PRACTICE SET-3

1) Son 2) Nephew
Test-I: Reasoning Ability 3) Grandson 4) Son-in-law
5) Brother
Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information to 7. If Raju finds that he is 12th from the right in a row of
answer the given questions. boys and 4th from the left, how many boys should be
A word and number arrangement machine when given added to the row such that there are 28 boys in the row?
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following 1) 11 2) 12 3) 13
a particular rule. The following is an illustration of an input 4) 14 5) None of these
and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.) Directions (Q. 8-10): Study the following information
Input: goat 70 99 jump nor 80 fox 78 72 bids sit 75 carefully and answer the given questions following it.
Step I: bids goat 70 jump nor 80 fox 78 72 sit 75 99 (i) ‘P × Q’ means ‘Q’ is the mother of ‘P’.
Step II: fox bids goat 70 jump nor 78 72 sit 75 99 80 (ii) ‘P - Q’ means ‘P’ is the brother of ‘Q’.
Step III: goat fox bids 70 jump nor 72 sit 75 99 80 78 (iii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P’ is the father of ‘Q’.
Step IV: jump goat fox bids 70 nor 72 sit 99 80 78 75 (iv) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘Q’ is the sister of ‘P’.
Step V: nor jump goat fox bids 70 sit 99 80 78 75 72 8. Which of the following means M is the son of K?
Step VI: sit nor jump goat fox bids 99 80 78 75 72 70
1) M + L ÷ K 2) L ÷ M + K 3) M × L ÷ K
And Step VI is the last step of the above input.
4) M - L × K 5) None of these
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in
9. Which of the following means D is the aunt of B?
each of the following questions, the appropriate step
1) A × B - C + D 2) A ÷ B × C ÷ D
for the given input.
3) A + B ÷ C × D 4) D - C + B ÷ A
Input: 10 get 89 41 ace bed done 45 nor 73 60 made
5) None of these
1. How many steps will be required to complete the
10. Which of the following statements is/are redundant to
rearrangement?
1) Six 2) Seven answer the previous question no. 9?
3) Eight 4) Nine 1) Only (i) 2) Only (ii)
5) None of these 3) Only (ii) and (iii) 4) Only either (i) or (ii)
2. Which of the following represents the position of ‘73’ in 5) None of these
Step V? Directions (Q. 11-15): Read the following information
1) Fourth from the left 2) Fourth from the right carefully and answer the questions given below.
3) Fifth from the right 4) Sixth from the left Seven players—Anil, Bhusan, Chaman, Dayal, Ela,
5) None of these Farhan, and Gita—belong to three different cities—
3. Which word/number would be at the seventh position Hyderabad, Mumbai and Bangalore. Three of them play chess
from the left in the third step? and two each play badminton and hockey. One chess player
1) 41 2) 60 3) get is from each of these cities. Chaman plays badminton and is
4) 45 5) None of these from Bangalore. Dayal and Gita are the only players from
4. Which step number is the following output? Hyderabad and Dayal plays hockey. No two players
get done bed ace 10 41 nor made 89 73 60 45 belonging to the same city play the same game. None of the
1) Step I 2) Step II 3) Step III hockey players is from Bangalore. Farhan is from Bangalore.
4) Step IV 5) Step V Bhusan doesn’t play either chess or badminton. Ela does not
5. Which will be the second step? play badminton.
1) 10 get 89 41 ace bed done 45 nor 73 60 made 11. Which game does Farhan play?
2) ace 10 get 41 bed done 45 nor 73 60 made 89 1) Badminton 2) Chess
3) bed ace 10 get 41 done 45 nor 60 made 89 73 3) Hockey 4) Data inadequate
4) get done bed ace 10 41 nor made 89 73 60 45 5) None of these
5) None of these 12. In which city all the games are played by the players?
6. Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, “This man’s 1) Hyderabad 2) Mumbai
son’s sister is my mother-in-law.” How is the woman’s 3) Bangalore 4) Data inadequate
husband related to the man in the photograph? 5) None of these
13. Which of the following pairs of players play Chess? 1) 7 9 5 2) 5 9 3 3) 6 9 7
1) Gita, Ela, Anil 2) Anil, Ela, Dayal 4) 5 7 6 5) None of these
3) Ela, Chaman, Gita 4) Ela, Farhan, Anil 23. What is the code for ‘are’?
5) Farhan, Gita, Ela 1) 9 2) 7 3) 5
14. Which of the following pairs of players play all the three 4) 6 5) 3
games? 24. Which of the following can represent ‘Delhi is beautiful
1) Anil, Ela, Chaman 2) Ela, Farhan, Anil capital’?
3) Gita, Ela, Anil 4) Ela, Bhusan, Anil 1) 6 9 5 3 2) 3 5 6 7 3) 5 7 6 4
5) None of these 4) 6 7 4 9 5) 9 7 5 6
15. Which game does Anil play? 25. What does ‘5’ represents in this code?
1) Chess 2) Hockey 1) Delhi 2) beautiful
3) Badminton 4) None of these 3) capital 4) Patna
5) Data inadequate 5) Cannot be determined
Directions (Q. 16-20): These questions are based on Directions (Q. 26-30): These questions are based on
the following information. the following information.
Seven Boys—Saurav, Karan, Pawan, Gautam, Dhananjay, Five people P, Q, R, S, T are sitting on a straight line
Harshit and Rahul are sitting in a row facing the same direction. facing South. Another group V, W, X, Y, Z is sitting facing
We have the following information about their arrangement— North. The two groups are facing each other.

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Dhananjay is two places away from Pawan. Rahul is to the S is facing V and second to the right of T, who is sitting
left of Saurav. Karan is three places away to the right of on a corner. Y is second to the left of Z. R is third to the right
Harshit. Saurav is to the immediate right of Dhanajay. There of P. W is sitting on left corner.
are exactly three boys between Gautam and Saurav. 26. Which of the following pairs is facing towards each
16. Find the number of boys who are between Dhananjay other?
and Gautam. 1) PV 2) TW 3) RV
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) YQ 5) ZQ
4) 4 5) Can’t be determine 27. Which of the following pairs is sitting on the corner of
17. If Harshit is second from the left end of the row, who is at the line facing North?
the extreme right of the row? 1) XY 2) VX 3) WV
1) Saurav 2) Karan 4) ZW 5) XW

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3) Pawan 4) Gautam 28. What is the position of Y with reference to X?
5) Can’t be determine 1) fourth right 2) third left 3) third right
18. Rahul is the third from the left end of the row, then at 4) second right 5) None of these
what place is Saurav from the right end of the row? 29. Which of the following is sitting exactly in the middle of
1) Second 2) Third 3) Fourth the line facing South?
4) Fifth 5) Immediate 1) S 2) Q 3) T
19. If Pawan is third from left end of the row, then find the 4) P 5) R
number of boys who are between Saurav and Harshit? 30. If R is related to X and T is related to W in a certain way,
1) None 2) One 3) Two then which of the following would be related to each
4) Three 5) Four other, following the same pattern?
20. If Rahul is two places away to the right of Harshit, then 1) QZ 2) PY
who is at the extreme right of the row? 3) SY 4) Both (1) and (2)
1) Pawan 2) Saurav 3) Karan 5) None of these
4) Goutam 5) Rahul Directions (Q. 31-35): Following questions are based
Directions (Q. 21-25): These questions are based on on the information given below.
the following information. Tom, Joy, Ricky, Smith, Nickole, Moorie and Megan are
In a certain code, ‘Delhi is capital’ is coded as ‘7 5 9’, seven friends who left for seven different destinations
‘capital are beautiful’ is coded as ‘3 6 9’, ‘Delhi is beautiful’ is Australia, England, South Africa, Ireland, Canada, Holand
coded as ‘6 7 5’, ‘Patna also capital’ is coded as ‘9 2 4’. and Zimbabwe—each one on a different day of the week.
21. What is the code for ‘beautiful’? Ricky left for Zimbabwe on Monday. On the last day of the
1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 week, the person left for Ireland. Nickole left on the next day
4) 6 5) 7 of Tom, who left for Holand on the next day of Megan. Smith
22. Which of the following can represent ‘capital is left for Canada on Friday. Joy left neither for South Africa nor
beautiful’? for Ireland and Megan left for Australia.
31. On which day of the week did Joy leave? 36. An interest in life science is an essential qualification to
1) Sunday 2) Saturday specialise in the field of pharmaceuticals.
3) Wednesday 4) Data inadequate 37. There is a good range of employment opportunities for
5) None of these specialisers.
32. Who left for Ireland? 38. All those who want to become a doctor but fail, end up
1) Nickole 2) Tom in pharmacy.
3) Moorie 4) Data inadequate 39. Below 5000 manufacture units are involved in making
5) None of these bulk drugs.
33. On which day of the week did Nicole leave? 40. Indigenous companies are accumulating huge profits as
1) Tuesday 2) Thursday compared to multinational companies.
3) Sunday 4) Wednesday Directions (Q. 41-45): In each of the questions below
5) None of these are given four statements followed by four conclusions
34. Which of the following combinations of person-place is numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to assume everything in
not correct? the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
1) Ricky-Zimnbabwe 2) Tom-Holand with commonly known facts and then decide which of the
3) Nickole-SA 4) Moorie-Ireland four given conclusions logically follows from the statements,
5) All correct disregarding commonly known facts, and select the
35. Who left on Tuesday? appropriate answer.

