RENR PRACTICE TEST C

1. Medical management of the client with diverticulitis should include which of the following treatments?
A. Reduced fluid intake
B. Increased fiber in diet
C. Administration of antibiotics
D. Exercises to increase intra-abdominal pressure

2. Crohn’s disease can be described as a chronic relapsing disease. Which of the following areas in the GI system
may be involved with this disease?
A. The entire length of the large colon
B. Only the sigmoid area
C. The entire large colon through the layers of mucosa and submucosa
D. The small intestine and colon; affecting the entire thickness of the bowel

3. Which area of the alimentary canal is the most common location for Crohn’s disease?
A. Ascending colon
B. Descending colon
C. Sigmoid colon
D. Terminal ileum

4. Which of the following factors is believed to be linked to Crohn’s disease?

A. Constipation
B. Diet
C. Hereditary
D. Lack of exercise

5. Which of the following factors is believed to cause ulcerative colitis?

A. Acidic diet
B. Altered immunity
C. Chronic constipation
D. Emotional stress

6. Fistulas are most common with which of the following bowel disorders?
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Diverticulitis
C. Diverticulosis
D. Ulcerative colitis

7. Which of the following areas is the most common site of fistulas in client’s with Crohn’s disease?
A. Anorectal
B. Ileum
C. Rectovaginal
D. Transverse colon
8. Which of the following associated disorders may a client with ulcerative colitis exhibit?
A. Gallstones
B. Hydronephrosis
C. Nephrolithiasis
D. Toxic megacolon

9. Which of the following associated disorders may the client with Crohn’s disease exhibit?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Colon cancer
C. Malabsorption
D. Lactase deficiency

10. Which of the following symptoms may be exhibited by a client with Crohn’s disease?
A. Bloody diarrhea
B. Narrow stools
C. Nausea and Vomiting
D. Steatorrhea
11. The nurse suspects that a client with polyuria is experiencing water diuresis. Which laboratory value suggests
water diuresis?
A. High urine specific gravity
B. High urine osmolarity
C. Normal to low urine specific gravity
D. Elevated urine pH

12. A client is diagnosed with prostate cancer. Which test is used to monitor progression of this disease?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Complete blood cell count (CBC)
C. Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
D. Serum potassium

13. A 27-year old client, who became paraplegic after a swimming accident, is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia.
Which condition is the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia?
A. Upper respiratory infection
B. Incontinence
C. Bladder distention
D. Diarrhea

14. When providing discharge teaching for a client with uric acid calculi, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid
which type of diet?
A. Low-calcium
B. Low-oxalate
C. High-oxalate
D. High-purine
15. The client with urolithiasis has a history of chronic urinary tract infections. The nurse concludes that this client
most likely has which of the following types of urinary stones?
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Uric acid
C. Struvite
D. Cystine

16. The nurse is receiving in transfer from the postanesthesia care unit. A client who has had a percutaneous
ultrasonic lithotripsy for calculuses in the renal pelvis. The nurse anticipates that the client’s care will
involve monitoring which of the following?
A. Suprapubic tube
B. Urethral stent
C. Nephrostomy tube
D. Jackson-Pratt drain

17. The client is admitted to the ER following a MVA. The client was wearing a lap seat belt when the accident
occurred. The client has hematuria and lower abdominal pain. To determine further whether the pain is due to
bladder trauma, the nurse asks the client if the pain is referred to which of the following areas?
A. Shoulder
B. Umbilicus
C. Costovertebral angle
D. Hip

18. The client complains of fever, perineal pain, and urinary urgency, frequency and dysuria. To assess whether the
client’s problem is related to bacterial prostatitis, the nurse would look at the results of the prostate examination,
which should reveal that the prostate gland is:
A. Tender, indurated, and warm to the touch
B. Soft and swollen
C. Tender and edematous with ecchymosis
D. Reddened, swollen, and boggy.

