Murali

L0637
1. What type of documents is required to cure US Indicia?
(d) All of the above.
2. For the rule of aggregation which is true?
(e) Only b & c are true.
3. Accounts exists in Bucket2 pre-existing individual accounts for FATCA are identified based on which
review or search?
(b) Subject to electronic search for balances in Bucket 1 accounts,
4. . What types of accounts are in Bucket 4 pre-existing individual accounts for FATCA?
(b) Balances more than $50000 but less than $1Mio
5. Which of the following are true?
(a) All the accounts in Bucket 9 of pre-existing FATCA are subject to Enhanced Review Process(
(b) If No US Indicia found in Bucket 9 accounts no further action is needed to be taken by the bra
(c) If US Indicia is found in Bucket 9 accounts then those accounts would be shifted in Bucket 10
(d) Bucket11 is created out of Bucket 10 which have Hold mail or in care of mail addresses,
(e) All are true.
6. What action required to be taken by the branch when an account is falling in Bucket 10?
(d) All are true.
7. What types of accounts will be contained in Bucket 2 of pre-existing individual accounts of FATCA?
(c) All accounts of Bucket 1 individual preexisting accounts where balances does not exceeds $5
as on 30th June 2014,
8. If no Indicia found in Bucket 4 accounts what action should be taken by the branch if accounts are
preexisting under FATCA?
(b) NO action needs to be taken by the branch.
9. Which type of accounts will be part of Bucket 5 of pre-existing individual account FATCA?
(b) Accounts having balances above$50000.00 up to $1.00 Mio with US Indicia as on 30/06/201
10 . Branch correspondence with customer should start with which bucket accounts?
(b) Bucket 5 low value accounts with US indicia,
11 . What is rule of aggregation for preexisting individual accounts in FATCA?
(e) Only a & b are true.
12 . For FATCA how many type of classification of account would be recognized for monitoring purposes
basis of cutoff dates?
(b) Three types preexisting accounts, new accounts & on-boarding accounts,
13 . What is due date for completion of due diligence of the accounts between 01.07.2014 to 31.12.2014
balance exceeded $50,000.00 as on 31.12.2014?
(b) 31.08.2016
14 . If US Indicia is for FATCA then what Indicia is for CRS?
(c) Other Indicia
15 . What is account balance in high value pre-existing accounts for FATCA and in which bucket they are
(b) Balances above $1.00 Mio are high value placed in bucket 9 for pre-existing FATCA,
16 . How many types of US Indicia and CRS indicia are identified for reporting under FATCA and CRS?
(b) 13 US Indicia for FATCA and 10 Other Indicia for CRS,
17 . What is cutoff date for classifying an account as pre-existing accounts as per FATCA?
(a) 30th June 2014
18 . What is remediation/Curing under FATCA?
(a) Process of taking documents/certificate from FATCA account holder to effect that the accoun
is not tax resident of US countries,
19 . What action is expected by the branch for Bucket 5 accounts in case of preexisting account for FAT
(a) To intimate account holder about the US reportability of his/her account and if they wish they
prove their non-US tax residency by providing documentary proof to prove their non US tax residenc
(b) 31.08.2016
21 . What actions need to be done by the branch when branch has got documents in Bucket 5 accounts
satisfying the non US tax residency?
(b) Properly mark in the system details of the documents received and make it US non-reportabl
22 . Which of the following is true?
(b) Both high value and low value accounts with non curable US Indicia are reportable,
23 . What type of accounts exists in Bucket-3 of pre-existing individual accounts FATCA?
(b) All the individual including joints accounts of Bucket 1 where balances exceeds $50, 000/- as
30th June 2014,
24 . What is cured account & non cured accounts in FATCA?
(e) e only b & c.
(a) 31.03.2016
26 . Which is true for low value preexisting accounts for FATCA?
(d) Only b & c are correct,
27 . What action need to be taken by the branch when the branch has received the documents for Bucke
preexisting individual accounts but which are not satisfying to the RM or BM of US tax residency?
(b) Suitable information to be recorded in the system & make it reportable which is reclassified in
8
28 . Which bucket accounts are subject to remediation under FATCA of pre-existing individual account?
(b) Bucket 5 accounts are subject to FATCA remediation,
29 . What is alternate procedure for due diligence?
(a) Due diligence for accounts opened between 01.07.2014 till 31.08.2015
30 . What is meant by pre-existing individual accounts for FATCA?
(c) All type of individual account SB, CA, Credit balances in DL/TL/Overdraft account, TDR, STD
accounts exists in banks book as on or before a cut-off date,
L0636
1. An accepted KRA can also be changed by _.
(c) the Reviewing Authority
2. Empowered Group consists of the __

(a) Chairman, MD (CBG), MD (NBG), MD (A&S), MD (Compliance & Risk) and DMD&CDO
3. There are 200 employees in a cohort. Quintile curve of this cohort says that top 30% will get AAA, 2
get AA, 20% will get A, 15% will get B and 10% will get C. Assuming that no two employees have sim
scores, from which employee number grade A will start?.
(a) From 111th employee
4. Measurable roles have following types of KRAs.
(b) Objective only
5. Gradation workshop is to be run by the Cohort Chairs for Non Measurable roles for the distribution o
grades
(a) TRUE
6. On what basis cohorts are differentiated?
(d) All of above
7. What is the timeline for submission of Self Appraisal?
(c) 31st March - 10th April
8. When an employee is on leave for more than 6 months, he/she will get a grade as ___..
(d) No gradation. Only score will be recorded
9. These cohorts are differentiated on the basis of scale & vertical.
(b) Measurable and Non-measurable
10 . How the CDS can be leveraged for performance enhancement?
(d) All of the above

11 . What are different type(s) of KRAs?
(c) Objective and Subjective both
12 . Final grade is distributed after adding both the scores, i.e. Performance Assessment score and
Competency Assessment score.
(b) FALSE
13 . New performance evaluation system (CDS) is applicable to,
(d) Clerical staff and Officers both
14 . Who will decide Quintile Curve for a cohort?
(b) Empowered group
15 . How many KRAs an officer can have in the new system?
(c) Min 5 Max 10
16 . A Regional Manager (RM) wants to finalise KRAs of one of his reportee. He has already allotted 10
with a total weightage of 60%. How many KRA/KRAs and weightage can he allot more?
(b) No more KRAs can be allotted, only weightage is to be adjusted upto 70%
17 . CDS system will display ones performance on __..basis.
(a) Monthly
18 . KRA stands for Key Responsibility Area in the old performance review system. What does it means
new system, i.e. CDS?
(c) Key Result Area
19 . What is supervisor discretion score in case of officer below CGM?

(b) 30%
20 . An officer has been allocated 6 objective KRAs in which weightage distribution in different paramete
under; 15% - Increase in Deposit business, 20% - Increase in Advances business, 15% - Reduction
complaints, 10% - Reduction in gross value of NPA, 5% - E-learning and 5% - Improve/Maintain Aud
Score. Role of this officer is a __.
(a) Budgetary Role
21 . JIBOs/IBOs/Sr. IBOs are part of __. Cohort.
(a) Measurable
(b) Non-Measurable
(c) Pre Selected
(d) Budgetary
22 . If during a financial year, an employee got transferred to different assignments, then he or she will b
to a cohort as of _..
(c) The assignment where he/she has spent maximum period
23 . A budgetary role is _..
(a) Where KRAs with budgetary targets account for 40% or more weightage
24 . Which role can have both types of KRAs?
(b) Measurable
(c) Non-Measurable
(d) None
25 . Which of the following is not a type of Quintile Curve?
(d) Medium Quintile Curve

26 . What is the timeline for KRA linkage by the Reporting Authority?
(b) 15th Feb - 30th April
27 . Which is not a type of Role in the new system?
(d) Pre selected
28 . What is supervisor discretion score in case of CGM?
(d) 50%
29 . ___.. are the types of grades out of which each employee will have one at the end of the year.
(a) AAA, AA, A and B
30 . One of the KRAs of a Branch Manager carries 20% weightage. He has achieved the allotted budget
that KRA. How many marks will he score against this KRA?
(a) 20
L0681
. Details of the Lockers are entered in the annexure
(c) Lockers
2 . Details of the Recalled Assets of the branch are entered in the annexure
(d) Recalled Assets.

3 . In the annexure Performance, the figures for Deposits and Advances are
(d) Derived by the system.
4 . What is the maximum score available for External Compliances in the revised Self
Audit Process?
(a) 30.
5 . Details of the suits filed/Recovery Cases/Execution cases are entered in the
annexure
(a) Suits Filed.

6 . The folder to be created for downloading the self audit Software is
(b) OARPS
7 . What should be entered in Inspection Format, Branch Format and User ID
(c) Default Values to be retained.

8 . The sub sub parameters under Customer Service are
(c) Both (A) and (B) above

9 . What is the maximum score available for Self Audit in the revised Self Audit
Process?
(c) 10
10
The sub sub parameters under Post sanction process are
.
(c) Both (A) and (B) above

11
Particulars of the branch and its location are entered in the annexure
.
(d) Branch/Centre Information.

12
The sub sub parameters under BUSINESS LINES are
.
(d) All the above.

13
How many sub parameters are available under Operational Risk Management?
.
(d) 7
14
The sub sub parameters under Alternate Channels are
.
(d) All the above.

15
The sub sub parameters under Back Office Operations are
.
(d) All the above.

16 After completion of the revised Self Audit process, the number of pages to be
. printed and sent to controllers
(a) 1.
17
Where the deviations are in the range of 11-20%, the deviation applicable is
.
(c) Some
18 Details of the earlier audit reports and dates of dealt with are entered in the
. annexure
(b) Audit Reports.

19
Details of the income short/excess collected are entered in the annexure
.
(c) Income Miscellaneous Calculation.

20
The sub sub parameters under Presanction process are
.
(d) All the above.

21
The sub sub parameters under General Management are
.
(d) All the above.

22
The sub sub parameters under Control Systems are
.
(d) All the above.

23
Where the deviations are in the range of 0 to 5%, the deviation applicable is
.
(a) Very Few

24 Where the deviations are in the range of 6 to 10%, the deviation applicable is
.
(b) Few
25
The sub sub parameters under Problem Loan Management are
.
(d) All the above.

26
Details of the Complaints /Controllers Visits are entered in the annexure
.
(b) Miscellaneous.
27
Details of the Currency chest are entered in the annexure
.
(d) Currency Chest.

28
Details of the branch deposits are entered in the annexure
.
(d) Deposits.
29
Details of the branch Advances are entered in the annexure
.
(d) Advances.
30
. Online Self Audit was deployed in production on
(a) 23.07.2013.
L0702
. During Inspections, RBI Inspectors comment on mutilated notes adjudicated during the last
(c) One Year
2. While conducting inspection of Branches conducting pension business, RBI Inspectors check
(a) Whether there is any delay in processing life certificates
3. RBI Inspectors check the balance of
(c) Currency Chest and Small Coin Depot both
4. Which notes can be used in ATM
(d) Only a & b above
5. The soiled notes should be
(b) Shrink Wrapped
6. Strong Room Fitness certificate
(c) Should be current and displayed prominently
7. Reserve Bank of India conducts inspection of Banks under ___________ of Banking Regulation Act
verify whether the conditions subject to which the bank has been issued license continue to be fulfill
them
(d) Section 35
8. Reserve Bank of India conducts inspection of branches conducting ______________ business
9. The note counting machine provided at the counters should have

(b) Dual Display
10 . The RBI Inspector checks whether the coin vending machine is _____________
11 . The currency chest branch should have __________________ with upto date patch/release utility in
(b) CCRS Package
12 . Reserve Bank of India conducts inspection of branches conducting ______________ business
13 . While conducting inspection of branches conducting Government Business, the RBI Inspectors che
whether
(c) a & b both
14 . During the inspection of branches conducting Government Business, RBI Inspectors comment on
(c) a & b both
15 . Entry to unauthorised persons in the vault
(c) Is not allowed at all
16 . The notes issued to general public by the branch should
(b) Conform to clean note policy of RBI
17 . The currency chest branch should have ____________facility with nearest police station
(c) Hotline
18 . While conducting inspection of Branches conducting pension business, RBI Inspectors check
(a) Whether there is any delay in crediting pension accounts
19 . ______________________________ should be displayed at the notice board of the branch for info
of customers in bilingual.
(c) Citizens Charter for exchange of notes and Coins
20 . Which of the following are irregularities in respect of Currency Chest Operations?
(d) Keeping cash outside bin/vault
21 . The statement of forged notes detected to be sent to RBI on ____________ basis
(a) Monthly
22 . Soiled note bundles are to be marked by the inspection team so as to ensure
(c) that they are sent to RBI and not stored in the vaults (when checked during subsequent inspe
23 . RBI conducts inspection of Banks under Section 35 of
(b) Banking Regulation Act
24 . The salient features of genuine notes
(d) A & b both
25 . Balance confirmation certificate to be submitted to RBI as on
(d) 31st March

L0697
1 . In terms of the GOI, Ministry of Finance guidelines all negotiated contracts in respect
of rentals including taxes etc. and deposits of Rs.25 lacs and above in respect of
premises taken by Bank on lease / rental basis and or purchase of premises be
reported to
(a) Central Bureau of Investigation
2 . The offers for premises are opened in the presence of
(b) Officers of Corporate Centre premises department
(c) Screening Committee constituted at LHO/Corporate Centre
3 . The offers for premises to be invited by
(c) a & b both
4 . In case of e-procurement/e-tendering process, the procuring office should obtain

_________________________ on behalf of the Bank in the name of an official of the
respective department
(a) Digital Signature
5 . E-Tendering involves processes like
(c) a & b both
6 . The Bank acquires premises for
(d) All of above
7 . When properties are being acquired/purchased in settlement of debts, NPAs, the

Bank may acquire the property at
(d) At market price

8 . In a situation where properties are being acquired / purchased through bid at auctions
by the Banks and no reserve price is announced/available, the Bank should restrict its
bid to
(a) Average of price stated in two valuation reports obtained by the bank
9 . The price bid should contain
(b) Price quoted by the bidder
10 . The Offers for premises to be invited preferably in ____________ bid system
(b) Two
11 . Threshold limits beyond which all procurements must be routed through the e-
Tendering / e-procurement route are fixed by the Bank from time to time which is
presently Rs. _____Lacs and above
(c) 10
12 . In case of amount above threshold limit, the deviation for specific purchase other than
e-tendering/e-procurement route can be approved by
(d) Group Head
13 . The brief in paper when property is to be acquired by the Bank, should contain
14 . The covers containing the bids to be listed in
(a) Offer Receipt Register
15 . When two bids are received by the Bank for premises to be acquired, which bid is
opened first
(b) Technical Bid

