Professional Documents
Culture Documents
SMLE
Questions
July
2017
-‐
October
12,
2017
Medicine
Infectious Diseases 3
Allergy and immunology 26
Endocrinology 28
Pulmonology 40
Cardiology 47
Rheumatology 58
Gastroenterology 62
Hematology-Oncology 75
Nephrology 89
Neurology 94
Pediatrics 106
Research 190
OB/GYN 215
Orthopedics 287
ENT 309
Anesthesia 318
Dermatology 322
Ophthalmology 336
Psychiatry 356
Infectious
Diseases
1. Trichomaniasis
diseases
what
is
the
treatment?
Answer:
metronidazole
2.
Shigella,
treatment?
Answer:
Ampicillin
MedScape:
Ampicillin
and
TMP-‐SMZ
are
effective
for
susceptible
strains;
amoxicillin
is
less
effective
than
this
because
of
its
rapid
absorption
high
in
the
GI
tract.
First
aid:
TMP-‐SMX
to
decrease
person-‐person
spread.
3.
Salmonella,
treatment
?
Answer:
azithromycin,
cefriaxone,
ciprofloxacin
(Medscape)
First
aid:
oral
quinolones
or
TMP-‐SMX
4.
Enterococcus
fragilis,
treatment?
Answer:
clindamycin
Medscape:
Penicillin
G
(Pfizerpen),
Cefoxitin
(Mefoxin),
Cefotetan,
Clindamycin
(Cleocin),
Amoxicillin
and
clavulanate
(Augmentin),
Ticarcillin
and
clavulanate
potassium
(Timentin),
Chloramphenicol,
Meropenem
(Merrem),
Metronidazole
(Flagyl),
Tigecycline
(Tygacil),
Moxifloxacin
(Avelox),
Entapenem.
5.
Enterococcus
feacalis,
treatment?
Answer:
Ampicillin
is
drug
of
choice,
allergic
or
resistant
to
ampicillin:
Vancomycin
6.
Bacteroid
fragilis
Abx?
Answer:
Ampicillin
"not
sure"
7.
Gun
shoot
with
bowel
perforation?
Answer:
Metronidazole
+
gentamicin,
or
Metro
+
cefoxitin
8.
Rosacea,
treatment
?
Answe:
erythromycin,
if
Doxycyclin
"tetracycline"
wasn't
in
the
answer
Medscape:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1071429-‐medication#3
First
Aid:
treat
with
low-‐potency
corticosteroids
or
topical
metronidazole.
In
more
severe
disease,
systemic
antibiotics
may
be
used.
Extremely
severe
cases
can
be
treated
by
short-‐term
metronidazole.
9.
Necrotising
faschitis?
Answer:
pipra/tazo
+
clinda
+
vancomycin,
u
can
use
carbapenem
instead
of
pipra/tazo
10.
UTI,
with
methicillen
sensitive,
treatment?
Answer:
cloxacillin
Rx
11.
Clostridium
difficile
Rx?
Answer:
metro,
if
no
metronidazole
à
vancomycin
First
Aid:
Cessation
of
inciting
antibiotic
if
any,
PO
Metronidazole
or
PO
Vancomycin;
IV
metronidazole
if
the
pt
can’t
tolerate
oral
medications.
12.
Animal
bite
Rx?
Answer:
amox/clavulanate
+
tetanus
booster
13.
Best
antibiotic
for
gram
-‐ve
bacilli?
Answer:
cephalosporin
14.
Antibiotic
inhibits
Ca
and
aluminium
salt?
Answer:
tetracycline
15.
Antibiotic
safe
in
pregnancy?
Answer:
ampicillin,
penicillin,
ampi/sulbactam,
cefoxitin,
cefotetan,
cefazolin,
clinda,
erythro,
gentamicin,
16.
Antibiotic
for
UTI,
safe
in
all
trimesters?
Answer:
ampicillin
17.
Rheumatic
heart
disease,
allergic
to
penicillin,
prophylactic
before
surgery?
Answer:
IV
vancomycin
and
gentamycin
18.
Two
drugs
contraindicated
with
each
others?
Answer:
tetracycline
and
aluminum
19.
Mastoditis,
treatment?
Answer:
vancomycin
with
ceftriaxone
20.
Nisseria
infection
risk?
Answer:
defect
in
classical
complement
pathway
21.
Tenia
solium,
found
in
meat
of?
Answer:
pork
22.
Tenia
saginata,
found
in
meat
of?
Answer:
beef
23.
Chronic
granulomatous
disease?
Answer:
recurrent
infection
with
staph,
aspergillus,
nocardia,
serratia
and
Burkholderia.
24.
Patient
comes
from
Africa
and
has
fever,
Dx?
Answer:
depends
on
incubation
period:
within
one
week
(7
days):
yellow,
dengue
murburg
fever
within
3
weeks
to
1
month:
ebola,
lassa
fever,
malaria.
25.
Leshmania
treatment?
Answer:
Miltefosine
26.
Vibrio
cholera,
treatment?
Answer:
Doxycyclin
"30S
protein"
27.
Schistosomia,
treatment?
Answer:
Praziquantel
28.
Inhaled
antiviral
works
by?
Answer:
neuraminidase
inhibitor
29.
Parasite
infection
in
undercooked
food?
Answer:
trichinellosis
30.
Bacteria
sexual
behavior?
Answer:
conjugation
31.
GAS
throat
infection?
Answer:
Amoxicillin,
or
erythromycin
if
allergic
to
penicillin
32.
Interstitial
lung
disease
with
small
non
necrotizing
granuloma?
Answer:
hypersensitive
pneumonitis
33.
Septic
arthritis
resistant
to
antibiotic?
Answer:
start
vancomycin
34.
Convulsion
after
GI
infection?
Answer:
shigella
35.
Chemotherapy,
infection
from
venous
line?
Answer:
pseudomonas
36.
Streptococcal
throat
infection,
Rx
duration?
Answer:
10
days
37.
Ribavirin
Side
effects?
Answer:
Anemia
Medscape:
Decreased
Hgb
(25-‐36%)
38.
Anti
TB,
causing
seizure?
Answer:
isoniazid
39.
Anti
TB,
causing
parasthesia
or
nerve
problem?
Answer:
isoniazid
40.
Anti
TB,
causing
visual
problem?
Answer:
Ethambutol
41.
Anti
TB,
causing
vertigo
or
ear
problem?
Answer:
streptomycin
42.
Anti
TB,
causing
red
urine?
Answer:
Rifampicin
43.
Farmer
with
sandfly
infection,
what’s
the
treatment?
Answer:
miltefosine
(Dx
leishmania)
Medscape:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/220298-‐medication#2
44.
HIV
with
pneumonia,
bubble
soap?
Answer:
cryptococcus
neoformans
45.
RSV
virus
can
be
found
in?
Answer:
Liver
46.
3
to
4
scenarios
about
TB
(all
were
direct
and
clear)
47.
PPD
positive
x
ray
negative,
next?
Answer:
isoniazid
for
6
months
48.
A
pt
on
anti
TB
drugs
for
4
weeks
developed
needle
sensations?
Answer:
isoniazid
49.
Patient
with
recurrent
oral
fungal
infection
and
other
things?
Answer:
Chronic
mucocutanous
candidiasis
50.
Patient
was
in
trip
in
Africa
and
had
many
symptoms.
(one
of
it
was
salamon
blenching
something
in
the
skin).
What
is
the
investigation?
1. bone
marrow
2. blood
film
Answer:
Medscape:
(Dx):
At
approximately
the
end
of
the
first
week
of
illness,
the
fever
plateaus
at
103-‐104°F
(39-‐40°C).
The
patient
develops
rose
spots,
which
are
salmon-‐colored,
blanching,
truncal,
maculopapules
usually
1-‐4
cm
wide
and
fewer
than
5
in
number;
these
generally
resolve
within
2-‐5
days.
[2]
These
are
bacterial
emboli
to
the
dermis
and
occasionally
develop
in
persons
with
shigellosis
or
nontyphoidal
salmonellosis.
[27]
(Invx):
The
diagnosis
of
typhoid
fever
(enteric
fever)
is
primarily
clinical.
The
criterion
standard
for
diagnosis
of
typhoid
fever
has
long
been
culture
isolation
of
the
organism.
Cultures
are
widely
considered
100%
specific.
Culture
of
bone
marrow
aspirate
is
90%
sensitive
until
at
least
5
days
after
commencement
of
antibiotics.
However,
this
technique
is
extremely
painful,
which
may
outweigh
its
benefit.
[36]
51.
Student
with
10
of
his
classmate
develop
dry
cough
mild
SOB
and
bilateral
consolidation?
1. leogenialla
my
answer
2. Mycoplasma
??
3. Staph
4. Strept.
Answer:
52.
Cat
bite,
what
is
the
most
likely
organism
1. Staph
aureus
2. Pasturella
multicida
Answer:
B
53.
associated
with
animal
bites?
1. Polybactrial
2. Pastrulla
multicodia
Medscape:
P
multocida
often
exists
as
a
commensal
in
the
upper
respiratory
tracts
of
many
livestock,
poultry,
and
domestic
pet
species,
especially
cats
and
dogs.
54.
Bitten
by
his
brother
and
there
is
1
cm
injury,
what
you
do?
1. Amoxcillin
2. Surgical
suture
Answer:?
wound
cleaning
and
wound
closure
and
tetanus
prophylaxis
and
antibiotic.
Surgical
intervention
is
frequently
necessary
and
ranges
from
simple
wound
exploration
and
debridement
to
repair
of
complex
structures
under
magnification.
(medscape)
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/218901-‐treatment
55.
Dog
bites
are?
1. Poly
microbial
2. Viral
3. Bacterial
4. Fungal
Answer:
A
56.
Gun
shot
wound,
B
fragils.
What
to
give
the
patient?
(no
metronidazole
in
the
choices)
Answer:
Clindamycin
and
others
57.
Patient
with
painless
penile
ulcer
with
lymphadenopathy
what
is
the
treatment?
1. Benazthine
penicillins
g
(correct)
2. penicillin
V
Answer:
A
58.
Child
present
with
malaise,
history
of
meningitis
last
week
treated
with
iv
antibiotics.
Lab;
HGb:
low,
RBC:
low,
What
antibiotic
he
used?
1. Chloramphinicol
2. Erythromycin
Answer:
A
Medscape:
one
of
the
side
effects
of
chloramphenicol
is
Aplastic
anemia
<1%
https://reference.medscape.com/drug/chloramphenicol-‐iv-‐chloromycetin-‐342554#4
59.
The
most
common
organism
associated
with
honeymoon
cystitis?
A.
S.
Saprophyticus
B.
E.
Coli
Answer:
Medscape:
coli
causes
70-‐95%
of
both
upper
and
lower
UTIs.
Various
organisms
are
responsible
for
the
remainder
of
infections,
including
S
saprophyticus,
Proteusspecies,
Klebsiella
species,
Enterococcus
faecalis,
other
Enterobacteriaceae,
and
yeast.
Some
species
are
more
common
in
certain
subgroups,
such
as
Staphylococcus
saprophyticus
in
young
women.
However,
S
saprophyticus
can
produce
acute
cystitis
in
older
women
and
in
young
men
and
should
not
be
automatically
regarded
as
a
contaminant
in
the
urine
cultures
of
these
individuals.
60.
The
most
common
organism
of
meningoenchephalitis
is:
A.
enterovirus
B.
HSV
Medscape:
Primary
meningoencephalitis
Ubiquitous
in
most
soils
in
most
environments,
N
fowleri
is
also
found
in
warm
freshwater,
particularly
if
the
water
is
stagnant.
[7]
Exposure
to
the
this
amoeba
is
very
common.
Children
younger
than
2
years
frequently
carry
the
organism
asymptomatically
in
their
nose
and
throat,
especially
in
warmer
months
and
climates.
Infection
with
this
pathogen
occurs
in
both
immunocompromised
and
immunocompetent
individuals.
[8]
PAM
is
an
exceptionally
uncommon
occurrence
resulting
from
CNS
invasion
of
the
typically
healthy
host
by
N
fowleri.
During
a
period
of
a
few
days
to
2
weeks
after
inoculating
a
patient
who
had
been
swimming,
diving,
bathing,
or
playing
in
warm,
usually
stagnant,
freshwater,
the
amoebae
migrate
through
the
cribriform
plate,
along
the
fila
olfactoria
and
blood
vessels,
and
into
the
anterior
cerebral
fossae,
where
they
cause
extensive
inflammation,
necrosis,
and
hemorrhage
in
the
brain
parenchyma
and
meninges.
[9]
61.
3
yrs
old
baby
with
fever,
neck
rigidity,
culture
revealed
diplocci/Gm-‐ve
(They
provided
a
picture
of
diffuse
meningiococcemia
skin
rash
and
asked
about
what
to
give
to
his
Family?
62.
Young
man
diagnosed
with
TB
wt
will
u
give
to
his
asymptomatic
family:
1. Bcg
2. rifampin
3. All
other
answers
were
not
related
at
all
Answer:
B
63.
A
male
patient
with
headache,
malaise,
lymphadenopathy
(and
other
non-‐specific
symptoms).
He
has
absolute
eosinophilia
on
CBC.
What
is
the
cause?
A-‐Schistosoma
B-‐Amoeba
C-‐Giardia
Answer:
64.
What
is
the
treatment
of
epidemic
vibrio
cholerae?
Medscape:
●
Furazolidone
has
been
the
agent
routinely
used
in
the
treatment
of
cholera
in
children;
however,
resistance
has
been
reported,
and
ampicillin,
erythromycin,
and
fluoroquinolones
are
potentially
effective
alternatives.
The
use
of
quinolones
is
contraindicated
in
children
with
cholera.
●
Travelers
to
cholera-‐affected
regions
should
receive
a
cholera
vaccine.
The
cholera
vaccine
Vaxchora
is
the
only
one
approved
by
the
FDA
for
cholera
prevention.
It
is
a
live,
weakened
vaccine
administered
as
a
single,
oral
liquid
dose
of
about
three
fluid
ounces
at
least
10
days
before
travel
to
a
cholera-‐affected
region.
The
only
other
existing
cholera-‐prevention
vaccines
require
2
doses,
according
to
the
Centers
for
Disease
Control
and
Prevention
(CDC).
A
single-‐dose
vaccine
is
especially
beneficial
to
a
person
who
needs
to
travel
to
a
cholera-‐affected
region
on
short
notice.
[20]
●
Emerging
drug
resistance
in
certain
parts
of
the
world
is
a
concern,
as
some
V
cholerae
strains
contain
plasmids
that
confer
resistance
to
many
antibiotics.
In
areas
of
known
tetracycline
resistance,
therapeutic
options
include
ciprofloxacin
and
erythromycin.
Strains
resistant
to
ciprofloxacin
have
been
reported
from
Calcutta,
India.
65.
About
watery
diarrhea
without
blood
and
asked
about
organism?
-‐
I
chose
C.
Defficile
(
Not
sure
)
First
aid:
C.
difficile
due
to
recent
Abx
use
(penicillin,
cephalosporin,
clindamycin),
fever,
abd
pain,
possible
systemic
toxicity,
fecal
RBCs
and
WBCs,
most
commonly
in
large
bowel,
but
can
involve
small
bowel.
Identify
C.
diff
toxins
in
stool.
Sigmoidoscopy
showed
pseudomembranes.
66.
Scenario
about
female
sexually
active
and
came
with
symptom
I
forgot,
in
lab
results
he
mentioned
gram
negative
diplococci
and
asked
about
the
diagnosis?
ANSWER:
N.
Gonorrhea
67.
Scenario
typical
of
HIV
with
PCP
infection,
CMV
retinitis,
oral
thrush.
Then
asked
what
will
you
find?
CD
4
of
100
ANSWER:
??
68.
Hiv
pt
before
ttt
you
must
check?
ANSWER:
CD4
Medscape:
Research
data
led
to
US
guidelines
recommending
that
antiretroviral
therapy
be
initiated
at
a
CD4
count
threshold
of
350/μL,
although
2013
guidelines
from
the
World
Health
Organization
(WHO)
now
recommend
a
threshold
of
500/μL.
[108,
109]They
also
state
that
in
some
cases,
antiretroviral
treatment
should
begin
immediately,
regardless
of
the
CD4
count,
including
in
HIV-‐
positive
serodiscordant
couples,
patients
with
hepatitis-‐B
coinfection,
pregnant
or
breastfeeding
women,
and
children
under
age
5
years.
[108,
109]
69.
Vaccine
contraindicated
in
Hiv
pt?
ANSWER:
varicella
vaccine
(All
live
vaccines)
70.
IV
drug
abuser
complain
of
oral
thrush,
signs
and
symptoms
of
pneumonia
,
broncho
alveolar
lavage
was
done
pneumocysticitis
jiroveci
was
found
then
HIV
test
was
done
and
it
was
+ve
,
what
is
the
most
likely
predictor
of
her
HIV
infection?
1. Pneumocysticitis
jiroveci*
2. IV
drug
use
3. Candida
ANSWER:
A
?
71.
HIV
patint,
cough
with
bad
odour
sputum,
x
ray
attached
what
is
diagnosis?
Answer:
PCP
pneumonia
72.
Latency
period
in
HIV,cell
responsible?
ANSWER:
CD4+
T
cells
with
a
memory
73.
patient
with
HIV
and
ask
about
something
I
forget
^_^
but
the
choices
was
:
1. Memory
B
cell
2. CD
8
T
cell
3. Macrophage
Answer:
74.
Co-‐receptor
of
HIV
?
ANSWER:
CXCR4
(Not
sure)
75.
Man
have
one
month
sexual
relation
result
of
HIV
was
negative
when
will
repeat
the
screen
?
1. 2
mo
2. 3
mo
3. 5
mo
4. 6
mo
Answer:
76.
(6-‐2
Qs)
about
alternative
cell
reservoir
for
HIV
(CD
4)
?
Is
it
CD
8
?!
I
don’t
know
Monocytes,
other
T
cells,
macrophages,
adipose
tissue,
GALT,
genital
tract,
semen,
bone
marrow,
and
central
nervous
system
(CNS)
cells
including
both
microglia
and
astrocytes
77.
16
yrs
old
drug
abuser,
what
invx
should
be
done
to
him?
1. Test
for
HIV,
I
chose
this
2. Test
of
HBV
ANSWER:
A
78.
Case
of
positive
PPD,
no
symptom,
clear
x
ray,
how
to
manage
?
(Nurse
with
10
mm
PPD
test,
CXR
negative,
what
to
do)
1. Isonazide
6
months
2. Rifam
6
m
ANSWER:
A?
●
6-‐month
or
9-‐month
isoniazid
daily,
●
3-‐month
rifapentine
plus
isoniazid
weekly,
●
3-‐
or
4-‐month
isoniazid
plus
rifampicin
daily,
●
3–
or
4-‐month
rifampicin
alone
daily.
79.
Old
pt
take
antiviral
that
taken
by
inhalation?
ANSWER:
Zanamivir
80.
Man
travels
to
Sudan
2
weeks
ago,
now
he
is
presenting
with
fever,
maleas
....
unspecific
symptoms
(from
3
days).
How
you
will
confirm
diagnosis??
A)
blood
culture
B)
Serology
C)
Blood
film
ANSWER:
I
would
choose
C?
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/221134-‐workup#c8
81.
Pt
with
treated
meningiococal
meningitis
what
to
give
her
close
contacts
Penicillin
or
similar
abx
to
remove
nasal
carriers**
1. Isolate
contacts
2. Do
nothing
3. Give
vaccine
ANSWER:
First
aid:
close
contact
should
receive
rifampin,
ciprofloxacin
or
ceftriaxone
prophylaxis.
82.
Pt
with
treated
meningiococal
meningitis
what
to
give
her
close
contacts
1. Penicillin
or
similar
2. (rifampin
or
ciprofloxacin)
3. abx
to
remove
nasal
carriers
Isolate
contacts
4. Do
nothing
Give
ANSWER:
B
First
aid:
close
contact
should
receive
rifampin,
ciprofloxacin
or
ceftriaxone
prophylaxis.
83.
Pictures
of
chancre
painless
ulcer
on
the
penis
how
to
treat?
Dx:
primary
syphilis?
1. Penicillin
V
2. Pencillin
G
3. Steroid
ANSWER:
B
84.
Scenario
of
patient
from
India
had
rash
hepatomegaly
Treated
and
after1
year
came
with
rash?
What’s
the
Dx?
1. Dermatological
leishmaniasis
2. Leprosy
ANSWER:
A
85.
Patient
on
chemotherapy
developed
IV
line
sepsis,
(
bacterial
sepsis)
most
likely
organism?
ANSWER:
Closest
option
was
pseudomonas
(correct)
86.
Source
of
infection
in
venipuncture?
ANSWER:
Site
of
insertion
?
87.
Patient
on
TB
medication
developed
numbness,
what
would
u
give
him?
ANSWER:
Vitamin
B6
(pyridoxine)
88.
safe
vaccine
to
be
given
to
immunocompromised
person?
1. MMR
2. Pnemococcal
ANSWER:
B
89.
Gun
shot
in
the
abdomen
with
bacteroid
fragilis
which
antibiotic??
ANSWER:
Metrodinazole
90.
What
would
be
helpful
in
diagnosis
of
N.gonorrhoeae
?
1. Gram
stain
2. Culture
3. PCR
4. forgot
it
ANSWER:
B
Medscape:
Culture
is
the
most
common
diagnostic
test
for
gonorrhea,
followed
by
the
deoxyribonucleic
acid
(DNA)
probe,
and
then
the
polymerase
chain
reaction
(PCR)
assay
and
ligand
chain
reaction
(LCR).
The
DNA
probe
is
an
antigen
detection
test
that
uses
a
probe
to
detect
gonorrhea
DNA
in
specimens.
91.
HBV
commonest
virus
which
make
rejection
of
the
exparitis
or
labours
from
working
in
Saudi
?(Community)
1. HBV
2. HCV
3. HIV
Answer:
A
same
Q
from
smle
13
ANSWER:
C
References:
http://applications.emro.who.int/emhj/v19/07/EMHJ_2013_19_7_664_670.pdf?ua=1
92.
How
to
diagnose
factitious
fever?
1. Blood
culture.
2. Urine
analysis.
3. Pulse
ANSWER:
C
93.
Case
scenario
about
DM
patient
with
necrotizing
fasciitis,
which
antibiotic?
1. penicillin/gentamycin
2. piperacillin/
tazobactam*
ANSWER:
B
94.
How
to
prevent
MERSA?
1. Hand
washing
2. Vaccine
ANSWER:
A
95.
Hepatitis
diagnosed
by?
1. Blood
test
(
I
choose
it
)
2. Imaging
3. Hx
ANSWER:
A
96.
Type
of
Hepatitis
B
vaccine?
ANSWER:
recombinant
97.
20
y.
O
male
with
small
erythmatous
macules
non
planchable
,
history
of
viral
respiratory
infection
resolve
spontaneously
last
week,
Lab:
plt:
15
(
very
low
),
What
TREATMENT?
1. IVIG
2. Splenectomy
3. Platelets
transfusion
ANSWER:
A
98.
side
effect
of
ribavirin?
1. Anemia.
2. Renal
damage
3. Hepatic
damage.
ANSWER:
A
99.
How
to
diagnose
enteric
fever
during
the
first
week?
1. Urine
and
stool
culture
2. Single
blood
culture
3. Multiple
blood
cultures
4. Bone
marrow
culture
ANSWER:
Medscape:
●
The
diagnosis
of
typhoid
fever
(enteric
fever)
is
primarily
clinical.
●
The
criterion
standard
for
diagnosis
of
typhoid
fever
has
long
been
culture
isolation
of
the
organism.
Cultures
are
widely
considered
100%
specific.
●
Culture
of
bone
marrow
aspirate
is
90%
sensitive
until
at
least
5
days
after
commencement
of
antibiotics.
However,
this
technique
is
extremely
painful,
which
may
outweigh
its
benefit.
●
Blood,
intestinal
secretions
(vomitus
or
duodenal
aspirate),
and
stool
culture
results
are
positive
for
S
typhi
in
approximately
85%-‐90%
of
patients
with
typhoid
fever
who
present
within
the
first
week
of
onset.
They
decline
to
20%-‐30%
later
in
the
disease
course.
In
particular,
stool
culture
may
be
positive
for
S
typhi
several
days
after
ingestion
of
the
bacteria
secondary
to
inflammation
of
the
intraluminal
dendritic
cells.
Later
in
the
illness,
stool
culture
results
are
positive
because
of
bacteria
shed
through
the
gallbladder.
100.
Enteric
fever
TTT?
1. Ciprofloxacin
2. Amoxicillin
3. Metronidazole
ANSWER:
A
102.
Enteric
fever
micro
description
dx
?
Management
?
Answer:
103.
Best
Diagnosis
of
enteric
fever?
Medscape:
●
The
criterion
standard
for
diagnosis
of
typhoid
fever
has
long
been
culture
isolation
of
the
organism.
Cultures
are
widely
considered
100%
specific.
●
Culture
of
bone
marrow
aspirate
is
90%
sensitive
until
at
least
5
days
after
commencement
of
antibiotics.
However,
this
technique
is
extremely
painful,
which
may
outweigh
its
benefit.
●
Blood,
intestinal
secretions
(vomitus
or
duodenal
aspirate),
and
stool
culture
results
are
positive
for
S
typhi
in
approximately
85%-‐90%
of
patients
with
typhoid
fever
who
present
within
the
first
week
of
onset.
They
decline
to
20%-‐30%
later
in
the
disease
course.
In
particular,
stool
culture
may
be
positive
for
S
typhi
several
days
after
ingestion
of
the
bacteria
secondary
to
inflammation
of
the
intraluminal
dendritic
cells.
Later
in
the
illness,
stool
culture
results
are
positive
because
of
bacteria
shed
through
the
gallbladder.
●
Multiple
blood
cultures
(>3)
yield
a
sensitivity
of
73%-‐97%.
Large-‐volume
(10-‐30
mL)
blood
culture
and
clot
culture
may
increase
the
likelihood
of
detection.
[37]
●
Stool
culture
alone
yields
a
sensitivity
of
less
than
50%,
and
urine
culture
alone
is
even
less
sensitive.
Cultures
of
punch-‐biopsy
samples
of
rose
spots
reportedly
yield
a
sensitivity
of
63%
and
may
show
positive
results
even
after
administration
of
antibiotics.
A
single
rectal
swab
culture
upon
hospital
admission
can
be
expected
to
detect
S
typhi
in
30%-‐40%
of
patients.
S
typhi
has
also
been
isolated
from
the
cerebrospinal
fluid,
peritoneal
fluid,
mesenteric
lymph
nodes,
resected
intestine,
pharynx,
tonsils,
abscess,
and
bone,
among
others.
104.
Diarrhea
(
wedding
a
couple
of
hours
later
had
diarrhea
with
micr
description)?
ANSWER:
i
don't’
get
it
(????)
105.
treatment
of
traveler's
diarrhea?
ANSWER:
Ciprofloxacin
106.
Gas
gangrene?
ANSWER:
cl.perfeenges
107.Central
line
with
fungal
inf.
What
is
the
TTT?
ANSWER:
Fluconazole
109.
which
one
of
the
following
infection
diagnosed
by
stool
analysis
by
finding
an
antigen?
1. Ascaris
2. Tenia
saginata
3. Schistosoma
mansoni
4. ………………………
NOTE:
all
of
the
above
infections
are
diagnosed
by
stool
analysis
by
finding
eggs
or
trophozoites.
The
infections
which
are
diagnosed
by
finding
antigens
are
H.Pylori
and
giardiasis.
SO,
MAY
BE
THE
MISSING
ANSWER
HERE
IS
THE
CORRECT
CHOICE.
110.
Treatment
of
shigellosis?
1. amoxicillin
2. ceftriaxone
ANSWER:
B
111.
INFECTIOUS
case
of
GIT
characterized
by
diarrhea
followed
by
constipation
and
give
you
bacteriology
finding
which
is
gram
negative
and
other
features
I
cannot
remember,
then
asking
about
treatment:
1. Ciprofloxacin
2. Chloramphenicol
3. Penicillin
4. …………………
Note:
from
my
reading
salmonella
is
characterized
by
diarrhea
followed
by
constipation
So
my
answer
was
(A)
but
not
sure
about
it.
ANSWER:
A
(Dx:
S.
typhi)
112.
What
would
be
helpful
in
diagnosis
of
gonorrhea?
1. gram
stain
2. culture
3. PCR
4. forgot
it
ANSWER:
B
113.
What
is
the
parasite
usually
found
in
beef
?
(No
choices
provided)
ANSWER:
T.
Saginata
i
think
114.
Patient
with
lymphadenopathy
&
splenomegaly?
Answer:
EBV
115.
(3
to
4
scenarios)
about
TB
(all
were
direct
and
clear)
116.
T.diarrhea
>
shegella
(????)
117.
The
only
organism
from
human
source?
UpToDate:
●
Human
bite
wound
pathogens
consist
of
both
aerobic
and
anaerobic
bacteria,
including
streptococci,
Staphylococcus
aureus,
Eikenella,
Fusobacterium,
Peptostreptococcus,
Prevotella,
and
Porphyromonas
spp
[1-‐
3].
In
a
study
of
50
patients
with
infected
human
bites,
the
median
number
of
isolates
per
wound
culture
was
four
[3].
Both
aerobes
and
anaerobes
were
isolated
from
54
percent
of
wounds,
aerobes
alone
were
isolated
from
44
percent,
and
anaerobes
alone
were
isolated
from
2
percent.
●
Viral
pathogens,
including
hepatitis,
human
immunodeficiency
virus,
and
herpes
simplex
virus,
are
transmissible
by
human
bites;
clinical
descriptions
are
limited
to
case
reports
[4-‐9].
Human
bite
transmission
of
syphilis
has
also
been
described
118.
Most
common
site
for
central
line
infection?
1. Seeding
of
bacteria
2. Hospital
workers
3. Site
of
insertion
ANSWER:
C
(Up
to
date)
119.
a
pt
end
stage
liver
disease
on
Central
venous
catheter
developed
sepsis
Culture
showed
budding
yeast,
Suitable
Rx
is?
1. fluconazole
2. antiviral
3. Abx
4. cuspofungin
ANSWER:
D
120.
The
transmission
of
maternal
antibodies
to
the
fetus
in
pregnancy
is
a
way
of?
1. active
artificial
Immunity
2. passive
artificial
immunity
3. passive
natural
immunity
4. active
natural
immunity
ANSWER:
C
121.
Post
cholecystectomy
pt,
developed
unilateral
parotid
swelling,
saliva
was
cloudy,
culture
was
negative,
What
does
he
have?
1. sarcoid
granuloma.
2. bacterial
sialadenitis
3. sarcoma
4. sojgrens
syndrome
ANSWER:
B
122.
female
her
husband
had
gonorrhea
what
best
investigation
for
her?
1. Gram
stain
2. PCR
3. I
forgot
others
ANSWER:
Could
be
A
if
only
those
choices
(not
sure)
First
aid
page
220
123.
13
yrs
old
pt
with
salmonella
infection,
Resistant
to
chloramphenicol,
appropriate
Tx
is?
1. continue
chloramphenicol
2. add
cipro
3. give
cipro
alone
4. IM
ceftriaxone
ANSWER:
C
124.
I
can’t
remember
the
scenario
but
the
answer
was
Rota
Virus
125.
food
poisoning
case,
4
family
members
ate
from
a
restaurant,
they
developed
diarrhea
and
vomiting
and
remit
after
24
hrs.
Culture
showed
gram
positive
bacilli?
1. salmonella
2. shigella
3. SA
4. Bacillus
ceres
ANSWER:
D
125.
Diagnosis
of
visceral
leishmaniasis?
1. blood
film
2. bone
marrow
ANSWER:
A
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/220298-‐workup#c7
126.
scenario
of
man
came
from
desert
and
got
cutaneous
leishmania
what
is
the
treatment
??
1. Oral
miltefosine
2. Injectable
paromomycin
3. There
was
no
amphotrpcin
B
Answer:
A
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/220298-‐treatment#d9
127.
Treatment
of
leishmania
donovani?
●
Liposomal
amphotericin
B
alone,
given
as
a
single
dose
(currently
recommended
as
the
drug
of
choice
by
the
Kala-‐Azar
elimination
programme
of
India)
●
Liposomal
amphotericin
B
in
a
single
dose,
in
combination
with
7
days
of
oral
miltefosine
or
10
days
of
paromomycin
●
Miltefosine
plus
paromomycin
for
10
days
●
Amphotericin
B
deoxycholate:
0.75-‐1
mg/kg/day
via
infusion,
daily
or
on
alternate
days
for
15-‐20
doses
●
Miltefosine
orally
for
28
days
or
paromomycin
intramuscularly
for
28
days
●
Pentavalent
antimonials:
20
mg
Sb5+/kg/day
intramuscularly
or
intravenously
for
30
days
in
areas
where
they
remain
effective:
Bangladesh,
Nepal,
and
the
Indian
states
of
Jharkhand,
West
Bengal,
and
Uttar
Pradesh.
●
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/220298-‐treatment#d11
128.
Visceral
leishmaniasis
organism?
A.
L
donovani
B.
L.Tropica
ANSWER:
A
129.
type
of
leishmaniasis
cause
skin
manifestation?
1. L.
Tropica
ANSWER:
A
(L.
Tropica,
L.
Major,
L.
mexicana)
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/220298-‐clinical
130.
which
markers
of
HBV
is
present
in
window
phase?
ANSWER:
Anti
HBc
WiKi:
IgM
anti-‐core
(HBc-‐IgM)
is
the
only
detectable
antibody.
HBV
DNA
may
be
positive
as
well.
131
pictures
of
chancre
painless
ulcer
on
the
penis
how
to
treat?
(Dx):
primary
syphilis?
1. penicillin
V
2. pencillin
G
and
3. steroid
ANSWER:
B
133.
patient
has
been
bitten
by
dog,
and
he
received
rabies
vaccine
18
months
ago
when
he
travelled
to
some
place,
what
action
should
be
taken
immediately?
1. Do
nothing
as
patient
is
immunized.
2. Give
rabies
vaccine
and
immunoglobulin.
3. Give
immunoglobulin
alone.
4. Give
two
doses
of
rabies
vaccine.
ANSWER:
D
(Correct)
●
Note:
this
q
is
solved
before
in
one
of
the
questions
collection
as
B,
but
what
I
found
that
answer
D
is
the
correct
choice.
There
are
big
details
about
this
topic.
So
you
do
not
need
to
waste
your
time.
(previous
note)
●
“If
bitten,
a
vaccinated
person
should
receive
two
more
doses
of
rabies
vaccine;
one
dose
immediately
and
one
three
days
later.”
http://www.immunize.org/catg.d/p4216.pdf
●
Previously
vaccinated
persons
include
those
who
have
received
the
3-‐dose
preexposure
series
of
HDCV,
rabies
adsorbed
virus
(RVA),
or
PCECV;
a
full
PEP;
or
a
previous
vaccination
with
any
rabies
vaccine
with
a
documented
history
of
seroconversion.
HRIG
should
not
be
administered.
●
For
the
vaccine,
administer
2
doses
(1
mL
each)
into
the
deltoid
muscle
on
day
0
and
day
3.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/785543-‐overview#a8
134.
Patient
was
bitten
by
a
dog,
he
was
conscious,
alert.
Everything
was
normal.
He
has
a
bite
wound
in
his
hand.
The
patient
told
you
that
he
took
rabies
vaccine
before
one
year
and
half.
What
should
you
do?
A.
give
rabies
vaccine
B.
Give
two
dose
of
rabies
vaccine
C.
Observe
for
10
days
D.
Rabies
immuniglublin
and
vaccine
ANSWER:
Previous
answer:
D,
but
the
answer
is
B
(according
to
medscape)
as
the
previous
Q.
explanation.
135.
Most
common
cutaneous
manifestation
of
antimalarial
medications?
A-‐Pruritus
B-‐Pigmenation
C-‐Photosensitivity
D-‐Generalized
yellow
discoloration
of
skin
ANSWER:
(Chloroquine
A)
+
(tetracycline
D)
Medscape
136.
Picture
and
they
asked
which
type
of
Malaria?
ANSWER:
Plasmodium
falciparum
(depend
on
the
picture)
137.
What
of
the
following
use
scotch
tap
in
diagnosis?
A.
Giardia
B.
Malaria
C.
Schistosomiasis
ANSWER:
Pinworm
(Enterobiasis)
Medscape
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/225652-‐workup
138.
Patient
will
go
to
endemic
area
of
malaria
(I
think
Sudan)
and
he
asked
you
about
prophylaxis
for
malaria?
A.
Quinine
1week
before
traveling,
until
6
week
after
returning.
B.
Quinolone
2
days
before
traveling,
until
returned.
Answer:
139.
Treatment
of
uncomplicated
Falciparum
malaria?
140.
Pt
came
from
sudan
I
guess
and
they
suspected
malaria
wt
of
these
inv
most
specific
and
sensitive?
A.
Malaria
rapid
test
B.
Malaria
antibodies
C.
Blood
film
Answer:
141.
Picture
of
ring
cell
stage
of
malaria.
Asked
the
stage
and
malaria
type.?
148.
UTI
treated
with
100mg
nitrofurantoin
what
is
the
duration?
A)
6h
for
one
month.
B)once
daily
for
2
month
C)once
daily
for
six
month
D)
once
daily
for
one
year.
ANSWER:
A
Q.
dose
of
nitrofurantoin?
MEDSCAPE:
25mg,
50mg,
100mg
https://reference.medscape.com/drug/macrobid-‐macrodantin-‐nitrofurantoin-‐342567
149.
UTI
case
with
gram
negative
indole
positive?
A)
E.
coli
ANSWER:
A
150.
Patient
is
allergic
to
sulfa
drugs
and
penicillin
and
shellfish.
She
has
UTI
what
antibiotic
you
will
give?
A)Nitrofurantoin
B)Trimethoprim
Sulfamethoxazole
C)Amoxicillin
ANSWER:
A
(not
sure)
151.
treatment
of
HSV
2?
A)
acyclovir
B)
ribavirin
ANSWER:
A
152.
Syphilis:
Painless
Genital
ulcer
plus
inguinal
lymphadenopathy?
NOT
COMPLETE
153.
Pt
with
painless
Genital
ulcer,
how
to
diagnose?
ANSWER:
dark
field
microscopy
154.
Painful
genital
ulcer,
bleeding,
lab
confirmed
Haemophilus
Ducreyi?
a)treat
all
close
contacts
b)treat
all
sexual
partners
c)treat
symptomatic
sexual
parteners
only
ANSWER:
B
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/214737-‐treatment
156.
Patient
came
with
fatigue,
weight
loss,
and
diarrhea.
He
received
a
blood
transfusion
when
he
was
in
kenya.
He
has
low
grade
fever,
vitals
are
stable,
skin
ex.
There
is
contagious
molluscum
in
groin
and
generalized
lymphadenopathy
and
palpable
liver,
diagnosis?
a)secondry
syphillis
b)Persistent
chronic
hep
B
c)HIV
d)Acute
lymphoma
ANSWER:
C
157.
IV
drug
abuser,
what
is
the
most
important
to
test
for
>
HIV
or
HBV?
ANSWER:
HIV
(?)
158.
what
is
the
most
common
cause
of
candida
infection?
ANSWER:
candida
albicans,
there
was
other
choices
of
candida
I
can't
remember
159.
Human
bite
..6
m(months
?)
prior
tetanus
..what
to
give
..
a)reassurance
b)booster
tetanus
c)suturing
d)amoxicillin
clavulanic
MEDSCAPE:
Although
rare,
human
bites
have
been
shown
to
transmit
Clostridium
tetani.Assess
all
patients
for
tetanus
immune
status
and
update
as
appropriate.
According
to
the
recommendations
of
the
US
Centers
for
Disease
Control
and
Prevention
(CDC),
[13]
tetanus
immune
globulin
and
the
3-‐
dose
vaccine
series
should
be
administered
to
patients
with
an
unknown
tetanus
vaccine
history
or
those
who
have
received
fewer
than
3
doses.
It
is
also
indicated
for
patients
who
received
the
complete
tetanus
series,
but
whose
booster
administration
was
more
than
5
years
ago.
For
patients
with
a
history
of
3
or
more
doses
of
tetanus
and
diphtheria
vaccine
who
received
a
booster
less
than
5
years
ago,
no
tetanus
booster
is
required.
160.
Pt
has
fever
and
neck
rigidity,
he
was
found
to
have
a
very
contagious
bacterial
disease.
What
will
you
give
his
close
contacts?
a)Prednisolone
b)Acyclovir
c)Loratidine
d)rifampicin
ANSWER:
D
161.
prevention
of
brucellosis?
ANSWER:
Pasteurization
of
milk
162
Gram
-‐ve,
lactose
non-‐ferminting
oxidase
+ve?
ANSWER:
Pseudomonas
163.
Pic
of
lobar
pneumonia:
ANSWER:
You
will
hear
bronchial
breathing
164.
Question
about
OPV
and
IPV?
1. Both
has
serum
antibodies
2. Both
prevent
virus
to
enter
the
GI
tract
3. Other
options
(not
sure
about)
ANSWER:
A
165.
patient
came
complains
of
fever
and
a
sore
throat
on
examination
there
was
exudative
tonsils
and
posterior
cervical
lymphadenopathy,
the
patient
also
had
mild
splenomegaly.
Tests
showed
positive
EBV
antibodies
what
does
the
patient
has?
1. pharyngitis
2. infectious
mononucleosis
ANSWER:
B
Source:
medscape
167.
DM
heavy
smoker
with
whitish
patches
in
the
mouth?
ANSWER:
Candida
168.
Bacteria
in
which
human
is
the
reservoir
and
the
infection
is
acquired?
Answer:
169.
What
is
the
cause
of
pseudomembranous
colitis?
1. Bacterial
2. Idiopathic
3. ……….
4. ……...
Answer:
Pseudomembranous
colitis
refers
to
swelling
or
inflammation
of
the
large
intestine
(colon)
due
to
an
overgrowth
of
Clostridium
difficile
(C
difficile)
bacteria.
Q.
Q
about
lyme
disease.
170.
Diabetic
old
man,
using
full
dentures
has
white
oral
patches,
tx?
ANSWER:
Miconazole
(candida)
171.
Hepatitis
B
chart
with
antigens
and
antibodies.
The
question
is
about
the
window
period?
ANSWER:
ANTI
HBc
i
think
172.
Group
of
people
got
diarrhea
after
they
ate
from
outside?
Two
choices
were
organisms
cause
food
poisoning.
(They
might
want
the
most
common)
A.
salmonella
B.
clostridium
perfringens
Answer:
173.
You
started
patient
on
Penicillin.
The
sensitivity
test
came
back
with
cefozlin
resistant.
What
will
you
do
next?
A.
Continue
the
same
B.
Shift
the
patient
to
Vancomycin
Answer:
b
174.
Giardia
micro
description
what
is
the
dx?
Don’t
get
it
?
175.
CSF
normal
glucose
high
protein
(Not
complete)
A.
Viral
B.
TB
Answer:
176.
Organisms
of
aseptic
meningitis
(Entroviral,,,,)
177.
Managment
of
meningitis
(Look
at
the
age)
178.
HBc
antibody
+
The
remaining
is
negative:
A.
Chronic
B.
Acute
C.
Booster
D.
Vaccination
ANSWER:
recovering
from
acute
infection.
179.
What’s
the
most
common
infection
done
in
pre
employment?
A.
HAV
B.
HBV
C.
HIV
ANSWER:
C
180.
case
of
streptococcal
pharyngitis
,treatment
?
1. Aspirin
2. Penicillin
ANSWER:
B
181.
student
e
hx
of
sore
throat,headache,
mild
cough,
low
grade
fever,
chest
pain,tired,general
malaise?
A.
Pneumoccoci,
B.
Mycoplasma,
C.
aspiration
pneumonia,
D.
Legionella
Answer:
182.
Child
with
abdominal
pain,
diarrhea,
burning
urination.
UA
showed
+ve
nitrates
+ve
leukoestrase
+ve
protein.
How
to
treat?
A.
suprax
for
14
days
B.
TMX-‐SMP
for
4
days
C.
cephalosporins
1
high
dose
D.
Amoxicillin
183.
Gram
negative,
non
lactose,
sulfa
producing.
Tx?
A.
Cirprofloxacin
B.
Ceftriaxon
C.
Chlom
ANSWER:
A
(NOT
SURE)
184.
History
of
travel
to
Africa,
came
back
to
myalgia
arthralgia.
Vitals
were
normal
(no
fever),
what
is
the
most
likely?
A.
Ebola
B.
Yellow
fever
C.
Lassa
fever
Chikungunya
Answer
:most
likely
Yellow
fever,
however
it
is
INCOMPLETE
185.
pt
has
urine
culture
MRSA
he
is
on
antibiotic
after
few
day
develop
redness
on
face,
neck?
what
is
antibiotic?
1-‐pencillan
2-‐vancomycine
ANSWER:
B
(REDMAN
SYNDROME)
186.
Which
one
of
these
vaccines
taken
by
intranasal
route?
A.
Zanamavir
B.
Oseltamivir
ANSWER:
A
187.
Picture
(
look
like
vesicle
)
start
as
1
only
then
spread
to
arm
legs
and
..
with
lymph-‐node
enlargement
?
a.
herps
simplex
virus
b.
Dermatitis
herpetic
form
c.
Varicella
zoster
INCOMPLETE
Q,
BUT
Verecila
zoster
is
the
closest
since
others
are
blistering
dx.
188.
50
or
40
years
female
1
day
after
chemotherapy
and
broad
spectrum
antibiotics
developed
painful
vesicular
rash
in
the
breast?
A-‐
rubella
B-‐
measles
C-‐
varicella
zoster
Answer:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3447017/
189.
30
y/o
lady
presents
with
productive
cough,
chest
pain
and
fever
for
the
last
one
week.
O/E
decreased
air
entry
on
the
right
side,
presence
of
bronchial
breathing.
X-‐ray
revealed
a
wide
opacity
on
the
right
side.
Culture
was
methicllin-‐sensetive,
which
of
the
following
is
the
most
suitable
drug
for
her?
A)
Amoxcicillin.
B)
Cloxacillin.
C)
Pipercillin.
D)
Penicillin
G.
ANSWER:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/234240-‐overview
190.
Patient
has
lung
infection
taking
antibiotic
then
patient
develop
flushing
in
face
and
hand
then
came
to
doctor
culture
show
methicillin
resistant
gram
+
in
cluster
Which
antibiotic
he
took?
A.
Vanco
B.
Cephalo
ANSWER:
A
191.
Human
source
infection?
A)
salmonella
B)
E.
Histolytica
NOT
COMPLETE
192.
Most
specific
for
AIDS?
A)night
sweat
B)
generalized
LAP
C)
opportunistic
infections
ANSWER:
B
193.
Patient
with
hx
of
tick
!
classic"
bull's-‐eye
rash:
Lyme
yme
disease
also
called
erythema
migrans
…
NOT
COMPLETE
Lyme
borreliosis,
is
an
infectious
disease
caused
by
bacteria
of
the
Borrelia
type
fever,
headache
and
feeling
tired.[1]
If
untreated,
symptoms
may
include
loss
of
the
ability
to
move
one
or
both
sides
of
the
face,
joint
pains,
severe
headaches
with
neck
stiffness,
or
heart
palpitation.
Tx:
early
:
erythromycin,
advanced(
CNS,arthritis)
ceftriaxone
.
Endocrinology
1.Clear
Case
with
lab
results
show:
Low
K
,
hight
blood
preusser
(Case
of
hyperaldosteronism).
How
to
diagnose?
A.
Renin-‐
aldosterone
ratio
B.
17hydroxyprogesterone
Answer:
A
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/920713-‐workup
2.Diabetic
patient,
allergic
to
sulpha
drugs,
on
metformin
and
acarbose.
Not
well
controlled,
what
to
add!?
A.
Novoptions
B.
Gliptazine
Answer:
B
3.Diabetic
and
pregnant,
hba1c
control
should
be
less
than:
A.
4
B.
5
C.
6
D.
7
Answer:
C
The
NICE
guidelines
for
Diabetes
in
Pregnancy
(Clinical
Guideline
63)
state
that
women
with
diabetes
should
aim
to
achieve
an
HbA1c
result
of
43
mmol/mol
(6.1%)
or
lower.
4.
scenario
of
patient
with
diabetes
and
asked
about
how
does
diabetes
affect
on
wound
healing?
Answer:
limit
phagocytosis
5.-‐Diabetic
pt
complain
of
(something
in
the
back)
with
multiple
discharging
sinuses
Dx:
1.
Infected
lymphoma
2.
Lymphangitis
3.
Carbuncle
4.
Furuncle
Answer:
C
6.CASE
scenario
about
diabetic
patient
diagnosed
recently
since
6
months.
Which
one
of
the
following
renal
investigation
we
should
do
yearly:
A-‐serum
creatinine
B-‐microalbuminuria
C-‐creatinine
albumin
ratio
D-‐24h
urine
protein
collection
Answer:
B
7.Contraindicated
hypoglycemic
drug
in
diabetic
patient
with
heart
disease
A.
pioglitazone
B.
sitagliptin
Answer:
A
https://reference.medscape.com/drug/actos-‐pioglitazone-‐342726#5
8.Diabetic
patient
with
lower
limb
paresthesia,
what
to
give
Answer:
Pregabalin
9.What
is
the
best
diagnostic
test
for
diabetic
nephropathy
a)Urine
dipstic
b)Kidney
function
test
c)Albumin/creatinine
spot
ratio.
d)24h
urinary
protiens.
Answer:
C
10.
A
child
with
growth
retardation,
obesity
and
Stria.
What
investigation
would
u
choose?
1)
MRI
brain
2)
adrenal
scintigraphy
3)
MRI
adrenals
4)
morning
and
evening
cortisol
level
Answer:
D
First
you
do
biochemistry
and
confirm
the
presence
of
Cushing
before
proceeding
to
imaging
11.
Pregnant
on
thyroid
medication,
how
much
should
you
increase
the
dose
A.
20%
B.
30%
C.
40%
D.
50%
Answer:
D
12.
-‐Obese
female,
regular
period
had
acne,
other
examination
normal
what
is
the
best
investigation?
Answer:
ACTH
Cushing
syndrome:
The
right
choice
is
to
check
24h
urinary
free
cortisol
level
Or
low
dexamethasone
suppression
test.
ACTH
is
not
used
till
later
on.
13.
Pt
with
muscle
weakness,
apart
from
hypotension
and
bradycardia,
his
examination
was
normal.
His
lab
tests
(high
K+,
low
NA,
low
Chloride,
high
urea)
What
is
the
etiology
behind
his
presentation?
A.hyponatremia
B.hyperkalemia
C.low
chloride
D.uremia
Answer:
B
14.
Target
HbA1c
of
DM2
Answer:
Less
than
7%
http://guidelines.diabetes.ca/executivesummary/ch8
15.
Patient
with
high
HgA1c
what
to
order
also?
A.Fasting
blood
sugar
B.CBC
C.TSH
Answer:
A
16.
Case
of
Elderly
DM
patient
on
metformin,
did
not
eat
well
for
the
past
5
days.
He
is
dehydrated,
Investigation
revealed
the
following:
•
Very
high
Random
blood
glucose
levels
•
Urine
(–ve
for
ketones,
+ve
for
Glucose).
Normal
renal
function.
Your
Assessment:
A.
Hyperosmolar
Hyperglycemia
B.
lactic
acidosis
C.
Diabetic
Ketoacidosis
(DKA)
Answer:
A
Hyperosmolar
Hyperglycemic
Non-‐ketotic
Syndrome
(HHNKS)
:
a
metabolic
complication
of
DM,
especially
in
elderly
and
in
type
2
DM,
characterized
by:
1.
Hyperglycemia
2.
Extreme
dehydration
3.
Hyperosmolar
plasma
4.
Altered
consciousness
(late
sign)
Precipitating
factors
for
this
condition
(HHNKS):
•
Acute
infection
•
Non-‐adherence
to
Diabetes
Meds.
https://www.merckmanuals.com/professional/endocrine-‐and-‐metabolic-‐disorders/diabetes-‐
mellitus-‐and-‐disorders-‐of-‐carbohydrate-‐metabolism/nonketotic-‐hyperosmolar-‐syndrome-‐nkhs
17.
Metabolic
syndromes
Diabetic
drugs
??
18.
The
nature
history
of
diabetic
nephropathy
(picture
provided)
when
the
changes
occur
or
something
like
that
A.
10
years
B.
15
years
C.
20
years
D.
25years
I
searched
and
asked
some
endocrinologist,
none
gave
me
an
answer.
But
mostly
it's
either
15
or
20
years
19.
-‐To
differentiate
between
type
1
and
2
DM
Answer:
Endogenous
insulin
Or
C-‐peptide
20.
Old
patient
came
with
Na
of
123
and
serum
osmolality
of
223
,
K
was
normal.
Urine
osmolality
was
800.
(No
scenario
or
cause
given)
The
probable
diagnosis
is:
1-‐
conns
disease
2-‐
addisons
3-‐
SIADH
4-‐
Cushing
Answer:
SIADH
In
SIADH
the
serum
osmolality
is
less
than
275
mosm
and
urine
osmolality
is
more
than
300
mosm.
In
conns
there's
hypernatremia
and
hypokalemia,
in
Addison
the
opposite
https://www.slideshare.net/mobile/mhdsoud/di-‐siadh-‐and-‐cerebral-‐salt-‐wasting-‐syndrome
21.
-‐Type
of
the
insulin
in
DKA
Answer:
Regular
22.
Middle
aged
male
with
infertility
and
decrease
libido
and
on
examination
bilateral
testicular
atrophy,
decrease
hair
and
musculature?
What
would
you
do
next?
(Testicular
biopsy
or
MRI)
Couldn’t
find
an
answer
23.
Male
student
in
high
school,
athletic,
presented
to
the
primary
clinic
for
check
up,
increase
musculature
with
multiple
acnes
what
you
are
going
to
order
(anabolic
urine
test)
Answer:
Anabolic
urine
test
24.
Patient
with
dm
,
which
one
of
the
following
is
contraindicated:
1. losartan
2. Nifedipine
3. Hydrazine
Answer:
C
26.
Pt
known
case
of
asthma,
his
wife
has
osteoporosis,
he
has
renal
stone
,
he
eats
multivitamin,
vit
D
and
calcium
.
PTH
:
high
What
is
the
dx?
Answer:
Primary
Hyperparathyroidism
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/127351-‐overview#a3
28.
Patient
with
thyroid
storm
symptoms.
What
is
the
first
thing
to
give
the
patient?
Answer:
Propranolol
29.
Clear
case
of
hyperthyroidism.
What
is
the
most
beneficial
in
the
diagnosis?
A.
Thyroid
scan
B.
FNA
C.
US
Once
the
diagnosis
of
hyperthyroidism
has
been
established,
the
cause
of
the
hyperthyroidism
should
be
determined.
Graves'
hyperthyroidism
may
be
clinically
obvious
on
the
basis
of
clinical
findings
such
as
diffuse
goiter
and
ophthalmopathy.
However,
a
24-‐hour
thyroid
radioiodine
uptake
and
scan
are
frequently
necessary
to
confirm
the
diagnosis
of
Graves'
hyperthyroidism
and
exclude
other
causes,
especially
painless
thyroiditis.
Answer:
A
30.
Smoker,
alcoholic
has
thyroid
nodule.
What
is
the
first
thing
to
do?
Answer:
Needle
aspiration
31.
Case
scenario
about
patient
with
hypertention,
labs
result
hypernatremia
hypokalemia
and
asking
about
cell
responsible
for
that?
-‐
fasiculata
-‐
glumerulosa
-‐
reticularis
Answer:
B
32.
picture
of
vial
of
varl
rix
vaccine
asking
this
vaccine
for
what
a)varicella
b)hepatitis
b
c)influenza
Answer:
A
33.
Case
about
DKA
,worst
complication
?
Answer:
cerebral
edema
34.
Water
with
low
iodine,cheer-‐man
wants
to
treat
children
suspected
to
have
cretinism
?
A.Add
iodine
B.Levothyroxine
Answer:
B
35.
ophthalmology
ex
for
DM2
patient
every
A.
6
months
B.
12
months
C.
24
months
D.
36
Months
Answer:
B
36.
A
pt
with
Lab
findings
of
hypothyroidism,
he
has
hoarseness
and
a
large
neck
swelling
OE
lt
lobe
is
swollen
and
is
larger
than
the
right
one
Best
Mx
is:
A.
FNA
B.
Thyroid
lobectomy
C.
Radio
isotope
scan
Answer:
A
37.
Thyroid
mass
with
intracellular
amyloid
deposit
1. Medalley
2. Papillary
3. Follicular
4. Non-‐hogken
Answer:
A
https://oup.silverchair-‐
cdn.com/oup/backfile/Content_public/Journal/ajcp/53/5/10.1093/ajcp/53.5.592/2/ajcpath53-‐
0592.pdf?Expires=1509461530&Signature=Q2aCjU3tMI~IQFuoS~g67hCsnQZwVGnarLrX9s4-‐
MEg6okBIwgGmFkccs5295SJxodv0csYSYLvJ82kIkkZnHXSMfYPPNq4SiG0GAB-‐QkHBuXgacCsX-‐
PcMoeOjjysophE~Qdt96UvEQLFeuSCQ4sXUpPbYc2wmWXgWT0rLbx6nyyVitu4Y7g5f3V2Zvn6G0
V1rvJ75T7J-‐dgsyQfYQLj~wWCTFCeLwHbldDaZhdWQ-‐05L5s-‐3e~xWOhuevmkpPSDB04PZm0Gtd-‐
1Mqe66QsJVmLyzwVadiRiKzVjafVsGzMbZ8cp61l2DdZyvgdhscjo-‐jTiVCE0Ee1TF-‐ztT~DuA__&Key-‐
Pair-‐Id=APKAIUCZBIA4LVPAVW3Q
39.
Question
about
baby
2
weeks
old
who
is
not
active
and
mother
happy
he
is
not
cry
asking
about
investigations
A.
-‐t3
level
B.
Total.
T4
C.
free
t
4
D.
mother
t
level
Answer:
C
40.
In
a
village
where
the
incidence
of
cretinism
and
iodine
was
less
than
1
microgram
the
health
promoters
want
to
issue
a
director
for
the
for
the
management
of
those
with
cretinism..
what
is
the
best
initial
management?
A.
TSH
and
t4
mesruments
B.
Start
thyroxine
medication
C.
Iodine
supplementation
Answer:
B
The
mainstay
in
the
treatment
of
congenital
hypothyroidism
is
early
diagnosis
and
thyroid
hormone
replacement.
Optimal
care
may
includes
diagnosis
before
age
10-‐13
days
and
normalization
of
thyroid
hormone
blood
levels
by
age
3
weeks.
Only
levothyroxine
is
recommended
for
treatment
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/919758-‐treatment#d6
41.
Thyrotoxicosis
crisis,
initial
treatment?
Answer:
B
blocker
42.
Hypoparathyrodism
,he
will
have
?
Answer:
Convulsions
Tetany,
seizures,
QT
prolongation,
twitching
(Chvostek
sign),
spasm
(Trousseau
sign)
43.
Propylthiouracil
(
anti
thyroid)
how
it
works?
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/23883148
44.
-‐
Anti
thyroid
causing
pancytopenia:
Answer:
Methimazole
This
condition
is
extremely
serious
but
affects
only
one
out
of
every
200
to
500
people
who
take
an
antithyroid
drug.
Older
people
taking
propylthiouracil
and
those
who
take
high
doses
of
methimazole
may
be
at
higher
risk
of
this
side
effect.
45.
-‐
Antithyroid
used
in
pregnancy:
Answer:
Propylthiouracil
Propylthiouracil
is
the
drug
of
choice
during
the
first
trimester
of
pregnancy
because
it
causes
less
severe
birth
defects
than
methimazole.
Because
there
have
been
rare
cases
of
liver
damage
in
people
taking
propylthiouracil,
some
clinicians
will
suggest
switching
to
methimazole
after
the
first
trimester,
while
others
may
continue
propylthiouracil.
46.
Cold
intolerance,
wt
gain
>
check
thyroid
Us
The
right
answer
should
be
to
measure
TSH
and
free
T4
47.
cohns
and
Addison
and
Cushing
basically
secondary
hypertension
Labs
and
investigations
(3qs)
48.
MOA
of
metformin
in
PCOS:
Answer:
reduces
insulin
resistance.
49.
Diabetic
on
sulfa
and
metformin
came
for
regular
check
up,
his
HBA1C
is
9.2
what
is
your
management
?
-‐
regular
insulin
-‐
aspart
-‐
pioglitazone\
Glitazone
Answer:
C
50.
A
45
year-‐old
man,
who
has
diabetes
and
has
been
on
metformin
and
glimepiride
for
the
last
four
weeks,
presents
to
the
clinic
with
poor
glycemic
control.
A
history
also
confirms
poor
dietary
management.
Which
of
the
following
should
be
prescribed
now?
A.
Acarbose
B.
Repaglinide
C.
Tolbutamide
D.
Pioglitazone
Answer:
A
51.
Married
man,
type2
dm,
his
wife
is
unable
to
conceive,
o/e
testicular
atrophy,
reduced
pubic
hair,
testosterone
and
LH
are
low
Prolactin
normal
Next
step
in
dx:
A)
karyotyping
B)
testicular
us
C)
brain
MRI
Answer:
C
52.
Type
2
dm
woman,
full
bladder,
incomplete
emptying,
the
etiology
A)
diabetic
neuro...
B)
detrousal...
Answer:
A
53.
What
is
the
MOA
of
glipizide
?
Answer:
Increase
insulin
secretions
from
pancreas
54.
-‐
What
is
insulin
regimen
that
is
similar
to
normal
physiology?
Answer:
ASPART
AND
GLARGINE
55.
Many
Q
about
thyroid
in
medicine
I
don’t
remember,
review
what
you
should
do
if
there’s
mass
and
about
hypo
&
hyperthyroidism,
there’s
investigation
in
the
Questions
56.
Patients
have
D.M.
On
metformin
1
g
and
another
anti
dm,
present
with
increasing
blood
glucose
at
morning,
what
you
will
give
:
A.
NPH
B.
Lispro
C.
Regular
Answer:
A
57.
pt
with
hyperthyroidism,
with
palpitation
,
what
is
the
most
likely
finding
in
his
ECG?
1. SVT
2. VT
3. A
FIB
Answer:
C
58.
Pt
k/c
of
hypothyroidism
,
use
Levothyroxin
175
mg
,
switch
to
200
mg
.
Labs
:
Tsh
:
high.
T4
:
normal.
What
is
the
cause
?
A.
ectopic
thyroid
B.
Primary
hypo
C.
Secondary
hypo
D.
Small
dose
.
Answer:
D
60.
How
hyperglycemia
affect
wound
healing:
A.
dec
imuune
system
B.
Dec
phagocytosis
C.
Stimulates
bacteria
growth
Answer:
B
61.
case
of
hyperthyroidism
what
will
be
associated:
A)AFib
B)
VT
C)
SVT
D)
WPW
Answer:
A
62.
Multi-‐nodular
goiter
treatment:
A.
1-‐surgery
B.
2-‐radioidonie
C.
3-‐beta-‐blockers
D.
4-‐antithyriod
Answer:
A
63.
Case
of
hypothroidism
lipid
screening
after
a.6
months
b.1year
c.3years
d.5years
Answer:
A
64.
GLipizide
mode
of
action?
1. increases
insulin
release
from
the
pancreas
2. Increase
peripheral
cells
sensitivity
to
insulin
Answer:
A
65.
A
known
case
of
Addison
disease
presented
with
weakness,
cold
and
clammy
skin,
dizziness
and
weak
pulses.
Treatment?
1. 0.9%
N/S
over
1hour+hydrocortisone
IV
2. 0.9%
N/S
over
8hours+hydrocoriesone
IV
3. 0.9%
N/S
over
1
hour
+
fludrocortisone
orally
4. 0.9%
N/S
over
8hrs
+fludrocortisone
orally
Answer:
A
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/765753-‐
treatment?pa=Rev1p9JVxdupXJ3%2FGoHsV3tvHK9mpdTiE1lxb0CSsSQ8YUkKorinsY0X%2F6L3clY
qX8MwC0EECwzp432Skuf9qw%3D%3D
67.
8
year
with
T1DM
dx
before
1
month
when
to
start
ophtha
screening?
A)
After
3
years
B)
After
5
years
Answer:
B
68.
Patient
is
diabetic
on
glyburide
she
gained
7kgs
in
a
year.
HBA1C
is
6.6
what
is
your
management?
A)
Add
metformin
b)
Stop
glyburide
and
start
her
on
metformin
Answer:
B
69.
23
year
old
man
is
complaining
of
polydepsia
and
polyurea
and
he
is
worry
and
afraid
about
getting
dm
what
is
the
best
value
for
diagnosis
?
1-‐
7.7
2-‐8
3-‐
9
4-‐
12
No
enough
information
NOTE:
Table
2.1—Criteria
for
the
diagnosis
of
diabetes
FPG
126
mg/dL
(7.0
mmol/L).
Fasting
is
defined
as
no
caloric
intake
for
at
least
8
h.*
OR
2-‐h
PG
200
mg/dL
(11.1
mmol/L)
during
an
OGTT.
The
test
should
be
performed
as
described
by
the
WHO,
using
a
glucose
load
containing
the
equivalent
of
75
g
anhydrous
glucose
dissolved
in
water.*
OR
A1C
6.5%
(48
mmol/mol).
The
test
should
be
performed
in
a
laboratory
using
a
method
that
is
NGSP
certified
and
standardized
to
the
DCCT
assay.*
OR
In
a
patient
with
classic
symptoms
of
hyperglycemia
or
hyperglycemic
crisis,
a
random
plasma
glucose
200
mg/dL
(11.1
mmol/L).
*In
the
absence
of
unequivocal
hyperglycemia,
results
should
be
confirmed
by
repeat
testing.
reference:
American
diabetes
association
2016
Q.
Scenario
about
female
with
hypothyroidism
and
take
levothyroxine
for
something
duration,
she
is
asymptomatic
now.
The
lab
result
:
T4
within
range
,
TSH
still
high
1
above
normal
range
,
what
will
you
do:
-‐
continue
with
the
same
dose
-‐
increase
dose
by
….
-‐
Increase
dose
by
…
-‐
Increase
dose
by
…
Answer:
Increase
dose
by
25
mcg
Q.
Hypothyroidism
pt
after
2
weeks
of
treatment
lab
show
normal
t4
+
high
tsh:
Same
dose
&
f\u
1-‐2
months
Decrese
dose
&
f\u
1-‐2
months
Decrease
dose
&
f\u
1-‐2
weeks
Answer:
continue
same
dose
T4
takes
one
week
only,
while
TSH
needs
2
months
to
stabilize
70.
Lady
who
is
taking
thyroxin
75
mg.
She
stopped
taking
the
drug
3
days
back
and
came
now
for
refill
of
the
drug.
Labs
show
normal
T4
and
high
TSH
(85).
What
is
the
dose
you’re
going
to
give
her?
A.
50
B.
75
C.
100
D.
150
Answer:
C
71.
Side
effect
of
hyperthyroidism
drugs
à
choices
where
medication
72.
most
reliable
marker
for
diagnosing
hypothyroidism;
1. -‐
Serum
T4
2. -‐
Total
T4
3. -‐
TSH
4. -‐
T3
Answer:
C
73.
Case
of
hyperthyroidism
what
will
be
associated:
A)AF
B)
VT
C)
SVT
D)
WPW
Answer:
A
74.
Scenario
of
Cushing
syndrome
without
the
diagnosis
asking
which
one
will
be
present?
Telangiectasia
In
some
rare
cases
you
find
telangiectasia
75.
Incretin
mode
of
action?
Answer:
Increase
insulin
secretion
77.
HbA1c
target
for
dm2
àless
than
7
78.
Female
trying
to
lose
weight
but
she
couldn’t,
you
ordered
thyroid
panel
and
it
came
out:
TSH:
high
T4
normal.
What’s
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
1. hyperthyroidism
2. Subclinical
hypothyroidism
Answer:
B
79.
Patient
with
hyperthyroidism.
Which
drug
more
rapid
action?
1. Propylthiouracil
B.
radioactive
iodine
Answer:
A
80.
What
is
the
mechanism
of
insulin
resistance
in
obesity?
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3936017/
81.
Patient
with
hyperthyroidism
on
medication.
Came
with
red
eye.
What
is
the
medication
responsible
for
that?
Iodine
can
cause
exacerbation
of
eye
disease.
That's
the
only
explanation
for
red
eye
82.
Diabetic
on
Metformin.
She
got
pregnant,
what
will
you
do?
Answer:
Shift
her
on
insulin.
83.
Patient
is
having
seizure
episodes
since
3
days.
Blood
osmolality
is
low.
Urine
osmolality
is
normal.
What
is
the
most
likely
cause?
A.
Cons
syndrome
B.
Addison
syndrome
C.
Cushing
D.
Inappropriate
ADH
secretion
Answer:
D
Patient
came
to
PHC
complaining
of
fatigue
and
polyuria
,
investigation
:
RBS
450
,
positive
ketone
body
,
what
is
the
predominant
type
of
ketone
body
is
present
in
the
urine?
Answer:
Acetoacetate
85.
32
female
c/o
breast
milk
discharge
and
irregular
menses,
ask
about
investigation:
A.
TSH
B.
brain
MRI
C.
biopsy
Answer
:
TSH
(Uptodate
mentions
TSH
as
first
initial
test
before
brain
MRI!)
86.
Amenorrhea,
low
prolactin,
what
to
see
in
CT
or
MRI:
Answer
:
EMPTY
SELLA
TRUCICA
87.
Mother
developed
gestational
dm
in
pregnancy
then
come
after
giving
birth
at
6
month
the
HA1C
is
6.9
what
is
the
managment
?
1. insulin
2. metformin
3. sulfenourea
4. pigletazone
Answer:
B
88.
Long
scenario
for
30
years
female
patient
has
manifestation
of
hypothyroidism
(tirdness.....)
Lab
and
vital
sign
were
provided
and
it
shows,
low
T4,
low
24hours
urine
cortison,
low
testesteron
,
low
somatomedin
,
low
IGF
.
Beside
thyroid
replacement
what
you
will
give:
1. GH
2. Steroid
Answer:
B
89.
Female
34
years
old
presented
with
breast
milk
discharge
and
9
period
a
year,
which
of
the
following
most
likely
she
had:
Answer:
prolactinoma
90.
Case
of
women
with
hyperprolactenemia
and
they
found
pituitary
adenoma
.7
cm
what
is
the
management
:
1. Cabergoline
2. bromocroptine
3. surgery
Answer:
A
91.
Case
of
SIADH
,
they
wrote
lab
results
and
they
want
the
diagnosis:
hyponatremia
and
hypo-‐osmolality
,
urine
osmalirty
hhigh
92.
Diabetic
patient
on
NPH
and
regular
insulin
twice
before
breakfast
and
dinner
,
glucose
was
high
at
4pm
,
how
to
manage
:
1. Increase
NPH
before
breakfast
2. Increase
regular
before
breakfast
3. Increase
NPH
before
dinner
4. Increase
regular
before
dinner
Answer:
A
93.
Patient
with
dm
,
which
one
of
the
following
is
contraindicated:
a)
losartan
b)
Nifedipine
c)
Hydrazine
sulfate
Answer:
C
Pulmonology
1.
Acute
asthma
in
ER
take
SABA?
Next?
A.
Theophylline
B.
Inhaler
ipratropium
Answer:
B
Reference:
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?19/39/20081
2.
Obstructive
Sleep
Apnea
breathing?
Answer:
Cheyne–Stokes
respiration.
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cheyne%E2%80%93Stokes_respiration
3.
Lung
infiltration,
decrease
air
entry,
greenish
sputum
foul
smell.
A.
Bronchiolitis
B.
Bronchiectasis
Answer:
B
Reference:
https://www.nhs.uk/Conditions/Bronchiectasis/Pages/Symptoms.aspx
https://www.emedicinehealth.com/bronchiectasis/page6_em.htm
4.
Anti-‐cancer
drug
causes
reactions,
skin
changes
and
lung
fibrosis:
A.
Bleomycin
B.
Cisplatin
C.
Methotrexate
Answer:
A
Both
medication
can
cause
all
of
these
side
effects
but
bleomycin
more
common
Reference:
https://www.drugs.com/sfx/
bleomycin-‐side-‐effects.html
https://www.drugs.com/sfx/
methotrexate-‐side-‐
effects.html
5.
Patient
complaining
of
face
flushing
and
head
heaviness
in
the
morning
that's
relieved
during
the
day,
CXR
shows
bilateral
hilar
mass,
he
is
smoker
for
30
years?
A.
Hodgkin's
lymphoma
B.
Lung
cancer
C.
COPD
Answer:
B
Symptoms
of
Superior
Vena
Cava
Syndrome
Reference:
https://www.cancer.net/navigating-‐cancer-‐care/side-‐effects/superior-‐vena-‐cava-‐
syndrome
6.
Old
patient
with
facial
swelling
when
waking
up
&
decrease
during
the
day,
he
is
smoker.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
COPD
B.
TB
C.
Lung
cancer
Answer:
C
Symptoms
of
Superior
Vena
Cava
Syndrome
Reference:
https://www.cancer.net/navigating-‐cancer-‐care/side-‐effects/superior-‐vena-‐cava-‐
syndrome
7.
Patient
exposures
to
asbestos
what
will
present
in
chest
x
ray:
A.
Hyperinflation
B.
Bilateral
lungs
fibrosis
C.
Interstitial
lung
disease
Answer:
B
Hyperinflation
may
also
be
present,
so
could
be
A
as
well
Reference:
For
A:
http://www.clinicaladvisor.com/pulmonary-‐medicine/asbestos-‐related-‐pulmonary-‐
disorders/article/625653/
For
B:
https://www.asbestos.com/asbestosis/diagnosis/
8.
1
year,
fine
crackles,
?
All
choices
were
not
related
looks
look
bronchopneumonia
9.
Female
with
history
of
pulmonary
embolism,
3
abortion.
Have
positive
lupus:
I
chose
Antiphospholipid
10.
Man
works
in
the
new
office
and
he
experienced
cough
and
wheezing
and
respiratory
symptoms
I
don't
remember
exactly.
Otherwise
he
is
fine
and
the
condition
return
once
he
back
to
this
office:
A.
Asthma
B.
Allergic
pneumonitis
Answer:
B
Reference:
https://medlineplus.gov/ency/article/000109.htm
11.
Which
of
the
following
is
the
typical
picture
of
primary
TB:
A.
Caseation
of
lymph
node
B.
Cavitation
in
lung
C.
Can’t
remember
other
choices
Answer:
A
Cavitation
is
uncommon
in
primary
TB,
seen
only
in
10-‐30%
of
cases
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3215852/
12.
Lung
abscess,
best
antibiotics?
A.
Cipro
B.
Macrolides
C.
Third
generation
D.
Piperacillin
Answer:
A
Standard
therapy
for
lung
abscess
with
anaerobic
bacteria
is
clindamycin
but
not
in
the
choices
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/299425-‐medication#2
13.
Treatment
for
bilateral
pneumonia
A.
Ampicillin
B.
Ciprofloxacin
C.
Vancomycin
Answer:
B
Depend
on
the
organism,
but
atypical
pneumonia
is
often
diffuse
and
bilateral.
The
first
line
antibiotic
in
atypical
pneumonia
is
macrolide
or
doxycycline
but
both
are
not
in
the
choices,
and
the
second
line
is
fluoroquinolone
Reference:
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/18/treatment/details.html
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/300157-‐treatment#d6
14.
Most
common
cough
in
adults
Answer:
post
nasal
drip
Reference:
http://www.aafp.org/afp/2003/0101/p169a.html
15.
Middle
age
man
with
acute
onset
of
fever
malaise
anorexia
x-‐ray
show
bilateral
hilar
and
left
paratracheal
lymphadenopathy
what
is
the
diagnosis:
A.
HIV
B.
sarcoidosis
C.
TB
D.
rheumatic
fever
Answer:
B
The
most
frequent
radiological
abnormality
involves
enlarged
bilateral
hilar
and
right
paratracheal
lymph
nodes
in
sarcoidosis
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3789928/
16.
Smoker
with
CXR
result
of
calcification:
A.
Squamous
cell
carcinoma
B.
Adenocarcinoma
Answer:
A
Most
types
of
lung
cancer
linked
to
smoking
cigarette
but
the
strongest
association
is
with
squamous
cell
carcinoma
and
small
cell
carcinoma
Reference:
Rubin's
Pathology:
Clinicopathologic
Foundations
of
Medicine
page
539,
5th
Edition
17.
Student
with
history
of
sore
throat,
headache,
mild
cough,
low-‐grade
fever,
chest
pain,
tired,
general
malaise?
A.
Pneumococci
B.
Mycoplasma
C.
Aspiration
pneumonia
D.
Legionella
Answer:
B
Picture
of
atypical
pneumonia
symptoms.
Mycoplasma
and
Legionella
are
organisms
of
atypical
pneumonia,
but
Legionella
common
has
GI
symptoms
with
diarrhea
Reference:
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?39/18/40239
18.
Drug
for
asthma
decreases
secretion
more
than
bronchodilation:
Answer:
ipratropium
promide
19.
28
years
pregnant
at
20
weeks
of
pregnancy.
Developed
dyspnea
and
resp.
distress
of
sudden
onset,
what
is
the
diagnostic
test:
A.
2
chest
x-‐rays
B.
Echocardiogram
C.
CT
scan
D.
V/Q
ventilation
Answer:
D
Because
of
the
superior
accuracy
of
V/Q
scanning
and
lower
maternal
breast
irradiation,
there
has
been
a
movement
away
from
CT
angiography
toward
V/Q
scanning
as
the
diagnostic
test
of
choice
in
the
workup
of
pulmonary
embolism
in
pregnancy
in
women
with
a
negative
CXR.
In
those
patients
with
an
abnormal
CXR,
CT
angiography
remains
the
test
of
choice.
Reference:
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?5/7/5233#H13
20.
2
Q
about
squamous
cell
carcinoma
of
lung
First
was
“x-‐
ray“,
Second
I
don’t
remember
21.
Exacerbation
of
asthma
>
inhaled
steroids
22.
Old
Pt
have
recurrent
DVT
and
obstruction
SVC,
what
the
cause?
Lung
carcinoma
23.
Cancer
in
the
middle
of
esophagus,
which
type?
A.
Adenocarcinoma
B.
Scc
Answer:
B
Reference:
https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-‐conditions/esophageal-‐cancer/symptoms-‐
causes/syc-‐20356084
24.
Old
male
present
with
mid
clavicle
mass
(smoker
for
20y
and
I
think
he
drinks
Alcohol)
What
is
your
initial
management?
A.
Core
biopsy
B.
Fine
needle
biopsy
C.
bronchoscopy
Answer:
B
If
the
question
mean
thyroid
mass,
so
it
is
B
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/127491-‐overview#a4
25.
40
years
old,
non-‐smoker,
present
with
weight
loss
and
dyspnea,
he
works
in
electricity
generation,
what
is
the
cause?
A.
Asbestose
B.
Inhaled
coal
dust
C.
Passive
smoking
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://academic.oup.com/annweh/article-‐
abstract/37/6/645/130162?redirectedFrom=PDF
26.
Patient
with
obstructive
sleep
apnea
CPAP
not
effective
what
to
do?
A.
Promethazine
B.
Beclomethasone
C.
Ipratropium
D.
Modafinil
Answer:
D
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/295807-‐medication
27.
34
years
old
man
has
an
intermittent
epigastric
pain
for
3wks.
It
is
worse
by
food
but
helped
by
some
tablets
he
obtained
from
the
pharmacy.
He
had
a
similar
episode
3yrs
ago
and
his
doctor
gave
him
a
course
of
3
types
of
tablets
at
the
time.
What
is
the
most
appropriate
next
investigation?
A.
Abdomen
US
B.
Barium
meal
C.
Urea
breath
test
Answer:
C
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/176938-‐workup
28.
Lung
cancer
of
stage
1
small
cell
mixed
with
non
small
cell
and
asked
about
management?
A.
Surgery
and
chemotherapy
B.
Chemotherapy
and
radiation
C.
Chemotherapy
plus
something
Answer:
A
Both
of
Small
Cell
Lung
Cancer
&
Non-‐Small
Cell
Lung
Cancer
the
standard
management
is
surgical
resection
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/279960-‐treatment
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/280104-‐treatment
29.
Which
lung
cancer
causes
SIADH
syndrome?
While
the
association
with
small
cell
lung
cancer
(SCLC)
is
well
known,
that
with
non
small
cell
lung
cancer
(NSCLC)
has
been
rarely
reported
Reference:
http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S2213007117302381
30.
Long
scenario
about
lung
cancer
on
pathology
(polygonal
cells)
and…?
Answer:
squamous-‐cell
lung
cancer
Reference:
https://www.pathologystudent.com/?p=4616
31.
Known
asthma
has
whitish
rash
easily
removed
in
mouth.
Which
antiasthmatic
cause
this?
A.
Cromolyn
sodium
B.
Betamethasone
C.
Albutmerol
Answer:
B
Reference:
https://www.nhs.uk/Conditions/Oral-‐thrush-‐-‐-‐adults/Pages/Introduction.aspx
32.
COPD
exacerbation
by
Infection,
patient
has
fever
and
greenish
sputum,
what
is
the
most
likely
microorganism?
(no
pseudomonas
in
the
answers)
A.
staph.
Aureus
B.
streptococcus
pneumonie
C.
mycoplasma
pneumonia
D.
homophiles
influenza
Answer:
D
Haemophilus
influenzae;
Moraxella
catarrhalis
more
common
in
pre-‐existing
structural
lung
disease
(CF,
bronchiectasis,
COPD)
and
the
elderly
Pseudomonas,
Haemophilus,
and
pneumococcal
species:
May
produce
green
sputum
Reference:
Kumar
and
Medscape
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/300157-‐overview
33.
Old
asthmatic
patient
came
with
urinary
retention
diagnosed
with
BPH
and
he
was
found
to
have
high
blood
pressure
180/110
(exactly
it
was
that
high)
what
to
give
now?
A.
IV
Labetalol
B.
propranolol
C.
prazosin
D.
something
ends
with
lol
,
BBlocker
?
Answer:
C
Reference:
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?19/60/20417#H5
34.
Patient
with
recurrent
hemoptysis
since
3
years.
What’s
the
most
likely
cause?
Missing
details
A. Bronchiactasis
B. Tb
Answer:
35.
Treatment
of
bronchiolitis
Answer:
Conservative
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/961963-‐treatment
36.
Old
pt
in
ICU
with
pneumonia,
ask
about
organism:
Answer:
Pseudomonas
37.
What
is
the
best
investigation
for
determine
severity
of
asthma?
A.
PEFR
B.
ABG
Answer:
A
Reference:
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/44/diagnosis/tests.html
38.
Atypical
pneumonia
management?
Azithromycin
is
the
drug
of
choice
for
children
with
suspected
or
confirmed
Legionella
disease
39.
About
asthma
management
she
is
on
leukotrienes
since
6
month
then
come
with
every
day
coughing
relieved
by
sulbutamol
in
ER.
What
you
will
give
her
as
maintenance?
A.
Oral
steroid
and
SABB
on
needed
B.
Inhaled
2
doses
steroid
and
SABB
on
needed.
C.
Leukotrienes
and
SABB
on
needed.
D.
Long
acting
beta
blocker
and
SABB
on
needed.
Answer:
B
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/296301-‐guidelines#g3
40.
Asthmatic
exacerbation
came
to
the
ER
give
him
sulbutamol
the
relieved
and
the
PEF
70%
what
you
will
do
next
for
maintenance?
A.
Ipratraupium
B.
Inhaled
steroid
C.
Thyphelen
Answer:
B
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/296301-‐guidelines#g3
41.
Pt
inhaling
3
nanogram
of
Cotton
in
a
factory.
Eventually
the
cotton
will
end
up
A.
Engulfed
by
alveolar
macrophages
B.
Trapped
in
mucocilliary
system
without
reaching
alveoli
C.
Pass
without
any
damage
D.
trapped
in
distal
airway
leading
to
fibrosis
Answer:
D
Reference:
http://thorax.bmj.com/content/59/12/1095
42.
Bronchospastic
symptoms
(eg,
wheeze
and
cough),
usually
responsive
to
bronchodilator
therapy
43.
Cavernous
hemangioma
+
pleural
effusion
Answer:
Pleural
hemangioma
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4821329/
44.
What
is
the
most
clinical
sign
associated
with
pulmonary
hypertension
A.
Central
cyanosis
B.
Pulmonary
edema
C.
Stroke
D.
Lower
limb
edema
and
ascites
Answer:
D
Reference:
http://www.aafp.org/afp/2001/0501/p1789.html
45.
X-‐ray
of
patient
with
pleural
effusion,
what
U
gonna
hear
during
auscultation:
A.
Decrease
breath
sounds
B.
Decrease
vocal
resonant
C.
Bronchial
breath
sounds
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://www.medicinenet.com/pleural_effusion_fluid_in_the_chest_or_on_lung/article.htm
46.
Woman
had
+
pulmonary
TB
since
2
week
her
husband
come
for
tuberculin
test,
minimal
induration
to
be
positive:
A.
5
B.
9
C.
13
D.
17
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://www.cdc.gov/tb/publications/factsheets/testing/skintesting.htm
47.
Definition
of
cheyne
stokes
breathing?
Abnormal
pattern
of
breathing
characterized
by
progressively
deeper
and
sometimes
faster
breathing,
followed
by
a
gradual
decrease
that
results
in
a
temporary
stop
in
breathing
called
an
apnea.
The
pattern
repeats,
with
each
cycle
usually
taking
30
seconds
to
2
minute
48.
Patient
complaining
of
dry
cough
and
weight
loss.
Nodular
infiltrate
and
hepatomegaly.
A.
Miliary
TB
B.
Blastomycosis
Answer:
A
Reference:
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?33/53/34640
49.
Loss
of
sensation
over
shoulder
which
part
of
pleura
will
be
affected?
A.
Mediastinal
B.
Pleural
C.
Vesceral
Answer
:A
Mediastinal
and
central
diaphragmatic
pleural
pain
referred
to
root
of
neck
and
over
shoulder
(Dermatomes
C3-‐C5)
Reference:
Lippincott's
Concise
Illustrated
Anatomy:
Thorax,
Abdomen
&
Pelvis
“The
reference
about
referred
pain
to
the
shoulder
not
loss
of
sensation”
Cardiology
1.
Patient
presented
with
SOB.
On
examination
there
was
ejection
systolic
murmur
in
the
aortic
area
radiating
to
neck.
What
is
the
pathophysiology
of
SOB?
A-‐
Pumonary
venous
congestion
B-‐
systemic
venous
congestion
Answer:
Pulmonary
venous
congestion
2.
Patient
with
mitral
stenosis
and
increased
pressure
in
the
left
atrium,
and
ECG
was
provided.
What
is
the
complication?
A-‐
Right
ventricular
hypertrophy
B-‐
Pulmonary
HTN
C-‐
Dilation
of
the
left
atrium
Answer:
Dilation
of
the
left
atrium
3.
Patient
presented
with
palpitation.
Normal
ECG
&
examination.
What
is
the
treatment?
A-‐
Verapamil
B-‐
Propranolol
C-‐
Digoxin
Answer:
Can
not
decide
based
on
messing
information.
4.
Treatment
of
pericarditis
A-‐
Aspirin
B-‐
Corticosteroid
C-‐
Antiviral
D-‐
Antibiotics
Answer:
Aspirin
5.
ECG
pic
showing
anterior
MI.
Upon
history,
he
took
sildenafil
(viagra)
what
drug
is
contraindicated
to
be
taken
in
this
case?
A-‐
Morphine
B-‐
Aspirin
C-‐
Nitrate
Answer:
Nitrate
6.
Patient
complains
of
chest
pain,
describes
it
as
close
fist
crushing
his
sternum.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Myocardial
ischemia
B-‐
Pulmonary
embolism
C-‐
Pericarditis
Answer:
MI
7.
Mid
diastolic
murmur
on
auscultation,
located
at
the
left
sternal
border.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Mitral
stenosis
8.
Long
scenario,
positive
findings
were
radiofemoral
delay
and
on
CXR
there
shows
rib
notching.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Coarctation
of
the
aorta
9.
Murmur
that
changes
with
changing
the
position?
A-‐
Innocent
murmur
10.
Patient
with
atrial
fibrillation
on
warfarin
12
mg
had
hematuria,
rectal
bleeding,
and
bruises.
His
INR
is
6.2
what’s
next?
A-‐
Reduce
warfarin
B-‐
Give
whole
blood,
C-‐
Give
vitamin
k
D-‐
Replace
warfarin
with
aspirin
Answer:
Give
Vitamin
K
11.
Patient
with
mitral
stenosis
(0.7
mm),
with
moderate
MR,
RVH
and
Afib,
what’s
the
management?
A-‐
Ballon
B-‐
Valve
replacement
C-‐
Valve
commissurotomy
D-‐
Medical
treatment
Answer:
Valve
replacement
Patient
can
not
have
both
MR
and
MS
However
looking
at
the
size
of
0.7
mm,
it
indicates
severe
stenosis.
12.
Patient
with
aortic
stenosis,
what’s
the
management?
Answer:
Asymptomatic:
serial
echos,
avoid
exertion
Symptomatic:
avoid
nitrates/arterial
dilators
and
ACEI
in
severe
AS
Surgery
if:
symptomatic
or
LV
dysfunction
Surgical
Options
Valve
replacement:
aortic
rheumatic
valve
disease
and
trileaflet
valve
–
prior
to
pregnancy
(if
AS
significant)
–
balloon
valvuloplasty
(in
very
young)
Interventional
Options
Percutaneous
valve
replacement
(transfemoral
or
transapical
approach)
is
an
option
in
selected
patients
who
are
not
considered
good
candidates
for
surgery
13.
Congestive
heart
failure
with
systolic
dysfunction,
what’s
the
treatment?
Answer:
if
Acute
-‐>
lasix
ACEI
or
ARBs
and
Correcting
underlying
cause
Chronic
-‐>
B
blockers
ACEI
or
ARBs
diurteics
ie
lasix
or
spironolaxtin
Aspirin
and
statins
if
Previous
MI
14.
ECG
showing
ST
elevation
MI,
what
is
the
most
appropriate
management?
A-‐
LMWH
B-‐
Streptokinase
C-‐
Thrombolysis
D-‐
Stenting
Answer:
depends
on
duration.
If
within
90
minutes
stenting
15.
19
years
old
female
with
arthralgia
and
pansystolic
murmur
radiating
to
the
axilla.
ESR
is
high.
Which
one
of
the
following
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
A-‐
SLE
B-‐
Miliary
TB
C-‐
Hodgkin's
lymphoma
Answer:
SLE
16.
Severe
aortic
regurgitation.
Other
findings?
A-‐
Collapsing
pulse
B-‐
Low
raising
pulse
C-‐
Pulsus
paradoxus
D-‐
Pulsus
bisferiens
Answer:
Pulsus
bisferiens
17.
Right
bundle
branch
block?
18.
Case
of
cardiac
patient,
he
started
to
develop
sign
and
symptoms
of
heart
failure
which
one
of
the
following
will
prolong
patient
life?
A-‐
ACEIs
B-‐digoxin
C-‐diltiazem
D-‐diuretic
Answer:
ACEI
19.
ECG
showing
inferior
MI,
which
one
of
the
following
arteries
blocked?
A-‐
Right
coronary
artery
B-‐
Left
coronary
artery
C-‐
Circumflex
Answer:
RCA
20.
Patient
with
anterolateral
MI
(ECG
was
provided),
presented
within
45
minutes
and
is
going
for
cardiac
catheterization.
He
was
given
aspirin
and
oxygen
at
the
ER.
What
are
you
going
to
give
him
before
the
procedure?
A-‐
Morphine
and
nitroglycine
B-‐
Small
dose
of
beta
blocker
in
the
IV
infusion
C-‐
Normal
saline
with
pacemaker
D-‐
Dopamine
and
non-‐epinephrine
Answer:
Morphine
and
nitroglycine
21.
Systolic
ejection
murmur
in
aortic
area
radiating
to
the
neck,
and
the
patient
has
SOB,
what
is
the
cause?
A-‐
Congestion
in
systemic
venous
B-‐
Pulmonary
congestion
C-‐
Pulmonary
stenosis
Answer:
Pulmonary
congestion
22.
Patient
thin
and
tall
and
has
chest
deformity.
He
came
to
the
doctor
because
2
of
his
brothers
died
at
a
young
age,
you
are
afraid
of
which
of
the
following?
A-‐
Hypertrophic
cardiomyopathy
B-‐
Aortic
root
aneurism
Answer:
Aortic
root
aneurysm
(Marphan)
23.
Case
of
chest
pain
since
1
hour.
What
enzyme
will
confirm
MI?
A-‐
Troponin
B-‐
CK
C-‐
Lactate
dehydrogenase
D-‐
Aspartate
dehydrogenase
E-‐
Myoglobin
Answer:
Troponin
(confirm
MI
but
can
take
up
to
6
Hrs
to
rise)
So
Myoglobin.
24.
Which
of
the
following
breaks
the
thrombus
in
MI
A-‐
Warfarin
B-‐
Heparin
C-‐
Aspirin
D-‐
Streptokinase
Answer:
Streptokinase
25.
Murmur
heard
best
in
the
2nd
right
left
sternal
border.
Which
valve
is
stenosed
?
A-‐
Aortic
B-‐
Pulmonic
C-‐
Tricusped
D-‐
Mitral
Answer:
if
right-‐>
aortiv
left-‐>
pulmonary
26.
Scenario
with
obese,
heavy
smoker
(20
cigarettes
daily).
Greatest
CVS
risk
factor?
A-‐
Age
B-‐
Smoking
C-‐
Obesity
Answer:
Obesity
27.Best
treatment
for
symptomatic
acute
rheumatic
fever?
A-‐
Penicillin
Q6
hours
B-‐
Acetylsalicylic
acid
C-‐
Steroids
D-‐
Single
dose
of
benzathine
penicillin
Answer:
Single
dose
of
benzathine
penicillin
28.
MI
treatment
29.
Case
of
AF
long
term
prophylaxis
A-‐
Warfarin
B-‐
Beta
blocker
Answer:
Warfarin
30.
Patient
came
to
ER,
retrosternal
chest
pain,
lasting
for
15
min,
relieved
by
rest,
not
compliant
on
his
medications.
Vitally
stable,
mild
HTN.
What
is
best?
A-‐
ECG
stress
test
B-‐
Cardiac
enzymes
and
follow
up
in
clinic
Answer:
none
of
the
provided
choices
(ECG
and
Cardiac
enzymes)
31.
Patient
with
only
palpation,
examination
normal
and
ECG
shows
heart
block
what
is
the
treatment
A-‐
CCB
B-‐
Beta
blocker
C-‐
Digoxin
Answer:
depending
on
degree
of
block.
if
second
type
II
treatment
is
Pacemaker
32.
Common
cardiac
anomaly
associated
with
infective
endocarditis?
A-‐
ASD
B-‐
VSD
C
-‐
TOF
D-‐
Truncus
arteriosus
Answer:
TOF
33.
Long
scenario
Of
patient
with
coronary
artery
disease,
what
is
the
appropriate
level
of
LDL
for
him?
A-‐
3.5
-‐
4.1
B-‐
2.4
-‐
3.4
Answer:
2.4
-‐
3.4
34.
Which
of
the
following
is
protective
from
heart
diseases?
A-‐
HDL
B-‐
LDL
C-‐
ILD
D-‐
HLDL
Answer:
HDL
35.
Which
one
of
the
following
has
more
risk
for
CAD?
A-‐
LDL
B-‐
HDL
C-‐
Triglycerides
D-‐
Total
cholesterol
Answer:
LDL
36.
Patient
with
mitral
regurgitation,
what
will
delay
the
need
for
surgery?
A-‐
Nifedipine
B-‐
ACEIs
C-‐
BB
Answer:
ACEI
37.
Man
with
aortic
stenosis
developed
syncope
what
is
the
cause?
A-‐
Systemic
hypotension
38.
Coarctation
of
aorta
associated
with
which
of
the
following?
A-‐
Turner
syndrome
39.
Patient
is
hypertensive
in
upper
extremities
and
absent
pulse
in
lower
extremities.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Coarctation
of
aorta
40.
ECG
showing
second
degree
heart
block,
and
asked
about
the
diagnosis
41.
ECG
showing
MI
in
one
of
the
leads,
and
asking
about
the
location
of
the
infarction
42.
Patient
with
heart
failure
on
ACEI,
furosemide,
spironolactone,
and
other
drugs.
Now
stable
and
clinically
free,
what
drug
modification
is
appropriate?
A-‐
Stop
spironolactone
50.
Best
treatment
plan
for
Infective
endocarditis?
A-‐
Multiple
Abx
high
dose
for
a
short
time
B-‐
Multiple
Abx
extended
over
a
long
period
of
time
Answer:
Multiple
Abx
extended
over
a
long
period
of
time
51.
Young
patient
with
BP
160/110,
high
creatinine,
++
proteinuria.
What
is
the
drug
of
choice
for
HTN?
A-‐
ACEI
52.
VT
on
ECG
+
hypotensive.
What
is
the
management?
A-‐
Amiodarone
B-‐
Adenosine
C-‐
DC
shock
Answer:
DC
shock
53.
Man
with
chest
pain
and
transient
LOC
x4
times,
CXR
given.
What
is
the
management?
54.
A
31
year-‐old
female
T1DM
presented
to
ED
with
syncope
one
hour
before.
She
has
had
shortness
of
breath
and
chest
pain.
Vital
signs:
hypotension,
tachycardia.
ECG
picture
attached
showing
V3-‐V4
STE.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Pulmonary
embolism
B-‐
Lateral
MI
C-‐
Wolf
parkinson
white
syndrome
Answer:
Anterior
MI
55.
Which
of
the
following
is
wide
complex
tachycardia?
A-‐
Afib
with
high
ventricular
rate
B-‐
Atrial
flutter
2:1
C-‐
Monomorphic
ventricular
tachycardia
D-‐
Paroxysmal
supraventricular
tachycardia
Answer:
Monomorphic
ventricular
tachycardia
56.
Obese
patient
with
chest
pain
on
exertion,
what
to
do?
A-‐
Treadmill
B-‐
Myocardial
perfusion
test
C-‐
Coronary
angiography
Answer:
Myocardial
perfusion
test
57.
ECG
of
2nd
degree
AV
block,
next
step?
A-‐
Lidocaine
B-‐
Atropine
(if
pacemaker
not
in
the
choices)
C-‐
Electro
cardioversion
shock
Answer:
Atropine
(if
pacemaker
not
in
the
choices)
58.
HTN
patient
on
ACEIs,
not
controlled,
what
to
add?
(No
CCB
in
choices)
A-‐
Furosemide
B-‐
Beta
blocker
C-‐
Thiazide
Answer:
Thiazide
59.
Drug
that
prolongs
survival
in
CAD.
ACEI
60.
What
is
the
drug
that
increases
survival
rate
in
aortic
stenosis?
A-‐
Digoxin
B-‐
Captopril
C-‐
Calcium
channel
blocker
Answer:
Could
not
find
a
definite
answer
61.
Attacks
of
migraine
and
syncope
(not
together).
Family
history
mother
died
due
to
cardiovascular
cause
at
age
of
35
years.
Decreased
sounds
over
carotids
on
auscultation.
Vitals
show
hypertension.
A-‐
Carotid
Doppler
B-‐
Blood
pressure
monitoring
Answer:
Carotid
Doppler
(fibromuscular
dysplasia)
62.
Treatment
of
AF
A-‐
Beta
blocker
63.
Most
likely
scenario
in
rheumatic
fever?
A-‐
History
of
URTI
followed
by
knee
joint
swelling
B-‐
Painful
finger
joints
and
fever
Answer:
History
of
URTI
followed
by
knee
joint
swelling
64.
Heart
failure
what
is
the
treatment?
A-‐
digoxin
65.
In
MI
which
lab
test
what
will
be
increased?
A-‐
ALP
B-‐
CK
Answer:
CK-‐MB
66.
case
of
old
man
with
chest
pain
and
transient
loss
of
consciousness
(3-‐4
episodes).
CXR
and
asked
about
management?
67.
Cardiac
syncope
what
is
characteristic
of
it?
A-‐
Rapid
recovery
B-‐
Aura
C-‐
Neurological
defect
Answer:
Rapid
recovery
68.
Patient
has
history
of
transit
angina.
Now
he
is
asymptomatic
and
doing
well
but
his
ECG
shows
AF.
What
is
your
action?
A-‐
Reassure
B-‐
Give
digoxin
C-‐
Give
anti-‐coagulation
Answer:
Give
anticoagulation
after
calculating
CHADSVASc
score
69.
