence as the spark-plugs.
[B] Generators, driven by the cam-shaft, used to supply electrical equipment
[C] Used to generate low voltage sparks for the spark-plugs.
[D] Self-contained, engine driven, electrical generators which produce high voltage sparks.
8 Which of the following is an appropriate action to take if you have a carburettor

fire on startup?
[A] Deselect carburettor heat.
[B] Select mixture control to Idle Cut Off (ICO).
[C] Turn the starter switch to "Off".
9 Tyre creep:
[A] Refers to the movement of an aircraft against the brakes.
[B] Can be prevented by painting lines on the tyre and wheel.
[C] Can be recognised by the misalignment of markings painted on the tyre and the wheel.
[D] Can be prevented with glue.
10 The diagram shows a light aircraft electrical power system (See PPL(A) 020-01).
In flight if the loadmeter reading drops to zero, the most probable cause is that
the:
[A] Battery is flat.
[B] Battery has been fully charged.
[C] Alternator has failed.
[D] Bus-bar is overloaded.
11 The power output of an internal combustion engine can be increased by:

[A] Decreasing the area of the cylinder.
[B] Increasing the engine R.P.M.
[C] Decreasing the length of the stroke.
[D] Increasing the size of the fuel tank.
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12 When turning through North in the Northern Hemisphere:

[A] Liquid swirl will increase the magnitude of any turning error.
[B] Turning errors are greatest closer to the magnetic equator.
[C] Acceleration errors are always more significant than turning errors.
[D] The compass will be lively.
13 In a dive, with the throttle setting constant, the engine R.P.M. of an aircraft fitted
with a fixed pitch propeller will:
[A] Remain constant whatever the airspeed.
[B] Decrease as the airspeed increases.
[C] Increase if the airspeed is allowed to increase.
[D] Decrease as long as the throttle setting is not changed.
14 Immediately after starting an aircraft engine, you must check the starter warning
light. If it is still illuminated you should:
[A] Monitor it for 30 seconds. If it remains illuminated shut down the engine.
[B] Shut down the engine immediately.
[C] Do nothing. The starter warning light should stay on while the engine is running.
[D] Shut down the engine, count to 30, and then attempt a re-start.
15 The significance of using the chemically correct mixture of air and fuel is that:
[A] It is the one usually used.
[B] It allows complete combustion to occur.
[C] It is 15:1 by volume.
[D] It gives the best results.
16 Ignoring any Instrument or Position Errors, in what conditions will the Air Speed
Indicator indicate the True Airspeed of an aircraft?
[A] At any altitude, but only when ISA conditions prevail.
[B] At any altitude or temperature.
[C] At any altitude, provided that the temperature lapse rate is in accordance with ISA.
[D] In ISA, sea-level conditions only.
17 While carrying out the Dead Cut Check, with the right magneto selected, you
notice that the engine falters, and you suspect it will stop running. What should
you do?
[A] Quickly switch to the left magneto.
[B] Allow the engine to stop completely.
[C] Quickly switch to both magnetos.
[D] Open the throttle to keep the engine running, and then select both magnetos.
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18 Theoretically, a 100Ah battery will supply 25A for:

[A] 25 hours.
[B] 25 minutes.
[C] 100 minutes.
[D] 4 hours.
19 During one complete Otto Cycle, the piston:

[A] Rotates around the gudgeon pin twice.
[B] Moves towards the cylinder head twice.
[C] Receives two power strokes.
[D] Moves towards the cylinder head four times.
20 Which of the following is not a component of a dry vacuum system?

[A] A filter to clean the air.
[B] A vacuum generator.
[C] A vacuum controller.
[D] A system lubrication device.
21 While taxying in an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller, you suspect that
you have carburettor icing. The correct action to take would be to:
[A] Select carburettor heat to fully hot. Then, before take-off, select carburettor heat cold,
making sure that the engine develops the correct minimum take-off rpm.
[B] Select carburettor heat to fully hot and leave this setting selected until you have taken off
and are climbing away.
[C] Select carburettor heat to fully hot; then select cold as the rpm drops.
[D] Avoid the use of carburettor heat on the ground, and rely on the heat of the engine within
the cowlings to melt the ice.
22 The Mechanical Tachometer:

[A] Is driven directly from the alternator drive.
[B] Uses the friction generated in a drag cup to rotate a shaft, which is connected to a
pointer, against the pressure of a hairspring.
[C] Is driven directly from the prop shaft. Gears reduce the speed of rotation so that a
generator can be used to produce a voltage proportional to shaft speed which is indicated
on a gauge calibrated in RPM.
[D] Works on the principle of a magnetic field being induced in a drag cup and creating a
torque which rotates a shaft attached to the pointer on the dial of a Tachometer.
31
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23 Detonation could result from using:

[A] Too low a manifold pressure.
[B] Too weak a mixture.
[C] A higher grade fuel than recommended.
[D] Too high an RPM.
24 Pre-ignition in a four stroke piston engine is:

[A] The explosive combustion of the fuel-air mixture.
[B] Caused by a rich mixture in a hot engine.
[C] The fuel air mixture burning earlier than it should.
[D] Characterised by the ringing nature of the explosion it causes.
25 If the engine gets too hot, the mixture may ignite before the spark plug fires.
[A] This is called detonation.
[B] This is called pre-ignition.
[C] The mixture should be weakened to assist in cooling the engine.
[D] The throttle should be opened to assist in cooling the engine.
26 Instruments normally supplied from the electrical system include the:

[A] Fuel quantity gauges and the turn co-ordinator.
[B] Engine rpm indicator and the fuel quantity gauges.
[C] Turn co-ordinator and oil pressure gauge.
[D] Engine rpm indicator and the turn co-ordinator.
27 Some carburettors are fitted with a diffuser which:

[A] Prevents the mixture becoming too rich as the rpm decreases.
[B] Prevents the mixture becoming too lean as the rpm increases.
[C] Prevents the mixture becoming too lean as the rpm decreases.
[D] Prevents the mixture becoming too rich as the rpm increases.
28 Where in the engine is the oil temperature read by the temperature probe which
is connected to the engine's oil temperature gauge?
[A] Inside the hot sections of the engine.
[B] After the oil has passed through the oil cooler but before it reaches the hot sections of the
engine.
[C] As the oil leaves the oil tank.
[D] Before the oil has passed through the oil cooler.
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29 To assist in reducing the temperature of the engine:

[A] The air/fuel mixture can be weakened.
[B] The airspeed can be reduced.
[C] The cowl flaps can be closed.
[D] The air/fuel mixture can be richened.
30 The component parts of the wing shown in the diagram are: (See PPL(A) 020-02)
A/B/C
[A] Primary Spar/Formers/Stringer
[B] Front Spar/Formers/Rear Spar
[C] Front Spar/Secondary Spar/Former
[D] Stringers/Secondary Spar/Former
31 Semi-monocoque can be defined as:

[A] A stressed skin with supported apertures containing an internal structure framework.
[B] A framework of light-gauge steel tubes welded together to form a space frame of
triangular shape.
[C] A structure with no apertures at all.
[D] An apertureless structure with load bearing formers being supported by stringers and
longerons over a stressed skin.
32 On a light aircraft fitted with a mechanically steered nose wheel, steering on the
ground is normally effected by:
[A] Cables operated from the aileron control wheel.
[B] Control rods/cables operated by the rudder pedals.
[C] Use of the differential braking technique, only.
[D] Hydraulic jacks which allow self-centring.
33 Engine compression ratio is the ratio of the:

[A] Swept volume to the clearance volume.
[B] Clearance volume to the swept volume.
[C] Swept volume to the total volume.
[D] Total volume to the clearance volume.
34 A 100 Ampere-Hour battery:

[A] Takes 100 hours to charge.
[B] Must be used in parallel with another similar battery.
[C] Supplies the bus-bars through a 45 Ampere circuit breaker.
[D] Will, in theory, supply 20 Amps for up to 5 hours.
33
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35 In the event of an alternator or generator failure during flight the:

[A] Alternator master switch should be turned off and flight continued normally without
electrical power.
[B] Flight may be continued normally because the battery supplies all electrical loads.
[C] Electrical loads should be reduced to a minimum and a landing made as soon as safely
practicable.
[D] Shut down all electrical devices and land as soon as possible.
36 If, during descent, the static sources to the airspeed indicator and altimeter
become blocked by ice:
[A] Both instruments will under-read.
[B] The airspeed indicator will over-read and the altimeter will under-read.
[C] The airspeed indicator will under-read and the altimeter will over-read.
[D] Both instruments will over-read.
37 Within one "Otto" cycle, the valves of a four stroke piston engine will each open:
[A] Twice.
[B] Once.
[C] During the power stroke.
[D] During the induction stroke.
38 The purpose of the compass deviation card fixed next to an aircraft's magnetic
compass is to:
[A] Indicate the discrepancy between the heading shown on the compass and the actual
magnetic heading.
[B] Compensate for the influence of magnetic material carried on the person of the pilot
and/or passengers.
[C] Indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft's track and magnetic north.
[D] Indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft's track and true north.
39 The most common method for shutting down an aircraft engine equipped with
carburettor is:
[A] Switching the starter switch to off.
[B] Closing the throttle and moving the mixture to ICO.
[C] Moving the mixture to Idle Cut off (ICO).
[D] Closing the throttle.
34
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40 Why do aircraft engine ignition systems incorporate a means of spark

augmentation?
[A] Because the speed of rotation of the engine, during starting, is too low for the magneto to
produce enough energy to ignite the air-fuel mixture.
[B] Because, at high engine speeds, a fat spark is needed to extract maximum power from
the air-fuel mixture.
[C] In order to overcome the problem of spark-retard during starting.
41 Aircraft maintenance carried out by a private pilot in accordance with the pilot's
legal entitlement:
[A] Need not be logged or recorded.
[B] Is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by a licensed engineer.
[C] Is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by the pilot who carried out the
maintenance.
[D] Is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by a CAD approved inspector.
42 Carbon monoxide gas, which is highly toxic, may enter the aeroplane cabin in
flight because of an exhaust system defect. Carbon Monoxide:
[A] May be identified by its strong smell.
[B] Is odourless and colourless.
[C] May be identified by its grey colour.
[D] Has a very distinctive taste.
43 Blade angle ____ from the hub to the tip of a propeller blade in order to maintain
an optimal ____ from hub to tip.
[A] Decreases, Geometric Pitch.
[B] Increases, Angle of Attack.
[C] Decreases, Angle of Attack.
[D] Increases, Effective Pitch.
44 A Direction lndicator:
[A] Provides a stable reference in azimuth and elevation for maintaining accurate headings
and pitch attitudes.
[B] Is badly affected by acceleration in a turn.
[C] Is not affected by drift produced from mechanical friction in the gyro gimbal bearings.
[D] Suffers from apparent drift of the gyro from the fixed position in space to which it was
aligned, produced by Earth rotation.
35
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45 As you climb altitude ____ and density ____ and, therefore, the mixture will be
____.
[A] Decreases/Increases/Decreases
[B] Increases/Decreases/Increases
[C] Increases/Decreases/Decreases
[D] Decreases/Decreases/Increases
46 The power output of a four-stroke piston engine at sea level:

[A] Is constant as rpm increases.
[B] Is proportional to the volume of mixture induced into the cylinder.
[C] Increases as rpm increases.
[D] Increases initially, then remains constant as rpm increases.
47 As an aircraft with a variable-pitch, constant-speed propeller accelerates along

the runway:
[A] The blade pitch angle increases, maintaining a constant angle of attack and R.P.M.
[B] The angle of attack will decrease and the engine R.P.M. remain constant.
[C] The angle of attack will remain constant and the engine R.P.M. will increase.
[D] The linear velocity of the propeller tip will gradually decrease.
48 The diagram shows a light aircraft electrical power system, which employs a
centre-zero reading ammeter. (See PPL(A) 020-03). In flight with the battery fully
charged and the battery switch ON, you would expect the ammeter to be:
[A] To the right showing a large positive reading.
[B] In the centre-zero position.
[C] To the left showing a negative reading.
[D] Fluctuating, but mainly showing a negative reading.
49 A flying control lock:

[A] Is only necessary on the elevators.
[B] Will constrain the control column to its design limits so as not to overstress the airframe
during normal operations.
[C] Must always be used when flying in gusty conditions.
[D] Is used to lock the controls on the ground to prevent damage in high wind conditions.
50 If a fire occurs in a wheel and tyre assembly and immediate action is required to
extinguish it, the safest extinguishant to use is:
[A] Carbon dioxide.
[B] Dry powder.
[C] Bromotrifluoromethane (BTF).
[D] Water acid.
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51 A tied gyro:
[A] Cannot be used in a Direction Indicator because of the apparent wander caused by the
rotation of the earth about its axis.
[B] Does not suffer from apparent wander (drift) because of rotation of the earth about its
axis.
[C] Has its axis in the vertical or pitching plane of the aircraft.
[D] Has its axis in the horizontal or yawing plane of the aircraft.
52 When referring to the magnetic compass, pilots must bear in mind that:
[A] Turning errors are maximum when turning through East and West, and minimum when
turning through North and South.
[B] Turning errors are maximum when turning through North and South, and minimum when
turning through East and West.
[C] Turning errors increase, the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Equator, and diminish
as the aircraft approaches the Magnetic Poles.
[D] Acceleration errors increase the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Poles, and diminish
as the aircraft approaches the Magnetic Equator.
53 After starting a cold engine, if the oil pressure gauge does not indicate within
approximately 30 seconds:
[A] This may be ignored, provided that the oil level was checked to be sufficient before start-
up.
[B] The engine rpm should be increased and then the oil pressure re-checked.
[C] The engine must be stopped immediately.
[D] This may be ignored if the oil temperature is high, provided that the oil level was checked
to be sufficient before start-up.
54 Tyre creep may be identified by:

[A] Two white blocks painted on the wheel flange.
[B] Two yellow diametrically opposed arrows painted on the tyre sidewalls.
[C] A tyre pressure check.
[D] Alignment marks painted on the tyre sidewall and wheel flange.
55 The exhaust gas temperature gauge:

[A] Requires power from the D.C. bus-bar.
[B] Is an engine instrument designed to protect the engine from excessive heat.
[C] Does the same job as the cylinder head temperature gauge.
[D] Can indicate whether the air-fuel mixture being drawn into the combustion chamber is too
lean or too rich.
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56 The correct working cycle of a four stroke engine is:

[A] Exhaust, induction, power, compression.
[B] Exhaust power induction, compression.
[C] Induction, power, compression, exhaust.
[D] Induction, compression, power, exhaust.
57 Flying an aircraft with a flat battery, having started the engine using a ground
source, is:
[A] Acceptable because the battery will be fully charged again before take-off.
[B] Not recommended because the battery may not charge correctly during flight.
[C] Acceptable because the battery is never required in flight.
[D] Not recommended because the electrical loads will not be energised.
58 lt is important to ensure the priming pump is locked after use because:

[A] If it vibrates closed, it will cause the engine to stop.
[B] It may cause a fuel leak, resulting in an increased fire risk.
[C] It may cause fuel to be sucked from the fuel tank into the carburettor, causing an
extremely rich mixture.
[D] It may cause fuel to be sucked from the fuel strainer into the inlet manifold, causing an
extremely rich mixture.
59 What will be the consequence for the validity of an aircraft's Certificate of

Airworthiness (C of A) if the aircraft is not maintained in accordance with the
approved maintenance schedule detailed in the C of A?
[A] The C of A will be rendered invalid until such time as the required maintenance is
completed.
[B] The aircraft owner must apply to the CAA for an exemption from the required
maintenance schedule.
[C] The C of A must be renewed before the aircraft may fly.
[D] The validity of the C of A will not be affected.
60 The temperature of the gases within the cylinder of a four stroke engine during
the power stroke will:
[A] Remain constant.
[B] Decrease.
[C] Follow Charles's Law.
[D] Increase.
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61 The crankshaft in a piston engine:

[A] Converts rotary motion into reciprocating movement.
[B] Controls the clearance of the valves.
[C] Converts reciprocating movement into rotary motion.
[D] Rotates at half the camshaft speed.
62 Baffles:
[A] Reduce the flow of air around the engine.
[B] Are placed within the lubrication system to slow down the passage of oil into the engine.
[C] Are directional air guides which direct the airflow fully around the cylinder.
[D] Must be close fitting to reduce the flow of air around the engine.
63 Pre-ignition:
[A] Is also known as pinking.
[B] Is usually caused by a hot spot in the combustion chamber.
[C] Occurs after ignition.
[D] Happens after the spark occurs at the plug.
64 If is best to run the engine with the mixture:

[A] Chemically correct as this is most efficient.
[B] Slightly rich, as the remaining fuel helps cool the engine.
[C] Slightly rich, as the remaining air helps cool the engine.
[D] Slightly weak, as the remaining air helps cool the engine.
65 The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the:

[A] Total cylinder volume to swept volume.
[B] Total cylinder volume to the volume when the piston is at bottom dead centre (BDC).
[C] Cylinder volume when the piston is at BDC to the cylinder volume when the piston is at
TDC.
[D] Swept volume to clearance volume.
66 Detonation is:
[A] An explosion that occurs before the normal ignition point.
[B] Unstable combustion.
[C] Usually associated with a rich mixture and high cylinder head temperature.
[D] Usually associated with a weak mixture and a low cylinder head temperature.
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67 If the power supply to the pitot heater failed during flight in icing conditions and
the aircraft subsequently descended, the readings on the Altimeter/the VSI/the
ASI would, if ice had blocked the pitot (Total Pressure) tube:
[A] Read Correctly / Under-read / Over-read.
[B] Read Correctly / Read Correctly / Under-read.
[C] Under-read / Read Correctly / Over-read.
[D] Read Correctly / Read Correctly / Over-read.
68 The cylinder head temperature gauge:

[A] Obtains its temperature information from the hottest engine cylinder, by means of a probe
consisting of two dissimilar metals joined together.
[B] Is primarily a fuel management instrument.
[C] Requires alternating current to power the instrument needle.
[D] Obtains its information from a probe which is installed about four inches from the cylinder
head on the exhaust system.
69 In icing conditions, if a static vent became blocked during level flight and the
aircraft subsequently climbed, the readings on the Altimeter / the VSI / the ASI
would:
[A] Remain unchanged / Under-read / Over-read.
[B] Remain unchanged / Remain unchanged / Under-read.
[C] Under-read / Remain unchanged / Over-read.
[D] Over-read / Over-read / Under-read.
70 The most probable cause of the needle of the oil pressure gauge fluctuating
when the aircraft is in level flight with the engine running at cruise rpm is:
[A] A low oil supply.
[B] The presence of air in the oil tank.
[C] A loose electrical connection.
[D] The low power setting.
71 The principal reason why light training aircraft have fixed undercarriages is that:
[A] The reduced performance caused by the additional drag of a fixed undercarriage is offset
by its simplicity, low cost and easy maintenance.
[B] Training aircraft need to manoeuvre on the ground.
[C] Training aircraft need to ensure that kinetic energy on landing is absorbed.
[D] Training aircraft need to be supported at a convenient height
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72 In the aircraft tanks, fuel is most likely to be contaminated by water from:

[A] Poorly fitting fuel caps.
[B] Atmospheric air remaining in the tanks.
[C] Contamination during re-fuelling.
[D] Leaks in the tanks that have let in rain.
73 The oil temperature gauge in the cockpit is connected to a temperature probe

that senses the temperature of the oil:
[A] In the sump of the engine.
[B] Within the hot sections of the engine.
[C] Before it passes through the oil cooler.
[D] After it passes through the oil cooler but before it reaches the hot sections of the engine.
74 An altimeter:
[A] Contains a barometric capsule, connected to a total pressure source, that contracts
during a descent.
[B] Contains an aneroid capsule connected to a static pressure source. The capsule
contracts during a descent.
[C] Contains a barometric capsule that expands during a descent.
[D] Contains a partially evacuated capsule that expands during a descent.
75 An accelerator pump is used to prevent a "flat spot". A "flat spot" is:

[A] When the throttle is closed quickly and the engine is starved of fuel.
[B] When the throttle is opened quickly and the demand for fuel cannot be met immediately.
[C] When the throttle is opened quickly and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich.
[D] When the throttle is closed and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich.
76 It is possible to get carburettor icing when the relative humidity is unknown

within a temperature range of:
[A] 0°C and below.
[B] -20°C to +10°C.
[C] -30°C to +10°C.
[D] At any temperature.
77 If a fuse blows during flight it:

[A] May be replaced as often as required.
[B] Should not be replaced until after landing.
[C] May be replaced by a fuse of a higher rating to ensure that it will not blow again.
[D] May be replaced in the air once only, by one of the same value.
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78 Most nose wheels on modern light aircraft are:

[A] Spring steel struts.
[B] Oleo pneumatic shock-absorber struts.
[C] Spring coil struts.
[D] Compressed rubber struts.
79 If, while an aircraft is descending, the static vent leading to the Vertical Speed
Indicator becomes blocked, the indicator will:
[A] Indicate a climb.
[B] Continue to show the same reading.
[C] Show a zero reading, after a short delay.
[D] Indicate a descent.
80 When an aircraft is in flight, the pressure sensed by the forward facing hole in
the pitot tube is:
[A] Dynamic pressure only.
[B] Static pressure only.
[C] Total pressure plus dynamic pressure.
[D] Dynamic pressure plus static pressure.
81 Which of the following will increase the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller
blade?
[A] Increased TAS and increased RPM.
[B] Decreased TAS and increased RPM.
[C] Increased TAS and decreased RPM.
[D] Decreased TAS and decreased RPM.
82 The gyro in an artificial horizon is:

[A] An earth gyro rotating in a vertical plane about the aircraft's lateral axis.
[B] An earth gyro rotating in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis.
[C] An earth gyro rotating in a vertical plane about the aircraft's longitudinal axis.
[D] A tied gyro rotating in a horizontal plane about the aircraft's longitudinal axis.
83 On a fixed pitch propeller aircraft whose engine is fitted with a carburettor, the of
induction system icing are:
[A] A rise in engine oil temperature and a fall in oil pressure.
[B] A sudden drop in rpm and engine temperature.
[C] A rise in manifold pressure and a reduction in air-speed, in level flight.
[D] A gradual drop in rpm and possible rough running and vibration.
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84 The main advantage of an alternator over a generator is that:

[A] A generator can only produce alternating current.
[B] An alternator will give almost full power at engine idling speed.
[C] The output of a generator fluctuates too much.
[D] An alternator produces direct current from its armature.
85 As air enters the restriction of a Venturi, velocity ____ , static or ambient

pressure ____ and temperature ____ .
[A] lncreases / lncreases / Increases
[B] Increases / Decreases / Decreases
[C] Decreases / Increases / Decreases
[D] Decreases / Decreases / Increases
86 Which instruments are usually powered by a vacuum pump system?

(1) Direction Indicator
(2) Turn Coordinator
(3) Attitude Indicator
(4) Altimeter
(5) Magnetic Compass.
[A] (1), (3) and (4).
[B] (1) and (2).
[C] (1) and (3).
[D] (1), (3) and (5).
87 Detonation is:
[A] Also known as 'piston slap'.
[B] Harmful to the pistons.
[C] Part of normal engine running.
[D] Cannot be identified externally.
88 The distributor arm rotates at:

[A] Twice engine speed.
[B] One quarter engine speed.
[C] Engine speed.
[D] A half engine speed.
89 A Direction Indicator may be aligned with the magnetic compass:

[A] Because of the effect of liquid swirl.
[B] To minimise the effect of magnetic dip.
[C] Periodically, to offset the affect of acceleration during a turn.
[D] By using the caging knob to rotate the Dl azimuth card when the wings are level.
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90 Where, in an aircraft engine fuel system, is the electric fuel-boost pump normally
fitted?
[A] Between the mechanical fuel pump and the carburettor.
[B] Immediately adjacent to the mechanical fuel pump.
[C] At the lowest point of the fuel tank.
[D] At the highest point of the fuel tank.
91 A magnetic heading:
[A] Is the sum of the compass heading and compass deviation.
[B] Is the sum of the compass heading, compass deviation and variation.
[C] Is not affected by turning errors.
[D] Is always referenced to True North.
92 The prevention of excessive oil pressure in an aircraft engine is assured by:

[A] The engine's filter by-pass valve.
[B] Ensuring that the engine does not exceed the red-line rpm value.
[C] The engine's high capacity pressure pump.
[D] The engine's oil pressure relief valve.
93 How soon after starting a cold aircraft engine should the oil pressure gauge give
an indication?
[A] Within 30 seconds; otherwise shut down the engine.
[B] Immediately; otherwise shut down the engine.
[C] By the time pre-flight checks are complete; otherwise shut down the engine.
[D] As long as the oil levels were at an adequate level before start-up, and RPM is within
limits, it is probable that the oil pressure gauge is faulty and should be reported after the
flight.
94 If the gyro of a turn indicator runs at a lower RPM than its design specification,
how will the actual rate of turn of the aircraft compare to the rate of turn shown
on the turn indicator?
[A] The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be same as the rate indicated.
[B] The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be greater than the rate indicated.
[C] The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be less than the rate indicated.
[D] The turn indicator will not indicate a rate of turn.
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95 To work at its highest efficiency, the engine:

[A] Needs to be at the highest temperature consistent with safe operation.
[B] Oil system must constantly be supplied with hot oil.
[C] Must be used at high altitude to take advantage of the cooling effect of the atmosphere.
[D] Needs to be at the lowest temperature consistent with safe operation.
96 On your instrument panel, the suction gauge is showing system failure.

However, the gyrodriven instruments appear to be functioning normally, and the
Low Vacuum Warning Light is off. Where do you think the problem lies?
[A] In the suction system.
[B] In the suction gauge.
[C] With the Low Vacuum Warning Light.
[D] In the gyro driven instruments.
97 When a compass swing is being carried out:

[A] It can be carried out on any part of the airfield which is dry and flat.
[B] The aircraft's heading compass reading is compared with readings from a 'land or datum'
compass.
[C] It will enable the aircraft's variation to be determined.
[D] It will enable the aircraft's true heading to be determined.
98 What part(s) of a reciprocating aircraft engine seal(s) the combustion chamber?

[A] The cylinder gasket.
[B] The cylinder rings and valves.
[C] The spark plugs.
[D] The camshaft.
99 The piston rod in a reciprocating engine forms a link between:

[A] The cylinder piston and the camshaft.
[B] The cylinder piston and the crankshaft.
[C] The valve rod and the rocker arm.
[D] The rocker arm and the valve body.
100 What part in a reciprocating four-stroke engine operates the piston valves?
[A] The piston bolt.
[B] The piston rod.
[C] The camshaft.
[D] The diffuser valve.
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101 The purpose of fins around the cylinder of a reciprocating air-cooled aircraft
engine is a:
[A] Lower engine aerodynamic drag.
[B] Cylinder augmentation.
[C] Better cylinder cooling.
[D] Lower engine mass.
102 The power of an aviation engine without a supercharger decreases with altitude
because of:
[A] Lower outside temperatures it does not operate at optimum temperature.
[B] Lower air density and therefore insufficient cylinder loading.
[C] Higher air density it receives too poor fuel/air mixture.
[D] Lower air density it receives too rich fuel/air mixture.
103 A reciprocating aviation engine develops the highest power:

[A] During takeoff.
[B] At high altitudes.
[C] During takeoff with full RPM.
[D] In level flight at low altitude.
104 Oil in a reciprocating engine serves:

[A] For lubricating and cooling of the engine.
[B] To increase mixture combustion temperature in the cylinders.
[C] As additive for proper fuel/air which burns in the cylinders.
[D] For quiet engine operating only.
105 What would be the most likely cause of fluctuating oil pressure in an aircraft
engine?
[A] Worn or loose bearing.
[B] Low oil level.
[C] Loose prop seal.
[D] Faulty oil pressure indicator.
106 When the engine is stopped, the main source of electrical power is the:
[A] Generator or alternator.
[B] Magneto.
[C] Battery.
[D] Circuit breaker.
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107 For exciting of the alternator an initial electrical current is needed, provided by
the:
[A] Battery.
[B] Magneto.
[C] Ignition coil.
[D] Current distributor.
108 Can the alternator of an aircraft engine operate without the battery?
[A] Yes, provided the magnetos operate properly.
[B] No, not in any case.
[C] Yes, however at high RPM only.
[D] Yes, provided the pilot has switched off all electrical services on board.
109 To which source of electrical power is the starter of an aircraft engine connected
to?
[A] Depends on the type of aircraft.
[B] To the external source of electrical power only.
[C] To the alternator or generator.
[D] Directly to the battery.
110 The battery master switch should be turned to OFF after the engine is stopped to
avoid the battery discharging through the:
[A] Electrical services connected to it.
[B] Magnetos.
[C] Alternator or generator.
[D] Ignition switch.
111 One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for:
[A] Uniform heat distribution.
[B] Balanced cylinder head pressure.
[C] Improved engine performance.
[D] Improved engine effiency.
112 What would be the result of a single magneto failure on an aircraft in cruise
flight?
[A] Black smoke would be observed from the exhaust.
[B] The engine would be difficult to control.
[C] The engine would backfire excessively.
[D] A slight drop in RPM, plus a slight increase in fuel consumption.
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113 Can an engine of a parked modern reciprocating aircraft fire if somebody turns
the propeller by hand?
[A] Normally not if the engine is cold with ignition switched off.
[B] Yes, provided the master switch is on.
[C] No, under no circumstances.
[D] Yes, always.
114 The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:

[A] Increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
[B] Automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
[C] Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
[D] Increase in air pressure in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air velocity.
115 A carburettor is used to supply:

[A] Air to the engine cylinders.
[B] A fuel/air mixture to the engine cylinders.
[C] Fuel to the engine cylinders.
[D] Fuel in atmospheric pressure to the engine cylinders.
116 An engine that does not have a carburettor but rather metered fuel that is fed
under:
[A] Metering carburettor.
[B] Fuel injection.
[C] Supercharging.
[D] Float-type carburettor.
117 The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to:
[A] Density of the air.
[B] Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air
density.
[C] Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure
and
[D] Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
118 What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburettor heat is applied?
[A] The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.
[B] A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
[C] The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
[D] The fuel/air mixture stays the same.
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119 While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What
will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
[A] The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
[B] There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the
excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
[C] The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may
cause detonation.
[D] The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean and may cause pre-ignition.
120 If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburettor,

the first indication of carburettor ice would most likely be:
[A] Engine roughness.
[B] Loss of RPM.
[C] A drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
[D] A rise in cylinder head temperature.
121 Carburettor ice has formed in the venturi of your carburettor and your aircraft
starts losing power. Will the use of carburettor heat result in immediate increase
in RPM?
[A] No, in a fixed-pitch propeller aircraft there will first be some rough running and a further
loss of RPM as the melted ice is ingested by the engine. Then RPM will increase.
[B] Yes, since the carburettor ice will melt immediately.
[C] No, since carburettor heat simply melts the ice and does not affect RPM.
[D] Yes, since carburettor heat simply melts the ice and does not affect RPM.
122 What is the purpose of an auxiliary fuel boost pump installed in some light
aircraft?
[A] Increasing engine efficiency.
[B] Faster emptying of fuel tanks.
[C] Pre-injection of fuel into engine cylinders.
[D] Providing fuel to the carburettor during start-up and supplying fuel if the engine driven fuel
pump fails.
123 Proper functioning of an auxiliary fuel pump could be checked by:

[A] The fuel pressure.
[B] The alternator output.
[C] The characteristic noise.
[D] A fuel dropping out of the drain hole.
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124 Why do high compression engines require fuels of a higher grade?