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1) Tom 2) Megan 3) Joy 41. Statements: Some numbers are digits.
4) Moorie 5) None of these All digits are alphabets.
Directions (Q. 36-40): Below is given a passage followed No alphabet is a vowel.
by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the All consonants are vowels.
facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each Conclusions: I. No digit is a vowel.
inference separately in the context of the passage and decide II. No alphabet is a consonant.
upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer III. No vowel is a number.
1) if the inference is “definitely true”, ie it properly IV. All vowels are numbers.
follows from the statement of facts given. 1) Only I and III follow
2) if the inference is “probably true” though not 2) Only II and IV follow

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“definitely true” in the light of the facts given. 3) Only I and II follow
3) if the “data are inadequate”, ie from the facts given 4) Only I, II and III follow
you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be 5) Only I , II and either III or IV follow
true or false. 42. Statements: All documents are files.
4) if the inference is “probably false” though not Some files are papers.
“definitely false” in the light of the facts given. All papers are certificates.
5) if the inference is “definitely false”, ie it cannot No certificate is a manuscript.
possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts Conclusions: I. At least some documents are papers.
the given facts. II. No manuscript is a document.
Pharmaceutical science involves the synthesis and mass III. At least some certificates are files.
manufacture of drugs from natural and synthetic sources for IV. No paper is a document.
the treatment and prevention of diseases. Doctors rely on 1) Only I , II and IV follow
pharmaceutical companies for the development of new and 2) Only II and III follow
more effective drugs to combat diseases. Today, 3) Only I and IV follow
pharmaceutical sector is a highly competitive sector with lots 4) Only III follows
of companies competing for supremacy and market control. 5) None of these
Pharmacists are concerned with production, productive 43. Statements: No group is people.
processes, quality control and testing of drugs. All people are animals.
According to Indian government statistics, today the All animals are plants.
market comprises over 25000 manufacturing units; one-fifth All plants are roots.
of them involved in making bulk drugs. The fact that the Conclusions: I. No group is a plant.
industry has been showing nearly 10 per cent growth, II. All people are plants.
indicates the potential it has. With liberalisation in practice, III. At least some groups are plants.
there are many job opportunities opening up, especially in IV. All plants are groups.
multinational pharmaceutical companies.
 1) Only II follows 2) There are many institutes which have better
2) Only I and IV follow infrastructure than College XYZ.
3) Only II and III follow 3) The rate of enrolment in College XYZ has come down
4) Only III and IV follow in recent years.
5) None of these 4) Majority of the institutes have contradicted the
44. Statements: Some jobs are vacancies. findings of the magazine Pulse.
All jobs are works. 5) None of these
No work is a trade. 48. Statements: There are several types of wrist watches in
All professions are trades. the world. A new type of digital wrist watch has been
Conclusions: I. At least some works are jobs. introduced in the market which can calculate the life span
II. No vacancy is a trade. of a person. The wrist watch stops when the person
III. No profession is a work. dies.
IV. At least some works are professions. Which of the following can be concluded from the facts
1) All I, II, III and IV follow given in the statements?
2) Only II, III and IV follow 1) This could lead to chaos and confusion in the world.
3) Only I and IV follow 2) A person can know how long his life is left and he
4) None follows could live his life happily.
5) Only I and III follow 3) The new wrist watch has altered the life pattern of the

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45. Statements: All marks are grades. people.
No grade is a score. 4) The statement implies that death is certain.
All letters are scores. 5) None of these
All scores are characters. 49. Statements: The United States-based FMCG company
Conclusions: I. At least some letters are grades. has developed a new deodorant. The company selected
II. At least some scores are grades. a mediaperson couple for its promotion and marketing.
III. At least some characters are marks. They marketed it through television, radio, print, hoarding
IV. Some characters are letters. and social media.
1) Only II and IV follow Which of the assumptions is implicit in the above
2) Only IV follows statements? (An assumption is something supposed or
3) Only I and III follow taken for granted)

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4) All I, II, III and IV follow
5) None follows
46. Statements: A country X has no national gun act. There
is no firearms control and licensing mechanism in the
country. The general public is free to acquire gun. The
people require arms for their safety. This has ultimately
increased the crime rate considerably in the country.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from
the above statements?
1) It is not necessary to license gun or firearms.
2) The gun or firearms act is opposed by the people of
the country.
3) The Government should make all necessary
arrangements to enact firearms act.
4) Many countries in the world have no firearms act
5) None of these
47. Statement: According to a survey conducted by a
magazine Pulse, College XYZ ranked best among all the
MBA institutes in the country.
Which of the following statements substantiates the fact
expressed in the above statement?
1) A large number of students of College XYZ find better
placement after completing their course.
1) People do not pay heed to advertisements and buy
such goods as are available easily.
2) Marketing through electronic media has not proved
to be very effective.
3) People want to see film stars and famous sports
personality in the advertisement of an FMCG product.
4) Some people may tend to buy the deodorant of the
United States-based FMCG company.
5) None of these
50. Statement: The luxury car manufacturer Phantom has
increased the price of its stunning, fastest limousine car
by about 45 per cent.
Which of the following can be the best possible reason
for the above step taken by the car manufacturer?
1) The government is planning to review taxes on the
raw materials for manufacturing cars.
2) The car sales market is going through a jubilant phase
as the volume of sales has picked up considerably in
the recent past.
3) The limousine car is the best in its segment and no
other car is posing any challenge to this car.
4) Car buyers prefer to buy limousine car as it provides
efficient after-sales service.
5) None of these

Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
In any lively democracy the press and the politician have
a healthy mutual need. When politicians, political parties and
governments want to be heard they go in search of the press,
among other vital ingredients. With India’s highly politicised
reading public and a cynical middle class, unless there is a
political twist given to a speech, an iftar party or a meeting on
the front page, the newspaper would fold up — or at least so
the media believes. If a political party is particularly idle it will
use a front-page twist to raise a storm in Parliament sometimes
without bothering to ascertain the facts. All this is accepted
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as fair game as long as not much harm is done. However, the
very sine qua non of any story claiming to be news rather
than views has to be the unadulterated truth. Anything short
of verified truth can only be presented as opinion, speculation
or allegation. Without this, the edifice of credibility that a free
press is accorded in a democracy would crumble.
In dictatorships or controlled democracies the press must
write the truth as the ruling establishment wishes it to be
written. The Big Lie comes from on high. The press can then
rightly claim that their freedom is curtailed and disclaim
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responsibility for presenting the truth. However, in a
democracy in which the press has complete freedom to write
about anything it pleases, the responsibility for presenting
the truth and nothing but the truth devolves on the media.
A journalist being human and fallible is subject to the
same laws and rights as any other citizen. There is no right
given to him that overrides the rights of other individuals
and no law he need not bow before no matter what the
motivation for his story. It is only at the time of according
punishment to a lawbreaker that the judge can consider the
circumstances under which the crime was committed, but a
journalist cannot quote public interest to justify breaking a
law. Even a person from a law enforcement agency has the
right to drive through a red light only if he is on an authorised
mission to chase a suspected criminal.
It is also important to remember that freedom of expression
is a right given by the Constitution as much to the individual
as it is to the press. The right of the press to write about
persons is no less than the right of those persons to give
their version to the same public through whatever means
there are at their disposals, including through the press. It is
for the press to respect that right as a natural corollary of its
own right. Just as a reporter is unhappy if the proprietor is
unhappy, if the ruling establishment curtails the freedom of
the press, the ordinary citizen, be he the reader or the subject
matter of a story in the media, has the right to uncurtailed and
undiluted expression of his version and view of events. If
this two-way process did not exist and the press claimed the
unilateral right to freedom of expression in the garb of press
freedom, it would amount to the dictatorship of the press.
In the age of media trials and sensationalism it is even
more important that those in the media who genuinely believe
that democratic and civil rights take priority over profits
remember their responsibility to adhere to the truth, the law
and specified journalistic ethics.
51. What makes the political leaders get closer to the media?
1) to obtain information about their adversaries
2) to voice their opinion on different matters in public
and gain publicity
3) to settle political scores
4) to interfere with the functioning of the media
5) None of these
52. Why is it that a political twist given to a speech, iftar
party or a meeting is published on the front page of a
newspaper?
1) because politics has creeped into every area of human
activity
2) because of growing competition among newspapers
to make political issues their first priority
3) because of the hold of political leader on the masses
4) because the reader has little interest in other issues
5) None of these
53. What do you mean by the expression sine qua non as
used in the passage?
1) essential condition 2) root of information
3) place of origin 4) after-effect
5) None of these
54. Which of the following is true in the context of the
passage?
1) A journalist has got more powers regarding the right
to information than an ordinary citizen.
2) A journalist has the authority to break the law only in
matters of public interest.
3) Press is not as free in a dictatorship as in a democracy.
4) Freedom of expression is only meant for the press
and not for people in general.
5) None of these
55. How can the credibility of a free press in a democratic
setup be ensured?
1) by the press providing information on aspects other
than mere political issues
2) by publishing human interest stories
3) by giving equal space to every political party
4) by exposing corruption and malpractices prevalent in
the system
5) None of these
56. What is the basic difference between the functioning of Directions (Q. 63-65): Choose the word which is the
the press in a dictatorial regime and in a democracy? opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the
1) While in a dictatorship the rulers are the subject-matter passage.
for the press, in a democracy it is the people. 63. CURTAILED
2) While in a dictatorship the rulers sponsor the press, 1) guaranteed 2) extended 3) assured
in a democracy sponsorship comes from the people. 4) allowed 5) paved
3) While in a dictatorship the press has to be loyal to 64. UNILATERAL
the ruling class in any condition, such is not the case 1) bilateral 2) multilingual 3) universal
in a democracy. 4) global 5) basic
4) There is little public support to the press in a 65. ADHERE
dictatorship whereas it commands full public support 1) oppose 2) deny 3) counter
in a democracy. 4) defy 5) criticism
5) None of these Directions (Q. 66-70): In each of the following questions
57. “Even a person from a law enforcement agency has the four words are given, of which two words are most nearly the
right to drive through a red light only if he is on an same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are
authorised mission to chase a suspected criminal.” most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate
This means the number of the correct letter combination in your answer.
1) Law can only permit one to break the law. 66. A) Curb B) Courage

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2) No one is above law and all are equal on the parameters C) Control D) Identity
of law. 1) A - B 2) B - C 3) C - D
3) Law always takes its own course. 4) A - C 5) B - D
4) Only a person from a law enforcement agency has the 67. A) Components B) Ornamentation
right to break the law. C) Accessories D) Attachments
5) One can break the law if situation demands. 1) A - D 2) B - D 3) C - D
58. Which of the following is false in the context of the 4) A - C 5) B - C
passage? 68. A) Eagerly B) Radically
1) Politicians approach the press to be heard. C) Vigorously D) Severely
2) Any news story has to be factual. 1) A - C 2) B - D 3) B - C
3) Press is a free institution whether in a democracy or 4) A - B 5) C - D

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in a dictatorship. 69. A) Spurious B) Authorised
4) Any item published without having truth in it may be C) Attested D) Genuine
considered as views and not news. 1) A - D 2) A - C 3) A - B
5) None of these 4) B - D 5) B - C
59. What is the main theme of the passage? 70. A) Sensitive B) Immune
1) responsibilities of a free media C) Vulnerable D) Covered
2) media and politics 1) A - B 2) B - C 3) C - D
3) media and sensationalism 4) A - C 5) A - D
4) abuse of freedom of expression Directions: (Q. 71-75): In each of the following
5) None of these sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence
Directions (Q. 60-62): Choose the word which is the there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4)
same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the
passage. blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it
60. ASCERTAIN meaningfully complete.
1) examine 2) scrutinise 3) discover 71. A number of scientists in the country think that they are
4) approve 5) dismantle on the ________ of a major ________.
61. CRUMBLE 1) centre, achievement 2) gateway, breakthrough
1) buckle 2) ruin 3) periphery, success 4) threshold, overhaul
3) jolt 4) surrender 5) frontier, experimentation
5) collapse 72. Diseases are easily ________ through ________ with
62. COROLLARY infected animals.
1) occurrence 2) phenomenon 1) transferred, affinity 2) transported, closeness
3) ingredient 4) subsequent 3) transplanted, serving 4) transmitted, contact
5) consequence 5) generated, entertainment
73. You must ________ your house in order before you 84. 1) wherein 2) which 3) that
________ to offer advice to others. 4) how 5) when
1) set, venture 2) arrange, proceed 85. 1) difference 2) reduction 3) margin
3) organise, preach 4) adjust, think 4) deduction 5) cut
5) maintain, dare Directions (Q. 86-90): Read each sentence to find out
74. The Indian government should take ________ whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
________ to check terrorist activities in Jammu & The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
Kashmir. number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the
1) bold, policy answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
2) urgent, measurement 86. 1) To project Dr Ambedkar as / 2) just a Dalit icon, or treat
3) firm, steps him like / 3) a prophet, does not do / 4) justice of his
4) courageous, activities memory. / 5) No error
5) concrete, deployment 87. 1) An amaging magical place which / 2) is a fine synthesis
75. India’s relations with Pakistan are once again at of / 3) spiritual and natural / 4) wonder is Ladakh. / 5) No
________ ________. error
1) unprecedented, tense 88. 1) He lost both his legs / 2) on the day he was / 3) going
2) abnormal, hostility to write Delhi University / 4) BEd entrance exam. / 5) No
3) dispute, stages

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error
4) conflict, position
89. 1) All men between / 2) eighteen to forty-five without
5) low, ebb
exception / 3) are expected to serve / 4) in the army during
Direction (Q. 76-85): In the following passage, some of
a war. / 5) No error
the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a
number. Find the suitable word from the options given against 90. 1) Our neighbours are / 2) old fashioned and / 3) are very
each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to strictly / 4) with their children / 5) No error
make the paragraph meaningful.
A Surendran, Additional General Manager of
International Banking at Federal Bank, said banks expected
Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude
about $10 billion to (76) in. “The (77) of these inflows will be
Directions (Q. 91-95): What should come in place of