19. The nurse is taking the history of a client who has had benign prostatic hyperplasia in the past. To determine
whether the client currently is experiencing difficulty, the nurse asks the client about the presence of which of the
following early symptoms?
A. Urge incontinence
B. Nocturia
C. Decreased force in the stream of urine
D. Urinary retention

20. The client who has a cold is seen in the emergency room with inability to void. Because the client has a history of
BPH, the nurse determines that the client should be questioned about the use of which of the following medications?
A. Diuretics
B. Antibiotics
C. Antitussives
D. Decongestants
21. Skin reactions are common in radiation therapy. Nursing responsibilities on promoting skin integrity should be
promoted apart from:
A. Avoiding the use of ointments, powders and lotion to the area
B. Using soft cotton fabrics for clothing
C. Washing the area with a mild soap and water and patting it dry not rubbing it.
D. Avoiding direct sunshine or cold.

22. Nausea and vomiting is an expected side effect of chemotherapeutic drug use. Which of the following drug
should be administered to a client on chemotherapy to prevent nausea and vomiting?
A. Metochlopramide (Metozol)
B. Succimer (Chemet)
C. Anastrazole (Arimidex)
D. Busulfan (Myleran)

23. Radiation protection is very important to implement when performing nursing procedures. When the nurse is not
performing any nursing procedures what distance should be maintained from the client?
A. 1 feet
B. 2 feet
C. 2.5 feet
D. 3 feet

24. The following are teaching guidelines regarding radiation therapy except:
A. The therapy is painless
B. To promote safety, the client is assisted by therapy personnel while the machine is in operation.
C. The client may communicate all his concerns or needs or discomforts while the machine is operating.
D. Safety precautions are necessary only during the time of actual irradiation.

25. Contact of client on radiation therapy should be limited only to how many minutes to promote safety of the
therapy personnel?
A. 1 minute
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes

26. A client is taking Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) for the treatment of lymphoma. The nurse is very cautious in
administering the medication because this drug poses the side effect of:
A. Alopecia
B. Myeloma
C. CNS toxicity
D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

27. Cytarabine (Ara-C) is an antimetabolite that can cause a common cytarabine syndrome which includes the
following apart from:
A. Fever
B. Myalgia
C. Chest pain
D. Diarrhea
28. To provide relief from the cytarabine syndrome, which drug is given?
A. Analgesic
B. Aspirin
C. Steroids
D. Allopurinol

29. Chemotherapeutic agents have different specific classifications. The following medications are antineoplastic
antibiotics except:
A. Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)
B. Fluorouracil (Adrucil)
C. Mitoxantrone (Novantrone)
D. Bleomycin (Blenoxane)

30. Specific classification of the chemotherapeutic agent, Vincristine (Oncovin) is:

A. Hormone modulator
B. Mitotic inhibitor
C. Antineoplastic antibiotic
D. Antimetabolite

31. Mandy, an adolescent girl is admitted to an acute care facility with severe malnutrition. After a thorough
examination, the physician diagnoses anorexia nervosa. When developing the plan of care for this client, the nurse is
most likely to include which nursing diagnosis?
A. Hopelessness
B. Powerlessness
C. Chronic low self esteem
D. Deficient knowledge

32. Which diagnostic test would be used first to evaluate a client with upper GI bleeding?
A. Endoscopy
B. Upper GI series
C. Hemoglobin (Hb) levels and hematocrit (HCT)
D. Arteriography

33. A female client who has just been diagnosed with hepatitis A asks, “How could I have gotten this disease?” What
is the nurse’s best response?
A. “You may have eaten contaminated restaurant food.”
B. “You could have gotten it by using I.V. drugs.”
C. “You must have received an infected blood transfusion.”
D. “You probably got it by engaging in unprotected sex.”

34. When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis
of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing
diagnosis?
A. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture.
B. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix.
C. The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client.
D. Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage.
35. A female client with hepatitis C develops liver failure and GI hemorrhage. The blood products that would most
likely bring about hemostasis in the client are:
A. whole blood and albumin.
B. platelets and packed red blood cells.
C. fresh frozen plasma and whole blood.
D. cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen plasma.