(d) None of the above
16 . When properties are being acquired/purchased in settlement of debts, NPAs, the

value of the property can be decided by
(c) Both a & b
17 . Under two bid offer system, Part II is
(b) Financial Bid
18 . The technical bid should contain
(a) Location and property particulars
19 . In terms of the GOI, Ministry of Finance guidelines all negotiated contracts in respect
of rentals including taxes etc. and deposits of Rs. ________ and above in respect of
premises taken by Bank on lease / rental basis and or purchase of premises be
reported to Central Bureau of Investigation
(c) 25 lacs
20 . If the value of procurements is less than threshold, liberty is available to utilize e-

tendering/e-procurement to
(a) Procuring Office
21 . Whenever new commercial / residential premises are to be acquired or purchased by

the Bank, a brief notice must be given
(a) In widely circulated newspapers/local edition of national newspapers
22 . e-Tendering/e-Procurement refers to the process
(a) Tendering/procurement through electronic means
23 . In a situation where properties are being acquired / purchased through bid at auctions
by the Banks, the Bank should restrict its bid to
(c) a or b whichever is lower
24 . In case of sale proposal of Bank property, the transactions between Public Sector
Banks/Undertakings or Government Department may be settled at :
(c) At mutually agreed price
25 . The price or quotation in respect of offer for premises, should be mentioned in
(b) Financial Bid

L0641
1 . Which among the following is the best and most effective form of listening at the work
place?
(c) Empathetic listening
2 . Cognitive empathy is more suitable in which among these:
(d) Is a useful skill in negotiations
3 . The different types of empathy that have been defined by psychologists are
(a) Cognitive, emotional and compassionate empathy
4 . Which among the following is not a barrier to empathetic listening?
(d) Viewing the other party as equal
5 . Empathetic listening is
(d) Both A and B
6 . Holding the door for the people behind you to enter, displays
(b) Empathetic behavior
7 . Empathy allows leaders to
(d) Both A and C are correct
8 . Choose the option which shows sympathetic behavior.
(a) I know trying to lose weight is difficult and is really an uphill task.
9 . Emotional empathy is also known as:

(b) Personal distress
10 . Empathetic behavior is not (choose the incorrect option)
(a) Questioning
(b) Probing
(c) Judging
(d) Understanding
11 . Empathy is
(b) The ability to understand and share the feelings of others.
12 . The main difference between Empathy and Sympathy is
(b) Empathy is understanding the other persons feelings, whereas sympathy is

just acknowledging the other persons hardship.
13 . Empathetic listening helps in:
(d) Both A and B
14 . Choose the correct statement
(d) All the above are correct.
15 . Empathetic listening is not
(c) Being inattentive to what is being said by the other person
16 . As a general rule, people who want empathy need
(d) Compassionate empathy

17 . Emotional empathy is
(b) Empathy by feeling and emotions
18 . Choose the correct statement
(b) Using the phrases Please and Thank You periodically, will help in creating an
empathetic environment
19 . Cognitive empathy is also known as
(c) Perspective taking
20 . One of the challenges to Empathetic leadership is
(c) Both A and B
21 . Empathetic behavior is (choose the incorrect option)
(c) Not spending more time listening than talking
22 . Choose the most appropriate option
(c) Emotional empathy can be good and bad
23 . Empathy basically requires three things:
(c) Listening, openness and understanding
24 . Customer Empathy helps in enhancing customer service as the customer feels
(c) Only A
25 . Which among the following are barriers of empathetic listening?

(d) Both A and B
26 . Cognitive empathy is
(d) None of these.
27 . Emotional empathy is bad because:
(a) People may become overwhelmed by emotions
28 . The benefits of empathetic listening is
(c) It encourages the party to share more information
29 . Empathetic behavior is not (choose the incorrect option)
(c) Listening
30 . Empathetic leadership style
(d) Both A and B are correct

L0203
1 . In the case of Rational Engagement, the employee
(d) Understands how his performance will contribute to the organisational

success.
2 . How many types of employees are identified in an employee engagement survey?
(b) 3
3 . At how many levels we can measure the employee engagement?
(a) 2
4 . An employee does not get a chance to discuss his progress. He will be considered to
be engaged.
(b) false
5 . Clarity, as a method to enhance employee engagement, signifies
(b) Clarity of goals for the employees
6 . The employee engagement at Behavioural Energy level can be seen by
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above
7 . Open communication policy can facilitate employee engagement.
(a) true
8 . The engagement of the employees influences the engagement of the customer.
(a) true
9 . An employee commits time and effort to help the organisation succeed. He can be
considered to be engaged.
(a) true
10 . Confidence, as a method to enhance employee engagement, signifies
(d) Confidence in the company by virtue of leaders showing exceptional results
11 . To achieve employee engagement the organization should
(d) (A) & (B) only
12 . On an average 19% of employees are considered to be _______ in an organization.
(d) Disengaged
13 . What does if only mind-set mean?
(d) (A), (B) & (C) above
14 . Convey, as a method to enhance employee engagement, signifies
(d) Organization conveying its expectations to the employees and providing

feedback on their functioning
15 . Unengaged employees will
(a) Concentrate on tasks rather than the goals.
16 . Identifying the problem areas is the ______ stage of 4 stage process for measuring
employee engagement.
(c) Third
17 . The Theory of Person-Environment Fit says

(d) (A) & (B) only
18 . An employee does not know what the organisation expects from him. He can be
considered to be engaged.
(b) false
19 . The rule of 10 : 9 states that
(c) 10% improvement in commitment can decrease employees probability of

leaving the organisation by 9%.
20 . Contribute, as a method to enhance employee engagement, signifies
(a) Sharing with the employees as to how they are contributing to the
organisation's success
L0164
1 . Which of the following statement is not correct? The Balanced Score Card is a
management tool that enables organizations to:
(c) Provides feedback on employees, in order to coerce them to work harder and
longer.
2 . Which of the following statement is not correct?
(b) 360 degree assessments provide feedback on how others perceive an

employee
(c) 360 degree feedback addresses skills such as listening, planning and goal
setting
(e) 360 degree feedback focuses on evaluation on the basis of customer feedback
only.
3 . Which of the following statement is not correct? The balanced score card suggests
that we view the organization from four perspectives:
(b) The Competition perspective
4 . Success or failure of an organization depends on:
(a) Technology both hardware and software
(b) a wide range of products
(c) Human resources
(d) Competition
5 . Which of the following statement is not correct? A balanced Score Card should be
implemented to:
(b) Make staff accountable and initiate suitable disciplinary action where
warranted.
6 . Which one of the following is not correct? 360 degree feedback methodologies
involve collecting responses through standard forms about a manager from:
(b) His/ Her batch mates
(d) His/ Her subordinates
7 . Which of the following is not correct? Annual performance appraisals enable

management to:
(c) Coerce people/employees to perform.
8 . Which of the following is not correct? The forms ( 360 degree) are designed to
measure a subjects rating on:
(a) His / Her Knowledge and Skills only
9 . Which of the following statement is not correct? Performance management is the use
of performance measurement information to effect:
(a) A watch on the performance of the unit/branch
10 . Which of the following statement is not correct? For Implementing Balanced Score
Card the following steps are essential:
(d) Adopt a carrot and stick policy in order to improve performance and outcomes
L0049
1 . Where doubts arise about quality or quantity of the stocks during inspection, an
expert opinion or even a stock audit could be stipulated
(a) true
2 . Imported raw material in the stock statement should be valued at
(d) a, b or c above whichever is the lowest.
3 . During the inspection process, it is necessary to document the findings in the

inspection register.
(a) true
4 . In cases where cash credit limits are granted against book debts, a statement of book
debts with age-wise break-up should be obtained along with the stock statement.
(a) true
5 . Inspecting official should make an ABC analysis of stocks and ------
(e) All of the above.
6 . In the case where "plant- spares" are classified as non-current asset for working
capital assessment, this asset should not be considered eligible for DP though
included in the stock statement.
(a) true
(b) false
7 . It is essential that inspections are deferred to the last few days of a

month/quarter/half-year
(b) false
8 . Unpaid stocks purchased under Usance LC _________
(a) Should not be reckoned for calculation of Drawing Power.
9 . Asset verification by outside agencies is not applicable to units with credit facilities
below------
(d) Rs.1 crore
10 . All changes in the authorised drawing powers of borrowers must be promptly

recorded in the system under the authorisation of the BM/ Manager of the Division or
any authorised official handling loans and advances.
(a) true
11 . When stock statements are received at the branch, details like date of stock
statement, date of its receipt at the branch, brief particulars of the security held, the
value thereof, the stipulated margin and the resultant drawing power (i.e., value of
security after deducting margin) should be recorded in words and figures in the,
---------
(a) Drawing Power (DP) Register
12 . Stock Statement is required to be signed by---------
(a) CFO of the Company
(b) Authorised official of the Company
(c) General Manager (Accounts & Finance)
13 . The inspecting official should also keep in mind various guidelines pertaining to the
following aspects:
(e) All of the above
14 . A list of all items of machinery pledged/hypothecated to the Bank should be

prominently displayed in the factory premises and a legend 'Pledged/hypothecated to
SBI, Branch' boldly painted on the body of each machine. This task pertains to which
category?
(c) Fixed assets
15 . Whenever stocks in a certain location cannot for any reason be inspected, a note
must be made in the inspection register in order to ensure that the stocks are
checked at the next inspection.
(a) true
16 . Variations in the prices of commodities, against which advances are granted, should
be carefully examined to ensure that the stock statements represent correct value of
assets.
(a) false
17 . Where goods are stored in different places, inspection of all the stocks should be
conducted ----------
(a) Simultaneously or on the same day
(b) Next day
(c) In the same month
18 . The quarter/year-end stock statements should be compared and reconciled with the
corresponding items in the financial follow-up statements such as FFR-I & II/ and
year-end balance sheet.
(a) true
19 . Book debts upto the age of ------ months should be reckoned for calculation of
drawing power.
(d) As per sanction terms
20 . As regards the insurance of assets the official during the course of inspection must
ensure that:
(e) All of the above.
21 . The Drawing Power in each account --------- exceed the corresponding sanctioned
limit.
(b) Should not
22 . Semi-finished goods should be valued at
(d) Cost of production or selling price or market price or Govt. controlled rates,
whichever is the lowest.
23 . Book debts which are beyond the cover period (for drawing power purposes) as per
sanction terms should not be included in the stock statement.
(a) true
24 . On completion of the inspection, the inspection official should
(d) All of the above.
25 . Stocks pledged/hypothecated to the Bank must be inspected at -------- irregular

intervals
(d) As laid down by the Bank as per sanction terms
26 . Margin on imported raw material in the stock statement should be calculated at
(d) As per sanction terms
27 . The Drawing Power should be signed/authenticated in the register by
(c) BM/Authorised official
28 . Frequent return of cheques issued by the unit is indicative of units inability to pay off
its creditors in time and/or liquidity problems.
(a) true
29 . The reasons for follow-up of advances which includes inspection of advances are:
30 . Generally, book debts of more than ----- months old should not be reckoned for
arriving at the drawing power.
(b) 6
L075
1 . An appeal can be preferred within ----- days from the date of communication of the
punishment order to the employee concerned.
(a) 45 days
2 . Which of the following acts do not constitute Gross Misconduct?
(c) Not wearing identity card while on duty
3 . Shri Natwarlal admits in writing to stealing cash of Rs 50,000 from the cash counter. If
the Bank wants to terminate his services then it should...
(a) Conduct an enquiry into charges and punish him accordingly
4 . Ms K Mozi has been arrested o/a of her involvement in a failed chit fund. The bank
has initiated Disciplinary action against her. Meanwhile the court has commenced her
trial. Now the Bank should
(a) Continue with the Departmental action
(b) Hand over the Departmental action details to the court
(c) Drop the proceedings as court is more competent to decide
(d) Put on hold the proceedings and wait for 12 months or for the trial to be over
5 . The conduct rules for Award Staff are mentioned in
6 . Shri Pani, messenger refuses to provide drinking water to customers during working
hours when asked by BM to do so. He can be charged on grounds of
(d) Insubordination
7 . Mr. Mandrake, Assistant on probation (of 2012) batch has been convicted on charges
of cheating and forgery in a case of 2010. After receipt of the conviction order, the
bank can.
(d) Either A or B
8 . Which of the following statements is true...?
(a) All acts of Misconduct are illegal acts
(b) All illegal acts are acts of Misconduct
(c) Neither of the above statements is true
(d) Both the statements are true
9 . Mr. Natwarlal has been acquitted honorably by the court after being put on trial for
cheating. The Bank
(a) Cannot terminate his services
(b) May terminate his services by giving him 30 days notice
(c) May initiate Disciplinary Action
(d) May terminate his services by giving him 60 days notice
10 . Mr. Budhu, General Attendant has remained absent for 39 days. Which of the
following steps should the Branch Manager take?
(c) Send a registered notice, asking him to join immediately as his absence is
unauthorized.
11 . Which of the following acts and omissions on the part of an employee may be treated
as acts of "Minor misconduct":
(a) absence without leave being sanctioned
(b) unpunctual or irregular attendance;
(c) neglect of work, negligence in performing duties;

12 . Mr. Shakeel is convicted for an offence involving moral turpitude, he may be
(a) discharged with effect from the date of his conviction
(b) given any lesser form of punishment as mentioned in Clause 6
(c) Either A or B
(d) None of these
13 . Which of the following are generally considered as offences involving Moral

Turpitude?
(d) All the above
14 . The MOS dt. 10.04.2002 contains a provision that any person against whom
disciplinary action is contemplated shall
(c) Both A & B
15 . Mr. Ram, Spl Asst has absented himself for more than 30 days without taking prior
approval of the Branch Manager. He is liable to be charged under
(a) Gross Misconduct
16 . Mr. Praju arrested earlier on charges of embezzlement has been honorably acquitted
by the court. The Bank now may
(d) Take any the above actions
17 . An employee found guilty of gross misconduct may;
(d) any of these
18 . Mr. Zerox was caught copying in the CAIIB exam by the superintendent. He admits to
his actions. He is guilty of committing an act of
(c) Gross Misconduct
19 . If An employee is found guilty of minor misconduct he may not :
(a) Be dismissed
20 . Which of the following acts and/or omissions does not constitute "Gross misconduct"
by an employee:
(a) Engaging in any trade or business with the permission of the Bank
21 . Definition of Sexual harassment includes unwelcome sexually determined behaviour

such as.
(d) All the above.
22 . Mr. D.V. Raja, an employee, has been arrested by the CBI on charges of involvement
in a money circulation scheme. It is now more than 1 year since his arrest and the
CBI is yet to file a charge sheet. The Bank should now
(c) Start the Disciplinary proceedings against him
23 . Mr. Adarsh is involved in a MCC cheque fraud. Before contemplating disciplinary

action against him the bank should
(a) Inform him of the charges against him and give him an chance to explain
24 . The Memorandum of Settlement dated 10/04/02 :
(d) All of these
25 . Which of the following will be treated as Unauthorized disclosure of information:
(c) Disclosure of information relating to any of its customers

26 . Mr. Stubborn (Sr Spl Asst) refuses to take over as Cash-in-Charge in a small branch
despite being asked to do so by the branch manager. He can be charged under
(c) Gross MIsconduct
27 . Organizational conduct refers to:
(a) the code of conduct to be followed in an organization
28 . Shri Chandramohan a Spl Assistant of Gunjanpur branch has embezzled funds of

customers. The authority to initiate Disciplinary action in his case is
(a) Regional Manager of the region in which his branch is located
29 . Which of the following is an example of desired Organisational conduct?
(c) Coming to Office regularly on time
30 . Mr. Juadi, Head Messenger and Local Unit Secretary held a meeting of his union
inside the branch without BMs permission. To charge him for misconduct the BM
should first
(d) Give him a chance to explain his stand