Long
history
of
a
man
with
systolic
murmur
at
...
sternal
border.
Recently
develop
syncope.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
AS
70.
77
years
old
male
with
early
onset
of
dyspnea
when
moving
50
meters,
has
left
apical
heave
and
loud
audible
systolic
murmur
most
intense
to
hear
in
left
sternal
border.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Sever
mitral
regurgitate
B-‐
Calcified
aortic
stenosis
C-‐
Mitral
stenosis
Answer:
Calcified
aortic
stenosis
71.
Old
patient
present
with
angina
symptoms,
presyncope
and
plural
effusion.
Echo
shows
AS,
valve
is
.75
mm.
What
is
your
management?
A-‐
Medical
management
B-‐
Surgical
repair
C-‐
Ballon
valvoplasty
D-‐
Observation
Answer:
Surgical
repair
72.
Patient
complaining
of
SOB
on
exertion
and
chronic
cough,
on
examination
there
is
hepatomegaly.
Best
test
to
determine
the
cause?
A-‐
Alpha
1
antitrypsin
level
B-‐
ECHO
Answer:
needs
more
details
it
can
be
heart
failure
or
Alpha
1
antitrypsin
73.
History
of
angina
that
become
more
frequent
and
lasted
longer
time
without
elevation
of
cardiac
enzymes?
A-‐
Unstable
angina
74.
Young
patient
came,
tell
you
2
of
his
brothers
died
when
they
running,
you
are
afraid
of
which
of
the
following?
A-‐
Hypertrophic
cardiomyopathy
75.
Patient
with
MI
and
in
the
5th
day
he
deteriorated?
A-‐
Acute
mitral
regurgitation
76.
Patient
with
atrial
fibrillation
and
you
described
for
him
a
medication
what
is
the
mechanism
of
action
of
that
medication?
Warfarin:
vitamin
K
carboxylase
inhibitor
77.
Which
type
of
congenital
heart
disease
is
least
associated
with
infective
endocarditis?
A-‐
ASD
78.
Patient
has
chest
pain
on
left
side.
Examination
showed
pleuritic
chest
pain
and
friction
rub
on
left
side.
What
is
the
next
step?
A-‐
Chest
x-‐ray
B-‐
12
lead
ecg
C-‐
Echo
D-‐
Refer
to
cardio
Answer:
ECG
79.
Patient
with
symptoms
of
endocarditis
but
cultures
are
negative.
What
is
the
cause?
A-‐
SLE
80.
A
33
years
old
man,
smoker,
overweight,
inactive
present
with
heart
problem,
which
of
the
following
is
most
commonly
associated
with
heart
disease?
A-‐
Smoking
B-‐
Obesity
C-‐
Inactivity
Answer:
Obesity
81.
Diabetic
patient
with
chest
pain
for
3
days,
dyspnea
with
exertion,
history
of
URTI.
ECG:
T
depression.
Labs:
high
troponin.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Myocarditis
B-‐
MI
C-‐
Constrictive
pericarditis
Answer:
Myocarditis
82.
Which
drug
if
you
stop
abruptly
will
cause
hypertensive
crisis?
(No
beta
blocker
in
choices)
A-‐
Clonidine
83.
What
type
of
heart
failure
occurs
with
high
cardiac
output?
84.
Patient
with
central
chest
pain,
CXR
showed
pleural
effusion
and
ECG
showed
ST
elevation
in
4
leads.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
MI
B-‐
Pericarditis
C-‐
Pneumothorax
D-‐
Pneumonia
Answer:
MI
85.
Young
girl
come
with
HTN
crisis,
antihypertensives
are
not
effective,
She
has
history
of
hypotension
during
appendectomy?
A-‐
Pheochromocytoma
B-‐
Renal
artery
stenosis
C-‐
Renal
vein
thrombosis
D-‐
Essential
HTN
Answer:Pheochromocytoma
86.
Post
MI
patient
wants
to
drive.
When
will
he
be
able
to
drive?
A-‐
4
weeks
B-‐
1
week
Answer:
6
weeks
87.
History
of
Palpitation
&
SVT
(ECG).
What
is
the
treatment?
A-‐
Deltiazim
88.
Picture
of
ECG:
bradycardia,
on
history
he
has
only
palpitation.
What
is
the
treatment?
A-‐
Digoxin
B-‐
Propranolol
C-‐
ACEI
Asnwer:
none
89.
clear
scenario
about
essential
hypertension
90.
After
ER
management
of
MI,
what’s
the
next
step?
A.
primary
stenting
B.
give
tPA
C.
give
streptokinase
Answer:
depends
on
duration
91.
A
patient
after
MI
when
can
he
go
back
to
his
regular
routine
or
exercise?
1)
1
week
2)
3
weeks
3)
5
weeks
Answer:
6
weeks
92.
Right
sided
heart
failure
symptoms.
Echo
done
which
was
normal.
1)
coxsackie
B
2)
amyloidosis
3)
Constrictive
pericarditis
Answer:
Coxackie
B
virus
causing
myocarditis
93.
ECG
shows
inferior
MI,
what
artery
is
occluded
-‐
right
coronary
-‐
left
coronary
-‐
circumflex
-‐
conus
Answer:
RCA
94.
Which
of
those
are
in
diagnosis
of
infective
endocarditis
criteria
considered
major?
95.
Best
treatment
for
acute
myocarditis?
A-‐
Penicillin
B-‐
Corticosteroids
Answer:
Supportive
96.
Most
common
electrolyte
disturbance
in
a
patient
with
digoxin?
A-‐
K
B-‐
Na
Answer:
K
97.
Drug
which
decreases
HR
and
Pre
and
after
load?
A-‐
Carvidilol
B-‐
Nifidepine
or
Amlodepine
Anwer:
CCB
98.
Most
common
cause
of
secondary
HTN?
A-‐
Renal
disease
99.
Diabetic
patient
with
chest
pain
for
3
days,
dyspnea
with
exertion,
and
history
of
URTI.
ECG
shows
T
depression
Labs:
high
troponin
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Myocarditis
B
-‐
MI
C
-‐
Constrictive
pericarditis
Answer:
Myocarditis
100.
Patient
present
to
the
ER
with
typical
symptoms
of
Ischemic
heart
disease,
he
had
history
of
erectile
dysfunction.
He
is
on
PDE-‐5
inhibitor
(sildenafil),
which
of
the
following
drug
should
not
be
given?
A-‐
Nitroglycerine
B-‐
Metopralol
C-‐
Dilitazem
Answer:
Nitroglycerine
101.
Which
one
of
the
following
carries
more
risk
for
CAD?
A-‐
55,
male,
DM
B-‐
50,
male,
hyperlipidemia
C-‐
HTN,
obese
Answer:55,
male,
DM
102.
52
Years
old
female
k/c
of
DM,
recently
diagnosed
with
HTN.
Examination
was
normal
except
for
mild
lower
limb
edema.
What
you
will
give?
A-‐
Propranolol
B-‐
Perindopril
C-‐
Atenolol
D-‐
Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer:
Perindopril
103.
Malignant
hypertension
is?
104.
Adult
patient
presented
with
chest
pain
and
palpitation,
ECG
showed
atrial
fibrillation.
Vitals:
HR:
140
BP:
80/50.
How
to
treat?
A-‐
Digoxin
B-‐
Synchronized
Cardioversion
C-‐
Beta
blocker
105.
Patient
with
hyperthyroidism,
with
palpitation,
what
is
the
most
likely
finding
in
his
ECG?
a)
SVT
b)
VT
c)
A
FIB
Rheumatology
1.
Symptoms
of
diffuse
systemic
sclerosis.
What
is
the
antibody?
A-‐
Anticentromere
antibody
B-‐
Anti-‐topoisomerase
I
(anti-‐Scl-‐70)
antibodies
Answer:
B
2.
Tall
&
thin
boy
with
joint
laxity,
also
his
mother
has
the
same
features.
What
is
mode
of
inheritance?
Answer:
Autosomal
dominant
(Marfan
syndrome).
3.
Boutonniere
deformity
description?
Answer:
Flexed
PIP
and
hyperextended
DIP.
4.
(REPEATED)
Ehler-‐Danlos
mode
of
inheritance?
Answer:
Autosomal
dominant
5.
Case
of
RA
asking
about
genetics?
Answer:
HLA
B27
HLA
B27
is
associated
with
seronegative
spondyloarthropathies
(ex:
ankylosing
spondylitis).
6.
Clear
scenario
of
Raynaud's
phenomenon
7.
SLE
prognosis
Answer:
Degree
of
Renal
involvement
Medscape:
The
disease
course
is
milder
and
survival
rate
higher
in
persons
with
isolated
skin
and
musculoskeletal
involvement
than
in
those
with
renal
disease
8.
Polymyalgia
rheumatica
is
associated
with?
Answer:
Proximal
stiffness
Toronto
notes:
characterized
by
pain
and
stiffness
of
the
proximal
extremities
9.
Antiphospholipid
syndrome
10.
Which
of
the
following
is
diagnostic
of
lupus?
A-‐
Anti-‐RNP
antibodies
B-‐
Cystoid
bodies
on
fundoscopy
C-‐
Severe
Raynaud's
phenomena
Answer:
Anti-‐RNP
associated
with
both
mixed
connective
tissue
disease
and
SLE.
“Cytoid”
bodies
(AKA
cotton
whool
spots)
associated
with
inflammatory
and
ischemic
conditions.
11.
Dermatomyositis
associated
with
what?
Answer:
Malignancy
Toronto
notes:
malignancy
screening
part
of
management.
12.
Polymyalgia
rheumatica,
what
are
the
x-‐Ray
findings?
A-‐
Calcification
in
joints
B-‐
Normal
Answer:
B.
Uptodate:
While
subdeltoid/subacromial
bursitis
is
a
characteristic
imaging
feature
of
PMR,
it
is
not
specific
and
is
seen
in
patients
with
rheumatoid
arthritis
(RA)
and
other
shoulder
pathology.
13.
Most
specific
test
for
rheumatoid
arthritis?
A-‐
CRP
B-‐
RF
C-‐
HLA
b27
Antidnase
D-‐
anti-‐CCP
Answer:
D
Toronto
notes:
Anti-‐CCP
specific
for
RA
(94-‐98%)
14.
Female
with
new
onset
Raynaud's
phenomena
and
upper
GI
endoscope
showed
gastric
vascular
ectasia
(something
like
that)
what
is
positive
in
blood?
A-‐
Anticentromere
B-‐
Anti
Scl70
Answer:
B
Anti-‐Scl70
(=anti-‐topoisomerase)
>
systemic
scleroderma.
Anti-‐centromete>
CREST.
15.
Patient
with
gout,
what
should
be
measured?
Answer:
Uric
acid
level
16.
Polymalegia
+
polymyositis
17.
Patient
with
recurrent
renal
stones
on
HTN
medication
to
reduced
calcium
excretion
and
cause
gout?
A-‐
Hydrochlorithiazide
B-‐
Furosemide
Answer:
A
18.
Case
of
gout
and
the
answer
was
indomethacin
19.
Patient
develop
back
pain
in
morning,
pain
improve
with
walking
and
movement.
He
had
the
same
complain
in
past
1
year.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Ankylosing
spondylitis
B-‐
Recurrent
gout
Answer:
A
20.
Patient
with
gout,
which
of
the
following
will
be
inhibited
by
the
drug
you
will
give?
A-‐
Xanthine
oxidase
B-‐
PRPP
Answer:
A
21.
Behçet
disease
HLA
association
Answer:
HLA
B51
Medscape:
Carriers
of
HLA-‐B51/HLA-‐B5
have
an
increased
risk
of
developing
Behçet
disease
compared
with
noncarriers.
22.
Symmetrical
MCP
&
PIP
pain
increase
at
morning
Answer:
Rheumatoid
arthritis
23.
Patient
with
oral
and
genital
ulcer
and
arthritis.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
Answer:
Bechet
disease
24.
Patient
with
bilateral
shoulder
and
hip
stiffness
and
ask
about
the
diagnosis?
Answer:
Polymyalgia
rheumatica
Depends
on
rest
of
scenario.
Most
important
characteristic
is
:stiffness
and
pain
without
weakness.
25.
Case
about
RA
came
with
bilateral
swelling
in
DIP
due
to?
Answer:
Synovial
thickening
26.
Scenario
about
a
little
girl
who
had
high
ESR
and
high
ANA
and
no
obvious
symptoms.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
Answer:
Latent
lupus
27.
Patient
with
uric
acid
calculi,
with
normal
uric
acid
level,
how
to
prevent
recurrence
of
calculi:
A-‐
Allopurinol
B-‐
Probenecid
C-‐
Disodium
citrate
Answer:
Toronto
notes:
Treatment>
increase
fluid
intake,
alkalinization
of
urine
±
allopurinol.
Hyperuricosuria
not
necessarily
present.
28.
(REPEATED)
Most
specific
test
for
rheumatoid
arthritis?
A.
CRP
B.
RF
C.
HLA
27
D.
Anti-‐DNAse
Answer:
29.
Patient
with
sudden
severe
shoulder
and
neck
pain
with
stiffness,
also
hip
and
lumbar
spine
pain,
also
complain
of
fatigue
and
increase
sleepiness,
ESR
was
90.
A-‐
Cartilaginous
tissue
degeneration
B-‐
Antigen
antibody
mediated
arthritis
C-‐
Soft
tissue
with
giant
cell
arteritis
D-‐
Connective
tissue
disease
something
Answer:C
30.
Case
of
Wegener’s
but
asked
about
the
basic
pathology
of
disease
31.
Marfan
syndrome
features
of
the
mother
and
her
boy:
what
is
the
probability
of
the
children
to
have
it?
A-‐
25%
B-‐
50%
C-‐
75%
D-‐
100%
Answer:
B
Autosomal
dominant.
32.
Female
presented
with
hand
joints
swelling,
she
was
informed
by
physician
that
she
has
bone
loss,
she
is
angry
about
her
permanent
bone
loss.
What
is
the
explanation
of
bone
loss?
A-‐
Increase
pressure
in
joint
space
B-‐
Material
secreted
from
synovial
fluid
C-‐
Drug
induced
menopause
Answer:
B
33.
Patient
with
osteoarthritis
and
they
ask
about
the
name
of
nodes
over
the
PIP
joint?
A-‐
Heberden
nodes
B-‐
Bouchards
nodes
Answer:
B
Heberden’s
>
DIP.
34.
Case
about
back
pain
and
its
management
35.
Male
patient
with
oral
ulcers,
abdominal
pain,
nausea,
diarrhea,
severe
headache
and
polyarthritis.
(Attached
a
pictures
of
penile
ulcer
and
ulcers
over
the
buccal
mucosa).
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Behcet
B-‐
Syphilis
C-‐
Ulcerative
colitis
36.
Patient
presented
with
right
knee
pain
and
swelling,
arthrocentesis
done:
Color:
yellow
Viscosity:
low
WBC:
15.2
Clarity:
opaque
(Didn't
mention
anything
about
crystals
in
the
aspiration)
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Gout
B-‐
Septic
arthritis
C-‐
Rheumatoid
arthritis
D-‐
Pseudo
gout
Answer:
37.
Somethings
about
dermatomysitis.
Rash
+
A. Proximal
muscle
weakness
B. Tenderness
of
muscle
Answer:
A.
Heliotrope
rash
(periorbital),
Gottron’s
papules
(violaceous
papules
over
knuckles
and
IP
joints)
±
poikiloderma.
Shawl
sign:
macular
erythema
over
chest
and
shoulder.
Proximal
muscle
weakness
±
pain.
Dyspnea
on
exertion.
Toronto
notes.
Gastroenterology
1.
how
to
differentiate
a
huge
ovarian
mass
from
an
ascites?
Answer:
Anterior
dullness
and
lateral
Tympani
2.
Vinson
Plummer
syndrome?
Plummer-‐Vinson
Syndrome
Triad
•
Iron
deficiency
anemia
•
Dysphagia
•
Esophageal
webs
*
rare
(prevalence
<1
in
1,000,000)
but
good
prognosis
when
treated
with
iron
and
esophageal
dilatation.
Toronto
3.
Patient
complaining
of
abdominal
pain
I
think
with
diarrhea
,
also
his
wife
noticed
he
had
SOB
and
tightness.
Doctor
order
5-‐hydroxyindoleacetic
acid
in
urine
Which
cell
responsible?
A.chromaffin
cell
B.Enterocell
C.Lympho
cell
D.Goblet
cell
Answer:
A
4.
which
markers
of
HBV
is
present
in
window
phase:
Answer:
HBcAb
First
aid
step
2
p157
5.
what's
the
most
common
cause
of
gastroenteritis?
1)
Noro
virus
2)
rotavirus
Answer??
For
acute
viral
gastroenteritis:
In
infants,
most
cases
are
due
to
rotavirus.
In
adults,
the
most
common
cause
is
norovirus.
Medscape
and
ACG
6.
Causes
of
aphthus
ulcer:
Celiac
disease
Ibs
Bilirubin
retention
Answer:
A
Malabsorption
in
gastrointestinal
disorders:
About
3%
of
patients
experience
these
disorders,
particularly
celiac
disease
(gluten-‐sensitive
enteropathy)
but,
occasionally,
Crohn
disease,
pernicious
anemia,
and
dermatitis
herpetiformis.
HLA
DRW10
and
DQW1
may
predispose
patients
with
celiac
disease
to
oral
ulceration.
medscape
7.
Which
drug
will
decrease
baseline
and
acid
secretion
from
stomach:
-‐
Ranitidine
(decreases
secretion)
-‐
PPI
-‐
Other
choices
that
I
don’t
remember.
Answer:
B
8.
Tumor
marker
for
pancreatic
cancer?
Ca
19
9.
Patient,
with
diarrhea,
flagellated
protozoa,
how
it
cause
diarrhea?
A.
increase
secretion
of
fluids
B.
kills
normal
flora
C.
coats
the
small
bowl
D.
absorption
is
prevented
Seems
like
he’s
talking
about
giardia...so:
A
or
D
not
sure
The
mechanisms
by
which
Giardia
causes
diarrhea
and
intestinal
malabsorption
are
probably
16]
multifactorial
and
not
yet
fully
elucidated.
[ Postulated
mechanisms
include
damage
to
the
endothelial
brush
border,
enterotoxins,
immunologic
reactions,
and
altered
gut
motility
and
fluid
hypersecretion
via
increased
adenylate
cyclase
activity.
10.
knee
pain
old
age
with
NSAID
3
weeks.
Come
with
bloody
vomitting.
Reason?
PUD
caused
by
NSAID
11.
Young
Male
have
epigastric
pain,
fullness,
nausea,
postprandial
bloating
for
three
years.
His
symptoms
appeared
after
he
stayed
in
India
for
one
year
for
studying.
Symptoms
are
worse
with
food.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Functional
dyspepsia
B.
H.
Pylori
Infection
C.
Esophageal
ulcer.
Answer:
B
most
likely
12.
Pt
treated
for
peptic
ulcer
with
triple
what
u'll
do?
A.
-‐nothing
B.
-‐H
pylori
antigen
test
C.
–endoscopy
(not
sure)
If
in
the
scenario
there’s
symptoms
refractory
to
medication.
C
to
rule
out
gastric
cancer
or
cancer
transformation.
All
gastric
ulcers
must
be
biobsied.
First
aid
2
13.
Peptic
ulcer
treated
with
triple
therapy
after
3
weeks.
therapy
now
she
is
free
of
sx.
what
to
do?
A.
Endoscopy
B.
h.pylori
antigen
Answer:
B
American
college
of
gastroenterology
2017:
Should
we
test
for
teatment
success
after
H.
pylori
eradication
therapy?
Whenever
H.
pylori
infection
is
identified
and
treated,
testing
to
prove
eradication
should
be
performed
using
a
urea
breath
test,
fecal
antigen
test
or
biopsy-‐based
testing
at
least
4
weeks
after
the
completion
of
antibiotic
therapy
and
after
PPI
therapy
has
been
withheld
for
1–2
weeks.
(Strong
recommendation;
Low
quality
of
evidence
(for
the
choice
of
methods
to
test
for
eradication:
Moderate
quality
of
evidence)).
What are the indications to test for, and to treat, H. pylori infection?
Since
all
patients
with
a
positive
test
of
active
infection
with
H.
pylori
should
be
offered
treatment,
the
critical
issue
is
which
patients
should
be
tested
for
the
infection
(strong
recommendation;
quality
of
evidence
not
applicable).
All
patients
with
active
peptic
ulcer
disease
(PUD),
a
past
history
of
PUD
(unless
previous
cure
of
H.
pylori
infection
has
been
documented),
low-‐grade
gastric
mucosa-‐associated
lymphoid
tissue
(MALT)
lymphoma,
or
a
history
of
endoscopic
resection
of
early
gastric
cancer
(EGC)
should
be
tested
for
H.
pylori
infection.
Those
who
test
positive
should
be
offered
treatment
for
the
infection
(Strong
recommendation;
quality
of
evidence:
high
for
active
or
history
of
PUD,
low
for
MALT
lymphoma,
low
for
history
of
endoscopic
resection
of
EGC).
In
patients
with
uninvestigated
dyspepsia
who
are
under
the
age
of
60
years
and
without
alarm
features,
non-‐endoscopic
testing
for
H.
pylori
infection
is
a
consideration.
Those
who
test
positive
should
be
offered
eradication
therapy
(conditional
recommendation;
quality
of
evidence:
high
for
efficacy,
low
for
the
age
threshold).
When
upper
endoscopy
is
undertaken
in
patients
with
dyspepsia,
gastric
biopsies
should
be
taken
to
evaluate
for
H.
pylori
infection.
Infected
patients
should
be
offered
eradication
therapy
(strong
recommendation;
high
quality
of
evidence).
15.
Sudden
severe
generalized
abdominal
pain
in
a
patient
known
to
have
A
Fib:
Answer:
Mesenteric
ischemia
16.
Treatment
of
Wilson
disease
penicilamine
or
trientine
and
zinc
but
should
space
the
doses
18.
Healthy
women
asymptomatic
on
regular
check
up
found
to
have
HB
antigen
positive
?
1-‐acute
hepatitis
2-‐chronic
hepatitis
3-‐acute
carrier
4-‐chronic
carrier
Answer:
A
Not
sure.
Depends
what
other
ones
they
did
or
didn’t
do
19.
What
is
the
mechanism
of
diarrhea
A.
Decrease
fluid
intake
B.
Decrease
fluid
absorption
C.
Increase
fluid
intake
D.
Increase
fluid
absorption
Answer:
B
Q.
What
is
the
mechanism
of
diarrhea
with
patient
has
gardia
infection
?
1-‐
reduction
of
absorption
2-‐
increase
secretion
of
mucosal
Answer:
reduction
of
absorption
most
likely
but
2
could
be
right
20.
Case
of
achalasia
clear
sentence
of
bird
like
appearance
on
xray
21.
U
want
to
start
statin
for
a
patient
what
test
u
should
order?
A-‐LFT
B-‐GGT
Amswer:
A
Medscape
22.
Most
common
site
for
crohns?
Ileocecal
area
23.
Best
test
to
diagnose
hepatitis
B?
A-‐
US
B-‐blood
test
C-‐blood
culture
D-‐liver
biopsy
Answer:
B
24.
Retrosternal
pain
and
barium
swallow
showed
esophageal
corkscrew
appearance?
A-‐achalasia
B-‐
Esophageal
cancer
C-‐diffuse
esophageal
spasm
Answer:
C
25.
BRUNNER's
gland
location?
Answer:
submucosal
duodenum
26.
What
is
the
drug
that
given
with
analgesia
to
decrease
side
effect:"
ﺑﻬﮭﺬﺍا ﺍاﻟﻨﺺ "
A)
cimetidine
B)
Metoclopramide.
C)
misoprostol
Answer:
depends
what
they
think
of
as
analgesia…
if
it’s
NSAIDS,
choice
C
would
be
good
prophylaxis
for
ulcer
27.
Which
one
of
the
following
GIT
cell
secret
defensins:
A:
paratial
cell
B:
chief
cell
C:
paneth
cell
D:
plasma
cell
Answer:
C
28.
Scenario
of
hepatorenal
syndrome:
renal
failure
in
cirrhosis
Classifications
◆
pre-‐renal
(usually
due
to
over-‐diuresis)
◆
acute
tubular
necrosis
◆
HRS
–
Type
I:
sudden
and
acute
renal
failure
(rapid
doubling
of
creatinine
over
2
wk)
–
Type
II:
gradual
increase
in
creatinine
with
worsening
liver
function
(creatinine
doubling
over
years)
HRS
can
occur
at
any
time
in
severe
liver
disease,
especially
after
–
overdiuresis
or
dehydration,
such
as
diarrhea,
vomiting,
etc.
–
GI
bleed
–
sepsis
Treatment
for
hepatorenal
syndrome
(generally
unsuccessful
at
improving
long-‐term
survival)
–
for
type
I
HRS:
octreotide
+
midodrine
+
albumin
(increases
renal
blood
flow
by
increasing
systemic
vascular
resistance)
–
definitive
treatment
is
liver
transplant
TORONTO
29.
Scenario
of
zollinger
ellison
syndrome
Gastrin-‐producing
neuroendocrine
tumour
that
causes
gastric
acid
hypersecretion
and
peptic
ulcer
disease.
·∙
Can
be
sporadic
or
associated
with
multiple
endocrine
neoplasia
syndrome
type
1.
·∙
Common
presentation
includes
refractory
peptic
ulcer
disease,
abdominal
pain,
diarrhoea,
and
gastro-‐oesophageal
disease.
·∙
The
main
goal
of
treatment
is
control
of
gastric
hypersecretion
with
proton-‐pump
inhibitors.
·∙
The
most
common
cause
of
morbidity
and
mortality
is
metastatic
gastrinoma.
30.
Orilstat
Mechanism?
Inhibits
gastric
and
pancreatic
lipases,
prevents
triglyceride
hydrolysis
resulting
in
decreased
absorption
of
dietary
fats
31.
About
watery
diarrhea
without
blood
and
asked
about
organism?
Answer:
C.
Defficile
(
Not
sure
)
Depends
what
other
options
were
there.
Most
cases
of
acute,
watery
diarrhea
are
caused
by
viruses
(viral
gastroenteritis).
The
most
common
ones
in
children
are
rotavirus
and
in
adults
are
norovirus.
The
ACG
32.
Vit.c
and
iron
absorption?
Iron
absorption
from
diet
is
enhanced
in
the
presence
of
vitamin
C
and
diminished
by
excess
calcium,
zinc,
or
manganese
34.
pt
complain
of
constipation
on
abdominal
examination
there
is
a
mass
in
the
lower
abdomen
you
did
US
which
confirmed
the
presence
of
a
mass
in
which
you
decided
to
do
colonoscopy
which
find
2
polyps
with
high
grade
hyperplasia
,
when
you
will
follow
up
the
pt
by
colonoscopy?
A-‐after
1
year,
B-‐3
yrs
,
C-‐8
yrs
Answer:
A
Toronto,
after
1
yr
then
every
3-‐5
yrs
36.
End
stage
liver
disease
with
fungal
infection
ttt
Answer:
Capsofungin
37.
most
specific
sign
for
perforated
duodenal
ulcer,
Answer:
Sudden
epigastric
pain
38.
Patient
diagnosed
with
Barrett's
esophagus
will
have:
A.
Adenocarcioma
B.
Squamous
cell
carcinoma
Answer:
A
39.
Most
common
cancer
mets
to
stomach:
A.
lung
B.
Prostate
C.
Melanoma
D.
-‐Brain
Answer:
A
If
‘from’
then
liver,
lung,
bone
and
lymph
nodes
40.
Scenario
:
pt
develop
bloody
diarrhea,
abd
pain
and
vomiting,
after
eating
from
restaurant
,
history
if
hematuria,
Lab
:
Forgot
!
HUS:
-‐
...
If
there’s
conservative,
choose
it.
41.
upper
epigastric
pain
+
fever
,
Dx?
(Incomplete
Q)
A.
perforated
peptic
ulcer
B.
cholecystitis
C.
appendicitis
D.
pancreatitis
42.
Side
effect
of
ribavirin:
A)
anemia.
B)
Renal
damage
C)
Hepatic
damage.
Answer:
A
43.
Sign
for
low
intestinal
obstruction:
A)
Altered
bowel
movement.
B)
Absolute
constipation
C)
Flatulence
D)
Diarrhea.
Answer:
B
not
sure
Also,
revise
functional
obstruction
44.
Patient
with
deoudnal
ulcer
,
what
ttt?
Answer:
triple
therapy
45.
Clear
case
about
crohn
dis:
child
with
abd
cramps
,
diarhea
....
etc
,
there
is
skip
lesion
,
transmural
:
A.
-‐
crohn✅
B.
-‐
Uc
C.
-‐
Celiac
.
Answer:
A
GALS
are
crohns:
Granuloma,
All
Layers,
Skip
lesions
46.
Clear
scenario
about
Crohn's
disease
(mentioned
that
she
has
post
meal
periumbilical
pain
plus
other
symptoms:
Answer:
Crohn's
disease
47.
Similar
case:
child
with
abd
pain
and
tenderness
,
bloody
diarhea
,
wt
loss.
(
No
lab
results
).
What’s
the
diagnosis:
A.
crohn
B.
Celiac
C.
UC
Answer:
C
48.
Celiac
disease
common
site:
A.
Proximal
small
bowl
B.
Distal
small
bowl
C.
Proximal
large
bowl
D.
Distal
large
bowl
Answer:A
49.
Many
Qs
about
different
type
of
jaundice
easy
just
look
for
indirect
and
direct
bilirubin
levels
and
liver
enzymes.
50.
Patient
lost
weight
and
has
constipation.
Which
one
has
the
highest
diagnostic
value
?
Colonoscopy
51.
Patient
is
taking
penicillin
(or
medication
from
penicillin
family).
After
the
second
day
he
developed
diarrhea.
What
is
the
most
likely
cause?
A.
Psudomembranus
colitis
B.
Something
colitis
C.
Ulcerative
colitis
Answer:
A
caused
by
C.
diff
52.
Within
hours
diarrhea?
A
Staph
B
Bacillus
C
Salmonella
Answer:
A
53.
Lady
presented
with
jaundice
and
confusion,
her
husband
is
positive
for
hepatitis
B.
Her
labs
were
attached
and
she
had
high
bilirubin
but
negative
hepatitis
screen,
which
one
of
the
following
will
you
order?
A.
Serum
copper
level
B.
Serum
ceruloplasmin
level
Copper
would
be
more
specific,
ceruloplasmin
might
be
normal
in
pts
then
it’s
useless
if
it
comes
back
normal.
urinary
copper
24
hrs.
BMJ
54.
male
patient
with
symptoms
of
pancreatitis,
k/c
of
hyperlipidemia
on
treatment
Labs
Low
Hgb
High
MCV
High
Amylase
High
AST
Normal
lipid
profile.
What
is
the
cause?
A:hyperlipidemia
B:
Alcohol
consumption
Answer:
B
i
think.
Alcoholic
Liver
disease
causes
macrocytic
anemia
and
can
cause
pancreatitis.
Also,
normal
lipid
profile
55.
Long
scenario
pt
on
atrovastatin
since
1
yr,increase
LFT:
Drug
induced
hepatitis
56.
Pt
in
40s
with
obs
jaundice,
labs
showed
direct
bilirubin
40,
ferritin
high??,Alkaline
phosphatase
high,
AST
elevated,
what
dx?
gallbladder
Stone?
57.
Which
of
the
following
will
reduce
both
spontaneous
and
contact
induced
acid
secretion
in
the
stomach?
PPI
58.Hemochromatosis
has
cirrhosis
before
5
years
came
with
pain
and
jaundice.
What
is
the
next
step:
A.
US
B.
CEA
Answer:
A
59.
Most
common
symptom
with
hepatitis
C?
A:Loss
of
appetite
B:
Flapping
tremor
C:
Jaundice
Answer:
A
Vague
constitutional
symptoms
are
the
most
common…
Toronto
60.
Marker
for
acute
liver
failure?
This
a
huge
topic
to
summarize
pls
check
the
link:
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/177354-‐workup#c8
61:
60
yrs
old
patient
with
missed
teeth
and
white
patches
in
the
marginal
of
tongue
not
relived
by
??
also
he
had
rash
with
ulcer
(Incomplete
Q)
A-‐
nurofibramatosis
B-‐
dysplasia
C-‐
vascular
malformation
62.
What
is
the
early
sign
of
acute
hepatic
failure?
A:Hepatic
encephalopathy
B:Palmar
erythema
C:Spider
naevi
Answer:
A
BMJ
Acute
liver
failure
is
a
broad
term
that
encompasses
both
fulminant
hepatic
failure
and
subfulminant
hepatic
failure
(or
late-‐onset
hepatic
failure).
Fulminant
hepatic
failure
is
generally
used
to
describe
the
development
of
encephalopathy
within
8
weeks
of
the
onset
of
symptoms
in
a
patient
with
a
previously
healthy
liver.
Subfulminant
hepatic
failure
is
reserved
for
patients
with
liver
disease
for
up
to
26
weeks
before
the
development
of
hepatic
encephalopathy.
Signs
and
symptoms
of
acute
failure
may
include
the
following:
·∙
Encephalopathy
·∙
Cerebral
edema:
May
lead
to
signs
of
increased
intracranial
pressure
(ICP)
(eg,
papilledema,
hypertension,
bradycardia)
·∙
Jaundice:
Often
present
but
not
always
·∙
Ascites:
Potential
for
hepatic
vein
thrombosis
(budd
chiari)
with
rapid
development
in
the
presence
of
fulminant
hepatic
failure
accompanied
by
abdominal
pain
·∙
Right
upper
quadrant
tenderness:
Variably
present
·∙
Change
in
liver
span:
May
be
small
due
to
hepatic
necrosis
or
may
be
enlarged
due
to
heart
failure,
viral
hepatitis,
or
Budd-‐Chiari
syndrome
·∙
Hematemesis
or
melena:
Due
to
upper
gastrointestinal
(GI)
bleeding
·∙
Hypotension
and
tachycardia:
Due
to
reduced
systemic
vascular
resistance
medscape
63.
Patient
has
Wilson
disease
with
signs
of
liver
failure,
tremor,
prominent
upper
vessel,
ascites.
Treatment
for
this
stage:
A:Pencllamine
B:Zinc
C:Liver
transplant
Hematology-Oncology
1.
When
you
give
FFP
with
heparin
Answer:
DIC
Disseminated
intravascular
coagulation
(DIC)
involves
abnormal,
excessive
generation
of
thrombin
and
fibrin
in
the
circulating
blood.
During
the
process,
increased
platelet
aggregation
and
coagulation
factor
consumption
occur.
DIC
that
evolves
slowly
(over
weeks
or
months)
causes
primarily
venous
thrombotic
and
embolic
manifestations;
DIC
that
evolves
rapidly
(over
hours
or
days)
causes
primarily
bleeding.
Severe,
rapidly
evolving
DIC
is
diagnosed
by
demonstrating
thrombocytopenia,
an
elevated
PTT
and
PT,
increased
levels
of
plasma
d-‐dimer
(or
serum
fibrin
degradation
products),
and
a
decreasing
plasma
fibrinogen
level.
Treatment
includes
correction
of
the
cause
and
replacement
of
platelets,
coagulation
factors
(in
fresh
frozen
plasma),
and
fibrinogen
(in
cryoprecipitate)
to
control
severe
bleeding.
Heparin
is
used
as
therapy
(or
prophylaxis)
in
patients
with
slowly
evolving
DIC
who
have
(or
are
at
risk
of)
venous
thromboembolism .
(http://www.merckmanuals.com/professional/hematology-‐and-‐oncology/coagulation-‐
disorders/disseminated-‐intravascular-‐coagulation-‐dic)
Platelet
and
factor
replacement
should
be
directed
not
at
simply
correcting
laboratory
abnormalities
but
at
addressing
clinically
relevant
bleeding
or
meeting
procedural
needs.
Heparin
should
be
provided
to
those
patients
who
demonstrate
extensive
fibrin
deposition
without
evidence
of
substantial
hemorrhage;
it
is
usually
reserved
for
cases
of
chronic
DIC.
Heparin
is
appropriate
to
treat
the
thrombosis
that
occurs
with
DIC.
It
also
has
a
limited
use
in
acute
hemorrhagic
DIC
in
a
patient
with
a
self-‐limited
condition
of
acral
cyanosis
and
digital
ischemia.
It
is
generally
considered
that
cryoprecipitate
and
coagulation
factor
concentrates
should
not
routinely
be
used
as
replacement
therapy
in
DIC,
because
they
lack
several
specific
factors
(eg,
factor
V).
Additionally,
worsening
of
the
coagulopathy
via
the
presence
of
small
amounts
of
activated
factors
is
a
theoretical
risk.
Specific
deficiencies
in
coagulation
factors,
such
as
fibrinogen,
can
be
corrected
by
administration
of
cryoprecipitate
or
purified
fibrinogen
concentrate
in
conjuction
with
fresh
frozen
plasma
(FFP)
administration.
Data
suggest
that
the
consumption-‐induced
deficiency
of
coagulation
factors
can
be
partially
rectified
by
administering
large
quantities
of
FFP,
particularly
in
patients
with
an
international
normalized
ratio
(INR)
[ 65]
higher
than
2.0,
a
2-‐fold
or
greater
prolongation
of
the
aPTT,
or
a
fibrinogen
level
below
100
mg/dL. The
suggested
starting
dose
is
15
mg/kg
(https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/199627-‐treatment#d1)
2.
Anemic
patient
on
treatment,
he
came
with
black
stool,
what
is
the
cause
A-‐
Ferrous
sulfate
B-‐
Iron
dextran
Answer:
A
Ferrous
sulfate
side
effects:
(Constipation,
upset
stomach,
black
or
dark-‐colored
stools,
and
temporary
staining
of
the
teeth.)
(https://www.drugs.com/ferrous_sulfate.html)
3.
Young
patient
with
sickle
cell
anemia,
he
has
penile
pain
and
edematous
shaft
of
penis
(with
picture),
what
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
priapism
B-‐
peyronie's
disease
C-‐
Peronism
D-‐
Paraphimosis
Answer:
A
priapism
is
a
well-‐recognized
complication
of
SCD
(https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/205926-‐
overview)
Low-‐flow
or
ischemic
priapism:
This
type
happens
when
blood
gets
trapped
in
the
erection
chambers.
Most
of
the
time,
there’s
no
clear
cause,
but
it
may
affect
men
with
sickle-‐cell
disease,
leukemia
(cancerof
the
blood),
or
malaria.
If
you
don’t
get
treatment
right
away,
it
can
lead
to
scarring
and
permanent
erectile
dysfunction
(ED).
(https://www.webmd.com/erectile-‐dysfunction/erectile-‐dysfunction-‐priapism#1)
4.
Father
with
hemophilia
A
and
mother
carrier.
What
is
the
percentage
that
their
child
will
have
hemophilia?
A-‐
25
%
B-‐
50
%
C-‐
75
%
D-‐
100
%
Answer:
B
50%
will
have
hemophilia
25%
carrier
25%
normal
Hemophilia
A
and
hemophilia
B
are
inherited
in
an
X-‐linked
recessive
pattern.
The
genes
associated
with
these
conditions
are
located
on
the
X
chromosome,
which
is
one
of
the
two
sex
chromosomes.
In
males
(who
have
only
one
X
chromosome),
one
altered
copy
of
the
gene
in
each
cell
is
sufficient
to
cause
the
condition.
In
females
(who
have
two
X
chromosomes),
a
mutation
would
have
to
occur
in
both
copies
of
the
gene
to
cause
the
disorder.
Because
it
is
unlikely
that
females
will
have
two
altered
copies
of
this
gene,
it
is
very
rare
for
females
to
have
hemophilia.
A
characteristic
of
X-‐linked
inheritance
is
that
fathers
cannot
pass
X-‐linked
traits
to
their
sons.
In
X-‐linked
recessive
inheritance,
a
female
with
one
altered
copy
of
the
gene
in
each
cell
is
called
a
carrier.
(https://ghr.nlm.nih.gov/condition/hemophilia#resources)
5.
Patient
with
multiple
blood
transfusions
and
splenomegaly,
what's
the
cause?
Answer:
Ankyrin
deficiency
Differential
for
multiple
blood
transfusions
and
splenomegaly:
Answer:
beta
thalassemia
major
Patients
with
the
beta
thalassemia
trait
generally
have
no
unusual
physical
findings.
In
patients
with
beta
thalassemia
major,
the
physical
findings
are
related
to
severe
anemia,
ineffective
erythropoiesis,
extramedullary
hematopoiesis,
and
iron
overload
resulting
from
transfusion
and
increased
iron
absorption
Abdominal
examination
may
reveal
changes
in
the
liver,
gallbladder,
and
spleen.
Hepatomegaly
related
to
significant
extramedullary
hematopoiesis
is
typically
found.
Patients
who
have
received
blood
transfusions
may
have
hepatomegaly
or
chronic
hepatitis
due
to
iron
overload.
(https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/206490-‐clinical?src=refgatesrc1)
6.
Case
about
hematology
all
description
and
investigations
were
consistent
with
hereditary
spherocytosis,
positive
osmotic
fragility
test
and
jaundice
with
splenomegaly:
Which
one
of
the
following
is
correct
regarding
this
scenario?
A-‐
G6PD
B-‐
SPECTRIN
–ANKIRIN
DEFICINCY
Answer:
B
most
patients
with
dominant
HS
have
combined
ankyrin
and
spectrin
deficiency
and
that
the
two
proteins
are
usually
about
equally
deficient.
(https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/8219186)
(http://www.bloodjournal.org/content/bloodjournal/82/10/2953.full.pdf?sso-‐checked=true)
7.
SCA
mode
of
inheritance?
Answer:
Autosomal
recessive
Reference:
STEP
UP
TO
MEDICINE,
pg
333.
8.
Fanconi
anemia
mode
of
inheritance?
A-‐
Autosomal
recessive
B-‐
Autosomal
dominant
Answer:
A
https://ghr.nlm.nih.gov/condition/fanconi-‐anemia#inheritance
9.
Absorption
of
non-‐heme
iron
is
enhanced
by
Answer:
Vitamin
C
http://ajcn.nutrition.org/content/73/1/93.full
10.
Which
type
of
Hodgkin
lymphoma
has
Reed–Sternberg
cells
and
band
of
collagen
or
fibrosis.
Which
one
of
the
following
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Mixed
cellularity
B-‐
Lymphocyte
-‐predominate
C-‐
Lymphocyte
–depleted
D-‐
Nodular
sclerosis
Answer:
D
Reference:
STEP
UP
TO
MEDICINE,
pg
352
11.
You
gave
a
patient
a
drug
and
asked
him
to
come
back
to
check
PT
and
INR
what
was
the
drug?
A-‐
Aspirin
B-‐
Warfarin
C-‐
Enoxaparin
D-‐
UF
heparin
Answer:
B
Reference:
STEP
UP
TO
MEDICINE,
pg
348
12.
Factor
7
affects
which
lab
result?
A
normal
aPTT
and
a
prolonged
PT
in
a
patient
with
a
lifelong
history
of
a
tendency
for
mild
or
severe
bleeding
is
consistent
with
the
diagnosis
of
factor
VII
deficiency
or
the
presence
of
an
inhibitor
to
factor
VII.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/209585-‐workup
13.
Scenario
with
a
patient
who
came
with
fever
and
altered
level
of
consciousness
for
5
days.
His
condition
deteriorated
and
developed
body
rash,
and
became
jaundiced.
Labs
show
high
urea
and
creatinine,
low
platelets
and
anemia
(Scenario
of
TTP).
What's
the
gene
mutation
responsible?
Answer:
ADAMTS13
Mutations
in
the
ADAMTS13
gene
cause
the
familial
form
of
thrombotic
thrombocytopenic
purpura.
The
ADAMTS13
gene
provides
instructions
for
making
an
enzyme
that
is
involved
in
the
normal
process
of
blood
clotting.
Mutations
in
this
gene
lead
to
a
severe
reduction
in
the
activity
of
this
enzyme.
The
acquired
form
of
thrombotic
thrombocytopenic
purpura
also
results
from
a
reduction
in
ADAMTS13
enzyme
activity;
however,
people
with
the
acquired
form
do
not
have
mutations
in
the
ADAMTS13
gene.
Instead,
their
immune
systems
often
produce
specific
proteins
called
autoantibodies
that
block
the
activity
of
the
enzyme.
https://ghr.nlm.nih.gov/condition/thrombotic-‐thrombocytopenic-‐purpura#genes
14.
Typical
presentation
of
multiple
myeloma,
what
is
the
diagnostic
test?
A-‐
Protein
electrophoresis
B-‐
CT
head
Answer:
A
The
diagnosis
of
multiple
myeloma
is
determined
by
a
number
of
different
diagnostic
tests,
because
multiple
myeloma
is
difficult
to
diagnose
on
the
basis
of
any
single
laboratory
test
result.
-‐
Serum
and
urine
Protein
electrophoresis:
detect
the
presence
of
M
protein.
-‐
Skeletal
survey
(x-‐ray):
detect
lytic
lesions.
-‐
MRI
spine:
detect
spinal
cord
compression.
-‐
Bone
marrow
aspiration:
presence
of
plasma
cells
in
the
bone
marrow.
Reference:
Davidson’s,
pg
1047
15.
Which
one
of
the
following
follows
a
Mendelian
inheritance?
A-‐
Thalassemia
Answer:
A
Inheritance
Disease
Examples
Pattern
Autosomal
Tay-‐sachs
disease,
sickle
cell
anemia,
cystic
fibrosis,
phenylketonuria
(PKU),
Recessive
Thalassemia,
congenital
adrenal
hyperplasia.
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK132145/
https://ghr.nlm.nih.gov/condition/beta-‐thalassemia
16.
Excessive
ice
taking.
What
do
we
call
it?
Answer:
Pagophagia
Pagophagia:
A
craving
to
eat
ice,
often
associated
with
anemia
resulting
from
iron
deficiency
https://medical-‐dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/pagophagia
18.
75
years
old
male,
asymptomatic,
with
high
WBC,
90%
lymphocytes.
Immunohistochemistry
(positive
CD19,
CD23,
CD56).
What’s
the
Treatment?
A-‐
No
treatment
B-‐
Rituximab
+
CVB
C-‐
Rituximab
+
Prednisolone
D-‐
Cyclophosphamide
Answer:
A
Reference:
(Hematology
resident):
the
patient
has
CLL
(
indolent
type),
he’s
asymptomatic
and
he’s
old,
there
is
no
need
to
subjecting
the
patient
to
chemotherapy
and
it’s
complication.
If
the
patient
was
symptomatic,
CD20
positive,
and
has
agood
life
expectancy
we
can
give
him
rituximab,
and
if
the
patient
is
suffering
from
AIH
we
can
add
steroid
to
the
rituximab.
19.
Treatment
of
von-‐willbrand
disease?
A-‐
FFP
B-‐
Cryptoprecipitate
Treatment
of
von-‐Willbrand:
-‐DDAVP
(desmopressin).
-‐Factor
VIII
concentrates.
Cryoprecipitate
is
not
recommended
as
treatment
for
vWD.
Reference:
STEP
UP
TP
MEDICINE,
pg
342
DAVIDSON’S,
pg
1055
20.
Pencil
cell
in
blood
smear?
A-‐
Sickle
cell
anemia
B-‐
Thalassemia
Answer:
Iron
deficiency
anemia
http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/store/10.1002/ajh.21283/asset/21283_ftp.pdf;jsessionid=E4B26FAA449B5D
9EA7C4B538AD19756A.f01t03?v=1&t=j9b7kjl0&s=4f19d363b4f2210f0c451fa46d4af0a066430d51
Cigar
cells
(also
referred
to
as
pencil
cells)
are
red
blood
cells
that
are
cigar
or
pencil
shaped
on
Peripheral
blood
smear.
Cigar
cells
are
commonly
associated
with
hereditary
elliptocytosis.
However,
they
may
also
be
seen
in
iron
deficiency
anemia
and
other
pathological
states
that
decrease
red
blood
[1]
cell
turnover
and
or
production.
In
the
case
of
iron
deficiency
anemia,
microcytosis
and
hypochromia
would
also
be
expected.
http://www.wikiwand.com/en/Cigar_cell
21.
Recurrent
hemarthrosis
what
is
the
diagnosis?
Answer:
Hemophilia
Hemarthrosis
is
the
most
common
musculoskeletal
manifestation
of
hemophilia.
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?14/6/14433
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?1/34/1568
22.
Long
scenario,
biopsy
showed
starry
sky
appearance.
What
is
the
gene
affected?
Answer:
C-‐MYC
(8;14)
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1447602-‐overview#a4
23.
Picture
of
sickle
cell
anemia
diagnosis
24.
Two
couple
carrier
of
thalassemia,
probability
of
child
to
have
thalassemia
A-‐
25%
B-‐
50%
C-‐
100%
D-‐
75%
Answer:
A
25.
Adult
patient
with
thrombocytopenia,
high
creatinine
&
Bun
with
purpura.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
Answer:
TTP
(correct)
Thrombotic
thrombocytopenic
purpura
(TTP)
is
a
rare
blood
disorder
characterized
by
clotting
in
small
blood
vessels
of
the
body
(thromboses),
resulting
in
a
low
platelet
count. In
its
full-‐blown
form,
the
disease
consists
of
the
following
pentad:
·∙
Microangiopathic
hemolytic
anemia
·∙
Thrombocytopenic
purpura
·∙
Neurologic
abnormalities
·∙
Fever
·∙
Renal
disease
Clinical
differentiation
of
hemolytic-‐uremic
syndrome
(HUS)
and
TTP
can
be
problematic.
Differentiation
is
often
based
on
the
presence
of
central
nervous
system
involvement
in
TTP
and
the
more
severe
renal
involvement
in
HUS.
In
HUS,
an
antecedent
history
of
diarrheal
illness
is
more
often
present.
In
fact,
some
investigators
suggest
a
clinical
classification
of
HUS
based
on
the
presence
or
absence
of
diarrhea.
26.
ITP
case
-‐
Immune
thrombocytopenic
purpura
(ITP)
is
a
clinical
syndrome
in
which
a
decreased
number
of
circulating
platelets
(thrombocytopenia)
manifests
as
a
bleeding
tendency,
easy
bruising
(purpura),
or
extravasation
of
blood
from
capillaries
into
skin
and
mucous
membranes
(petechiae).
Although
most
cases
of
acute
ITP,
particularly
in
children,
are
mild
and
self-‐limited,
intracranial
hemorrhage
may
occur
when
the
platelet
9 3
count
drops
below
10
×
10 /L
(<10
×
10 /µL); this
occurs
in
0.5-‐1%
of
children,
and
half
of
these
cases
are
fatal.
-‐ITP
is
a
primary
illness
occurring
in
an
otherwise
healthy
person.
Signs
of
chronic
disease,
infection,
wasting,
or
poor
nutrition
indicate
that
the
patient
has
another
illness.
Splenomegaly
excludes
the
diagnosis
of
ITP.
-‐On
complete
blood
cell
count,
isolated
thrombocytopenia
is
the
hallmark
of
ITP.
Anemia
and/or
neutropenia
may
indicate
other
diseases.
Findings
on
peripheral
blood
smear
are
as
follows:
·∙
The
morphology
of
red
blood
cells
(RBCs)
and
leukocytes
is
normal
·∙
The
morphology
of
platelets
is
typically
normal,
with
varying
numbers
of
large
platelets
·∙
If
most
of
the
platelets
are
large,
approximating
the
diameter
of
red
blood
cells,
or
if
they
lack
granules
or
have
an
abnormal
color,
consider
an
inherited
platelet
disorder
Many
children
with
acute
ITP
have
an
increased
number
of
normal
or
atypical
lymphocytes
on
the
peripheral
smear,
reflecting
a
recent
viral
illness.
27.
Most
common
cause
of
iron
deficiency
anemia?
Causes
of
iron
deficiency:
-‐
Lack
of
iron
in
your
diet.
-‐
Chronic
blood
loss.
-‐
Pregnancy
-‐
Inability
to
absorb
iron
https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-‐conditions/iron-‐deficiency-‐anemia/symptoms-‐causes/syc-‐20355034
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/202333-‐overview#a3
28.
Patient
on
warfarin
came
with
melena
and
PT
high
what
is
the
treatment?
A-‐
IV
vitamin
k
B-‐
Fresh
frozen
plasma
C-‐
Protamine
sulphate
Answer:
A
29.
Vitamin
k
dependent
factors
Vitamin
K
serves
as
an
essential
cofactor
for
a
carboxylase
that
catalyzes
carboxylation
of
glutamic
acid
residues
on
vitamin
K-‐dependent
proteins.
The
key
vitamin
K-‐dependent
proteins
include:
● Coagulation
proteins:
factors
II
(prothrombin),
VII,
IX
and
X
● Anticoagulation
proteins:
proteins
C,
S
and
Z
30.
Patient
with
symptoms
of
gastritis
and
has
anemia.
How
would
you
treat?
A-‐
Oral
iron
B-‐
IM
iron
C-‐
IV
iron
Answer:
C
31.
What
determines
the
prognosis
in
CLL?
A-‐
Stage
of
the
disease
B-‐
Age
at
the
time
of
diagnosis
C-‐
Bone
marrow
aspiration
ANSWER:Rai/binet
staging
The
prognosis
(chance
of
recovery)
depends
on:
·∙
Whether
there
is
a
change
in
the
DNA
and
the
type
of
change,
if
there
is
one.
·∙
Whether
lymphocytes
are
spread
throughout
the
bone
marrow.
·∙
The
stage
of
the
disease.
·∙
Whether
the
CLL
gets
better
with
treatment
or
has
recurred
(come
back).
·∙
Whether
the
CLL
progresses
to
lymphoma
or
prolymphocytic
leukemia.
·∙
The
patient's
general
health.
32.
Picture
of
histopathology
of
tumor
with
starry
sky
pattern
Answer:
EBV
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1447602-‐overview#a4
33.
K/C
of
Sickle
cell
anemia
presented
with
chest/back/hip
pain.
He
reports
having
previous
episodes
and
was
hospitalized
for
them.
Now
in
severe
pain.
What
to
do?
A.
Give
oral
narcotics
and
follow
up.
B.
Admission
with
pain
management.
C.
Refer
to
tertiary
hospital
Did
not
find
a
specific
answer.
Answer:
B
Oral
medication
is
not
enough
in
such
case.
Referral
is
right
thing
to
do
but
not
for
acute
management.
So
you
admit
and
manage
first,
then
refer.
(Opinion)
For
sickle
cell
crisis,
when
the
severity
of
the
episode
is
assessable,
self-‐treatment
at
home
with
bed
rest,
oral
analgesia,
and
hydration
is
possible.
Individuals
with
SCD
often
present
to
the
emergency
department
(ED)
after
self-‐treatment
fails.
Do
not
underestimate
the
patient's
pain.
Failure
to
treat
acute
pain
aggressively
and
promptly
may
lead
to
chronic
pain
syndrome.
According
to
the
2003
BCHS
acute
painful
crisis
guidelines,
these
patients
should
receive
analgesia
within
30
minutes
of
entering
the
hospital,
with
the
goal
of
achieving
effective
pain
control
by
60
minutes.
If
patients
with
SCD
crisis
are
being
transported
by
emergency
medical
services
(EMS),
they
should
receive
supplemental
oxygen
and
intravenous
hydration
en
route
to
the
hospital.
Some
areas
have
specialized
facilities
that
offer
emergency
care
of
acute
pain
associated
with
SCD;
many
EDs
have
a
standardized
treatment
plan
in
place.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/205926-‐treatment
34.
What
is
the
characteristic
for
von-‐willbrand
disease?
A-‐
Prolonged
PT
B-‐
Prolonged
PTT
C-‐
Factor
12
deficiency
D-‐
Factor
VIII
deficiency
Answer:
D
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/206996-‐overview
35.
Patient
on
warfarin
5
mg,
his
INR
7.
No
signs
of
active
bleeding,
what
to
do?
A-‐
Increase
warfarin
dose
to
7.5
mg
B-‐
Decrease
warfarin
dose
to
2.5
mg
C-‐
Hold
warfarin
for
one
day
and
measure
INR
again
D-‐
Continue
the
same
dose.
Answer:
C
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/2172018-‐overview
36.
Sickler
patient
with
splenic
sequestration?
Splenic
sequestration
occurs
with
highest
frequency
during
the
first
5
years
of
life
in
children
with
sickle
cell
anemia.
Splenic
sequestration
can
occur
at
any
age
in
individuals
with
other
sickle
syndromes.
This
complication
is
characterized
by
the
onset
of
life-‐threatening
anemia
with
rapid
enlargement
of
the
spleen
and
high
reticulocyte
count.
Splenic
sequestration
is
a
medical
emergency
that
demands
prompt
and
appropriate
treatment.
Parents
should
be
familiar
with
the
signs
and
symptoms
of
splenic
sequestration
crises.
Children
should
be
seen
as
rapidly
as
possible
in
the
emergency
room.
Treatment
of
the
acute
episode
requires
early
recognition,
careful
monitoring,
and
aggressive
transfusion
support.
Because
these
episodes
tend
to
recur,
many
advocate
long-‐term
transfusion
in
young
children
and
splenectomy
in
older
children.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/205926-‐clinical
37.
How
to
confirm
the
diagnosis
of
patient
with
thalassemia?
A-‐
Level
of
hemoglobin
A2
B-‐
Genetic
profiling
Answer:
A
Elevation
of
the
Hb
A2
level,
demonstrated
by
electrophoresis
or
column
chromatography,
confirms
the
diagnosis
of
beta
thalassemia
trait.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/206490-‐workup#c7
38.
Patient
with
polycythemia
vera
with
all
values
elevated
Hgb,
WBC
and
platelets.
what's
the
treatment?
A-‐
Phlebotomy
B-‐
Meylosuppressive
treatment
Answer:
A
All
patients
with
PV
should
undergo
phlebotomy
to
keep
their
hematocrit
below
45%.
Lower
hematocrit
targets
have
been
proposed
for
women
with
PV,
but
no
empiric
evidence
supports
that
recommendation.https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/205114-‐treatment
39.
What
type
of
anemia
that
those
who
are
on
chemotherapy
get?
Answer:
Aplastic
·∙
Radiation
and
chemotherapy
treatments.
While
these
cancer-‐fighting
therapies
kill
cancer
cells,
they
can
also
damage
healthy
cells,
including
stem
cells
in
bone
marrow.
Aplastic
anemia
can
be
a
temporary
side
effect
of
these
treatments.
https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-‐conditions/aplastic-‐
anemia/symptoms-‐causes/syc-‐20355015
40.
Patient
presented
with
fatigue
and
weight
loss.
Lab
show
Hgb
12,
platelets
200,
WBCs
19000
and
peripheral
blood
film
showed
neutrophilia,
basophilia,
promyelcytes
and
myelocytes.
What's
the
next
step?
A-‐
Flow
cytometry
B-‐
Bone
marrow
biopsy
and
aspiration
C-‐
Repeat
CBC
Answer:
A
CML,
so
you
do
flow
cytometry
to
check
for
Philadilphia
chromosome
(Opinion)
50.
How
to
monitor
the
response
of
iron
treatment?
A-‐
Ferritin
B-‐
Reticulocyte
count
C-‐
Hematocrit
Answer:
B
Response
to
iron
therapy
can
be
documented
by
an
increase
in
reticulocytes
5-‐10
days
after
the
initiation
of
iron
therapy.
The
hemoglobin
concentration
increases
by
about
1
g/dL
weekly
until
normal
values
are
restored.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/202333-‐treatment#d13
In
addition
to
hemolysis,
increased
reticulocytes
may
be
a
response
to
blood
loss
or
the
treatment
of
iron,
vitamin
B-‐12,
or
folate
deficiencies.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/201066-‐workup#c8
51.
Patient
with
cut
that
is
continuously
bleeding.
Prolonged
BT
and
thrombocytopenia.
Bleeding
time
normalizes
with
platelet
transfusion
but
not
FFP.
A-‐
Von
Willebrand
B-‐
Bernard
Soulier
C-‐
Hemophilia
Answer:
A
52-‐
Most
important
test
in
Von
Willebrand?
A-‐
PT
B-‐
PTT
C-‐
BT
Answer:
C
53.
Patient
on
heparin
what
should
be
monitored?
A-‐
PT
B-‐
INR
C-‐
PTT
Answer:
C
54.
Patient
has
night
sweating,
weight
loss,
fever,
and
lymph
node
enlargement
in
the
left
subclavicular
lymph
node.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Burkitt
lymphoma
B-‐
Hodgkin
lymphoma
C-‐
Nonhodgkin
lymphoma
I
believe
the
question
is
incomplete,
we
can
not
differentiate
between
Hodgkin
and
non
Hodgkin
lymphoma
without
examining
the
cell
under
the
microscope.
I
would
go
with
Hodgkin
lymphoma
since
they
have
higher
tendency
to
present
with
B
symptoms.
55.
Patient
has
pallor
and
dyspnea
CBC:
macrocytic
anemia
AST:
High.
Blood
film:
no
megablast.
What
is
the
cause?
A-‐
B12
deficiency
B-‐
Folate
deficiency
C-‐
Drug
induced
D-‐
Alcohol
abuse
Answer:
Alcohol
abuse
Although
the
mean
corpuscular
volume
is
increased
by
recognized
causes
that
include
vitamin
B12
deficiency
or
folic
acid
deficiency,
it
is
also
raised
by
high
alcohol
intake
alone.
https://www.medscape.com/viewarticle/562546_2
56.
Scenario
for
ITP,
what
you
see
in
bone
marrow?
Answer:
Increase
Megakaryocytes
The
number
of
megakaryocytes
may
be
increased.
Because
the
peripheral
destruction
of
platelets
is
increased,
megakaryocytes
may
be
large
and
immature,
although
in
many
cases
the
megakaryocyte
morphology
is
normal
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/202158-‐workup#c7
57.
Patient
with
knee
trauma,
bleeding
in
cut
with
increased
bleeding
time.
He
was
given
FFP
with
not
improved
but
improved
with
platelet
transfusion?
A-‐
VWD
B-‐
TTP
C-‐
DIC
Answer:
A
58.
Most
common
type
of
Hodgkin
lymphoma?
A-‐
Lymphocytes
predominant
B-‐
Lymphocytes
depleted
C-‐
Mixed
cellularity
D-‐
Nodular
sclerosing
Answer:
D
Reference:
DAVIDSON’S,
pg
1042
59.
A
girl
presented
with
fatigue
malaise
after
doing
full
investigation
she
had
+ve
sickling
test
A-‐
Aplastic
crisis
B-‐
Vasoocclusive
crisis
Answer:
A
A
serious
complication
is
the
aplastic
crisis.
This
is
caused
by
infection
with
Parvovirus
B-‐19
(B19V).
This
virus
causes
fifth
disease,
a
normally
benign
childhood
disorder
associated
with
fever,
malaise,
and
a
mild
rash.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/205926-‐clinical
60.
Scenario
of
patient
with
anemia,
blood
film
showed
brown
color.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Aplastic
anemia
B-‐
Hemolytic
anemia
Not
enough
information
!
61.
34
years
old
female
presented
with
fever
and
decrease
consciousness
for
6
hours.
Investigations
shows
low
platelets
only.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
ITP
B-‐
TTP
C-‐
Antiphospholipd
syndrome
Answer:
B
62.
20
years
old
male,
with
small
erythematous
non-‐planchable
macules,
history
of
viral
respiratory
infection
resolve
spontaneously
last
week,
Lab:
platelets
15
(very
low).
What
is
the
treatment?
A-‐
IVIG
B-‐
Splenectomy
C-‐
Platelets
transfusion
-‐the
answer
is
corticosteroids
(ie,
oral
prednisone,
intravenous
[IV]
methylprednisolone,
or
high-‐dose
dexamethasone) should
remain
the
drugs
of
choice
for
the
initial
management
of
acute
ITP
-‐Treatment
with
corticosteroids
may
not
only
reduce
the
rate
of
platelet
destruction
but
may
also
rapidly
alter
endothelial
cell
integrity
to
facilitate
primary
hemostasis
and
to
reduce
bleeding
and
bruising.
-‐IV
immunoglobulin
(IVIG)
has
been
the
drug
of
second
choice
(after
corticosteroids)
for
many
years.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/202158-‐treatment
63.
Patient
with
features
of
leukemia,
Lab
shows:
blast
cell;
high.
Aure
rodes
in
blood
film.
What
is
diagnosis?
A-‐
AML
B-‐
Aplastic
anemia
C-‐
CML
Answer:
A
Reference:
STEP
UP
TO
MEDICINE,
pg
356
64.
Management
of
HSP?
Answer:
Supportive
To
date,
no
form
of
therapy
has
been
found
to
shorten
the
duration
of
Henoch-‐Schönlein
purpura
(HSP)
to
any
significant
degree.
Therefore,
treatment
remains
primarily
supportive
in
most
cases.
Management
of
HSP
includes
adequate
hydration;
immediate
discontinuance
of
any
exposure
to
antigenic
stimulants
(eg,
drugs);
and
follow-‐up
each
week
for
the
first
month,
every
other
week
for
the
second
month,
and
monthly
thereafter
until
abnormal
urinary
findings
subside.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/984105-‐treatment
65.
What
causes
false
positive
sickling
test?
A-‐
Anemia
B-‐
High
protein
Answer:
B
66.
What
is
the
cause
of
hyposeplenism?
A-‐
Sickle
cell
B-‐
Spherocytosis
Answer:A
67.
A
case
mentioning
presence
of
Reed–Sternberg
cells.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Hodgkin
lymphoma
B-‐
Non-‐Hodgkin
lymphoma
Answer:
A
Reference:
DAVIDSON’S,
pg
1042
68.
Patient
known
case
of
sarcoidosis
for
2
years,
labs
showing
anemia.
What
type
of
anemia
he
most
likely
has?
Answer:
Anemia
of
chronic
disease
Anemia
of
chronic
disease:
This
type
of
anemia
occurs
as
part
of
a
chronic
inflammatory
disorder,
most
often
chronic
infection,
autoimmune
disease
(especially
RA),
kidney
disease,
or
cancer;
however,
the
same
process
appears
to
begin
acutely
during
virtually
any
infection
or
inflammation,
including
trauma
or
post-‐surgery.
(See
also
Anemia
of
Renal
Disease.)
http://www.msdmanuals.com/professional/hematology-‐and-‐oncology/anemias-‐caused-‐by-‐
deficient-‐erythropoiesis/anemia-‐of-‐chronic-‐disease
Another
answer
I
found
was
a
rare
association
between
sarcoidosis
and
cold
autoimmune
hemolytic
anemia.
https://www.omicsonline.org/open-‐access/sarcoidosis-‐and-‐cold-‐autoimmune-‐hemolytic-‐anemia-‐a-‐rare-‐
association-‐2329-‐8790-‐1000255.php?aid=80787&view=mobile
69.
Patient
started
to
bleed
from
IV
line
and
other
orifices
Answer:
DIC
clinical
features
of
DIC:
-‐bleeding
tendency:
-‐
superficial
hemorrhage
(ecchymosis,
petechiae,
purpura).
-‐
bleeding
from
GI
tract,
Urinary
tract,
gingival
or
oral
mucosa.
-‐
oozing
from
site
of
procedures
and
incisions.
-‐thrombosis:
1.
occur
more
often
in
chronic
cases.
Reference:
STEP
UP
TP
MEDICINE,
pg
344.
70.
Splenomegaly,
high
hgb,
plt?
Answer:
polycythemia
rubra
vera
Reference:
STEP
UP
TO
MEDICINE,
pg
358-‐359
71.
Scenario
about
patient
came
from
Ghana
Answer:
Burkitt
lymphoma
72.
What
type
of
anemia
is
associated
with
RA?
Answer:
Normocytic
normochromic
Patients
with
rheumatoid
arthritis
(RA)
may
exhibit
a
variety
of
hematologic
abnormalities.
Common
changes
associated
with
active
disease
include
anemia
of
chronic
disease
http://www.uptodate.com/contents/hematologic-‐manifestations-‐of-‐rheumatoid-‐arthritis#H3
anemia
of
chronic
illness
and
chronic
kidney
disease
usually
fall
under
the
classification
of
normochromic,
normocytic
anemia.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1389854-‐overview
73.
Patient
on
anticoagulant,
INR:1,
PTT
&
platelet
within
normal,
and
was
given
appointment
after
2
weeks
to
reevaluate
the
result,
what
is
the
drug?
A-‐
Aspirin
B-‐
Warfarin
(correct)
C-‐
LMWH
D-‐
Unfractionated
heparin
Answer:
B
75.
Case
scenario
of
patient
with
history
of
URTI.
lab
results:
low
Hbg,
high
WBC,
I
think
reticulocyte
was
within
range
or
decrease,
what
is
the
investigation
you
want
to
do?
A-‐
Electrophoresis
B-‐
Bone
marrow
biopsy
I
would
say
it’s
Cold
agglutinin
disease,
so
we
should
do
Coombs
test.
76.
Case
scenario
of
patient
with
history
of
URTI.
lab
results:
low
Hbg,
high
WBC,
I
think
reticulocyte
was
within
range
or
decrease,
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Aplastic
anemia
B-‐
Hypoplastic
C-‐
Immune
hemolytic
Answer:
C
(Opinion)
78.
asking
about
Ann
Arbor
staging
of
burkitt’s
lymphoma
(multiple
lymph
node
in
same
side
of
diaphragm)
A-‐
Stage
1
B-‐
Stage
2
C-‐
Stage
3
D-‐
Stage
4
Answer:
B
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/2007081-‐overview
79.
60
years
old
man
coming
with
tachypnea.
Found
to
have
low
Hg
and
high
LDH
all
other
labs
were
normal.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Aplastic
anemia
B-‐
Hemolytic
anemia
Answer:
B
Serum
LDH
elevation
is
a
criterion
for
hemolysis.
LDH
elevation
is
sensitive
for
hemolysis,
but
is
not
specific
since
LDH
is
ubiquitous
and
can
be
released
from
neoplastic
cells,
the
liver,
or
from
other
damaged
organs.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/201066-‐
workup#c10
80.
Question
about
pernicious
anemia
Answer:
B12
deficiency
due
to
intrinsic
factor
deficiency
81.
Hook
worm,
how
to
cause
anemia?
A-‐
Destruction
of
RBC
B-‐
Send
toxins
to
bone
marrow
C-‐
Compete
with
host
on
b
12
Answer:
A
·∙
Classic
hookworm
disease
-‐
This
is
a
gastrointestinal
(GI)
infection
characterized
by
chronic
blood
loss
that
leads
to
iron-‐deficiency
anemia
and
protein
malnutrition;
it
is
caused
primarily
by
N
americanus
and
A
duodenaleand
less
commonly
by
the
zoonotic
species
A
ceylonicum
[ 6]
·∙
Intestinal
blood
loss
secondary
is
the
major
clinical
manifestation
of
hookworm
infection. In
fact,
hookworm
disease
historically
refers
to
the
childhood
syndrome
of
iron
deficiency
anemia,
protein
malnutrition,
growth
and
mental
retardation
with
lethargy
resulting
from
chronic
intestinal
blood
loss
secondary
to
hookworm
infection
in
the
face
of
an
iron
deficient
diet.
·∙
Hookworms
ingest
and
digested
some
of
the
blood
from
the
injured
mucosa
by
means
of
a
multienzyme
cascade
of
metallohemoglobinases.
Each
Necator
worm
ingests
0.03
mL
of
blood
daily,
whereas
each
Ancylostoma
worm
ingests
0.15-‐0.2
mL
of
blood
daily.
Inhibited
host
coagulation
due
to
a
series
of
anticoagulants
directed
against
factor
Xa
and
the
factor
VIIa–tissue
factor
(TF)
complex,
as
well
as
against
platelet
aggregation,
further
exacerbates
blood
loss.
82.
Known
case
of
sarcoidosis,
presented
with
signs
of
anemia.
From
investigation
he
has
iron
deficiency
anemia.
What
is
the
pathophysiology?
A-‐
Decreased
hepcidin
B-‐
Increased
hepcidin
Answer:
B
The
hepatic
peptide
hepcidin
was
identified
as
the
systemic
iron-‐regulatory
hormone.
In
the
efferent
arc,
hepcidin
regulates
intestinal
iron
absorption,
plasma
iron
concentrations,
and
tissue
iron
distribution
by
inducing
degradation
of
its
receptor.
Increased
hepcidin
concentrations
in
plasma
are
pathogenic
in
iron-‐
restrictive
anemias
including
anemias
associated
with
inflammation,
chronic
kidney
disease
and
some
cancers.
Hepcidin
deficiency
causes
iron
overload
in
hereditary
hemochromatosis
and
ineffective
erythropoiesis.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4048856/
83.
Most
common
presentation
in
hemophilia
A-‐
Hemarthrosis
B-‐
Petechiae
Answer:
84.
Case
of
patient
tired,
his
peripheral
blood
show
spherocytes.
Labs:
low
Hgb
70,
low
platelets
<
15.
What
is
the
treatment?
A-‐
Platelet
infusion
B-‐
Plasma
exchange
C-‐
IV
acyclovir
Answer:
85.
Poor
prognostic
factors
of
MM?
A-‐
High
calcium
B-‐
Low
IgA
Answer:
86.
Wiskott-‐Aldrich
Syndrome
typical
symptoms
(diagnosis)?
A-‐
Eczema,
thrombocytopenia
and
pyogenic
infections.
87.
Wiskott-‐Aldrich
Syndrome
mode
of
inheritance?
A-‐
X-‐linked
recessive
88.
DIC
A-‐
Prolong
APTT
and
PT
,
improve
by
platelet
89.
VWD
A-‐
Prolong
bleeding
time
and
improve
by
FFP
and
platelet
but
FFP
should
be
in
larger
amount
90.
Male
patient
complaining
of
back
pain.
Imaging
shows
bony
lytic
lesions
on
multiple
levels
with
moth
eaten
appearance.
Diagnosis
by?
A-‐
Serum
protein
electrophoresis
B-‐
Bone
scan
Answer:
91.
What
are
you
going
to
find
in
the
blood
film
of
sickle
cell
anemia
patient?
A-‐
Spherocytosis
&
shictocytes
B-‐
Pencile
cells
C-‐
Howell-‐Jolly
body
D-‐
Target
cells
Answer:
92.
Characteristic
feature
of
NHL?
A-‐
Extranodal
involvement
Answer:
93.
Sickle
cell
disease
triggering
to
occlusive
crisis?
A-‐
Parvo
virus
B19
B-‐
EBV
Answer:
Nephrology
1.
Which
one
of
the
following
present
with
positive
anti–glomerular
basement
membrane
antibody?
A-‐
IgA
nephropathy
B-‐
Post
streptococcal
glomerulonephritis
C-‐
SLE
D-‐
Goodpasture
syndrome
Answer:
D
Reference:
Toronto
Notes
2017
+
Medscape
Goodpasture
Syndrome
associated
with
antibodies
against
type
IV
collagen
present
in
lungs
and
GBM
2.
Case
scenario
of
nephrotic
syndrome
and
asking
about
treatment?
A-‐
Prednisone
B-‐
Azathioprine
Answer:
A
Reference:
Kaplan
Lecture
Notes
Treatment
of
nephrotic
syndrome
is
to
control
underlying
disease.
In
addition,
steroids
are
used
to
treat
all
forms
of
idiopathic
primary
renal
causes
of
nephrotic
syndrome,
Such
as
membranous,
minimal
change
disease,
membranoproliferative,
mesangial,
and
focal
segmental
disease.
If
steroids
do
not
work,
the
next
best
step
in
therapy
is
to
add
cyclophosphamide
or
mycophenolate.
Azathioprine
is
sometimes
useful.
ACEIs
or
ARBs
are
used
for
all
patients
with
proteinuria,
but
they
do
not
reserve
the
underlying
disease.
3.
Patient
presented
with
hematuria,
on
examination
he
had
bilateral
mass.
What
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
A-‐
Polycystic
kidney
disease
Answer:
A
Reference:
Toronto
Notes
2017
Polycystic
changes
are
always
bilateral.
It
is
often
asymptomatic,
but
patients
may
present
with
abdominal
flank
pain/dull
lumbar
back
pain,
hematuria,
nocturia,
HTN
+/-‐
palpable
kidneys.
4.
Athlete
man
with
hematuria
and
calf
muscle
pain?
A-‐
Rhabdomyolysis
Answer:
A
Reference:
WebMD
The
“classic
triad”
of
rhabdomyolysis:
muscle
pain
in
the
shoulders,
thighs,
or
lower
back;
muscle
weakness
or
trouble
moving
arms
and
legs;
and
dark
red
or
brown
urine
or
decreased
urination.
5.
Patient
drank
an
ethylene
glycol
containing
product,
what
renal
damage
is
suspected?
A-‐
Acute
tubular
necrosis
Answer:
A
Reference:
Toronto
Notes
2017
Etiology
of
ATN
1.
Toxins
a.
Exogenous:
antibiotics
(aminoglycosides,
cephalosporins,
amphotericin
B),
antiviral
(cidofovir),
antineoplastics
(cisplatin,
methotrexate),
contrast
media,
heavy
metals,
other
(fluorinated
anesthetic,
ethylene
glycol)
b.
Endogenous:
endotoxins
(bacterial),
myoglobin,
hemoglobin
2.
Ischemia
a.
Decreased
circulating
volume
b.
Decreased
effective
circulating
volume
c.
Vessel
occlusion
6.
Patient
with
vomiting
and
hyperventilation,
what
acid
base
disturbance
will
the
patient
have?
A-‐
Metabolic
acidosis
and
respiratory
alkalosis
B-‐
Metabolic
acidosis
and
respiratory
acidosis
C-‐
Metabolic
alkalosis
and
respiratory
acidosis
D-‐
Metabolic
alkalosis
and
respiratory
alkalosis
Answer:
D
Reference:
Toronto
Notes
2017
7.
Minimal
change
glomerulonephritis
A-‐
LM:
normal,
EM:
fusion
of
foot
process
Answer:
A
Reference:
Kaplan
Lecture
Notes
8.
Low
bicarb,
low
ph.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Metabolic
acidosis
B-‐
Metabolic
alkalosis
C-‐
Respiratory
acidosis
D-‐
Respiratory
alkalosis
Answer:
A
9.
Patient
with
tender
flank
and
mutation
in
chromosome
16.
What
is
the
mode
of
inheritance?
A-‐
Autosomal
dominant
B-‐
Autosomal
recessive
Answer:
A
Reference:
Toronto
Notes
2017
Adult
polycystic
kidney
disease
is
an
autosomal
dominant
disease;
at
least
2
genes:
PKD1
(chr
16p)
and
PKD2
(chr
4q)
10.
Young
Patient
with
hemoptysis,
week
later
he
developed
hematuria.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Goodpasture
syndrome
B-‐
HSP
C-‐
PSGN
Answer:
A
Reference:
Kaplan
Lecture
Notes
Goodpasture
syndrome
is
idiopathic
disorder
of
renal
and
lung
disease.
Patients
may
present
with
hematuria,
proteinuria,
hemoptysis,
cough,
and
SOB.
11.
Clear
case
of
post-‐streptococcal
glomerulonephritis.
What
is
the
most
important
step
in
management?
A-‐
High
dose
corticosteroids
B-‐
Diuretics
for
high
blood
pressure
C-‐
Diuretics
for
edema
D-‐
Antibiotics
Answer:
C
Reference:
Nephrology
consultant
If
the
patient
has
active
infection,
the
answer
would
be
antibiotics.
If
not,
then
choose
diuretics.
12.
Patient
with
recurrent
UTI,
bilateral
hydronephrosis.
Renal
biopsy
showed
multiple
cysts
with
some
description.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Renal
cell
carcinoma
B-‐
Polycystic
kidney
disease
C-‐
Renal
dysplasia
Answer:
B
13.
20
years
old
male
with
history
of
hematuria
and
proteinuria
6
gm.
What
you
will
see
in
renal
biopsy
(history
of
post-‐streptococcal
glomerulonephritis)?
A-‐
Membrane
B-‐
Minimal
C-‐
Post
infection
Answer:
Renal
biopsy
will
show
humps
on
EM.
IgG
and
C3
will
be
deposited
in
the
mesangium
as
subepithelial
humps
Reference:
Kaplan
Lecture
Notes
For
more
details
about
the
histologic
findings
-‐
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/240337-‐
workup#c7
14.
Patient
woke
up
with
edema
under
eye
+
oral
dehydrated.
Labs:
hypoalbuminemia,
hyperlipidemia.
What
is
the
treatment?
A-‐
Aspirin
B-‐
Prednisone
C-‐
Cyclophosphamide
D-‐
Cyclosporine
Answer:
B
Reference:
Kaplan
Lecture
Notes
15.
Picture
of
patient
with
macular
rash
in
buttocks,
associated
with
bilateral
knee
pain
(Henoch-‐
Schonlein
Purpura).
How
would
you
treat
this
disease?
A-‐
Antibiotics
B-‐
IVIG
C-‐
Corticosteroids
Answer:
C
Reference:
Kaplan
Lecture
Notes
HSP
most
often
resolves
spontaneously.
Treatment
is
supportive.
Steroids
can
be
used
if
the
disease
is
progressive
and
severe.
16.
Case
of
glomerulonephritis,
which
of
these
considered
a
strong
support
of
your
diagnosis?
A-‐
Streptozyme
test
B-‐
Low
C3
Answer:
It
depends
on
the
case.
However,
the
single
most
important
test
is
renal
biopsy.
Reference:
Nephrology
consultant
17.
Typical
history
of
SLE
with
urine
casts.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
SLE
nephropathy
Answer:
A
18.
Patient
taking
diuretics,
he
has
muscle
weakness,
diarrhea,
irritability.
What
is
the
cause?
A-‐
Hypokalemia
B-‐
Hyperkalemia
C-‐
Hyponatremia
D-‐
Hypocalcemia
Answer:
A
Reference:
Nephrology
consultant
19.
Patient
have
bilateral
thin
walled
parenchyma
of
kidney?
A-‐
PKD
Answer:
A?
In
general,
thin-‐walled
parenchyma
of
kidney
indicates
the
presence
of
cysts.
Upon
searching
online
I
found
the
following
possible
answers
(if
not
in
choices
I
would
choose
A)
1.
Simple
renal
cysts
2.
Lymphangioma
in
adults
is
usually
characterized
by
peripelvic
and
perirenal
thin-‐walled
cysts
20.
Patient
with
hypokalemia,
Hypochloremia,
hyponatremia
and
HyperHCO3.
I
think
with
some
symptoms,
what's
the
1ry
defect?
A-‐
NaCl
B-‐
H
excretion
C-‐
H
absorption
D-‐
K
Answer:
incomplete
question,
but
the
above
labs
could
be
caused
by
vomiting
Reference:
Nephrology
consultant
21.
Patient
with
muscle
weakness,
apart
from
hypotension
and
bradycardia,
his
examination
was
normal.
His
lab
tests
(high
K+,
low
Na,
low
Chloride,
high
urea).
What
is
the
etiology
behind
his
presentation?
A.
Hyponatremia
B.
Hyperkalemia
C.
Low
chloride
D.
Uremia
Answer:
the
question
is
incorrect
(nephrology
consultant)
22.
Patient
presented
with
hematuria,
weight
loss,
loin
pain
(scenario
of
RCC).
What
is
the
gene
affected?
A-‐
VHL
Answer:
A
Reference:
1-‐
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2873025/
2-‐
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/22125026
Alteration
of
the
VHL
gene
by
mutation,
loss
of
heterozygosity,
and
promoter
methylation
has
been
found
to
be
important
to
renal
cell
cancer
pathogenesis.
23.
Scenario
of
a
patient
whose
thirsty
with
low
urine
output
because
of
ADH
secretion.
(They
attached
a
picture
of
a
nephrons
with
number
labels
on
each
segment
and
asked
to
choose
which
area
does
ADH
work
on).
A-‐
Collecting
duct
(was
labeled
by
number
5
in
the
picture)
Answer:
A
Reference:
Toronto
Notes
2017
23.
Patient
with
controlled
DM
and
HTN
he
is
on
ACEI,
furosemide
and
spironolactone.
Electrolyte
were
normal,
what
should
you
do?
A-‐
Stop
spironolactone
B-‐
Stop
furosemide
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://www.rxlist.com/aldactone-‐drug.htm
24.
Renal
cell
carcinoma
marker?
A-‐
M2-‐PK
Answer:
?
Reference:
1-‐
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/3776772
ESR
and
fibrinogen
were
thought
to
be
useful
for
screening
renal
cell
carcinoma
patients
ESR,
CEA,
haptoglobin,
fibrinogen
and
C3
for
estimation
of
staging,
and
ESR,
CEA,
haptoglobin
and
C3
for
estimation
of
prognosis.
2-‐
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/23113677
α-‐enolase
could
be
used
in
the
postoperative
follow
up
of
renal
cell
carcinoma
patients,
whereas
the
combined
use
of
galectin-‐1
and
galectin-‐3
might
represent
a
useful
tool
for
primary
detection.
3-‐
https://www.hindawi.com/journals/dm/2015/251403/
Unfortunately,
there
is
no
existing
biomarker
for
kidney
cancer
diagnosis.
The
currently
available
biomarkers
appear
to
have
the
most
utility
as
diagnostic
adjuncts,
as
prognostic
indicators,
and
in
following
up
patients.
25.
Case
scenario
regarding
HUS
and
asking
about
treatment?
Answer:
Plasmapheresis
is
used
to
treat
severe
cases
of
HUS.
Mild
disease
resolve
spontaneously.
Reference:
Kaplan
Lecture
Notes
26.
Minimal
change
GN
happens
at
which
age?
Answer:
The
incidence
of
minimal
change
disease
peaks
in
children
aged
2
years,
with
approximately
80%
being
younger
than
6
years
at
the
time
of
diagnosis.
In
adults,
the
mean
age
of
onset
is
40
years
Reference:
Medscape
27.
Goodpasture's
syndrome
diagnosis?
Answer:
the
best
initial
test
to
confirm
the
diagnosis
is
the
level
of
anti-‐basement
membrane
antibodies
to
type
IV
collagen.
The
single
most
accurate
test
is
a
lung
or
kidney
biopsy.
Reference:
Kaplan
Lecture
Notes
28.
Calculate
anion
gap
Answer:
AG
=
Na
–
(HCO3
+
Cl)
Reference:
Toronto
Notes
2017
Normal
range
10-‐14
mEq/L
Neurology
1.
Patient
with
epilepsy
presented
complaining
of
gum
bleeding
and
increase
hair
in
face
which
of
the
following
drugs
would
be
the
cause:
A.
Phenytoin
B.
Valporic
acid
C.
Carbamazepine
Answer:
A
2.
Treatment
of
trigeminal
neuralgia?
A.
-‐carbamazepine.
B.
-‐naproxen.
answer:
A
NOTE:
Carbamazepine
and
oxcarbazepine
are
considered
first
line
therapy
in
trigeminal
neuralgia
(TN).
Reference:
Toronto
notes
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1145144treatment#d9
3.
Dental
procedure,
then
pt
developed
numbness
on
lower
or
upper
lip
what
is
the
nerve:
Inferior
orbital
nerve
Answer:
A.
Infraorbital
nerve
supplies
upper
lip.
4.
Loss
of
forehead
muscle
action
what
is
the
nerve:
Answer:
Facial
nerve
5.
Loss
of
anterior
2/3
tongue
taste:
Answer:
Fascial
nerve
Anterior
⅔:
(taste>
facial),
(sensation>
trigeminal).
Posterior
⅔:
glossopharyngeal.
6.
Loss
of
posterior
1/3
tongue
sensation
what
is
the
nerve:
Answer:
Glossopharyngeal
7.
Loss
of
gag
reflex
but
normal
uvula:
1.
glossopharyngeal
2.
Vagus
Answer:
A
CN
IX
carries
sensory
information
(afferent
limb
of
reflex).
CN
X
carries
motor
(efferent).
8.
Pt
had
occipitofrontalis
paralysis
which
branch
of
facial
nerve
is
affected:
A.
Temporal
B.
Buccal
Answer:
A
Frontal
part
from
temporal
branches.
Occipital
part
from
posterior
auricular
branch.
9.
Old
man
with
abnormal
hand
and
head
movement
he
took
drug
1
day
before
what
is
the
drug:
A.
Chloramphenicol
B.
Digoxin
C.
ethambutol
D.
Metoclopromide
Answer:
D
ChlorPROMAZINE
Antidopaminergic
may
also
cause
dystonia..
10.
Child
with
rapid
blinking
of
the
eye
communicate
with
his
parents
during
it
what
is
the
diagnosis
all
are
normal:
A)TIC
B)
petit
mal
seizure
C)
tourette
syndrome.
Answer:
A
most
likely.
Tics:
sudden
rhythmic
movement.
Tourette
syndrome:
2
or
more
tics.
Petit
mal
(absence)
seizure
characterized
by
staring
off
into
the
distance,
without
communication.
11.
Case
of
myasthenia
gravis.
What
to
give?
A.
Pyridostigimine
B.
Rivastigimine
C.
Other
cholinergic
Answer:
A
Toronto
notes:
symptomatic
treatment
(pyridostygmine).
12.
which
of
the
following
drugs
used
in
Alzheimer's
disease
causes
heptotoxicity?
1)
tacrine
2)
rivastigmine
3)
galantamine
4)
donepezil
Answer:
A
https://www.livertox.nih.gov/AlzheimersDrugs.htm
13.
Which
of
the
following
is
common
cause
of
aseptic
meningitis?
A)
Enteroviruse
b)
HSV
Answer:
A
viral
infection
is
the
most
common
form
of
aseptic
meningitis,
and
enteroviruses
are
the
most
common
viral
cause.
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1169489-‐
overview?pa=cGMbL4akzepNjcC0iphPLqQmWAHFzPxik4mBwCZXH5UtGqvCm5qPNND3MD3gTIsJNFs
YxDuz%2Fz2hge3aAwEFsw%3D%3D
15.
12
yrs
old
wake
up
with
ptosis
and
diplopia
at
morning
then
symptoms
resolves?
A.
Botilism
B.
Myasthenia
gravis
Answer:
Myasthenia
gravis
symptoms
usually
improve
throughout
the
day.
Botulism
starts
6-‐8
hrs
after
ingestion.
Starts
with
paralysis
of
EOM
then
spreads
to
trunk
and
limbs.
Toronto
notes.
16.
Treatment
of
acute
migraine?
Answer:
1st
line:
acetaminophen,
NSAIDs,
ASA
±
caffeine
2nd
line:
NSAIDs
3rd
line:
5-‐HT
agonists
±
antiemetic.
Toronto
notes.
17.
25
years
old
male
presented
after
acute
syncopal
attack
when
he
was
standing
in
a
waiting
line.
He
recalls
feeling
of
dizziness,
blurring
of
vision
and
yawning
four
minutes
before
he
lost
his
conscious
level.
Diagnosis:
a)TIA
b)Ischaemic
attack
c)Fainting
b)Out
of
body
experience
18.
Old
man
presented
by
his
children,
they
suspect
his
cognitive
function
is
impaired..
what
can
you
tell
them
about
trying
to
improve
his
condition
A)
Daily
exercise
will
help
B)
Brain
exercise
will
help
prevent
dementia
C)
New
measure
of
conducting
his
daily
activities
will
now
be
required
?
19.
Duchenne
muscular
dystrophy
percentage
of
recurrence
a)50%
b)25%
C)2%
d)7%
Answer:
A
For
a
carrier
female,
with
each
pregnancy
there
is
a
one
in
two
(50%)
chance
her
sons
will
inherit
the
disease
allele
and
a
one
in
two
(50%)
chance
her
daughters
will
be
carriers.
http://hihg.med.miami.edu/code/http/modules/education/Design/Print.asp?CourseNum=1&Lesson
Num=3
20.
A
middle
age
woman
with
multiple
sclerosis,
complaining
of
urinary
incontinence..she
doesn't
feel
the
urge
to
empty
her
bladder
but
urine
incontinence
occurs..
a)Reflex
incontinence
like
urge,
but
no
urgency
b)Stress
incontinence
c)Overflow
incontinence
d)Urge
incontinence
Answer:C
21.
Prophylaxis
of
migraine
in
asthmatic
pt:
A)
propanol
B)
amitriptyline
Answer:
B
22.
Adolescent
with
migraines;
what
is
the
long
term
complications:
A.
Hearing
loss
B.
Reflux
esophagitis
C.
Depression
Answer:
C
23.
what
is
the
cause
of
ischemic
stroke
in
females:
A)
hypercoagulable
state
B)
previous
DVT
Answer:
A.
Intracranial
atherosclerosis
may
be
the
cause
of
thrombotic
stroke
in
patients
with
widespread
atherosclerosis.
Causes
include
hypercoagulable
state.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1916852-‐overview#a5
24.
pt
complain
of
proximal
muscle
weakness
and
ptosis
there
is
improvement
after
administration
of
anticholinesterase
what
is
the
cause:
A)
autoimmune
B)
viral
induced
C)
drug
induced
D)
nutritional.
Answer:
A.
Myasthenia
gravis.
25.
What
organism
can
cause
paralysis?
Answer:
botolinium
26.
Danlos
ehler
what
is
the
type
of
transmission?
Answer:
Autosomal
dominant
Most
common
form
of
Ehlers
Danlos
is
AD.
27.
pt
k/c
of
MS
and
he
has
new
MS
attack,
treated
by:
A.
interferon,
B.
IVIG
,
C.
Glucocorticoids
Answer:
C
Acute
treatment:
methylprednisolone
1,000
mg
IV
daily
x
3-‐7
d
(no
taper
required);
if
poor
response
to
corticosteroids
may
consider
plasma
exchange
Toronto
notes.
28.
Most
common
cause
cerebral
abscess:
A.
head
trauma
B.
something
in
ear
i
think
OM
,
C.
some
thing
in
nose
29.
Male
present
with
multiple
maculs
5-‐15
mm
,
and
axilary
frickling
,
his
wife
is
pregnant
,
what
is
the
mood
of
inheritance?
Autosomal
X-‐linked
Mitochondrial
Answer:
A.
Neurofibromatosis
is
autosomal
dominant.
30.
Alcoholic
patient
presented
withdrawal
manifestation,
mainly
CNS
(confusion,
wide
gate,
etc.)
What
would
you
give
him?
A.
thiamine
B.
lorazepam
Answer:
A.
Basic
protocol
includes
thiamine
and
diazepam.
Toronto
notes.
31.
Case
of
MG
take
neostigmine
then
present
with
worse
symptoms
to
ER
what
is
the
Rx?
(No
IVIG
in
answers)
Answer:
Plasmapheresis
For
myasthenic
crisis
IVIG
and
plasmapharesis.
32.
Patient
with
facial
Bells
palsy
(UMNL)
which
of
the
following
muscles
will
be
intact?
A-‐
orbicularis
oris
B-‐
orbicularis
oculi
C-‐
masseter
D-‐
buccinator
Answer:
B
if
UMNL.
(Bell’s
palsy
is
a
LOWER
motor
neuron
lesion
affecting
whole
side
of
the
face).
33.
Extradural
hematoma
source
of
bleeding:
A-‐middle
cerebral
artery
B-‐middle
meningeal
artery
C-‐anterior
cerebral
artery
Answer:
B.
Subdural>
bridging
veins.
34.
What's
true
about
dyslexia:
1. Prevalence
<1%
2. Associated
with
hearing
or
visual
impairment
3. Problem
in
brainstem
Answer:
Prevalence
10-‐20%.
Poor
vision
is
NOT
a
cause.
Neuroimaging
showed
variations
in
the
right
temporoparietal-‐occipital
region.
Medscape
and
Toronto
notes.
35.
Male
patient
presented
with
painful
lump
in
his
arm
that
developed
after
some
weight
lifting.
What
would
be
the
appropriate
next
step?
A-‐
Give
diclofenac
36.
Treatment
of
MS
attack
in
ER:
A-‐
Oral
antibiotic
B-‐IV
antibiotic
C-‐
Oral
steroid
D-‐
IV
steroid
Answer:
D.
Toronto
notes.
37.
pt
ē
DM
suddenly
develop
weakness
in
half
of
his
body
one
hour
ago,
no
dysarthria
,
no
headache,
what’s
the
management?
A.
aspirin
B.
anti
plasminogen
Answer:
B
(Given
that
the
patient
is
a
candidate
+
after
ruling
out
hemorrhage
with
CT)
•
Acute
ischemic
stroke:
thrombolytics
(rt-‐PA,
e.g.
alteplase)
if
within
4.5
h
of
symptom
onset
with
no
evidence
of
hemorrhage
on
CT
scan
•
Antiplatelet
agents:
prevent
recurrent
stroke
or
stroke
a
er
TIAs,
e.g.
Aspirin®
(1st
line);
clopidogrel,
Aggrenox®
(2nd
line).
Toronto
notes.
38.
Epileptic
drug
that
causes
hair
growth?
Phenytoin.
39.
old
pt
with
neck
stiffness
and
parasthesia
on
morning
exam
there
was
paraspinal
muscle
spasm
,
ttt?
Physiotherapy
40.
S&S
of
stroke
,
what
is
the
first
step
in
the
management?
Answer:
Brain
CT
Must
determine
whether
it
is
a
hemorrhagic
or
ischemic
type
of
stroke.
41.
pt
with
dm
&
htn
on
medication
had
tremor
with
movement?
(No
cerebellar
lesion
on
choices)
A.
Essential
tremor
B.
Psychological
C.
Parkinsonian
D.
Physiological
42.
Patient
with
meningitis,
culture
showed
gram
positive
bacilli,
what’s
the
organism?
Listeria
Answer:
A
43.
CSF
circulates
in
which
space?
A.
1/epidural
B.
2/subdural
C.
3/Subarchnoid
Answer:
C
44.
Drug
of
choice
in
absence
seizures?
Answer:
Ethosuxamide
45.
Pt
complain
of
proximal
muscle
weakness
and
ptosis
there
is
improvement
after
administration
of
anticholinesterase
what
is
the
cause:
A)
autoimmune
B)
viral
induced
C)
drug
induced
D)
nutritional.
Answer:
A
46.
Another
scenario
about
Mysthenia
graves.
Part
affected?
Acetylcholine
receptors
Answer:
A
Antibodies
against
Ach
receptors
47.
Women
with
bilateral
breast
nipple
white
discharge
and
vision
disturbance
Prolactin
level
is
high,
where
is
the
lesion:
There
was
no
pituitary
lesion
in
choices
BUT
THERE
WAS
Sella
turcica
lesion
Answer:
sella
turcica
48.
female,
K/c
of
epilepsy
on
phenytoin,
she
has
been
using
it
for
a
long
time,
she
came
e
a
complaint
of
hairy
growth
in
her
body,
and
stated
that
she
is
symptom
free
for
about
6
months.
What
is
the
correct
action?
1/stop
phenytoin
2/lower
the
dose
3/shift
to
another
antiepileptic
(I
chose
this)
4/continue
the
drug.
49.
58
years
old
hypertensive
had
hemiplegia
for
10
hours
CT
show
no
hemorrhage
start
physiotherapy,
examinations
show
hemiplegia,
take
ACIE,
thiazide,
had
acute
peptic
ulcer
before
2
years
,
patient
need
which
drug:
A.
Noting
B.
Aspirin
C.
Anticoagulant
D.
Tpa
Answer:
B
50.
-‐Parkinson
case
à
low
dopamine
51.
-‐Another
case
of
parkinson
à
problem
in
substantia
nigra
52.
CSF
readings
were
with
high
both
lymphcytes
&
neutrophils
high
protien
normal
glusose
à
Cryptococcal
meningitis
my
answer
by
exclusion
53.
-‐Toxoplasmosis
encephalitis
in
hiv
scenario
(scenario
of
HIV
pt
with
neurological
symptomes
)
54.
-‐
Stroke
presentation
(unilateral
body
weakness
&
slurred
speach
in
1
hr
)
what's
next
step
?
CT
of
the
brain
55.
What
is
the
early
sign
of
increase
intracranial
pressure?
A.
Hypertension
B.
Unconscious
(Change
in
LOC
is
the
first
earliest
sign
in
increased
ICP)
C.
Epailateral
papillary
...
D.
Contralateral
papillary
..
Answer:
Change
in
LOC
https://amy47.files.wordpress.com/2010/04/increased-‐intracranial-‐pressure-‐pp.pptx
56.
6hrs
post
cerebral
infarction
what
will
u
give?
1-‐Aspirin
2-‐TPA
3-‐Warfarin
4-‐Forgot
it
Answer:A
57.
Most
serious
cause
of
stroke
-‐
HTN
-‐
Arrhythmias
-‐
Smoking
Answer:
A?
58.
Active
seizure
pt
what
to
give
;
A.
Phenotin
B.
Diazepam
Answer:
B
59.
Patient
with
guillain
barre,
what
cell
is
affected?
Answer:
schwan
cell
60.
-‐Pt
have
medial
squent
the
lesion
is
where
?