36. To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a male client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge
instruction?
A. “Lie down after meals to promote digestion.”
B. “Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages.”
C. “Take antacids with meals.”
D. “Limit fluid intake with meals.”
37. The nurse caring for a client with small-bowel obstruction would plan to implement which nursing intervention
first?
A. Administering pain medication
B. Obtaining a blood sample for laboratory studies
C. Preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube
D. Administering I.V. fluids

38. A female client with dysphagia is being prepared for discharge. Which outcome indicates that the client is ready
for discharge?
A. The client doesn’t exhibit rectal tenesmus.
B. The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia.
C. The client reports diminished duodenal inflammation.
D. The client has normal gastric structures.

39. A male client undergoes total gastrectomy. Several hours after surgery, the nurse notes that the client’s
nasogastric (NG) tube has stopped draining. How should the nurse respond?
A. Notify the physician
B. Reposition the tube
C. Irrigate the tube
D. Increase the suction level

40. What laboratory finding is the primary diagnostic indicator for pancreatitis?
A. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
B. Elevated serum lipase
C. Elevated aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
D. Increased lactate dehydrogenase (LD)

41. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a postpartum (PP) woman with a small vulvar hematoma. The nurse
includes which specific intervention in the plan during the first 12 hours following the delivery of this client?
A. Assess vital signs every 4 hours
B. Inform health care provider of assessment findings
C. Measure fundal height every 4 hours
D. Prepare an ice pack for application to the area.
42. A new mother received epidural anesthesia during labor and had a forceps delivery after pushing 2 hours. At 6
hours PP, her systolic blood pressure has dropped 20 points, her diastolic BP has dropped 10 points, and her pulse is
120 beats per minute. The client is anxious and restless. On further assessment, a vulvar hematoma is verified. After
notifying the health care provider, the nurse immediately plans to:
A. Monitor fundal height
B. Apply perineal pressure
C. Prepare the client for surgery.
D. Reassure the client

43. A nurse is monitoring a new mother in the PP period for signs of hemorrhage. Which of the following signs, if
noted in the mother, would be an early sign of excessive blood loss?
A. A temperature of 100.4°F
B. An increase in the pulse from 88 to 102 BPM
C. An increase in the respiratory rate from 18 to 22 breaths per minute
D. A blood pressure change from 130/88 to 124/80 mm Hg

44. A nurse is preparing to assess the uterine fundus of a client in the immediate postpartum period. When the nurse
locates the fundus, she notes that the uterus feels soft and boggy. Which of the following nursing interventions would
be most appropriate initially?
A. Massage the fundus until it is firm
B. Elevate the mothers legs
C. Push on the uterus to assist in expressing clots
D. Encourage the mother to void

45. A nurse is assessing a post partum (pp) mother who delivered a healthy newborn infant by C-section. The nurse is
assessing for signs and symptoms of superficial venous thrombosis. Which of the following signs or symptoms
would the nurse note if superficial venous thrombosis were present?
A. Paleness of the calf area
B. Enlarged, hardened veins
C. Coolness of the calf area
D. Palpable dorsalis pedis pulses

46. A nurse is providing instructions to a mother who has been diagnosed with mastitis. Which of the following
statements if made by the mother indicates a need for further teaching?
1. “I need to take antibiotics, and I should begin to feel better in 24-48 hours.”
2. “I can use analgesics to assist in alleviating some of the discomfort.”
3. “I need to wear a supportive bra to relieve the discomfort.”
4. “I need to stop breastfeeding until this condition resolves.”