L0475
1 . Enquiry Officer is the person appointed to enquire into allegations against a charge
sheeted
(a) Award Staff
2 . The principle of natural justice are based on two latin maxims - one of which is
(a) No one should be a judge in his/her own case
3 . Which among the following is one of the principles of natural justice
(b) The accused to be given reasonable opportunity of being heard
4 . A member of the award staff who comes late to the office can be treated under
(a) Minor misconduct
5 . Which among the following regarding and Enquiry Officer is not true
(c) He/she can act as a prosecution witness
6 . A charge sheet can be served
(d) A person other than the Disciplinary Authority/ Appointing Authority also
provided he/she has been authorised by the rules.
7 . The disciplinary proceedings begin with
(b) Serving of the charge sheet
8 . Rule 50(4) of the Officers Rules stipulates that an officer
(b) Do nothing which is unbecoming of an officer
9 . A charge sheet is
(a) A letter or notice addressed to an employee, who is being proceeded against
departmentally setting out the details of the charge against him
10 . Which among the following is correct regarding issuance of a charge sheet
(b) The person against whom charge sheet is issued should be addressed in
second and third person
11 . In the case of supervising staff governed by Officers Service Rules the authority
appointed to enquire allegations against a charge sheeted officer is called
(d) Inquiring Officer
12 . In the case of an award staff the authority appointed to enquire into the allegations
against a charge sheeted employee is called
(a) Enquiry Officer
13 . In the case of an officer an act of misconduct may relate to
(c) His/her work situation or private life
14 . The components of a charge sheet are
(d) All the above
An Officer of State Bank of India is governed by the
(b) State Bank of India Officers Service Rules
16 . After issue of a charge sheet, an award staff should submit his/her reply to
(b) The Branch Manager/ Head of the Office admitting or denying the charges
17 . Inquiring Officer is the person appointed to enquire into allegations against a charge
sheeted
(b) Supervisory Staff
18 . The competent authority to grant sanction for prosecution against a bank employee is
(d) The authority competent to remove him from Banks service
19 . When a charge sheet is served by post and the registered notice is returned With the
note refused to accept
(a) The charge sheet can be deemed served
20 . All administrative action taken prior to the serving of a charge sheet
(b) Will not form part of the disciplinary proceedings
21 . Which among the following principles of natural justice is not true
(d) He/she is not given proper opportunity to rebut evidence and cross examine
the witness produced by the prosecution
22 . Which among the following is not true regarding issuance of a charge sheet
(c) A charge sheet cannot be changed, modified or amended subsequently
23 . The charge sheeted officer/ charge sheeted employee can be defended by a legal
practitioner
(d) Any of the above
24 . The formal authority to decide initiation of disciplinary action in a case is
(d) Disciplinary Authority
25 . In the case of a minor misconduct of an award staff
(a) Enquiry is not necessary

L0503
1. The weighted value of an asset is ___
(a) Its value multiplied by the weight for that type of asset
2. Which of the following is not correct?
3. Expected Loss refers to ____
(c) The statistically established loss expected to occur on an exposure
4. Haircut is intended to---------- and ______of the Exposure on account of collaterals other than financ
collaterals.
(b) Reduce the value of the Collateral, increase the value
5. Asset Netting means reducing value of eligible Collaterals from Outstanding to arrive at the Net Exp
amount. Basel II recognizes____________. To be eligible for Asset Netting, lien on Collaterals is to
marked and____________.
(a) Only Financial Collaterals and Gold for Asset Netting, legal certainty is to be met
6. For calculating capital charge under basic indicator approach on account of operational risk, a facto
(15%) is multiplied by
(c) Average Gross Income of the Bank for last 3 years
7. While Tier I Capital primarily is Share Capital, Tier II comprises of other types, such as_____
(c) Preference shares, and subordinated debt
8. Which of the following is not a market risk?
(e) None of the above

9. Banks capital serves as_____
(c) Important cushion against unexpected losses
10 . Which of the following is a tier-II capital?
(e) A, B & C above
11 . Probable Losses can be__________
(d) Categorised as Expected Losses & Unexpected Losses
12 . Unexpected Loss is calculated based upon a determined confidence level of __________of assume
correlation amongst exposure etc
(a) 99.9%
13 . Different Risk Weights are Assigned to Different Assets
(c) Since all kinds of Assets on a banks balance Sheet do not carry equal Risks
14 . CRAR stands for
(a) Credit Requirement Assessment Rating
(c) Capital Risk to Assessment of weight Ratio
(d) Capital to Risk weighted Asset Ratio
15 . An example of a debt with o(zero) weight would be:
(c) Government debt
16 . Capital is a provision against unexpected losses

(a) true
17 . In Basel2, first pillar is similar to Basel I requirement, the second is the use of sophisticated risk mod
the third pillar__________
(c) Requires more disclosures, capital and risk management policies.
18 . Find the odd one out with regard to Tier -1 capital
(c) Revaluation reserve
19 . As per the guidelines issued by RBI, Indian banks to maintain a minimum CRAR of __
(a) 9% on ongoing basis
(c) 9% every year on Gross Assets
20 . Unexpected Losses are deviations from the average that may put an institutions stability at risk
(a) true
L0504
CONSERVATION OF CAPTITAL 2
1. ---------------coverage decreases risk weight of our assets and thus conserves capital. (fill in the blan
(a) CGTMSE / ECGC
2. Which of the following is not correct?
(c) Allocated limit should be in the same CIF number to the extent possible in order to conserve
3. Find the odd one out with regard to eligible Basel-II collateral?
(b) Gold (bullion or Jewellery benchmarked to 99.99% purity)
4. For a Fund Based Loan of Rs.1.00 crore, the Bank will have to provide Rs.------- lac as capital @12.
CAR. (fill in the blank)
(b) 12.00
5. Which of the following fields in CBS will have an impact on calculation of capital at whole Bank leve
(e) (a), (b) & (c) above
6. Which of the following risks is not a relevant risk for calculation of Capital?
(b) Reputational Risk
7. Ensuring minimal unsecured portion of NPA would help
(c) Yes, since this will help conserve capital
8. The capital Charge on each business line is calculated by multiplying income by a factor (denoted
by ------------ assigned to that --------- . (fill in the blanks)
(a) Regulator, business line
9. If contingent liabilities on account of expired LC / BG are reversed, Bank------------------.(fill in the bla
(a) will be able to conserve capital
10 . In CBS I have shown a performance guarantee of Rs.100 lacs as a financial guarantee by mistake.
capital adequacy. I have wasted capital to the tune of Rs.
(c) 4.5 lacs
11 . I have no role in conservation of capital if I am working as a
12 . Capital can be conserved by reducing------------, hence reducing provision requirements as well as R

Weight on unsecured portion of NPA (fill in the blank)
(a) Gross NPA
13 . Hair cut is applied to account for the differences in ------------ of collateral and its actual ---------- value
distress sale conditions based on empirical data.(fill in the blanks)
(a) book value, realisable
14 . In my branch there is a housing loan account and house is under construction. By not entering
progressively increasing value of the house in collateral field in CBS and reflecting the correct positi
am ----------. (fill in the blank)
(a) wasting Banks capital
15 . Margin money on LC /BG is not -------- from LC/BG liability for the purpose of calculation of ----------r
in the blanks)
(b) Netted, capital adequacy
16 . For calculating capital charge under basic indicator approach on account of operational risk, Gross
income= net interest income + net non-interest income as laid down by supervisors/ national accoun
standards which:
(e) (a), (b) & (c) above
17 . Total Capital charge is based on the ----------- of the simple summation of the regulatory Capital char
across each of the business lines in each year. (fill in the blank)
(a) 3 years average
18 . Market Risk is defined as the risk of losses in an ----------------------- position arising from movements
market prices. (fill in the blank)
(b) On Balance Sheet and Off balance Sheet
19 . Guarantee of which of the following does not reduce risk weight of an asset?
(a) Indian Sovereigns and Indian Sovereign entities like RBI/DICGC/CGTSME/ECGc.
(b) Indian Banks eligible for lesser RW than borrower-constituent.
(c) Blue chip companies having robust capital market presence
(d) Other counter-parties Rated AA or better
20 . The eight business lines are, Corporate Finance, Trading & Services, Retail banking, Commercial B
----------------------------, Asset management, Retail brokerage.(fill in the blanks)
(b) Payments and settlement, Agency Services
(c) Mass Banking, Personal Banking
(d) Payments and Settlements, Agricultural banking

L0520
1 . Which one of the following is not one of the Roles & Responsibilities of Operational
Risk Management Department (ORMD)?
(b) Develop criteria for classification of Near Miss Events.
(c) Checking of Near Miss Event data reported by Branch / Unit during RFIA
(d) Place selected high priority Near Miss Event(s) with high potential impact
before the ORMC.
2 . If there is no financial impact; it is not necessary to report the Operational Risk Event.
(b) False
3 . Near Miss should be reported :
(c) Both A and B.
4 . _________ to maintain NME inventory/library.
(b) OR Manager
5 . Creation of e-library of Near-Miss Events will also serve as an input for _________
(a) Scenario analysis workshop as part of capital computation for operational risk
under AMA.
6 . Incomplete reporting by the Branch / Unit should also be encouraged and the
controllers and OR Managers should help reconstructing events in a sequence in the
Near Miss template for the purpose of understanding and identification of the control
gaps, if any.
(a) true
(b) false
7 . Near miss can be classified into Basel defined Loss event Types.
(a) true
(b) false
8 . Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(c) A bank should therefore develop procedures to identify such Near Miss events
(d) The amounts lost and recovered before the close of business the same day to
be included in the operational loss data base
9 . Identification and reporting of Near Miss events is the sole responsibility of an OR

Manager.
(b) False
10 . There exists possibility of general reluctance on the part of the operating staff to
report NMEs
(a) On account of fear of accountability.
11 . Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA) Guidelines on capital computation for

operational risk suggest that the operating functionaries should not be subjected to
accountability aspect for reporting incidents of Near Miss Events for the first few
incidents.
(a) true
12 . Which of the following statement in respect of 3rd stage of Near Miss Management
Process - Prioritization and Classification - is not correct ?
(b) ORMD is required to identify and escalate top priority NME that are likely to
cause major problems
13 . What are the advantages of Recording NMEs ?
(d) All the above

14 . Which one of the following is one of the Roles & Responsibilities of Inspection &
Management Audit (I&MA) Department
(a) Checking of Near Miss Event data reported by Branch / Unit during RFIA
15 . Which of the following statement in respect of 2nd stage of Near Miss Management
Process - Reporting - is not correct ?
(c) Incomplete reporting should not be encouraged
16 . Prioritization is based on the following aspects:
(d) All the above.
17 . _________ at circles and at business and support groups [in consultation with
DGM&CFO/DGM (Risk)] to identify top and critical NMEs to be placed before the
RMCC and RMC respectively
(b) OR Manager
18 . Mr. A claiming to be a doctor applied for loan at the Branch. On investigation it was
found that he had multiple PAN cards and taken loans from different banks.
(c) Both A and B.
19 . Which of the following statement is not correct?
(d) Detection during the AFIs of Banks or otherwise of incidents of non-reporting of

such events will be viewed favorably by RBI
20 . Which of the following statement in respect of 1st stage of Near Miss Management
Process - Identification - is not correct?
(c) Reprimand observant staff and branch/unit/office
21 . Which is a Near Miss Event?

(b) An operational risk event that does not lead to a loss.
22 . Once a near-miss event is reported, based on priority, identifying the cause(s) and
initiating an action plan for prevention of recurrence should not be formulated.
(b) false
23 . It is desirable and extremely motivating to give feedback to the employee who

identified the NMEs.
(a) true
24 . Which of the following statement in respect of 5th stage of Near Miss Management
Process - Analysis- is not correct ?
(d) Low priority for implementation of mitigation measures
25 . Which one of the following is not one of the Roles & Responsibilities of OR
Manager ?
(a) Identify Near Miss Events for flash through their sites.
(c) Reward and Recognition for the selected Near Miss Events.
(d) Responsible to implement mitigation measures
26 . Root cause analysis is only undertaken for Operational Risk Events which face an
actual loss.
(b) false
27 . Guidelines with regard to Near Miss events is forming part of _______________
(a) Loss Data Management Policy & Manual
28 . A SWO of the Branch left his counter and went for some work after closing the entry
door of the space behind the counters. There were 3-4 miscreants in the branch. One
of the miscreants entered the space behind the counters. One miscreant was talking
to the Accountant to avoid detection of the miscreant who had entered the space
behind the counters. The miscreant collected the cash lying on the counter of SWO in
his bag. SWO saw the miscreant and ran instantly towards him and caught hold of
him with the bag. All other miscreants (3-4 persons) ran away in the chaos. The guard
on duty on the ground floor also reached the spot. The miscreant was locked inside a
room. Thereafter, the branch called the police and handed over the miscreant to
them. The Branch should now:
(d) Report the event as a Near Miss Event.
29 . Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
(d) The Bank does not treats such events for which recovery has been made on
the same business day of the event as near miss event.
30 . RBI proposes disciplinary action against the staff involved in Near Miss Event action
for the first incidents.
(b) False
31 . Timely and proper addressing of Near Miss Evens would ____________
(a) reduce the probability of happening similar losses/business disruptions not

crystallizing into OR Losses.
32 . Detection during the AFIs of Banks or otherwise of incidents of non-reporting of NMEs

will be viewed seriously by RBI.
(a) true
Risk Management Department (ORMD)?
(d) Review and approve the guidelines for Near Miss Events as part of OR Manual
34 . Identify the following Operational Risk Event: Two cheques purportedly issued by a
customer of the branch were returned in clearing. When customer received SMS of
return of cheque, he advised that he doesnt have this cheque book.
(a) This is a Near-Miss Event

35 . Which one of the following is not one of the Roles & Responsibilities of OR
Manager ?
(a) Identification of a Near Miss Event (NME)
(b) Encourage reporting of Near Miss Events.
(c) Ensure that the contents of Near Miss Event template are complete.
(d) Report Near Miss Events to ORMD at monthly intervals.
36 . The amounts lost and recovered before the close of business (the same day) is to be
included in the:
(b) Near Miss Events
Risk Management Committee (ORMC)?
(a) Maintain inventory/library of Near Miss Events
38 . Roles of a Controller with respect to near Miss Events are to:
(c) Both A and B.
39 . Similar events occurring multiple times should be
(b) Given higher priority
40 . Template for reporting of NME is forming part of:
(a) Loss Data Management Policy & Manual

L0685
1 . Which of the following is a characteristic of proactive people?
(d) All of these
2 . Which of the following pairs form the foundation of personal effectiveness?
(c) Character and Competence
3 . A task is important if:
(c) It contributes to achievement of ones goals.
4 . Seek first to understand, then to be understood. - This is the habit of:
(c) Empathic communication
5 . Doing exercise is an example of _________ renewal.
(a) Physical
6 . Which of the following statements is correct?
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
7 . The essence of effectiveness lies in:
(d) Character
8 . Which of the following is NOT a dimension of renewal?
(d) Traditional
9 . Which of the following is NOT a barrier to synergy?