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seen only in the next (78). There may be an impact now but
not a major one, as these (79) have to be fresh deposits or the question mark (?) in the following questions?
renewal of deposits,” he said. 91. [(192)2 ÷ 64 × 24] ÷ 48 = ?
Reports say the total NRE, NRO (non-resident ordinary) 1) 83000 2) 82944 3) 82954
and FCNR deposits are at $51.97 billion as in October 2011. If 4) 82950 5) None of these
one (80) a one per cent (81) in the value of rupee and takes 92. 555.55 + 55.55 + 15 + 0.55 + 0.05 = ?
(82) account the (83) rates in other countries, NRIs have an 1) 626.65 2) 626.50 3) 625.70
option (84) they could borrow from their home countries and 4) 626.70 5) None of these
deposit in India, thereby making a clear (85) of 1-2 per cent. 93. (21% of 1326) – (17% of 932) = ?
76. 1) grow 2) blow 3) flow 1) 120.02 2) 206.05 3) 240.04
4) go 5) call 4) 120.20 5) None of these
77. 1) produce 2) consequent 3) resultant
4) impact 5) reaction 94. 182.25 = ?
78. 1) time 2) fiscal 3) year 1) 11.25 2) 12.5 3) 13.5
4) mensem 5) plan 4) 14.5 5) None of these
79. 1) tenders 2) money 3) cash
1 1
4) credits 5) deposits
80. 1) thinks 2) lends 3) assumes 95. (1331) 3 (343) 3 = ?
4) borrows 5) feels 1) 2 2) 5 3) 4
81. 1) grow 2) appreciation 3) plus 4) 3 5) None of these
4) dividend 5) cut Directions (Q. 96-100): What should come in place of
82. 1) into 2) for 3) in question mark (?) in the following number series?
4) to 5) out 96. 11 13 17 19 23 29 31 37 ?
83. 1) prime 2) lending 3) pulse 1) 47 2) 43 3) 41
4) increase 5) depreciation 4) 39 5) None of these
97. 165 195 255 285 345 ? 108. What is the sum of two consecutive odd numbers, the
1) 375 2) 420 3) 435 difference of whose squares is 64?
4) 390 5) None of these 1) 33 2) 18 3) 24
98. 7 26 63 124 215 342 ? 4) 25 5) 32
1) 481 2) 511 3) 391 109. The speed of a boat in still water is 15 kmph and rate of
4) 421 5) 451 current is 3 kmph, then distance travelled downstream in
99. 2 4 12 48 240 ? 20 minutes is
1) 1920 2) 960 3) 1080 1) 6 km 2) 5.8 km 3) 4 km
4) 1440 5) None of these 4) 7 km 5) 5 km
100. 8 7 11 12 14 17 17 22 ? 110. Ramesh starts a business with `8000 and after 18 months,
1) 20 2) 22 3) 24 Suresh joins Ramesh as his partner. After 6 years the
4) 27 5) None of these profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is Suresh’s
101. What is the probability of getting a sum ‘9’ from two contribution in the capital?
throws of a dice? 1) `8000 2) `16000 3) `24000
4) `32000 5) None of these
1 1 1
1) 2) 3) Directions (Q. 111-115): Study the following graph
6 8 9 carefully and answer accordingly:
1 The following graph shows the registration of

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4) 5) None of these new vehicles in Delhi in 2014.
12
102. Two dice are tossed. Probability that total score is in
prime number is 50 Cars Total Vehicles 45

1 5 1 45
36 36
1) 2) 3)
No. (in thousands)

40
6 12 2 35 27
30 25
7 22
4) 5) None of these 25
9 28
20
103. X alone can do a piece of work in 8 days and Y alone in 15 21 20
10 17
10 days. X and Y undertook to do it for `4800. With the

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15 15
help of Z they do it in 4 days. How much is to be paid to 5
Y? 0
1) `1200 2) `480 3) `580 Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun
4) `1820 5) `1920
104. Sunil can do a piece of work in 14 days. Raj is 40% more 111. What was the difference between the number of cars
efficient than Sunil. The number of days taken by Raj to registered in January and that in June?
do the same piece of work is 1) 2000 2) 6000 3) 4000
1) 12 days 2) 10 days 3) 8 days 4) 13000 5) None of these
4) 9 days 5) None of these 112. What was the number of vehicles other than cars
105. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to `945 in registered in March 2014?
4 years and to `964 in 5 years. The sum is 1) 5000 2) 37000 3) 40000
1) `687 2) ` 869 3) ` 589 4) 10000 5) None of these
4) `574 5) ` 458 113. What was the percentage increase in the number of
106. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man vehicles other than car registered from January to June?
standing on the platform in 24 seconds and 15 seconds 1) 200% 2) 183.33% 3) 190%
respectively and they cross each other in 21 seconds. 4) 180% 5) None of these
Ratio of their speed is 114. In which of the following months the % registration of
1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 3 cars with respect to the previous month the maximum?
4) 2 : 3 5) 3 : 4 1) February 2) March 3) June
107. Raj went to a shop and bought things worth `24, out of 4) April 5) None of these
which 28 paise went on sale tax on taxable purchases. If 115. In which of the following months was the registration of
the tax rate was 4%, then what is the cost of tax free item? vehicles other than cars the maximum?
1) `17.28 2) `15.72 3) `16.72 1) April 2) June 3) May
4) `17 5) `14.72 4) March 5) None of these
 Directions (Q. 116-120): Each of the questions below 123. I. 4p 2 5p 1 0
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II II. 80q 2 18q 1 0
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
124. I. 4p + 8q = 3
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
the question and both the statements and give answer II. 12p + 16q = 7
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer 125. I. q 2 9q 14 0
the question, while the data in statement II alone are II. p 2 23p 112 0
not sufficient to answer the question. Directions (Q. 126-130): Study the following graph
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer carefully and answer accordingly:
the question, while the data in statement I alone are The following graph shows the percentage
not sufficient to answer the question. profit of two companies over the years
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II 80
alone are sufficient to answer the question. 75
70 70
4) if the data even in both the statements I and II together 65
60 60
are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are 50 50
50 45
necessary to answer the question. 40 40 35 50
35
116. A train running at a certain speed crosses a platform in 30 30

K
20 secs. What is the speed of the train? 25
20 20
I. Length of the train is 132 m.
10 A B
II. The train crosses a man who is on the platform in 11
seconds. 0
117. The weights of A, B and C are in the ratio of 8 : 7 : 5. A’s 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002
weight is 60% more than C’s. Find the weight of B. Year
I. Total weight of A, B and C is 100 kg. 126. If the difference between the income of company B in
II. Difference between A’s and C’s weights is 15 kg. 2002 and that of A in 1997 was `405 lakhs, what was the
118. A shopkeeper sells some articles, taking profit of 20% on difference between the expenditure of company B in 2002
the cost price. Find the amount of profit. and that of A in 1997?