47. A PP client is being treated for DVT. The nurse understands that the client’s response to treatment will be
evaluated by regularly assessing the client for:
A. Dysuria, ecchymosis, and vertigo
B. Epistaxis, hematuria, and dysuria
C. Hematuria, ecchymosis, and epistaxis
D. Hematuria, ecchymosis, and vertigo
48. A nurse performs an assessment on a client who is 4 hours PP. The nurse notes that the client has cool, clammy
skin and is restless and excessively thirsty. The nurse prepares immediately to:
A. Assess for hypovolemia and notify the health care provider
B. Begin hourly pad counts and reassure the client
C. Begin fundal massage and start oxygen by mask
D. Elevate the head of the bed and assess vital signs

49. A nurse is assessing a client in the 4th stage of labor and notes that the fundus is firm but that bleeding is
excessive. The initial nursing action would be which of the following?
A. Massage the fundus
B. Place the mother in the Trendelenburg’s position
C. Notify the physician
D. Record the findings

50. A nurse is caring for a PP client with a diagnosis of DVT who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of
heparin sodium. Which of the following laboratory results will the nurse specifically review to determine if an
effective and appropriate dose of the heparin is being delivered?
A. Prothrombin time
B. International normalized ratio
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time
D. Platelet count

51. A postpartum patient was in labor for 30 hours and had ruptured membranes for 24 hours. For which of the
following would the nurse be alert?
A. Endometritis
B. Endometriosis
C. Salpingitis
D. Pelvic thrombophlebitis

52. A client at 36 weeks gestation is schedule for a routine ultrasound prior to an amniocentesis. After teaching the
client about the purpose for the ultrasound, which of the following client statements would indicate to the nurse in
charge that the client needs further instruction?
A. The ultrasound will help to locate the placenta
B. The ultrasound identifies blood flow through the umbilical cord
C. The test will determine where to insert the needle
D. The ultrasound locates a pool of amniotic fluid

53. While the postpartum client is receiving heparin for thrombophlebitis, which of the following drugs would the
nurse expect to administer if the client develops complications related to heparin therapy?
A. Calcium gluconate
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Methylergonovine (Methergine)
D. Nitrofurantoin (macrodantin)
54. When caring for a 3-day-old neonate who is receiving phototherapy to treat jaundice, the nurse in charge would
expect to do which of the following?
A. Turn the neonate every 6 hours
B. Encourage the mother to discontinue breast-feeding
C. Notify the physician if the skin becomes bronze in color
D. Check the vital signs every 2 to 4 hours

55. A primigravida in active labor is about 9 days post-term. The client desires a bilateral pudendal block anesthesia
before delivery. After the nurse explains this type of anesthesia to the client, which of the following locations
identified by the client as the area of relief would indicate to the nurse that the teaching was effective?
A. Back
B. Abdomen
C. Fundus
D. Perineum

56. The nurse is caring for a primigravida at about 2 months and 1 week gestation. After explaining self-care
measures for common discomforts of pregnancy, the nurse determines that the client understands the instructions
when she says:
A. “Nausea and vomiting can be decreased if I eat a few crackers before arising”
B. “If I start to leak colostrum, I should cleanse my nipples with soap and water”
C. “If I have a vaginal discharge, I should wear nylon underwear”
D. “Leg cramps can be alleviated if I put an ice pack on the area”

57. Thirty hours after delivery, the nurse in charge plans discharge teaching for the client about infant care. By this
time, the nurse expects that the phase of postpartum psychological adaptation that the client would be in would be
termed which of the following?
A. Taking in
B. Letting go
C. Taking hold
D. Resolution

58. A pregnant client is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. In explaining the diagnosis, the nurse tells the client
that the usual treatment for partial placenta previa is which of the following?
A. Activity limited to bed rest
B. Platelet infusion
C. Immediate cesarean delivery
D. Labor induction with oxytocin

59. The nurse plans to instruct the postpartum client about methods to prevent breast engorgement. Which of the
following measures would the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A. Feeding the neonate a maximum of 5 minutes per side on the first day
B. Wearing a supportive brassiere with nipple shields
C. Breast-feeding the neonate at frequent intervals
D. Decreasing fluid intake for the first 24 to 48 hours
60. When the nurse on duty accidentally bumps the bassinet, the neonate throws out its arms, hands opened, and
begins to cry. The nurse interprets this reaction as indicative of which of the following reflexes?
A. Startle reflex
B. Babinski reflex
C. Grasping reflex
D. Tonic neck reflex

