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Sr Question
1 A 14-year-old girl with history of
prolonged fever and abdominal
discomfort is observed to have
splenomegaly and leucopenia. In the
course of the disease she develops
acute abdominal event and died.
Which of the following is the likely
finding on autopsy
2 Venous emboli are most often lodged A. Intestines
in: B. Lungs
C. Kidneys
D. Heart
3 Tissue graft rejection can be
prevented by suppression of:
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NEW TESTS
Report/Result : NEET MOCK TEST 25 (2017)
Total number of correct Answers : 32
Number of answered questions : 93
Number of unattempted questions : 147
Total Marks : 16.75
Answer Option Correct Answer Your Answer Answer Explanation
A. Transverse ulcers B. Longitudinal ulcers Answer is B (Longitudinal ulcers):Harrison
B. Longitudinal 18th/1276; Current Diagnosius & Treatment in
ulcers Infectious Diseases (International Edition)/561;
C. Pinpoint ulcers Robin’s. Pathology 6th7359; Differential
D. Pseudopolyps Diagnosis in INternal Medicine: From Symptom
to Diagnosis (Thieme) 2007/148;
Fundamentals of Surgical Pathology by Shariff
(Jaypee)/179 Typhoid ulcers
(Salmonella/Enteric Fever) occur due to
ulceration of Peyer’s patches. Since Peyer’s
patches (aggregation of lymphoid follicles in
the wall of gut) are oval in shape and placed
longitudinally/vertically along the
antimesenteric border, the axis of typhoid
ulcers is longitudinal.
B. Lungs Ans. (2), Lungs Ref Harsh mohan, 3rd ed pg
216 Pulmonary embolism is the most common
& fatal form of venous thromboembolism in
which there is occlusion of pulmonary arterial
tree by thromboemboli. Various sources of
pulmonary thromboembolism 1. Thrombi in the
veins of the lower legs – MC 2. Thrombi in the
pelvic vein 3. Thrombi in the vein of the upper
limbs 4. Thrombi in the veins of the upper limbs
5. Thrombosis in the cavernous sinus of the
brain 6. Thrombi in the right side of heart
A. Plasma antibodies B. T-cell Ans. (2), T-cell Ref Ananthanarayan &
B. T-cell Paniker’s, 8th ed pg 180, 181
Graft-Versus-
C. Allergy producing Host Reaction - Graft rejection is due to the
Mast cells reaction of the host to the grafted tissue (host-
andBasophils versus-graft response). The contrary situation,
D. Macrophages in which the graft mounts an immune response
against the antigens of the host, is known as
the graft-versus-host (GVH) reaction.
4 Which of the following viruses
produces both intranuclear and
intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies?
5 Antibiotic sensitivity & resistance of
microorganisms is determined by:
6 The term epitope refers to:
7 Which among the following is NOT a
pharmacological action of opiods?
8 Which of these factors has no effect
on response of cells to irradiation?
A. Chicken pox D. Measles Ans. (4), Measles Ref Ananthanarayan &
B. Rabies Paniker’s, 8th ed pg 444 The most
C. Small pox characteristic histological feature in virus
D. Measles infected cells is the appearance of inclusion
bodies. Inclusion bodies are structures with
distinct size, shape, location and staining
properties that can be demonstrated in virus
infected cells under the light microscope. They
may be situated in - 1. Cytoplasm (as with
poxviruses), 2. Nucleus (herpes viruses) 3.
Both (measles virus).
A. Direct microscopy B. Culture Ans. (2), Culture Ref Ananthanarayan &
B. Culture Paniker’s, 8th ed pg 44 In the clinical
C. ELISA laboratory, the indications for culture are mainly
D. DNA probe to: • Isolate bacteria in pure culture; •
Demonstrate their properties; • Obtain
sufficient growth for preparation of antigens
and for other tests; • Type isolates by methods
such as bacteriophage and bacteriocin
susceptibility; • Determine sensitivity to
antibiotics; • Estimate viable counts; and •
Maintain stock cultures.
A. Compete antigen D. Smallest antigenic Ans. (4), Smallest antigenic determinant Ref
molecule determinant Ananthanarayan & Paniker’s, 8th ed pg 91-92 •
B. Hapten Complete antigen is able to induce antibody
C. Immunogen formation & produce a specific & observable
D. Smallest antigenic reaction with antibody so produced. • Haptens
determinant are substances which are incapable of
inducing antibody formation by them but can
react specifically with antibodies. • Epitope
smallest unit of antigenicity or antigenic
determinant It is that small area on the antigen,
usually consisting of 4 to 5 amino acid or
monosaccharide residues possessing a
specific chemical structure, electrical charges
& spatial configuration, capable of sensitising
an immunocyte & of reacting with its
complementary site on the specific antibody or
T-cell receptor.
A. Cough B. Anti-emesis Miosis Ans. (2), Anti-emesis Ref K. D. Tripathi, 6th ed
suppression pg 454-456 “Opioids induce nausea & vomiting
B. Anti-emesis by stimulating CTZ.” Pharmacological action of
C. Miosis morphine – 1. CNS a. Stimulation action – -
D. Truncal rigidity CTZ – nausea & vomiting - Edinger westphal
nucleus – Miosis - Vagal centre – Bradycardia -
Muscular rigidity & convulsions b. Depressant
action - Analgesia, sedation, Respiratory
depression - Antitussive, hypothermia, fall in
BP
A. Linear energy C. Image receptor Ans. (3). Image receptor used Ref White &
transfer. used. Pharaoh, 5th ed pg 22 Modifying factors: The
B. Oxygen. response of cells, tissues, and organs to
C. Image receptor irradiation depends on exposure conditions
used. and the cell environment. • Dose • Dose rate •
D. Dose rate. Oxygen • Linear energy transfer
9 Bird face appearance is seen in:
10 Basement membrane:
11 BANA test measures the activity of:
12 Bacterial communication with each
other in a biofilm is known as:
13 The ‘Red complex’ associated with
bleeding on probing is comprised of:
A. Unilateral TMJ B. Bilateral TMJ Bilateral TMJ Ans. (2). Bilateral TMJ Ankylosis Ref Neelima
ankylosis. ankylosis. ankylosis. Anil Malik, 2nd ed pg 229 Bilateral Ankylosis 1.
B. Bilateral TMJ Inability to open the mouth progresses by
ankylosis. gradual decrease in interincisal opening. The
C. TMJ dislocation. mandible is symmetrical but micrognathic. The
D. Bilateral condylar patient develops typical ‘bird face’ deformity
fracture. with receding chin. 2. The neck chin angle may
be reduced or almost completely absent. 3.
Antegonial notch is well defined bilaterally. 4.
Class II malocclusion can be noticed. 5. Upper
incisors are often protrusive with anterior open
bite. Maxilla may be narrow. 6. Oral opening
will be less than 5 mm or many times there is
nil oral opening. 7. Multiple carious teeth with
bad periodontal health can be seen. 8. Severe
malocclusion, crowding can be seen and many
impacted teeth may be found on the X-rays.
A. Contains lamina C. Consists of lamina Ans. (3), Consists of lamina densa & lamina
lucida & lamina dura. densa & lamina lucida. lucida Ref Orban’s, 11th ed pg 272 Basement
B. Consists kerato membrane is similar to basal lamina, the earlier
hyaline granules. is light microscopie feature and later one is
C. Consists of electron microscopic feature.
lamina densa &
lamina lucida.
D. Consists of
demosomes &
hemidesmosomes
A. Calculus. D. Trypsin like enzyme. Calculus. Ans.(4), Typsin like enzyme Ref Carranza’s,
B. Cathepsin. 10th ed pg 591 Tannerella forsythia (TT),
C. Elastase. Porphyromonuas gingivalls (Pg), the small
D. Trypsin like spirochete Treponema denticola (Td), and
enzyme. Capnocytophaga species share a common
enzymatic profile; all have a trypsinlike
enzyme. The activity of this enzyme can be
measured with the hydrolysis of the colorless
substrate N-benzoyl-d L-arginine-2-
naphthylamide (BANA).
A. Corncob C. Quorum sensing. Quorum sensing. Ans. (3), Quorum sensing Ref Carranza’s, 10th
formations. ed pg 150-151 In a biofilm, bacteria have the
B. Coaggregation. capacity to communicate with each other
C. Quorum sensing. (quorum sensing). This involves the regulation
D. Translocation. or expression of specific genes through the
accumulation of signaling compounds that
mediate inter-cellular communication.
A. E corrodens, A. C. P. gingivalis, T. P. gingivalis, T. Ans.(3), P. gingivalis, T. forsythia, T. denticola
actinomycetem forsythia, T. denticola. forsythia, T. Ref Carranza’s, 10th ed pg 143 The red
comitans, denticola. complex consists of P. gingivalis, Tannerella
capnocytophages. forsytina, and Treponema denticola. This
B. A. naeslundii, A. complex is of particular interest because it is
viscosus, associated with bleeding on probing, which is
A.odontolyticus. an important clinical parameter of destructive
C. P. gingivalis, T. periodontal diseases. The existence of
forsythia, T. complexes of species in plaque is another
denticola. reflection of bacterial interdependency in the
D. Streptococcus, biofilm environment.
fusobacterium,
campylobacter.
14 Which of the following bone defects
offers the best chance for bone fill?
15 Which of the following group of fibers
in the lamina propria of the gingiva,
helps to bind the free gingiva to the
tooth?
16 The most likely infection is:
17 The following different clinical forms
of Lichen Planus except:
18 The whitish striations in Lichen
planus are called?
A. 3 walled defect. A. 3 walled defect. 3 walled defect. Ans.(1). 3 walled defect Ref Carranza’s, 10th
B. 2 walled defect. ed pg 460 • angular defects are classified
C. Osseous crater. according to the no of walls remaining. • One
D. Hemisepta. wall defect – is also called as hemiseptum
prognosis is poor, as they have to be
recontoured surgically. Regenerative
procedures cannot be carried out. • Three –
wall osseous defect- also called intrabony
defect. Prognosis is better for three wall
defects a the regenerative procedures cab be
easily carried out.
A. Alveologingival. C. Dento periosteal. Circular. Ans. (3). Circular Ref Carranza’s, 10th ed pg
B. Circular. 57 Gingival fibers – 3 groups ¾ Gingivodental
C. Dento periosteal. – fibers are those on the facial, lingual &
D. Dentogingival interproximal surfaces, they are embedded in
the cementum just beneath the epithelium at
the base of the gingival sulcus. ¾ Circular
group – its fibers course through the
connective tissue of the marginal & interdental
gingiva & encircle the tooth in ring like fashion.
Main function is to brace the marginal gingival
firmly against the tooth. ¾ Transseptal group –
located interproximally, it forms horizontal
group that extend between the cementum of
approximating teeth into which they are
embedded.
A. Necrotizing A. Necrotizing Acute herpectic Ans. 1, necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis Ref:
ulcerative gingivitis ulcerative gingivitis gingivostomatitis Carranza’s – 10th, p 391-393, 397, 914 • All
B. Localized the symptoms are suggestive of ANUG •
aggressive Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (“trench mouth”
periodontitis and “Vincent’s angina”) - Microbial disease of
C. Acute herpectic gingival with an impaired host response
gingivostomatitis characterized by death and sloughing of
D. Desquamative gingival tissues. - Acute disease with repeated
gingivitis remissions and exacerbations.
A. Atrophic Lichen D. Verrucous lichen Ans. 4, Verrucous lichen planus Ref: Shafer’s –
Planus planus 7th, p 1106; Neville Forms of oral lichen
B. Hypertrophic planus: • Reticular form (most common
Lichen Planus presentation) • Bullous form (fluid filled vesicles
C. Bullous Lichen projecting from the surface). • Erosive form •
Planus Atrophic LP & ulcerative LP (erythematous red)
D. Verrucous lichen areas that is ulcerated and un-comfortable). •
planus Hypertrophic form
A. Striae of Retzius B. Wickham’s striations Wickham’s striations Ans. 2, Wickham’s striations Ref: Shafer’s –
B. Wickham’s 7th, p 1103 Oral lichen planus (lichen ruber
striations planus) • A muco-cutaneous disease • Has a
C. Step ladder form of papules • Lesions or rash affects 0.5 –
striations 1% of world population • Oral lesions proceeds
D. Linea Alba or concomitant with the formation of skin
buccalis lesions. • Etiology: thought to be a T cell
mediated autoimmune disease in which
cytotoxic CD8+ T cells causes the apoptosis of
oral epithelial cells.
19 What investigation is most
confirmatory for detecting CSF leak?
20 What clinical features suggest that
the discharge is CSF leak?
21 A dirty white aspirate with a protein
estimation of <4gm % is suggestive
of:
22 The tongue thrust seen in this case
is:
A. CT scan D. Presence of MRI scan Ans. 4, Presence of transferrin beta Ref:
B. MRI scan transferrin beta Raymond J. Fonseca – 1st, p 24; Nilima Malik •
C. Presence of Diagnosis is confirmed by presence of beta
glucose in fluid transferrin in CSF. • Beta-2 transferrin is a
D. Presence of carbohydrate-free (desialated) isoform of
transferrin beta transferrin, which is almost exclusively found in
the cerebrospinal fluid. • It is not found in
blood, mucus or tears, thus making it a specific
marker of cerebrospinal fluid, applied as an
assay in cases where cerebrospinal fluid
leakage is suspected.
A. Continuous B. Tramline or Halo Continuous Ans. 2, Appearance of tram line or halo rings
discharge rings discharge Ref: Raymond J. Fonseca – 1st, p 254; Nilima
B. Tramline or Halo Malik • Le Fort III fractures (transverse) are
rings otherwise known as craniofacial dissociation
C. Discharge stops and involve the zygomatic arch. These may
on pressure follow impact to the nasal bridge or upper
D. Presence of maxilla. • These fractures start at the
transferrin beta nasofrontal and frontomaxillary sutures and
extend posteriorly along the medial wall of the
orbit through the nasolacrimal groove and
ethmoid bones. • The thicker sphenoid bone
posteriorly usually prevents continuation of the
fracture into the optic canal. • Instead, the
fracture continues along the floor of the orbit
along the inferior orbital fissure and continues
superolaterally through the lateral orbital wall,
through the zygomaticofrontal junction and the
zygomatic arch.
A. Ossifying fibroma D. Odontogenic Odontogenic Ans. 4, Odontogenic Keratocyst Ref: Shafers
B. Dentigerous cyst keratocyal keratocyal 7th, p 345 OKCs contain a dirty white, viscoid
C. Muco epidermoid suspension of keratin, which has an
carcinoma appearance of pus, but without an offensive
D. Odontogenic smell. The following are used to test the
keratocyal presence of keratin. • The smear should be
stained and examined for keratin cells. •
Electrophoresis reveals low protein content,
which is mostly albumin. • Total protein is found
to be below 4 g/100 ml
A. Retained infantile B. Simple tongue Retained infantile Ans. 2, Simple tongue thrust Ref: Bhalaji 3rd, p
swallow thrust swallow 98 Simple tongue thrust is characterized by
B. Simple tongue normal tooth contact in posterior region,
thrust anterior open bite, contraction of lips, mentalis
C. Complex tongue muscle and mandibular elevators. Note: the
thrust simple tongue thrust does not cause the open
D. Compound bite rather, it is an adaptive abnormal tongue
tongue thrust position during the swallowing. Now let us
rule out the other options: It is definitely not
a retained infantile swallow Complex
tongue thrust is characterized by generalized
open bite, teeth in contact in occlusion,
absence of contraction of lips and muscle.
23 The foremost line of treatment in this
patient is above question:
24 Among the different types of denture
stomatitis diagnosis of candida
associated denture stomatitis
confirmed by?
25 The dicrotic notch on the aortic
pressure curve is caused by:
A. No treatment. C. Psychiatric Ans. 3, Psychiatric consultation prior to any
Wait and Watch consultation prior to therapy Ref: Bhalaji –3rd, p 97 The age of
B. Extraction of first any therapy the child in the given situation is 6 years. As
premolars followed it has been explained earlier that the
by Hawley’s persistence of thumb-sucking habit beyond 4-5
appliance years should be taken as some sort of
C. Psychiatric psychological problem and psychic
consultation prior to consultation must be sought. So correct
any therapy treatment protocol in the given case would be
D. Extraction of Psychiatric consultation prior to any therapy
second premolars
followed by Hawley’s
appliance
A. Based on clinical C. By finding mycelia Based on clinical Ans. 3, By finding mycelia or pseudohyphae in
features or pseudohyphae in a features a direct smear or isolation of candida in high
B. Based on intensity direct smear or numbers. Ref: Shafer’s – 7th, p 508-510,
of erythematous isolation of candida in Nallaswamy, Burkett Diagnosis of candida in
lesion high number denture stomatitis: Smears are collected by
C. By finding mycelia gentle scraping of the lesion with a spatula or
or pseudohyphae in tongue blade and the resulting debris directly
a direct smear or applied to a glass slide. Oral swabs are taken if
isolation of candida culture is required. Some recommend that
in high number swabs be taken from 3 different oral sites.
D. By examining the Oral rinse involves rinsing the mouth with
existing dentures phosphate-buffered saline for 1 minute and
then spitting the solution into a vessel that
examined in a pathology laboratory. Oral rinse
technique can distinguish between commensal
candidal carriage and candidiasis. If
candidal leukoplakia is suspected, a biopsy
may be indicated. Smears and biopsies are
usually stained with Periodic acid-Schiff, which
stains carbohydrate in fungal cell walls
magenta. Gram staining is also used as
Candida stains strongly strongly Gram +ve.
Sometimes an underlying medical condition
is sought, and this may include blood tests for
full blood count and hematinics. If a biopsy
is taken, the histopathologic appearance can
be variable depending upon the clinical type of
candidiasis. Pseudomembranous candidiasis
shows hyperplastic epithelium with a superficial
parakeratotic desquamating (i.e., separating)
layer. Hyphae penetrate to the depth of the
stratum spinosum and appear as weakly
basophilic structures. Poly-morphonuclear cells
also infiltrate the epithelium, and chronic
inflammatory cells infiltrate the lamina propria.
A. Closure of the C. Closure of the aortic Ans. 3, Closure of the aortic valve Ref:
pulmonary valve valve Ganong’s 23rd, Pg. 512
The dicrotic notch is
B. Rapid filling of the a small oscillation on the falling phase of the
left ventricle pulse wave
It is caused by vibration set up
C. Closure of the when aortic value snaps shut
It is visible,
aortic valve when the pressure wave is recorded that but
D. Contraction of the not during the palpation at the wrist