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I. Cost price of the article is `1200. 1) `325 lakhs 2) `350 lakhs
II. Selling price of the article is `240 more than the cost 3) `300 lakhs 4) Can’t be determined
price. 5) None of these
119. A 180-m-long plot of rectangular land is to be fenced. 127. In which of the following years is the ratio of expenditure
Find the cost of fencing per square metre. to income for company B the least?
I. Breadth of the rectangular plot is 30 m. 1) 1999 2) 1996
II. Length of the rectangular plot is 60 m. 3) 2001 4) 1998
120. The difference between the simple interest and the 5) 2000
compound interest on a sum of money at the end of four 128. If the income of company A in 2000 was equal to the
years is `641. Find the sum. expenditure of company B in 1997, find the ratio of the
I. Amount of simple interest accrued after four years is income of company B in 1997 to the expenditure of
`4000. company A in 2000.
II. Rate of interest is 10% per annum. 1) 8 : 15 2) 5 : 6
Directions (Q. 121-125): For the two given equations 3) 6 : 5 4) 15 : 8
I and II give answer 5) None of these
1) if p is greater than q 129. If the income of company A in 2002 was `660 lakhs, find
2) if p is smaller than q the expenditure of company A in the same year.
3) if p is equal to q 1) `600 lakhs 2) `450 lakhs
4) if p is either equal to or greater than q
3) `400 lakhs 4) Data inadequate
5) if p is either equal to or smaller than q
5) None of these
121. I. 3p + 4q = 5 130. If the income of company B in 1998 was `450 lakhs, find
II. p + 2q = 2 the expenditure of company B in 2000.
122. I. 2q 2 3q 1 0 1) `300 lakhs 2) `400 lakhs
II. 2p 2 5p 3 0 3) `675 lakhs 4) Can’t be determined
5) None of these
 Directions (Q. 131-135): Study the following table Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the following pie-charts
carefully and answer accordingly: below and answer the questions that follow:
The following table shows the major Classification of candidates from different states who
currencies in Dollar terms appeared and qualified in a competitive exam
MP
Pound Deutsch Yen
Date Euro Gujarat UP
Sterling Mark (100 units) 10%
5% 18%
May 19 1.5088 0.4739 0.9164 0.9269
7%
Mumbai 15% Bihar
May 20 1.4991 0.4727 0.9141 0.9246 12%
20% 13% Punjab
May 21 1.4989 0.4735 0.9113 0.9262
Delhi
Haryana
May 22 1.4914 0.4689 0.9180 0.9171
Candidates appeared (2 lakh)
May 23 1.4901 0.4640 0.9213 0.9074
MP
10% UP
131. On which date was the value of Euro maximum against

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14%
Dollar? Gujarat Bihar
1) May 19 2) May 20 12% 10%
3) May 21 4) May 22
Punjab
5) May 23
Mumbai 8%
132. Which currency’s value increases continuously against
Dollar? 19% Haryana
Delhi
1) Euro 6%
21%
2) Yen
3) Deutsche Mark Candidates qualified (16500)
4) Pound Sterling 136. What is the difference between the number of candidates

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5) None of these who qualified from Gujarat, MP and UP together and
133. Which currency’s value is maximum against Dollar? that of those who qualified from Bihar and Punjab
1) Pound Sterling 2) Deutsche Mark together?
3) Yen 4) Euro 1) 3045 2) 2603 3) 2970
5) Data inadequate 4) 2556 5) None of these
134. One Deutsche Mark is equal to how many Pound 137. What is the percentage of the number of candidates
Sterlings on May 19? who qualified from UP and Bihar together with repect to
1) 3.2114 2) 0.31 those who appeared from Delhi and Haryana?
3) 0.40 4) 3.1837 1) 9.6% 2) 6.8% 3) 6%
5) 3.4324 4) 8% 5) None of these
135. In the following questions an equation is presented in 138. What is the ratio of the number of candidates who
four parts with ‘=’ sign in between the parts. The four appeared from UP to that of those who qualified from
parts of the equation are numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. One of Mumbai, Delhi, Haryana and Punjab together?
these parts in the equation may be wrong and therefore 1) 3 : 2 2) 57 : 79 3) 5 : 9
may not yield the same result as the others do. Find out 4) 125 : 108 5) None of these
the wrong part, if any. (If all the four parts are correctly 139. Which of the following states has the least percentage
equated, the answer is 5, ie No error.) of number of candidates who qualified with respect to
1) 15 × 28 ÷ 4 – 96 ÷ 8 + 13 × 4 – 4 + 1 appeared from that state?
2) 3 343 3 216 + 9 × 10 + 9 1) Haryana 2) Delhi 3) Mumbai
3) 80 + 45 ÷ 5 – 17 × 5 + 25 × 6 – 13 4) Gujarat 5) UP
140. In which of the following states the percentage of the
4) 625 49 20% of 170 number of qualified candidates with respect to the number
5) No error
of appeared candidates is the maximum?
1) Haryana 2) Gujarat 3) Mumbai
4) Delhi 5) UP
 3) Metropolitan Life Insurance Company
Test-IV: General Awareness 4) BNP Paribas
5) None of these
(With Special Reference to Banking Industry)
150. The ICC made changes in the rules for ODIs, recently, on
the recommendations made by the ICC’s cricket
141. The output of eight infrastructure sectors expanded by
committee headed by
4.4 per cent in May. Which of the following industries is
1) Kapil Dev 2) Saurabh Ganguly
NOT one of the eight core sector industries?
3) Sachin Tendulkar 4) Anil Kumble
1) Fertilizer 2) Textile 3) Cement
5) None of these
4) Steel 5) Petroleum refinery
151. The govt has issued rules to raise limit on funds
142. India and which of the following countries have signed
individuals can take abroad under liberalised remittances
an MoU to establish the `50 cr ($7.9 mn) PACEsetter
scheme. The limit has been raised to
Fund? It aims to accelerate commercialisation of
1) $1.25 lakh 2) $1.50 lakh 3) $2 lakh
innovation in off-grid clean energy solutions.
4) $2.5 lakh 5) None of these
1) Germany 2) France 3) Canada
152. As per extant instructions, the maximum value that can
4) Norway 5) US
be stored in any prepaid card (issued by banks and
143. The World Diabetes Day (WDD) is observed on
authorised non-bank entities) at any point of time is
1) 6 Nov 2) 10 Nov 3) 12 Nov
1) `10,000 2) `20,000 3) `50,000

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4) 14 Nov 5) 16 Nov
4) `75,000 5) `100,000
144. Which of the following terms is NOT used in banking/
153. We often read about the OROP in newspapers now a
finance?
day. What does the term OROP stand for?
1) Credit Default Swaps
1) One Rank, One Provision
2) Electronic Clearing System
2) One Rank, One Position
3) Sudden Death
3) One Rank, One Perks
4) Blue Chip
4) One Rank, One Pension
5) RTGS
5) None of these
145. Yevgeny Primakov died at 85 recently. The journalist,
154. Which of the following firms has emerged as the top
diplomat and a seasoned spy was the former Prime
Indian corporate to earn the highest net profit for
Minister of

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2014-15?
1) Russia 2) Kazakhstan 3) Ukraine
1) Coal India 2) SBI
4) Belarus 5) Ukraine
3) TCS 4) ONGC
146. Bangladesh signed an agreement with which country to
5) Reliance Industries
construct a 3.5-km tunnel under the Karnaphuli River in
155. King Carl Gustaf and Queen Silvia welcomed President
Chittagong at a cost likely to be over $ 1 bn recently?
Pranab Mukherjee on May 31, 2015 in which of the
1) Japan 2) South Korea
following countries during his visit?
3) China 4) Malaysia
1) Norway 2) Belarus 3) Spain
5) Singapore
4) Sweden 5) None of these
147. Even individuals without a bank account (walk-in
156. The sale and registration of any new four-wheeled
customers) can deposit cash at the NEFT-enabled bank
vehicle not complying with BS-IV emission norms will
branches using NEFT restricted to a maximum of
not be allowed anywhere in the country from
________per transaction.
1) Dec 2015 2) Jan 2016
1) `20,000 2) `25,000 3) `50,000
3) Apr 2017 4) Sep 2017
4) `100,000 5) `200,000
5) Jun 2018
148. Arun Shrivastava is the present managing director &
157. Name the ace Indian archer who won a bronze in the
chief executive officer of which of the following public
women’s individual recurve event of the World Cup on
sector banks?
31 May in Antalya (Turkey).
1) Indian Bank 2) Union Bank of India
1) Deepika Kumari 2) Chekrovolu Swuro
3) Bank of India 4) Canara Bank
3) Dola Banerjee 4) Bombayla Devi Laishram
5) Syndicate Bank
5) None of these
149. Who among the following is the SBI’s JV partner in its
158. How many languages appear in the language panel of
life insurance venture SBI Life?
Indian banknotes in addition to Hindi and English?
1) American International Group
1) 9 2) 11 3) 13
2) Tokio Life
4) 15 5) 22
159. India has signed a 10-year defence framework agreement, member, ending 20 years of negotiation?
which contain a specific reference to the Defense 1) Maldives 2) Seychelles 3) Fiji
Technology & Trade Initiative (DTTI), with which of the 4) Myanmar 5) Cuba
following countries? 169. The first ‘International Day of Yoga’ was observed
1) South Korea 2) Japan recently on
3) US 4) Russia 1) 14 Jul 2) 23 Sep 3) 15 May
5) Israel 4) 14 Sep 5) 21 Jun
160. The Union Information and Broadcasting (I&B) ministry 170. The window for banks to borrow from Reserve Bank of
has appointed who among the following as director India (RBI) in emergency situation when inter-bank
general (news) in Doordarshan (DD)? liquidity dries up completely, is called
1) Akshay Rout 2) Veena Jain 1) Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
3) Sanjeev Srivastava 4) Rajdeep Sardesai 2) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
5) None of these 3) Call money
161. Which of the following is NOT a public sector bank 4) Repo rate
(PSB) operating in India? 5) None of these
1) Federal Bank 2) IDBI Bank 171. Which of the following is the only cricket team to win
3) Indian Bank 4) Vijaya Bank the ICC Cricket World Cup five times?
5) Andhra Bank 1) West Indies 2) Australia 3) India