Pone
Medulla
ablngate
Midbrain
Answer:
A
CN
VI
nucleus
located
in
pons.
Exits
at
pontomedullary
junction.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1198383-‐overview
61.
Scenario
of
megis
syndrome
(triad),
what
is
the
appropriate
investigation
for
diagnosis
MRI
pelvis
Histopatholgy
Tumor
markers
Meig’s
syndrome
(benign
ovarian,
tumour
and
ascites
and
pleural
effusion)
62.
Case
scenario
child
with
sign
and
symptoms
of
meningitis
gram
stain
and
culture
result
was
gram
+ve
cocci
what
is
the
treatment:
Answer:
ceftriaxone
and
vancomycin
Answer:
A
63.
Sign
in
Duchene
muscular
dystrophy?
Answer:
gowers
sign
64.
Patient
with
left
side
paralysis
(stroke)
what
to
do?
A.
CT
is
first
to
know
type
B.
aspirin
Answer:
A
65.
CP
patient
all
limbs
affected
but
the
lower
limbs
less
spastic?
Quadriplegia
66.
Long
scenario
about
patient
come
to
ER
with
chest
pain
radiate
to
left
arm
then
get
coma
and
death
what
you
will
find
in
the
brain
?
1-‐
necrosis
because
of
left
middle
artery
2-‐red
neuron
degeneration
in
hippocampus
67.
Man
lost
smell,
which
lobe
is
affected
A)
parietal
B)
temporal
C)
frontal
D)
occipital
Answer:
B
.
68.
Man
with
stroke
and
vision
loss,
affected
lobe:
A)
parietal
B)
temporal
C)
frontal
D)
occipital
Answer:
D
68.
Patient
with
pain
in
lips
and
left
cheek,
with
tenderness,
what
to
give?
A.
Carbamezapine
B.
Amytriptaline
C.
Propanolol
Answer:
A
First
line
treatment
of
trigeminal
neuralgia
is
carbamazepine.
Toronto
notes.
69.
Migraine
+
HTN
?
(
I
got
the
Q
without
B
blocker
in
the
choices)
B
blocker
CCB
Answer:
A
70.
Year
old
male,
newly
married,
axillary
freckles
pigmentations
around
5-‐15
cm,
his
cousin
has
the
same
condition.
His
wife
is
pregnant
what
is
the
mode
of
inheritance
of
disease
to
child?
A.
autosomal
linked
(
I
think
this
is
the
correct
answer
cause
the
father
might
have
NF)
B.
mitrochondrial
C.
x-‐
linked
Answer:
C
71.
Asthmatic
lady
with
recurrent
severe
headache
and
photophobia.
She
gets
the
attacks
3-‐4
times
per
week.
She
is
unable
to
sleep
and
has
poor
appetite.
What
is
the
prevention?
A-‐Amitryptalin
B-‐Propranolol
C-‐
Verapamil
Answer:
A
Prophylaxis:
1.
TCA
2.
Anticonvulsants
3.
Propranolol.
Toronto
notes.
72.
Teacher
with
band
like
headache?
Stress
headache
Answer:
tension
headache.
73.
Case
about
cluster
headache.
What
is
the
treatment
?
(
)ﻣﺎ ﻛﺎﻥن ﻓﻲ ﺍاﺩدﻭوﻳﯾﺔ ﺍاﻋﺮﻓﻬﮭﺎ ﻟﻠﻜﻠﺴﺘﺮ ﻫﮬﮪھﻴﯿﺪﻳﯾﻚ
Ergotamine
Paracetamol
Answer:
Acute
Rx:
•
O2
•
Sumatriptan
(nasal
or
injection).
Prophylaxis:
•
Verapamil
•
Lithium
•
Methysergide
•
Prednisolone
Toronto
notes.
Acute:
sumatriptan,
100%
O2
74.
Prevention
of
cluster
headache?
Verapamil
Q.
Scenario
typical
of
cluster
headache
in
a
male
with
eye
pain,
tearing,
comes
clusters
during
the
day.
What
prophylactic
treatment?
A.
propanol
B.
valporic
acid
C.
amytriptalin
D.
verapamil
Answer:
D.
75.
Pt
with
signs
of
neck
rigidity
and
headache
came
with
seizures,
they
gave
her
lorazepam.
What’s
the
next
step?
A.
Lumbar
puncture
B.
another
dose
of
lorazepam
Answer:
A.
Do
not
delay
antibiotics
for
lumbar
puncture
or
blood
culture.
Toronto
notes.
76.
Pt
with
neck
rigidity
and
abdominal
muscle
rigidity
(clear
extrapyramidal
manifestations),
after
administering
some
drug.
What
is
the
drug?
Metochlopramide
77.
-‐Patient
with
increase
ICP
what
nerve
would
u
examine
before
the
CT
scan
A.
II
B.
III
C.
IV
D.
X
Answer:
A
Increased
ICP
can
cause
CN
VI
palsy.
CN
II
will
show
papilledema.
78.
To
decrease
stroke
Answer:
HTN
screening
79.
Elderly
take
haloperidol
and
came
to
ER
afebrile
rolled
eye
A.
Neuroleptic
syndrome
B.
Dyskinesia
C.
Antonia
Answer:
B
80.
Amenorrhea,
low
prolactin,
what
to
see
in
CT
or
MRI:
Answer:
Sella
turcica
81.
60
year
old
male
known
to
have
DM
and
HTN
came
complaining
of
tremors
of
the
upper
limbs
that
have
been
progressing
during
the
last
6
months
especially
when
the
patient
is
stressed.
It
increases
with
movement
and
disappears
at
rest.
What
kind
of
tremor
does
he
have?
1)
essential
2)
psychological
3)
Parkinsonian
4)
aggravated
physiological
Answer:A
Parkinsonian>
resting.
Essential>
Postural,
worsened
with
sustained
posture.
82.
-‐Pt
came
with
his
daughter
she
noticed
his
father
starting
to
forget
and
recently
started
to
have
problems
with
his
daily
activity.
What
drug
would
u
start
A.
Pyridostigmine
B.
Rivastigmine
C.
Neostigmine
Answer:
B
Management
of
dementia.
Toronto
notes.
83.
16
yo
with
GI
symptom
&
bilateral
symmetric
muscle
weakness
Botulism
Answer:
If
preceded
by
exposure,
followed
by
EOM
disturbance
then
spasms
spreading
to
trunk
and
limbs>
botulism.
If
preceded
by
history
of
URTI
or
GI,
followed
by
ascending
weakness>
Guillian
Barre
syndrome.
84.
Female
c/o
breast
milk
discharge
and
irregular
menses,
ask
about
investigation:
A
tsh
B
brain
mri
C
biopsy
Answer:
B
85.
Scenario
snake
bite.
What
should
you
do?
1-‐
evacuate
venom
2-‐
apply
tourniquet
3-‐
immobilize
limb
Answer:C
Answer:
Supportive.
Wound
irrigation/debridement.
Compression
bands
NOT
useful.
Antivenom
if
appropriate.
Toronto
notes.
86.
-‐
Parents
of
child
noticed
that
he's
sitting
alone,
not
developing
well,
playing
with
his
toy,
and
have
repetitive
behavior
what's
ur
dx:
A-‐
Global
developmental
delay
B-‐
Autism
Answer:
B
Ref:
https://www.cdc.gov/ncbddd/autism/hcp-‐dsm.html
88.
-‐What
is
the
pathology
in
Huntington
syndrome?
What
exactly
increase
and
decrease
and
where
it’s
located?
1-‐something
related
to
stratum
whith
nerotransmitter
deffect
have
look
for
it
*
Huntington's
primarily
affect
the
striatum.
Dopamin
level
is
normal
(
in
contrast
with
Parkinson).
GABA
is
decrease
(
causing
chorea
because
there
is
no
GABA[inhibitory
neurotransmiter]
&
continue
move)
.
The
most
striking
neuropathology
in
HD
occurs
within
the
neostriatum,
in
which
gross
atrophy
of
the
caudate
nucleus
and
putamen
is
accompanied
by
selective
neuronal
loss
and
astrogliosis.
Marked
neuronal
loss
also
is
seen
in
deep
layers
of
the
cerebral
cortex.
Other
regions,
including
the
globus
pallidus,
thalamus,
subthalamic
nucleus,
substantia
nigra,
and
cerebellum,
show
varying
degrees
of
atrophy
depending
on
the
pathologic
grade.
89.
Patient
with
abnormal
movements.
What
is
the
etiological
drug:
-‐
Digoxin
-‐
Can’t
remember
other
choices
(Usually
this
scenario
gives
metoclopramide
as
an
option).
90.
Wernicke's
area
injured,
which
type
of
aphasia?
A.
can
understand
but
can't
speech
B.
2-‐can't
understand
or
speech
or
write
Answer:
Can’t
comprehend/understand
but
speaks
fluently
(receptive
aphasia).
Toronto
notes.
91.
Phyenytoin
side
effect?
Gum
hyperplasia
93.
What
is
a
relative
contraindication
of
Methylergometrine?
A-‐Asthma
B-‐DM
C-‐HTN
Answer:
C
95.
Prevention
of
postherpatic
neuralgia
Answer:
Antivirals.
•
early
treatment
of
acute
herpes
zoster
with
antivirals
(acyclovir;
longer-‐acting
famciclovir
and
valacyclovir
more
effective).
•
treatment
of
herpes
zoster
with
corticosteroids
DOES
NOT
decrease
PHN.
Toronto
notes.
96.
female,
K/c
of
epilepsy
on
phenytoin,
she
has
been
using
it
for
a
long
time,
she
came
e
a
complaint
of
hairy
growth
in
her
body,
and
stated
that
she
is
symptom
free
for
about
6
months.
What
is
the
correct
action
?
A.
stop
phenytoin
Pediatrics
Part
1
●
A
child
presented
with
painless
neck
mass,
cough,
sore
throat
and
generalized
pruritus?
1. Streptococcal
pharyngitis
2. Hodgkin’s
lymphoma
3. Infectious
mononucleosis
4. Lyme
disease
Answer:
C
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/963894-‐clinical
●
2
month
old
baby
with
creamy
white
plaques
in
the
mouth.
When
he
was
1
week
old
he
developed
conjunctivitis
treated
with
erythromycin.
What’s
the
best
drug?
1. Oral
nystatin
2. Oral
tetracycline
Answer:
A
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?4/7/4209
This
is
a
case
of
oral
thrush
caused
by
candida
albicans
due
to
the
use
of
antibiotics
(erythromycin)
●
Mechanism
of
polio
vaccine?
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?13/63/14335
●
Child
with
Iron
toxicity
several
hours
ago,
what
will
you
do?
1. Gastric
lavage
2. Activated
charcoal
3. IV
deferoxamine
Answer:
C
I
think
its
IV
deferoxamine.
The
Q
lack
a
lot
of
information,
below
is
what
I
could
gather
about
Iron
toxicity.
Acute
Iron
posining:
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?16/16/16641
Uptodate:
The
decision
to
perform
GI
decontamination
is
based
upon
the
specific
poison(s)
ingested,
the
time
from
ingestion
to
presentation,
presenting
symptoms,
and
the
predicted
severity
of
poisoning.
GI
decontamination
is
most
likely
to
benefit
patients
who:
Present
for
care
soon
after
ingestion
(usually
within
one
to
two
hours)
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1011689-‐treatment
Indications
for
deferoxamine
include
shock,
altered
mental
status,
persistent
GI
symptoms,
metabolic
acidosis,
pills
visible
on
radiographs,
serum
iron
level
greater
than
500
µg/dL,
or
estimated
dose
greater
than
60
mg/kg
of
elemental
iron.
●
Scenario
of
a
child
presenting
with
bilious
vomiting.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
1. Pyloric
stenosis
2. Duodenal
atresia
3. Meckel’s
diverticulum
Answer:
B
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1011689-‐treatment
●
17
year
old
athlete
male
gained
7
kg
lately
and
he
has
all
the
characteristics
of
normal
puberty,
he
also
has
a
foul
smelling
breath?
1. Anabolic
steroid
2. puberty
I
couldn’t
find
a
good
explanation.
But,
Athlete
+
weight
gain
+
bad
breath
all
favors
the
use
of
steroid
●
3
year
old
girl
ingested
20
pills
of
isoniazid.
What’s
the
treatment?
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?10/12/10447
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/180554-‐treatment#d8
●
A
9
or
12
month
old
asthmatic
child
on
corticosteroids
which
vaccine
to
give?
●
A
child
who’s
always
alone,
doesn’t
own
any
toys
and
doesn’t
play
with
others.
What
is
the
relation
cause
or
something?
1. Intelligence
2. Interpersonally
Answer:
B
●
Scenario
of
a
child
who
swallowed
batteries.
How
would
you
manage
this
case?
1. Observation
for
12
hours
2. IM
glucagon
3. Immediate
endoscopy
4. Remove
it
using
a
foley’s
catheter
Answer:
C
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/774838-‐treatment
●
Which
of
the
following
organisms
cause
acute
epiglottitis?
1. Influenza
2. Hemophilus
influenza
Answer:
B
●
Neonate
with
umbilical
swelling
and
yellow
discoloration
over
it.
The
patient
is
vitally
stable.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
There
was
a
picture.
1. Urachal
cyst
2. Umbilical
granuloma
3. Omphalomesenteric
cyst
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/935618-‐overview#a12
●
An
infant
starts
smiling
at
which
age?
1. 4
weeks
2. 8
weeks
3. 16
weeks
Answer:
B
Toronto
notes:
Illustrated
textbook
of
pediatric:
●
A
child
who
can
ride
a
tricycle,
what’s
his
age?
Answer:
3
years
●
Which
one
is
considered
as
delayed
milestone
in
a
13
month
old
child?
Answer:
Sit
with
support
●
Question
about
Rickets
vs
hypophosphatemia
(know
how
to
differentiate
between
the
lab
investigations).
●
Diaper
rash
with
satellite
lesion?
DX:
Candidal
diaper
dermatitis
Irritant
diaper
dermatitis:
Shiny,
red
macules/patches,
no
skin
fold
involvement.
Candidate
dermatitis:
Erythematous
macerated,
papule/plaques,
Satellite
lesions,
involvement
of
skin
folds.
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/676/diagnosis/history-‐and-‐examination.html
●
8
and
a
half
year
old
child
with
breast
bud,
sparse
pubic
hair
and
mild
pigmentation
of
labia?
1. Normal
development
2. Precocious
puberty
Answer:
A
Precocious
puberty
refers
to
the
appearance
of
physical
and
hormonal
signs
of
pubertal
development
at
an
earlier
age
than
is
considered
normal.
For
many
years,
puberty
was
considered
precocious
in
girls
younger
than
8
years;
however,
recent
studies
indicate
that
signs
of
early
puberty
(breasts
and
pubic
hair)
are
often
present
in
girls
(particularly
black
girls)
aged
6-‐8
years.
For
boys,
onset
of
puberty
before
age
9
years
is
considered
precocious.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/924002-‐overview
●
UTI
treatment
in
a
child?
Answer:
Augmentin
for
10
days.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/969643-‐treatment
●
Child
with
DKA
what’s
the
initial
treatment?
1. Bolus
of
normal
saline
2. SC
insulin
3. IV
insulin
infusion
Answer:
A
It
is
important
to
pay
close
attention
to
the
correction
of
fluid
and
electrolyte
loss
during
the
first
hour
of
treatment.
This
always
should
be
followed
by
gradual
correction
of
hyperglycemia
and
acidosis.
Correction
of
fluid
loss
makes
the
clinical
picture
clearer
and
may
be
sufficient
to
correct
acidosis.
The
presence
of
even
mild
signs
of
dehydration
indicates
that
at
least
3
L
of
fluid
has
already
been
lost.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/907111-‐treatment#d1
●
A
child
with
constipation
since
birth
which
investigation
will
help
establish
diagnosis?
1. Plain
x
ray
2. Manometry
3. Rectal
biopsy
4. US
Answer:
A
It
is
often
very
difficult
to
differentiate
a
distended
colon
from
small
bowel
on
the
basis
of
a
plain
abdominal
x-‐ray
of
a
neonate
with
intestinal
obstruction.
The
presence
of
air-‐fluid
levels
is
evidence
of
obstruction,
but
is
non-‐specific.
There
may
be
an
absence
of
air
in
the
lower
pelvis.
A
normal
film
does
not
exclude
the
possibility
of
Hirschsprung's
disease,
but
without
any
evidence
of
distended
colon
it
is
unlikely
to
be
this
disease,
so
plain
abdominal
x-‐ray
should
always
be
performed
initially.
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/750/diagnosis/step-‐by-‐step.html
●
3
day
old
neonate
with
normal
perinatal
history.
Appears
tired,
with
burned
sugar
smell
in
the
urine?
1. Maple
syrup
sugar
disease
2. Phenylketonuria
Answer:
A
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/946234-‐overview
●
A
child
came
with
symptoms
of
meningitis,
and
culture
showed
gram
-‐ve
diplococci,
his
brother
had
contact
with
him.
What
to
do
for
his
brother?
Answer:
rifampicin.
●
Picture
of
CTG,
what’s
the
diagnosis?
●
Newborn
has
tetany
after
delivery.
Calcium:
1
(normal
2-‐3).
One
year
later,
he
has
recurrent
upper
respiratory
infection
with:
HiB,
HSV,
Pneumocystis
jirovecii,
aspergillus.
What
is
his
underlying
condition?
(Digeorge
syndrome)
1. 22q11.2
deletion
2. Depletion
of
cd4
lymphocytes
3. Wiskott
Aldrich
syndrome
4. NADPH
oxidation
Answer:
A
●
Child
with
hip
pain,
x-‐ray
was
normal
but
US
showed
fluid.
Lab
revealed
high
ESR,
and
CRP,
otherwise
normal.
What
to
do?
1. MRI
2. CT
Hip
and
pelvis.
3. Aspiration
Answer:
A
The
Q
lacks
some
information.
It
could
be
a
case
of
Transient
synovitis
vs
Septic
arthritis
Medscape:
Adding
in
the
CRP
as
a
predictive
factor,
Jung
et
al
found
that
patients
with
4
of
5
predictors
(body
temperature
>37ºC,
ESR
>20
mm/h,
CRP
>1
mg/dL,
WBC
>11,000/mL,
and
an
increased
hip
joint
space
of
>2
mm)
had
a
high
probability
of
having
septic
arthritis
and
were
candidates
for
further
study
by
MRI
or
joint
aspiration.
In
settings
in
which
routine
aspirations
of
effusions
is
not
performed,
an
MRI
may
help
physicians
differentiate
transient
synovitis
from
septic
arthritis.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1007186-‐workup#c5
●
Typical
case
seborrheic
dermatitis:
greasy
lesions
on
a
baby’s
head.
●
What
are
the
findings
upon
auscultating
a
child
diagnosed
with
croup?
1. Inspiratory
wheeze
because
of
the
secretions
2. Inspiratory
wheeze
because
of
narrowing
of
the
subglottic
area
Answer:
B
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/681/basics/pathophysiology.html
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/962972-‐overview
Croup
manifests
as
hoarseness,
a
seal-‐like
barking
cough,
inspiratory
stridor,
and
a
variable
degree
of
respiratory
distress.
However,
morbidity
is
secondary
to
narrowing
of
the
larynx
and
trachea
below
the
level
of
the
glottis
(subglottic
region),
causing
the
characteristic
audible
inspiratory
stridor.
●
Scenario
of
a
child
with
meningitis.
CSF
findings
are
as
follows:
High
cellular
count,
normal
glucose
and
high
protein.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
1. Tuberculous
meningitis
2. Viral
meningitis
Answer:
A
It
also
could
be
GBS,
as
they
have
elevated
protein
●
A
child
with
fever
for
3
days,
then
he
developed
a
rash.
There’s
also
a
picture
showing
small
spots
in
the
buccal
mucosa
(koplik
spots).
What’s
the
diagnosis?
1. Measles
2. Kawasaki
Answer:
A
●
Which
of
the
following
is
part
of
Tetralogy
of
fallot?
1. Pulmonary
stenosis
2. Left
ventricular
enlargement
Answer:
A
●
A
baby
with
pansystolic
murmur
in
the
3rd
left
parasternal
area.
He
also
turns
blue
when
he
cries.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
Answer:
VSD
VSD
is
acyanotic
heart
disease,
unless
Eisenmenger’s
syndrome
has
developed
●
13
month
old
baby
with
a
pan
systolic
murmur.
His
echo
shows
a
2
ml
opening
in
the
muscular
interventricular
septum.
How
will
you
manage
this
baby?
1. Watchful
waiting
2. Surgical
repair
Answer:
A
Small
muscular
ventricular
septal
defects
(VSDs)
have
a
high
spontaneous
closure
rate
(80-‐
90%)
within
the
first
2
years
of
life
and
often
require
no
medical
or
surgical
management.
Larger
defects
may
not
close
but
may
become
smaller
with
time.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/899873-‐treatment
●
A
14
year
old
boy
presented
to
the
clinic
to
take
his
second
dose
of
varicella
vaccine
(His
1st
one
was
taken
a
year
ago).
Which
of
the
following
is
the
correct
management?
1. Give
the
second
dose
2. Check
his
varicella
titer
then
give
the
second
dose
3. Start
from
the
beginning
and
give
first
and
second
dose
Answer:
A
People
13
years
of
age
and
older
(who
have
never
had
chickenpox
or
received
chickenpox
vaccine)
should
get
two
doses
at
least
28
days
apart.
http://www.immunize.org/vis/varicella.pdf
●
A
baby
who
can
sit
in
a
tripod
position,
roll
over
and
reach
out
for
objects.
How
old
is
he?
Answer:
6
months
●
A
child
who
can
tell
a
story,
draws
his
brother
and
pretends
to
be
a
father.
How
old
is
he?
1. 4
years
old
2. 5
years
old
Answer:
B
●
A
mother
presented
to
the
clinic
with
her
3
year
old
child
asking
if
he
has
developmental
delay?
(Read
about
the
milestones
of
a
3
year-‐old)
●
A
child
who
can
obey
2
step
commands
and
strangers
can
understand
75%
of
his
words.
He
asks
questions
frequently.
Which
of
the
following
is
true?
1. The
child
has
normal
development
2. Delayed
speech
3. Delayed
response
I
couldn’t
find
anything
related
to
(asks
questions
frequently)
Speech
and
language:
2
years
old:
obey
2
step
commands
3
years
old:
strangers
can
understand
75%
of
his
words.
●
A
child
presented
to
the
ER
after
swallowing
caustic
material
and
he’s
drooling.
What’s
you
immediate
management?
1. Protect
the
airways
2. Activated
charcoal
3. Emergency
endoscopy
Answer:
A
Always
start
with
Airway,
Breathing,
Circulation
●
Scenario
of
a
child
with
recurrent
fractures
and
a
blue
sclera.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
Answer:
Osteogenesis
imperfecta
●
Child
with
frequent
vomiting
and
GERD.
What’s
the
pathophysiology?
Answer:
Weak
lower
esophageal
sphincter
pressure
●
In
a
female,
the
spine
stops
growing
after
the
onset
of
menarche
by
how
many
months?
1. 6
months
2. 12
months
3. 24
months
Answer:
C
In
93
%
of
girls,
the
first
physical
sign
of
puberty
occurs
about
2
years
before
menarche,
and
final
height
is
usually
achieved
2.5–3
years
after
menarche
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3566248/
●
A
mother
brought
her
13
month
old
baby
o
the
clinic.
He
was
found
to
have
developmental
delay.
Which
of
the
following
is
considered
delayed
in
a
baby
his
age?
1. Crawling
2. Walks
using
furniture
3. Can
walk
alone
Answer:
A
●
Child
presented
with
breath
that
smells
like
garlic.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
I
couldn’t
find
anything
related
●
Parents
of
a
diabetic
child
called
you
to
tell
you
that
he
lost
consciousness.
What
would
you
advise
as
part
of
the
initial
management?
Answer:
IM
glucagon
●
13
year
old
boy
with
delayed
puberty.
His
growth
parameters
are
normal
and
he
has
fair
hair
in
the
groin.
How
will
you
manage
him?
1. Wait
2. Free
testosterone
3. Testicular
US
Answer:
A
In
most
patients,
however,
the
distinction
between
congenital
GnRH
deficiency
and
constitutional
delay
of
puberty
remains
uncertain,
and
can
be
resolved
only
with
serial
observations.
In
view
of
these
diagnostic
difficulties,
the
initial
therapeutic
approach
is
similar
for
both
disorders
[14,15].
The
two
major
options
are:
● "Watchful waiting" with reassurance and psychological support for the patient and family
Short-‐term
hormonal
therapy
with
testosterone
in
boys
and
with
estrogen
in
girls
may
be
appropriate
when
the
pubertal
delay
is
severe
or
the
patient's
psychosocial
concerns
about
the
delay
play
a
prominent
role
that
cannot
be
addressed
by
reassurance
and
education
alone.
Except
under
unusual
circumstances,
therapy
should
be
restricted
to
boys
older
than
14
years
and
girls
older
than
12
years
who
show
few
or
no
signs
of
puberty
and
are
expressing
considerable
anxiety
about
their
delay.
The
short-‐term
use
of
exogenous
testosterone
in
boys
or
estrogen
in
girls
does
not
appear
to
have
any
long-‐
term
sequelae
except
for
the
potential
of
skeletal
maturation
that
might
result
in
some
loss
of
adult
height.
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?40/20/41295
●
Female
with
delayed
puberty.
She
has
a
wide
neck,
no
breast
buds.
What’s
her
diagnosis?
1. Turner
syndrome
2. Noonan
syndrome
3. Fragile
X
syndrome
Answer:
A
●
46
year
old
mother
presented
with
her
baby.
He
has
ASD
and
other
features
of
Down
syndrome?
Answer:
Trisomy
21
●
A
case
of
precocious
puberty
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/1127/diagnosis/step-‐by-‐step.html
●
Antibiotics
used
in
neonatal
sepsis:
either
3rd
generation
cephalosporins
(cefotaxime)
or
combination
(ampicillin
+
amoxicillin
+
gentamicin).
The
current
approach
to
the
treatment
of
early-‐onset
neonatal
sepsis
includes
combined
IV
aminoglycoside
and
expanded-‐spectrum
penicillin
antibiotic
therapy.
Cephalosporins
are
attractive
in
the
treatment
of
nosocomial
infection
because
of
their
lack
of
dose-‐
related
toxicity
and
their
ability
to
reach
adequate
serum
and
cerebrospinal
fluid
(CSF)
concentrations;
however,
their
use
has
led
to
resistance
in
gram-‐negative
organisms.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/978352-‐treatment#d6
●
Face
cellulitis
in
peds:
group
A
streptococcus
●
Aspirin
in
kids
after
viral
infection:
Reye’s
syndrome
(fulminant
hepatitis
and
cerebral
edema).
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/803683-‐overview
●
Qs
about
APGAR
score.
●
Milestone
of
a
baby
who
can
hold
his
head
and
when
he
looks
at
his
flying
hand
he
laughs?
Answer:
4
months
●
Scenario
of
a
child
who
went
to
a
camp
and
developed
fever
and
vomiting
after
coming
home?
Answer:
brucellosis
(not
sure)
The
presentation
doesn’t
go
with
brucellosis
or
tick-‐borne
infections.
It
could
be
simple
gastroenteritis
●
Scenario
of
a
child
who
was
born
pre-‐term
and
has
shortness
of
breath?
Answer:
Surfactant
RDS
caused
by
surfactant
deficiency
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/976034-‐overview
●
Long
scenario
the
summary
is
a
child
who
was
normal
when
he
was
breast
feeding
and
now
his
mother
feeds
him
juice
and
he
developed
symptoms
(I
only
remember
jaundice).
What
should
be
avoided?
Answer:
Fructose
●
A
child
with
episodes
of
cyanosis
in
lips
and
peripheries
+
precordial
murmur.
What
is
best
to
reach
a
diagnosis?
1. CXR
2. ECG
3. echocardiography
Answer:
C
Echocardiography
(TOF)
●
Pediatrics
cases
(rubella
infection
"fever
plus
rash
started
on
the
face
and
spread
into
the
trunk
and
LL)
●
Milestone
of
a
child
at
hospital
laughing
and
cooing,
when
the
doctor
approaches
him,
he
felt
afraid
and
was
looking
for
his
mother?
Answer:
6
months
●
Pediatric
with
purulent
eye
discharge.
Culture
showed
gram
negative
diplococci.
What’s
the
treatment?
1. IV
cephalosporin
2. Steroids
3. Topical
antibiotics
Answer:
A
DX:
Gonococcal
Conjunctivitis
●
A
child
with
cutaneous
hemangioma,
those
hemangiomas
could
be
found
in
which
organ?
1. Liver
2. Spleen
3. Kidneys
Answer:
A
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1083849-‐overview
Spleen
could
be
involved,
but
most
commonly
the
liver
●
3
year
old
baby
with
fever
and
neck
rigidity.
Culture
revealed
gram
–ve
diplococci
(They
provided
a
picture
of
diffuse
meningococcemia
skin
rash)
and
asked
about
what
to
give
to
his
Family?
Answer:
Oral
rifampicin
●
A
child
brought
to
ER
with
barking
cough,
red
epiglottis,
and
thumb
sign
on
x
ray.
What’s
the
best
initial
management?
1. Examination
of
epiglottis
2. Endotracheal
intubation.
3. Emergent
tracheostomy
4. Nasopharyngeal
Tube
Answer:
B
DX:
Acute
epiglottitis
Illustrated:
The
child
should
be
intubated
under
controlled
conditions
with
a
general
anaesthetic.
Rarely,
this
is
impossible
and
urgent
tracheostomy
is
life-‐saving.
●
A
child
with
diarrhea,
abdominal
bloating,
diagnosed
with
giardiasis.
What
is
the
most
sensitive
test
to
diagnose
his
case?
1. 3
consecutive
stool
analysis
2. 3
separate
stool
analysis
3. Stool
immunoassay
Answer:
C
Because
Giardia
cysts
can
be
excreted
intermittently,
multiple
stool
collections
(i.e.,
three
stool
specimens
collected
on
separate
days)
increase
test
sensitivity
1.
The
use
of
concentration
methods
and
trichrome
staining
might
not
be
sufficient
to
identify
Giardia
because
variability
in
the
concentration
of
organisms
in
the
stool
can
make
this
infection
difficult
to
diagnose.
For
this
reason,
fecal
immunoassays
that
are
more
sensitive
and
specific
should
be
used
https://www.cdc.gov/parasites/giardia/diagnosis.html
●
Child
from
Ghana
with
a
neck
mass.
Biopsy
showed
starry
sky
appearance,
KI
67
was
positive.
Which
genetic
change
is
true?
Answer:
Over
expression
of
C
myc
gene
DX:
Burkitt
lymphoma
●
A
child
developed
fever
headache
and
malaise,
after
traveling
to
a
southern
area
on
a
trip
with
his
friends,
his
mother
thought
that
it
is
normal
after
this
tired
trip,
his
condition
became
worse
and
he
developed
skin
rash,
sore
throat,
lymphadenopathy,
and
hepatosplenomegaly
on
examination.
What
test
do
you
want
to
order
to
reach
a
diagnosis?
Answer:
Monospot
test
(Infectious
Mononucleosis)
●
A
child
who
has
episodes
of
vomiting
after
feeds,
although
his
appetite
is
good
and
wants
to
eat
despite
the
vomiting.
His
labs
show
hypokalemia
and
low
chloride.
Most
likely
diagnosis
is?
Answer:
Hypertrophic
pyloric
stenosis
The
classic
presentation
of
IHPS
is
the
3-‐
to
6-‐week-‐old
baby
who
develops
immediate
postprandial,
non-‐bilious,
often
projectile
vomiting
and
demands
to
be
re-‐fed
soon
afterwards
(a
"hungry
vomiter").
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?21/52/22336
●
A
child
with
different
types
of
infections
including
aspergillosis,
Tb,
and
staph
...
etc.
Immune
defect
in?
Answer:
NADPH
oxidase
(chronic
granulomatous
disease)
Pathogens
such
as
Aspergillus
spp.,
Nocardia
spp.,
Serratia
marcescens,
and
Burkholderia
cepacia,
or
recurrent
infections
with
Staphylococcus
aureus,
may
suggest
CGD
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/703/diagnosis/history-‐and-‐examination.html
●
A
child,
known
case
of
thalassemia,
had
fever
after
blood
transfusion.
What
is
the
best
measure
to
take
for
prevention
of
fever?
1. Antipyretic
2. Pre-‐transfusion
medications
3. Leukocyte
depleted
(prior
storage)
4. Leukocyte
filters
at
transfusion
session.
Answer:
C
When
red
cells
and
plasma
are
separated
from
whole
blood,
small
amounts
of
residual
plasma
and/or
leukocyte
debris
may
remain
in
the
red
cell
concentrate.
During
blood
storage,
these
leukocytes
release
cytokines
that
when
transfused
can
cause
transient
fevers,
chills,
and
malaise
(without
hemolysis)
within
1-‐6
hours
of
transfusion.
This
state
is
called
febrile
non-‐hemolytic
transfusion
reaction
(FNHTR).
Although
prophylactic
paracetamol
is
often
administered
to
prevent
FNHTRs,
there
is
little
evidence
in
the
literature
to
support
this
practice.
Cytokine
accumulation
during
storage
of
cellular
components
(especially
in
platelet
units)
is
thought
to
be
the
most
common
event
leading
to
symptoms
of
FNHTRs.
Cytokines
are
released
by
white
cells
and
pre-‐storage
leucodepletion
has
reduced
this
risk.
●
Cellulitis
in
the
face
of
infants
between
6
and
24
months
with
purple
discoloration
is
caused
by?
1. GAS
2. Staph
aureus
3. Hemophilus
influenzae
4. Strep
pneumonia
Answer:
C
Haemophilus
influenzae
cellulitis
is
a
cutaneous
condition
characterized
by
a
distinctive
bluish
or
purplish-‐red
cellulitis
of
the
face.
Hib
cellulitis
usually
involves
the
face,
head,
or
neck.
Most
cases
occur
in
children
aged
2
years
or
younger.
●
Treatment
of
GERD
in
a
child?
Answer:
Give
antacid
Pharmacological
therapy
used
in
GERD
include:
-‐Histamine
blocker
-‐PPI
-‐Antacid
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/acid-‐reflux-‐gastroesophageal-‐reflux-‐disease-‐in-‐children-‐and-‐
adolescents-‐beyond-‐the-‐basics
●
Child
with
DM1
got
multiple
hypoglycemic
attacks?
Answer:
Due
to
honeymoon
period
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/25/treatment/step-‐by-‐step.html
Honeymoon
period
is
one
of
the
causes
of
hypoglycemia
in
DM1
●
Milestone
of
a
child
who
can
draw
a
line?
Answer:
18
month
(other
options
were
all
younger
than
18
months)
●
Intussusception
age
group?
Intussusception
is
the
most
common
cause
of
intestinal
obstruction
in
infants
between
6
and
36
months
of
age.
Approximately
60
percent
of
children
are
younger
than
one
year
old,
and
80
to
90
percent
are
younger
than
two
years
[3].
Intussusception
is
less
common
before
three
months
and
after
six
years
of
age.
When
it
does
occur
in
these
younger
or
older
age
groups
it
is
more
likely
to
be
associated
with
a
lead
point.
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/intussusception-‐in-‐children
●
Which
vaccines
are
given
in
a
9
month
old
baby?
1. Measles
&
meningococcal
vaccine
2. MMR
Answer:
A
●
Nevus
crepitus
something
like
this
(child
with
scalp
swelling
with
hair
loss
above
it).
●
Vaccine
that
is
contraindicated
in
eczema,
psoriasis
and
contact
dermatitis?
1. Rubella
(German
measles)
2. Measels
3. Polio
4. Smallpox
Answer:
D
Eczema
or
atopic
dermatitis
(in
the
past,
even
if
not
currently
active).
Patients
with
these
diseases
or
a
history
of
these
diseases
should
not
be
vaccinated.
http://www.aafp.org/afp/2003/0901/p889.html
●
Pediatric
patient
with
enuresis.
Which
method
is
affective
for
long
time?
1. Voiding
before
sleep
2. Decrease
fluid
intake
3. Alarm
Answer:
C
Enuresis
alarms
are
the
most
effective
long-‐term
therapy
and
have
few
adverse
effects.
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/nocturnal-‐enuresis-‐in-‐children-‐management
●
What
a
3
year
old
can
do?
1. Climb
stair
2. Know
the
names
of
the
days
3. Trace
a
triangle
4. Catch
a
ball
with
alternative
feet
Answer:
A
●
3
year
old
baby
have
a
watery
discharge
from
his
eyes
since
birth
and
redness
what
is
the
cause?
1. Bacterial
conjunctivitis
2. Lacrimal
duct
obstruction
Answer:
B
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?35/16/36110
●
Still
birth
what
is
the
right
sentence
(thalassemia
case)?
1. Two
normal
beta
and
4
abnormal
alpha
2. Two
abnormal
beta
and
4
normal
alpha
3. 4
normal
beta
and
2
abnormal
alpha
4. 4
abnormal
beta
and
2
normal
alpha
Answer:
A
●
A
mother
brought
her
7
year
old
girl
to
the
clinic
because
she
has
pubic
hair
growth.
Her
height
and
weight
are
normal
for
her
age.
On
examination,
no
breast
enlargement
or
other
secondary
sexual
characteristics.
Clitoris
size
is
normal.
What
do
you
tell
her
mother?
1. Early
puberty
2. Normal
3. Turner
syndrome
Answer:
A
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/924002-‐clinical
●
One
year
old
baby
was
breast
feed
till
6
months
of
age
and
was
developing
normally,
then
the
mother
started
to
give
him
fruit
juices
and
he
started
to
have
developmental
delays.
Which
of
the
following
substance
he
should
avoid?
1. Galactose
2. Fructose
3. Lactose
Answer:
B
Fructose
intolerance;
Affected
individuals
are
completely
asymptomatic
until
they
ingest
fructose.
Thus,
homozygous
neonates
remain
clinically
well
until
confronted
with
dietary
sources
of
fructose.
http://reference.medscape.com/article/944548-‐overview#a5
●
Doctor
asked
a
child
to
bend
forward
with
the
feet
together,
arms
hanging
and
the
knees
in
extension
and
the
doctor
is
inspecting
the
patient
from
the
back.
What
is
the
test?
1. Adam's
test
2. Sexual
abuse
Answer:
A
The
patient
takes
off
his/her
t-‐shirt
so
that
the
spine
is
visible.
The
patient
needs
to
bend
forward,
starting
at
the
waist
until
the
back
comes
in
the
horizontal
plane,
with
the
feet
together,
arms
hanging
and
the
knees
in
extension.
The
palms
are
hold
together.
The
examiner
stands
at
the
back
of
the
patient
and
looks
along
the
horizontal
plane
of
the
spine,
searching
for
abnormalities
of
the
spinal
curve,
like
increased
or
decreased
lordosis/
kyphosis,
and
an
asymmetry
of
the
trunk.
●
Baby
with
only
mild
jaundice
and
everything
else
is
normal.
Indirect
bilirubin
was
elevated
about
28
maybe
(but
in
the
twenties).
What’s
the
management?
1. Observation
2. Phototherapy
Question
lack
some
information,
but
most
probably
it’s
PHOTOTHERAPY
The
initiation
of
phototherapy
based
on
total
serum
bilirubin
levels,
gestational
age,
age
of
the
infant
in
hours,
and
individual
risk
factors.A
commonly
used
rule
of
thumb
in
the
NICU
is
to
start
phototherapy
when
the
total
serum
bilirubin
level
is
greater
than
5
times
the
birth
weight.
Thus,
in
a
1-‐kg
infant,
phototherapy
is
started
at
a
bilirubin
level
of
5
mg/dL;
in
a
2-‐kg
infant,
phototherapy
is
started
at
a
bilirubin
level
of
10mg/dL
and
so
on.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1894477-‐overview#a2
●
Dehydrated
child
(I
think
moderate)
with
severe
vomiting.
What’s
the
management
?
1. Pedialyte
10
ml
over
5
min
2. Normal
saline
50ml/kg
3. ORS
with
ratio
of
1:1
glucose
to
sodium
Answer:
B
●
3
years
old
baby
with
dipper
rash
with
no
satellite
lesion.
What’s
the
treatment?
1. Barrier
cream
with
frequent
change
of
dipper
2. Topical
antibiotics
3. Oral
antibiotics
4. Topical
steroid
Answer:
A
Good
nappy-‐changing
hygiene
practices
should
be
ensured.
No
matter
which
type
of
nappy
is
used,
it
should
be
changed
every
2
hours.
If
the
child
is
prone
to
frequent
nappy
rash,
empirically
apply
a
topical
barrier
containing
zinc
oxide,
white
soft
paraffin,
glycerin,
lanolin,
sucralfate,
or
mineral
oil
at
each
nappy
change.
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/676/treatment/details.html
●
Baby
can
sit
without
support
and
turns
his
head
to
the
doctor
and
smiles.
How
old
is
he?
●
6
months
●
9
months
Answer:
B
●
Tumor
in
the
pediatric
age
group
that
arises
from
kidney
or
adrenals
and
displace
the
collecting
system?
●
Wilm’s
●
Neuroblastoma
Answer:
B
Abdominal
neuroblastomas
usually
develop
in
the
retroperitoneum.
Most
arise
from
the
adrenal
gland
and
displace
the
kidney
inferomedially.
In
rare
cases,
a
neuroblastoma
may
mimic
a
Wilms
tumor,
arising
from
tissues
in
the
kidney
or
invading
the
kidney.
To
make
diagnosis
complicated,
rare
neuroblastomas
possess
other
features
more
typical
of
Wilms
tumor
than
of
intrarenal
neuroblastomas.
USMLE-‐13:
A,
but
I’m
not
sure
of
the
answer
(I
choose
it
because
it
says
displace
displace
the
collecting
system
and
displacement
goes
with
Wilms-‐
read
the
explanation
bellow)
I
also
asked
a
oncologist
he
said
he
should
go
with
B
BUT
the
question
is
not
complete
and
he
needs
more
information.
●
A
mother
came
with
her
4
month
old
child
to
vaccinate
him
but
she
reported
that
her
child
is
having
severe
diarrhea
for
3
days.
What
are
you
going
to
do?
1. Refer
all
vaccination
2. Give
hepatitis
B
vaccine
3. Give
vaccination
without
DTP
-‐
There
is
no
evidence
that
acute
illness
reduces
vaccine
e
cacy
or
increases
vaccine
adverse
events.1,2
However,
as
a
precaution
with
moderate
or
severe
acute
illness,
all
vaccines
should
be
delayed
until
the
illness
has
improved.
Mild
illnesses
(such
as
otitis
media,
upper
respiratory
infections,
and
diarrhea)
are
NOT
contraindications
to
vaccination.
Do
not
withhold
vaccination
if
a
person
is
taking
antibiotics.
-‐
A
"moderate
or
severe
acute
illness"
is
a
precaution
for
administering
any
vaccine.
A
mild
acute
illness
(e.g.,
diarrhea
or
mild
upper-‐respiratory
tract
infection)
with
or
without
fever
is
not
a
precaution,
and
vaccines
may
be
given.
The
concern
in
vaccinating
someone
with
moderate
or
severe
illness
is
that
a
fever
following
the
vaccine
could
complicate
management
of
the
concurrent
illness
-‐
it
could
be
difficult
to
determine
if
the
fever
was
from
the
vaccine
or
due
to
the
concurrent
illness.
In
deciding
whether
to
vaccinate
a
patient
with
moderate
or
severe
illness,
the
clinician
needs
to
determine
if
deferring
vaccination
will
increase
the
patient's
risk
of
vaccine-‐preventable
diseases,
as
is
the
case
if
the
patient
is
unlikely
to
return
for
vaccination
or
to
seek
vaccination
elsewhere.
●
Case
of
cystic
fibrosis
(+ve
chloride
sweat
test).
They
asked
about
the
gene:
1. Chromosome
7
2. Chromosome
15
3. Chromosome
16
Answer:
A
●
Child
with
epiglottitis,
x-‐ray
shows
a
swollen
epiglottis.
What
is
the
first
thing
you’re
going
to
do?
1. Cricothyroidotomy
2. Endotracheal
intubation
3. Nasopharyngeal
tube
Answer:
B
Note:
I
had
the
same
scenario
but
with
different
choices,
they
were:
1. Admission
&
refer
to
ENT
2. Abx
3. Steroids
Answer:
B
Appropriate
antibiotics
include
ceftriaxone,
cefotaxime,
and
cefuroxime.
Corticosteroid
administration,
although
advocated
in
the
past
based
on
anecdotal
reports,
remains
controversial.
These
agents
have
no
proven
efficacy
for
treating
epiglottitis.
●
13
year
old
boy
brought
to
the
clinic
by
his
parents
for
delayed
puberty.
He
has
sparse
pubic
hair,
has
always
been
in
the
25th
percentile.
He’s
healthy.
What
are
you
going
to
do?
1. Watchful
waiting
2. Give
him
testosterone
Answer:
A
In
most
patients,
however,
the
distinction
between
congenital
GnRH
deficiency
and
constitutional
delay
of
puberty
remains
uncertain,
and
can
be
resolved
only
with
serial
observations.
In
view
of
these
diagnostic
difficulties,
the
initial
therapeutic
approach
is
similar
for
both
disorders
[14,15].
The
two
major
options
are:
● "Watchful waiting" with reassurance and psychological support for the patient and family
Short-‐term
hormonal
therapy
with
testosterone
in
boys
and
with
estrogen
in
girls
may
be
appropriate
when
the
pubertal
delay
is
severe
or
the
patient's
psychosocial
concerns
about
the
delay
play
a
prominent
role
that
cannot
be
addressed
by
reassurance
and
education
alone.
Except
under
unusual
circumstances,
therapy
should
be
restricted
to
boys
older
than
14
years
and
girls
older
than
12
years
who
show
few
or
no
signs
of
puberty
and
are
expressing
considerable
anxiety
about
their
delay.
The
short-‐term
use
of
exogenous
testosterone
in
boys
or
estrogen
in
girls
does
not
appear
to
have
any
long-‐
term
sequelae
except
for
the
potential
of
skeletal
maturation
that
might
result
in
some
loss
of
adult
height.
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?40/20/41295
●
Patient
with
barking
cough.
What
is
the
causative
organism?
Answer:
Parainfluenza
virus
●
A
hypotensive
baby
with
severe
vomiting
and
watery
diarrhea.
What
is
the
electrolyte
imbalance?
1. Low
na
2. High
na
3. High
k
4. Hyperglycemia
Answer:
A
It
could
be
either
hyper
or
hypo
Na
Since
there
is
hypotension,
I
think
the
answer
is
Low
NA
●
Blood
in
diaper
with
vomiting
and
constipation.
US
shows
a
donut
sign.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
Answer:
Intussusception
●
3
year
old
child
presented
with
burn
involving
her
whole
right
arm,
with
blisters.
What
is
the
stage
and
percentage?
●
A
child
diagnosed
with
UTI.
What
to
do
before
the
treatment?
1. US
2. Cystoscopy.
Answer:
A
Indications
for
renal
and
bladder
ultrasonography
are
as
follows:
●
Febrile
UTI
in
infants
aged
2-‐24
months
●
Delayed
or
unsatisfactory
response
to
treatment
of
a
first
febrile
UTI
●
An
abdominal
mass
or
abnormal
voiding
(dribbling
of
urine)
●
Recurrence
of
febrile
UTI
after
a
satisfactory
response
to
treatment
Cystourethroscopy
is
contraindicated
in
febrile
patients
with
urinary
tract
infections
(UTIs)
and
those
with
severe
coagulopathy.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1829911-‐overview#a5
●
Child
with
malignancy
after
bone
marrow
transplant,
by
3
weeks,
his
father
came
because
his
other
healthy
son
got
chicken
box.
What
would
you
give
the
child
with
the
malignancy
as
prophylaxis?
1. Varicella
vaccine
2. Varicella
Ig
3. Both
A&B
4. Give
acyclovir.
Answer:
B
The
most
important
use
of
VZIG
is
for
passive
immunization
of
susceptible,
immunocompromised
children
after
significant
exposure
to
chickenpox
or
zoster.
This
includes
children
with
primary
immunodeficiency
disorders
and
neoplastic
diseases
and
children
currently
receiving
immunosuppressive
treatment.
https://www.cdc.gov/Mmwr/Preview/Mmwrhtml/00022690.htm
●
5
year
old
child
with
hand
and
foot
pain.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
Answer:
Sickle
cell
anemia
●
What
causes
cyanotic
heart
disease?
1. Tetralogy
of
fallot
2. Patent
ductus
arteriosus
3. VSD
Answer:
A
●
Missed
vaccination
(study
the
symptom
of
the
disease
Diphtheria,
pertussis,
mumps,
and
measles).
●
What
is
the
treatment
of
post-‐streptococcus
glomerulonephritis
in
children
with
edema
and
HTN?
1. High
dose
of
antibiotics
2. Diuretic
for
edema
3. Diuretic
for
HTN
4. High
dose
of
steroids
Answer:
B
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/980685-‐medication#1
Administer
antibiotics
(penicillin
or
erythromycin)
for
10
days
to
ensure
eradication
of
the
streptococcus
if
the
disease
is
believed
to
be
acute
poststreptococcal
glomerulonephritis
and
if
risk
of
contamination
is
present
Furosemide
is
a
loop
diuretic
that
is
useful
in
patients
with
acute
glomerulonephritis
who
are
edematous.
This
agent
also
has
some
BP-‐lowering
effect
by
increasing
excretion
of
salt
and
water
via
interfering
with
the
chloride-‐binding
cotransport
system
in
the
ascending
loop
of
Henle.
In
acute
hypertensive
states,
administer
furosemide
intravenously
(IV).
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?17/10/17568
Loop
diuretics
generally
provide
a
prompt
diuresis
with
reduction
of
blood
pressure
and
edema.
In
our
practice,
intravenous
furosemide
is
given
at
an
initial
dose
of
1
mg/kg
(maximum
40
mg).
Patients
with
evidence
of
persistent
group
A
streptococcal
infection
should
be
given
a
course
of
antibiotic
therapy.
●
What
is
the
most
common
cause
of
nephrotic
syndrome
in
children?
A. ●
Membranous
G
B. ●
IgA
nephropathy
C. ●
Minimal
change
disease
D. ●
Mesangioproliferative
GN
Answer:
C
●
NICU
child
suddenly
developed
distress
with
absent
breath
sounds.
Where
will
you
place
the
butterfly
needle?
●
2nd
intercostal
space
●
3rd
intercostal
space
●
4th
intercostal
space
●
5th
intercostal
space
Insert
needle
into
the
pleural
space
(directly
over
the
top
of
the
rib
in
the
second
or
third
intercostal
space
in
the
midclavicular
line)
until
air
is
aspirated
into
the
syringe.
Expel
air
through
the
three-‐way
stopcock.
http://www.asph.mobi/Guidelines_Neonatal/Pneumothorax.pdf
https://www2.health.vic.gov.au/hospitals-‐and-‐health-‐services/patient-‐care/perinatal-‐
reproductive/neonatal-‐ehandbook/procedures/pneumothorax-‐drainage
●
6
month
old
infant
brought
by
his
parents
with
history
of
repeated
vomiting;
his
pulse
was
(190).
He
had
dry
mucous
membranes
and
sunken
anterior
fontanel.
What
is
the
appropriate
volume
of
fluid
that
should
be
given
initially?
1. Bolus
10
ml/kg
of
body
weight
2. Bolus
20
ml/kg
of
body
weight
3. Slow
infusion
10
ml/kg
of
body
weight
4. Slow
infusion
20
ml/kg
of
body
weight
Answer:
B
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/801012-‐treatment#d11
●
Child
unvaccinated
developed
fever,
SOB
and
stridor.
Lateral
X-‐ray
shows
a
thumb
sign.
What’s
the
treatment?
1. Erythromycin
2. Vancomycin
3. Ceftriaxone
4. Metoconazole
Answer:
C
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/763612-‐medication#2
●
10
year
old
child
brought
by
his
parents
because
they
were
concerned
about
his
weight.
He
eats
a
lot
of
fast
food
and
french
fries.
Your
main
concern
in
managing
this
patient
is?
A.
His
parents
concern
about
his
weight
B.
His
BMI
>
33
C.
Family
history
of
heart
disease
D.
Eating
habits
(fast
food
and
french
fries)
Answer:
D
●
A
4
year
old
child
that
doesn’t
speak
well
except
for
saying
mama
and
papa.
He
responds
well
to
verbal
commands
and
his
older
brother
had
the
same
problem
when
he
was
in
the
same
age.
He
is
also
shy.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Autism
B.
Development
language
disorder.
Answer:
B
●
Parents
brought
their
son
with
cystic
fibrosis,
asking
about
the
chance
of
his
sister
of
becoming
a
carrier:
A.
1:2
B.
2:4
C.
1:25
Answer:
B
https://www.cff.org/What-‐is-‐CF/Genetics/CF-‐Genetics-‐Basics/
https://rarediseases.info.nih.gov/diseases/6233/cystic-‐fibrosis
When
two
carriers
of
an
autosomal
recessive
condition
have
children,
each
child
has
a:
6) A
14
month
old
infant
presented
with
n/v.
Upon
examination,
he
was
found
to
have
depressed
anterior
fontanelle,
decreased
skin
turgor
and
sunken
eyes.
What
is
the
degree
of
dehydration?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Answer
is
C
7) A
mother
complains
that
her
child
who
is
6
months
old
is
crying
too
much
for
the
past
2
weeks.
The
mother
said
that
she
was
regularly
feeding
her
child
then
recently
introduced
cow
milk.
Upon
examination,
there
was
abdominal
distention.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A) Cow
milk
allergy
B) Infantile
colic
Answer
is
A
8) A
child
complains
of
barking
cough
with
inspiratory
stridor.
What’s
the
best
way
to
diagnose
him?
A) Clinically
B) X-‐ray
C) Laryngeal
swab
Answer
is
A
Source:
emedicine
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/962972-‐workup
Most
importantly,
croup
is
a
clinical
diagnosis.
Radiographs
can
be
used
as
a
tool
to
help
confirm
this
diagnosis,
but
are
not
required
in
uncomplicated
cases.
[20]
The
anteroposterior
(AP)
radiograph
of
the
soft
tissues
of
the
neck
classically
reveals
a
steeple
sign
(also
known
as
a
pencil-‐point
sign),
which
signifies
subglottic
narrowing,
whereas
the
lateral
neck
view
may
reveal
a
distended
hypopharynx
(ballooning)
during
inspiration
(see
the
images
below).
[21]
However,
these
x-‐ray
findings
may
not
be
seen
in
up
to
50%
of
children
with
clinical
symptoms
of
croup.
9) A
scenario
of
a
patient
with
wide
spaced
nipples
and
a
short
neck.
What’s
her
diagnosis?
A) Turner
syndrome
B) Down
syndrome
Answer
is
A
10) Scenario
of
a
female
patient
that
developed
secondary
sexual
characteristics
but
has
no
vagina.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A) Mullerian
agenesis
B) Ovarian
atrophy
Answer
is
A
11) A
mother
is
complaining
that
her
baby
has
a
rash
in
the
diaper
area,
that
rash
is
associated
with
satellite
lesions
around
it.
What
is
the
treatment?
A) Metronidazole
B)
Source:
emedicine
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/801222-‐treatment
This
is
yeast
diaper
infection,
due
to
the
presence
of
satellite
lesions.
treatment
is
with
topical
antifungal
medication.
If
candidal
infection
is
suspected,
topical
ointments
or
creams,
such
as
nystatin,
clotrimazole,
miconazole,
or
ketoconazole
can
be
applied
to
the
rash
with
every
diaper
change
12) Pediatric
patient
presented
with
a
centripetal
rash
distribution,
more
on
the
trunk
and
gradually
less
towards
extremities.
What
is
the
incubation
period
of
this
disease?
A) 0-‐10
B) 11-‐20
C) 21-‐30
If
the
rash
is
vesicle
and
pustules
this
varicella,
incubation
period
is
10-‐21
days
Source:
https://www.webmd.boots.com/children/guide/chickenpox-‐incubation-‐period
The
incubation
period
is
seven
to
21
(usually
10
to
21)
days
after
exposure
to
the
herpes
varicella-‐
zoster
virus
to
the
development
of
the
symptoms.
The
disease
is
most
contagious
a
day
or
two
before
the
rash
appears
and
until
the
rash
is
completely
dry
and
scabbed
over,
about
five
to
six
days
after
onset
of
the
rash.
13) Pediatric
patient
being
treated
for
H
pylori.
He
is
on
metronidazole.
What
to
add?
A) Tetracycline
B) Clarithromycin
Answer
is
B
Source:
http://gi.org/guideline/treatment-‐of-‐helicobacter-‐pylori-‐infection/
Clarithromycin
triple
therapy
consisting
of
a
PPI,
clarithromycin,
and
amoxicillin
or
metronidazole
for
14
days
remains
a
recommended
treatment
in
regions
where
H.
pylori
clarithromycin
resistance
is
known
to
be
<15%
and
in
patients
with
no
previous
history
of
macrolide
exposure
for
any
reason
14) A
Pediatric
patient
is
complaining
of:
Intermittent
dysphagia,
retrosternal
pain
and
heartburn.
Barium
swallow
showed:
dilated
esophagus.
Synchronous
contractions
and
gradual
distal
narrowing.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A) Achalasia
B) Diffuse
esophageal
spasm
C) GERD
Answer
is
A
Source:
wikipedia
There
is
acute
tapering
at
the
lower
esophageal
sphincter
and
narrowing
at
the
gastro-‐esophageal
junction,
producing
a
"bird's
beak"
or
"rat's
tail"
appearance.
The
esophagus
above
the
narrowing
is
often
dilated
(enlarged)
to
varying
degrees
as
the
esophagus
is
gradually
stretched
over
time.
Characteristic
manometric
findings
are:
● Lower
esophageal
sphincter
(LES)
fails
to
relax
upon
wet
swallow
(<75%
relaxation)
● Pressure
of
LES
<26
mm
Hg
is
normal,>100
is
considered
achalasia,
>
200
is
nutcracker
achalasia.
● Aperistalsis
in
esophageal
body
● Relative
increase
in
intra-‐esophageal
pressure
as
compared
with
intra-‐gastric
pressure
15) A
pediatric
patient
complaining
of
daily
fever,
fatigue
and
knee
swelling
for
two
months.
Also,
recently
developed
epistaxis.
Labs:
Low
platelet,
Low
hemoglobin,
Normal
WBC.
What
is
your
next
step?
A) Bone
marrow
aspirate
B) ANA
16) A
child
with
swelling.
Which
organ
is
mostly
affected
by
mumps?
A) Heart
B) Lung
C) Testes
D) Parotid
Answer
is
D
17) A
pediatric
patient
with
sore
throat,
migrating
arthralgia
and
fever.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
A) Rheumatic
fever
Answer
is
A
18) A
15-‐year-‐old
girl
brought
by
her
mother
because
she
did
not
get
her
period
yet.
On
examination
she
has
breast
buds,
normal
pubic
hair
and
her
height
has
increased
during
the
last
year.
Which
one
of
the
following
will
support
your
diagnosis?
A) Onset
of
menstruation
B) Bone
age
estimation
Answer
A?
Source:
https://www.girlology.com/puberty-‐timeline-‐girls
23) Treatment
of
baby
with
iron
deficiency
anemia
(no
options).
A) Oral
route
Answer
is
A
24) Child
with
repeated
polymicrobial
chest
infections.
Skin
test
was
positive
for
candida
antigen
and
all
blood
test
are
normal
except:
high
IgG
or
IgM?
And
low
lymphocytes.
Lymph
node
biopsy
showed:
rudimentary
germinal
centers.
What
is
the
pathophysiology
of
this
disease?
No
options.
I
think
it’s
a
case
of
X-‐linked
agammaglobulinemia
(XLA),
or
Bruton
agammaglobulinemia
25) What
is
the
treatment
of
typhoid
fever
in
children?
A) Chloramphenicol
Source:
emedicine
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/968672-‐treatment
Enteric
fever
caused
by
S.
typhi
infection
● For
S.
typhi
infection,
initial
empiric
therapy
with
ceftriaxone
is
recommended
due
to
widespread
resistance.
If
susceptible,
chloramphenicol,
ampicillin,
or
TMP-‐SMZ
may
be
used.
Duration
of
therapy
should
be
14
days.
26) A
milestone
question:
A
child
who
knows
the
names
of
colors
and
can
ride
a
tricycle
but
has
difficulty
in
drawing
a
square?
A) 3
years
old
Answer
is
A
27) A
4
year
old
child
with
decreased
in
head
growth,
has
weird
hand
movements
(wringing),
lost
expressive
end
receptive
language
skills
and
lost
his
interest
in
his
social
environment.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A) Autism
B) Mental
retardation
C) Rett
syndrome
Answer
is
C
Source:
wikipedia
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rett_syndrome
Symptoms
include
small
hands
and
feet
and
a
deceleration
of
the
rate
of
head
growth
(including
microcephaly).
Repetitive
stereotyped
hand
movements,
such
as
wringing
and/or
repeatedly
putting
hands
into
the
mouth,
are
also
noted.
People
with
Rett
syndrome
are
prone
to
gastrointestinal
disorders
and
up
to
80%
have
seizures.
28) A
child
with
a
red
mass
growing
in
his
shoulder
since
birth.
What’s
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
A) Strawberry
nevus
Answer
is
A
29) A
child
with
developmental
delay,
mild
low
calcium,
pigeon
chest,
bulging
of
frontal
bone,
mild
high
alkaline
phosphates,
normal
phosphate.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
A) Rickets
B) Osteoporosis
C) Paget
disease
Answer
is
A
30) Anxious
mother
brings
her
2
month
old
baby
having
history
of
diarrhea
and
crying
too
much
since
2
weeks.
He
was
born
on
the
36th
week,
breast
fed
but
the
mother
started
bottled
milk
2
weeks
ago.
What
is
the
cause
of
his
abdominal
pain?
A) Increased
gases
B) Neuro
system
still
not
fully
developed
C) Decreased
bowel
peristalsis
31) Child
with
scaly
erythematous
plaques
with
follicular
hyperkeratosis
over
elbows
and
knees.
What
is
the
other
area
in
the
body
most
likely
to
be
affected?
A) Eye
B) Adrenal
C) Heart
D) Kidney
Answer
is
A
Source:
Blepharitis
involves
chronic
inflammation
of
the
eyelids
and
is
one
of
the
more
common
eye
problems
associated
with
psoriasis.
Another
common
ocular
finding
is
anterior
uveitis,
which
has
been
reported
to
occur
in
7%
to
20%
of
patients
with
psoriasis.
32) A
4
week
old
baby
with
his
head
tilted
to
one
side.
Normal
neuro
examination
and
normal
labs.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A) Congenital
torticollis
B) Cretinism
C) Erb’s
palsy
Answer
is
A
33) Boy
(neither
BMI
or
weight
were
mentioned)
eats
fast
food
and
high
fat
diet
(French
fries)
his
parents
are
concerned
about
his
cholesterol,
both
parents
have
cholesterol
disease,
you
will
do
cholesterol
test
because:
A) BMI
above
30
B) Family
Hx
of
cardiovascular
disease
C) High
cholesterol
diet
D) Parents
concern
34) Child
patient
came
with
scenario
of
chest
infection,
first
day
of
admission
he
was
treated
with
cefotaxime.
On
the
next
day,
the
patient’s
state
became
bad
with
decreased
perfusion
and
x-‐ray
shows
complete
right
sided
opacification
+
hydrothorax.
What
is
the
causative
organism?
A) Strept
Pneumoniae
B) Staph.
Aureus
C) Hemophilus
influenzae
type
b
D) Pseudomonas
Answer
is
B
asked
a
pediatric
consultant
35) Long
scenario
of
a
pediatric
patient
with
the
following
labs:
K:
3,
Na:
124.
How
would
you
correct
the
electrolyte
imbalance?
A) Normal
saline
and
Kcl
5
over
20
cc/hr
B) Normal
saline
and
Kcl
40
over
80
cc/hr
C) 1/2
saline
and
Kcl
5
over
20cc/hr
D) 1/2
saline
and
Kcl
5
over
20cc/hr
36) Long
scenario
of
a
boy
with
diarrhea
(gastroenteritis
and
dehydration
symptoms)
with
no
urine
output
(acute
kidney
injury).
And
they
gave
you
labs
(k:
high,
urea:
high,
sodium
bicarbonate:
low
and
high
creatinine).
What
is
your
immediate
action?
A) Dialysis
B) Normal
saline
C) NaHCO3
D) Antibiotics
Answer
is
B
37) A
child
presented
with
fatigue
and
lethargy.
Labs:
Hb
10.5,
MCV
40.
What's
your
management?
A) Oral
iron
B) IM
iron
C) Blood
transfusion
Answer
is
A
38) Calculate
the
fluid
replacement
of
a
baby
who
weighs
15
Kgs.
>
1250
ml
● Frist
10
KG
multiply
100
● Second
10
KG
multiply
50
● So
10*100=1000
● 5*50=250
● Total:
1000+250=1250ml
39) A
child
with
short
stature
and
no
family
history.
What’s
the
most
likely
underlying
etiology?
A) Constitutional
growth
delay
B) Genetic
C) Hormonal
Answer
is
A
40) A
clear
scenario
about
croup
(brassy
cough
and
hoarseness).
What’s
the
treatment?
A) Racemic
epinephrine
and
oral
steroid
Source:
http://www.aafp.org/afp/2011/0501/p1067.html
Treatment
of
coup
A
single
dose
of
dexamethasone
(0.15
to
0.60
mg
per
kg
usually
given
orally)
is
recommended
in
all
patients
with
croup,
including
those
with
mild
disease.
Nebulized
epinephrine
is
an
accepted
treatment
in
patients
with
moderate
to
severe
croup
41) A
clear
scenario
about
whooping
cough.
What’s
the
causative
organism?
A) Pertussis
B) Psittacosis
C) HiB
Answer
is
A
42) An
8
year-‐old
girl
who’s
tired
and
looks
pale.
Her
liver
is
palpable
and
spleen
is
6
cm
below
costal
margin.
Her
blood
pressure
is
93/55
and
Hb
is
(low)
and
she
has
positive
sickle
test
screening.
What
is
the
next
appropriate
investigation
(I
don't
recall
if
she
was
febrile
or
not)?
A) Bone
marrow
aspiration
B) Abdominal
US
C) Reticulocyte
count
Answer
is
C?
43) Foul
smelling
urine
in
a
7
year-‐old
child
with
fever
and
lower
abdominal
pain.
What’s
the
causative
organism?
A) E.
Coli
B) Proteus
C) Klebsiella
Answer
is
A
44) A
child
had
diarrhea
and
vomited
once
with
mild
dehydration:
A) Oral
rehydration
solution
45) A
baby
who
can
elevate
his
head
45°
when.
He's
also
cooing
and
smiling.
How
old
is
he?
A) 1
month
B) 3
months
C) 6
months
Answer
is
B
46) Child
who
took
20
pills
of
aspirin.
How
are
you
going
to
manage
him?
A) Urine
alkalization
Answer
is
A
Source:
wikipedia
Initial
treatment
of
an
acute
overdose
involves
resuscitation
followed
by
gastric
decontamination
by
administering
activated
charcoal,
which
adsorbs
the
aspirin
in
the
gastrointestinal
tract.
Stomach
pumping
is
no
longer
routinely
used
in
the
treatment
of
poisonings
but
is
sometimes
considered
if
the
patient
has
ingested
a
potentially
lethal
amount
less
than
one
hour
before
presentation.[15]
Inducing
vomiting
with
syrup
of
ipecac
is
not
recommended.[10]
Repeated
doses
of
charcoal
have
been
proposed
to
be
beneficial
in
cases
of
aspirin
overdosing,[16]
although
one
study
found
that
they
might
not
be
of
significant
value.[17]
Regardless,
most
clinical
toxicologists
will
administer
additional
charcoal
if
serum
salicylate
levels
are
increasing.
Intravenous
fluids
Intravenous
fluids
containing
dextrose
such
as
D5W
are
recommended
to
keep
a
urinary
output
Sodium
bicarbonate
is
given
in
a
significant
aspirin
overdose
(salicylate
level
greater
than
35
mg/dl
6
hours
after
ingestion)
regardless
of
the
serum
pH,
as
it
enhances
elimination
of
aspirin
in
the
urine.
It
is
given
until
a
urine
pH
between
7.5
and
8.0
is
achieved.
47) In
a
well-‐baby
clinic,
the
mother
put
her
child
on
bed
and
he
was
laughing
loudly,
when
the
doctor
came
to
examine
him,
he
pulled
away
and
wanted
to
reach
his
mother.
How
old
is
he?
A) 4
months
B) 6
months
C) 9
months
Answer
is
B
48) A
child
who
is
laughing
and
cooing,
can
support
his
head
but
can’t
move
a
toy
from
one
hand
to
the
other?
A) 4
months
B) 6
months
C) 8
months
D) 2
months
Answer
is
A
49) Complication
of
mumps
in
a
child?
A) Meningitis
B) Encephalitis
C) Orchitis
Answer
is
A
Source:
http://www.who.int/biologicals/areas/vaccines/mmr/mumps/en/
The
most
common
complication
of
mumps
in
children
is
meningitis,
sometimes
associated
with
encephalitis,
and
in
young
adults
orchitis.
Most
complications
due
to
mumps
infection
resolve
without
permanent
damage.
Death
following
mumps
is
rare
and
is
mostly
due
to
mumps
encephalitis.
50) A
few
hours
after
a
neonate
was
born,
he
started
to
become
jaundiced
and
he
is
getting
worse
with
time.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A) G6PD
B) Pyruvate
kinase
Answer
is
A
51) A
baby
has
constipation
since
birth.
Which
of
the
following
investigations
will
help
in
diagnosing
his
condition?
A) Rectal
biopsy
B) Rectal
exam
C) Anal
exam
D) X-‐ray
Answer
is
A
Source:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/178493-‐workup#c6
The
definitive
diagnosis
of
Hirschsprung
disease
is
confirmed
by
a
full-‐thickness
rectal
biopsy
demonstrating
absence
of
ganglion
cells.
The
specimen
must
be
obtained
at
least
1.5
cm
above
the
dentate
line
because
aganglionosis
may
normally
be
present
below
this
level.
Disadvantages
of
full-‐
thickness
rectal
biopsy
include
the
necessity
of
general
anesthesia
and
risks
of
bleeding
and
scarring.
52) What
is
the
treatment
of
typhoid
fever
in
children?
Answer
is:
Ceftriaxone
Source:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/968672-‐treatment
Enteric
fever
caused
by
S.
typhi
infection
● For
S.
typhi
infection,
initial
empiric
therapy
with
ceftriaxone
is
recommended
due
to
widespread
resistance.
If
susceptible,
chloramphenicol,
ampicillin,
or
TMP-‐SMZ
may
be
used.
Duration
of
therapy
should
be
14
days.
53) A
child
with
a
honey
colored
crust
rash.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
Source:
http://www.innerbody.com/diseases-‐conditions/impetigo
Impetigo
is
a
skin
infection
caused
by
bacteria,
resulting
in
a
red
rash,
blisters,
and
a
characteristic
honey-‐colored
crust
on
the
skin.
Impetigo
most
commonly
occurs
in
infants
and
children
age
2
to
6.
54) A
child
with
coca
cola
colored
urine?
55) A
neonate
with
poor
APGAR
score
and
cyanosis.
How
would
you
manage?
56) 13
year
old
patient
with
salmonella
infection
resistant
to
chloramphenicol.
What
is
the
appropriate
choice
of
therapy?
A) Continue
chloramphenicol
B) Add
ciprofloxacin
C) Give
cipro
alone
D) IM
ceftriaxone
Answer
is
D
57) Child
born
from
a
mother
who
has
gram
negative
streptococcus
positive
at
time
of
delivery.
After
birth,
child
has
retraction
cyanosis
and
difficulty
breathing.
What’s
your
next
step
in
management?
A) X-‐ray
of
chest
B) Blood
culture
and
look
for
infection
C) 2
antibiotics
names
were
given
58) A
child
has
spot
on
teeth.
What
supplement
to
add?
A) Fluoride
Answer
is
A
59) Congenital
adrenal
hyperplasia
test?
Source:
emedicine
21-‐hydroxylase
deficiency:
High
serum
concentration
of
17-‐hydroxyprogesterone
(usually
>1000
ng/dL)
and
urinary
pregnanetriol
(metabolite
of
17-‐hydroxyprogesterone)
in
the
presence
of
clinical
features
suggestive
of
the
disease;
24-‐hour
urinary
17-‐ketosteroid
levels
are
elevated
60) A
child
swallowed
a
bottle
filled
with
iron
pills,
presented
to
ER
with
abdominal
pain,
nausea
and
confusion.
What’s
the
best
management?
A)
IV
deferoxamine
Answer
is
A
Source:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/815213-‐treatment#d10
In
acute
or
chronic
iron
toxicity,
chelation
therapy
with
deferoxamine
is
indicated
for
patients
with
serum
iron
levels
>350
mcg/dL
who
have
evidence
of
toxicity,
or
levels
of
>500
mcg/dL
regardless
of
signs
or
symptoms.
In
patients
with
significant
clinical
manifestations
of
toxicity,
chelation
therapy
should
not
be
delayed
while
one
awaits
serum
iron
levels.
61) A
child
with
SCA
presented
with
pain
in
his
penis.
Upon
physical
examination
you
saw
this
sign.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A) Paraphimosis
B) Priapism
C) Pyroni's disease
Answer is B
63) 8 month old infant with meningitis. What is the causative organism in this age group?
Answer
is
A
64) Neonate after delivery had bleeding. What would you give?
Source: emedicine
Immediately
administer
vitamin
K
subcutaneously
(hold
pressure
on
the
site)
for
any
infant
in
whom
vitamin
K
deficiency
bleeding
is
suspected
or
who
has
serious,
unexplained
neonatal
bleeding.
66) A
3
year
old
came
to
ER
with
cough
and
SOB,
rhinorrhea
for
three
days.
The
cough
is
worse
at
night.
What
is
the
most
appropriate
nebulizer
medication?
A) Salbutamol
B) Ipratropium
bromide
C) Chromolyn
sodium
D) Racemic
epinephrine
Answer
is
A?
Since
the
cough
is
worse
at
night
it
goes
more
with
asthma
that
is
triggered
by
respiratory
tract
infection.
Croup
will
have
inspiratory
stridor
and
barking
cough.
67) Newborn
with
severe
jaundice
at
birth.
He
was
found
to
be
O+
and
his
mother
is
A-‐.
What
is
the
mechanism?
A) Fetal
antibody
agglutinating
fetal
antigen
B) Fetal
antibody
agglutinating
maternal
antigen
C) Maternal
antibody
agglutination
fetal
antigen
Answer
is
C
Source:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rh_disease
Rh
isoimmunization
The
disease
ranges
from
mild
to
severe,
and
typically
occurs
only
in
some
second
or
subsequent
pregnancies
of
Rh
negative
women
where
the
fetus's
father
is
Rh
positive,
leading
to
a
Rh+
pregnancy.
If
the
mother
is
Rh
negative
and
the
baby
is
Rh
positive,
the
mother
produces
antibodies
(including
IgG)
against
the
rhesus
D
antigen
on
her
baby's
red
blood
cells.
During
this
and
subsequent
pregnancies
the
IgG
is
able
to
pass
through
the
placenta
into
the
fetus
and
if
the
level
of
it
is
sufficient,
it
will
cause
destruction
of
rhesus
D
positive
fetal
red
blood
cells
leading
to
the
development
of
Rh
disease.
68) A
boy
who
took
primaquine
developed
symptoms
of
anemia.
Deficiency
of
which
of
the
following
caused
his
symptoms?
A) B-‐
G-‐6-‐P
dehydrogenase
B) C-‐
Glucose
6
phosphatase
C) D-‐
Pyruvate
kinase
Answer
is
A
Source:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glucose-‐6-‐phosphate_dehydrogenase_deficiency#Triggers
Antimalarial
drugs
that
can
cause
acute
hemolysis
in
people
with
G6PD
deficiency
include
primaquine,
pamaquine,
and
chloroquine.
69) A
mother
brought
her
child
to
ED
with
itchy
skin
lesions
that
appeared
after
intake
of
some
food.
The
lesions
appear
in
a
certain
area
and
stay
for
2
hours
then
disappear
then
appear
in
another
area.
What
is
it
called?
A) Burrow
B) Wheal
Answer
is
B
Source:
Wheal:
A
wheal
is
a
rounded
or
flat-‐topped,
pale
red
papule
or
plaque
that
is
characteristically
evanescent,
disappearing
within
24
to
48
hours.
70) Long
scenario
of
a
child
who
had
a
high
fever
and
developed
a
tonic-‐clonic
seizure.
What
is
management?
A) Fever
control
B) Diazepam
C) Phenytoin
Answer
is
A
Source:
http://www.aafp.org/afp/2006/0515/p1761.html
Current
recommendations
do
not
support
the
use
of
continuing
or
intermittent
neuroleptic
or
benzodiazepine
suppressive
therapies
after
a
simple
febrile
seizure.
For
patients
who
have
an
ongoing
seizure
at
the
time
of
assessment
(i.e.,
febrile
status
epilepticus),
intravenous
diazepam
(0.2
to
0.5
mg
per
kg
of
weight
intravenously
every
15
minutes
for
a
cumulative
dosage
of
5
mg
in
children
one
month
to
five
years
of
age)
often
is
effective.
71) A
baby
who
was
recently
started
on
cow’s
milk,
presenting
with
wheezing
and
SOB.
Sputum
test
shows
there
is
blood.
Labs
show:
microcytic
hypochromic
anemia.
What’s
the
treatment?
A) Steroids
B) Cytotoxic
drugs
C) Cromolyn
sodium
D) Stop
cow
milk
Answer
is
D
72) A
young
patient
was
playing
presented
with
severe
epigastric
pain,
retching
and
unable
to
vomit.
Unable
to
pass
NG
tube.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A) Hiatal
hernia
B) Volvulus
73) 12
year
old
presented
with
growth
retardation
and
abdominal
striae.
What
is
next?
A) Morning
and
night
cortisol
level
B) MRI
brain
Answer
is
B
74) 8
and
half
year
old
brought
by
her
older
sister
for
early
puberty.
Her
sister
menarche
was
at
14
years
old.
She
presented
with
breast
buds
and
no
pubic
hair
growth.
What
is
the
cause?
A) Precious
puberty
B) Normal
development
C) Early
thelarche
Answer
is
B
75) Neonate
with
cyanosis
and
shortness
of
breath
while
feeding
with
diaphoresis.
Presented
with
ejection
systolic
murmur,
3/6,
normal
S1
loud
S2,
best
heard
on
left
side
of
chest.
What
is
the
cause?
A) Large
ASD
B) Large
VSD
C) PDA
D) Mitral
Regurgitation
76) Diarrhea
after
introducing
juices
to
baby
with
positive
reducing
substances
test.
What
kind
of
intolerance
the
baby
has?
A) Galactose
intolerance
B) Fructose
intolerance
C) Lactose
intolerance
Answer
is
C
77) One
year
old
baby
with
a
prominent
forehead.
Hemoglobin
electrophoresis
show:
Hb
A2
2-‐3%
and
Hb
F
2%.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
A) Alpha
thalassemia
B) Beta
thalassemia
major
C) Beta
thalassemia
minor
78) A
baby
with
recurrent
jaundice
and
multiple
blood
transfusions,
what
causes
the
RBC
to
be
destructed,
blood
results
show
low
RBC,
DLT
test
normal
and
some
other
labs
and
blood
smear
(spirometric??,
nucleated...)
A) G6PD
79) Child
with
repeated
polymicrobial
chest
infections.
Skin
test
positive
for
candida
antigen.
Blood
test
all
normal
except
high
IgG
or
IgM!?,
Low
lymphocytes.
Lymph
node
biopsy
showed:
rudimentary
germinal
centers.
What
is
the
pathophysiology
of
this
disease?
Answer
:
the
diagnosis
is
x-‐linked
Bruton’s
Agammaglobulinemia
80) A
child
presented
with
difficulty
in
breathing
and
mild
fever.
The
parent
said
that
he
had
2
similar
episodes
two
weeks
ago.
What's
your
first
step?
A) Observe
B) Fluids
and
supportive
care
C) Inhaled
steroids
D) Ventilatory
support
Answer
is
B?
81) A
scenario
of
a
boy
with
recurrent
infections.
His
brother
died
when
he
was
3
years
old.
He
has
2
sisters
who
are
alive
and
well.
What
does
he
have?
A) Combined
immunodeficiency
B) X-‐linked
immunodeficiency
Answer
is
B
82) Child
had
URTI
2
weeks
ago,
presented
with
right
upper
quadrant
pain.
Labs
show
high
WBC,
low
hg
and
other
labs
not
sure
of
them.
Electrophoresis
shows
inclusion
bodies.
What's
the
diagnosis?
A) Acute
appendicitis
B) Sickle
cell
disease
C) Lithium
D) GI
infarct
83) Child
presented
with
rash
that
started
in
the
back
then
it
was
spread
to
all
his
body.
The
rash
was
pustular
with
other
areas
vesicular.
The
rash
had
truncal
distribution
more
than
the
limbs.
What
is
the
incubation
period
for
this
organism?
A) 5-‐11
days
B) 11-‐
21
days
C) 23
-‐
30
days
Answer
is
B
Source:
https://www.webmd.boots.com/children/guide/chickenpox-‐incubation-‐period
The
incubation
period
is
seven
to
21
(usually
10
to
21)
days
after
exposure
to
the
herpes
varicella-‐
zoster
virus
to
the
development
of
the
symptoms.
The
disease
is
most
contagious
a
day
or
two
before
the
rash
appears
and
until
the
rash
is
completely
dry
and
scabbed
over,
about
five
to
six
days
after
onset
of
the
rash.
84) Child
came
with
knee
swelling
or
bleeding
after
mild
trauma.
Bleeding
time
was
abnormal
and
it
was
NOT
corrected
after
we
gave
fresh
frozen
plasma.
Then
bleeding
time
got
back
to
normal
after
giving
platelet
transfusion
(his
platelet
level
was
50).
What
does
the
patient
have
(PT
and
PTT
were
not
included
in
the
question)?
A) VWF
deficiency
B) HSP
C) Thrombotic
thrombocytopenic
purpura
(Not
ITP)
D) Weird
syndrome
name,
can't
remember
85) New
born
totally
healthy
with
left
thigh
bruise.
All
examination
normal.
Prolonged
pt
and
ptt.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
A) Hemophilia
B) Factor
10
deficiency
C) Idiopathic
thrombocytopenic
purpura
Answer
is
B
Source:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/209867-‐workup
Coagulation
study
findings
in
patients
with
factor
X
deficiency
include
the
following:
● The
prothrombin
time
(PT)
is
prolonged
● The
activated
partial
thromboplastin
time
(aPTT)
is
prolonged
● The
Russell
viper
venom
time
(RVVT)
is
prolonged;
Russell
viper
venom
cleaves
factor
X
to
produce
active
factor
Xa
● Bleeding
time
is
within
the
reference
range
86) A
child
with
multiple
plaques
on
his
face,
abdomen
and
feet.
What
is
the
Diagnosis?
(In
the
q
they
mentioned
something
about
histoimmune
and
positive
CD?)
A) Mycosis
fungoides
B) Bowen
disease
C) Basel
cell
carcinoma
If
the
plaques
are
hypopigmented,
with
CD
3
positive,
CD4
positive
and
CD8
negative
this
is
mycosis
fungoides.
87) Pediatric
age
group,
mass
on
the
inner
side
of
lower
lip,
non-‐tender
and
bluish
in
color.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A) Mucocele
B) Gingival
cyst
C) Ranula
D) Epiula
Answer
is
A
Source:
wikipedia
The
mucocele
has
a
bluish
translucent
color,
and
is
more
commonly
found
in
children
and
young
adults.
The
most
common
location
to
find
a
mucocele
is
the
inner
surface
of
the
lower
lip.
It
can
also
be
found
on
the
inner
side
of
the
cheek
(known
as
the
buccal
mucosa),
on
the
anterior
ventral
tongue,
and
the
floor
of
the
mouth.
88) Most
common
known
side
effect
of
steroid
use
in
children?
A) Excitable
behavior
B) Labile
mood
C) Growth
retardation
D) Intraocular
Hypertension
Answer
is
C?
89) Girl
or
boy
(I
can’t
remember)
hit
puberty.
Till
which
age
the
bone
growth
will
continue?
A) 12
months
B) 24
months
C) 36
months
Answer
is
B
90) A
young
girl
came
with
leg
pain
more
in
night.
Examination
is
normal.
Labs:
ESR
and
ANA
high.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
A) Rheumatoid
B) Growing
pain
C) Osteoid
osteoma
D) Osteosarcoma
91) 10
year
old
child
with
acute
rheumatic
fever
and
cardiac
involvement.
For
how
long
will
you
continue
him
on
prophylactic
antibiotics?
A) 1
year
B) 5
years
C) 10
years
D) 15
years
Answer
is
C
Source:
92) A
baby
has
depigmentation
since
birth,
photophobia
and
refractory
error
nystagmus.
What’s
the
most
likely
complication
associated
with
his
condition?
(Case
of
albinism)
A) Brain
tumor
B) Skin
cancer
C) Renal
dysfunction
Answer
is
B
Source:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1200472-‐followup
Complications
of
albinism
See
the
list
below:
Skin
cancer,
sunburn
Reduced
visual
acuity
Social
stigma
93) A
child
with
cough,
coryza
and
conjunctivitis.
Presented
with
maculopapular
rash
in
palm
and
buttocks.
On
examination,
there
are
pustules
in
tonsils.
What
other
physical
signs
will
find
in
the
patient?
A) Spot
on
the
sole
of
the
foot
B) Swollen
tonsils
C) Scratch
markers
D) Diarrhea
Answer:
It’s
measles,
diarrhea
is
a
common
complication.??
Ref.
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/966220-‐clinical#b3
94) 5
month
old
baby
found
to
have
developmental
delay.
Which
one
of
the
following
is
a
reassuring
sign
for
the
doctor?
A) Pincer
grasp.
B) Reaching
for
objects.
C) Sits
independently.
Answer
is
B
95) Child
with
autoantibodies..
Chances
of
getting
DM
type
1?
A) 40
%
B) 60
%
C) 80
%
D) 100
%
Source:
http://diabetes.diabetesjournals.org/content/54/suppl_2/S52
in
the
large
U.S.
study,
the
Diabetes
Prevention
Trial
(DPT-‐1),
four
autoantibodies
(ICA,
IAA,
GAD65Ab,
and
IA-‐2Ab)
were
analyzed
to
assess
the
risk
for
developing
diabetes;
98%
of
first-‐degree
relatives
who
went
on
to
develop
type
1
diabetes
had
one
or
more
autoantibodies,
and
80%
had
two
or
more
autoantibodies.
Individuals
with
two
or
more
positive
biochemical
autoantibodies
had
a
68%
5-‐year
risk
for
developing
type
1
diabetes,
and
those
with
all
three
biochemical
antibodies
had
an
estimated
100%
5-‐year
risk
96) Child
with
fever
and
productive
cough
and
diarrhea
5
times
a
day.
Now,
tolerating
oral
rehydration?
A) Hospitalize
B) Augmentin
and
discharge
C) Stool
analysis
and
culture
97) Which
of
the
following
vaccines
is
contraindicated
in
a
child
with
progressive
neurological
problems?
A) Pneumococcal
conjugate
vaccine
B) Hib
vaccine
C) Dtap
D) Varicella
Answer
is
C
Source:
https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/hcp/acip-‐recs/general-‐recs/contraindications.html
DTaP
Contraindications:
1) Severe
allergic
reaction
(e.g.,
anaphylaxis)
after
a
previous
dose
or
to
a
vaccine
component
2) Encephalopathy
(e.g.,
coma,
decreased
level
of
consciousness,
prolonged
seizures),
not
Precautions:
1) Progressive
neurologic
disorder,
including
infantile
spasms,
uncontrolled
epilepsy,
progressive
encephalopathy;
defer
DTaP
until
neurologic
status
clarified
and
stabilized
2) Temperature
of
≥105°F
(≥40.5°C)
within
48
hours
after
vaccination
with
a
previous
dose
of
DTP
or DTaP
3) Collapse or shock-‐like state (i.e., hypotonic hyporesponsive episode) within 48 hours after
5) Persistent, inconsolable crying lasting ≥3 hours within 48 hours after receiving a previous dose of
DTP/DTaP
98) A
6
year
old
came
to
your
clinic
with
no
vaccine
history
except
bgg
(I
never
read
this
vaccine
except
in
this
question
in
exam).
What
is
the
appropriate
vaccination
for
him
on
his
first
clinic
visit?
(time
of
clinic
visit
not
mentioned.
Means
now
or
before
when
he
was
infant???
To
catch
up??
Or
to
give
6
years
vaccines?)
A) MMR
OPV
Varicella
DTap
-‐-‐-‐
6
yrs
vaccines
B) MMR
OPV
HiB
C) MMR
OPV
Hib
HBV
99) Child
with
multiple
infections:
viral,
fungal
and
bacterial.
He
has
a
defect
in
Cd4?
A) Ada
deficiency
Adenosine
deaminase
deficiency
(also
called
ADA
deficiency
or
ADA-‐SCID[1])
is
an
autosomal
recessive[2]metabolic
disorder
that
causes
immunodeficiency.
It
occurs
in
fewer
than
one
in
100,000
live
births
worldwide.
It
accounts
for
about
15%
of
all
cases
of
severe
combined
immunodeficiency
(SCID).[3]
ADA
deficiency
may
be
present
in
infancy,
childhood,
adolescence,
or
adulthood
……..
1)
Child
with
a
history
of
fall
without
losing
consciousness.
He
vomited
twice
and
is
crying
and
complaining
of
a
headache.
What
should
you
do?
A)
CT
B)
Close
observe
Answer:
A
Indications
for
CT
scanning
in
a
patient
with
a
head
injury
include
anisocoria,
GCS
score
less
than
12
(some
studies
suggest
CT
scanning
in
any
pediatric
patient
with
a
GCS
score
of
<
15),
posttraumatic
seizures,
amnesia,
progressive
headache,
an
unreliable
history
or
examination
because
of
possible
alcohol
or
drug
ingestion,
loss
of
consciousness
for
longer
than
5
minutes,
physical
signs
of
basilar
skull
fracture,
repeated
vomiting
or
vomiting
for
more
than
8
hours
after
injury,
and
instability
after
multiple
trauma.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/907273-‐workup#c8
2)
An
18
month
old
female
baby
with
anemia.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
INCOMPLETE
A)
Homozygous
b
thalassemia
B)
Homozygous
a
thalassemia
C)
Carrier
of
a
thalassemia
Answer:
-‐
Alpha
thalassemia
silent
carrier:
Patients
are
likely
to
be
asymptomatic
and
hematologically
normal.
-‐
Alpha-‐thalassemia
major
or
homozygous
alpha(0)
thalassemia:
Hemoglobin
Bart
hydrops
fetalis
syndrome
is
typically
caused
when
all
4
alpha-‐globin
genes
are
deleted.
-‐
Beta-‐thalassemia
minor
(commonly
referred
to
as
beta-‐thalassemia
trait):
usually
asymptomatic;
the
mild
microcytic
anemia
is
often
misdiagnosed
as
iron
deficiency
anemia.
-‐
Beta-‐thalassemia
intermedia:
usually
a
similar
presentation
to
beta-‐thalassemia
major
but
as
a
toddler
or
older
child;
symptoms
are
usually
less
pronounced
and
the
course
is
usually
more
insidious.
-‐
Beta-‐thalassemia
major
(also
called
Cooley's
anemia):
complete
absence
of
hemoglobin
A;
often
presents
at
a
few
months
of
age
with
progressive
pallor
and
abdominal
distension;
perinatal
history
is
most
often
uneventful,
and
the
infant
may
be
pale,
possibly
with
poor
feeding
and
decreased
activity;
hepatosplenomegaly
and
bony
abnormalities
are
often
present
at
presentation,
most
often
of
the
skull
(frontal
and
parietal
bossing,
and
chipmunk
facies).
BUT
(A)
is
closer
because
approx.
after
18
months
HbF
production
reduces
and
HbA
cannot
be
produced.
Reference:
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/251.html
3)
Before
giving
influenza
vaccine
you
have
to
ask
if
the
child
has
an
allergy
from
which
of
the
following
substances?
A)
Egg
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://www.cdc.gov/flu/professionals/vaccination/vax-‐summary.htm
4)
A
child
with
barking
cough
only.
No
fever
or
shortness
of
breath.
Vitals
are
normal.
What’s
your
management?
A)
Moist
oxygen
B)
Nebulizer
racemic
acid
C)
Antibiotics
Answer:
A.
Cool
mist
from
a
humidifier
and/or
sitting
with
the
child
in
a
bathroom
filled
with
steam
generated
by
running
hot
water
from
the
shower,
help
minimize
symptoms.
Reference:https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/962972-‐treatment
5)
A
patient
with
hematuria
and
upon
examination,
he
has
aniridia
(absence
of
the
iris).
What’s
the
diagnosis?
A)
Wilms
tumor
B)
Neuroblastoma
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/989329-‐overview
6)
A
child
came
with
abdominal
mass.
Imaging
showed
renal
tumor.
The
patient
has
absent
iris.
What
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
A)
Wilms's
tumor
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/989329-‐overview
7)
Pediatric
patient
known
case
of
acute
lymphoblastic
leukemia
(ALL),
presented
to
the
ER
with
fever
and
pancytopenia
(lab
results
were
provided).
What
is
your
action?
A)
Blood
transfusion
B)
Refer
to
oncology
C)
Start
Antibiotics
Answer:
C
8)
Most
common
presentation
of
congenital
heart
disease?
A)
JVD
B)
Difficulty
feeding
C)
Ascites
Answer:
the
most
common
presentation
of
congenital
heart
disease
is
with
a
heart
murmur.
Reference:
Illustrated
textbook
of
pediatrics
9)
Which
of
the
following
congenital
heart
defects
is
associated
with
Down
syndrome?
A)
Endocardial
cushion
defects
such
as
AVSD
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/943216-‐clinical#b2
10)
A
child
with
foul
smelling
breath
and
seed
like
structures
coming
out
of
the
mouth.
He
is
also
a
mouth
breather.
No
history
of
fever.
What’s
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
A)
Pulmonary
disease
B)
Focal
tonsillitis
Answer:
B.
Individuals
with
acute
tonsillitis
present
with
fever,
sore
throat,
foul
breath,
dysphagia,
odynophagia,
and
tender
cervical
lymph
nodes.
Airway
obstruction
may
manifest
as
mouth
breathing,
snoring,
sleep-‐disordered
breathing,
nocturnal
breathing
pauses,
or
sleep
apnea.
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/871977-‐clinical
11)
A
2-‐year
child
came
to
the
clinic
with
his
mother.
He
scribbles
circles,
runs
around
and
climbs
onto
the
chair,
plays
with
his
friends
but
does
not
share
his
toys.
He
speaks
10
words.
He
names
the
picture
you
point
to.
What
is
the
best
thing
to
tell
his
mom?
A)
He
is
normal
B)
Delayed
social
development
C)
Delayed
language
development
Answer:
A.
He
is
normal
since
sharing
toys
and
cooperative
play
only
starts
at
4
years
of
age.
Reference:
Toronto
notes
12)
6
month
old
baby
presented
with
jaundice,
seizure,
irritability
and
vomiting.
He
has
been
breast-‐fed
during
his
first
3
months
of
life,
then
he
has
been
started
on
commercially
available
milk
formula.
More
recently,
his
mother
introduced
fruit
juices
into
his
diet.
Investigations
revealed
positive
urine
reducing
substances.
What
element
should
avoided
in
his
diet?
A)
Galactose.
B)
Fructose.
C)
Phenylalanine.
D)
Irrelevant
choice.
Answer:
B
13)
4
year
old
child
brought
by
his
parents
to
pediatric
outpatient
clinic
with
them
complaining
of
his
massive
uncontrolled
appetite
during
the
last
18
months.
Weight
was
above
95th
percentile,
while
height
was
below
5th
percentile.
Mother
reported
that
her
son
was
failing
to
thrive
during
his
first
two
years,
beside
the
fact
that
he
was
developmentally
delayed
compared
to
his
siblings
until
he
caught
up
late.
O/E
he
had
a
high
forehead,
broad
nose,
small
peripheries
(Hands
and
Feet).
What
is
the
cause
behind
his
symptoms?
A)
Genetic.
B)
Metabolic.
C)
Nutritional.
D)
Irrelevant
choice.
Answer:
A
(Prader-‐Willi
syndrome)
Reference:
Medscape
14)
A
5
year
old
boy
presents
with
tender,
swollen
and
painful
testicle.
O/E
there
was
absent
cremasteric
reflex.
Which
of
the
following
is
the
correct
diagnosis?
A)
Epididymo-‐orchitis.
B)
Testicular
torsion.
Answer:
B.
The
most
sensitive
physical
finding
in
testicular
torsion
is
the
absence
of
the
cremasteric
reflex.
Reference:
aafp.org
15)
Pediatric
case
of
Hemolytic
uremic
syndrome:
he
has
petechia,
hematuria
and
proteinuria.
2
weeks
ago,
he
develop
bloody
diarrhea.
The
doctor
prescribed
symptomatic
treatment
and
probiotics.
Platelets
95,
WBC
48.
What’s
your
next
step?
A)
Antibiotic
B)
Platelet
transfusion
C)
Anticoagulant
Answer:
Treatment
of
HUS:
-‐
Avoid
antibiotics
and
platelet
transfusion.
-‐
Good
hydration
with
IV
fluids.
-‐
Blood
transfusion
in
anemic
patients
when
indicated.
-‐
CCB
for
HUS
with
hypertension.
-‐
Dialysis
for
renal
failure.
-‐
Renal
transplant
for
irreversible
failure.
Reference:http://bestpractice.bmj.com/bestpractice/monograph/470/treatment/details.html
16)
Pediatric
patient
has
symptoms
of
epiglottitis
with
stridor
and
distress.
What’s
your
next
step?
A)
Antibiotic
B)
Admit
to
ICU
and
refer
to
ENT
(No
intubation
in
choices)
Answer:
B
Reference:
Medscape
17)
Pediatric
patient
comes
with
congested
pharynx,
tonsils
and
plaques
on
the
tongue,
lips,
and
gingivitis.
No
lesions
on
the
hands
and
feet.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A)
Herpes
simplex
virus
B)
Coxsackie
virus
Answer:
A.
Reference:
https://emedicine.staging.medscape.com/article/218502-‐differential
18)
Scenario:
a
patient
developed
bloody
diarrhea,
abdominal
pain
and
vomiting
after
eating
from
a
restaurant.
History
of
hematuria.
Lab
results
show
anemia.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A)
E.coli
B)
Hemolytic
uremic
syndrome
Answer:
B.
HUS
is
characterized
by
progressive
renal
failure,
microangiopathic
hemolytic
anemia
(MAHA),
and
thrombocytopenia.
In
typical
HUS,
diarrhea
usually
occurs.
Reference:
Medscape
19)
What
is
the
treatment
for
the
above
question?
A)
Steroids
B)
Antibiotics
Answer:
Treatment
of
HUS:
-‐
Maintenance
of
good
hydration
is
important
to
minimize
the
likelihood
of
renal
damage.
Careful
attention
needs
to
be
paid
to
avoid
cardiopulmonary
overload,
especially
because
these
patients
are
at
risk
of
developing
oliguria.
-‐
Avoidance
of
antibiotics,
antimotility
(antidiarrheal)
agents,
opioids,
or
non-‐steroidal
anti-‐
inflammatory
drugs
is
advised.
-‐
Platelet
transfusions
have
been
associated
with
clinical
deterioration
and
should
be
avoided
if
possible.
-‐
For
the
anemia:
blood
transfusion
if
needed.
-‐
For
the
HTN:
CCB
-‐
If
renal
failure
is
present:
dialysis
is
performed
if
clinically
indicated:
signs
and
symptoms
of
uremia,
hyperkalemia
(potassium
>6.5
with
ECG
changes),
persistent
severe
acidosis
(bicarbonate
<10),
hypertension
secondary
to
volume
overload
that
cannot
be
controlled
with
medical
therapy,
and
necessity
for
transfusion
in
patient
with
volume
overload
and/or
oliguria.
-‐
In
irreversible
renal
failure:
renal
transplant.
Reference:http://bestpractice.bmj.com/bestpractice/monograph/470/treatment/details.html
20)
What
age
in
months
can
a
baby
say
a
few
words?
A)
6
months
B)
9
months
C)
12
months
D)
24
months
At
12
months:
the
baby
can
say
2
words
At
24
months:
2-‐3
word
phrases
and
uses
“I,
me,
you”.