[A] To prevent carburettor icing at high speeds.
[B] To develop more power.
[C] To avoid detonation and resulting destruction of the engine.
[D] To avoid pre-ignition and resulting destruction of the engine.
125 On a reciprocating aviation engine, what is controlled by the exhaust

temperature gauge (EGT)?
[A] Carburettor icing.
[B] Quality of the fuel/air mixture.
[C] Oil pressure.
[D] Oil consumption.
126 An abnormally high oil temperature indication in case of a four-stroke engine

may be caused by:
[A] Operating with too high viscosity oil.
[B] The oil level being too low.
[C] Excessively rich mixture.
[D] The oil level being too high.
127 For internal cooling, a reciprocating aircraft engine especially depends on:
[A] A properly functioning thermostat.
[B] The circulation of lubricating oil.
[C] The air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
[D] The liquid coolant flowing over the exhaust manifold.
128 As the throttle is advanced, what happens to the constant-speed propeller of an

aircraft?
[A] Angle of attack will not change.
[B] Angle of attack will increase.
[C] RPM will increase.
[D] Angle of attack will decrease.
129 In what flight condition is a torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?
[A] High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
[B] Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
[C] Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.
[D] High airspeed, low power, high angle of attack.
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130 Which adverse effect, caused by a gyroscopic effect, will a pilot experience
during the takeoff roll while lifting a tail off the ground?
[A] Pitching.
[B] Banking tendency.
[C] Yawing.
[D] Nose up tendency.
131 What is the function of a shimmy dumper on an aircraft undercarriage?

[A] To dumpen bouncing.
[B] To prevent nose wheel vibrations.
[C] To decrease main leg piston travel.
[D] To decrease shocks on direction pedals.
132 Which instrument(s) is(are) connected to the total pressure?

[A] Classic vertical speed indicator and altimeter.
[B] Airspeed indicator, classic rate-of-climb indicator, and altimeter.
[C] Airspeed indicator only.
[D] Classic vertical speed indicator only.
133 Besides the altimeter, which instruments are connected to the static pressure
line?
[A] Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, and turn-and-skid indicator.
[B] Airspeed indicator only.
[C] Airspeed indicator and external temperature indicator.
[D] Airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator.
134 What causes the true airspeed of an airplane to differ from its indicated
airspeed?
[A] Pitot error caused by flow losses in the pitot tube.
[B] Variations in temperature and air density.
[C] Yaw error caused by the yawing movement in cruise flight.
[D] The forward wind component.
135 Which is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed
indicators on any one aircraft or glider?
[A] Maximum structural cruising speed (VMO).
[B] Maneuvering speed (VA).
[C] Never-exceed speed (VNE).
[D] Maximum speed with wing flaps extended (VFE).
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136 The maximum speed for flaps extension is:

[A] Usually equal to the maximum speed for flying with flaps extended.
[B] Lower than the maximum speed for flying with flaps extended.
[C] Equal to the maximum cruising speed.
[D] Equal to the maneuvering speed.
137 What does the green color band on the airspeed indicator of an aircraft indicate?
[A] Normal operating speed range.
[B] Dangerous area.
[C] The landing gear and flaps operating speed range.
[D] Maximum allowed speed.
138 What does the red line on an aviation instrument generally represent?
[A] Normal operating range.
[B] Dangerous area.
[C] Landing gear operating speed range.
[D] Maximal or minimal allowed value.
139 The red line on an airspeed indicator of a sport aircraft represents:

[A] The speed which could be exceeded with the wing flaps raised and the landing gear
retracted.
[B] The maximum speed for abrupt controls movement.
[C] The speed which could be exceeded in calm air only.
[D] The speed which must not be exceeded any time.
140 The barometric pressure scale on an aircraft altimeter serves for:

[A] Setting of pressure value at the pressure level, from which will the altimeter measure
altitudes.
[B] Air pressure reading at flight altitude.
[C] Pressure difference reading between the air pressure at the airport level and the air
pressure at the sea level.
[D] Exact setting of the altimeter during the annual inspection in a service facility.
141 If set to QNH, what will be aircraft altimeter reading after landing?
[A] Airfield height above the pressure plane 1013,2 hPa.
[B] Zero.
[C] Airfield height above the mean sea level.
[D] Airfield pressure altitude above the standard value.
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142 What height does the altimeter indicate if set to local QNH?
[A] Height above airport.
[B] Height above sea level.
[C] Height above terrain.
[D] Flight level.
143 Which altitudes indicates an aircraft altimeter if set to standard atmospheric

pressure?
[A] True altitudes above the ground surface.
[B] Absolute altitudes.
[C] Relative altitudes.
[D] Flight levels.
144 What would be the indication of an aircraft altimeter if the pilot fails to set QNH
during descent, and therefore lives the instrument set to the standard pressure?
[A] The airport heigh above the pressure plane 1013.2 hPa.
[B] Zero.
[C] The airport elevation.
[D] The indication is not usable.
145 If a pilot changes the altimeter setting to a lower pressure, the altitude indication
will:
[A] Stay unchanged.
[B] Decrease.
[C] Increase.
[D] Unreliable.
146 When set to QFE pressure, an altimeter will indicate the:

[A] True altitude above ground surface.
[B] Altitude above sea level.
[C] Height above the airfield.
[D] Flight level.
147 If an altimeter is set to QFE pressure, the instrument indication after landing will
be:
[A] The airfield height above the pressure plain 1013.2 hPa.
[B] The airfield elevation.
[C] Zero.
[D] The airfield pressure height above the standard value.
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148 If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure
without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the aircraft true altitude:
[A] Increases.
[B] Decreases.
[C] Stays unchanged.
[D] Will be unreliable.
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FLIGHT PERFORMANCE
AND PLANNING
030
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1 Maximum Landing Mass (MLM) is best defined as.

[A] Maximum permissible total mass on landing under normal operating conditions.
[B] Maximum permissible total mass after landing.
[C] Maximum permissible total mass on the approach to land.
[D] Maximum permissible total mass on taxiing to park.
2 What V speed is it important not to exceed if sudden full-pitch, nose-up, control

movements are planned, and why?
[A] Vne, sudden control movements can cause structural damage.
[B] Vd, sudden control movements can cause a departure from controlled flight.
[C] Va, sudden control movements can cause structural damage.
[D] Vfb, sudden control movements can cause a departure from controlled flight.
3 What is the colour of the caution speed range on an Air Speed Indicator, and
what must the pilot be mindful of when operating in this range?
[A] Yellow. - This speed range should not be entered unless the air is smooth. Any
manoeuvres should be made using small and gentle control inputs.
[B] Green. - Stalls, airframe deformations, and/or structural damage may occur in this range
if the pilot uses abrupt and full control deflections.
[C] Yellow - Stalls, causing airframe deformations, and/or structural damage may occur in
this range if the pilot uses abrupt and full control deflections.
[D] Green. - Control flutter may occur if turbulence is encountered.
4 What name is given to the load at which the aircraft structure will fail?
[A] Safety Factor Load.
[B] Ultimate Load.
[C] Limit Load.
[D] Maximum Load.
5 An aircraft which has been grossly overloaded will:

1.require increased take-off and landing distances.
2. Have a higher stalling speed.
3. Have a reduced maximum level flight speed.
4. Have increased range and endurance.
5. Have a reduced rate of climb and operating ceiling.
Which of the above are correct?

[A] 1, 2, 3 & 4.
[B] 1, 2, 4 & 5.
[C] 2, 4 & 5.
[D] 1, 2, 3, & 5.
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6 Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) is best defined as.

[A] Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft without occupants and baggage.
[B] Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no passengers or fuel.
[C] Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no crew or fuel.
[D] Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no useable fuel.
7 Maximum Take Of Mass (MTOM) is defined best as:

[A] Maximum permissible total mass prior to taxiing.
[B] Maximum permissible total mass at the start of the takeoff run.
[C] Maximum permissible total mass prior to take off.
[D] Maximum permissible total mass at the point of rotation.
8 Which of the following situations may, under certain conditions, result in

structural damage occurring?
[A] An aircraft being flown above its maximum landing mass.
[B] An aircraft in the utility category being flown at its maximum permissible mass.
[C] An aircraft being flown above its maximum all up mass.
[D] An aircraft in the normal category being flown at its maximum permissible mass.
9 Never exceed speed (VNE) is the red radial line on the ASI and marks the speed
which:
[A] Flight is permitted in smooth conditions only.
[B] Prolonged flight is unsafe.
[C] You cannot exceed.
[D] Structural damage will occur.
10 When flying in very rough air what is the maximum speed to be adopted in order
to avoid overstressing the airframe?
[A] Vd or Va.
[B] Vd or Vno.
[C] Vno or Vfe.
[D] Vra or Va.
11 Your aircraft has an oil reservoir with a capacity of 3 imp/gal which is positioned
20 inches aft of the datum. Given that the oil weighs 9.1 lbs/gal, the reservoir will
possess a moment of:
[A] 27.3 lb in.
[B] 60 lb in.
[C] 546 lb in.
[D] 182 lb in.
60
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12 Assuming the aircraft is at rest on the ground, what term best describes image
"D"? (See PPL(A) 030-01)
[A] Empty Mass.
[B] Zero Fuel Mass.
[C] Traffic Load.
[D] Maximum All Up Mass.
13 An aircraft is loaded such that its C of G is on the aft limit:

I The stalling speed decreases
II Range and endurance increase
III The stalling speed increses
IV Stick forces increase
[A] Only II and IV are correct.
[B] I, II, and IV are correct.
[C] Only I and IV are correct.
[D] Only I and II are correct.
14 Certification requirements stipulate that when loading a light aircraft:

[A] The C of G should remain within the defined limits and the Maximum Take-off Mass must
not be exceeded.
[B] All seats, baggage compartments and fuel tanks are contained within the C of G limits so
that it is impossible to load the aircraft beyond its limits.
[C] With maximum traffic load and full fuel the aircraft will not exceed the authorised
Maximum Takeoff Mass.
[D] That the Maximum Take-off Mass is not exceeded, and the CofG remains at least 5%
inside the C of G limits.
15 The Maximum Take-off Mass of an aircraft may be limited by:

[B] The authorised performance category of the aircraft, i.e. Utility / normal / aerobatic.
[C] The airworthiness condition of the aircraft.
[D] Structural design load limits and or runway length, altitude and temperature.
16 DOM (Dry Operating Mass) is defined as:

[A] The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation including: crew and
crew baggage, catering and removable passenger service equipment and traffic load.
[B] The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation including: crew and
crew baggage, catering and removable passenger service equipment and fuel.
[C] The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation including crew, crew
baggage and special equipment but excluding useable fuel and traffic load.
[D] The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation including: crew and
crew baggage, catering and removable passenger service equipment, traffic load and
fuel.
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17 An aircraft loaded in a dangerous manner, so that its C of G is beyond its

forward limit will:
[A] Require less effort to rotate on takeoff
[B] Require less effort to flare when landing.
[C] . Have both an increased longitudinal stability and stalling speed.
[D] Have both an increased range and endurance.
18 The flight characteristics of an aircraft which has its C of G at the forward limit
will be:
[A] Insensitivity to Pitch Control and great Longitudinal Stability.
[B] Insensitivity to Pitch Control and little Longitudinal Stability.
[C] Sensitivity to Pitch Control and little Longitudinal Stability.
[D] Sensitivity to Pitch Control and great Longitudinal Stability.
19 An aircraft weighing 2000 lbs with a total CofG moment of + 169400 lb in uplifts
440 lbs of fuel. If the effective arm of the fuel is 88.5 inches aft of the datum, what
will be the aircraft's new mass and C of G moment?
[A] 1560 lbs +208340 lb in.
[B] 2440 lbs +208340 lb in.
[C] 2440 lbs +169488.5 lb in.
[D] 1560 lbs +169488.5 lb in.
20 You plan to carry your aircraft's maximum permissible 'Traffic Load'. Your
principal consideration during your flight planning will be that:
[A] Your fuel load may have to be limited to prevent you exceeding the Maximum All Up
Weight / Mass.
[B] It is mandatory to carry a full fuel load when carrying passengers.
[C] The fuel load is accounted for in 'Traffic Load' calculations.
[D] The 'Traffic Load' may have to be reduced to allow for the full fuel load.
21 Traffic Load:
[A] Includes the Basic Empty Mass.
[B] Includes drinkable water and lavatory chemicals.
[C] Is the total mass of passengers, baggage and freight and fuel.
[D] Is the total mass of passengers, baggage and freight.
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22 The consequences of operating an aeroplane with the C of G beyond the aft limit
will be:
I On the ground the aircraft would be tail heavy and passenger or crew
movement or fuel usage could make it tip up.
II The flying controls would be too sensitive increasing the risk of a tail strike at
rotation.
III The tendency to stall would increase and it may be impossible to achieve
"hands off" balanced flight.
IV Recovery from a spin would be much more difficult.
[A] Only statement I is correct.
[B] All statements are correct.
[C] Only statements I and IV are correct.
[D] Only statements II and III are correct.
23 Assuming the aircraft is at rest on the ground, what term best describes image
A? (See PPL(A) 030-01)
[A] Maximum All Up Mass.
[B] Take Off Mass.
[C] Zero Fuel Mass.
[D] Empty Mass.
24 In which Category. Utility or Normal, would you expect to operate the aircraft
represented in the attached CofG / Moment Envelope if its mass is 2100 lbs and
its CofG Moment 90,000 lb inches? (See PPL(A) 030-02)
[A] Heavy duty.
[B] Utility.
[C] Normal and Utility.
[D] Normal.
25 What is used as the aircraft reference for the C of G limit, and upon which axis is
that limit found?
Axis / Reference
[A] Normal / Spinner.
[B] Longitudinal / Datum.
[C] Lateral / Tail.
[D] Vertical / Wheels.
26 C of G limits are set by the manufacturer and:

[A] Have only a forward limit.
[B] Are mandatory.
[C] Are a guide only.
[D] Have only an aft limit.
63
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27 Your aircraft has:

A Take-off Mass of = 2353 tbs
A calculated C of G for departure = 89.75 inches aft of the datum
An estimated fuel burn = 200 lbs with a C of G 85.00 inches aft of datum.
The position of the C of G on landing will be?
[A] 96.97 inches aft of the datum.
[B] 82.52 inches aft of the datum.
[C] 105.98 inches aft of the datum.
[D] 90.19 inches aft of the datum.
28 The Centre of Gravity range of most aircraft reduces as the aircraft mass
increases, as a result of:
[A] The forward C of G limit moving rearwards to reduce stability.
[B] The aft C of G limit moving forward to increase stability.
[C] The aft C of G limit moving rearwards to extend the static margin.
[D] The static margin moving forward to reduce manoeuvrability.
29 When calculating the MZFM (maximum zero fuel mass), the following are
included:
[A] Crew, Passengers, Baggage, Catering & Fuel.
[B] Crew, Passengers & Baggage.
[C] Crew, Passengers, Baggage & Catering.
[D] Drinkable water and lavatory chemicals.
30 What effect will a higher aircraft mass have on rotate speed and stalling speed?
[A] It will increase rotate speed and decrease stalling speed.
[B] It will decrease both speeds.
[C] It will increase both speeds.
[D] It will decrease rotate speed and increase stalling speed.
31 What is the effect of runway slope on the take-off?

[A] A downhill slope will decrease the take-off performance.
[B] An uphill slope will increase the take-off performance.
[C] A downhill slope will increase the take-off distance.
[D] An uphill slope will increase the take-off distance.
64
FCL.215, FCL.120
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32 That part of a runway surface which is used for normal operations during take-
off, excluding any clearway or stopway, is referred to as:
[A] The take-off run available (TORA).
[B] The landing distance available (LDA).
[C] The take-off distance available (TODA).
[D] The emergency distance available (EMDA).
33 If the density of the atmosphere is reduced, the take-off distance will be:
[A] Unaffected.
[B] Decreased.
[C] Increased.
[D] Controlled by wind.
34 If the density of the air is increased above ISA conditions, the effect will be:
[A] To increase the take-off distance.
[B] To increase the take-off performance.
[C] To decrease the take-off performance.
[D] To decrease just the take-off run.
35 When the density of the atmosphere is relatively low, the resulting reduction in:
[A] Thrust and drag has no apparent effect on the take-off distance required.
[B] Both lift and engine power will require a longer take-off distance.
[C] Drag will permit the use of greater flap angles.
[D] Drag offsets the loss of engine power giving improved acceleration.
36 The main reason for taking off into wind is to:

[A] Decrease the takeoff distance available (TODA).
[B] Decrease the ground speed of the aircraft at lift-off.
[C] Increase the ground speed of the aircraft.
[D] Increase the take-off distance.
37 Increasing the aeroplane's gross weight will have what effect on the take-off?
[A] Increase the stall speed and the take-off run required.
[B] Decrease the stall speed and increase the take-off run required.
[C] Increase the stall speed and decrease the take-off run required.
[D] Decrease the stall speed and the take-off run required.
65
FCL.215, FCL.120
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38 What is the reason for increasing the speed in a prolonged climb:

[A] To maintain the best rate of climb speed.
[B] To increase the flow of air through the engine and keep it cool.
[C] To reduce the noise of the aircraft in sensitive areas.
[D] To maintain the best angle of climb speed.
39 Climbing at Vy will achieve:

[A] The best obstacle clearance performance.
[B] The maximum angle of climb.
[C] The maximum increase in height in the shortest horizontal distance.
[D] The greatest increase in altitude in a given period of time.
40 To gain the greatest amount of height in the shortest time period the aircraft
should be flown at:
[A] The best angle of climb speed (Vx).
[B] 60 kt.
[C] The best rate of climb speed (Vy).
[D] At the speed for maximum endurance.
41 Calculate the rate of climb for an aircraft operating at 5000ft with an outside air
temperature of 0°C. (See PPL(A) 030-03)
[A] 470 fpm.
[B] 585 fpm.
[C] 475 fpm.
[D] 530 fpm.
42 Increasing the mass (and, therefore, weight) of the aircraft will:

[A] Decrease the rate and angle of climb.
[B] Increase the rate and angle of climb.
[C] Increase the rate of climb and decrease the angle of climb.
[D] Decrease the rate of climb and increase the angle of climb.
43 The best rate of climb is achieved:

[A] When flying at the speed for maximum excess thrust available.
[B] When flying at the speed for maximum excess power available.
[C] When climbing into wind.
[D] When flying at vx.
66
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44 The indicated air speed for the best rate of climb when climbing to cruise altitude
will tend to:
[A] Remain the same.
[B] Decrease then increase.
[C] Decrease.
[D] Increase.
45 The lift produced by the wing of an aeroplane that is climbing and maintaining a
constant airspeed will be:
[A] Greater than weight.
[B] Less than weight.
[C] Equal to weight.
[D] Independent of weight.
46 An aircraft cruising at 2000ft is cleared to climb to 8000ft. Calculate the time

taken in minutes, the fuel used in gallons and the distance flown during the
climb. The temperature is standard and the wind is calm. (See PPL(A) 030-04)
Time (mins) / Fuel (gal) / Distance (nm)

[A] 15 / 3,0 / 21
[B] 12 / 2,3 / 17
[C] 3 / 0,7 / 4
[D] 18 / 3,7 / 25
47 Climbing at Vx will achieve:

[A] The best time to height.
[B] The maximum angle of climb.
[C] The greatest increase in altitude in a given period of time.
[D] The maximum horizontal distance for a given vertical distance.
48 If the centre of gravity is moved aftwards. The effect is?

[A] A greater tail load.
[B] A stronger lift-weight couple which requires more tail plane down force.
[C] A reduced range and endurance.
[D] An increased range and endurance.
49 What speed should be flown for maximum range: (See PPL(A) 030-05)
[A] A.
[B] B.
[C] C.
[D] D.
67
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Rev_1/2016
50 What is the maximum range speed for a piston engine aircraft?

[A] VMP.
[B] VMD.
[C] At a higher speed than VNO and at the lowest safe altitude.
[D] At a speed less than VMD and at the lowest safe altitude.
51 In order to maximise the glide range, the aircraft should be flown:

[A] At a negative angle of attack at VMD.
[B] At high angles of attack at VMD.
[C] At low angles of attack at VMP.
[D] At low angles of attack at VMD.
52 A pilot wishes to fly at a speed which will give him maximum range. He knows
that he is flying with a tailwind. How will the speed selected by the pilot compare
with the maximum range speed for still air?
[A] It will be decreased by a margin slightly less than the amount of tailwind.
[B] It will be increased by a margin slightly less than the amount of tailwind.
[C] It will be the same as for still air.
[D] It will be decreased by a margin slightly more than the amount of tailwind.
53 Which of the following cases will result in a reduced performance and possibly
exceed the structural limitations of the aircraft?
[A] An aircraft with a higher take-off mass than a landing mass.
[B] An aircraft that is stalled at its maximum all up weight.
[C] An aeroplane that is operated above its maximum all up landing weight.
[D] An aircraft that is operated above its maximum all up weight.
54 What is the effect of a headwind on the glide angle and glide distance?
[A] Glide angle will increase and glide distance increase.
[B] Glide angle will remain the same and glide distance will remain the same.
[C] Glide angle will increase and glide distance decrease.
[D] Glide angle will decrease and glide distance decrease.
55 What speed must be flown to attain the maximum cruise endurance?

[A] Maximum speed.
[B] VY.
[C] VMP.
[D] VMD.
68
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56 The maximum glide range will be achieved by:

[A] A relatively low angle of attack being maintained.
[B] A relatively high angle of attack being maintained.
[C] A negative angle of attack being maintained.
[D] A high descent angle.
57 If weight is increased, the range of the aircraft will be:

[A] Increased.
[B] Unchanged.
[C] Reduced.
[D] Reduced if no increase in lift is achieved.
58 When gliding for maximum range, an aircraft with a greater weight will:
[A] Have a reduced glide range.
[B] Have a faster descent speed but the same descent angle.
[C] Have a shallower descent angle.
[D] Have a faster descent speed and a reduced descent distance.
59 What speed must be flown to attain the maximum cruise range?

[A] VMD.
[B] VX.
[C] Maximum speed.
[D] VMP.
60 What would be the effect of an increase in temperature upon the air density and
aircraft performance?
[A] Reduced density and an increase in aircraft performance.
[B] Increased density and reduced aircraft performance.
[C] Increased density and increased aircraft performance.
[D] Reduced density and reduced aircraft performance.
61 Compared to gliding in still air, the effect of a tailwind will:

[A] Increase the glide angle and increase the glide range.
[B] Decrease the glide angle and decrease the rate of descent.
[C] Have no effect on the glide range or the rate of descent.
[D] Increase the glide range but have no effect on the glide endurance.
69
FCL.215, FCL.120
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62 Which of the speeds indicated by A, B, C or D should be flown for maximum

endurance? (See PPL(A) 030-05)
[A] D.
[B] B.
[C] C.
[D] A.
63 What is the effect of an increase in mass on the stalling speed and landing
distance required?
[A] Increased stall speed and increased landing distance.
[B] Increased stall speed and decreased landing distance.
[C] Decreased stall speed and decreased landing distance.
[D] Decreased stall speed and increased landing distance.
64 When landing, if an aircraft's true air speed is significantly less than the true
ground speed then the aircraft is experiencing:
[A] A reduced atmospheric density.
[B] A headwind.
[C] A tailwind.
[D] A cross wind.
65 If the approach and landing speed is higher recommended speed in the aircraft
manual the effect will be that:
[A] The landing distance will be decreased.
[B] The landing distance will be increased.
[C] The landing performance will improve.
[D] The landing distance will be unaffected.
66 What effect would a 1% downslope have on the landing distance required?

[A] Decrease it by 10%.
[B] Increase it by 5%.
[C] Decrease it by 5%.
[D] Increase it by 10%.
67 Compared to landing on a level runway, what would be the effect of landing on a

downward sloping runway?
[A] The landing performance will improve.
[B] The landing distance will be increased.
[C] The landing distance will be decreased.
[D] The landing distance will be unaffected.
70
FCL.215, FCL.120
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68 If the stalling speed in the landing configuration is 55 knots. VREF would be

approximately:
[A] 75kt.
[B] 65kt.
[C] 71kt.
[D] 69kt.
69 The VREF to be attained by the landing screen height of 50ft must be:
[A] 1.15 times the stalling speed in the takeoff configuration.
[B] 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration.
[C] 1.43 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration.
[D] 33% of stall speed.
70 If the aircraft mass is increased by 15%, the landing distance required will
increase approximately:
[A] 33% or by a factor of 1.33.
[B] 15% or by a factor of 1.15.
[C] 10% or by a factor of 1.1.
[D] 20% or by a factor of 1.2.
71 Landings are carried out into wind because:

[A] It will reduce the ground speed and reduce the landing distance required.
[B] It increases the ground speed and reduces the landing distance required.
[C] It decreases the ground speed and reduces the landing distance available.
[D] It gives the pilot greater control over the aircraft at lower speeds.
72 Determine if the aircraft mass is inside the limits (normal category)! (See PPL(A)
030-10)
mass (lb) moment/1000 (lbxin)
Empty mass 1,350 51,5
Pilot and front passenger 360
Rear passengers 280
Fuel 30 US gal.
Oil 8 qt -0,2
[A] Aft of the aft limit.
[B] Forward of the forward limit.
[C] Inside limits, close to the forward limit.
[D] Inside limits.
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73 What is the maximum amount of fuel that may be aboard the airplane on takeoff
if loaded as follows? (See PPL(A) 030-10)

Empty mass 1,350 51,5
Rear passengers 310
Baggage 45
Oil 8 qt -0.2
[A] 34 USA gal.
[B] 24 USA gal.
[C] 40 USA gal.
[D] 46 USA gal.
74 GIVEN:
mass (lb) arm(in) moment (lbxin)
Empty mass 1,495.0 101.4 151,593.0

Pilot and passenger 380.0 64.0
Fuel 30 US gal 96.0
The CG is located how far aft of datum?

[A] 119.80 in.
[B] 92.44 in.
[C] 94.01 in.
[D] 135.00 in.
75 Determine the moment with the following data: (See PPL(A) 030-10)

Empty mass 1,350 51.5
Fuel (full std. tanks)
Oil 8 qt -0.2
[A] 74.9 lbxin.
[B] 38.7 lbxin.
[C] 69.9 lbxin.
[D] 77.0 lbxin.
72
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76 What is the maximum amount of baggage that may be loaded aboard the normal
category airplane for CG to remain inside proper limits? (See PPL(A) 030-10)

Empty mass 1,350 51.5
Rear passengers 400
Fuel 30 US gal.
Baggage
Oil 8 qt -0.2
[A] 120 lbs.
[B] 105 lbs.
[C] 90 lbs.
[D] 75 lbs.
77 The easiest way to determine the pressure altitude is setting an altimeter to:
[A] 1013.2 hPa and reading the altitude.
[B] The airport elevation and reading the altitude.
[C] The airport elevation and reading the value in the barometric window.
[D] Zero and reading the value in the barometric window.
78 Basic reason for calculating the density altitude is determining:

[A] The flight levels above the transition altitude.
[B] The pressure altitude.
[C] The aircraft performance.
[D] The safe altitude over mountainous terrain.
79 What is pressure altitude?

[A] The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 1013.2 hPa.
[B] The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
[C] The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
[D] The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to QFE.
80 Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

[A] When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
[B] When the atmospheric pressure is 1013.2 hPa.
[C] When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
[D] If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
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81 Which of the factors below increases the density altitude of an airport?

[A] Increase of atmospheric pressure.
[B] Increase of temperature.
[C] Decrease of relative humidity of the air.
[D] Decrease of temperature.
82 If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is lower than standard, the
density altitude is:
[A] Lower than true altitude.
[B] Lower than pressure altitude and approximately equal to true altitude.
[C] Higher than true altitude and lower than pressure altitude.
[D] Higher than pressure altitude.
83 What is density altitude?

[A] The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 1013.2 hPa.
[B] The height above the standard datum plane.
[C] The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
[D] The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
84 Determine approximately density altitude of an airport, where the temperature is

standard and an altimeter set to 1011hPa, reads 1,300 ft:
[A] 1,300 ft.
[B] 1,240 ft.
[C] 1,360 ft.
[D] 1,400 ft.
85 What is increase in density altitude if a temperature increases from 0 to 10°C and

if the pressure altitude of an airport remains 3,000 ft?
[A] 3,000 ft.
[B] 1,200 ft.
[C] 2,200 ft.
[D] 2,000 ft.
86 What is the effect of a temperature increase of 12°C on the density altitude?