atria Sometime pulmonary artery pressure curve
also has a dicrotic notch produced by the
closure of the pulmonary valves.
26 A relatively mobile component of the
electron transporting respiratory
chain is:
27 The activation of caspases is likely to A. Apoptotic cell
lead to:
28 Which one of the following
developmental stages of plasmodium
is transmitted from humans to
anopheles mosquito?
29 Which of the following agents of gas
gangrene is capsulated?
30 The dose of a drug required to
produce a specified effect in 50% if
the population is:
31 A biological experiment in which one
compares the effects of two
preparations by means of common
biological response is known as:
A. Flavoprotein C. Ubiquinone Ans. 3, Ubiquinone Ref: Pamila Champe – 3rd,
B. Cytochrome CL p 74 • All the members of the respirating chain
C. Ubiquinone are protein except coenzyme Q. • Coenzyme Q
D. Cytochrome a is a quinine dominative with along isopremoid
tail. It is also called ubiquinone because it is
ubiquitous in biologic system. • Its play an
active role as election transport respiratory
chain.
B. Blood coagulation Ans. 2, Blood coagulation Ref: Robin’s 7th ,p
death 27 Biochemical features of apoptosis – • A
B. Blood coagulation specific feature of apoptosis is protein
C. Mitotic cell hydrolysis involving the activation of several
division members of a family of cysteine proteases
D. GI to S phase of named caspases. • Many capsases are
cell cycle present in normal cells as inactive pro-
enzymes, and they need to be activatedto
induce apoptosis. • Active capsases cleave
many vital cellular proteins, such as lamins,
and thus break up the nuclear scaffold and
cytoskeleton. In addition,caspases active
DNAses, which degrade nuclear DNA. • These
changes underlie the nuclear and cytoplasm
structural alterations seen in apoptotic cells.
A. Sporozoite B. Gametocyte Ans. 2, Gametocyte Ref: Robbins -11th, p 434
B. Gametocyte Life Cycle of Malaria • The injections stage of
C. Merozoite malaria, the sporozoites, is found in the
D. Hlpnozoite salivary gland of female anopheles. • When
mosquito bites to human sporozoites reach to
human blood and continues its life cycle in
liver. • Here it multiply rapidly and give rise to
merozoites which quickly inject red blood cells.
• Out of all merozoites some parasites develop
into sexual forms called gametocytes that inject
the mosquito when it bites human being (in-
transferred from human to mosquito).
A. Cl. Septicum C. Cl. Perfingens Cl. Perfingens Ans. 3, C1 perfingens Ref: Ananthnarayan -
B. Cl. Novyi 8th, p 251 • Cl. Perfringens is a capsulated,
C. Cl. Perfingens non motile, gram positive bacillus with straight,
D. Cl. Histolyticum parallel sides and rounded ends. • It is the
most important clostridia causing gas
gangrene. • It is an amaerobic organisms but
can also grow in microaerophillie condition. •
Robertson’s cooled meat medium show its
good growth
A. Ld50 D. Ed50 Ans. 4, Ed50 Ref: Lange – 11th, p 32 • Median
B. Td50 effective dose (ED50)- dose at which 50% of
C. Md50 individuals exhibit quantal effect. • Median toxic
D. Ed50 dose (TD50)- dose required to produce a
particular toxic effect in 50% of animals. •
Median lethal dose (LD50) – if toxic effect is
death of animal.
A. Niodegradable C. Bio assay Ans. 3, Bio Assay Ref: Bronwen Bryant- 3rd, p
B. Bioexperiment 97 • The design of bioassays usually involves
C. Bio assay comparision of two preparations, a standard
D. Bio statement and an unknown, by testing many
concentrations of each on the same model and
constructing log dose response curves. • If the
substances act by similar mechanisms, the
curves will be roughly parallel in the mid
sections and so doe the potency ratio can be
determined, allowing the strength of the
unknown compared to the known standard.
32 Which among the following A. Erythromycin B. Tetracycline Tetracycline ANS 2, Tetracycline Ref: KDT – 6th, p 85 •
antibiotics should be avoided in B. Tetracycline There are some drugs which are known to
pregnancy? C. Cephalexin cause factal abnormalities when administered
D. Amoxicillin to the pregnant women, these are termed as
teratogenic drugs. • Drugs can affect the foetus
at 3 stage 1. During fertilization and
implantation 2. During organogenesis 3. During
growth & development • Tetracycline is the
antibiotic which should not be given during
pregnancy as it cause discolored and
deformed tooth and retarded bone growth in
foetus.

33 The second hear sound is produced A. Closure of A. Closure of Ans. 1, Closure of semilunar valves Ref:
due to: semilunar valves semilunar valves Guyton & Hall – 11th, p 269 Normal heart
B. Closure of atrio sounds • While listening with a stethoscope,
ventricular valves one hears a sound as “lub, dub, lub, dub. The
C. Ventricular filling “lub” is associated with closure of the
D. Opening of atrioventricular (A- V) valves at the beginning
semilunar valves of systole, and the “dub” is associated with
closure of the semilunar (aortic and pulmonary)
valves at the end of systole. The “lub” sound is
called the first heart sound and the “dub” is
called the second heart sound because the
normal pumping cyle of the heart is considered
to start when the A-V valves close at the onset
of ventricular systole. • The second heart
sound results from sudden closure of the
semilunar valves at the end of systole. When
the semilunar valves close, they bulge
backward toward the ventricles, and their
elastic stretch recoils the blood back into the
arteries. • The first sound about 0.14 second
and the second about 0.11 second.

34 Beginning of adolescent growth in A. Pubic hair growth B. Feminine fat Pubic hair growth Ans. 2, Feminine fat distribution Ref: Ganongs
boys is with: B. Feminine fat distribution – 23rd, p 392 In both sexes, the gonads have
distribution two function as the production of germ cells
C. Facial hair on chin and the secretion of sex hormones. Androgens
and lip • In masculuring action. • Secreted by testes in
D. Facial hair on large amount especially testosterone. •
upper lip only Estrogen is also secreted in small around. •
Some androgens are commented to estrogen
and cause feminine fat distribution.

35 The feature of lower motor neuron A. Hypertonia C. Muscular atrophy Ans. 3, Muscular otrophy Ref: Ganong’s –
lesion is: B. Hyperactive 23rd, p 244 Lower motor neurons • Lower
stretch reflex motor neurons are those whose axons
C. Muscular atrophy terminate on skeletal muscles. Damage to
D. Abnormal plantar these neurons is associated with flaccid
extensor reflex paralysis, muscular atrophy, fasciculation
(Babinski’s sign) (visible muscle twitches that appear as flickers
under the skin), hypotonia (decreased muscle
tone), hyporeflexia or areflexia. • An example
of a disease that leads to lower motor neuron
damage is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).
This fatal disease is also known as Lou Gehrig
disease because Gehrig, a famous American
baseball player, died of it.
36 The urine sample of a patient has
been sent to the laboratory to look for
leptospira. The specimen is to be
screened by use of the:
37 The tissue and pus aspirate is to be
collected for diagnosis of Gas
gangrene. It should ideally be
transported using:
38 The efficacy of the moist-heat
sterilization technique commonly
used to sterilize laboratory ware and
culture media is tested by using:
A. Scanning C. Dark ground Ans. 3, Dark Ground microscope Ref:
microscope microscope Anathanarayan – 8th, p 381- 385 • Leptospires
B. Inverted are actively motile, delicate spirochetes,
microscope possessing a large number of closely wound
C. Dark ground spirals and characteristic hooked ends. They
microscope are too thin to be seen under the light
D. Electron microscope (leptos, meaning fine or thin).
microscope Several leptospires are saprophytic, while
many are parasitic in rodents and other
animals. Examination of urine: during the
second week of the disease Leptospires
appear in the urine and there for 4-6 weeks.
The urine should be examined immediately
after voiding as leptospires readily undergo
lysis in acid urine. Centrifuged deposit of the
urine may be examined under dark ground
illumination. Direct culture of urine is seldom
successful because of contamination.
A. Buffered Glycerol C. Robertson’s Cooked Ans. 3, Robertson’s Cooked Meat medium Ref:
saline Meat medium Aananthnarayan – 8th, p 251 Cultural
B. Todd- Hewin broth characteristics of clostridia are: As the gas
C. Robertson’s Gangrene is caused by Clostria perfringes It is
Cooked Meat an anaerobe micro organism. Oxygen is not
medium actively toxic to the bacillus and cultures do not
D. Hanks balanced die on exposure to air. It grows pH range of
salt solution 5.5-8.0 and temperature range of 20-50 0C. If
can be utilized for obtaining pure cultures of CI
perfringens. Robertson’s cooked meat broth
inoculated with mixtures of Cl perfringens and
other bacteria and incubated at 45 0C for 4-6
hours serves as enrichment. Subcultures from
this transferred to blood agar plates yield pure
or predominant growth of Cl perfringens.
A. Clostridium tetani C. Bacillus Ans. 3, Bacillus sterothermophilus spores Ref:
spores sterothermophilus Ananthnarayan – 8th, p 34 Sterilization control
B. T-Even- spores For determining the efficacy of moist heat
Bacteriophages sterilization, spores of Bacillus
C. Bacillus stearothermophilus are used as the test
sterothermophilus organism. It is a thermophilic organism with an
spores optimum growth temperature of 55-60 0C and
D. Browne’s tubes its spores require an exposure of 12 minutes at
121 0C to be killed. Paper strips impregnated
with 106 spores are dried at room temperature
and placed in paper envelops. These envelops
are inserted in different parts of the load. After
sterilisation, the strips are inoculated into a
suitable recovering medium and incubated for
the sterility test at 55 0C for five days.
39 Which one of the following is
indicative of cardiac lamponade?
40 A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 year old
child has been sent to the laboratory
to detect the presence of capsulated
yeast. The staining technique most
commonly employed for the purpose
is:
41 Toxic optic neuropathy can be
caused by all of the following except:
42 Broca’s area is present in:
A. Pulsus paradoxus A. Pulsus paradoxus Ans. 1, Pulsus paradoxus Ref: Harrisson’s –
B. Wide pulse 17th, p 1384, 1490-1491 • In pulsus
pressure paradoxus, there is decrease in systolic arterial
C. Kussmaul’s sign pressure that normally accompanies the
D. Forceful apical reduction in arterial pulse amplitude during
impulse inspiration is accentuated. Due to airway
obstruction or superior vena cava obstruction,
In patients with pericardial tamponade, the
decrease in systolic arterial pressure of 10
mmHg and the peripheral pulse may disappear
completely during inspiration. • Kussmaul’s
sign an increase rather than the normal
decrease in the CVP during inspiration –
generally seen in patient with severe right
sides heart failure; with constrictive pericarditis
or right ventricular infarction. • The three
principal features of tamponde (Beck’s triad)
are hypotension, soft or absent heart sounds,
and jugular venous distention with a prominent
descent but an absent by descent.
A. India link A. India link Ans. 1 India Link Preparation Ref: Harrison’s –
preparation preparation 17th, p 1242, 1252 • The definitive diagnosis of
B. Methanamine any fungal infection requires histopathologic
silver stain identification. • The stain most commonly used
C. Ziehi – Neelsen to identify fungi are periodic acid Schiff and
stain Gomori methenamine silver Candida, When
D. Phyte – ferraco positive, an India link preparation of
stain (celebrospinal fluid) CSF is diagnostic for
cryptococcosis. • Visualizaiton of the capsulate
of fungal cells in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
mixed with India link is a useful rapid
diagnostic technique.
A. Ethambutol D. Tetracycline Ans. 4, Tetracycline Ref: Harrison’s – 17th, p
B. Ethylene glycol 188 Toxic optic neuropathy: It occurs either due
C. Ciprofloxacin to acute visual loss with bilateral optic disc
D. Tetracycline swelling and central or ecocentral scotomas.
Drug involved to ethambutol, methyl alcohol
(moonshine), ethylene glycol (antifreeze) or
carbon monoxide. In toxic optic neuropathy
visual loss can also develop gradually and
produce optic atrophy without a phase of acute
optic disc edema. Many agents have been
implicated as a cause of toxic optic neuropathy,
but the evidence supporting the association for
many is weak. The following is a partial list of
potential offending drugs or toxins; disulfiram,
ethchloryvynol, chloramphenicol, amiodarone,
monoclonal anti CD3 antibody, ciprofloxacin,
digitalis, streptomycin, lead, arsenic, thallium,
D-Penicillamine, isoniazid, emetine, and
sulfonamides.
A. Inferior frontal C. Post-central gyrus Ans.3), Pars posterior Ref BDC, 4th ed, Vol III,
gyrus Pg. 99 • Hypophysis cerebri (pituitary gland)
B. Pre-central gyrus has 2 main Parts : i. Adenohypophysis ii.
C. Post-central gyrus Neurohypophysis − Adenohypophysis
D. Superia temporal develops as an upward growth called the
gyrus Rathke’s pouch from the ectodermal roof of the
stomodeum. − Neurohypophysis develops as
downward growth from floor of diencephalon &
is concerned to the hypothalamus by neural
pathways.
43 TMJ joint is type of ___ joint: A. Pivot D. Synovial Ball & Socket Ans. (4), Synovial Ref BDC, 4th ed, vol III, Pg.
B. Hinge 150 TMJ is a synovial joint of condylar variety.
C. Ball & Socket It is a ginglymoarthroidial joint, referring to its
D. Synovial dual compartment structure & function
(ginglymo-Hinge, arthroidial-gliding)

44 All are Antimutagens, except: A. Vitamin A B. Aflatoxin Ans. (2), Aflatoxin Ref Satyanarayana, 3rd ed,
B. Aflatoxin Pg. 122, 133, 667, 658-660 Cancer: Free
C. Vitamin C radicals can damage DNA, and cause
D. Curcumin mutagenicity and cytotoxicity, and thus play a
key role in carcinogenesis. It is believed that
Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) can induce
mutations, and inhibit DNA repair process, that
results in the inactivation of certain tumor
suppressor genes leading to cancer. Further,
free radicals promote biochemical and
molecular changes for rapid growth of tumor
cells.