61. Which of the following nutritional requirements are MOST appropriate for the teenager mother?
a) Calories, fibre, protein and sodium
b) Iron, calcium, protein and vitamins
c) Vitamins, protein and potassium
d) Calories, sodium and fibre

62. Which of the following topics should be included in a teaching plan for the client during the FIRST
TRIMESTER of pregnancy?”
I. Hospital registration.
II. Danger signs in pregnancy.
III. Expecting changes in pregnancy.
IV. Prevention of high risk pregnancy.
a) I and II only
b) I and III only
c) II and III only
d) II and IV only

63. Which of the following considered presumptive signs of pregnancy?

I. Nausea and Vomiting.
II. Urinary frequency and fatigue.
III. Quickening and Softening of the cervix.
IV. Ballottement and positive Hegar’s Sign.
a) I and II only
b) I and III only
c) II and III only
d) II and IV only

64. Risk factors associated with teenage pregnancy include:

I. Antenatal and Perinatal complications.
II. Increased fetal and maternal morbidity.
III. Post-maturity and congenital disorders.
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II and III only
d) I, II and III
65. The client states “I do not want to breast feed, it’s difficult.” Which of the following responses by the nurse
is NOT factual?”
a) “Breastfeeding gives babies all the nutrients they need for healthy development.”
b) “Breastfeeding helps you to bond with your baby.”
c) “Breastfeeding provides an element of birth control in the first six months after birth.”
d) “That’s OK, modern baby formula is almost the same as breast milk.”

66. The nurse ascertains from an initial interview that the first day of the client’s last menstrual period was
September 28, 2013. According to Naegele’s Rule the nurse determines that the client estimated date of
delivery is:
a) May 4th 2014
b) June 5th 2014
c) July 8th 21014
d) August 6th 2014

67. During a teaching session a young couple asks the nurse if sexual activity should change during pregnancy
if no complications exist. The nurse’s response will indicate that:
a) The couple should practice coitus interruptus during pregnancy.
b) The couple should not have sexual intercourse during the last trimester of pregnancy.
c) It is best for the couple to avoid sexual intercourse until the woman is at least 16 weeks pregnant.
d) Sexual desire may change but intercourse does not hurt the baby during an uncomplicated pregnancy.

68. The nurse is assessing an older adult with a pacemaker who leads a sedentary lifestyle. The client reports
being unable to perform activities that require physical exertion. The nurse should further assess the client
for which of the following?
a) Left ventricular atrophy.
b) Irregular heartbeats.
c) Peripheral vascular occlusion.
d) Pacemaker placement.

69. A client has driven himself to the emergency department. He is 50 years old, has a history of hypertension,
and informs the nurse that his father died from a heart attack at age 60. The client has indigestion. The nurse
connects him to an electrocardiogram monitor and begins administering oxygen at 2 L/min per nasal cannula.
The nurse’s next action should be to:
a) Call for the physician.
b) Start an IV infusion.
c) Obtain a portable chest radiograph.
d) Draw blood for laboratory studies.

70. Crackles heard on lung auscultation indicate which of the following?

a) Cyanosis
b) Bronchospasm
c) Airway narrowing
d) Fluid-filled alveoli
71. Following diagnosis of angina pectoris, a client reports being unable to walk up two flights of stairs without
pain. Which of the following measures would most likely help the client prevent this problem?
a) Climb the steps early in the day.
b) Rest for at least an hour before climbing the stairs.
c) Take a nitroglycerin tablet before climbing the stairs.
d) Lie down after climbing the stairs.

72. After a myocardial infarction, the hospitalized client is taught to move the legs while resting in bed. The
expected outcome of this exercise is to:
a) Prepare the client for ambulation.
b) Promote urinary and intestinal elimination.
c) Prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation.
d) Decrease the likelihood of pressure ulcer formation.