(c) Collaboration
10 . As per a quote, for most people, the biggest obstacle to personal effectiveness is:
(c) Their own habits
11 . In the context of Emotional Bank Account, thinking Win-Win implies:
(b) More deposits and less withdrawals
12 . The SECOND habit of highly successful people (as per the author) is:
(c) Begin with the end in mind
13 . Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Mental creation precedes physical creation.
14 . Busy going nowhere describes which quadrant of the urgent-important matrix?
(c) Quadrant 3
15 . Write your personal vision and mission statements is a part of which habit?
(b) Begin with the end in mind
16 . Which of the following is an example of spiritual renewal?
(c) Meditation
17 . Effectiveness is sometimes described as:
(a) Doing the right thing
18 . Which of the following statements is correct of proactivity?

(c) My choices control my behaviour.
19 . Which of the following expressions is true of a Vision Statement?
(b) It expresses ones personal sense of purpose and meaning in life.
20 . Who is the author of the book The Seven Habits of Highly Effective People?
(c) Stephen Covey
21 . Which of the following is the SEVENTH habit?
(b) Sharpen the saw
22 . Collaboration is a characteristic of which paradigm of human interactions?
(a) Win-Win
23 . Which quadrant of the urgent-important matrix contains important-but-not-urgent

activities?
(b) Quadrant 2
24 . Attending to junk mail falls in which quadrant of the urgent-important matrix?
(d) Quadrant 4
25 . There is only this much. So I must grab it. - What type of mentality is this?
(d) Scarcity mentality
26 . The principle of effectiveness is denoted by which of the following symbols?
(d) P/PC
27 . Submissiveness is a characteristic of which paradigm of human interactions?
(c) Lose-Win
28 . Struggling to stay ahead describes which quadrant of the urgent-important matrix?
(a) Quadrant 1
29 . A person with a low self-esteem is likely to have which paradigm of human

interaction?
(a) Lose-Lose
30 . The movement from dependence to independence is called:
(a) Private victories

L0124
1 . SBI Tiny Card works on
(b) Near Field Communication Technology
2 . What is Financial Education?
(b) Creating peoples capacity to be familiar with financial products and take
informed decisions
3 . Four conditionalities have been agreed upon for success of Financial Inclusion. Three
of them are Financial Education, Suitable Infrastructure & HR Development and Inter-
Agency Co-operation. Which is the fourth one?
(a) Use of appropriate, low cost technology
4 . The Banks were advised to make available a basic banking no-frills account with low
or minimum balances and charges in
(c) November 2005
5 . Attempts to ensure Financial Inclusion are not new to India and many steps for the
same objectives have been taken in the past. Which among the following is not such
a step?
(b) Implementation of Narasimham Committee recommendations
6 . Two funds, with budgetary contribution from the Union Govt. were created in terms of
the interim report of the Committee on Financial Inclusion, the Financial Inclusion
Fund and the Financial Inclusion Technology Fund. What was the amount of Govt.
contribution for each?
(c) Rs. 500 Crs. Each
7 . Financial Inclusion is required for the ultimate objective of
(c) Better distribution of growth in national income

8 . A Committee on Financial Inclusion was constituted by the Central Govt. some time
back. It submitted its interim recommendations in January / February 2007. When did
it submit its final report?
(c) January 2008
9 . The theory of three pillars states that the state Govt., the financial Sector and NGOs
are responsible for ensuring Financial Inclusion. Which will be the appropriate one to
be added as a fourth one?
(c) The Private Corp. Sector
10 . Two more decisions have been taken recently by the Union Govt. on the basis of the
Committees report, for implementation by banks. One is opening of 250 accounts per
annum per Bank branch. What is the other?
(b) Engaging individuals also as BCs
11 . According to consensus at the national level, many reasons lie behind poor Financial
Inclusion in India. Which of the following is not a correct reason?
(d) Loan waiver schemes
12 . As part of the Banks plan for running Common Service Centres in 1 lac villages, an
MoU has been signed with a particular organization to share their technology and
pilot studies. Please name the organization.
(c) IL & FS
13 . National Rural Financial inclusion Plan (NRFIP) was suggested by the
(a) Committee on Financial Inclusion-Chairman: Dr. C. Rangarajan
14 . Who headed Internal Group on Rural Credit & Micro Finance?
(c) Shri H.R. Khan

15 . In which document did RBI call upon banks to ensure Financial Inclusion in its
present form?
(d) Mid term Review of Credit Policy 2005-06
16 . Financial Inclusion was the theme in a national level event some time during 2005 to
2009 or so. Can you identify the event?
(c) Bankers Conference 2006 at Hyderabad
17 . Financial exclusion statistics are collected by which Agency in India?
(c) National Sample Survey Organization
18 . The SHG Credit Card Limit is a minimum of
(c) Rs.50,000/-
19 . The scheme SBI-India Post Alliance is designed at improving the Banks reach in
rural and under-banked areas for business under Financial Inclusion and also
otherwise. Under this, the Department of Posts will work as
(d) A Business Correspondent
20 . Which form of social and financial service was mainly emphasized by the CGAP
Forum?
(b) Revamping the Co-op. Credit Structure
(c) Extension activities by NGOs & banks jointly
(d) Micro Credit as a tool for growth
21 . Which of the following is not a product under Financial Inclusion in the Bank?
(a) KGC
22 . A new delivery mechanism was mooted by RBI as a step towards better Financial
Inclusion. Which Committee of RBI did recommend this?
(a) Internal Group on Rural Credit & Micro Finance
23 . Under General Purpose Credit Card, credit should not exceed 20% of production
credit limit and/or 20% of annual income or Rs.__________ whichever is lower.
(c) Rs.25,000/-
24 . Under the new mechanism, Business Correspondent and Business Facilitator [BC/BF
] model has been launched by the Bank. Which of the following statements is not
correct?
(d) BC and BF models will carry the same amount of risk for the Bank
25 . The new delivery mechanism towards Financial Inclusion, recommended by RBI, is

modeled on the practice in a developing country. Please name the country.
(d) Brazil
26 . Which Region has the lowest exclusion (the number of Bank accounts per 100 adult
population)?
(a) Northern
27 . As part of the first initiative, a Forum was created at the international level to
recommend ways and means of Financial Inclusion. What is its name?
(c) Consultative Group to Assist the Poor [CGAP]
28 . Which among the following years, was observed as the year of micro credit?
(c) 2005
29 . In order to emphasize the concept of micro credit, at the instance of World Bank,
CGAP was formed in
(b) 1996
30 . According to the available statistics, which Region has the highest exclusion (the
number of Bank accounts per 100 adult population)?
(d) North-eastern
31 . In addition to micro banking [deposits & credit], and a hassle-free remittance and
collection system, a third product is also counted as part of the basic requirements
under Financial Inclusion. Please identify.
(a) Micro-insurance, basically life insurance
32 . Which world body took the important step towards Financial Inclusion at a
multinational level?
(d) European Central Bank
33 . Where does the SHG Linkage Scheme stand vis--vis Financial Inclusion?
(c) It remains an important constituent of the overall Financial Inclusion and

sought to be further expanded
34 . In the case of SHG Gold Card (issued for carrying economic/income generating
activities), the limit is a minimum of
(d) Rs.2,00,000/-
35 . Which of the following comprehensively and correctly describes the objectives of

financial inclusion?
(d) All the above

L0029
1 . A account subjected to restructuring will continue to be in same asset category up to

period of 1 year from
(c) Date of first payment of interest or principle ,whichever is earlier
2 . Borrowers indulging in fraud and malfeasance will be ineligible for restructuring under
the Debt Restructuring Mechanism for SMEs.
(a) Yes
3 . Following units are eligible for debt restructuring as per RBI guidelines
(a) All corporate SMEs enjoying banking facilities only from the SBI, irrespective of
the level of the dues to the Bank.
4 . Wilful defaulters can be covered under Debt Restructuring Scheme of RBI
(c) Can be considered in exceptional circumstances
5 . For an entity to be eligible for debt restructuring, it has to become
(a) Viable in 5 yrs and repayment can not be more than 10 yrs
6 . In cases of Sub Standard and Doubtful Accounts, Even in cases where the sacrifice is
by way of write off of the past interest dues, the asset should continue to be treated
as "substandard"/ "doubtful". True or False
(a) TRUE
7 . In the above case (Restructuring of accounts of Consortium/Multiple Banking SME

accounts), the Restructuring Package will be worked out with the consent of
(c) Bank with second largest share
8 . A account was classified as substandard as on 30/06/2014 and restructuring was

done on 31/07/2014,the revised repayment was scheduled to start from
01/09/2014,but revised repayment schedule was not followed by the unit since
beginning, what will the status of the account as on 30/09/2015
(b) Doubtful-D1
9 . Margin Money for Working Capital and Funds for Start Up Expenses can be
considered as a part of Restructuring packages on a case to case basis. True or
False
(a) TRUE
10 . To be eligible under Debt Restructuring, the unit should have
(b) Average DSCR of 1.25 and not less than 1 in any year
11 . Restructuring of eligible SME accounts is taken up by the Bank
(b) These accounts are taken up only on specific request from the Borrower
12 . Following units are eligible for debt restructuring
(a) All corporate SMEs, which have funded and non-funded outstandings up to Rs.
10 crore under the multiple/consortium banking arrangement.
13 . Following units are eligible for debt restructuring as per RBI guidelines
(a) All non corporate SME with outstanding beyond Rs10.00 crs
(b) All non corporate SME s with Limits beyond Rs.10.00 crs
(c) All non-corporate SMEs banking with SBI irrespective of the level of dues
(d) All non corporate SME s with outstandings up to Rs.10.00 crs
14 . Sub-standard / Doubtful asset are eligible to continue in the Substandard/ Doubtful

category for the specified period of _____after the date when the first payment of
interest or of principal, whichever is earlier, falls due under the rescheduled terms
provided the borrowers outstanding is fully covered by tangible security
(a) 1 year
15 . The time frame for completing the whole process of entire restructuring package from
the date of submission of application
(c) 90 days
16 . In case additional finance is granted to a sub standard/doubtful restructured account,

such additional finance would also be categorized
(c) Standard for a period of one year and again in the original category of the
principal debt if satisfactory payment record is not maintained.
17 . What is the maximum period upto which concession in interest rate can continue on
FITL
(a) 3 years
18 . What is the maximum period upto which concession in interest rate can continue on
WCTL.
(b) 5 years
19 . In case of restructured Sub Standard/Doubtful accounts, if the company adheres to

the repayment terms for a period of one year from the date of restructuring/start of
repayment after moratorium period, the account would
(a) Upgraded to Standard Assets
20 . Promoters" sacrifice and additional funds brought by them should be a minimum of
(c) 20% of the creditors" sacrifice or 2% of restructured debt whichever is higher

L0169
1 . Recovery of advances through compromise settlement is accepted as an effective
non-legal remedy by the Bank in cases where it is appropriate to adopt this option.
(a) true
2 . Normally, an initial deposit of atleast ___ of the outstanding will be taken from the
borrower as an evidence of his intention to pursue the compromise settlement.
(a) 15%
3 . The quality of loan asset is the most important factor for the basic viability of the
banking system.
(a) true
4 . From the borrower's angle, entering into compromise proposal is the desire to avoid
5 . NPA Policy is applicable to
(d) All Branches of the bank in the world
6 . The corporate policy is to bring down net NPAs below
(c) 1.7%
7 . At the controlling office, the proposal goes to a Screening Committee, on

compromise, where the proposals are critically evaluated.
(a) true
8 . Identification of NPA is done _________
(d) Once in a month for all accounts
9 . A well-concluded compromise settlement, which results in a WIN-WIN for the Bank as

well as the borrower, is a strong positive propaganda for the Bank.
(a) true
10 . From the Bank's point of view, the process of compromise settlements [OTS-One
Time Settlements] enables
11 . The extant legal system is not conducive to expeditious recovery, mainly due to the
protracted process, and full recovery being impossible, a pragmatic solution is called
for. Compromise offers this practical and realistic solution.
(a) true
12 . It is not possible, to lay down precise guidelines which can be followed uniformly in all
compromise cases, as each offer is unique in the context of the circumstances
necessitating its consideration as a recovery option.
(a) true
13 . A uniform approach should be adopted while arriving at concessions in a compromise

settlement.
(b) false
14 . Stressed Assets Management Branch (SAMB) does not play an effective role in
targeting high value NPA accounts for upgradation and recovery.
(b) false
15 . In case of compromise settlements following concessions can be given:
(e) Any one or more of the above
16 . Whenever negotiation is considered, the following conditions will apply:

17 . Negotiation can be defined as a process by which two or more interested parties seek
an acceptable exchange for the items they own or control.
(a) true
18 . Non Performing Asset means an asset or account of borrower, which has been
classified by a bank as sub-standard, doubtful or loss asset, in accordance with the
directions or guidelines relating to asset classification issued by The Reserve Bank of
India.
(a) true
19 . In case of compromise any offer which is received should be accepted.
(b) false
20 . The advantages of compromise are
21 . NPA management is an integral part of the overall loan asset management of the
bank, consisting of strategic approaches to
22 . No negotiation is possible when
23 . Holding on operation should stop
(b) Within 1 month of sanction of Rehabilitation package
24 . In respect of suit filed accounts, the compromise settlements should be through the
Court, by way of Compromise Decree, with suitable clauses which would enable the
Bank to resort to legal action/resume the action without prior reference to the opposite
party, in the event of default.
(a) true
25 . NPA Management Policy gives guidelines on ________
(c) Recovery of NPA & Prevention of Fresh NPA
26 . Of the various processes, recovery through negotiated settlements offers the best
scope for maximizing NPA reductions at the minimum expense.
(a) true
27 . Accounts eligible for write offs should be written off in the beginning of the year so
that efforts saved in managing these are utilised for recovery of other NPAs.
(a) true
28 . An advance account becomes Special Mention Account if
(a) Interest is not paid for 30 days
29 . There are four styles of negotiation viz. Competitive style, Co-operative style,
Combative style and Lose-lose style.
(a) true
30 . Monitoring Mechanism must function with greater thrust so that as soon as default
takes place in any loan account alerts are sounded and steps to prevent slippages
are initiated.
(a) true
31 . Special Mention Accounts (SMA) are
(b) Accounts between standard & sub-standard
32 . Bank's approach to compromise as a recovery option will be based on an analysis of

the Bank's strength and/ or weaknesses in a given case based on
33 . There are four crucial elements of negotiation
(a) true
34 . It should always be borne in mind that while the Bank has only one option i.e. to
recover the money lent whereas the borrower has two alternatives i.e. to pay or to
default.
(a) true
35 . Successful negotiator can be termed as
36 . The three crucial elements always present in every negotiation are Power, Time and
Information.
(a) true
37 . Compromise settlement invariably involves certain sacrifice by the Bank (by way of
write off and / or waiver) of a portion of its dues.
(a) true
38 . Entire compromise amount should be paid preferably in a lumpsum or in instalments
spread over a maximum period of ____ months.
(c) 12
39 . Negotiation is concerned with resolving conflict between two or more parties, usually
by exchange of concessions.
(a) true
40 . Objectives of NPA analysis are