45 Which of the following arises from A. Hamartoma B. Teratoma Ans.(2), Teratoma Ref Robbins, 7th ed, Pg.
totipotent cells? B. Teratoma 271 • Great majority of the neoplasm are
C. Embryoma composed of cells representative of a single
D. Chloriostoma germ layer. - Teratoma, in contrast, are made
up of paranchymal cell type representative of
more than one germ layer, usually all three. •
They arise from totipotent cells & so are
principally encountered in the gonads. These
totipotent cells differentiate along various germ
lines that can be identified as skin, fat,
muscles, tooth structure, hair or any other
tissue of the body. − E.g.: dermoid cyst of
ovary is a benign, teratoma. − Note: mature
teratoma is benign, while immature teratoma is
malignant.

46 Transport medium for typhoid bacilli A. Bile broth A. Bile broth Ans.(1), Bile broth Ref Anathnarayan, 7th ed,
is: B. Selenite broth Pg. 37-290 For diagnosis of typhoid bacilli,
C. Tetrathionate blood is collected & is inoculated & is
broth inoculated into a bile broth culture bottle. -
D. All of the above Selenite F broth and tetrathionate broth are
enrichment media - Wilson & Blair Bismuth
sulphite medium are selective media

47 The disc of TMJ in the center: A. Has maximum B. Has no blood supply Ans. (2), Has no blood supply and nerve
blood supply and and nerve supply supply Ref
nerve supply http://emedicine.mespace.com/article/385129-
B. Has no blood overview
The nerve fibres primarily follow the
supply and nerve vascular supply and terminate as free nerve
supply endings
Thus, the capsule, subsynovial
C. Has nerve supply tissue and periphery of the disk are innervated
but no blood supply
The articular cartilage and the central part of
D. Has minimum the disk contain no nerves
Myelinated and
blood supply and non-myelinated nerves are seen in TMJ
The
nerve supply retrodiskal bilaminar zone has a rich
neurovascular supply and is the source of
proprioception

48 A nodule is seen in: A. Epithelium C. Deep in dermis Ans(3), Deep in dermis Ref
B. Basal layer http://www.histopathology_india.net/Gran.htm

C. Deep in dermis Nodule is located deep in dermis, sub cutis and
D. Superficial dermis rarely deep soft tissue
Area of necrobiosis is
larger than the superficial type
Granulation
tissue and lymphoid aggregates may be
present near palisaded granuloma

Eosinophils are more common in this variant
49 Ace test is used for: A. Ketosis A. Ketosis Ans.(1), Ketosis Ref
B. Acidosis http://abdc.vet.cornell.edu/clinpath/modules/ua-
C. Alkalosis rout/ACETEST.htm Ketosis –
The Acetest is
D. None of the performed whenever a positive result is
above obtained for ketones on the dipstick analysis

Ketones (primarily acetoacetate) are detected
by their reaction with sodium Nitroprusside to
form a purple complex
This color change on
a dipstick can be detected visually by a human
observer on “read” by a machine
It is useful
for semi-quantitatively measuring Ketones in
ether fluids such as plasma, serum and milk

50 Actinomyces is alpha-: A. Fungus C. Bacteria Bacteria Ans. (3), Bacteria Ref Warren Levinson, 9th ed,
B. Virus Pg 169
Actinomycetes are true bacteria
C. Bacteria (related to corynebacteria & mycobacteria), but
D. None of the they form long, branching filaments that
above resemble the hyphae of fungi
They are gram
positive but some (such as nocardia
arteroides) are also weekly acid fast
There
are 2 medically important organism,
Actinomyces israelii & N. asteroids

Actinomyces causes Actinomycosis
A Israeli
is an anaerobe that forms part of the normal
flora of oral cavity

51 Tetracycline binds to: A. 50S B. 30S Ans.(2), 30s Ref KDT, 3rd ed, Pg 655

B. 30S Tetracyclines are primarily bacteriostatic

C. Both 1 & 2 They inhibit protein synthesis by binding to 30s
D. 60S ribosomes in susceptible organism

Subsequent to such binding, attachment of
amino acyl t-RNA to the m-RNA ribosome
complex is interfered with
As a result peptide
chain fails to grow

52 Which of the following is used in
treatment of peptic ulcers?
A. Phenorbarbitone D. Pirenzepine Phenorbarbitone Ans.(4), Pirenzepine Ref KDT, 3rd ed, Pg 96-
B. Piperazine 97
100-150 mg/day oral
It selectively
C. Prazosin blocks, M1 muscarinic receptors
It inhibits
D. Pirenzepine gastric secretion without producing typical
atropinic side effects ( these are due to
blockade of M2 & M3 receptors)
It is nearly
equally effective as cimetidine in relieving
peptic ulcer pain and promoting ulcer healing

53 Which of the following does not have A. Adrenaline D. Atropine Ans. (4), Atropine Ref KDT, 3rd ed, Pg 39

agonist intrinsic activity? B. Morphine Agonists have both affinity and maximal
C. Histamine intrinsic activity (efficacy) E.g. Adrenaline,
D. Atropine Morphine & Histamine
Atropine- is
competitive antagonist. It has affinity but no
intrinsic activity

54 T-cells are: A. Viral origin B. Bacterial origin Ans.(2), Bacterial origin Ref
B. Bacterial origin http://an.wikipedia.rog/wiki/T_cell
T-cells are
C. Fungal origin mainly involved in cell – mediated immunity

D. Protozol origin B-cells transform into plasma cells & produce
antibodies (immunoglobulins) and are involved
in antibody mediated immunity
In general,
CD4+T–Cell are also the primary regulatory
cells of T & B lymphocytes & monocytes
function by the production of cytokines & by
direct bacterial cell contact
55 Branchial fistula is seen in: A. Neck A. Neck Neck Ans (1), Neck Ref
B. Back http://smj.sma.org.sg/3201/3201a8.pdf

C. Forearm Congenital branchial fistula, cysts & sinuses
D. Leg are known to present with recurrent infections
in the neck, supra-tonsilar region & pyriform
fossa
The pharynx forms 5 out pocketing
known as pharyngeal pouches while 4 grooves
form on ectodermal aspect developing into
pharyngeal clefts
The arrangement of these
clefts & pouches results in 5 mesodermal bars
which forms the branchial arches. Each arch,
cleft & pouch develops into definite arch

56 After leaving posterior cranial fossa
Facial nerve enters into:
A. Internal acoustic A. Internal acoustic Foramen ovale Ans. 1, Internal acoustic meatus Ref: Singh,
meatus meatus Inderbir, p 419 Facial nerve • Facial nerve is
B. Stylomastoid 7th cranial nerve • It is attached to the
foramen brainstem by two roots: a large motor root,
C. Foramen ovale smaller sensory root • These roots are
D. Foramen lacerum attached in the lateral part of the groove
between the lower border • Of the pons and
upper border of medulla • The motor root
medial to sensory root • The sensory attached
midway between the motor root (medially) and
the vestibulocochlear nerve (laterally). It is
therefore called the nervus intermedius

57 Tachypnea is defined as: A. Increase in A. Increase in Increase in Ans. 1, increase in respiration rate Ref:
respiratory rate respiratory rate respiratory rate Ganong’s – 23rd, 523-524 • Eupnea -A normal
B. Increase in pulse respiratory rate. • Tachypnea -An increased
rate respiratory rate. • Bradypnea -A lower than
C. Increase in heart normal respiratory rate.
rate
D. Decrease in
respiratory rate

58 All of the following are antioxidants A. NADPH oxidase A. NADPH oxidase Ans. 1, NADPH oxidase Ref: U.Satyanarayana
except? B. Glutathione – 3rd, p 658 Antioxidants in relation to lipid
peroxidase peroxidation 1. Preventive antioxidants that will
C. Catalase block the initial production of free radicals e.g.
D. Superoxide catalase, glutathione peroxidase. 2. Chain
dismutase breaking antioxidants that inhibit the
propagative phase of lipid peroxidatin e.g.
superoxide dismutase, vitamin E, uric acid.

59 All of the following are non apoptotic A. Chromatin bodies B. Cell membrane with Ans. 2, Cell membrane with organelles Ref:
bodies expect: B. Cell membrane organelles Robbin’s – 8th, p 20 • Apoptotic cells may
with organelles appear as round or oval masses with intensely
C. Nuclear eosinophilic cytoplasm. • The cells rapidly
fragmentation shrink, form cytoplasmic buds, and fragment
D. Pyknotic nucleus into apoptotic bodies composed of membrane
bound vesicles of cytosol and organelles.

60 Which one of the following clinical A. Neck muscle B. Extraocular muscle ANS B. (Extraocular muscle involvement)
findings excludes the diagnosis of involvement involvement Polymyostitis - Subacute inflammatory
polymyositis? B. Extraocular myopathy and mimics many other myopathies -
muscle involvement In adults - D/D is done by- this type of myositis
C. Dysphagia does not show muscular dystrophy involving
D. Abdominal extra-ocular and facial muscle and rashes.
muscle involvement
61 A 7 year old girl was admitted to
hospital after 5 days of viral infection
complains of vomiting following viral
infection. She reports of cerebral
edema. Liver biopsy will reveal-?
62 What does “c” wave in jugular
venous pulse denotes-?
63 A 28years old woman with history of A. Factor XIII
recurrent abortions, pain in calves for B. Protein C
4 years has deficiency of-?
64 Urine analysis of patient associated
with Hematuria and
Glomerulonephritis shows?
65 Which one of the following serum
levels would help in distinguishing an
acute liver disease frdm chronic liver
disease?
66 Which of the following is the first
marker of hepatitis B infection-?
A. Microvesicular A. Microvesicular Ans (A). Microvesicular steatohepatitis →
steatohepatitis steatohepatitis Reye's syndrome also known as
B. Non alcoholic encephulopathy with fatty liver of childhood is
steatohepatitis an acute febrile illness due to viral infection —
C. Ring lesion influenza, or some other virus, accompanied by
D. Central cerebral oedema, diffuse microvesicular fatty
hemorrhagic liver, and elevated levels of blood ammonia. →
necrosis Histologically, centrizonal and midzonal
microvesicular steatosis are associated with
centrizonal necrosis, and sometimes with
cirrhosis
A. Atrial contraction B. Tricuspid buldging Ans. (B). Tricuspid buldging A wave:-
B. Tricuspid buldging represents right atrial presystolic contraction
C. Rapid ventricular and occurs just after the electrocardiographic P
filling wave and just before the first heart sound (I). In
D. Atrial filling this example, the A wave is accentuated and
larger than normal due to decreased right
ventricular compliance, as also suggested by
the right-sided S4 (IV).
B. Protein C Ans. (B). Protein C Severe protein C deficiency
is a rare autosomal recessive disorder that
C. Thrombin usually presents in the neonatal periodwith
D. Plasmin purpura fulminans (PF) and severe
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC),
often with concomitant venous
thromboembolism (VTE). Recurrent thrombotic
episodes (PF, DIC, or VTE) are common.
A. Isomorphic red B. Red cell casts ANS B. (Red cell casts): Ref: Robbin 16th/247-
cells 251 • The acute nephritic syndrome is the
B. Red cell casts clinical correlate of acute glomerular
C. WBC casts inflammation. In its most dramatic form, the
D. Hyaline cast acute nephritic syndrome is characterized by
sudden onset (i.e. over days to weeks) of acute
renal failure and oliguria i.e. less than 400 mL
of urine per day), • Renal blood flow and
glomerular filtration rate (GFR) fall as a result
of obstruction of the glomerular capillary lumen
by infiltrating inflammatory cells and
proliferating resident glomerular cells.
A. Amino D. Albumin ANS D. (Albumin): —> In acute liver conditions
transaminase - ≫ there is only minimal change in serum
B. Alkaline albumin —> In chronic liver conditions ->
phosphatase Hypoalbuminemia is common —> In hepatitis
C. Bilirubin serum albumin levels of less than 3g/dl
D. Albumin (hypoalbuminemia) should raise the possibility.
—> Serum albumin is synthesized exclusively
by hepatocytes —> Approx. 4 % of serum
albumin is degraded per day.
A. AntiHBsAg D. HBsAg ANS D. (HBsAg): “HBsAg appears before the
B. HBeAg onset of symptoms, peaks during overt disease
C. HBcAg and then declines to undetectable levels in 3-6
D. HBsAg months.” HBe Ag becomes detectable in serum
shortly before the onset of symptoms,
concurrent with onset of elevation of serum
aminotransferase. It signifies acute illness •
IgG anti HBs Ag signifies chronicity of illness.
They do not rise until the acute disease is over
and is usually not detectable for a few weeks to
several months after the disappearance of HBs
Ag.
67 All the following are features of
benign gastric ulcers except?
68 All the following drugs can initiate or A. Diltiazem
exacerbate GE reflux disease except: B. Isosorbide
dinitrate
C. Atropine
D. Chlorpropamide
69 Aetiologic agents of odynophagia
include all the following except:
70 All the following contribute to hepatic
encephalopathy except:
71 The serum of a patient who has
received recombinant hepatitis B
vaccine is positive for:
72 Which of the following is not true for
poststreptococcal
glomerulonephritis?
A. Ulcer crater C. Stiff, non-pliable Ulcer crater ANS C. (Stiff, non-pliable gastric wall near the
extending beyond gastric wall near the extending beyond ulcer): Ref: Davidson principles & practice o f
the gastric wall ulcer the gastric wall medicine 19th/784 Malignant gastric ulcer
B. Gastric folds typically occurs in the middle of a gastric mass,
radiating into the hence the ulcer crater does not extend beyond
ulcer crater the gastric walls, the fold cannot radiate up to
C. Stiff, non-pliable the ulcer base and there is no oedema collar of
gastric wall near the the surrounding mucosa.
ulcer
D. Collar of oedema
surrounding the ulcer
base
D. Chlorpropamide ANS D. (Chlorpropamide): Ref: Davidson
principles & practice o f medicine 19th/777
Diltazem and Isosorbide dinitrate cause
smooth muscle relaxation. Atropine causes
relaxation of lower oesophageal sphincter
pressure. Chlorpropamide is an oral
hypoglycemia agent.
A. Scleroderma A. Scleroderma ANS A. (Scleroderma): Ref: Davidson
B. Candida principles & practice o f medicine 19th/774
C. Herpes simplex Odynophagia, or pain on swallowing may be
D. Achalasia caused by spasmodic motor disorder of the
oesophagus (e.g. achalasia) or mucosal
disruption (e.g. Candida or herpes infection).
Scleroderma affects the smooth muscle portion
of the oesophagus causing weak ineffective
peristalsis.
A. Antibiotic therapy A. Antibiotic therapy ANS A. (Antibiotic therapy): Ref: Davidson
B. Hypokalemia principles & practice o f medicine 19th/858
C. GI bleeding Hepatic eiicephalopathy is a reversible
D. Sedatives neurologic syndrome. The primary cause of
which is unclear. Elevated ammonia levels are
found in the blood. Antibiotics may improve this
condition by removing bacteria, which convert
ingested proteins into ammonia.
A. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis B surface ANS C. (Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti
surface antigen antibody (anti HBs) HBs)): Ref: Davidson principles & practice o f
(HBsAg) medicine 19th/863 Vaccine against hepatitis B
B. Hepatitis B core does not contain hepatitis B or hepatitis B core
antibody (anti HBc) antigens. Therefore the antibody produced is
C. Hepatitis B simply that against hepatitis surface antigen.
surface antibody
(anti HBs)
D. Anti HBc and anti
HBs
A. It follows infection D. Prophylactic It is rare before 2 ANS D. (Prophylactic treatment is required to
with group A □ – treatment is required to years of age prevent recurrences): Ref: Davidson principles
haemolytic prevent recurrences & practice o f medicine 19th/616-617
streptococci Prophylaxis following poststreptococcal
B. It is rare before 2 glomerulonephritis is not indicated since
years of age recurrences are exceedingly rare. This disease
C. It typically primarily affects school-aged children.
presents with
sudden onset of
haematuria and
oedema
D. Prophylactic
treatment is required
to prevent
recurrences
73 The commonest cause of adult A. Diabetes mellitus C. Membranous Membranous ANS C. (Membranous glomerulonephritis): Ref:
nephrotic syndrome is: B. Minimal change glomerulonephritis glomerulonephritis Davidson principles & practice o f medicine 19
disease th/5 89 The most common cause of adult
C. Membranous nephrotic syndrome is membranous
glomerulonephritis nephropathy. It is characterised by an absence
D. Amyloidosis of evidence of a high degree of glomerular
inflammation.