Reference:
Toronto
notes
21)
During
delivery
of
a
baby,
there
was
stylomastoid
foramen
trauma.
Which
of
the
following
features
will
be
evident
when
you
examine
this
baby?
A)
Loss
of
eye
close
B)
Loss
of
facial
sensation
C)
Loss
of
mastication
function
Answer:
A
Facial
Palsy
(Bell’s
palsy):
-‐
It
is
usually
due
to
pressure
by
the
forceps
blade
on
the
facial
nerve
at
its
exit
from
the
stylomastoid
foramen
or
in
its
course
over
the
mandibular
ramus.
-‐
It
appears
within
1-‐2
days
after
delivery
due
to
resultant
edema
and
hemorrhage
around
the
nerve.
-‐
Manifestations:
There
is
paresis
of
the
facial
muscles
on
the
affected
side
with
partially
opened
eye
and
flattening
of
the
nasolabial
fold.
The
mouth
angle
is
deviated
towards
the
healthy
side.
Reference:
https://www.gfmer.ch/Obstetrics_simplified/foetal_birth_injuries.htm
22)
Clear
case
about
crohn’s
disease:
a
child
with
abdominal
cramping,
diarrhea...etc.
Endoscopy
shows
skip
lesions
and
transmural
inflammation.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
A)
Crohn’s
disease
B)
Ulcerative
colitis
C)
Celiac
disease
Answer:
A
23)
Similar
case:
child
with
abdominal
pain
and
tenderness,
bloody
diarrhea
and
weight
loss.
(no
labs).
What's
the
diagnosis?
A)
Crohn’s
disease
B)
Celiac
disease
C)
Ulcerative
colitis
Answer:
abdominal
pain
and
weight
loss
go
more
with
crohn’s,
while
the
bloody
diarrhea
is
more
with
UC.
Most
likely,
crohn’s
since
two
of
the
features
in
the
scenario
support
this
diagnosis.
24)
15
month
old
boy
with
meningitis.
What’s
the
best
antibiotic
choice
for
him?
A)
Vancomycin
+
ceftriaxone
B)
Ampicillin
(or
penicillin?)
+
gentamicin
Answer:
A.
In
infants
and
children:
Initial
antibiotic
selection
should
provide
coverage
for
the
3
most
common
pathogens:
S
pneumoniae,
N
meningitidis,
and
H
influenzae.
According
to
the
2004
Infectious
Diseases
Society
of
America
(IDSA)
practice
guidelines
for
bacterial
meningitis,
vancomycin
plus
either
ceftriaxone
or
cefotaxime
is
recommended
for
those
with
suspected
bacterial
meningitis
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/961497-‐treatment#d10
25)
14
year
old
boy
with
swollen
lips.
Deficiency
of
which
of
the
following
causes
his
presentation?
A)
Hereditary
angioedema
B)
Factor
D
C)
Anaphylactic
inhibitor
D)
C1
esterase
inhibitor
Answer:
D
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/135604-‐overview
26)
A
three
year-‐old
girl
presented
to
Emergency
Department
with
fever,
vomiting
and
abdominal
pain
which
began
10
hours
ago.
Radiological
examination
confirmed
a
dilated
intestinal
pouch
attached
to
the
anterior
abdominal
wall.
Her
diagnosis
was
the
persistence
of
a
Meckel’s
diverticulum.
Which
of
the
following
sites
will
the
surgeon
look
for
this
diverticulum?
A)
Lower
Duodenum
B)
Lower
Jejunum
C)
Lower
Ileum
D)
Cecum
Answer:
C
27)
Neonate
presents
with
lethargy,
irritability
and
fever.
Which
of
the
following
is
the
most
likely
causative
organism?
A)
Listeria
monocytogens
B)
Staph
aureus
C)
N.meningitidis
Answer:
A
Reference:
Medscape
28)
A
patient
presents
with
a
cough,
fever,
rhinorrhea,
malaise,
with
conjunctival
suffusion.
There
are
small,
grayish,
irregular
lesions
surrounded
by
an
erythematous
base,
on
the
buccal
mucus
membrane
near
the
second
molar
teeth.
What
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
A)
Measles
B)
Rubella
C)
Parainfluenza
D)
Respiratory
syncytial
infection
Answer:
A
29)
A
baby
with
greasy
scaly
rash
at
the
edge
of
the
forehead
and
over
the
cheeks
not
sparing
the
folds.
Which
of
the
following
is
the
appropriate
treatment?
(Seborrheic
dermatitis)
A)
Muropicin
topical
(antibiotic)
Answer:
Low-‐potency
topical
corticosteroids,
such
as
hydrocortisone,
desonide,
and
mometasone
furoate,
have
shown
to
be
efficacious
on
the
face.
Antifungal
therapies
are
first-‐line
therapies
(Ketoconazole,
naftifine,
or
ciclopirox
creams
and
gels)
are
effective
therapies.
Systemic
fluconazole
may
help
if
seborrheic
dermatitis
is
severe
or
unresponsive.
Combination
therapy
has
been
recommended.
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1108312-‐treatment
30)
How
to
manage
croup?
A)
Nebulized
epinephrine
and
steroid
B)
Inhaled
salbutamol
and
betamethasone
Answer:
A
Reference:
Medscape
31)
Minimum
age
to
give
influenza
vaccine?
A)
3
months
B)
6
months
C)
9
months
D)
12
months
Answer:
B.
Children
younger
than
6
months
of
age
should
not
be
vaccinated.
Reference:
https://www.cdc.gov/flu/professionals/vaccination/vax-‐summary.htm
32)
Which
of
these
patients
will
most
likely
be
diagnosed
with
rheumatic
fever
from
his
symptoms?
A)
Child
with
knee
swelling
and
joint
pain
and
sore
throat.
Answer:
A
…
Part
3
1)
A
3
year
old
with
symptoms
of
DM
since
2
weeks
(weight
loss
of
3
kg,
dysphagia,
and
polyuria.
What
is
the
appropriate
step
to
diagnose
him?
A)
HLA
DR
3
B)
Urine
dipstick
Answer:
B
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/919999-‐workup
2)
Long
scenario
of
a
boy
k/c
of
G6PD.
Came
with
Hb
of
7.
What
will
you
do?
A)
Blood
transfusion
B)
Give
iron
C)
Reassurance
D)
Give
folic
acid
Answer:
-‐
Affected
patients
should
be
encouraged
to
maintain
a
good
fluid
intake
and
to
eat
a
light
diet,
as
nausea
is
common.
-‐
A
haematology
consultation
is
warranted
once
haemolytic
anaemia
is
diagnosed.
-‐
Folic
acid
is
required
to
supply
increased
RBC
production.
-‐
If
severe
anaemia
(haemoglobin
<70
g/L
[<7
g/dL])
with
no
renal
impairment:
blood
transfusion
-‐
If
severe
anaemia
(haemoglobin
<70
g/L
[<7
g/dL])
with
renal
impairment:
blood
transfusion
and
renal
dialysis.
Reference:
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/704/treatment.html
3)
A
mother
comes
with
her
9
year
old
daughter.
She’s
looking
short
and
her
mother
is
also
short.
The
bone
age
is
7
years
and
her
labs:
all
normal
except
insulin
like
growth
hormone
(below
the
normal
range).
What
will
you
do?
A)
Reevaluation
after
1
year
B)
Give
growth
hormone
Answer:
B
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/920446-‐treatment
4)
Scenario
of
a
child
with
recurrent
chest
infections
and
sinusitis.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
A)
Cystic
fibrosis
B)
Primary
ciliary
dyskinesia
Answer:
According
to
BMJ
best
practice
Primary
ciliary
dyskinesia
Usually
not
associated
with
pancreatic
insufficiency;
chronic
purulent
middle
ear
infections,
which
are
less
common
in
children
with
CF.
Reference:http://bestpractice.bmj.com/bestpractice/monograph/403/diagnosis/differen
tial.html
5)
Month-‐old
girl
(I
don’t
remember
how
old
exactly),
found
to
have
meningitis
with
negative
diplococci,
parents
are
also
concerned
about
her
6
year
old
brother.
What
to
give
her
brother?
A)
Oral
rifampicin
B)
Active
immunization
C)
Ampicillin
&
other
antibiotic
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://www.medscape.com/viewarticle/451596_4
6)
A
child
with
history
of
trauma
then
developed
knee
pain
and
swelling
with
tenderness
on
passive
movement.
What’s
the
next
step?
A)
Blood
culture
B)
Empirical
Antibiotics
C)
Knee
x-‐ray
D)
Examination
of
synovial
fluid
Answer:
C
Reference:
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/575/diagnosis/step-‐
by-‐step.html
7)
Which
of
the
following
deficiencies
is
a
contraindication
for
BCG
vaccine?
A)
IL
B)
TNF
C)
INF
gamma
Answer:
C.
IL-‐12
deficiency
causes:
low
INF
gamma,
disseminated
mycobacterial
and
viral
infections.
BCG
is
contraindicated.
Reference:
-‐
https://www.immunodeficiencysearch.com/interferon-‐gamma-‐pathway-‐defects
-‐
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1905729/
8)
Which
of
the
following
is
a
complication
of
mumps?
A)
Encephalitis
B)
Hearing
loss
C)
Facial
palsy
Answer:
both
A
and
B
are
complications
of
mumps.
Reference:
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/1037/follow-‐
up/complications.html
9)
Scenario
of
a
patient
with
sickle
cell
with
a
picture
showing
swollen
foreskin
of
the
head
of
the
penis?
A)
Phimosis
B)
Paraphimosis
C)
Balanitis
D)
Priapism
Answer:
B
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/777539-‐clinical#showall
10)
Tanner
stage
description
in
a
female
(stage
3).
Answer:
breast
begins
to
become
more
elevated,
and
extends
beyond
the
borders
of
the
areola,
which
continues
to
widen
but
remains
in
contour
with
surrounding
breast
(11.5–
13)
Pubic
hair
becomes
more
coarse
and
curly,
and
begins
to
extend
laterally
(11.5–13)
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2020314/
11)
Child
chewing
his
toys,
associated
with
abdominal
pain,
looks
pale
with
high
transferrin.
Peripheral
smear:
anisocytosis,
basophilic
stippling
with
target
cells,
erythroid
hyperplasia
with
maturation
arrest:
A)Hemolytic
anemia
B)Sideroblastic
anemia,
C)IDA
D)
Thalassemia
trait
Answer:
B.
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1389794-‐workup#c7
12)
Stills
disease
Answer:
Still's
disease,
a
disorder
featuring
inflammation,
is
characterized
by
high
spiking
fevers,
salmon-‐colored
rash
that
comes
and
goes,
and
arthritis.
Still's
disease
is
also
referred
to
as
systemic-‐onset
juvenile
idiopathic
arthritis.
Reference:
https://www.medicinenet.com/stills_disease/article.htm
13)
Patient
with
hypotonia,
broad
nose
and
large
forehead,
his
growth
is
...(smaller
than
peers?).
What’s
the
most
likely
cause?
A)
Metabolic
B)
Genetic
Answer:
B.
-‐
The
scenario
is
incomplete
however;
the
description
of
dysmorphic
features
goes
more
with
chromosomal
and
genetic
abnormalities
like
(Pallister-‐Killian
mosaic
syndrome:
characterized
by
severe
hypotonia
in
infancy
and
early
childhood,
intellectual
disability,
distinctive
facial
features,
sparse
hair,
areas
of
unusual
skin
pigmentation,
and
other
birth
defects.
-‐
Pallister-‐Killian
mosaic
syndrome
is
associated
with
a
distinctive
facial
appearance
that
is
often
described
as
"coarse."
Characteristic
facial
features
include
a
high,
rounded
forehead;
a
broad
nasal
bridge;
a
short
nose;
widely
spaced
eyes;
low-‐set
ears;
rounded
cheeks;
and
a
wide
mouth
with
a
thin
upper
lip
and
a
large
tongue.
Reference:
https://ghr.nlm.nih.gov/condition/pallister-‐killian-‐mosaic-‐syndrome
14)
A
patient
with
seizures
on
anti-‐epileptic
treatment.
What
will
u
do
regarding
his
vaccinations?
A)
Give
all
vaccines
B)
Don't
give
live
attenuated
vaccine
C)
Give
all
vaccine
except
DTap
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://www.medscape.com/viewarticle/413688
15)
A
32
week
preterm
baby
stayed
in
incubation
for
2
weeks
then
discharged
with
good
health.
When
to
give
vaccine?
A)
Correct
for
chronological
age.
B)
Give
vaccine
as
scheduled.
C)
Give
vaccine
half
the
dose.
Answer:
B.
Whether
full-‐term
or
preterm,
the
vaccination
schedule
doesn’t
change.
Reference:
https://www.medscape.com/viewarticle/775544_1
16)
Absence
of
moro
reflex
on
the
right
side
of
the
infant
is
due
to?
A)
Intracranial
hemorrhage.
B)
Neonatal
hypoglycemia.
C)
Neonatal
sepsis.
D)
Erb’s
palsy.
Answer:
D
Reference:
-‐
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/746/diagnosis/history-‐and-‐
examination.html
-‐
https://medlineplus.gov/ency/article/003293.htm
17)
Child
with
DM
type
1.
What's
the
mechanism
of
action
of
the
disease?
A)
Triglyceride
uptake
B)
Liver
increase
of
fatty
acid
Answer:
18)
A
long
case
with
barking
cough
that
comes
only
at
night
and
resolves.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
19)
A
baby
has
a
hemangioma.
When’s
the
best
time
to
resect
it?
A)
1
day
B)
1
week
C)
3
months
D)
6
months
20)
A
baby
fell
from
the
stairs.
He
presented
with
multiple
lacerations
of
different
degrees
and
a
fracture.
What’s
your
next
step?
A)
Refer
to
orthopedics
B)
Call
a
social
worker
21)
Child
woke
up
from
a
nightmare
screaming
and
crying.
Parents
asked
the
child
and
he
doesn’t
remember
anything
what
sleep
stage?
A)
1
B)
2
C)
3
D)
4
Answer:
C
or
D.
These
slow
wave
sleep
parasomnias
include
confusional
arousals,
night
terrors
(pavornocturnus),
and
sleepwalking
(somnambulism).
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1140322-‐overview#a4
22)
3-‐year-‐old
child
presenting
with
high
fever
for
the
last
2
days,
vomiting,
refusal
to
eat
and
red
ears.
Which
of
the
following
will
help
you
find
the
diagnosis?
A)
CSF
analysis
B)
Blood
culture
C)
Urine
culture
23)
A
mother
brought
her
child
saying
that
he’s
always
sucking
his
thumb
and
when
she
asks
him
to
stop,
he
doesn’t.
What
are
you
going
to
do?
A)
Ignore
him
24)
Long
scenario:
18
month
old
baby
presents
with
irritation
and....,
he
was
drinking
breast
milk
till
the
age
of
9
months.
Then,
he
was
switched
to
cow’s
milk
around
one
liter
daily.
The
mother
noticed
bad
smelling
stool
for
3
days
with
change
in
consistency.
The
baby
looks
pale.
Labs
were
provided
and
show
low
Hb.
What
is
the
cause
of
the
child’s
symptoms?
A)
Cow
milk
allergy
B)
Gastrointestinal
infection?
Answer:
25)
When
to
screen
for
congenital
hypothyroidism?
A)
At
birth
by
cord
blood
B)
After
1
week
C)
After
1
month
D)
After
6
months
Answer:
updated
AAP
Guidelines
on
Newborn
Screening
and
Therapy
for
Congenital
Hypothyroidism
recommend
the
screening
of
all
infants
should
be
performed
between
two
and
four
days
of
birth.
If
this
is
not
possible,
testing
should
be
performed
before
discharge
or
within
seven
days
of
birth.
26)
24
Year
old
mother
had
a
child
with
suspected
Down
syndrome;
she's
asking
if
there
is
a
chance
of
another
child
to
have
this
disease.
What
test
will
you
order
to
help?
A)
Karyotyping
of
child.
B)
Karyotype
both
the
mother
and
child
Answer:
Most
probably
A,
because
you
have
to
karyotype
the
child
first,
then
you
karyotype
both
parents
depending
on
the
results.
The
extra
chromosome
21
may
result
from
meiotic
disjunction,
translocation
or
mosaicism.
So,
if
the
karyotype
of
the
child
shows:
1)
Meiotic
disjunction:
no
need
to
karyotype
parents
and
the
incidence
of
trisomy
21
is
related
to
maternal
age.
2)
Robertsonian
translocation:
Both
parents
should
be
tested.
If
the
mother
is
the
carrier,
the
risk
is
10-‐15%,
and
if
the
father
is
the
carrier
the
risk
is
2.5%.
If
one
of
the
parents
carries
the
rare
21:21
translocation,
then
all
children
will
have
Down
syndrome.
If
none
of
the
parents
are
carry
the
translocation,
the
risk
is
<1%.
Reference:
illustrated
textbook
of
pediatrics
27)
A
child
swallowed
safety
pins.
Abdominal
x-‐ray
revealed
multiple
pins
in
the
intestines.
What
are
you
going
to
do?
A)
Admit
for
observation
&
repeat
x-‐ray
B)
Discharge
C)
Exploratory
laparotomy
Answer:
A.
Objects
with
sharp
edges
or
points
present
a
special
problem
because
of
the
possibility
for
erosion
or
perforation.
These
include
pins,
needles,
tacks,
razor
blades,
pieces
of
glass,
or
open
safety
pins.
Children
who
have
swallowed
such
objects
should
be
vigilantly
observed.
Esophageal
impaction
demands
surgical
removal;
however,
many
of
these
objects
also
pass
through
the
GI
tract
without
incident
once
they
are
past
the
gastroesophageal
junction.
Obtain
a
daily
radiograph
(for
radiopaque
objects)
and
monitor
closely
for
signs
of
peritonitis
or
GI
bleeding.
In
these
cases,
stools
are
examined
for
the
foreign
body
in
question.
GI
hemorrhage
or
signs
of
peritonitis
mandate
surgical
exploration
and
removal
of
the
object.
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/933015-‐treatment
28)
A
child
with
drug
overdose
(they
didn't
mention
the
drug).
What's
the
management?
A)
Activate
charcoal
29)
A
baby
(I
am
not
sure
about
the
age)
did
not
take
vaccines.
Presented
with
seizure.
Lab:
high
Ca.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
A)
Neonate
tetanus
30)
A
mother
came
with
her
boy
for
6
month
vaccine,
she
mentioned
that
he
developed
anaphylaxis
after
the
4
month
vaccines
&
needed
hospital
admission.
Which
of
the
following
is
appropriate?
A)
Defer
all
vaccines
B)
Defer
DTP
vaccine
only
C)
Do
allergy
test
D)
Give
all
vaccines
&
observe
for
1
hour
Answer:
C.
Reference:https://www.uptodate.com/contents/image?imageKey=ALLRG%2F81252&topicKey=ALLRG
%2F2074&source=see_link
31)
Child
presented
with
heaves
on
examination.
ECG
shows
RBBB.
On
ECHO:
right
ventricle
motion
abnormality
and
right
ventricle
hypertrophy.
What
is
the
most
likely
cause?
A)
Mitral
prolapse
B)
ASD
C)
VSD
D)
Coarctation
of
aorta
Answer:
B.
-‐
Patients
may
have
a
hyperdynamic
right
ventricular
impulse
by
palpation,
especially
in
older
children
and
adults
with
a
large
left-‐to-‐right
shunt.
-‐
ECG
shows
normal
or
tall
p
waves
indicating
RA
enlargement
or
R-‐wave
voltages
in
lead
V1
greater
than
the
upper
limit
of
normal
for
age,
suggesting
right
ventricular
hypertrophy,
may
be
present
in
larger
defects.
-‐
Two-‐dimensional
echocardiography
demonstrates
right
atrial
and
ventricular
enlargement,
as
well
as
the
defect
itself,
especially
for
secundum-‐type
defects.
Reference:http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/1099/diagnosis/step-‐by-‐
step.html
32)
Child
with
a
history
of
fall
without
losing
consciousness.
He
vomited
twice
and
is
crying
and
complaining
of
a
headache.
What
should
you
do?
A)
CT
B)
Close
observe
Answer:
A
Indications
for
CT
scanning
in
a
patient
with
a
head
injury
include
anisocoria,
GCS
score
less
than
12
(some
studies
suggest
CT
scanning
in
any
pediatric
patient
with
a
GCS
score
of
<
15),
posttraumatic
seizures,
amnesia,
progressive
headache,
an
unreliable
history
or
examination
because
of
possible
alcohol
or
drug
ingestion,
loss
of
consciousness
for
longer
than
5
minutes,
physical
signs
of
basilar
skull
fracture,
repeated
vomiting
or
vomiting
for
more
than
8
hours
after
injury,
and
instability
after
multiple
trauma.
Reference:https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/907273-‐workup#c8
33)
An
18
month
old
female
baby
with
anemia.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
INCOMPLETE
A)
Homozygous
b
thalassemia
B)
Homozygous
a
thalassemia
C)
Carrier
of
a
thalassemia
Answer:
-‐
Alpha
thalassemia
silent
carrier:
Patients
are
likely
to
be
asymptomatic
and
hematologically
normal.
-‐
Alpha-‐thalassemia
major
or
homozygous
alpha(0)
thalassemia:
Hemoglobin
Bart
hydrops
fetalis
syndrome
is
typically
caused
when
all
4
alpha-‐globin
genes
are
deleted.
-‐
Beta-‐thalassemia
minor
(commonly
referred
to
as
beta-‐thalassemia
trait):
usually
asymptomatic;
the
mild
microcytic
anemia
is
often
misdiagnosed
as
iron
deficiency
anemia.
-‐
Beta-‐thalassemia
intermedia:
usually
a
similar
presentation
to
beta-‐thalassemia
major
but
as
a
toddler
or
older
child;
symptoms
are
usually
less
pronounced
and
the
course
is
usually
more
insidious.
-‐
Beta-‐thalassemia
major
(also
called
Cooley's
anemia):
complete
absence
of
hemoglobin
A;
often
presents
at
a
few
months
of
age
with
progressive
pallor
and
abdominal
distension;
perinatal
history
is
most
often
uneventful,
and
the
infant
may
be
pale,
possibly
with
poor
feeding
and
decreased
activity;
hepatosplenomegaly
and
bony
abnormalities
are
often
present
at
presentation,
most
often
of
the
skull
(frontal
and
parietal
bossing,
and
chipmunk
facies).
BUT
(A)
is
closer
because
approx.
after
18
months
HbF
production
reduces
and
HbA
cannot
be
produced.
Reference:
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/251.html
34)
Before
giving
influenza
vaccine
you
have
to
ask
if
the
child
has
an
allergy
from
which
of
the
following
substances?
A)
Egg
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://www.cdc.gov/flu/professionals/vaccination/vax-‐summary.htm
35)
A
child
with
barking
cough
only.
No
fever
or
shortness
of
breath.
Vitals
are
normal.
What’s
your
management?
A)
Moist
oxygen
B)
Nebulizer
racemic
acid
C)
Antibiotics
Answer:
A.
Cool
mist
from
a
humidifier
and/or
sitting
with
the
child
in
a
bathroom
filled
with
steam
generated
by
running
hot
water
from
the
shower,
help
minimize
symptoms.
Reference:https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/962972-‐treatment
36)
A
patient
with
hematuria
and
upon
examination,
he
has
aniridia
(absence
of
the
iris).
What’s
the
diagnosis?
A)
Wilms
tumor
B)
Neuroblastoma
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/989329-‐overview
37)
A
child
came
with
abdominal
mass.
Imaging
showed
renal
tumor.
The
patient
has
absent
iris.
What
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
A)
Wilms's
tumor
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/989329-‐overview
38)
Pediatric
patient
known
case
of
acute
lymphoblastic
leukemia
(ALL),
presented
to
the
ER
with
fever
and
pancytopenia
(lab
results
were
provided).
What
is
your
action?
A)
Blood
transfusion
B)
Refer
to
oncology
C)
Start
Antibiotics
Answer:
C
Reference:
BMJ
39)
Most
common
presentation
of
congenital
heart
disease?
A)
JVD
B)
Difficulty
feeding
C)
Ascites
Answer:
the
most
common
presentation
of
congenital
heart
disease
is
with
a
heart
murmur.
Reference:
Illustrated
textbook
of
pediatrics
40)
Which
of
the
following
congenital
heart
defects
is
associated
with
Down
syndrome?
A)
Endocardial
cushion
defects
such
as
AVSD
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/943216-‐clinical#b2
41)
A
child
with
foul
smelling
breath
and
seed
like
structures
coming
out
of
the
mouth.
He
is
also
a
mouth
breather.
No
history
of
fever.
What’s
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
A)
Pulmonary
disease
B)
Focal
tonsillitis
Answer:
B.
Individuals
with
acute
tonsillitis
present
with
fever,
sore
throat,
foul
breath,
dysphagia,
odynophagia,
and
tender
cervical
lymph
nodes.
Airway
obstruction
may
manifest
as
mouth
breathing,
snoring,
sleep-‐disordered
breathing,
nocturnal
breathing
pauses,
or
sleep
apnea.
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/871977-‐clinical
42)
A
2-‐year
child
came
to
the
clinic
with
his
mother.
He
scribbles
circles,
runs
around
and
climbs
onto
the
chair,
plays
with
his
friends
but
does
not
share
his
toys.
He
speaks
10
words.
He
names
the
picture
you
point
to.
What
is
the
best
thing
to
tell
his
mom?
A)
He
is
normal
B)
Delayed
social
development
C)
Delayed
language
development
Answer:
A.
He
is
normal
since
sharing
toys
and
cooperative
play
only
starts
at
4
years
of
age.
Reference:
Toronto
notes
43)
6
month
old
baby
presented
with
jaundice,
seizure,
irritability
and
vomiting.
He
has
been
breast-‐fed
during
his
first
3
months
of
life,
then
he
has
been
started
on
commercially
available
milk
formula.
More
recently,
his
mother
introduced
fruit
juices
into
his
diet.
Investigations
revealed
positive
urine
reducing
substances.
What
element
should
avoided
in
his
diet?
A)
Galactose.
B)
Fructose.
C)
Phenylalanine.
D)
Irrelevant
choice.
Answer:
B
44)
4
year
old
child
brought
by
his
parents
to
pediatric
outpatient
clinic
with
them
complaining
of
his
massive
uncontrolled
appetite
during
the
last
18
months.
Weight
was
above
95th
percentile,
while
height
was
below
5th
percentile.
Mother
reported
that
her
son
was
failing
to
thrive
during
his
first
two
years,
beside
the
fact
that
he
was
developmentally
delayed
compared
to
his
siblings
until
he
caught
up
late.
O/E
he
had
a
high
forehead,
broad
nose,
small
peripheries
(Hands
and
Feet).
What
is
the
cause
behind
his
symptoms?
A)
Genetic.
B)
Metabolic.
C)
Nutritional.
D)
Irrelevant
choice.
Answer:
A
(Prader-‐Willi
syndrome)
Reference:
Medscape
45)
A
5
year
old
boy
presents
with
tender,
swollen
and
painful
testicle.
O/E
there
was
absent
cremasteric
reflex.
Which
of
the
following
is
the
correct
diagnosis?
A)
Epididymo-‐orchitis.
B)
Testicular
torsion.
Answer:
B.
The
most
sensitive
physical
finding
in
testicular
torsion
is
the
absence
of
the
cremasteric
reflex.
Reference:
aafp.org
46)
Pediatric
case
of
Hemolytic
uremic
syndrome:
he
has
petechia,
hematuria
and
proteinuria.
2
weeks
ago,
he
develop
bloody
diarrhea.
The
doctor
prescribed
symptomatic
treatment
and
probiotics.
Platelets
95,
WBC
48.
What’s
your
next
step?
A)
Antibiotic
B)
Platelet
transfusion
C)
Anticoagulant
Answer:
Treatment
of
HUS:
-‐
Avoid
antibiotics
and
platelet
transfusion.
-‐
Good
hydration
with
IV
fluids.
-‐
Blood
transfusion
in
anemic
patients
when
indicated.
-‐
CCB
for
HUS
with
hypertension.
-‐
Dialysis
for
renal
failure.
-‐
Renal
transplant
for
irreversible
failure.
Reference:http://bestpractice.bmj.com/bestpractice/monograph/470/treatment/details.
html
47)
Pediatric
patient
has
symptoms
of
epiglottitis
with
stridor
and
distress.
What’s
your
next
step?
A)
Antibiotic
B)
Admit
to
ICU
and
refer
to
ENT
(No
intubation
in
choices)
Answer:
B
Reference:
Medscape
48)
Pediatric
patient
comes
with
congested
pharynx,
tonsils
and
plaques
on
the
tongue,
lips,
and
gingivitis.
No
lesions
on
the
hands
and
feet.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A)
Herpes
simplex
virus
B)
Coxsackie
virus
Answer:
A.
Reference:
https://emedicine.staging.medscape.com/article/218502-‐differential
49)
Scenario:
a
patient
developed
bloody
diarrhea,
abdominal
pain
and
vomiting
after
eating
from
a
restaurant.
History
of
hematuria.
Lab
results
show
anemia.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A)
E.coli
B)
Hemolytic
uremic
syndrome
Answer:
B.
HUS
is
characterized
by
progressive
renal
failure,
microangiopathic
hemolytic
anemia
(MAHA),
and
thrombocytopenia.
In
typical
HUS,
diarrhea
usually
occurs.
Reference:
Medscape
50)
What
is
the
treatment
for
the
above
question?
A)
Steroids
B)
Antibiotics
Answer:
Treatment
of
HUS:
-‐
Maintenance
of
good
hydration
is
important
to
minimize
the
likelihood
of
renal
damage.
Careful
attention
needs
to
be
paid
to
avoid
cardiopulmonary
overload,
especially
because
these
patients
are
at
risk
of
developing
oliguria.
-‐
Avoidance
of
antibiotics,
antimotility
(antidiarrheal)
agents,
opioids,
or
non-‐steroidal
anti-‐inflammatory
drugs
is
advised.
-‐
Platelet
transfusions
have
been
associated
with
clinical
deterioration
and
should
be
avoided
if
possible.
-‐
For
the
anemia:
blood
transfusion
if
needed.
-‐
For
the
HTN:
CCB
-‐
If
renal
failure
is
present:
dialysis
is
performed
if
clinically
indicated:
signs
and
symptoms
of
uremia,
hyperkalemia
(potassium
>6.5
with
ECG
changes),
persistent
severe
acidosis
(bicarbonate
<10),
hypertension
secondary
to
volume
overload
that
cannot
be
controlled
with
medical
therapy,
and
necessity
for
transfusion
in
patient
with
volume
overload
and/or
oliguria.
-‐
In
irreversible
renal
failure:
renal
transplant.
Reference:http://bestpractice.bmj.com/bestpractice/monograph/470/treatment/details.
html
51)
What
age
in
months
can
a
baby
say
a
few
words?
A)
6
months
B)
9
months
C)
12
months
D)
24
months
At
12
months:
the
baby
can
say
2
words
At
24
months:
2-‐3
word
phrases
and
uses
“I,
me,
you”.
Reference:
Toronto
notes
52)
During
delivery
of
a
baby,
there
was
stylomastoid
foramen
trauma.
Which
of
the
following
features
will
be
evident
when
you
examine
this
baby?
A)
Loss
of
eye
close
B)
Loss
of
facial
sensation
C)
Loss
of
mastication
function
Answer:
A
Facial
Palsy
(Bell’s
palsy):
-‐
It
is
usually
due
to
pressure
by
the
forceps
blade
on
the
facial
nerve
at
its
exit
from
the
stylomastoid
foramen
or
in
its
course
over
the
mandibular
ramus.
-‐
It
appears
within
1-‐2
days
after
delivery
due
to
resultant
edema
and
hemorrhage
around
the
nerve.
-‐
Manifestations:
There
is
paresis
of
the
facial
muscles
on
the
affected
side
with
partially
opened
eye
and
flattening
of
the
nasolabial
fold.
The
mouth
angle
is
deviated
towards
the
healthy
side.
Reference:
https://www.gfmer.ch/Obstetrics_simplified/foetal_birth_injuries.htm
53)
Clear
case
about
crohn’s
disease:
a
child
with
abdominal
cramping,
diarrhea...etc.
Endoscopy
shows
skip
lesions
and
transmural
inflammation.
What’s
the
diagnosis?
A)
Crohn’s
disease
B)
Ulcerative
colitis
C)
Celiac
disease
Answer:
A
54)
Similar
case:
child
with
abdominal
pain
and
tenderness,
bloody
diarrhea
and
weight
loss.
(no
labs).
What's
the
diagnosis?
A)
Crohn’s
disease
B)
Celiac
disease
C)
Ulcerative
colitis
Answer:
abdominal
pain
and
weight
loss
go
more
with
crohn’s,
while
the
bloody
diarrhea
is
more
with
UC.
Most
likely,
crohn’s
since
two
of
the
features
in
the
scenario
support
this
diagnosis.
55)
15
month
old
boy
with
meningitis.
What’s
the
best
antibiotic
choice
for
him?
A)
Vancomycin
+
ceftriaxone
B)
Ampicillin
(or
penicillin?)
+
gentamicin
Answer:
A.
In
infants
and
children:
Initial
antibiotic
selection
should
provide
coverage
for
the
3
most
common
pathogens:
S
pneumoniae,
N
meningitidis,
and
H
influenzae.
According
to
the
2004
Infectious
Diseases
Society
of
America
(IDSA)
practice
guidelines
for
bacterial
meningitis,
vancomycin
plus
either
ceftriaxone
or
cefotaxime
is
recommended
for
those
with
suspected
bacterial
meningitis
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/961497-‐treatment#d10
56)
14
year
old
boy
with
swollen
lips.
Deficiency
of
which
of
the
following
causes
his
presentation?
A)
Hereditary
angioedema
B)
Factor
D
C)
Anaphylactic
inhibitor
D)
C1
esterase
inhibitor
Answer:
D
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/135604-‐overview
57)
A
three
year-‐old
girl
presented
to
Emergency
Department
with
fever,
vomiting
and
abdominal
pain
which
began
10
hours
ago.
Radiological
examination
confirmed
a
dilated
intestinal
pouch
attached
to
the
anterior
abdominal
wall.
Her
diagnosis
was
the
persistence
of
a
Meckel’s
diverticulum.
Which
of
the
following
sites
will
the
surgeon
look
for
this
diverticulum?
A)
Lower
Duodenum
B)
Lower
Jejunum
C)
Lower
Ileum
D)
Cecum
Answer:
C
58)
Neonate
presents
with
lethargy,
irritability
and
fever.
Which
of
the
following
is
the
most
likely
causative
organism?
A)
Listeria
monocytogens
B)
Staph
aureus
C)
N.meningitidis
Answer:
A
Reference:
Medscape
59)
A
patient
presents
with
a
cough,
fever,
rhinorrhea,
malaise,
with
conjunctival
suffusion.
There
are
small,
grayish,
irregular
lesions
surrounded
by
an
erythematous
base,
on
the
buccal
mucus
membrane
near
the
second
molar
teeth.
What
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
A)
Measles
B)
Rubella
C)
Parainfluenza
D)
Respiratory
syncytial
infection
Answer:
A
60)
A
baby
with
greasy
scaly
rash
at
the
edge
of
the
forehead
and
over
the
cheeks
not
sparing
the
folds.
Which
of
the
following
is
the
appropriate
treatment?
(Seborrheic
dermatitis)
A)
Muropicin
topical
(antibiotic)
Answer:
Low-‐potency
topical
corticosteroids,
such
as
hydrocortisone,
desonide,
and
mometasone
furoate,
have
shown
to
be
efficacious
on
the
face.
Antifungal
therapies
are
first-‐line
therapies
(Ketoconazole,
naftifine,
or
ciclopirox
creams
and
gels)
are
effective
therapies.
Systemic
fluconazole
may
help
if
seborrheic
dermatitis
is
severe
or
unresponsive.
Combination
therapy
has
been
recommended.
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1108312-‐treatment
61)
How
to
manage
croup?
A)
Nebulized
epinephrine
and
steroid
B)
Inhaled
salbutamol
and
betamethasone
Answer:
A
Reference:
Medscape
62)
Minimum
age
to
give
influenza
vaccine?
A)
3
months
B)
6
months
C)
9
months
D)
12
months
Answer:
B.
Children
younger
than
6
months
of
age
should
not
be
vaccinated.
Reference:
https://www.cdc.gov/flu/professionals/vaccination/vax-‐summary.htm
63)
Which
of
these
patients
will
most
likely
be
diagnosed
with
rheumatic
fever
from
his
symptoms?
A)
Child
with
knee
swelling
and
joint
pain
and
sore
throat.
Answer:
depends
on
the
other
choices,
but
most
likely
A.
Reference:
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐
practice/monograph/404/diagnosis/history-‐and-‐examination.html
64)
Child
with
hip
pain,
x-‐ray
was
normal
but
US
showed
fluid.
Labs
revealed:
high
ESR
and
CRP,
otherwise
normal.
What
to
do?
A)
MRI
B)
CT
hip
and
pelvis.
C)
Aspiration
Answer:
most
likely
C
65)
18
month
old
child
took
Hib,
MMRV,
and
...
vaccine
one
week
ago.
He
came
for
HAV
but
was
not
available.
When
to
give
HAV?
A)
Immediately
B)
After
1
week
C)
After
3
weeks
D)
After
7
weeks
Answer:
most
likely
A
66)
4
month
old
child
came
for
vaccination
he
has
a
2
day
history
of
watery
diarrhea,
abdominal
pain
and
vomiting.
What
are
you
going
to
do
regarding
his
vaccination?
A)
Give
all
vaccines
except
DTap
B)
Only
give
hep
B
C)
Give
all
vaccines
except
for
OPV
D)
Defer
all
vaccines
Answer:
most
likely
C
Family Medicine
Notes:
-‐
Drug
for
HTN
reduces
heart
rate
and
peripheral
resistance:
Carvedilol
-‐
Drug
for
HTN
reduced
preload
and
cause
vasodilatation:
ACEI
-‐
Drug
induced
Hyperpigmentation:
amidarone
-‐
Aspirin
SE:
diarrhea
-‐
Bisphosphonate
inhibits
osteoclast
activity:
alendronate
-‐
Bisphosphonate
works
by
ADP
bla
bla:
coldronate,
etodronate
and
toldronate
-‐
Med
for
osteoprosis
causes
heartburn:
risedronate
-‐
analgesia
for
cholecystitis:
Meperidine
-‐
HgF
inducer:
hydroxyurea,
Na
butyrate,
decitibine
and
5-‐azacytidine
-‐
Monitor
high
cholesterol:
every
6
months
-‐
Borderline
HgA1c;
repeat
after
1
year
-‐
Angular
cheilosis:
Vit
b6
-‐
Measles:
10-‐14
D
occupation
-‐
Varicella:
10-‐21
D
-‐
Smoking
withdrawal
peak:
3-‐5
days
-‐
Optha
screening
for
DM:
-‐
type
1
DM:
annually
beginning
5
years
after
onset
of
DM
-‐
Type
2
DM:
annually
beginning
at
time
of
diagnosis
-‐
Breast
self
exam:
monthly
-‐
Mammogram
normal:
repeat
every
2
years
-‐
Most
common
infection
in
saudi
arabia
and
disable
patient
from
work:
HBV
-‐
High
cholesterol
pt,
next
follow:
6
months
-‐
DM
screening:
if
normal
repeat
after
3
years,
if
pre-‐diabetic:
yearly.
-‐
Safe
in
prgenancy:
DTAP,
HBV
and
influenza
-‐
HBV:
HBsAg,
then
HBc
Igm,
then
HBs
antibody
-‐
Treat
water
from
entameba:
boiling
-‐
Cow
milk:
more
in
protein
-‐
Parasite
with
meat:
trichinosis
-‐
CRC
screening
in
UC
patients
starts
8
years
after
the
Diagnosis.
-‐
Burkitt
lymphoma:
BCL2
overexpression,
ki67
positive
in
hitsopathology
-‐
HIV
CD
>200:
can
be
given
MMR
and
varicell
1.
Researcher
want
to
measure
obesity
in
children
he
included
BMI
and
gender.
what
to
add
to
asses
risk
of
obesity?
A.
Girth
measurement
B.
HDL/LDL
ratio
C.
Dietary
habits
D.
Skin
fold
Thickness
Answer:
D
BMI
correlates
with
fat
content
measured
by
skin
fold
thickness.
2.
Pt
every
menstrual
period
has
depression
even
post
menstrual,
these
problem
are
continuous
for
6
month,
on
examination
pt
depressed
>>
Answer:
major
depression
disorders”
and
need
referral
to
psychiatry.
3.
About
secondry
prevention
a)
-‐personal
education
b)
-‐secreening
Answer:
B.
5.
nulliparous
came
to
you
age
53
he
mother
got
breast
cancer
when
she
was
38
what
is
the
most
important
thing
to
check
for
her
abnormal
vaginal
bleeding
?
Answer:
AUB
is
considered
a
very
alarming
in
postmenopausal
and
highly
suggests
endometrial
cancer
which
mandates
full
work
up.
[
Endometrial
cancer
wkx:
sampling
by
biopsy
or
D&C
+
hysteroscopy,
pelvic
ultrasound.
]
All
DDx
in
the
figure
are
important
causes
that
we
need
to
rule
out.
6.
A
man
tested
HIV
+ve.
You
told
him
that
he
should
inform
his
wife
but
he
refused.
What
should
you
do?
A-‐Inform
the
ministry
of
health
B-‐Inform
his
wife
regardless
C-‐Try
to
convince
him
to
tell
her
Answer:
B.
Reference:
https://www.webmd.com/hiv-‐aids/features/talk-‐about-‐hiv-‐positive#1
7.
Best
diagram
used
for
screening
test
?
Answer:
Nomogram.
A
Thorough
search
was
done
without
knowing
the
answer.
8.
Best
way
to
treat
water
against
entamebeoa
histolytica
?
a)
Cholorization
b)
Boiling
Answer:
B.
9.
1st
responsible
for
Bp
regulation
:
A.
heart
B.
aorta
C.
arterioles
D.
capillaries
Answer
:
B
High
BP
in
aorta
and
carotid
sinuses
increase
=>
+
Baroreceptor
=>
CVS
centre
in
the
medulla.
“sympathetic
to
parasympathetic
ratio]
Baroreceptor
reflex:
Baroreceptors
in
the
high
pressure
receptor
zones
detect
changes
in
arterial
pressure. These baroreceptors send signals ultimately to the medulla of the brain stem, specifically
to the rostral ventrolateral medulla (RVLM). The medulla, by way of the autonomic nervous system,
adjusts
the
mean
arterial
pressure
by
altering
both
the
force
and
speed
of
the
heart's
contractions,
as
well
as
the
systemic
vascular
resistance.
The
most
important
arterial
baroreceptors
are
located
in
the left and right carotid sinuses and in the aortic arch
10.
Pic
of
diagram
showing
progress
of
diabetic
nephropathy
(GFR
and
albuminuria)
cases
in
years,
then
ask
about
the
specific
point
of
change
a)
10
year
b)
15
year
c)
20
year
d)
25
year
Answer:
C.
11.
Which
of
these
vitamins
r
involved
in
degeneration
of
spinal
cord
lead
to
sensory
and
motor
manifestation
?
Answer:
Vit
b6,
Vit
b12,
Vit
b1
Vit
E
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1152670-‐overview#a5
12.
which
one
of
the
following
cancers
directly
related
to
smoking:
A-‐
Colon
B-‐
Bladder
C-‐
Testicular
D-‐
Small
cancer.
Answer:
B.
Compared
to
never
smokers,
TCC
risk
was
threefold
higher
in
former
smokers
(95%
CI
2.07-‐4.18)
and
more
than
sixfold
higher
in
current
smokers
(95%
CI
4.54-‐9.85).
TCC
risk
steadily
increased
with
increasing
intensity
(OR
for
≥25
cigarettes/day
8.75;
95%
CI
3.40-‐22.55)
and
duration
of
smoking
(OR
for
≥50
years
5.46;
95%
CI
2.60-‐11.49).
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/24964779
13.
Treatment
of
HBV
(started
since
one
month)
a)
lamivudine
b)
Interferon
Answer:
B.
14.
Dose
of
glucagon
in
IV?
a)
0.1
b)
0.2
c)
1
d)
2
Answer:
C.
In
severe
hypoglycaemia
give
1mg
‘1
unit’
and
repeat
q15min
once
or
twice
and
give
dextrose
as
soon
as
its
available
if
nor
response.
References:
https://reference.medscape.com/drug/glucagen-‐glucagon-‐342712
15.
Reason
to
start
screening
for
cancer?
a)
If
it
can
change
the
natural
history
of
the
disease.
Answer:
A.
no
other
options
are
available.
16.
Evidence
of
screening
for
hyperlipidemia
in
adults
with
no
cardiac
risk
factors
Answer:
not
recommended
if
CHD
do
not
exist.
17.
how
to
monitor
unfractionated
heparin?
a)
aptt
b)
pt
INR
Answer:
A.
The
most
common
methods
for
monitoring
UFH
are
the
activated
partial
thromboplastin
time
(aPTT)
and
antifactor
Xa
heparin
assay
(anti-‐Xa
HA).
References:
https://www.medscape.com/viewarticle/746710
18.
Patient
with
small
cell
cancer
grade
III,
developed
back
pain
in
the
last
24
hours,
something
like
that.
What
to
do?
a)
MRI
b)
steroids
and
MRI
c)
do
nothing
d)
radiation
Answer:
B.
In
SCLC
the
most
common
initial
presentation
is
backpain
and
in
patient
with
stage
III
the
management
is
palliative
or
by
chemotherapy
and
even
if
it’s
an
indication
for
Mets
and
no
recommendation
for
Steroids
or
MRI
unless
there’s
focality,
and
radiation
is
not
used
in
SCLC
III.
19.
Colonoscopy
shows
~2
hyperplastic
polyps.
When
to
repeat?
A.
1
B.
3
C.
5
Answer:
10
years.
hyperplastic
polyps
are
benign
Ref:
http://www.aafp.org/afp/2015/0115/p93.html
20.
23
year
old
man
is
complaining
of
polydpisa
and
polyurea
and
he
is
worry
and
afraid
about
getting
dm
what
is
the
best
value
for
diagnosis?
Typical
senario
and
answer
1-‐
7.7
2-‐8
3-‐
9
4-‐
12
(UpTodate)
The
diagnosis
of
diabetes
in
an
asymptomatic
individual
can
be
established
with
any
of
the
following
criteria:
fasting
plasma
glucose
(FPG)
values
≥126
mg/dL
(7.0
mmol/L),
two-‐hour
plasma
glucose
values
of
≥200
mg/dL
(11.1
mmol/L)
during
an
oral
glucose
tolerance
test
(OGTT),
and
A1C
values
≥6.5
percent
(48
mmol/mol)
21.
young
female
came
for
checkup
her
labs
show
Low
Hbg
High
MCV
High
AST
What
is
the
cause?
A.
folate
deficiency
B.
vitamin
B12
deficiency
C.
alcohol
abuse
Answer:
C
not
sure
22.
Colon
cancer
screen
recommended
grad
A
which
age
group:
A-‐45-‐65
B-‐50-‐65
C-‐50-‐75
Answer:
C
Not
sure!
23.
70
years
old
professor
presented
with
episodes
of
headache,
all
his
labs
is
normal,
BP
>
140/80
What
is
the
diagnosis:
A.
Essential
B.
Secondary
Answer:A
24.
Community
medicine
employee
want
to
implement
a
campaign
for
a
leading
cause
of
death
in
Saudi
Arabia.
What
is
the
appropriate
answer:
A.
Breast
cancer
B.
DM
C.
Coronary
artery
disease
Answer:
DM
Ref:
https://www.cdc.gov/globalhealth/countries/saudi_arabia/default.htm
25.
17
yo
athlete
male
gain
7kg
lately
and
he
has
all
characteristic
of
normal
puberty,
he
also
have
a
foul
smell
breathing?
A-‐
anabolic
steroid
B-‐
puberty
C-‐..
Answer:
most
likely
A
26.
Scenario
of
a
couple
pre-‐marital
screening
and
they
poor
blood
labs
for
both,
Male:
Hb
low
Mcv
low
Hb
A2
more
than
3.5
Similar
lab
results
for
the
female
What
is
the
risk
their
child
will
develop
thalassemia?
1-‐
25%
2-‐
50%
3-‐
75
4-‐
100
Answer:A
27.
Middle
aged
man
came
to
PCC
for
regular
check
up.
He
has
been
smoking
1
pack
a
day
for
40
years.
He
also
consumes
chewed
tobacco.
Vital
signs:
BP
=
120/80
Labs:
Fasting
blood
glucose
normal
Lipid
profile
normal
Renal
function
normal
What
should
you
screen
for
next
year?
A-‐
lung
cancer
B-‐Hypertension
(correct)
C-‐DM
D-‐
dyslipidemia
Answer:
A
Ref:
https://www.cdc.gov/cancer/lung/basic_info/screening.htm
28.
Best
way
for
pain
measurement
in
pt
with
different
language:
Answer:
Faces
(Drawings)
29.
which
of
the
following
supplements
can
decrease
risk
of
some
cancer?
A.
-‐fiber
B.
-‐
vitamin
D
C.
***folic
acid
Answer:
30.
The
maximum
accepted
level
of
LDL
in
mmol/l??
8.8
http://www.cholesterolmenu.com/cholesterol-‐levels-‐chart/
31.
Pre-‐diabetic
what
will
be
the
next
visit?
A.
3
months
B.
6
months
C.
12
months
Answer:
C
Ref:
http://www.dartmouth-‐hitchcock.org/endo/pre-‐diabetes.html
32.
Patient
came
to
the
clinic
and
everything
was
normal
except
HBA1C
which
was
5.9.
When
are
you
going
to
repeat
and
see
her
again?
1.
3
months
2.
6
months
3.
12
months
4.
36
months
Answer:
6
months
Ref:
https://www.diabetes.org.uk/professionals/position-‐statements-‐reports/diagnosis-‐ongoing-‐
management-‐monitoring/new_diagnostic_criteria_for_diabetes
33.
Patient
with
high
BP,
otherwise
normal,
when
to
check
BP
again?
A.
6
month,
(3
MONTHS
if
has
a
disease
with
it,
like
HF)
B.
1
year
C.
3
years
Answer:B
34.
Osteoporosis
most
commonly
due
to?
Answer:
Aging-‐
menopause
Ref:
https://www.emedicinehealth.com/osteoporosis/page2_em.htm
35.
patient
with
hypertrigelicridemia,
came
with
abdominal
and
back
pain
,his
symptomes
due
to
?
Answer:
Hypertrigylesride-‐
pancreatitis
36.
Pt
on
statin
for
high
cholesterol
,now
hight
trigylesride
,what
to
add
?
Answer:
Fibrate
37.
patient
diagnosed
with
scoliosis
according
to
the
cobb
angle,
when
the
orthopedic
refer
should
be
done?
A.
5
B.
10
C.
15
D.
20
Answer:D
38.
-‐Man
smoker
,
55
y
,
no
family
history
of
DM
,
his
hemoglobin
A1c
and
blood
sugar
in
the
border
line
of
being
diabetics
according
to
lap
reading
,
when
to
follow
up
again
?
3
m
6
m
12
m
✅
borderline
24
m
36
m
Answer:
every
12m
Ref:
http://www.dartmouth-‐hitchcock.org/endo/pre-‐diabetes.html
40.
Exercise
to
prevent
osteoporosis
A.
Weight
bearing
exercises
B.
Low
resistance
high
repetitive
Answer:
41.
The
daughter
of
an
old
age
patient
complains
of
progressively
decreasing
in
memory
and
change
in
personality
of
her
father,
ttt:
Answer:
Refer
to
geriatric
clinic
42.
-‐Treatment
of
refractory
hiccup?
A.
Gabapentin
B.
Chlorapromazine
Answer:
B
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/775746-‐medication
43.
-‐When
to
screen
for
congenital
thyroid
disease
?
A.
Umbalical
blood
sample
B.
After
3
month
C.
After
year
Answer:
A
44.
Want
to
stop
smoking,
but
now
he
wants
to
stop,
which
phase
he
is
in
?
A.
Precontplation
B.
Contplation
C.
action
D.
Preparation
Answer:
D
1.
Precontemplation—not
yet
acknowledging
that
there
is
a
problem
2.
Contemplation—acknowledging
that
there
is
a
problem,
but
not
yet
ready
or
willing
to
make
a
change
3.
Preparation/determination—getting
ready
to
change
behaviors
4.
Action/willpower—changing
behaviors
5.
Maintenance—maintaining
the
behavior
changes
6.
Relapse—returning
to
old
behaviors
and
abandoning
new
changes
45.
Patient
can't
sustain
erection,
he
had
similar
problem
2
years
ago
(or
2-‐3
months
ago).
he
has
daily
morning
erection.
To
whom
you
should
refer
him?
A.
Urology
B.
Psychiatry
C.
Endocrinology
D.
Neurology
Answer:
B
46.
Which
one
of
the
following
is
the
best
for
screening
male
above
59
years
old?
1.
Highly
sensitive
occult
blood
test
annualy
2.
Sigmoidoscopy
every
3
years
with
Highly
sensitive
occult
blood
3.
Sigmoidoscopy
every
5
years
4.
Colonscopy
every
5
years
Answer:
47.
Saudi
man
came
for
routine
checkup
what
you
will
screen
him
A.
Hypertension,obesity,DM
B.
Hyperlipidemia,hypertension,obesity
C.
Hypertension,DM,hyperlipidemia
Answer:
D
?
48.
adolescent
female,
found
to
have
BMI
greate
than
95th
percentile
on
her
routince
visit.
What
is
the
most
appropriate
action?
A.
avoid
discussion
about
weight.
B.
decrease
calories
intake
C.
Interdisciplinary
plan
something
D.
Tell
her
she
is
larger
than
most
people
her
age.
Answer:C
49.
If
you
treat
diabetic
with
Vit
D.
What
type
of
prevention
is
this?
A.
Primary
B.
Secondary
C.
Tertiary
Answer:
B
Q.
Newly
diagnosed
osteoprosis,
you
gave
vitamin
D,
what
is
the
type
of
prevention
?
50.
Baby
with
yellow
teeth
and
dental
carries
in
both
side
A.
nursing
bottle
caries
B.
other
options
Answer:
A
51.
Chronic
pain
syndrome
management
?
NSAID
52.
Term
used
to
call
ppl
who
eat
ice
-‐
amylophagia
(starch)
-‐
Geophagia(dirt/soil)
-‐
Pagophagia(ice)
Answer:
C
53.
What’s
minimum
volume
of
blood
to
do
a
culture:
10_20
ml
54.
Patients
have
D.M.
On
metformin
1
g
and
another
anti
dm
present
with
increasing
blood
glucose
at
morning,
what
you
will
give
:
A.
NPH
B.
Lispro
C.
Regular
Answer:
A
It
depends,
before
breakfast
it
means
fasting,
so
the
answer
would
be
long
acting
insulin,
most
likely
NPH
or
LANTUS
55.
Female
with
CAD
,
prescribe
for
her
drug
lower
lipid
.
Present
with
facial
flush
,
what
is
the
drug
?
-‐
statin
-‐
Nicain
my
answer
-‐
Fibrate
Answer:
statin
56.
what
is
the
MOA
of
glipizide
?
A.
Increase
insulin
secretions
from
pancreas
Answer:
A
57.
Degree
for
screening
of
abdominal
aortic
aneurysm
for
pt
age
70
y/o
who
never
smoked
?
58.
A
16
YO
boy
with
unilateral
gynecomastia,
what
to
advice
him?
A.
reassure
that
most
males
have
this
problem
and
will
disappear
in
a
few
years.
B.
Compress
with
bandage
overnight.
Answer:
A
Ref:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/120858-‐treatment
59.
A
Pt
with
CHF
and
HTN
on
meds,
he
developed
dizziness
every
morning
due
to
a
certain
medication
and
we
stopped
it,
what
Type
of
prevention
is
this:
A.
primary
B.
secondary
C.
tertiary
D.
quaternary
My
answer:
B
not
sure
60.
Pt
with
untreated
lower
UTI
for
14
day,
what
is
the
percentage
that
this
infection
will
ascend
to
the
kidney?
A.
.05
B.
.5
C.
5
D.
50
Answer:
61.
Elderly
patient
with
dm,
HTN
,
dyslipdemia
,
what
is
the
target
LDL
level
for
him?
-‐
2.3-‐4.6
ﺍاﺭرﻗﺎﻡم ﻏﺮﻳﯾﺒﻪﮫ ﺑﺎﻟﻔﻮﺍاﺻﻞ ﺟﺖ -‐
.
A
target
LDL
cholesterol
level
below
70
to
80
mg/dL
(1.81
to
2.07
mmol/L)
is
recommended
for
people
who
have
CVD
and
have
multiple
major
risk
factors
(eg,
people
with
diabetes
or
who
smoke).
A
target
LDL
cholesterol
level
less
than
100
mg/dL
(2.59
mmol/L)
is
recommended
for
people
who
have
CVD
but
do
not
have
many
additional
risk
factors.
Lifestyle
changes
as
well
as
nonstatin
medications
may
be
recommended
when
LDL
cholesterol
levels
are
higher
than
100
mg/dL
(2.59
mmol/L).
refL
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/high-‐cholesterol-‐treatment-‐options-‐beyond-‐the-‐basics
62.
-‐old
patient
known
to
have
acquired
immunodeficiency
presented
with
cough
and
night
sweat
,
he
did
mentoux
test
which
was
negative
but
culture
was
positive
for
tuberculosis
what
is
most
likely:
A.
culture
is
false
positive
B.
mentoux
is
false
negative
C.
mentoux
is
not
a
screening
test
for
TB
D.
the
patient
should
be
screened
with
heaf
test.
Answer:
B
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mantoux_test
Ethics
and
community
Medicine
1.
Patient
trying
to
quit
smoking,
but
he
couldn’t,
he
came
to
you
for
help:
what
behavior
change
at
this
stage?
A-‐precontemplation
b-‐contemplation
C-‐Action
D-‐preparation
Answer:
Preparation.
2.
A
doctor
is
giving
a
lecture
about
hypertension
and
its
medication,
A
drug
company
representative
came
to
you:
what
will
you
do?
ANSWER:
Physicians
ought
to
refuse
to
visit
with
representatives
as
a
matter
of
both
professional
integrity
and
sensible
time
management.
REFERENCES:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1466797/
3.
What’s
minimum
volume
of
blood
to
do
a
culture:
REFERENCES:
https://www.amc.edu/pathology_labservices/specimen_collection/specimen_col
lection_docs/Blood_Cultures022713.pdf
4.
Female
150k.g.
Weight
and
height
160
according
to
BMI?
A-‐I
Obesity
B-‐II
obesity
C-‐III
obesity
ANSWER:
Class
III.
Formula
:
kg/
height
squared
meters.
[
150/
[
1.6*1.6]
=
58]
5.
Example
of
opening
question?
A-‐Tell
me
about
the
pain
6.
A
type
2
DM
pt
has
an
appointment
in
the
clinic
at
11
o'clock,
the
doctor
came
at
12:30
because
there
was
a
serious
case
in
the
hospital,
the
pt
was
angry,
what
will
you
do
as
a
doctor
?
A-‐Apologize
and
expect
that.
ANSWER:
the
answer
depends
on
the
options
provided
in
the
Q
but
the
following
points
should
be
considered;
Do’s
[
keep
a
safe
distance,
stay
calm
and
cool,
acknowledge
the
emotional
status
“
angry,anxious
etc”,
acknowledge
legitimacy
“
without
blaming
anyone”,
listen
actively
with
eye-‐to-‐
eye
contact,
ask
open
Q
“
what
makes
you
feel
so”,
explore
the
reasons
and
possible
ways
of
treatments
when
suitable,
apologies
when
appropriate]
Don’t
[
interrupt,
rude
language,
deny
reality,
get
angry,
challenge
the
pt.,
defensive
responses
“We
have
been
doing
our
best,
don't
you
realize
how
hard
we
have
been
trying?.]
REFERENCES:
http://careers.bmj.com/careers/advice/view-‐article.html?id=1854
7.
best
one
considered
as
open-‐ended
question
in
pt
with
chest
pain?
A-‐Tell
me
about
the
pain
B-‐when
did
the
pain
start
C-‐where
is
the
pain.
ANSWER:
Tell
me
about
your
pain.
8.
definition
of
epidemiology?
A-‐Distribution
and
determinant
of
the
disease.
ANSWER:
Epidemiology
is
the
study
of
the
distribution
and
determinants
of
health-‐related
states
or
events
(including
disease),
and
the
application
of
this
study
to
the
control
of
diseases
and
other
health
problems.
Various
methods
can
be
used
to
carry
out
epidemiological
investigations:
surveillance
and
descriptive
studies
can
be
used
to
study
distribution;
analytical
studies
are
used
to
study
determinants.
REFERENCES:
http://www.who.int/topics/epidemiology/en/
9.
You
got
invited
in
diabetes
campaign,
and
they
offered
you
to
advertise
about
a
drug,
what
to
do:
A-‐Avoid
any
inform
about
drug...
ANSWER:
Physicians
ought
to
refuse
to
visit
with
representatives
as
a
matter
of
both
professional
integrity
and
sensible
time
management.
10.
Type
of
hepatitis
B
vaccine?
ANSWER:
two
types
exist;
plasma
derived
[purified
HBsAg
obtained
from
the
plasma
of
persons
with
chronic
HBV
infection.]
,
and
recombinant
vaccines
[use
HBsAg
synthesized
in
yeast
or
mammalian
cells
into
which
the
HBsAg
gene
(or
HBsAg/pre-‐HBsAg
genes)
has
been
inserted
by
plasmids].
REFERENCES:
http://www.who.int/immunization/topics/WHO_position_paper_HepB.pdf
11.
Which
of
the
following
reduce
cancers?
A-‐Vit
D
B-‐Fibers
C-‐Salt
ANSWER:
Vitamin
D.
·∙
Molecular,
genetic
and
clinical
data
in
humans
are
scarce
but
they
suggest
that
vitamin
D
is
protective
against
colon
cancer.
·∙
Intake
of
dietary
fiber
is
inversely
associated
with
colorectal
cancer
risk.
REFERENCES:
·∙
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/22383428
·∙
https://academic.oup.com/jnci/article/102/9/614/893779/Dietary-‐Fiber-‐and-‐Colorectal-‐Cancer-‐Risk-‐A-‐Nested.
12.
If
patient
that
you
treated
gave
an
expensive
watch
as
a
gift,
what
will
you
do?
A-‐Accept
it
and
tell
to
not
do
it
again
B-‐Refuse
it
C-‐Accept
it
ANSWER:
Refuse
it.
It’s
quite
controversial
and
the
actions
depends
on
the
timing
of
the
gift,
relationship
with
the
patient,
type
of
gifts
but
usually
for
expensive
gifts
its
best
to
refuse.
REFERENCES:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3860914/
13.
Most
common
infection
in
saudi
arabia
and
disable
patient
from
work:
ANSWER:
Hepatitis
B
infection
was
the
most
common
cause
(57.5%),
followed
by
noncommunicable
diseases
(21.2%)
and
hepatitis
C
infection
(17.4%)
REFERENCES:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/24975313
14.
Treat
water
from
entameba:
ANSWER:
Amebiasis
can
be
prevented
by
increased
sanitation
and
effective
and
safe
disposal
of
human
excreta.
Travelers
should
avoid
unpeeled
fresh
vegetables
and
fruits
and
drink
only
boiled
or
bottled
water.
Avoiding
sexual
practices
that
involve
fecal-‐oral
contact
can
reduce
infection
in
homosexuals.
In
mental
institutions
recurrent
outbreaks
of
amebiasis
can
be
prevented
by
routine
screening
of
stool
and
treating
infected
patients.
REFERENCES:
http://www.antimicrobe.org/new/b137.asp
15.
Researcher
want
to
measure
obesity
in
children
he
took
BMI
what
else
he
should
take?
1-‐girth
measurement
2-‐HDL/LDL
level
3-‐dietary
habits
4-‐forgot
ANSWER:
girth/
waist
measuruments.
References:
https://www.hsph.harvard.edu/obesity-‐prevention-‐source/obesity-‐definition/how-‐to-‐
measure-‐body-‐fatness/
16.
How
to
prevent
plague
A-‐Killed
rodent
ANSWER:
kill
rodents
and
their
habitnant,
wear
gloves
while
touching
infected
animals,
DEET
repellent
sprays,
flea
control
products
on
animals.
REFERENCES:
https://www.cdc.gov/plague/prevention/index.html
17.
Ministry
of
health,
prevent
some
group
of
ppl
to
do
Hajj
&
Umrah
in
2015,
due
to
MERSA-‐
Co;
whose
those
population?
A-‐
Lactating
women
B-‐
Young
kids
>
12
years
C-‐
elderly
with
DM
D-‐
HBV
ANSWER:
Elderly
+
DM.
Using
a
case–control
design,
we
assessed
differences
in
underlying
medical
conditions
and
environmental
exposures
among
primary
case-‐patients
and
2–4
controls
matched
by
age,
sex,
and
neighborhood.
Using
multivariable
analysis,
we
found
that
direct
exposure
to
dromedary
camels
during
the
2
weeks
before
illness
onset,
as
well
as
diabetes
mellitus,
heart
disease,
and
smoking,
were
each
independently
associated
with
MERS-‐CoV
illness.
REFERENCES:
https://wwwnc.cdc.gov/eid/article/22/1/15-‐1340_article
18.
A
doctor
is
going
to
present
in
hypertension
conference.
Company
that
produced
new
drug
suggested
to
sponsor
his
trip.
What
he
is
supposed
to
do:
A-‐Disclose
that
he’s
sponsored
B-‐Avoid
mentioning
the
new
drug
at
all
C-‐Reject
the
offer.
ANSWER:
Reject
the
offer.
REFERENCES:
19.
Inactive
person,
overweight,
smoker,
44
years
old
man
with
heart
problems,
What
is
the
most
common
associated
with
heart
disease:
A-‐Smoking
B-‐Obesity
C-‐Inactivity
ANSWER:
Smoking.
Smoking
is
a
major
cause
of
heart
disease.
It
is
estimated
that
smoking
increases
the
risk
of
stroke,
coronary
heart
disease
and
impotence
by
100%.
Smoking
increases
the
risk
of
death
from
undiagnosed
coronary
heart
disease
by
300%.
REFERENCES:
https://www.world-‐heart-‐federation.org/resources/risk-‐factors/
20.
how
to
prevent
MERSA
?
A-‐by
hand
washing
B-‐vaccine.
ANSWER:
hand
washing.
As
a
general
precaution,
anyone
visiting
farms,
markets,
barns,
or
other
places
where
dromedary
camels
and
other
animals
are
present
should
practice
general
hygiene
measures,
including
regular
hand
washing
before
and
after
touching
animals,
and
should
avoid
contact
with
sick
animals
REFERENCES:
http://www.who.int/mediacentre/factsheets/mers-‐cov/en/
21.
The
daughter
of
an
old
age
patient
complains
of
progressively
decreasing
in
memory
and
change
in
personality
of
her
father,
ttt:
A-‐Refer
to
geriatric
clinic.
ANSWER:
refer
to
geriatric.
References:
previous
MCQ’s
22.
Important
in
Quit
Smoking?
A-‐Patient
desiree.
23.
what
is
more
risk
for
CAD
A-‐55
male
Dm
B-‐50
male
hyperlipidemia
C-‐HTN+
obese
AMSWER:
C.
REFERENCES:
Toronto
Notes
2016.
24.
What
is
have
more
risk
for
CAD
A-‐LDL.
B-‐HDL
C-‐Triglycerides
D-‐Total
cholesterol
ANSWER:
LDL.
25.
Calculate
disabilities
days
of
URTI
?
A-‐292.5
(
correct
).
ANSWER:
usually
the
number
of
disability
days
is
calculated
by
subtracting
the
number
of
absent
days
from
the
total
number
of
days
per
year.
The
reported
Duration
of
an
URI
episode
is
7.4
days
with
25%
of
cases
lasting
up
to
two
weeks.
26.
mammogram
can
detect
breast
cancer
before
clinical
examination
by
how
many
years
?
A-‐1
B-‐2
C-‐3
D-‐4
ANSWER:
2
years.
28.
Which
of
one
of
the
following
is
considered
as
a
secondary
prevention
method?
A-‐personal
education
B-‐screening
ANSWER:
screening.
29.
commonest
virus
which
make
rejection
of
the
expatriates
or
labors
from
working
in
Saudi?(
community
)
a)
hbv
b)
hcv
c)
hiv
Answer:
A
same
Q
from
smle
13
References:
http://applications.emro.who.int/emhj/v19/07/EMHJ_2013_19_7_664_670.pdf?ua=1
30.
In
a
village
where
the
incidence
of
cretinism
and
iodine
was
less
than
1
microgram
the
health
promoters
want
to
issue
a
director
for
the
for
the
management
of
those
with
cretinism..
what
is
the
best
initial
management
a)
TSH
and
t4
measurements
b)
Start
thyroxine
medication.
c)
Iodine
supplementation.
ANSWER:
B.
31.
varicella
vaccine:
A-‐2
doses
6
weeks
apart
B-‐2
doses
4
weeks
apart
ANSWER:
2
doses
4
weeks
apart.
For
children
aged
7
through
12
years,
the
recommended
minimum
interval
between
doses
is
3
months
(if
the
second
dose
was
administered
at
least
4
weeks
after
the
first
dose,
it
can
be
accepted
as
valid);
for
persons
aged
13
years
and
older,
the
minimum
interval
between
doses
is
4
weeks.
REFRENCES:
https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/schedules/hcp/imz/catchup-‐shell.html
32.
What’s
the
most
effective
way
to
disseminate
health
education?
A-‐mass
media
ANSWER:
Mass
media.
33.
Best
diagram
used
for
screening
test
?
Nomogram,
and
other
s
??
ANSWER:
I
couldn’t
find
a
reference
of
any
information
relevant
to
this.
34.
Want
to
stop
smoking,
but
now
he
wants
to
stop,
which
phase
he
is
in?
A-‐
Precontemplation
B-‐
Contemplation
C-‐action
D-‐Preparation
1.
Precontemplation—not
yet
acknowledging
that
there
is
a
problem
2.
Contemplation—acknowledging
that
there
is
a
problem,
but
not
yet
ready
or
willing
to
make
a
change
3.
Preparation/determination—getting
ready
to
change
behaviors
4.
Action/willpower—changing
behaviors
5.
Maintenance—maintaining
the
behavior
changes
6.
Relapse—returning
to
old
behaviors
and
abandoning
new
changes
35.
best
parameter
for
screening
?
A-‐specify,
B-‐sensitivity
ANSWER:
Sensitivity.
REFERENCES:
http://sphweb.bumc.bu.edu/otlt/mph-‐
modules/bs/bs704_probability/bs704_probability4.html
36.
Community
medicine
employee
want
to
implement
a
campaign
for
a
leading
cause
of
death
in
Saudi
Arabia.
What
is
the
appropriate
answer:
A-‐Breast
cancer
B-‐DM
C-‐Coronary
artery
disease
ANSWER:
DM.
top
ten
leading
causes
of
death
in
KSA
in
order
[
RTA
>
DM
>
back/neck
injuries
>
IHD
> depressive disorders>congenital anomalies of the heart > Drug use > Skin disorders > CKD >
cancer.
REFERENCES: https://www.cdc.gov/globalhealth/countries/saudi_arabia/default.htm
37.
Want
to
stop
smoking,
went
to
hospital
and
asked
for
treatment:
ANSWER:
action
38.
Colon
cancer
screen
recommended
grad
A
which
age
group:
A-‐45-‐65.
B-‐50-‐65.
C-‐50-‐75.
ANSWER:
C
REFERENCES:
https://www.cancer.org/cancer/colon-‐rectal-‐cancer/detection-‐diagnosis-‐staging/acs-‐
recommendations.html
39.
A
man
newly
diagnosed
with
type
2
diabetes
2
weeks
ago,
he
came
for
follow
up
with
you
at
the
clinic.
You
were
busy
in
the
ward.
His
appointment
is
supposed
to
be
at
10:00
and
now
it
is
11:15,
the
patient
is
very
angry.
What
should
you
do?
A)
explore
the
reason
of
his
anger
B)
explain
why
you
are
late
C)
show
empathy
to
his
newly
diagnosed
condition.
ANSWER:
A
40.
Smoking
withdrawal
peak:
ANSWER:
3-‐5
days.
REFERENCES:
https://vapingdaily.com/quitting-‐effects/nicotine-‐withdrawal-‐timeline/
41.
Breast
self
exam:
A.
monthly
ANSWER:
Breast
exams,
either
from
a
medical
provider
or
self-‐exams,
are
no
longer
recommended.
REFERENCES:
https://www.cancer.org/latest-‐news/american-‐cancer-‐society-‐releases-‐new-‐breast-‐
cancer-‐guidelines.html
42.
Blood
preserved
at
22
C
degree?
ANSWER:
PRBC;s
is
stored
between
1-‐6
degrees,
FFP
stored
-‐18
to
-‐30,
platelet
stored
at
22
degrees.
REFERENCES:
https://library.med.utah.edu/WebPath/EXAM/LabMedCurric/LabMed06_02.html
43.
Newly
diagnosed
osteo,
you
gave
vitamin
D,
what
is
the
type
of
prevention?
ANSWER:
tertiary
prevention.
44.
prevention
of
brucellosis?
A-‐Pasteurization
of
milk.
ANSWER:
The
most
rational
approach
for
preventing
human
brucellosis
is
the
control
and
elimination
of
the
infection
in
animals.
Pasteurization
of
milk
is
another
protective
mechanism.
Vaccination
of
cattle
is
recommended
for
control
of
bovine
brucellosis
in
enzootic
areas
with
high
prevalence
rates.
REFERENCES:
http://www.who.int/zoonoses/diseases/brucellosis/en/
Research
1.
What
is
the
type
of
bias
in
meta-‐analysis?
A.
Tendancy
to
answer
questions
untruthfully
or
misleadingly
on
a
survey
B.
Recall
retrospective
studies.
C.
Loss
of
follow
up
D.
Publication
Answer:
D
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3868184/
2.
What
is
the
most
common
type
of
study
that
risks
a
recall
bias?
Answer:
Case
control
Reference:
http://jech.bmj.com/content/58/8/635
3.
What
is
the
most
common
type
of
study
that
risks
non-‐
response
bias?
Answer:
Cross
sectional
Reference:
http://www.bmj.com/content/348/bmj.g2573.full
4.
What
does
a
confidence
interval
of
95%
mean?
Answer:
A
95%
confidence
interval
reflects
a
significance
level
of
0.05.
If
it
is
hypothesized
that
a
true
parameter
value
is
0
but
the
95%
confidence
interval
does
not
contain
0,
then
the
estimate
is
significantly
different
from
zero
at
the
5%
significance
level.
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Confidence_interval
5.
If
a
raesearcher
wants
to
start
a
study
and
wants
only
the
subjects
that
do
not
have
diabetes
to
participate.
What
will
be
high
in
the
test
?
Answer:
Specifity
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2636062/
6.
What
is
the
definition
of
epidemiology?
Answer:
Epidemiology
is
the
study
of
the
distribution
and
determinants
of
health-‐related
states
or
events
in
specified
populations,
and
the
application
of
this
study
to
the
control
of
health
problems
Reference:
https://www.cdc.gov/ophss/csels/dsepd/ss1978/lesson1/section1.html
7.
What
does
“p-‐value”
mean?
Answer:
P-‐value
or
probability
value
is
the
probability
for
a
given
statistical
model
that,
when
the
null
hypothesis
is
true,
the
statistical
summary
would
be
the
same
as
or
of
greater
magnitude
than
the
actual
observed
results.
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/P-‐value
8.
What
is
a
Standard
deviation?
Answer:
The
standard
deviation
is
a
measure
that
is
used
to
quantify
the
amount
of
variation
or
dispersion
of
a
set
of
data
values.
A
low
standard
deviation
indicates
that
the
data
points
tend
to
be
close
to
the
mean
(also
called
the
expected
value)
of
the
set,
while
a
high
standard
deviation
indicates
that
the
data
points
are
spread
out
over
a
wider
range
of
values.
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_deviation
9.
Best
test
for
screening?
Answer:
sensitivity.
10.
A
study
aims
at
exploring
the
association
of
cigarette
smoking
and
the
risk
of
IHD.
Results
were
as
follows
(Numbers
are
not
exact,
but
are
used
for
clarification
purposes):
-‐
Non-‐smokers
OR:
0.1.
-‐
Mild
smokers
OR:
1.
-‐
Heavy
smokers
OR:
2.
-‐
Extensive
heavy
chain
smokers
OR:
5.
Which
of
these
is
true
about
this
study
findings?
A)
Risk-‐Association
relationship.
B)
Dose-‐dependant
relationship.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
The
odd
ratio
is
increasing
as
the
patient
is
smoking
heavier.
11.
Post
test
probability
of
a
diagnostic
test:
A.
likelihood
ratio
B.
predictive
value
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4025141/
Explanation:
The
liklihood
ratio
is
a
probability
of
an
individual
without
the
condition
having
the
test
result.
12.
At
daycare
center
10
out
of
50
had
red
eye
in
the
1st
week,
another
30
developed
same
condition
in
the
next
week
.What
is
the
attack
rate?
20%
40%
60%
80%
Answer:
80%
Referance:
https://www.cdc.gov/ophss/csels/dsepd/ss1978/lesson3/section2.html
Explanation:
Attack
rate
=
Number
of
new
cases
in
the
population
at
risk
/
Number
of
persons
at
risk
in the population
13.
long
scenario,
he
wants
the
equation
of
relative
risk:
Answer:
RR
=
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Relative_risk
Explanation:
▪
A
=
The
number
of
people
who
both
had
the
exposure
and
developed
the
disease
▪
B
=
The
number
of
people
who
had
the
exposure
but
did
not
develop
the
disease
▪
C
=
The
number
of
people
who
did
not
have
the
exposure
but
did
develop
the
disease
▪
D
=
The
number
of
people
who
neither
had
the
exposure
nor
developed
the
disease
14.
A
study
aims
at
exploring
the
association
of
high
fat
intake
and
prostatic
cancer.,
Group
1
has
prostatic
cancer
(1000)
patients
with
50
high
fat
intake,
group
2
doesn't
have
cancer
(1000)
pt
with
10
high
fat
intake
a)OR
0.52
b)OR
5.2
c)RR
0.52
d)RR
5.2
Answer:
b
Reference:
First
aid
Explanation:
OR
is
typically
used
in
case
control
studies
15.
In
a
study
they
are
selecting
every
10th
family
in
the
city,
what
is
the
type
of
study?
A.
Systematic
random
study
B.
Stratified
random
study
C.
Non
randomized
study
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Systematic_sampling
16.
In
a
cohort
study
on
lubricant
oil
use
and
urinary
bladder
CA
done
over
20
years
10,000
exposed
10,000
non
exposed
750
exposed
got
CA
150
non
exposed
got
CA
Then
they
asked
about
the
incidence
in
1000
in
one
year?
A.
2.25
B.
45
C.
.45
D.
.225
Answer:
A
Explanation:
In
20
years:
20,000
patients
were
studied
,
900
cases
of
CA
in
total.
Explanation:
18.
Repeated
question
(Question
5)
19.
In
a
systematic
review,
which
one
of
the
following
can
be
done
to
decrease
selection
bias?
A.
English
literature
B.
Setting
inclusion/exclusion
criteria
C.
Including
papers
with
positive
outcomes
only
Answer:
B
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK126701/
20.
Research
question
about
cumulative
incidence:
Answer:
Number
of
new
cases
of
disease
or
injury
during
a
specified
period
divided
by
Size
of
population
at
start
of
period
Reference:
https://www.cdc.gov/ophss/csels/dsepd/ss1978/lesson3/section2.html
Explanation:
Cumulative
incidence
is
defined
as
the
probability
that
a
particular
event,
such
as
occurrence
of
a
particular
disease,
has
occurred
before
a
given
time.
It
is
equivalent
to
the
incidence,
calculated
using
a
period
of
time
during
which
all
of
the
individuals
in
the
population
are
considered
to
be
at
risk
for
the
outcome.
It
is
sometimes
also
referred
to
as
the
incidence
proportion.
21.
Wha
is
the
definition
of
a
null
hypothesis?
Answer:
A
null
hypothesis"
is
a
general
statement
or
default
position
that
there
is
no
relationship
between
two
measured
phenomena,
or
no
association
among
groups.
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Null_hypothesis
22.
Definition
of
case
control
Answer:
A
case-‐control
study
is
a
type
of
observational
study
in
which
two
existing
groups
differing
in
outcome
are
identified
and
compared
on
the
basis
of
some
supposed
causal
attribute.
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Case-‐control_study
23.
What
determines
how
precise
the
study
is?
A.
P
value
B.
Confidence
interval
C.
Relative
risk
D.
Odds
ratio
Answer:
B
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2920077/
24.
A
study
of
something
shows
reduced
risk
of
dm
from
10%
to
5%
what
is
called?
A.
Efficacy
B.
Effectiveness
Answer:
B
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK44024/
25.
A
scenario
and
asked
about
sensitivity
&
specificity
(in
statistics)
you
should
understand
the
definition
to
answer
according
to
scenario
Reference:
First
Aid
26.
Exposed
group
3
non
exposed
group
2
which
is
correct:
that
the
question
27.
Exposed
group
0.02
non
exposed
group
0.09
Reference:
First
Aid
28.
Most
normograph
used
for
positive
predictive
value:
Answer:
Roc
curve
Reference:
https://www.omicsonline.org/evaluating-‐measures-‐of-‐
indicators-‐of-‐diagnostic-‐test-‐performance-‐fundamental-‐meanings-‐
and-‐formulars-‐2155-‐6180.1000132.php?aid=4054
Explanation:
In
a
ROC
curve
the
true
positive
rate
(Sensitivity)
is
plotted
in
function
of
the
false
positive
rate
(100-‐Specificity)
for
different
cut-‐off
points
of
a
parameter
29.
What
is
a
funnel
plot?
Answer:
A
funnel
plot
is
a
scatter
plot
of
the
effect
estimates
from
individual
studies
against
some
measure
of
each
study’s
size
or
precision.
Reference:
http://www.bmj.com/content/343/bmj.d4002
Explanation:
The
standard
error
of
the
effect
estimate
is
often
chosen
as
the
measure
of
study
size
and
plotted
on
the
vertical
axis8
with
a
reversed
scale
that
places
the
larger,
most
powerful
studies
towards
the
top.
The
effect
estimates
from
smaller
studies
should
scatter
more
widely
at
the
bottom,
with
the
spread
narrowing
among
larger
studies
30.
What
is
the
graph
that
is
usually
used
to
illustrate
a
relation
between
two
variables?
Answer:
Scatter
plot
Reference:
http://www.stat.ucla.edu/~rgould/m12s01/relations.pdf
E
Answer:
c.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3737004/#!p
o=20.5882
●
·∙
Different
Qs
about
type
of
study
needed
●
·∙
About
20Q
about
incedince
and
prevalence
and
relative
risk
●
·∙
Multiple
qs
about
RR
OR
●
·∙
Memorize
the
equation
of
Specificity.
Few
questions
came
asking
about
it.
Notes:
-‐Study
selective
every10th
family
in
city
=systematic
study.
-‐
non
response
bias
=cs
-‐Lung
ca
90%
30%
smokers
=70%.
-‐Dadycare
another
developed
same
=80%.
Typhoid
fever
-‐Sensitive
=probability
that
a
disease
pt
have
+ve
test
results
-‐
specificty
=
probability
thr
non
disease
have
-‐ve
test
results.
-‐Balder
ca
=
2.25.
-‐
IR
1000/8000*100=12.5.
-‐Cohort
study
+ve
mersa
ration
of
exp
on
non
exp
=66:1
Risk
exp
to
mersa
-‐vir=66
-‐Lung
ca
=
(80/100)/(6/500)=66:1
-‐
RR
=a/(a+b)/
c/(c+d)=
20/(20+80)
/494/(494+80)=0.
2
-‐Insulin
=near
to
treatment
14
-‐Congenital
hearts
-‐GD
OR=
(20/980)/(80/4930)=1.255
RR
=(20/1000)/(80+5000)=1.25
-‐GDM
-‐>
OR
=2
-‐
new
case
200
old
case
80
total
280
so
(280/8000000)*100000=3.5
-‐odd
ration
75
control
rate
0.5
Relative
risk
is
.12
-‐
group
of
breast
ca
mastectomy
with
radiation
and
mastectomy
with
chemo
=
randomized
controlled
trial.
-‐Epidemic
investigations
wt
first
=
identiving
population
at
risk.
Risk
of
un
exp
2
and
risk
of
exp
3
wt
true
=1
Bladder
ca
cohort
study
=5
2
groups
disease
and
non
disease
=
RR=.5
Incident
of
RS
infection
117
in
1000.
=
1.2
-‐Study
compared
and
followed
till
birth
type
=cohort
study
-‐Research
about
creatin
disease
in
the
beginning
were
2000
but
after
3y
were
1000
wt
incidence
in
one
year
=10%
-‐Most
determine
study
=positive
predictive
value.
-‐Study
used
to
comparing
2
groups
=
cohort
study
-‐Study
used
to
comparing
2
groups
pregnet
spesfic
diet
=
cohort
study
l2nha
follow
up
pregnancy
-‐
Epileptic
pt
on
carbamazepine
=prospective
cohort
study.
-‐
Red
eye
case
à
80
-‐
cumulative
incidence
à
2.5
-‐
OR
5.2
(
high
fat
diet
pregnant
ladies
comparison
)
-‐
Lung
ca
à
70%
-‐
MERS-‐CO
study
Relative
risk
à
66:1
-‐
Calculate
disabilities
days
of
URTI
à
292.5
(correct)
*
GDM
and
congenital
malformation
OR
or
RR?
*
Research
question
with
numbers
0.3
and
0.2.
Emergency Medicine
1-‐
Aspirin
toxicity?
Respiratory
alkalosis
and
metabolic
acidosis
2-‐
Acute
asthma
in
ER,
took
SABA
what
to
do
next?
A. Thyophilin
B. Inhaled
ipratropium
Answer:B
3-‐
Elderly
patient
came
to
the
ER
looking
toxic,
comatose,
and
hypotensive?
A. septic
shock
B. insulin
overdose
Correct
answer
is
A
4-‐
Case
of
MG
take
neostagmine
then
present
with
worse
symptoms
to
ER
what
is
the
Rx?
No
IVIG
in
answers
A. Plasmapheresis
Correct
answer
is
Source:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/793136-‐overview#a9
Emergency
Department
Care
Patients
with
myasthenia
gravis
who
are
in
respiratory
distress
may
be
experiencing
a
myasthenic
crisis
or
a
cholinergic
crisis.
Before
these
possibilities
can
be
differentiated,
ensuring
adequate
ventilation
and
oxygenation
is
important.
Inpatient
Care:
Plasmapheresis
has
been
found
to
be
an
effective
short-‐term
treatment
of
acute
exacerbations
of
myasthenia
gravis.
Clinical
improvement
takes
several
days
to
occur
and
lasts
up
to
3
weeks.
Because
of
the
delayed
onset
of
beneficial
effects,
plasmapheresis
has
limited
utility
in
the
ED
setting,
but
often
is
used
in
the
ICU
setting.
Immunotherapy
with
intravenous
gamma
globulin
appears
to
diminish
the
activity
of
the
disease
for
unknown
reasons.
The
benefit
begins
within
2
weeks
and
may
last
for
several
months.
The
AAN
considers
IVIG
an
effective
therapy
for
moderate-‐
to-‐severe
cases
of
myasthenia
gravis,
as
per
their
2012
guidelines.
5-‐21
years
old
patient
with
known
case
of
depression,
has
been
found
on
the
floor
unconscious
with
empty
pill
bottle
,
patient
was
obtunded
,
dilated
pupil
and
unreactive
bilaterally
and
other
symptom(
I
can
not
remember)
What
is
the
medication
the
patient
most
likely
on?
A. Sertraline
B.
Fluoxetine
C. Other
SSRI
D. Amitriptyline
Correct
answer:
D
6-‐
Abdominal
trauma
with
pancreatic
body
injury,
pancreatic
juice
split
anteriorly
,
where
this
juice
will
collected
?
A. Omentum
bursa
B. Left
para
colic
C. Sub
hepatic
Correct
answer:
A
7-‐
What
is
most
common
cause
of
death
in
flame
burn
?
A. Hypovolemic
shock
B. Inhalation
Smoke
Correct
answer:
B
Source:
http://msue.anr.msu.edu/news/smoke_inhalation_is_the_most_common_cause_of_death_in_hous
e_fires
Smoke
inhalation
is
the
most
common
cause
of
death
in
house
fires
8-‐
Patient
came
with
snake
bite
what
is
your
first
action?
A. Incision
on
the
site
of
bite
B. Mechanical
suction
of
venom
C. Immobilize
limb
D. tourniquet
application
proximal
to
the
site
of
bite
Correct
answer:
C
Source:
WHO,
Guidelines
for
the
management
of
snake-‐bites
http://apps.searo.who.int/PDS_DOCS/B4508.pdf
Recommended
first-‐aid
methods
1)
Reassure
the
victim
who
may
be
very
anxious
2)
Immobilize
the
whole
of
the
patient’s
body
by
laying
him/her
down
in
a
comfortable
and
safe
position
and,
especially,
immobilize
the
bitten
limb
with
a
splint
or
sling.
Any
movement
or
muscular
contraction
increases
absorption
of
venom
into
the
bloodstream
and
lymphatics
3)
Avoid
any
interference
with
the
bite
wound
(incisions,
rubbing,
vigorous
cleaning,
massage,
application
of
herbs
or
chemicals)
as
this
may
introduce
infection,
increase
absorption
of
the
venom
and
increase
local
bleeding
4)
Tight
(arterial)
tourniquets
are
not
recommended:
Traditional
tight
(arterial)
tourniquets
are
not
recommended.
To
be
effective,
these
had
to
be
applied
around
the
upper
part
of
the
limb
so
tightly
that
the
peripheral
pulse
gets
occluded.
This
method
can
be
extremely
painful
and
very
dangerous
if
the
tourniquet
was
left
on
for
too
long
(more
than
about
40
minutes),
as
the
limb
might
be
damaged
by
ischaemia.
Tourniquets
have
caused
many
gangrenous
limbs
9-‐
Massive
pleural
effusion?
A. Thoracocentesis
B. Needle
decompression
C. Inhalator
in
high
dose
Correct
answer:
A
Source:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/807375-‐overview#a10
Thoracentesis,
which
involves
the
removal
of
50 -‐100
mL
for
laboratory
analysis,
is
the
first -‐line
invasive
diagnostic
procedure
and
can
be
safely
performed
in
most
patients,
including
those
undergoing
mechanical
ventilation.
11-‐
patient
came
to
ER
he
was
semiconscious
you
give
naloxone
he
became
conscious
what
is
the
drug
toxicity?
A.
Opioids
Correct
answer:
A
12-‐
Patient
with
drug
overdose
O/E
there
was
pinpoint
pupils
what
is
the
cause?
A. Morphine
Correct
answer
is
A
13-‐
Antidote
of
digoxin?
A. FAB
immune
globulin.
Correct
answer:
A
Source:
emedicine
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/154336-‐treatment
Digoxin
immune
Fab
(Digibind)
is
an
immunoglobulin
fragment
that
binds
with
digoxin.
It
is
currently
considered
first-‐line
treatment
for
significant
dysrhythmias
(eg,
severe
bradyarrhythmia,
second-‐
or
third-‐degree
heart
block,
ventricular
tachycardia
or
fibrillation)
from
digitalis
toxicity.
14-‐
Patient
with
paracetamol
overdose
you
after
doing
ABC
you
measure
the
drug
level
you
found
it
toxic
what
is
the
proper
management
?
A.
Give
N-‐acetylcystiene
Correct
answer:
A
source
:
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/337/treatment/step-‐by-‐step.html
15-‐
Patient
with
cherry
red
skin
what
is
he
toxic
of?
A. Carbon
monoxide
Correct
answer:
A
16-‐
Patient
collapsed
at
clinic,
there
is
no
sign
of
breathing,
u
call
cardiac
arrest
team,
pt
shows
no
signs
of
breathing
what
is
next
step?
A. Start
chest
compression
30:2
B. Give
2
rescue
breathing
C. Asses
carotid
pulse
Correct
answer:
C
17-‐
Patient
came
with
bee
sting,
what
to
do
for
him?
A.
Remove
stinger,
and
monitor
the
patient.
B. Antihistamines.
C. Epi,
antihistamines,
and
IV
fluid.
D. Forgot
it.
Correct
answer:
A
Source:
uptodate
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/bee-‐and-‐insect-‐stings-‐beyond-‐the-‐basics
INSECT
STING
REACTION:
After
being
stung,
you
should
remove
the
stinger
from
your
skin
as
soon
as
possible
to
prevent
any
more
venom
from
being
released
into
the
skin.
However,
all
the
venom
is
released
from
the
stinger
within
the
first
few
seconds,
so
this
is
only
helpful
if
done
quickly.
You
do
not
need
to
use
any
special
technique
(eg,
flicking
or
scraping)
to
get
the
stinger
out.
Most
people
who
are
stung
by
an
insect
will
develop
a
local
reaction
(an
area
of
swelling
and
redness).
Some
people
will
also
develop
a
severe
allergic
reaction,
called
anaphylaxis.
Local
reaction
treatment
—
To
reduce
pain
and
swelling
after
an
insect
sting,
you
can
try
the
following:
●Apply
a
cold
compress
(a
cold,
damp
washcloth
or
damp
cloth
wrapped
around
an
ice
pack)
to
the
area.
●If
you
develop
itching,
you
can
take
a
nonprescription
antihistamine,
such
as
cetirizine
(Zyrtec).
●A
pain
reliever,
such
as
ibuprofen
(sold
as
Advil,
Motrin,
and
store
brands),
may
help
reduce
pain.
Allergic
reaction
—
Insect
stings
cause
allergic
reactions
in
some
people.
Symptoms
of
an
allergic
reaction
usually
develop
quickly,
and
include:
●Skin
symptoms,
such
as
hives,
redness,
or
swelling
of
skin
away
from
the
area
that
was
stung
(for
example,
the
face
or
lips
may
swell
after
being
stung
on
the
hand)
●Belly
cramps,
nausea,
vomiting,
or
diarrhea
●Hoarse
voice,
shortness
of
breath,
and
difficulty
breathing
●Lightheadedness,
dizziness,
passing
out
Severe
allergic
reactions
are
called
anaphylaxis.
You
can
have
an
anaphylactic
reaction
the
first
time
you
are
stung.
The
first
and
most
important
treatment
for
a
severe
allergic
reaction
is
a
shot
of
epinephrine.
18-‐Patient
has
hemorrhage,
baroreceptor
activated
which
lead
to
increase
heart
rate,
what
of
those
will
be
decrease?
A. Ventricular
contractility
B. Venous
capacitance
C. Coronary
blood
flow
Correct
answer:
B
Source:
SMLE
malzama
12
http://www.cvphysiology.com/Blood%20Pressure/BP031
The
body
can
quickly
sense
a
fall
in
blood
pressure
through
its
arterial
and
cardiopulmonary
baroreceptors,
and
then
activate
the
sympathetic
adrenergic
system
to
stimulate
the
heart
(increase
heart
rate
and
contractility)
and
constrict
blood
vessels
(increase
systemic
vascular
resistance).
Sympathetic
activation
has
little
direct
influence
on
brain
and
coronary
blood
vessels,
so
these
circulations
can
benefit
from
the
vasoconstriction
that
occurs
in
other
organs
(particularly
in
the
gastrointestinal,
skeletal
muscle
and
renal
circulations)
that
serve
to
increase
systemic
vascular
resistance
and
arterial
pressure.
In
other
words,
cardiac
output
is
redistributed
from
less
important
organs
to
the
brain
and
myocardium,
both
of
which
are
critical
for
survival.
Reduced
organ
blood
flow
caused
by
vasoconstriction
and
reduced
arterial
pressure,
leads
to
systemic
acidosis
that
is
sensed
by
chemoreceptors.
The
chemoreceptor
reflex
further
activates
the
sympathetic
adrenergic
system
thereby
reinforcing
the
baroreceptor
reflex.
When
the
hypotension
is
very
severe
(e.g.,
mean
arterial
pressures
<50
mmHg)
and
the
brain
becomes
ischemic,
this
can
produce
a
very
intense
sympathetic
discharge
that
further
reinforces
the
other
autonomic
reflexes.
19-‐Patient
swallows
pins
what
to
do?
20-‐
Patient
came
to
ER
with
hemorrhage,
hypotensive.
What
will
you
do
next?
A. Ringer
lactate
B. Packed
RBC
C. Blood
D. Fresh
frozen
plasma
Correct
answer:
A
source
:
emedicine
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/760145-‐treatment#d11
Once
IV
access
is
obtained,
initial
fluid
resuscitation
is
performed
with
an
isotonic
crystalloid,
such
as
lactated
Ringer
solution
or
normal
saline.
An
initial
bolus
of
1-‐2
L
is
given
in
an
adult
(20
mL/kg
in
a
pediatric
patient),
and
the
patient's
response
is
assessed.
21-‐
Patient
18
years
old
was
playing
tennis,
he
presented
to
ER
with
abdominal
pain
(left
para
umbilical
pain),
without
history
of
trauma.
What
is
your
next
action?
A. Erect
chest
xray
B. Abdominal
ct
C. Kidney
us
D.
Correct
answer:
B
Source:
https://reference.medscape.com/article/776871-‐workup#c5
CT
is
the
diagnostic
test
of
choice
for
rectus
sheath
hematoma
and
is
superior
to
ultrasonography
in
sensitivity
and
specificity.
Patients
who
are
pediatric,
pregnant,
or
have
renal
insufficiency
may
benefit
from
ultrasonography
as
a
first-‐line
test
to
avoid
radiation
and
intravenous
contrast
material
Ultrasonography
should
be
used
as
a
first-‐line
diagnostic
test
in
pediatric
patients,
pregnant
patients,
or
perhaps
in
patients
with
renal
insufficiency.
However,
in
other
patients,
its
primary
role
may
be
to
follow
hematomas
to
maturation
and
resolution
after
definitive
diagnosis
by
CT
scanning
22-‐
Patient
presented
to
ER
with
congested
neck
veins,
no
chest
sounds,
difficulty
breathing.
What
is
your
first
action?
A. Needle
thoracostomy
Correct
answer:
A
Source:
http://www.trauma.org/archive/thoracic/CHESTtension.html
Classical
management
of
tension
pneumothorax
is
emergent
chest
decompression
with
needle
thoracostomy.
A
14-‐16G
intravenous
cannula
is
inserted
into
the
second
rib
space
in
the
mid-‐
clavicular
line.
The
needle
is
advanced
until
air
can
be
aspirated
into
a
syringe
connected
to
the
needle.
23-‐
Patient
presented
to
ER
with
pneumothorax.
What
is
your
next
action?
A. Tube
thoracostomy
Correct
answer:
A
24-‐
Contraindication
for
gastric
lavage?
A. Ingestion
of
detergents
B. Ingestion
of
aspirin
Correct
answer:
A
Source:
https://wikem.org/wiki/Gastric_lavage
Gastric
Lavage
Contraindications:
● Corrosive
ingestions
or
esophageal
disease
● The
poison
ingestion
is
not
toxic
at
any
dose
● The
poison
ingestion
is
adsorbed
by
charcoal
and
adsorption
is
not
exceed
by
quantity
ingestion
● Presentation
many
hours
after
poisoning
● A
highly
efficient
antidote
such
as
NAC
is
available
Indications:
● Life-‐threatening
poisoning
(or
history
is
not
available)
and
unconscious
presentation
(eg
Colchicine)
(Protect
airway
(endotracheal
intubation)
if
patient
is
stuporous
or
comatose)
● Life-‐threatening
poisoning
and
presentation
within
1
hour
● Life-‐threatening
poisoning
with
drug
with
anticholinergic
effects
and
presentation
within
4
hours
● Ingestion
of
sustained
release
preparation
of
significantly
toxic
drug
● Large
salicylate
poisonings
presenting
within
12
hours
● Iron
or
lithium
poisoning
25-‐
Infant
with
abdominal
colics,
vomiting
and
bloody
stool,
other
data
provided,
diagnosis
is
intussusception,
the
question
asked
about
the
1st
step
in
management?
A.
IV
fluids
and
bowel
rest
B. CT
abdomen
C. Surgery
D. Barium
enema
Correct
answer:
A
Source:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/930708-‐treatment#d10
Tailor
treatment
of
the
child
with
intussusception
to
the
stage
at
presentation.
For
all
children,
start
intravenous
fluid
resuscitation
and
nasogastric
decompression
as
soon
as
possible.