[A] 1,650-foot decrease.
[B] 1,440-foot increase.
[C] 1,340-foot decrease.
[D] 1,650-foot increase.
74
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87 Determine the density altitude of an airport for these conditions:

QNH 1025 hPa
Temperature -4°C
Elevation 3,850 ft
[A] 3,800 ft.
[B] 2,900 ft.
[C] 3,500 ft.
[D] 2,050 ft.
88 Determine the density altitude of an airport for these conditions:

QNH 1010 hPa
Temperature 27°C
Elevation 5,250 ft
[A] 8,800 ft.
[B] 4,600 ft.
[C] 5,875 ft.
[D] 7,890 ft.
89 The density altitude could be approximately calculated from the pressure altitude
without using a navigation calculator by
[A] Increasing/decreasing the pressure altitude by 120 ft for each °C deviation above/below
the standard temperature.
[B] Increasing/decreasing the altitude above the sea level for the difference between the
standard and actual atmospheric pressure, converted into an altitude.
[C] Increasing the pressure altitude by 4% for each 10°C deviation from the standard
temperature.
[D] Decreasing the pressure altitude by 4% for each 5°C deviation from the standard
temperature.
90 Which of the statements below, concerning take-off performance of a powered

aircraft regarding the density altitude is correct?
At higher density altitudes:

[A] Aircraft accelerate better, because of reduced drag due to thinner air.
[B] Aircraft accelerate poorer, because of reduced engine and propeller efficiency.
[C] Aircraft must fly at higher-than-normal indicated airspeed in order to produce enough lift.
[D] Aircraft must fly at lower-than-normal indicated airspeed in order to prevent excessive lift.
75
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91 How does higher air humidity affect aircraft take-off performance?
Take-off distances are:

[A] Shorter due to thinner air.
[B] Longer due to denser air.
[C] Shorter due to denser air.
[D] Longer due to thinner air.
92 Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and

climb performance?
[A] High temperature, low relative humidity and low density altitude.
[B] Low temperature, low relative humidity and low density altitude.
[C] High temperature, high relative humidity and high density altitude.
[D] Low temperature, high relative humidity and high density altitude.
93 What influence does the increased mass have on powered aircraft takeoff
performance?
[A] At given engine power the aircraft accelerates poorer; the airspeed required for the
production of the lift necessary for leaving the ground is greater.
[B] At given engine power the aircraft accelerates better, however the airspeed required for
production of the lift necessary for lift-off remains unchanged.
[C] Each aircraft at given engine power accelerate equally regardless of the mass, however
the airspeed required for overcoming the ground effect is greater.
[D] Each aircraft at given engine power accelerate equally regardless of the mass and the
airspeed required for production of the lift necessary for lift-off remains unchanged.
94 What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance?

[A] Decreases takeoff distance.
[B] Increases takeoff speed.
[C] Increases takeoff distance.
[D] Decreases takeoff speed.
95 What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?

[A] It increases engine performance.
[B] It reduces climb performance.
[C] It increases takeoff performance.
[D] It increases climb performance.
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96 The airplane's or powered hang glider's best angle-of-climb speed (Vx) is used:
[A] When trying to get cruising altitude quickly.
[B] When clearing a moving obstacle.
[C] When trying to climb without sacrificing cruising speed.
[D] When clearing an obstacle.
97 Which speed would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance
during climb after takeoff?
[A] Minimum speed (VS).
[B] Best climb speed (VY).
[C] Maneuvering speed (VA).
[D] Best angle-of-climb speed (Vx).
98 The aircraft's rate-of-climb during a steady climb depends on

[A] Excess of power.
[B] Excess of thrust.
[C] Thrust available.
[D] Insufficient of power.
99 After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a
given period of time?
[A] Best angle-of-climb speed (Vx).
[C] Maneuvering speed (VA).
[D] Minimum speed (VS).
100 What is the proper use for the best-rate-of-climb speed (Vy)?
[A] When clearing an obstacle.
[B] When trying to get cruising altitude quickly.
[C] When approaching high mountains.
[D] When trying to avoid an excessive pitch attitude during a climb.
101 What is the influence of the wind on an aeroplane's rate of climb?

[A] A tailwind will decrease the rate of climb.
[B] A headwind will increase the rate of climb.
[C] No effect.
[D] A tailwind will increase the rate of climb.
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102 What influence does the wind have on an airplane's angle-of-climb?

[A] No effect.
[B] A headwind will steepen the angle-of-climb.
[C] A headwind will lessen the angle-of-climb.
[D] A tailwind will steepen the angle-of-climb.
103 The aircraft's climb angle during a steady climb depends on:
[A] Excess of power.
[B] Power available.
[C] Thrust required.
[D] Excess of thrust.
104 At takeoff from a short airfield with an airplane or a powered hang glider, which
airspeed should you fly until cleared of obstacles?
[A] Minimum speed (VS).
[C] Best angle-of-climb speed (Vx).
[D] Maneuvering speed (VA).
105 During landing on an airport with high elevation the true air speed (TAS) of an
aircraft is higher than normal. What indicated speed (IAS) should be kept in such
cases?
[A] Lower than normal.
[B] Normal speed.
[C] Higher than normal.
[D] Increased for 5 kts for each 1,000 ft of airport elevation.
106 Should you use the normal approach speed when approaching to land in gusty
wind conditions?
[A] No. Add one half the "gust factor" to the calculated approach speed.
[B] No. Use 1.2 times stall speed.
[C] Yes (go by Operator's Manual).
[D] No. Use 0.8 times stall speed.
107 Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed at which an airplane
can be operated
[A] During abrupt maneuvers.
[B] In smooth air.
[C] At normal operations.
[D] With flaps extended.
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108 Why should speeds in flight above VNE is prohibited?

[A] The design limit factor may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered.
[B] Excessive induced drag will result in a structural failure.
[C] Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable.
[D] Lift reverts and the aircraft will stall.
109 Which maximum range factors decreases as weight decreases?

[A] Angle of climb.
[B] Altitude.
[C] Angle of attack.
[D] Airspeed.
110 Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?

[A] VNE.
[B] VLO.
[C] VA.
[D] VX.
111 Maneuvering speed (VA) is the highest speed at which even full abrupt deflection
of the elevator will not exceed
[A] Never exceed speed (VNE).
[B] Load factor 1 g.
[C] Negative limit load factor.
[D] Positive limit load factor.
112 How will higher altitude affect the cruising indicated airspeed of an aircraft if a
throttle remains unchanged?
[A] It will stay unchanged.
[B] It will be higher.
[C] It will be lower.
[D] It will be lower or higher.
113 What does "Best Endurance Speed" for a propeller aircraft mean?
[A] Maximum time aloft per unit of fuel (flying with least power).
[B] Maximum distance per unit of fuel (flying with least drag).
[C] Maximum distance between two stops.
[D] Maximum time between two stops.
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114 Determine the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle under the following
conditions: See PPL(A) 030-08
Pressure altitude 0 ft
temperature standard
mass 1900 lb
wind calm
surface grass, dry
[A] 1,180 ft.
[B] 920 ft.
[C] 950 ft.
[D] 1,030 ft.
115 Determine the ground roll distance required for takeoff:

(See PPL(A) 030-08)
Pressure altitude 2,000 ft

temperature 40°C
mass 2100 lb
wind tail 4 kt
surface tarmac
[A] 935 ft.
[B] 565 ft.
[C] 850 ft.
[D] 1,120 ft.
conditions: (See PPL(A) 030-08)
pressure altitude 4,000 ft
temperature 15°C
mass 2300 lb
wind calm
surface asphalt
[A] 1,125 ft.
[B] 2,100 ft.
[C] 1,210 ft.
[D] 1,970 ft.
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conditions: (See PPL(A) 030-08)
temperature 30°C
mass 2100 lb
wind head 18 kt
surface grass, dry
[A] 1,565 ft.
[B] 1,555 ft.
[C] 1,350 ft.
[D] 2,945 ft.
118 Determine the total distance required to land. (See PPL(A) 030-09)
temperature 30°C
mass 2300 lb
wind head 9 kt
surface tarmac
[A] 509 ft.
[B] 1330 ft.
[C] 565 ft.
[D] 1197 ft.
119 Determine the ground roll distance after landing. (See PPL(A) 030-09)
pressure altitude 0 ft
temperature 10°C
mass 2300 lb
wind head 10 kt
surface grass, dry
[A] 1235 ft.
[B] 510 ft.
[C] 739 ft.
[D] 1790 ft.
temperature 15°C
mass 2300 lb
wind calm
surface tarmac
[A] 510 ft.
[B] 520 ft.
[C] 530 ft.
[D] 545 ft.
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temperature 20°C
mass 2200 lb
wind calm
surface grass, dry
[A] 685 ft.
[B] 590 ft.
[C] 660 ft.
[D] 855 ft.
122 Determine the total distance over a 50-foot obstacle required to land.
(See PPL(A) 030-09)
temperature 10°C
mass 2300 lb
wind tail 10 kt
surface tarmac
[A] 1265 ft.
[B] 1,900 ft.
[C] 1360 ft.
[D] 1850 ft.
(See PPL(A) 030-09)
temperature 30°C
mass 2300 lb
wind calm
surface tarmac
[A] 1,350 ft.
[B] 1,385 ft.
[C] 1,320 ft.
[D] 1,280 ft.
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(See PPL(A) 030-09)
temperature 0°C
mass 2300 lb
wind head 18 kt
surface grass, dry
[A] 1,140 ft.
[B] 965 ft.
[C] 1,205 ft.
[D] 1,445 ft.
125 What will be the airspeed of an airplane in level flight under the following
conditions? (See PPL(A) 030-07)
temperature 20°C below standard
power setting 55%
[A] 115 kts.
[B] 110 kts.
[C] 104 kts.
[D] 120 kts.
126 What is the expected fuel consumption for a 250-nautical flight under the
following conditions?
(See PPL(A) 030-07)
temperature 20°C above standard
power setting 60%
wind calm
[A] 15.1 USA gal.
[B] 19.7 USA gal.
[C] 16.0 USA gal.
[D] 12.0 USA gal.
127 What is the expected fuel consumption for a 350-nautical flight under the
(See PPL(A) 030-07)
power setting 60%
wind calm
[A] 15.3 USA gal.
[B] 14.9 USA gal.
[C] 22.7 USA gal.
[D] 18.6 USA gal.
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128 Approximately what engine RPM should be set during cruising at the pressure
altitude 2,000 ft and with standard temperature in order to develop 60% of
power? (See PPL(A) 030-07)
[A] 2400 RPM.
[B] 2500 RPM.
[C] 2300 RPM.
[D] 2200 RPM.
129 What is the expected fuel consumption under the following conditions?
(See PPL(A) 030-07)
power setting 55%
[A] 5.7 USA gal/h.
[B] 6.2 USA gal/h.
[C] 5.8 USA gal/h.
[D] 5.8 USA gal/h.
130 Which forward speed is normally maintained, following an engine failure in flight
in a light airplane?
[A] Best endurance speed.
[B] Best glide speed.
[C] Minimum rate of descend speed.
[D] Minimum speed.
131 The forward speed for minimum rate of descent of an aircraft, compared with its
best glide speed, is:
[A] Always higher.
[B] Always lower.
[C] Often higher.
[D] Often lower.
132 What should be done first, following an aircraft's engine failure in flight?
[A] Select the gliding attitude with best glide speed.
[B] Carburetor heat must be applied.
[C] Move the mixture lever to position FULL RICH.
[D] Select a suitable field for forced landing.
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133 An aircraft without an engine will fly the longest distance from a given altitude at
the angle of attack at which:
[A] Lift coefficient retains its maximum value.
[B] Parasite drag is the least.
[C] Parasite drag is equal to the lift coefficient.
[D] Induced drag and parasite drag are equal.
134 What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports
the wind as 220°/30 kts? (See PPL(A) 030-06)
[A] 30 kts.
[B] 19 kts.
[C] 23 kts.
[D] 34 kts.
135 What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower
reports the wind as 220°/30 kts? (See PPL(A) 030-06)
[A] 34 kts.
[B] 23 kts.
[C] 30 kts.
[D] 19 kts.
136 Which runway (06, 14, 24, 32) will you choose for landing, if tower reports south
wind 20 kts and if maximum allowed crosswind component for your aircraft is 13
kts? (See PPL(A) 030-06)
[A] RWY 24.
[B] RWY 06.
[C] RWY 14.
[D] RWY 32.
137 With the reported wind of 360°/20 kts you are approaching an airport. Which
runway (06, 14 or 24) would you choose for landing, if your airplane had a 13-
knots maximum allowed crosswind component on landing? (See PPL(A) 030-06)
[A] RWY 24.
[B] RWY 06.
[C] RWY 14.
[D] RWY 32.
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138 What are the headwind and crosswind components with the reported wind of
280°/15 kts for a runway with the magnetic direction 220°? (See PPL(A) 030-06)
[A] 7.5 kts headwind and 13 kts crosswind.
[B] 15.5 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind.
[C] 15.5 kts headwind and 15 kts crosswind.
[D] 13.5 kts headwind and 24 kts crosswind.
139 Determine the maximum wind velocity for a 45° crosswind if the maximum
crosswind component for the airplane is 25 kts? (See PPL(A) 030-06)
[A] 25 kts.
[B] 18 kts.
[C] 35 kts.
[D] 29 kts.
[A] 18 kts.
[B] 20 kts.
[C] 15 kts.
[D] 12 kts.
[A] 18 kts.
[B] 13 kts.
[C] 16 kts.
[D] 20 kts.
[A] 5 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind.
[B] 10 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind.
[C] 8 kts headwind and 4 kts crosswind.
[D] 8 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind.
[A] 10 kts headwind and 15 kts crosswind.
[B] 15 kts headwind and 10 kts crosswind.
[C] Zero headwind component; crosswind component 20 kts.
[D] 20 kts headwind; zero crosswind component.
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90
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93
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HUMAN PERFORMANCE
040
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1 In the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), as altitude increases in the

troposphere, air density:
[A] Decreases.
[B] Also increases.
[C] Stays the same.
[D] Will not be affected as air density is independent of altitude.
2 The International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) sea-level pressure is equal to:

[A] 1014.00 mb.
[B] 1013.25 mb.
[C] 1014.25 Hpa.
[D] 50 inches of mercury.
3 Air in the atmosphere is made up of:

[A] Nitrogen (78 %), Oxygen (21%), Carbon Dioxide (0.03%) and Argon (1%).
[B] Nitrogen (78%), Oxygen (21%), Carbon Dioxide (0.03%) and Hydrogen (1%).
[C] Nitrogen (1%), Oxygen (78%), Carbon Dioxide (21%) and Argon (0.03%).
[D] Nitrogen (21%), Oxygen (0.03%), Carbon Dioxide (78%) and Argon (1%).

Troposphere, temperature:
[A] Also increases.
[B] Decreases.
[C] Stays the same.
[D] Will not be affected as it is independent of altitude.
5 If the atmospheric pressure decreases, the partial pressure of the oxygen in the
atmosphere will:
[A] Stay the same.
[B] Increase.
[C] Decrease.
[D] Not be affected as it is independent of atmospheric pressure.
6 In the international standard atmosphere (ISA), as altitude increases in the

troposphere, pressure:
[A] Will not be affected as pressure is independent of altitude.
[B] Also increases.
[C] Stays the same.
[D] Decreases.
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7 At altitude, the volumetric proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere is:

[A] Dependent on the actual altitude.
[B] Higher than at MSL.
[C] Lower than at MSL.
[D] The same as at mean sea level (MSL).

Stratosphere, temperature:
[A] Decreases.
[B] Also increases.
[C] Remains almost constant at -56 degrees Celsius.
[D] Fluctuates between positive and negative temperatures.
9 Which gas, which is absorbed by the body during normal breathing, plays an
important role in decompression sickness?
[A] Oxygen.
[B] Nitrogen.
[C] Carbon Dioxide.
[D] Carbon Monoxide.
10 After donating blood, what is the minimum time a pilot should wait before flying?
[A] 12 hours.
[B] 2 hours.
[C] 24 hours.
[D] 48 hours.
11 Blood pressure may be too high due to:

[A] Smoking.
[B] Age.
[C] Stress.
12 Which body system is responsible for distributing oxygen around the body?
[A] The Oxidation System.
[B] The Nervous System.
[C] The Respiratory System.
[D] The Circulatory System.
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13 The blood carries ____ around the body and removes ____ from the body with
the exchange occurring in the ____.
[A] Carbon Dioxide / Oxygen / Capillaries
[B] Carbon / Dioxide / Oxygen Veins
[C] Oxygen / Carbon Dioxide / Arteries
[D] Oxygen / Carbon Dioxide / Capillaries
14 Which part of the nervous system usually controls breathing?

[A] The Central Nervous System.
[B] The Autonomic Nervous System.
[C] The Peripheral Nervous System.
15 Enter into the following statement the most correct pair of figures from the
options below. The maximum recommended levels of alcohol consumption per
week are ____ for men and ____ for women.
[A] 24 units / 16 units.
[B] 16 units / 24 units.
[C] 25 units / 25 units.
[D] 30 units / 20 units.
16 Brain cells that have been deprived of oxygen will start to die in:
[A] 30 minutes.
[B] 2 seconds.
[C] 2 minutes.
[D] 2 hours.
17 Which of the following gases regulate the rate and depth of breathing, depending
on the levels at which the gas is present in the blood?
[A] Nitrogen.
[B] Oxygen.
[C] Carbon Dioxide.
[D] Carbon Monoxide.
18 When a person is experiencing stress or fear, adrenaline is released into the

blood stream causing immediate:
[A] Loss of consciousness.
[B] Fatigue.
[C] Increase in the pulse-rate.
[D] Decrease in the pulse-rate.
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19 Approximately how long does it take a person to dissipate one unit of alcohol
from the blood?
[A] 5 hours.
[B] 1/2 hour.
[C] 12 hours.
[D] 2 hours.
20 Enter into the following statement the most correct pair of gases from the
options below. Hemoglobin in red blood cells is more readily attracted to ____
than ____.
[A] Carbon Dioxide / Nitrogen.
[B] Nitrogen / Oxygen.
[C] Oxygen / Nitrogen.
[D] Carbon Monoxide / Oxygen.
21 Which organ controls all other bodily functions?

[A] The spinal cord.
[B] The heart.
[C] The lungs.
[D] The brain.
22 The condition whereby the body does not enough oxygen to function correctly is
known as:
[A] Hyperventilation.
[B] Hypotension.
[C] Hypoxia.
[D] Hyperglycemia.
23 A likely symptom, or likely symptoms, of Hypoxia might be:

[B] Cyanosis.
[C] Formication.
[D] Increased heart rate.
24 Above what altitude do pilots need to breath supplementary oxygen?

[A] 20,000 ft.
[B] 2,000 ft.
[C] 8,000 ft.
[D] 10,000 ft.
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25 Compared to a non-smoker, someone who smokes is likely to experience the

effects of hypoxia at:
[A] A higher altitude.
[B] A lower altitude.
[C] The same altitude.
[D] Any altitude.
26 The effects of Hypoxia can be increased by:

[B] Increased temperature.
[C] Increased altitude.
[D] Alcohol.
27 You are taking a friend flying and are cruising at 6,000 ft. Your passenger begins
suffering from a tingling sensation, dizziness and visual disorders and then
becomes unconscious. Your passenger is probably suffering from:
[A] Food poisoning.
[B] Hypoxia.
[C] Hyperventilation.
[D] Angina.
28 A likely symptom, or likely symptoms, of Hypoxia might be:

[A] Tingling fingers and toes.
[B] Unconsciousness.
[C] Impaired judgment.
29 For the pilot of an aircraft on a head-on collision course with a fast-moving jet,
the image of the approaching jet will appear to grow in size in the following
manner:
[A] Only slowly at first until just before impact when the image would grow in size very
rapidly.
[B] At a constant rate.
[C] Very rapidly at first but then continue to grow at a constant rate.
[D] Rapidly initially, and then remain at a constant size until impact.
30 Color-blindness or, more accurately, color-defective vision, is caused by:

[A] A defect in the lens tissue of the eye.
[B] A defect in the structure of the color-sensitive cones in the retina.
[C] Defective functioning of the ciliary muscles.
[D] A foreshortened eyeball.
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31 Hypermetropia and Myopia are normally caused by:

[A] Stress.
[B] Eye strain.
[C] A misshaped eye ball.
[D] Badly fitting spectacles.
32 Hypermetropia is caused by a ____ eyeball and treated by a ____ whereas

Myopia is caused by a ____ eyeball and treated with
[A] Shortened / concave / lengthened / convex.
[B] Lengthened / convex / shortened / concave.
[C] Shortened / convex / lengthened / concave.
[D] Lengthened / concave / shortened / convex.
33 Which of the following organs of the body supplies the single most dependable
source of sensory information?
[A] The Neo-cortex.
[B] The Ear.
[C] The Nose.
[D] The Eye.
34 What is the component of the eye responsible for peripheral vision and sensitive
to low light levels?
[A] The Cones.
[B] The Rods.
[C] The Fovea.
[D] The Retina.
35 Empty Field Myopia is a condition where the eyes naturally focus at a distance of
approximately:
[A] 20 - 500 meters.
[B] Infinity.
[C] 1 - 2 meters.
[D] At the horizon.
36 At night it is easier to focus on an object if you:

[A] Look about 50 degrees either side of it.
[B] Look directly at it.
[C] Look slightly to one side of it.
[D] Look directly at it while holding your eyes open as wide as you can.
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37 To lessen the danger of collision with an aircraft which might be in a pilot's blind
spot and closing on a constant relative bearing, the pilot should:
[A] Change heading by a few degrees every 10 minutes or so.
[B] Carry out a systematic look out at all times.
[C] Roll the aircraft from right to left by a few degrees every 10 minutes or so.
[D] Carry out periodic clearing turns.
38 Where is the blind spot?

[A] On the edge of the Lens.
[B] On the Iris.
[C] On the Fovea.
[D] Where the optic nerve enters the Retina.
39 Accommodation is the power of the lens to focus rays of light from near objects
onto the Fovea. Accommodation is controlled by:
[A] The Ciliary muscles.
[B] The Iris.
[C] The Rods and Cones.
[D] The Retina.
40 Dark adaptation takes about ____ for the Rods, and ____ for the Cones.
[A] 15 minutes / 20 minutes.
[B] 30 minutes / 7 minutes.
[C] 7 minutes / 30 minutes
[D] 25 minutes / 45 minutes.
41 The power of accommodation in an eye:

[A] Is increased as the elasticity of the lens decreases.
[B] Is decreased as the elasticity of the lens decreases.
[C] Is not affected by the degree of elasticity of the lens.
[D] Has nothing to do with the lens.
42 When flying solo, a pilot who suspects he is suffering from spatial disorientation
should:
[A] Believe the indications of his instruments.
[B] Blink rapidly several times.
[C] Swallow hard, pinch the nostrils and blow down the nose to clear the Eustachian tube.
[D] Believe his somatosensory senses.
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43 What is noise induced hearing loss?

[A] Loss of hearing due to damage to the vestibular apparatus.
[B] Loss of hearing due to damage to the ossicles.
[C] Loss of hearing due to damage to the cochlea.
[D] Loss of hearing due to damage to the middle ear.
44 When can a pilot experience the "leans"?

[A] In all flight conditions.
[B] In the climb.
[C] In the descent.
[D] In the climb or the descent.
45 What is the most important sense for spatial orientation?

[A] Hearing and balance.
[B] Sight.
[C] "Seat of the pants".
[D] All senses play their part in situation awareness.
46 Which of the following should a pilot primarily rely on if he becomes

disorientated in Visual Meteorological Conditions?
[A] His sense of balance.
[B] Turning the head to recover from disorientation.
[C] His sense of sight.
[D] The aircraft's instruments.
47 On what does the causes of noise induced hearing loss depend?

[A] The duration of the noise above 110 dbs.
[B] Both the intensity and duration of the noise above 100 dbs.
[C] The duration of the noise above 100 dbs.
[D] Both the intensity and duration of the noise above 90 dbs.
48 The frequency band that a healthy young person can hear is:
[A] 70 - 15.000 cycles per second.
[B] 20 - 20.000 cycles per second.
[C] 80 - 20.000 cycles per second.
[D] 500 - 15.000 cycles per second.
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49 What is the purpose of the Eustachian tube?

[A] To allow ambient pressure to equalise on both sides of the ear drum.
[B] To pass sound waves across the middle ear to the auditory nerve.
[C] To allow ambient pressure to equalise on the middle ear side of the ear drum.
[D] To allow ambient pressure to equalise on both sides of the vestibular apparatus.
50 One of the main contributory factors to the onset of motion sickness is:
[A] The mismatch between visual and vestibular sensory inputs.
[B] Rolling quickly into turns.
[C] Performing high g maneuvers.
[D] Stalling.
51 During straight and level flight any pronounced linear acceleration may produce
sensation of the nose pitching up. In such a situation, the pilot should:
[A] Correct the pitching movement by moving the control column slightly forward.
[B] Ignore vestibular information and believe what the instruments are indicating.
[C] Rely on information from the vestibular apparatus to maintain orientation.
[D] Rely on his "seat of the pants" feeling to make any necessary correction.
52 Loudness is measured in:

[A] Pascal´s.
[B] Hertz.
[C] Decibels.
[D] Cycle per second.
53 Which of the following should a pilot primarily rely on if he becomes

disorientated in instrument meteorological conditions?
[A] His sense of balance.
[B] His sense of sight.
[C] Turning the head to recover from disorientation.
[D] The aircraft's instruments.
54 The vestibular apparatus detects ____ acceleration:

[A] Angular.
[B] Linear.
[C] Angular and linear.
[D] Positive "g".
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55 If an aircraft accelerates, what do the otoliths indicate to the brain?

[A] That the aircraft is pitching down.
[B] That the aircraft is pitching up.
[C] That the aircraft is turning.
[D] That the aircraft is climbing and turning.
56 Complete the following sentence. If your Eustachian tube is blocked and you
cannot clear your ears, you should:
[A] Ground yourself until the condition causing the blocking of the Eustachian tube has
cleared up.
[B] Clear your nose with a nasal inhaler before flying.
[C] Fly only as a passenger.
[D] Proceed with your flight but ensure that you swallow hard frequently.
57 While flying, the changes in outside air pressure can cause air trapped in the
body cavities to expand and contract. This is known as Otic Barotrauma and it
most likely to effect:
[A] The teeth.
[B] The middle ear.
[C] The sinuses.
[D] All of the above.
58 The best preventative actions to take if someone is showing symptoms of

Stroboscopic Effect is to:
[A] Give him a task to distract him.
[B] Sit the person in a sunny area.
[C] Place the person in the shade and get them to close their eyes.
[D] Take no action, as the symptoms last for a short time only.
59 If taking a course of drugs, is it advisable to pilot an aircraft?

[A] No, unless cleared by an Aviation Medicine Specialist.
[B] Yes, provided that they are antibiotics, as these do not have side-effects.
[C] Yes, provided that the drug is non-prescription.
[D] No, you should never fly while taking any drugs.
60 The ability of a pilot to withstand even moderate forces can be affected by:
[A] Presbycusis.
[B] The maximum load limits of the aircraft.
[C] Fatigue in the pilot.
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61 A pilot should not fly for at least how long after a local anesthetic?
[A] 48 hours.
[B] 2 hours.
[C] 24 hours.
[D] 12 hours.
62 You are suffering from a cold with slightly blocked nose and sinuses and you
have an aircraft booked to fly. Should you:
[A] Not fly?
[B] Take a decongestant 1/2 an hour before flight?
[C] Fly as normal?
[D] Fly, but be sure to select only low rates of climb and descent?
63 A pilot should not fly for at least how long after a general anesthetic?
[A] 24 hours.
[B] 2 hours.
[C] 12 hours.
[D] 48 hours.
64 Which of the following may cause fainting?

[A] A too rapid eye scan.
[B] A sudden shock.
[C] Over meticulous flight planning.
65 When compared to visual stimuli, auditory stimuli (noises) are:

[A] Less likely to attract attention and less likely to be responded to in error.
[B] More likely to attract attention and more likely to be responded to in error.
[C] Less likely to attract attention and more likely to be responded to in error.
[D] More likely to attract at tention and less likely to be responded to in error.
66 If a pilot is approaching a runway much larger than that at his home airfield, what
is his visual perception of the runway likely to be?
[A] The runway will appear further away than it actually is.
[B] The runway will appear closer than it actually is.
[C] Distances will be easy to judge.
[D] A different approach path should be adopted.
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67 A false perception characterised by a distortion of real sensory stimuli is known

as:
[A] Day-dreaming.
[B] Hallucination.
[C] Mirage.
[D] Boredom response.
68 Repeating information several times transfer it to long-term memory is called:

[A] Chunking.
[B] Memory induction.
[C] Prompting.
[D] Rehearsing.
69 It is generally accepted that the short-term memory can hold how many items
and how long?
[A] 7 items for 10-20 seconds.
[B] 4 items for 15 seconds.
[C] 15 items for 1-5 minutes.
[D] 7 items for 5-10 minutes.
70 If a pilot is used to flying in relatively polluted hazy air and then flies in a very
clear sky:
[A] Near objects may be mistaken for those further away.
[B] Distant objects may appear further away than they are.
[C] Distant objects may appear closer than they are.
[D] Near objects may appear further away than they are.
71 From the options below, choose the correct sequence of the various stages of
the reasoning process.
[A] Detection, Perception, Decisions taken, Action, Feedback.
[B] Perception, Action, Feedback, Detection, Decisions taken.
[C] Detection, Feedback, Decisions taken, Action, Perception.
[D] Detection, Perception, Decisions taken, Feedback, Action.
72 Which of the following will give the illusion that the aircraft is too low during an
approach?
[A] A down-sloping runway.
[B] An up-sloping runway.
[C] A brightly lit aerodrome in an otherwise dark area.
[D] A narrower than normal runway.
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73 As captain of an aircraft you will need to show good leadership skills. Which of
the following is not one such skill?
[A] Forward planning.
[B] Aggressive assertiveness.
[C] Maintaining good situational awareness.
[D] The art of delegation.
74 You have planned to take a couple of friends on an air experience flight. On the
day, the weather conditions are marginal and there is a strong cross-wind on the
runway. As a competent assessor of risk, which of the following decisions
should you take?
[A] Reschedule the flight for another time, discounting the immediate disappointment to your
friends.
[B] Get airborne as planned, as it is always wise to stick to your flight plan if you possibly
can.
[C] Proceed with the flight and treat it as an opportunity to practice flying in adverse
conditions.
[D] Ask your friends if they are prepared to fly in the prevailing conditions, before assessing
the situation yourself.
75 When making a decision, will a pilot be influenced by previous experience?