74 A11 of the following are associated A. Thalassemia D. Paroxysmal ANS Answer is D (Paroxysmal Nocturnal
with Secondary Hemochromatosis Major Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria (PNH)): Harrison; Wintrobe;
except? B. Sideroblastic Haemoglobinuria Bethesda Handbook of Clinical Haematology
Anemia (PNH) Secondary Haemochromatosis may results
C. Hereditary from acquired iron overload from iron loading
Spherocytosis anemias such as Thalassemia major,
D. Paroxysmal Sideroblastic anemia and chronic hemolytic
Nocturnal anemias such as Hereditary Spherocytosis
Haemoglobinuria
(PNH)

75 All of the following is /are component A. Toxoplasma D. Herpes zoster virus Rubella TORCH complex refers to development of
of TORCH complex except: B. Rubella common complex of symptoms in infants due
C. Cytomegalovirus to infection with different microorganisms that
D. Herpes zoster include: Toxoplasma, Rubella,
virus Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes simplex virus.

76 The nerve cell of brain, spinal cord A. First statement is A. First statement is Both statement are Central Nervous System. The nerve cells of
and ganglia once destroyed are not true; second is false true; second is false false brain, spinal cord and ganglia one destroyed
replaced; The peripheral nerves like B. First statement is are not replaced. Peripheral Nervous system.
brain have no regenerative capacity? false; second is true The peripheral nerves, unlike brain, have
C. Both statement regenerative capacity
are true
D. Both statement
are false

77 All of the following is/ are true fibrillar A. Type I B. Type II Depending upon the biochemical composition,
collagen? B. Type II 18 types of collagen have been identified
C. Type III called collagen type I to XVIII, many of which
D. Type V are unique for specific tissues. Type I, III and V
are true fibrillar collagen which form the main
portion of the connective tissue during healing
of wounds in scars. Other types of collagen are
non-fibrillar and amorphous material seen as
component of the basement membranes

78 The credit for having first observed A. Davaine and D. Antony van As microbes are invisible to the unaided eye,
and reported bacteria belongs to: Pollender Leeuwenhook definitive knowledge about them had to await
B. Joseph Lister the development of microscopes. The credit for
C. Ehrlich and having first observed and reported bacteria
Hoffman belongs to Antony van Leeuwenhook, a draper
D. Antony van in Delft, Holland, whose hobby was grinding
Leeuwenhook lenses and observing diverse materials through
them
79 All of the following is/are examples of A. Blue – green
eukaryotes except:
80 The Dental Nurse Scheme was
established in New Zealand in 1921
due to the extensive dental disease
found in army recruits. The man who
influences its formation was?
81 Box, tunnel, & adhesive restoration
are characteristic features of?
82 When direct pulp capping with
calcium hydroxide, new reparative
dentin formed from which cells?
A. Blue – green algae While Pasteur in France laid the foundations of
algae microbiology, Robert Koch (1843-1910) in
B. Slime mould Germany perfected bacteriological techniques
C. Protozoa during his studies on the culture and life cycle
D. Fungi of the anthrax bacillus (1876). He introduced
staining techniques and methods of obtaining
bacteria in pure culture using solid media. He
discovered the bacillus of tuberculosis (1882)
and the cholera vibrio (1883). Robert Koch
(1843-1910) discovered that organisms can be
grown outside the body, and introduced agar-
agar for the solidification of culture media. He
also introduced aniline dyes and isolated the
bacteria causing a number of diseases,
including anthrax, tuberculosis and cholera.
A. Hunter A. Hunter Ans. 1, Hunter Ref: Essential of preventive and
B. Welington community dentistry – 3rd, p 629 School dental
C. Massler nurse Thomas Anderson Hunter was born in
D. Marsh Dunedin, New Zealand, on 10 February 1963.
Thomas Anderson Hunter devoted a lifetime to
the progressive improvement of dentistry in
New Zealand, participating in the movement to
improve the training and practice of dentists by
establishing the first Dental School and
university degree in Dunedin.
A. Conservative A. Conservative Ans. 1, Conservative restorative, dentistry Ref:
restorative dentistry restorative dentistry Vimal Sikri – 1st, 221 Traditional operative
B. Paediatric dentistry involves standardised preparations
restorative dentistry which utilise differing degrees of “convenience
C. Conventional form” (access to caries through sound tooth
restorative dentistry structure) and “extension for prevention”
D. None of the (attempts to place cavity margins in less
above cariessusceptible tooth locations) which can
further reduce the structural integrity of teeth.
In recent years more conservative forms of
operative intervention have been
recommended which concentrate more
specifically on removal of carious dentine and
preservation of as much sound tooth structure
as possible.
A. Qdontoblast B. Undifferentiated All of the above Ans. 2, Undifferntiated mesenchymal cells Ref:
B. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells Sturdevant’s – 4th, p 30, 100 • In direct pulp
mesenchymal cells capping there is the placement of calcium
C. Fibroblast hydroxide directly on exposed pulpal tissue (a
D. All of the above pulpal exposure) • There is the stimulation in
the formation of reparative dentin in indirect as
well as direct pulp capping. • The defensive
function of the pulp is due to irritation by
mechanical, thermal, chemical, or bacterial
stimuli. • These irritants can cause the
degeneration and death of odontoblastic
processes in the affected area. • The formation
of odontoblasts from undifferentiated pulpal
mesenchymal cells that lay down irregular or
reparative dentin. • It is a slow process, taking
100 days to form a reparative dentin layer or
0.12 thicknesses.
83 Type of glass ionomer cement (GIC) A. Type I B. Type II Ans. 2, Type II Ref: Vimal sikri – 2nd , 429
used in ART? B. Type II Restorative cement is generally used in
C. Type III atraumatic restorative treatment (ART) Type I
D. Type IV is luting cement Type II is restorative, the P:L =
3:1 Type III is liner and bases. The P:L =1.5:1.
The type II is also used in the erosion/abrasion
lesion, class V lesion, restoration of primary
teeth, class III lesion, laminate restoration,
micro cavity preparation= box, slot, tunnel,
patients prone to rampant caries, small
medium sized class I lesion, repair of open
margins around crowns and inlays.

84 Temperature of water used in water
cooling trays for agar?
A. 12 – 15 degree C C. 18 – 21 degree C Ans. 3, 18 -210C Ref: Phillips – 11th, p 237
B. 15 – 18 degree C Making the agar impression Gelation is
C. 18 – 21 degree C accelerated by circulating cool water
D. 21 – 25 degree C (approximately 18-21 c) through the tray for 3-5
min. during the gelation. It has proceed to a
point at which the gel strength is sufficient to
resist deformation or fracture. Waiting an extra
minute greatly increases the strength and tear
resistance. Also, the lower the temperature, the
more rapidly gelation occurs and, to a certain
extent, the stronger the material will become.

85 Veau’s classification of a clefts of the
hard and soft plate extending up to
the incisive foramen is classified as?
A. Class I B. Class II Ans. 2, Class II Ref: S. I. Bhalajhi – 3rd, p 442
B. Class II Veau’s classification (1931) He has classified
C. Class III clefts into four groups: Group 1: They are clefts
D. Class IV involving the soft palate. Group 2: They are
clefts of the hard and soft plate extending up to
the incisive foramen. Group 3: They are
complete unilateral clefts involving the soft
palate, the hard palate, lip and the alveolar
ridge. Group 4: They are complete bilateral
clefts affecting the soft palate, the hard palate,
the lip and alveolar ridge.

86 Uncinate process is the part of which A. Sphenoid B. Ethmoid Ans. 2 Ethmoid Ref: B. D. Chaurasia’s – 4th, p
bone? B. Ethmoid 231 In the ethmoid bone, a curved lamina, the
C. Palate uncinate process, projects downward and
D. Maxilla backward from this part of the labyrinth; it
forms a small part of the medial wall of the
maxillary sinus, and articulates with the
ethmoidal process of the inferior nasal concha.

87 Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is: A. Zinc B. Aluminum Answer is “B” i.e. “Aluminum” . Ref: Parks
B. Aluminum 18th/135 “There are two types of DPT vaccine
C. Copper - Plain & adsorbed. Adsorption is usually
D. Magnesium carried out on a mineral carrier like aluminum
phosphate or hydroxide. Studies have shown
that adsorption increases the immunological
effectiveness of the vaccine. The WHO
recommends that only adjuvant DPT
preparations be utilized in immunization
programmes. - Parks/135

88 Specificity of a screening test A. True positives D. True negatives False positives Answer is “D” i.e. “True negatives”. Ref: Parks
measures: B. False positives 18th/117 “Specificity is defined as the ability of
C. False negatives a test to identify correctly those who do not
D. True negatives have the diseases that is “True negatives”.
90% percent specificity means that 90% of the
non- diseased persons will give true negative
result”. -Parks/117
89 Tlie bacterial flora associated with
juvenile periodontitis is mainly?
90 The facial root of premolar appears
to be distal to the lingual root in X-
Ray. What will be the direction of
projection?
91 A radiopaque area is found at the
root apex of an asymptomatic young
permanent tooth involved with deep
caries. The most probable diagnosis
is?
92 Tributary of the cavernous sinus
includes all of the following except?
93 The processing of short term memory A. Prefrontal cortex
to long term memory is done in:
A. Gram positive D. Gram negative Gram positive Ans. (D) Ref. Carranza 8th Ed/95, 9 h Ed/107
aerobic cocci anaerobic rods anaerobic cocci and 10th Ed/509-510 and Essential
B. Gram positive Microbiology for Dentistry Lakshman
anaerobic cocci Samaranayake 3rd ed/281 “The most common
C. Gram negative micro-organism associated with Juvenile
aerobic rods Periodontitis are A. Actinomycetamcomitans
D. Gram negative and Capnocytophaga which are Gram -ve
anaerobic rods anaerobic rods.” Bacteriology The flora in
Juvenile Periodontitis consists mainly of gram-
negative anaeronbic rods along with a minimal
amount of attached plaque with a larger
unattached component.
A. Changed vertical C. X-Ray projected Changing the tube Ans. (C) Ref. White and Pharoah 5th Ed/91 “It
direction of from mesial side film distance is based on SLOB rule, according to which
projection buccal objects move in opposite direction while
B. X-Ray projected lingual objects move in same direction SLOB
from distal side Rule [Same side Lingual Opposite side Buccal]
C. X-Ray projected SLOB RULE • Refers to a rule when using
from mesial side radiographs. For example, when viewing a
D. Changing the foreign body at the roots of a tooth, the location
tube film distance of this foreign body is uncertain on single
periapical. • The clinician must first assign a
reference point, say the mesial root of tooth
#18. Another periapical is taken except the
central ray is off-set mesially by 60 degrees.
A. Condensing A. Condensing Osteitis Ans. (A) Ref: Shafer 4th Ed/502 & 6th Ed/494 -
Osteitis 495 • Chronic Focal Sclerosing Osteomyelitis
B. Acute Apical (Condensing Osteitis) • Chronic focal
Periodontitis sclerosing osteomyelitis is an unusual reaction
C. Chronic of bone to infection, occurring in instances of
Periodontitis extremely high tissue resistance or in case of
D. Cementoma low-grade infection. Clinical Features • This
form of osteomyelitis arises almost exclusively
in young person’s before the age of 20 years. •
The tooth most commonly involved is the
mandibular first molar, which presents a large
carious lesion.
A. Superior petrosal D. Deep middle Deep middle Ans. (D) Deep middle cerebral vein Ref: B.D.
sinus cerebral vein cerebral vein Chaurasia 4th Ed/94, 95, 357 “Deep Middle
B. Inferior petrosal cerebral veins drain into the basal veins which
sinus drain into the Great cerebral veins that
C. Superficial middle terminate in the straight sinus. Deep Middle
cerebral vein cerebral veins neither form direct incoming
D. Deep middle channels nor direct draining channels for the
cerebral vein cavernous sinuses.”
B. Hippocampus Answer is B (Hippocampus): Guyton: Ganong;
B. Hippocampus Journal of Neuroscience Vol 16; Number 10;
C. Neocortex Harrison The hippocampus is currently credited
D. Amygdala with being the area of the brain in which short
term memories are converted into long term
memories. Three major neuronal pathways
have been described in the hippocampus that
is responsible for conversion of short term
memory into long term memory. Long term
potentiation (LTP) has been used as the
cellular model responsible for long term
memory in the Hippocampus
94 The substance that is present in both A. Fibrinogen B. Factor VII Fibrinogen Answer is B (Factor VII): Ganong;
serum and plasma is- B. Factor VII Chandrasoma Taylor Serum has essentially the
C. Factor V same composition as plasma except that its
D. Factor II fibrinogen and clotting factors II, V and VIII
have been removed and it has higher serotonin
content because of the breakdown of platelets
during clotting.-Ganong

95 Structure that does not cross the A. Left gonadal vein A. Left gonadal vein Answer is A (Left gonadal vein): BDC Vol II III
midline is: B. Left renal vein Left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein
C. Left and does not cross the midline. All other
branchiocephalic structures mentioned in question cross the
vein midline from left to the right Left gonadal vein
D. Hemiazygos vein drains into the left renal vein. It is the left renal
vein which crosses the midline to drain into the
Inferior vena cava but not the left gonadal vein

96 About Posterior cruciate ligament - A. Attached to the C. Prevents posterior Answer is C (Prevents posterior dislocation of
true statement is lateral femoral dislocation of tibia tibia): BDC vol 2; Maheshwari; Apley’s
condyle Campbells Orthopaedics Posterior cruciate
B. Intrasynovial ligament prevents posterior translation of tibia
C. Prevents posterior on the femur – Maheshwari
dislocation of tibia
D. Relaxed in full
flexion

97 There is mutation of gene coding for A. Increased muscle A. Increased muscle ANS A i.e. Increased muscle metabolism by
the ryanodine receptors in malignant metabolism by metabolism by excess excess Of Ca2+ ions. [Ref: Harrison 16/e P-
hyperthermia. Which of the following excess of Ca ions of Ca ions 105,390; Goodman & Gilman's 10/e F-204] In
statements best explains the B. Thermic effect of malignant hyperthermia (d/t mutation in gene
increased heat production in blood coding ryanodine receptor) increased heat
malignant hyperthermia-? C. Increased production is produced by increased muscle
sympathetic metabolism by uncontrolled (excess) release of
discharge Ca++ ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum.
D. Mitochondria
thermogenesis

98 Actinomycetes consist of A. No cell wall B. Cell wall Gram-ve motile ANS B. (Cell wall): Ananthnarayan 7thMOO;
B. Cell wall filaments 8th/391 Actinomycetes are considered
C. Cell wall made of traditionally between bacteria and fungi. Like
sterols fungi they form a mycelial network of branching
D. Gram-ve motile filaments but like bacteria they possess cell
filaments wall containing muramic acid, have prokaryotic
nuclei and are susceptible to antibacterial
antibiotics. Sterols are a component of fungi.

99 The only specific test for syphilis is: A. VDRL C. TP VDRL ANS C. (TPI): Ananthnarayan 7,h/382; 8th/376
B. Kahn TPI is the most specific test. It employs live T-
C. TP pallidum maintained aerobically in a complex
D. Wassermann medium.

100 Treponema pallidum is best identified A. Direct light B. Negative staining Direct light ANS B. (Negative staining): Ananthnarayan
by- microscopy microscopy 7th/378; 8th/374 Treponema pallidum cannot
B. Negative staining be seen under the light microscope, but can be
C. Gram-staining identified by negative staining with Indian ink. It
D. Acid fast does not take ordinary bacterial stains as
technique Gram-staining or acid fast staining.