L0197
MONITORING AC 1 CRORE AND ABOVE
1. In the review of Standard Assets, the review committee should chalk out appropriate steps within a
frame depending on
(c) Nature of Irregularity
2. The speed with which problems are diagnosed and remedial action initiated is vital for Asset Manag
(a) Yes
3. 'Revalidate' as an important parameter of Branch Level scrutiny, means
(a) Revalidate the assumptions made at the time of credit sanction particularly to assessment of
risk
4. Irregularity in creation of mortgage, registration of charge with ROC, is an indicator of
(b) Deficiency in documentation
5. Asset Category between Standard Assets and Sub- Standard Assets introduced for internal monitor
follow-up is
(d) Special Mention Accounts
6. As per time schedule for review of Standard Assets (above Rs One Crore), preparation of check list
standard assets is to be done
(b) In the first Week of every month
7. Branch level committee shall decide the time frame by which
(a) The deficiencies would be rectified and asset quality improved
8. The Branch level committee shall scrutinize accounts and chalk out appropriate steps to
(c) Salvage accounts from further deterioration

9. Scoring range is specifically prescribed for assessing level of irregularity and parameters to be atten
priority as per checklist for review of Standard Assets.
(b) No
10 . The check list for review of the Standard Assets by the Branch level committee has been devised to
capture
(c) Warning signals for the accounts turning SMA
11 . Following three are included as parameters of Branch Level scrutiny.
(b) Diagnose, Revalidate and Verify
12 . Diagnose as a parameter of Branch level scrutiny means to diagnose
(b) Reasons for accounts showing signs of impairment
13 . Identify as a parameter of Branch level scrutiny means to identify
(d) Existing primary and secondary sources of cash flow and determine whether the unit is intrin
viable
14 . Proactive intervention to arrest sudden deterioration of Standard Assets to Sub-standard Assets form
integral part of
(c) Banks Asset Management Process
15 . The committee to scrutinize the checklist of all standard accounts with total indebtedness exceeding
One Crore will include the Branch Manager, Divisional Manager and ____.
(b) Network General Manager
(c) Relationship Manager
(d) Field Officer
16 . A system of early recognition with timely and adequate intervention has been the focus of Banks ap
in dealing with
(d) Slippage of Asset Quality
17 . Determine as a parameter of Branch level scrutiny means to determine
(d) Whether the problems faced by the unit are of temporary nature
18 . Accounts where interest / instalment has not been serviced for 30 days are
(c) SMA Category - I accounts
19 . An NPA account is one that
(c) Both of the above
20 . "Assess" as a parameter of Branch level scrutiny means to assess:
(a) Ability of the promoters to correct the deficiency and regularize the position in short time
21 . Arising out of Banks experience, it is felt that there is greater need to further streamline the identific
(b) Special Mention Accounts
22 . Verify as a parameter of Branch level scrutiny means to verify
(a) Completeness and correctness of documentation
23 . The primary intent behind the new approach is to ensure that Standard Assets do not suddenly dete
into SMA due to lack of timely action / follow up.
(a) Yes
24 . Accounts which are not in default but are showing early warning signals such as frequent return of c
/ bills discounted, devolvement of LCs, declining financials etc. are
(c) SMA Category - I accounts

25 . SAR covers loan assets which have the potential for quick turnaround, i.e. SMAs, (Category I & II) a
standard assets, with a cut-off of
(c) Rs. 10.00 lacs and above
26 . The check list pertaining to each account shall after monthly review be kept in the unit file for
(a) Subsequent scrutiny / verification by the credit auditors / Branch inspectors
27 . Default in servicing / payment obligation is a trigger point of
(a) Loan Default
28 . As per time schedule for review of Standard Assets (above Rs One Crore), review of all standard as
to be done
(b) By 5th of every month
29 . The time frame should be _________ and ____________ to ensure that standard accounts do not
deteriorate into SMAs.
(c) Diarised, followed up
30 . The Branch level committee to review the Standard Assets with total indebtedness above Rs One c
shall have
(b) Three members

L0323
WHISTLE BLOW POLICY
1. What is to be done if the investigator is not in a position to complete the investigation within the pres
time under Whistle Blower Policy?
(c) Interim report has to be submitted by the investigating officer along with the probable date of
completion
2. Under Whistle Blower Policy the status report is submitted to the Reviewing Authority every
(b) Quarter
3. Who will verify the identity of the Whistle Blower?
(b) Designated Officer
4. Under Whistle Blower Policy action taken against each disclosure will be noted and put up to the Re
Authority within
(a) 7 days
5. What action will be taken by Reviewing Authority on the basis of status report under Whistle Blower
(b) Corrective action to prevent the recurrence of events in future
6. What are the exclusions from the Whistle Blower Policy?
(c) Both (A) & (B)
7. Who is the Reviewing Authority under Whistle Blower Policy?
(c) Chief Vigilance Officer at Corporate Centre
8. Bank can at any time ________ the Whistle Blower Policy.
(d) All the above

9. Under Whistle Blower Policy Chief Vigilance Officer of the Bank will ensure that
(c) Both (A) & (B)
10 . What action will be taken against the Guilty under Whistle Blower Policy?
(c) Any action as per Service Rules
11 . The jurisdiction of the CVC of India is restricted to
(d) All the above
12 . Which country enacted the first law on Whistle Blower?
(d) U.S.A.
13 . To ensure that the Whistle Blower Policy scheme is known to all the employees of the Bank, Bank h
(c) Copy of the policy is uploaded in SBI Times
14 . How the complaints are to be disposed off by the Designated Officer under Whistle Blower Policy?
(b) It depends on the nature or gravity of complaint
15 . What is compulsory on the part of the complainant under Whistle Blower Policy?
(a) He must disclose his identity
16 . What are the modes by which complaint can be sent under Whistle Blower Policy?
(d) All the above
17 . Which is the Designated Agency in India authorized by the Government of India to receive complai
corruption?
(a) Central Vigilance Commission

18 . The Whistle Blower Policy scheme is reviewed
(c) Half-yearly
19 . What is the objective of Whistle Blower Policy in SBI?
(c) Both (A) & (B)
20 . Enactment of first law by any country to protect the Whistle Blower was in the year
(b) 1863
21 . When will be the complainant disqualified from protection under Whistle Blower Policy?
(d) All the above
22 . What is the maximum time permitted to complete the investigation process as per Whistle Blower P
(c) 45 days
23 . Who is the Subject as per the Whistle Blower Policy?
(b) The person or the office against whom the disclosure is made
24 . What do you understand by disclosure under Whistle Blower Policy?
(d) All the above
25 . Under Whistle Blower Policy an officer appointed by the Designated Authority to look into the compl
known as
(b) Presenting Officer

(c) Investigator
26 . What is the protection available to the complainant under Whistle Blower Policy?
(a) Name of the complainant will not be disclosed
(b) No penal action will be taken against him if the disclosure is made in good faith
(c) Serious view will be taken if victimization of complainant is observed
(d) All the above
27 . What is an investigation under Whistle Blower Policy?
(a) It is a fact finding process
(b) A process to declare the person guilty
(c) Both (A) & (B)
28 . Under Whistle Blower Policy if the investigating officer requires any additional information on the ma
has to
(a) Contact the complainant and ask for information
(b) Ask the designated official to get the required information from the complainant
(c) Be content with what he has, as he doesnt have any right to ask for any additional informatio
29 . Under Whistle Blower Policy proper record of complaints received and disposed off has to be kept b
(a) The Designated Officer
(b) Assistant at vigilance department

(c) Officer not below the rank of Manager
30 . Who is the designated officer at the Corporate Centre under Whistle Blower Policy?
(a) DGM Vigilance at Corporate Centre
(b) Chief Vigilance Officer at Corporate Centre
(c) GM Vigilance

L0445
. SARFAESI Act can be enforced on non agri security with loan outstanding of Rs.
_ above
(b) 1 lac
2 . Time norms for submission of SAR report
(b) 10 days
3 . Outstanding in the loan account will be written off if
(c) both a&b are correct
4 . Sub-standard asset after 30 days from the date of NPA becomes special mention a/c
(b) false
5 . NPA Policy lays system of identification and reporting of all
(d) all the above
6 . Rephasement of term loan including rehabilitation on more than two occasions during
the currency of T.L
(b) needs administrative clearance
7 . SARFAESI Act was passed in the year
(b) 2002 BC
8 . The NPA policy lays down a broad approach for recovery of loan
(d) all the above

9 . If the value of tangible security is less than 10% of the outstanding the NPA account is
classified as
(c) loss assets
10 . Time norms for completion of viability study if necessary for restructuring/

rehabilitation is
(b) 45 days
11 . In case of deep rooted problems in loan accounts the time norms is maximum period
of
(b) 9 months
12 . Law officers at LHO should visit the branches where large number of suits filed
account at least
(b) twice in a year
13 . When bad debts are written off and cases are pending in the court they are parked in
(b) AUCA
14 . The account becomes NPA if interest/ installment is overdue for
(c) 90 days
15 . Budgeting of NPA management is done for
(c) both a&b are correct
16 . Administrative clearance for rephasement of Term Loan more than 2 times is not
required for
(c) SME segment affected by natural calamities

17 . Incase of unit is unviable and there is no scope of restructuring/ rehabilitation bank
should
(c) both should be done immediately
18 . Lok adalat can deals in cases suit files account upto Rs________ through
compromise decree
(b) Rs.20 lacs
19 . Bank first focus in management of SMA and NPA will be
(a) rehabilitation of borrowers a/c
20 . The special mention account (SMA) guidelines are issued by
(c) RBI
21 . The basic concern of NPA policy lays stress on
(a) early identification and reporting of existing and potential NPAs
22 . The first step of NPA management will be
(a) up gradation of loan by rehabilitation
23 . Holding on operation are permitted by the bank for weak/ sick unit
(d) all the above
24 . Incase of viable units rehabilitation may not be considered when
(b) promoters are not supporting
25 . Sub standard assets after 1 year from the date of NPA becomes doubtful asset-1
(a) true
26 . Non performing loans are recognized as per
(b) IRAC norms of RBI
27 . NPA management policy is basically concerned with
(b) banks all branches in all countries
28 . NPA management policy deals with
(d) all the above
29 . Rehabilitation option is examined in case
(a) scope for restoring of the business
30 . Proposal for wavier or withdrawal of legal action is put up to ---------------prior to

approval
(c) internal committee for screening

L0446
1 . The following NPA A/cs will get priority in the CDR mechanism
(b) Potentially viable Units
2 . Accrued interest waived in the compromise settlement is debited to
(c) No entry is required for waiver of accrued interest
3 . In case of approve of CDR proposal by the consortium Bank can
(d) A, B & C
4 . The NPA policy lays done the following principles, which should not be kept in mind
for compromise
(d) political reputation of the borrower and guarantor
5 . The reason for considering the advances under CDR is to see that
(c) To ensure SMA does not slip to sub-substandard category
6 . The last amount which is reduced in compromise settlement is
(b) part of principle dues
7 . In compromise maximum waiver is permitted in the Loan A/c of _____
(b) Total accrued interest from the date of NPA
8 . The amount sacrificed by the bank by way of write off is debited to
(b) Profit and loss a/c
9 . Which one is the reason where bank do not consider the unit for CDR
(c) the unit has internal management problem
(d) none of these
10 . When the total loss to the bank in compromise is Rs.50000/- the compromise
proposal is approved by
(d) Committee who has powers to approve the proposal as per delegation of
financial powers
11 . In case of suit filed A/c the borrowers pays the below mentioned amount.
(c) The amount mentioned in consent decree.
12 . In the compromise settlement the first amount which is considered to be reduced
(a) waiver of accured interest
13 . In compromise settlement the borrower pays _________ to the Loan A/c.
(d) As agreed in the compromise settlement with the Bank.
14 . CDR mechanism is not applicable to the following loan A/C which are classified as
___________
(d) All A, B & C.
15 . The following BIFR cases A/Cs are not eligible for CDR mechanism
(b) Special investigation Audit (SIA) has been recommended by BIFR
16 . The concessions given under CDR are
(a) to be approved by appropriate sanctioning authority

17 . After the compromise is settled in the DRT and borrower has paid 40% amount and
defaults for remaining amount what action bank can take
(c) Bank can proceed in the case with DRT for total dues less the amount paid for
recovery proceedings
18 . The maximum outstanding required for eligible under CDR mechanism is
(c) Rs.40 cr
19 . The chairman heads the committee of NPA & SMA A/cs of Rs. _____ and above for
monitoring purpose.
(c) Rs 500 crores
20 . According to NPA policy with Rs. ____ & above should be monitored by SAMB who
have gained immense expertise in recovery & resolution.
(a) Rs 1 crores
21 . The authority approving the compromise will not be the one ____ the advance in
question.
(d) None of the above.
22 . When the problem of the temporary nature we
(c) Do consider the advance under CDR knowing the specific reason for the
problem
23 . The target set by us for NPA during 2014-15 is reduced by at least _______ % from
31.03.2014
(c) 15%
24 . CDR mechanism is presently eligible for all consortium & multiple Bank finance where
the total exposure is of Rs________Crore & above.
(b) Rs 10 crores
25 . Reference to CDR can be done by any member Bank / Creditor who has minimum
_____ share in working capital.
(c) 20 %
26 . After concluding the compromise agreement the settlement will be documented

________
(a) As per legal requirement.
27 . The CDR scheme will not be applicable to a/c involving
(d) A,B and C
28 . The concession under corporate debt restructuring (CDR) whether are applicable to
other potentially viable units
(b) applicable to other units
29 . The A/cs where cases are filed with BIFR will also be eligible where the exposure is
___________
(b) Rs 25 crores & above
30 . The NPA policy is not uniform for all compromise settlement it depends on
(c) recovery options in each case

L0707
1 . In case of NBG Branches, the proposal for classifying the borrower as Non
Cooperative is required to be signed by
(b) DGM (B&O)
2 . #NAME?
(d) Operating units
3 . Recent Standard Operating Procedure in case of Non Cooperative borrower is based

on
(b) Banks policy and RBI Directives
4 . The asset classification for the new loan sanctioned to the non cooperative borrower
will be
(a) Standard Asset
5 . Who will be the first alternative for Chairman of first Committee?
(b) DMD (MCG)
6 . Proposals for classifying the borrower as Non Cooperative Borrower are to be sent by
the controller of the Branches to --------at Corporate Centre.
(e) SAMG
7 . In case a borrower is not to be classified as non-cooperative as per the revised

guidelines, a proposal for declassifying the borrower should be put up to the
(a) Review Committee
8 . Cut off limit for classifying Non Cooperative Borrower is the borrower enjoying
aggregate FB & NFB limit of Rs. -----Crs.
(a) 1.00 Cr.
(b) 5.00 Crs.
(e) No such cut off limit
9 . The periodicity of submission of CRILC main report is
(c) Quarterly
10 . Who is the Chairman of the Second Committee?
(a) MD & GE (CB)
11 . RBI has prescribed ----- tier authority structure for classification/declassification of