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162. According to just-released data from the 2011 census, 4) Sri Lanka 5) England
about what per cent of all girls aged 19 in India having 172. The IFSC Code is an alphanumeric code used in RTGS
married? and NEFT transactions. What does letter ‘S’ denote in
1) 20 per cent 2) 21 per cent the term IFSC?
3) 33 per cent 4) 41 per cent 1) Subscriber 2) Station 3) State
5) None of these 4) System 5) Source
163. The software giant Microsoft has unveiled its new 173. Which of the following is NOT a general insurance
product named ‘Edge’ which is its new company functioning in India?
1) web browser 1) HDFC Ergo
2) word processor 2) ICICI Lombard
3) spreadsheet programme 3) Oriental Insurance Company

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4) mobile operating system 4) IFFCO Tokio
5) None of these 5) None of these
164. The banks have fixed the upper limit on withdrawals at 174. The Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) started their
micro automatic teller machines (ATMs) at development process on 2 Oct 1975 with the formation
1) `1,000 2) `2,000 3) `5,000 of Prathama Grameen Bank in Moradabad. This bank
4) `10,000 5) `15,000 was sponsored by
165. The CCI is now starting intense analysis of multi-sided 1) State Bank of India (SBI)
high technology market as it looks to boost its vigil 2) Punjab National Bank (PNB)
against unfair business ways. Here, the term CCI stands 3) Syndicate Bank
for 4) Indian Bank
1) Costing Commission of India 5) Bank of Baroda
2) Coordination Commission of India 175. Who among the following is NOT a deputy governor of
3) Competition Commission of India the RBI at present?
4) Customs Commission of India 1) HR Khan 2) Anand Sinha 3) SS Mundra
5) None of these 4) R Gandhi 5) Urjit R Patel
166. India has 29 states and ________Union Territories 176. What is the tagline of ICICI bank?
(UTs). 1) Together we prosper
1) seven 2) six 3) five 2) Khayal aapka
4) four 5) nine 3) Relationships beyond Banking
167. Yuki Bhambri is associated with the game of 4) India’s International Bank
1) badminton 2) tennis 3) squash 5) A tradition of trust
4) hockey 5) shooting 177. Ashok Bhooshan assumed office as the Chief Justice of
168. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) on 27 Apr which of the following High Courts recently?
welcomed which of the following countries as its 161st 1) Allahabad High Court
 2) Kerala High Court 187. All of the following are examples of real security and
3) Punjab and Haryana High Court privacy risks EXCEPT
4) Delhi High Court 1) Hackers 2) Spam
5) Guwahati High Court 3) Viruses 4) Identity theft
178. The govt has approved launch of National 5) None of these
Supercomputing Mission to connect national academic 188. If you want to move an icon on your desktop, this is
and R&D institutions at an estimated cost of called ________
1) `5,000 cr 2) `4,500 cr 3) `5,500 cr 1) double clicking 2) highlighting
4) `7,500 cr 5) None of these 3) draggin 4) pointing
179. The ICC Cricket World Cup 2019 will be hosted by 5) None of these
1) South Africa 2) India 3) Sri Lanka 189. A computer checks the ________ of user names and
4) England 5) None of these passwords for a match before granting access.
180. Presently, India has how many river stretches declared 1 ) website 2) network 3) backup file
as National Waterways? 4) database 5) None of these
1) Three 2) Five 3) Seven 190. Computers that are portable and convenient for users
4) Nine 5) 11 who travel are known as ________
1) supercomputers 2) laptops
3) minicomputers 4) file servers

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Test-V: Computer Knowledge 5) None of these
191. Deleted data remains on a disk until
181. What is backup ? 1) the data is overwritten
1) Adding more components to your network 2) the recycle bin is emptied
2) Protecting data by copying it from the original source 3) a file compression utility is used
to a different destination 4) the disk is scanned
3) Filtering old data from the new data 5) None of these
4) Accessing data on tape 192. The________enables your computer to connect to other
5) None of these computers.
182. Which of the following is true ? 1) video card

KUNDAN
1) byte is a single digit in a binary number 2) sound card
2) bit represents a grouping of digital numbers 3) network interface card (NIC)
3) eight-digit binary number is called a byte 4) controller card
4) eight-digit binary number is called a bit 5) None of these
5) None of these 193. What menu is selected to save or save as ?
183. A hard copy of a file created on a computer refers to data 1) Tools 2) File 3) Format
1) saved on a floppy disk 4) Edit 5) None of these
2) printed on a printer 194. To make the number pad act as directional arrows, you
3) backed up on a tape drive press the________key.
4) sent as an e-mail 1) num lock 2) caps lock 3) arrows lock
5) None of these 4) shift 5) None of these
184. A ______ is an organised collection of data about a 195. A button that makes character either upper or lower case
single entity. and numbers to symbols.
1) file 2) library 3) database 1) monitor 2) shift key 3) icon
4) dictionary 5) None of these 4) mouse 5) None of these
185. Something which has easily-understood instructions is 196. If you type a word that is not in Word’s dictionary, a
said to be wavy ________ underline appears below the word.
1) user-friendly 2) information 1) red 2) green 3) blue
3) word processing 4) icon 4) black 5) None of these
5) None of these 197. Which of the following is considered a vulnerability of
186. Hardware devices that are not part of the main computer SNMP?
system and are often added later to the system are 1) Clear text community strings
________ 2) Its use of TCP
1) clip art 2) highlight 3) execute 3) The fact that it is on by default in Windows 2000
4) peripherals 5) None of these server
 4) The fact that it is on by default in Windows XP 2) The ACK received will include the segment number
Professional that was not received.
5) None of these 3 ) The sending host will send a PACK to verify segment
198. Network routing information distributed among routers receipt.
is stored in which of the following? 4) The destination host will send a YACK message back
1) Flash memory 2) Route table to the sending host.
3) Metric table 4) NVRAM 5) None of these
5) Router memory 200. Small application programs that run on a Web page and
199. If the destination did not receive a segment, how will the may ensure a form is completed properly or provide
TCP host know to resend the information? animation are known as ________
1) The ACK received will not include the segment 1) flash 2) spiders 3) cookies
number that was not received. 4) applets 5) sparks

Answers and Explanations

(1-5): The machine rearranges words and numbers in such From 4): K(–)
a way that words are arranged in alphabetical order |
from left side while numbers are arranged in M(+) — L

K
descending order from right side in each step. Hence, 4) is our correct choice.
Input: 10 get 89 41 ace bed done 45 nor 73 60 made 9. 2; Reject 1) because it gives no idea regarding the sex
Step I. ace 10 get 41 bed done 45 nor 73 60 made 89 of D. Reject 4) because it represents D as a male.
Step II. bed ace 10 get 41 done 45 nor 60 made 89 73 Now from 2):
Step III. done bed ace 10 get 41 45 nor made 89 73 60 C(–) D(–)
|
Step IV. get done bed ace 10 41 nor made 89 73 60 45
B(–) – A
Step V. made get done bed ace 10 nor 89 73 60 45 41
Hence, D is the aunt of B.
Step VI. nor made get done bed ace 89 73 60 45 41 10 From 3):
1. 1 2. 2 3. 4 4. 4 5. 3 A(+) D(–)
6. 3; Suppose the man in the photograph is X and the | |