101 Absence of cementum is a feature of- A. Vitamin D C. Hypophosphatasia Osteoporosis ANS C. (Hypophosphatasia): Shafer’s 6th7699
resistant rickets • The teeth present a unique appearance
B. Hypocalcaemia characterized by the abscess of cementum,
C. presomaby as a result of failure of
Hypophosphatasia cementogenesis.
D. Osteoporosis
102 An anxious mother brought her 4
year old daughter to the pediatrician.
The girl was passing loose bulky
stools for the past 20 days. This was
often associated with pain in
abdomen. The pediatrician ordered
the stool examination, which showed
the following organisms. Identify the
organism -
(photo_gallery/14615901752.PNG)
103 A young boy had a flea bite while
working in a wheat grain godown.
After 5 days he developed fever and
had axillary lymphadenopathy. A
smear was sent to the laboratory to
perform a specific staining. Which
one of the following staining method
would help in the identification of the
suspected pathogen –
(photo_gallery/14615902453.PNG)
104 Draughtman concentric rings on
culture are produced by-
(photo_gallery/14615906416.PNG)
105 Following image represents:
(photo_gallery/14615910549.PNG)
A. Entamoeba B. Giardia lamblia Ans:(b) . It is typical figure of the trophozoite
histolytica and cyst of Giardia lambia. • The figure in
B. Giardia lamblia question is showing :- i) Trophozoite with two
C. Cryptosporidium nuclei and four flagella. ii) Cyst with 4 nuclei
D. E.Coli
A. Albert staining. D. Wayson staining Ziehl-Neelsen . Ans:(d) Wayson stain Development of fever
B. Ziehl-Neelsen staining and axillary lymphodenopathy 5 days after a
staining bite of flea strongly suggests the bubonic
C. McFadyean’s plague, caused by yersinia pestis. Specific
staining stain for yersinia pestis is the Wayson’s or the
D. Wayson staining Giemsa’s stain
A. Yersina pestis D. Pneumococi Ans:(d) Pneumonocooci Due to alpha
B. H. ducreyi hemolysis, colonies ofpneumococci resemble
C. B. pertusi colonies o f Str. viridans. But on further
D. Pneumococi incubation the colonies of pneumococci
become flat with raised edges and central
umbonation, so that concentric rings are seen
on the surface when viewed from above -
draughtsman or Carrom coin appearance.
A. Robert's retractor A. Robert's retractor Mill's retractor Ans:(A) Roberts Retractor Robert's Retractor •
B. Mill's retractor This labial bow is made of 0.5 mm round SS
C. High labial bow wire, which is of a much thinner gauge than the
D. Hawley's conventional labial bows. It extends over the
appliance labial surfaces from canine to canine and
instead of a regular loop it incorporates a 3mm
internal diameter helix at the base of the loop .
The combination of a thin gauge wire and a
helix makes this labial bow highly flexible and
susceptible to distortion as it lacks stability in
the vertical plane. To overcome this, the distal
arms of the loops are supported in softened
stainless steel tubes of 0.5 mm internal
diameter • Along with Adams' clasp on the
buccal teeth for retention, this retractor can be
used in patients with severe anterior
proclination as it produces lighter forces over a
longer span of activation. It can also be used in
adult patients for the same reason.
106 Following image represents
(photo_gallery/146159114010.PNG)
107 Ganglion lying just below the
foramen ovale is
(photo_gallery/146159575832.PNG)
108 Figure A represent?
(photo_gallery/146159622934.PNG)
109 A patient develop presented with
following condition at the the cheek
and periorbital region resulting from
use an air-driven dental handpiece?
This condition is?
(photo_gallery/146159631235.PNG)
A. First order bend A. First order bend Third order bend Ans:(a) First order bend In the edgewise
B. Second order bracket system, to achieve an ideal alignment
bend of teeth all the bends— • first order (in and
C. Third order bend out), • second order (mesiodistal) and • third
D. None of the order (torquing) have to be built into the
above archwire by the clinician. But as the name
suggests, in the pre-adjusted edgewise
appliance (PEA) all these are built into the
brackets or the appliance
A. Ciliary B. Otic Submandibular Ans:B Otic ganglion • The otic ganglion is
B. Otic classically described as lying just below the
C. Submandibular foramen ovale, close to the origin of the nerve
D. None of above to the medial pterygoid, medial to the
mandibular nerve, lateral to the tensor veli
pala¬tini (which separates the ganglion from
the carti¬laginous part of the
pharyngotympanic tube) and anterior to the
middle meningeal artery. • However, it is worth
noting that, in cadaveric dissections at least,
the ganglion may be difficult to locate within the
infratemporal fossa
A. A. Salpingopharyngeus Stylopharngeus Ans:(a) Salpingopharyngeus • The
Salpingopharyngeus salpingopharyngeus muscle arises from the
B. Palatopharyngeus superior border of the medial cartilage of the
C. Stylopharngeus pharyngotympanic tube (Eustachian tube), in
D. Inferior constrictor the nasal cavity, making the posterior welt of
the torus tubarius; it passes downward and
blends with the posterior fasciculus of the
palatopharyngeus muscle. • The
salpingopharyngeus is known to raisethe
pharynx and larynx during deglutition
(swallowing) and laterally draws the
pharyngeal walls up. In addition, it opens the
pharyngeal orifice of the pharyngotympanic
tube during swallowing. This allows for the
equalization of pressure between the auditory
canal and the pharynx. • The
salpingopharyngeus is innervated by the vagus
nerve via the pharyngeal plexus.
A. Subcutaneous A. Subcutaneous Subcutaneous Ans:(A) • Emphysema is a swelling due to the
emphysema emphysema emphysema presence of gas or air in the interstices of the
B. Ludwig Angina connective tissue. There have been numerous
C. Cavernous sinus cases of emphysema reported involving the
thrombosis cervicofacial and even mediastinal areas
D. Cherubism following a variety of dental and oral
procedures—e.g. tooth extraction; blowing of
compressed air into a root canal during
endodontic treatment, or into a periodontal
pocket; blowing of air from a high- speed air-
rotor machine following middle-face fractures;
or spontaneously as a result of the patient’s
breathing actions following some type of
surgical procedure, with a break in the tissue
permitting air to enter connective tissue spaces
• An analogous problem termed pneumoparotid
can arise due to entrapment of air in the
parotid duct, leading to enlargement of parotid
gland caused by air insufflation.
110 Chest X ray of patient revealed this. A. Ectodermal B. Cleidocranial MANDIBULOFACIAL Ans: B Chest examination—examination of
The maxilla is underdeveloped and dysplasia dysplasia DYSOSTOSIS chest reveals malformation and absence of
smaller than normal, in relation to B. Cleidocranial clavicles. This clearly indicates Cleidocranial
mandible. Numerous unerupted teeth dysplasia dysplasia. The symptoms involved are
are found which are most prevalent C. characterstics:- There is prolonged retention of
in the mandibular premolar and MANDIBULOFACIAL primary dentition and delayed eruption of
incisor area.Which of the following DYSOSTOSIS permanent dentition
might be the cause? D. Apert Syndrome

(photo_gallery/146159638136.PNG)

111 A child is brought to the clinic with A. Check for A. Check for Check for Ans:(a) Check for supernumerary teeth
complaint of irregular teeth. The supernumerary teeth supernumerary teeth supernumerary teeth
maxillary central incisor is rotated in B. Resection of
an otherwise normal occlusion. What supracrestal fibers
should the next step be? Periapical C. Exert a couple on
radiograph was taken, and it showed tooth
this? What would be your treatment D. Fixed orthodontic
plan? appliances given

(photo_gallery/146167254141.PNG)
112 A patient with routine OPG presented
as radiolucency below the
mandibular canal and surrounded by
well corticated border above the
inferior border of mandible, just
anterior to the angle of jaw ? Your
diagnosis is?
(photo_gallery/146168083959.PNG)
113 Caviar tongue appears showing
many purple colored dilation of
venules in the below image
represents?
(photo_gallery/146168104160.PNG)
A. Stafne cyst A. Stafne cyst Aneurysmal bone It is also called as ‘static bone cavity or cyst’,
B. Traumatic cyst cyst ‘Stafne’s cyst or defect’, ‘lingual mandibular
C. Aneurysmal bone bone cavity’, ‘lingual cortical mandibular
cyst defect’, and ‘latent bone cyst’. It is the
D. Klesdalt cyst developmental inclusion of glandular tissue
within or more commonly, adjacent to the
lingual surface of the body of mandible. It was
recognized by Stafne in 1942. Mandible
develops around the lobe during development.
As it remains stable in size, it is called as ‘static
bone cyst’. Clinical Features • Incidence and
sex—it is rare. Males are affected more
commonly than females. • Site—it is located in
the posterior body of the mandible. • Sublingual
gland bony defect—in some cases cortical
defect can also occur in anterior region. These
defects are related to sublingual gland. •
Symptoms—it is asymptomatic and only
diagnosed onradiographical examination. •
Sign—sometime a notch or depression can be
palpable on clinical examination in the
posterior area. Radiographic Features • Site—it
is found below the mandibular canal and above
the inferior border of mandible, just anterior to
the angle of jaw and below and just posterior to
third or second molar • Size and shape—round
or ovoid radiolucency that will vary in size from
1 to 3 cm in diameter. It is occasionally
bilateral. • Borders—it is well defined by dense
radiopaque border that is the result of the rays
passing tangentially through the relatively thick
wall of depression. • Sublingual bony defect—
in some instances, round or ovoid radiolucency
may occur in the anterior segment of the
mandible, generally appearing as a rather
poorly circumscribed lesion, somewhere the
first premolar and central incisor area. This
may be caused by impingement of sublingual
gland.
A. Lingual Varix A. Lingual Varix Blue Nevus Ans:(a) Lingual Varix Definition • Varices—
B. Hemangioma pathological dilatation of vein or venules are
C. Blue Nevus varices or varicosity. • Varix—focal dilatation of
D. Melanotic Macule group of venules or vein is known as varix.
Etiology Trauma plays an important role in the
development of a varix. The traumatic event
probably damages and weakens the vascular
wall and result in dilation. Clinical Features •
Location—it is commonly found on the tongue,
lip or cheek, mainly in the seventh decade of
life. • Color—oral varix is characterized as a
red to purple papule or nodule. • Margins and
shape—it has sharply delineated borders and a
smooth, rounded surface contour. • Caviar
tongue—when many of sublingual veins are
involved it is called caviar tongue
114 A 26 year-old pregnant female
presents with a red, nodular
overgrowth of granulation tissue on
the gingiva (see exhibit). Which of
the following represents the MOST
likely diagnosis?
(photo_gallery/146184652971.PNG)
115 A 75-year-old man presents with a
'sore' on his lip. This has been
present for around four months and
has been getting slowly worse. His
past medical history includes
ischaemic heart disease and chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease. He
still smokes around 20 cigarettes per
day. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
(photo_gallery/146184665472.PNG)
116 Following instrument used for
advancement of maxilla also known
as?
(photo_gallery/146184849483.PNG)
A. Actinic cheilitis D. Pyogenic Pyogenic granuloma Ans:(d) Pyogenic granuloma • It is a tumor like
B. Peripheral fibroma granuloma gingival enlargement that is considered an
C. Peripheral giant exaggerated conditioned response to minor
cell granuloma trauma • The pyogenic granuloma of the oral
D. Pyogenic cavity arises most frequently on the gingiva
granuloma accounting around 75% of all cases. It may
also occur on the lips, tongue and buccal
mucosa, and occasionally on other areas. •
The • lesion is usually an elevated,
pedunculated or sessile vascular mass with a
smooth, lobulated, or even a warty surface,
which commonly is ulcerated and shows a
tendency for hemorrhage either spontaneously
or upon slight trauma • The lesions are more
common in the facial aspect than the lingual or
palatal aspects of gingiva and can occur
involving both sides including interdental
papilla. • It may be single or occurs at more
than one site, unilateral or bilateral especially
when it involves gingiva
A. Actinic keratosis C. Epidermoid Ackerman's tumor Ans:c Epidermoid carcinoma Sunlight, in cases
B. Ackerman's tumor carcinoma of lip cancer, appeared to be of only minor
C. Epidermoid etiologic significance. This is the generally
carcinoma accepted reason for its occurrence
D. Rodent ulcers preponderantly in fair-skinned outdoor male
workers who are affected by exposure of the
lower lip to the sun, whereas the upper lip is
partially protected. The lesser rate of
occurrence in females may be due to lower
exposure to sunlight and the partial protection
of their lips by lipstick.
A. Delaire facemask B. Petite facemask Petite facemask Ans:(b) Petit Facemask • Petit type of face
B. Petite facemask mask: This is also a modified form of Delaire
C. High pull Head face mask . It consists of of chin cup ond a
gear forehead cap wilh single rod running in the
D. Mc namara midline from forehead cap to chin Cup. • A
appliance cross bar at the level of the mouth is usee to
engage elastics. The advantage of this mode is
that the forehead cap, chin cup and the cross
bar can be adjusted to suit the patient.
117 A 25 year old female patient reported A. Cowden’s B. Gardner’s syndrome Ans:(b) Gardner syndrome Correct answer is
with a chief complaint of multiple syndrome b: Gardner’s syndrome o It is an autosomal
swellings in the lower jaw developed B. Gardner’s dominant condition characterized by a triad of
over a period of 10 years. The syndrome multiple osteomas, colonic polyposis and
swelling was not associated with any C. Caffey’s disease mesenchymal tumors of skin and connective
secondary signs and symptoms. D. Cherubism tissue. Reference Burkett
Extraoral examination revealed gross
facial asymmetry due to diffuse
swellings on the mandibular body
bilaterally. The swellings were bony
hard in consistency, non tender and
fixed to the mandible. Intraoral
examination revealed missing 2, 23,
over-retained 63. Patient also had a
small cystic swelling on the scalp.
Radiographic examination revealed
homogeneous radiopaque masses,
impacted 21, 23 and multiple
impacted supernumerary teeth.
Diagnosis is:

(photo_gallery/1461853530100.PNG)

118 Condition shown in Photograph is A. a. HSV B. b. EBV a. HSV b. EBV (Condition: Oral Hairy Leucoplakia)
caused by B. b. EBV
C. c. CMV
D. d. HPV

(photo_gallery/14732333642.png)

119 A person develops nodes A. a. Variola D. d. Paravaccinia d. Paravaccinia d. Paravaccinia (Condition shown: Milker's
(Photograph) due to milking of B. b. Vaccinia nodes)
cows.organism responsible is C. c. Varicella
D. d. Paravaccinia

(photo_gallery/14732335953.jpg)
120 Animal shown in Photograph is A. a. Rabies B. b. Japanese b. Japanese encephalitis
Reservoir host of B. b. Japanese encephalitis
encephalitis
C. c. Yellow fever
D. d. Chikungunya
fever

(photo_gallery/14732340045.jpg)

121 The blue area shown in the figure is A. (A). Facial artery A. (A). Facial artery (A). Facial artery Ans:(A) Facial artery
supplied by? B. (B). Maxillary
artery
C. (C). External
nasal
D. (D). Anterior
superior alveolar

(photo_gallery/1477930492m.JPG)

122 The Occlusal radiograph presented A. (A). Periapical B. (B). (B). Ans. (B). Globullomaxillary cyst
in the color image is suggestive of Cyst Globullomaxillary cyst Globullomaxillary
which of the following? B. (B). cyst
Globullomaxillary
cyst
C. (C). Nasopalatine
Cyst
D. (D). Nasoalveolar
Cyst

(photo_gallery/1477931031mjk.JPG)

123 The process of providing a lustre or
gloss on a material surface is known
as
A. a. Finishing B. b. Polishing c. Glazing Answer: b • Cutting is the process of removing
B. b. Polishing material from the substrate by the use of a
C. c. Glazing bladed bur or an abrasive embedded in a
D. d. Buffing binding matrix on a bur or a disk. • Countering
is the process of producing the desired
anatomical form by cutting or grinding away
excess material. • Finishing is the process of
removal of surface defects t>r scratches
created during the countering process through
the use of cutting or grinding instruments or
both. • Buffing is the procedure of producing a
lustrous surface through the abrading action of
fine abrasives bound to a nonabrasive binder
medium.

124 The type of nerve injury occurring in A. A. Neurotmesis D. D. Nerve palsy Ans:(d) Nerve palsy
zygomatic complex fracture: B. B. Neuropraxia
C. C. Axonotmesis
D. D. Nerve palsy

125 Malocclusion associated with Binder A. Class I with deep C. Class III with Binder's Syndrome (IVlaxiilonasal Dysplasia)
syndrome? bite reverse over bite Features • Midfacial hypoplasia (Pre-maxilla
B. Class II with open and nasal complex) along with Class III incisal
bite relationship • Very abnormal short nose and flat
C. Class III with nasal bridge _ • Underdeveloped upper jaw •
reverse over bite Relatively protruding lower jaw compare to
D. Scissors bite upper one and/ or a reverse overbite’ (or class
III malocclusion) • Arhinoid face • Anterior
nasal spine agenesis Lack of frontal sinuses in
most of the cases
126 The groove present between lateral
nasal and maxillary process in
embryonic life, later develops into?
A. Maxillary sinus B. Nasolacrimal duct Nasolacrimal duct Due to unusual type of fusion between the
B. Nasolacrimal duct maxillary process and the lateral nasal process
C. Groove initially these processes separated by a deep
disappears furrow or groove. After this unusual fusion
D. Nasolacrimal epithelium in the floor of the groove forms a
ducts solid core that leads to separation of them from
the surface and eventually canalizes to form
the nasolacrimal duct. When the duct has
separated, the two processes merge by infilling
of mesenchyme.