[A] Yes, but only if the experience is good.
[B] Yes, past experience can play a part in decision-making.
[C] Yes, but only if the experience was bad.
[D] No, each decision is unrelated.
76 Mental Overload usually:

[A] Has no effect on performance.
[B] Leads to better performance.
[C] Leads to degraded performance.
[D] Causes changes in the speed and accuracy of performance which vary from individual to
individual.
77 Complete the following statement. If, as an inexperienced pilot, you are flying
with someone of much greater experience, and you see him do something you
consider to be dangerous, you should:
[A] Do nothing for the moment, but check the wisdom and correctness of his action by
discussing it with an instructor after you have landed.
[B] Wait until the action or manoeuvre is completed, and then questions him.
[C] Ignore the situation because he obviously knows what he is doing.
[D] Immediately question his course of action.
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78 Good briefings are very important. Which of the following could be the result of a
bad briefing?
[A] Good understanding of information.
[B] Good transfer of knowledge.
[C] Increased uncertainty.
[D] Decreased uncertainty.
79 Complete the following statement. The most appropriate time for a pilot to give
passengers an initial briefing on emergency procedures is:
[A] While waiting at the hold for take-off.
[B] At the moment any emergency occurs; it is not necessary to worry them before that.
[C] During a pre-flight safety briefing.
[D] Just after take-off.
80 Two pilots, both seated at the controls and qualified on type, have just
commenced a flight when they experience an engine failure. Who should take
control of the aircraft?
[A] The pilot who, during the pre-flight briefing on emergencies, the captain agreed should
take over control in such a situation.
[B] The pilot in the left-hand seat.
[C] The captain.
[D] The more experienced of the two.
81 Which of the following attitudes and/or characteristics are not good

communication and especially dangerous when flying?
[A] Respect for other peoples' opinions.
[B] A highly developed sense of leadership.
[C] Arrogance and aggressiveness.
82 Which of the following are ways to help avoid stress in the cockpit?
[A] Not allowing yourself to be rushed into acting before you are ready.
[B] Having a cool drink at hand, at all times.
[C] Modifying your pre-flight plan whenever you feel you are off-track or behind time.
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83 What are Stress Factors or Stressors?

[A] Events and circumstances which cause stress.
[B] Pulse-rate inducers.
[C] Circumstances or events which provoke any kind of reaction to the demands placed upon
the human organism.
[D] Measures of stress exhibited by a person.
84 An analogue display is generally better than a digital display for showing which
sort of data?
[A] Quantitative.
[B] Qualitative.
[C] Numerical.
[D] Subjective.
85 Which of the following occur when a pilot is sitting too high in a cockpit?
a. Good downward outside view.
b. Poor view of instruments.
c. Upwards outside view obstructed.
[A] Only a).
[B] a), b) and c).
[C] a) and b) only.
[D] a) and c) only.
86 You are preparing for a training flight with an instructor and cannot find your
checklist. You should:
[A] Use a checklist for a different aircraft type.
[B] Perform the checks from memory.
[C] Take time to find the checklist at the risk of missing part of your airborne time.
[D] Rely on the instructor to point out anything that you might have missed.
87 If advice is needed concerning possible flight with an illness, a pilot should

contact:
[A] Their family doctor.
[B] An Aviation Medical Examiner.
[C] The nearest hospital.
[D] The general practitioner.
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88 Which will always affect your ability to fly?

[A] Homeopathic drugs.
[B] Over-the-counter analgesics and antihistamines.
[C] Antibiotics.
[D] Strong prescription analgesics and antihistamines.
89 As a pilot, flying for long periods in hot summer temperatures increases the
susceptibility of dehydration since the:
[A] Dry air at altitude tends to increase the rate of water loss from the body.
[B] Moist air at altitude helps retain the body's moisture.
[C] Temperature decreases with altitude.
[D] Temperature increases with altitude
90 Motion sickness is caused by:

[A] Continued stimulation of the tiny portion of the inner ear which controls sense of balance.
[B] Instability in the brain cells which affect balance and will generally be overcome with
experience.
[C] The movement of an aircraft causing the stomach to create an acid substance which
causes the stomach lining to contract.
[D] The eyes working on to allocate the horizon when an aircraft is in constant movement.
91 What suggestion could you make to your pilot fellow who is experiencing motion
sickness?
[A] Recommend breathing into the paper bag. Avoid
[B] Recommend taking medication to prevent motion sickness.
[C] Lower her/his head, shut her/his eyes, and take deep breaths.
[D] unnecessary head movement and to keep her/his eyes on a point outside the aircraft.
92 In an unpressurised aircraft, at high altitudes the amount of oxygen that diffuses

across the lung membranes into the blood is.:
[A] Unchanged to that at sea level.
[B] Decreased because of the lower temperatures.
[C] Decreased because of the low partial pressure of oxygen.
[D] Increased because of the high partial pressure of oxygen.
93 During a climb to 18,000 ft, the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere:

[A] Increases.
[B] Remains the same.
[C] Decreases.
[D] Explodes.
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94 Although not required, supplemental oxygen is recommended for use when

flying at:
[A] 3,800 m (12,500 ft).
[B] 1,500 m (5,000 ft).
[C] 3,050 m (10,000 ft) .
[D] Night above 1,500 m (5,000 ft).
95 Hypoxia is the result of:

[A] Excessive nitrogen in the bloodstream.
[B] Insufficient oxygen in the air.
[C] Shortage of oxygen in the body.
96 Which statement concerning hypoxia is true?

[A] Tingling of the skin and a false sense of security may be symptoms of hypoxia.
[B] Hypoxia is caused by nitrogen bubbles in the joints and bloodstream.
[C] Forcing oneself to concentrate on the flight instruments will help to overcome the effects
of hypoxia.
[D] Hypoxia is always easy to recognize.
97 Which occurs when climbing above 18,000 feet in an unpressurized aircraft

without supplemental oxygen?
[A] The oxygen pressure within the lungs remains the same.
[B] Gases trapped in the body contract and prevent nitrogen from escaping the bloodstream.
[C] The pressure in the middle ear becomes less than the atmospheric pressure in the cabin.
[D] The oxygen pressure within the lungs cannot be maintained without an increase in
inhaled oxygen pressure.
98 Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as:

[A] Air pressure increases.
[B] Altitude decreases.
[C] Altitude increases.
[D] Airspeed increases.
99 Carbon monoxide in an aircraft cabin is:

[A] Easily recognizable because of its peculiar odor.
[B] Difficult to recognize because of its odorless and colorless.
[C] Easily recognizable because of its peculiar color.
[D] Easier to recognize when flying over 18,000 feet because the level of the oxygen
decreases.
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100 Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in:
[A] Tightness across the forehead.
[B] Loss of muscular power.
[C] An increased sense of well-being.
[D] Hyperventilation.
101 What is one effect smoking has on a pilot?

[A] Increases body heat which, in turn, creates a demand for more oxygen.
[B] Decreases night vision by 50 percent.
[C] Creates additional carbon dioxide gases in the body which often leads to hyperventilation.
[D] An increased sense of well-being.
102 Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

[A] Chain smoking.
[B] The excessive consumption of alcohol.
[C] An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.
[D] Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear.
103 Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known
as:
[A] Aerotitis.
[B] Aerosinusitis.
[C] Hyperventilation.
[D] Hypoxia.
104 Hyperventilation results from:

[A] Flying too high without supplemental oxygen.
[B] A lack of carbon dioxide in the body.
[C] Breathing too rapidly causing a lack of oxygen.
[D] Excess carbon dioxide in the body.
105 A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of
hyperventilation by:
[A] Speeding up the breathing rate.
[B] Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud.
[C] Closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane.
[D] Increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.
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106 If an individual has gone scuba diving which has not required a controlled
ascent and will be flying to cabin pressure altitudes of 8,000 feet or less, the
recommended waiting time is at least:
[A] 24 hours.
[B] 12 hours.
[C] 4 hours.
[D] 48 hours.
107 If an individual has gone scuba diving which has required a controlled ascent
and will be flying to cabin pressure altitudes of 8,000 feet or less, the
recommended waiting time is at least:
[A] 48 hours.
[B] 4 hours.
[C] 12 hours.
[D] 24 hours.
108 Dark adaptation is impaired by exposure to:

[A] Nitrogen.
[B] Carbon dioxide.
[C] Vitamin A in the diet.
[D] Cabin pressure altitudes above 5,000 feet.
109 What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?
[A] Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.
[B] Wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for flight.
[C] Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.
[D] Stay in the dark room at least 60 minutes before the flight.
110 One aid in increasing night vision effectiveness would be to:

[A] Look directly at objects.
[B] Force the eyes to view off center.
[C] Increase intensity of interior lighting.
[D] Look at far away.
111 What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
[A] Increase intensity of interior lighting.
[B] Look only at far away, dim lights.
[C] Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.
[D] Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.
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112 The most effective technique to use for detecting other aircraft at night is:
[A] To avoid staring directly at the point where another aircraft is suspected to be flying.
[B] Turn the head and sweep the eyes rapidly over the entire visible region.
[C] Avoid scanning the region below the horizon so as to avoid the effect on ground light on
the eyes.
[D] Look at far away and scan slowly.
113 The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to:
[A] Look to the side of the object and scan rapidly.
[B] Scan the visual field very rapidly.
[C] Look to the side of the object and scan slowly.
[D] Avoid scanning the region below the horizon so as to avoid the effect on ground light on
the eyes.
114 Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should:

[A] Announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.
[B] Check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
[C] Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
[D] Always ask clearance from the tower.
115 Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during
straight-and-level flight?
[A] Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
[B] Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.
[C] Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
[D] Look at far away and scan slowly.
116 What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during
flight?
[A] All traffic or terrain features appear to be closer than their actual distance.
[B] Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity.
[C] The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.
[D] All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
117 A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent
to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as:
[A] Hypoxia.
[B] Hyperventilation.
[C] Spatial disorientation.
[D] Monochromatism.
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118 Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial

disorientation?
[A] Avoid steep turns and rough control movements.
[B] Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
[C] Reduce head and eye movements to the greatest extend possible.
[D] Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
119 Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if:

[A] They ignore all the body signals.
[B] They ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear.
[C] Eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.
[D] Body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.
120 The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may
be reduced by:
[A] Having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.
[B] Shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel.
[C] Leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft.
[D] Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
121 If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility

condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to:
[A] Concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll sensations.
[B] Rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.
[C] Consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal.
[D] Increase breathing rate.
122 A rapid acceleration can create the illusion of being in a:

[A] Nose down attitude.
[B] Left turn.
[C] Nose up attitude.
[D] Tailspin.
123 Who has the final responsibility whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight,
even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?
[A] The ATC.
[B] The medical examiner.
[C] The FA-1.
[D] The pilot.
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124 What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?
[A] Mechanical malfunction.
[B] Human error.
[C] Structural failure.
[D] Opponents error.
125 Consistent adherence to approved checklists is a sign of:

[A] Pilot with the lack of stress management.
[B] Pilot who lacks the required knowledge.
[C] Low-time pilot.
[D] Disciplined and competent pilot.
126 To avoid missing important steps, always use the:

[A] Airworthiness certificate.
[B] Placarded airspeeds.
[C] Appropriate checklists.
[D] Pilot's manual book.
127 The positive three-step process in the exchange of flight controls between pilots
includes these
verbal steps: (a) You have the flight controls, (b) I have the flight controls, and c)
____.
[A] You have the flight controls.
[B] I have the aircraft.
[C] I have the flight controls.
[D] I have the aircraft and the flight controls.
128 Risk management, as a part of aeronautical decision making ADM process, relies
on which features to reduce the risk associated with each flight?
[A] Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
[B] Application of stress management and risk element procedures.
[C] The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a
timely decision on what action to take.
129 Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are
some of these hazardous attitudes?
[B] Poor risk management and lack of stress management.
[C] Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of a decision making process.
[D] Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.
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130 In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in
neutralizing a hazardous attitude?
[A] Making a rational judgment.
[B] Recognizing hazardous thoughts.
[C] Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation.
[D] Minimize the damages.
131 What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as
"impulsivity"?
[A] I don't care.
[B] It could happen to me.
[C] Do it quickly to get it over with.
[D] Not so fast, think first.
132 What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as
"Antiauthority"?
[A] I don't care.
[B] Rules do not apply in this situation.
[C] I know what I am doing.
[D] Follow the rules.
133 What is the antidote when a pilot has the hazardous attitude of "invulnerability"?
[A] I don't care.
[B] It can not be that bad.
[C] It will not happen to me.
[D] It could happen to me.
134 At altitude the pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere is:

[A] Higher than at MSL.
[B] The same as at mean sea level (MSL).
[C] Lower than at MSL.
[D] Unaffected, as partial pressure is independent of altitude.
135 Being badly overweight increases a pilot's susceptibility to which of the

[A] Heart attack.
[B] Hypoxia at higher altitudes.
[C] Hypothermia.
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136 "Error" is a generic term which describes all those occasions when a series of
mental or physical activities do not achieve their intended effect. Now, complete
the following statement. Errors:
[A] Are isolated with no further consequence or influence.
[B] May be isolated or cumulative.
[C] Are cumulative, one error leads to a second, which leads to a third etc.
[D] Are always part of the error chain.
137 Which statement is true regarding alcohol in the human system?

[A] Small amount of alcohol will improve activity.
[B] Small amounts of alcohol will not impair flying skills.
[C] Coffee helps metabolize alcohol and alleviates a hangover.
[D] Alcohol renders a pilot more susceptible to hypoxia.
138 Which statement best defines hypoxia?

[A] An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed.
[B] A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.
[C] A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles.
[D] An abnormal decrease in the volume of air breathed.
139 A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages
have been consumed by that person within the preceding:
[A] 24 hours.
[B] 12 hours.
[C] 8 hours.
[D] 48 hours.
140 An illusion, that an aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is, is produced
by:
[A] Upsloping terrain.
[B] Downsloping terrain.
[C] Atmospheric haze.
[D] Wide runway.
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141 The three-needle type altimeter used in many light aircraft

a). Easy to mis-read.
b). Hardly ever mis-read.
c). Accurate and reliable.
d). Not very accurate or reliable.
[A] b) and d).
[B] Only a).
[C] Only b).
[D] a) and c).
142 Which of the following are terms generally used to describe a type or types of
memory within the subject of Human Performance and Limitations?
[A] Felicitous memory.
[B] Sensitive memory.
[C] Long-term memory.
[D] All of them.
143 The outer, middle and inner ear are filled with:
[A] Air, liquid, and liquid, respectively.
[B] Air, air, and liquid, respectively.
[C] Liquid, air, and air, respectively.
[D] Liquid, liquid, and air, respectively.
144 Presbycusis is an impairment of hearing due to:

[A] Damage to the semi-circular canals.
[B] Damage to the cochlea.
[C] Age.
[D] Smoking.
145 What causes conductive deafness?

[A] Damage to the outer ear.
[B] Damage to the ossicles or the eardrum.
[C] Damage to the pinna.
[D] Damage to the middle ear.
146 In which part of the eye is visual acuity at its highest?

[A] The Pupil.
[B] The Retina.
[C] The Fovea.
[D] The Cornea.
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147 In order to see a sharp image of an oncoming aircraft which has been detected
by the eye, a pilot should:
[A] Blink several times to make the image clearer.
[B] Look to one side of the oncoming aircraft.
[C] Commence a systematic scan of the airspace in front of him.
[D] Look directly at the oncoming aircraft.
148 The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the:

[A] Cornea.
[B] Pupil.
[C] Lens.
[D] Retina.
149 The pulse is generated by the contraction of which heart chamber?

[A] Left Ventricle.
[B] Left Auricle.
[C] Right Ventricle.
[D] Right Auricle.
150 Which of the following carries oxygen throughout the body?

[A] Plasma.
[B] Water.
[C] Red blood cells (erythrocytes).
[D] White blood cells (leucocytes).
151 High blood pressure, heart diseases and diabetes are related to:
[A] Anorexia nervosa.
[B] Obesity.
[C] Lack of oxygen.
[D] Cholera.
152 What causes blue lips?

[A] Carbon monoxide intoxication.
[B] Positive G-forces.
[C] Lack of oxygen.
[D] Hyperventilation.
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153 Which of the following gases is related to decompression sickness?

[A] Oxygen.
[B] Carbon dioxide.
[C] Nitrogen.
[D] Hydrogen.
154 Learning to fly can be stressful because the student pilot is in situation without a
fully control. The most likely symptom of stress is:
[A] Nervousness, muscle tension and attention issues.
[B] The sense of hunger, sleepiness and optical illusions.
[C] Sleepiness, the rise of smoking and drinking.
[D] Rough handling of the aircraft and general confusion.
155 The body gets energy from:

[A] Minerals and vitamins.
[B] Minerals, carbohydrates and vitamins.
[C] Carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
[D] Proteins and vitamins.
156 Which of the following goes through the capillaries thin walls?
[A] Proteins.
[B] Red blood cells.
[C] Gases.
[D] Water.
157 Which of the following statements is true?

[A] An alcohol improves the visual acuity.
[B] A human body burns alcohol faster if you drink coffee at the same time.
[C] Increasing the altitude reduces alcohols harmful effects.
[D] Even small amounts of alcohol may decline evaluation ability.
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METEOROLOGY
050
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1 Below the tropopause, the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes?

[A] A mean sea level pressure of 1013.25 hPa together with a mean sea level temperature of
15°C, decreasing by 1.98°C per 1000ft up to 36 090ft.
[B] A mean sea level pressure of 1013.25 hPa together with a mean sea level temperature of
15°C, decreasing at a rate of 2°C per 1000ft until it reaches -65.6°C at 36 090ft.
[C] A surface pressure of 1013.25 hPa together with a sea level temperature of 15°C,
decreasing at the rate of 1.98°C per 1.000ft until it reaches absolute zero.
[D] A mean sea level pressure of 1225g/m³ together with a mean sea level temperature of
15°C, decreasing at a rate of 2°C per 1.000ft up to 36 090ft.
2 Where is most of the water vapour in the atmosphere contained?

[A] Stratosphere.
[B] Tropopause.
[C] Troposphere.
[D] Stratopause.
3 What are the proportions of gases in the atmosphere?

[A] Oxygen 21%, Nitrogen 78%, other gasses 1%.
[B] Oxygen 21%, Hydrogen 78%, other gasses 1%.
[C] Nitrogen 78%, Argon 21%, Oxygen 1%.
[D] Nitrogen 78%, Oxygen 21%, Hydrogen 1%.
4 The layer closest to the earth's surface where the majority of weather is found is
called?
[A] Stratosphere.
[B] Tropopause.
[C] Troposphere.
[D] Mesosphere.
5 The temperature at 2000ft above mean sea level is forecast to be 5°C; compared
to the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) this is:
[A] ISA +5.
[B] IAS +6.
[C] ISA -6.
[D] IAS -6.
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6 What is the name of the instrument which gives a continuous printed reading
and record of the atmospheric pressure?
[A] Barometer.
[B] Barograph.
[C] Hygrometer.
[D] Anemograph.
7 The pressure of the atmosphere:

[A] Decreases at a constant rate as height increases.
[B] Decreases at an increasing rate as height increases.
[C] Decreases at a decreasing rate as height increases.
[D] Decreases at a constant rate up to the Tropopause and then remains constant.
8 What is the significance of tightly spaced isobars?

[A] A large pressure gradient and light winds.
[B] A weak pressure gradient and light winds.
[C] A weak pressure gradient and strong winds.
[D] A large pressure gradient and strong winds.
9 A line drawn on a chart joining places having the same barometric pressure at
the same level and at the same time is?
[A] An isohypse.
[B] An isotherm.
[C] An isallobar.
[D] An isobar.
10 Compared to ISA, what does warm air do to the distance represented by a 1 hpa
change in pressure?
[A] Impossible to determine.
[B] Decreases it.
[C] Nothing.
[D] Increases it.
11 What is the density at sea level in the International Standard Atmosphere?

[A] 1225g/m³.
[B] 12,25g/m³.
[C] 1,225g/m³.
[D] 122,5g/m³.
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12 Density at the surface will be low when:

[A] Pressure is low and temperature is low.
[B] Pressure is high and temperature is high.
[C] Pressure is high and temperature is low.
[D] Pressure is low and temperature is high.
13 Generally as altitude increases:

[A] Temperature, pressure and density decreases.
[B] Temperature decreases and density increases.
[C] Temperature and pressure increase and density decreases.
[D] Temperature decreases and pressure density increases.
14 What is density defined as?

[A] Mass per unit area.
[B] Mass per unit volume.
[C] Weight of air per unit area.
[D] Volume divided by mass.
15 Under what conditions would density be the least at any given place?
[A] Low altitude, high temperature and high humidity.
[B] High altitude, high temperature and high humidity.
[C] High altitude, high temperature and low humidity.
[D] Low altitude, low temperature and low humidity.
16 Consider the following statements about air density and select the one which is
correct?
[A] At any given surface temperature the air density will be greater in anticyclonic conditions
than it will be when the mean sea level pressure is lower.
[B] Because air density increases with a decrease of temperature, air density must increase
with increase of height in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA).
[C] Air density increases with an increase of relative humidity.
[D] The effect of change of temperature on the air density is much greater than the effect of
change of atmospheric pressure.
17 The diurnal variation of temperature is:

[A] Greater over the sea than overland.
[B] Reduced anywhere by the presence of cloud.
[C] Less over desert areas than over temperate grassland.
[D] Increased anywhere as wind speed increases.
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18 If temperature remains constant with an increase in altitude there is:

[A] An inversion.
[B] An isohypse.
[C] An isothermal layer.
[D] Decreased lapse rate.
19 A trough of low pressure at the surface is generally associated with:

[A] Subsidence causing increased cloud and precipitation.
[B] Divergence causing increased cloud and precipitation.
[C] Convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation.
[D] Subsidence causing decreased cloud and precipitation.
20 During the winter months, which of the following weather conditions would most
likely be produced by an anticyclone?
[A] During the night, as the land cools, there would be an increase in the vertical cloud
development.
[B] Subsidence due to surface cooling creating extensive cloud.
[C] During the day, the surface warming would create an unstable atmosphere with extensive
convective cloud.
[D] General subsidence with adiabatic warming, clear skies, and an inversion.
21 Diurnal variation of the surface temperature will:

[A] Decrease as wind speed increases.
[B] Be unaffected by a change of wind speed.
[C] Increase as wind speed increases.
[D] Be at a minimum in calm conditions.
22 An area of indeterminate pressure between two lows and two highs is called:
[A] A trough.
[B] A col.
[C] A ridge.
[D] A saddle.
23 The method by which energy is transferred from one body to another with which
it is in contact is called:
[A] Latent heat.
[B] Radiation.
[C] Convection.
[D] Conduction.
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24 The sun gives out ____ amounts of energy with ____ wavelengths. The earth
gives out relatively ____ amounts of energy with relatively ____ wavelengths:
[A] Large / large / small / small
[B] Large / small / small / large
[C] Small / small / large / large
[D] Large / large / small / large
25 An inversion is when:
[A] There is no horizontal gradient of temperature.
[B] There is an increase of temperature as height increases.
[C] There is no change of temperature with height.
[D] There is a decrease of temperature as height Increases.
26 Which of the statements below best describes a Col?

[A] An area of widely spaced isobars between two highs and two lows.
[B] An area between two highs where the isobars are very close together.
[C] An extension of high pressure.
[D] An extension of low pressure.
27 A ridge of high pressure is generally associated with:

[A] Subsidence of air, then divergence at the surface causing clear skies and poor visibility.
[B] Convergence at the surface causing increased cloud and precipitation.
[C] Divergence at the surface causing an improvement in the surface visibility.
[D] Subsidence then divergence at the surface causing cloud to break up and more
precipitation.
28 When flying towards a depression at a constant indicated altitude, the true

altitude will be:
[A] The same as indicated.
[B] Higher than indicated.
[C] Lower than indicated.
[D] Lower than indicated at first then the same as indicated later.
29 When an altimeter sub scale is set to the aerodrome QFE, the altimeter reads:
[A] The appropriate altitude of the aircraft.
[B] The elevation of the aerodrome at the aerodrome reference point.
[C] The pressure altitude at the aerodrome reference point.
[D] Zero at the aerodrome reference point.
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30 The altimeter will always read:

[A] With 1013 set, the altitude above MSL.
[B] The vertical distance above the pressure level set in the sub scale.
[C] With airfield QNH set, the height above the airfield datum.
[D] The correct flight level with regional QFE set.
31 An aircraft flies at a constant indicated altitude from airfield A (QNH 1009 hPa) to
airfield B (QNH 1019 hPa). If the subscale is not reset from 1009, what would be
expected when over airfield B:
[A] Indicated altitude to be more than actual altitude.
[B] Indicated altitude to be the same as actual altitude.
[C] Indicated altitude to be less than actual altitude.
[D] Indicated altitude may be greater or less depending on the airfield elevation.
32 An aircraft flies from aerodrome "A", where QNH is given as 1020 hPa, to
aerodrome "B", where the QNH is given as 999 hPa. Aerodrome "A" is 800ft
above mean sea level and aerodrome "B" is 500ft above mean sea level. If the
altimeter sub scale is not changed from 1020, what is the altimeter indication on
landing? (ASSUME 1 hPa = 30ft)
[A] 1.430 ft.
[B] 1.130 ft.
[C] 130 ft.
[D] 100 ft.
33 You experience a constant drift to the right when flying over Europe at a
constant indicated altitude. If the altimeter subscale is not updated, this will
result in?
[A] Flying at a progressively higher true altitude.
[B] Flying at a progressively lower true altitude.
[C] Flying at a progressively lower indicated altitude.
[D] Flying at a progressively higher indicated altitude.
34 You are flying at a constant indicated altitude with the QNH of 1015 set within the
subscale and you notice the outside air temperature has been falling constantly.
What can you expect to have happened to your true altitude?
[A] Increased.
[B] Decreased.
[C] Remained the same.
[D] Increased then decreased.
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35 The instrument used for measuring the humidity of air is a:

[A] Hygroscope.
[B] Hydrometer.
[C] Wet bulb thermometer.
[D] Hygrometer.
36 When condensation takes place, the higher the temperature the ____ the amount
of latent heat ____:
[A] Lesser / released
[B] Greater / released
[C] Greater / absorbed
[D] Lesser / absorbed
37 Wet bulb temperature would normally be lower than dry bulb temperature
because:
[A] Latent heat is absorbed by the bulb thermometer.
[B] Condensation causes a release of latent heat.
[C] Evaporation causes cooling on the wet bulb thermometer.
[D] Of condensation on the muslin wick of the bulb.
38 The process of change of state from a gas to a liquid is known as:

[A] Evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed.
[B] Condensation in which latent heat is released.
[C] Evaporation in which latent heat is released.
[D] Condensation in which latent heat is absorbed.
39 A change of state directly from a solid to a vapour or vice versa is:

[A] Condensation.
[B] Insolation.
[C] Sublimation.
[D] Evaporation.
40 During a night with a clear sky, surface temperature will ____, relative humidity
will ____ and dewpoint will ____.
[A] Fall / Rise / Rise.
[B] Fall / Rise / Remain the same.
[C] Rise / Rise / Fall.
[D] Fall / Fall / Remain the same.
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41 Which of the processes listed below can cause air to become saturated?
[A] Condensation.
[B] Melting.
[C] Evaporation.
[D] Heating.
42 Given an atmospheric situation where the relative humidity is 60% and the ELR
is less than the DALR, if air is forced to rise it will be:
[A] Unstable and will carry on rising.
[B] Stable and will tend to regain its former position.
[C] Stable and will carry on rising.
[D] Unstable and will tend to regain its former position.
43 The pilot of an aircraft which is approaching a mountain from the downwind or

leeward side, a few hundred feet above ridge level, observes venticular clouds.
Which of the following conditions would the pilot expect to encounter as the
flight continues?
[A] Strong down-draughts immediately before the ridge of the mountain is reached, with
strong up-draughts after passing the ridge to the windward side.
[B] Strong katabatic currents at the top of the ridge.
[C] Strong katabatic down-draughts and turbulence after passing over the ridge.
[D] Strong up-draughts before the ridge is passed and strong down-draughts after the ridge
is passed.
44 The actual change of temperature with height is known as:

[A] The temperature curve.
[B] The adiabatic lapse rate.
[C] The environmental lapse rate.
[D] The tephigram.
45 Which of the following is true about the lowest level windshear?

[A] It may be experienced 15 to 20 miles ahead of a fast moving thunderstorm.
[B] It is rare where there is a strong inversion level close to the surface.
[C] It is only found under the core of the anvil of a thunderstorm.
[D] It is only ever found on the fringes of a microburst.
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46 An aircraft is flying in the vicinity of a range of hills, lying north-south, across

which a wind is blowing from the west to east. Which of the following situations
might cause the aircraft to encounter dangerous downdraughts?
[A] When flying east towards the hills from the west.
[B] When flying west towards the hills from the east.
[C] When flying north towards the hill from the south.
[D] When flying south towards the hill from the north.
47 In a mountain wave situation, the worst of the turbulence is most likely to be

found when flying:
[A] In the cap cloud.
[B] At about mid-height between the lenticular and roll cloud.
[C] In or just below the roll cloud.
[D] In the lenticular cloud.
48 A light aircraft flying at low level near a mountain range across which a strong
wind is blowing may expect:
1. Severe turbulence below or within any rotor zone.
2. Down-draughts which may exceed the climb rate of the aircraft.
3. A greater than normal risk of icing in the cloud over the crest mountain.
4. Lenticular cloud
[A] Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
[B] Only 1 and 3 are correct.
[C] Only 1 and 2 are correct.
[D] 1,2, 3 and 4 are correct.
49 One or more coloured rings around the sun or moon may indicate the presence
of which type of cloud?
[A] Cumulus.
[B] High.
[C] Altostratus.
[D] Cirrocumulus.
50 Given a surface temperature of +21°C and a dew point of +7°C, at approximately

what height will the cloud base of a cumulus cloud be?
[A] 560ft.
[B] 5.600ft.
[C] 56.000ft.
[D] 4.000ft.
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51 Hail is most likely to fall from which type of cloud?

[A] AC.
[B] NS.
[C] CB.
[D] AS.
52 From the list below, select the Low, Medium and High clouds in ascending order.
[A] Nimbostratus, Cumulonimbus, Cirrus.
[B] Stratus, Altocumulus, Cirrus.
[C] Altostratus, Altocumulus, Cirrus.
[D] Cirrus, Cumulonimbus, Stratus.
53 The use of the suffix "nimbus" or the prefix "nimbo" means?

[A] Dark and threatening.
[B] Wispy, detached or fiberous.
[C] Medium cloud.
[D] Rain bearing.
54 Precipitation produced by stratus is normally?