Non Cooperative Borrower
(a) Two
12 . The First Committee consists of ---- members including Chairman.
(b) 3
13 . Under SOP, Annexure V is regarding
(b) Format for notice for personal hearing
14 . Now Bank is required to ----------- while sanctioning new loans to Non Cooperative
Borrower
(d) Make higher provision
15 . Non Cooperative Borrower is a defaulter who deliberately-----------legitimate efforts of

recovery.
(c) Stone walls

16 . Can new loans be sanctioned to the Non cooperative borrower?
(a) Yes
17 . The proposal for classification of borrower as non-cooperative has to be placed

before
(d) Identification Committee
18 . Once the Committee concludes that the borrower is Non Cooperative it shall issue
(b) Show cause notice
19 . Banks/FIs require to submit the information of Non Cooperative Borrower periodically

to
(d) CRILC
20 . Removal of the names of the Borrower from the list of Non Cooperative borrower will
be reported
(b) Separately to CRILC
21 . As per SOP, Annexure III relates to
(e) Show Cause Notice
22 . Who will be the first alternative for Chairman of Second Committee?
(b) MD & GE (NBG)
23 . Under Standard Operating Procedure (SOP), giving chance for personal

hearing/submission to the Non Cooperative Borrower is
(a) Compulsory
24 . A solitary or isolated instance will be the basis for such classification as Non
cooperative Borrower.
(b) FALSE
25 . The criteria for classification of a Non-Cooperative Borrower from those for

classification of a Wilful Defaulter are
(b) different
26 . In all cases the borrower should be provided an opportunity for Personal hearing
before issuing the Order.
(c) always
27 . In business enterprises (Other than Companies), who will be included as Non

cooperative borrowers
(b) Persons who are in-charge and responsible for the management of the affairs
of the business enterprise.
28 . Annexure VI is required to be signed by
(b) Branch Manager
29 . All Business Groups at Corporate Centre will collect the data on Non Cooperative
Borrower and will submit it to
(d) Credit Policy & Procedure Department (CPPD)
30 . The provision for the new loan sanctioned to the non cooperative borrower will be as
applicable to
(b) Sub Standard Asset

L0419
Credit risk management
1 . Operating Efficiency of a unit is part of:
(b) Business risk

2 . Under Basel - II a Corporate is defined as
(b) A borrower with exposure above Rs. 5 Crores

3 . Effective Credit Risk Management ensures that there are no defaults
(b) false
4 . Under Basel II - a Corporate is defined as a legally constituted limited liability entity
:
(b) false
5 . What is the CCF % for Committed Credit Lines with an original maturity up to 1
year
(b) 20%
6 . What is the CRA Model used for Infrastructure Projects
(a) RAMIP
7 . Non furnishing of Collateral information will lead to higher LGD% estimates
(a) true
8 . What would be the RMD advisory for an Industry Outlook of Marginally
Favourable
(b) Grow Selectively

9 . Logically speaking which of the following would have lower DR:
(a) SB 1
10
Accounts guaranteed by State Govt attract a risk weight of --
.
(b) 20%
11
Which of the following is likely to be correct:
.
(c) EAD >LGD
12
Different exposures to a borrower may have different LGDs
.
(a) true
13 Value of available collateral security would impact which of the following

. parameters most:
(a) PD
(b) LGD
(c) EAD

14
Which one is incorrect
.
(a) More CRMts are recognized under Standardized approach than under
Advanced IRB Approach
15
Credit Risk Management Policy covers only Bank`s domestic Operations
.
(b) false
16
For all exposures with Unconditional Cancellability Clause, CCF is zero
.
(a) true
17 The chances of A borrower defaulting on the payment of his credit obligations

. within a given time horizon, usually one year is called
(a) PD
18
Loan Policy covers Bank`s domestic Operations
.
(a) true
19 What will be the impact on capital cost if ECRA of a unit is upgraded from AA to
. AAA, (other things remaining the same)
(d) Reduction by 33%

20
Under the Foundation IRB Approach PD estimates are based on
.
(c) Banks Internal Estimates
21
ECRA of a borrower does not affect the Risk Weight of a unit
.
(b) false
22
Stipulations regarding Haircut Requirements are covered by which policy?
.
(a) Loan policy
(b) Credit Risk Management
(c) Stress Test
(d) Collateral Management Policy

23
Risk of non- payment by the borrower is measured by LGD.
.
(b) false
24
All of the following are Eligible IRB Collateral except :
.
(a) Claims with original maturity of 1 year or less
(b) Trade Receivables
(c) Debentures
(d) State Govt Securities
25
A wide range of rating from SB1 to SB16 helps in :
.

26
Which of the following is not EAD
.
(d) Outstanding of a partially disbursed Term Loan

27
Absence of which of the following in CBS will lead to higher capital cost
.

28
Maximum exposures are set by Loan Policy to avoid
.
(b) Concentration Risk

29
Non furnishing of Collateral information will lead to higher PD%
.
(b) false
30
Longer the tenure of a security, lower the haircut.
.
(b) false
L0070
1 . An award by Banking Ombudsman shall lapse unless the complainant furnishes to

the bank concerned within a period of 45 days from the date of receipt of copy of the
Award, a letter of acceptance of the Award in full and final settlement of his claim.
(a) true
2 . A complainant can file complaint with Banking Ombudsman
(d) Any one of (a) to (c) above
3 . Banking Ombudsman Scheme can entertain complaints relating to
4 . The Banking Ombudsman can consider complaints relating to
(c) Both (a) & (b) above
5 . The time limit for filing an appeal with the appellate authority is
(c) 30 days
6 . Banking Ombudsman Scheme 2006 enables resolution of complaints relating to
(b) Bank customer
7 . The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is formulated in accordance with
(a) Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act 1949
8 . While dealing the appeal, the appellate authority is not empowered to
(c) Refer back the matter to the Banking Ombudsman for fresh disposal without
necessary directions
9 . The cost involved in filing a complaint with a Banking Ombudsman is
(b) Free of Cost
10 . While lodging the complaint, a complainant should include ___ copy/ copies of
document alongwith the complaint.
(d) 1
11 . A complaint can be lodged with the Banking Ombudsman by
(d) Only (a) and (b) above
12 . The bank is to comply with the award of Banking Ombudsman if it is accepted by the
customer within a period of
(a) 30 days
13 . The maximum permissible compensation that may be awarded by Banking

Ombudsman for complaints relating to credit card is
(c) Rs.1 lac
14 . If the award is passed by the Banking Ombudsman, the award should be accepted by
complainant if it is acceptable to him within
(c) 15 days
15 . The maximum permissible compensation by Banking Ombudsman is
(b) Rs.10 lacs
16 . Banking Ombudsman can consider complaints relating to

17 . The maximum tenure of Banking Ombudsman is
(a) 3 years
18 . For passing an award, Banking Ombudsman has to follow instructions and guidelines
of RBI.
(a) true
19 . Who may be appointed as Banking Ombudsman?
(d) Both (b) and (c) above
20 . Banking Ombudsman is
(a) A quasi judicial authority
21 . Banking Ombudsman considers complaints from
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
22 . The complaint lodged to the Banking Ombudsman is settled by way of
(d) Any one of the above
23 . The Banking Ombudsman deals with complaints relating to
24 . If the award is not acceptable to the bank, the bank can
(a) File an appeal with the appellate authority
25 . The location of the office of the Banking Ombudsman is determined by
(b) Reserve Bank of India

26 . The Banking Ombudsman can not accept a complaint if the complaint is without any
sufficient cause.
(a) true
27 . A complaint can not be filed with the Banking Ombudsman if
(a) The subject matter has already been settled previously by any Banking
Ombudsman in any previous proceedings
28 . The Banking Ombudsman Scheme, for the first time, was introduced in
(a) 1995
29 . The Banking Ombudsman may not accept a complaint if
(d) The complaint is beyond the pecuniary jurisdiction of Banking Ombudsman
30 . Banking Ombudsman Scheme covers

L0648
1 . In Salary Package account, Personal Overdraft is available of how many months

salary :
(a) Two
2 . What is the maximum balance , which can be deposited in Pehla Kadam and Pehli
Udaan Account , Rs. :
(b) 5,00,000
3 . We should use our __________ for VIP, HNI and NRI customers :
(c) TAB Banking
4 . What is the minimum salary of employee to be eligible for Salary Package account:
(c) Rs. 5000/-
5 . How much percent concession is available for Platinum variant in Locker charges?
(b) 25%
6 . Maximum Free Personal Accident Insurance amount in Salary Package Account is ,

Rs. :
(a) 10 lac
7 . In SBI tax savings account, account can be prematured, after :
(b) 5 years
8 . The charges for draft issue, RTGS and NEFT are free in Salary package accounts :
(a) true
9 . How many free ATM cards can be issued in salary package accounts?
(b) Two
10 . In SBI Tax Savings Scheme, Tax can be saved under which section of Income Tax :
(c) 80-c
11 . How many SME Power Accounts are available :
(c) Three
12 . What is minimum period of MOD in SB Plus account :
(a) 1 Year
13 . What is the maximum time period in CLTD account :
(c) 36 months
14 . Collection account of Schools, Colleges, Institutions, Tuition centers is _____ account

:
(b) Power Jyoti
15 . Maximum amount, which can be deposited in a year in Flexi Deposit Account is Rs. :
(a) 50,000
16 . Which one of the following is the condition of SME Power Account :
(c) Both a and b
17 . Which of the following is the variant of Salary Package account:

18 . What is the maximum time period of SBI CapGain Plus Account :
(b) 2-3 years
19 . SME Sahaj account is most suitable for which type of businessman :
(a) Small
20 . SME Power Account is having, benefit of :
(d) All of above
21 . What is minimum time period in Annual Deposit Account :
(b) 3 years
22 . Which SME Power account is most suitable for SME- Medium business man :
(c) Power Gain
23 . What is maximum period of MOD :
(d) 5 Years
24 . What is the minimum deposit amount of SBI CapGain Plus Account in Term Deposit :
(b) Rs. 1000
25 . What is the minimum deposit amount in SBI Tax Savings Account :
(b) Rs. 1000

L0553
1. KRI thresholds are fixed after going through

(c) Both (a) & (b)
2. The role of Operational Risk Management Department is

(d) All the above.
3. Three methods for calculation of Capital Charge for Operational Risk under Pillar 1 (BASEL III) are:
(d) All the above
4. AMA is preferred to Basic Indicator Approach

(e) (a),(b), and (c).
5. Major tool for controlling operational risk is

(a) Internal control systems;
(b) External control systems
(c) Technology
(d) None of the above.
6. VVR pending for more than T+1 day is an example of KRI

(a) true
7. Attributes of Key Risk Indicators are

(c) Both (a) & (b)
8. Key Risk Indicators

(d) All the above.
9. KRIs can be identified from

(e) All the above.
10 . Number of days ATM cash did not tally with ADMIN balance is an example of Key Risk Indicator.
(a) true
11 . KRI comprises of two phases. They are

(c) Both (a) & (b)
12 . Banks have to assign capital for Operational Risk @15% of average annual gross income as per
(a) Basic Indicator approach;
13 . Operational risk management policy in our Bank adopted -------lines of defence.

(b) 3
14 . Operational Risk is risk of loss from

(c) Both (a) & (b)
15 . The components of AMA are

(e) (a), (b) and (c)
L0551
1. Data Pilot Panel will be available on the ____ of the screen.

(b) Right Side
2. Which of the following is not an area in the Data Pilot Panel ?

(d) Table
3. While creating Data Pilot Table, by default, it will be created in____ .

(d) New Sheet
4. To ignore empty rows in the Data Pilot Table, which of the following options is to be selected?
(b) Ignore empty rows
5. If we deselect automatically update option, to update the changes in the database, which of the fo
buttons are to be clicked.
(a) Update
6. To open Data Pilot Panel, click on ___

(d) both (a) and (c)
7. For creating Data Pilot Table in the same sheet , Which of the following options is to be selected ?
(a) Place result to Existing Place
8. Ignoring empty rows option will be available in _____

(d) Data Pilot editing options
9. Data Pilot Panel will automatically close, if you click ____

(b) outside the table
10 . Which of the following is to be selected to change the function from Sum to Count or Count to Sum.
(a) Field Option
11 . Data Pilot Table can be created with which of the following menu options ?
(d) Data - Data Pilot - Create
12 . For more complex filtering options, Which of the following option is to be selected?
(a) Data Source Filter
13 . Data Pilot Table summarizes the data. Which of the following options can be used to refine the resu
further?
(c) Filter
14 . In Data Pilot, by default, which of the following will be totalled?

(c) Both (a) and (b)
15 . The column data field and row data field in the table will both have a ____________ arrow.
(b) Drop-down
16 . If we select sort option, by default, data will be sorted in ____

(c) Either of the above
17 . Data Pilot is a _____ table.

(b) Interactive
18 . Data Pilot Table can be created in ___

(c) either (a) or (b)
19 . If we drag any number field to Data Pilot area, by default, ____ function will be applied.
(a) Sum
20 . Source data related to a cell in the Data Pilot Table can be viewed by _____ on the cell.
(a) Double clicking
21 . ________ area allows us to summarize the data based on a selected item in the DataPilot table.
(c) Data
22 . Which of the following to be completed for adding content to the Data Pilot Table?
(b) Right Click on the field and select the area
23 . In a Data Pilot Table, by default, empty rows will be ____

(a) ignored
24 . While there is a connection between the source data and the DataPilot, the DataPilot table is
_________________when the source data is modified.
(b) not automatically refreshed
25 . A ____________ is an interactive table in which we can arrange, rearrange and summarize data ac
to different points of view
(a) Data Pilot Table
26 . Page area in the Data Pilot will be used for ____

(a) filtering the summarized data
27 . Which of the following options will be available in Display Value Dialog box ?
28 . If we save the Data Pilot Table, by default, file will be saved in _____ format.
(d) .ods
29 . Data Field option dialog box provides which of the following options ?
(d) All the above
30 . Once Data Pilot Table is created, it is ______ to rearrange the fields in the table.
(b) Very easy
L0529
1. An account should be treated as 'out of order' if the outstanding balance

(a) Remains continuously in excess of the sanctioned limit/drawing power.
2. The availability of security or net worth of borrower/ guarantor should not be taken into account for t
purpose of treating an advance as NPA or otherwise, except in cases where there is an erosion in v
security/ fraud committed by the borrower
(a) true
3. A non performing asset is a loan or advance where

4. The unsecured exposures which are identified as substandard would attract additional provision o
_______ per cent
(c) 10
5. The Committee on Financial System was headed by

(b) M Narsimham
6. In cases of NPAs with balance of Rs. _________ and above stock audit at annual intervals by exter
agencies appointed as per the guidelines approved by the Board would be mandatory
(b) 5 crores
7. In case of interest payments, banks should, classify an account as NPA only if the interest due and
during any quarter is not serviced fully within 90 days from the end of the quarter.
(a) true
(b) false
8. An account where the regular/ ad hoc credit limits have not been reviewed/ renewed within ______
from the due date/ date of ad hoc sanction will be treated as NPA
(b) 180
9. Advances against term deposits, NSCs eligible for surrender, IVPs, KVPs and life policies need not
treated as NPAs, provided.
(b) Adequate margin is available in the accounts
10 . Collaterals such as immovable properties charged in favour of the bank should be got valued once i
______________ years by appointed valuers
(a) Three
11 . Which of the undernoted statement/(s) is/are true in case of provision on Standard Assets
(d) Both A & B
12 . Asset classification of accounts under consortium should be based on

(c) The record of recovery of the individual member banks and other aspects having a bearing on th
recoverability of the advances
13 . An asset that has remained in the sub standard category for a period of 12 months would be called
(b) Doubtful
14 . For the purpose of guidelines on NPA classification of agricultural advances.