127 Which of the following is a denaturing A. Guanosine B. Guanidine Ref. U. Satyanarayana 3rd e/p55
substance? B. Guanidine
C. Glutamate
D. Glycine

128 False for insulin? A. Insulin is a signal D. It decreases It decreases glucose Insulin Act as a signal for high blood glucose
for high blood glucose transport into transport into cells levels. Effects • Synthesis of glycogen, fat, and
glucose levels cells protein - Increased • Breakdown of glycogen,
B. It stimulates fat, and protein - D
synthesis of
glycogen, fat, and
protein
C. It inhibits
breakdown of
glycogen, fat, and
protein
D. It decreases
glucose transport
into cells

129 In which of the following reaction is A. ATPase C. Phosphatase Ref U. Satyanarayana 3rd e/p253
magnesium required B. Dismutase
C. Phosphatase
D. Aldolase

130 Microabrasion is used to? A. Remove intrinsic D. Remove fluorosis Remove deep Ref Sturdevant 6th e/p314
stains stains extrinsic stains
B. Remove deep
extrinsic stains
C. Remove
tetracycline stains
D. Remove fluorosis
stains

131 Correct about craze line? A. Cracks in enamel C. No treatment unless All the above Craze Lines • Do not extend into the dentin •
extend into the they create a cosmetic More prevalent in adult teeth • More in the
dentin issue posterior teeth • Transillumination test to detect
B. More in the them • Not needed treatment unless they
anterior teeth create a cosmetic issue
C. No treatment
unless they create a
cosmetic issue
D. All the above

132 Vitality of the pulp is determined by? A. Intactness and A. Intactness and Both A and B Ref Cohen 10 ed page 17)
health of the health of the vascular
vascular supply supply
B. Status of the
pulpal nerve fibers
C. Both A and B
D. None of the
above
133 Bipolar electrode for pulp testing can
be classified o n the basis of?
A. Direction of A. Direction of current All of the above • Bipolar and monopolar - two stimulating
current modes • In bipolar mode the current is confined
B. Type of circuit to the coronal pulp is more accurate than
C. Type of electrode monopolar stimulating mode • Monopolar and
D. All of the above bipolar testers are based on the production of
impulses of negative polarity

134 The root canals most likely to share a A. Mesial and distal C. Both A and B Mesiobuccal and Mandibular bicuspids, which exhibit additional
common apical opening are? roots of mandibular mesiolingual roots of root formation often, have a single apical
premolars mandibular 1st molar opening.
B. Mesiobuccal and
mesiolingual roots of
mandibular 1st molar
C. Both A and B
D. None of the
above

135 Treatment of acute pulpitis is? A. Extraction C. Pulpectomy Pulpotomy Ref Grossman 12th e/p88
B. Pulpotomy
C. Pulpectomy
D. PA curettage

136 PG spring was designed by? A. Gjessing A. Gjessing Ref Profit 4e/p599
B. Goldberg
C. Graber
D. Grummons

137 Fusion of Condylar cartilage with A. 2 months C. 4 months Ref. Profitts fifth edition
mandibular body takes place at? B. 3 months
C. 4 months
D. 5 months

138 Formation of Primary Palate takes A. Days 42-55 A. Days 42-55 Ref. Profitts fifth edition
place at? B. Days 28-38
C. Days 50-65
D. Days 65-90

139 Buccopharyngeal membrane A. 3rd week B. 4th week Ref. Profitts fifth edition
ruptures at? B. 4th week
C. 5th week
D. 6th week

140 Femoral head is involved most
commonly in?
A. G6PD deficiency C. Sickle cell anemia Ref: Burkets Oral Medicine Ilelp391 Clinical
B. Thalassemia manifestations The femoral head is the most
C. Sickle cell anemia common area of bone destruction in sickle cell
D. Aplastic anemia patients, although other disease related
problems include avascular necrosis of the
humeral head leading to hip joint dysfunction,
changes in the thoracic and lumbar spine,
infection with encapsulated organisms,
particularly Salmonella and Staphylococcus
aureus, and bone and marrow disturbances.

141 Species of Candida is isolated from A. Candida albicans D. Candida medicans Ref: medical microbiology by Lakshman
human candidal infection, which B. andida glabrata Samaranayake 3e.
cannot be among them? C. Candida tropica
D. Candida
medicans
142 Gingival Bleeding index positive
score is given at?
A. 10 sec C. 15 sec Ref: Clinical periodontology and implant
B. 5 sec dentistry Sell 30 Bleeding after probing to the
C. 15 sec base of the probable pocket (Gingival Sulcus
D. 20 sec Bleeding Index) has been a common way of
assessing presence of subgingival
inflammation (Miihlemann and Son 1971). In
this dichotomous registration, 1 is scored in
cases where bleeding emerges within 15
seconds after probing. Presence/absence of
bleeding on probing to the base of the pocket
is increasingly tending to substitute the use of
the Gingival Index in epidemiologic studies.

143 Acute fluoride toxicity will cause all A. Nausea and C. Retarded skeletal Depressed CNS (c) Retarded skeletal growth Ref: Soben Peter
except? vomiting growth 3rd e/p326 Signs and symptoms of acute
B. Acidosis fluoride toxicity includes Nausea, vomiting,
C. Retarded skeletal diarrhoea, abdominal pain, cramps,
growth Paresthesia,
D. Depressed CNS

144 Incisor stability given by? A. Mayne A. Mayne (a) Mayne

B. Obwegesser
C. Keen
D. Choietal

145 Lip bumper does all except? A. Distolingual D. Buccal movement of Distolingual rotation (d) Buccal movement of PM/Molar Ref: Proffit
rotation of molars PM/Molar of molars 4e.
B. Lingual inclination
of incisors
C. Distal movement
o f molar
D. Buccal movement
of PM/Molar

146 Osteochondroma is? A. Involves only B. Involves condyle (b) Involves condyle and coronoid of mandible
condyle of mandible and coronoid of Ref: Page no.744, Diagnostic Surgical
B. Involves condyle mandible Pathology of the Head and Neck, Douglas R.
and coronoid of Gnepp Osteochondromas in the head and
mandible neck region, the cervical spine is the most
C. Involves common location. Other sites include the
intramembranous maxilla, mandible, and rarely, the cranial
bone bones, especially from the skull base.
D. Involves only
coronoid process

147 Miller index is given for?
A. Tooth mobility A. Tooth mobility Furcation (a) Tooth mobility Ref: Soben Peter 3rd e Miller
B. Pulp sensitivity involvement Index Class 0 Normal (physiologic) movement
C. Furcation when force is applied. Class I Mobility greater
involvement than physiologic * Class II Tooth can be moved
D. Apical perforation up to 1mm or more in a lateral direction
(buccolingual or mesiodistal). > Inability to
depress the tooth in a vertical direction
(apicocoronal) Class III Tooth can be moved
1mm or more in a lateral direction
(buccolingual or mesiodistal). Ability to depress
the tooth in a vertical direction

148 Colorado stain term was given by? A. McKay A. McKay (a) Me Kay Ref: Soben Peter 3rd e/p273 Dr.
B. THdean Freidrick McKay 1901 discovered permanent
C. Angle stains on the teeth of his patients which was
D. Franken referred to as ‘Colorado’ stain
149 Leonard brushing technique is? A. Vertical A. Vertical . (a) Vertical Ref: Soben peter 4e. Leonard
B. Circular advocated a vertical stroke in which maxillary
C. Horizontal and mandibular teeth are brushed separately.
D. Vibratory The bristles are placed at 90 degree angle to
the facia surface of teeth. The motion is vertical
up and down brushing movements on the facial
surface of clenched anterior and posterior
teeth.

150 Regarding Soldering what is not A. Electric arch D. Fluoride flux is used (d) Fluoride flux is used to solder nobel metals
true? soldering better then to solder nobel metals with base metal Ref: Phillis Ue/p564, 609
torch soldering with base metal
B. Double thickness
of gold solder is
used
C. Boric acid used to
solder gold with gold
alloy
D. Fluoride flux is
used to solder nobel
metals with base
metal

151 Minimal tooth preparation, post A. Rigid post with A. Rigid post with good (a) > (b) Rigid post with good adhesion > Rigid
preferred is? good adhesion adhesion post with friction Ref: Rosensteil 4e!336-342
B. Rigid post with
friction
C. Non rigid with
good adhesion
D. Non rigid with
friction

152 Tip of nose on lateral cephalogram is A. No C. Pn Sn (c) Pn Ref: Proffit 4e. Pronasale is the tip of
presented as? B. Sn nose on soft tissue marking of lateral
C. Pn cephalogram
D. Pr

153 Champange bubble test is done for?
A. NaOCl A. NaOCl (a) NaOCI Ref: Cohen 10e/pl37 m Diagnostic
B. H2O2 measures are important aids in the location of
C. Chlorhexidine root canal orifices, these measures include
D. Not recalled obtaining multiple pretreatment radiographs or
CBCT examining the pulp chamber floor with a
sharp explorer, troughing grooves with
ultrasonic tips, staining the chamber floor with
1% methylene blue dye, performing the sodium
hypochlorite champagne bubble test and
visualising pulp chamber anatomy and root
canal bleeding points

154 Which of the following doesn’t have A. Superior oblique B. Inferior oblique (b) Inferior oblique Ref: Grays Anatomy 40e. All
attachment at orbital apex? B. Inferior oblique rectus muscles, superior oblique and LPS
C. Inferior rectus except inferior oblique arise from apex of orbit
D. Superior rectus

155 Ann Arbor classification is for? A. Hodgkin and non- A. Hodgkin and non- (a) Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma Ref:
Hodgkin lymphoma Hodgkin lymphoma Neville 3e/594 Ann Arbor System is for
B. Only for non- classification of Lymphoma both Hodgkin’s
Hodgkin lymphoma Lymphoma and Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma.
C. Only for Hodgkin
lymphoma
D. None of the
above

156 Chicken Pox virus is? A. Varicella Zoster A. Varicella Zoster Varicella Zoster (a) Varicella Zoster Ref: Shafers 5th E/p480
B. HSV 1 Varicella zoster virus is a DNA virus, which
C. HSV 2 causes two distinct lesions known as
D. HPV CHICKENPOX a primary lesion and a
reactivated lesion known as Herpes Zoster
157 Hurthle cells are seen in?
158 Elective procedure should be
deferred when neutrophill count is
below
159 A patient is diagnosed w ill
mucormycosis in maxilla. True
statement is?
160 Mohs Microsurgical technique is?
161 Staley and K erber revised the
analysis of?
162 Normal salivary secretion is?
A. Hashimoto A. Hashimoto (a) Hashimoto thyroiditis Ref: Robbins 8e/pl
thyroiditis thyroiditis 112
B. Papillary Ca
thyroid
C. Medullary Ca
thyroid
D. Thyroglossal cyst
A. 800 A. 800 Ans. (a) > (d) 800 > 1200 Ref: Dental care of
B. 400 the pediatric Patient with splenic dysfunction by
C. 2000 Da Fonseca (Pediatr dent 24:5-63,2002)
D. 1200 Friends we searched many books and journals
almost everywhere it was mentioned that when
absolute neutrophil count is less than
1000/mm3, elective dental work should be
postponed because the risk for sepsis
increases greatly. • If neutrophil >2000 no need
for antibiotic prophylaxis for elective procedure
• If 1000-2000/mm3 use on basis of clinical
judgment based on the patient health status
and planned procedures • If less than
1000/mm3 than defer elective dental care
A. Occurs in C. Can extend into (c) Can extend into orbit and brain Ref page
Immunocompetent orbit and brain 253, oral and maxillofacial infections, Topazian
B. Doesn't cause (4th edition) Rhinocerebral mucormicosis is
palatal ulceration seen in sincises of immuno compromised
C. Can extend into patients.
orbit and brain
D. It is a bacterial
infection
A. Wide excision of B. Used in removal of (b) Used in removal of tissue of BCC Ref:
tissue tissue of BCC Neville 3rd E/p432 Radical surgical excision
B. Used in removal and radiation therapy are recommended for
of tissue of BCC large or aggressive lesions. For sclerosing type
C. Recurrence rate of lesions, recurrent lesions, or lesions situated
high near embryonic planes of fusion (along which
D. A form of these tumor cells tend to invade), a procedure
cryotherapy called Mohs micrographic surgery should be
used. This technique essentially uses frozen-
section evaluation of specially mapped and
marked surgical specimens to determine
whether tumor tissue has been left behind. If it
has, then the surgeon can return immediately
to that particular area and remove more tissue,
repeating the process until the patient is free of
disease. The recurrence in Mohs surgical
technique is relatively uncommon. MMS is
more predictable for total cure and tissue
sparing as well.
A. Moyer C. Hixon and old father (c) Hixon and old father analysis Ref: Proffit
B. Tanaka and analysis 4e/p 198-99 Stanley and kerber method of cast
Johnson analysis is used for mandibular arch only. It is
C. Hixon and old similar to Hixon-Old father analysis and require
father analysis radiographs. Stanley-kerber method will give
D. Total space the best prediction of tooth size followed by
analysis Tanaka Johnson and moyer s analysis
A. 200-300 ml/day B. 800-1000 ml/day (b) 800-1000 ml/day Ref: Tencates P.N.254,
B. 800-1000 ml/day 8th E Volume of daily Saliva 600-1OOOmL/day
C. 1500-1700 ml/day
D. 300-500 ml/day
163 Communication of maxillary sinus is A. Pack it with ribbon D. Immediate primary Immediate primary (d) Immediate p rimary closure Ref: page 81,
found during extraction o f max gauge closure closure the extraction of teeth (2nd edition) Geoffrey
molar. Best M anagement is? B. Removal of bone Howe In case of an oro-antral communication,
and tooth immediately a mucoperiosteal flap should be
C. Delay closure raised and sutured across the defect with loose
D. Immediate interrupted horizontal mattress sutures.
primary closure

164 Most Stiff wire among these is? A. Elgiloy A. Elgiloy (a) Elgiloy Ref: Orthodontic material by
B. SS Brentley le, 1982, Phillips 11 e/p641
C. Timolium
D. TMA

165 Luxator application? A. Thick weakling B. Thin working end to (b) Thin working end to go in PDL space
end and luxate and go in PDL space
remove the tooth
B. Thin working end
to go in PDL space
C. They can use
fulcrum of
interproximal region
D. Sharp triangular
tip ahead and
perpendicular to
shank

166 Disease and exposure is studied
before the start o f a study in?
A. RCT C. Case control study RCT (c) Case control study Ref: Park 18th e/p65
B. Exposure study Case control studies are often called
C. Case control retrospective studies. It has three distinct
study features: • Both the exposure and outcome
D. Cohort study have occurred before the start of study. •
Proceeds backward from effect to cause •
Uses a control group or comparison group to
support/refute an inference.

167 Wilson disease all are true except? A. Increase A. Increase (a) Increase ceruloplasmin Ref: Harrison
ceruloplasmin ceruloplasmin 17e/pl921, 2449-50 In Wilson disease there is -
B. Chronic active Decreased serum ceruloplasmin and increased
C. Increase cu in urinary copper; increased hepatic copper level
liver and liver infection occurs. The “gold standard”
D. Liver infection for diagnosis remains liver biopsy with
quantitative copper assays. Affected patients
have values >3.1 pmol/g (>200 pg/g) dry
weight of liver.