[A] Heavy showers.
[B] Drizzle.
[C] Heavy rain.
[D] Light showers.
55 Unstable air is forced to rise up the side of a mountain. What weather might you
expect to see on the windward slopes?
[A] Thick stratiform cloud, probably nimbostratus.
[B] Cloud of extensive vertical development.
[C] None, as the air will subside and warm adiabatically after passing over the summit.
[D] Cap clouds with possible altocumulus lenticularis.
56 The conditions which must exist to allow thunderstorms to develop are:

[A] A plentiful supply of moisture and a steep lapse rate through a large vertical extent,
together with a trigger action.
[B] A trigger action, a plentiful supply of moisture and a very stable atmosphere.
[C] A steep lapse rate, a stable atmosphere through a large vertical extent, and a plentiful
supply of moisture.
[D] A steep lapse rate through a large vertical extent, a low relative humidity and a trigger
action.
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57 Which of the following combinations of weather-producing variables would be

most likely to result in cumuliform clouds, good visibility, showery rain, and
possible clear type icing in clouds?
[A] Stable, moist air and orographic lifting.
[B] Unstable moist air and orographic lifting.
[C] Unstable moist air and no lifting mechanism.
[D] Stable, dry air and orographic lifting.
58 Turbulence, windshear, icing, lightning and heavy precipitation are associated

with cumulonimbus clouds. Which of the following statements is true?
[A] The most hazardous condition is lightning.
[B] All of the hazards can be avoided by not flying in or in the vicinity of the cloud.
[C] Heavy precipitation may be experienced outside the cloud, but turbulence and icing are
confined to inside the cloud.
[D] All of the hazards may be encountered within or in the vicinity of the cloud.
59 During the ____ stage of a thunderstorm ceil, the cloud contains ____. Complete
the above statement choosing one of the following combinations of words:
[A] Initial /up currents and down currents.
[B] Mature / up currents and down currents.
[C] Dissipating / up currents and down currents.
[D] Initial / down currents only.
60 What stage of a thunderstorm is characterised predominantly by downdraughts?

[A] Cumulus stage.
[B] Initial stage.
[C] Mature stage.
[D] Dissipating stage.
61 For cumulonimbus clouds to develop, there needs to exist?

[A] A deep layer of very unstable moist air with a shallow lapse rate.
[B] A shallow layer of very unstable moist air.
[C] A deep layer of very unstable moist air.
[D] A shallow layer of very unstable air with a steep lapse rate.
62 What stage of a thunderstorm is characterised by updraughts only?

[A] Dissipating stage.
[B] Mature stage.
[C] Initial stage.
[D] End stage.
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63 Which of the following conditions are most likely to produce thunderstorms?

[A] A low moisture content with a steep lapse rate.
[B] A high moisture content with a shallow lapse rate.
[C] A high moisture content with a steep lapse rate.
[D] A low moisture content with a shallow lapse rate.
64 Hazards to aircraft caused by the presence of cumulonimbus or thunderstorm

cloud may be experienced:
[A] Only when the aircraft is within the cloud.
[B] When the aircraft is within 10 nm of the cloud.
[C] Only when the aircraft is within or underneath the cloud.
[D] When the aircraft is within 5 nm of the cloud.
65 Hazards of the mature stage of a thunderstorm cell include lightning, turbulence

and:
[A] Windshear, hail and fog.
[B] Microburst, windshear and anvil.
[C] Icing, drizzle and microburst.
[D] Icing, microburst and windshear.
66 The wind at 2000ft over an aerodrome was reported at 330/15kt. Using the rule of
thumb, what might you expect the surface wind to be?
[A] 305/30 kt.
[B] 305/07 kt.
[C] 355/30 kt.
[D] 315/30 kt.
67 Coriolis force in the Northern Hemisphere will cause moving air to be apparently
deflected to:
[A] The left and cause the geostrophic wind to blow parallel to the isobars at about 2.000ft
agl.
[B] The right and cause the geostrophic wind to blow parallel to the isobars at about 2.000ft
agl.
[C] The left and cause the wind to blow slightly across the isobars at about 2.000ft agl.
[D] The right and cause the wind to blow slightly across the isobars at about 2.000ft agl.
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68 Winds that blow around an anticyclone (high pressure system) at lower levels in
the Northern Hemisphere are represented on a low level chart as blowing in:
[A] A cyclonic direction.
[B] A clockwise direction if it is warm air and anticlockwise if it is cold air.
[C] An anticlockwise direction.
[D] A clockwise direction.
69 Low level winds in the northern hemisphere that blow around a depression are
drawn on surface weather charts in?
[A] An anticlockwise direction.
[B] A clockwise direction.
[C] An anticyclonic direction.
[D] Either clockwise or anticlockwise depending on whether the depression is cyclonic or
anticyclonic.
70 The formation of advection fog is often caused by?

[A] A warm moist air mass under the influence of a moderate wind being cooled to below its
dew point by flowing over a much colder surface.
[B] A cold moist air mass under the influence of a moderate wind being warmed to below its
dew point by flowing over a much warmer surface.
[C] A warm moist air mass under the influence of a very light wind being cooled to below its
dew point by flowing over a much colder surface.
[D] A warm moist air mass under the influence of a strong wind on a clear cloudless night.
71 A low level mist layer significantly reduces forward visibility when flying at about
2000ft. To improve your forward visibility you should?
[A] Fly lower.
[B] Fly higher.
[C] Fly just on top of the mist layer.
[D] Turn on your landing lights and strobe lights.
72 Which of the following conditions is most favourable to the formation of

radiation fog?
[A] High relative humidity, light winds and a clear sky.
[B] High relative humidity, moderate wind and a cloudy sky.
[C] Low relative humidity, light winds and a clear sky.
[D] High relative humidity, light winds and a cloudy sky.
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73 Over an inland airfield radiation fog is reported in the morning. As the wind
speed increases to 10 kt what would you expect:
[A] The fog to dissipate.
[B] The fog to thicken.
[C] The fog to lift and form low stratus.
[D] An increase in mixing, allowing more fog to develop.
74 What are the characteristics of the passage of a cold front?

[A] Dew point rise, a temperature fall and the wind veering.
[B] A dew point rise, a temperature fall and wind backing.
[C] A dew point fall, a temperature fall, and the wind veering.
[D] Steady dew point and temperature but a sharp backing in the wind.
75 If a cloudy, granular type of ice is seen to collect and protrude forward from the
leading edge of the aerofoil, what type of ice would it most likely be?
[A] Rain ice.
[B] Clear ice.
[C] Rime ice.
[D] Hoar ice.
76 What will normally happen to the surface wind direction following the passage of
a warm front?
[A] Back.
[B] Stay constant.
[C] Veer.
[D] Veer then back.
77 The extent of rainfall ahead of a typical warm front may be up to a distance of:
[A] 50 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front.
[B] 200 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front.
[C] 500 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front.
[D] 2 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front.
78 Which of the following frontal systems is more likely to produce thunderstorm

activity?
[A] A ridge of high pressure.
[B] A warm front.
[C] A cold front.
[D] A stationery front.
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79 Clear ice forms as a result of:

[A] Water vapour freezing to the aircraft.
[B] Ice pellets splattering on the aircraft.
[C] Small supercooled water droplets splashing over the aircraft.
[D] Large supercooled water droplets spreading as they freeze.
80 What would be the change in weather following the passage of a typical warm
front?
[A] Pressure falls, 8 oktas of cloud with a lowering base and improving visibility
[B] Pressure increases steadily, no more than 4 oktas of cloud, and good visibility.
[C] Pressure stops falling, 4 oktas of cloud with a very low base and rapidly improving
visibility.
[D] . Pressure falls, 8 oktas of cloud with a lowering base and poor visibility.
81 What is the main reason water can exist in a liquid state even though the
temperature is sub zero?
[A] No condensation nuclei.
[B] No freezing nuclei.
[C] Water takes a long time to cool to below zero degrees.
[D] Water is hygroscopic.
82 You are flying above the freezing level in the cold air just ahead of a warm front.
If rain were to fall in this area, what kind of icing might you expect?
[A] Rime ice.
[B] Carburettor ice.
[C] Rain or clear ice.
[D] Hoar frost.
83 Which of the following correctly decodes the METAR shown below?

METAR EGKL 130350Z 32005KT 0900 0400N DZ BCFG VV002
[A] Observed on the 13th day of the month at 0350Z, surface wind 320°True, 05kt, current
visibility 900 metres, minimum visibility 400 metres to the north, moderate drizzle, with fog
patches and a vertical visibility of 200ft.
[B] Reported on the 13th day of the month at 0350Z, surface wind 320°Magnetic, 05kt,
current visibility 900 metres, minimum visibility 400 metres to the north, moderate drizzle,
with fog patches and a vertical visibility of 200ft.
[C] Valid on the 13th day of the month between 0300 and 1500Z, surface wind 320°T/05kt,
current visibility 900 metres, minimum visibility 400 metres, drizzle, with fog patches and
a vertical visibility of 200 metres.
[D] Valid between 1300Z and 1350Z, surface wind 320°T/05kt, current visibility 900 metres,
minimum visibility 400 metres to the north, moderate drizzle, and a vertical visibility of
200ft.
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84 When a TREND is included at the end of an aviation METAR, the trend is a

forecast valid for:
[A] 1 hour after it was issued.
[B] 1 hour after the time of observation.
[C] 30 minutes after it was issued.
[D] 2 hours after the time of observation.
85 The visibility group R20/0050 in a METAR means:

[A] As measured by runway measuring equipment for runway 20, a current runway visibility
of 50 metres.
[B] For runway 20, a current visibility of 500 metres measured by runway visual range
equipment.
[C] The runway visibility reported is 50 metres as measured by the runway visual range
equipment within the last 20 minutes.
[D] On runway 20, the current visibility is less than 5.000 metres.
86 The code: "BECMG FM 1100 -SHRA" in a METAR means:

[A] Becoming, from 1100 UTC, rain showers.
[B] From 1100 UTC, cessation of the rain showers.
[C] Becoming, from 1100 UTC, slight rain showers.
[D] Becoming, from 1100 UTC to 0000 UTC, slight rain showers.
87 A temperature group of 28/24 in a METAR means that:

[A] The temperature is 28°C and the dew point is 24°C.
[B] The temperature is 28°C at the time of the reporting, but is expected to become 24°C by
the end of the TREND report.
[C] The dry bulb temperature is 28°C and the wet bulb temperature is 24°C.
[D] The dew point is 28°C and the temperature is 24°C.
88 In the METAR shown below, the cloud base has been omitted. At what height
might you expect the cloud base to be if cumulus cloud was present?
28005KT9999 SCT??? 12/05 Q1020 NOSIG

[A] SCT020.
[B] SCT042.
[C] SCT028.
[D] SCT280.
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89 Providing the minimum sector altitude is not a determining factor, CAVOK in a

TAF or METAR:
[A] Means visibility 10km or more, and few cloud below 5.000ft.
[B] Means visibility 10km or more, and no cloud below 5.000ft.
[C] Means visibility 10nm or more, and no cloud below 5.000ft.
[D] Means visibility 10nm or more, and no scattered cloud below 5.000ft.
90 Which of the following correctly decodes a TAF that reads: LYBE 161100Z
1612/1712 VRB08KT9999 SCT025?
[A] Observed at 1612 UTC; the surface wind was variable in direction and speed; with a
visibility of 10km, and a cloud base of 2.500ft above ground level.
[B] Valid from 1612 to 1712 UTC; surface wind variable at 8kt; visibility 10nm or more; with a
cloud base of 2.500ft above mean sea level.
[C] Observed at 1611UTC; the surface wind was variable in direction and speed; averaging
8kt: with a visibility of 10km or more, and a cloud base of 2.500ft above aerodrome level.
[D] Valid from 1200 Hr on the 16 of the month to 1200 Hr on the 17 of the month; surface
wind will be variable in direction at 8kt with a visibility of 10km or more; 3to4 oktas of
cloud with a base of 2.500ft above the aerodrome.
91 BECMG 1621/1701 BKN030 in a TAF means:

[A] Becoming between 2100 UTC on the 16 of the month and 0100 UTC on the 17 of the
month 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft agl.
[B] Becoming between 1621 UTC and 1701 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 300 ft agl.
[C] Becoming from 1621 UTC 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft agl.
[D] Becoming from 1621 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 300 ft agl.
92 What does this symbol represent on a forecast chart? (See PPL(A) 050-03)
[A] Severe turbulence.
[B] Thunderstorms.
[C] Severe icing.
[D] Severe mountain waves.
93 What does this symbol represent on a forecast chart? (See PPL(A) 050-04)
[A] Thunderstorms.
[B] Severe turbulence.
[C] Severe mountain waves.
[D] Severe icing.
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94 What is the validity time for a WAFC significant weather chart?

[A] 3 hours.
[B] 6 hours.
[C] For a single fixed time only.
[D] 30 minutes.
95 On WAFC significant weather charts what do the letters "CB" implies?

[A] Severe icing and turbulence.
[B] Moderate icing and turbulence.
[C] Moderate to severe icing and turbulence and hail.
[D] Moderate to severe icing and turbulence.
96 A regional is a forecast of the weather up to?

[A] FL180.
[B] FL100.
[C] FL010.
[D] FL240.
97 VOLMETS are updated?

[A] Every hour.
[B] Every half an hour.
[C] 4 times a day.
[D] 2 times a day.
98 VOLMETS is defined as:

[A] A continuous radio broadcast of selected aerodrome actual weather observations and
forecasts.
[B] A radio broadcast of selected aerodrome forecasts.
[C] a text message of selected aerodrome METARS.
[D] A teleprinter message of selected aerodrome TAFs and METARs.
99 VOLMETS are?
[A] Air to ground radio transmissions on HF and SVHF.
[B] Air to ground radio transmissions on HF and VHF.
[C] Ground to air radio transmissions on HF and VHF.
[D] Ground to air radio transmissions on LF and VHF.
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100 When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

[A] Every 30 minutes.
[B] Only when the aerodrome information changes.
[C] Any time the aerodrome or weather information changes.
[D] Every hour.
101 What is the ATIS?

[A] A continuous broadcast of current aerodrome and weather information.
[B] A chart of current aerodrome and weather information.
[C] A continuous broadcast of weather information.
[D] A printed text report of current aerodrome and weather information.
102 In the ATIS broadcast, what is used to identify the current report?
[A] A validity time.
[B] A number.
[C] An alphabetical code.
[D] An issue time.
103 On what frequency range is the ATIS usually broadcast?

[A] ADR.
[B] LF.
[C] HF.
[D] VHF.
104 What air temperature may we expect at 7000 ft if the air temperature at 1500 ft is
15°C?
[A] -2°C.
[B] +3°C.
[C] 0°C.
[D] +4°C.
105 What wind represents depicted symbol from meteorological charts? (See PPL(A)
050-05)
[A] South wind at 15 knots.
[B] North wind at 60 knots.
[C] West wind at 60 knots.
[D] East wind at 15 knots.
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106 Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a:
[A] Humidity differential.
[B] Pressure differential.
[C] Movement of air.
[D] Heat exchange.
107 What weather phenomena is associated with a temperature inversion?

[A] Thunderstorms inside air masses.
[B] An unstable layer of air.
[C] Ascending winds on mountain slopes.
[D] A stable layer of air.
108 The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that
which is produced by:
[A] Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
[B] The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.
[C] Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
[D] Terrestrial radiation on a cloudy, relatively windy night.
109 The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the:
[A] Dewpoint.
[B] Stability of the air.
[C] Air temperature.
[D] Air pressure.
110 What is the approximate airfield dewpoint if the surface air temperature is 20 °C
and the reported base of the cumulus clouds is 1100m above the airfield level?
[A] -3°C.
[B] 5°C.
[C] 7°C.
[D] 11°C.
111 What are the characteristics of an unstable air mass?

[A] Turbulence and good surface visibility.
[B] Turbulence and poor surface visibility.
[C] Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.
[D] Stratus type clouds and poor surface visibility.
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112 What types clouds usually accompany the passage of a warm front?
[A] CI, CC, NS, CB.
[B] CC, AC, CU, CB.
[C] CI, CS, AS, NS.
[D] CC, SC, ST, NS.
113 Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature

inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
[A] Light windshear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain.
[B] Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
[C] Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation.
[D] Turbulent air and good visibility.
114 What value is being calculated by following formula? Temperature minus

dewpoint times 123 = ?
[A] Ceiling of cumulus clouds in meters.
[B] Temperature aloft.
[C] Tops of stratus clouds in meters.
[D] Relative humidity.
115 What is the approximate base of cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature is
27°C and the dewpoint is 15°C?
[A] 1.000m.
[B] 1.500m.
[C] 2.000m.
[D] 2.700m.
116 What approximate base of cumulus clouds should be expected if the surface air
dewpoint is 5°C and the forcasted daily maximum temperature is 25°C?
[A] 2.800m.
[B] 2.500m.
[C] 2.000m.
[D] 1.500m.
117 With what type of clouds are shower precipitations associated?

[A] NS.
[B] ST.
[C] CI.
[D] CB.
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118 Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the:

[A] Cumulus stage.
[B] Downdraft stage.
[C] Mature stage.
[D] Dissipating stage.
119 There is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to
land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the
landing approach?
[A] Steady rain.
[B] Windshear.
[C] Precipitation static.
[D] Light showers.
120 Where does windshear occur?

[A] At all altitudes, in all directions.
[B] Only at lower altitudes.
[C] Only at higher altitudes.
[D] Only during the rain.
121 Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?

[A] Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.
[B] Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness.
[C] Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby increasing lift.
[D] Frost increases the aircrafts weight.
122 In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest
accumulation rate?
[A] Freezing drizzle.
[B] Freezing rain.
[C] Cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures.
[D] Fog, temperature -25°C.
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123 What type of precipitations was observed accordingly to the following METAR
report?
METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020

17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700 0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW=
[A] Hail.
[B] Steady and light rain.
[C] Moderate drizzle.
[D] Rain showers.
124 What was the ceiling of the lowest cloud layer accordingly to the following
METAR report?
METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020

17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700 0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW=
[A] 100ft.
[B] 10 ft.
[C] 300 ft.
[D] 1.000m.
125 Accordingly to the code which of the following METAR reports could be partially
abbreviated by CAVOK (minimum sector altitude 4000 ft)?
[A] 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG=
[B] 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1019 NOSIG=
[C] 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500=
[D] 26012KT 8000 -SHRA BKN025TCU 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG=
126 What kind of weather is forecast for the period after 12:00 UTC?
TAF LYBE 160500Z 1606/1706 13010KT 9000 BKN020 BECMG 1606/1608

SCT015CB BKN020 TEMPO 1608/1612 17012G22KT 1000 TSRA SCT010CB
BKN020 FM161200 15006KT 9999 BKN020 BKN100=
[A] Moderate southeasterly wind with visibility improvement to more than 10 km,
precipitations will stop, cloudiness will become greater with ceiling at 600 m.
[B] Rainy weather with showers and gusty wind and visibility below 10 km.
[C] Visibility will improve to 5 km to 10 km and cloud covering will decrease to 1/8 at 600 m
and 1/8 at 3.000 m.
[D] Southeasterly wind 6 kts, visibility will be convenient for visual flying and the sky will be
completely covered with clouds with base at 600 m.
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NAVIGATION
060
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1 What is the angle of inclination of the Earth's axis to its orbital plane?
[A] 23,5°
[B] 66,5°
[C] 90°
[D] 33,5°
2 The meridian passing through Greenwich is known as?

[A] Equator.
[B] Main Meridian.
[C] Prime Meridian.
[D] Great Meridian.
3 A Rhumb Line is?

[A] A regularly curved line on the Earth's surface which cuts all meridians at the same angle.
[B] A regularly curved line on the Earth's surface which cuts all parallels of Latitude at the
same angle.
[C] A line showing True north.
[D] A line on the surface of the Earth whose centre and radius are those of the Earth.
4 Variation is the angle between:

[A] Magnetic north and the aircraft's True heading.
[B] True north and the nearest line of Longitude.
[C] Magnetic north and the aircraft's Magnetic heading.
[D] True north and Magnetic north.
5 An isogonal is a line joining points of:

[A] Zero magnetic variation.
[B] Equal magnetic deviation.
[C] Equal magnetic variation.
[D] Zero magnetic deviation.
6 Which points on the Earth's surface determine the Earth's axis?

[A] Equator-hemisphere.
[B] North geographic pole and north magnetic pole.
[C] North and south magnetic pole.
[D] North and south geographic pole.
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7 The circumference of the Earth along the Equator is:

[A] 24 000 km.
[B] 21 600 NM.
[C] 30 000 NM.
[D] 40 075 km.
8 The Earth's diameter, when compared to the Earth' axis, is:

[A] Twice as much greater.
[B] Longer by 43 km.
[C] The same.
[D] Shorter by 42 km.
9 Which of the following statements, regarding rotation of the Earth around the
Sun, is correct? The Earth:
[A] Encircles the Sun in one day.
[B] Encircles the Sun one time during summer and one time during winter.
[C] Does not circle around the Sun because it is stationary with the Sun circling around it.
[D] Encircles the Sun in one year.
10 The Earth's globe rotates:

[A] Around its axis in the direction from the west to the east.
[B] Around so called Sun's tropic.
[C] Together with the Sun in the direction from the east to the west.
[D] Around its axis in the direction from the east to the west.
11 The orbit of the Earth is:

[A] A circle with the Sun at the center.
[B] An ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci.
[C] An ellipse with the Sun at different point inside it.
[D] A circle around which the Sun rotates.
12 What is the cause of the seasons?

[A] A shape of the Earth's orbit.
[B] Irregular movement of the Earth around the Sun.
[C] Uneven temperatures in space.
[D] The tilt of the Earth's axis.
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13 The shortest distance between two points on the Earth's globe is called:
[A] Great circle.
[B] Lambodrome.
[C] Rhumb line.
[D] Small circle.
14 Great Circle(s) on the Earth's surface is(are):

[A] The equator and meridians.
[B] The equator only.
[C] The equator, meridians and orthodroms.
[D] The equator, meridians and parallels of latitude.
15 The equator is the Great Circle which plane:

[A] Divides the Earth's globe into the east and west hemisphere.
[B] Divides the Earth's globe into the north and south hemisphere.
[C] Is parallel to the Earth's axis.
[D] Divides the Earth's globe into the westerly and easterly hemisphere.
16 How many Great Circles (orthodroms) can be determined on the Earth's surface?
[A] 360.
[B] 90.
[C] 180.
[D] An infinite number.
17 The Great Circle on the Earth's globe is the cross-section of the Earth's surface
and the plane passing through:
[A] Any two points on the Earth's surface; the cross-section with the Earth's surface is the
shortest distance between these points.
[B] The center of the Earth and is always rectangular to the Earth's axis.
[C] The center of the Earth and is always oblique to the Earth's axis.
[D] The center of the Earth and is tilt to the Earth's axis at any angle.
18 Which of the following circles on the Earth's globe does not have the center at
the Earth's center?
[A] Great Circle.
[B] Orthodrom.
[C] Small Circle.
[D] Equator.
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19 What is the characteristic of the Rhumb Line?

[A] It is the Great Circle.
[B] It cuts meridians under constant angle.
[C] It is the shortest distance between two points on the Earth's globe.
[D] It cuts meridians under various angles.
20 Which circles, forming the graticule, are at the same time Great Circles and
Rhumb Lines?
[A] Parallel of latitude only.
[B] Meridians and equator.
[C] Meridians only.
[D] Equator only.
21 The Sun travels across the sky an arc of 5° in:

[A] 60 minutes.
[B] 20 minutes.
[C] 30 minutes.
[D] 4 minutes.
22 What time is needed for the Sun's azimuth to change by 27 arc degrees?
[A] 135 minutes.
[B] 30 minutes.
[C] 90 minutes.
[D] 108 minutes.
23 The Co-ordinated Universal Time (UTC) is:

[A] The MidEuropean Time.
[B] The Local Time.
[C] The Zone Time.
[D] The time on the longitude 0 degrees.
24 13:00 accordingly to the Finnish Summer Time is:

[A] 1600 UTC.
[B] 1000 UTC.
[C] 1200 UTC.
[D] 1100 UTC.
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25 An aircraft over Helsinki is headed exactly to the south. It is 1200 UTC. What is
the Relative bearing of the Sun?
[A] Exactly straight-in.
[B] Right of the aircraft's nose.
[C] Left of the aircraft's nose.
[D] May be left or right of the aircraft's nose, with regard to the season.
26 The geographic latitude is the distance of a point on the Earth's surface from the:
[A] Prime Meridian, measured in arc degrees.
[B] Equator, measured in statute miles.
[C] Equator, measured in arc degrees.
[D] Prime Meridian, measured in geographic miles.
27 What is the latitude of a point on the Equator?

[A] 90°N.
[B] 0°.
[C] 180°S.
[D] 90°S.
28 What is the difference between the latitude of the point A and the point B, which
are located on following parallels of latitude:
A: 15° 54' 30" N
B: 10° 33' 30" S
[A] 25° 27' 00".
[B] 05° 21' 00".
[C] 26° 28' 00".
[D] 05° 28' 00".
29 Determine the latitude of the point B, located 240 NM north of the point A with
the latitude 62° 33' 00" N.
[A] 66° 33' 00" N.
[B] 58° 33' 00" N.
[C] 86° 33' 00" N.
[D] 64° 33' 00" N.
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30 The distance between the parallel of latitude 10°N and the parallel of latitude
11°N, measured along the meridian, is:
[A] 60 SM.
[B] 111 km.
[C] 60 km.
[D] 111 NM.
31 For this question use appendix PPL(A) 060-01-2015.

The geographical coordinates of the compulsory reporting point MINNE is?
[A] N 62° 46' 48" and E 021° 32' 43".
[B] N 62° 56' 48" and E 021° 32' 43".
[C] N 60° 56' 48" and E 021° 32' 43".
[D] N 62° 56' 48" and W 021° 32' 43".

The geographical coordinates of the compulsory reporting point TERVA is?
[A] N 62° 59' 33" and E 022° 05' 11" .
[B] N 63° 59' 33" and E 022° 05' 11" .
[C] N 62° 59' 33" and E 021° 05' 11" .
[D] S 62° 59' 33" and E 022° 05' 11" .

The geographical coordinates of the compulsory reporting point VASSO is?
[A] N 62° 09' 28" and E 021° 58' 40".
[B] E 63° 09' 28" and N 021° 58' 39".
[C] N 63° 09' 28" and E 021° 58' 40".
[D] N 63° 09' 28" and E 022° 58' 40".

What compulsory reporting point is the most convenient to use when
approaching EFVA on radial 220?
[A] TERVE
[B] MINNE
[C] VASSO
[D] KOSSU
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[A] KOSSU
[B] MINNE
[C] TERVE
[D] VASSO

[A] MINNE
[B] KOSSU
[C] VASSO
[D] TERVA
37 The distance of 1 NM is equivalent to:

[A] The distance of one arc minute on a Meridian.
[B] Exactly the 40-thousandth part of the Earth's perimeter.
[C] The distance between a Meridian and the pole.
[D] The perimeter of a Polar Circle.
38 The distance of 1 NM equals to:

[A] 1,852 m.
[B] 1,111 m.
[C] 1,432 m.
[D] 1,609 m.
39 The formula for a quick calculation from kilometres to nautical miles is:
[A] (km x 2) - 22%.
[B] (km : 2) + 10%.
[C] (km : 2) - 10%.
[D] (km x 2) - 10%.
40 Approximately how many kilometres are in 70 nautical miles?

[A] 135 km.
[B] 130 km.
[C] 140 km.
[D] 145 km.
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41 The distance of 1 statute mile is equal to:

[A] 1,432 m.
[B] 1,852 m.
[C] 1,609 m.
[D] 1,111 m.
42 How many kilometres are in 50 SM (statute miles)?

[A] Little less than 75 km
[B] Approximately 92 km.
[C] Exactly 100 km.
[D] . Approximately 80 km.
43 On a chart, 6 cm represents the distance 15 km. What is the scale of the chart?
[A] 1 : 300 000.
[B] 1 : 250 000.
[C] 1 : 400 000.
[D] 1 : 500 000.
44 The scale of the chart is 1:500 000. How many centimetres represents the
distance 105km?
[A] 21.0 cm.
[B] 10.5 cm.
[C] 42.0 cm.
[D] 84.0 cm.

What is the scale of the chart?
Please pay attention to annex 1
[A] 1 : 200 000.
[B] 1 : 300 000.
[C] 1 : 500 000.
[D] 1 : 1 500 000.
distance 54km?
[A] 18 cm.
[B] 36 cm.
[C] 1.8 cm.
[D] 7 cm.
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distance 210km?
[A] 6,3cm.
[B] 63cm.
[C] 70cm.
[D] 7cm.
distance 100 NM?
[A] 41 cm.
[B] 31 cm.
[C] 39 cm.
[D] 37 cm.
49 The distance between the points ALFA and BRAVO is 107 NM. If an aircraft
covers first 16 NM in 10 minutes, what time does it take to travel the entire route
ALFA-BRAVO with the same groundspeed?
[A] 59 minutes.
[B] 1 hour and 3 minutes.
[C] 1 hour and 1 minute.
[D] 1 hour and 6 minutes.
50 How far will an aircraft travel with 32 gal of usable fuel with fuel consumption 7,1
gal/h at the groundspeed 108 kts? (Allow 1-hour final reserve fuel)
[A] 420 NM.
[B] 384 NM.
[C] 379 NM.
[D] 487 NM.
51 How far will an aircraft travel with 27 gal of usable fuel with fuel consumption 6,8
gal/h at the groundspeed 93 kts? (Allow 6-gallons final reserve fuel)
[A] 301 NM.
[B] 292 NM.
[C] 287 NM.
[D] 308 NM.
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52 How many gallons of usable fuel should be on board of an aircraft for a distance
flight of 300 NM at the groundspeed 120 kts and average fuel consumption 7,3
gal/h? (Allow 1-hour fuel reserve).
[A] 25.6 gal.
[B] 15.0 gal.
[C] 18.3 gal.
[D] 21.4 gal.
53 A distance in meters could be converted to feet using the formula:

[A] m x 0.3.
[B] (m x 3) + 10%.
[C] (m : 10) x 3.
[D] (m x 3) : 10.
54 An altitude 1 500 meters is approximately:

[A] 4.900 ft.
[B] 3.600 ft.
[C] 4.000 ft.
[D] 4.500 ft.
55 On a chart we read the obstacle altitude 275 meters. Regarding the rule of height
clearance 1.000 feet over obstacles, what is the lowest altitude for overflying the
obstacle?
[A] 1,230 ft.
[B] 2,230 ft.
[C] 2,130 ft.
[D] 1,900 ft.
56 Altitude 6.000 ft is approximately:

[A] 12,000 m.
[B] 1,200 m.
[C] 3,000 m.
[D] 1,800 m.
57 Approximately what QNH pressure corresponds to the QFE pressure 1000 hPa
on an airfield with the elevation 200 meters?
[A] 1035 hPa.
[B] 985 hPa.
[C] 990 hPa.
[D] 1025 hPa.
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58 What does a measuring unit knot used in aviation mean?