(c) Both A & B are correct
15 . If the realisable value of the security, as assessed by the bank/ approved valuers/ RBI is less than _
per cent of the outstanding in the borrowal accounts, the asset should be straightaway classified as
asset
(a) 10
16 . In Standard Asset category, direct advances to agricultural and Small and Micro Enterprises (SMEs
sectors attract a provision of
(a) 0.25 %
17 . The credit facilities backed by guarantee of the Central Government though overdue may be treated
NPA only when..
(c) Both A & B are correct
18 . The crop season for each crop, which means the period up to harvesting of the crops raised, would
determined by the ______________________________________________ in each State
(a) State Level Bankers Committee
19 . In the case of advances classified as doubtful and guaranteed by ECGC, provision should be made
for
(b) The balance in excess of the amount guaranteed by the Corporation
20 . Unsecured portion of NPAs in Doubtful category attract __________ % provision

(c) 100
21 . The policy of income recognition should be objective and based on record of recovery rather than o
subjective considerations.
(a) true
22 . In case of doubtful assets, the secured portion of advance under D2 category attracts ______ % pro
(b) 40
23 . In cases where moratorium is available for payment of interest, payment of interest becomes 'due' o
after the moratorium or gestation period is over
(a) true
24 . In case of a Loss asset, which of the undernoted statement/(s) is/are correct

25 . Any amount due to the bank under any credit facility is overdue if it is not paid on the due date fixed
bank.
(a) true
26 . If any advance, including bills purchased and discounted, becomes NPA..
(a) The entire interest accrued and credited to income account in the past periods, should be revers
the same is not realised.
27 . With effect from which date, a sub standard asset would be one, which has remained NPA for a peri
than or equal to 12 months
(a) 31.03.2005
28 . Stock statements relied upon by the banks for determining drawing power should not be older than
_______ months
(c) Three
29 . State Government guaranteed advances and investments in State Government guaranteed securiti
would attract asset classification and provisioning norms if .
(a) Interest and/or principal or any other amount due to the bank remains overdue for more than 90
30 . The policy on income recognition has to be..

(c) Both A & B
L0419
1 . Operating Efficiency of a unit is part of:
(b) Business risk

2 . Under Basel - II a Corporate is defined as
(b) A borrower with exposure above Rs. 5 Crores

3 . Effective Credit Risk Management ensures that there are no defaults
(b) false
4 . Under Basel II - a Corporate is defined as a legally constituted limited liability entity
:
(b) false
5 . What is the CCF % for Committed Credit Lines with an original maturity up to 1
year
(b) 20%
6 . What is the CRA Model used for Infrastructure Projects
(a) RAMIP
7 . Non furnishing of Collateral information will lead to higher LGD% estimates
(a) true
8 . What would be the RMD advisory for an Industry Outlook of Marginally
Favourable
(b) Grow Selectively

9 . Logically speaking which of the following would have lower DR:
(a) SB 1
10
Accounts guaranteed by State Govt attract a risk weight of --
.
(b) 20%
11
Which of the following is likely to be correct:
.
(c) EAD >LGD
12
Different exposures to a borrower may have different LGDs
.
(a) true
13 Value of available collateral security would impact which of the following

. parameters most:
(b) LGD
14
Which one is incorrect
.
(a) More CRMts are recognized under Standardized approach than under
Advanced IRB Approach
15
Credit Risk Management Policy covers only Bank`s domestic Operations
.
(b) false
16
For all exposures with Unconditional Cancellability Clause, CCF is zero
.
(a) true
17 The chances of A borrower defaulting on the payment of his credit obligations

. within a given time horizon, usually one year is called
(a) PD
18
Loan Policy covers Bank`s domestic Operations
.
(a) true
19 What will be the impact on capital cost if ECRA of a unit is upgraded from AA to
. AAA, (other things remaining the same)
(d) Reduction by 33%

20
Under the Foundation IRB Approach PD estimates are based on
.
(c) Banks Internal Estimates
21
ECRA of a borrower does not affect the Risk Weight of a unit
.
(b) false
22
Stipulations regarding Haircut Requirements are covered by which policy?
.
(a) Loan policy
(c) Stress Test
(d) Collateral Management Policy

23
Risk of non- payment by the borrower is measured by LGD.
.
(b) false
24
All of the following are Eligible IRB Collateral except :
.
(c) Debentures
25
A wide range of rating from SB1 to SB16 helps in :
.

26
Which of the following is not EAD
.
(d) Outstanding of a partially disbursed Term Loan

27
Absence of which of the following in CBS will lead to higher capital cost
.

28
Maximum exposures are set by Loan Policy to avoid
.
(b) Concentration Risk

29
Non furnishing of Collateral information will lead to higher PD%
.
(b) false
30
Longer the tenure of a security, lower the haircut.
.
(b) false
L0265
. What is the expansion of TCE?
(c) Total Common Equity
2. Market Discipline in Basel III comes under
(c) Pillar III
3. From which year Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) for liquidity risk management will be created?
(a) 2013
(b) 2015
(c) 2016
4. There were no pillars under Basel I. How many pillars are under Basel III?
(b) 3
5. The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision published the first version of Basel III in 2010.
(a) true
6. Which one of the following is not an impact on the Financial System as per the Provisions of Basel I
(d) Reduced value of equity share
7. Banks will face a significant additional capital requirement under Basel III.
(d) Yes
8. What is Capital Conservation Buffer under Basel III?

(a) 2.5%
9. RBI issued final circular on credit risk on
(a) 22nd December 2011
10 . The weighing factor for Mortgage assets is ______.
(a) 65 %
11 . Basel III recommendations will improve the banking system by increasing the skills to cover the sho
financial crisis. Basel III will also increase the financial risk.
(b) false
12 . The proposed Basel III guidelines seek to
(d) To improve the ability of banks to withstand periods of economic and financial stress by presc
more stringent capital and liquidity requirements for them.
13 . What should be minimum capital as per Basel III prescription (in INR)?
(d) No such minimum amount
14 . Which of the following is one of the pillars under Basel III?
(d) Market Discipline
15 . As per the definition, Basel III is a comprehensive set of reform measures designed to improve
(b) Supervision
(e) None of the above
16 . What is the expansion of CVA?

(d) Capital Value Adjustments
17 . Minimum common equity Tier 1 under Basel III is
(c) 4.5%
18 . What is the estimated amount that the Indian banks will be required to raise as additional capital in n
nine years besides lowering their leveraging capacity. (Rs in crore)
(b) 5,00,000
19 . What is the expansion of SIFI?
(b) Systemically Important Financial Institutions
20 . Basel III is only a continuation of effort initiated by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision to
enhance the banking regulatory framework under Basel I and Basel II.
(b) false
21 . Which one of the following is not a qualitative impact of Basel III?
(a) Improved efficiency of management
22 . ______ days Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) is intended to promote short-term resilience to potentia
liquidity disruptions.
(c) 30
23 . The leverage ratio is implemented on a gross and un-weighted basis not taking into account the risk
related to the assets.
(a) true
24 . From which year Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) will be introduced?
(a) 2018
25 . Which one of the following is not a qualitative impact of Basel III?
(d) Better financial control by Central Banks
26 . Net stable funding ratio is designed to encourage and incentivise banks to use stable sources to fun
activities to reduce the dependency on short term wholesale funding.
(a) true
27 . Which of the following is not an aim of Basel III?
(b) Strengthen the Control of Central Banks on the individual banks
28 . Which of the following is an aim of building conservation buffer?
(b) Maintaining a cushion of capital that can be used to absorb losses
29 . The Basel III is to be implemented by banks in India as per the guidelines issued by
(c) RBI
30 . Basel III proposal qualitatively impacts both on individual banks and financial system. Which of the
following is not included in the impact on individual banks?
(b) Significant pressure on profitability and ROE (Return on Equity)

L0325Branch Administration - I
1. Fire insurance policies of the branch should be entered in
(d) Branch Document register
2. While on duty an armed guard should hold .. number of cartridges
(b) 10
3. Controlled security alarms are used for
(d) Currency remittance
4. BM should ensure that a disaster recovery plan for his Branch is
(d) Approved and ready for implementation
5. The safe deposit receipt for the deposit of box of duplicate keys received from the other branch sho
entered in
(a) Branch document register
(c) Misc. security register
(d) Ex-custody register
6. To minimize the connectivity issues BM should
(d) All the above.
7. To maintain the software, the Branch Manager should
(a) Train the staff
(b) Engage outside agencies
(c) Seek the help of Zonal Office

(d) Hi- tech savvy
8. The security arrangements should also cover
(c) Security documents /paper/ records etc
9. Your Tech savvy clerk suggests use of kaspersky anti virus software as the present anti virus softwa
not working properly, what will you do as a BM
(c) Cannot be purchased
10 . Cash remittances exceeding Rs 50 lakhs and up to Rs 100 lakhs should be accompanied by
(b) Two assistants and 2 armed guards
(d) 1 assistant and 2 armed guards
11 . To ensure maintenance of accuracy and integrity of database a BM has to
(c) Put in place access control measures
12 . In terms of security alarm the BM should ensure that
(c) It is linked to all counters/desk/ area
13 . BM should build up security consciousness among
(c) Customers
14 . Your officer complains of slow connectivity while using LOS software as a BM what will you do?
(b) Check whether sufficient RAM is available
15 . The BM/ Police authorities while making a surprise visit to the branch at odd hours should note their
observations in
(c) Guard inspection register
16 . Who should obtain fire insurance policy of the branch
(c) LHO
17 . In terms of security alarm the BM should ensure that
(d) All the above
18 . With Gun License what should be endorsed on
(a) Names of all guards authorized to operate the gun
19 . In respect of IT security a BM should
(b) Follow Banks extant instructions
20 . Maintenance of ATMs includes
(a) Cleanliness
21 . BM, in order to foster robust security arrangement should maintain cordial relationship with
(c) Police
22 . Password sanctity is maintained by
(c) Password changed by staff functionaries
23 . Small coins depot should be kept in
(b) In the strong room
24 . Electronic time Lock should be installed on the

(a) Strong Room Doors
25 . The fire extinguishers in the branch should be
(b) Use worthy & current
26 . Disaster Management Plan should be reviewed
(c) Yearly
27 . Whenever strong room is not provided, cash should be placed in
(d) Fire and Burglary resistant cabinets

L0320
1 . RBI circular on Compliance Functions in Banks deals, inter alia, with
(a) Basel II norms regarding capital adequacy
(b) Loan policy document
(c) Requirement of having a well-documented compliance risk management

programme in banks
(d) Guidelines regarding setting up POS machines

2 . Compliance means
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

3 . KYC is important for the Bank so as to
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

4 . Which is a key responsibility in compliance area?

5 . Statutory Requirements include
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

6 . Compliance includes
(a) Standards and codes by self regulatory bodies

7 . Compliance
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

8 . Which of the following statements is true in respect of KYC norms?
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

9 . Compliance Risk Management has two major components, namely,

10 State Bank of India has a specific policy on Know Your Customer (KYC), which is
. based on
(c) RBI guidelines related to KYC and Anti Money Laundering norms
11
Compliance is applicable to
.
(d) All of Banks varied business activities and functions including the above
12
Compliance
.
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

13
Non-Core areas of compliance comprise
.
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

14
Which of the following statements is true?
.
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

15
Consequences of non-compliance include
.
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

16
Internal Requirements of the Organization include
.
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

17
Compliance
.
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

18
Which is a compliance key question?
.
(c) Are the right compliance matters being escalated and actioned at the
appropriate levels?
19
Core areas of compliance comprise
.
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

20
Benefits of compliance include
.
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above
21
Compliance risk includes
.
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

22
Key questions in compliance area include
.
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

23
Key responsibilities in compliance area include
.
(e) (A), (B) & (C) above

24
Which of the following statements is true?
.
(b) All compliance breaches in core areas as also significant breaches in non-
core areas have to be put up to the ACB
25
Who is the head of compliance function in our bank?
.
(c) Group Compliance Officer

L0282
1 . Which of the following Chests can hold unlimited value
(c) Both Class A & Class B
2 . The main entrance of the banking hall
(c) Both (A) & (B)
3 . Duplicates of all important keys entered in the Branch Key Register must be greased
and labelled, and all keys held by each supervising official will be placed in:
(a) Separate packets, which will be sealed with personal seals of the officials
concerned
(c) Separate packets, which will be sealed with personal seals of the Branch
Manager
4 . All other general keys that are handled by different staff members must also be
entered
(c) In a separate register for record and reference
5 . At branches where currency chest or small coin depots are not maintained and no
strong room has been provided, which of the following statements is right.
(d) All the above
6 . While dealing with customers
(d) Both (A) & (B)
7 . In case of more than one gate / entrance to the branch premises
(d) Both (A) and (B)

8 . Those branches, which cater to high end customers and are considered
comparatively safer
(c) Both (A) & (B)
9 . The strong room can be used for storing
10 . Messengers/cash coolies must not be entrusted with the duty of stacking notes in the
cupboards/bins.
(a) true
11 . --------------------------- as per the approved format should be obtained from the

competent authority before any strong room is put to use for the first time.
(c) A fitness certificate
12 . In regard to Guarding of CC/ Repository which one of the following statements is

correct
(d) All the above
13 . Where the safe deposit vault is entirely separate from the strong room, the protective
arrangements permit:
(a) Only the grill door being kept locked during the day
(b) Controlling Authority may allow it to be locked during the day only with the key
of the officer in charge of the locker
(c) This is to obviate the necessity of the Cash Officer or other supervising officer
to attend each time an operation takes place.
(d) All the above
14 . The lock of a surrendered locker
(a) Must be interchanged with that of another vacant locker before being let out to
another hirer and the safe deposit locker key register should be amended accordingly.
(b) Need not be interchanged with that of another vacant locker before being let
out to another hirer
(c) Has to be given back to the manufacturer for changing
15 . If a suspicious stranger is spotted in the branch
(a) Entire staff should be alert
16 . The strong room at the currency chest branches should have adequate capacity to
store fresh / re-issuable notes/coins and soiled / non-issuable notes respectively for a
period of:
(b) Six months and one year
17 . The entrance(s) to the branch premises should be provided with
(c) Collapsible gates in addition to the existing doors / shutters
18 . The grille door of the strong room, which should have locking facility from
(c) Both sides, (from inside and also from outside)
19 . Information regarding the remittances should be made known to the concerned