168 Up righting of molar is done by? A. Coffin spring B. Kesling spring (b) Kesling spring Ref: Proffit 4e.
B. Kesling spring
C. Finger spring
D. Zapring

169 Sensory Pulpal nerve fibers are? A. Myelinated A A. Myelinated A delta (a) Myelinated A delta and unmyelinated C
delta and and unmyelinated C fibers. Ref: Cohens pathway of pulp 10th
unmyelinated C fibers edition/p50 The tooth is densely innervated by
fibers afferent nerve fibres which are believed to
B. Unmyelinated A transmit pain in response to thermal,
delta and myelinated mechanical
C fibers
C. Only myelinated A
delta fibers
D. Only
unmyelinated C
fibers
170 Position of Marginal mandibular A. Lies deep to A. Lies deep to (a) Lies deep to platysma superficial to facial
branch of facial nerve? platysma superficial platysma superficial to vein Ref: page 243, sicher and dubruls oral
to facial vein facial vein anatomy 8e Marginal amndibular nerve follows
B. Lies deep to almost exactly the lower border of jaw. In its
platysma deep to corse anreiorly, manbibular branches cross the
facial vein facial vein and artery, lying superficial to the
C. At platysmal vessels
plane
D. Subdermal fat
plane

171 Bisphoshonates have all the A. Increase bone D. Increased (d) Increased resistance to osteonecrosis Ref:
following effects except? density resistance to Mig liora ti CA: Bisphosphonates and oral
B. Increase calcium osteonecrosis cavity avascular bone necrosis. J. Clin Oncol
deposition 21:4253, 2003. One of the most dreaded
C. Increased bone complication of bisphosphonate therapy is drug
strength induced osteonecrosis of jaw (BRONJ -
D. Increased bisphosphonate related osteo necrosis of jaw).
resistance to
osteonecrosis

172 Splinting of extruded of teeth is done A. 4 weeks B. 2 weeks (b) 2 weeks Ref: 2 weeks Ref: Petersons
for? B. 2 weeks principles o f oral and maxillofacial surgery
C. 2 months page392
D. 4 months

173 Which of these is a circumpennate A. Masseter D. Tibialis anterior (d) Tibialis anterior Ref: http://www.
muscle? B. Deltoid mananatomy.com/basic-
C. Temporalis anatomy/fasciculararchitecture-
D. Tibialis anterior musclesMuscles with Parallel Fasciculi: These
are muscles in which the fasciculi are parallel
to the line of pull. These muscles may be: •
Quadrilateral, for example thyrohyoid, • Strap-
like, for example sternohyoid and sartorius. •
Strap-like with tendinous intersections, for
example rectus abdominis. • Fusiform, for
example biceps brachii, digastric. The range of
movement in such muscles is maximum.
Muscles w ith Oblique Fasciculi When the
fasciculi arc oblique to the line of pull, the
muscle maybe triangular, or pennate (feathcr-
like) in the construction. This arrangement
makes the muscle more powerful, although the
range of movement is reduced. Oblique
arrangements are of the following types: •
Triangular, e.g. temporalis, adductor longus. •
Unipennate, e.g. flexor pollicis longus, extensor
digitorum longus, pcroncus tcrtius, palmar
intcrossci. • Bipennate, e.g. rectus femoris,
dorsal interossei, pcroncus longus, flexor
hallucis longus. • Multipennate, e.g.
subscapularis, deltoid (acromial fibers]. •
Circumpennate, e.g. tibialis anterior. Muscles w
ith S p ira l o r Twisted Fasciculi: Spiral or
twisted fibers are found in trapezius, pectoralis
major, latissimus dorsi, supinator, etc. In
certain muscles the fasciculi are crossed.
These are called cruciate muscles, e.g.
sternocleidomastoid, masseter and adductor
magnus.
174 Doxycycline concentration attained in A. 0.2-0.3
submicrobial dose?
175 Most common injury seen in primary
dentition is?
176 Facial nodes are present at?
177 One lower limb burn?
178 Superficial epithelium or supra
basilar split lesion seen in?
B. 0.7-0.9 (b) 0.7 - 0.9 Ref: Thomas J, Walker C,
B. 0.7-0.9 Bradshaw M. Long-term use o f
C. 1.0-1.2 subantimicrobial dose o f doxycycline does not
D. 1.3-1.9 lead to changes in antimicrobial susceptibility. J
Periodontol. 2000; 71:1472-1483. Use of
“subantimicrobial doses of doxycycline” as an
inhibitor of matrix metalloproteinases, using 40
mg of doxycycline (20 mg twice a day) are too
low to affect bacteria and hence will not disturb
the indigenous microbial flora or induce or
select microbial resistance. Such 20-mg, twice
daily doses of doxycycline daily produce blood
levels of 0.79 micrograms/mL (±0.285
micrograms/ mL), as clearly stated by the
proponents of this dosing for the
“management” of periodontal disease.
A. Luxation A. Luxation Avulsion (a) Luxation Ref: Guidelines fo r management
B. Uncomplicated o f traumatic dental injuries Luxation injuries
fracture not involving affecting both multiple teeth and surrounding
pulp
C. Complicated
fracture involving
pulp
D. Avulsion
A. Oral mucosa B. Corner of mouth (b) Corner of mouth Ref: Grays anatomy!20e
B. Corner of mouth The fa c ia l lym p h nodes comprise th re e
C. Lips groups: • Infraorbital or maxillary, scattered
D. Gingiva over the infraorbital region from the groove
between the nose and cheek to the zygomatic
arch; • Buccinator, one or more placed on the
Buccinator opposite the angle of the mouth; •
Supramandibular, on the outer surface of the
mandible, in front of the Masseter and in
contact with the external maxillary artery and
anterior facial vein.
A. 9 B. 18 (b) 18 Ref: Bailey and Loves short practice o f
B. 18 surgery, 25e Applying the Wallaces rule of 9
C. 36 (Adults) Another method is the palm method.
D. 54 Palm area is considered as 1% of BSA, so the
amount of area burnt can be gauged by
measuring in no. of palms.
A. Leukoplakia C. Pemphgus Vulgaris (c) Pemphgus VulgarisRef: Pn.826/Shafers
B. Erythroplakia Textbook o f Oral Pathology/ Seventh Edition
C. Pemphgus Pemphigus as an entity is characterized
Vulgaris microscopically by the formation of a vesicle or
D. OSM bulla entirely intraepithelially, just above the
basal layer producing the distinctive
suprabasilar 'split'. Prevesicular edema
appears to weaken this junction, and the
intercellular bridges between the epithelial cells
disappear. This results in loss of cohesiveness
or acantholysis, and because of this, clumps of
epithelial cells are often found lying free within
the vesicular space. These have been called
'Tzanck cells' and are characterized particularly
179 Which of the following is not true
about Sjogren syndrome?
180 Which of the following does not
invade cells?
181 Reciprocal arm acts as indirect
retainer when?
182 C- reactive protein is increased by
183 How much % of midline diastema is
seen in preschool children?
A. Patient is prone to C. Thin serous Patient is prone to B- (c) Thin serous secretion of stenson’s duct are
B-Cell lymphoma of secretion of stensons Cell lymphoma of common Ref: Ma rx and sterns oral and
parotid duct are common parotid maxillofacial pathology, page 505-507 Due to
B. Parotid involvement of Parotid gland, absence of flow
enlargement from Stensons duct, or thick mucous
C. Thin serous secretions are common.
secretion of
stensons duct are
common
D. Schirmer’s tear
function test is used
to assess degree of
xerophthalmia
A. P. gingivalis B. P. Intermedia (b) P. Intermedia Ref: lindhe 5th edition /p248
B. P. Intermedia The possibility of invasion in periodontal
C. Actinobillus infections gained credence with the
actinomycomitans unequivocal demonstration of invasion by a
D. T denticola or spirochete with an unique ultrastructural
forysthues morphology during active episodes of acute
necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (Listgarten &
Socransky 1964; Listgarten 1965). Strains of A.
actinomycetemcomitans and P. g in g iva lis
have been shown to be capable of invading
epithelial cells derived from human periodontal
pockets or gingival sulci. Other studies
demonstrated that T. fo rs y th ia was present
in high numbers in preparations of human
periodontal pocket epithelial cells and cells of
this species could be detected within the
epithelial cells. The property of invasion of
epithelial cells is a common property of a wide
range of mucosal pathogens including
members of the genera Salmonella, Shigella,
Yersinia, Escherichia, and Listeria.
A. Used in long span C. When it is present (c) When it is present anterior to fulcrum line
Class-Ill ridges anterior to fulcrum line Ref McCracken 11 e/p93 The reciprocal clasp
B. When it is present arm also acts as a minor degree as an indirect
posterior to fulcrum retainer. This is only true when it rests on a
line suprabulge surface of an abutment tooth lying
C. When it is present anterior to the fulcrum line. Lifting of a distal
anterior to fulcrum extension base away from the tissue is thus
line resisted by a rigid arm, which is not easily
D. When it is rest in displaced cervically. The effectiveness of such
Infra bulge surface an indirect retainer is limited by its proximity to
the fulcrum line, which gives it a relatively poor
leverage advantage, and by the fact that
slippage along tooth inclines is always
possible.
A. IL1 B. IL6 IL8 (b) IL6 Ref. Carranza l i e
B. IL6
C. IL10
D. IL8
A. More than 50% A. More than 50% More than 50% (a) More than 50% Ref: AAPD 17; 3,1995
B. 30%
C. 20%
D. 10%
184 Which has common role in
osteoblast, fibroblast and
cementoblast?
185 Score 6 in Russell Periodontal index
represent?
186 Inner surface of pterion is related to?
187 Asteroid bodies are found in?
188 Which of the following can most
commonly cause the serious life
threatening complication of
pulmonary embolism?
A. Osteopontin A. Osteopontin Bone sialoprotein Ans. (a) > (b) Osteopontin > Osteocalcin Ref.
B. Osteocalcin Journal Article: OSTEOPONTIN: SODEK /,
C. Osteogenin GANSS B, McKee M D Critical Reviews in Oral
D. Bone sialoprotein Biology and Medicine, 2000; 11(3): 279-303. In
bone, OPN is produced by osteoblastic cells at
various stages of differentiation (Zohar et al.,
1997a), by differentiated osteoblasts and
osteocytes (McKee and Nanci, 1995a; Sodek
et al., 1995), and also by osteoclasts (Dodds et
al., 1995). OPN is also expressed by
fibroblastic cells in embryonic stroma and in
wound healing sites. At the dentino-cementum
junction, cementoblasts secrete OPN and
coordinate the integration of cementum
collagen fibrils with those of dentin in a manner
that may be likened to the extracellular matrix
assembly events occurring at cement lines in
bone. While a role for OPN in cell adhesion is
less obvious at the tooth root surface, its ability
to act in this manner has been suggested. In
dentin, the large majority of OPN appears to be
associated with the initial sites of calcification
that occur within the socalled mantle dentin of
the developing root (McKee et al., 1996).
Additional, moderate amounts of OPN appear
diffusely (distributed throughout the thin layer
of mantle dentin, with very little being present
in the peritubular dentin itself. This OPN may
originate cellularly from both the odontoblasts
and the cementoblasts.
A. Pocket A. Pocket (a) Pocket Ref: carranza 10th ed/p 120, Table
B. Mild gingivitis 8.3
C. Moderate
gingivitis
D. Advanced
periodontitis
A. Superficial D. Middle meningeal (d) Middle meningeal artery Ref: page 10,
temporal artery artery Human Anatomy by BD Chaurasia, Vol 3, 4th
B. Ophthalmic artery edition Explanation Pterion is the H-shaped
C. Basilar artery suture formed by 4 bone : frontal, parietal,
D. Middle meningeal temporal and sphenoid. Deep to it lies the
artery middle
A. Sideropenic B. Sorotrichosis b) Sporotrichosis Ref: Shafer 7th e/p377
dysphagia Asteroid bodies radiate formations around the
B. Sorotrichosis fungal spores in tissues are commonly found in
C. Lichen planus Sporotrichosis infection.
D. Mucormycosis
A. Cardiac arrest B. Deep Deep vein thrombosis Ref: Burkefs 12th e/358
B. Deep veinthrombosis Explanation Pulmonary embolism- Exogenous
veinthrombosis or endogenous material goes to the lung
C. Tobacco smoking vasculature and leads to pulmonary artery
D. IV Catheters blockage. Most common site of embolus origin
is - thrombosis of lower extremities Risk factors
for pulmonary embolism- • Prolonged
immobilization, lower extremities trauma,
history of deep vein thrombosis and use of
oestrogen containing oral contraceptive pills.
189 Which of the following is true about A. More common in D. Seeh after 3 months (d) Seen after 3 months of acute attack of
Sydenham’s chorea? male of acute attack of rheumatic fever Ref: Davidson 21st e/p614
B. Intermittent fever rheumatic fever Explanation Sydenham’s chorea (St Vitus
C. Acute dance)- ® Its late neurological manifestation of
manifestation of rheumatic fever • Appears at least after 3
rheumatic fever months of acute attack of rheiunatic fever
D. Seeh after 3
months of acute
attack of rheumatic
fever

190 Full form of TMS is?
A. Thread mate A. Thread mate system Thread mate system (a) Thread mate system Ref: Sturdevanfs 6th
system e/p434 Several styles of self-threading pins are
B. Treated mill steel available. The Thread Mate System (TMS): •
C. Titanium One of the self-threading pins • Most widely
molybdenum steel used self-threading pin Advantages are: •
D. Treated mate Versatility • Pin sizes have wide range • Color-
system coding system • Retentiveness is more

191 Which of the following is very, A. Saliva is one of D. All of the above All of the above (d) A ll of the above . Ref: The role o f saliva in
confirmed -correct- related to the important factor retention o f ma xilla ry complete dentures. Jpd
retention? of retention 1978
B. Thin saliva is
more adhere than
thick saliva
C. Quality and
quantity of saliva are
physiological factors
D. All of the above

192 Single step border moulding is done A. Green stick D. Poly vinyl silicone/ Green stick (d) Poly vinyl silicone/polyether elastomer .
with? compound polyether elastomer compound Ref: Textbook o f complete denture by A rth u r
B. Medium body O Rahn 6th e /p l 18 Poly vinyl silicone or
elastomer polyether elastomer is best suited for single
C. Putty like step border moulding.
impression material
D. Poly vinyl silicone/
polyether elastomer

193 Least common injury in primary A. Avulsion D. Root fracture or Root fracture or (d) Root fracture or complicated crown
teeth? , B. Luxation complicated crown complicated crown fractures Ref: McDonald 8th e/p479 Due to
C. Intrusion fractures fractures elasticity of tooth socket in children, luxation
D. Root fracture or injuries including avulsion and intrusion are
complicated crown more common than other injuries.
fractures

194 Preferred Grid ratio is about?
A. 8: 1 A. 8: 1 (a) 8 :1 Ref: White and Pharaoh 6th e/p63 G
B. 6:1 rid ra tio • Ratio of grid thickness to the width of
C. 4:1 the radiolucent spacer • Higher grid ratio leads
D. 2:1 to more effective removal of scattered radiation
• Preferred grid ratio is about 8 or 10

195 Pedunculated exophytic growth seen A. HPV A. HPV H P v R e f Text book o f o ral medicine by A n
on lateral margin of tongue is due to? B. HHV il G. Ghom 2e/p771-72 Pedunculated -Base of
C. CMV tumor is narrower than the widest part of lesion
D. None of the HPV can cause common or genital wart tongue
above is one of the oral involvement sites at which
sessile pink pedunculated exophytic growth
with history of oral sex important in clinical
diagnosis. CMV usually produces deep,
penetrating oral ulceration on lip> tongue,
pharynx or any mucosal site. HHV also
associated with ulcerated lesion rather than
pedunculated growth on mucosal sites
196 Which bone does not articulate with
maxilla?
A. Ethmoid D. Sphenoid (d) Sphenoid R e f Pg 23-28, O ra l anatomy
B. Aacrimal 8th edition, Sicher and D u B ru ll Explanation
C. Frontal Maxilla articulates with the following bones:
D. Sphenoid Frontal, ethmoid, nasal, zygomatic, lacrimal,
inferior nasal concha, palatine, vomer, and the
adjacent fused maxilla.

197 Which of the following material
restrict the growth in TMJ ankylosis?
A. Fat C. Silicone (c) Silicone ' Ref. Various in ternet sources, m
B. Bone a x illo fa cia l surgeons Explanation If used
C. Silicone properly, none of these inetpositional material
D. Cartilage RESTRICT growth in strict sense. However,
silicon had greatest chances of getting infected
among all these options, hence causing
infiltration of soft tissues, and great difficulty in
removal. However, we are still not sure what
the examiner wishes to ask in this.

198 Most common cause of A. Arterio-venous C. Aneurysm (c) Aneurysm Ref: Harrison 16th /2387 The
subarachanoid hemorrhage is? malformation most common cause of non -traumatic
B. Cavernous subarachnoid hemorrhage is rapture of a
angioma Saccular/Berrys aneurysm, most commonly
C. Aneurysm occuring in the anterior circulation on the Circle
D. Hypertention of Willis.

199 Which structure is not preserved in A. Cephalic vein D. Branches of (d) Branches of intercostobrachial nerve Ref.
modified radical mastectomy? B. Pectoralis minor intercostobrachial S. das 3e/p725 The major difference between
C. Pectoralis major nerve traditional radical and modified radical
D. Branches of mastectomy (MRM) is that the chest muscles
intercostobrachial are spared. In MRM, the skin, breast tissue,
nerve areola, nipple and most of the axillary lymph
nodes aee resected. The lining of the muscles
may be removed too, but the muscle is kept
intact, so that there is no hollowing of the chest
post surgery.