26-‐
A
patient
with
depression
on
medications
found
comatose
with
empty
pill
bottle
beside
her
On
invx;
ABG
showed
Metabolic
acidosis,
what
drug
overdosed?
A. Aspirin
B. SSRI
Correct
answer:
A
27-‐
A
teenager
came
with
abdominal
pain
after
a
basket
ball
game,
onExamination
,
there's
periumbilical
tenderness.
What
is
the
best
action.
?
A. CT
abdomen
B. Abdominal
US
C. Erect
chest
x
ray
D. Re
examine
after
24
hours.
Correct
answer:
C?
28-‐
Clear
case
of
pericardial
tamponade(
Hypotension,
distended
neck
veins
and
muffled
heart
sounds)
29-‐
RTA
victim
e
closed
head
injury
and
LOC
What
is
the
best
thing
to
do
?
A. Intubation
and
ventilation
B. Check
the
pulses
C. Check
the
pupils
D. Check
the
airway
Correct
answer:
D
30-‐
RTA
victim
was
brought
to
hospital
with
multiple
injuries,
transferred
to
ICU.
There,
he
developed
multi
organ
failure,
the
phosphate
level
in
his
blood
is
raised
,
what
is
the
cause
of
his
multi
organ
failure?
A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Kidneys
D. Liver
Correct
answer:
A
31-‐
2
cases
about
iron
toxicity.
Best
way
to
decontaminate
the
stomach
of
a
patient
with
iron
poisoning?
A. Gastric
lavage,
B. Syrup
epicac
,
C. Something
called
tacren
I'm
not
sure
about
it
and
last
option
was
D. induced
vomiting,
there
was
no
activated
charcoal
in
the
choices.
Correct
answer:
A
Source:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/815213-‐treatment#d10
Gastric
lavage
with
a
large-‐bore
orogastric
tube
may
remove
iron
from
the
stomach.
Ideally,
lavage
should
be
performed
1-‐2
hours
postingestion,
although
later
use
may
be
appropriate
if
evidence
of
iron
products
in
the
stomach
is
observed
on
a
radiograph.
However,
iron
has
a
gelatinous
texture
and
may
be
difficult
to
remove
by
lavage.
The
American
Academy
of
Clinical
Toxicology
advises
that
the
routine
administration
of
ipecac
in
the
emergency
department
should
definitely
be
avoided.
Activated
charcoal
does
not
bind
iron.
However,
it
should
be
utilized
if
co-‐ingestants
are
suspected.
In
acute
or
chronic
iron
toxicity,
chelation
therapy
with
deferoxamine
is
indicated
for
patients
with
serum
iron
levels
>350
mcg/dL
who
have
evidence
of
toxicity,
or
levels
of
>500
mcg/dL
regardless
of
signs
or
symptoms.
In
patients
with
significant
clinical
manifestations
of
toxicity,
chelation
therapy
should
not
be
delayed
while
one
awaits
serum
iron
levels.
32
-‐Iron
poisoning,
a
child
swallowed
a
bottle
filled
iron
pills,
presented
to
ER
e
abdominal
pain,
nausea
and
confusion.
Best
way
to
manage
is
?
A. IV
deferoxamine
Correct
answer:
A
Source:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/815213-‐treatment#d10
In
acute
or
chronic
iron
toxicity,
chelation
therapy
with
deferoxamine
is
indicated
for
patients
with
serum
iron
levels
>350
mcg/dL
who
have
evidence
of
toxicity,
or
levels
of
>500
mcg/dL
regardless
of
signs
or
symptoms.
In
patients
with
significant
clinical
manifestations
of
toxicity,
chelation
therapy
should
not
be
delayed
while
one
awaits
serum
iron
levels.
33
-‐Patient
drank
an
ethylene
glycol
containing
product
,what
renal
damage
is
suspected?
A. Acute
tubular
necrosis
(ATN)
B.
Correct
answer:
A
Source:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Acute_tubular_necrosis#Toxic_ATN
Toxic
ATN
can
be
caused
by
free
hemoglobin
or
myoglobin,
by
medication
including
antibiotics
such
as
aminoglycoside,
statins
such
as
atorvastatin,
and
cytotoxic
drugs
such
as
cisplatin,
or
by
intoxication
(ethylene
glycol,
"anti-‐freeze").
34-‐
Trauma
to
abdomen
Omentum
out.
What
is
the
management?
A. immediate
laporatomy
Correct
answer:
A
Source:
uptodate
http://cursoenarm.net/UPTODATE/contents/mobipreview.htm?23/36/24143
Indications
for
emergent
laparotomy
include:
hemodynamic
instability,
unequivocal
peritoneal
signs
on
physical
examination,
signs
of
gastrointestinal
hemorrhage,
and
implement
in
situ.
Evisceration
of
bowel
or
mesentery
is
an
indication
for
immediate
laparotomy
at
most
trauma
centers
35-‐
What
is
the
maximum
duration
that
N
acetylcystein
can
be
administered?
A. Given
after
8
hrs
B.
NAC
is
most
effective
in
managing
paracetamol
toxicity
when
administered
in
the
first
8
hrs.
Source:bmj
36-‐
MVA
injury
to
jugular
Foramen
which
muscle
will
be
still
functioning
?
A. sternocleidomastoid
muscle
B. hypoglossus
muscle
C. stylopharyngus
muscle
D. Trapazius
Correct
answer:
B
Hypoglossus
muscle
is
supplied
by
XII
nerve,
which
does
not
pass
through
the
jugular
foramen.
37-‐
Patient
with
organophosphate
poisoning
what
to
give
?
A. Atropine
B. Nalxoprine
C. N-‐Actylecystein
D.
Correct
answer:
A
The
antidote
for
organophosphate
toxicity
is
Atropine
&
pralidoxime
38-‐
Child
swallowed
battery,
presenting
with
increase
salivation.
What
is
the
first
step
in
management?
A. X-‐ray
abdomen,
chest,
and
neck
B. Upper
GI
endoscopy
C. Watchful
waiting
for
24
hours
Correct
answer:
A
Source:
http://adc.bmj.com/content/archdischild/61/4/321.full.pdf
39-‐
What
to
give
after
CPR
in
a
child
with
asystole?
A. Atropine
B. Epinephrine
Correct
answer:
B
Source:
AHA-‐
pediatric
cardiac
arrest
algorithm
40-‐
Dehydrated
child
(I
think
moderate)
with
severe
vomiting.
Management
?
A. Pedialyte
10
ml
over
5
min
B. Normal
saline
50ml/kg
C. ORS
with
ratio
of
1:1
glocose
to
sodium
D.
Correct
answer:
B
Source:
clinical
emergency
medicine
41-‐
Patient
with
tachycardia
and
SOB
after
bee
sting
what
is
the
"OPTIMAL"
treatment:
A. Remove
stinger
and
watch
the
pt
B. SC
epinephrine
and
IV
antihistamine.
C. IM
epinephrine
Correct
answer:
C
The
initial
management
include
IM
or
SC
epinephrine
,
while
the
optimal
treatment
include
monitoring
the
patient,
H1
antagonist,
H2
antagonist
,
corticosteroids.
Source
:
Toronto
notes
42-‐
Man
with
aortic
stenosis
develop
syncope
what
is
the
cause
:
A. Systemic
hypotension
43-‐
women
found
unconsious
and
empty
bottle
of
medication
near
to
her
and
she
was
diagnosed
with
depression
previously
on
exam
dilated
unresponsive
pupils
what
is
the
drug:
A. acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. serotonin
Correct
answer:
C
or
TCA
Dilated
pupils
are
more
diagnostic
of
anticholinergic
syndrome
than
serotonin
syndrome.
Source:
bmj
44-‐
Patient
presented
to
ER
with
hx
of
drug
overdose
for
last
8
hours
on
the
examination
the
gag
reflex
was
absent
.
the
best
management
is?
A. Iv
naloxone
B. Immediate
endortracheal
intubation*
C. Gastric
lavage
Correct answer: B
Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1671555/pdf/bmj00153-‐0032.pdf
55-‐
Patient
comes
to
you
with
drooling
saliva
constricted
pupil
same
scenario
almost
as
in
notes
what
to
do
?
A. IV
atropine
B.
Lavage
Correct
answer:
A
Constricted
pupils
and
drooling
are
parts
of
organophosphate
toxicity
syndrome,
which
is
managed
with
atropine.
56-‐
20
years
old
student
came
to
you
lethargic
change
of
sense
of
time
blood
test
normal
and
waiting
for
urine
test
.
What
is
the
cause?
A. Caffeine
B. Cannabis
C. Cocaine
D. Opioid
Correct
answer:
B
57-‐
Overdosed
drug
caused
resp
depression?
opioids
Anticholinergic drugs
61-‐ Pscych pt swallowed safety pin reached dudenum what to do
64-‐
Which
of
the
following
is
the
diagnostic
test
for
tension
pneumothorax?
A. CXR
B. CT
Correct
answer:
A
65-‐
Patient
came
with
the
presentation
of
excess
salivation
and
difficult
breathing
due
to
respiratory
secretions.
The
patient
has
a
history
of
pesticide
exposure
and
now
he
also
have
a
(
garlic
odor)
What
you
will
give:
(ORAGANOPHOSPHATE
POISINING)
A. Nesostagmine
B. Pralidoxime
C.
Correct
answer:
B
Atropine
and
pralidoxime
are
antidotes
of
organophosphate
toxicity
67-‐
How
to
treat
alcohol
withdrawal
(
no
diazepam
in
the
answers)?
A. Disulfiram
B. Propranolol
C. Chlorodizepoxide
Correct
answer
:
C
Chlorodizepoxide
(it
is
benzo
group)
Disulfiram
is
used
is
alcohol
dependence.
68-‐Sign
of
uncomplicated
pneumothorax?
(
decreased
breath
sounds
and
hyperresonance
over
the
affected
side,
mediastinal
shift
toward
the
side
of
pneumothorax)
69-‐
17
years
old
from
MVA,
she
was
intubated
but
then
she
was
severely
hemodynamically
unstable.
What
sign
will
warrant
you?
A. Engorged
IJV
B. Shifted
trachea
Hypotension
Resistant
ventilation
REF:
Deterioration
after
intubation
-‐
DOPE:
● Displaced
ETT
● Obstruction
(anywhere
along
circuit)
● Pneumothorax
● Equipment
failure
(ventilator
malfunction
or
disconnect)
70-‐
Patient
present
to
ER
intensive
knee
swelling
with
ballottement
pattern
next
step?
A. ESR
B. Arthrocentesis
C. CBC
Correct
answer:B
70-‐
23
yo
with
agitation,
dilated
pupil,
diaphorisis
,
tachycardia
,
what
is
the
toxicity?
A. TCA
B. Digoxin
C. Sympathomymetic
D. Anticholenergic
Correct
answer:
C
72-‐
Female
taking
paracetamol
500mg
bid
daily
presented
with
liver
enzymes
elevated
and
hepatomegaly?
A. Alpha
1
antitrypsin
deficiency
B. Liver
damage
due
to
paracetamol
C. Hepatitis
i
guess
Correct
answer:
B
(not
sure)
Paracetamol
ingestion
may
cause
hepatocyte
death
which
causes
acute
liver
failure.
Source:
BMJ
73-‐
Treatment
of
MS
attack
in
ER:
A. Oral
antibiotic
B. IV
antibiotic
C. Oral
steroid
D. IV
steroid
Correct
answer:
D
Source:
step
up
to
medicine
74-‐
Patient
take
a
lot
of
sleeping
drugs
unresponsive
pulse
rapid
weak,
show
reflex
gasping
breathing,
give
2
breathing
by
mask,
next
step?
A. Wait
for
blue
team
B. Perform
CPR
C. Intubate
Correct
answer:
C
CPR
is
not
indicated
if
there
is
pulse.
Source:
AHA
75-‐
Case
scenario
about
patient
with
basal
skull
fracture
what
expected
nerve
injury?
A. Olfactory
B. Optic
C. Oculomotor
Correct
asswer:A
76-‐
Unconscious
patient
with
agonal
gasps?
A. check
carotid
pulse
B. Start
CPR
C. (Rescue
breaths?)
Correct
answer:
B
Agonal
gasping
(
breathing)
is
associated
with
cardiac
arrest.
Source:
AHA
77-‐
Epileptic
pt
with
trauma?
A. Posterior
dislocation
of
shoulder
78-‐
RTA
victim
come
with
closed
head
injury
and
LOC.
What
is
the
best
thing
to
do?
A. Intubation
and
ventilation
B. Check
pulse
C. Check
pupils
D. Check
airway
E.
Correct
answer:
D
Head
injury
with
LOC
requires
immediate
intubation
Source:
Toronto
notes-‐
traumatology
79-‐
A
child
brought
to
ER
with
barking
cough,
red
epiglottis,
thumb
sign
on
x
ray,
Best
initial
management?
A. examination
of
epiglottis
B. Endotracheal
intubation.
C. Emergent
tracheostomy
D. Nasopharyngeal
Tube
Correct
answer:
B
80.
What
is
your
concern
with
the
following
when
giving
a
patient
opioids
(patient
on
opioid,
contraindicated
drug
is)?
A. Aspirin
B. Antidepressants
C. NSAID
D. Laxative
Correct
answer:
B
Source:
https://www.healthline.com/health-‐news/fda-‐warning-‐involving-‐opioid-‐prescriptions-‐
antidepressants#2
81.
paracetamol
antidote?
A. Acetylcysteine
82.
When
to
give
paracetamol
antidote
(
maximum
or
something)?
A. 2h
B. 4h
C. 6h
D. 8h
Correct
answer:D
NAC
is
most
effective
in
managing
paracetamol
toxicity
when
administered
in
the
first
8
hrs.
Source:bmj
83.
20
yrs
girl
come
to
hospital
after
20
mins
of
complain
of
light
headiness
and
headache,....When
she
went
to
the
doctor
she
start
complain
of
peri
oral
numbness
and
fingers
tingling.
What
to
do?
A. alcohol
leveling
84.
Side
affects
of
atropine:
A. Seizure
B. Vomiting
C. Dry
mouth
Correct
answer:C
85.
SE
of
morphine:
A. N/V
86.
1st
symptom
in
hypomagnesemia:
A. Decreased
deep
tendon
reflexes.
(hypermagnesemia)
B. Respiratory
depression.
(
hypermagnesemia)
C.
Hypomagnesemia
:
(muscle
twitch,
weakness,
tremor,
hyperreflexia,
seizure
)
87.
What
drug
is
likely
to
cause
heat-‐stroke
as
it
inhibits
sweating:
A. Hyoscamine
Sulfate
B.
Correct
answer:
A
https://www.drugs.com/pro/hyoscyamine-‐sulfate-‐tablet.html
88.
Usually
if
there
is
fentanyl
overdose
what
will
give?
A. naloxone
89.
Patient
admitted
to
ER,
she
denies
eating
and
says
she's
not
hungry,
BMI
11.3
What
most
likely
to
find
in
her
labs:
A. inc
K
B. Dec
Creatinine
C. Other
labs
D.
Correct
answer:B
GCS
APGAR
SCORE
OB/GYN
1.What
indicates
the
labor
progress?
a.
Descent
of
the
presenting
part
b.
Head
manipulation
c.
Strength
of
uterine
contraction
d.
Frequency
of
uterine
contractions
Answer:
A
2.
Which
OCP
causes
hyperkalemia
a.
Estradiol-‐levonorgestrel
b.
Estradiol-‐drosperirenone
(
yasmin
)
Answer:
B
(https://reference.medscape.com/drug/yasmin-‐yaz-‐drospirenone-‐ethinyl-‐estradiol-‐
342768#4)
3.
When
to
do
screening
for
bacterial
vaginosis?
a.
All
trimester
b.
First
trimester
c.
Second
trimester
Answer:
GBS
screening
at
35-‐37
weeks
gestation
4.
40
y/o
Female
preconception
counseling,
hx
of
fetal
death
after
delivery
with
neural
tube
defect,
what’s
your
best
advice?
a.
It
could
occur
because
of
your
age
b.
Cvs
at
week
16
C.
Folic
acid
supplementation
Answer:
C?
5.
Case
about
threatened
abortion
(hint
is:
POC
is
intact,
and
cervix
is
closed).
6.
MgSO4
is
given
in
pregnancy
in
case
of
preeclampsia
for
what?
Answer:
To
reduce
the
risk
of
seizures.
7.
Greenish
foul
smelling
vaginal
discharge,
oE/
cervix
e
dots
and
erythema
(the
q
provided
the
description
of
strawberry
cx)
Answer:
trichomoniasis
7-‐
Same
scenario
(trichomoniasis),
what
is
the
treatment?
A-‐
Cerftriaxone
B-‐
Metronidazole
Answer:
B
8.
One
of
the
following
is
seen
in
bacterial
vaginosis
a.
No
itching
or
burning
b.
Yellow
discharge
on
Vaginal
PH
paper
c.
Greenish
discharge
Answer:
A
itching
could
be
present,
They
will
have
Alkaline
pH,
in
pH
paper
the
color
of
the
paper
changes
from
bright
yellow
at
pH
4.5
and
lower
to
dark
blue
at
pH
7.0
and
higher.
Characteristic
discharge
appearance
is
thin,
gray,
and
homogeneous.
Positive
whiff
test
and
clue
cells
9.
Young
female
with
fishy
odor
vaginal
discharge
and
positive
whiff
test
a.
B
vaginosis
b.
Trichomoniasis
c.
Candidiasis
d.
Chlamydia
infection
Answer:
A
10.A
female
came
to
GYN
clinic
with
post
coital
bleeding,
Source
of
bleeding
is
a.
cervix
b.
uterus
c.
vulva
d.
vagina
Answer:
A
11.
Couples
are
said
to
be
infertile
after
marriage
and
should
seek
for
fertility
after
a.
3
M
b.
6
M
c.
9
M
d.
12
M
Answer:
D
12.
Young
couples
trying
to
conceive
for
6
months,
both
are
healthy
Answer:
Try
some
more.
13.
38
wks,
multiparous,
with
a
trial
of
ECV
on
week
36,
her
amniotic
fluid
index
is
12,
now
her
fetus
is
in
lateral
position,
her
membranes
ruptured
with
clear
fluids,
What
would
be
the
indication
for
CS?
a.
Repeated
ECV
b.
amniotic
Fluid
index
c.
ROM
d.
Fetal
position
e.
Failed
first
attempt
Answer:
D
14.
Patient
with
DUB,
what
to
give?
Answer:
OCP
(progesterone)
15.
Young
age
married
woman
trying
to
conceive
for
1
year
but
failed,
she
has
some
facial
hair
and
hoarseness
of
voice,
her
husband
semen
analysis
is
normal,
what
is
the
ttt
a.
Laparoscopy
b.
Laparotomy
c.
Clomiphene
citrate
Answer
:
C
16.
Post-‐menopausal
woman
presented
with
vaginal
bleeding
cervical
and
vaginal
exam
normal
except
for
blood
at
the
cervical
os
what
is
ur
next
step:
a.
Endometrial
sampling
b.
Pelvic
ultrasound
c.
Bhcg
d.
Ca
125
Answer:
A
(https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/258148-‐workup#c7)
17.
Which
can
cross
placenta
and
cause
deafness
and
heart
problems?
a.
Rubella
b.
Measles
c.
Mumps
d.
HBV
Answer:
A
18.
30
year
old,
did
HPV
testing
and
pap
smear.
When
is
it
recommended
for
her
to
be
retested?
a.
1
year
b.
2
years
c.
3
years
d.
every
5
yrs.
Answer:
D
(
correct)
(http://www.aafp.org/patient-‐care/clinical-‐recommendations/all/cw-‐pap-‐
smears.html)
Notes
about
pap
smear
and
HPV
:
Age
to
start
:
Screening
should
start
at
age
21
Age
to
stop
:
Women
age
65
and
older
should
stop
getting
screened
if
they
meet
all
3
of
these
requirements:
They
have
never
smoked
They
do
not
have
a
new
sex
partner
since
their
last
Pap
test
They
had
Pap
tests
done
regularly
until
they
turned
65
They
had
3
normal
Pap
tests
in
a
row
They
had
no
abnormal
Pap
From
21-‐29
:
pap
test
every
3
years
30
and
older
:
Pap
test
plus
HPV
test
every
5
years
Or
Pap
test
every
3
years
19.
which
medication
decrease
effect
of
OCP
?
A.Anticoagulant
B.Anticonvulsant
C.Steroids
Answer:
B
20.
Pregnant
in
labor,
fetal
heart
rate
deceleration
from
140
to
80.
What
is
the
most
appropriate
anesthesia?
Answer:
General
anesthesia
21.
Turner
patient
diagnosed
with
premature
ovarian
failure,
which
of
the
following
you
will
expect
to
find?
Answer:
High
FSH,
LH,
low
estrogen
37.
41
week
pregnant
women
came
to
u
with
some
fetus
position
and
u
did
External
cephalic
version,
but
after
some
time
u
found
the
the
fetus
return
to
the
same
previous
position
?
What
prevent
u
from
doing
another
External
cephalic
version,
?
a.
failed
first
attempt
b.
Polyhedron
ibis
c.
Oligohydramnios
d.
Gestational
Age
40
weeks
Answer:
A
or
C,
Contraindication
of
ECV:
Fetal
abnormality,
placenta
previa,
oligohydromnios
or
polyhydromnios,
Hx
of
antepartum
hemorrhage,
previous
c/s,
multiple
gestation,
pre-‐eclampsia
or
hypertension,
plan
to
deliver
c/s
anyway
23.
Best
way
to
prevent
fracture
in
osteopenic
postmenopausal
lady!?
a.
Daily
Vit
D
b.
Exercise
Answer
A
(but
if
there
bisphosphonates
chose
it)
We
suggest
adequate
calcium
and
vitamin
D
for
all
postmenopausal
women
with
osteoporosis
and
bisphosphonates
should
be
considered
as
first-‐line
agents
for
the
prevention
of
osteoporosis.
UpToDate
24.
Lady
has
vaginal
discharge,
postcoital
bleed,
and
painful
urination.
Exam
show
red
cervix,
gram
stain:
gram
negative
diploococci
.What
is
organism?
a.
Gonorrhea
b.
Chlamydia
Answer:
A
25.
Pregnant
lady,
1st
trimester,
UTI
which
Abx
contraindicated:
a.
Tetracycline
b.
Nitrufornitoin
Answer:
A
26.
which
of
the
following
exacerbate
symptoms
of
primary
dysmenorrhea!?
a.
copper
IUD
b.
Levinorgasterel
IUD
c.
Mg
d.
NIfidipine
Answer:
A
Dysmenorrhea
is
often
worse
in
the
first
few
cycles
after
insertion
of
a
copper
IUD,
and
along
with
unscheduled
bleeding,
is
one
of
the
primary
reasons
for
copper
IUD
discontinuation.
However,
discontinuation
rates
for
pain
are
low
(0.1
to
2.4
percent)
in
both
copper
and
LNg20
IUD
users.
Moreover,
the
LNg20
and
LNg14
have
both
been
found
to
reduce
rates
of
dysmenorrhea
.
Mild
to
moderate
dysmenorrhea
can
be
treated
with
nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory
drugs
(NSAIDs)
begun
at
the
onset
of
menses
and
maintained
for
the
first
three
days
of
each
menstrual
cycle.
Women
with
severe
dysmenorrhea
and
a
copper
IUD
should
consider
the
LNg20
or
LNg14
IUD
or
choose
another
method
of
contraception.
reference:
uptodate
27.
Screening
for
Group
b
Streptococcus
in
pregnancy:*
Answer:
35
wks
28.
Female
patient
presented
with
symptoms
of
urinary
incontinence,,
it's
associated
with
cough
and
stress,,
patient
tried
to
avoid
it
by
strengthening
pelvic
muscles
while
accidentally
urinating
but
it
was
of
no
use...
what
to
do
for
her
?
a.
strengthening
pelvic
b.
slings
Answer
:
B
conservative
approaches
to
treatment
of
Stress
urinary
incontinence
include
pelvic
floor
muscle
training
and
incontinence
pessaries
and
Bladder
training.
However,
for
women
who
decline
or
have
insufficient
improvement
following
conservative
therapy,
there
are
a
variety
of
surgical
treatments.
The
introduction
of
midurethral
slings
has
changed
the
decision
process
for
surgical
treatment
and
is
likely
a
factor
in
the
increase
in
the
rate
of
anti-‐incontinence
surgery
in
the
United
States
https://www.uptodate.com.ezp.uod.edu.sa/contents/surgical-‐management-‐of-‐stress-‐urinary-‐
incontinence-‐in-‐women-‐choosing-‐a-‐primary-‐surgical-‐
procedure?source=see_link§ionName=Women%20who%20decline%20or%20have%20persisten
t%20symptoms%20following%20conservative%20therapy&anchor=H4#H4
29.
Which
of
the
following
is
contraindicated
during
pregnancy?
a.
nitrofuranroin
b.
ampicillin
c.
folorquinolones
Answer
is
C
nitrofurantoin
Pregnancy
Risk
Factor
B
(contraindicated
at
term)
fluoroquinolones
are
considered
Pregnancy
Risk
Factor
C
ampicilin
Pregnancy
Risk
Factor
B
uptodate
30.
Patient
presented
with
whitish
vaginal
discharge,
no
foul
smell,
wet
mount
showed
psaeudohyphea
what's
your
treatment
a.
Topical
miconzaole
b.
Metronidazole
c.
Ampicillin
d.
Ceftriaxone
Ans:
A
Ref:
https://www.cdc.gov/std/tg2015/candidiasis.htm
31.
Pt
presented
with
whitish
cheese
like
vaginal
discharge
no
foul
smell
what's
the
organism
a.
Candida
b.
Trichomonas
c.
Syphilis
d.
Chlamidiya
Ans:
A
Ref:
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/2012015-‐overview#a1
32.
16
wk
pregnant
presented
with
severe
vomiting,
abdominal
distention
and
small
for
gestational
age.
U/s
showed
snow
storm.
Bhcg
6.
What
is
the
dx?
a.
Choriocarcinoma
b.
Complete
mole
c.
Partial
mole
Ans:
B
Ref:
https://radiopaedia.org/articles/hydatidiform-‐mole
33.
Pt
presented
with
mobile
vulvar
cyst
what
is
the
dx?
A-‐
Bartholin
cyst
Ans:
incomplete
case,
read
more
from
the
following
link.
Ref:
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/vulvar-‐lesions-‐differential-‐diagnosis-‐based-‐on-‐
morphology#H27977424
34.
What
is
the
most
common
cause
of
bleeding
in
postmenopausal
woman?
a.
cervical
polyp
b.
cervical
erosion
c.
atrophic
vaginitis
d.
endometrial
hyperplasia
Answer:
C
35.
Case
scenario
about
postmenouposal
atrophic
vaginitis
and
ask
about
treatment:
A. topical
steroid
B. topical
estrogen
Answer:
B
36.
39
weeks
pregnant
lady,
without
any
complications
in
her
pregnancy,
came
with
vaginal
bleeding
(Fresh
blood
per
vaginal
with
minimal
clots)
what
is
the
diagnosis
?
a.
abruptio
placenta.
(it
is
painful)
b.
placenta
previa.
c.
attempted
to
abort
herself.
d.
rupture
of
membrane.
(
clear
fluid
not
blood)
Answer:
B
38.
mechanism
of
Action
of
drugs
that
inhibit
Conversion
of
estriol
to
estrogen.
(I
forgot
the
exact
question
but
it
mentioned
about
ovulation
and
who
inhibits
conversion
of
esterone
to
estrogen?)
Answer:
Aromatase
inhibitors
39.
A
women
wants
babies
but
she
doesn't
wants
to
get
pregnant
for
several
years
based
on
these
statistics
of
her
condition
what
contraceptive
you
would
give
her
a.
Diaphragm
b.
Progestin
only
pills
c.
Combined
OCP
Answer:
Question
may
not
including
the
right
answer,
they
want
a
long
acting
contraception!
and
all
of
them
are
used
regularly
If
you
find
implant
(Implanon)
or
intrauterine
device
(IUD)
choose
one
of
them
Reference:
http://m.acog.org/Resources-‐And-‐Publications/Committee-‐Opinions/Committee-‐on-‐
Gynecologic-‐Practice/Increasing-‐Access-‐to-‐Contraceptive-‐Implants-‐and-‐Intrauterine-‐Devices-‐to-‐
Reduce-‐Unintended-‐Pregnancy?IsMobileSet=true
40.
Female
17
year
old,
menarche
at
15,
regular.
Complaining
of
painful
menses.
Examination
unremarkable.
What
to
give
her?
Answer:
NSAID
41.
lady
with
secondary
dysmenorrhea,
has
bilateral
ovarian
cyst,
US
showed
hypoehoic,
doppler
showed
poor
perfusion,
what
next
to
confirm:
a.
CT
b.
MRI
c.
Biopsy
d.
CA125
42.
Pregnant
4cm
dilation
cervix
90%
effacement
with
platelets
60
what's
ur
option
for
anesthesia?
a.
General
b.
Pudendal
c.
Paracervical
d.
Narcotics
Answer
:
A
Pudendal
use
in
2nd
stage
of
labor
Pudendal
and
epidural
are
contraindication
in
low
platelet
pt
43.
38
week
pregnant
LL
swelling
fatigue
(the
hx
suggests
DVT)
A.bed
rest
B.LMWH
C.venography
Answer:
B
http://www.aafp.org/afp/2008/0615/p1709.html
44.
what
can
u
palpate
in
the
lateral
fornix
Answer:
Ovary
45.
Hormonal
replacement
therapy
will
prevent
wt
from
the
following
A.Menopausal
symptoms
B.Osteoporosis
Answer:
A
46.
Pregnant
women
30
weeks
came
to
the
clinic
for
the
first
time,
with
symptoms
of
anemia
(
tachypnea
,
pale
..
Etc
)
and
lower
limb
pitting
edema
+
heart
murmur
,
her
labs.
Showed
Hg
of
6
and
low
MCV
wt
is
the
diagnosis
;
A.Heart
disease
B.Anemia
Answer:
B
47.
Case
scenario
about
female
patient
with
swelling
in
labia
majora
drainage
was
done
2
time
and
she
ask
the
doctor
about
treatment
to
prevent
the
recurrence
?
what
will
he
do
?
A.aspiration
B.Marsupialization
C.drainage.
Answer:
B
There
is
many
options
for
treatment
but
the
best
is
a
surgical
procedure
known
as
marsupialisation
may
be
used.
*Reference
:*
Gynecologist.
48.
Multiparous
lady
with
cervical
dysplasia.
Which
of
the
following
is
the
most
likely
cause
of
her
dysplasia?
A.HPV
B.multiparity
Answer:
A
49.
Lady
24
weeks
pregnant
with
DM2
with
nephritis
grade
F,
and
chronic
HTN
controlled
on
meds,
which
one
of
the
following
is
the
most
likely
complication?
A.Still
birth
B.Preeclampsia
C.Shoulder
dystocia
D.Increased
birth
weight
Answer:
B
50.Case
of
amenorrhea
,
there
is
breast
,
absent
uterus
and
vagina
?
A.Mullerian
agenesis
B.Androgen
insensitivity
Answer:
A
51.Case
of
pregnant
women
,
sleep
a
lot,
want
to
eat
specific
food..
etc,
what
is
the
responsible
hormone?
A.Progesteron
B.Estrogen
C.bHCG
D.Prolactin
Answer:
C
52.Pregnant
41
week
,
cervix
5
cm
dilated
,
60
%
effacement,
in
the
hospital
since
8
hours,
you
checked
again
the
same
date
above,
what
to
do?
(same
q
)Multigravida
came
with
regular
contractions.
Cervix
is
4
cm
dilated
and
60%
effaced.
2-‐3
hours
later
her
cervical
dilation
is
5
cm
but
still
60%
effacement.
What
is
the
management:
A.C/S
B.IV
oxytocin
and
rupture
of
amniotic
membrane
Answer:
A
Ref:
http://www.medscape.com/viewarticle/706359
54.
26
year
old
came
with
foul
smelling
vaginal
discharge
and
irritated
uvula.
Which
one
of
the
following
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis:
A.
Trichomoniasis
B.
Bacterial
vaginosis
C.
Candida
Answer:
A
55.
a
woman
used
IUD
for
contraception,
now
has
vaginal
pain
and
discharge,
What
organism
responsible?
Answer:
IUD
causing
PID
by
actinomyces
israelii
56.
Mother
with
Rh
-‐ve
and
a
father
with
Rh
+ve,
what
the
probability
of
having
Rh
+ve
child?
A.
25%
B.
50%
C.
75%
D.
100%
Answer:
B
57.What
is
the
most
commonly
injured
organ
in
hysterectomy
A.
Ureter
B.
Colon
C.
Bladder
Answer:
C
Ref:
http://laparoscopy.blogs.com/prevention_management_3/2010/07/complications-‐of-‐
laparoscopic-‐gynecologic-‐surgery.html
58.
vaginal
discharge
watery,
yellow
,
foul
smelling,
and
no
itching
?
Answer:
Bacterial
vaginosis.
(
no
itching
,
watery
,
odour)
Take
care
If
they
mentioned
erythema
of
the
vulva
it
will
be
trichomonus
59.
Case
of
miscarriage
,
the
fetus
has
bilateral
renal
agenesis
,
what
you
expect
also
to
find
!?
A.polyhydramnios
B.Oligohydramnios
C.Renal
hyperplasia
Answer:B
60.
Dizygotic
twins
which
is
true?
2
placenta
2
amniotic
fluid
regardless
sex
2
placenta
1
amontic
same
sex
1
placenta
1
amontic
same
sex
1
placenta
1
amontic
regardless
sex
Answer:A
61.PCOS
have
a
risk
to
cause
which
type
of
tumor?
A-‐
endometrial
cancer
B-‐
ovarian
cancer
C-‐
cervical
cancer
Answer:
A
62.pregnant
women
already
have
a
history
of
two
miscarriage,
after
that
the
doctors
diagnosed
her
as
cervical
incompetence,
she's
now
pregnant
and
have
a
bleeding,
what
is
the
cause
of
her
condition?
"
A-‐
cervical
incompetence.
B-‐
chromosomal
disorders
C-‐
ectopic
pregnancy
Answer:A
63.
premature
menopause
at
which
age
:
A.
30
B.
35
C.
40
D.
45
Answer:
C
64.
Most
common
risk
factor
for
fibroid
or
(most
important):
A-‐age
B-‐
African
race
C
-‐multipara
D-‐
Smoking
Answer:
B
(African
women
tend
to
have
larger
fibroid
and
they
are
3
times
more
likely
to
develop
fibroid
than
white
women)
Note:
smoking
and
multipara
is
protective
against
fibroid.
65.
28
years
old
pregnant
lady
with
tubal
pregnancy,
Which
one
of
the
following
most
common
risk
factor
of
ectopic
pregnancy
A-‐
Induction
by
ovulation
B-‐
Previous
pregnancy
(ectopic)
C-‐
IUCD
D-‐
Pelvic
inflammatory
disease.
Answer:
B,D
66.pregnant
lady,
we
want
to
give
her
prostaglandin
F2
alpha,
Which
one
of
the
following
diseases
should
be
taken
into
consideration?
A-‐
Asthma
B-‐DM
C-‐HTN
D-‐
cholelithsis
Answer:
A
67.
Best
investigation
to
diagnose
ECTOPIC
pregnancy:
A-‐Ultrasound
B-‐Laparoscopy
C-‐B
HCG
Answer:
B
68.pregnant
woman
when
to
take
vaginal
swab
for
meningiococcus
or
something
about
infection
to
protect
the
fetus
from
this
infection
?
A.38
weeks
B.40
weeks
C.26
weeks
Answer:
35-‐37
weeks
I
think
they
mean
GBS
infection
69.
women
diagnosed
with
trichomonas
and
she
is
asymptotic,
when
to
start
treatment?
A. immediate
B. when
symptomatic
Answer:
A
70.
when
birth
consider
premature?
A.40
B.38
C.26
Answer
:
Less
than
37
weeks
71.
which
ligament
protect
uterus
from
prolapse
?
A.broad
B.round
C.uterosacral
Answer
:
C
72.
HIV
pregnant
women
something
drop
from
400
to
200
so
how
she
will
deliver?
Spontaneous
vaginal
(
answer
)
73.
Female
with
S&S
of
pregnancy
+right
lower
quadrant
pain
after
doing
US
there
is
ectopic
pregnancy
and
the
pt
stable
what
will
you
do?
Treat
medically
(
methotraxate
if
the
patient
stable
)
74.
S&S
of
pregnancy
B-‐HCG
negative,dx?
Ovarian
torsion(
not
sure,
missing
details
)
75.
what
is
the
role
of
OCP
in
protection
against
illegal
pregnancy
?
Prevent
fertilization
76.
case
of
postpartum
hemorrhage
you
gave
oxytocin
no
stoppage
and
the
diagnosis
was
uterine
atony,
next
step?
Bimanual
compression
77.
which
one
is
true
about
Pap
smear
?
Decrease
the
incidence
of
cervical
ca
dramatically
78.
best
site
to
take
Pap
smear
?
Transformation
zone
79.
In
Pap
smear
you
find
hyperplasia
in
ectocervix
,
next
step?
Colposcopy
directed
biopsy
80.
correct
definition
of
recurrent
miscarriage?
three
or
more
consecutive
pregnancy
losses
81.
pregnant
e
bacterial
vaginosis
what
is
ttt?
No
clindamycin
only
metronidazole
in
choices
Metronidazole
is
the
most
common
and
preferred
antibiotic
82.
A
young
woman
came
to
Primary
health
care
for
pregnancy
counseling,
she
had
chickenpox
when
she
was
a
child.
What
will
you
do
to
her?
A.
Varicella
immunoglobulin.
B.
Rubella
antigen.
C.
Give
MMR
vaccine
Answer
:
B
83.
CASE
about
abruptio
placenta
which
one
of
the
following
sign
and
symptoms
is
the
most
common
or
the
most
serious
one
(I
am
not
sure)?
A-‐vaginal
bleeding
B-‐uterine
contraction
C-‐
Fetal
distress
(most
serious)
Note:
the
choice
is
not
very
accurate
so,
make
sure
in
the
exam.
Answer
:
A
84.
Patient
in
labor
and
got
complicated,
will
go
for
c/s,
when
to
give
abx?
A.
Preoperative
B.
Intrapartum
C.
Intraoperative
Answer
:
A
Note:
To
give
cefazolin
or
ampicillin
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/cesarean-‐delivery-‐preoperative-‐planning-‐and-‐patient-‐
preparation#H9
85
.Multiparous
,38
wks,
in
labour,
90%
cervical
effacement,
4CM
dilatation
,membranes
ruptured
e
clear
fluid
,On
CTG
,FHR
dropped
from
140to
80,
the
pt
platelets=50,000,
what
type
of
anesthesia
is
suitable?
A.
GA
B.
Epidural
Answer:
A
86.
MOA
of
metformin
in
PCOS?
Reduces
insulin
resistance.
87.
Dose
of
folic
acid
during
pregnancy
in
milligrams?
A.
0.4
B.
0.2
C.
2
D.
4
No
risk
factor
:
0.4
Risk
factor
(
NTD,
DM
)
=
4
88.
Safest
anti
diabetic
med
during
pregnancy?
A.
metformin
B.
acarbose
C.
sitagliptine
D.
glypuride
answer:A.
If
there
is
insulin
go
for
it
.
89.
Lady
with
Hx
of
PCO
syndrome
the
best
management
is:
A.
Weight
reduction
*
first
line
*
B.
Metformin
and
clomiphin
(
if
she
wants
to
get
pregnant
)
C.
Weight
reduction,
danazol
and
metformin
Did
not
find
clear
answer
90.
Lesion
from
vulva
with
tree
like
shape?
No
choises
condyloma
acuminatum
valvua
((
i
think
they
mean
cauliflower
o
answers
was
provided
I
tried
to
search
no
answers
)
91.
Female
come
for
follow
up
with
lesion
in
labia
majora
2
in
2
cm,
biopsy
was
taken,
what
is
the
histopathology
of
this
biopsy?
A.
Adenocarcinoma
B.
Squamous
cell
carcinoma
C.
Adeno
squamous
cell
carcinoma
Answer
:
B
92.
Female
come
to
the
clinic
with
plaque
in
labia
majora,
what
most
likely
to
be?
A.
Basal
cell
carcinoma
B.
Melanoma
C.
lupus
pernio
Answer
:
B
93.
Female
had
2
abortion
in
second
trimester,
last
one
done
for
her
D&C
diagnosed
as
cervical
incompetence
now
pregnant
in
5
week
present
with
vaginal
bleeding
and
open
cervical
os
what
is
the
cause
of
bleeding?
A.
Luteal
phase
defect
B.
Cervical
incompetence
(
second
and
third
trimesters)
C.
Asherman
syndrome
D.
Chromosomal
cause
Answer
:
D
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/miscarriage-‐beyond-‐the-‐basics
94.
Female
had
2
abortion
in
second
trimester,
last
one
done
for
her
D&C
diagnosed
as
cervical
incompetence
now
pregnant
in
10
week,
vaginal
bleeding
stopped
and
closed
cervical
os.
what
to
do
next?
A.
Bed
rest
B.
Cerclage
(
12-‐14
weeks.)
C.
Salicylate
D.
Admission
Answer
:
A
95.
Pregnant
in
37
week
come
complain
of
RUQ
pain,
headache
and
blurred
vision,
they
do
emergency
c/s,
and
MgSO4
was
given,
one
houre
later
she
develop
tachycardia
130
and
BP
110/74,
what
to
expect?
A.
Hemorrhage
B.
Mg
toxicity
C.
Anesthesia
induced
hypotension
Answer
:
B
96.
Scenario
of
severe
preeclampsia
given
MGSO4
and
reflex
is
+1?
magnesium
sulfate
toxicity
97.
Pregnant
lady
has
preeclampsia
started
on
mg
sulphate
and
hydralazine
then
RR
become
12
what
to
give?
A.
narcan
B.
atropin
C.
ca
gluconate
D.
naloxone
Answer
:
C
https://overdoseinfo.com/magnesium-‐sulfate-‐toxicity/
98.
Primary
PPH
,
give
the
pt
oxytocin
no
benefit,
what
is
second
step?
A.
uterine
massage
B.
ligation
internal
iliac
A
C.
hysterectomy
Answer
:
A
.
99.
PPH
with
low
BP
and
tachycardia
the
1st
thing
to
do?
A.
Ergotamine
B.
Ringer
lactate
C.
Normal
saline
with
something
100.
Tumor
associated
with
polycystic
ovarian
syndrome?
A.
Lung
B.
Breast
C.
Endometrium
D.
Ovary
Answer:
C
101.
A
patient
about
40s
and
had
PCO
since
she
was
young,
now
she
has
vaginal
bleeding.
what
is
the
most
likely
she
has?
No
choices
PCOS
associated
with
endometrial
hyperplasia
and
later
carcinoma
102.
Female
with
PCOS
and
has
very
enlarged
ovaries,
on
examination
how
do
you
differentiate
between
ascites
and
her
cystic
ovaries?
A.
Fluid
thrill.
B.
Dullness
in
the
flanks
and
tymany
in
the
midline.
C.
Tympany
in
the
flanks
and
dullness
in
the
midline.
Answre:
B
103.
20
years
old
female
with
hirsutism,
acne,
menstrual
is
regular,
ovaries
US
shows
perl
string
appearance.
what
is
the
dx:
A.
Prolactinoma
B.
PSOS
C.
hypothyroidism
Answer
:
B
(
perl
string
appernce
i
think
it
should
be
irregular
typo
)
104.
20
years
old
female
with
hirsutism,
acne,
menstrual
is
irregular,
ovaries
US
shows
perl
string
appearance.
what
is
the
dx:
A.
PCOS
B.
Congenital
adrenal
hyperplasia
Answer
:A
105.
Girl
with
normal
menstruation
has
ovarian
mass
7
cm:
A.
Benign
teratoma
B.
pco
C.
something
malignant
D.
Functional
cysts
Answer
:D
106.
Female
patient
with
gonorrhea.
What
to
rollout?
A.
Herpes
B.
Chlamydia
C.
Bacterial
vaginosis
Answer
:
B
107.
Gonorrhea
commonly
found
in:
Urethra
Cervix
Annswer
:B
Diagnosis
is
by
testing
the
urine,
urethra
in
males,
or
cervix
in
females
108.
Watery-‐gray
vaginal
discharge,
fishy
odor,
some
itching
and
discomfort,
the
husband
uses
condom.
The
most
likely
organism:
A.
candida
B.
bacterial
Answer
:
B
109.
60
YO
female
with
bloody
nipple
discharge,
O/E:
1
cm
mass
subaereolar.
What’s
the
best
management:
A.
excision
and
Bx
B.
mammo
with
FNA.
Answer
:
B
110.
postpartum
came
with
discharge
with
other
symptoms.
I
111.
30
years
old
female
with
….
in
the
vagina
(i
forget),
she
has
high
FSH
and
LH?
ovarian
failure
112.
Patient
with
merorraghea
wha
to
give
her?
Combined
oral
contraception
113.
Inhibition
of
which
of
the
following
is
the
primary
action
of
oral
contraceptives?
A.
Decrease
estrogen
to
prevent
the
ovulation
B.
Decrease
GTRH
spur
at
the
mid
cycle
C.
Increase
prolactin
D.
Suppressing
the
release
of
gonadotropins
E.
Spermatozoa
and
thickening
cervical
mucusa
Answer
:
D
114.
How
is
the
MOA
for
emergency
contraceptives?
A.
Prevents
fertilization
B.
Prevents
implantation
C.
Prevents
anovulation
D.
Delays
fertilization
Answer:
B
115.
A
patient
come
after
one
day
of
intercorse
afraid
to
get
pregnant.
What
to
give
her?
emergency
contraceptives
117.
How
ectopic
pregnancy
occurs
at
the
cellular
level?
A.
Early
abscess
of
zona
pellucida
B.
Persistence
of
zona
pellucida
Answer:
A
(
i
think
they
mean
disappearance
=absent
)
118.
Patient
with
constipation,
weight
loss
and
pelvic
mass.
What
will
help
in
reaching
the
Dx?
A.
Pap
smear
B.
Colposcopy
Missing
information
wide
differential
Ovarian
cancer
:
CA-‐125
blood
test.
TVUS
Symptoms
suggestive
of
cervical
cancer
:
colposcopy
.
https://www.cancer.org/cancer/cervical-‐cancer/detection-‐diagnosis-‐staging/how-‐diagnosed.html
119.
When
to
consider
prolonged
pregnancy?
A.
40
weeks
B.
41
weeks
C.
42
weeks
D.
43
weeks
Anwer
:
C
120.
OCP
by
increase:
A.
Estrogen
B.
Progesterone
C.
FSH
D.
LH
Answer
:
B
121.
56
yrs
old
woman
with
uncontrolled
urination
upon
coughing,
sneezing
or
laughing,
Best
Mx
measure
for
her
is:
Kegel
Exercise
122.
what
is
true
about
Pap
smear?
A.
21
till
65
yrs
repeated
every
year
B.
21
till
65
yrs
repeated
every
5
yrs
C.
21
till
35
repeated
every
3
years
D.
30
till
65
repeated
every
5
yrs
Answer
:
D
every
5
year
if
(
pap+
HPV)
123.
Female
has
genital
warts
over
the
past
years,
genital
warts
are
associated
with
what
?
hyperkeratosis
124.
A
woman
in
labour,
everything
is
fine,
she
asked
for
Epidural
analgesia,
what
test
should
be
requested?
A.
Hb
B.
PLT
count
Answer
:
B
125.
Best
way
to
diagnose
bacterial
vaginosis?
gram
stain
126.
23
yrs
old
female,
with
burning
upon
voiding
urine,
she
goes
frequently
to
bathroom
but
with
little
amount
of
urine
voided,
she
does
not
have
suprapubic
tenderness
OE,
she
had
also
hematuria.
What
to
do?
A.
Urinalysis
and
culture
B.
testing
for
Gonorrhea/chlamydia
C.
Pylocyctogram
Answer
:
unclear
question
but
usually
start
simple
and
noninvasive
to
diagnose
or
rule
out
most
common
disease
such
as
urinalysis
and
culture
127.
most
common
type
of
fibroid
A.
submucous
B.
intramural
C.
subserous
Answer:
B
128.
multiparous
woman
term,
came
with
Progressive
contractions
and
cervical
dilatation,
mentioned
that
her
membranes
ruptured
and
fluid
was
clear(
details
of
examination
plus"
uterine
tenderness")
correct
action?
Multiple
choices
and
one
of
them
was
give
intrapartum
abX
✔
Because
this
is
a
case
of
chorioamnionitis
with
possible
GBS
infection
so
treated
e
intrapartum
antibiotics
129
.40
yrs
old
multiparous
with
hx
of
CSCame
e
vaginal
bleeding,
which
was
painless,
she
is
38
weeks,
US
examination
showed
low
lying
placenta
,
which
of
the
following
would
make
the
doctor
decide
CS
with
hysterectomy?
A
.age
of
pt
B
.Previous
CS
C
.placenta
accreta
D
.multiparity
answer:C
130
.A
woman
e
Ca
cervix
,e
mets
beyond
uterus
and
cervix,
1st
group
of
LN
receiving
the
lymphatic
drainage
is:
A
.uterine
B
.external
iliac
C
.common
iliac
D
.para
aortic
Answer
:
B
131.
Pregnant
lady
on
her
24th
week
of
gestation
with
a
significant
medical
history
of
DM
II
on
insulin
with
nephritis,
chronic
HTN
controlled
on
medications.
O/E
her
fundal
height
was
25
cm,
otherwise
unremarkable
PE.
What
complication
is
more
likely?
A)
Pre-‐Eclampsia.
B)
Shoulder
dystocia.
C)
Stillbirth.
D)
Large-‐for-‐Gestational-‐Age
infant.
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1476919-‐overview
DM
can
increase
the
risk
of
preeclampsia
especially
with
nephritis
Answer
:A
132.
Preeclampsia
case
what
is
the
first
step
?
A.
Magnesium
sulphate
B.
IV
hydralazine
C.
Methyldopa
Answer
:
sever/end
organ
damage
A
133.
A
female
with
polycystic
ovarian
syndrome
noticed
hyperpigmented
skin
in
her
neck
and
axilla,
what
is
this
abnormality
called?
a.
Acanthosis
nigricans
b.
Linea
nigra
A
134.
Female
patient
pregnant
present
with
abdominal
pain
and
vomiting.
Vital
sign
normal
except
blood
pressure
160/100.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Renal
failure.
B.
Fetal
distress.
(
no
preeclampsia
in
the
choices
)
sever
pre-‐eclamsia
160/110
135.
When
you'll
do
Alpha
fetoprotein
?
(16-‐18)
A.
13
B.
15
C.
17
D.
19
Answer:
C
136.
women
with
DUB
&
Endometrium
biopsy
shows:
endometrial
hyperplasia
This
caused
by?
a)
Adrenal
hyperplasia
b)
Liver
dysfunction
c)
Local
genetic
mutation
in
the
endometrium
d)
Peripheral
percoser
converted
to
estrogen
Answer
:
C
137.
patient
with
high
grade
hyperplasia
with
atypia
and
total
hysterectomy?
(I
do
not
know
what
is
the
question)
138.
Patient
had
fibroid
3*4
cm
take
tamox
after
1
years
come
with
vaginal
bleeding
US
show
fibroid
6cm
with
endometrial
hyperplasia
what
is
the
cause
of
bleeding?
A.
Fibroid
B.
Endometrial
hyperplasia
Answer
:B
139.
28
years
old
diabetic
female
DM1
controlled
by
insulin
she
is
married
and
wants
to
become
pregnant.her
blood
glucose
is
well
controlled
and
she
is
asking
about
when
she
must
control
her
metabolic
state
to
decrease
risk
of
having
congenital
anomalies:
A.
before
conception
B.
1st
trimester
C.
2nd
trimester
D.
3rd
trimester
Answer
:
A
140.
First
trimester
.with
H/O
GDM
in
last
pregnancy
3
yrs
back.
When
you
do
GTT?
16
weeks
If
there
is
a
risk
do
it
in
the
first
trimester
(less
or
equal
16)
All
pregnant
24-‐28
Weeks
141.
Case
of
GDM
risk
in
future
develop
DM2?
142.
Long
scenario
of
pregnant
women
admitted
due
to
hypertension,
proteinuria,
lower
limb
oedema
fundal
level
not
corresponding
to
gestational
age.
What
the
risk
to
baby
to
develop
IUGR???
A.
elevated
maternal
liver
enzymes
(
??
placental
insufficiency)
?
B.
oligohydramnios
C.
polyhydromenous
D.
GDM
Answer
:B
(
I
asekd
dr.reem
alanzi
about
this
question
)
SMLE
12
Page
437
Q
97
143.
45
years
old
Female,
on
estrogen.
Complain
of
dysuria
for
the
last
year
frequency
low
steam
void,
she
had
recurrent
UTI,
take
multiple
antibiotic
without
benefits,
Examination
shows
normal
vagina/vulva/cervix?
and
tenderness
at
neck
of
bladder.
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Traumatic
urethritis
B.
Interstitial
urethritis
C.
DM
D.
Candida
Answer
:
B
144.
A
wife
of
a
man
diagnosed
as
having
gonorrheal
infection
she
was
worried
about
transmission
of
the
infection
from
her
husband
what
is
the
best
investigation
to
exclude
gonorrhea
infection?
Gram
stain
145.
Lady
in
labor,
you
can
feel
nasal
bridge
and
orbital
ridge.
Which
one
compatible
with
vaginal
delivery?
A.
Mentoanterior
B.
Mentoposterior
C.
Transverse
mentoanterior
answer:A
146.
contraindications
for
breastfeeding?
A.
Active
HCV.
(
IF
WITH
CRACKED
NIPPLE
)
B.
Active
HIV.
C.
Varicella
zoster
Answer
:
b
147.
disease
increases
the
mortality
in
pregnant
female?
Pheochromocytoma
Peripartum
cardiomyopathy
develops
in
the
last
weeks
of
pregnancy
until
6
weeks
postpartum
(
IF
IT
WAS
one
of
the
option
)
148.
Pregnant,
36
weeks,
present
with
agitation,
BP:
88/60,
fetal
distress,
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Pulmonary
embolism.
B.
Amniotic
fluid
embolism
C.
Abruption
(
BV
bleeding+
pain
)
Missing
information
mostly
A
not
sure
.
149.
Female
pregnant
with
small
fibroid
what
to
tell
her
about
the
risk:
A.
Risk
of
preterm
labor
B.
Degeneration
is
common
C.
Mostly
asymptomatic
Answer:
C
150.
34
years
old
woman
,Multiparous
,
complain
of
heavy
menstruation
,
upon
examination
:
there
is
intramural
fibroid
151.
Picture
of
CTG,
what's
the
dx?
152.
Breastfeeding
mother
(they
gave
history
of
mastitis
and
was
treated
with
antibiotics)
after
3
weeks,
lump
occurred
fluctuating,
not
tender,
what
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
Breast
abscess
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/781116-‐
clinical?pa=Rwlpdtd60tTvbZzGkjszR4uzFrShLqaKyXFvSgKPRiFt%2BR95nHSjnV9%2FkrGRFHQFfbcwf64
RVLoPX%2FSLPtDaPfEiL5fM42L%2B9xlMlua7G1g%3D
153.
Pregnant
women
with
placenta
previa
what
is
the
risk
factor:
A.
race
B.
age
C.
previous
placenta
previa
Answer
:
C
154.
Para2
woman
planned
with
her
husband
to
avoid
pregnancy
during
next
3
yrs
she
doesn’t
like
to
use
IUDS
nor
OCP
What
should
you
tell
her
about
transdermal
contraceptive
A.
It’s
more
likely
to
form
clots
more
than
OCP
B.
It’s
easy
to
forget
changing
it
C.
less
effective
than
IUD/OCP
Answer
:
A
155.
young
couples
trying
to
conceive
for
6
months,
both
are
healthy
try
some
more.
156.
Women
at
40
week
gestation
suddenly
develope
dyspnea
with
hypoxia
and
chest
pain:
A.
Amniotic
fluid
embolism
B.
Pulmonary
embolism
C.
Myocardial
infarction
Answer
:
B
157.
Female
g3p2
20
week
ask
you
about
cancer
happen
during
pregnancy,
2
of
his
sister
develop
cancer
during
pregnancy
and
died,
origin
of
cancer
A.
Ovary
B.
Breast
C.
Cervix
D.
Vulvar
Answer:
B
158.
Most
common
malpresentation:
A.
Braw
B.
Breech*
C.
Face
D.
Transverse
Answer
:
B
159.
case
scenario
about
female
with
past
hx
of
PROM
and
now
she
is
pregnant
asymptomatic
and
ask
about
indication
of
screening
for
bacterial
vaginosis:
A.
no
indication
B.
screen
at
first
trimester
C.
screen
at
second
trimester
D.
screen
at
third
trimester.
answer:A
160.
MAFP
measure
in
which
week:
A.
13
weeks
B.
15
weeks
C.
17
weeks*
Answer
:
C
15–18
weeks
Not
sure
about
the
correct
answer
what
I
found
is
15-‐18
week
161.
Female
patient
with
hX
of
multiple
abortion
and
D&C
want
to
get
pregnant
what
is
the
diagnosis:
Asherman
syndrome
(
corrrect
)
162.
Patient
with
two
time
ASCUS
pap
smear
what
do
next:
Colposcopy
163.
42
years
old
female
with
hx
of
hot
flushing
and
night
sweating
and
amenorrhea
what
the
diagnosis?
A.
Hypothyroidism
B.
Congenital
adrenal
hyperplasia
C.
Hyperprolactinemia
Correct
:
C
164.
Pregnant
women
during
labor
,
Iv
oxytocin
was
given
the
CTG
show
variable
and
acceleration
what
will
you
do?
A.
Stop
oxytocin
B.
Expectant
delivery
C.
Change
mother
position
Answer:b
165.
Giving
birth
,
cervix
6
cm
dilated
,
fetus
is
left
occiput
posterior
,
sign
of
molding
can
be
felt
what
the
stage?
First
(
correct
)
166.
Daily
requirement
of
iron
in
pregnancy?
14.7
mg/day
(
requirement
of
iron
)
with
30
mg
to
60
mg
of
elemental
iron
(
dose)
http://www.who.int/elena/titles/guidance_summaries/daily_iron_pregnancy/en/
167.
On
examination:
her
cervix
is
dilated
by
3
cm
and
effaced
by
70%
and
fetal
presenting
part
at
0
station.
After
6
hours
or
so,
her
cervix
is
dilated
by
7
cm
and
effaced
by
80%,
but
she
is
complaining
of
tenderness
when
palpated
the
uterus,
her
temperature
is
38.
what
is
the
best
management?
A.
Give
intrapartum
antibiotics.
B.
Emergency
cs
C.
IV
antibiotics
ƒ
ampicillin
(2
g
IV
q6h)
and
gentamicin
(1.5
mg/kg
q8h)
ƒ
anaerobic
coverage
(i.e.
clindamycin
if
C/S)
answer:A
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/group-‐b-‐streptococcus-‐and-‐pregnancy-‐beyond-‐the-‐basics
•
expedient
delivery
regardless
of
gestational
age
torronto
notes
ﻣﺪﺭرﻱي ﻭوﺵش َﺫذﺍا ﻳﯾﻤﻜﻦ ﺗﺴﺘﻔﻴﯿﺪﻭوﻥن ﻣﻨﻪﮫ ﺍاﺫذﺍا ﻣﺎ ﺍاﺳﺘﻔﺪﺗﻮﺍا ﺍاﻣﺴﺤﻮﻩه :
ﺍاﺭرﻭوﻯى ^
168.
67
years
female
on
regular
follow
up
for
20
year
for
pap
smear
which
is
negative
regarding
check
up
A.
every
6months
B.
every
year
C.
every
3years
D.
no
further
check
up
answeR:
D
169.
pt
hysterectomy
done
co
of
mild
pain
in
incision
site.
Hb
normal,
Temperature
37.5,
HTC
normal,
Bp
110/70.
What
cause
to
be
still
in
hospital??
A.
low
Hb
B.
high
tempreture
C.
high
HTC
D.
because
not
oral
feeding
Normal
temp
:
37ºC
(98.6ºF),
but
anywhere
between
36.5ºC
and
37.2ºC
Postpartum
fever
is
defined
as
a
temperature
of
38.7
degrees
C
(101.6
degrees
F)
or
greater
for
the
first
24
hours
or
greater
than
38.0
degrees
C
(100.4
degrees
F)
on
any
two
of
the
first
10
days
postpartum.
I
asked
a
fellow
her
answer
was
B
But
I
not
convinced
by
her
answer
I
tried
to
look
for
criteria
of
discharge
did
not
find
anything
useful
I
think
the
answer
is
D(
Dana
)
170.
50
years
old
complain
of
2
months
of
amenorrhea
what
u
will
found
A.
Increase
FSH,increase
LH
B.
Decrease
FSH,decrease
LH
C.
Increase
FSH,decrease
LH
Answer
:A
171.
Which
one
of
the
Contraceptive
drug
cause
hirsutism
“androgenic”
side
effects?
progesterone
only
172.
Female
with
developed
secondary
sex
character
sparing
axillary
and
pubic
hair
in
investigation
there
was
high
testosterone,dx?
Androgen
insensitivity
syndrome
173.
Women
underwent
bilateral
salpingoophrectomy
and
hysterectomy,
she
developed
hot
flushes.
You
want
to
give
her
Hormonal
replacement
therapy.
What
will
you
give?
A.
Cyclic
estrogen
and
progesterone
B.
Continues
estrogen
and
progesterone
C.
Transdermal
estrogen
patches
D.
Levonorgestrel
IUD
Answer
:c
(
NO
need
for
protective
effect
of
progestron
since
she
had
hysterctomy
)
but
estrogen
patches
is
no
longer
giving
due
risk
of
DVT
and
high
estrogen.
Confusing
question
it’s
eather
A
or
C
174.
Hormone
replacement
therapy
increase
risk
of
A.
Endometrial
cancer
B.
Breast
cancer
C.
Ovarian
cancer
Answer
:
B
175.
40
years
old
Patient
she
has
secondary
dysmenorrhea
and
heavy
bleeding
they
decided
to
do
hysterectomy,
diagnosis
was
confirmed
with
a
histopathological
exam
of
the
tissue
of
hysterectomy,
which
of
the
following
is
the
best
non
invasive
investigation
to
support
the
suspected
diagnosis.
A.
office
endometrial
biopsy
B.
pelvic
MRI
C.
pelvic
CT
D.
pelvic
US
Adenomyosis
:
answer
B
176.
what
is
the
best
non-‐invasive
method
to
diagnose
Adenomyosis
A.
Office
sampling
B.
Ultrasound
C.
MRI
Answer
:
MRI
(more
sensitive
and
specific)
A
definitive
diagnosis
of
adenomyosis
can
only
be
made
from
histological
examination
of
a
hysterectomy
specimen.
The
preoperative
diagnosis
is
suggested
by
characteristic
clinical
manifestations
(ie,
menorrhagia
and
dysmenorrhea
with
a
uniformly
enlarged
uterus)
in
the
absence
of
endometriosis
or
leiomyomas.
Both
transvaginal
ultrasound
(TVUS)
and
magnetic
resonance
imaging
(MRI),
especially
T2-‐weighted
images,
are
increasingly
used
for
clinical
decision-‐making.
178.
Most
common
cause
to
perform
hysterectomy?
Uterine
fibroid
179.
Pap
smear
of
ASC-‐US,
what
to
do
next?
A.
Reassure
B.
Hysterectomy
C.
Repeat
D.
Cone
biopsy
Answer
:
b
(
if
21-‐30
year:
repaat
)
if
>30
year
do
HPV
180.
Pregnant
prolonged
labour
for
12hrs
asthmatic,
mitral
stenosis
what
is
the
indication
for
forceps
delivery?
A.
Asthma
B.
Prolonged
labour
C.
Mitral
stenosis
D.
I
forgot
it
Answer
:
C
(
either
prolonged
2nd
stage
or
maternal
cardiac
condition
,
need
more
details
about
which
stage
of
labor
)
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/operative-‐vaginal-‐delivery
181.
Pregnant
lady
on
20
weeks
has
active
herpes
what
you
gonna
do?
A.
Give
acyclovir
B.
Wait
until
2
week
and
C.S
election
gve
before
delivery.
Answer
:A
182.
Pregnant
with
UTI
what
is
the
complications
that
might
happen?
A.
Low
birth
weight
B.
Preterm
(
BV
)
C.
Acute
pyelonephritis
ANSWER
:
c
183.
Elderly
women
with
vulvovaginal
lichen
planus
lesion
in
posterior
vaginal
fornix,
this
patient
is
at
risk
to
develop
which
type
of
the
following
vaginal
cancer:
A.
Squamous
cell
carcinoma
B.
Adenocarcinoma
C.
Squamous
adenocarcinoma
Answer:
A
184.
How
to
screen
for
thalassemia
in
pregnant
women:
A.
US
on
12
weeks
B.
Chorionic
villus
sampling
at
16
weeks
C.
Triple
test
at
16
weeks
D.
quadruple
test
at
15
weeks
Note:
it’s
by
mniocentesis
–
this
is
done
from
15
weeks
of
pregnancy.
I
THINK
TYPO
https://www.nhs.uk/Conditions/pregnancy-‐and-‐baby/Pages/screening-‐sickle-‐cell-‐thalassaemia-‐
pregnant.aspx
185.
40
yrs
old
pregnant,
history
of
dead
upon
delivery
baby,
is
thinking
of
getting
pregnant;
&
worries
that
the
same
will
happen
again
,what
will
you
tell
her:
A.
Sampling
of
amniotic
fluids
@
(
X
of
month)
B.
Has
the
same
risk
as
the
rest.
C.
Higher
risk
because
of
her
age
D.
US
@
X
of
months
Depend
on
number
A
should
be
more
than
16
weeks
186.
OCP
side
effect
dry
skin
muscle
spasm,
deprration
A.
Hypothyroidism
B.
Hyperkalemia
C.
Hypocalcemia
ANSWER:
b
187.
Ovarian
cancer
tumor
marker
?
A.
CA125
B.
AFP
C.
PS
ANSWER
:
A
188.
18
year
old
girl
with
primary
amenorrhea
Normal
pubic
hair
and
breast
development,
Absence
of
uterus:
A.
Klinefelter
syndrome
B.
Mallrune
agencia
C.
Turner
syndrome
Answer
:B
189.
Pregnant
at
8
weeks
and
had
previous
baby
with
down
syndrome,
she
wants
to
screen
for
down
in
this
pregnancy,
you
booked
her
after
2
weeks
for
the
test.
What
should
you
write
in
the
consent
form
as
a
complication
for
this
test?
A.
Risk
of
miscarriage.
(my
answer
b/c
CVS
can
cause
miscarriage)
B.
Rupture
amniotic.
answeREr:
A
190.
Case
of
premenstrual
symptoms,
what
to
give?
fluoxetine(
ssri
)
191.
Ovarian
mass
measuring
5
cm
not
affecting
menstrual
cycle,
what
dx?
A.
Follicular
cyst
(
simple
cyst)
B.
Theca
lutein
(
lear,
straw-‐colored
fluid)
C.
Something
carcinoma
NOT
SURE
!
192.
What
is
the
most
common
birth
injury?
A.
Clavicular
fracture
B.
Shoulder
dislocation
C.
Hip
dislocation
D.
Femur
fracture
Answer
:
A
http://www.birthinjuryguide.org/birth-‐injury/types/infant-‐broken-‐bones/
193.
Case
of
G2P1
+0
(not
sure)
and
presented
with
lower
abdominal
pain
that
comes
and
goes
for
10-‐15
min
more
in
the
right
iliac
fossa.
Pregnancy
test
was
negative
(although
she
is
G2P1+0).
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Acute
appendicitis
B.
Ectopic
pregnancy
ANSWER
:
A
??
194.
Menorrhagia
define
as?
How
much?
Menorrhagia
is
defined
as
excessive
uterine
bleeding
occurring
at
regular
intervals
or
prolonged
uterine
bleeding
lasting
more
than
seven
days.
Classically
more
than
80
ml/cycle.
195.
Patient
with
elevated
CA125
levels,
what
is
she
in
risk
for?
A.
Ovarian
germ
cell
tumor
B.
Sex
cord
ovarian
tumor
C.
Epithelial
ovarian
tumor
Answer:
C
196.
Patient
with
ovarian
mass.
What
is
the
best
screening
test:
A.
Ultrasound
B.
CA
125
Answer:
B
197.
Pregnant
lady
has
hypothyroidism,
how
much
do
you
have
to
increase
her
dose?
A.
10%
B.
20%
C.
30%
D.
40%
Answer:
25-‐50%
198.
Amniocentesis
is
best
done
at
what
gestational
age:
A.
10
Weeks
B.
12
Week
C.
14
Week
D.
16
Week
Answer:
D
199.30
weeks
gestation
came
with
Bp=
162/95
urine
protein
+2.
Which
one
of
the
following
you're
going
to
give?
A.
Dexamethasone
B.
Magnesium
sulphate
C.
Methyldopa
D.
Labetalol
Answer:
B
200.
Fetus
with
single
umbilical
artery.
What
could
be
the
cause
?
Answer:
The
occurrence
of
a
single
umbilical
artery
is
thought
to
be
due
to
secondary
atresia
or
atrophy
rather
than
primary
agenesis
of
the
artery.
the
absence
of
the
left
umbilical
artery
is
much
more
common
(~70%).
201.
postmenopausal
women
taking
estrogen
and
progesterone,
Increase
risk
of
which
cancer?
Answer:
Breast
cancer
202.
What
is
the
preferred
pelvis
shape
for
vaginal
delivery?
A.
Gynecoid
B.
Android
C.
Platypelloid
D.
Anthropoid
Answer:
A
203.
Hymen
penile
penetration:
Answer:
6
o’clock.
Note:
The
question
is
not
clear
204.
Pregnant
lady
with
history
of
2
SvD
with
normal
babies
of
3
kg.
The
baby
is
breech
and
the
head
is
flexed
she
found
to
have
bicornuate
uterus
.
And
the
baby
weight
is
2kg
.
What
is
the
contraindication
for
external
cephalic
version
?
A.
Baby
weight
B.
Flexion
of
the
head
C.
Bicornuate
uterus.
D.
Hyperextended
head.
Answer:
C
205.
Pregnant
with
genital
warts
what
to
do?
Answer:
Vaginal
delivery
Source:
https://www.cdc.gov/std/treatment/2010/genital-‐warts.htm
206.
Placenta
previa
and
adherent
what
is
the
noninvasive
test
to
do?
A.
MRI
B.
Transvaginal
US
C.
Doppler
ultrasound
Answer:
B
Explanation:
MRI
is
too
expensive
207.
patient
in
postpartum
hemorrhage,
you
want
to
give
methylergonovine.
what's
the
relative
contraindication
to
use
it:
A.
Asthma
B.
Diabetes
C.
Hypertension
Answer:
C
208.
Most
common
way
of
HIV
vertical
transmission
and
…
?
A.
Placenta
B.
Breastfeeding
C.
Umbilical
cord
blood
contamination
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Exposure
through
pregnancy,
birth,
or
breastfeeding
—
Vertical
transmission
of
HIV
can
occur
at
any
time
during
gestation
and
delivery,
and
through
breast
milk
in
the
postpartum
period.
More
than
95
percent
of
HIV-‐infected
children
worldwide
have
acquired
the
virus
via
vertical
transmission.
The
rate
of
vertical
transmission
of
HIV
varies
from
approximately
20
to
30
percent
in
the
absence
of
antiretroviral
therapy.
Although
it
is
known
that
HIV
can
be
transmitted
early
in
gestation
in
utero,
most
transmissions
(50
to
80
percent)
are
believed
to
occur
during
the
time
period
near
or
during
delivery
.
reference:
uptodate
209.
Mother
had
abortion
two
times
last
child
with
45X
monosomy,
recurrence
in
next
pregnancy?
A.
40%
B.
60%
C.
70%
D.
90%
Answer:
Recurrence
of
TS
is
observed
in
1.4%,
which
represents
a
35-‐fold
increased
probability
of
having
a
second
child
with
TS
compared
to
general
population.
Source:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/21648298
210.
Painless
Genital
ulcer
plus
inguinal
lymphadenopathy:
Answer:
Syphilis
211.
A
patient
with
painless
Genital
ulcer,
how
to
diagnose?
Answer:
Dark
field
microscopy
212.
Middle
age
women
trying
to
conceive
last
born
1
year
all
normal
what
you
check.
Answer:
FSH?
Note:
The
question
is
not
complete
213.
Female
want
to
conceive
after
2
yrs,
what
best
ocs
to
give?
214.
Young
lady
with
previous
hx
of
chlamydial
infection
tried
to
conceive
for
previous
14
months
but
she
can't,
her
husband
has
normal
semen
analysis
and
she
didn't
have
any
hormonal
diseases,
the
next
investigation
should
be:
A) MRI
B) US
C) Hysterosalpingography
Answer:
C
215.
40
year
old
with
heavy
bleeding
everything
excluded.
Even
D&R
normal.
Cause
of
bleeding?
Answer:
Anovulatory
cycles.
216.
Girl
18
years
come
with
no
menstrual
cycle
2
month
ago
she
is
not
sexually
active
and
on
examination
she
feel
tenderness
on
abdominal
what
you
will
do
?
A.
Ultrasonography
B.
Do
pregnancy
test
Answer:
B
Explanation:
The
initial
laboratory
evaluation
(after
ruling
out
pregnancy)
for
women
with
secondary
amenorrhea
should
include
follicle-‐stimulating
hormone
(FSH),
serum
PRL,
and
thyroid-‐stimulating
hormone
(TSH)
to
test
for
POI,
hyperprolactinemia,
and
thyroid
disease,
respectively.
217.
In
menopausal
lady,
diagnostic
test
Answer:
FSH
218.
Type
of
postpartum
hemorrhage
in
atony
of
uterus?
Answer:
Primary
219.
Postpartum
bleeding
gave
IVF
and
add
what?
A.
Oxytocin
B.
Ergotamine
C.
Carbetocin
Answer:
A
220.
Regarding
preeclampsia,
first
symptom/
sign?
Answer:
BP
≥140
mmHg
systolic
and/or
≥90
and
proteinuria
221.
Pregnant
in
30
gestational
weeks,
pressure
was
high
unlike
previous
visites
was
normal.
No
visual
disturbances
no
protein
in
the
urine.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Gastinal
hypertension
B.
Preeclampsia
C.
Eclampsia
D.
Superimposed
hypertension
Answer:
A
222.
Scenario
of
patient
with
preeclampsia
then
ask
what
is
the
most
important
test
should
be
done
A.
blood
pressure
monitoring
and
respiratory
rate
B.
LFT
and
platelet
C.
urinalysis
and
proteinuria
D.
creatinine
and
BUN
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1476919-‐overview#a14
Answer:
C
Explanation:
since
the
scenario
didn’t
make
a
diagnosis
of
preeclampsia
there
for
urine
for
protein
is
mandatory
in
addition
that
24
h
protein
in
urine
is
determine
the
severity
of
the
disease
223.
Pregnant
Patient
with
herpes
what
is
best
management
?
Answer:
if
active
disease
on
40
weeks
gestation
delivers
CS
224.
Best
dx
tool
for
female
with
irregular
massive
bleeding?
Answer:
The
question
is
not
clear.
The
first
to
do
are
pregnancy
test
and
CBC.
The
history
will
direst
the
other
test.
225.
22
years
old
irregular
menses
w
abdominal
pain
started
7-‐8
after
menstruation
,
her
menses
7-‐9
days
,
4-‐5
intercourse
/week
protected
by
condom
,
she
has
high
hygiene
with
Vaginal
douche
monthly
after
menses
what
is
the
cause
of
symptom?
A.
Number
of
intercourse
B.
Vaginal
douche
C.
Condom
Answer:
B?
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2567125/
226.
A
question
about
Tanner
stage
Answer:
please
google
Tanner
scale
227.
Pt
in
labour
6
cm
dilation,
fetal
CTG
acceleration
and
variable.
Next
step?
Answer:
Question
is
not
complete,
probably
change
the
maternal
position.
228.
Rupture
of
condom,
what
to
use
?
a) Contraceptive
b) Douching
c) Tell
her
to
leave
Answer:
A
229.
34
period
day,
when
will
she
start
ovulating
?
Answer:
21
230.
Multipara,
last
delivery
was
assessed
by
vacuum,
presented
with
bulging
mass
from
vagina.
What
to
do
next:
A.
Speculum
vaginal
examination
B.
Retrograde
cystourethrogram
Answer:
A
231.
At
which
age
has
the
highest
risk
associated
with
chromosomal
abnormality:
A.
>
30
years
B.
>
35
years
C.
>
40
years
D.
>
45
years
Answer:
D
232.
Which
of
the
following
is
an
independent
risk
factor
that
will
increase
the
risk
of
infant
getting
an
early
GBS
infection?
A.
Intrapartum
fever
>39
B.
Family
history
of
infant
with
GBS
C.
Premature
rupture
of
membranes
for
more
than
18
hours
Answer:
C
234.
Female
pt
with
symptoms
of
menopause
and
symptoms
of
depression
,
what's
the
treatment?
A.
Estrogen
B.
Progesterone
C.
Paroxitine
Answer:
For
post
menopausal
mood
lability/depression
we
can
use
HRT
with
or
without
SSRIs.
The
best
choice
for
this
woman
is
combined
estrogen
and
progesterone.
235.
34
wk
+
open
cervix
+
bulging
membrane
+
fetal
HR
..
(forget
no.)
what
is
your
1st
management
?
Answer:
question
is
not
complete,
is
the
fetus
in
distress?
236.
What
is
true
about
liquid
based
cytology
for
Pap
smear:
A.
The
brush
is
used
to
sample
the
endocervical
canal
B.
The
sample
is
taken
from
the
transformation
zone
C.
The
sample
is
taken
by
a
spatula
and
a
brush
Answer:
A
237.
A
woman
with
Cervical
cancer,
mets
beyond
uterus
and
cervix,
1st
group
of
LN
receiving
the
lymphatic
drainage
is:
A.
Uterine
B.
External
iliac
C.
Common
iliac
D.
Para
aortic
Answer:
A
238.
For
who
should
we
measure
BP
for
24
hours
A.
Confirm
compliance
of
medication
B.
Elderly
with
palpitation
C.
Resistant
HTN
on
medication
D.
Suspected
preeclampsia
Answer:
D?
240.
The
cause
of
maternal
mortality
if
happened
during
pregnancy
?
A.
Syphilis
B.
Toxoplasmosis
C.
Biliary
cholestasis
Answer:
?
241.
30
years
old
female
present
to
you
in
the
clinic
after
ROM
before
one
hour
which
was
clear
fluid
P/E:
no
vesicles
in
the
vagina
medical
report
documents
as
pt
has
hx
of
recurrent
HSV
what
is
your
management?
A.
Proceed
to
C/S"
B.
IV
acyclovir
Answer:
Perform
a
sterile
speculum
ex,
then
if
positive
PROCEED
TO
CS.
If
negative
SS
EX,
it's
controversial..
either
SVD
or
CS.
If
pt
is
not
in
labour
and
EX
is
normal,
but
with
known
hx
of
HSV,
obtain
a
weekly
cervical
culture.
If
pt
is
presenting
with
active
lesions
but
not
in
labour,
give
IV
acyclovir.
242.
A
32
week
pregnant
lady
.
By
ur
exam
u
found
her
to
be
off
date.
What
serial
clinical
assessment
u
will
do
over
the
next
2
weeks
?
A.
Maternal
weight
B.
Cardiographs
...
I
forgot
the
others
Answer:
The
question
is
not
complete.
The
3
basic
methods
used
to
help
estimate
gestational
age
(GA)
are
menstrual
history,
clinical
examination,
and
ultrasonography.
243.
monochorionic
twins
in
27
week,
one
of
them
died,
wt
to
do
?
A.
wait
for
spontaneous
delivery
at
any
gestation
B.
wait
till
34
week
and
deliver
C.
give
steroid
and
deliver
Answer:?
244.
Best
investigation
in
1st
trimester
A.
CBC
B.
Ultrasound
Answer:
Question
is
not
clear
but
probably
CBC.
245.
Women
is
bleeding
after
delivery,
and
can't
stop,
wt
to
do
immediately?
A.
Hysterectomy.
B.
Something
to
apply
pressure
I
forgot
other
choices
Answer:
Uterine
massage
Immediately
commence
resuscitation.
Raising
the
legs
improves
venous
return
and
is
consistent
with
the
positioning
used
to
diagnose
and
treat
the
underlying
causes
of
bleeding.
Administer
oxygen
and
obtain
intravenous
access.
All
intravenous
lines
started
on
the
labor
ward
for
other
reasons
must
be
placed
with
cannulas
of
sufficient
gauge
if
PPH
develops.
246.
Oby
surgery
clamb
the
artery
close
to
lateral
vaginal
wall
what
structure
may
be
injured:
A.
Pudendal
nerve
B.
Ureter
Answer:
B
247.
In
pudendal
nerve
block
which
of
the
following
will
not
be
affected?
A.
Rectum
B.
Vulva
C.
Perineal
body
D.
Urogenital
diaphragm
Answer:
A
248.
What
are
contraindications
of
instrumental
delivery?
A.
Placenta
abruption
B.
Breech
presentation
C.
Cephalopelvic
disproportion
D.
Face
presentation
Answer:
C
249.
Smoking
pregnant
women
what
will
be
changes
in
her
child?
Answer:
Intrauterine
growth
restriction
(small
baby).
250.
Female
with
mass
protruding
from
vagina:
Answer:
Utero
vaginal
prolapse
251.
Female
post-‐delivery
her
child
on
excessively
breastfeeding,
menstruation
resumed
after
10th
month,
because
of
her
other
child
she
and
husband
ask
for
contraception,
what
will
you
advise
them?
A.
Depo
provera
B.
OCP
Answer:
A
http://patient.info/doctor/postpartum-‐contraception
252.
Definition
of
recurrence
abortion
A.
2
documented
consecutive
and
more
B.
3
documented
consecutive
and
more
C.
4
documented
consecutive
and
more
Answer:
A
253.
35
years
old
women
O/E
they
found
10*11
mm
raised
irregular
mass
on
lateral
aspect
of
the
cervix..
what
to
do:
A.
Excision
B.
Taking
biopsy
from
the
mass
C.
Investigate
for
human
papillomavirus
D.
Reassure
her
and
wait
for
pap
smear
result
Answer:
B
254.
Pregnant
in
labor
everything
normal
except
tender
cervix
during
examination
what
to
do?
A.
Intravenous
AB
B.
Intra
labor
antibiotics
Answer:
?
255.
Pregnant
with
vaginal
bleeding
and
everything
was
normal
what
do
you
ask
pt
about?
Last
sexual
intercourse.
Answer:
question
is
not
complete.
You
should
obtain
history
about
fetal
movements
and
previous
US.
256.
Female
patient
she
done
tube
ligation
4
years
back,
current
complain
is
she
has
period
which
was
6
week
back
now
she
intermittent
spotting
of
blood
,
V/E
there
is
no
blood
normal
cervix
and
close
os
wt
the
next
step
?
A.
CT
B.
Laparoscopy
C.
Pregnancy
test
Answer:
Maybe
C
257.
Pregnant
at
the
at
the
time
of
delivery
was
given
epidural
when
she
was
6
cm
dilated
,
later
she
was
given
fentanyl!!
And
started
pushing
later
she
started
to
have
lightheadedness
and
she
was
laying
on
her
side
what
will
you
do
for
her:
A.
Ask
the
nurse
to
bring
forceps
B.
Give
fentanyl
again
C.
Give
ephedrine
D.
Do
her
a
position
with
weird
name
Answer:
D,
change
the
patient
position.
258.
First
antenatal
visit
of
a
woman
in
her
10th
week
gestation
what
to
do?
A.
Assess
fetal
size
or
like
that
B.
Assess
risk
factors
C.
Determine
the
fetal
age
or
like
that
Answer:
B
259.
In
regard
to
vulvar
cancer,
which
of
the
following
is
the
principle
in
diagnosing
it?
A.
Clinical,
through
history
of
HPV.
B.
Histopathological,
through
biopsy.
C.
Radiological,
through
pelvic
US.
D.
Irrelevant
choice.
Answer:
B
260.
Fallopian
tube
embryology:
A.
Mesoderm
intermediate
cell.
B.
Lateral
part
of
genital
ridge
Answer:
A
261.
Case
of
preeclampsia
(weight
gain,
proteinuria,
headache)
with
IUGR,
What
other
clinical
finding
support
IUGR:
A.
Oligohydramnios
B.
Polyhydramnios
C.
Liver
enzymes
Answer:
A
262.
Case
of
patient
with
recurrent
abortion
and
she
came
at
20
weeks,
cervix
length
was
30.
what
to
do:
A.
Circulage
B.
Progesterone
Answer:
B
263.
Stillbirth
at
which
gestational
age?
A.
20
B.
25
Answer:
B,
more
than
24
weeks.
264.
Female
I
think
in
40
had
2
child
with
45
xo
next
child
percentage
to
have
it?
A.
40
%
B.
60
%
Answer:
please
see
Q209
265.
31
years
old
Female
came
to
do
pap
smear
and
HPV
test,
result
normal
before
1
years
done
pap
smear
+
HVS
result
normal
when
to
do
test
again?
A.
6
months
B.
1
years
C.
2
years
D.
3
years
Answer:
5
years,
Source:
https://www.cancer.org/cancer/cervical-‐cancer/prevention-‐and-‐early-‐detection/cervical-‐
cancer-‐screening-‐guidelines.html
266.
Which
of
following
has
best
survival
on
COPD
patient?
A.
Smoking
cessation
B.
O2
supplement
Maybe:
B
267.
Female
has
4
intercourse
in
week
use
condom
also
her
husband
use
condom,
also
she
use
douching
after
that
which
of
the
following
has
risk
to
health?
A.
Use
of
condom
B.
Douching
C.
Number
of
intercourse
Answer:
B
268.
Female
pt
with
puritosis
and
enuresis,
with
pelvic
strengthening
exercises,
she
was
given
duxbutine,
what
is
the
mechanisms
of
action:
A.
Inhibit
muscarinic
cholinergic
B.
Activate
acetylene
C.
etc
Answer:
?
269.
Semen,male
Works
in
batteries
factory,
came
after
1
year
trying
with
his
wife
to
get
pregnant
analysis:
oligospermia.
CBC
show
heavy
metals
on
RBC,
what
the
cause?
A.
Nikle
B.
Lead
Answer:
B
270.
Regarding
cervical
ca
screening:
A.
Started
at
age
21
regardless
of
sexual
activity
B.
HSV
+
Pap
smears
are
done
together
every
5
years
C.
HSV
screening
is
an
alternative
to
Pap
smear.
Answer:
A
271.
When's
the
best
time
to
do
amniocentesis?
A.
10
weeks
B.
12
weeks
C.
14
weeks
D.
16
weeks
Answer:
D
272.
Ectopic
pregnancy
of
2.5*3
-‐
hcg
5000
patient
stable
what
to
do
?
A.
Wait
B.
Laparotomy
C.
Laparoscopy
D.
D&C
Answer:
Methotrexate,
if
not
available
laparoscopy
Source:
http://bestpractice.bmj.com/best-‐practice/monograph/174/treatment/step-‐by-‐step.html
273.
Female
nullipara
unable
to
conceive,
plethoric
face
and
purple
striae
at
abdomen
and
BP
160/...,
hypokalemia,
what
also
she
has?
A.
Acropachy
(
graves
)
B.
this
is
cushing
..
Answer:
B
274.
What
is
the
incidence
of
prolonged
pregnancy:
(
from
3
to
12)
1-‐5%
10-‐15%
Answer:
As
many
as
10
percent
of
pregnancies
will
deliver
postterm.
Source:
Uptodate
275.
Female
pregnant
(
twin
)
GA
34
doctor
plan
for
CS
because
presentation
of
twin
A
may
cause
fetal
complication,
what
is
the
presentation
?
A.
Cephalic
-‐
breech
B.
Transverse
-‐
cephalic
C.
Breech
-‐
cephalic
D.
Cephalic
-‐
cephalic
Answer:
B
276.
Female
in
her
30s.
P3.
Complaining
of
amenorrhea
for
the
last
year
or
so.
Underwent
D&C
after
2nd
pregnancy.
Labs
show
high
FSH
and
LH.
Low
estrogen.
A.
Asherman
B.
Premature
ovarian
failure.
Answer:
B
277.
Principle
treatment
of
urge
incontinence?
A.
Medical
B.
Surgical
C.
Medical
and
surgical
D.
Bladder
training
and
something
else
Answer:
A
278.
A
patient
who's
on
estrogen
therapy
is
complaining
of
dysuria,
urgency
and
frequency
for
a
few
months.
She
took
antibiotics
multiple
times
but
it
didn't
work.
What
is
the
cause
of
her
symptoms?
A.
Bacterial
vaginosis
B.
Candida
vaginitis
Answer:
B
279.
50
YO
female
with
urge
incontinence,
dry
vagina.
The
first
step
to
do:
A.
urinalysis
and
culture
B.
cystourethrogram
C.
Bonney's
test
Answer:
Probably
A
280.
Male
with
pelvic
injury,
1st
thing
to
do:
Answer:
Suprapubic
catheter.
281.
Most
common
ovarian
cyst
is:
A.
theca
lutein
B.
follicular
Answer:
B
282.
The
day
of
ovulation
is
A.
14
B.
17
C.
22
Answer:
on
average
day
14
283.
A
Lady
with
heavy
menstrual
bleeding
and
intermenstrual
bleed
with
no
Hx
of
pregnancy
or
sexual
intercourse...
the
cause
is:
A.
chronic
endometritis
B.
anovulatory
cycles
Answer:
B
284.
Most
common
side
effect
of
IUD
?
Answer:
Menstrual
cycle
irregularities
285.
PPH
with
low
BP
and
tachycardia
the
1st
thing
to
do
:
A.
Ergotamine
B.
Ringer
lactate
C.
Normal
saline
with
something
Answer:
C
286.
Woman
P5,
all
svd,complains
of
(
case
scenario
about
uterine
prolapse
),
what
test
to
do
?
A.
options
of
uro
gyne
tests
B.
speculum
Answer:
B
287.
Patient
with
normal
menses
since
puberty
,
normal
exam
except
ovarian
mass
A.
Follicular
cyst
B.
Ovarian
carcinoma
C.
Endometrial
cancer
Answer:
A
288.
How
many
Barr
body
in
XXX
female:
A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4
Answer:
C
The
bar
body
number
is
the
same
as
X
289.
How
much
normal
blood
loss
during
menses?
Answer:
60
(The
usual
amount
of
blood
loss
per
period
is
10
to
35
ml.)
290.
Female
patient
in
her
late
40s,
she
has
children
and
does
not
want
to
get
pregnant
any
more.
Presented
with
abdominal
pain,
she
has
previous
history
of
endometrioma
in
her
right
ovary
and
it
was
removed.
She
did
imaging
and
it
showed
that
she
has
endometrioma
of
the
left
ovary.
What
is
the
appropriate
management?
A-‐
Bilateral
salpingo-‐oophorectomy
B-‐
removal
of
the
endometrioma
Answer:
Most
likely
A
since
she
is
not
planning
to
conceive
and
failed
endometrioma
resection
291.
Thalidomide
SE
in
pregnancy:
Answer:
limb
defect
292.
9
week
pregnant,
presented
with
bleeding,
cervix
was
dilated
1
cm
with
visible
tissues
A.
Threatened
abortion
B.
Incomplete
abortion
C.
Complete
abortion
Answer:
B
293.
benign
ovarian
teratoma
Answer
:
missed
Q
but
most
likely
benign
ovarian
teratoma
294.
Female
with
HBV
and
had
done
pap
smear
(there
is
results).
What
is
the
cause?
HBV
HPV
Answer:
The
question
is
not
clear
295.
Pregnant
taking
iron
supplements
and
come
with
anemia
symptoms,
Hb
is
low,
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Iron
deficiency
anemia
B.
Thalassemia
Answer:
Needs
further
details.
Maybe
B.
296.
Pregnant
with
microcytic
anemia,
what
to
give
here?
Answer:
Iron
297.
When
to
give
antibiotic
for
patient
will
go
for
C/S?
Answer:
Pre-‐operation
298.
Pregnant
had
PROM,
2
days
later
she
develop
fever
and
pain.
What
is
the
next
in
management?
A.
C/S
B.
IV
Antibiotic
Answer:
B
and
delivery
● Know
the
age
of
the
fetus
(e.g.
The
lungs
are
mature
by
36
weeks
before
that
we
give
steroid).
● Know
the
phases
of
delivery,
stages
and
sections
● When
to
give
epidural,
pedundal
and
general
and
what
are
the
parts
blocked
in
each.
● gene
of
cervical
cancer
→
*see
the
image*
http://m.cancer.org/cancer/cervicalcancer/detailedguide/cervical-‐cancer-‐what-‐causes
General Surgery
Breast
and
Endocrine
Q.
Patient
with
solitary
thyroid
nodule,
picture
of
hyperthyroidism,
what
is
the
most
appropriate
next
step?
A.
US
B.
FNA
Answer:B
Ref:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/850823-‐
overview?pa=OsGCL06RS84x%2Bx%2BlWevYeJ1avQalW6vjZFUwUEd8rFafzWuiuDz1vfrlWIllf
KfsX8MwC0EECwzp432Skuf9qw%3D%3D#a7
Q.
When
FNAC
reveal
fibrocystic
change?
Apocrine
metaplasia
Q.
Female
work
as
an
actress,
present
with
mass
that
increase
before
menses,
after
taking
FNA
the
result
is
yellow
stain
with
no
refilling
again
what
is
the
diagnosis?
-‐ANDI
(my
answer)
-‐phyllidus
tumor
Breast
cyst
(Cystic
change
were
not
provided
in
the
option)
not
sure!
Q.
yo
came
with
a
history
of
pre-‐menstrual
multiple
breast
lumps.
She
said
it
goes
after
menstruation
but
on
exam
she
was
found
to
have
multiple
lumps
with
one
dominant
lump
of
3
cm
and
LN
exam
is
normal.
How
will
u
manange
:
A.
Wait
for
the
the
next
menstrual
cycle
and
re-‐evaluate
.
B.
FNA
C.
Radilogy
and
mamogram
Answer:
Q.
Radical
mastectomy
with
pectoralis
major
removal,
which
movement
is
lost:
A.
adduction
B.
abduction
Answer:
A
Q.
Patient
with
solid
thyroid
nodule
2
cm
size,
euthyroid,
what’s
next?
A.
FNA
B.
CT
scan
Answer:A
Q.
40
years
old
female
with
unilateral
cystic
mass
with
no
lymph
node
involvement.
Next
step?
A.
Mammography
B.
FNA
C.
Excisional
biopsy
Answer:
it
is
often
difficult
to
distinguish
a
cyst
from
a
solid
mass.
Ultrasonography
or
aspiration
must
be
used
to
establish
a
definitive
diagnosis.
Cysts
require
surgical
biopsy
only
if
the
aspirated
fluid
is
bloody
Ref:
http://www.aafp.org/afp/2000/0415/p2371.html
Q.
Patient
presented
with
signs
of
hypercalcemia,
his
labs
show
hypercalcemia
+
high
Alkaline
phosphatase
(from
scenario
it
is
Hyperparathyroidism).
The
clinical
presentation
in
the
question
will
lead
to
what?
A.
Osteoporosis
B.
Osteomalacia
C.
Hyperparathyroidism
Answer:C
?
Q.
Women
with
bilateral
breast
nipple
white
discharge
and
vision
disturbance
Prolactin
level
is
high,
where
is
the
lesion?
A.
Sella
turcica
lesion
Answer:A
Q.
Midline
swelling
moves
with
protruding
the
tongue?
A.
Thyroglossal
cyst
B.
Thyroid
nodule
C.
Hygroma
Answer:A
Q.
Patient
presented
with
a
hard
Mass
on
the
outer
upper
area
of
the
breast
which
lymph-‐
node
you
have
to
examine?
A.
Posterior
axillary
B.
Anterior
axillary
C.
Lateral
axillary
D.
Medial
axillary
Answer:
Q.
Case
of
bloody
nipple
discharge
(probably
asking
about
the
cause).
A.
Intraductal
papilloma
Answer:A
Q.
Female
with
left
upper
outer
mass
in
the
left
breast,
which
lymph
node
group
will
be
examined?
A.
Pectoral
Answer:
Q.
21
y/o
Female
with
lump
in
breast,
what’s
the
best
method
for
evaluation?
A.
Mammogram
B.
US
C.
FNA
D.
Ductography
Answer:C
Ref:
https://www.mayoclinic.org/healthy-‐lifestyle/womens-‐health/in-‐depth/breast-‐
lump/art-‐20044839?pg=2
Q.
Patient
with
breast
mass,
with
calcification
in
the
MRI,
what
is
the
most
appropriate
management?
Answer:
not
sure!
Q.
Dimpling
of
skin
in
breast
cancer
is
caused
by?
A.
Cooper
ligament
Answer:A
Q.
Bilateral
breast
cancer
most
likely
cause?
A.
Lobular
Answer:
Q.
Patient
in
her
40s
with
breast
mass,
what
will
be
your
next
step
in
her
management?
A.
Mammogram
B.
US
C.
FNA
Answer:A
(Similar
question)
Q.
41-‐year-‐old
Lady
has
breast
mass
since
2
weeks,
upon
examination
it
hard
and
fixed,
what
is
"most
"
accurate
diagnostic
modality?
A.
US
B.
Mammography
C.
Lactography
D.
MRI
Breast
Answer:D
?
Q.
Superolateral
breast
cancer
with
axillary
tail,
which
lymph
node
group
will
be
involved?
A.
Anterior
group
Answer:
Q.
Patient
with
clear
nipple
discharge,
regular
menstrual
cycle,
how
you
will
investigate
her?
A.
Prolactin
level
Answer:
Q.
Gene
of
ductal
carcinoma?
A.
P53
Answer:A
Q.
Breast
cancer
gene?
A.
BRCA2
Answer:A
Q.
Thyroid
nodule
biopsy
found
medullary
(?),
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Papillary
cancer
B.
Medullary
thyroid
cancer
Answer:B
Q.
Patient
with
bloody
stained
nipple
discharge,
you’re
suspecting
intraductal
papilloma.
What’s
the
next
step?
A.
Mammogram
B.
FNA
C.
Excision
Answer:C
Ref:
https://www.healthline.com/health/intraductal-‐papilloma
Q.
What’s
the
effect
of
taking
Tamoxifin
in
reducing
breast
cancer
in
high
risk
patients?
A.
High
B.
Low
C.
Intermediate
D.
No
effect
Answer:
not
sure!
Q.
Initial
investigation
of
a
single
thyroid
nodule?
A.
FNA
B.
CT
scan
Answer:A
Ref:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/850823-‐overview#a7
Q.
Female
treated
from
mastitis,
after
10
days
presented
with
painless
lump,
what
you
will
do?
Answer:?
Q.
25
years
old
female
asking
about
self-‐breast
exam,
when
it
should
be
done?
A.
6-‐7
days
after
the
cycle
B.
3-‐5
days
after
the
cycle
C.
7-‐10
days
after
the
cycle
D.
14-‐16
days
after
the
cycle
Answer:B
Ref:
https://medlineplus.gov/ency/article/001993.htm
Q.
Female
with
bilateral
menstrual
breast
pain.
In
examination
there
is
bilateral
breast
nodularity
and
mobile
mass
in
the
right
breast,
axillary
lymph
nodes
are
free,
what
to
do
next?
A.
Mammogram
then
US
B.
Aspiration
and
cytology
C.
Reevaluate
at
the
next
cycle
Answer:
C
http://www.aafp.org/afp/2005/0501/p1731.html
Q.
Female
with
diffuse
thyroid
swelling
and
dominant
single
nodule,
lab
result
showed
increased
T4
and
decreased
TSH,
what
will
you
do?
A.
Radionuclide
scan
B.
FNA
C.
US
D.
Thyroidectomy
Answer:A
Q.
Mobile,
firm
mass
not
related
to
menses,
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Fibroadenoma
B.
Fibrocytic
change
C.
İntraductal
carcinoma
Answer:A
Q.
After
aspiration,
when
is
a
breast
lump
safe
to
leave
alone?
A.
There
is
minimum
blood
staining
of
aspirate
B.
Clear
cyst
fluid
and
does
not
refill
C.
Cyst
cells
with
hyperchromatic
nuclei
D.
FNAC
suggests
fibro-‐cystic
disease
Answer:
B?
(Similar
question)
Q.
Patient
with
breast
mass,
which
of
the
following
indicates
that
the
mass
is
cystic
(or
no
need
for
reevaluation)?
A.
FNA
showing
clear
fluid
on
aspiration
and
disappearance
of
the
mass
after
B.
Bloody
nipple
discharge
C.