KUNDAN
woman who is pointing to the photograph is Y. B — C(–)
Now, the given statements give us following family Hence, from (3), D is the mother of ‘B’.
tree where 10. 2
P is the son of X, Q is daughter of X, R is the husband (11-15):
of Q, and Z is the husband of Y.
Games
X(+) Cities
Chess Hockey Badminton
P(+) Q (–) R (+) Hyderabad G D —
Bangalore F — C
Y(–) Z(+)
Mumbai E B A
Hence woman’s husband (Z) is grandson of the man 11. 2; Chess.
(X) in the photograph. 12. 2; Mumbai.
7. 3; Total boys in the row = 12 + 4 – 1 = 15 13. 5; Farhan, Gita, Ela.
Hence (28 – 15 =) 13 boys should be added to the 14. 4; Ela, Bhusan, Anil.
row. 15. 3; Badminton.
8. 4; From 1): (16-20): Only three possible arrangement are possible:
M (+ )
Harshit, Gautam, Rahul, Karan,
|
Dhananjay, Saurav,Pawan ...(1)
L — (–)K
Rahul, Gautam, Pawan, Harshit,
We get M is the father of K.
Dhananjay, Saurav, Karan ...(2)
From 2): ‘÷’ represents M is a female whereas ‘+’
Rahul, Harshit, Gautam, Pawan,
represents that M is a male. Hence, reject 2) also.
Karan, Dhananjay, Saurav ...(3)
From 3): We have no idea regarding the sex of M.
Hence reject 3) also. 16. 2; Two boys.
 17. 1; Saurav. are certificates (A) = I + A = I = Some files are
18. 1; Second from the right hand. certificates (I) conversion Some certificates
19. 2; Only one Boy, Dhananjay. are files. Hence, conclusion III follows.
20. 1; Pawan. 43. 5; All people are animals (A) + All animals are plants
21. 4 22. 3 23. 5 24. 5 25. 5 (A) = A + A = A = All people are plants. Hence,
26. 4 27. 5 28. 2 29. 1 30. 4 conclusion II follows. Now, No group is people (E)
(31-35): + All people are plants (A) = E + A = O* = Some
plants are not groups. Thus, conclusion I, III and IV
Person Place Day do not follow. However, I and III make a
Ricky Zimbabwe Monday complementary E-I pair. Hence, either I or III follows.
Megan Australia Tuesday 44. 5; All jobs are works (A) implication Some works
are jobs (I). Hence, conclusion I follows.
Tom Holand Wednesday
Again, Some jobs are vacancies (I) conversion
Nickole South Africa Thursday Some vacancies are jobs (I) + All jobs are works
Sumit Canada Friday (A) = I + A = I = Some vacancies are works (I) + No
Joy England Saturday work is a trade (E) = I + E = O = Some vacancies are
Moorie Ireland Sunda not trades. Hence, conclusion II does not follow.
Now, No work is a trade (E) No trade is a work
31. 2 32. 3 33. 2 34. 5 35. 2

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36. 2; Service provided through pharmaceuticals and its
nature of job make it probably true.
37. 1; Passage says that pharmacists are concerned with
different types of work such as production,
productive processes, quality control and testing
of drugs etc. And the last sentence of the passage
says that there are many job opportunities opening
up.
38. 3
39. 5; According to the passage, more than 5000
Again, All professions are trades (A) + No trade is a
work (E) = A + E = E = No profession is a work.
Hence, conclusion III follows. But conclusion IV
does not follow.
45. 2; No grade is a score (E) conversion No score is
a grade (E). Now, All letters are scores (A) + No
score is a grade (E) = A + E = E = No letter is a grade
(E). Hence, conclusion I does not follow. And
conclusion II does not follow from statement II.
Again, All marks are grades (A) + No grade is a
score (E) = A + E + E = No mark is a score (E) + All

KUNDAN
manufacturing units are involved in making bulk
drugs.
40. 4; Job prospects are better for an individual in MNCs.
It is likely MNCs are in a stronger position than
indigenous companies. Hence, the inference drawn
seems false.
41. 3; All digits are alphabets (A) + No alphabet is a vowel
(E) = A + E = E = No digit is a vowel. Hence,
conclusion I follows.
No alphabet is a vowel (E) conversion No
vowel is an alphabet (E).
Now, All consonants are vowels (A) + No vowel is
an alphabet (E) = A + E = E = No consononant is an
alphabet (E) conversion No alphabet is a
consonant. Hence, conclusion II follows.
Again, Some numbers are digits + All digits are
alphabets = I + A = I = Some numbers are alphabets
(I) + No alphabet is a vowel (E) = I + E = O = Some
numbers are not vowels. Hence, conclusion III and
IV do not follow.
42. 5; All documents are files (A) + Some files are papers
(I) = A + I = No conclusion. Hence, conclusion I, II
and IV do not follow. However, I and conversion of
IV make a complementary pair. Hence, either I or IV
follows. Again Some files are papers (I) + All papers
scores are characters (A) = E + A = O* = Some
characters are not marks. Hence, conclusion III does
not follow. But All letters are scores (A) + All scores
are characters (A) = A + A = A = All letters are
characters (A) conversion Some characters
are letters (I). Hence, conclusion IV follows.
46. 3; The Government should make all necesssary
arrangements to enact firearms act. Firearms should
not be let free because they increase crimes in the
country.
47. 1; If students of a college find better placement, it
indicates the good quality of the institute.
48. 4; The wrist watch calculates the life span of a person.
But when the person dies the wrist watch stops. It
means the statement says that death is certain.
Hence, option 4) follows.
49. 4; It is with prospective customers in mind that
marketing campaigns are launched.
50. 5; The reason for such a steep hike in prices must be a
rise in input prices. Only choice 1 talks about such a
rise – increase in taxes on raw materials. However,
note that the govt is still planning to review taxes.
And actual prices are not increased on mere
anticipation.
51. 2; When politicians want to be heard by the people
1 1
they go in search of the media. They use media as = (11) 3 3 (7 ) 3 3
the vehicle to gain publicity.
52. 4; Because it gains easy acceptability among India’s = 11 7 4 =2
highly politicised reading public and a cynical middle
96. 3; All are prime numbers.
class and if political twist is not there in a front-page
97. 3; The series is:
story it may be rejected.
15 × 11 = 165
53. 1
15 × 13 = 195
54. 3; In a dictatorship the press has to oblise the rulers.
15 × 17 = 255
55. 5; Anything short of verified truth cannot be presented
15 × 19 = 285
as news and they can only be presented as views, ie
15 × 23 = 345
opinion, speculation or allegation.
56. 3; In a dictatorship the press must write the truth as 15 × 29 = 435
the ruling class wishes it to be written whereas in a 98. 2; The series is:
democracy nothing influences the reality. 23 – 1 = 7
57. 2 58. 3 59. 1 60. 1 61. 5 33 – 1 = 26
62. 5 63. 2 64. 1 65. 4 43 – 1 = 63
66. 4; same 53 – 1 = 124

K
67. 3; same 63 – 1 = 215
68. 2; same 73 – 1 = 342
69. 1; opposite
83 – 1 = 511
70. 2; opposite
71. 2 72. 4 73. 1 74. 3 75. 5 99. 4; The series is:
76. 3 77. 1 78. 5 79. 4 80. 2 2×2=4
81. 3 82. 5 83. 4 84. 1 85. 2 4 × 3 = 12
86. 4; Replace ‘of’ with ‘to’ 12 × 4 = 48
87. 5 48 × 5 = 240
88. 5 240 × 6 = 1440