[A] Km/h.
[B] SM/h.
[C] NM/h.
[D] m/h.
59 The wind velocity of 10 m/sec approximately equals to:

[A] 5 kts.
[B] 40 kts.
[C] 20 kts.
[D] 2,5 kts.
60 Wind velocity 5 kts is approximately:

[A] 10 km/hour.
[B] 5 statue miles/ hour.
[C] 20 m/sec.
61 A velocity 120 km/h, expressed in knots, is:

[A] 58 kts.
[B] 50 kts.
[C] 65 kts.
[D] 60 kts.
62 If a vertical speed indicator of a towing airplane shows 500 ft/min, the

approximately aerotow's rate-of-climb in meters-per-second is:
[A] 1,5 m/sec.
[B] 2,5 m/sec.
[C] 3,5 m/sec.
[D] 5 m/sec.
63 What is the ground speed (GS) of an aircraft, covering in 40 minutes the

distance, that represents 10.8 cm on an 1:500 000 chart?
[A] 100 km/h.
[B] 81 kts.
[C] 100 mph.
[D] 81 km/h.
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64 An aircraft would cover a 120 km distance in no wind condition in 2 hours and 40

minutes, however in actual meteo conditions the flight lasted 3 hours and 5
minutes. What was the wind component along track?
[A] 6 km/h headwind.
[B] 16 kts tailwind.
[C] 16 km/h headwind.
[D] 6 kts tailwind.
65 The distance of the route from the point X to the point Y via the control point Z is
84 km. If an aircraft covers the first segment X-Z (35 km) in 50 minutes, what will
be the total time of flight between the points X and Y?
[A] 50 minutes.
[B] 45 minutes.
[C] 2 hours.
[D] 1 hour and 10 minutes.
66 How far will an aircraft travel in 2 minutes and 30 seconds with a groundspeed of
98 knots?
[A] 2,55 NM.
[B] 2,45 NM.
[C] 3,35 NM.
[D] 4,08 NM.
67 100 kg is how many pounds?

[A] 250 lbs.
[B] 180 lbs.
[C] 200 lbs.
[D] 220 lbs.
68 90 pounds is how many kilograms?

[A] 45 kg.
[B] 37 kg.
[C] 41 kg.
[D] 52 kg.
69 25 US gallons is how many liters?

[A] 98 l.
[B] 95 l.
[C] 100 l.
[D] 105 l.
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70 What is the meaning of the term "drift angle" in navigation?

[A] The difference between a direction of the true air speed of an aircraft and a desired track.
[B] The angle between an aircraft's longitudinal axis and an actual path.
[C] The difference between a magnetic course and a wind direction.
[D] The difference between an angle under wind blows to the vector of an actual true air
speed and a direction of an aircraft's longitudinal axis.
71 A Wind Correction Angle is the angle difference between:

[A] True and magnetic heading.
[B] Desired true and desired magnetic course.
[C] True heading and desired true course.
[D] Magnetic and compass heading in no wind condition.
72 Which azimuth corresponds to the general direction WNW?

[A] 292.5°.
[B] 247.5°.
[C] 337.5°.
[D] 202.5°
73 Which parameter is included in the reckoning of a magnetic course?

[A] Compass deviation.
[B] Magnetic variation.
[C] Magnetic inclination.
[D] Wind correction angle.
74 The angle between a direction toward geographic north and a direction toward
magnetic north is called:
[A] Inclination.
[B] Compass deviation.
[C] Variation.
[D] Convergency of meridians.
75 The magnetic variation value of a given point on the Earth's surface can be
obtained by:
[A] Referring to the isogonic lines on aeronautical charts.
[B] Referring to the table of magnetic variation in the cockpit.
[C] Calculating the angular difference between the meridian of a given point and the
Greenwich meridian.
[D] Calculating the difference between magnetic and compass heading.
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76 Lines on geographical charts joining points of equal magnetic variation, are

called:
[A] Izoclinic lines.
[B] Agonic lines.
[C] Izogonic lines.
[D] Izobars.
77 Lines on geographical charts joining points of a zero magnetic variation, are

called:
[A] Izogonic lines.
[B] Agonic lines.
[C] Izoclinic lines.
[D] Aclinic lines.
78 When calculating magnetic direction from a given true direction, westerly

variation should be:
[A] Divided.
[B] Subtracted.
[C] Multiplicated.
[D] Added.
79 Magnetic course is calculated using the equation:

[A] True course plus/minus magnetic variation.
[B] True heading plus/minus magnetic variation.
[C] True course plus/minus compass deviation.
[D] Magnetic heading plus/minus compass deviation.
80 Magnetic heading is:

[A] True heading plus/minus variation.
[B] True course plus/minus variation.
[C] True course plus/minus deviation.
[D] Magnetic course plus/minus deviation.
81 Is it possible for a desired true track, true heading and actual true track to have
the same value?
[A] No, in no case.
[B] Yes.
[C] Yes, because these values are always equal.
[D] This is possible only when flying in north or south direction.
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82 Which statement is true about homing when using ADF?

[A] Homing allows flying along curved path only, which leads to the NDB station.
[B] Homing is a practical navigational method, usable for flying to and away from the NDB
station.
[C] Homing requires an ADF with the automatic or at least manually adjusting compass rose.
[D] Homing allows flying straight path only, which leads to the NDB station.
83 To use an VHF/DF facilities for assistance in location an aircraft's position, the

aircraft must have a:
[A] 4096-code transponder.
[B] VHF transmitter and receiver.
[C] VOR receiver and DME.
[D] ILS transmitter
84 An NDB normally transmits on which frequency band?

[A] 400 to 1020 Hz.
[B] 190 to 535 KHz.
[C] 962 to 1213 MHz.
[D] 200 to 415 Hz.
85 As shown by ADF A, the relative bearing TO the station is (see PPL(A) 060-05):
[A] 210°.
[B] 030°.
[C] 240°.
[D] 060°.
86 As shown by ADF B, the relative bearing TO the station is (see PPL(A) 060-05):
[A] 235°.
[B] 190°.
[C] 315°.
[D] 055°.
87 As shown by ADF D, the relative bearing TO the station is (see PPL(A) 060-06):
[A] 160°.
[B] 020°.
[C] 060°.
[D] 340°.
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88 As shown by ADF E, the relative bearing TO the station is (see PPL(A) 060-06):
[A] 045°.
[B] 315°.
[C] 180°.
[D] 135°.
89 As shown by ADF F, the relative bearing TO the station is (see PPL(A) 060-06):
[A] 090°.
[B] 180°.
[C] 270°.
[D] 360°.
90 As shown by ADF G, the relative bearing TO the station is (see PPL(A) 060-06):
[A] 090°.
[B] 180°.
[C] 270°.
[D] 360°.
91 As shown by ADF A, the magnetic bearing TO the station is (see PPL(A) 060-05):
[A] 180°.
[B] 030°.
[C] 210°.
[D] 090°.
92 If receiving ADF indication B, what magnetic heading should the aircraft be

turned to fly directly to the NDB station? (see PPL(A) 060-05):
[A] 145°.
[B] 010°.
[C] 190°.
[D] 315°.
93 If receiving ADF indication B, what approximate magnetic heading should the

aircraft be turned to intercept the 180° bearing TO the station? (see PPL(A) 060-
05):
[A] 040°.
[B] 220°.
[C] 160°.
[D] 010°.
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94 If an ADF indicator in the cockpit corresponds to the figure C, the magnetic

bearing FROM the station is (see PPL(A) 060-05):
[A] 295°.
[B] 025°.
[C] 115°.
[D] 270°.
95 Which of the figures corresponds to an ADF indicator of an aircraft, flying TO the

station with a right crosswind? (see PPL(A) 060-05):
[A] A.
[B] D.
[C] B.
[D] C.
96 What is the magnetic bearing FROM the station of an aircraft with an ADF
indication, depicted in figure A? (see PPL(A) 060-05):
[A] 210°.
[B] 150°.
[C] 180°.
[D] 030°.
97 On a magnetic heading of 320° and with an ADF indication as figure H, the

magnetic bearing TO the station is (see PPL(A) 060-06):
[A] 185°.
[B] 005°.
[C] 225°.
[D] 035°.
98 On a magnetic heading of 035° and with an ADF indication as figure I, the

[A] 215°.
[B] 180°.
[C] 035°.
[D] 090°.
99 On a magnetic heading of 120° and with an ADF indication as figure J, the

[A] 270°.
[B] 045°.
[C] 165°.
[D] 120°.
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100 If the magnetic bearing of an aircraft TO the station is 240°, what is the magnetic
heading if the ADF indicator corresponds to the figure J? (see PPL(A) 060-06):
[A] 195°.
[B] 045°.
[C] 105°.
[D] 015°.
heading if the ADF indicator corresponds to the figure K? (see PPL(A) 060-06):
[A] 090°.
[B] 060°.
[C] 270°.
[D] 120°.
heading if the ADF indicator corresponds to the figure L? (see PPL(A) 060-06):
[A] 270°.
[B] 135°.
[C] 360°.
[D] 315°.
103 VOR radials are:

[A] Magnetic directions.
[B] Compass directions.
[C] True directions.
[D] Relative bearings.
104 When using a VOR for navigation, station passage is indicated:

[A] When the OFF flag appears.
[B] By the first complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator.
[C] When the TO-FROM flag begins to flicker.
[D] When the first full-scale deflection of the CDI.
105 Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver?

[A] Failing to change the OBS from the selected inbound course to the outbound course after
passing the station.
[B] Setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90° from the bearing on which the aircraft is located.
[C] Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS.
[D] Selecting an ILS frequency in the VOR-receiver.
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106 To track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended
procedure is to set the OBS to:
[A] 180° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
[B] 360° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
[C] 180° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.
[D] 360° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.
107 To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended
procedure is to set the OBS to:
[A] 215° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
[B] 035° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
[C] 215° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.
[D] 035° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.
108 With a VOR/ILS receiver set to a VOR frequency, how many degrees does full
deflection of a CDI to one side represent?
[A] 20°.
[B] 5°.
[C] 10°.
[D] 15°.
109 An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication one-fifth deflection,
this represents a course centerline deviation of approximately:
[A] 3 miles.
[B] 6 miles.
[C] 1 mile.
[D] 2 miles.
110 Which airplane(s) correspond(s) to the VOR indicator V? (see PPL(A) 060-07)
[A] Airplane 2 only.
[B] Airplane 6 only.
[C] Airplanes 5 and 8.
[D] Airplanes 1 and 3.
111 Which airplane(s) correspond(s) to the VOR indicator X? (see PPL(A) 060-07)
[A] Airplanes 3 and 7.
[B] Airplanes 1 and 3.
[C] Airplane 7 only.
[D] Airplanes 1 and 2.
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112 Which airplane(s) correspond(s) to the VOR indicator U? (see PPL(A) 060-07)
[A] Airplane 6 only.
[B] Airplanes 1 and 2.
[C] Airplane 2 only.
[D] Airplane 5 only.
113 Which presentation of a VOR indicator corresponds to airplanes 8? (see PPL(A)

060-07)
[A] V.
[B] T.
[C] W.
[D] U.
114 Which presentation of a VOR indicator corresponds to airplanes 5 and 7? (see

PPL(A) 060-07)
[A] T and X.
[B] W and Z.
[C] V and X.
[D] U and Z.
115 Which of the following statements, regarding a DME operation, is correct?

[A] The frequency of a DME receiver in the aircraft is being adjusted automatically when we
set a VOR or ILS frequency.
[B] When flying directly above the DME facility, the pilot reads on the DME indicator in the
cockpit a zero distance.
[C] If we move the DME switch in the cockpit to HOLD, all readings are reset to zero.
[D] DME can only show distance to the station set as the active frequency in the receiver.
116 Which distance is displayed by a DME indicator?

[A] Slant-range distance in nautical miles.
[B] Slant-range distance in statute miles.
[C] The distance from the aircraft to a point at the same altitude directly above the DME
ground facility.
[D] The horizontal distance along ground from the aircraft to the DME station.
117 What is the DME reading if an aircraft is directly over a VOR/DME station at the
altitude of 6.000 ft AGL?
[A] 0.
[B] 1.
[C] 1,3.
[D] 0,5.
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118 The slant-range error of a DME is greatest at:

[A] High altitudes directly over the facility.
[B] Low altitudes directly over the facility.
[C] High altitudes and high range from the facility.
[D] Low altitudes and high range from the facility.
119 See appendix PPL(A) 060-02-2015.

Altitudes and elevations are in?
[A] Meters.
[B] Feet.
[C] Km.
[D] SFT.
120 Waypoints data in a GPS database (with the exception of users waypoints) could
be updated by:
[A] A respective software house only.
[B] A pilot, however when in-flight only.
[C] A pilot on ground only, when the device is stationary.
[D] A Part-145 licenced maintenance facility only.
121 A CDI deviation needle on the GPS electronic screen in the cockpit shows a
deviation from the desired track in:
[A] Time units.
[B] Arc degrees.
[C] Arc degrees or distance units, depends on pilot's discretion.
[D] Distance units.
122 When working with a GPS one must know that:

[A] It is necessary to type in manually geographic coordinates of the aircraft's starting point.
[B] It is necessary to type in manually geographic coordinates of the aircraft's parking
position.
[C] The device is able to determine navigational parameters relative only to those fixes,
which are in a theoretical sight of view.
[D] The information of the device is purely directional and it should not be used as primary
radio navigation equipment.
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123 Which map datum should be selected at GPS initialization if flying in Finland?
[A] EUROPE.
[B] WGS84.
[C] NAD83.
[D] EUREF-FIN.
124 Which velocity is measured in principle by every GPS instrument?

[A] Vertical Speed.
[B] True Air Speed.
[C] Ground Speed.
[D] Wind Speed.
125 In a RNAV mode, the lateral deflection of the CDI indicates:

[A] Nautical miles left or right of course.
[B] Degrees left or right of course.
[C] Statute miles left or right of course.
[D] Kilometers left or right of course.
126 Meridians:
[A] Creates squares with parallel of latitudes.
[B] Are right-angled with parallel of latitudes.
[C] Are parallel to each other.
[D] Are either northern or southern.
127 The scale of the chart is 1:500 000. How many centimeters represents the
distance 5km?
[A] 1.0 mm.
[B] 1.0 cm.
[C] 0.5 cm.
[D] 2.5 cm.
128 In Helsinki-Malmi (EFHF) runway 18 is in use, wind 210° / 20 kts.
What is the crosswind component?

[A] 10 kts.
[B] 5 kts.
[C] 15 kts.
[D] 20 kts.
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129 It's 01.51 on Christmas Eve in Finland, what is the Co-ordinated Universal Time
(UTC)?
[A] 00.51.
[B] 23.51.
[C] 01.51.
[D] 03.51.
130 True course is 055°, wind 310° / 25 kts, variation 6 °W and aircraft is flying with a
true airspeed of 113 kts.
What is the magnetic course?

[A] 037°.
[B] 049°.
[C] 041°.
[D] 054°.
131 True course is 040°, wind 310° / 25 kts, variation 6 °W and aircraft is flying with a
true airspeed of 113 kts.
What is the ground speed?

[A] 118 kts.
[B] 106 kts.
[C] 110 kts.
[D] 120 kts.
132 Which of the following geographic coordinates is incorrect?

[A] 49°21'N 072°63'E.
[B] 23°46'S 123°53'W.
[C] 35°48'S 154°25'W.
[D] 70°23'N 034°28'E.
133 True course is 125°, wind 010° / 25 kts, true airspeed 95 kts and variation 5 °E.
What are the magnetic course and the ground speed?

[A] 096° and 103 kts.
[B] 096° and 83 kts.
[C] 106° and 103 kts.
[D] 113° and 83 kts.
173
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134 A velocity 37 km/h, expressed in knots, is:

[A] 32,5 kts.
[B] 6,7 kts.
[C] 20 kts.
[D] 54 kts.
135 What is the total flight time when aircrafts ground speed is 106 kts and the
distance is 216 NM.
[A] 2h 02min.
[B] 29min.
[C] 2h 56min.
[D] 3h 24min.
136 It's 02.30 in the summer in Finland, what is the Co-ordinated Universal Time
(UTC)?
[A] 04.30.
[B] 00.30.
[C] 23.30.
[D] 05.30.
137 In degrees South-East is:

[A] 135°.
[B] 315°.
[C] 225°.
[D] 145°.
138 Which of the following is incorrect?

[A] 315° = North-West.
[B] 360° = North.
[C] 000° = North.
[D] 235° = South-West.
139 Finland is located between:

[A] 60 and 70 degrees northern latitude.
[B] 50 and 60 degrees northern latitude.
[C] 60 and 70 degrees eastern longitude.
[D] 50 and 60 degrees eastern longitude.
174
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140 How many degrees does the Earth rotate in 24 hours?

[A] 30°.
[B] 35°.
[C] 360°.
[D] 180°.
141 A velocity 100 mph is approximately:

[A] 120 km/h.
[B] 185 km/h.
[C] 160 km/h.
[D] 80 km/h.
142 What colour represents fields on the aviation chart?

[A] Green.
[B] White.
[C] Brown.
[D] Orange.
143 Magnetic heading consists of:

[A] True course and variation.
[B] True course, wind correction angle and variation.
[C] Wind correction angle and variation.
[D] Wind correction angle and deviation.
144 What does the letter P means on the aviation chart?

[A] Danger area.
[B] Prohibited Area.
[C] Parking place.
[D] Low flying area.
145 TAS is 80 kts, the wind correction angle is +19° and headwind component is 20
kts.

[A] 62 kts.
[B] 82 kts.
[C] 56 kts.
[D] 50 kts.
175
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146 TC 180°, TAS 80 kts, wind 090° / 15 kts, variation 8°E.
What is the wind correction angle?

[A] -11°.
[B] 15°.
[C] -15°.
[D] 11°.

[A] 81 kts.
[B] 91 kts.
[C] 101 kts.
[D] 95 kts.
What is the magnetic course?

[A] 128°.
[B] 108°.
[C] 112°.
[D] There is no correct answer.
176
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179
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180
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OPERATIONAL
PROCEDURES
070
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1 Which one of the following statements is false?
An accident must be reported if, between the time that anyone boards an aircraft
to go flying and until everyone has left it:
[A] The aircraft is completely inaccessible or missing.
[B] Anyone is killed or seriously injured while in or on the aircraft.
[C] The aircraft incurs damage or structural failure.
[D] A passenger dies from natural causes.
2 In establishing noise preferential routes, turns during takeoff and climb should
not be required unless the aircraft has reached:
[A] 500ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path.
[B] 1.000 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path.
[C] 1.500 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path.
[D] 2.000 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path.
3 It's the pilot's responsibility to ensure that the aircraft is properly equipped for
the planned flight. If there is any doubt the pilot should consult:
[A] Minimum Equipment List.
[B] Certificate of Airworthiness.
[C] Certificate of Maintenance Review.
[D] Pilot's Operating Handbook.
4 Before flight it is the pilot's responsibility to check that the aircraft is properly
registered, is airworthy and has been maintained properly. To this end he must
check a variety of documents. Which one of the following is not required to be
checked?
[A] Certificate of Airworthiness.
[B] Minimum Equipment List.
[C] Technical log.
[D] Third Party Insurance certificate.
5 All aircraft on the aircraft movement area of an aerodrome with engines running
are display lights to indicate this. Which one of the following is used for this
purpose?
[A] Landing light.
[B] Red anti-collision light.
[C] Navigation lights.
[D] Tail light.
185
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6 For night operation, airplanes and gliders must be equipped with the following
lights:
[A] Left wing tip: green light, right wing tip: red light, tail: white light.
[B] Right wing tip: green light, left wing tip: red light, tail: white light.
[C] Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tail: red light.
[D] Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tail: orange light.
7 In the course of a flight during daylight hours, a pilot notices that the aircraft's
anti-collision light has failed. What course of action should he take?
[A] Continue with the flight, as long as it can be completed in daylight, and get the light
repaired at the earliest opportunity.
[B] Land immediately at the nearest aerodrome.
[C] Land as soon as practically possible at the nearest suitable airfield.
[D] Return to his base airfield and declare the aircraft unserviceable until the light has been
repaired.
8 When must the anti-collision beacon on an aircraft be operating (if installed)?

[A] All the time the aircraft is flying.
[B] Must be on all the time the engine of an aircraft is running.
[C] Must be switched on after engine start-up and switched off before engine shut-down.
[D] Must be switched on shortly before takeoff and switched off when the aircraft vacates the
runway.
9 Official data regarding operating limitations and allowed mass of your aircraft
could be found in:
[A] Official Gazette of Civil Aviation Authority.
[B] Maintenance Log.
[C] Certificate of Airworthiness and in Certificate of Registration.
[D] Aircraft's Flight Manual.
10 What frequency should be monitored by an aircraft when taking-off from an

uncontrolled airfield inside the Finnish airspace taking in to consideration good
airmanship?
[A] 117.8 MHz.
[B] 121.1 MHz.
[C] EFHK APP.
[D] Area Control Center (ACC).
186
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11 Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped
high-wing airplane?
[A] Quartering headwind.
[B] Direct crosswind.
[C] Quartering tailwind.
[D] Left quartering headwind.
12 How should the flight controls be deflected while taxiing a tailwheel aeroplane
with a strong tailwind?
[A] In neutral.
[B] Up.
[C] Down.
[D] Fully up.
13 What would be most likely to cause an upset while taxiing a nose-wheel

equipped aircraft in strong wind?
[A] Turning sharply (causing the wind to lift the up-wind wing).
[B] Applying the brakes suddenly & firmly.
[C] Accelerating suddenly.
[D] Lifting the nose-wheel
14 How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped
airplane into a left quartering tailwind?
[A] Right aileron down, elevator neutral.
[B] Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
[C] Left aileron up, elevator down.
[D] Left aileron down, elevator down.
15 How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a
left quartering tailwind?
[A] Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
[B] Left aileron down, elevator down.
[C] Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
[D] Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
16 Which aileron position should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong
quartering headwinds?
[A] Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
[B] Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
[C] Aileron neutral.
[D] No relevance.
187
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17 How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped
airplane into a left quartering headwind?
[A] Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
[B] Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
[C] Left aileron up, elevator down.
[D] Left aileron down, elevator up.
18 How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a
right quartering headwind?
[A] Right aileron up, elevator down.
[B] Right aileron down, elevator neutral.
[C] Right aileron up, elevator up.
[D] Right aileron up, elevator down.
19 To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the
pilot should keep the:
[A] Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.
[B] Direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway.
[C] Downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.
[D] Upwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.
20 Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is:

[A] Heavily loaded.
[B] Operating at high airspeeds.
[C] Developing lift.
[D] Has flaps and landing gear extended.
21 Can the downdraft air currents occurring as a result of wingtip vortices from a
heavier aircraft exceed the climb capability of a light aircraft?
[A] Yes, particularly behind large, heavy transport aircraft.
[B] Not normally.
[C] Occasionally, particularly in the vicinity of air pockets.
[D] Not.
22 What is the most likely cause of the dangerous turbulence behind heavy aircraft?
[A] Propeller blast.
[B] Wingtip vortices.
[C] Jet blast.
[D] Microburst.
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23 What precautions are required when stopping a light aircraft behind a heavy
aircraft that is stopped on the manoeuvring area?
[A] The light aircraft should be facing the large aircraft.
[B] The light aircraft should be stopped clear of the jet blast danger area.
[C] The light aircraft should face away from the large aircraft.
[D] The light aircraft should be no closer than 125 m from rear of large aircraft.
24 During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can
minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by:
[A] Being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flight path until able to turn clear of its wake.
[B] Maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climb out.
[C] Extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.
[D] Request intersection takeoff, incase large jet airplane starts ground roll from runway end.
25 When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by
staying:
[A] Above the large aircraft's final approach flight path and landing beyond the large aircraft's
touchdown point.
[B] Below the large aircraft's final approach flight path and landing before the large aircraft's
touchdown point.
[C] Above the large aircraft's final approach flight path and landing before the large aircraft's
touchdown point.
[D] Below the large aircraft's final approach flight path and landing after the large aircraft's
touchdown point.
26 Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet
crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your
altitude?
[A] Increase airspeed to VNE and maintain altitude and course.
[B] Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.
[C] Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.
[D] Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.
27 How long will wake turbulence remain after the passage of a large aircraft?
[A] Two minutes.
[B] Five minutes or more; ATC permits two or three minutes separation.
[C] Three minutes.
[D] Less than four minutes.
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28 When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 13,000 ft MSL,

sufficient supplemental oxygen should be carried to supply:
[A] Passengers only.
[B] Crew members only.
[C] Crew members and passengers.
[D] Crew members and for 20% of the passengers.
29 That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for : (see
PPL(A) 070-01)
[A] Taxiing.
[B] Landing.
[C] Taxiing and landing.
[D] Taxiing and takeoff.
30 According to the airport diagram, which statement is true? (see PPL(A) 070-01)
[A] Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this
runway begins at position B.
[B] Runway 30 is equipped at position E with emergency arresting gear to provide means of
stopping military aircraft.
[C] The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B.
[D] Takeoffs shall be started at position B on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this
runway begins at position A.
31 What is the difference between area A and area B on the airport depicted?: (see
PPL(A) 070-01)
[A] "A" may be used for takeoff only;
"E" may be used only for taxi only.
[B] "A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landing;
"E" may be used for only as an overrun.
[C] "A" may be used on ly for taxiing;
"E" may be used for all operations except landings.
[D] "A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun.
32 Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a (see PPL(A) 070-01):

[A] Apron.
[B] Stabilized area.
[C] Multiple heliport.
[D] Closed runway.
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33 The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the
area (see PPL(A) 070-02):
[A] Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.
[B] May be used only for taxiing.
[C] Is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
[D] Is unsuitable for aircraft operation.
34 The numbers 4 and 22 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented

approximately: (see PPL(A) 070-02)
[A] 040° and 220° (magnetic).
[B] 004° and 022° (true).
[C] 040° and 220° (true).
[D] 004° and 022° (magnetic).
35 Who is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft operating in a state's sovereign

airspace complies with the rules and regulations which prevail in that airspace?
[A] The pilot-in-command of the aircraft.
[B] The state which issued the current Certificate of Airworthiness for the aircraft.
[C] The state in which the aircraft is registered.
[D] The state which issued the licence held by the pilot of the aircraft.
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PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT
080
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1 Density:
[A] Increases with altitude increase.
[B] Is unaffected by temperature change.
[C] Reduces with altitude increase.
[D] Reduces with temperature reduction.
2 The air pressure that acts on anything immersed in it:

[A] Is also known as Dynamic Pressure.
[B] Is also known as Static Pressure.
[C] Is greater at altitude than at sea level.
[D] Is also known as Total Pressure.
3 The presence of water vapour:

[A] In the atmosphere will increase the power output of a piston engine.
[B] In air will increase its density.
[C] In air will reduce its density.
[D] In the atmosphere will increase the amount of lift generated by an aircraft.
4 When considering the changes in density of the air with altitude, which of the
following four options is correct?
[A] The reduction in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.
[B] The temperature increase with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
[C] The temperature reduction with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
[D] The increase in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.
5 Assuming that the pressure at sea level is ISA, but the temperature is 10 C
higher than ISA, the density will be:
[A] Greater than ISA.
[B] As per ISA.
[C] Less than ISA.
[D] Unaffected.
6 Air pressure:
[A] Acts only vertically downwards.
[B] Acts in all directions.
[C] Is measured in Pascals per square inch.
[D] Increases with altitude.
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7 In straight and level powered flight the following principal forces act on an
aircraft:
[A] Thrust, lift, drag, weight.
[B] Thrust, lift, weight.
[C] Thrust, lift, drag.
[D] Lift, drag, weight.
8 The unit of force is the:

[A] Newton.
[B] Newton-metre.
[C] Joule.
[D] Mass-kilogram.
9 The dynamic pressure exerted on an aircraft's frontal surface is equal to:

[A] Density time's speed squared.
[B] Half the density times the true airspeed squared.
[C] Half the true airspeed times the density squared.
[D] Half the density times the indicated airspeed squared.
10 Relative airflow is ____ and ____ the movement of the aircraft.