Clear
fluid
with
reappearance
of
the
mass
Answer:A??
Q.
Breast
cancer
prognosis
depends
on?
A.
Number
of
axillary
lymph
nodes
involved
B.
Estrogen
receptors
C.
The
patient’s
age
Answer:A
Q.
Recurrence
of
breast
cancer
depends
on?
A.
Number
of
the
involved
axillary
lymph
nodes
B.
Estrogen
receptors
C.
Progesterone
receptors
Answer:A
Ref:
https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-‐conditions/recurrent-‐breast-‐cancer/basics/risk-‐
factors/con-‐20032432?p=1
Q.
Treatment
of
multinodular
goiter?
A.
Surgery
B.
Radioiodine
C.
Beta
blockers
D.
Antithyroid
medications
Answer:B??
Ref:
https://www.healthline.com/health/multinodular-‐goiter
Q.
Patient
with
Lab
findings
of
hypothyroidism,
he
has
hoarseness
and
a
large
neck
swelling.
O/E
lt
lobe
is
swollen
and
is
larger
than
the
right
one
Best
treatment
is?
A.
FNA
B.
Thyroid
lobectomy
C.
Radio
isotope
scan
Answer:A
Q.
Mammogram
can
detect
breast
cancer
before
clinical
examination
by
how
many
years?
A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4
Answer:b
Ref:
https://www.radiologyinfo.org/en/info.cfm?pg=mammo
Q.
Tamoxifen
for
breast
cancer
patient,
she
has
metrorrhagia,
US
showed
thick
endometrium,
what
to
do
next?
A. Endometrial biopsy
B. CA125
Q.
Lady
developed
postpartum
mastitis
(red
swollen
right
breast)
and
was
give
fluxacillin
for
10
days.
A
few
weeks
later
she
presented
with
a
right
breast
hard
mass,
non-‐tender.
What
is
the
Dx?
A.
Antibioma
B.
Duct
ectasia
Answer:
B
Thoracic
Surgery
Q.
Retrosternal
pain
and
barium
swallow
showed
esophageal
corkscrew
appearance,
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Achalasia
B.
Esophageal
cancer
C.
Diffuse
esophageal
spasm
Answer:
C
Q.
Hyperthyroidism
presentation
but
with
bradycardia,
what
is
the
cause?
A.
Multinodular
goitre
B.
Hyperthyroidism
C.
Hypothyroidism
Answer:
not
sure!
Q.
Patient
smoker,
alcohol
drinking
has
thyroid
nodules,
what
is
the
first
thing
that
you
do?
A.
Needle
aspiration
Answer:
Q.
During
a
surgery
in
the
diaphragm,
phrenic
nerve
is
dissected
at
which
level?
A.
Anterior
to
scalenus
anterior
muscle
Answer:A
Q.
Which
organ
will
be
affected
with
injury
to
the
posterior
vegal
truck?
A.
Bladder
B.
Descending
colon
C.
Esophagus
Answer:C
??
Q.
Chronic
smoker,
presented
with
signs
of
lung
cancer,
what
is
the
origin
of
the
cancer?
A.
Clara
B.
Brush
cells
C.
Goblet
Answer:
b?
Q.
In
the
OR
the
doctor
cut
the
vagus
nerve
by
mistake
while
doing
NISSIEN
fundoplication
operation
for
treatment
of
chronic
GERD,
which
organ
will
be
affected
from
cutting
the
nerve?
A.
Esophagus
B.
The
fundus
C.
Urinary
bladder
D.
Colon
Answer:
Q.
Patient
with
hoarseness,
what
is
your
first
next
step?
A.
Laryngoscopy
B.
Inner
ear
MRI
Answer:
not
enough
options
but
I
will
go
with
A
Q.
Patient
with
mass
in
the
throat,
what
is
your
management?
A.
Surgery
plus
or
minus
radiotherapy
Answer:
Q.
Best
x-‐ray
for
the
ribs?
A.
Oblique
Answer:A
Q.
About
SVC
syndrome
and
most
likely
asking
about
the
site
of
the
lesion
in
the
mediastinum.
Q.
Patient
came
to
the
ER
with
congested
neck
veins,
difficulty
breathing
and
absent
breath
sounds,
what
is
the
first
step
in
his
management?
A.
Needle
thoracotomy
Answer:
Q.
What
is
the
management
of
tension
pneumothorax?
A.
Tube
thoracotomy
B.
Needle
decompression
Answer:B
Q.
Patient
presented
after
MVA
with
unilateral
hyperresonance
and
mediastinal
shift.
X-‐ray
showed
hyperlucency,
what
is
the
1st
step?
A.
100%
o2
B.
Needle
thoracentesis
Answer:B
Q.
Lung
cancer
with
the
best
prognosis?
A.
SCC
B.
Adenosquamous
carcinoma
C.
Adenocarcinoma
in
situ
Answer:
C
?
Q.
Patient
came
to
ER,
complaining
of
hypotension,
tachycardia
and
hypercapnia,
ECG
showed
arrhythmia,
what
is
your
immediate
action?
A.
Needle
decompression
B.
Pericardiocentesis
C.
FAST
ultrasound
D.
Thoracotomy
Answer:B
?
Q.
You
found
nodule
6
cm
on
chest
xray
and
lab
test
show
hypercalcemia,
which
one
of
the
following
cancers
is
associated
with
this
finding?
A.
SCC
B.
Adenocarcinoma
Answer:A
Q.
Cancer
in
the
middle
of
esophagus,
which
type?
A.
Adenocarcinoma
B.
Scc
Answer:B
Ref:
https://www.cancer.gov/types/esophageal/patient/esophageal-‐treatment-‐pdq
Q.
Patient
diagnosed
with
Barrett's
esophagus
will
have?
A.
Adenocarcinoma
B.
Squamous
cell
carcinoma
Answer:A
Ref:
https://www.cancer.org/cancer/esophagus-‐cancer/causes-‐risks-‐prevention/risk-‐
factors.html
Q.
In
non-‐small
cell
lung
CA,
which
of
the
following
is
a
contraindication
to
do
surgery?
A.
Stage
IA
B.
Stage
IB
C.
Peripheral
lung
lesion
D.
SVC
obstruction
Answer:
not
sure!
Patients
with
stage
IIIB
or
IV
tumors
are
almost
never
surgical
candidates.
Urology
Q.
Case
about
epididymo
orchitis,
what
is
the
treatment?
Answer:
Ceftriaxone
250-‐500
mg
IM
once
plus.
Azithromycin
1
g
PO
once
or.
Substitute
doxycycline
100
mg
PO
BID
for
7-‐14
days
for
the
azithromycin.
Ref:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/2018356-‐overview
Q.
27
y
Man
with
progressive
enlarged
testis
no
tenderness
no
urinary
symptoms
no
sexual
hx
for
6
months
(mostly
tumor):
-‐Us
and
surgical
referral
-‐Antibiotics
-‐Biopsy
-‐
NSAIDs
Answer:C
Q,
-‐Stone
at
the
level
of
L3-‐L4
on
x-‐ray
A-‐
Ureter
B-‐
Minor
calyx
C-‐
Major
calyx
D-‐
Renal
pelvis
Answer:A
Ref:
http://www.startradiology.com/internships/General-‐Surgery/Abdomen/Abdominal-‐X-‐ray/
Q.
principle
treatment
of
urge
incontinence?
A-‐medical
B-‐surgical
C-‐medical
and
surgical
✔
D-‐
Bladder
training
and
something
else
Answer:
C
Ref:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/452289-‐treatment
Q.
What
is
the
best
management
of
pt
with
urge
incontence
?
Kegel
exercise
Urethropexy
NSAID
Antibiotic
Answer:
A
Ref:
https://familydoctor.org/bladder-‐training-‐urinary-‐incontinence/
Q.
Which
one
of
the
following
cancers
directly
related
to
smoking?
A.
Colon
B.
Bladder
C.
Testicular
D.
Small
cell
lung
cancer
Answer:B??
Q.
Man
doing
proctectomy
I
think
and
he
came
later
with
metastatic
cancer,
what
is
the
most
common
site
of
metastasis?
A.
Vertebral
column
B.
Lung
C.
Kidney
Answer:B
Ref:
https://www.webmd.com/colorectal-‐cancer/tc/colorectal-‐cancer-‐metastatic-‐or-‐
recurrent-‐topic-‐overview
Q.
Male
with
lumbar
pain
extending
to
the
umbilical
region,
no
urinary
symptoms,
normal
urine
analysis,
what
is
the
dx?
A.
Epidydimo
orchitis
B.
Pyelonephritis
C.
Lumbar
muscle
spasm
Answer:
not
sure!
Q.
Patient
with
sudden
acute
testicular
pain,
what
is
the
most
appropriate
next
step?
A.
Refer
to
surgery
Answer:A
Q.
Patient
with
renal
mass
(loin
pain
&
hematuria
&
weight
loss),
best
next
step
is?
A.
CT
scan
Answer:
Q.
Which
part
of
the
male
urethra
is
more
likely
to
be
injured
with
catheterization?
A.
Penile
B.
Prostatic
C.
Membranous
D.
Middle
spongy
Answer:C
Q.
Patient
is
treating
from
erectile
dysfunction,
which
of
the
following
medications
can’t
be
given
to
him
during
his
treatment?
A.
Nitrates
Answer:A
Q.
Question
about
BPH,
hypertensive
but
already
on
medication.
What
is
your
management?
TURPT
Open
prostatectomy
Alpha
blocker**
Answer:
C
Q.
Old
age
male
complaining
of
acute
fever,
dysuria,
lower
abdominal
pain,
rectal
exam
showed
anterior
buggy
swilling,
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Acute
prostatitis
B.
Chronic
prostatitis
C.
BPH
Answer:A
Q.
Old
age
person
complaining
of
dysuria,
back
pain
,investigations
showed
high
ALP,
very
high
PSA
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
BPH
B.
Prostatic
cancer
Answer:B
Q.
Man
with
Premature
ejaculation.
What
to
give?
A.
SSRI
Answer:A
Q.
Question
about
BPH,
hypertensive
but
already
on
medication.
What
is
your
management?
A.
TURPT
B.
Open
prostatectomy
C.
Alpha
blocker
Answer:C
Q.
Patient
with
filling
defect,
US
showed
echogenic
shadow,
which
type
of
stone?
A.
Uric
acid
stone
Answer:
Q.
Ureteric
stone,
best
diagnostic
modality?
A.
CT
without
contrast
B.
CT
with
contrast
C.
Renal
US
Answer:A
Q.
Old
man
with
difficulty
in
urination
and
back
pain
ALP
high
LFT
normal
Dx?
A.
BPH
B.
Prostate
cancer
C.
Orchitis
Answer:
B
bone
mets
Q.
Scrotal
swelling,
abdominal
pain,
exaggerated
bowel
sound,
irreducible
swelling,
next
?
A.
US
B.
Urology
referral
C.
Surgery
referral
Answer:C
Q.
70
Y/O
came
with
urinary
retention,1st
step
in
the
management?
A.
Urinary
catheter
Answer:A
Q.
Most
common
presentation
of
renal
carcinoma?
A.
Abdominal
mass
B.
Hematuria
Answer:B?
Q.
Patient
with
recurrent
uti
presented
with
renal
stones,
what’s
the
organism?
A.
Proteus
B.
E.coli
C.
Klebsiella
Answer:
Ref:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/m/pubmed/3026032/
Q.
Patient
was
treated
for
renal
stone
before
....they
attached
picture
of
X-‐ray
which
I
did
not
get
he
had
to
go
for
some
surgery
so
what
will
you
do
?
Answer:A
Hepatobiliary
Q.
Pancreatic
trauma
case,
where
is
the
first
place
for
the
pancreatic
enzyme
to
collect
in?
A.
Omental
bursa
B.
Sub
hepatic
space
C.
Sub
phrenic
space
Answer:
A
Note:
lesser
sac
is
the
same
as
omental
bursa.
Q2.
Patient
with
severe
epigastric
pain
radiates
to
the
back,
labs
high
amylase,
ALP,
GGT,
direct
bilirubin,
what
is
the
cause?
GGT
was
highly
elevated
more
than
ALP
A.
Gallstones
B.
alcoholic
pancreatitis
Answer:
B
Q.
You
did
DRE
and
found
prostate
gland
swelling,
which
lobe
of
prostate
has
the
neoplasm!?
A.
Anterior
B.
Posterior
C.
Medial
Answer:
B
Q3.
Migratory
thrombophlebitis
is
seen
in?
A.
Pancreatic
cancer
Answer:
A
EXPLANATION:
Trousseau's
sign
is
associated
with
gliomas,
pancreatic
or
pulmonary
malignancy
(medscape)
Q4.
Recurrent
cholecystitis
and
7
stones
treatment?
A.
Cholecystectomy
Answer:
A
Q5.
Patient
with
upper
right
quadrant
pain
radiating
to
shoulder
with
nausea
and
vomiting
and
she
had
same
attack
before,
ask
about
investigation?
Answer:
most
likely
cholecystitis
and
US
is
the
investigation
of
choice.
Q.
Patient
post
cholecystectomy
developed
unilateral
parotid
swelling,
saliva
was
cloudy,
culture
was
negative,
What
does
he
have?
A.
Sarcoid
granuloma.
B. Bacterial sialadenitis
C. Sarcoma
D. Sjogren's syndrome
Answer: B
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/18949350
Q.
New
onset
acute
pancreatitis,
which
type
of
nutrition
should
be
given?
A.
TPN
B.
Nasojejunal
tube
Answer:
A
(NOT
SURE)
Plastic
Surgery
Q.
What
is
the
most
common
cause
of
death
in
flame
burns?
A.
Hypovolemic
shock
B.
Smoke
inhalation
Answer:B
Q.
Facial
suture
removal
day
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10
Answer:
B
https://www.emedicinehealth.com/removing_stitches/page2_em.htm
Q.
Patient
3
cm
lump
in
his
upper
back
,
slowly
growing
for
years
.
Physical
examination
:
compressible
,
no
erythema
,
there
a
punctum
in
the
middle
that
drain
white
foul
smelling
material
,
what
is
the
management
!?
-‐
Cryotherapy
-‐
Total
intact
resection✅✅✅
-‐
Antibiotic
and
resection
Answer
:
Not
sure
Epidermoid
cyst:
Incision
and
drainage
is
the
recommended
treatment
for
inflamed
epidermoid
cysts,
carbuncles,
abscesses,
and
large
furuncles
Q.
Pt
with
filling
defect
,
us
,
ecoech
shadow
ﻭوﺵش ﻧﻮﻉع ﺍاﻟﺴﺘﻮﻥن،٬
ﻧﻔﺲ ﺳﺆﺍاﻝل ﺍاﻟﻤﻠﺰﻣﻪﮫ ﺍاﻟﻲ ﺍاﺧﺘﻠﻔﻮ ﻓﻴﯿﻪﮫ :
A. uric
acid
stone
.
Q.
When
should
a
facial
suture
be
removed?
A.
3
days
B.
5
days
C.
8
days
D.
10
days
Answer:
B
Q.
Most
common
malignant
lesion
need
to
be
removed?
A.
Erythema
gyratum
B.
Erythema
migrans
C.
Erythema
marginatum
D.
Erythema
annulare
Answer:
A
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1081565-‐clinical
Q.
What
is
the
role
used
in
burns?
A.
Role
of
9
Answer:
A
Q.
Patient
with
burn
over
the
anterior
trunk
and
circumferential
burn
on
upper
and
lower
left
limbs.
The
weight
is
70
Kg,
Calculate
parkland’s
formula?
Answer:
same
q
solved
in
13
booklet
with
different
statement
The
role
is
parkland
formula
=
TBSA
of
burn%
x
weight
(kg)
x
4
Q.
Tender,
hard
swelling
and
oozing
after
suturing
wound
in
ankle,
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Cellulitis
B.
Abscess
C.
Furuncle
D.
Carbuncle
Answer:
not
sure
Q.
What's
the
first
step
in
managing
a
minor
burn?
A.
Apply
butter
to
affected
area
B.
Wash
with
tap
water
C.
Apply
ice
D.
Surgical
debridement
Answer:
B
First
aid
american
heart
association.
Q.
Patient
with
lower
lip
lesion,
what
is
the
lymphatic
drainage?
A.
Submental
B.
Submandibular
Answer:
A
Reference:Snell
anatomy
Q.
Signs
of
good
healing?
A.
Epithelium
covering
Answer:A
Q.
Flat
reddish
skin
lesion
in
the
left
side
of
the
face
with
dilated
dermal
vessels,
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Port
wine
stain
B.
Cavernous
hemangioma
not
flat
C.
Melanoma
not
red
Answer:
A
Q.
Leg
ulcer
with
rolled
outer
edge,
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
SCC
B.
Basal
cell
carcinoma
Answer:
A
Surgery
Recall
Q.
Elderly
has
bedsore
that
invade
through
the
muscles,
what
is
the
stage?
A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4
Answer:
D
https://www.webmd.com/skin-‐problems-‐and-‐treatments/pressure-‐sores-‐4-‐stages#2-‐5
Q.
Patient
3
cm
lump
in
his
upper
back,
slowly
growing
for
years.
Physical
examination:
compressible,
no
erythema,
there
a
punctum
in
the
middle
that
drain
white
foul
smelling
material,
what
is
the
management?
A.
Cryotherapy
B.
Total
intact
resection
C.
Antibiotic
and
resection
Answer:B
(not
sure)
Solved
before
Q. Child with cutaneous hemangioma, those hemangiomas could be found in which organ?
A.
Liver
B.
Spleen
C.
Kidney
Answer:
A
Q.
Describe
neva,
What
is
the
evidence
of
naval
hyperplasia?
A.
Change
in
the
color
B.
Irregular
border
C.
All
of
the
above
Answer:
not
sure
Colorectal
Surgery
Q.
Colon
cancer
screen
recommended
grade
A,
which
age
group?
A.
45-‐65
B.
50-‐65
C.
50-‐75
Answer:
C
https://www.uspreventiveservicestaskforce.org/Page/Document/UpdateSummaryFinal/col
orectal-‐cancer-‐screening
Q.
Young
pt
have
severe
pain
during
defection
followed
by
bleeding
and
relief
after
4
h:
-‐hemarroid
-‐anal
fissure
Answer:
anal
fissure
(NOT
SURE)
http://www.healthline.com/health/anal-‐fissure
Q.
Most
common
cause
rectal
bleeding
in
age
50
years?
A.
Anal
fissure
B.
Hemorrhoids
The
answer
should
be
diverticulosis
BUT
if
the
q
is
only
containing
these
2
choices
Then
more
information
needed
to
differentiate
between
A
and
B
Answer:(NOT
SURE)
Q.
What
is
the
best
screening
test
for
colorectal
CA?
(no
colonoscopy
in
choices)
A.
Fecal
occult
blood
testing
B.
Sigmoidoscopy
every
5
years
C.
CT
colonography
D.
Stool
DNA
Answer:(not
sure),
could
be
A
because
sigmoidoscopy
cannot
detect
right
sided
of
the
colon
where
42%
of
malignancies
are
found
Q.
Colon
cancer
stage
B2
means?
A.
No
LN
involvement
Answer:
A
Search
in
google
picture
for
AJCC
TNM
staging
system
Q.
Which
of
the
following
is
at
a
high
risk
for
colorectal
carcinoma?
A.
High
salt
diet
B.
Smoker
C.
Male
on
high
fat
diet
D.
Gardner
syndrome
Answer:D
Q.
Which
one
of
these
polyps
have
potential
to
transform
to
malignant?
A.
Hyperplastic
polyp(no
risk)
B.
Adenoma(most
malignamt)
C.
Peutz–Jeghers(low
malignant)
D.
Juvenile
Answer:
B
Q.
k/c
case
of
chronic
constipation
complaining
of
pain
and
bleeding
during
defecation
the
pain
persist
for
many
hours
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Thrombosed
hemorrhoid
B.
Anal
fissure
Answer:
A
or
B
not
clear
q
and
incomplete
Q.
k/c
of
chronic
constipation
complain
of
pain
during
defecation
on
examination
there
was
fluctuating
mass
in
the
perianal
area
what
is
the
treatment?
A.
Sitz
bath
B.
Incision
and
drainage
Answer:
start
with
A
then
if
it
is
large
go
directly
to
B
Q.
Case
about
thrombosed
pile
with
severe
pain,
used
warm
press,
sitzs
bath,
antibiotic
but
still
pain
not
relieved,
what
to
do
next?
A.
Evacuate
the
clot
B.
Sitz
bath
Answer:
A
medscape
Q.
Male
with
changed
bowel
habits,
LLQ
pain,
tenderness,
swelling
and
weight
loss,
what
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
A.
Diverticulosis
B.
Diverticulitis
C.
Cecum
cancer
D.
Sigmoid
cancer
Answer:
NOT
SURE
Q.
Enlarge
medial
group
of
horizontal
-‐inguinal
lymph
node
(superficial).
What
you
will
check
1st?
A.
Anal
canal
B.
Muscle
of
thigh
C.
Muscle
of
leg
Answer:
A
(not
sure)
They
receive
lymphatic
afferents
from
the
following:
● integument
of
the
penis
● scrotum
● perineum
● buttock
● abdominal
wall
below
the
level
of
the
umbilicus
● back
below
the
level
of
the
iliac
crest
● vulva
● anus
(below
the
pectinate
line)
● the
thigh
and
the
medial
side
of
the
leg
(the
lateral
leg
drains
to
the
popliteal
lymph
nodes
first).
wiki
General
24-‐Case
of
necrotizing
fasciitis,
stain
showed
gram
positive
cocci
in
chains?
1-‐
ampicillin
and
gentamicin
2-‐
penicillin
and
clindamycin
(
I
think
correct)
3-‐
pepracillin
and
tazobactam
4-‐
imipenem
and
metronidazole
Answer:
2
Necrotizing
fasciitis
with
Gym
+ve
strept,
what’s
the
best
Abx
combination:
A.
penicillin
and
clinda
B.
piperacillin
and
tazobactam
ANSWER:
A
Case
of
necrotizing
fasciitis,
stain
showed
gram
positive
cocci
in
chains?
1-‐
ampicillin
and
gentamicin
2-‐
penicillin
and
clindamycin
3-‐
pepracillin
and
tazobactam
4-‐
imipenem
and
metronidazole
Aaswer:
2
BMJ
23)
Stage
of
ulcer
reaching
fascia
and
extends
through
muscle:
A.
I
B.
II
C.
III
D.
IV
Solved
previously
Patient
with
stab
wound
injury
at
the
level
of
the
right
6
th
intercostal
space.
Which
will
be
affected?
1-‐
right
superior
lobe
2-‐
right
middle
lobe
3-‐
right
lower
lobe
4-‐
horizontal
fissure
answer:D
Q.
Patient
with
periumbilical
pain
with
anorexia
and
nausea,
labs
Increase
WBC,
dx?
A.
Acute
appendicitis
Answer:
A
Q.
Which
organ
will
be
affected
if
you
ligate
internal
iliac
artery?
A.
Ovary
B.
Intestine
C.
Bladder
Answer:A
Q.
Best
investigation
for
detection
of
retroperitoneal
hemorrhage?
A.
Computed
tomography
Answer:
A
Previous
qs
Q.
Patient
with
grade
1
splenic
injury,
what's
the
management?
A.
Surgical
Rx
B.
Observe
in
ICU
C.
Observe
in
surgical
ward
D.
Medical
Rx
Answer:
i
could
not
find
the
CLEAR
answer
could
be
B
OR
C
Q.
The
genetics
of
hereditary
chronic
pancreatitis?
A.
Autosomal
dominant
B.
Autosomal
recessive
Answer:A
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1774562/
Q.
What
are
the
structures
that
could
be
injured
during
adrenalectomy?
A.
Right
side
will
injure
IVC,
left
side
will
injure
the
pancreas
Answer:
………...
Q.
Appendicitis
histopathology?
A.
Neutrophils
in
the
muscularis
layer
Answer:A
https://goo.gl/images/ktLXvY
Q.
Open
cholecystostomy
incision?
A.
Kochar
"subcostal"
incision
Answer:A
Q.
Irreversible
hernia
with
painful
abdomen,
what
it’s
called?
A.
Strangulated
hernia
Answer:
A
Q.
Patient
presented
with
an
ulcer
on
sole
of
foot
surrounded
by
erythema,
what
is
the
best
action?
A.
Oral
Abx
and
discharge
the
patient
B.
Reassurance
C.
Admission
for
debridement
and
deep
tissue
culture
Answer:C
Q.
Pathophysiology
of
acute
appendicitis
A.
Appendicular
obstruction
Answer:
A
Recall
surgery
Q.
Patient
has
acute
pancreatitis
labs
shows
mild
elevation
of
TG
what
is
the
most
common
cause
of
this
presentation?
A.
Gallstones
B.
Alcohol
intake
C.
Hypertriglycerima
Answer:
NOT
SURE
(incomplete)
Q.
Most
common
cause
of
Meckel’s
diverticulum?
A.
Terminal
duodenum
B.
Terminal
jejunum
C.
Terminal
ilium
D.
Cecum
Answer:C
MTB
Q.
Pancreatic
cancer
gene?
A.
K-‐ras
answer
:A
https://www.hopkinsmedicine.org/health/articles-‐and-‐answers/ask-‐the-‐expert/pancreatic-‐
cancer-‐experts-‐answer-‐commonly-‐asked-‐questions
Q.
What
is
the
characteristic
sign
of
perforated
duodenal
ulcer
?
A.
Epigastric
pain
(symptom
not
sign)
B.
Melena
C.
Vomiting
D.
Steatorrhea
Answer:
A
Q.
Site
of
insertion
of
butterfly
needle?
A.
2nd
intercostal
space
midclavicular
line
Answer:
may
be
wrong
q
Q.
Patient
hospitalized
after
major
procedure
developed
a
small
pulmonary
embolism
which
was
confirmed
by
CT.
What
is
the
best
drug
to
remove
the
embolus?
A.
Heparin
B.
Warfarin
C.
Aspirin
D.
Streptokinase
Answer:A
Q.
Patient
with
small
bowel
obstruction
after
small
bowel
surgery
one
year
ago,
what
is
the
best
diagnostic
modality?
A.
US
B.
Barium
enema
C.
Double
contrast
barium
meal
D.
Small
bowel
barium
follow
through
Answer:
B
Q.
Patient
with
right
iliac
fossa
pain,
developed
vomiting
and
nausea
with
rebound
pain
during
palpation,
what
is
the
most
likely
cause?
A.
Diverticulitis
B.
Acute
appendicitis
C.
Crohn’s
disease
Answer:
B
Q.
Most
common
sign
of
lower
intestinal
obstruction?
A.
Altered
bowel
motion
B.
Absolute
constipation
C.
Flatulence
D.
Diarrhea
Answer:
B
medscape
Q.
RTA
victim
e
closed
head
injury
and
LOC.
What
is
the
best
thing
to
do
?
A.
Intubation
and
ventilation
B.
Check
the
pulses
C.
Check
the
pupils
D.
Check
the
airway
Answer:
B
(not
sure)
ATLS
Q.
A
case
of
GERD
used
antacid
which
caused
constipation
A.
Calcium
carbonate
B.
Aluminum
hydroxide
C.
Magnesium
hydroxide
Answer:
B
Q.
Patient
was
taking
a
drug
for
the
acidity
of
the
stomach,
now
complaining
of
constipation,
what
is
that
drug?
A.
Aluminum
hydroxide(constipation)
Answer:
A
Magnesium
hydroxide
(diarrhea)
Q.
Old
age
patient
smoker
complains
of
white
colored
tongue
with
ulcers,
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Squamous
cell
carcinoma
Answer:A
Squamous
cell
carcinoma
is
the
most
common
type
oral
cancer
in
smoker.
(wiki)
Q.
What
to
do
when
there
is
a
problem
in
intubation?
A.
Head
tilt
B.
Jaw
thrust
C.
Cricoid
pressure
Answer:
incomplete
(is
it
trauma
patient
or
not)
Q.
Elderly
has
abdominal
pain
and
vomiting,
vitally
stable.
on
abdominal
x-‐ray
there
is
air
in
rectum
and
dilated
loop.
what
is
the
management?
A.
Nasogastric
tube
and
IV
fluid
NS
B.
Narcotic
and
IV
antibiotics
C.
Rectal
decompression
Answer:
A(not
sure)
http://teachmesurgery.com/general/presentations/bowel-‐obstruction/
Q.
Post
surgical
wound
infection
most
likely
from?
A.
Hands
of
surgeons
Answer:
q
incomplete
may
be
A
Q.
Patient
treated
for
peptic
ulcer
with
triple
therapy
now
she
is
free
of
symptoms.
what
you
will
do?
A.
Nothing
B.
H.
Pylori
antigen
test
C.
Endoscopy
Answer:
B
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/helicobacter-‐pylori-‐infection-‐and-‐treatment-‐beyond-‐
the-‐basics
Q.
Patient
has
an
upper
abdominal
pain,
(gastrin
and
pancreatic
enzymes
released,
and
asking
about
the
diagnosis)?
Answer: A
Medscape
Q.
What
is
most
common
type
of
shock
associated
with
MVA:
A.
Septic
B.
Hemorrhagic
C.
Neurogenic
Answer:
B
Q.
Young
male
have
epigastric
pain,
fullness,
nausea
postprandial
bloating
for
three
years,
his
symptoms
appeared
after
he
stayed
in
India
for
one
year
for
studying,
symptoms
are
worse
with
food.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Functional
dyspepsia
B.
H.pylori
infection
C.
Esophageal
ulcer
Answer:B
Q.
Presentation
of
erosion
of
gastric
ulcer
?
A.
Occult
bleeding
B.
Epigastric
pain
with
generalized
peritonitis
Answer:
not
clear
more
details
needed
Q.
Old
patient
came
with
abd
pain
and
bloody
diarrhea
in
radiograph
showed
enlarge
visceral
with
no
air
fluid
level,
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Ischemic
colitis
Answer:.........
Q.
Extradural
hematoma
source
of
bleeding?
A.
Middle
cerebral
artery
B.
Middle
meningeal
artery
C.
Anterior
cerebral
artery
Answer:
B
Step
up
to
medicine
page
571
Q.
Patient
with
duodenal
ulcer,
what
is
the
treatment?
A.
Triple
therapy
B.
Omeprazole
Answer:q
is
unclear
if
h.pylori
suspected
go
with
A
If
not
go
with
B
Q.
Patient
with
post
disease
in
the
spine
got
abscess
in
the
anterior
chest
wall,
what
is
the
route
of
transmission?
A.
Anterior
cutaneous
B.
Posterior
cutaneous
Answer:
A
Previous
bank
in
12
and
13
booklet
Q.
Diabetic
patient
with
deep
ulcer
in
the
sole
of
foot
ask
about
management?
A.
Admission
and
debridement
Answer:
Q.
Patient
have
MVA
come
to
ER
with
ulcerative
tissue
with
gas
gangrene
in
the
anterior
leg
what
is
the
causative
organism?
A.
C.
Perfringens
B.
Staph
aureus
Answer:
A
http://www.msdmanuals.com/professional/infectious-‐diseases/anaerobic-‐
bacteria/clostridial-‐soft-‐tissue-‐infections
Pediatric
Surgery
Q.
Contraindication
of
circumcision?
A.
Hypospadias
Answer:
A
Toronto
note
16
edition
p1352
Q.
Which
in
inguinal
canal
is
develop
from
the
external
oblique
muscle?
External
spermatic
fascia
Internal
spermatic
fascia
Answer:
A
Wikipedia
,
just
write
external
spermatic
fascia
Q.
How
to
manage
uncomplicated
sigmoid
vulvulus?
a)
flatus
tub
b)
Nasal
tube
c)
Surgery
Answer:
A
Toronto
note
p445
Q.
Paraphimosis
picture.
Paraphimosis
occurs
when
the
foreskin
of
an
uncircumcised
or
partially
circumcised
male
is
retracted
for
an
extended
period
of
time.
This
in
turn
causes
venous
occlusion,
edema,
and
eventual
arterial
occlusion.
Q.
Complication
of
PDA
ligation?
A.
Injury
to
the
vagus
nerve
B.
Injury
to
the
phrenic
nerve
C.
Injury
to
the
recurrent
laryngeal
nerve
Answer:
C
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/16797086
https://www.hindawi.com/journals/cripe/2017/2647353/
Q.
Long
scenario
about
hydrocele
typical
:
-‐failure
of
obliteration
of
process
vaginalis
Q.
What
is
the
most
common
urological
congenital
male
anomaly?
A.
Hypospadias
B.
Cryptorchidism
C.
Phimosis
Answer:
B
Wikipedia
Q.
How
to
diagnose
volvulus?
A.
CT
B.
Barium
C.
MRI
Answer:
B
MTB
Q.
Which
ligament
pass
through
inguinal
canal?
A.
Round
B.
Broad
Answer:
A
Repeated
in
previous
q
Teachmeanatomy.info
and
wikipedia
Q.
How
to
manage
uncomplicated
sigmoid
volvulus?
A.
flat
tube
B.
Nasal
tube
C.
Surgery
Answer:
the
answer
should
be
flatus
tube
Toronto
note16
edition
page
445
Q.
Child
with
hirschsprung's
disease,
asking
about
initial
diagnostic
test?
A.
X-‐ray
Answer:
A
MTB
3rd
edition
Q.
Paraumbilical
hernia,
playing
basket?
(Maybe
they
were
asking
about
the
diagnostic
modality)
CT
abdomen
Answer:
I
think
this
q
is
incorrect
It
is
in
the
previous
bank
as
(boy
play
football
came
with
abdominal
pain
without
any
injury
in
match
,
physical
examination
was
tenderness
in
paraumbilical
area
what
do
you
do
next:
(RECTUS
SHEATH
HEMATOMA)
Answer:
could
be
recheck
or
CT
abdomen
(not
sure)
Recheck
most
likely
because
it
is
clearly
related
to
exercise
not
something
else
serious.
Q.
Initial
investigation
in
olive
mass
in
babies:
A.
abdominal
X-‐ray
B.
abdominal
US
C.
CT
D.
barium
Answer:
B
MTB
3rd
edition
Q.
painless
rectal
bleeding
on
investigation
you
diagnosed
the
case
as
meckel's
diverticulum
,what
is
the
commonest
site
for
it
?
Lower
ilium
*
cecum
*
duodenum
*
jejunum
Answer
:
ilium
(MD
is
commonly
present
90
cm
from
illio-‐cecal
valve)
Orthopedics
Q1.
Patient
with
history
of
falling
on
an
outstretched
hand,
what
is
the
fracture?
A.
Clavicle
B.
Shoulder
C.
Supracondylar
D.
Colles
Answer:
D
Q2.
Patient
can’t
do
foot
dorsiflexion,
which
muscle
is
responsible?
A.
Anterior
tibialis
Answer:
A
The
foot
and
ankle
dorsiflexors
include
the
tibialis
anterior,
the
extensor
hallucis
longus
(EHL),
and
the
extensor
digitorum
longus
(EDL)
-‐
Medscape.
Q3.
Patient
have
fracture
in
his
tibial
it
is
opened
fracture
<1cm
,
what
you
do
?
A.
Close
reduction
with
cast
B.
Debridement
and
open
reduction
by
intramedullary
nail.
C.
Give
him
AB
Answer:
B
Q4.
Unilateral
knee
swelling
and
pain,
knee
tap
labs:
cloudy
yellow
color,
mucoid,
WBC-‐PMN
15
(normal
less
than
200),
lymphocytes
80%,
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Gout
B.
Septic
arthritis
C.
Rheumatoid
Arthritis
Answer:
B
Q5.
An
athletic
guy
lifts
heavy
weights
as
usual,
this
time
he
experienced
sudden
pain
while
lifting
the
weight,
examination
revealed
normal
range
of
motion
in
the
shoulder,
what
to
do?
A.
Reassure
B.
Diclofenac
C.
Physiotherapy
Answer:
B
Q6.
Case
of
septic
arthritis
patient
started
on
oxacillin,
3
days
later
the
sensitivity
shown
up
and
it
was
staph
aureus
resistance
to
cefoxitin,
what
is
your
management?
A.
Stop
antibiotic
B.
Continue
oxacillin
C.
Start
vancomycin
Answer:
C
Q7.
Proximal
tibial
fracture
palpable
peripheral
pulse
ABI:
.85
what
to
do?
A.
Angiography
B.
Doppler
US
C.
CT
Answer:
A
An
ABI
less
than
0.90
suggests
a
need
for
further
vascular
imaging:
angiography
in
a
stable
patient,
and
operative
exploration
in
an
unstable
patient
-‐
Medscape.
Q8.
Male
patient
with
pain,
effusion,
erythema,
swelling
in
both
knee
joints,
ask
about
treatment?
A.
Aspiration
and
antibiotics
Answer:
A
Q9.
Patient
with
multiple
fractures,
O/E
sky
blue
sclera,
X
ray
showed
multiple
healing
fractures
with
callus
formation?
A.
Osteogenesis
imperfecta
Answer:
A
Q10.
Old
patient
with
neck
pain
and
loss
of
sensation
in
the
left
arm,
best
step
in
Dx?
A.
Spine
MRI
Answer:
A
Q11.
What
is
the
muscle
responsible
for
unlocking
the
knee?
A.
Popliteus
Answer:
A
Q12.
Stab
wound
in
the
buttocks
there
is
defect
in
the
lateral
rotation
of
the
leg?
A.
Gluteus
maximus
B.
Adductor
longus
Answer:
A
Q13.
Commonest
cause
of
olecranon
bursitis?
A.
Repetitive
trauma
Answer:
A
Q14.
Patient
complaining
of
pain
in
medial
epicondyle,
he
is
a
golf
player,
what
is
the
management?
A.
Refine
golfer
Answer:
?
RICE
(rest,
ice,
compression
and
elevation),
elbow
brace,
and
the
last
option
is
surgery:
fascial
elevation
and
tendon
origin
resection
(FETOR)
Q15.
Pain
in
the
wrist
with
positive
tinel's
sign
which
nerve
is
affected?
A.
Median
nerve
Answer:
A
Q16.
Patient
with
thenar
muscle
atrophy
what
is
the
nerve
affected?
A.
Median
nerve
Answer:
A
Q17.
Rickets
vs.
hypophosphatemia
Answer:
Rickets:
low
calcium,
low
vitamin
D,
high
PTH,
low
phosphorus
and
high
ALP.
Hypophosphatemic
rickets:
calcium
levels
may
be
within
or
slightly
below
the
reference
range;
alkaline
phosphatase
levels
will
be
significantly
above
the
reference
range,
serum
parathyroid
hormone
levels
are
within
the
reference
range
or
slightly
elevated,
while
calcitriol
levels
are
low
or
within
the
lower
reference
range.
Most
importantly,
urinary
loss
of
phosphate
is
above
the
reference
range.
Q18.
Pagets
vs.
osteoporosis
vs.
vit
d
deficiency
Answer:
-‐
Paget’s
disease:
serum
calcium
and
phosphate
=
within
the
reference
range.
Hyperuricemia,
serum
total
acid
phosphatase
is
high,
bone
specific
alkaline
phosphatase
is
high.
-‐
Osteoporosis:
levels
of
serum
calcium,
phosphate,
and
alkaline
phosphatase
are
usually
normal
in
persons
with
primary
osteoporosis,
although
alkaline
phosphatase
levels
may
be
elevated
for
several
months
after
a
fracture.
Inadequate
vitamin
D
levels
can
predispose
persons
to
osteoporosis.
DXA
scan
is
currently
the
criterion
standard
for
the
evaluation
of
BMD.
-‐
Vitamin
D
deficiency:
low
25-‐hydroxyvitamin
D
or
25(OH)D.
Q19.
Boutonniere
deformity
description?
A.
PIP
flexion
and
DIP
hyperextension
Answer:
A
Q20.
Athlete
can’t
plantar
flex
the
foot,
where
is
the
injury?
Answer:
could
be
achilles
tendon
injury,
they
present
with
weakness
in
foot
plantar
flexion.
Q21.
Patient
can't
extend
wrist
and
finger,
nerve
injured?
Answer:
Radial
nerve
Q22.
Where
can
you
palpate
dorsalis
pedis
artery?
A.
Lateral
to
the
extensor
hallucis
longus
Answer:
A
Q23.
Child
with
hip
pain,
x-‐ray
was
normal
but
US
showed
fluid.
Lab
revealed
high
ESR,
and
CRP,
otherwise
normal.
What
to
do?
A.
MRI
B.
CT
hip
and
pelvis
C.
Aspiration
Answer:
C
Q24.
Athlete,
Heel
pain
in
the
morning,
what’s
the
dx?
A.
Plantar
fasciitis
Answer:
A
They
present
with
sharp
heel
pain
worse
in
the
morning
when
first
getting
out
of
bed.
Q25.
Posterior
shoulder
dislocation?
Answer:
pain
with
flexion
+
adduction
and
internal
rotation
of
the
arm
+
posterior
dislocation
may
leave
humeral
head
in
subacromial
position.
Q26.
Treatment
of
spinal
stenosis?
Answer:
analgesics,
anti
inflammatory,
physical
therapy,
and
lastly
surgical
decompression.
Surgery
is
indicated
when
the
signs
and
symptoms
correlate
with
the
radiologic
evidence
of
spinal
stenosis.
Generally,
surgery
is
recommended
when
significant
radiculopathy,
myelopathy
(cervicothoracic),
neurogenic
claudication
(lumbar),
or
incapacitating
pain
is
present.
Q26.
Perths
2
times
(xray/
scenario).
Answer:
Legg-‐Calve-‐Perthes
Disease
(Coxa
plana):
it
is
an
idiopathic
avascular
necrosis
of
the
proximal
femoral
epiphysis
in
children.
4-‐8
years
is
most
common
age
of
presentation,
male
to
female
ratio
is
5:1,
up
to
75%
of
affected
patients
have
some
form
of
coagulopathy.
Bone
age
is
delayed
in
89%
of
patients
Younger
age
(bone
age)
<
6
years
at
presentation
is
most
important
good
prognostic
indicator.
-‐
Symptoms:
insidious
onset,
may
cause
painless
limp,
intermittent
hip,
knee,
groin
or
thigh
pain.
-‐
Signs:
hip
stiffness,
loss
of
internal
rotation
and
abduction,
gait
disturbance;
antalgic
limp
and
Trendelenburg
gait.
-‐
X-‐ray:
medial
joint
space
widening
(earliest)
from
less
ossification
of
head,
cresent
sign
(represents
a
subchondral
fracture).
MRI
is
more
sensitive.
-‐
Treatment
is
nonoperative;
observation
alone,
activity
restriction
(non-‐weight
bearing),
and
physical
therapy
(ROM
exercises)
in
children
<
8
years
of
age
(bone
age
<6
years)
(they
don’t
benefit
from
surgery).
Operative:
femoral
and/or
pelvic
osteotomy
for
children
>
8
years
of
age.
(Orthobullets).
Q27.
Osgood
schlatter
disease.
Answer:
Osgood-‐Schlatter
disease
(Tibial
Tuberosity
Avulsion
-‐
Traction
Apophysitis).
Anterior
knee
pain,
often
bilateral
(around
25-‐50%
of
cases),
of
tibial
tuberosities
in
adolescent
children
(10-‐11
in
girls
and
13-‐14
in
boys).
Caused
by
repetitive
stress
from
the
quadriceps
tendon
pulling
on
the
tibial
tuberosities
during
rapid
growth
spurts.
Sports
with
jumping,
running
and
kneeling
making
it
worse,
and
it
improves
with
rest.
P/E:
pain
with
palpation
over
the
tibial
tuberosities,
and
reproduced
with
resisted
knee
extension.
No
need
for
imaging.
Treatment
is
conservative.
(Master
the
Boards)
Q28.
Patellar
chondromalacia
Answer:
Condition
characterized
by
idiopathic
articular
changes
of
the
patella.
more
commonly
grouped
together
with
a
number
of
pathological
entities
known
as
"anterior
knee
pain"
or
"patellofemoral
syndrome".
Symptoms:
-‐
Diffuse
pain
in
the
peripatellar
or
retropatellar
area
of
the
knee
(major
symptom)
-‐
Insidious
onset
and
typically
vague
in
nature
-‐
Aggravated
by
specific
daily
activities
including:
climbing
or
descending
stairs,
prolonged
sitting
with
knee
bent
(known
as
theatre
pain),
squatting
or
kneeling.
P/E:
-‐
Quadricep
muscle
atrophy
-‐
Signs
of
patella
maltracking
-‐
Palpable
crepitus
-‐
Pain
with
compression
of
patella
with
knee
range
of
motion
or
resisted
knee
extension.
Treatment:
rest,
rehab
and
NSAIDS
(mainstay
of
treatment
and
should
be
done
for
a
minimum
of
one
year).
Operative
treatment:
https://www.orthobullets.com/sports/3022/idiopathic-‐chondromalacia-‐
patellae
(Orthobullets)
Q29.
Medial
collateral
ligament?
Answer:
you
can
test
it
with
valgus
stress
test.
Q30.
question
about
a
boy
who
pushed
his
friend
from
the
back
10
hours
later
the
boy
came
to
ER
complaining
of
severe
pain
what
is
the
ligament
affected?
A.
Iliofemoral
B.
Ischio…
Answer:
?
Incomplete
question
Q31.
Which
tendon
passes
through
lesser
sciatic
foramen?
A.
Obturator
Internus
tendon
Answer:
A
Q32.
Diagnosis
of
osteoporosis
based
on
DXA
scan
?
A
-‐3.5
B.
2
C.
3.5
D.
2
Answer:
less
than
-‐
2.5
Q91.
30-‐year-‐old
patient
presents
with
back
pain
and
tenderness
when
palpating
the
paraspinal
muscle,
neurovascular
was
normal
and
ask
about
treatment?
A.
Physiotherapy
B.
Biofeedback
C.
Surgery
Answer:
A
Q92.
Pain
in
snuff
box
most
likely
indicate
fracture
in
which
of
the
following?
A.
Scaphoid
Answer:
A
Q93.
Boy
with
hip
pain
x
ray
shows
degenerative
and
collapse
of
femoral
neck
what
the
diagnosis?
A.
Perthes
disease
Answer:
A
Q94.
2-‐year-‐old
child
fell
on
stairs,
presented
with
spiral
tibial
fracture
with
multiple
contusions
on
various
healing
stages
what
you're
going
to
do?
A.
Hospitalization
and
call
the
social
services
B.
Referral
to
orthopedics
C.
Cast
and
discharge
Answer:
A
Could
be
child
abuse
Q96.
Case
of
osgood
schlatter
disease
came
with
bilateral
knee
swelling,
what
is
the
cause?
A.
Osteochondritis
B.
Hemorrhage
in
the
bursa
C.
ACL
tear
Answer:
A
(most
likely,
I
did
my
research
and
I
honestly
don’t
know
the
right
answer)
Osteochondritis
characterized
knee,
the
medial
by
ddfissecans
emoral
ciondyle
egeneration
s
an
aintra-‐articular
nd
is
rm osteochondrosis
e-‐calcification
ost
commonly
rticular
coartilage
of
aaffected.
f
unknown
and
eutiology
nderlying
that
is
In
the
bone.
The
pmatient
effusion.
also
tenderness
ay
Ibf
e
aar
reports
long
leported.
oose
the
bvody
ague,
involved
On
is
ppphysical
resent,
oorly
chondral
leocalized
mxamination,
echanical
surface.
knee
stymptoms
A phe
ain,
mpild
atient
as
joint
woell
f
melocking
aay
ffusion
s
mdemonstrate
orning
om
r
cay
atching
sbtiffness
e
pqresent.
uadriceps
of
otr
he
recurrent
knee
atrophy
joint
or
(American
family
physician)
Q97.
Which
drug
of
the
following
used
in
the
treatment
of
osteoporosis
and
cause
constipation?
A.
Bisphosphonates
B.
Denosumab
C.
Cinacalcet
Answer:
A
Q98.
Worker
with
elbow
pain,
exaggerated
by
hammer
use.
What
is
the
cause?
A.
Lateral
epicondylitis
B.
Biceps
tendonitis
Answer:
A
Q99.
Female
wearing
a
high
heel
falls
her
leg
moved
outward
(
or
something),
what
is
the
injured
ligament?
A.
Lateral
collateral
ligament
B.
Deltoid
ligament
C.
Anterior
cruciate
ligament
Answer:
B
An
eversion
ankle
sprain
is
a
tear
of
the
deltoid
ligaments.
Q100.
Nerve
supply
of
the
calf
muscle?
A.
Tibial
nerve
B.
Femoral
Answer:
A
Q101.
Type
of
joint
between
vertebra?
A.
Cartilaginous
joint
Answer:
A
Q102.
Superficial
layer
of
the
sole
of
the
foot
had
transverse
cut,
which
structure
affected?
A.
Tibialis
posterior
B.
Abductor
hallucis
Answer:
B
Q103.
Injury
to
neck
of
fibula,
loss
of
dorsiflexion
and
there's
slight
eversion,
which
nerve
is
affected?
A.
Deep
peroneal
nerve
B.
Common
peroneal
nerve
Answer:
B
Q104.
Long
scenario
about
median
nerve
injury.
What
is
the
abnormality
you
expected
to
see
in
hand
?
A.
Ape
hand
B.
Claw
hand
C.
Wrist
drop
Answer:
A
Q105.
Injury
leads
to
loss
of
sensation
in
the
medial
2
fingers.
What
is
the
nerve
injured
?
A.
Ulnar
nerve
B.
Median
nerve
C.
Brachial
nerve
Answer:
A
Q106.
Female
typing
on
computer
giving
hx
of
carpal
tunnel
syndrome,
what’s
the
accurate
test?
A.
Tinel’s
test
B.
Compression
test
Answer:
B
Q107.
Patient
presented
with
bilateral
knee
pain
and
on
examination
you
found
joint
crepitus
and
muscle
wasting
around
knee?
A.
Rheumatoid
Arthritis
B.
Osteoarthritis
C.
Chronic
pain
syndrome
or
something
like
that
Answer:
B
Q108.
Player
develop
pain
with
movement,
got
better
with
rest.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
A.
Plantar
fascitis
B.
Calcaneus
bone
spur
C.
No
tarsal
tunnel
in
the
choices
Answer:
A
(could
be)
You
cannot
judge
based
on
the
given
information
only.
Q137.
Diabetic
presented
with
sudden
onset
of
middle
and
ring
finger
pain.
On
examination,
passive
extension
radiates
the
pain
to
the
wrist.
No
history
of
trauma.
What's
the
treatment?
A.
Colchicine
B.
Cefazolin
C.
Ibuprofen
D.
Prednisolone
Answer:
C
(not
sure)
Q138.
Typical
Scenario
of
cervical
stenosis
with
an
MRI
picture
asking
about
the
diagnosis.
Look
up
MRI
pic
of
cervical
stenosis
Q139.
Patient
keeps
his
right
arm
extended
and
Lt
flexed
to
his
waist,
Dx?
A.
Catatonia
B.
Dystonia
Answer:
B
(not
sure)
Q140.
PAtient
with
25-‐30%
lumbar
spinal
stenosis,
what's
the
treatment
?
A.
Surgery
B.
Physiotherapy
C.
Epidural
steroid
injection
Answer:
B
(I
think)
Treatment
of
lumbar
stenosis:
nonoperative
(first
line):
oral
medications,
physical
therapy,
and
corticosteroid
injections.
Modalities include:
● Persistent
pain
for
3-‐6
months
that
has
failed
to
improve
with
nonoperative
management.
● Progressive
neurologic
deficit
(weakness
or
bowel/bladder).
Wide
pedicle-‐to-‐pedicle
decompression
with
instrumented
fusion.
Indications:
● Presence
of
segmental
instability
(isthmic
spondylolisthesis,
degenerative
spondylolisthesis,
degenerative
scoliosis).
Q141.
Pronator
teres
syndrome?
Answer:
medial
nerve
compression
at
elbow
Q142.
Nerve
involved
in
tarsal
tunnel
syndrome?
Answer:
tibial
nerve
Q143.
years
old
lady
known
case
of
hypothyroidism
present
with
painful
movement
of
the
right
shoulder
and
can't
raise
the
shoulder
due
to
this
pain,what's
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
A.
Rotator
cuff
tear
B.
Adhesive
capsulitis
C.
Impingement
syndrome
Answer:
B
I
think
more
details
are
needed,
If
they
mentioned
having
weakness
I
would
choose
rotator
cuff
tear.
Q144.
If
you
remove
the
pectoralis
major
muscle,
what's
gonna
happen?
A.
Loss
of
arm
adduction
B.
Loss
of
arm
abduction
C.
Loss
of
arm
adduction
and
internal
rotation
D.
Loss
of
arm
abduction
and
external
rotation
Answer:
C
Q145.
Old
bilateral
deltoid
muscle
weakness
and
neck
stiffness
and
limiting
of
movement?
A.
Brachial
plexus
neuropathy
B.
Neck
strain
Answer:
cervical
spondylosis
ENT
1:
A
little
girl
with
ear
discharge,
bulging
tympanic
membrane,
decreases
TM
vibration
and
erythema
behind
the
ear.
External
ear
pinna
is
pushed
forward
and
inferior.
What
is
the
Dx?
A-‐Mastoiditis
B-‐Otitis
Media
C-‐Otitis
externa
Answer:
A
(Key
words,
Pinna
is
pushed
forward
with
erythema
behind
the
ear)
2:
Mastoditis
treatment?
Answer:
Vancomycin
+
ceftriaxone
4:
Patient
with
parotiditis
and
have
pain
with
eating
that
radiates
to
the
ear,
pain
by
which
nerve"?
A-‐
Auriculotemporal
Answer:
A,
If
not
choose
facial
nerve
5:
Most
common
parotid
tumor
in
pediatric:
Pleomorphic
adenoma
Notes:
Benign
-‐
pleomorphic
adenoma
then
hemangioma,
Malignant
-‐
mucoepidermoid
tumor
Head
and
neck
tumor:
HPV
is
a
risk
factor
6:
Child
diagnosed
as
serous
OM,
what
is
the
best
management
to
relieve
his
symptoms?
A-‐
Myringotomy
B-‐
Myringotomy
+
Gommet
insertion
Answer:
B
(https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/858990-‐treatment)
7:
Epiglottitis
treatment
Answer:
Ceftriaxone
8:
Thumb
sign
on
x-‐ray
what
is
the
organism
?
(Epiglottitis)
Answer:
Haemophilus
influenza
9:
Nerve
to
behind
ear
and
...
part
of
auricle
Answer:
Greater
auricular
nerve
(It
supplies
the
skin
of
the
face
over
the
parotid
gland,
the
skin
over
the
mastoid
process
and
on
the
posterior
surface
of
the
auricle.
Small
branch
pierces
the
auricle
to
supply
the
lobule
and
concha)
https://radiopaedia.org/articles/greater-‐auricular-‐nerve
10:
Tonsillitis
case,
which
antibiotics
will
you
use?
A-‐
Amoxicillin/
clavilonic
B-‐
Vancomycin
C-‐
Ciprofloxacin
Answer:
A
Notes:
Tonsillitis
presents
with
fever,
sore
throat,
foul
breath,
odynophagia,
dysphagia,
tender
cervical
lymph
nodes
11:
Loss
of
sensation
of
anterior
2/3
of
the
tongue?
A-‐
5
B-‐
7
C-‐
9
D-‐
12
Answer:
A
Loss
of
sensation
on
anterior
2/3
à
Trigaminal
(lingual
branch)
Loss
of
taste
on
anterior
2/3
à
Facial
(chorda
tympani)
Loss
of
sensation
and
taste
on
posterior
1/3
à
Glossopharyngeal
Loss
of
motor
function
of
the
tongue
à
Hypoglossal
Posterior
part
of
the
root
of
tongue
à
vagus
12:
Man
had
accident
and
loss
of
test
in
the
anterior
two
third
of
the
tongue,
which
nerve
is
affected?
Answer:
Facial
nerve
13:
Child
with
left
ear
pain
for
7
days,
had
previous
ear
infection
which
was
treated
with
antibiotics,
otoscope
shows
bulging
of
tympanic
membrane.
What
is
the
treatment?
(otitis
media)
A-‐
Amoxicillin
B-‐
Amoxicillin
with
clavulinic
acid
Answer:
B
14:
20
Year-‐old
patient
is
complaining
of
hearing
loss
in
one
ear,
she
also
mentions
that
she
can
hear
her
own
voice
louder
in
the
affected
ear.
What
is
the
possible
cause?
A-‐
Otitis
media
B-‐
Otitis
externa
C-‐
Furuncle
in
ear
canal
D-‐
Superior
canal
dehiscence
Answer:
D
(https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/857914-‐clinical)
15:
Most
common
cause
of
tinnitus
A-‐
Chronic
salicylate
use
B-‐
Salicylate
poisoning
C-‐
Chronic
otitis
media
D-‐
Sensorineural
hearing
loss
Answer:
D
(http://www.aafp.org/afp/2014/0115/p106.html)
16:
Clear
case
of
atopic
patient
with
allergic
rhinitis,
symptoms
and
signs
were
given,
then
asked
about
the
cells
responsible
for
his
allergy?
A-‐
Monocytes
B-‐
Macrophages
C-‐
Mast
cells
D-‐
Neutrophils
Answer:
C
17:
Unilateral
nasal
obstruction,
with
foul
smelling
discharge
and
vestibule
erosion,
his
nasal
exam
was
normal
,what
to
do?
A-‐
X-‐ray
head
and
chest
B-‐
Nasal
exam
under
GA
C-‐
ABx
Answer:
A
(most
likely
foreign
body
insertion)
18:
Which
one
of
the
following
drugs
causes
Vertigo?
A-‐
Streptomycin
B-‐
INH
C-‐
Ethambutol
Answer:
A
(ototoxicity-‐vestibular)
19:
Cellulitis
in
the
face
of
infants
between
6
and
24
months
with
purple
discoloration
is
caused
by:
A-‐
GAS
B-‐
SA
C-‐
HIB
D-‐
Strep
pneumonia
Answer:
C
(https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/214222-‐overview#a4)
20:
Most
common
cause
of
hearing
loss
?
A-‐
SNHL
B-‐
Conductive
Answer:
A
(http://www.aafp.org/afp/2012/0615/p1150.html)
21:
Patient
has
loss
of
sensation
of
upper
lip
and
inferior
eye
lid,
what
nerve
is
affected?
Answer:
Infra
orbital
nerve
(Its
branches
supply
the
skin
of
the
medial
cheek,
lateral
nose
and
upper
lip,
the
mucosa
of
the
anteroinferior
nasal
septum
and
oral
mucosa
of
upper
lip.)
https://radiopaedia.org/articles/infraorbital-‐nerve-‐2
22:
Patient
underwent
dental
procedure,
then
he
develop
numbness
on
upper
lip
what
is
the
nerve:
Inferior
orbital
nerve
23:
child
brought
to
ER
with
barking
cough,
red
epiglottis,
thumb
sign
on
x
ray,
Best
initial
management?
A-‐
Examination
of
epiglottis
B-‐
Endotracheal
intubation.
C-‐
Emergent
tracheostomy
D-‐
Nasopharyngeal
Tube
Answer:
B
(https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/763612-‐treatment)
24:
Signs
of
epiglottitis,
what
is
the
diagnostic
test
?
A
-‐Nasopharyngeal
soap
B
-‐X-‐ray
C-‐
Direct
visualization
of
the
epiglottis
Answer:
C
(https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/763612-‐workup#c8)
25:
Patient
with
submandibular
mass
that
becomes
painful
with
eating
and
chewing,
and
disappears
after.
on
examination
there
is
a
hard
submandibular
mass.
Diagnosis?
A-‐
Acute
sialadenitis
B-‐
Submandibular
duct
calculus
Answer:
B
(submandibular
sialadenosis)
(https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/882358-‐
clinical#b5)
26:
30
years
old
pregnant
with
hearing
loss
and
vertigo,
her
mother
had
the
same
presentation.
What
is
the
cause:
A-‐
Acoustic
neuroma
B-‐
Otosclerosis
Answer:
B
(https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/859760-‐overview#a10)
27:
Most
common
cancer
originates
from
which
paranasal
sinus?
A-‐
Ethmiod
B-‐
Frontal
C-‐
Sphenoid
D-‐
Maxillary
Answer:
D
(https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/847189-‐overview#a8)
28:
Child
has
pale
edematous
nasal
what
to
do
(treatment
of
allergic
rhinitis)?
Answer:
Intranasal
corticosteroids
29
:
Most
appropriate
treatment
for
nasal
obstruction
?
A-‐
antihistamine.
B-‐
Steroid
30:
Patient
after
a
surgery
in
the
posterior
triangle
of
neck,
developed
loss
of
sensation
on
the
skin
of
lower
mandible
and
Lower
part
of
the
ear,
what
nerve
is
injured?
Answer:
Great
Auricular
nerve.
31:
Patient
with
bad
breath
smell,
his
teeth
are
ok
and
he
expectorates
seed
like
particles,
what
is
the
most
likely
cause?
Crypt
tonsillitis
32:
Patient
with
tonsillitis,
what
is
the
duration
of
antibiotics?
A-‐
5
B-‐
7
C-‐
10
Answer:
10
days
33:
Facial
nerve
affection,
normal
lacrimation,
abnormal
tympani
reflex
and
loss
of
taste,
site
of
injury:
A-‐
Distal
to
tympani
chordi
B-‐
Proximal
to
tympani
chordi
C-‐
Distal
to
gbs
nerve
D-‐
Proximal
to
gbs
nerve
Answer:
B
(If
the
lesion
is
proximal
to
the
geniculate
ganglion,
the
motor
paralysis
is
accompanied
by
gustatory
and
autonomic
abnormalities.
Lesions
between
the
geniculate
ganglion
and
the
origin
of
the
chorda
tympani
produce
the
same
effect,
except
that
they
spare
lacrimation.
If
the
lesion
is
at
the
stylomastoid
foramen,
it
may
result
in
facial
paralysis
only.)
Medscape
34:
Patient
complain
of
vertigo
for
22-‐46
minutes
+
tinnitus
+
hearing
loss,
audiogram
show
low
frequency
hearing
loss,
diagnosis?
A-‐
Meniere's
disease
B-‐
Acoustic
neuroma
C-‐
Vestibule
neuritis
Answer:
A
35:
Child
with
history
of
URTI
presented
now
with
bilateral
bulging
TM
and
pain
A-‐
observe
B-‐
Amoxicillin
45/kg
for
5
days
C-‐
Amoxicillin
90/kg
for
10
days
Answer:
C
36:
Moved
pinna
and
narrowed
external
canal,
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐
Choleteatoma
B-‐
Otitis
externa
C-‐
Otitis
media
Answer:
B
37:
Old
patient
with
a
history
of
vertigo,
imbalance,
tinnitus
with
hearing
loss
what
is
the
next
investigation?
A-‐
CT
temporal
B-‐
MRI
of
cerebelloponitine
angle
C-‐
Auditory
brainstem
response
Answer:
B
(Acoustic
neuroma)
38:
Scenario
about
hearing
loss
of
gradual
onset
in
one
ear
and
vertigo
.pic
of
bell's
palsy.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
Answer:
Acoustic
neuroma
39:
young
boy
with
head
trauma
came
with
painful
swelling
in
nose.
on
examination
cystic
swelling
on
both
sides
of
nasal
septum
was
seen,
what
will
be
your
action?
A-‐
Decongentant
B-‐
Antihistamine
C-‐
X-‐ray
nasal
septum
D-‐
Inscision
and
drainage
Answer:
D
(septal
hematoma)
40:
Symptoms
of
allergic
rhinitis
and
asked
about
the
diagnosis?
Answer:
sneezing,
nasal
obstruction,
tearing
and
itching.
41:
What
is
the
most
common
cause
of
epistaxis
in
children?
Answer:
Nose
picking,
foreign
body
42:
Child
with
painless
hearing
difficulty
,
tympainc
membrane
not
cleary
seen
Answer:
Serous
otitis
media
43:
Bilateral
mass
post
auricular
what
is
the
complications:
A-‐
Encephalitis
B-‐
Hearing
loss
Answer:
A
44:
40
years
old
man
complaining
of
vertigo
and
tinnitus
associated
with
nausea
and
vomiting,
the
attack
of
vertigo
last
30
to
45
minutes
(not
sure
about
headache)
Auditory
test
showed:
low
frequency
sensorineural
hearing
loss.
What
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
A-‐
Meniere’s
disease
B-‐acoustic
neuroma
C-‐vestibular
disease
D-‐Paroxysmal
benign
vertigo
disorder
Answer:
A
45:
Child
with
barking
cough
what
finding
on
auscultation?
Wheezing
because
of
secretion
46:
Dysphagia
,swollen
tonsils,
what
will
decrease
the
swelling
in
pharynges?
A-‐
Prednisolone
B-‐
Aspirin
Answer:
A
47:
Child
with
fever
and
swelling
of
the
ear
canal:
Answer:
Otitis
externa
48:
What
is
the
most
common
cause
of
hearing
loss
in
children?
A-‐
Eustachian
tube
dysfunction
B-‐
Prenatal
maternal
infection
C-‐
Otitis
media
with
secretion
Answer:
C
49:
17
year
boy
with
nasal
bleeding
several
minutes
ago.no
previous
h/o
bleeding
disorder,
now
there
is
slow
bleeding
from
posterior
septum,
initial
action?
A-‐
Put
him
in
left
recumbent
position
B-‐
Posterior
nasal
packing
C-‐
Analgesic
and
vasoconstrictor
nasal
spray
Answer:
B
,
in
SMLE
12
the
answer
was
C
50:
Patient
with
epistaxis.
On
examination
only
bleeding
point
was
Posterior
inferior
nasal
septum,
which
vessel
is
affected?
Answer:
Sphenopalatine
51:
First
step
epistaxis?
A-‐
Nasal
packing
B-‐
Lying
side
ways
C-‐
Pinching
fleshy
part
together
Answer:
C
52:
Pt
woke
up
with
aphonia,
but
can
cough?
A-‐
Functional
aphonia
B-‐
Laryngeal
cord
paralysis
Answer:
A
53:
Patient
with
squamous
cell
carcinoma
on
his
lower
lip,
in
which
lymph
node
will
be
drained?
A-‐
Submandibule
B-‐
Submental
Answer:
B
54:
Patient
had
occipitofrontalis
paralysis
which
branch
of
facial
nerve
is
affected?
A-‐
Temporal
B-‐
Buccal
Answer:
A
55:
Case
of
bell’s
palsy,
which
nerve
will
be
intact?
A-‐
Massater
B-‐
Bucceneter
C-‐
Orbicularis
oris
D-‐
Orbicularis
oculi
Answer:
A
(supplied
by
trigeminal)
(https://radiopaedia.org/articles/masseter-‐muscle)
56:
Child
swallowed
caustic
material
and
presented
with
drooling
of
saliva,
what
is
the
initial
step?
A-‐
Secure
airway
B-‐
Emergent
endoscope
C-‐
Charcol
Answer:
A
57:
Loss
of
forehead
muscle
action,
which
nerve
is
affected?
Answer:
Fascial
nerve
58:
Loss
of
gag
reflex
but
normal
uvula,
which
nerve
is
affected?
A-‐
glossopharyngeal
B-‐
Vegas
Answer:
A
59:
Lymph
node
of
the
forehead?
Answer:
Submandibular
60:
Complications
of
mastoiditis?
Hearing
loss,
Facial
nerve
palsy,
Cranial
nerve
involvement,
osteomyelitis,
Petrositis,
Labyrinthitis,
Gradenigo
syndrome
(otitis
media,
retro-‐orbital
pain,
abducent
palsy)
Intracranial
extension
(meningitis,
cerebral
abscess,
subdural
empyema)
sigmoid
sinus
thrombosis,
abscess
formation
61:
Nasal
&
and
palate
dryness
due
to
obstruction
of?
-‐
submandibular
gland
-‐
Submental
-‐
Ptergoplatine
62:
Elderly
with
vasomotor
rhinitis
?
● Antihistamines
● Decongested
● Corticosteroid
Mild
:
Antihistamine
and
saline
drop
Sever
:
Steroid
and
anticholinergic
Usually
as
the
optimal
tx
is
steroid
http://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-‐conditions/nonallergic-‐
rhinitis/diagnosis-‐
treatment/treatment/txc-‐20179179
63:
New
born
delivered
by
forceps
and
affected
on
sternomastoid
foramen
:
decrease
blood
supply
to
ear
,
loss
sensation
of
face
same
side
,
eye
opining
,
loss
sensation
if
anterior
2/3
64:
Baby
,
during
delivery
,
there
was
stylomastoid
foramen
trauma
,
what
features
will
be
during
exams:
A-‐
loss
of
eye
close
B-‐
Loss
of
facial
sensation
C-‐
Loss
of
mastication
function
Answer:
A
65:
Which
nerve
supplies
biggest
part
of
the
tongue
and
covers
it
the
most?
A
-‐
trigeminal
B
-‐vagus
C
-‐glossopharyngeal
Answer:
A
66:
In
SNHL
where
is
the
pathology:
Answer:
Hair
cells
67:
Treatment
of
cholesteatoma?
Answer:
Surgery
Notes:
-‐
Otosclerosis:
AD
-‐
Recurrent
URTI
with
psuedomonas
and
atypical
organism:
CF
-‐
Compression
on
maxillary
artery:
sphenopalatine
artery
affected
-‐
Thyroid
fascia:
pretrachial
fascia,
part
from
deep
cervical
fascia
-‐
Accessory
nerve:
in
post.
Triangle
-‐
triangle
between
hyoid
bone
and
two
ant.
Belly
of
digastric:
submental
-‐
External
laryngeal
nerve:
supply
cricothyroid
muscle
-‐-‐>
adduct
cord
to
phone
the
voice
-‐
Facial
N
injury
proximal
to
greater
petrosal
nerve
-‐
Loss
of
sensation
in:
lower
eyelid,
maxilla,
zygomatic
areas
-‐-‐>
maxillary
N
injury
which
give
inferior
orbital
N
-‐
Upper
and
lower
lips
LN
drainage:
submandibular
-‐
LN
of
middle
of
face:
submandibular
-‐
LN
of
lateral
side,
includes
lateral
side
of
eyelid
and
eyebrow:
parotid
gland
-‐
Tip
of
the
tongue
and
center
of
the
lips:
submental
Anesthesia
1.
A
diabetic
patient
on
oral
hypoglycemic
drugs
is
going
into
surgery
what
to
do?
a.
Give
insulin
Answer:
IV
Insulin;
in
general
the
literature
suggests
keeping
glucose
levels
between
150
and
200 mg/dL.
Both
DM
I
and
II
will
be
given
IV
insulin
with
different
rates
of
infusion.
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4452499/
2.
Multiparous,
38
wks,
in
labour,
90%
cervical
effacement,
4CM
dilatation,
membranes
ruptured
e
clear
fluid,
On
CTG,
FHR
dropped
from
140
to
80,
the
pt
platelets=50,000,
what
type
of
anesthesia
is
suitable?
a.
General
Anesthesia
b.
Epidural
c.
Pudendal
Answer:
General
Anaesthesia;
Regional
anaesthesia
is
absolutely
contraindicated
in
case
of
low
platelet
count
and
severe
coagulopathy.
However,
risks
and
benefits
of
regional
anaesthesia
should
individually
be
assessed
in
patients
who
had
low
platelet
count
but
no
clinical
signs
of
coagulation
disorders.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4894094/
3.
Local
anesthesia
SE
first
sign?
a.
perioral
numbness.
Answer:
Perioral
numbness;
SE
appears
1-‐5
min
after
the
injection
which
begins
as
a
CNS
excitatory
symptoms
“
circumoral/tongue
numbness,
Metallic
taste,
dizzy,
lightheadedness,
visual/audiotary
disturbances,
Disorientation”
but
with
higher
doses
it
follow
a
rapid
CNS
depressing
status
“
convulsion,
Coma,
Respiratory
arrest,
References:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1844551-‐overview#a1
4.
Anesthesia
in
asthmatic
a.
ketamine
Answer:
Ketamine
is
used
in
Asthma,
Hypovolemia,
major
trauma
because
it’s
a
sympathomimetic.
References:
Toronto
note
2016
5.
What
anesthetic
drug
can
act
as
analgesic
if
given
in
a
low
dose
a.
Ketamine
Answer:
Ketamine;
works
on
NMDA
receptor
and
subanesthetic
dose
will
potentiate
Opioid
analgesia,
it
has
antitumor,
neuroprotective
and
anti-‐inflammatory
properties.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4258981/
6.
Which
anesthetic
agent
is
100
times
stronger
than
Morphine?
a.
Fentanyl
Answer:
Fentanyl;
in
the
literature
its
said
the
Fentanyl
is
80
times
more
potent
than
morphine
and
hydromorphone
is
20
times
more
potent
than
morphine.
References:
https://palliative.stanford.edu/opioid-‐conversion/equivalency-‐table/
7.
Fentanyl
in
patient
with
Absence
seizure:
increase
stimulation
of
GABA
leads
to
seizure
Answer:
its
well
known
that
fentanyl
produces
an
epileptiform
activity
in
patients
with
epilepsy
disorders;
the
proconvulsant
properties
of
it
affect
mu
and
delta
opioid
receptor
and
by
inhibiting
GABAergic
interneurons
which
mediate
an
excitatory
effect
on
neurons
especially
in
the
epileptiform
focus
zone.
References:
http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1046/j.1528-‐1157.2001.18600.x/full
8.
Drug
given
with
analgesia
to
decrease
its
side
effect
a.
Metoclopramide
Answer:
Metclopromide;
Dopmaine
2
Receptor
antagonist
and
act
on
the
chemoreceptor
zone
and
gastric
motility.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2464411/
9.
Multiparous
woman
everything
was
fine,
except
the
FHR
dropped
from
140
to
80,
also
mentioned
that
her
platelet
count
is
low,
what
type
of
anesthesia
to
give?
a.
GA
Answer:
General
Anaestheia.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4894094/
10.
A
pregnant
lady
was
provided
a
pudendal
nerve
block
as
an
analgesia,
which
structure
would
be
fully
sensitive
and
not
blocked
by
the
analgesia?
a.
Rectum
b.
Perineal
body
c.
Urogenital
diaphragm
Answer:
Rectum;
Pudendal
nerve
block:
blocks
sensory
and
motor
innervation
to
the
Clitoris
“
dorsal
nerve”,
skin
of
perineum
[labia
major/minora
and
vestibule]
“
perineal
branch”,
External
anal
sphincter
and
perianal
skin
“
via
inf.
Hemorrhoidal
N.”
References:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/83078-‐overview#a1
11.
Side
effect
of
morphine
?
a.
nausea
and
vomiting
Answer:
nausea,
emesis,
constipation,
dizziness.
S/Sx
of
overdose
includes
[
meiosis,
fever,
HTN,
decrease
responsiveness,
muscle
cramps/pain/stiff/spasms,
Sleepiness]
References:
https://www.drugs.com/sfx/morphine-‐side-‐effects.html
12.
Investigation
to
be
ordered
before
giving
epidural
analgesia?
a.
Platelet
count
Answer:
low
platelet
count
is
considered
as
a
CI
to
epidural
“
neuro-‐axial
block”
and
it
must
be
R/O,
having
plt.
Count
<
80,000
with
bleeding
is
considered
as
a
CI
but
if
without
bleeding
its
considered
as
a
relative
CI.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3417963/
13.
In
order
to
increase
hyperbaric
in
cephalid
position
a.
trendelenburg
position
b.
Anti-‐trendelenberg
Answer:
Trendelenburg
position
is
used
to
extend
the
level
of
nerve
block
distribution.
References:
https://academic.oup.com/bja/article/98/3/396/372828/Trendelenburg-‐position-‐with-‐
hip-‐flexion-‐as-‐a
14.
pregnanat
women
during
labor
,
spontaneous
rupture
of
membrane
,
suddenly
baby
is
stress
from
140
to
80
what
type
of
Anaesthesia
whould
you
use?
a.
GA*
b.
Pedundal
Answer:
GA
is
usually
the
1st
choice
in
case
of
fetal
compromise.
References:
https://books.google.com.sa/books?id=L0shAwAAQBAJ&pg=PA187&lpg=PA187&dq=sudden+fetal+heart+rate+drop+type+of+anaesthesia
.&source=bl&ots=q0EutJSyzk&sig=YWMcE-‐
hz75I06BkEOFiTyyFmv90&hl=ar&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjxmae244nXAhVEvBoKHa5iC9cQ6AEILzAB#v=onepage&q=sudden%20fetal%20heart
%20rate%20drop%20type%20of%20anaesthesia.&f=false
15.
-‐Problem
in
intubation
a.
Head
tilt
b.
Jaw
thrust
c.
Cricoid
pressure
Answer:
The
Q
doesn’t
have
sufficient
information.
Head
tilt
is
avoided
in
cervical
injuries
and
Jaw
thrust
is
used
instead.
Cricoid
pressure
is
applied
in
case
of
risk
of
aspiration.
References:
4th
year
med
school
course.
16.
The
anesthetic
agent
of
choice
in
bronchial
asthma:
a.
Nitric
oxide
b.
Halothane
c.
Cyclopropane
d.
Chloroform
Answer:
Halothane;
Propofol
and
ketamine
inhibit
bronchoconstriction,
decreasing
the
risk
of
bronchospasm
during
anaesthesia
induction.
Propofol
yields
central
airway
dilation
and
is
more
reliable
than
etomidate
or
thiopental.
Halothane,
enflurane,
and
isoflurane
are
potent
bronchodilators
and
can
be
helpful
even
in
status
asthmaticus
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/17115010
Dermatology
1.
-‐First
line
treatment
of
tenia
pedis:
A-‐Systemic
ketoconazole.
B-‐
Topical
terbinafine.
C-‐Topical
anti-‐fungal
Answer:
B/C
are
both
the
same
choose
which
ever
they
put
in
the
choices
Most
dermatophyte
infections
can
be
managed
with
topical
treatments.
For
patients
with
limited
tinea
pedis,
tinea
corporis,
or
tinea
cruris,
we
suggest
treatment
with
a
topical
antifungal
drug
with
antidermatophyte
activity
rather
than
systemic
therapy
(Grade
1A).
Examples
of
effective
topical
antifungal
agents
are
azoles,
allylamines,
ciclopirox,
butenafine,
and
tolnaftate.
Oral
antifungal
therapy
is
used
for
extensive
infections
or
infections
refractory
to
topical
therapy.
Nystatin
is
not
effective
for
dermatophyte
infections.
(See
'Tinea
pedis'
above
and
'Tinea
corporis'
above
and
'Tinea
cruris'
above.)
Up
to
date
2.
-‐Patient
developed
cutaneous
lichen
planus
lesion
on
flexor
surfaces
of
the
elbow
bilaterally,
with
no
mucosal
lesion
on
the
mouth
or
scalp,
which
one
of
the
following
statement
is
correct
regarding
this
scenario:
A-‐
There
is
risk
for
malignancy
transformation.
B-‐
Automatic
resolution
over
time.
C-‐persistent
lesion.
D-‐
Relapsing
and
remitting
lesion.
Answer:
B
As
classical
cutaneous
lichen
planus
is
a
self-‐limiting
disease,
routine
monitoring
is
usually
not
required.
However,
patients
with
erosive
oral
or
genital
lichen
planus
need
to
be
monitored
regularly
for
possible
squamous
cell
carcinoma
occurring
at
these
sites.
In
cutaneous
disease,
lesions
typically
resolve
within
6
months
(>50%)
to
18
months
(85%);
chronic
disease
is
more
likely
oral
lichen
planus
or
with
large,
annular,
hypertrophic
lesions
and
mucous
membrane
involvement
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1123213-‐overview
In
contrast
to
cutaneous
LP,
which
is
self-‐limited,
lichen
planus
lesions
in
the
mouth
may
persist
for
many
years,
and
tend
to
be
difficult
to
treat,
with
relapses
being
common.
Atrophic/erosive
lichen
planus
is
associated
with
a
small
risk
of
cancerous
transformation,
and
so
people
with
oral
LP
tend
to
be
monitored
closely
over
time
to
detect
any
potential
change
early.
Sometimes
oral
LP
can
become
secondarily
infected
with
Candida
organisms
Wiki
3.
-‐Which
one
of
the
following
patients
has
worst
prognosis
to
develop
Steven
Jonson:
A-‐HIV
patient
receiving
sulfa
group
medication
with
unknown
history
B-‐gouty
patient
with
known
sensitivity
to
allopurinol
Answer:
B
4.
-‐A
Woman
diagnosed
previously
with
lichen
sclerosis
in
vulva,
she
has
mass
in
vulva
and
biopsy
taken
,
what
suspect
to
has
?
A.
Squamous
cell
carcinoma
B.
Adenocarcinoma
C.
Squamoadenocarcinoma
D.
Melanoma
Answer
:A
LS
and
cancer
—
Women
with
LS
affecting
the
vulva
are
at
a
slightly
increased
risk
for
developing
squamous
cell
skin
cancer.
Up
to
Date
5.
-‐Which
of
the
following
is
the
most
malignant
and
needs
to
be
removed
A.
Erthyma
migrans
lyme
disease
B.
Erythyma
marginatum
rhueamtic
fever
C.
Erythema
gyratum
sign
of
underlying
lung
cancer
D.
Erythema
annulare
Answer:
C
Erythema
gyratum
repens
often
precedes
the
detection
of
malignancy.
The
skin
eruption
is
present
an
average
of
9
months
prior
to
the
diagnosis
of
malignancy,
with
a
range
of
1-‐72
months.
In
a
minority
of
patients,
erythema
gyratum
repens
occurred
simultaneously
with,
or
up
to
9
months
after,
the
detection
of
the
neoplasm.
6.
-‐Patient
using
sulfa
drug
there
is
lesion
in
glans
of
penis
ask
about
descriptions?
Answer:
The
characteristic
presentation
is
a
pruritic
or
burning,
sharply
circumscribed,
round-‐to-‐oval
patch
with
violaceous
or
dusky
erythema.
Scaly,
erythematous
and
ulceration.
AAFP
7.
-‐Patient
came
with
lesion
in
the
labia
majora
0.5cm
x
0.5cm,
they
took
biopsy,
what
will
the
histopathology
result
will
be?
A-‐Adenocarcinoma
B-‐
Squamous
cell
carcinoma
C-‐Adeno
squamous
cell
carcinoma
Answer:B
8.
-‐
Patient
came
with
plaque
in
the
labia
majora,
what
is
the
diagnosis?
(The
question
is
incomplete
)
A-‐Basal
cell
carcinoma
B-‐Melanoma
C-‐Lupus
pernio
Lupus
Pernio
–
no
because
its
Sarcoidosis
Melanoma
a
lump
or
growth
in
the
vagina
Basal
cell
is
unlikely
as
its
in
sun
exposed
area
9.
-‐
Patient
you
gave
her
retin
A
for
acne,
you
will
warn
her
from
what?
A-‐Increased
breast
tissue
B-‐Exposure
to
the
sun
Answer:
B
10.
-‐
Rosacea
treatment?
Answers:
Doxycycline
"tetracycline"
is
the
first
option
if
not
available
erythromycin
11.
-‐female
has
genital
warts
over
the
past
years,
genital
warts
are
associated
with
what?
(Incomplete)
A-‐hyperkeratosis
à
is
the
description
of
the
wart
not
an
association
The
most
common
type
of
eruption
is
a
morbilliform
(resembling
measles)
or
erythematous
rash
(approximately
90%
of
cases).[4]
Less
commonly,
the
appearance
may
also
be
urticarial,
papulosquamous,
pustular,
purpuric,
bullous
(with
blisters)
or
lichenoid.[3]
Angioedema
can
also
be
drug-‐induced
(most
notably,
by
angiotensin
converting
enzyme
inhibitors).
12.
-‐
An
athlete
with
itchy
pink
rash
between
his
thighs,
what
to
prescribe?
A-‐Tobical
Abx
B-‐Topical
steroid
C-‐
Topical
antifungal,
selenium
sulfide
(tinea
cruris)
Answer:
C
Tinea
cruris
is
usually
treated
with
topical
antifungal
agents.
Sometimes
hydrocortisone
is
added,
for
faster
relief
of
itch.
Topical
steroids
should
not
be
used
on
their
own.
If
the
treatment
is
unsuccessful,
oral
antifungal
medicines
may
be
considered,
including
terbinafine
and
itraconazole.
Dermnetz
13.
-‐
Patient
on
multiple
drugs,
developed
violaceous
papule
and
eczematous
pattern
in
the
trunk,
no
mucus
membrane
involving,
what
dx?
A-‐Lichenoid
eruption
B-‐Actinic
eruption
C-‐TEN
D-‐erythema
multiforme
Answer:
A
Extensive
rash
distributed
symmetrically
over
the
trunk
and
limbs
Photodistribution
–
the
rash
is
predominantly
in
areas
exposed
to
the
sun
Rash
may
be
scaly
resembling
eczema
or
psoriasis
Wickham
striae
are
usually
absent
Nail
and
mucous
membrane
(e.g.,
mouth)
involvement
is
uncommon
(oral
lichen
planus)More
likely
to
resolve
leaving
marked
pigmentation
14.
-‐Leg
ulcer,
with
rolled
out
edge?
A-‐SCC
B-‐Basal
cell
Answer:
A
15.
-‐Case
of
skin
disease
covering
the
head
and
extensor
surface
of
the
arms
with
silver
scaling
that
bleeds
when
scratched.
Covering
around
15%
of
her
body
with
nail
pitting
(Psoriasis).
What
is
the
most
appropriate
management?
A-‐Topical
steroid
B-‐PUVA
phototherapy
C-‐Methotrexate
Answer:
C
16.
-‐Most
common
affected
site
in
lichen
planus?
A-‐Mouth
B-‐Hands
Answer:
A
17.
What
is
the
first
immune
responsible
agent
in
the
skin?
A-‐Keratinocyte
Answer:A
They
are
in
the
outer
most
part
of
the
epidermis
the
stratum
cornea
they
act
as
physical
barriers
and
produce
antimicrobial
peptides
and
the
deeper
layer
keratinocytes
initiate
an
early
immune
response
–
Journal
of
clinical
and
experimental
dermatology
18.
-‐Pt
with
large
painful
nodule
Over
the
nose
with
telangiectasia
over
the
face
(Picture
of
rosacea)?
a)Doxycycline
b)Clindamycin
c)topical
retinoic
acid
d)topical
steroid
Answer:
A
19.
-‐19
y/o
female
with
vitiligo
in
the
face
and
hand
the
size
is
increasing
despite
medical
treatment
now
the
patient
wants
to
get
married
and
ask
you
what
to
do?
A-‐continue
medical
treatment.
B-‐stop
Medical
treatment
and
wait
C-‐skin
graft.
D-‐melanocyte
transfusion.
Answer:
Most
Probably
A
As
for
C
and
D
the
disease
has
to
be
stable
for
6-‐12
months.
DermNet.org
20.
-‐picture
of
patient
with
wheal
in
fore
arm,
and
complain
of
hand
pain
after
bee
sting
associated
with
enlarged
axillary
lymph
node
what
is
the
diagnosis?
A-‐Urticaris
B-‐lymphangitis
Answer:B
21.
-‐Acnes
with
pustules
and
nodules
what
type
of
acnes?
A-‐Inflammatory
B-‐obstructive
Answer:
A
(100%)
Obstructive
=
Comedonal
Inflamatory=
All
other
types
22.
-‐
Most
common
type
of
eczema?
A-‐Cold
B-‐Soles
C-‐Atopic
Dermatitis
D-‐
Dermatographism
Answer:
C
Note
that
D
is
for
Urticaria
and
not
Eczema
23.
-‐A
patient
is
complaining
of
a
skin
mole,
his
father
had
them
as
well
and
remove
them
but
didn't
know
if
its
benign
or
malignant,
the
patient
is
concerned
that
his
mole
is
malignant,
what
will
suggest
the
malignancy?
A-‐Irregular
border
that
fades
in
color
to
be
normal
B-‐Equality
of
the
color
Answer:
A
24.
-‐DM
patient
with
rash
on
thigh
folds,
diagnosed
as
eczema,
treated
with
azelic
acid,
topical
steroid
and
Tacrolimus
with
no
improvement,
your
management?
A-‐topical
corticosteroid
again.
B-‐topical
anti
fungal.
C-‐oral
steroid.
D-‐powder.
Answer:
B
Patients
with
moderate
to
severe
atopic
dermatitis
that
is
not
controlled
with
optimal
topical
therapy
may
require
phototherapy
or
systemic
immunosuppressant
treatment
to
achieve
adequate
disease
control.
These
treatments
are
not
suitable
for
infants
and
young
children.
In
older
children
and
adolescents,
they
should
be
used
when
other
management
options
have
failed
and
the
disease
has
a
significant
impact
on
the
quality
of
life.
reference:
uptodate
25.
-‐Treatment
of
non-‐inflammatory
acne
A-‐retinoid
acid
B-‐clindamycin
C-‐isosertonin
D-‐azelaic
acid
Answer:A
Source:
uptodate
26.
-‐
What's
the
treatment
of
cold
induced
urticaria
?
Answer
:
Antihistamine
27.
-‐
Old
lady
came
with
bilateral
lower
limb
erythema
and
crusting
(Incomplete)
Stasis
dermatitis
could
be
the
answer
if
there
is
history
of
venous
statis
or
its
risk
factors
28.
-‐Obese
man
develop
painful
lesion
on
gluteus
region,
with
initially
in
the
form
of
mild
lesions
then
becomes
large
red
painful
(incomplete).
There
was
sinus
on
Examination?
A-‐Furunculosis
B-‐Hidradenitis
suppurativa
Answer:
B
given
the
Obesity
and
location
29.
-‐46
year
old
female
came
to
the
clinic
complaining
of
hair
loss
on
the
central
area
of
the
scalp
and
thinning
of
her
hair
over
the
past
few
years,
Dx?
A-‐Female
pattern
hair
loss
B-‐androgenic
alopecia
Answer:
A
30.
-‐
A
clinical
Description
of
Psoriatic
lesions
without
Psoriasis
in
the
options
A-‐SLE
Subacute
cutaneous
Lupus
has
a
variant
called
papulosquamous
which
may
resemble
psoriasis
–Up
to
Date
31.
-‐Melanocyte
Producing
Cell
?
Corticotropes.
32.
-‐Itching
over
the
face,
Anti-‐cubital
and
popliteal
fossa
?
Eczema
33.
-‐Nevus
creptus
something
like
this
(child
with
scalp
swelling
with
hair
loss
above
it)
Incomplete
question
DDX
?
In
an
infant
or
young
child,
sebaceous
naevus
presents
as
a
solitary,
smooth,
yellow-‐orange
hairless
patch,
often
oval
or
linear
in
shape.Sebaceous
naevi
become
more
pronounced
around
adolescence,
often
appearing
bumpy,
warty
or
scaly.
34.
-‐
Description
of
Herpes
simplex
genital
lesions
Answer:
multiple
painful
fluid
filled
vesicles
35.
-‐
Scenario
of
patient
used
a
medication
for
depression
and
developed
rash
in
all
of
his
body?
(Incomplete)
Answer:
Toxic
Epidermal
Necrolysis
(TEN)
36.
-‐Diaper
rash
with
satellite
lesion?
Answer:
Candida
37.
-‐Typical
case
seborrheic
dermatitis
Greasy
lesion
on
baby
head
+
Picture
of
seborrheic
dermatitis
38.
-‐Lesion
from
vulva
with
tree
like
shape
?
Answer:
Probably
Wart/HPV
39.
-‐Nodular
acne
with
pustule
type
of
acne?
Answer:
Inflammatory
40.
SLE+
rash
(papule,
multiple,
itchy,
burning
sensation,
erythematous)
resolve
after
24h
leaving
hyperpigmentation?
A.
-‐discoid
rash
B.
-‐pityriasis
rosarea
C.
-‐urtecarial...
Answer
is
acute
Cutaneous
Lupus
Erythematosus
(ACLE)
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1065292-‐overview
Cutaneous
SLE
menifestation:
·∙
Acute
cutaneous
lupus
erythematosus
(ACLE):
characterised
by
a
typical
butterfly
pattern
malar
rash
involving
the
central
portion
of
the
face
and/or
a
more
generalised
maculopapular
eruption.
ACLE
is
strongly
associated
with
SLE.
·∙
Subacute
cutaneous
lupus
erythematosus
(SCLE):
characterised
by
a
non-‐pruritic,
non-‐scarring
dry
rash.
SCLE
may
be
drug
induced
or
can
occur
in
patients
with
SLE,
Sjogren's
syndrome,
and
complement
C2
deficiency.
·∙
Chronic
cutaneous
lupus
erythematosus
(CCLE):
lesions
are
confined
to
the
skin
and
oral
mucosa;
DLE
is
the
most
common
form.
41.
Describe
neva,
What
is
the
evidence
of
neval
hyperplasia?
A.
Change
in
color
B.
Irregular
border
C.
All
of
the
above
Answer:
C
Asymmetry:
Unlike
common
moles,
atypical
moles
are
often
asymmetrical:
A
line
drawn
through
the
middle
would
not
create
matching
halves.
Border:
While
common
moles
usually
have
regular,
sharp,
well-‐defined
borders,
the
borders
of
atypical
moles
tend
to
be
irregular
and/or
hazy
—
the
mole
gradually
fades
into
the
surrounding
skin.
Color:
Common
moles
are
most
often
uniformly
tan,
brown
or
flesh-‐
colored,
but
atypical
moles
have
varied,
irregular
color
with
subtle,
haphazard
areas
of
tan,
brown,
dark
brown,
red,
blue
or
black.
Diameter:
Atypical
moles
are
generally
larger
than
6
mm
(1⁄4
inch),
the
size
of
a
pencil
eraser,
but
may
be
smaller.
Evolution:
Enlargement
of
or
any
other
notable
change
in
a
previously
stable
mole,
or
the
appearance
of
a
new
mole
after
age
40,
should
raise
suspicion.
http://www.skincancer.org/skin-‐cancer-‐information/atypical-‐
moles/warning-‐signs-‐and-‐images
42.
Diabetic
pt
complain
of
multiple
discharging
sinuses
in
the
back.
Dx:
A-‐Infected
lymphoma
B-‐Lymphangitis
C-‐Carbuncle
D-‐Furuncle
Answer:
C
Carbuncle
:
is
an
abscess
and
its
associated
with
DM,
obesity
and
poor
hygeine.
essentially
,
it’s
a
bunch
of
furuncles
connected
under
the
skin.
43.
Female
with
polycystic
ovarian
syndrome
noticed
hyperpegminted
skin
in
her
neck
and
axilla,
what
is
this
abnormality
called?
a.
Acanthosis
negricans
b.
Linea
nigra
Answer:
A
44.
A
case
of
xeroderma
pigmentosum
,
what’s
the
mechanism
of
action
?
characteristic
dry,
pigmented
skin.
Xeroderma
pigmentosum
is
a
rare
disorder
transmitted
in
an
autosomal
recessive
manner.
It
is
characterized
by
photosensitivity,
pigmentary
changes,
premature
skin
aging,
and
malignant
tumor
development.,
These
manifestations
are
due
to
a
cellular
hypersensitivity
to
ultraviolet
(UV)
radiation
resulting
from
a
defect
in
DNA
repair.
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1119902-‐overview
45.
Patient
3
cm
lump
in
his
upper
back
,
slowly
growing
for
years
.
Physical
examination
:
compressible
,
no
erythema
,
there
a
punctum
in
the
middle
that
drain
white
foul
smelling
material
,
what
is
the
management
!?
A-‐Cryotherapy
B-‐Total
intact
resection
C-‐Antibiotic
and
resection
Epidermoid
cyst:
Incision
and
drainage
is
the
recommended
treatment
for
inflamed
epidermoid
cysts,
carbuncles,
abscesses,
and
large
furuncles
46.
koebner
phenomenon
is
a
skin
lesions
appearing
on
lines
of
trauma.
Induced
by:
skin
trauma.
Associated
with:
psoriasis,
vitiligo
and
lichen
planus
47.
Female
patient
will
get
married
had
bilateral
vitiligo
in
hands
since
3
years
lesion
increasing
in
size,
want
to
get
rid
of
it,
most
appropriate
step?
A-‐Graft
B-‐Melanin
transfer
C-‐Continue
medication
D-‐Stop
medication
Answer:
C
48.
Most
common
type
of
physical
urticaria:
A-‐Water
B-‐Cold
C-‐Dematographisim
D-‐Cholinergic
Answer:
C
(100%)
49.
Smoker
developed
ulcer
lateral
to
his
tongue
rolled
out
edge
:
a)
SCC
b)
basal
Answer:
A
50.
Old
patient
smoker
complains
of
white
colored
Plaque
over
the
tongue
with
ulcers
what’s
the
diagnosis?
Squamous
cell
carcinoma
51.
Contraindicated
vaccine
in
dermatological
conditions
(eczema,
psoriasis)?
A-‐
Polio
B-‐
Measles
C-‐
Smallpox
D-‐
German
measles
(rubella)
Answer:
C
(not
sure)
only
live
vaccine
of
the
lot
52.
Eczema
with
topical
steroid
what
to
add:
Answer:
Tacrolimus
53.
Greasy
Scaly
rash
at
edge
of
forehead
and
over
cheeks
not
sparing
folds.
Treatment:
Answer:
mupirocin
topical
Topical
antibacterial:
indications
include
toxic
shock,
syndrome,
impetigo,
secondery
bacterial
skin
infections
,,...
u
may
see
it
under
the
name
bactroban
54.
91-‐Patient
came
with
buttock
lesion:
A-‐Basal
cell
carcinoma
B-‐Small
cell
carcinoma
C-‐Mycosis
fungoides
Answer:
C
Review
cutaneous
Tcell
lymphoma
The
signs
and
symptoms
of
CTCL
vary
depending
on
the
type.
The
two
most
common
types
are
mycosis
fungoides
and
Sézary
syndrome.
Classic
mycosis
fungoides
is
divided
into
the
following
3
stages:
·∙
Patch
(atrophic
or
nonatrophic):
Nonspecific
dermatitis,
patches
on
lower
trunk
and
buttocks;
minimal/absent
pruritus
·∙
Plaque:
Intensely
pruritic
plaques,
lymphadenopathy
·∙
Tumor:
Prone
to
ulceration
Sézary
syndrome
is
defined
by
erythroderma
and
leukemia.
Signs
and
symptoms
include
the
following:
·∙
Edematous
skin
·∙
Lymphadenopathy
·∙
Palmar
and/or
plantar
hyperkeratosis
·∙
Alopecia
·∙
Nail
dystrophy
·∙
Ectropion
·∙
Hepatosplenomegaly
may
be
present
55.
92-‐
Patient
with
Behçet
disease
with
erythema
nodosum
and
mouth
ucelrs,
not
responding
to
topical
steroids
and
steroid
paste.
What
is
the
treatment?
A-‐azathioprine
B-‐
interferon
a
C-‐
immunoglobulin
D-‐??
Answer:
A
For
oral
and
genital
ulcerations,
topical
steroids
or
sucralfate
solution
are
first-‐line
therapy
for
mild
isolated
ulcerations.
Colchicine
has
also
been
used
to
prevent
mucocutaneous
relapse.
For
severe
mucocutaneous
lesions,
systemic
corticosteroids,
azathioprine,
pentoxifylline,
dapsone,
interferon-‐
alfa,
colchicine,
and
thalidomide
have
demonstrated
benefit.
For
ocular
disease,
azathioprine
is
widely
accepted
as
the
initial
agent.
For
severe
eye
disease
(significant
drop
in
visual
acuity,
retinal
vasculitis,
or
macular
involvement),
either
cyclosporine
A
or
infliximab
may
be
used
in
combination
with
azathioprine
and
corticosteroids.
Interferon-‐alfa,
alone
or
in
combination
with
corticosteroids,
appears
to
be
a
second
choice
in
eye
disease.
For
GI
lesions,
based
on
expert
opinion,
5-‐ASA
derivatives,
including
sulfasalazine
or
mesalamine;
systemic
corticosteroids,
azathioprine,
tumor
necrosis
factor–α
(TNF-‐α)
antagonists,
and
thalidomide
can
be
used.
Arthritis
may
respond
to
prednisone,
local
corticosteroid
injections,
and
nonsteroidal
anti-‐
inflammatory
drugs
(NSAIDs),
and
colchicine.
Interferon-‐alfa,
azathioprine,
and
TNF-‐α
blockers
may
be
tried
in
rare
cases
of
patients
with
resistant,
prolonged,
and
disabling
attacks.
Cutaneous
disease
with
erythema
nodosum
is
a
special
circumstance
and
may
be
treated
with
colchicine
or
dapsone.
CNS
disease
is
usually
treated
with
systemic
corticosteroids,
interferon-‐alfa,
azathioprine,
cyclophosphamide,
methotrexate,
and
TNF-‐α
antagonists.
Major-‐vessel
disease
with
thrombotic
events
are
treated
with
systemic
anticoagulation
in
addition
to
corticosteroids,
azathioprine,
cyclophosphamide,
or
cyclosporine
A.