73. Which of the following is the most appropriate diet for a client during the acute phase of myocardial
infarction?
a) Liquids as desired.
b) Small, easily digested meals.
c) Three regular meals per day.
d) Nothing by mouth.

74. Which of client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?

a) A 32 year old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago.
b) A 43 year old male with family history of CAD and cholesterol level of 158.
c) A 56 year old male with an HDL of 60 who takes atorvastatin (Lipitor).
d) A 65 year old female who is obese with an LDL of 188.

75. The client who experiences angina has been told to follow a low cholesterol diet. Which of the following
meals would be best?
a) Hamburger, salad, and milkshake.
b) Baked liver, green beans and coffee.
c) Spaghetti with tomato sauce, salad and coffee.
d) Fried chicken, green beans and skim milk.

76. A client with angina is taking nifedipine. The nurse should teach the client to:
a) Monitor blood pressure monthly.
b) Perform daily weights.
c) Inspect gums daily.
d) Limit intake of green leafy vegetables.

77. The nurse’s discharge teaching plan for the client with heart failure should emphasize the importance of
doing which of the following?
a) Maintaining a high fiber diet.
b) Walking 2 miles every day.
c) Obtaining daily weights at the same time each day.
d) Remaining sedentary for most of the day.
78. A client experiences initial indications of excitation after an IV infusion of lidocaine hydrochloride started.
The nurse should further assess the client when the client reports having:
a) Palpitations
b) Tinnitus
c) Urinary frequency
d) Lethargy

79. The most effective measure the nurse can use to prevent wound infection when changing a client’s dressing
after coronary artery bypass surgery is to:
a) Observe careful handwashing procedures.
b) Clean the incisional area with an antiseptic.
c) Use prepackaged sterile dressings to cover the incision.
d) Place soiled dressings in a waterproof bag before disposing of them.

80. During physical assessment, the nurse should further assess the client for signs of atrial fibrillation when
palpation of the radial pulse reveals:
a) Two regular beats followed by one irregular beat.
b) An irregular rhythm with pulse rate greater than 100.
c) Pulse rate below 60 bpm.
d) A weak, thready pulse.

81. Which assessment finding indicates that lactulose is effective in decreasing the ammonia level in the client with
hepatic encephalopathy?
A. Passage of two or three soft stools daily
B. Evidence of watery diarrhea
C. Daily deterioration in the client’s handwriting
D. Appearance of frothy, foul-smelling stools

82. Nurse Farrah is providing care for Kristoff who has jaundice. Which statement indicates that the nurse
understands the rationale for instituting skin care measures for the client?
A. “Jaundice is associated with pressure ulcer formation.”
B. “Jaundice impairs urea production, which produces pruritus.”
C. “Jaundice produces pruritus due to impaired bile acid excretion.”
D. “Jaundice leads to decreased tissue perfusion and subsequent breakdown.”

83. Which rationale supports explaining the placement of an esophageal tamponade tube in a client who is
hemorrhaging?
A. Allowing the client to help insert the tube
B. Beginning teaching for home care
C. Maintaining the client’s level of anxiety and alertness
D. Obtaining cooperation and reducing fear
84. For Rico who has chronic pancreatitis, which nursing intervention would be most helpful?
A. Allowing liberalized fluid intake
B. Counseling to stop alcohol consumption
C. Encouraging daily exercise
D. Modifying dietary protein

85. Mr. Hakim is in end-stage liver failure. Which interventions the nurse should NOT implement when addressing
hepatic encephalopathy?
A. Assessing the client’s neurologic status every 2 hours
B. Monitoring the client’s hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
C. Evaluating the client’s serum ammonia level
D. Monitoring the client’s handwriting daily

86. For a client with hepatic cirrhosis who has altered clotting mechanisms, which intervention would be most
important?
A. Allowing complete independence of mobility
B. Applying pressure to injection sites
C. Administering antibiotics as prescribed
D. Increasing nutritional intake