200 What is the percentage of body
surface area involved in head + face, B. 13%
burn in an adult?
A. 9% A. 9% (a) 9% Ref. Bailey and love 25e/p381
Explanation Wallace’s rule of 9 - for calculating
C. 15% burn surface area is: • 9% for the head and
D. 7% neck • 9% for each upper limb • 9% for the
front of each lower limb • 9% for the back of
each lower limb • 9% for the front of the chest •
9% for the back of the chest • 9% for the front
of the abdomen • 9% for the back of the
abdomen • 1% for the genitalia Also see image
based question relating to burns.

201 Most common cause of esophagitis A. Alcohol D. Esophageal reflux Spicy and hot food (d) Esophageal reflux Ref: Harrisons 19th ed.
is? B. Smoking
C. Spicy and hot
food
D. Esophageal reflux

202 Eyelid retraction is a sign of? A. Thyrotoxicosis A. Thyrotoxicosis Facial nerve palsy (a) Thyrotoxicosis Ref: Page 290, Hutchinsons
B. Levator palpebre clinical methods, 21st edition
superioris palsy
C. Trigeminal
neuralgia
D. Facial nerve palsy

203 Which of these LA agents has A. Lidocaine C. Ropivacaine (c) Ropivacaine Ref: Stanley Malamed,
vasoconstrictive properties? B. Bupivacaine handbook of local anesthesia, 5th edition
C. Ropivacaine Explanation Everyone knows cocaine is a
D. Etidocaine vasoconstrictive LA. Ropivacaine is another
204 Injection into pterygomandubl w A. Lingual nerve B. Inferior alveolar Lingual nerve (b) Inferior alveolar nerve
space leads to anesthesia of? B. Inferior alveolar nerve
nerve
C. Buccal nerve
D. Long buccal
nerve

205 Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is used in A.
the treatment of all except?
B. Sfckle cell disease (b) Sickle cell disease Ref: Mortensen CR;
Osteoradionecrosis Hyperbaric oxygen therapy, Current
B. Sfckle cell Anaesthesia & Critical Care 19 (2008) 333-337
disease Explanation Indications ofHBO therapy are:- •
C. Carbon monoxide Air or gas embolism • Carbon monoxide
poisoning poisoning & Carbon monoxide poisoning
D. Decompression complicated by cyanide poisoning • Clostridal
sickness myositis and myonecrosis (gas gangrene) •
Crush injury, compartment syndrome, and
other acute traumatic ischemias •
Decompression sickness • Enhancement of
healing in selected problem wounds •
Exceptional blood loss (Anemia) • Intracranial
abscess • Necrotising soft tissue infections •
Osteomyelitis (refractory) • Delayed radiation
injury (soft tissue and bony necrosis) • Skin
grafts and flaps (compromised) • Thermal
burns

206 For mandibular tori removal incision A. Crest of alveolar A. Crest of alveolar (a) Crest of alveolar ridge Ref: page 170,
is best placed at? ridge ridge petersons principles of oral and maxillofacial
B. Prominent part of surgery, 2nd edition
tori
C. Lingual vestibule
D. Buccal vestibule

207 Trismus is not seen in which of the A. OSMF D. SABE Scleroderma (d) SABE Ref: Shafer, 5th edition Explanation
following? B. Tetanus SABE - Subacute bacterial endocarditis will not
C. Scleroderma show trismus
D. SABE

208 Dacrocystitis is? A. Inflammation of B. Inflammation of (b) Inflammation of lacrimal sac

lacrimal gland lacrimal sac
B. Inflammation of
lacrimal sac
C. Inflammation of
frontal sinus
D. Inflammation of
Eustachian tube

209 Which of these radiological
investigations is io n is in g radiation
free?
A. CT C. MRI (c) MRI Ref Page 191, Whaites, Essentials of
B. CBCT dental radiography and radiology, 3rd ed
C. MRI Explanation MRI and USG are free of ionising
D. PET scan radiation, hence much safer in pregnancy and
otherwise. PET and CT (including CBCT) use a
large amount of radiation, as compared to plain
films.

210 Modified Le Fort classification for
midface fractures was given by?
A. Marciani A. Marciani (a) Marciani Ref: Pg 402, Neelima Malik, 3rd
B. Zide and Kent ed Explanation Marciani re-classified Le Fort
C. Lockwood fractures (1993) including various other
D. Obwegesser midface bone, into: Le Fort I : Low maxillary
fracture l a : Low maxillary fracture/multiple
segments Le Fort I I : Pyramidal fracture H a :
Pyramidal and nasal fracture lib : Pyramidal
and NOE fracture Le Fort III : Craniofacial
dysjunction I lia : Craniofacial dysjunction and
nasal fracture Illb : Craniofacial dysjunction and
NOE fracture
211 The first sign of haemorrhagic shock A. Dyspnoea B. Tachycardia Hypotension (b) Tachycardia Ref ATLS students course
is? B. Tachycardia manual, 9th ed
C. Hypotension
D. Vasoconstriction

212 Coleman sign is seen in? A. Hematoma of B. Hematoma on floor Ecchymosis in the (b) Hematoma on floor of mouth Ref: Coleman
palate of mouth mastoid region F; An Important Sign in the Diagnosis of
B. Hematoma on Fracture of the Jaw
floor of mouth
C. Ecchymosis in the
mastoid region
D. Ecchymosis in the
gp foramen reg io

213 Which of these is true for diagnosis A. B1 transferrin C. High protein (c) High protein Ref: page 495, Petersons
of CSF rhinorrhoea? B. High glucose principles of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 2nd
C. High protein ed
D. Sweet taste in the
mouth

214 Early movement following A. Avoided B. Desirable (b) Desirable Explanation Early aggressive
interpositional arthroplasty of TMJ is? B. Desirable post-operative exercises is an absolute
C. Unimportant requirement in all cases of TMJ ankylosis. This
D. Indicated only in is a part of Kabans protocol
unilateral TMJ
ankylosis cases

215 Which of these is a definitive airway? A. ILMA D. 0fotrachea l (d) Orotracheal intubation Ref: ATLS Provider
B. MA intubation manual Explanation By definition, a definitive
C. Combitube airway is a cuffed tube placed below the level
D. 0fotrachea l of vocal cords. It includes only 4 things: • Oro-
intubation tracheal intubation • Nasotracheal intubation •
Surgical airways - cricothyroidotomy and
tracheostomy LMA (laryngeal mask airway)
and ILMA (Intubating LMA) and combitube are
adjuncts, used temporarily in cases where
intubation is not possible and surgical airway is
being prepared for.

216 Which of these is not a theory of A. Nitzins theory C. Walker’s theory (c) Walker’s theory Ref: Laskin, Vol 2
alveolar osteitis? B. Birn’s hypothesis
C. Walker’s theory
D. Fibrinolytic theory

217 Dislocation of mandible is reduced by A. Downward and A. Downward and Downward and (a) Downward and backward Ref: Pg 249,
moving it in which direct leu? backward backward backward Neelima Malik, 3rd ed
B. Downward and
forward
C. Upward and
backward
D. Upward and
forward

218 Acute and Chronic Osteomyelitis can A. 1 week C. 1 month 1 week (c) 1 month Ref: Pg 141, Neville, 3E
be differentiated based on duration B. 2 weeks Explanation Patients with acute osteomyelitis
of? C. 1 month have signs and symptoms of an acute
D. 10 days inflammatory process that has typically been
less than 1 month in duration.

219 Injection of fluid into the upper joint
cavity of TMJ for lavage is?
A. Arthrocentesis A. Arthrocentesis Arthrocentesis (a) Arthrocentesis Ref: Pg 287, Neelima Malik,
B. Arthroscopy 3rd ed Explanation Arthrocentesis is the joint
C. Arthrography wash or lavage done to remove inflammatory
D. Diarthrosis mediators from the joint space, remove
adhesions and reduce TMJ pain and
dysfunction. It is indicated when other
conservative methods of management of
temporomandibular disorders fail.
220 Which side clefts are most common? A. Left
B. Right
C. Midline
D. Paramedian
221 What is the treatment of choice for a
3 cm diameter SCC lateral border of
tongue that is clinically and
radiologically NO?
222 Which of the following is most
appropriate for rhythm of distraction? for children
223 RED device is used for?
224 Free fibula flap for mandibular
microvascular reconstruction was
given bvr
225 Which of these is not a type of
constitutive cell of human body?
226 All of these are clinical features of
OSA except?
227 Which of these contain growth
factors for faster healing and
regeneration of hard and soft tissue?
A. Left (a) Left Ref: Pg 616, Neelima Malik 3rd ed
Explanation The embryonic fusion of the facial
processes of the right side occurs before that
on the left side. Hence, there is more time for
deformity to occur on left side.
A. SOHND B. ESHOND Ans. (b) ESHOND Ref: Stell and Marans
B. ESHOND textbook of head and neck Surgery and
C. RND Oncology, 5th ed
D. MRND
A. OD for adults, BD C. BD for adults, QID (c) BD for adults, QID for children Most of the
for children institutes, rate of distraction for adults is 1mm
B. BD for adults, OD per day at the rhythm of twice daily (BD), that
for children for children is 1.5-2 mm per day, QID.
C. BD for adults, QID
for children
D. BD for adults, BD
for children
A. TMJ ankylosis B. Midface distraction (b) Midface distraction Ref: Pg 1286,
B. Midface Petersons principles of oral and maxillofacial
distraction surgery 2nd ed Explanation RED stands for
C. Alveolar rigid external distractor, used for maxillary/
distraction midface distraction, especially in patients with
D. Segmental cleft palate or syndromes causing midface
transport distraction hypoplasia. This is a type of halo frame that is
for continuity defects attached to the temporal bone and distracts the
osteotomised segment of the midface.
A. Soutar B. Hidalgo (b) Hidalgo Ref: Pg812, Petersons principles of
B. Hidalgo oral and maxillofacial surgery 2nd ed
C. Manchster Explanation • Soutar gave radial forearm flap •
D. Ariyan Ariyan gave PMMC (Pectoralis major
Myocutaneous flap) and Trapezius flaps •
Manchester gave Iliac crest graft
A. Permanent B. Temporary (b) Temporary Ref: Pg3/2e, petersons
B. Temporary principles of oral and maxillofacial surgery
C. Labile Explanation Labile cells - Eg. keratinocytes of
D. Stable the epidermis and epithelial cells of the oral
mucosa - divide throughout their life span.
Stable cells - Eg. Fibroblasts, osteoblasts -
exhibit a low rate of duplication but can
undergo rapid proliferation in response to
injury. Permanent cells - Eg. nerve and cardiac
muscle cells - do not divide in postnatal life.
A. Snorin B. Day time excitement (b) Day time excitement Ref: Pg 1299,
B. Day time Petersons principles of oral and maxillofacial
excitement surgery 2nd ed Explanation EDS (Excessive
C. Loss of libido daytime sleepiness)/day time somnolence is
D. Altered mood and the most important complaint of the patient as
behaviour he/she is unable to sleep properly at night. All
the other options are features of OSA along
with morning headaches, systemic and
pulmonary hypertension, sleep related
arrhythmias and congestive heart failure.
A. PRP D. All of the above (d) All of the above Ref: Pg 13, Petersons
B. PRF principles of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 2nd
C. BMP ed
D. All of the above
228 Which of these is a type of primary
bone healing?
229 Which nerve block is given to rule out A. Auriculotemporal
and diagnose TMJ pain?
230 Clamshell recommence! to take graft
from which bony site?
231 Commonest site for venous ulcer?
232 A patient comes to you for tooth
extraction. He has a history of ankle
edema, shortness of breath and
orthopnea. He is probably suffering
from?
233 Needle aspiration of a central hone
lesion is done to?
234 Which of these structures is
preserved in RND?
235 Average rate of growth of OKC is?
A. Gap healing C. Both Both (c) Both RefPg 6, Petersons principles of oral
B. Contact healing and maxillofacial surgery, 2nd ed Explanation
C. Both Bone healing can be primary or secondary. In
D. None primary bone healing, there is no/minimal gap
between fracture segments, immobility
between them and no formation of callus) Gap
healing and contact healing have a gap of 0.3-
1mm and <0.3 mm between fracture segments,
and are types of primary bone healing. This is
achieved by compression osteogenesis like
use of compression plates. Secondary healing
involves a gap of >lmm between segments with
some mobility between them. This can be
achieved by functionally stable/semi-rigid
fixation like mini-plates.
A. Auriculotemporal Auriculotemporal (a) Auriculotemporal Ref: Page 289, Okeson
B. Mandibular 6th edition Explanation Main nerve supply to
C. Inferior alveolar temporomandibular joint is the
D. Mental auriculotemporal nerve. Block of the nerve is
used for both diagnosis and treatment of pain
originating in the joint
A. Ileum A. Ileum (a) Ileum
B. Skull
C. Rib
D. Fibula
A. Instep of foot B. Lower 1/3 leg and (b) Lower 1/3 leg and ankle Ref. Bailey and
B. Lower 1/3 leg and ankle love 25e/p 937 Explanation Venous ulcers
ankle usually lies just proximal to the medial or lateral
C. Lower 2/3 of leg malleolus. These are dependent areas with
D. Middle 1/3 of leg venous pooling.
A. Cardiac A. Cardiac (a) Cardiac decompensation Ref: page 84,Little
decompensation decompensation and Fallaces dental management of medically
B. Asthma compromised patients, 8th edition Explanation
C. Emphysema These are all signs of cardiac congestion,
D. Rhinophyma causing heart failure
A. Feel for root B. Rule out a vascular (b) Rule out a vascular lesion Ref: Page 9,
surfaces lesion Marx and Stern, oral and maxillofacial
B. Rule out a pathology Explanation Any pathology, if
vascular lesion suspected to be fluid filled, should be aspirated
C. Make diagnosis of first (before biopsy), to gauge the type of lesion
traumatic one cyst that is expected on opening up. Trying to
D. Determine biopsy a cystic lesion that turns out to be a
thickness of buccal vascular one may lead to catastrophic life
cortical plate before threatening haemorrhage. A highly vascular
surgery central bone lesion may be an aneurysmal
bone cyst, vascular malformation pressing on
the bone, CGCG etc.
A. Internal jugular D. Nolle of the above (d) None of the above Ref: Stell and Marans
vein textbook of head and neck Surgery and
B. Oncology, 5th ed Explanation RND is radical
Sternocleidomastoid excision of various neck structures in cases of
muscle N positive cancers. MRND, or modified radical
C. XI (s) nerve neck dissection is done to preserve some of
D. Nolle of the above these structures, for better quality of life.
A. 2 mm/year D. 7 mm/year (d) 7 mm/year Ref: Mervyn Shear 4th e/p 17
B. 3 mm/year According to scientist rate of growth of OKCs -
C. 14 mm/year 2 to 14 mm a year Average rate of growth of
D. 7 mm/year OKCs = about 7 mm
 236 Term “Oilier Disease” is associated A. Chondroma A. Chondroma (a) Chondroma Ref: Neville 3rd e/p656 Oilier
with? B. Chondromyxoid disease Multiple and widespread involvement
fibroma with a tendency to be unilateral Maffucci
C. Desmoplastic syndrome Skeletal chondromatosis is seen in
Fibroma association with soft tissue angiomas
D. Peripheral
Odontogenic
Fibroma

237 The tissues preferentially involved by A. Ectoderm A. Ectoderm Endoderm and (a) Ectoderm Ref: Shafers 7th e/p340 These
the herpes simplex virus are derived B. Endoderm Mesoderm tissues derived from the ectoderm and consist
from? C. Mesoderm principally of the skin, mucous membranes,
D. Endoderm and eyes, and the central nervous system.
Mesoderm

238 Not an environmental alteration of A. Turners B. Concrescence Impaction of tooth (b) Concrescence Ref Neville 3rd e/p54
teeth? Hypoplasia
B. Concrescence
C. Dental Fluorosis
D. Impaction of tooth

239 Predominant class of immunoglobulin A. IgA C. IgG (c) Ig G Ref: Mervyn Shear 4th e/ PI28
demonstrated in the cells of B. IgM
Periapical Granulomas is? C. IgG
D. IgE

240 Perimolysis is? A. Erosion due to B. Erosion from dental Ans. (b) Erosion from dental exposure to
Medications exposure to gastric gastric secretions Ref: Neville 3rd e/p61
B. Erosion from secretions
dental exposure to
gastric secretions
C. Erosion from
salivary gland
aplasia
D. Erosion from
industrial
environmental
exposure

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