Pulmonary
arterial
aneurysms
are
treated
with
cyclophosphamide
and
corticosteroids.
TNF-‐α
antagonists
are
increasingly
used
and
have
become
standard
treatment
of
Behçet
disease
that
is
inadequately
controlled
by
standard
immunosuppressive
regimens.
Infliximab
has
been
most
widely
studied,
but
adalimumab
has
proved
successful
in
cases
refractory
to
both
conventional
therapy
and
infliximab..
Etanercept
is
the
only
TNF
inhibitor
with
data
from
a
short
term
randomized
controlled
study
with
proven
efficacy
in
suppressing
most
of
the
mucocutaneous
manifestations
of
Behcet
disease
Medscape
56.
Patient
taking
sulfa
drug
developed
lesion
on
the
penis.
What
is
the
most
suitable
description
of
the
lesion?
Answer:
Erythematous
plaque,
blister
and
violaceous
lesion
57.
After
sulfa
drug
the
patient
developed
penile
lesion
or
rash
(fixed
drug
eruption)
what
you
will
find
(best
description
is)?
A-‐Ulceration
B-‐Blister
C-‐Vesicles
Answer:
B
58.
Patient
known
case
of
DM
come
with
postule
on
the
inner
fold
in
gluteal
region
they
did
drainage
after
that
there
is
sinus
and
after
a
period
of
time
he
came
with
the
same
thing
what
is
the
cause
?
A.
1-‐
furuncle
B.
2-‐Carbuncle
C.
3-‐
hidradenitis
suppurativa
Answer:
C
The
diagnosis
of
HS
is
based
upon
the
characteristic
clinical
manifestations;
biopsy
is
neither
required
nor
diagnostic.
Specific
diagnostic
criteria
do
not
exist.
There
are
three
main
diagnostic
features:
● Typical
lesions
—
multiple
deep-‐seated
nodules
(blind
boils),
comedones,
and/or
fibrosis
● Typical
locations
—
bilateral
involvement
of
axillae,
groin,
inframammary
areas
● Relapses
and
chronicity
59.
child
with
skin
rash
honey
cluster
(probably
means
crust)
Dx:
impetigo
60.
scenario
of
patient
used
a
medication
for
depression
and
developed
rash
in
all
of
his
body?
(question
incomplete)?
Depends
on
what
manifestation
it
takes
Answer:
Toxic
Epidermal
Necrolysis
(
TEN
)
Stevens-‐Johnson
syndrome
(SJS)
and
toxic
epidermal
necrolysis
(TEN)
are
severe
idiosyncratic
(not
dose
dependant
and
variable)
reactions,
most
commonly
triggered
by
medications,
which
are
characterized
by
fever
and
mucocutaneous
lesions
leading
to
necrosis
and
sloughing
of
the
epidermis.
SJS
and
TEN
are
distinguished
chiefly
by
severity
and
percentage
of
body
surface
involved.
up
to
10
%
SJS
10-‐30
overlap,
over
30
TEN
61.
description
of
Herpes
simplex
genital
lesions
Answer:
multiple
painful
fluid
filled
vesicles
Remember:
S1
oral
S2
genital
63.
pt
with
vitiligo
on
medications
for
3
yrs
no
response,
she
requested
a
surgical
TX
What
would
it
be,
Answer:
Melanocytes
transfer
Remember:
it’s
the
treatment
of
choice
in
segmental
vitiligo
N.B
could
be
correct
if
the
disease
is
stable
for
6-‐12
months
64.
What
is
the
tt
of
seborrhoeic
dermatitis?
Several
randomized
trials
indicate
that
topical
corticosteroids
and
topical
antifungal
agents
are
effective
for
treating
seborrheic
dermatitis
and
that
intermittent
topical
antifungals
may
prevent
relapse.
However,
the
high
response
in
the
placebo
groups
suggests
that
frequent
shampooing,
or
regular
use
of
emollients
may
also
be
beneficial
65.
A
mother
brought
her
child
to
ED
with
itchy
skin
lesions
that
appeared
after
intake
of
some
food.
The
lesions
appear
in
a
certain
area
and
stay
for
2
hours
then
disappear
then
appear
in
another
area.
What
is
it
called?
A.
Burrow
(rabies,
so
not
it)
B.
Wheal
(urticaria
lesion)
Answer:
B
66.
19
y/o
female
with
vitiligo
in
the
face
and
hand
the
size
is
increasing
despite
medical
treatment
now
the
pt
want
to
get
married
and
ask
you
what
to
do:
A)continue
medical
treatment.
B)stop
Medical
treatment
and
wait
C)skin
graft.
D)melanocyte
transfusion.
Answer:
A
67.
derma:
wheal,
what
is
the
type
of
urticaria
?
A-‐cold
urticaria
B-‐solar
urticaria
C-‐
two
other
type
of
urticaria
I
forgot
For
acute
urticaria,
the
main
consideration
involves
possible
precipitants,
such
as
the
following
:
·∙
Recent
illness
·∙
Medication
use
·∙
IV
radiocontrast
media
·∙
Travel
·∙
Foods
·∙
New
perfumes,
hair
dyes,
detergents,
lotions,
creams,
or
clothes
·∙
Exposure
to
new
pets
(dander),
dust,
mold,
chemicals,
or
plants
·∙
Pregnancy
(usually
occurs
in
last
trimester
and
typically
resolves
spontaneously
soon
after
delivery)
·∙
Contact
with
nickel,
rubber,
latex,
industrial
chemicals,
and
nail
polish
·∙
Sun
or
cold
exposure
·∙
Exercise
·∙
Alcohol
ingestion
[3]
Physical
urticaria
is
characterized
by
the
following:
·∙
Blanchable,
raised,
palpable
wheals,
which
can
be
linear,
annular
(circular),
or
arcuate
(serpiginous);
can
occur
on
any
skin
area;
are
usually
transient
and
migratory;
and
may
coalesce
rapidly
to
form
large
areas
of
erythematous,
raised
lesions
that
blanch
with
pressure
·∙
Dermographism
or
dermatographism
(urticarial
lesions
resulting
from
light
scratching)
68.
Treatment
of
non-‐inflammatory
acne
A-‐retinoid
acid
B-‐clindamycin
C-‐isosertonin
D-‐azelaic
acid
Answer
:
topical
retinoid
acid
Current
consensus
recommends
a
combination
of
topical
retinoid
and
antimicrobial
therapy
as
first-‐
line
therapy
for
almost
all
patients
with
acne.
[3]
The
superior
efficacy
of
this
combination,
compared
with
either
monotherapy,
results
from
complementary
mechanisms
of
action
targeting
different
pathogenic
factors.
Retinoids
reduce
abnormal
desquamation,
are
comedolytic,
and
have
some
anti-‐
inflammatory
effects,
whereas
benzoyl
peroxide
is
antimicrobial
with
some
keratolytic
effects
and
antibiotics
have
anti-‐inflammatory
and
antimicrobial
effects.
69.
17
year
old
football
player,
hypopigmented
lesions
on
trunk
and
arm.
Treatment:
A-‐topical
abx
B-‐oral
abx
C-‐topical
steroid
D-‐selenium
sulphate
Answer
:
D
70.
School
boy
with
itchy
scalp,
10
other
classmates
affected,
diagnosis?
A-‐Pediculosis
capitis
Answer
:
Pediculosis
capitis
(
i.e.head
louse)
The
head
louse
(Pediculus
humanus
capitis)
is
an
obligate
ectoparasite
that
lives
on
human
beings
and
feeds
on
human
blood.
Head
lice
infestation
(pediculosis
capitis)
mainly
affects
those
who
are
socially
active,
particularly
young
children.
BMJ
71.
patient
complains
of
skin
mole,
his
father
had
them
as
well
and
remove
them
but
didn't
know
if
its
benign
or
malignant,
the
patient
is
concerned
that
his
mole
is
malignant,
what
will
suggest
the
malignancy
?
A-‐irregular
border
that
fades
in
color
to
be
normal
B-‐Equality
of
the
color
No
other
choice
:
A
ABCDE=
Assymetry.
Irregular
Borders,
abnormal
Color,
Diameter
and
Evoltion
The
prototypical
melanoma
is
readily
diagnosable
by
the
ABCDE
approach,
based
on
its
asymmetry,
irregular
border,
irregular
color,
large
diameter,
and
evolution.
However,
these
clinical
parameters
are
largely
useless
in
three
instances,
as
follows:
·∙
For
amelanotic
melanomas,
in
which
pigmentation
is
largely
or
entirely
absent
·∙
For
desmoplastic
melanomas,
which
sometimes
manifest
without
an
associated
in
situ
component
and
may
also
lack
clinical
pigmentation
·∙
For
ulcerated
and
inflamed
melanomas,
especially
nodular
lesions,
which
may
clinically
simulate
common
lesions
(eg,
basal
cell
carcinoma,
pyogenic
granuloma)
because
of
masking
by
the
presence
of
ulceration
and/or
inflammation.
Medscape
72.
Child
with
scaly
erethematous
plaques
with
follicular
hyperkeratosis
over
elbows
and
knees
.
what
is
other
area
in
the
body
more
likely
to
be
affected
?
a-‐
Eye
b-‐
Adrenal
c-‐
Heart
d-‐
Kidney
Answer:A
73.
Picture
(
look
like
vesicle
)
start
as
1
only
then
spread
to
arm
legs
and
..
with
lymph-‐node
enlargement
?
A-‐herpes
simplex
virus
B-‐Dermatitis
herpetic
form
C-‐Varicella
zoster
INCOMPLETE
Q,
BUT
Verecila
zoster
is
the
closest
Answer:C
74.
Patient
with
hx
if
allergy
and
pain
in
the
back
went
to
clinic
they
give
him
drug
(
i
forgot
the
name
i
think
paracetamol)
then
he
came
next
day
with
viscles
in
back
from
midline
to
the
lateral
side
?
A.
Xanthosis
B.
Tinia
corporus
C.
Herpes
zoster
Answer:
C
75.
Pinpoint
papule
in
the
face
of
baby
how
to
manage?
Answer:
Reassure
THIS
IS
KNOWN
AS
KERATOSIS
PILARIS???
Incomplete
question…
can
be
milia,
baby
acne
or
miliaria
76.
Baby
have
depigmentation
since
birth
and
photophobia
refractory
error
nystagmus
,
What
the
most
likely
complications?
A.
-‐brain
tumor
B.
skin
cancer
C.
renal
dysfunction
Answer:
B
This
a
case
of
Albinism,
complications
are:
Skin
cancer,
sunburn
Reduced
visual
acuity
Social
stigma
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1200472-‐followup#e2
77.
Treatment
of
moderately
severe
acne
vulgaris:
A.
topical
retinoid
B.
tetracycline
C.
isotretinoin
Answer:
C
In
2016,
the
American
Academy
of
Dermatology
(AAD)
issued
new
evidence-‐based
guidelines
for
treatment
of
both
adolescents
and
adults.
Recommended
treatments
include
topical
therapy,
antibiotics,
isotretinoin,
and
oral
contraceptives.]
The
key
recommendations
include
the
following:
·∙
Benzoyl
peroxide
or
combinations
with
erythromycin
or
clindamycin
as
monotherapy
for
mild
acne;
benzoyl
peroxide
with
a
topical
retinoid
or
systemic
antibiotic
therapy
for
moderate-‐to-‐severe
acne
·∙
Topical
antibiotics
(eg,
erythromycin,
clindamycin)
are
not
recommended
as
monotherapy
because
of
the
risk
of
bacterial
resistance
·∙
Topical
retinoids
as
monotherapy
in
primarily
comedonal
acne,
or
in
combination
with
topical
or
oral
antimicrobials
for
mixed
or
primarily
inflammatory
acne
·∙
Topical
adapalene,
tretinoin,
and
benzoyl
peroxide
can
be
safely
used
to
treat
acne
in
preadolescent
children
·∙
Topical
dapsone
5%
gel
for
inflammatory
acne,
particularly
in
adult
females
·∙
Systemic
antibiotics
are
recommended
for
moderate
and
severe
acne
and
forms
of
inflammatory
acne
that
are
resistant
to
topical
treatments;
doxycycline
and
minocycline
are
both
more
effective
than
tetracycline
·∙
Topical
therapy
with
benzoyl
peroxide
or
a
retinoid
should
be
used
with
systemic
antibiotics
and
for
maintenance
after
completion
of
systemic
antibiotic
therapy
·∙
Monotherapy
with
systemic
antibiotics
is
not
recommended
·∙
Systemic
antibiotic
use
should
be
limited
to
the
shortest
possible
duration;
to
minimize
the
development
of
bacterial
resistance,
reevaluation
at
3-‐4
months
·∙
Use
of
oral
erythromycin
and
azithromycin
should
be
limited
to
those
who
cannot
use
the
tetracyclines
(ie,
pregnant
women
or
children
aged
<8
y);
erythromycin
use
should
be
restricted
because
of
its
increased
risk
of
bacterial
resistance
·∙
Isotretinoin
is
recommended
for
severe
acne
or
moderate
acne
that
does
not
respond
to
other
therapy;
low-‐dose
isotretinoin
can
be
used
to
effectively
treat
acne
and
reduce
the
frequency
and
severity
of
medication-‐related
adverse
effects,
but
intermittent
dosing
is
not
recommended;
all
patients
treated
with
isotretinoin
must
adhere
to
the
iPLEDGE
risk
management
program;
patients
should
receive
routine
monitoring
of
liver
function
tests,
serum
cholesterol,
and
triglycerides
at
baseline
and
again
until
response
to
treatment
is
established,
but
routine
monitoring
of
complete
blood
count
is
not
recommended;
patients
should
be
educated
about
the
potential
risks
and
monitored
for
any
indication
of
inflammatory
bowel
disease
and
depressive
symptoms
Ophthalmology
1.
Patient
with
follicular
keratosis.
What
will
you
check?
a-‐Eyes
Answer:
A
Reference:
http://disorders.eyes.arizona.edu/category/clinical-‐features/keratosis-‐pilaris
2.
Eye
endothelium
layer:
dry
cornea
(Incomplete)
Explanation:
corneal
endothelium
is
responsible
for
removing
excess
water.
3.
AIDS
retinitis:
CMV
Explanation:
CMV
is
the
most
common
ocular
opportunistic
infection
in
patients
with
AIDS.
Refrence:
Wills
Eye
Manual,
page
377
4.
With
viral
conjunctivitis:
follicles
+
epithelial
nummular
keratitis
Explanation:
Ten
percent
of
patients
with
adenoviral
conjunctivitis
go
on
to
develop
corneal
involvement
towards
the
end
of
week
2.
This
is
an
immune
keratitis
with
white
deposits
in
the
cornea,
causing
significant
reduction
in
vision,
as
well
as
prominent
photophobia.
This,
‘nummular
keratitis’
requires
treatment
with
a
weak
topical
steroid
such
as
fluorometholone
(FML),
and
therefore
requires
referral
to
an
ophthalmologist.
Refrence:
https://www.foresteyesurgery.com.au/blog/files/viral-‐conjunctivitis.php
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nummular_keratitis
5.
Orbital
pseudotumor
treatment:
1.
Prednisone
80
to
100
mg
p.o.
q.d.
as
an
initial
dose
in
an
adult,
along
with
gastric
prophylaxis
(e.g.,
ranitidine
150
mg
p.o.
b.i.d.).
Pediatric
dosages
typically
begin
with
1
mg/kg/day
of
prednisone.
All
patients
are
warned
about
potential
systemic
side
effects
and
are
instructed
to
follow
up
with
their
primary
physicians
to
monitor
blood
sugar
and
electrolytes.
2.
Low-‐dose
radiation
therapy
may
be
used
when
the
patient
does
not
respond
to
sys-‐
temic
corticosteroids,
when
disease
recurs
as
corticosteroids
are
tapered,
or
when
corticosteroids
pose
a
significant
risk
to
the
patient.
Radiation
therapy
should
only
be
used
once
orbital
biopsy
has
excluded
other
etiologies.
Refrence:
Wills
Eye
Manual,
page
158
6.
Nystagmus:
mid
brain
Peripheral
vestibular:
Horizontal
or
hori-‐
zontal
rotary
nystagmus.
May
be
accom-‐
panied
by
vertigo,
tinnitus,
or
deafness.
May
be
due
to
dysfunction
of
vestibular
end
organ
(inner
ear
disease),
eighth
cranial
nerve,
or
eighth
nerve
nucleus
in
brainstem.
Destructive
lesions
produce
fast
phases
opposite
to
lesion.
Irritative
lesions
(e.g.,
Meniere
disease)
produce
fast
phase
in
the
same
direction
as
the
lesion.
Vestibular
nystagmus
associated
with
interstitial
keratitis
is
called
Cogan
syndrome.
Downbeat:
The
fast
phase
of
nystagmus
is
down
and
most
prominent
looking
down
and
to
the
right
and
left.
Most
commonly,
the
lesion
is
at
the
cervico-‐
medullary
junction
(e.g.,
Arnold–Chiari
malformation)
or
a
manifestation
of
cer-‐
ebellar
degeneration.
Upbeat:
The
fast
phase
of
the
nystagmus
is
up.
If
present
in
primary
gaze,
the
lesion
typically
involves
the
brainstem
or
anterior
vermis
of
the
cerebellum.
If
present
only
in
upgaze,
the
most
likely
etiology
is
drug
effect.
See-‐saw:
One
eye
rises
and
intorts
while
the
other
descends
and
extorts.
Lesion
typically
involves
the
parasellar
region
and
chiasm.
Typically
pendular
when
chiasmal
region
involved,
and
jerk
if
involving
the
mid-‐
brain.
One
proposal
suggests
a
unilateral
lesion
of
the
interstitial
nucleus
of
Cajal
or
its
connections
are
responsible
for
this
nystagmus
subtype.
May
have
a
bitemporal
hemianopia
resulting
from
chiasmal
com-‐
pression.
May
be
congenital
or
associated
with
septo-‐optic
dysplasia.
Gaze
evoked:
Absent
in
primary
gaze,
but
appears
as
the
eyes
look
to
the
side.
Nystagmus
increases
when
looking
in
the
direction
of
fast
phase.
Slow
frequency.
Most
commonly
the
result
of
alcohol
intoxication,
sedatives,
cerebellar
or
brain-‐
stem
disease.
Convergence
retraction:
Convergence-‐like
eye
movements
accompanied
by
globe
retraction
when
the
patient
attempts
an
upward
saccade.
May
be
associated
with
limitation
of
upward
gaze,
eyelid
retraction,
and
bilateral
mid-‐dilated
pupils
that
react
poorly
to
light
but
constrict
better
with
convergence.
Papilledema
may
be
present.
Usually,
a
pineal
region
tumor
or
other
dor-‐
sal
midbrain
abnormality
is
responsible.
Periodic
alternating:
In
primary
position,
fast
eye
movements
are
in
one
direction
for
60
to
90
seconds
and
then
reverse
direc-‐
tion
for
60
to
90
seconds.
The
cycle
repeats
continuously.
Patients
may
attempt
to
minimize
nystagmus
with
periodic
head
turning.
May
be
congenital.
Acquired
forms
are
most
commonly
the
result
of
lesions
of
the
cervicomedullary
junction
and
posterior
fossa.
Other
causes
include
MS,
medication
side
effects,
and
rarely
blindness.
Refrence:
Wills
Eye
Manual,
page
282.
7.
vertical
and
horizontal
nystagmus:
phencyclidine
(No
refrence
was
found)
10.
Glaucoma
pt
+
COPD
has
cough:
a.
because
of
timolol
drops
Answer:
Explanation:
Timolol
is
contraindicated
in
COPD
and
may
worsens
symptoms.
11.
Drug
contraindicated
in
glaucoma:
a.
Epinephrine
Explanation:
Selective
alpha
agonist
(phenylepherine)
and
non
selective
alpha
agonists
(epinephrine)
can
precipitate
angle
closure
glaucoma
in
patients
with
narrow
angles
and
both
are
contraindicated
in
closed
angle
glaucoma.
12.
Drugs
used
for
glaucoma
Explanation:
Common
drugs
used
in
glaucoma
include:
Topical
beta
blockers,
topical
carbonic
anhyrdrase
inhibitors,
alpha
agonists
and
prostaglandins
analougs.
Prostaglandins
analougs
(like
latanoprost
“XalatanTM”)
are
usually
prescribed
as
first
line
therapy
as
they
are
the
newest
with
the
least
side
effects.
http://www.glaucoma.org/gleams/glaucoma-‐medications-‐and-‐their-‐side-‐effects.php
13.
Child
with
30
degree
esotropia,
whats
your
manegment?
Accomodative
esotropia
is
managed
by
correction
of
hyperopia
by
glasses.
Non
accomodative
esotropia
is
commonly
managed
surgically
Refrence:
https://www.rcophth.ac.uk/wp-‐content/uploads/2014/12/2012-‐SCI-‐250-‐
Guidelines-‐for-‐Management-‐of-‐Strabismus-‐in-‐Childhood-‐2012.pdf
15.
Child
with
unilateral
eye
pain
and
inflammation
and
white
structure:
Answer:
Retinoblastoma
Explanation:
A
malignant
tumor
of
the
retina
that
appears
as
a
white,
nodular
mass
that
breaks
through
the
internal
limiting
membrane
into
the
vitreous
(endophytic),
as
a
yellowish
subretinal
mass
lesion
often
underlying
a
serous
retinal
detachment
(exo-‐
phytic),
or
as
a
diffusely
spreading
lesion
simulating
uveitis
(diffuse
infiltrating).
Iris
neovascularization
is
common.
Pseudohypo-‐
pyon
and
vitreous
seeding
may
occur.
Cataract
is
uncommon,
and
the
eye
is
normal
in
size.
May
be
bilateral,
unilateral,
or
multifo-‐cal.
Diagnosis
is
usually
made
between
12
and
24
months
of
age.
A
family
history
may
be
elicited
in
about
10%.
Refrence:
Wills
Eye
Manual,
page
177.
16.
Abscent
red
eye
reflex
is
seen
in
===>
retinoblastoma
Causes
of
leukocoria
in
pediatrics
group:
congenital
cataract,
retinoblastoma,
retinopathy
of
prematurity
(ROP),
toxocariasis,
coats
disease,
PFV/PHPV,
retinal
astrocytoma,
retinochoroidal
coloboma,
retinal
detachment,
familial
exudative
vitreoretinopathy
(FEVR),
myelinated
nerve
fibers,
uveitis,
incontinentia
pigmenti,
toxoplasmosis.
Refrence:
Wills
Eye
Manual,
page
178
17.
Characteristic
sign
of
retinoblastoma?
Refrence:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1222849-‐clinical#b4
18.
Retinoblastoma
case
that
affecting
the
child's
vision
but
MRI
should
intact
optic
nerve
what
is
the
management
a.
Chemotherapy
b.
Radiation,
c.
enncuulation
Answer:
A
Explanation:
mainstay
treatment
of
retinoblastoma
without
optic
nerve
extension
is
chemotherapy.
Read
about
retinoblastoma:
https://www.aao.org/pediatric-‐center-‐detail/retinoblastoma-‐2016
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1222849-‐
treatment?pa=8dtgBnfXs1A%2FLKJCYR4hr6MZiyqrlkdpQit9AxXgBnl%2BpH%2Bze2zxoyiiMU
mOyvMQJyGvMX%2Fu%2BWdIXoARf%2FT0zw%3D%3D
21.
Pediatric
e
purulent
eye
discharge,
Culture
showed
gram
negative
diplococcic
How
to
treat?
a.
Iv
cephalosporin
b.
Steroid
c.
Topical
Abx
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Neonatal
Neisseria
Gonorrhoeael
conjunctivitis:
In
severe
cases
this
can
cause
corneal
perforation.
Systemic
complications
include
rhinitis,
stomatitis,
arthritis,
meningitis
and
septicaemia.
Due
to
increasing
resistance
to
penicillin
a
systemic,
third-‐
generation
cephalosporin
(ceftriaxone)
is
used
to
treat
the
condition.
The
eye
must
be
kept
clean.
Topical
bacitracin
ointment
can
also
be
given
but
sys-‐
temic
treatment
is
the
most
important.
Refer
parents
to
a
sexually
transmit-‐
ted
diseases
clinic.
Refrence:
Lecture
notes,
11th
edition.
Page
114
23.
A
pt
on
anti
TB
drugs
developed
eye
pain
a.
Ethambutol
Explanation:
A
Retrobulbar
neuritis
resulting
in
blurred
vision
and
loss
of
red-‐green
vision
occurs
commonly
with
ethambutol
therapy
and
requires
careful
monitoring
of
visual
acuity
and
color
discrimination.
Optic
neuritis
occurs
more
frequently
at
dosages
greater
than
15
mg/kg/day.
Drug
therapy
should
be
discontinued
at
the
first
sign
of
vision
defects.
https://www.drugs.com/sfx/ethambutol-‐side-‐effects.html
24.
The
effect
of
anti
TB
drugs
on
the
eye
is
one
of
the
following
a.
Bacterial
conjunctivitis,
b.
Viral
conjunctivitis
,
c.
Glucoma
,
d.
Uveitis
ANSWER:
D
Explanation:
Rifabutin
can
cause
uveitits.
http://eyewiki.aao.org/Drug_Induced_Uveitis
Question
probably
written
wrong.
If
asking
about
ocular
manifestations
of
TB>
tuberculous
uveitis.
If
asking
about
ocular
complications
of
anti
TB>
ethambutol
causes
optic
neuritis.
25.
Case
with
conjunctivitis
and
the
eyelash
turned
inwards.
a.
entropion
Explanation:
1-‐Trichiasis
is
a
condition
in
which
eyelashes
grow
in
a
posterior
direction
toward
the
corneal
surface.
2-‐Distichiasis
is
the
growth
of
lashes
from
the
meibomian
gland
orifices
(extra
line
of
eyelashes)
3-‐Entropion
is
an
inward
turning
of
the
eyelid
margin
and
appendages
such
that
the
pilosebaceous
unit
and
mucocutaneous
junction
are
directed
posterior
towards
the
globe.
26.
Water
discharge
+
red
eye?
a.
Viral
conjunctivitis
Explanation:
Watery
discharge
can
be
a
sign
for
dry
eyes
or
viral
conjunctivitis.
In
Viral
KC,
follicular
reaction
can
be
seen
on
slit
lamp
examination,
and
a
pre
auricular
lymph
node
might
be
present.
A
history
of
upper
respiratory
tract
infection
might
preceed
ocular
sumptoms.
Read
about
dry
eye:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1210417-‐workup#c8
27.
Post
eye
surgery
complication
a.
endophthalmitis
(Infection
in
the
eye)
Answer:
The
most
serious
and
feared
complication
after
ocular
surgeries
is
endophthalmitis.
28.
-‐Patient
presented
with
eye
redness
and
problem
in
vision
just
during
exams
his
visual
acuity
is
6/6
and
normal
eye
exam
what
does
he
have:
a.
Astigmatism
b.
Myopia
c.
Hypermetropia
d.
Anisometropia
Answer:
C
Refrence:
http://eyewiki.aao.org/Hyperopia
29.
-‐Patient
presented
with
unilateral
esotropia
what's
the
management
a.
Glasses
b.
Corrective
surgery
If
the
case
was
accomodative
esotropia,
it
is
treated
by
glasses
(Hypermetropia
correction)
Most
cases
of
non
accomodative
esotropia
are
treated
by
surgical
correction.
For
further
information:
https://www.rcophth.ac.uk/wp-‐content/uploads/2014/12/2012-‐
SCI-‐250-‐Guidelines-‐for-‐Management-‐of-‐Strabismus-‐in-‐Childhood-‐2012.pdf
30.
-‐Patient
with
increase
ICP
what
nerve
would
u
examine
before
the
CT
scan
a.
Optic
nerve
b.
Abducens
nerve
c.
Facial
nerve
Answer:
A
31.
Pt
came
to
you
after
trauma
c/o
loss
of
the
abduction
of
(left
or
right
eye).
So
which
cranial
nerve
affected
a)
III
b)
IV
c)
V
d)
VI
Answer:
D
(Abducense
nerve
innervates
LR
muscle
which
is
responsible
for
abduction)
32.
pt
eye
drop
and
eye
goes
to
medial
side
what
nerve
injury
when
try
to
close
the
eye:
A.
3
B.
7
C.
4
Explanation:
3rd
nerve
palsy
presents
with:
ptosis,
lateral
and
downward
gaze.
33.
Lacrimal
gland
mass
causes
proptosis
in
which
direction?
a.
In
and
down
b.
Out
and
down
Answer:
A
Explanation:
lacrimal
gland
masses
displace
the
eyes
inferonasally.
http://webeye.ophth.uiowa.edu/eyeforum/cases/235-‐Adenoid-‐cystic-‐carcinoma-‐
lacrimal-‐gland.htm
34.
-‐Patient
with
conjunctivitis,
which
one
of
the
following
will
make
you
refer
to
ophthalmology?
a.
Bilateral
conjunctivitis
b.
Photophobia
c.
Mucopurulent
discharge
d.
Itching
Answer:
B
(Couldn’t
find
a
source)
35.
-‐Clear
ophtha
question
about
herpetic
keratitis
(dendrites
with
fluoroscien)
36.
Man
has
eye
pain,
seeing
halos,
headache,
many
GI
symptoms,
eye
examination:
red
and
injected
vessels.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
a.
Digoxin
toxicity
b.
Angle
closure
Glaucoma
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Acute
angle
closure
glaucoma
presents
with
an
acute
onset
of
red
injected
painful
eye,
blurry
vision,
halos
around
light,
mid-‐dilated
pubil,
N\V
and
headache.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1206956-‐clinical
37.
-‐Case
of
foreign
body
in
the
eye,
successfully
remove,
what
is
next
?
a.
Topical
steroid
b.
Topical
antibiotic
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Following
removal
of
the
conjunctival
foreign
body,
two
drops
of
a
topical
broad-‐spectrum
antibiotic
drop
should
be
placed
in
the
affected
eye.
If
there
is
no
corneal
abrasion
or
significant
inflammation
of
the
eye,
no
further
treatment
or
follow-‐up
is
necessary.
The
patient
should
be
instructed
to
return
if
the
foreign
body
sensation
returns
or
if
any
symptoms
of
pain,
redness,
or
visual
changes
occur.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1844102-‐overview#showall
38.
HIV
pt
came
for
ophthalmology
follow
up
you
found
cotton
wool
spots
in
the
eye,
what
is
the
cause
of
this
condition
in
this
pt:
a.
HIV
b.
EBV
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
HIV
retinopathy.
Source:
(Wills
Eye
Manual,
Page
300)
40.
(Pic)
of
swollen
upper
eyelid,
no
discharges,
hx
of
eye
redness,
tearing
in
the
morning,
decrease
vision,
no
itching,
temp:
38.1
a.
Stye
b.
Chalazion
c.
Vernal
conjunctivitis
d.
Orbital
cellulitis
Answer:
D
Q.
What
is
the
treatment
of
orbital
cellulitis?
IV
ceftriaxone
with
Vancomycin
Answer:
Broad-‐spectrum
intravenous
antibiotics
to
cover
Gram-‐positive,
Gram-‐negative,
and
anaerobic
organisms
are
recommended
for
48
to
72
hours,
followed
by
oral
medication
for
at
least
1
week.
Ee
currently
recommend:
Ampicillin-‐sulbactam
3
g
i.v.
q6h
in
adults;
300
mg/kg
per
day
in
four
divided
doses
in
children,
maximum
daily
dose
12
g
ampicillin-‐sulbactam
(8
g
ampicillin
com-‐
ponent).
or
Piperacillin-‐tazobactam
4.5
g
i.v.
q8h
or
3.375
g
q6h
in
adults;
240
mg
of
piperacillin
component/kg/day
in
three
divided
doses
in
children,
maximum
daily
dose
18
g
piperacillin.
For
adults
who
are
allergic
to
penicillin
but
can
tolerate
cephalosporins,
use
vancomycin
as
dosed
below
plus:
Ceftriaxone
2
g
i.v.
q.d.
and
metronida-‐
zole
500
mg
i.v.
q6–8h
(not
to
exceed
4
g
per
day).
Source:
Wills
Eye
Manual
(Page
182-‐183)
41.
Patient
has
painful
big
mass
in
the
lower
eyelid
beside
upper
nose,
what
is
your
management?
a.
topical
steroid
b.
Surgical
drainage
c.
oral
antibiotics
Answe:
B
Explanation:
In
general,
dacryocystitis
is
a
surgical
disease.
Surgical
success
rates
in
the
treatment
of
dacryocystitis
are
approximately
95%.
Acute
cases
are
best
treated
surgically
after
the
infection
has
subsided
with
adequate
antibiotic
therapy.
For
acute
dacryocystitis,
an
external
dacryocystorhinostomy
is
preferred
after
several
days
of
initiating
antibiotic
therapy.
Rarely,
dacryocystorhinostomy
must
be
performed
during
the
acute
phase
of
the
infection
to
facilitate
clearing
of
the
infection.
Reference:
Medscape.
42.
Blue
corneal
picture
=
stained
by
fluorescein
stain
to
detect
corneal
abrasion
or
foreign
bodies
in
the
eye.
Treatment
of
abrasion
is
topical
cycloplegic,
topical
antibiotic
and
topical
analgesia.
Reference
http://www.aafp.org/afp/2013/0115/p114.html
43.
Eye
nail
abrasion,
rx:
a.
anti
viral
drops
b.
antiviral
ointment
c.
contact
lens
d.
steroids
(no
sure)
Explanation:
Treatment
of
abrasion
is
topical
cycloplegic,
topical
antibiotic
and
topical
analgesia.
Reference
http://www.aafp.org/afp/2013/0115/p114.html
44.
Corneal
abrasion?
a.
Fitting
lens
b.
Steroids
c.
Antiviral
Question
is
incomplete.
Steroids
can
be
given
with
severe
keratitis
but
herpes
keratitis
should
be
ruled
out
first.
In
abrasions,
steroids
are
not
given.
Lenses
are
not
used
in
cases
of
abrasions
and
ulcers.
Treatment
of
abrasion:
topical
cycloplegic,
topical
antibiotic
and
oral
analgesia.
More
information
for
corneal
abrasion:
1.
Antibiotic
—Noncontact
lens
wearer:
Antibiotic
oint-‐
ment
(e.g.,
erythromycin,
bacitracin,
or
bacitracin/polymyxin
B
q2–4h)
or
antibi-‐
otic
drops
(e.g.,
polymyxin
B/trimethoprim
or
a
fluoroquinolone
q.i.d.).
Abrasions
sec-‐
ondary
to
fingernails
or
vegetable
matter
should
be
covered
with
a
fluoroquinolone
drop
(e.g.,
ciprofloxacin,
moxifloxacin)
or
ointment
(e.g.,
ciprofloxacin)
at
least
q.i.d.
—Contact
lens
wearer:
Must
have
antipseu-‐
domonal
coverage.
May
use
antibiotic
oint-‐
ment
or
antibiotic
drops
at
least
q.i.d.
2.
Cycloplegic
agent
(e.g.,
cyclopentolate
1%
to
2%
b.i.d
or
t.i.d.)
for
traumatic
iritis
which
may
develop
24
to
72
hours
after
trauma.
Avoid
steroid
use
for
iritis
with
epithelial
de-‐
fects
because
it
may
retard
epithelial
healing
and
increase
the
risk
of
infection.
Avoid
use
of
long-‐acting
cycloplegics
for
small
abra-‐
sions
to
allow
for
faster
visual
recovery.
3.
Patching
is
rarely
necessary.
Patching
may
be
helpful
for
comfort,
but
DO
NOT
patch
if
the
mechanism
of
injury
involves
veg-‐
etable
matter,
fingernails,
or
if
the
patient
wears
contact
lenses.
Be
careful
that
the
patch
is
properly
placed
so
that
the
upper
lid
is
totally
prevented
from
opening
as
this
can
cause
a
serious
abrasion.
4.
Consider
topical
nonsteroidal
anti-‐inflamma-‐
tory
drug
(NSAID)
drops
(e.g.,
ketorolac
0.4%
to
0.5%
q.i.d.
for
3
days)
for
pain
control.
Avoid
in
patients
with
other
ocular
surface
disease
and
in
postoperative
patients.
Oral
ac-‐
etaminophen,
NSAIDs,
or
narcotics
(in
severe
cases)
can
also
be
used
for
pain
control.
5.
Debride
loose
or
hanging
epithelium
be-‐
cause
it
may
inhibit
healing.
A
cotton-‐tipped
applicator
soaked
in
topical
anesthetic
(e.g.,
proparacaine)
or
a
sterile
jewelers
forceps
(used
with
caution)
may
be
utilized.
6.
No
contact
lens
wear.
Some
clinicians
use
bandage
contact
lenses
for
therapy.
We
rare-‐
ly
do
unless
the
size
of
the
abrasion
and
dis-‐
comfort
warrants
it
and
there
is
poor
heal-‐
ing
in
the
absence
of
infection.
If
a
bandage
contact
lens
is
used,
patients
should
use
prophylactic
topical
antibiotics
(e.g.,
poly-‐
myxin
B/trimethoprim
or
a
fluoroquinolone
q.i.d.)
and
should
be
followed-‐up
daily
for
evaluation
and
contact
lens
replacement.
Refrence:
Wills
Eye
Manual,
page
17.
45.
Picture
of
corneal
ulcer
that
is
showing
dendritic
lesion.
What
other
feature
is
associated
with
it?
a.
Scleritis
and
episcleritis
b.
Chorditis
and
retinitis
c.
Optic
neuritis
d.
Hypoesthetic
cornea
(decrease
the
corneal
sensation
of
pain)
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Herpes
keratitis
results
in
decreased
sensation
over
the
cornea
46.
How
is
corneal
ulcer
diagnosed?
a.
Slit
lamp
b.
Fluorescein
dye
Answer:
B
47.
What
dye
is
used
in
corneal
ulcer
(pic
of
blue
color):
a.
Fluorescein
dye
b.
Rose
Bengal
dye
c.
Geimsa
d.
Lissman
Green
B
stain
Answer:
A
48.
Corneal
ulcer
treatment:
a.
oral
ABx,
cycloplegic
b.
ABx
ointment,
c.
cotton
bud
debridement....
d.
(Not
sure
about
choices)
Answer:
B
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1195680-‐treatment
49.
Female
with
corneal
abrasion,
normal
visual
acuity
normal
IOP,
by
examination
the
lower
eyelid
rolled
in,
diagnosis:
a)Uveitis
b)Glaucoma
c)Entropion
d)Ectropion
Answer:
C
51.
History
of
URTI
then
developed
watery
eye
a.
Viral
conjunctivitis
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
URTI
caused
by
adenovirus
infection,
followed
by
adenovirus
conjunctivitis.
52.
-‐Redness
in
the
eye
with
presence
of
cat
in
the
home
a.
allergic
conjunctivitis
Answer:
A
53.
Complication
of
cataract
surgery
a.
endophthalmitis
https://www.webmd.com/eye-‐health/cataracts/extracapsular-‐surgery-‐for-‐
cataracts
Answer:
A.
Endophthalmitis
is
the
most
serious
and
feared
side
effect
post
occular
surgeries.
Other
early
complications
post
cataract
surgery:
cystoid
macular
edema,
retinal
detachment,
corneal
edema,
hyphema.
Late:
Glaucoma,
dislocated
IOL,
staining
of
the
lens
capsule,
retinal
detachment,
ptosis.
54.
Pediatric
patient
with
strabismus,
what
is
the
complication
a.
amblyopia
Answer:
A
55.
Superior
oblique
muscle
movement
a.
Medially
down
b.
Medially
up
Explanation:
Superior
oblique
action:
intorsion,
abduction
and
downward
gaze
The
righ
answer
shouold
be
Lateral
and
down.
56.
Infant
since
birth
unilateral
red
eye
associated
with
continuous
tearing
a.
Congenital
glucoma
b.
Chlamydia
c.
Gonorrhea
Answer:
A
Explanation:
The
primary
symptoms
of
primary
congenital
glaucoma
are
epiphora,
photophobia,
and
blepharospasm.
Reduced
vision
can
also
occur
from
corneal
edema
or
progressive
myopia
and/or
astigmatism.
Signs
include:
epiphora,
conjunctival
erythema,
corneal
enlargement,
corneal
clouding,
Haab
striae,
abnormally
deep
anterior
chamber,
myopia
and/or
astigmatism,
and
enlarged
optic
nerve
cupping.
http://eyewiki.aao.org/Glaucoma,_Congenital_Or_Infantile
58.
Case
of
acute
angle
closure
glaucoma,
what
is
the
first
step
in
management?
a.
Acetazolamide
b.
Timolol
c.
Topical
steroids
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Acetazolamide
should
be
given
as
a
stat
dose
of
500
mg
IV
followed
by
500
mg
PO.
A
dose
of
a
topical
beta-‐blocker
(ie,
carteolol,
timolol)
will
also
aid
in
lowering
IOP.
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/798811-‐treatment#d10
60.
Ophthalmology
ex
for
DM2
patient
every
a.
6
months
b.
12
months
c.
24
months
d.
36
Months
Answer:
B
62.
Regarding
distichiasis
definition?
(multiple
defintions
and
u
choose
the
most
accurate)
Explanation:
Distichiasis
is
the
growth
of
lashes
from
the
meibomian
gland
orifices,
which
can
irritate
and
damage
the
corne
(it
results
in
an
extra
raw
of
eyelashes)
64.
Lady
with
mucopurulent
eye
discharge
when
she
woke
up
she
her
eye
was
stuck
she
couldn't
open
it.
On
exam,
cornea
was
normal,
red
conjunctiva.
What
is
the
Dx?
a.
Viral
b.
Bacterial
(correct)
Answer:
B,
in
viral
it
is
watery
discharge.
65.
Visual
acuity
200
of
one
eye
+
Esotropia,
other
normal.
What
is
the
intial
thing
to
do?
a.
Fundoscopy
b.
Muscle
resection
Answer:
this
is
a
case
of
Amblyopia,
patching
should
be
started.
66.
Progressive
painless
vision
loss.
Drusen
spots
and
central
scotoma,
what
is
the
diagnosis:
a.
Macular
degeneration
Answer:
A
Explanation:
In
age
related
macular
degenaration,
extracellular
breakdown
deposits
called
“drusen”
develop
in
Bruch’s
membrane
causing
blockage
of
the
drainage
to
the
choroidal
bed.
Findings
include:
localized
retinal
atrophy
and
pigmentary
changes
in
the
macula
that
correlate
with
poor
central
vision.
The
visual
loss
occurs
slowly,
however,
and
takes
many
years
to
progress.
Source:
Wills
Eye
Manual
(Page
322-‐323)
67.
Picture
of
one
eye
conjunctivitis,
how
to
prevent
the
infection
for
the
other
eye?
a.
Eye
drop
b.
Eye
ointment
c.
Hand
washing
Answer:
C
73.
Patient
has
painful
big
mass
in
the
lower
eyelid
beside
the
upper
nose,
what
is
your
management?
(Dacrocystitis)
a.
Topical
steroids
b.
Surgical
drainage
c.
Oral
antibiotics
Answer:
C
Explanation:
surgical
intervention
is
made
when
the
acute
episdode
has
resolved.
Source:
Wills
Eye
Manual
(Page
145-‐146)
74.
Patients
has
decreased
vision
loss
and
went
to
optometrist
and
got
new
glasses,
one
week
he
comes
back
with
decreased
vision
with
the
new
glasses
he
was
referred
to
ophthalmologist
due
to:
a.
Cataract
formation
b.
Increase
glucose
in
lens
c.
Increase
sorbitol
in
lens
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Rapid
changes
in
refraction
indicates
osmotic
changes
in
the
lens
by
sorbitol.
(Couldn’t
find
a
source)
75.
Pt
wear
contact
lens
then
c/o
pain
in
rt
eye
and
discharge
what
is
the
organism
?
a.
H.influenza
b.
Acanthameba
c.
Nesseria
meningitis
d.
Pnumococcal
Chlymedia
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Pseudomonas
aeruginosa
is
the
most
commonly
recovered
causative
organism
in
contact
lens-‐
related
disease,
followed
by
Gram-‐positive
bacteria,
fungi
and
Acanthamoeba.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3272197/
76.
Pt
with
myopia
and
chorioretinal
degeneration,
this
is:
a.
Physiological
b.
Pathological
Answer:
B
Explanation:
myopia
severe
enough
to
cause
retinal
complications
is
called
pathological
myopia.
Source:
http://eyewiki.aao.org/Pathologic_myopia_(myopic_degeneration)
77.
Picture
of
upper
eyelid
swelling,
and
they
gave
history
of
eye
pain
and
tearing
what
else
could
be
found:
a.
Uveitis
b.
Discharge
c.
Scleritis
Answer:
Uveitis
and
scleritis
don’t
cause
upper
eye
lid
swelling.
Discharge
could
be
the
answer
if
this
was
a
case
of
orbital
cellulitis.
78.
Pt
was
taking
anti
TB
meds
and
now
he
presented
with
red
eye
and
pain
along
with
photophobia
what
the
dx?
a.
Bacrtial
conjunctivitis
b.
Viral
conjunctivitis
c.
Uveitis
d.
Optic
neuritis
Answer:
D
https://www.drugs.com/sfx/ethambutol-‐side-‐effects.html
79.
An
old
man,
presents
to
the
ER
with
the
complaint
of
painful
Rt
eye
associated
with
nausea.
O/E
the
Rt
eye
was
injected,
with
semi-‐
dilated
pupil.
Lt
eye
was
normal.
What
is
the
correct
Dx
of
these?
a.
Uveitis.
b.
Primary
open-‐angle
glaucoma.
c.
Acute
angle-‐closure
glaucoma.
d.
Irrelevant
choice.
Answer:
C
80.
Child
exposed
to
fingernail
injury,
what
this
patient
may
have?
a.
Purulent
tearing
b.
Photophobia
c.
Vision
loss
Answer:
B
81.
Same
as
previous
scenario,
but
asking
about
management:
Answer:
Topical
antibiotics
Q.
Mother
have
a
photophobia
and
severe
eyes
pain
after
she
received
accidentally
fingernail
trauma
by
her
daughter
how
to
manage?
Answer:
Topical
antibiotics
82.
Best
treatment
for
ptosis:
a.
Muller
resection
b.
Levator
muscle
resection
c.
Frontalis
suspension
Answer:
C
If
there
is
levator
dysfunction>
frontalis
suspension.
Answered
by
a
resident.
83.
Old
age
HTN,
DM
had
painless
vision
loss
examination
show
drusen
diagnosis?
a.
Central
retinal
vein
occlusion
b.
Central
retinal
artery
occlusion
c.
Macular
degeneration
Answer:
C
84.
Patient
with
red
eye+
history
of
cough,(picture
of
viral
conjunctivitis
attached).How
to
prevent
transmission?
Answer:
Hand
washing
85.
Patient
with
red
eye,
cillary
flush,
photophobia,
dendritic
lesion
in
the
cornea:
a.
HSV
of
eye
b.
dentric
lesion
.
Answer:
A
86.
Long
scenario
about
glaucoma,
pain,
congestion
of
cornea
-‐
vomiting,
photophobia,
what
is
the
treatment?
a.
acetazolmide.
b.
Corticosteroids
c.
Antibiotics
Answer:
A
87.
Decrease
vision
&
painful
eye
movement?
Answer:
Optic
neuritis
88.
What
cause
color
vision
loss?
Answer:
Optic
neuritis
89.
Young
healthy
pt
e
red
eye
circumcorneal
congestion,
IOP
30,
dilated
pupil,
what
best
drug?
a.
Latanoprost,
b.
something
b
blocker,
c.
acetazolamide,
...
d.
Answer:
C
Acute
angle
glaucoma
Treatment:
beta
blocker
pilocarpine
eye
drop
Mannitol
azetolazmide
These
all
used
for
glaucoma
91.
Eldely
Patient
with
progressive
vision
loss
for
6
m,
came
to
ER
with
painfull
red
eye,
with
tearing
and
white
color.
IOP
is
high
What
is
the
cause:
(Scenario
not
complete)
a.
Malignant
glaucoma
b.
Adcanced
rubeosis
iridis
Malignant
glaucoma:
AKA
aqueous
misdirection
syndrome.
Happens
post
op.
Presents
with
acute
angle
closure
and
high
IOP
that
is
resistant
to
treatment.
Rubeosis
iridis:
history
of
retinal
ischemia
(PDR,
CRAO,
CRVO)
and
vessels
on
iris
causing
angle
closure.
92.
Treatment
of
severe
ptosis
no
other
details?
A.
Frontalis
suspension
B.
Levator
resection
Levator
dysfunction
>
frontalis
suspension.
93.
Patient
with
decrease
color
vision?
A.
Optic
atrophy
B.
Iridocyclitis
C.
Forget
other
options
Answer:
A
Color
vision
function
of
optic
nerve
so
look
for
optic
nerve
pathology
like
optic
neuritis.
Cataracts/diabetic
retinopathy
DO
NOT
cause
color
blindness.
Q.Patient
presented
with
loss
of
color
vision..
what's
the
diagnosis?
Answer:
Optic
atrophy
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1217760-‐overview
94.
Child
with
30
degree
esotropia,
whats
your
management?
A.
Orthoptics
B.
surgery
C.
Prism
30
degrees
of
esotropia
is
a
large
angle
so
surgery
(but
only
if
it
says
medial
rectus
recession).
Answered
by
resident.
95.
Brown
dicoloration
of
eye
then
disappeared.
What
is
the
drug
:
A.
Vanco
B.
Metacloprmide
C.
Lanatoprost
Answer:
C
96.
Patient
with
COPD
has
glaucoma.
What
to
give?
A.
Topical
temolol
B.
Topical
something
olol
C.
Oral
Acetazolamide
Answer:
C
97.
-‐
Drugs
used
for
glaucoma:
Page
500
schedule
98.
pt
came
for
ophthalmology
check
up,
has
optic
disc
cupping.
Tonometry
showed
high
IOP.
What
would
u
tell
this
pt:
(Incomplete)
A.
1/
tonometry
is
sufficient
B.
2/do
check
up
for
blood
related
members
C.
3/interventions
may
reverse
these
changes
Tonometry
is
not
sufficient
(may
need
fundoscopy).
Screening
relatives
not
typically
recommended.
Glaucoma
changes
are
irreversible.
Answered
by
resident.
99.
Four
to
five
cases
about
bacterial
and
viral
conjunctivitis
Viral>
watery
discharge
with
history
of
URTI.
Bacterial>
mucopurulent
discharge.
Allergic>
watery
discharge
and
itching.
100.
Case
of
Wilson
disease
with
eye
manifestations.
What
to
give?
Answer:
Penicillamine
Eye
manifestation
in
Wilson’s
>
Kayser
Fleischer
ring.
101.
Patient
with
headache
and
his
eyes
pushed
outward.
What’s
the
management?
A.
Head
MRI
B.
Corticosteroids
Scenario
incomplete.
If
suspecting
orbital
cellulitis
(with
fever,
visual
disturbance
and
restricted
motility)
>
CT
scan
is
sufficient.
If
suspecting
intracranial
tumor
>
MRI.
102.
SCENARIO
of
ptosis
(no
other
information
available)
there
is
elevator
muscle
dysfunction,
what
is
the
management?
A.
1-‐mullurectomy
B.
2-‐levtor
resection
C.
3-‐frontalis
suspension
D.
4-‐levator
muscle
aponeurosis
Answer:
C
Levator
dysfunction>
frontalis
suspension.
Answered
by
resident.
Note:
To
answer
this
question
we
have
to
know
three
variables
which
are:
1-‐
Age
of
the
patient
(congenital,
pediatric
or
older)
2-‐unilateral
or
bilateral
3-‐severity
of
the
symptoms
(mild,
severe)
and
here
is
the
summary:
If
it
congenital
mild
unilateral,
no
severe
ptosis
or
symptoms
first
option
is
Levator
resection
BUT
if
the
patient
is
old
or
the
ptosis
is
bilateral
or
severe
ptosis
go
and
do
frontalis
suspension
Please
go
and
103.
Patient
k/c
of
HF
&
schizophrenia
on
medication,
came
with
brownish
discoloration
in
retina
&
brown
vision..
what's
the
drug?
Answer:
Thioridazine
106.
Pseudotumor
of
the
eye
>
steroids
Pseudotumor
cerebri:
usually
obese,
presenting
with
headache
and
visual
disturbance.
Associated
with
6th
nerve
palsy.
Findings:
High
ICP
and
papilledema.
Treatment:
steroids.
109.
picture
of
HSV
on
cornea:
A.
episcleritis
B.
scleritis
C.
uveitis
D.
Corneal
sensation
Answer:D
111.
Side
effect
of
topical
steroids:
A.
cataract
B.
glaucoma
Both
correct
but
glaucoma
more
concerning.
112.
Child
came
to
eye
evaluation
the
right
eye
20/20
the
left
eye
20
/200
,
the
left
eye
turne
in
and
the
eye
seems
crossed,
no
restricted
movement
in
the
eye
examination
of
extraocular
muscles
normal.
what
is
the
diagnosis:
A.
Congenital
cataract.
B.
Nystagmus
C.
strabismus
Answer:
C
113.
Long
scenario
of
open
angle
glucoma
asking
waht
is
the
mechanism
due
to
obstruction
of
aqueous
drainage
within
the
trabecular
meshwork
and
its
drainage
into
the
Canal
of
Schlemm??
114.
45
y
farmer
presented
complaining
of
dry
eye
he
has
smoked
2
pack/day
for
20yrs
what
is
the
management
besides
artificial
tearing
A.
a)advise
him
to
exercise
(
blinking
exercises)
B.
b)stop
smoking
C.
c)wear
glasses
D.
d)all
of
the
above
Answer:
B
Smoke
is
irritant
to
eye.
Smokers
twice
as
likely
to
experience
dry
eye.
115.
Trauma
to
the
face
that
lead
to
enucleation
of
one
eye.
Patient
came
later
with
pain
in
the
other
eye.
What
it
the
pathophysiology?
Answer:
Release
of
sequestered
antigen
case
of
sympathetic
ophthalmia
116.
Patient
with
ptosis
and
eye
looking
down
and
out.
What
is
affected?
A.
3rd
B.
4th
C.
3th
and
6th
D.
3rd
and
4th
Answer:
A
117.
Case
of
angle
closure
glaucoma
and
asked
about
the
diagnosis
The
same
case
exactly
but
asked
about
treatment?
IV
acetazolamide
and
4%
pilocarpine
Complication
of
cataract
surgery?
Answer:
Endophthalmitis
118.
Which
one
of
the
following
drugs
is
contraindicated
to
be
given
in
Acute
closure
angle
glaucoma?
Any
mydriatic
(ex:
atropine)
will
exacerbate
crisis.
Q.
In
open
angle
glaucoma,
which
drug
is
contraindicated?
119.
Bronchocostrictive
disease
with
acute
angle
closure
glaucoma.
What
are
you
going
to
give?
A.
Timolol
B.
Acetazolamide
Answer:
B
120.
Adult
Case
of
eye
watery
discharge,
associated
with?
A.
Dust
and
pollen
will
increase
symptoms
B.
Retinal
exam
will
show
diabetic
and
hypertension
changes
C.
Something
about
glaucoma
Answer:
A
If
asking
about
allergic
conjunctivitis.
121.
Picture
of
glaucoma,
What
to
do
with
it
?
Inform
blood
relative
122.
Retnoblastoma
causes?
A.
Strabismus
B.
Squent
C.
Leucocoria
(white
pupil)
Answer:
C
123.
Man
has
Eye
pain,
seeing
halos
,
headache
,
many
GI
symptoms
,
Eye
examination
:
red
and
injected
vessels
.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
a-‐
digoxin
toxicity
b-‐
Angle
closure
Glaucoma
answer
B
124.
Clinical
Features
of
Angle
Closure
Glaucoma:
•
red,
painful
eye
=
RED
FLAG
•
unilateral,
but
other
eye
increased
risk
•
decreased
visual
acuity,
vision
acutely
blurred
from
corneal
edema
•
halos
around
lights
•
nausea
and
vomiting,
abdominal
pain
•
fixed,
mid-‐dilated
pupil
•
corneal
edema
with
conjunctival
injection
•
marked
increase
in
IOP;
may
be
noticeable
even
to
palpation
(>40
mmHg)
•
shallow
anterior
chamber
±
cells
in
anterior
chamber
Toronto
Note
126.
Patient
presented
with
history
of
right
eye
pain
and
decrease
vision
..
flurocin
staining
showed
(dendrites)..
wht’s
the
diagnosis?
Answer:
herpes
keratitis
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1194268-‐overview
128.
Target
diastolic
Bp
in
HTN
retinopathy:
80-‐90
in
2
days
129.
Patient
came
to
ER
due
to
car
accident
had
DM
and
HTN
and
loss
of
vision
in
the
peripheral:
A.
Cataract
B.
Glaucoma
C.
RD
Answer:
C
130
A
question
with
a
picture
attached
showing
the
everted
lower
eyelid,
what
is
it
called?
Answer:
Ectropion
131.
Which
of
the
following
can
be
managed
with
trabeculectomy?
A.
Angle
closure
glaucoma
B.
Open
angle
glaucoma
Answer:B
132.
Patient
with
bilateral
exophtalmous,
pulsatile,
with
bruit
on
auscultation:
A.
hyperthyroidism
B.
cavernous
sinus
thrombosis
C.
carotid-‐cavernous
fistula
Answer:
C
133.
picture
of
corneal
ulcer
that
is
showing
dendritic
lesion.
What
other
feature
is
associated
with
it?
A.
Scleritis
and
episcleritis
B.
Chorditis
and
retinitis
C.
Optic
neuritis
D.
Corneal
hypoasthesia
Answer:
D
134.
Pt
with
unilateral
viral
conjunctivitis
then
became
bilateral.
What’s
your
advice
to
avoid
spread
of
the
infection?
A.
Isolate
yourself
from
others.
135.
Patient
on
neostigmine
but
further
evaluation
showed
drop
eyelid
?
Stop
neostagmin
(
my
answer
)
Add
pyrdostagmin
This
a
case
of
ocular
MG
so
the
tx
is
Immune
suppression
with
steroids
is
often
the
main
therapy.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/22037997
136.
One
with
eye
trauma,
the
first
thing
you
do
is
to
r/o:
A.
foreign
body
B.
keratitis
C.
conjunctivitis
Answer:
A
137.
Hypertensive
patient,
showing
change
in
the
optic
disc
what
is
your
next
step
in
management?
A.
Referral
to
ophthalmology
B.
Treat
her
Answer:
A
Psychiatry
1-‐Father
with
Schizophrenia
have
child
percentage
of
affected?
A-‐5%
B-‐10%
C-‐15%
D-‐
20
Answer
Is
B
10%
Reference
FA
step
one
2016
2-‐ADHD
child
,
can't
involve
for
anything
for
long
time
,
like
in
school
or
even
when
he
playing
a
video
games
he
can't
finish
it
and
searching
for
something
else
to
do
and
so
on,
which
type
of
ADHD
he
has?
A-‐
inattentive
B-‐
impulsive
C-‐
hyperactive
impulsive.
Answer
is
A
Three
types
of
ADHD:
1-‐inattention:
getting
distracted,
having
poor
concentration
and
organizational
skills
and
have
trouble
focusing
on
a
single
task
2-‐impulsivity:
interrupting,
taking
risks
3-‐hyperactivity:
never
seeming
to
slow
down,
talking
and
fidgeting,
difficulties
staying
on
task
3-‐Patient
have
depression
and
came
to
the
clinic
complaining
of
decreased
libido
which
drugs
you
will
shift
your
patient
to
?
A-‐
paroxtein
B-‐
TCA
C-‐
amytriptaline
Correct
answer
most
likely
one
of
the
three
highlight
with
red
:
Consistent
evidence
shows
that,
with
the
exception
of
bupropion
(Wellbutrin),
trazodone
(Desyrel)
and
nefazodone
(Serzone),
antidepressant
medications
may
cause
a
decline
in
libido
or
sexual
functioning
despite
improvement
of
depression
Ref:
http://www.aafp.org/afp/2000/0815/p782.html
4-‐questions
about
post
traumatic
stress
disorder,
I
can't
remember
exactly
what
was
about
Post-‐traumatic
stress
disorder
(PTSD)
is
a
mental
health
condition
that's
triggered
by
a
terrifying
event
—
either
experiencing
it
or
witnessing
it.
Symptoms
may
include
flashbacks,
nightmares
and
severe
anxiety,
as
well
as
uncontrollable
thoughts
about
the
event
PTSD
symptoms
are
generally
grouped
into
four
types:
intrusive
memories,
avoidance,
negative
changes
in
thinking
and
mood,
and
changes
in
physical
and
emotional
reactions.
Symptoms
can
vary
over
time
or
vary
from
person
to
person
5-‐21
years
old
patient
with
known
case
of
depression,
has
been
found
on
the
floor
unconscious
with
empty
pill
bottle
,
patient
was
obtunded
,
dilated
pupil
and
unreactive
bilaterally
and
other
symptom(
I
can
not
remember)
What
is
the
medication
the
patient
most
likely
on?
A-‐Sertraline
B-‐
Fluoxetine
C-‐
Other
SSRI
D-‐
Amitriptyline
Answer
is
D
Ref:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/819204-‐clinical#b4
6-‐which
one
of
the
following
SSRI
has
the
greatest
risk
in
pregnancy?
A-‐
Escitalopram
B-‐
Fluoxetine
C-‐
Paroxetine
D-‐
Sertraline
Answer
C
Ref:
https://www.drugs.com/pregnancy/paroxetine.html
7-‐2
year
and
half
kid
with
long
scenario
about
impulsive
behavior
and
communication
impairment
with
other
and
the
distinct
point
of
the
question
is
echolalia
(which
is
repetition
of
other
words)
what
is
the
diagnosis:
A-‐
ADHD
B-‐ASPENGER
SYNDROME
C-‐
AUTISTIC
DISORDERS
D-‐
……………………………..
B
is
a
part
of
C
,
need
more
information
.
8-‐
there
was
question
about
ADHD
diagnostic
criteria
according
to
ICD10
CLASSIFICATION,
but
I
cannot
remember
the
answers:
But
it
was
like
this
:(
number
of
feature
and
the
description
of
it)
for
example:
A-‐
3
hyperactive,
3
inattentive,
and
other
B-‐
2
hyperactive,
3
inattentive
C-‐
2
hyperactive,
2
inattentive
Answer:
At
least
6
inattentive
+3
hyperactive
+
1
impulsive
Ref:
https://adhd.org.sa/en/adhd/resources/diagnosing-‐adhd/diagnostic-‐criteria/icd-‐10-‐criteria/
9-‐
pt
suddenly
feel
the
environment
is
strange
?
A-‐
depersonalization
B-‐
derealization
Answer
B
Derealization
(sometimes
abbreviated
as
DR)
is
an
alteration
in
the
perception
or
experience
of
the
external
world
so
that
it
seems
unreal.
Other
symptoms
include
feeling
as
though
one's
environment
is
lacking
in
spontaneity,
emotional
colouring,
and
depth.
It
is
a
dissociative
symptom
of
many
conditions
https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-‐conditions/depersonalization-‐derealization-‐
disorder/symptoms-‐causes/syc-‐20352911
10-‐
child
always
alone
,
dose
not
have
toys
,
doesn’t
play
with
others
,
what
is
the
relation
cause
or
something?
A-‐
intelligence
B-‐
interpersonally
Answer:
B
?
11-‐23
yrs
old
pt
has
hallucinations,
delusions,
for
1
month,
the
doctor
diagnosed
him
as
a
case
of
schizophrenia,
Which
of
the
following
is
against
the
diagnosis
of
schizophrenia?
A.
1/
age
of
the
pt
B.
2/hallucinations
C.
3/
delusions
D.
4/
duration
of
symptoms
Answer
is
D
To
diagnose
schizophrenia
at
least
duration
should
be
6
month
12-‐pt
think
he
has
cancer
went
to
6
doctors
and
examination
was
normal,
but
still
he
think
he
got
cancer,Dx?
Hypochondriasis
13-‐
7
yrs
old
boy
with
clear
manifestation
of
ADHD
which
of
the
following
drugs
might
be
given?
A-‐Atomaxatine
Answer
is
A
Drugs
can
be
used
:
amphetamine
and
methylphenidate
Stimulants
usually
reduce
hyperactivity
and
impulsivity
and
improve
focus.
Or
Atomoxetine
Or
Clonidine
and
guanfacine
https://www.webmd.com/add-‐adhd/tc/attention-‐deficit-‐hyperactivity-‐disorder-‐adhd-‐medications
14-‐
definition
of
brief
psychosis
and
Schizophrenia/
schizoaffective(
duration)
Schizophrenia
:
People
with
this
illness
have
changes
in
behavior
and
other
symptoms
-‐-‐
such
as
delusions
and
hallucinations
-‐-‐
that
last
longer
than
6
months.
It
usually
affects
them
at
work
or
school,
as
well
as
their
relationships.
Schizoaffective
disorder:
People
have
symptoms
of
both
schizophrenia
and
a
mood
disorder,
such
as
depression
or
bipolar
disorder.
Schizophreniform
disorder:
This
includes
symptoms
of
schizophrenia,
but
the
symptoms
last
for
a
shorter
time:
between
1
and
6
months.
Brief
psychotic
disorder:
People
with
this
illness
have
a
sudden,
short
period
of
psychotic
behavior,
often
in
response
to
a
very
stressful
event,
such
as
a
death
in
the
family.
Recovery
is
often
quick
-‐-‐
usually
less
than
a
month.
15-‐Case
of
paralysis
of
the
upper
limbs
(and
I
guess
lower
limbs)
..
Dx:
conversion
disorder.
Conversion
disorder
is
a
mental
condition
in
which
a
person
has
blindness,
paralysis,
or
other
nervous
system
(neurologic)
symptoms
that
cannot
be
explained
by
medical
evaluation
16-‐
A
young
woman
came
with
low
mood,
insomnia,
and
features
of
depression
with
heavy
menses.
These
symptoms
occur
9
days
prior
to
her
menses
and
disappear
the
second
day
of
her
menses.
How
would
you
manage
her?
A⁃
SSRI.
B⁃
Estrogen.
C⁃
Progesterone
Answer
is
A
The
core
symptoms
of
premenstrual
syndrome
(PMS)
include
affective
symptoms
such
as
depression,
irritability,
and
anxiety,
and
somatic
symptoms
such
as
breast
pain,
bloating
and
swelling,
and
headache.
The
symptom(s)
must
impair
functioning
in
some
way
and
must
remit
at
menses
or
shortly
thereafter.
Premenstrual
dysphoric
disorder
(PMDD)
is
a
more
severe
form.
We
recommend
selective
serotonin
reuptake
inhibitors
(SSRIs)
as
first-‐line
therapy
for
women
with
premenstrual
symptoms.
Ref:
uptodate
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/treatment-‐of-‐premenstrual-‐syndrome-‐and-‐premenstrual-‐
dysphoric-‐
disorder?source=search_result&search=premenstrual%20syndrome&selectedTitle=1~150#H101868
128
17-‐define
ADHD
:
Attention
deficit
hyperactivity
disorder
(ADHD)
is
a
disorder
that
manifests
in
childhood
with
symptoms
of
hyperactivity,
impulsivity,
and/or
inattention.
The
symptoms
affect
cognitive,
academic,
behavioral,
emotional,
and
social
functioning
18-‐female
pt
with
depression
and
suicidal
attempt,
stable
for
3
months
on
paroxetine
and
now
she
is
pregnant,
what's
next?
A-‐continue
paroxitine
and
monitor
depression
B-‐stop
paroxitine
due
to
premature..
C-‐stop
paroxitine
due
to
it
damage
the
baby
D-‐continue
and
add
valium
Most
likely
C
Paroxetine
actually
carries
a
category
D
rating
from
the
U.S.
Food
and
Drug
Administration
(FDA)
for
safety
in
pregnancy
Some
SSRIs
are
generally
considered
a
safe
option
for
pregnant
women,
but
Paxil
already
carries
a
warning
label
cautioning
against
use
during
pregnancy
due
to
the
potential
for
fetal
heart
defects.
http://www.aafp.org/afp/2012/0415/p747.html
19-‐
pt
with
symptoms
of
schizophernia
for
3
months
and
then
return
to
normal.
what's
the
Diagnosis?
A-‐Schizophernia
B-‐Schizoaffective
C-‐Schzioniform
D-‐breif
psychosis
Answer
is
C
20-‐Anti
psychotic
causes
weight
gain?
Weight
gain
and
metabolic
effects
are
the
most
prominent
side
effects
of
SGAs.
Clozapine
and
olanzapine
are
especially
associated
with
these
problems
Olanzapine
is
the
most
common
one
.
Uptodate
-‐21-‐
most
common
anti
psychotic
causing
dystonia?
Among
the
FGAs,
the
high-‐potency
drugs
fluphenazine,
haloperidol,
loxapine,
pimozide,
and
thiothixene
are
usually
associated
with
the
highest
risk
of
extrapyramidal
symptoms
Haloperidol
is
the
most
common
one.
uptodate
22-‐
Antipsychotic
drug
causing
QT
prolongation?
Prolongation
of
the
QT
interval
tends
to
be
mild
with
SGAs
but
somewhat
greater
with
iloperidone
and
ziprasidone
than
with
other
agents.
uptodate
-‐23-‐Atypical
Antipsychotic
least
to
cause
EPS?
risperidone
carries
the
highest
risk
of
EPS
(8
to
25
percent
in
adults)
least
risk:
Quetiapine,
iloperidone,
pimavanserin,
and
clozapine
are
the
preferred
agents
in
patients
at
high
risk
for
EPS.
uptodate
24-‐
Antiparkinsonism
which
is
hepatotoxic:
Answer:
tolcapone
Tolcapone
has
been
reported
to
cause
serum
aminotransferase
elevations
above
3
times
the
upper
limit
of
normal
in
1%
to
5%
of
patients.
Ref:
https://livertox.nih.gov/Tolcapone.htm
25-‐TCA
side
effect?
3
C
(
cardiotoxicty
+
Coma+
convulsions)
+
Anticholinergics
26-‐TCA
most
associated
with
weight
gain?
Answer:
Amitriptyline
The
cyclic
antidepressants
block
histamine
receptors
and
cause
sedation,
increased
appetite
leading
to
weight
gain,
confusion,
and
delirium.
The
most
potent
antihistaminic
drugs
are
maprotiline
and
the
tertiary
tricyclics
amitriptyline,
doxepin,
and
trimipramine
Ref:
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/tricyclic-‐and-‐tetracyclic-‐drugs-‐pharmacology-‐administration-‐
and-‐side-‐
effects?source=search_result&search=tricyclic%20antidepressants%20and%20weight%20gain&selec
tedTitle=1~150#H26?
27-‐Q
about
MAOI
phenelzine,
HTN
with
cheese?
MAOI
if
mixed
with
tyramine
conaiants
products
like
“
cheese
“
it
may
cause
HTN
crisis
28-‐
Nocturnal
enuresis
and
depression?
Imipramine
(TCA)
29-‐T-‐half
of
SSRI?
Uptodate
says:
The
half-‐life
for
fluoxetine
ranges
from
1
to
3
days,
and
for
its
metabolite
norfluoxetine,
4
to
16
days.
Fluvoxamine
has
a
half-‐life
of
approximately
15
hours.
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/selective-‐serotonin-‐reuptake-‐inhibitors-‐pharmacology-‐
administration-‐and-‐side-‐effects?source=search_result&search=T-‐
half%20of%20SSRI&selectedTitle=1~150#H399779781
30-‐A
pt
with
depression
on
medications
found
comatose
with
empty
pill
bottle
beside
her
On
invx;
ABG
showed
Metabolic
acidosis,
what
drug
overdosed?
A-‐Aspirin
B-‐
SSRI
Answer
is
A
Ref:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1009987-‐clinical
31-‐clear
scenario
about
depression
(low
mood
lack
of
sleep,,,,
what
is
deficient
in
this
patient?
serotonin
32-‐a
pt
presented
to
psychiatry
department,
the
pt
says
that
some
people
know
what
he
is
thinking
about
and
his
thoughts
are
known
by
others
as
if
distributed.
This
type
of
thought
is?
Answer:
thought
broadcasting
In
psychiatry,
thought
broadcasting
is
the
belief
that
others
can
hear
or
are
aware
of
an
individual's
thoughts.
This
differs
from
telepathy
in
that
the
thoughts
being
broadcast
are
thought
to
be
available
to
anybody.
Thought
broadcasting
can
be
a
positive
symptom
of
schizophrenia.
33-‐18
yrs
old
female,
e
hx
of
amenorrhea
for
6
months,
low
BMI,
but
she
thinks
that
she
is
fat
and
has
to
lose
weight.
OE
(
increased
hair
distribution
in
her
body
plus
other
findings)
What
is
the
diagnosis?
Answer:
Aneroxia
Nervosa
34-‐best
and
rapid
management
for
specific
anxiety?
A.
Benzodiazipines
B.
Sertraline
C.
Imipramine
D.
Bupropion
Answer
is
A
Long
Term
CBT
or
SSRI
Short
term
BENZO
or
beta
blocker
.
Ref:
FA
step
one
2016
35-‐Best
drug
for
short
term
Mx
of
GAD
without
causing
dependence
or
addiction;
1/alprazolam
2/sertraline
3/flouxetine
4/Bupropion
Answer:
D
(
I
think
it
is
a
misspelling
and
it
should
buspirone.
)
BUSPIRONE
—
The
azapirone
buspirone
has
been
shown
in
clinical
trials
to
reduce
symptoms
of
anxiety
in
patients
with
generalized
anxiety
disorder
(GAD),
offering
similar
efficacy
to
benzodiazepines
without
the
risk
of
dependence.
Buspirone
is
thought
to
affect
the
serotonergic
system
via
blockade
of
5HT1A
autoreceptors.
Buspirone
can
be
used
as
monotherapy
(in
the
absence
of
comorbid
major
depression)
or
for
augmentation
at
doses
of
10
to
60
mg/day
Reference:
Uptodate
36-‐A
child
always
kicking
his
mother,
shouting
at
her,
not
responding
to
her
commands
at
all,
he
was
separated
from
her
after
she
was
divorced,
what
is
the
problem
here?
1/depersonalization
2/derealization
3/anxiety
from
separation
answer:C
“By
resident”
correct
answer
is
Adjustment
Adjustment
disorder
is
an
unusually
strong
or
long-‐lasting
reaction
to
an
upsetting
event.
The
triggering
event
might
be
a
divorce,
a
death
in
the
family,
moving
to
a
new
home,
starting
a
different
school,
a
break
up,
or
a
big
life
disappointment.
A
child
with
the
disorder
will
have
a
hard
time
coping
with
his
emotions
and
may
become
depressed
or
anxious,
exhibit
hostility,
pick
fights,
or
refuse
to
go
to
school
Ref:
https://childmind.org/guide/guide-‐adjustment-‐disorder/what-‐is-‐adjustment-‐disorder/
37-‐Female,
known
case
of
schezophrenia,
came
to
ER
with
suspeciousness,
upon
examination,
she
was
starring
at
a
person
and
saying,
*you
can't
kill
me*
,
what
does
she
have
?
*Derealisation
*Concrete
thinking
*hallucination
Most
likely
Delusion
38-‐An
elderly,
known
case
of
Alzheimer's
disease,
developed
hallucinations,bizarre
behaviors
and
became
aggressive,
what
drug
to
add?
1/Haloperidol
2/Resperidone
3/Chloropromazine
4/Amytreptline
Answer
is
B
Atypical
antipsychotics
are
the
most
widely
used
class
of
psychotropic
medications
in
the
treatment
of
AD
psychosis
and/or
behavioral
and
psychological
symptoms
of
dementia.
A
meta-‐analysis
of
atypical
antipsychotics
for
aggression
and
psychosis
in
AD
suggests
that
both
risperidone
and
olanzapine
help
reduce
aggression
and
risperidone
helps
reduce
psychosis.9
http://www.psychiatrictimes.com/geriatric-‐psychiatry/managing-‐psychosis-‐patients-‐alzheimer-‐
disease/page/0/3
39-‐pt
came
with
symptoms
of
depression.
when
the
doctor
asked
him
about
psycosis
symptoms
he
left
the
room.
what
does
this
represent?
A-‐
acting
out
B-‐
Intellectual
C-‐
Siblimation
D-‐
Interjection
Answer
is
A
40-‐scenario
of
anorexia
nervousa,
admitted
to
ER,
she
she
denies
eating
and
says
she's
not
hungry,
BMI
11.3
What
most
likely
to
find
in
her
labs
:
-‐
inc
K
-‐
Dec
Creatnin
-‐
Other
labs
Read
about
it
here
:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/912187-‐workup#c9
41-‐Young
age
female
known
case
of
Bulemia
nervosa
came
to
the
ER
after
vomiting,
what
do
you
expect
to
see
in
her
lab:
A-‐Hypokalemia
B-‐Elevated
liver
enzymes
Answer
is
A
•
Hypokalemic
hypochloremic
metabolic
alkalosis:
Observed
with
vomiting
•
Acidosis:
Observed
in
cases
of
laxative
abuse
42-‐Patient
admitted
to
er
,
upon
examination:
dental
smth?
A-‐Anorexia
nervosa
B-‐bulemia
nervosa
Answer
is
B
43-‐anti-‐psychotic
cause
constipation?
Antipsychotic-‐related
constipation
is
a
common
and
serious
adverse
effect
,
especially
for
people
taking
clozapine
Ref:
http://www.cochrane.org/CD011128/SCHIZ_drug-‐treatments-‐constipation-‐caused-‐
antipsychotic-‐medications
44-‐Dementia
rx?
Cholinesterase
inhibitors.
These
medications
—
including
donepezil
(Aricept),
rivastigmine
(Exelon)
and
galantamine
(Razadyne)
—
work
by
boosting
levels
of
a
chemical
messenger
involved
in
memory
and
judgment
45-‐Repetitve
idea
scenario
pt
Knows
this
is
wrong?
obsession
46-‐psychotic
pt
on
neuroleptic
drug
the
side
effect?
A-‐seizure
B-‐akathisia
Answer
is
B
SE:
Acute
dystonia-‐
Akathsia-‐parkinsonism-‐Tardive
dyskinesia.
FA
step
one
47-‐pt
with
Poor
self-‐hygiene
,
echolalia
what's
the
treatment?
A.
Carbamazepine
B.
SNRI
C.
Lithium
Answer:
Incomplete
scenario,
most
likely
antipsychotic,
48-‐Female
fear
of
elevator
,
which
of
the
following
is
the
best
treatment
?
A-‐Flooding
B-‐imipramine
C-‐propranolol
D-‐psychoanalysis
Answer
is
D
49-‐Pt
with
hallucination
and
low
self
esteem
,
what's
the
treatment
?
A-‐Antipsychotic
B-‐CBT
C-‐Antipsychotic
and
CBT
answer:C
50-‐Female
pt
with
symptoms
of
menapose
and
symptoms
of
depression
,
what's
the
treatment?
A.
Estrogen
B.
Progesterone
C.
Paroxetine
Answer:
51-‐Impaired
focus
on
the
current
function
with
disruption
of
vitals
physical
activities.
What
condition
have
these
characteristics?'
1-‐
OCD
2-‐
dissociative
disorder
3-‐
major
depression
4-‐
psychosis
Answer
:
most
likely
major
depression
52-‐Prevention
of
dementia?
A-‐leisure
exercises
B-‐medication
C-‐just
rehab
like
option
Answer
is
A
We
encourage
all
patients,
especially
those
with
early
dementia
and
those
with
risk
factors
for
dementia,
to
maintain
or
increase
physical
activity
and
exercise
as
long
as
there
are
no
contraindications.
Similarly,
we
encourage
cognitive
leisure
activities
and
social
interaction
for
as
long
as
these
are
feasible.
However,
we
recognize
that
these
lifestyle
factors
remain
unproven
as
a
means
of
preventing
dementia
Ref:
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/prevention-‐of-‐dementia#H18
53-‐autism
case
the
child
eats
papers.
what
do
?
Answer:
Behavioral
therapy
54-‐Elderly
man
admitted
for
pneumonia,
developed
fluctuating
level
of
consciousness
and
severely
disturbed
sleep/wake
cycle,
how
to
treat?
a.
Regular
Haloperidol
until
symptoms
abate
b.
Regular
Risperidone
until
symptoms
stop
c.
Isolate
him
in
a
dark
quite
room
d.
Allow
a
relative
to
stay
Answer:
Most
likely
C
55-‐
Leaden
paralysis
in?
A.
conversion
disorder.
B.
personality
disorder.
C.
somatization
D.
schizophrenia.
Regarding
these
options,
could
be
A
-‐
Leaden
paralysis
is
one
of
the
feature
of
atypical
depression
-‐
Conversion
disorder
is
a
mental
condition
in
which
a
person
has
blindness,
paralysis,
or
other
nervous
system
(neurologic)
symptoms
that
cannot
be
explained
by
medical
evaluation
56-‐CAGE
questionnaire?
Have
you
ever
felt
you
needed
to
Cut
down
on
your
drinking?
Have
people
Annoyed
you
by
criticizing
your
drinking?
Have
you
ever
felt
Guilty
about
drinking?
Have
you
ever
felt
you
needed
a
drink
first
thing
in
the
morning
(Eye-‐opener)
to
steady
your
nerves
or
to
get
rid
of
a
hangover?
57-‐Disease
associated
with
clinical
dementia:
A.
b12
deficiency
B.
Parkinson’s
Answer
is
A
58-‐Teenage
Pt.
Got
a
bad
grade
in
an
exam
and
feels
guilty,
he
try
to
explain
to
everyone
he
meets/
talk
with
that
the
exam
was
poorly
written&
its
not
his
fault
that
he
got
a
bad
grade.
what
does
this
represent?
-‐
intellectualization
-‐
sublimation
Answer:
Both
choices
are
wrong.
I
think
the
right
answer
is
one
of
the
missing
choices,
if
rationalization
was
one
of
the
choices
then
I
think
it
would
an
appropriate
answer.
-‐Intellectualization:
avoiding
negative
feeling
by
excessive
use
of
intellectual
functions
and
by
focusing
on
irrelevant
details
(e.g.
physician
dying
from
colon
cancer
describes
the
pathophysiology
of
the
disease
in
detail
to
his
12
y/o
son.)
-‐
sublimation:
replacing
an
unacceptable
wish
with
a
course
of
action
that
is
similar
to
the
wish
but
does
not
conflict
with
one's
value
system.
(e.g.
Teenager's
aggression
toward
his
father
is
redirected
to
perform
well
in
sports)
-‐Rationalization:
proclaiming
logical
reasons
for
actions
performed
for
other
reasons,
usually
to
avoid
self-‐blame.
(e.g.
after
getting
fired,
claiming
that
the
job
was
not
important
anyway).
Reference:
FA,
FA
psychiatry.
Feeling
hopeless
is
another
form
for
expressing
(or
indicates
or
assess)
which?
-‐
suicidal
ideation
-‐
Depression
-‐
Anxiety
Answer:
A
Reference:
SMLE12
what’s
the
most
common
sign
(presentation)
of
depression?
A.
late
morning
awaking
B.
loss
of
eye
contact
Answer:
Could
not
find
a
source
about
the
most
common
sign
of
depression.
Probably
the
question
is
not
written
correctly,
see
the
next
question.
What
is
associated
with
major
depression?
-‐
loss
of
eye
contact
-‐
Late
awakening
from
sleep
-‐
Hallucination
Answer:
MDD
DSM-‐5:
Must
have
at
least
five
of
the
following
symptoms
(must
include
either
number
1
or
2)
for
at
least
a
2-‐week
period:
1-‐
Depressed
mood
of
the
time
2-‐
Anhedonia
(loss
of
interest
in
pleasurable
activities)
3-‐
Change
in
appetite
or
weight
(increase
or
decrease)
4-‐
Feelings
of
worthless
or
excessive
guilt
5-‐
Insomnia
or
hypersomnia
6-‐
Diminished
concentration.
7-‐
Psychomotor
agitation
or
retardation
(i.e
restlessness
or
slowness
)
8-‐
Fatigue
or
loss
of
energy
9-‐
Recurrent
thoughts
of
death
or
suicide
Hypersomnia:
refers
to
symptoms
of
excessive
quantity
of
sleep,
reduced
quality
of
wakefulness
and
sleep
inertia/sleep
drunkenness
(i.e.
impaired
performance
and
reduced
alertness
after
awakening).
They
often
complain
of
non-‐restorative
sleep,
automatic
behaviors
(routine
behavior
performed
with
little
to
no
recall),
and
difficulty
awakening
in
the
morning.
Reference
:
FA
psychiatry
schizophrenic
complaint
on
medication
came
with
metabolic
acidosis
what
is
the
drug?
-‐Olanzapine
-‐Clozapine
-‐haloperido
Answer:
C
(Not
sure).
The
only
thing
I
found
is
that
patients
receiving
haloperidol
had
significantly
higher
blood
lactate
levels
than
patients
receiving
olanzapine
Probably
the
question
was
not
written
correctly
and
original
question
was
asking
about
metabolic
syndrome
instead
of
metabolic
acidosis,
and
in
that
case
the
answer
would
be
Olanzapine
(
both
clozapine
and
olanzapine
are
known
to
cause
it
but
it
is
much
more
common
with
olanzapine).
Haloperidol
has
the
least
potential
to
cause
metabolic
syndrome.
Clozapine
and
risperidone
also
have
the
potential
to
cause
metabolic
syndrome
but
have
a
lower
potential
to
do
so
as
compared
with
olanzapine.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3136014/
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/21328719
Antipsycotic
drug
causes
eye
pigmentation?
Chlorpromazine
causes
corneal
and
lenticular
deposits
Thioridazine
causes
Retinal
deposits
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
2
cases
about
panic
disorder
(ttt
and
dx)
DSM-‐5:
-‐
Recurrent,
unexpected
panic
attacks
without
identifiable
trigger.
-‐
One
or
more
panic
attack
followed
by
>1
month
of
continuous
worry
about
experiencing
subsequent
attacks
or
their
consequences
and/or
a
maladaptive
change
in
behavior(e.g.
avoidance
of
possible
triggers)
-‐
Not
caused
by
another
mental
disorder,
substance
abuse
or
medical
condition.
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
In
panic
disorder,
how
to
manage?
Answer:
If
a
single
panic
attack
is
the
diagnosis,
a
benzodiazepine
is
the
treatment.
If
panic
disorder
is
the
diagnosis,
then
pick
the
SSRI.
Reference
:
MTB2
definition
of
delusion?
Delusions
are
fixed,
false
beliefs
that
remain
despite
evidence
to
the
contrary
and
cannot
be
accounted
for
by
the
cultural
background
of
the
individual.
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
adjustment
disorder?
DSM-‐5:
1-‐
Development
of
emotional
or
behavioral
symptoms
within
3
months
in
response
to
identifiable
stressful
life
event.
These
symptoms
produce:
-‐Marked
distress
in
excess
of
what
would
be
expected
after
such
an
event.
-‐
significant
impairment
in
daily
functioning.
2-‐
Symptoms
are
not
those
of
normal
bereavement
3-‐
symptoms
resolve
within
6
months
“
in
adjustment
disorder,
the
stressful
event
is
not
life
threatening.
In
post-‐traumatic
stress
disorder,
it
is.”
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
2
q
about
SE
of
antidepressant
Tca
and
SSri?
TCA:
-‐Antihistamine:
weight
gain
and
sedation
-‐
Antiadrenergic:
orthostatic
hypotension,
reflex
tachycardia,
arrhythmia
(Wide
QT,QRS
and
PR
interval)
-‐Anticholinergic:
Dry
mouth,
blurred
vision,
urine
retention
,
constipation,
exacerbation
of
narrow
angle
glaucoma.
SSRi:
GI
disturbances:
Nausea
and
diarrhea.
Insomnia
and
vivid
dreams
Sexual
dysfunction
:
decreased
libido
,
anorgasmia
,
delayed
ejaculation.
Restlessness.
Reference:
FA
psychiatry.
what
is
the
least
fatal
dose
of
Tca
A.
500
mg
B.
1g
C.
2g
D.
5g
Answer:
B
Reference:
Comprehensive
Emergency
Mental
Health
Care
By
Joseph
J.
Zealberg,
Alberto
B.
Santos,
Jackie
A.
Puckett
Patient
had
history
of
pancreatic
cancer
on
chemotherapy
then
improved
completely
came
to
doctor
concerning
about
recurrence
of
cancer
and
a
history
of
many
hospital
visits.
This
patient
has:
a)
Malingering
b)
somatization
c)
Factitious
d)
Conversion
Answer:
A
History
of
many
hospital
visits
in
a
patient
with
cancer
(in
this
case
pancreatic
cancer)
and
the
patient
is
claiming
that
he
has
recurrence
would
let
us
think
that
he/she
is
seeking
narcotics.
Based
on
this
information
the
answer
would
be
A.
“This
is
my
personal
explanation”.
Patient
consciously
fakes,
profoundly
exaggerates
or
claims
to
have
a
disorder
in
order
to
attain
a
specific
2ndary
(external)
gain
(e.g.
avoiding
work,
obtaining
compensation).
Poor
compliance
with
treatment
or
follow-‐up
of
diagnostic
tests.
Complaints
cease
after
gain
(vs.
factitious
disorder).
Factitious:
patients
with
factitious
disorder
intentionally
falsify
medical
or
psychological
signs
and
symptoms
in
order
to
assume
the
role
of
sick
patient.
Malingering:
Intentional
reporting
physical
or
psychological
symptoms
in
order
to
achieve
personal
gain.
Reference:
FA
,
FA
psychiatry
patient
with
irregular
menses
BMI
was
16
she
think
that
she
is
fat
and
want
to
lose
weight
what
the
diagnosis?
-‐
bulimia
nervosa
-‐
anorexia
nervosa
Answer:
B
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
18
yrs
old
female,
e
hx
of
amenorrhea
for
6months,
low
BMI,
but
she
thinks
that
she
is
fat
and
has
to
lose
weight.
OE
(
increased
hair
distribution
in
her
body
plus
other
findings)
What
is
the
diagnosis?
anorexia
nervosa
“repeated”
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
what
is
best
to
describe
post
traumatic
syndrome?
A)
disorientation
and
dissociation
B)
Flashback
and
arousal
Answer:B
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
outcome
of
45
y/o
pt
with
recurrent
schizophrenia
on
maintenance
therapy?
A)
complete
remission
B)
70%
will
have
good
quality
of
life.
C)
one
third
of
patients
will
have
good
prognosis
Answer:
C
Even
with
medication
40-‐60%
of
patients
remain
significantly
impaired
after
their
diagnosis,
while
only
20-‐30%
function
fairly
well
in
the
society.
About
20%
of
patients
with
schizophrenia
attempt
suicide.
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
+
BMJ/schizophrenia
prognosis
Child
with
rapid
blinking
of
the
eye
communicate
with
his
parents
during
it
what
is
the
diagnosis
all
are
normal?
A)TIC
B)
petit
mal
seizure
C)
tourette
syndrome.
Answer:
A
Reference
:
FA
psychiatry
4
years
old
have
decrease
in
head
growth
,
has
weird
hand
movement
(
wiringing)
,
lost
expressive
end
receptive
language
skills
,
lost
his
interest
in
his
social
environment
.
what
is
the
diagnosis?
-‐
Autism
-‐
Mental
retardation
-‐
Rett
syndrome
Answer:C
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
4y/o
child
doesn’t
speak
except
mama
papa
response
will
to
verbal
command
his
older
brother
had
the
same
problem
when
he
was
same
age
he
is
shy
what
is
the
diagnosis:
A)Autsim
B)
development
language
disorder
Answer:
B
Reference:
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/expressive-‐language-‐delay-‐late-‐talking-‐in-‐young-‐children
http://www.childspeech.net/u_iv_e.html
Cancer
associated
with
depression:
A)
pancreas
B)
prostate
C)
kidney.
D)
Liver.
Answer:
A
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
p.37
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4356432/
What
is
the
percentage
of
a
child
to
have
schizophrenia
if
his
father
has
the
disease?
A. 5%,
B.
10%,
C.
15%,
D.
20%
Answer:
B
10%
FA
step1,
12%
in
FA
psychiatry,
10%
in
http://schizophrenia.com/family/FAQoffspring.htm
.the
average
risk
for
first
degree
relatives
of
a
person
with
schizophrenia
is
9%.(
The
Encyclopedia
of
Schizophrenia
and
Other
Psychotic
Disorders).
A
female
patient
was
hearing
voices
coming
out
of
refrigerator
and
microwave
telling
the
food
is
poisoned
what
does
she
has?
(
auditory
hallucinations)
Reference:
Toronto
notes
best
and
rapid
management
for
specific
anxiety?
A.
Benzodiazepines
B.
Sertraline
C.
Imipramine
D.
Bupropion
Answer:
A
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
Best
drug
for
short
term
Mx
of
GAD
without
causing
dependence
or
addiction;
1/alprazolam
2/sertraline
3/fluoxetine
4/Bupropion
Answer:
D
(
I
think
it
is
a
misspelling
and
it
should
buspirone.
)
BUSPIRONE
—
The
azapirone
buspirone
has
been
shown
in
clinical
trials
to
reduce
symptoms
of
anxiety
in
patients
with
generalized
anxiety
disorder
(GAD),
offering
similar
efficacy
to
benzodiazepines
without
the
risk
of
dependence.
Buspirone
is
thought
to
affect
the
serotonergic
system
via
blockade
of
5HT1A
autoreceptors.
Buspirone
can
be
used
as
monotherapy
(in
the
absence
of
comorbid
major
depression)
or
for
augmentation
at
doses
of
10
to
60
mg/day
Reference:
Uptodate
Married
man
feeling
anxiety,
irritability,
weight
loss
and
trouble
sleeping.
He
has
no
marital
problems
and
no
external
cause
for
his
anxiety.
What
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
GAD
MDD
Schizophrenia
Answer:
A
Reference:
Toronto
notes
Newly
Married
couple
came
to
psychiatry
clinic.
The
wife
is
complaining
that
her
husband
goes
back
home
multiple
times
to
check
if
they
locked
the
door
and..
(other
OCD
symptoms).
The
husband
does
not
deny.
Diagnosis?
OCD
Answer:
A
Reference:
Toronto
notes
Man
with
Premature
ejaculation.
What
to
give?
SSRI
Reference:
Toronto
notes
Anxiety
medication
that
does
not
cause
dependence?
-‐One
of
the
benzodiazepines
-‐An
SSRI
-‐Buspirone
Answer:
C
Reference:
BUSPIRONE
—
The
azapirone
buspirone
has
been
shown
in
clinical
trials
to
reduce
symptoms
of
anxiety
in
patients
with
generalized
anxiety
disorder
(GAD),
offering
similar
efficacy
to
benzodiazepines
without
the
risk
of
dependence.
Buspirone
is
thought
to
affect
the
serotonergic
system
via
blockade
of
5HT1A
autoreceptors.
Buspirone
can
be
used
as
monotherapy
(in
the
absence
of
comorbid
major
depression)
or
for
augmentation
at
doses
of
10
to
60
mg/day
Reference:
Uptodate
Man
with
symptoms
of
sadness,
grief,
wife
died
two
months
ago.
Dx?
-‐MDD
-‐Bereavement
Answer:
B
Reference:
Toronto
Notes
Treatment
of
OCD?
Increase
sertonine
availability
Decrease
sertonine
availability
Increase
sertonine
secretion
Decrease
sertonine
secretion
Answer:
A
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
Elderly
take
haloperidol,
and
came
to
ER
afebrile
rolled
eye.
what's
the
Dx?
Neuroleptic
syndrome
Dyskinesia
Antonia
Answer:
The
correct
answer
is
dystonia
Reference:
Toronto
notes
Clozapine
used
for
which
childhood
psychiatric
disorder?
a-‐
Schizophrenia
b-‐
Bipolar
c-‐
Mania
Answer:
A
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/18220495
http://www.jaacap.com/article/S0890-‐8567(09)61687-‐7/abstract
Female
diagnosed
with
depression
on
medication
and
has
constipation
Which
of
the
following
is
the
drug
used
a-‐
TCA
b-‐
SSRI
c-‐
SSNRI
Answer:
A
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
what's
the
first
line
treatment
of
depression?
SSRI
Reference:
Toronto
notes
What
is
the
first
line
in
the
management
of
depression
in
children?
A-‐
Fluoxetine
B-‐
Imipramine
C-‐
MOAI
Ans:
A
Reference:
Toronto
notes
58
years
old
man
is
complained
of
tiredness
and
fatigue,
and
after
his
wife
died
with
MI
when
she
was
67
years
old,
his
symptom
increased
and
new
symptoms
are
(insomnia,
there
is
death
thoughts
and
lack
of
concentration
in
work
and
loss
of
interest),
no
loss
of
appetite.
Your
diagnosis
?
-‐dysthermia.
-‐major
depressive
disorder.
-‐bereavement.
Answer:
B
5
symptoms
(including
loss
of
interest
“anhedonia”)
MDD
DSM-‐5:
Must
have
at
least
five
of
the
following
symptoms
(must
include
either
number
1
or
2)
for
at
least
a
2-‐week
period:
1-‐
Depressed
mood
of
the
time
2-‐
Anhedonia
(loss
of
interest
in
pleasurable
activities)
3-‐
Change
in
appetite
or
weight
(increase
or
decrease)
4-‐
Feelings
of
worthless
or
excessive
guilt
5-‐
Insomnia
or
hypersomnia
6-‐
Diminished
concentration.
7-‐
Psychomotor
agitation
or
retardation
(i.e
restlessness
or
slowness
)
8-‐
Fatigue
or
loss
of
energy
9-‐
Recurrent
thoughts
of
death
or
suicide
Reference:
FA
Psychiatry
Drug
that
maintain
treatment
of
bipolar
disorder
?
Lithium
SSRI
Answer:
A
Reference:
Toronto
notes
Patient
when
presenting
a
topic
in
a
meeting
started
to
have
palpitations,
anxiety,
she
avoids
to
give
presentations
so
not
to
experience
the
previous
feeling?
Social
phobia
Post-‐traumatic
stress
disorder
Specific
phobia
Panic
disorder
Answer:
A
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
Best
treatment
for
hallucinations
is?
antipsychotics.
Reference:
Toronto
notes
Kid
having
problem
with
eye
contact
and
has
weird
behiavor?
Autistic
disorder
Autism
spectrum
disorder
is
characterized
by
impairments
in
social
communication/interaction
and
restrictive
behaviors/interests.
Problems
with
social
interaction
and
communication
like
(inability
to
hold
conversation
and
decreased
eye
contacts).
Restricted
repetitive
patterns
of
behavior,
interest
and
activities
like
(
preoccupation
with
unusual
objects
,
rigid
thought
patterns,
hand
flapping..etc)
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
Psychiatric
drug
cause
dystonia
?
Olanzapin
Clozaoin
Respiridone
Answer:
If
the
missing
choice
is
1st
generation
antipsychotic
then
it
is
the
right
answer.
Between
these
choices,
C
is
the
most
appropriate
answer.
Reference:
Manual
of
Basic
psychiatry.
Patient
complaining
of
multiple
symptoms
for
2
yrs
examination
and
labs
normal
?
A)
Somatization
B)
Conversion
disorder
C)
Ocd
Schizophrenia
Answer:
A
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
Pt
came
to
ER
he
said
(his
neighbor
want
to
kill
him)
and
he
hearing
his
neighbor
voice,
what
is
dx?
Schizophrenia
Reference:
Toronto
notes
Parents
of
child
noticed
that
he's
sitting
alone,
not
developing
well,
playing
with
his
toy,
and
have
repetitive
behavior
what's
ur
dx:
A-‐
Global
developmental
delay
B-‐
Autism
Ans:
B
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
What
is
the
treatment
of
generalized
anxiety
disorder?
1-‐tricyclice
antidepressants
2-‐benzodiazepines
(used
in
acute
attack)
3-‐ssri
4-‐buspirone
Answer:
C
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
Patient
with
dysmenorrhea,
breast
tenderness
and
mood
symptoms.
what's
the
treatment?
Progesterone
SSRI
Reference:
MTB2
Patient
his
family
member
died
from
3
weeks
he
has
hallucinations
and
acting
lost.
what's
the
Dx?
schizophrenia
brief
psychotic
disorder
schizoaffective
disorder
Answer:
B
Brief
psychotic
disorder:
Patient
with
psychotic
symptoms
as
in
schizophrenia,
however
the
symptoms
last
up
to
1
month.
It
may
be
seen
in
reactions
to
extreme
stress
such
as
bereavement,
sexual
assault….
etc.
DSM-‐5
schizoaffective
disorder:
-‐Meet
the
criteria
for
either
Major
depressive
or
manic
episode
which
psychotic
symptoms
consistent
with
schizophrenia
are
also
met.