87. A client with advanced cirrhosis has been diagnosed with hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse expects to assess
for:
A. Malaise
B. Stomatitis
C. Hand tremors
D. Weight loss

88. A client diagnosed with chronic cirrhosis has ascites and pitting peripheral edema also has hepatic
encephalopathy. Which of the following nursing interventions are appropriate to prevent skin breakdown?
i. Range of motion every 4 hours
ii. Turn and reposition every 2 hours
iii. Abdominal and foot massages every 2 hours
iv. Alternating air pressure mattress
A. i, ii, and iii
B. ii and iii
C. i, ii, iii and iv
D. ii and iv

89. Which of the following will the nurse include in the care plan for a client hospitalized with viral hepatitis?
A. Increase fluid intake to 3000 ml per day
B. Adequate bed rest
C. Bland diet
D. Administer antibiotics as ordered
90. Spironolactone (Aldactone) is prescribed for a client with chronic cirrhosis and ascites. The nurse should monitor
the client for which of the following medication-related side effects?
A. Jaundice
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Tachycardia
D. Constipation

91. Which of the following symptoms is associated with ulcerative colitis?

A. Dumping syndrome
B. Rectal bleeding
C. Soft stools
D. Fistulas

92. If a client had irritable bowel syndrome, which of the following diagnostic tests would determine if the diagnosis
is Crohn’s disease or ulcerative colitis?
A. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan
B. Abdominal x-ray
C. Barium swallow
D. Colonoscopy with biopsy

93. Which of the following interventions should be included in the medical management of Crohn’s disease?
A. Increasing oral intake of fiber
B. Administering laxatives
C. Using long-term steroid therapy
D. Increasing physical activity

94. In a client with Crohn’s disease, which of the following symptoms should not be a direct result from antibiotic
therapy?
a. Decrease in bleeding
b. Decrease in temperature
c. Decrease in body weight
d. Decrease in the number of stools

95. Surgical management of ulcerative colitis may be performed to treat which of the following complications?
a. Gastritis
b. Bowel herniation
c. Bowel outpouching
d. Bowel perforation

96. Which of the following medications is most effective for treating the pain associated with irritable bowel disease?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Opiates
c. Steroids
d. Stool softeners
97. During the first few days of recovery from ostomy surgery for ulcerative colitis, which of the following aspects
should be the first priority of client care?
A. Body image
B. Ostomy care
C. Sexual concerns
D. Skin care

98. Colon cancer is most closely associated with which of the following conditions?
A. Appendicitis
B. Hemorrhoids
C. Hiatal hernia
D. Ulcerative colitis

99. Which of the following diets is most commonly associated with colon cancer?
a. Low-fiber, high fat
b. Low-fat, high-fiber
c. Low-protein, high-carbohydrate
d. Low carbohydrate, high protein

100. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be performed annually over age 50 to screen for colon cancer?
a. Abdominal CT scan
b. Abdominal x-ray
c. Colonoscopy
d. Fecal occult blood test
 RENR PRACTICE TEST C: ANSWER
1. C 34. B 67. D
2. D 35. D 68. A
3. D 36. B 69. B
4. C 37. D 70. D
5. B 38. B 71. C
6. A 39. A 72. C
7. A 40. B 73. B
8. D 41. D 74. D
9. C 42. C 75. C
10. D 43. B 76. C
11. C 44. A 77. C
12. C 45. B 78. B
13. C 46. D 79. A
14. D 47. C 80. B
15. C 48. A 81. A
16. C 49. C 82. C
17. A 50. C 83. D
18. A 51. A 84. B
19. C 52. B 85. B
20. D 53. B 86. B
21. C 54. D 87. C
22. A 55. D 88. D
23. D 56. A 89. B
24. B 57. C 90. B
25. C 58. A 91. B
26. D 59. C 92. D
27. D 60. A 93. C
28. C 61. B 94. C
29. B 62. C 95. D
30. B 63. A 96. C
31. C 64. B 97. B
32. A 65. C 98. D
33. A 66. B 99. A
100. D