KUNDAN
89. 2; Replace ‘to’ with ‘and’
100. 1; These are two series:
90. 3; Replace ‘strictly’ with ‘strict’ 8, 11, 14, 17, 20 and 7, 12, 17, 22
91. 2; After solving this we find value = 288 Next number is 20.
? (288) 2 82944 101. 3; In two throws of die, n(S) = 6 × 6 = 36
92. 4 Let E = event of getting sum ‘9’
93. 1; ? = (21% of 1326) – (17% of 932) = {(3, 6) (6, 3) (4, 5) (5, 4)}
n ( E) 4 1
21 1326 17 932 P(E) =
= n (S) 36 9
100 100
= 278.46 – 158.44 102. 2; n(S) = 6 × 6 = 36
= 120.02 E = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 3), (2, 5), (3, 2),
Alternate Method: (3, 4), (4, 1), (4, 3), (5, 2), (5, 6), (6, 1), (6, 5)}
? = (21% of 1326) – (17% of 932) n(E) = 15
= 21% of 17 × 78 – 17% of 932 n (E ) 15 5
= 17% of (21 × 78 – 932) P(E) = n (S) 36 12
= 17% of (1638 – 932)
= 17% of 706 1 1 1 1 9 1
= 120.02 103. 5; Z’s 1 day’s work =
4 8 10 4 40 40
18225 135 1 1 1
94. 3; ? = 182.25 = 13.5 X’s wages : Y’s wages : Z’s wages = : :
100 10 8 10 40
1 1 =5:4:1
95. 1; ? = (1331) 3 (343) 3 4800
Y’s share = 4 = 4 × 480 = `1920
10
104. 2; Ratio of time taken by Sunil and Raj = 140 : 100 Quicker Method: Just check in which month there
=7:5 is the maximum gap between car and total vehicles.
Let Raj take x days to do the work. 116. 5; Combining both the statements together,
7 : 5 : : 14 : x 132 18
Solving this x = 10 ie 10 days. Speed of the train = 43.2 km / hr
11 5
105. 2; SI for 1 year = 964 – 945 = `19
SI for 4 year = 19 × 4 = `76 100
117. 3; I. Weight of B = 7 35 kg
Amount = 945 – 76 = `869 20
106. 1; Let their speeds x m/sec and y m/sec.
Length of first train = 24x m and second train = 15y m 15
II. Weight of B = 7 35 kg
3
24x 15y
= 21 Hence, either statement I alone or II alone is
x y sufficient answer the question.
24x + 15y = 21x + 21y 118. 3; I. Amount of profit = 20% of 1200 = `240
3x = 6y II. SP - CP = 240 = Amount of profit.
Hence, either statement I alone or II alone is
x 6 2 sufficient to answer the question.
y 3 1
=2:1 119. 4; Cost of fencing per square metre is not given. So,

K
107. 3; Let the amount taxable purchases be `x. even combining both the statements together, total
cost of fencing can’t be determined.
28 120. 2; From statement II alone:
So 4% of x = 0.28 =
100 Let the sum be `P.
28 100 4
x= =7 10 P 10 4
100 4 P 1 P
100 100 = 641
Cost = {24 – (7 + 0.28)} = 24 – 7.28 = `16.72
108. 5; Let the numbers be x and x + 2.
P = `1000
(x + 2)2 – x2 = 64
Hence, statement II alone is sufficient to answer the

KUNDAN
4x + 4 = 64
question.
x = 15
121. 1; I. 3p + 4q = 5
Numbers are 15 and 17.
or, 6 - 6q + 4q = 5
Sum = 15 + 17 = 32
or, 2q = 1 or, q = 1/2
109. 1; Speed downstream = 15 + 3 = 18 kmph
II. p + 2q = 2
20 1 or, 3p + 6q = 6
Distance travelled = 18 18 = 6 km
60 3 or, 3p = 6 – 6q
110. 2; Let share of Suresh be x. 1
Also, 3p = 6 - 6q = 6 6 6 3 3
8000 72 2 2
Then
x 54 3 or, 3p = 3
111. 5; Reqd difference = 28 - 21 = 7000 or, p = 1
112. 4; No. of vehicles other than car registered in March Hence, p > q
2014 = 25 - 15 = 10000 122. 4; I. 2q 2 3q 1 0
113. 2; No. of vehicles other than car registered in January
= 27 - 21 = 6000 1
No. of vehicles other than car registered in June or, q = 1,
2
= 45 - 28 = 17000
II. 2p 2 5p 3 0
17000 6000
Reqd % increase = 100 183.33%
6000 3
or, p = 1,
114. 3; There is maximum slope between the months of May 2
and June. Hence, p q.
115. 3; Registration of vehicles other than cars is maximum 123. 1; I. 4p 2 5p 1 0
in the month of May.
 1 128. 4; i 00 A e 97 B = `x lakhs
or, p = 1,
4 125
i 97 B e 97 B
2 100 125 150
II. 80q 18q 1 0 15 : 8
e 00 A 100 100 100
i 00 A
or, 80q 2 10q 8q 1 0 150
or, (8q - 1) (10q - 1) = 0 100
129. 3; Expenditure of A in 2002 = 660 = `400 lakhs
1 1 165
or, q = , 130. 4; Without knowing the income for different years, the
8 10
Hence, p > q expenditure value can’t be determined
124. 3; I. 4p + 8q = 3 131. 5; Decrease in amount indicates increase in value.
or, 12p + 24q = 9 132. 4 133. 1
or, 12p = 9 - 24q 0.4739
II. 12p + 16q = 7 134. 2; One Deutsche Mark = = 0.31 pound sterling
1.5085
or, 9 - 24q + 16q = 7 135. 1; Other parts are equal to 141
or, 8q = 2 136. 3; Reqd difference in the number of qualified candidate
2 1 = 36% of 16500 – 18% of 16500

K
or, q =
8 4 18 16500
= 18% of 16500 = = 2970
100
1
Also, 12p = 9 24 9 6 3 137. 3; The number of qualified candidates (UP + Bihar)
4
24% of 16500 = 3960
1 No. of candidates appeared (Delhi and Haryana)
or, p 33% of 2 lakh = 66000
4
Hence, p = q 3960
Reqd % = 100 = 6%
125. 4; I. q 2 9q 14 0 66000
138. 5; The number of candidates appeared from UP 18%

KUNDAN
or, q 2 7q 2q 14 0 of 2 lakh = 36000
or, (q - 7) (q - 2) = 0 The number of candidates qualified from Mumbai,
or, q = 2 or, 7 Delhi, Haryana and Punjab
= 54% of 16500 = 8910
II. p 2 23p 112 0
36000 400
or, p 2 16p 7 p 112 0 Ratio = = 400 : 99
8910 99
or, (p - 16) (p - 7) = 0 139. 1; Haryana
or, p = 7 or, 16 140. 2; Gujarat
Hence, p q. 141. 2 142. 5 143. 4 144. 3 145. 3
126. 3; i 02 B i 97 A 405 146. 3 147. 3 148. 5 149. 4 150. 4
151. 4 152. 3 153. 4 154. 5 155. 4
100 100
e 02 B e 97 A i 02 B i 97 A 156. 3 157. 1 158. 4 159. 3 160. 2
135 135
161. 1 162. 4 163. 1 164. 4 165. 3
100 166. 1 167. 2 168. 2 169. 5 170. 1
= i 02 B i 97 A
135 171. 2 172. 4 173. 5 174. 3 175. 2
176. 2 177. 2 178. 2 179. 4 180. 2
100
= 405 = `300 lakhs 181. 2 182. 3 183. 2 184. 1 185. 1
135
186. 4 187. 2 188. 3 189. 4 190. 2
127. 1; Ratio of expenditure to income for company B is the
191. 2 192. 3 193. 2 194. 1 195. 2
least when the percentage profit is maximum. Hence,
in 1999 the ratio was least. 196. 1 197. 1 198. 5 199. 2 200. 1