-‐
delusions
or
hallucinations
for
2
weeks
in
the
absence
of
mood
disorder
symptoms
(this
criterion
is
necessary
to
differentiate
schizoaffective
disorder
from
mood
disorder
with
psychotic
symptoms).
-‐
mood
symptoms
present
during
the
majority
of
psychotic
illness.
Reference:
psychiatry
FA
Obseesive
complussive
disorder,
what
is
the
mechanism
of
action
of
the
drug
used
to
treat
it?
Serotonin
reuptake
inhibitor/increase
serotonin
availability
Reference:
Psychiatry
FA
A
female
pt
had
been
isolating
herself,
and
thinks
people
are
chasing
her,plus
she
avoids
eye
contact
?
Psychosis/
schizophrenia
Reference:
Toronto
notes
Pt
visits
psychiatrist
and
the
do
noticed
depressive
symptoms,
while
taking
hx,
she
was
not
responding,
then
stopped
visiting?
There
is
another
form
of
the
question:
patient
came
with
symptoms
of
depression,
when
doctor
asks
him
questions
about
psychosis,
the
patient
left
the
hospital,
what
does
that
mean?
A)
Acting
out
B)
intellectual
C)
sublimation
D)
interjection
Answer:
A
Acting
out:
Expressing
unacceptable
feelings
and
thoughts
through
actions.
Reference:
FA
Your
friend
avoids
you,
what
type
of
personality?
Answer:
Avoidant
Avoidant
personality:
Patient
with
avoidant
personality
disorder
have
a
pervasive
pattern
of
social
inhibition
and
an
intense
fear
of
rejection.
They
will
avoid
situations
in
which
they
may
be
rejected.
Their
fear
of
rejection
is
so
overwhelming
that
it
affects
all
aspects
of
their
lives.
They
avoid
social
interactions
and
seek
jobs
in
which
there
is
little
interpersonal
contact.
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
A
5
yr
old
boy
who
is
shy
and
can
only
say
mama,
baba,
his
older
brother
was
like
him?
A)Autsim
B)
development
language
disorder
Answer:B
Reference:
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/expressive-‐language-‐delay-‐late-‐talking-‐in-‐young-‐children
http://www.childspeech.net/u_iv_e.html
Most
common
risk
factor
in
schizophrenia
?
both
parents
have
it
I
could
not
find
a
source
about
the
most
common
risk
factor
of
schizophrenia
and
I
think
that
the
question
was
asking
about
the
most
significant
risk
factor
instead
of
most
common,
in
which
the
answer
will
be
Monozygotic
twins
or
if
the
both
parents
have
schizophrenia
-‐Genetic:
40%
concordance
in
monozygotic
(MZ)
twins;
46%
if
both
parents
have
schizophrenia;
10%
of
dizygotic
(DZ)
twins,
siblings.
Reference:
Toronto
notes
Man
with
erectile
dysfunction,
but
in
morning,
normal
erectile
fuction,
where
to
refer
?
cardio,
neuro,
psychological
Answer:
C
Reference:
Toronto
notes
Lady
with
low
mood,
insomnia,
poor
appetite
for
5
months.
Her
symptoms
get
worse
during
the
premenstrual
period.
The
symptoms
do
NOT
resolve
after
menstruation.
What
is
the
management?
A-‐Reassure
B-‐Give
fluoxetine
for
premenstrual
syndrome
C-‐Give
antidepressant
for
postmenstrual
syndrome
D-‐Refer
for
psychological
evaluation
Answer:
Mostly
D
by
exclusion.
Definitely
not
reassurance.
the
symptoms
usually
resolve
after
menstruation
in
PMS
and
there
is
nothing
called
postmenstrual
syndrome.
Most
potency
antipsychotic
drug?
Haloperidol
I’m
not
sure
if
it
is
the
most
potent
or
not.
But
1st
generation
antipsychotics
are
classified
based
on
their
potency:
High
potency
antipsychotics
include
haloperidol
,
fluphenazine
,
trifluoperazine
and
pimozide..
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
Patient
complain
of
chest
pain,
vertebral
pain,
a
lot
of
complain
with
pain
also
has
past
history
of
complain
of
pain
and
nausea
and
vomiting
with
irregular
menses
weakness
in
left
leg.
Malingering
and
factious
ruled
out,
diagnosis?
A.
Pain
disorder
B.
Somatization
disorders
Answer:
B
Pain
disorder
removed
from
DSM-‐5.
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
Patient
had
social
phobia,
avoid
gathering,
on
work
had
palpitation
chest
pain
before
meeting
since
5
years
treatment?
A.
Sartoline
B.
Buporin
C.
Azla
(
benzo)
D.
Beta
blocker
Answer:
Sertraline
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
Women
is
anxious
,
irritable
,
insomina
for
2
months?
A.
Major
depression
B.
GAD
C.
Social
phobia
Answer:
B
Erectile
dysfunction?
Options>
multiple
drugs
including
Mertazepine
Answer:
Mertazepine
does
not
cause
erectile
dysfunction
,
choose
SSRI
instead.
Cancer
patient
on
SSRI,
anti
cancer
drug,
.
Feverish.
Agitated
but
alert.
(+Mydriasis?)
and
splenomegaly
on
examination?
A.
1.Neuroleptic
malignant
syndrome
B.
2.Serotonin
syndrome
C.
3.Side
efffect
of
anti
cancer
drug
Answer:
B
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
Which
of
the
following
has
a
poor
prognosis
for
schizophrenia?
A.
acute
onset
B.
adolescents
age
onset
C.
family
history
D.
panic
attack
during
psychosis
Answer:
C
Reference:
FA
psychiatry
A
patient
with
chronic
back
pain
for
which
she's
taking
NSAID
for
more
than
1
year.
No
history
of
trauma
and
her
sphincter
function
is
normal.
She's
also
complaining
of
mild
epigastric
discomfort.
She's
concerned
about
her
financial
status,
What
would
you
give
her?
1)
escitalopram
2)
amitryptaline
3)
gabapentin
Answer:
B
Reference:
BMJ/Back
pain
A
patient
came
with
aggressive
hostile
and
violent
behavior.
What
are
the
neurotransmitters
responsible
for
his
behavior?
1)
high
serotonin
2)
low
serotonin
3)
high
endorphins
4)
low
endorphins
Answer:
2
A
deficit
in
serotonin
has
been
theorized
to
have
a
primary
role
in
causing
impulsivity
and
aggression.
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aggression
Basic Science
1.
Child
with
lactic
acidosis
+
hyperammonemia
?
a)
-‐pyruvate
dehydrogenase
deficiency.
b)
-‐pyruvate
carpoxylase
deficiency.
ANSWER:
A
REFERENCES:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/4050860
·∙
Child
with
high
lactic
acid?
Answer:
Pyruvate
dehydrogenase
deficiency
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/948360-‐overview
●
Scenario
of
a
child
with
hyperammonemia
and
lactic
acidosis.
Which
enzyme
deficiency
results
in
this
disorder?
1.
Pyruvate
dehydrogenase
2.
Pyruvate
carboxylase
Answer:
A
2.
Dizygotic
twins?
a)
Dichorionic
diamniotic
regardless
to
the
sex
b)
Dichorionic
monamniotic
same
sex.
ANSWER:
A
dizygotic
twin
pregnancy
always
results
in
dichorionic
-‐
diamniotic
pregnancies.
REFERENCES:
https://radiopaedia.org/articles/dizygotic-‐twin-‐pregnancy-‐1
3.
Oxybutynin
mechanism
of
action?
a)
antagonist
muscrinic
b)
agonist
nicotinic.
ANSWER:
A.
anticholinergic
-‐
antimuscarinic
“
M1,M2,M3”
antagonist.
REFERENCES:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oxybutynin
4.
Bisphosphonate
drugs
mechanisms,
and
then
asked
which
one
?
ANSWER:
Bone
stabilizer—bisphosphonate;
pyrophosphate
analog;
reduces
hydroxyapatite
crystal
formation,
growth,
and
dissolution,
which
reduces
bone
turnover
REFERENCES:
step
up
to
step
1.
5.
Which
one
of
the
choice
secrets
gulcocorticod
hormones?
A-‐Reticularis
B-‐Glomerulosa
C-‐Medulla
D-‐Faciculata
ANSWER:
D.
Glucocorticoids
are
chiefly
produced
in
the
zona
fasciculata
of
the
adrenal
cortex,
whereas
mineralocorticoids
are
synthesized
in
the
zona
glomerulosa.
REFERENCES:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glucocorticoid
6.
case
scenario
about
patient
with
hypertention
,
labs
result
hypernatremia
hypokalemia
and
asking
about
cell
responsible
for
that?
a)
Reticularis
b)
Glamerulosa
ANSWER:
B
REFERENCES:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mineralocorticoid
7.
Patient
complain
of
abdominal
pain
I
think
with
diarrhea
,
also
his
wife
noticed
he
had
SOB
and
tightness.
Doctor
order
5-‐hydroxyindoleacetic
acid
in
urine
Which
cell
responsible?
A.chromaffin
cell
B.Enterocell
C.Lympho
cell
D.Goblet
cell
ANSWER:
A.
[carcinoid
syndrome
]
5-‐HIAA
is
the
main
metabolite
of
serotonin
and
is
frequently
produced
by
carcinoid
tumors
of
the
enterochromaffin
cells
of
the
small
intestine.
REFERENCES:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/5-‐Hydroxyindoleacetic_acid
8.
UTI
case
with
gram
negative
indole
positive:
A)
E.
coli
9.
female
on
anti
dyslipidemia
drug
present
with
flushing
what
is
the
drug
:
A.
Niacin
B.
Atorvastatin
Answer:
A
References:
https://www.healthline.com/nutrition/niacin-‐flush#section2
10.
what
is
the
MOA
of
glipizide
?
A.
Increase
insulin
secretions
from
pancreas
Answer:
Sulfonylureas
likely
bind
to
ATP-‐sensitive
potassium-‐channel
receptors
on
the
pancreatic
cell
surface,
reducing
potassium
conductance
and
causing
depolarization
of
the
membrane.
Depolarization
stimulates
calcium
ion
influx
through
voltage-‐sensitive
calcium
channels,
raising
intracellular
concentrations
of
calcium
ions,
which
induces
the
secretion,
or
exocytosis,
of
insulin.
References:
https://www.drugbank.ca/drugs/DB01067.
11.when
the
body
exposed
to
ionized
radiation
what
the
effect
of
radiation
on
DNA?
a)
break
DNA
strains
b)
affecting
DNA
pyrimidine
Answer:
13.
which
of
the
following
is
synthesized
in
nucleolus?
a)
rRNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
Answer:
rRNA
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/18712681
14.
what’s
the
duration
of
Nitrofurantoin
regimen
in
recurrent
UTI?
Answer:
If
unrelated
to
sexual
intercourse,
consider
a
six-‐month
course
of
low-‐dose
nitrofurantoin.
References:
https://patient.info/doctor/recurrent-‐urinary-‐tract-‐infection
15.
which
diuretic
can
cause
renal
stone?
16.lip
swelling
for
3
years
deficiency
in
which
enzyme?
a)
C1
esterase
inhibitor
b)
Acute
urticaria.
c)
Ascher
syndrome.
Answer:
C1
esterase
inhibitor
deficiency.
References:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1048887-‐differential#1
17.old
man
with
abnormal
hand
and
head
movement
he
toke
drug
1
day
before
what
is
the
drug:
Answer:
Metoclopramide
References:
https://www.drugs.com/metoclopramide.html
18.pt
with
neck
rigidity
and
abdominal
muscle
regidity
(clear
extraparamidal
manifestations),
which
drug
can
cause
these
symptoms?
Answer:
Metoclopramide;
extrapyramidal
syndrome
(EPS)/acute
dystonic
reactions
(at
least
25%).
References:
https://www.drugs.com/sfx/metoclopramide-‐side-‐effects.html
19.
which
drug
if
you
stopped
abruptly
it
will
cause
hypertensive
crisis?
Answer:
Sympatholytic
antihypertensive
are
commonly
known
to
cause
rebound
HTN;
beta
blockers,
alpha
blockers,
Clonidine,
labetalol.
References:
http://www.ld99.com/reference/old/text/2878909-‐814.html
20.Which
cell
produce
melanocyte
releasing
hormone??
Answer:
Melanocyte
stimulating
hormones
is
secreted
from
the
pars
intermedia
from
the
melanotrophs
cells
which’s
a
type
of
chromophobes
cells.
22.which
one
of
the
following
is
found
in
the
nucleus?
mRNA
in
nucleus
23.Which
of
the
following
made
in
nucleolus
?
rRNA
in
Nulcleolus
#
for
Q22-‐23;
no
options
were
provided
but
check
the
table
for
relevant
Information
related
two
both
structures.
Q.
bond
between
r-‐RNA
&
m-‐RNA
?
Q.
what
is
the
bond
between
mRNA
and
tRNA?
Hydrogen
bond
24-‐what
is
the
longest
phase
in
the
cellular
division?
a)
Anaphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Interphase.
Answer:
Interphase.The
G1
phase,
S
phase,
and
G2
phase
are
collectively
known
as
interphase.
Cells
spend
90
to
95
percent
of
the
time
in
interphase,
where
DNA
is
synthesized
and
the
cell
doubles
in
mass
before
mitosis
begins.
Reference:
https://www.thoughtco.com/understanding-‐the-‐cell-‐
cycle-‐373391
25-‐source
of
energy
that
transfer
molecules
in
and
out
nucleus?
a)
GTP
in
cytoplasm
b)
ATP
cytoplasmic.
c)
GTP
nuclear.
Answer:
ATP
Cytoplasmic
Molecule
movement
requires
energy
in
order
to
move
solute
against
its
electrochemical
gradient.
There
are
two
ways
in
which
a
flow
of
energy
can
be
coupled
to
transporters:
Primary
active
transport
requires
energy
is
provided
by
cytoplasmic
atpase
and
Sodium,
potassium—atlases
(Na,
K—atpase)
is
present
in
plasma
membranes
References:
http://www.biology-‐online.org/9/3_movement_molecules.htm
26.on
OR
the
doctor
cut
vagus
nerve
by
mistake
while
doing
NISSIEN
fundoplication
operation
for
ttt
of
chronic
GERD,
what
organ
will
be
affected
from
cutting
the
nerve?
A-‐esophagus,
B-‐fundus,
C-‐urinary
bladder.
D-‐colon.
Answer:
A.
27.Postroir
vagal
trunk
supplies?
Answer:
posterior
vagal
trunk
are
branches
of
the
posterior
vagal
trunk
which
supply
the
stomach.
References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Posterior_gastric_branches_of_posterior_vagal_trunk
28.what
is
the
organ
affected
if
you
ligate
anterior
iliac
artery?
a)
ovary
b)
intestine,
c)
bladder.
Answer:
bladder
necrosis;
It
has
been
reported
that
there
exist
some
complications
after
IIAL
such
as
urinary
bladder
necrosis,
peripheral
nerve
ischaemia
or
gluteal
compartment
syndrome.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4105656/
29.
Which
OCP
causes
hyperkalemia?
a)
Estradiol-‐levonorgestrel
b)
Estradiol-‐drosperirenone
Answer:
Estradiol-‐drosperirenone
;
is
an
oral
contraceptive
(OC)
that
possesses
unique
antimineralocorticoid
activity.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3265420/
31.difference
between
Hb
and
HbA1C
?
Glycosylation
of
something
32.which
type
of
cells
will
be
high
in
viral
infection?
Lymphocyte
33.Which
muscle
would
be
completely
paralyzed
by
obturator
nerve
injury?
A.
Gluteus
maximus
B.
adductor
magnus
C.
adductor
longus
Answer:
adductor
longus.;
obturator
nerve
motor
supply
is
gracilis,
adductor
longus
and
brevis.
References:
https://www.gpnotebook.co.uk/simplepage.cfm?ID=x20120114173923202976
36.action
of
metformin
on
muscles?
a)
Decrease
glucose
uptake,
b)
increase
glocuneogenesis,
c)
increase
release
of
glucose,
d)
increase
acid
oxidation
Answer:
increase
acid
oxidation
;
the
MOA
of
metoformin
is
not
fully
understood
yet
but
in
vivo
studies
have
showed
that
Extracellular
accumulation
of
the
drug
in
the
muscles
is
responsible
for
its
hypoglycaemic
affect.
suppresses
lipid
accumulation
in
skeletal
muscle
by
promoting
fatty
acid
oxidation.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/7988785.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metformin#Mechanism_of_action.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/25016691.
40.Patient
has
hemorrhage,
baroreceptor
activated
which
lead
to
increase
heart
rate,
what
of
those
will
be
decrease?
a)
Ventricular
contractility
b)
Venous
capacity
c)
Coronary
blood
flow
Answer:
Venous
capacity.
References:
https://www.google.com.sa/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=
0ahUKEwi09cfWhJvXAhVCExoKHUxJB-‐
MQFggtMAA&url=http%3A%2F%2Fmediwikis.com%2Fwiki%2Findex.php%2FBaroreceptor_Reflex_a
nd_Response_to_Haemorrhage&usg=AOvVaw0Rxp86Y_cyoZsJzQjV2CTs
41.
RTA
victim,
hypotensive,
tachycardic,
tachypnic,
activation
of
baroreceptors
will
result
in
which
of
the
following?
References
:http//:advan.physiology.org/content/40/3/283
42.How
hyperglycaemia
affect
wound
healing?
a.
Decrease
immune
system.
b.
Dec
phagocytosis.
c.
Stimulates
bacteria
growth.
Answer:
C.
References:
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/16006275
43.Where
can
you
palpate
dorsalis
pedis
artery?
Answer:
lateral
to
the
extensor
hallucis
longus.
45.S&S
of
anxiety
and
ask
about
deficiency?
The
answer
was
Serotonin.
46.Non-‐steroidal
and
Anti-‐inflammatory?
Answer:
Ibuprofen
47.pudendal
nerve
block
which
area
is
not
affected?
Answer:
Pudendal
nerve
block:
blocks
sensory
and
motor
innervation
to
the
Clitoris
“
dorsal
nerve”,
skin
of
perineum
[labia
major/minora
and
vestibule]
“
perineal
branch”,
External
anal
sphincter
and
perianal
skin
“
via
inf.
Hemorrhoidal
N.”
References:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/83078-‐overview#a1
49.which
nerve
is
responsible
for
sensation
(not
taste)
of
anterior
two
thirds
of
the
tongue?
a)
5
b)
7
c)
9
d)
12
Answer:
Trigeminal
nerve.
References:
50.Loss
of
anterior
2/3
tongue
taste?
Answer:
Facial
nerve
51.Loss
of
posterior
1/3
tongue
sensation
what
is
the
nerve?
Answer:
Glossopharyngeal
53.disease
of
spine
got
anterior
chest
abscess
which
nerve
carry
the
infection:
A-‐
lateral
cutaneus
B-‐
anterior
cutaneus
C-‐
posterior
cutaneus
D-‐
diaphragmatic
Answer:
Anterior
cutaneous.
Tuberculous
exudates
from
the
spine
generally
follow
the
course
of
anterior
cutaneous
or
lateral
cutaneous
branch
of
the
intercostal
nerve
to
produce
cold
abscess
in
the
parasternal
line
or
midaxillary
line,
respectively.
References:
http://www.atmph.org/article.asp?issn=1755-‐
6783;year=2012;volume=5;issue=2;spage=142;epage=144;aulast=Das
54.in
patient
post
mastoctomy
they
do
for
her
reconstrtion
from
the
rectus
muscle
what
is
the
vesles
that
they
should
take
with
it?
a)
1.superior
epegastric
artery
b)
2.inferior
epigastric
artery
Answer:
Inferior
epigastric
artery.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3015273/
55.which
of
the
following
when
it
doesn't
undergo
Heterogeneity
it
causes
gastric
cancer?
Answer:
E
cadherine
gene.;
loss
of
function
of
E-‐cadherin
(CDH1)
has
been
linked
with
diffuse
gastric
cancer
susceptibility.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/14630673
56.which
of
the
following
has
a
Side
effect
of
causing
angioedema?
57.
which
is
responsible
for
apoptosis?
Answer:
P53
pathway.
58.Protein
enter
in
proteasome
by
what
?
A-‐
N
terminal
single
B-‐
N
terminal
double
C-‐
S
terminal
single
D-‐
S
terminal
double
or
C
Answer:
N
terminals
single.
59.How
does
the
protein
enter
the
peroxisomes?
a)
Folded
with
the
help
of
C-‐terminal
b)
Unfolded
with
the
help
of
T-‐terminal
c)
Folded
with
the
help
of
T-‐terminal
d)
Unfolded
with
the
help
of
C-‐terminal
Answer:
D.
60.which
decrease
the
risk
of
some
cancers?
a)
Vit
D
b)
Fibers
c)
Salt
Answer:
Vitamin
D.
61.scenario
of
pt.
who
his
freind
pushed
him
from
behind,
what
is
the
ligament
that
prevent
overextension
of
hip?
Answer;
Iliofemoral
ligament
62.How
ectopic
pregnancy
occurs
at
the
cellular
level?
A.
early
Disappearance
of
zona
pellucida.
B.
Fertilization
at
ampulla
tube.
C.
Persistence
of
Zona
pellucida.
D.
Fast
division
of
blastomere
Answer:
A.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3276879/
63.which
Muscle
is
passing
through
the
lesser
sciatic
foramen?
Answer:
Obturator
internus
muscle.
64.CSF
is
circulating
in
which
space?
Answer:
Subarachnoid
space.
65.which
vitamin
help
in
absorbtion
of
non
heme
iron?
Answer:
Vitamin
C.
65.pt
with
vomiting
and
hyperventilation.
what
do
expect
to
find
in
him?
Answer:
vomiting
causes
metabolic
alkalosis,
hyperventilation
causes
respiratory
alkalosis.4
66.
What
is
usually
given
with
analgesics
to
reduce
side
effects?
Answer:
Metoclopramide
67.What
moves
the
molecules
in
cell
in
and
out
of
the
nucleous?
a.
ATP
cytoplasmic
b.
ATP
nuclear
c.
GTP
cytoplasmic
d.
GTP
nuclear
Answer:
A
68.about
action
or
Side
effects
of
atropine?
Answer:
These
include
palpitation,
dilated
pupils,
difficulty
in
swallowing,
hot
dry
skin,
thirst,
dizziness,
restlessness,
tremor,
fatigue
and
ataxia.
References:
https://www.rxlist.com/atropine-‐drug.htm
69.
what's
the
mechanism
of
insulin
resistance
in
obesity?
Answer:
Mitochondrial
Over
activation.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3936017/
70.Insulin
resistance
in
type
2
DM,
how
does
it
occur?
Answer:
Evidence
is
provided
showing
that
increased
plasma
FFA
levels
produce
insulin
resistance
dosage
dependently,
acutely,
and
chronically.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/11727400
71.what
forms
the
ankle
joint?
Answer:
Tibia,
Fibula
and
Talus
bones.
72.
the
blood
in
the
superficial
palmar
arch
is
low.
the
problem
in
which
artery?
Answer:
Ulnar
Artery.
73.pt
can't
move
her
hand.
where
is
the
problem?
A)
ant.
interossi
B)
or
post.
interossi
C)
or
theaner
Answer:
the
patient
is
presenting
with
Radial
nerve
injury
and
the
post.interosseous
nerve
supplies
the
post
compartment
of
the
forearm”
extension”
74.diabetic
pt
with
pain
when
she
tries
to
stretch
2nd
and
3rd
finger
(and
i
think
she
can't
move
her
hand).
there
was
pic
in
the
exam.
what's
the
Daignosis?
A)
diabetic
dactylitis
B)
dupturen
contracture
Answer:
Diabetic
Dactylitis.
75.pt
had
trauma
then
can't
flex
the
DIP.
where
is
the
lesion?
ANSWER:
Flexor
digitorm
profundus
injury.
“
in
PIP
immobility
the
FD
superficilias
is
injuried”
76.Action
of
Anterior
compartment
of
the
forearm
muscle
?
Answer:
In
general,
muscles
in
the
anterior
compartment
of
the
forearm
perform
flexion
at
the
wrist
and
fingers,
and
pronation.
References:
http://teachmeanatomy.info/upper-‐limb/muscles/anterior-‐forearm/
77.
pic
of
humerus
bone
fracture
with
weakness
in
wrist
extension,
which
nerve
is
injured?
Radial
nerve
injury.
78.pt
can't
extend
wrist
and
finger
,
nerve
injured?
Answer:
Radial
nerve.
79.Patientwith
trauma,
femoral/hip
fracture.
Left
leg
short
and
laterally
rotated.
What
muscle
is
responsible
for
lateral
rotation:
A-‐gluteus
maximus
B-‐rectus
femorus
C-‐gracilus
D-‐adductor
magnus
Answer:
a
The
lateral
rotators
are:
the
superior
gemellus,
inferior
gemellus,
obturator
externus,
obturator
internus,
quadratus
femoris,
gluteus
maximus
and
the
piriformis.
References:
Http://radiopaedia.org/articles/gluteal-‐muscles
80.pt
has
BP
of
160
over
something.
what's
the
cause?
A)
change
in
paroreceptor
sensitivity
B)
increase
peripheral
vascular
resistance
Answer:
B.
81.pt
in
shock.
what
will
happen?
a)
decrease
coronary
perfusion
b)
decrease
in
venous
capacitance
Answer:
insufficient
information.
83.
pt
with
erectile
dysfunction
and
taking
a
medication
for
that.
which
of
the
following
is
contracindicated
for
this
patient?
Answer:
nitrate
84.pt
with
hyperthyroidism
came
with
red
eye.
which
medication
can
cause
this?
Answer:
Propylthiouracil.
References:
https://www.drugs.com/sfx/propylthiouracil-‐side-‐effects.html
85.Blood
supply
to
AV
and
SA
node
in
the
heart
?
Answer:
Right
coronary
artery,
86.Hinge
joint?
87.Most
common
SE
of
atropine?
Most
common
side
effects
from
Rxlist.com.
● dry
mouth,
● blurred
vision,
● sensitivity
to
light,
● lack
of
sweating,
● dizziness,
● nausea,
● loss
of
balance,
● hypersensitivity
reactions
(such
as
skin
rash),
and
● rapid
heartbeat
(tachycardia).
88.
Inhaled
antiviral
works
by?
89.Bacteria
sexual
behaviour?
Answer:
Bacterial
conjugation.
90.Ribavirin
SE?
A)
anemia
B)
renal
damage
C)
Hepatic
damage.
Answer:
Haemolytic
anaemia;
haemolytic
anemia,
decreased
hemoglobin,
insomnia,
dyspnea,
lack
of
concentration,
emotional
lability,
and
irritability.
91.
Side
effects
of
Anti-‐TB.
-‐
Anti
TB,
causing
seizure:
isoniazid
-‐
Anti
TB,
causing
parasthesia
or
nerve
problem:
isoniazid
Rx:
pyrodixine.
-‐
Anti
TB,
causing
visual
problem:
ethambutol
-‐
Anti
TB,
causing
vertigo
or
ear
problem:
streptomycin
-‐
Anti
TB,
causing
red
urine:
rifampicin
92.
Thalidomide
SE
in
pregnancy?
Answer:
limb
defect.
References:
http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1002/bies.200900103/pdf
93.Anti
thyroid
causing
pancytopenia
(Agrnanulocytosis)?
Answer:
Propylthiouracil
and
methimazole
both
can
produce
thrombocytopenia.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/22049174
94.Anti
thyroid
used
in
pregnancy?
Answer:
Both
methimazole
(MMI)
and
propylthiouracil
(PTU)
may
be
used
during
pregnancy;
however,
PTU
is
preferred
in
the
first
trimester
and
should
be
replaced
by
MMI
after
this
trimester.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/21389085
95.Drug
contraindicated
in
glaucoma?
Antihistamines.
H2
receptor
agonists(cimetidine),
adrenergic
agonists.
Epinephrine,
ipratropium
bromide.
References:
https://www.reviewofoptometry.com/ce/meds-‐that-‐dont-‐mix-‐with-‐glaucoma-‐patients
96.
Drug
for
HTN
reduces
heart
rate
and
peripheral
resistance?
Answer:
Carvediolol;
is
a
beta-‐adrenergic
receptor
blocking
ability
decreases
the
heart
rate,
myocardial
contractility,
and
myocardial
oxygen
demand.
Carvedilol
also
decreases
systemic
vascular
resistance
via
its
alpha-‐adrenergic
receptor
blocking
properties.
97.Drug
for
HTN
reduced
preload
and
cause
vasodilatation?
Answer:
ACE’I,
References:
http://cvpharmacology.com/vasodilator/ACE
98.drug
associated
with
Hyperpigmentation?
Answer:
amiodarone.
99.
Orlistat
mechanism
of
action?
Answer:
Orlistat
works
by
inhibiting
gastric
and
pancreatic
lipases,
the
enzymes
that
break
down
triglycerides
in
the
intestine.
When
lipase
activity
is
blocked,
triglycerides
from
the
diet
are
not
hydrolyzed
into
absorbable
free
fatty
acids,
and
instead
are
excreted
unchanged.
Recently
it
was
found
to
inhibit
the
thioesterase
domain
of
fatty
acid
synthase.
References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Orlistat#Mechanism_of_action
100.Aspirin
SE?
Answers:
frequently
reported
side
effects
include:
dyspepsia,
epigastric
distress,
heartburn,
and
nausea.
References:
https://www.drugs.com/sfx/aspirin-‐side-‐effects.html
KHALID
ALOMAR
-‐
Aspirin
in
kids?
(fulminant
hepatitis
and
cerebral
edema)?
Answer:
Reye
syndrome
-‐
Post
menopausal
hormonal
therapy
SE?
Answer:
breast
cancer
-‐
Bisphosphonate
inhibits
osteoclast
activity?
Answer:
alendronate
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alendronic_acid
-‐
Bisphosphonate
works
by
ADP?
Answer:
clodronate,
etidronate
and
tiludronate
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bisphosphonate#Mechanism_of_action
-‐
Med
for
osteoprosis
causes
heartburn?
Answer:
risedronate
Reference:
http://reference.medscape.com/drug/actonel-‐risedronate-‐342835#4
-‐Drug
for
asthma
decreases
secretion
more
than
bronchodilatation?
Answer:
ipratropium
bromide
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ipratropium_bromide
-‐
Hg
F
inducer?
a-‐
hydroxyurea,
b-‐
Na
butyrate,
c-‐
decitibine
d-‐
5-‐azacytidine
Answer:
A
drug
that
cause
vertical
and
horizontal
nystagmus?
Answer:
phencyclidine
Reference:
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/phencyclidine-‐pcp-‐intoxication-‐inadults?
source=search_result&search=Phencyclidine&selectedTitle=1~62
Perinoeal
artery?
branch
from
post.
Tibial
artery,
a
branch
from
popliteal
artery
Answer:
??
Perineal
artery
is
a
branch
from
internal
pudendal
artery
which
is
a
branch
from
internal
iliac
artery.
-‐
facial
veins
(via
the
superior
and
inferior
ophthalmic
veins)
as
well
as
the
sphenoid
and
middle
cerebral
veins.
They,
in
turn,
empty
into
the
inferior
petrosal
sinuses,
then
into
the
internal
jugular
veins
and
the
sigmoid
sinuses
via
the
superior
petrosal
sinuses
Answer:
??
-‐
Radial
pulse:
Answer:
lateral
to
flexor
carpi
radialis
-‐
Fingers
adduction:
Answer:
deep
ulner
nerve
-‐
Fibger
abduction:
Answer:
deep
radial
nerve
-‐
Fingers
adductors:
Answer:
palmar
interosseous
-‐
finger
abductors:
Answer:
dorsal
interosseous
-‐
Blood
supply
of
hand:
Answer:
superficial
arch;
ulnar
mainly
+
radial.
Deep
arch;
radial
mainly
+
ulnar
-‐
Pain
during
hand
typing:
decrease
blood
in
ulnar
artery
"carpal
tunnel
syndrome;
median
Nerve"
Answer:
median
nerve
-‐
Nail
fold
area
supplied
by:
answer:
median
N
-‐
Blood
of
distal
palmar
aspect:
Answer:
proper
palmar
digital
artery,
from
common
palmar
digital
artery.
A
-‐
Pronator
teres
syndrome:
Answer:
median
N
-‐
Can't
flex
distal
phalanx:
Answer:
rupture
profundus
tendon
-‐
Pain
with
rising
arm
and
numbness
in
ulnar
distribution:
Answer:
thoracic
outlet
syndrome
-‐
Falling
on
outstretched
hand:
Answer:
colle's
fracture
-‐
Hip
and
knee
flexion:
Answer:
sartorius
muscle
-‐
Gluteal
artery
branch
from
Answer:
internal
iliac
-‐
Obturator
nerve:
Answer:
Adductor
longus
supplies
all
adductors;
adductor
longus,
brevis,
gracilis
..
etc
+
sensation
in
medial
aspect
of
thigh
-‐
Internal
iliac
artery:
Answer:
Bladder?.
gives
the
inferior
and
superior
gluteal
artery
to
gluteus
muscles,
and
obturator
artery
to
adductor
groups.
Otherwise,
other
muscles
in
the
lower
limb
from
the
femoral
artery
-‐
Strongest
hip
ligament:
Answer:
iliofemoral
-‐
Patient
after
MVA,
walking
bending
to
unaffected
side
(positive
trendelburg
test):
Answer:
injury
to
sup.
Gluteal
nerve
which
supplies
gluteus
medius
and
minimums
-‐
Post.
Compartment
of
leg
BV:
Answer:
posterior
tibial
artery
-‐
Ant.
Compartment
of
leg
BV:
Answer:
anterior
tibial
artery.
-‐
Posterior
leg
compartment:
Answer:
tibial
N
-‐
Anterior
leg
compartment:
Answer:
common
peroneal
which
gives
deep
perpneal
-‐
Foot
Dorsal
flexion:
Answer:
tibial
muscle
-‐
Foot
Plantar
flexion
"standing
on
toe":
Answer:
plantaris
-‐
Patient
can't
planter
flex
his
foot
after
injury:
Answer:
calcaneal
tendon
rupture
"achilles
tendon"
-‐
Football
player
cant'
extend
big
toe:
Answwer:
deep
muscle
under
foot
(turf
toe)
-‐
Fibular
head
fracture:
Answer:
common
peroneal
nerve;
drop
of
foot
-‐
First
thing
to
be
injured
in
palmar
foot:
Answer:
abductor
hallucis
longus
M
-‐
Flat
foot:
problem
with
tibialis
posterior
tendon
-‐
Tongue
muscle:
originates
from
occipital
Answer:
Mandible,
hyoid
bone,
styloid
process
of
temporal
bone.
-‐
3rd
layer
of
skull:
Answer:
aponeurosis
Reference:
Medscape.
-‐
Compression
on
maxillary
artery:
Answer:
sphenopalatine
artery
affected
-‐
Thyroid
fascia:
Answer:
pretrachial
fascia,
part
from
deep
cervical
fascia
-‐
Accessory
nerve:
Answer:
in
post.
Triangle
-‐
LP
puncture:
Answer:
injury
to
ligamentum
flavum
-‐
triangle
between
hyoid
bone
and
two
ant.
Belly
of
digastric:
Answer:
submental
-‐
External
laryngeal
nerve:
supply
cricothyroid
muscle
-‐-‐>
adduct
cord
to
phone
the
voice
Answer:
supply
cricothyroid
muscle
-‐
Loss
of
smell
sensation;
Answer:
temporal
lobe
-‐
Facial
N
injury
Answer:
proximal
to
greater
petrosal
nerve
(Q
from
SMLE13:
Loss
of
taste
sensation
of
the
anterior
2/3
of
the
one
side
of
the
tongue
and
decreased
hearing
on
the
ear
on
the
same
side)
-‐
Loss
of
sensation
in:
lower
eyelid,
maxilla,
zygomatic
areas
-‐-‐>
maxillary
N
injury
which
give
inferior
orbital
N
Answer:
inferior
orbital
N
-‐
Foramen
between
3rd
and
4th
ventricle:
Answer:
aqueduct
of
sylvius
-‐
Upper
and
lower
lips
LN
drainage:
submandibular
Answer:
submental
and
submandibular
-‐
LN
of
middle
of
face:
Answer:
submandibular
-‐
LN
of
lateral
side,
includes
lateral
side
of
eyelid
and
eyebrow:
Answer:
parotid
gland
-‐
Tip
of
the
tongue
and
center
of
the
lips:
Answer:
submental
Reference:
http://teachmeanatomy.info/neck/vessels/lymphatics/
-‐
Follicular
cell
of
ovary:
Answer:
cortical
cord
References:
Reference:
Langman’s
Medical
Embryology
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sex_cords
-‐
Phrenic
nerve
injury:
increase
heart
rate
Answer:
phrenic
nerve
injury
causes
hiccups
problem
and
difficulty
breathing.
-‐
Cardiac
notch:
Answer:
4th
rib
-‐
Injury
in
forth
intercostal
space:
Answer:
horizontal
fissure
-‐
Thoracocentesis:
between
posterior
axillary
line
and
midline
;
between
7
and
9
intercostal
Answer:
between
7th
and
9th
intercostal
space
and
posterior
and
mid
axillary
line.
Reference:
Medscape.
-‐
Needle
thoracostomy:
Answer:
2nd
intercostal,
mid
axillary
line
-‐
Chest
tube:
Answer:
4th
intercostal,
anterior
axillary
line
-‐
Adrenalectomy:
Answer:
right
side
will
injure
IVC,
left
side
will
injure
the
pancreas
-‐
Internal
iliac
artery
injury:
Answer:
bladder
is
affected
-‐
Best
x-‐ray
for
rib:
Answer:
oblique
view
-‐
Meckel's
diverticulum:
Answer:
in
lower
ilium
-‐
Crohn:
Answer:
distal
ilium
-‐
UC:
Answer:
rectum
-‐
Celiac:
Answer:
proximal
small
intestine
-‐
Appendicitis
histopathology:
Answer:
neutrophils
in
muscularis
layer
-‐
Tenia
coli:
Answer:
in
muscularis
externa
layer
-‐
H.
Pylori:
Answer:
stimulate
gastrin
cell
-‐
Intrinsic
factor
for
vit
B12:
Answer:
from
parietal
cell
-‐
in
pt
with
congested
neck
vein
and
tumor
(SVC
syndrome):
in
middle
mediastinum
Answer:
could
be
superior
or
middle
mediastinum.
-‐
Sugar
pentose:
Answer:
arabinose
-‐
Melanin
pigment:
corticotrope
Answer:
Corticotrophs
mainly
secrete
melanocyte-‐stimulating
hormone.
Melanocytes
secrete
melanin.
-‐
Rhesus
autoimmunity
in
pregnancy:
Answer:
hypersensitivity
type
2
-‐
phosphoenolpyruvate
to
pyruvate
and
generation
of
ATP:
Answer:
by
pyruvate
kinase
-‐
From
pyruvate
to
lactic
acid:
Answer:
lactic
dehydrogenase
-‐
Accumulation
of
lactic
acid:
Answer:
pyruvate
carboxylase
deficiency
-‐
Phenylketonuria:
Answer:
phenylalanine
hydroxylase
deficiency
-‐
Strongest
layer
of
vein:
answer:
adventitia
-‐
Juxtaglomerular
apparatus
origin:
Answer:
macula
densa
cell.
-‐
Alveoli
part
contacting
blood:
Answer:
saccular
phase.
-‐
Phase
of
alvuloendothelium
part
get
matured:
Answer:
canalicular
phase
-‐Amyotrophic
lateral
sclerosis:
Answer:
anterior
Horn
-‐
Minimal
change
glomerulonephritis:
Answer:
Light
micro:
normal,
electron:
fusion
of
foot
process
-‐
Hepatic
cell
secrete
extra
matrix
component:
Answer:
stellate
cell
-‐
Ever
smoker:
Answer:
100
sig
per
life
-‐
Biopsychological
therapy:
Answer:
Holistic.
-‐
Wild
mushroom:
Answer:
inhibits
RNA
polymerase
II
-‐
X
fragile
syndrome:
Answer:
macrogonadism
-‐
Comes
with
turner:
Answer:
hypothyroidism
-‐
Vit
C
def
affect
which
stage
of
wound
healing:
Answer:
collagen
synthesis
or
proliferative
stage.
Reference:
http://www.surgerysupplements.com/the-‐role-‐of-‐vitamin-‐c-‐in-‐wound-‐healing/
-‐
of
embriology
i
cant
remember
(failure
of
spiral
)
??
Answer:
Transposition
of
great
vessels
Which
of
the
following
results
from
malrotation
of
septum,
truncus
arteriosus?
Answer:
Transposition
of
great
vessels
Protein
after
transfer
sequence
what
is
the
last
destination
??
Answer:
endoplasmic
reticulum
an
athlete
came
with
xanthametaous
lesion
on
his
Achilles'
tendon,
otherwise
normal,
Genetic
defect
on
which
of
the
following
Answer:
LDL
receptors
✔
pt
heared
about
incretin
on
TV
and
wishes
to
know
more
about
its
action
Answer:
increases
insulin
secretion
a
pt
with
muscle
weakness,
apart
from
hypotension
and
bradycardia,
his
examination
was
normal,
His
lab
tests
(
high
K+,
low
NA,
low
Chloride,
high
urea)
What
is
the
etiology
behind
his
presentation?
a-‐
hyponatremia
b-‐
hyperkalemia
c-‐
low
chloride
d-‐
uremia
Answer:
b
pt
after
a
surgery
in
the
posterior
triangle
of
neck,
developed
loss
of
sensation
on
the
skin
of
lower
mandible
and
Lower
part
of
the
ear,
Nerve
injured
is
Answer:
Great
Auricular
nerve.
clear
case
of
Carpal
tunnel
syndrome,
the
pt
is
a
typist
working
on
computer,
nerve
affected?
Answer:
Median
nerve✔
During
a
surgery
in
the
diaphragm,
Phrenic
nerve
is
dissected
at
which
level
Answer:
anterior
to
sclaneous
anterior
muscle
non
athlete
forcefully
planter
flexed
his
foot
and
heard
a
click
sound
on
his
leg
,
What
tendon
affected?
Answer:
calceneal
tendon
The
effect
of
anti
TB
drugs
on
the
eye
is
one
of
the
following:
a-‐
bacterial
conjunctivitis
b-‐
viral
conjunctivitis
c-‐
glaucoma
d-‐
uveitis
Answer:
d
an
RTA
victim
was
brought
to
hospital
with
multiple
injuries,
transferred
to
ICU.
There,
he
developed
multi
organ
failure,
The
phosphate
level
in
his
blood
is
raised,
what
is
the
cause
of
his
multi
organ
failure?
a-‐
heart
b-‐
lungs
c-‐
kidneys
d-‐
liver
Answer:
a
the
transmission
of
maternal
antibodies
to
the
fetus
in
pregnancy
is
a
way
of
a-‐
active
artificial
Immunity
b-‐
passive
artificial
immunity
c-‐
passive
natural
immunity
d-‐
active
natural
immunity
Answer:
c
clear
case
of
atopic
pt
e
allergic
rhinitis,
symptoms
and
signs
were
given,
then
asked
about
the
cells
responsible
for
his
allergy
a-‐
monocyte
b-‐
macrophage
c-‐
mast
cells
d-‐
neutrophils
Answer:
c
lymphatic
drainage
of
teste
Answer:
para
aortic
LN
75.pt
had
trauma
then
can't
flex
the
DIP.
where
is
the
lesion?
ANSWER:
Flexor
digitorm
profundus
injury.
“
in
PIP
immobility
the
FD
superficilias
is
injuried”
76.Action
of
Anterior
compartment
of
the
forearm
muscle
?
Answer:
In
general,
muscles
in
the
anterior
compartment
of
the
forearm
perform
flexion
at
the
wrist
and
fingers,
and
pronation.
References:
http://teachmeanatomy.info/upper-‐limb/muscles/anterior-‐forearm/
77.
pic
of
humerus
bone
fracture
with
weakness
in
wrist
extension,
which
nerve
is
injured?
Radial
nerve
injury.
Q.
A
woman
e
Ca
cervix,
e
mets
beyond
uterus
and
cervix,
1st
group
of
LN
receiving
the
lymphatic
drainage
is:
a-‐
uterine
b-‐
external
iliac
c-‐
common
iliac
d-‐
para
aortic
Answer:
a
(para
uterine
-‐>
obturator
-‐>
internal
iliac
-‐>
common
iliac
-‐>
external
iliac
-‐>
para
aortic)
References:
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/invasive-‐cervical-‐cancer-‐epidemiology-‐risk-‐
factors-‐clinical-‐manifestations-‐and-‐
diagnosis?source=see_link§ionName=ROUTES%20OF%20SPREAD&anchor=H1087317#H108731
7
-‐ Flouroquinolones
mode
of
action:
Answer:
DNA
gyrase
inhibitors
Typical
scenario
of
Acute
appendicitis,
(periumbilical
pain
radiating
to
RIF,
pt
has
aneroxia,
nausea
and
fever,
what
is
the
pathophysiology
?
Answer:
Appendiceal
obstruction
Side
effect
of
morphine
is
Answer:
nausea
and
vomiting
What
is
the
most
common
part
of
urethra
could
be
injured
during
catheterization
?
a-‐
Membranous
urethra
b-‐
Prostatic
urethra
c-‐
Penile
urethra
Answer:
a
Baby
,
during
delivery
,
there
was
stylomastoid
foramen
trauma
,
what
features
will
be
during
exams:
a-‐
loss
of
eye
close
b-‐
Loss
of
facial
sensation
c-‐
Loss
of
mastication
function
Answer:
a
Q.
Which
of
the
following
integrates
glucose
and
fatty
acid
metabolism
?
a-‐
pyruvate
b-‐
Citrate
c-‐
Carboxylase
Answer:
??
acetyl-‐CoA.
References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Acetyl-‐CoA
https://www.docsity.com/en/answers/biochemistry/which-‐following-‐metabolite-‐grates-‐glucose-‐
fatty-‐metabolism/193124/
patient
with
CAD
,
prescribe
for
her
drug
lower
lipid
.
Present
with
facial
flush
,
what
is
the
drug
?
a-‐
statin
b-‐
Nicain
c-‐
Fibrate
Answer:
b
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Niacin
pt
on
antithyroid
meds,
then
developed
fever.
What
does
he
use?
Answer:
Methimazol
How
to
exclude
fictitious
fever?
a
-‐Blood
culture
b
-‐Urine
analysis
c
-‐Heart
rate
d
-‐Rheumatoid
factor
Answer:
c
pt
with
Carpopedal
spasm?
Answer:
low
ca
Good
healing?
Answer:
epithelium
covering
-‐Metformin
MOA?
Answer:
decrease
liver
glucose
production
-‐PTU
MOA?
Answer:
block
release
of
thyroid
hormones
Drop
foot
&
loss
of
sensation
in
1st
&
2nd
digit.
which
nerve
is
responsible?
Answer:
Deep
pernoneal
nerve
pt
with
End
Stage
Liver
Disease
and
yeast.
Which
antifungal
you
should
use?
a-‐
fluconazole
b-‐
capsufungin
Answer:
b
Reference:
http://www.medscape.com/viewarticle/775172_4
Overlflow
incontinance
Rx
Moa?
Answer:
activate
muscarinic
receptors
(muscarinic
agonist
)
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Overflow_incontinence
which
one
will
protect
aganst
dental
carries?
Answer:
Fluride
supplmenets
which
is
true
about
Parkinson
case?
Answer:
low
dopamine
which
is
true
about
case
of
Parkinson
Answer:
problem
in
substantia
nigra
how
Ocp
prevents
pregnancy?
a-‐
Relase
estrogen
that
prevent
ovulation
c-‐
relase
prolactin
that
prevent
ovulation
d-‐
Stop
spermatozoa
and
i
increase
thickness
of
cervical
mucosa
Answer:
a
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Combined_oral_contraceptive_pill
Hormone
replacement
therapy?
Answer:
increase
risk
of
endometrial
ca
Pt
got
numbness
and
electrical
like
pain
of
the
left
foot
up
to
knee
,
so
at
which
level
is
the
disc?
Answer:
L3-‐L4
Gout
meds
MOA:
Answer:
-‐Allopurinol
+
febuxostat
=
xanthine
oxidase
inhibitor
-‐pegloticase
=
recom.
uricase
that
catalyzes
uric
acid
to
a
more
water
sol.
Matter
-‐probenecid:
inhibits
reabsorption
in
pct,
but
can
lead
to
uric
acid
stones
-‐colchicine
=
microtubule
polymerization
inhibitor
MVA
injury
to
jugular
Forman
which
muscle
will
be
still
functioning
?
a-‐sternoclecomastiod
b-‐sternoglossal
c-‐sternpphygenas
d-‐trapazius
Answer:
b
Styloglossus
Q.
You
gave
a
patient
a
drug
and
ask
him
to
come
back
to
check
PT
and
INR
what
was
the
drug
?
a-‐Asprin
b-‐Warfarin
c-‐enxoparin
d-‐UF
heparin
Answer:
b
MOA
of
emergency
contraceptives?
a-‐
delay
fertilization
b-‐
delay
implantation
Answer:
a
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Emergency_contraception
-‐
Which
one
of
the
following
GIT
cell
secret
defensins:
a-‐paratial
cell
b-‐chief
cell
c-‐paneth
cell
d-‐plasma
cell
Answer:
c
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4073591/
type
of
wrist
joint?
a-‐PIVOT
b-‐HINGE
Answer:
ellipsoid
(condyloid).
BRUNNER's
gland
location?
Answer:
submucosal
duodenum
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brunner%27s_glands
anti
diabetic
medication
working
through
activation
enzyme
AMP
protein
kinase?
A-‐glipizide
(sulfonylurea)
B-‐tolbutamide
C-‐pioglitazone
D-‐biguanide
or
metformin
Answer:
d
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metformin
loss
of
sensation
of
posterior
&
anterior
aspect
of
the
hand
;
which
never
is
affected?
a-‐
radial
b-‐
Medial
c-‐
Ulnar
d-‐
Axillary
Answer:
d
Loss
sensation
of
the
little
&
ring
finger
which
nerve
is
affected?
a-‐
radial
b-‐
Medial
c-‐
Ulnar
c-‐
Axillary
Answer:
c
Q
about
OCP
and
side
effects
of
dry
skin,
muscle
spasm
,
and
depression?
a-‐
hypothyroidism
b-‐
Hyperkalemia
c-‐
Hypocalcemia
Answer:
a
Q.
which
contraceptive
has
a
side
effect
of
increasing
facial
hair
and
causing
(i
guess
acne?)?
Answer:
no
choices.
Co-‐receptor
of
HIV
?
Answer:
CXCR4
To
collect
blood
sample
we
need
how
much
blood
for
one
sample?
a-‐
3-‐5
ml
b-‐
8-‐
10
ml
Answer:??
Differ
according
to
the
test
and
the
age
of
the
patient.
What’s
minimum
volume
of
blood
to
do
a
culture:
10_20
ml
Answer:
??
5
ml
for
adult,
1
ml
for
for
pediatric.
References:
http://d2xk4h2me8pjt2.cloudfront.net/webjc/attachments/71/6e4b1cf-‐blood-‐culture-‐
collection-‐and-‐volume-‐huddle-‐tool.pdf.
https://www.slideshare.net/doctorrao/role-‐of-‐specimen-‐collection-‐in-‐microbiology
vit
c
difeciency
which
affected
in
stages
of
wound
healing?
Answer:
Collagen
synthesis
case
scenario
regarding
patient
known
case
of
epilepsy,
he
take
anti-‐epileptic
drug
for
long
time
and
now
he
complain
of
increased
hair
in
his
body
and
gum
bleeding,
what
do
you
think
of
the
following
medication
he
is
on?
Answer:
phenytoin
CD40L
defect?
Answer:
hyper
IgM
syndrome
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hyper_IgM_syndrome
Blouting
and
gases
after
eating
ice
cream
and
dairy
product.
Enzyme
deficint?
a-‐
Lastase
b-‐
Pancreatic
alpha
amylase
c-‐
Sacrase
d-‐
Isomaltose
Answer:
lactase
Dideoxynucletide,
used
in
what
?
a-‐
PCR
b-‐
Western
blot
c-‐
DNA
sequencing
d-‐Southern
blot
Answer:
c
Which
one
of
the
following
follows
a
mendellian
inheritance?
Answer:
Thalassemia
What
will
increase
in
ancylostoma
duodenale
?
Answer:
eosinophils
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/218805-‐workup
scenario
of
mother
how
had
a
previous
pregnancy
with
down
syndrome
and
I
think
it
asked
about
why
or
how
it
happen?
Answer:
nondisjunction
loss
of
sensation
over
shoulder
which
part
of
pleura
will
be
affected?
a.
Mediastinal
b.
Pleural
c.
Vesceral
Answer:
a
Why
aspirin
causes
hypererythema
?
Answer:
no
choices
example
of
hinge
joint?
Answer:
elbow
example
of
Condyloid
joint?
Answer:
wrist
type
of
joint
between
vertbra?
Answer:
Cartilaginous
joint
which
layer
of
scalp
contain
bv
and
nerves?
Answer:
no
choices.
2nd
layer,
connective
tissue=
superficial
fascia.
Case
scenario
with
Lactic
acidosis
and
Hyperalinen.
Multivitamin
B
was
given
with
no
response:
What
to
give:
a.
Thiamin
b.
Pyruvate
kinase
c.
Pyruvate
dehydrogenase
d.
Pyruvate
carboxylase
Answer:
d
Which
one
of
the
following
is
associated
with
malignancy?
a.
Streptococcus
bovis
b.
Staph
aureus
c.
Pseudomonas
Answer:
A
References:
https://www.hindawi.com/journals/ijmicro/2011/792019/
Q.
Male
got
bee
sting
and
his
wife
is
searching
for
epinephrine
pin.
What
is
the
mechanism
of
action
of
this
drug
(No
mast
cell
or
histamin
in
the
options):
Answer:
no
choices.
Cross
reactivity
with
the
cardiac?
Q.
Scenario
of
a
patient
whose
thirsty
with
low
urine
output
because
of
ADH
secretion.
(They
attached
a
picture
of
a
nephrons
with
number
labels
on
each
segment
and
asked
to
choose
which
area
does
ADH
work
on).
Answer
is
collecting
duct
(which
was
labeled
by
number
5
in
the
picture)
What
is
the
first
immune
responsible
agent
in
the
skin?
Answer:
Keratinocyte
loss
of
adduction
of
the
fingers
which
nerve
injury:
a-‐
ulner
b-‐
Radial.
c-‐
Median
d-‐
Axillary.
Answer:
a
contracting
muscle
compared
to
relaxing
muscle:
a-‐
more
pyruvate
converted
to
lactate.
b-‐
Answer:
a
which
enzyme
deficiency
will
result
in
converting
pyruvate
to
lactate:
A)
Pyruvate
kinase.
B)
pyruvate
carboxylase.
C)
Pyruvate
dehydrogenase
Answer:
b
the
maximum
accepted
level
of
LDL
in
mmol/l?
Answer:
4.12
patient
can
not
extend
his
leg
at
knee
joint
which
muscle
responsible
?
a-‐
sarturius
mucsle
b-‐
quadricbles
c-‐
biscepts
femoris
Answe:
b
posterior
triangle
trauma,
pt
complain
of
hearing
loss
which
nerve
is
affected:
a-‐
greater
occipital
b-‐
lesser
occipital
c-‐
great
auricular
Answer:
??
OCP
work
by
increase:
a-‐estrogen
,
b-‐progesterone,
c-‐FSH
d-‐LH
Answer:
most
likely
b.
Inhibition
of
which
of
the
following
is
the
primary
action
of
oral
contraceptives?
A-‐Spermatozoa
and
thickening
cervial
mucous
B-‐Implantation
C-‐
Gondatropic
hormone
release
and
ovulation
Answer:
C
pt
on
opioid,
contraindication
with
these
drug
is?
a-‐NSAID
b-‐aspirin
c-‐laxative
d-‐coxen...
Answer:
?
Patient
with
dm,
which
one
of
the
following
is
contraindicated?
a-‐
losartan
b-‐
Nifedipine
c-‐
Hydrazine
Answer:
c?
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hydrazine_sulfate
How
heparin
in
high
dose
cause
hyperthermia
a-‐
inc
metabolism
b-‐
uncupling
oxidation
phosphrylation
c-‐
Increase
liver
metabolism
d-‐
Increase
energy
Answer:
b?
contraindicated
hypoglycemic
drug
in
diabetic
patient
with
heart
disease?
a-‐
pioglitazone
b-‐
sitagliptin
Answer:
a?
Reference:
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/drugs-‐that-‐should-‐be-‐avoided-‐or-‐used-‐with-‐
caution-‐in-‐patients-‐with-‐heart-‐failure
https://www.medscape.com/viewarticle/579822_2?pa=9SK0rtUK%2BCkGjM0fP6yZGm5ZplE3h%2Bx
vCZ7C5bPWTGIqqtp5ScqVT7b0XmUJeZrIs7CF3wx2Tu1U792SxywYLg%3D%3D
https://www.ptcommunity.com/news/20170422/sitagliptin-‐januvia-‐linked-‐increase-‐heart-‐failure-‐
hospitalizations
case
scenario
about
patient
after
dental
extraction
c/o
of
loss
of
sensation
below
the
eye
and
upper
lip
,
I
think
also
cheek
which
nerve
was
injured
?
Answer:
infraorbital
which
medication
decrease
the
effect
of
OCPs?
Answer:
anti
epileptic
case
scenario
about
patient
with
basal
skull
fracture
what
expected
nerve
injury?
a-‐
Olfactory
b-‐
optic
C-‐
oculomotor
Answer:
a
type
of
hip
joint?
Answer:
ball
and
socket
joint
case
scenario
regarding
breast
mass
and
asking
about
which
lymph
node
must
be
assist
first?
a-‐
anterior
axillary
lymph
node
b-‐
posterior
c-‐
medial
d-‐
lateral
Answer:
a
child
present
with
malaise,
history
of
meningitis
last
week
treated
with
iv
ab.
Lab
:
hb:
low
Rbc:
low
What
antibiotic
he
used
?
a-‐
chloramphinicol
b-‐
Erythromycin
Answer:
a
Hepatotoxic
alzehaimer
drug?
Answer:
Tacrine
Differentiate
between
types
of
gram
positive?
with
catalase
Answer:?
Forceps
delivery,
Truma
behind
ear,
What
happen
to
him?
a-‐loss
sensation
b-‐hearing
loss
Answer:
?
facial
nerve
Role
of
metformin
in
PCOS?
Answer:
reduces
insulin
resistance.
pt
complain
recurrent
renal
stone
on
htn
medication
to
reduced
calcium
excretion
and
cause
gout?
a-‐Hydrochlorithiazide
b-‐fursemide
Answer:
a
main
lateral
rotator
muscle
of
hip?
Answer:
Gluteus
maximus
Patient
k/c
of
HF
&
schizophrenia
on
medication
,came
with
brownish
discoloration
in
retina
&
brown
vision..
what's
the
drug
?
Answer:
Thioridazine
*
Chlorpromazine—(C)orneal
deposits;
*
Thioridazine—re(T)inal
deposits
Qs
about
alternative
cell
reservoir
for
HIV?
a-‐CD8
b-‐Monocyte-‐Macrophage
Answer:
b
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4947377/
Latency
period
in
HIV,
cell
responsible?
Answer:
CD4
Cells
Reference:
http://www.canfar.com/news/stages-‐hiv-‐infection
rRNA
in
which
cell
?
a-‐Basophils
b-‐Monocyte
Answer:
a?
injury
in
the
sole
,1st
structure
injured?
Answer:
Abdactor
hallusis
longus
side
effect
of
amitryptaline?
a-‐Dystonia
b-‐Diarrhea
Answer:
a
typical
scenario
of
mysthenia
Gravis
(fatigabality
and
weakness
worsen
at
the
end
of
the
day,What
is
the
pathophysiology?
a-‐
viral
b-‐bacteria
c-‐drug
induced
d-‐Autoimmune
Answer:
d.
another
scenario
about
Mysthenia
graves,Part
affected?
Answer:
Acetylcholine
receptors
a
physician
wants
to
decrease
the
recurrence
of
UTI,
Best
measure
is
?
Answer:
(decrease
PH
,
increase
urea
and
increase
urine
osmolarity)
relation
of
saphinous
vien
to
mallelus?
Answer:
anteromedial
Function
of
anterior
compartment
of
forearm
muscles
?
a-‐
flexion
of
elbow
b-‐
extension
of
elbow
c-‐
flexion
of
hand
and
wrest
d-‐
extension
of
hand
and
wrest
Answer:
c
A
case
of
GERD
used
antacid
which
caused
constipation
a-‐Calcium
carbonate
b-‐Aluminum
hydroxide
c-‐Magnesium
hydroxide
Answer:
b
Patient
presented
to
er
with
agitation,
poor
hygiene
and
suspicions
er
dr
referred
him
to
psychiatry
what's
the
dx
a-‐Acute
confusional
state
b-‐Schizophrenia
c-‐Psychosis
Answer:
b?
Patient
with
increase
ICP
what
nerve
would
u
examine
before
the
CT
scan?
a-‐II
b-‐III
c-‐IV
d-‐X
Answer:
a
Patient
on
TB
medication
developed
numbness,
what
would
u
give
him?
Answer:
Vitamin
B6
(pyridoxine)
adult
male
had
an
accident
to
the
lateral
side
of
his
fibula,
next
day
the
patient
is
complaining
of
drop
of
his
foot
and
no
inversion,
diagnosis?
a-‐
deep
peronial
injury
b-‐
common
peronial
injury
Answer:
if
no
eversion
the
answer
is
b.
Which
one
of
the
following
drugs
causes
Vertigo?
a-‐Streptomycin
b-‐INH
c-‐Ethambutol
Answer:
a
Gout,
which
of
the
following
will
be
inhibited
by
the
drug
you
will
give?
a-‐Xanthine
oxidase
b-‐PRPP
Answer:
a
Which
of
the
cells
is
responsible
for
tissue
destruction
in
IBD?
a.B
lymphocytes
b.T
lymphocytes
c.
NK
cells
Answer:
b
Virulence
factor
of
streptococcus
?
a-‐M-‐
protein
b-‐Capsule
c-‐Endotoxin
or
exotoxin
d-‐phosphatase
Answer:
a.
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virulence_factor
What
is
the
mechanism
of
diarrhea?
a-‐Decrease
fluid
intake
b-‐Decrease
fluid
absorption
c-‐Increase
fluid
intake
d-‐Increase
fluid
absorption
Answer:
b
Embryo
origin
of
right
atrium
?
(no
options)
Answer:
Rt
sinus
veinous
Strongest
part
of
vein
(no
options)
Answer:
Tunica
adventitia
Relation
of
femiral
vein
to
artery
(no
options)
Answer:
Medial
-‐Nerve
injury
with
humerus
fracture
(no
options)
Answer:
Radial
N
Ligament
pass
through
inguinal
canal
a-‐Round
b-‐Broad
Answer:
a
When
you
examine
superior
inguinal
LN
You
should
examine
?
Answer:
anal
canal
Enlarge
medial
group
of
horzintal
-‐inguinal
lymphnode
(
superficial).
What
you
will
check
1st?
Answer:
no
choices.
garlic
odor
organism?
a)
Anal
canal
b)
Muscle
of
thigh
c)
Muscle
of
leg
Answer:
??
a
man
after
MVA
,
can
not
raise
his
arm
above
horizontal
plane
and
has
winging
scapula
.
Localise
the
injury
in
the
brachial
plexus?
a-‐
roots
b-‐
Posterior
cord
c-‐
Lateral
plexus
d-‐
Medial
Answer:
a
What
is
the
enzyme
used
glycolysis?
a-‐
pyrovate
kinase
b-‐
Pyrovate
carboxylate
c-‐
Glucose
phosphatase
Answer:
a
Nerve
responsible
for
posterior
compartment
of
the
leg?
a.
Sciatic
nerve
b.
Tibial
nerve
c.
Fibular
nerve
Answer:
b
Loss
of
forehead
muscle
action
what
is
the
nerve?
Answer:
Fascial
nerve
Loss
of
gag
reflex
but
normal
uvula:
a.
glossopharyngeal
b.
Vegas
Answer:
a
Pt
had
occipitofrontalis
paralysis
which
branch
of
facial
nerve
is
affected?
a.
Temporal
b.
Buccal
Answer:
a
Known
asthma
has
whitish
rash
easly
removed
in
mouth
.
which
antiasmatic
cuse
this?
a)
Cromolyn
sodium
b)
Betamethasone
c)
Albutmerol
Answer:
b
carpal
tunnel
syndrome
,
can’t
move
his
fingers
.
what
is
affected
muscle?
a-‐
palmar
interosssi
b-‐
thenar
muscle
Answer:
b
Closed
humerou
fracture
with
hand
drop
.
what
is
the
type
of
nerve
injury?
a-‐
neuromatosis
b-‐
neuropraxia
c-‐
axonotmesis
d-‐
avulsion
of
radial
nerve
Answer:
b
Eldery
has
bed
sore
that
invade
through
the
muscles
,
what
is
the
stage?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Answer:
d
Female
taking
paracetamol
500mg
bid
daily
presented
with
liver
enzymes
elevated
and
hepatomegaly
*
a-‐
alpha
1
antitrypsin
deficiency
b-‐
liver
damage
due
to
paracetamol
c-‐
hepatitis
d-‐
Glutathione
depletion
Answer:
d
nerve
supply
of
calf
muscle?
a-‐*
tibial
nerve
b-‐*
Femoral
Answer:
a
Which
nerve
supplies
biggest
part
of
the
tongue
and
covers
it
the
most
?
A
-‐
trigeminal
B
-‐
vagus
C
-‐glossopharyngeal
Answer
:
A
which
of
these
components
is
acidophilic
a-‐corticotrophic
b-‐trophoyrophic
c-‐lactotrophic
d-‐gonadotrophic
Answer:
c?
Acidophil:
one
of
the
hormone
-‐
producing
acidophilic
cells
of
the
adenohypophysis;
type
include
corticotrophic,
lactotrophic,
lipotrophs,
and
somatotrophs.
also
called
alpha
cell
and
A
cell.
Reference
:
Dorland's
medical
dictionary
Patient
have
MVA
come
to
ER
with
ulceraiton
tissue
with
gas
gangrene
in
the
anterior
leg
what
is
the
MO?
a-‐C.
Perfiringes
c-‐
staph
aures
Answer:
a
Superior
oblique
muscle
movement?
a-‐Medially
down
b-‐Medially
up
Answer:
a
child
pt.
came
with
scenario
of
chest
infection
,
first
day
of
admission
he
treated
with
cefotaxime,
next
day,
pt
state
became
bad
with
decrease
perfusion
and
x-‐ray
show
complete
rt.
Side
opcifaction
+
hydrothorax
,
causative
organism
:
a-‐Strepto.
Pnem
b-‐Staph.
Aureus
c-‐Hemophilus
influenza
type
b
d-‐Pseudomonas
Answer:
d
COPD
exacerbation
by
Infection,
patient
has
fever
and
greenish
sputum,
what
is
the
most
likely
microorganism?
(
no
pseudomonas
in
the
answers)
a-‐staph.
Aureus
b-‐streptococcus
pneumonie
c-‐mycoplasma
pneumonia
d-‐homophiles
influenza
Answer:
d
What
drug
is
likely
to
cause
heat-‐stroke
as
it
inhibits
sweating?
Answer:
Hyoscamine
Sulfate
foul
smelling
urine
in
a
7
y/o
child
with
fever
and
lower
abdominal
pain?
a-‐E.Coli
b-‐Protues
c-‐Klebsiella
Answer:
a?
-‐
Gram
-‐ve,
lactose
non-‐ferminting
oxidase
+ve?
Answer:
Psudomonas
most
common
electrolyte
disturbance
in
a
patient
with
digoxin?
Answer:
K
patient
with
superficial
temporal
artery
bleeding,
blood
will
be
collected
in?
Epicranial
aponeurosis
Answer:
?
Drug
which
decreases
HR
and
Pre
and
after
load?
a-‐Carvidilol
b-‐Nifidepine
c-‐Amlodepine
Answer:
a?
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carvedilol
-‐
Long
sinario
about
median
nerve
injury.
What
is
the
abnormality
you
expected
to
see
in
hand
?
A)
ape
hand
B)
Clwe
hand
C)
Wrist
drop
Answer:
a
-‐
Injury
leads
to
loss
of
sensation
in
the
medial
2
fingers.
What
is
the
nerve
injured
?
A)
Ulnar
nerve
B)
Median
nerve
C)
Brachial
nerve
Answer:
a
-‐What
is
biochemical
deficiency
in
respiratory
distress
syndrome
in
neonate!?(no
surfactant
in
answers)
a-‐
shingomyelin
b-‐Phosphate
c-‐dodecylbenzenesulfonate
Answer:
c
Refrence:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sodium_dodecylbenzenesulfonate
History
of
URTI
then
developed
watery
eye?
Answer:
Viral
(adeno)
Weakness
in
gluteal
area
,
the
artery
affected
is
?
a-‐Femoral
b-‐Intrenal
iliac
c-‐External
Answer:
b
Old
pt
take
antiviral
that
taken
by
inhalation?
Answer:
**Zanamivir
Culture
showed
non
fermenting
gram
negative
bacilli
what
is
organism
(no
options)
***correct
answer
one
of
the
following
1-‐
Moraxilla
2-‐
Legionella
3-‐
Pseudomonas
4-‐
Bordetella
which
of
these
joint
is
not
hinge
joint?
a)
Knee
joint
b)
Ankle
joint
c)
Elbow
joint
d)
Hip
joint
Answer:
d
-‐
Patient
in
ICU
had
onset
of
ventilator
associated
pneumonia
culture
showed
gram
negative,
oxidase
positive
and
non
lactose
fermenting
organism
A-‐
Pseudomonas
B-‐
Ecoli
C-‐
Klebsiella
Ans:
a
Patient
with
recurrent
uti
presented
with
renal
stones
whats
the
organism
A-‐
Proteus
B-‐
Ecoli
C-‐
Klebsiella
Answer:
A
Long
scenario
about
patient
come
to
ER
with
chest
pain
radiat
to
left
arm
then
get
coma
and
death
what
you
will
find
in
the
brain
?
a-‐
necrosis
because
of
left
middle
artery
b-‐red
nearon
degeneration
in
hippocampus
Answer:
a??
During
bypass
heart
surgery
the
assistance
asking
about
origin
of
right
coronary
DOMINANT
artery
?
a-‐
posterior
interseptal
b-‐anterior
septal
c-‐
marginal
d-‐
cercumflex
Answer:
a
Refrence:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Right_coronary_artery
old
patient
known
to
have
acquired
immunodeficiency
presented
with
cough
and
night
sweat
,
he
did
mentoux
test
which
was
negative
but
culture
was
positive
for
tuberculosis
what
is
most
likely:
a-‐
culture
is
false
positive
b-‐
mentoux
is
false
negative
c-‐
mentoux
is
not
a
screening
test
for
TB
d-‐
the
patient
should
be
screened
with
heaf
test.
Answer:
b
What
is
the
pathology
in
Huntington
syndrome
?
1-‐something
related
to
stratum
whith
nerotransmitter
deffect
Answer:
?
Early
damage
is
most
evident
in
the
striatum,
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Huntington%27s_disease
Case
of
side
effect
of
ACEI?
Answer:
cough
You
did
DRE
and
found
prostate
gland
swelling
,
which
lobe
of
prostate
has
the
neoplasm!?
a-‐
anterior
b-‐
Posterior
c-‐
Medial
Answer:
b
food
poisoning
case,
4
family
members
ate
from
a
restaurant,
they
developed
diarrhea
and
vomiting
and
remit
after
24
hrs
Culture
showed
gram
positive
bacilli?
a-‐salmonella
b-‐shigella
c-‐
Staph
Aureus
d-‐Bacillus
ceres
Answer:
d
where
surgeon
well
do
vagus
nerve
crush
?
Answer:
heart
duct
emperionic
origination?
(Specific
name
not
Mesoderm)
Answer:
picture
of
ring
cell
stage
of
malaria.
Asked
the
stage
ang
malaria
type?
Answer:
picture
of
histopath
of
tumor
with
stary
sky
pattern?
Answer:
EBV
case
of
wegeners
but
asked
about
the
basic
pathology
of
disease?
Answer:
A
patient
ate
a
wild
mushroom.
Which
of
the
following
will
be
inhibited?
a-‐RNA
polymerase
I
b-‐RNA
polymerase
II
c-‐RNA
polymerase
III
d-‐DNA
Gyrase
Answer:
b
bipolar
disorder
develop
symptoms
of
hypothyroidism.
Which
medicine
responsible?
Answer:
no
choices.
lithium
what
organism
can
cause
paralysis
??
Answer:
botolinium
scenario
about
female
sexually
active
and
came
with
symptom
i
forgot
,
in
lab
results
he
mentioned
gram
negative
diplococci
and
asked
about
the
diagnosis
??
Answer:
N.
Gonorrhea
a
drug
which
stops
sweating?
(no
option
as
hydrosamine)
a-‐cimtidine
b-‐odensteron
c-‐and
two
more
which
were
ending
with
chloride
Answer:
?
Aluminum
chloride.
man
taking
diuretics
have
muscle
weakness
diarrhea
irritability?
a-‐hypokalemia
b-‐hyperkalemia
c-‐hyponatermia
d-‐hypocalcemia
Answer:
b
Mother
with
Rh
-‐ve
and
a
father
with
Rh
+ve,
what
the
propility
of
having
Rh
+ve
child?
a-‐25%
b-‐50%
c-‐75%
d-‐100%
Answer:
b
Phyenytoin
side
effect?
Answer:
Gum
hyperplasia
Long
thoracic
nerve
root
number?
Answer:
no
choces.
C5,C6,C7
During
fights,
what
system
is
activated?
Answer:
Sympathetic
A
female
with
immunity
disorder,
where
is
the
defect?
a-‐IL-‐2
b-‐IL-‐3
c-‐IL-‐6
Answer:
?
Nitrofuratonin
side
effect?
Answer:
no
choices
vaginal
itching
or
discharge
Reference:
https://www.drugs.com/nitrofurantoin.html
Overdosed
drug
caused
resp
depression?
Answer:
Overdosed
lead
to
comatose?
Answer:
no
choices.
Opioids?
Overdosed
lead
to
dilated
pupils?
Answer:
A
truma
case
with
facial
fractures,
his
eyes
(
something)
what
type
of
reaction?
Answer:
Muscles
responsible
for
unlocking
the
knee?
Answer:
Poplitus
Mechanism
of
warfarin
?
Answer:
no
choices.
Most
common
cutaneous
manifestation
of
antimalarial
medications?
a-‐Pruritus
b-‐Pigmenation
c-‐Photosensitivity
d-‐Generalized
yellow
discoloration
of
skin
Answer:
b
What
is
a
relative
contraindication
of
Methylergometrine?
a-‐Asthma
b-‐DM
c-‐HTN
Answer:
c
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Methylergometrine
Difference
between
HbA1C
and
non-‐modified
hemoglobin:
Answer:
glycosalation
of
valine
Reference:
https://books.google.com.sa/books?id=AQ0vvBFg790C&pg=PA243&lpg=PA243&dq=non-‐
modified+hemoglobin+to+HbA1C&source=bl&ots=C04hA8qNFv&sig=zHSFT97YYOrLB9IuigHseYjxRqU
&hl=ar&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwip6uSF1arXAhWJMBoKHeEBDmoQ6AEIUzAJ#v=onepage&q=non-‐
modified%20hemoglobin%20to%20HbA1C&f=false
hook
worm,
how
to
cause
anemia?
a-‐destructin
rbc
b-‐send
toxins
to
bone
marrow
c-‐compete
with
host
on
b
12
Answer:
a
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hookworm_infection
patient,
with
diarrhea
,
flaglated
protozoa,
how
it
cause
diarrhea
?
a-‐increase
screation
of
fluids
b-‐kills
normal
flora
c-‐coats
the
small
bowl
d-‐absorption
is
prevented
Answer:
a
Reference:
https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/176718-‐overview#a3
Lymph
node
of
the
forehead
?
Answer:
no
choices.
preauricular
Cat
bite,
which
organism:
Answer:
Pasteurella
multocida
Chronic
smoker,
presented
with
signs
of
lung
cancer,
what
is
the
origin
of
cancer?
a-‐
Clara
b-‐
Brush
cells
c-‐
Goblet
Answer:
a
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4860431/
Patient
travelled
to
Africa
where
TB
bovine
is
endemic
there,
what
prevent
him
from
receiving
BCG
vaccine,
deficiency
in
what:
a-‐
IFN
gamma
b-‐
IFN
alpha
c-‐
IL
4
d-‐
IFN
beta
Answer:
a
Most
common
carpal
bone
involved?
Answer:
Scaphoid
Female
presented
with
hand
joints
swelling,
she
were
informed
by
physician
that
she
has
bone
loss,
she
is
angry
about
her
permenant
bone
loss
What
is
the
explanation
of
bone
loss:
a-‐
Increase
pressure
in
joint
space
b-‐
Material
secreted
from
synovial
fluid
c-‐
Drug
induced
menopause
Answer:
Which
drug
will
decrase
basline
and
contact
induced
acid
secretion
from
stomach:
a-‐
Ranitidine
b-‐
PPI
(not
sure)
-‐
Other
choices
that
I
don’t
remember.
Answer:
b?
Known
case
of
sarcoidosis,
presented
with
signs
of
anemia.
From
investigation
he
has
iron
deficiency
anemia.
What
is
the
pathophysiology:
a-‐
Decreased
hepcidin
b-‐
Increased
hepcidin
Answer:
b
Increase
hepcidin
associated
with
IDA.
wernicke's
area
injured,
which
type
of
aphasia?
Answer:
no
choices
fluent
aphasia
Female
150k.g.
Weight
and
height
160
according
to
BMI
?
a-‐I
Obesity
b-‐II
obesity
c-‐III
obesity
Answer:
c
Patient
complain
of
abdominal
pain
I
think
with
diarrhea,
also
his
wife
noticed
he
had
SOB
and
tightness.
Doctor
order
5-‐hydroxyindoleacetic
acid
in
urine
Which
cell
responsible?
a.
chromaffin
cell
b.
Enterocell
c.
Lympho
cell
d.
Goblet
cell
Answer:
a
[carcinoid
syndrome
]
Degree
for
screening
of
abdominal
aortic
aneurysm
for
pt
age
70
y/o
who
never
smoked
?
a-‐A
b-‐B
c-‐C
d-‐D
Answer:
c
What
is
biochemical
defect
in
x
linked
agammagloubinemia
!?
Answer:
no
choices
the
white
blood
cell
formation
processdoes
not
generate
mature
B
cells,[2]
which
manifests
as
a
complete
or
near-‐complete
lack
of
proteins
called
gamma
globulins,
including
antibodies,
in
their
bloodstream.
Child
with
repeated
polymicrobial
chest
infection
,
skin
test
positive
for
candida
antigen
Blood
test
all
normal
except
high
IgG
or
IgM
!?
Low
lymphocyte.
Lymph
node
biopsy
showed
:
rudimentary
germinal
centres
.
What
is
the
pathophsyioloy
of
this
disease!?
Answer
:
the
diagnosis
is
Bruton
Agammaglobulinemia
Answer:
no
choices.
Goblet
cells
are
mostly
found
in
1-‐
stomach
2-‐
duodenum
3-‐
ascending
colon
4-‐
rectum
Answer:
ascending
colon
The
colon
contains
a
larger
percentage
of
goblet
cells
than
the
small
intestine
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2933006/
about
RAST
test
measure??
Answer:
no
choices
A
radioallergosorbent
test
(RAST)
is
a
blood
test
using
radioimmunoassay
test
to
detect
specific
IgE
antibodies,
to
determine
the
substances
a
subject
is
allergic
to.
This
is
different
from
a
skin
allergy
test,
which
determines
allergy
by
the
reaction
of
a
person's
skin
to
different
substances.
Beta
Thalassimia?
a)Point
mutation
b)
Deletion
c)Insertion
d)Fragment
shaft
answer:
a
Most
common
known
side
effect
of
beclometasone
in
children?
a-‐Excitable
behaviour!
b-‐labail
mood
c-‐growth
retardation
d-‐intraoccular
Hypertension
Answer:
c?
Reference:
https://www.drugs.com/sfx/beclomethasone-‐side-‐effects.html
1st
responsible
for
Bp
regulation?
a-‐
heart
b-‐
aorta
c-‐
arterioles
d-‐
capillaries
Answer:
b
case
of
bell's
palsy,
which
nerve
will
be
intact
a-‐
massater
b-‐bucceneter
c-‐
orbicuaris
oris
d-‐
orbicuaris
Answer:
a
Side
effect
of
levodopa
?
Htn
“
cuz
hypo
not
hyper”
n/v
answer:
nausea
and
vomiting
what's
the
effect
of
niacin?
a-‐dec
LDL
b-‐Dec
TGD
c-‐
inc
HDL
Answer:
c
Metformin
action
is
enhanced
in
by
which
enzyme?
Answer:
activation
of
AMP-‐activated
protein
kinase
Pronator
teres
syndrome
?
Answer:
Medial
nerve
compression
at
elbow
about
final
destination
of
proteins
in
cell
cycle?
a-‐Anaphase
b-‐Prophase
c-‐Cytokinesis
Answer:
GOLOGI
APPARTUS
OR
TELOPHASE!
What
structure
holding
Uterus?
Answer:
uterosacral
ligaments
pt
has
urine
culture
MRSA
he
is
on
antibiotic
after
fewa
day
develop
redness
on
face
,neck
what
is
antibiotic?
a-‐pencillin
b-‐vancomycin
Answer:
b
Which
one
of
these
vaccines
taken
by
intranasal
route?
a-‐Zanamavir
b-‐Oseltamivir
Answer:
a
Nasal
&
and
palate
dryness
due
to
obstruction
of
?
a-‐
submandibular
gland
b-‐
Submental
c-‐
Ptergoplatine
Answer:
a
Which
of
chemodrugs
will
cause
HTN
+
skin
problem
+
pulmonary
fibrosis
?
a-‐
bleomycin
b-‐
Methotrexate
Answer:
a
Patient
on
anti
epileptic
and
Heart
failure
medication
presented
with
signs
of
drug
overdose
and
ECG
showing
dysarethmia
?
a-‐
digoxin
b-‐
SSRI
c-‐
Quinine
Answer:
a
Child
with
autoantibodies..
chances
of
getting
dm1?
a-‐40
%
b-‐60
%
c-‐80
%
d-‐100
%
Answer:?
Nerve
involved
in
tarsal
tunnel
syndrome?
Answer:
TIBIAL
NERVE
Oby
surgery
clamb
the
artery
close
to
lateral
vaginal
wall
what
structure
maybe
injured?
a-‐Peudendal
nerve
b-‐ureter
Answer:
b
Long
scenario
about
hydrocele
typical?
Answer:
failure
of
obliteration
of
process
vaginalis
pt
eye
drop
and
eye
goes
to
medial
side
what
nerve
injury
when
try
to
close
the
eye?
a-‐3
b-‐7
c-‐4
Answer:
a?
HSP
disease
what
is
the
immunoglobulin
responsible?
a-‐IgG
b-‐IgM
c-‐IgA
d-‐IgE
Answer:
which
in
inguinal
canal
is
develop
from
the
external
oblique
muscle?
a-‐External
spermatic
fascia
b-‐Internal
spermatic
fascia
Answer:
a
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/External_spermatic_fascia
A
pt
with
hypoK
,
HypoCL
and
hypoNa
and
HyperHCO3
i
think
with
some
symptoms
,
what's
the
1ry
defect
?
A.
NaCl
B.
H
excertion
C.
H
absorption
D.
k
Answer:
a
bartter
syndrome,
NaCl
reabsorption
defect.
type
of
innate
mechanism
for
extracellular
bacteria?
Answer:
no
choices
primary
immunodeficiency
that
expose
the
pt
to
recurrent
of
viral
and
molds
infection?
a-‐
T
cell
b-‐
B
cell
c-‐
complement
defi
Answer:
a
20
yrs
male
with
hx
of
hematuria
proteinuria
6
gm,
......
what
you
will
see
in
renal
biopsy
(
hx
of
post
strptococcus
glomerulonephritis)?
a-‐
membrane
b-‐
Minimal
c-‐
Post
infection
Answer:
c?
renal
vein
come
from
which
part
of
inferior
vena
cava?
Answer:
Subcardinal
18
years
old
male
hx
of
RTA
presented
with
basal
skull
Fracture
Reaching
to
the
jugular
foramen
,
Nerves
were
injured
.
Which
of
the
following
muscles
will
not
be
affected
?
A-‐sternocleidomastoid
muscle.
B-‐hyoglossus
muscle
C-‐stylopharyngus
muscle
D-‐trapezius
muscle
Answer:
B
:
Hyoglossus
muscle
if
you
remove
the
pectoralis
major
muscle
,
what's
gonna
happen?
a-‐loss
of
arm
adduction
b-‐loss
of
arm
abduction
c-‐loss
of
arm
adduction
and
internal
rotation
d-‐loss
af
arm
abduction
and
external
rotation
Answer
:
C
Patient
have
bilateral
thin
walled
parenchyma
of
kidney?
Answer:
(PCKD)
Child
with
DM
type
1
what's
the
Mechanism
of
action
of
the
disease
?
a-‐
Triglyceride
uptake
b-‐
Liver
increase
of
fatty
acid
Answer:
A
case
of
xeroderma
pigmentosum
,
whats
the
mech
of
action
?
Answer:
defect
in
DNA
repair.
Which
of
the
following
genes
is
associated
with
atheroscelerosis,
but
linked
with
polygenetic
Alzheimer's
disease
as
well?
A)
Melyiod
protien
B.
B)
Apolipoptotein
E.
C)
Presenilen
1.
D)
Presenilen
2
Answer:
b
Fallopican
tube
embryology?
Answer:
mesoderm
intermidite
cell
>
latral
part
of
genital
ridge
Patient
with
gullain
barre,
what
cell
is
affected
?
Answer:
schwan
cell
U
prescribe
roaccutane
=
retinoids
for
women
,
what
is
the
serious
side
effect?
Answer:
birth
defect
Facial
nerve
affection,
normal
lacrimation,
abnormal
tympani
reflex
and
loss
of
taste,
site
of
injury:
a-‐Distal
to
tympani
chordi
b-‐Proximal
to
tympani
chordi
c-‐Distal
to
gbs
nerve
d-‐Proximal
to
gbs
nerve
Answer:
b
HDL
has
protective
mechanism
for
coronary
artery
disease
by
which
enzyme?
Answer:
antioxidant
enzyme
paraoxonase
(PON)
1
Patient
had
DM
with
HTN
had
renal
transplant
after
1
month
show
rejection
biopsy
show
hla
class
1.
Which
cell
responsible?
a-‐Macrophage
b-‐Cd
4
c-‐Cd8
d-‐Nk
Answer:
c
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_leukocyte_antigen
8-‐Most
specific
for
AIDS:
A)
night
sweat
B)
generalized
LAP
C)
opportunistic
infections
Answer:
b
Man
lost
smell,
which
lobe
is
affected
A)
parietal
B)
temporal
C)
frontal
D)
occipital
Answer:
b
Man
with
stroke
and
vision
loss,
affected
lobe:
A)
parietal
B)
temporal
C)
frontal
D)
occipital
Answer:
d
Latency
period
in
HI,
cell
responsible?
Answer:
CD4+
T
cells
with
a
memory
Brown
dicoloration
of
eye
then
disappear
..
What
is
the
drug
:
a-‐Vanco
b-‐Metacloprmide
c-‐lanatoprost
Answer:
c
What
type
of
skin
reaction
in
tb
reaction?
A-‐1
B-‐2
C-‐3
D-‐4
Answer:
d
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Type_IV_hypersensitivity
Tyrosine
kinase
inhibitors
work
against?
a.Epidermal
growth
factor
b.Endodermal
growth
factor
Answer:
a
Patient
with
cardiomyopathy
and
heart
failure,
biopsy
showed:
central
necrosis
surrounded
by
inflammatory
cells
and
large
histiocytes
(
Anitschkow
cell)
What
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
a-‐
rheumatic
fever
b-‐
myocardial
sarcoidosis
Answer:
1
Chemotherapy
medication
that
acts
on
cell
cycle
something
,skin
rash,
pulmonary
fibrosis?
a-‐
methotrexate
b-‐
bleomycin
c-‐
cisplatin
Answer:
b
Which
beta
blocker
has
the
most
alpha
adrenergic
effect?
a-‐
labetalol
b-‐
nadolol
c-‐
pindolol
Answer:
a
Drug
that
is
given
in
patient
with
heart
disease
that
inhibits
the
entrance
of
calcium,
which
lead
to
decrease
in
the
myocardial
excitable
something?
a-‐
diltiazim
b-‐
hydralazine
c-‐
nitroglycerin
Answer:
a
Mechanism
of
action
of
heparin?
a-‐
reversible
bind
to
antithrombin
3
b-‐
inhibit
factor
V
c-‐
inhibit
factor
ii,
vii,
9,
and
10
d-‐
Answer:
1
How
many
Barr
bodies
in
XXX
female?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
Answer:
2
(Barr
body
is
the
inactive
X
chromosome
)
Scenario
of
a
patient
with
colorectal
cancer.
Diagnosed
to
have
adenocarcinoma,
he
did
some
tests
which
showed
high
tyrosine
kinase.
Which
of
the
following
do
u
expect
to
be
high?
a)
endo
dermal
growth
factor
b)
epidermal
growth
factor
c)
coupled
G
protein
receptor
d)
platelet
growth
factor
Answer:
Scenario
of
a
patient
who
had
jaundice
after
flu
like
symptoms.
Indirect
bilirubin
is
high,
direct
is
normal
and
total
bilirubin
is
high.
AST,
ALT
and
GGT
normal.
What
is
the
gene
mutation
responsible?
a)
TPEN
b)
p53
c)
APC
d)
??
(Probably
the
right
answer)
Answer:
Teratogenic
effect
of
Thalidomide
Answer:
meromelia
Inhibitor
of
uptake
of
which
of
the
following
should
be
given
to
the
patient?
(what
pt,
question
is
missing
info)
a-‐
GABA
b-‐
DOPA
c-‐
Serotonin
Answer:
?
Trypanosoma
cruzi
works
on
or
something
like
that
on
which
receptor
(at
cellular
level):
A.
IL6
B.
IL10
Answer:
?
MOA
of
statin:
Answer:
HMG
CoA
reductase
inhibitor
Genetics
1.
Marffan
syndrome
descriptions
long
arm
and
ask
about
mood
on
inheritance?
Answer:
AD.
2.
Pt
with
brown
macules
on
skin
with
axillary
fleckring
dx
is
NF,
what
is
the
mode
of
inheritance?
Answer:
Autosomal
Dominant.
3.
Tall
&
thin
boy
with
joint
laxity
also
his
mother
has
same
features
what
is
mode
of
inheritance?
Answer:
the
features
describes
marfan
synbdrome
and
the
mode
of
inheritance
is
Autosomal
dominant.
4.
pt
with
tender
flank
and
mutation
in
chromosome
16
what
mode
of
inheritance?
Answer:
Autosomal
Dominant
Polycystic
Kidney
disorder
[PKD
1/polycystin
1
PKD2/polycystin
2]
5.
SCA
mode
of
inheritance?
Answer:
autosomal
recessive
References:
https://ghr.nlm.nih.gov/condition/sickle-‐cell-‐disease#inheritance
6.
48.type
of
inheritance
of
Fanconi
anaemia?
Answer:
Autosomal
recessive
genetics;
FA
is
primarily
an
autosomal
genetic
disorder.
This
means
that
two
mutated
alleles(one
from
each
parent)
are
required
to
cause
the
disease.
The
risk
is
25%
risk
that
each
subsequent
child
will
have
FA.
About
2%
of
FA
cases
are
X-‐linked
recessive,
which
means
that
if
the
mother
carries
one
mutated
Fanconi
anemia
allele
on
one
X
chromosome,
a
50%
chance
exists
that
male
offspring
will
present
with
Fanconi
anemia.
References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fanconi_anemia
7.
ehlers-‐danlos
what
is
the
type
of
transmission??
-‐
Autosomal
dominant.
8.
Male
present
with
multiple
maculs
5-‐15
mm
,
and
axilary
frickling
,
his
wife
is
pregnant
,
what
is
the
mood
of
inheritance?
a-‐
Autosoma
b-‐
X-‐linked
c-‐
Mitochondrial
Answer:
a
9.
Mode
of
inhertance
FAP?
Answer:
no
choices.
Autosomal
dominant?
10.
Wiskott-‐Aldrich
Syndrome
mode
of
inheritance?
Answer:
X-‐linked
recessive
11.
type
of
inheritance
of
intrahepatic
cholestatic?
a-‐AR
b-‐
X
linked
c-‐
mitochondrial
Answer:
a
Reference:
https://ghr.nlm.nih.gov/condition/progressive-‐familial-‐intrahepatic-‐
cholestasis#inheritance
12.
Burkitt
lymphoma
gene?
Answer:
Myc
gene
is
normally
found
in
ch.8
is
transferred
to
ch.14.
in
Africa
its
associated
with
EBV.
References:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK22257/
13.
38.A
child
from
Ghana
with
a
neck
mass,
Biopsy
showed
starry
sky
appearance,
KI
67
was
positive,
Which
genetic
change
is
true?
Answer
burkitts
lymphoma,
Ch.14
and
Myc
gene
translocation.
14.
Parents
brought
their
son
with
cystic
fibrosis,
asking
about
the
chance
of
his
daughter
to
be
carrier:
a-‐
1:2
b-‐
2:4
c-‐
1:25
d-‐
1:3
Answer:
b
15.
where
is
the
gene
of
Neurpfibromatosis?
Answer:
17q11.2
16.
-‐
RCC
gene*
(
as
presentation
of
hematuria,
wt
loss
,
loin
pain
)?
Answer:
VHL
*Gene
for
renal
cell
carcinoma.
17.
-‐
Breast
ca
gene?
Answer:
BRACA2
18.
Breast
cancer
gene
(no
BRCA)*?
a-‐
her2
b-‐
CA125
c-‐
P53
Answer:
a
19.
Case
of
RA
asking
about
genetics?
Answer:
HLA
B27
20.
Scenario
with
a
patient
who
came
with
fever
and
altered
level
of
consciousness.
Labs
show
high
urea
and
creatinine,
low
platelets
and
anemia
(Scenario
of
TTP).
What's
the
gene
mutation
responsible?
a.
Cardiolipins
b.
ADAMTS13
c.
Glycoprotein
Answer:
b
21.
Pancreatic
cancer
which
gene
associated
with?
Answer:
no
choices
BRCA1,
BRCA2,
PALB2,
CDKN2A,
ATM,
STK11,
and
the
genes
linked
to
Lynch
syndrome
(MLH1,
MSH2,
MSH6,
PMS2,
and
EPCAM).
22.
cardiomyopathy
mutation?
Answer:
no
choices
Common
Genes:
TTN
gene
(dilated),
MYH7,
MYBPC3,
TNNT2,
TNNI3
(hypertrophied).
References:
https://ghr.nlm.nih.gov/condition/familial-‐dilated-‐cardiomyopathy
https://ghr.nlm.nih.gov/condition/familial-‐hypertrophic-‐cardiomyopathy#genes
23.
mother
had
abortion
two
times
last
child
with
45X
monosomy,
recurrence
in
next
pregnancy?
a-‐
%30
b-‐
%50
c-‐
%70
d-‐
%90
Answer:
a
24.
Familial
adenomatous
polyposis
gene?
Answer:
The
human
APC
gene
is
located
on
the
long
(q)
arm
of
chromosome
5
in
band
q22.2
(5q22.2)
25.
gene
associated
with
type
1
DM
a-‐DR2
b-‐DR4
c-‐DR6
d-‐DR7
Answer:
b.
26.
Most
common
mutation?
Answer:
trisomy
21
27.
Marfan
syndrome
features
of
the
mother
and
her
boy:
what
is
the
probability
of
the
children
to
have
it?
a-‐25%
b-‐50%
c-‐75%
d-‐100%
Answer:
b
28.
X
linked
is?
a-‐AD
b-‐Multifactorial
Answer:?
29.
HCM
which
gene
has
the
worst
prognosis
(no
options)
Answer:
if
itʼsHCM
hypertrohic
cardiomyopathy
gene
assoc
MYH7,
MYBPC3,
TNNT2,
and
TNNI3
30.
Patient
with
tetanus
and
hypocalcemia
presented
with
pcp,
aspiragillus
pneumonia,
and
other
infections,
what
is
the
cause?
Answer:
Deletion
of
chromosome
22
(digoarge)
31.
Patient
with
jaundice
,
labs
shows
high
indirect
bilirubin
and
total
bilirubin,
was
about
the
gene
or
the
mutation?
Answer:
no
choices
Crigler-‐Najjar
syndrome
type
II
is
caused
by
homozygous
or
compound
heterozygous
mutation
in
the
UDP-‐glucuronosyltransferase
gene
(UGT1A1;
191740)
on
chromosome
2q37.
Mutations
in
the
same
gene
cause
Gilbert
syndrome
(143500)
and
Crigler-‐Najjar
syndrometype
I
(218800).
1
)
Crigler-‐Najjar
syndrome
is
inherited
in
an
autosomal
recessive
pattern,
which
means
both
copies
of
the
UGT1A1
2
)
Gilbert's
syndrome
(
asymptomatic
usually
)
is
due
to
a
mutation
in
the
UGT1A1
gene
32.
Gene
mutation
found
in
non-‐small
cell
lung
cancer?
-‐Answer:
EGFR
mutations
&
ALK
alterations
33.
Genotype
of
mild
thalassemia:
A.
a0
-‐
-‐
/
-‐
-‐
B.
a0
-‐
-‐
/
-‐
a
C.
a0
-‐
-‐
/
a
a
D.
a+
-‐
a
/
a
a
Answer:
c?
A:
one
gene-‐>
sever,
B:
two
gene
-‐>
moderate.
34.
male
e
hemophilia
a
and
female
carrier
what
%
their
child
will
have
hemophilia?
Answer:
50%
The
chance
for
a
carrier
mother
to
deliver
a
baby
with
haemophilia
is
producing
50%
carriers
and
this
chance
is
the
same
in
all
pregnancies
even
if
she
had
a
previous
child
with
haemophilia.
References:
https://www.hog.org/handbook/section/2/how-‐hemophilia-‐is-‐inherited
Inheritance
questions:
-‐
fanconi
anemia:
AR
-‐
Progressive
familial
intrahepatic
cholestasis:
AR
-‐
Willson:
AR,
chromosome
14
-‐
Cystic
fibrosis:
AR,
chromosome
7,
long
q
arm
-‐
Congenital
chloride
diarrhea:
AR
-‐
Congenital
liver
fibrosis:
ass.
With
AR
polycyctic
kidney
disease
-‐
Von
willebrand
disease:
AR
-‐
Alpha
and
beta
thalasemia,
and
SCA:
AR
-‐
Otosclerosis:
AD
-‐
Polycystic
kidney
adult:
AD,
chromosome
16
-‐
Heridtary
spherocytosis:
AD
-‐
Marfan
syndrome:
AD
-‐
Hereditary
chronic
pancreatitis:
AD
-‐
Apoptosis
gene:
p53
-‐
Gene
of
ductal
carcinoma:
p53
-‐
Enhance
apoptosis:
p53
-‐
Kidney
tumor
oncogen:
MET
in
hereditary
papillary
renal
cell
cancer,
and
ps53
-‐
Gene
for
copper
transport
ATPase:
-‐
IBD:
chromosome
16,
genes:
NOD2,
ATG16L1
-‐
DM
type
2:
chromosome
20
-‐
Gilbert:
chromosome
2,
q37,
UGT1A1
gene
-‐
High
cholesterol:
LDL
receptor
gene
-‐
X
linked
a
gamma
globulinemia:
CD19
and
CD
20
-‐
Problem
with
phagocytosis,
protein
defect
for
oxygenation:
Decrease
NADH
(chronic
granulomatous
disease)
-‐
Angioedema:
SERPING1
Gene
-‐
Alzheimer
disease:
>60
year:
21
chromosome
,,
<60:
19
chromosome
-‐
Xeroderma
pigmentosa:
defect
in
DNA
break
repair
gene
-‐
Alzheimer
disease:
>60
year:
21
chromosome
,,
<60:
19
chromosome
-‐
Huntignton
disease:
chromosome
4,
CAG
trinucleotide
repeat
"3
M:
mood,
memory,
movement"
-‐
SCA
and
thalasemia:
point
mutation
-‐
CML
and
ALL:
bcr
(on
chromosome
22)
and
abl1
(on
chromosome
9)
resulting
in
the
bcr-‐
abl1
fusion
gene
—>
philadelphia
(ph)
chromosome
-‐
Starry
sky
biopsy
"burkett's
lymphoma":
C-‐myc
gene,
chromosome
8