[A] Perpendicular to / Opposite to.
[B] Parallel to / Opposite to.
[C] Perpendicular to / in the same direction as.
[D] Parallel to / in the same direction as.
11 The symbol for dynamic pressure is:

[A] R.
[B] P.
[C] Q.
[D] D.
12 The air flow over the wing's upper surface in straight and level flight, when
compared with the airflow that is unaffected by the wing, will have:
[A] A higher density.
[B] A higher velocity.
[C] A reduced velocity.
[D] The same velocity.
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13 Which of the four answer options most correctly completes the sentence?
Increasing speed also increases lift because:
[A] The increased speed of the air passing over an aerofoil's upper surface decreases the
static pressure above the wing, thus creating a greater pressure differential across the
upper and lower surface.
[B] Lift is directly proportional to velocity.
[C] The increased velocity of the relative wind overcomes the increased drag.
[D] Increasing speed decreases drag.
14 An aircraft has a nose down pitching moment due to the lift/weight couple and a
nose up pitching moment due to the thrust/drag couple. When power is
increased:
[A] It will pitch nose down.
[B] It will pitch nose up.
[C] The couples both increase in magnitude but remain balanced.
[D] The couples both decrease in magnitude but remain balanced.
15 Considering the forces acting upon an aeroplane, at constant airspeed, which

statement is correct?
[A] Thrust acts parallel to the relative airflow and is greater than drag.
[B] Lift acts perpendicular to the chord line and must always be greater than weight.
[C] Weight always acts vertically downwards towards the centre of the Earth.
[D] The lift force generated by the wings always acts in the opposite direction to the aircraft's
weight.
16 In straight and level flight, the free stream airflow pressure, compared to that
flowing under the wing, is:
[A] Higher.
[B] Equal.
[C] Lower.
[D] Equal pressure but travelling faster.
17 If the cross sectional area of an airflow is mechanically reduced:

[A] The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the kinetic energy increases.
[B] The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the mass flow increases.
[C] The mass flow remains constant and the static pressure increases.
[D] The mass flow remains constant and the velocity of the airflow increases.
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18 Dynamic pressure is:

[A] The amount by which the pressure rises at a point where a moving airflow is brought
completely to rest.
[B] The total pressure at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest.
[C] The pressure due to the mass of air pressing down on the air beneath.
[D] The pressure change caused by heating when a moving airflow is brought completely to
rest.
19 When considering air:

1 - Air has mass
2 -Air is not compressible
3 - Air is able to flow or change its shape when subject to even small pressures
4- The viscosity of air is very high
5- Moving air has kinetic energy
The correct combination of all true statements is:

[A] 2, 3 and 4.
[B] 1, 2, 3 and 5.
[C] 1, 3 and 5.
[D] 1 and 4.
20 An aircraft rotates about:

[A] Its wings.
[B] Its centre of gravity.
[C] Its main undercarriage.
[D] Its rudder.
21 An aircraft's mass is a result of:

[A] Its volume.
[B] Its weight.
[C] How big it is.
[D] How much matter it contains.
22 Dynamic pressure equals:

[A] Total pressure plus static pressure.
[B] Total pressure minus static pressure.
[C] Static pressure minus total pressure.
[D] Total pressure divided by static pressure.
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23 If the velocity of an air mass is increased:

[A] The kinetic energy will increase, the dynamic pressure will increase and the static
pressure will decrease.
[B] The dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase.
[C] The static pressure will remain constant and the kinetic energy will increase.
[D] The mass flow will stay constant, the dynamic pressure will decrease and the static
pressure will increase.
24 The boundary layer consists of:

[A] Turbulent flow.
[B] Laminar flow.
[C] Laminar and turbulent flow.
[D] Turbulent flow at low speeds only.
25 What must be the relationship between the forces acting on an aircraft in flight,
for that aircraft to be in a state of equilibrium?
[A] Lift must equal weight, and thrust must equal drag.
[B] Lift must equal drag, and thrust must equal weight.
[C] Lift must equal thrust plus drag.
[D] Lift must equal thrust, and weight must equal drag.
26 The smooth flow of air, where each molecule follows the path of the preceding
molecule, is a definition of:
[A] Turbulent flow.
[B] Laminar flow.
[C] Free stream flow.
[D] Wind.
27 In sub-sonic airflow, as air passes through a venturi, the mass flow ____ , the
velocity ____ and the static pressure ____ .
[A] Remains constant / increases then decreases / increases then decreases.
[B] Decreases then increases / remains constant / increases then decreases.
[C] Remains constant / increases then decreases / decreases then increases.
[D] Decreases then increases / increases then decreases / increases then decreases.
28 A moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy. An object placed in the path of
such a moving mass of air will be subject to:
[A] Dynamic pressure minus static pressure.
[B] Static Pressure.
[C] Dynamic pressure.
[D] Static pressure and dynamic pressure.
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29 Dynamic pressure may be expressed by the formula:

[A] Q = 1/3pV².
[B] Q = 1/2pV².
[C] Q = pV.
[D] Q = 2pV.
30 As airspeed increases, induced drag:

[A] Increases.
[B] Decreases.
[C] Is dependant on the weight of the aircraft.
[D] Remains unchanged.
31 As indicated air speed (lAS) is reduced, in order to maintain altitude, the pilot
must:
[A] Increase the angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force.
[B] Decrease the angle of attack to reduce the drag.
[C] Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag.
[D] Reduce the thrust.
32 That portion of the aircraft's total drag created by the production of lift is called:
[A] Induced drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
[B] Parasite drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
[C] Induced drag, which is not affected by changes in airspeed.
[D] Parasite drag, which is inversely proportional to the square of the airspeed.
33 By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane's:
[A] Lift and airspeed, but not drag.
[B] Lift, airspeed, and drag.
[C] Lift, gross weight, and drag.
[D] Lift and drag, but not airspeed.
34 Resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the
surface of a wing, is a type of:
[A] Interference drag.
[B] Induced drag.
[C] Form drag.
[D] Parasite drag.
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35 If the indicated air speed of an aircraft is increased from 50 kts to 100 kts,
parasite drag will be:
[A] Six times greater.
[B] Four times greater.
[C] Two times greater.
[D] One quarter as much.
36 An imaginary straight line running from the midpoint of the leading edge of an
aerofoil to its trailing edge, is called the:
[A] Mean camber.
[B] Chord.
[C] Aerofoil thickness.
[D] Maximum camber.
37 A positively cambered aerofoil starts to produce lift at an angle of attack of

approximately:
[A] Minus 4 degrees.
[B] 0 degrees.
[C] 4 to 6 degrees.
[D] 16 degrees.
38 On an aerofoil section, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of
drag acts parallel to, the:
[A] Chord line.
[B] Longitudinal axis.
[C] Flightpath.
[D] Aerofoil section upper surface.
39 As airspeed increases induced drag ____, parasite drag ____ and total drag
[A] Decreases / Increases / Decreases then increases.
[B] Increases / Increases / Increases.
[C] Increases / Decreases / Increases then decreases.
[D] Decreases / Decreases / Decreases.
40 If in level flight the airspeed decreases below that for maximum lift/drag, the
effect will be that:
[A] Drag decreases because of lower parasite drag.
[B] Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.
[C] Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.
[D] Drag increases because of increased induced drag.
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41 The angle of attack is the angle between the:

[A] Chord line and the horizontal plane.
[B] Camber line and free stream flow.
[C] Chord line and the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane.
[D] Chord line and the relative airflow.
42 The maximum value of the coefficient of lift is found at an angle of attack of

approximately:
[A] Minus 4 degrees.
[B] 16 degrees.
[C] 0 degrees.
[D] 4 to 6 degrees.
43 At a constant angle of attack, a decrease in the airspeed of an aircraft will result

in:
[A] An increase in lift and a decrease in drag.
[B] A decrease in lift and drag.
[C] An increase in drag and a decrease in lift.
[D] Possible increases or decreases in lift or drag, depending on the actual speed.
44 If the angle of attack and other factors remain constant, and the airspeed is
doubled, lift will be:
[A] Doubled.
[B] Quadrupled.
[C] One quarter of what it was.
[D] The same.
45 The definition of lift is:

[A] The aerodynamic force which acts at 90° to the relative airflow.
[B] The aerodynamic force which acts perpendicular to the chord line of the aerofoil.
[C] The aerodynamic force that results from the pressure differentials about an aerofoil.
[D] The aerodynamic force which acts perpendicular to the upper surface of the aerofoil.
46 Which of the answer options most correctly completes the sentence? The
amount of lift a wing produces is directly proportional to:
[A] The dynamic pressure minus the static pressure.
[B] The air density.
[C] The square root of the velocity of the air flowing over it.
[D] The air temperature.
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47 The maximum value of the coefficient of lift is found:

[A] During steep turns.
[B] At negative angles of attack.
[C] When lift equals drag.
[D] At the stalling angle of attack.
48 At a given indicated air speed, what effect will an increase in air density have on
lift and drag?
[A] Lift will increase but drag will decrease.
[B] Lift and drag will remain the same.
[C] Lift and drag will increase.
[D] Lift and drag will decrease.
49 An aerofoil section is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:

[A] Higher air pressure below the surface and lower air pressure above the surface.
[B] Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the surface.
[C] Vacuum below the surface and greater air pressure above the surface.
[D] Higher air pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge.
50 Full flaps should be selected when:

[A] On go-around.
[B] Commencing final approach.
[C] Committed to land.
[D] Landing into a strong headwind.
51 A wing which is inclined downwards from root to tip is said to have:

[A] Washout.
[B] Anhedral.
[C] Taper.
[D] Sweep.
52 When the C of G is close to the forward limit:

[A] Stick forces are the same as for an aft C of G.
[B] Very small forces are required on the control column to produce pitch.
[C] Longitudinal stability is reduced.
[D] Very high stick forces are required to pitch because the aircraft is very stable.
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53 An aeroplane which is inherently stable will:

[A] Have a built-in tendency to return to its original state following the removal of any
disturbing force.
[B] Require less effort to control.
[C] Be difficult to stall.
[D] Not spin.
54 After a disturbance in pitch, an aircraft oscillates in pitch with increasing

amplitude. It is:
[A] Statically and dynamically unstable.
[B] Statically stable but dynamically unstable.
[C] Statically unstable but dynamically stable.
[D] Statically and dynamically stable.
55 If the wing aerodynamic centre is forward of the C of G:

[A] Changes in lift produce a wing pitching moment which acts to increase the change of lift.
[B] Changes in lift produce a wing pitching moment which acts to reduce the change of lift.
[C] Changes in lift give no change in wing pitching moment.
[D] When the aircraft sideslips, the CofG causes the nose to turn into the sideslip thus
applying a restoring moment.
56 By design, the centre of pressure on a particular aircraft remains behind the

aircraft's C of G. If the aircraft is longitudinally stable and is displaced in pitch,
nose down, by turbulence:
[A] Neither an upward nor a downward force will be generated by the tailplane, as the aircraft
will already be in equilibrium.
[B] The tailplane will generate an upward force.
[C] The tailplane will generate a downward force.
[D] The aircraft will maintain its nose-down attitude.
57 Wing dihedral produces a stabilising rolling moment by causing an increase in

lift:
[A] On the lower wing whenever the aircraft is in a banked attitude.
[B] On the up-going wing when the aircraft rolls.
[C] On the up-going wing when the aircraft is sideslipping.
[D] On the lower wing when the aircraft is sideslipping.
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58 When an aircraft is disturbed from its established flight path by, for example,
turbulence, it is said to have positive stability if it subsequently:
[A] Continues to pitch in the disturbed direction until the displacement is resisted by opposing
control forces.
[B] Remains on the new flight path.
[C] Becomes further displaced from its original flight path.
[D] Re-establishes its original flight path without any input from the pilot.
59 Loading an aircraft so that the C of G exceeds the aft limits could result in:
[A] High stick forces.
[B] Excessive upward force on the tail, and the nose pitching down.
[C] Excessive load factor in turns.
[D] Loss of longitudinal stability and the nose pitching up at slow speeds.
60 Which of the following four options describes the consequence of taking off with
the manufacturer's recommended take-off flap setting selected?
[A] A decrease in the length of the take-off run compared to a non-flap take-off.
[B] An increase in the length of the take-off run compared to a non-flap take-off.
[C] A greater angle of climb.
[D] Easier avoidance of obstacles at the end of a runway.
61 With the flaps lowered, the stalling speed will:

[B] Increase.
[C] Increase, but occur at a higher angle of attack.
[D] Decrease.
62 When an aircraft is disturbed from its trimmed attitude by, for example,
turbulence, it is said to have neutral stability if it subsequently:
[A] Continues to move in the disturbed direction until the displacement is resisted by
opposing control forces.
[B] Oscillates about its original attitude before settling back to that original attitude.
[C] Immediately re-establishes its original attitude.
[D] Remains in the new attitude.
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63 If the centre of gravity (C of G) of an aircraft is found to be within limits for take-

off:
[A] The flight crew will always be certain of being able to adjust the C of G during flight in
order to keep it within acceptable limits for landing.
[B] The C of G will always be within limits for landing.
[C] The C of G will not change during the flight.
[D] The C of G limits for landing must be checked, allowing for planned fuel consumption.
64 With a forward centre of gravity, an aircraft will have:

[A] Shorter take off distances.
[B] Reduced longitudinal stability.
[C] Lighter forces for control movements.
[D] Decreased elevator effectiveness when flaring.
65 Longitudinal stability is given:

[A] The wing dihedral.
[B] The fin.
[C] The horizontal tailplane.
[D] The ailerons.
66 An aft centre of gravity will give:

[A] Heavy forces for control movements.
[B] Increased longitudinal stability.
[C] Increased elevator effectiveness when flaring.
[D] Longer take-off distances.
67 The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original flight
situation, when disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is known as:
[A] Manoeuvrability.
[B] Stability.
[C] Controllability.
[D] Instability.
68 Stability around the normal axis:

[A] Is increased if the keel surface behind the C of G is increased.
[B] Is given by the lateral dihedral.
[C] Depends on the longitudinal dihedral.
[D] Is greater if the wing has no sweepback.
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69 The maximum gliding distance from 6.000 feet, for an aircraft in clean
configuration, with a lift/drag ratio of 8:1, is approximately 8 nautical miles. If
flaps are deployed:
[A] The maximum gliding distance will increase.
[B] The maximum gliding distance will be less.
[C] Lift/Drag ratio will be unaffected but will be achieved at a lower airspeed.
[D] The maximum gliding distance will be unaffected.
70 A pilot lowers the flaps while keeping the airspeed constant. In order to maintain
level flight, the angle of attack:
[A] Must be kept constant but power must be increased.
[B] Must be increased.
[C] Must be reduced.
[D] Must be kept constant and power required will be constant.
71 An aircraft wing is constructed with positive dihedral in order to give:

[A] Directional stability about the normal axis.
[B] Longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.
[C] Lateral stability about the normal axis.
[D] Lateral stability about the longitudinal axis.
72 An aircraft is disturbed from its path by a gust of wind. Neutral stability is when,
without pilot intervention, it:
[A] Continues to move away from the original path.
[B] Returns to its original path without overshooting.
[C] Returns to its original path after overshooting.
[D] Maintains the new path.
73 When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing:
[A] Increases and CLMAX increases.
[B] Remains the same, but CLMAX increases.
[C] Decreases, but CLMAX increases.
[D] Decreases, but CLMAX remains the same.
74 A high wing configuration with no dihedral, compared to a low wing

configuration with no dihedral, will provide:
[A] Greater lateral stability.
[B] Greater longitudinal stability.
[C] The same degree of longitudinal stability as any other configuration because dihedral
gives longitudinal stability.
[D] Less lateral stability.
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75 An aircraft is disturbed from its flight path by a gust of wind. If it tends to return
to its original flight path without pilot intervention, the aircraft is said to possess:
[A] Negative Dynamic Stability.
[B] Instability.
[C] Positive Dynamic Stability.
[D] Neutral Dynamic Stability.
76 Wing leading-edge devices such as slots, designed to allow flight at higher

angles of attack, do so by:
[A] Decreasing lift and hence induced drag.
[B] Providing an extra lifting surface and hence increase the lift available.
[C] Changing the shape and hence the lift characteristics of the wing.
[D] Re-energising the airflow over the top of the wing, delaying separation.
77 The surface that gives an aircraft directional stability is:

[A] The rudder trim tab.
[B] The rudder.
[C] The horizontal tailplane.
[D] The fin.
78 If a landing is to be made without flaps the landing speed must be:

[A] Reduced.
[B] Increased.
[C] The same as for a landing with flaps.
[D] The same as for a landing with flaps but with a steeper approach.
79 The maximum speed at which the aircraft can be flown with flaps extended is
called:
[A] VNO.
[B] VYSE.
[C] VNE.
[D] VFE.
80 Yawing is movement around the ____ axis.

[A] Longitudinal.
[B] Normal.
[C] Lateral.
[D] Horizontal.
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81 The lateral axis of an aircraft is a line which:

[A] Passes through the wing tips.
[B] Passes through the centre of gravity, parallel to a line through the wing tips.
[C] Passes through the centre of pressure, at right angles to the direction of the airflow.
[D] Passes through the quarter-chord point of the wing root at right angles to the longitudinal
axis.
82 Lowering the flaps during a landing approach:

[A] Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
[B] Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed.
[C] Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power.
[D] Eliminates floating.
83 During a manoeuvre, the ailerons are deflected and returned to neutral when the
aircraft has attained a small angle of bank. If the aircraft then returns to a wings-
level attitude without further control movement, it is:
[A] Neutrally stable.
[B] Statically and dynamically stable.
[C] Statically stable but dynamically neutral.
[D] Statically stable.
84 The purpose of an anti-balance tab is to:

[A] Trim the aircraft.
[B] Ensure that the pilot's physical control load increases with increase of control surface
deflection.
[C] Reduce the load required to move the controls at all speeds.
[D] Reduce the load required to move the controls at high speeds only.
85 The phenomenon of flutter is described as:

[A] Oscillatory motion of part or parts of the aircraft relative to the remainder of the structure.
[B] Rapid oscillatory motion involving only rotation of the control surfaces, associated with
the shock waves produced around the control surfaces.
[C] Rapid movement of the airframe caused by vibration from the engines.
[D] Reversal of the ailerons caused by wing torsional flexibility.
86 An aileron could be balanced aerodynamically by:

[A] Having springs in the control circuit to assist movement.
[B] Making the up aileron move through a larger angle than the down aileron.
[C] Attaching a weight to the control surface forward of the hinge.
[D] Having the control hinge set back behind the control surface leading edge.
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87 When the control column is pushed forward, a balance tab on the elevator:
[A] Moves to the neutral position.
[B] Will move down relative to the control surface.
[C] Will only move if the trim wheel is operated.
[D] Will move up relative to the control surface.
88 On an aircraft with a simple trim tab incorporated into a control surface, when
the surface is moved, the tab remains in the same position relative to the:
[A] Boundary layer airflow.
[B] Relative airflow.
[C] Control surface.
[D] Aircraft horizontal plane.
89 Which flying control surface(s) give(s) control about the aircraft's normal axis?
[A] The ailerons.
[B] The rudder.
[C] The elevator.
[D] The flaps.
90 The primary and secondary effects of applying the left rudder alone are:
[A] Right yaw and right roll.
[B] Left yaw and right roll.
[C] Right yaw and left roll.
[D] Left yaw and left roll.
91 When displacing the ailerons from the neutral position:

[A] The down-going aileron causes an increase in induced drag.
[B] The up-going aileron causes an increase in induced drag.
[C] Induced drag remains the same; the up-going aileron causes a smaller increase in profile
drag than the down-going aileron.
[D] Both cause an increase in induced drag.
92 An aircraft's rudder is fitted with a balance tab. Movement of the rudder bar to
the right, to yaw the aircraft to the right, will move the balance tab to the:
[A] Right and the rudder to the right.
[B] Right and the rudder to the left.
[C] Left and the rudder to the right.
[D] Left and the rudder to the left.
210
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93 An aircraft has a tendency to fly right wing low with hands off. It is trimmed with
a tab the left aileron. The trim tab will:
[A] Move down causing the left aileron to move up and right aileron to move down.
[B] Move up, causing the left aileron to move up and right aileron to move down.
[C] Move down, causing the left aileron to move up, right aileron remains neutral.
[D] Move up causing the left wing to move down, ailerons remain neutral.
94 Ailerons give:
[A] Longitudinal control about the lateral axis.
[B] Lateral control about the lateral axis.
[C] Lateral control about the longitudinal axis.
[D] Directional control about the normal axis.
95 Following re-trimming for straight and level flight, in an aircraft with a C of G

near its forward limit, and an elevator fitted with a conventional trim-tab:
[A] Longitudinal stability will be reduced.
[B] Nose-down pitch authority will be reduced.
[C] Nose-up pitch authority will be reduced.
[D] Tailplane down-load will be reduced.
96 Controls are mass balanced in order to:

[A] Provide equal control forces on all three controls.
[B] Aerodynamically assist the pilot in moving the controls.
[C] Eliminate control flutter.
[D] Return the control surface to neutral when the controls are released.
97 The purpose of a spring-bias trim system is:

[A] To reduce to zero the effort required by the pilot to counter stick force, after making a
control movement.
[B] To maintain a constant tension in the trim tab system.
[C] To increase the feel in the control system.
[D] To compensate for temperature changes in cable tension.
98 A control surface may have a mass balance fitted to it, in order to:
[A] Help prevent a rapid and uncontrolled oscillation which is called "flutter".
[B] Keep the control surface level.
[C] Lighten the forces needed to control the surface.
[D] Provide the pilot with "feel".
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99 A control surface may be mass balanced by:

[A] Fitting an anti-balance tab.
[B] Fitting a balance tab.
[C] Attaching a weight acting forward of the hinge line.
[D] Attaching weight acting aft of the hinge line.
100 Fixed trim tabs on ailerons:

[A] Can be adjusted during flight.
[B] Can be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to make wings-level flight easier.
[C] Should never be adjusted.
[D] Can be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to make turning easier.
101 Which flying control surface(s) give(s) longitudinal control?

[A] The ailerons.
[B] The rudder.
[C] The elevator.
[D] The flaps.
102 The purpose of a trim tab is:

[A] To provide feel to the controls at high speed.
[B] To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls.
[C] To zero the load on the pilots controls in the flight attitude required.
[D] To increase the effectiveness of the controls.
103 Yawing is a rotation about:

[A] The longitudinal axis controlled by the ailerons.
[B] The lateral axis controlled by the rudder.
[C] The normal axis controlled by the rudder.
[D] The normal axis controlled by the elevator.
104 If the control column is moved forward and to the left:

[A] The left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves up.
[B] The left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves up.
[C] The left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves down.
[D] The left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves down.
212
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105 If the control column is moved to the right, a balance tab on the left aileron
should:
[A] Move to the neutral position.
[B] Move down relative to the aileron.
[C] Not move unless the aileron trim wheel is turned.
[D] Move up relative to the aileron.
106 Differential Ailerons' are a design feature that helps to counteract:

[A] Positive aircraft stability.
[B] Stability about the longitudinal axis.
[C] Adverse yaw.
[D] Adverse roll.
107 If the angle of attack is increased above the stalling angle:

[A] Lift will decrease and drag will increase.
[B] Lift and drag will both decrease.
[C] Lift will increase and drag will decrease.
[D] Lift and drag will both increase.
108 If the Angle of Attack is increased beyond the Critical Angle of Attack, the wing
will stall:
[A] Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon.
[B] Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed.
[C] Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude.
[D] In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately.
109 An aeroplane wing stalls when:

[A] It is subjected to unusually high 'G'forces.
[B] The indicated airspeed is too low.
[C] The laminar airflow becomes turbulent.
[D] The critical angle of attack is exceeded.
110 The stalling speed of an aircraft in straight and level flight is 60 kt, lAS. What is
its stalling speed in a level 60° banked turn?
[A] 60 kt.
[B] 85 kt.
[C] 43 kt.
[D] 120 kt.
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111 When an aircraft is in a steady climb, the aerodynamic lift is ____ the weight.
[A] Less than.
[B] Balanced by.
[C] Equal to.
[D] Greater than.
112 A typical stalling angle of attack for an aircraft wing is:

[A] 30°
[B] 4°
[C] 16°
[D] 45°
113 The maximum angle of climb of an aeroplane is determined by:

[A] Wind speed.
[B] The aircraft weight.
[C] Excess engine thrust.
[D] Excess airspeed.
114 The angle of attack at which an aeroplane stalls:

[A] Is a function of speed and density altitude.
[B] Will be smaller flying downwind than when flying upwind.
[C] Is dependent upon the speed of the airflow over the wing.
[D] Will remain constant, regardless of gross weight.
115 When the aircraft is in a spin, the direction of spin is most reliably found by
reference to which of the following indications?
[A] Artificial horizon.
[B] Turn needle.
[C] Slip indicator.
[D] Direction indicator.
116 The reason for washout being designed into an aircraft wing is to:
[A] Increase the effectiveness of the flaps.
[B] Cause the inboard section of the wing to stall first.
[C] Cause the outboard section of the wing to stall first.
[D] Decrease the effectiveness of the ailerons.
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117 The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended (VFE) is lower than
cruising speed because:
[A] At speeds higher than VFE the aerodynamic forces would overload the flap and wing
structures.
[B] Flaps are used only when preparing to land.
[C] Too much drag is induced.
[D] Flaps will stall if they are deployed at too high an airspeed.
118 The basic stalling speed of an aeroplane is 80 knots. In a level turn with 45° angle
bank, the stalling speed is:
[A] 33 kt.
[B] 95 kt.
[C] 86 kt.
[D] 113 kt.
119 At the stall, the Centre of Pressure moving backwards will cause the nose to
____, and the decreased lift will cause the aircraft to ____.
[A] Drop / lose height.
[B] Yaw / reduce speed.
[C] Rise / sink.
[D] Drop / reduce speed.
120 VNE is:

[A] The airspeed which must not be exceeded except in a dive.
[B] The maximum airspeed at which the aircraft may be flown.
[C] The maximum airspeed at which manoeuvres approaching the stall may be carried out.
[D] The maximum speed, above which flaps should not be extended.
121 In a climb at a steady speed, the thrust is:

[A] Greater than the aerodynamic drag.
[B] Equal to the aerodynamic drag.
[C] Less than the aerodynamic drag.
[D] Equal to the weight component along the flight path.
122 What is the significance of the speed known as VNO?

[A] It signifies the airspeed which must never be exceeded.
[B] It is the maximum speed at which abrupt movements of the controls will result in a stall,
before the aircraft's positive load limit is exceeded.
[C] It is the speed beyond which structural failure of the airframe will occur.
[D] It signifies the upper limit of the normal operating speed range.
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123 The stalling speed of an aircraft, assuming weight to be constant, is a function of

the:
[A] Square root of the Load Factor.
[B] Inverse of the Load Factor.
[C] Indicated airspeed.
[D] Square of the weight.
124 The angle of climb is proportional to:

[A] The amount by which the lift exceeds the weight.
[B] The amount by which the thrust exceeds the drag.
[C] The amount by which the thrust exceeds the weight.
[D] The angle of attack of the wing.
125 If an aircraft is flown at its design manoeuvring speed VA:

[A] It must be immediately slowed down if turbulence is encountered.
[B] It is possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during high 'g'
manoeuvres.
[C] It is only possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during violent
increases in incidence, i.e. when using excessive stick force to pull-out of a dive.
[D] It is not possible to exceed the limit load.
126 If the aircraft weight is increased, without change of C of G position, the stalling
angle attack will:
[B] Decrease.
[C] Increase.
[D] Remain the same. The position of the C of G does not affect the stall speed.
127 At which angle of attack should we normally expect beginning of a stall?

[A] 5°- 10°.
[B] 3°- 5°.
[C] 10° - 18°.
[D] Greater than 25°.
128 The best glide angle of attack on the wing polar diagram is marked as: (See
PPL(A) 080-02)
[A] 2.
[B] 4.
[C] 5.
[D] 6.
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129 The critical angle of attack on the wing polar diagram is marked as: (See PPL(A)
080-02).
[A] 4.
[B] 1.
[C] 6.
[D] 5.
130 The angle of attack for a minimum drag on the wing polar diagram is marked as:
(See PPL(A) 080-02).
[A] 7.
[B] 4.
[C] 5.
[D] 3.
131 Which wing shape has the greatest induced drag?

[A] Rectangular.
[B] Taper.
[C] Elliptical.
[D] Double taper.
132 If the velocity of an airstream is doubled the drag coefficient will:

[A] Double.
[B] Increase 4-times.
[C] Not change.
[D] Increase 6-times.
133 Approximately for what percent will the stall speed increase if wing loading
increases by 15%?
[A] 15%.
[B] 0%.
[C] 7%.
[D] 20%.
134 What is the approximate percentage increase of a minimum speed if an aircraft

mass is increased for 20%?
[A] 120%.
[B] 0%.
[C] 10%.
[D] 20%.
217
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135 If an airplane weights 3.000 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane
structure be required to support during a 20° banked turn while maintaining
altitude? (See PPL(A) 080-01).
[A] 4.000 lbs.
[B] 3.180 lbs.
[C] 3.350 lbs.
[D] 3.000 lbs.
136 If an airplane weights 4.600 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane
structure be required to support during a 50° banked turn while maintaining
altitude? (See PPL(A) 080-01)
[A] 7.160 lbs.
[B] 5.400 lbs.
[C] 9.200 lbs.
[D] 8.180 lbs.
137 What is the maximum allowed bank angle when flying an aircraft with limiting
load factor of +2,5 G? (See PPL(A) 080-01)
[A] 55°.
[B] 66°.
[C] 60°.
[D] 50°.
138 What is the maximum allowed bank angle when flying an aircraft with limiting
load factor of +3,8 G? (See PPL(A) 080-01)
[A] 67°.
[B] 70°.
[C] 75°.
[D] 53°.
139 What is the load factor in a 60° banked level turn? (See PPL(A) 080-01)
[A] 2.0 G.
[B] 1.5 G.
[C] 0.5 G.
[D] 1 G.
218
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140 The airspeed at which a pilot will not yet overstress the airframe of an aicraft by
momentarily up-deflecting the elevator is:
[A] VS.
[B] VB.
[C] VFE.
[D] VA.
219
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220
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221
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COMMUNICATION
090
222
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1 Aerodrome traffic is:

[A] All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft operating in the
vicinity of an aerodrome.
[B] All vehicles on an aerodrome.
[C] All aircraft on an aerodrome.
[D] All traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome.
2 VHF frequencies used for communication have the range:

[A] From 118,0 to 121,5 mhz.
[B] From 108,0 to 135,975 khz.
[C] From 118,0 to 135,975 mhz.
[D] From 118,0 to 121,5 khz.
3 The maximum theoretical VHF communications range that can be expected by an

aircraft at FL 100 is:
[A] 1200nm.
[B] 120nm.
[C] 150nm.
[D] 100nm.
4 An aircraft will be in the best range for VHF communications if it is:

[A] At low altitude and long range.
[B] At high altitude and long range.
[C] At high altitude in the vicinity of the airfield.
[D] MSL and in the vicinity of the airfield.
5 What is the meaning of the term "IMC"?

[A] Instrumental meteorogical conditions.
[B] Flight according to instrumental flight rules.
[C] Flight according to visual flight rules.
[D] Visual meteorogical conditions.
6 The term "SVFR flight" stands for:

[A] Schooling VFR flight.
[B] Sector VFR flight.
[C] Special VFR flight.
[D] Search and rescue VFR flight.
223
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7 What is the meaning of the term "VMC"?

[A] Visual flight rules.
[B] A flight accordingly to instrumental flight rules.
[C] Visual meteorogical conditions.
[D] Instrumental flight rules.
8 What is the meaning of the term "VFR flight"?

[A] Training flight.
[B] Flight according to instrumental flight rules.
[C] Flight according to visual flight rules.
[D] Flight without passengers on board.
9 What does the phrase "WILCO" mean?

[A] Permission granted.
[B] I have received all of your last transmission.
[C] My message is ended and I expect a response from you.
[D] I understand your message and will comply with it.
10 What is the meaning of the phrase "ROGER"?

[A] Permission for proposed action granted.
[B] I understand your message and will comply with it.
[C] My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.
[D] I have received all of your last transmission.
11 What is the meaning of the phrase "ACKNOWLEDGE"?

[A] Let me know that you have received and understood this message.
[B] I have received all of your last transmission.
[C] Repeat all or the following part of your last transmission.
[D] My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.
12 "VACATE RIGHT" means:

[A] Turn right to leave the runway.
[B] Clear the runway immediately.
[C] The next runway exit is on the right.
[D] Turn right after takeoff.
224
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13 "GO AROUND" means:

[A] Make a 360 degree turn.
[B] Overtake the aircraft ahead.
[C] Carry out a missed approach.
[D] Taxy past the aircraft at the holding point.
14 "STANDBY" means:
[A] Select STANDBY on the SSR Transponder.
[B] Wait and I will call you again.
[C] Hold your present position.
[D] Continue on present heading and listen out.
15 What does the phrase "MONITOR" mean?

[A] I repeat for clarity or emphasis.
[B] Establish radio contact with …
[C] Listen out on (frequency).
[D] Watch the instruments.
16 What does the phrase "REPORT" mean?

[A] Say again.
[B] Pass me the following information.
[C] Pass your message.
[D] Proceed with your message.
17 What does phrase "RECLEARED" mean?

[A] Last transmitted clearance has been modified and new clearance cancels it or part of it.
[B] Last transmitted clearance is still valid.
[C] Last transmitted clearance has been verified.
[D] New clearance available.
18 "ORBIT RIGHT" means:

[A] Turn right to avoid other traffic.
[B] Right hand circuits in use.
[C] Continue to make right hand turn until advised.
[D] Make a 360 degrees turn to the right.
225
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19 What does the term "ALTITUDE" mean?

[A] Height above an airfield.
[B] Altitude above mean sea level.
[C] Flight level.
[D] Standard altitude.
20 What is the meaning of the term "FLIGHT LEVEL"?

[A] A level in atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter
to 1013.2 hpa.
[B] A level in atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter
to local QNH.
[C] A level in atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter
to local QFE.
[D] A pressure level based on regional QNH.
21 When a pilot reports "FIVE THOUSAND FEET":

[A] The altimeter of the aircraft is set to the local QFE.
[B] The altitude of the aircraft is 5,000 ft above mean sea level.
[C] The altitude of the aircraft is 5,000 ft above the airfield.
[D] The altimeter of the aircraft is set to the standard pressure 1013.2hpa.
22 An altitude of 4,500 ft QNH should be pronounced as:

[A] FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET.
[B] FORTY FIVE THOUSAND.
[C] FOUR POINT FIVE.
[D] FORTY FIVE HUNDRED FEET ABOVE SEA LEVEL.
23 An altitude of 5,000 ft should be broadcasted as:

[A] FIVE NULL NULL NULL.
[B] FIVE THOUSAND FEET.
[C] FIVE ZERO ZERO ZERO FEET.
[D] FIFTY HUNDRED.
24 An altitude of 11,000 ft should be broadcasted as:

[A] WUN WUN ZERO ZERO ZERO FEET.
[B] ELEVEN THOUSAND FEET.
[C] WUN WUN THOUSAND FEET.
[D] ELEVEN THOUSAND ZERO FEET.
226
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25 Altitude 10,500 ft should be broadcasted as:

[A] WUN ZERO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET.
[B] TEN POINT FIVE.
[C] TEN THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET.
[D] WUN ZERO FIVE HUNDRED FEET ABOVE SEA LEVEL.
26 Frequency 118.125 mhz should be transmitted by pronouncing:

[A] WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMEL WUN TOO FIVE.
[B] WUN WUN EIGHT WUN TOO FIVE.
[C] WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL WUN TOO.
[D] WUN HUNDRED EIGHTEEN WUN TOO FIVE.
27 When broadcasting numbers in radiotelephony communication, the number 583

is transmitted as:
[A] FIVE HUNDRED EIGHTY THREE.
[B] FIVE EIGHT THREE.
[C] FIFTY EIGHT THREE.
[D] FIVE HUNDRED EIGHT THREE.

is transmitted as:
[A] FOUR NINETY SIX.
[B] FOUR HUNDRED AND NINETY SIX.
[C] FOUR HUNDRED AND NINER SIX.
[D] FOUR NINER SIX.

is transmitted as:
[A] FOUR FIVE ZERO WUN.
[B] FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED WUN.
[C] FOUR FIVE ZERO POINT WUN.
[D] FORTY FIVE HUNDRED WUN.
30 The number 600 should be broadcasted as:

[A] SIX NULL NULL.
[B] SIX DOUBLE ZERO.
[C] SIX HUNDRED.
[D] SIXTY ZERO.
227
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31 Frequency 118.0 mhz should be broadcasted by pronouncing:

[A] WUN WUN EIGHT.
[B] WUN HUNDRED EIGHTEEN POINT NULL.
[C] WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL ZERO.
[D] WUN WUN EIGHT POINT ZERO.
32 In aviation broadcasting, how do we pronounce COMM frequency 118.1 mhz?

[A] WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL WUN.
[B] WUN WUN EIGHT POINT WUN.
[C] WUN HUNDRED ELEVEN POINT WUN.
[D] WUN WUN EIGHT WUN.
33 In aviation broadcasting, how do we pronounce COMM frequency 118.150 mhz?

[A] WUN WUN EIGHT POINT WUN FIVE ZERO.
[B] WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL WUN FIVE.
[C] WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL WUN FIVE ZERO.
[D] WUN WUN EIGHT DASH WUN FIVE.
34 Frequency 121.725 mhz should be transmitted as:

[A] WUN TWO WUN POINT SEVEN TWO.
[B] WUN TOO WUN DECIMAL SEVEN TOO FIFE.
[C] WUN TOO WUN POINT SEVEN TWO.
[D] WUN TWENTY WUN DECIMAL SEVEN TWENTY FIVE.
35 The pilot may abbreviate the call sign of an aircraft:

[A] Not at all.
[B] Only after the ground station has used the abbreviated call sign.
[C] After radio contact with the ground station has been established.
[D] Any time at his discretion.
36 A time of 1020 hours is transmitted as:

[A] ONE ZERO TWO ZERO or TWO ZERO.
[B] TEN TWENTY HOURS.
[C] TEN TWO ZERO.
[D] ONE ZERO TWENTY.
228
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37 A time of 1020 hours is transmitted at 0910 hours as:

[A] TEN TWO ZERO.
[B] TEN TWENTY HOURS.
[C] ONE ZERO TWO ZERO.
[D] TWO ZERO.
38 Phonetic transcription for the label 70-VEL pronounced as:

[A] SEVENTY, VICTOR, ECHO, LIMA.
[B] SEVEN, ZERO, WHISKEY, ECHO, LIMA.
[C] SEVEN, ZERO, VICTOR, ECHO, LIMA.
[D] SEVEN, ZERO, LIMA.
39 Phonetic transcription for the label EXTRA pronounced as:

[A] EXTRA.
[B] ECHO, XRAY, TANGO, ROMEO, ALFA.
[C] ECHO, XRAY, TORONTO, ROMEO, ALFA.
[D] ECHO, IKS, TORONTO, ROMEO, ALFA.
40 Phonetic transcription for the label C-MNXY pronounced as:

[A] CHARLI E, METRO, NOVEMBER, EXTRA, YANKEE.
[B] COCA, MIKE, NECTAR, XRAY, YANKEE.
[C] CHARLIE, MIKE, NOVEMBER, XRAY, YANKEE.
[D] CHARLIE, METRO, NOVEMBER, EXTRA, YANKEE.
41 Phonetic transcription for the label B9-DFF pronounced as:

[A] BRAVO, NINER, DELTA, FOXTROT, FOXTROT.
[B] BRAVO, NINE, DELTA, FOXTROT, FOXTROT.
[C] BRAVO, NINE, DELTA, TWO FOXTROT.
[D] BRAVO, NINER, DELTA, DOUBLE FOXTROT.
42 A pilot shall ask for a QFE as follows:

[A] Request QUEBEC FOX EASY.
[B] Request QUEBEC FOX ECHO.
[C] Request QUEEN FOX EASY.
[D] Request QFE.
229
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43 What is the correct way of spelling out FRI-VOR in a radio message?

[A] FOXTROT ROMEO INDIA VOR.
[B] FOXTROT ROMEO INDIA VICTOR OSCAR ROMEO.
[C] FRIDAY VOR.
[D] FOX ROMEO INDIA VOR.
44 The abbreviation for a control zone is:

[A] CTZ.
[B] MATZ.
[C] CTA.
[D] CTR.
45 Which of the following abbreviations must be broadcast to individual letters?

[A] ILS.
[B] Y-BC.
[C] RVR.
[D] CAVOK.
46 What is the Q code for the measurement of relative heights above an airfields?
[A] QFE.
[B] ELT.
[C] QNH.
[D] QBA.
47 What is the Q code for the measurement of altitude?

[A] QNE.
[B] QFF.
[C] QNH.
[D] QFE.
48 What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing to a station?

[A] QNH.
[B] QDR.
[C] QGH.
[D] QDM.
230
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49 What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing from a station?

[A] QDR.
[B] QGH.
[C] QDM.
[D] QNH.
50 What is the Q code for a true bearing from a station?

[A] QNH.
[B] QDR.
[C] QTE.
[D] QFE.
51 What does the phrase "QDM" mean?

[A] Atmospheric pressure at airfield elevation.
[B] Magnetic direction from an aircraft to the goniometric station.
[C] Atmospheric pressure at airfield elevation, reduced to sea level.
[D] Actual weather at an airfield.
52 What does "QNH" mean?

[A] Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on ground.
[B] Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation.
[C] True bearing from a station.
[D] Magnetic bearing from a station.
53 Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full:
[A] ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports.
[B] Level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind, runway information.
[C] Clearance to enter, land on, take-off on, backtrack, cross or hold short of runway.
[D] VOR information, frequency changes, type of radar service.
54 A pilot is required to read back at least:

[A] Transponder code, take-off clearance, altimeter settings, VDF information,
radiofrequencies.
[B] ATC route clearances, runway clearances, conditional clearances, actual weather
reports.
[C] Altimeter settings, taxi information, terminal weather, runway clearances, approach aid
serviceability.
[D] Route clearances, speed instructions, weather reports, taxi clearances, runway state
information.
231
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55 Which of the following statements is correct?

"In ground to air communications the controller will always":
[A] Say your call sign first only on initial contact.
[B] Say your call sign last.
[C] Say your call sign first.
[D] Say your call sign first or last, depending on topic.
56 The prescribed phrase for obtaining a permission to taxi to the runway for
departure is:
[A] WHAT IS MY TAXI CLEARANCE.
[B] REQUEST TAXI.
[C] REQUEST PERMISSION TO TAXI.
[D] REQUEST TAXI CLEARANCE.
57 When a control tower transmits the phrase "REPORT DOWNWIND", the pilot is
instructed to report:
[A] Aircraft position in traffic pattern between the second turn and the third turn.
[B] Estimated wind direction and velocity at the altitude of flying.
[C] Maximum allowed tail wind for landing.
[D] Aircraft position "final" in traffic pattern.
58 The controller wants to obtain the information about the level at which an aircraft
is flying, using the phrase:
[A] WHAT IS YOUR LEVEL.
[B] REPORT LEVEL.
[C] REQUEST LEVEL.
[D] TRANSMIT YOUR LEVEL.
59 Which phrase is used by an ATC when advising the pilot that the position report
over the compulsory reporting point X is not required?
[A] CANCEL POSITION REPORT OVER X.
[B] OMIT POSITION REPORT OVER X.
[C] NO POSITION REPORT OVER X.
[D] DO NOT REPORT OVER X.
60 When the pilot is not able to execute a command, the correct flight phrase is:
[A] UNABLE.
[B] UNABLE TO ACCEPT.
[C] REQUEST RECLEARANCE.
[D] I CANNOT COMPLY.
232
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev_1/2016
61 How do you ask for a message to be repeated?

[A] REPEAT MESSAGE.
[B] PLEASE SAY THE MESSAGE AGAIN.
[C] SAY AGAIN.
[D] SAY ALL AGAIN.
62 Which of the following messages has the highest priority?

[A] REQUEST QDM.
[B] TAXI TO THE REFUELLING PUMPS.
[C] CAUTION, WORK IN PROGRESS ON THE TAXIWAY.
[D] REPORT FINAL NUMBER 1.
63 If a controller passes an instruction and you understand it and will comply, the
standard reply is:
[A] CONFIRM.
[B] VERIFY.
[C] ROGER.
[D] WILCO.
64 If the pilot is unable to make contact with a station on a designated frequency,

then he should:
[A] Try transmitting on another related frequency.
[B] Make a blind transmission.
[C] Transmit on 121.5 mhz.
[D] Transmit using words twice.
65 When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due to

receiver failure" the aircraft station shall also:
[A] Proceed to the alternate airport.
[B] Advise the time of its next intended transmission.
[C] Hold for 5 minutes at its present position.
[D] Inform other traffic by proceeding a 360 degrees turn to the right.
66 You are at the holding point of the runway in use, have completed all your pre-
flight vital checks and are ready to enter the runway and take off. What RT
phraseology would you use to inform ATC of your readiness?
[A] (CALLSIGN) (POSITION) READY FOR LINE UP.
[B] (CALLSIGN) READY FOR TAKE OFF.
[C] (CALLSIGN) READY.
[D] (CALLSIGN) (POSITION) READY TO PROCEED.
233
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev_1/2016
67 If the pilot cannot follow the instructions and orders, he should advise the air
traffic control by transmitting the phrase:
[A] UNABLE TO ACCEPT.
[B] UNABLE.
[C] REQUEST RECLEARANCE.
[D] I CANNOT COMPLY.
68 You are flying in southern Finland with OH-ABC. You are flying level flight on
standard setting on your altimeter. When asked by the controller to report your
level, what is the correct response?
[A] MAINTAINING FL50, O-BC.
[B] FL50,O-BC.
[C] AT FL50, O-BC.
[D] O-BC, FL50.
69 You are flying on a NE heading at 2500 ft. You would report your heading and
level as:
[A] HEADING 045 AT TOO THOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED FEET.
[B] HEADING 045 AT TOO FIFE ZERO ZERO FEET.
[C] HEADING 045 AT 25 HUNDRED FEET.
[D] FLYING AT TOO THOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED FEET ON HEADING 045.
70 How would you correctly reply to the ATC instruction "O-CD, Contact Malmi
Tower, 131.250"?
[A] WILCO, OSCAR CHARLIE DELTA.
[B] OSCAR CHARLIE DELTA, WUN THREE WUN DECIMAL TOO FIVE ZERO.
[C] WUN THREE WUN DECIMAL TOO FIVE ZERO, CHARLIE DELTA.
[D] WUN THREE WUN DECIMAL TOO FIVE ZERO, OSCAR CHARLIE DELTA.
71 ATC will give a descent instruction by using the phrase:

[A] DESCEND TO…
[B] MAINTAIN…
[C] LEAVE XX FOR YY…
[D] CLEARED TO…
234
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev_1/2016
72 ATC will give a climb instruction by using the phrase:

[A] LEAVE…
[B] MAINTAIN…
[C] CLIMB TO…
[D] CLEARED TO…
73 An aircraft had initially been cleared to climb to FL1OO. For separation purposes
the aircraft has to be leveled of at FL 80 for a few minutes. ATC will give this
instruction by using the phrase:
[A] LEVEL OFF AT FL80.
[B] STOP CLIMB AT FL80.
[C] MAINTAIN FL80.
[D] CLEARED FL80.
74 When asked by ATC "Are you able to maintain FL 40" the correct reply contains
the phrase:
[A] ROGER or MOORE.
[B] AFFIRM or NEGATIVE.
[C] WILCO or NEGATIVE.
[D] NO SIR.
75 You have just landed at a towered airport and the tower tells you to contact
ground when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when:
[A] All parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line.
[B] The aircraft cockpit is clear of the hold line.
[C] The tail of the aircraft is of the runway edge.
[D] The aircraft starts turning away from the runway.
76 If requested by the control tower to report having crossed the runway, the pilot
has to use the phrase:
[A] RUNWAY VACATED.
[B] I HAVE LEFT THE RUNWAY.
[C] I AM CLEAR OF RUNWAY.
[D] I AM BEYOND THE RUNWAY.
77 Report position base leg is done:

[A] Always.
[B] Only when required by ATC.
[C] Only the pilot will.
[D] Only after the sunset.
235
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev_1/2016
78 Correct phrase for final report is:

[A] FINAL APPROACHING, O-BC.
[B] WE ARE APPROACHING FINAL, O-BC.
[C] TOWER, FINAL, O-BC.
[D] O-BC ON FINAL.
79 That portion of the airport traffic circuit identified by the letter ""E is called?
(See PPL(A) 090-01)
[A] LINE-UP.
[B] DOWNWIND.
[C] CROSSWIND.
[D] BASE LEG.
80 Which designator denotes part of the aerodrome traffic circuit named "Base
Leg"?
(See PPL(A) 090-01)
[A] E.
[B] G.
[C] F.
[D] D.
81 Which letter identifies that portion of the airport traffic circuit, called "FINAL
LEG"?
(See PPL(A) 090-01)
[A] E.
[B] G.
[C] F.
[D] C.
82 That portion of the airport identified by the letter A is called?

(See PPL(A) 090-01)
[A] APRON.
[B] RUNWAY.
[C] TAXIWAY.
[D] BASE LEG.
236
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev_1/2016
83 That portion of the airport taxyway identified by the letter B is called?

(See PPL(A) 090-01)
[A] LINE-UP POSITION.
[B] APRON.
[C] HOLDING POINT.
[D] CROSSWIND LEG.
84 Which of the following is a conditional clearance?

[A] OH-ABC, AFTER THE JAT 737, TAXY TO HOLDING POINT D RUNWAY 26.
[B] JAT 345, LINE UP AND HOLD.
[C] REDWING 42, TAKE OFF AT YOUR DISCRETION.
[D] O-BC , REPORT FINAL, TWO AHEAD.
85 Which phrase is used to cancel the previously transmitted clearance?

[A] RECLEARED.
[B] DISREGARD.
[C] NEGATIVE.
[D] CANCEL.
86 The permission to taxi to the takeoff position will be phrased:

[A] CONTINUE TO TAKEOFF POSITION AND HOLD.
[B] TAXI TO THE TAKEOFF POSITION.
[C] CLEARED INTO POSITION AND HOLD.
[D] LINE UP.
87 The phrase, which instructs the pilot to set transponder code 6620 again, is:
[A] SQUAWK AGAIN 6620.
[B] RESET SQUAWK 6620.
[C] SWITCH ON 6620.
[D] CONFIRM SQUAWKING 6620.
88 You receive the message" OH-ABC Squawk ldent". You should:

[A] Operate the special position identification on the SSR transponder.
[B] Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder.
[C] Select ALT- altitude reporting facility (Mode C) on the SSR transponder.
[D] Reply giving your cal lsign.
237
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev_1/2016
89 The phrase "Squawk Charlie" means:

[A] Transponder.
[B] Select "ALT" on the transponder.
[C] Confirm the transponder is selected ON.
[D] Select 7700 on the transponder.
90 When asked by ATC: "OH-ABC, CONFIRM EIGHT POINT THREE THREE". How do
you reply to ATC, if you have 8.33 kHz channel spacing capable radio on board?
[A] "AFFIRM, OH-ABC".
[B] "AFFIRM EIGHT POINT THREE THREE, OH-ABC".
[C] "YES EIGHT POINT THREE THREE, OH-ABC".
[D] "NEGATIVE EIGHT POINT THREE THREE, OH-ABC".
91 In a radar environment heading information given by the pilot and heading

instructions given by controllers are in:
[A] Degrees Celsius.
[B] Degrees true.
[C] Degrees magnetic.
[D] Degrees Absolute.
92 In the event of a radio failure the SSR transponder should be set to:
[A] 7700.
[B] 7600.
[C] 7500.
[D] 7000.
93 A pilot squawking A 7700 indicates to the ground station that:

[A] His aircraft is in an emergency situation.
[B] His radio is unserviceable.
[C] He has a sick person on board.
[D] His flight is being hijacked.
94 Which transponder mode gives an altitude readout:

[A] Mod B.
[B] Mod A.
[C] Mod C.
[D] Mod D.
238
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev_1/2016
95 If you are flying an aircraft without a transponder, what would you say if you
were asked to “ADVISE TRANSPONDER CAPABILITY?”
[A] NO TRANSPONDER.
[B] NEGATIVE SQUAWK.
[C] I DO NOT HAVE A TRANSPONDER.
[D] NEGATIVE TRANSPONDER.
96 By which international phrase will the intercepting aircraft allows the intercepted
aircraft to continue the flight?
[A] CALL SIGN.
[B] PROCEED.
[C] DESCEND.
[D] FOLLOW.
97 The phrase "CALL SIGN", passed by a radio from a pilot of an intercepting

aircraft to the pilot of an intercepted aircraft, means:
[A] What is your call sign?
[B] Call the air traffic control!
[C] Transmit an emergency call!
[D] Return to your airport of origin!
98 What is the meaning of the phrase "YOU LAND", passed by a radio from the pilot
of an intercepting aircraft to the pilot of an intercepted aircraft?
[A] Follow me.
[B] Report the name of your aerodrome of origin.
[C] Land at this aerodrome.
[D] You may proceed.
99 Which is the correct phrase used by the pilot of an intercepted aircraft to convey
to an intercepting aircraft his inability to comply with the received instructions?
[A] MAYDAY.
[B] AM LOST.
[C] CAN NOT.
[D] WILCO.
239
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev_1/2016
100 The pilot of an intercepted aircraft report to the pilot of an intercepting aircraft
that he is lost and his position is uncertain to him by transmitting the following
international radio phrase
[A] WILCO.
[B] AM LOST.
[C] CAN NOT.
[D] MAYDAY.
101 Which frequency is intended for a conversation between the intercepting aircraft
and the intercepted aircraft?
[A] International emergency frequency 121.5 mhz.
[B] Local air force frequency.
[C] Local emergency frequency.
[D] Frequency air-air.
102 By which international phrase will the intercepting aircraft direct the intercepted
aircraft to follow him?
[A] PROCEED.
[B] FOLLOW.
[C] YOU LAND.
[D] CALL SIGN.
103 What are the two classified states of Emergency Message?

[A] Emergency and PAN PAN.
[B] MAYDAY and PAN PAN.
[C] Emergency and Security.
[D] Distress and Urgency.
104 "DISTRESS" is defined as a condition:

[A] That threaten by serious and/or imminent danger and require immediate assistance.
[B] That threaten to become serious or immediate danger and do not require urgent
assistance.
[C] Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or within
sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.
[D] Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or within
sight and requiring immediate assistance.
240
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev_1/2016
105 "URGENCY" is defined as a condition:

[A] Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or within
sight and requiring immediate assistance.
[B] Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or within
sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.
[C] That threaten to become serious or immediate danger and require immediate assistance.
[D] That threaten to become serious or immediate danger and do not require urgent
assistance.
106 The frequency used for the first transmission of a "MAYDAY" call should be:
[A] Approach frequency of the nearest airfield.
[B] The distress frequency 121.5 mhz.
[C] The frequency currently in use.
[D] Any international distress frequency.
107 In case a pilot intend to transmit by radiotelephony an urgent message,

concerning safety of the other aircraft, he should begin his broadcast by the:
[A] Spoken word "PANPAN".
[B] Spoken word "MAYDAY".
[C] Morse code "XXX".
[D] Morse code "MAYDAY".
108 During a cross-country flight you notice an emergency landing of a light

aeroplane on a meadow below. The aircraft seems undamaged and the pilot
unhurt. Which phrase will you use at the beginning of your report to the air traffic
control concerning the event?
[A] HELPHELP, HELPHELP, HELPHELP.
[B] PANPAN,PANPAN,PANPAN.
[C] MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
[D] EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
109 Which radiotelephony phrase means "WE ARE IN GRAVE AND IMMINENT
DANGER, AND IMMEDIATE ASSISTANCE IS REQUIRED"?
[A] Word "MAYDAY", transmitted by Morse code.
[B] Spoken word "MAYDAY".
[C] Spoken word "SECURITY".
[D] Spoken word "PANPAN".
241
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev_1/2016
110 The phrase, with which a radiotelephony distress message is being started, is:
[A] HELP, HELP, HELP.
[B] PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN.
[C] EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
[D] MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
111 At outlanding you damaged your aircraft and hurt yourself however there is
nobody in the vicinity to assist you. Which is the international phrase, with which
you should start your radiotelephony call for a help?
[A] EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
[B] PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN.
[C] MEDICAL, MEDICAL, MEDICAL.
[D] MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
112 Which of the following frequencies is the international emergency frequency?

[A] 122,500 MHz.
[B] 121,500 MHz.
[C] 121,050 MHz.
[D] 122,050 MHz.
113 The frequency 121.5 MHz is:

[A] An international emergency frequency.
[B] A regional guard frequency.
[C] A regional emergency frequency.
[D] A frequency for air-to-air communication.
114 When an aircraft fails to establish communication with an aeronautical station or

aircraft station, the aircraft has to transmit its message twice, preceded by the
phrase:
[A] MAYDAY.
[B] TRANSMITIING BLIND.
[C] PANPAN.
[D] WORDS TWICE.
115 Radio test transmissions should take the following form:

[A] TURKU TOWER OH-ABC Hoe do you read?
[B] TURKU TOWER OH-ABC 119.7. Do you read?
[C] TURKU TOWER OH-ABC Radio check 119.7.
[D] TURKU TOWER OH-ABC Readability check 119.7.
242
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev_1/2016
116 In order to make your communications more effective, you should:

[A] Modulate your voice.
[B] Use words twice.
[C] Use a constant speaking volume.
[D] Call break between sentences.
117 Using the readability scale, "readability 5" means:

[A] Readable but with difficulty.
[B] Perfectly readable.
[C] Unreadable.
[D] Readable.

[A] Unreadable.
[B] Readable with difficulty.
[C] Readable with background.
[D] Readable.

[A] Perfectly readable.
[B] Unreadable.
[C] Readable but with difficulty.
[D] Readable with background.

[A] Perfectly readable.
[B] Unreadable.
[C] Readable now and then.
[D] Readable with background.

[A] Readable with background.
[B] Readable but with difficulty.
[C] Perfectly readable.
[D] Unreadable.
243
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev_1/2016
122 Which aeronautical communication service provides automated airfield and

meteorological information for departing and arriving traffic?
[A] AFIS.
[B] LARS.
[C] ATIS.
[D] FIS.
123 Which of the following message category has the priority over others:
[A] Distress calls, distress messages and distress traffic.
[B] Urgency messages, including messages preceded by the medical transports signal
[C] Communications relating to direction finding
[D] Flight safety messages
124 If no ATIS is available, the pilot asks for departure information using the phrase:
[A] REQUEST DEPARTURE INSTRUCTIONS.
[B] REQUEST DEPARTURE INFORMATION.
[C] I WOULD LIKE DEPARTURE INFORMATION.
[D] REPORT DEPARTURE INFORMATION.
125 The abbreviation ATIS stands for:

[A] Automatic Terminal Information Service.
[B] Aircraft Technical Information Service.
[C] Air Traffic Information Service.
[D] Aerodrome Traffic Information Service.
126 ATIS is to be found on:

[A] The Approach frequency.
[B] A discrete VHF or a VOR frequency.
[C] The Tower frequency.
[D] The Ground frequency.
127 The correct call sign of a station providing flight information service is the
location followed by:
[A] CONTROL.
[B] HOMER.
[C] INFORMATION.
[D] RADIO.
244
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev_1/2016

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LAPL(A)/PPL(A) question bank

TRAINING QUESTION BANK

The bank will be released on 13th June 2016

1 Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of

2 Which of the following statements concerning the theoretical knowledge

3 No aircraft or personnel who have endorsed certificates or licences may

4 Which right is conferred on contracting states by Article 16 of the ICAO

7 Who is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft operating in a state's sovereign

8 What was the outcome of the Chicago Convention?

9 A PPL holder is not permitted to:

10 A pilot in command of a flight during which an aircraft enters the sovereign

11 The pilot in command of an aircraft which enters the sovereign airspace of

12 When are navigation lights required to be shown?

16 Which of the following statements most correctly completes the following

22 What is the international Aeronautical VHF Distress Frequency?

23 How often are Aeronautical Information Circulars published?

24 If a LAPL/PPL holder receives a Special VFR clearance to enter a control zone

25 What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency?

28 What color are paved taxiway markings?

29 What color are runway markings?

31 What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured

35 What is the definition of "Transition level''?

36 What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured

38 Who is responsible for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness?

39 Which of the following normally defines 'runway in use ' on an uncontrolled

40 Who may not suspend VFR operations at an aerodrome on safety grounds:

43 How long is a EASA PPL(A)/PPL(H) issued for?

46 A pilot's licence issued by one EASA member State may be converted to a

49 How long is an Instrument Rating valid for?

50 If a pilot holding a medical certificate issued under the authority of EASA-FCL

53 What Medical Certificate is required for a holder of a Private Pilot Licence?

54 What Medical Certificate is required for a student pilot (PPL)?

55 At least how many hours of dual instructions on aeroplane must have an

60 What does the term "solo flight time" mean?

61 To act as pilot in command of an airplane carrying passengers, the holder of PPL

63 The Flight Time is the total time from the moment:

68 To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the private pilot

69 With the respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

70 Holder of a medical certificate, when becoming aware of hospital admission of

73 Maximum validity of the EASA-PPL pilot licence is:

74 The validity of a pilot licence is determined by the validity of:

78 What does "AAL" mean?

81 What is the meaning of "WIP"?

82 An aircraft is cleared by ATC to "maintain 3000 feet or below in terminal area".

84 The vertical limits of a control zone are:

85 What is the definition of a term "Control Zone"?

87 What is the definition of the term "Controlled Airspace"?

89 When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in

105 Which of the following statements, concerning heavier-than-air aircraft right-of-

106 When overtaking an aircraft in flight, you should:

108 How often is a glider or an aeroplane state of airworthiness inspected by the

109 Requested national mark of an aircraft registered in Finland is:

110 An ATC clearance provides:

116 What Medical Certificate is required for a student pilot (LAPL)?

1 A HALON fire extinguisher:

4 Connecting two 12 volt, 40 ampere-hour, capacity batteries in series will provide

6 A propeller blade is twisted along its length in order to:

8 Which of the following is an appropriate action to take if you have a carburettor

11 The power output of an internal combustion engine can be increased by:

12 When turning through North in the Northern Hemisphere:

18 Theoretically, a 100Ah battery will supply 25A for:

19 During one complete Otto Cycle, the piston:

20 Which of the following is not a component of a dry vacuum system?