Employees:
(d) Must not be divulged even to the concerned employees earlier than necessary.
20 . Every day before opening and closing the strong room which one of the following
statements is true for verification and guarding:
(d) All the above
21 . How many armed guards should take position at the entrance of the strong room,
each time it is opened for operations?
(d) one
22 . The value of treasure held in Class 'C' chests is limited to
(c) Rs. 5 Crores only.
23 . --------------------- treatment must be carried out at regular intervals to strong room
(c) Anti-termite
24 . Which of the following to be kept in the strong room in the joint custody of the Cash
Officer and an authorized Supervising Official who will be an official not below the
rank of an Accountant
(d) All the above
25 . Entry to the Cash department will be restricted
(d) All the above
26 . The remittance boxes when despatched to the RBI, should be filled, packed and
sealed strictly by following the prescribed procedure in the presence of:
(a) The potdar accompanying the remittance
27 . At branches guarded round-the-clock, the original and duplicate set of keys of branch
premises should be entrusted respectively to:
(c) Havaldar / Chief Guard on duty and an authorised official
28 . The authority who should adhere to the ceilings, depending upon the type of the
strong room provided at their branches is
(b) Branch Manager
29 . For the safety of the treasure stored in the currency chest / repository, it is essential
that the concerned strong rooms are guarded round-the-clock by:
(a) Armed guards, who may be Bank's own guards or police guards
30 . Where suitable transport is not available for cash remittance
(a) Public transport, like state transport buses, should be used by engaging
earmarked seats
L0283
1 . The siren / hooter of the system should be located
(c) Near main entrance facing outwards
2 . As per the RBI instructions, branches maintaining currency chest/ repository must be
guarded
(c) Round the clock by the armed guards
3 . Carrying of any weapons and / or firearms and explosives in the Bank premises is
strictly prohibited without the prior permission of the Branch Manager. However
--------- permitted to enter the branch.
(d) All the above
4 . Disaster Management Plan is prepared / modified, if necessary, and Controlling

Authority's approval obtained for the same once in ---------------.
(a) Yearly
5 . No insurance cover is required for chest to chest remittance or for remittance from our
branch to RBI or vice versa which is escorted by Police.
(a) true
6 . Branch Managers should ensure that the property at their branches is adequately
insured with the following type of insurance policies.
(d) All the above
7 . Who is personally responsible for arranging proper use and custody of the fire arms
(a) The Branch Manager
8 . The Disaster Prevention and Recovery Plan, duly approved by the Controlling
Authority, is on the branch record. It need not be tested periodically for its
effectiveness if the CA approves it.
(a) true
9 . The guns and cartridges are entrusted to
(a) Only authorised and trained guards whose names appear in the Gun licence
10 . Guards are required to undergo training every -------- years
(b) Two
11 . Test of activation of emergency alarm is done to confirm that
(a) The guards on duty act immediately in the manner expected
12 . In case of unguarded branches and branches which are guarded only during
business hours, cleaning work is carried out under the supervision of the Branch
Manager / nominated official.
(a) true
13 . Residential addresses and telephone numbers of ------------------ should be recorded in

the Guards Inspection Register for ready access.
(c) Both (A) & (B)
14 . Which branches are supplied with more than one gun
(c) Both (A) & (B)
15 . The guards/watchmen must be medically checked for their physical fitness once in
--------------- years to ensure that they are physically fit and not found wanting when
the situation demands.
(b) Two
16 . The effective life of cartridges stored in airtight containers is reported to be --------
years and these should be entrusted to the guards for their regular use not later than
------------ years from the date of their purchase.
(a) 5 and 3
17 . The Bank's Armourer should also carry out inspection of each gun at least once in
(d) a year
18 . On arrival of the Branch Manager, the guard on duty gives ----------- report to the
Branch Manager.
(c) All OK
19 . The gun licence should be registered in the name of
(a) The Branch Manager, State Bank of India
20 . Electronic alarm system should be kept in ---------- position during working hours.
(a) "On"
21 . The withdrawn cartridges should be preserved separately for
(c) Practice firing by the guards during their training periods
22 . At branches, which are guarded only during working hours, the gun is kept overnight
(a) Outside the strong room
23 . Cartridges should be purchased only from the authorised ammunition dealers. A stock
of ------------ cartridges per gun is considered to be adequate
(b) 20
24 . A demonstration on the maintenance and use of the fire extinguishers should be

arranged for
(a) Staff
25 . Revolvers / pistols, if provided at the branch, are kept in the custody of
(c) The authorised official under lock and key
26 . An electronic alarm system should be provided at all the branches except rural
branches, where the decision whether to install the system will be taken by the
Controlling Authority on the recommendations of the Branch Manager. The system
should be tested --------------- by activating the switches
(b) Daily
27 . The name/s of --------- should be entered in the gun licence as retainers
(b) All confirmed guards
28 . The branches, which are apparently exposed to the natural calamities, as also the
branches situated in, very sensitive areas, should prepare a
(c) Disaster Management Plan
29 . Gun History Sheet / Register contains proper record of
30 . The Police Beat Book kept with the guards is verified to confirm that ----------------
regularly calls at the branch during nights
(a) Local police officer

L0256
1 . When the repayment of a crop loan (Agricultural Cash Credit - ACC / Kisan Credit
Card - KCC) becomes overdue, the account should be classified as NPA when
(c) Either A or B
2 . Risk Grade corresponding to Arrear Condition 802 is
(c) 6
3 . The Risk Grades for Arrear Condition 711 is are
(b) 5
4 . If the stock statement date is older than 120 days, the Risk Grade of the account
would be
(b) 2
5 . If a CC/OD or DL/TL account is irregular for 60 days, the arrear condition applicable is
(c) 703
6 . Risk Grade History Enquiry is available under the ______ menu.
(d) NPA Enquiry
7 . The amount of Unrealized Interest in a NPA account can be viewed from Short
Enquiry in the____ field
(b) URI
8 . When an account is classified as NPA, the system automatically calculates
(b) Unrealized Interest

9 . In a TL account, the amount in arrears and number of overdue instalments can be
viewed from
(c) NPA Status Enquiry
10 . The NPA date for a DL/TL account can be viewed from _____ Screen.
(c) Long Enquiry
11 . The Risk Grades for Doubtful Assets are
(c) 5,6 & 7
12 . The NPA Reckon Date for an AGL account can be viewed from ______ screen.
(b) Short enquiry
13 . CBS will not permit an upgrade in the IRAC Status of an account if any amount is
outstanding in___ field
(c) Reversed Interest Pending
14 . Arrear condition no. 631 is applicable to
(b) CC/OD accounts
15 . While creating a AGL crop loan account, the system calculates the NPA reckon rate
on the basis of
(d) Both A and B
16 . The number of new arrear conditions introduced w.e.f. 19.06.2011 is
(c) 26
17 . Stamping means
(c) Updating of Old IRAC Status with New IRAC Status
18 . The Unrealized Interest in a NPA account is
(b) Debited to Interest Account
19 . The Unrealized Interest in a NPA account gets reversed when
(d) Old IRAC Status slips to 04 or above
20 . The types of IRAC Status in CBS are
(c) Both A and B
21 . The option to be selected under Interest Adjustments for forced interest capitalization
is
(b) Forced debit interest capitalization
22 . The arrear condition(s) of an NPA account can be viewed from
(c) Both A and B
23 . Forced Capitalization refers to
(c) Debiting the accrued interest to an account
24 . After removal of Arrear Condition, a user wants to manually upgrade the New or Old
IRAC Status of an account. The menu navigation is
(d) Upgradation functionality is NOT available to users at branches
25 . New arrear conditions have been introduced w.e.f.
(d) 19 June 2011

26 . The Crop Season period for IRAC in CBS is
(a) Added to Limit Expiry date to arrive at NPA Reckon date
27 . When forced interest capitalization is done it results in
(b) Increase in outstanding
28 . When forced interest capitalization is done it results in
(c) Decrease in accrued interest
29 . The menu navigation for forced interest capitalization starts from
(d) A or B as the case may be
30 . Arrear conditions no. 601-604 are applicable to
(a) CC/OD accounts

L0204
1. Factors affecting ethical decision making process are
(c) Locus of control
2. Correct order of steps involved in decision making process as per the model discussed in the cours
(b) Define problem, identify alternatives, set criteria, evaluate criteria, choose an alternative
3. Agonizing style of decision making involves
(a) Spending much time on gathering data
4. Whether to take a group or individual decision may sometime be dictated by:
(a) Rules
5. Which of the following styles would you adopt to solve complex and important problem and when yo
enough time?
(c) Planning
6. Living up to what is expected by people close to you is a part of ---------- stage of moral developmen
(a) Convention
7. Following is useful in decision making process
(c) Both (A) and (B)
8. In the case of emergencies, this type of decision may have to be taken:
(a) Individual decision
9. Policies, Rules, Systems and Procedures are considered at the time of ------- in problem solving pro
(d) Determining the criteria

10 . Ones perception may colour ones --------
(c) Decision
11 . What amongst the following is not an issue involved in decision making?
(a) Advocacy & Enquiry
12 . What style of decision making would you adopt when the stakes are very high and it is important no
lose?
(d) Play it safe
13 . Justice criteria stipulate that
(b) The decision is fair and equitable
14 . If the first alternative is chosen with little thought, it is called ------------ style
(a) Impulsive
15 . Which of the following is a question to ask oneself before taking a decision in the area of systems a
procedures?
(d) Is acceptance from the affected parties required?
16 . Which of the following decision making styles would you adopt when the authority to take a decision
vested in you?
(b) Dependant
(c) Delaying
(d) Play it safe

17 . Recognizing the rights of others and upholding the values is a part of
(b) Principled stage of moral development
18 . Plan B may have to be implemented after
(b) Evaluating the results
19 . Enquiry method of decision making is
(b) Participative
20 . Where sufficient data cannot be obtained or rules are ambiguous, the following type of decision may
to be resorted to:
(c) Intuitive decision
21 . Me versus Them is a problem faced in
(d) Advocacy approach
22 . Advocacy and Enquiry are approaches in
(a) Group decision making
23 . A group decision is required
(c) When multifarious skills are required
24 . The study of moral values or principles that guide our behaviour is called
(d) Ethics
25 . Problems in the Bank come to us in the form of
(b) Symptoms
26 . Which one of the following statements is true as per the model discussed in the e-lesson?
(b) Decision making is a part of problem solving
27 . Group decision making will make easy the following stage of problem solving process, due to involv
of team in the decision making process.
(c) Implementing the decision
28 . A subconscious process created out of distilled experience is called
(b) Intuition
29 . Creative decision making does not involve creating
(a) New problems
30 . Following is an integral component in Advocacy method
(a) Power
31 . Sticking to rules to avoid punishment is a part of ------------- stage of moral development
(c) Pre-convention
32 . Which one of the following is required at every stage of decision making and problem solving proces
(b) Gathering adequate information
33 . If the decision is motivated by self-serving interests, it is
(d) Unethical
34 . The utilitarian criteria is a part of

(c) Ethical decision making
35 . Which of the following is the odd one out in regard to the requirements in group decision making pro
(c) Individual positions
36 . One of the following is the odd one out with respect to characteristics of decision making.
(c) Intuition
37 . If we take care of reversibility of decision during the process, it will be easy to
(b) Shift to plan B
38 . One of the weaknesses of group decision making is
(c) Ambiguous responsibility
39 . Futurity aspect of decision enables it to pass the following test
(a) Whether the problem is solved
40 . Majority of the important and complex decisions are required to be taken in the organization by follo
------- style
(a) Play it safe
(b) Dependant
(c) Planning
(d) Intuitive
L0109
1 . State Government Guaranteed accounts attract the same IRAC norms as any other
account.
(a) true
2 . The outstanding LCs/BGs add to risk weighted assets and bring down the Banks
CAR.
(a) true
3 . The books of the Bank are required to be closed as on 31st March every year as per
(b) SBI Act of 1955
4 . Which of the following answer is not correct? At the close of the day physical cash at
the branch should be equal to
(c) BGL 98904 Cash Clearing Account
5 . An account is treated as an NPA if the bill (purchased/discounted) remains overdue

for a period of more than
(b) 90 days
6 . The Banks lower CAR under Basel-II as against under Basel-I indicates that the loan
data was not adequately cleansed.
(a) true
7 . The NPA rules are implemented by the system under
(b) Actual / Old IRAC status
8 . If any standard account becomes NPA, system classifies under
(a) New IRAC status

9 . If erosion in the security value is more than 50% and less than 90%, then the account
will be classified as
(d) DA1
10 . Branches should post entries relating to TPM in FinanceOne
(b) false
11 . The corresponding BGL and CGL accounts should have same balance.
(a) true
12 . Annual closing exercise is
(b) A continuous process
13 . If there is any credit entry in Branch Clearing general Account more than 5 years old,
it has to be segregated and transferred to
(a) Blocked Account
14 . IRAC norms must be applied
(a) Borrower-wise
15 . Debit balance in Sundry Deposit, Credit balances in Stamp A/C & Stationery A/C will
result in Weekly Abstract not tallied
(a) true
16 . As on 31st March or at a predetermined date, NPA accounts under new IRAC status
will be confirmed under Actual/Old IRAC status.
(a) true
17 . As on 31st March all Government accounts are zeroised in GBSS system
(b) false
18 . The details of non zero system suspense accounts listed in GLCNTR Report are
separately grouped and reported in
(a) Age wise Report of System Suspense Account
(b) List of non zero intermediate suspense account
(c) BGL statement
19 . Debit balances in Current Accounts and Credit Balances in Cash Credit and ACC will
render Weekly Abstract unbalanced
(b) false
20 . Entries relating to operating P/L will be posted by
(b) CDC
21 . BGL Accounts are mapped to CGL accounts on
(c) Many to one basis
22 . Sweep parameters are set for SCSS accounts at
(a) Branch level
23 . Branches should vouch accrued interest in respect of eligible loan accounts in their
books
(b) false
24 . While writing off, the outstanding in the loan account should be debited to the LHO
through IBTS Account manually.
(a) true
25 . System Suspense accounts should have zero balance as
(a) At the end of the day
26 . The closing exercises relating to Government accounts are
(c) Not required to be done in GBSS
27 . Income receivable but not realized relating to the current year such as Government
commission will be automatically vouched at CDC level
(b) false
28 . Balance sheet is generated from
(c) FinanceOne
29 . Excess cash entries other than ATM related outstanding for more than six months
should be transferred as on the last working day of February to
(a) The Commission Account
30 . An account, where the limits have not been renewed / reviewed within _____ from the
due date, will be treated as NPA.
(d) 180 days
31 . Balance in System suspense accounts attracts provision norms
(a) true
32 . The outstanding in an account, based on drawing power calculated with stock

statements older than _______ , will be deemed irregular.
(d) 180 days
33 . All cash transactions have contra entries in
(b) CGL 1204505001 Branch Cash balance Account
34 . CPCs can have balances in weekly Abstract
(b) false
35 . The Branch Suspense Account should have zero balance at the end of the day.
(c) Need not be
36 . If the irregularity amount less than one EMI is outstanding for more than 90 days, the
account will become NPA
(b) false
37 . In respect of advances under consortium, the record of recovery of individual member
banks need not be the basis for classifying the account under IRAC norms.
(b) false
38 . Outstanding Forward Contracts/Bills of Exchange which have become overdue as on

the 31st of March are to be cancelled / crystallised in accordance with the FEDAI
rules.
(a) true
39 . All adjusting entries which are originated at the branch during the current year should
be reversed on
(b) The first working day of April
40 . Accounting excellence can be achieved by
(d) All the above

L001
1. Value Statements relating to Custody & handling of keys would come under:
(b) Fraud Prevention
2. As part of Risk Based Supervision initiative, banks are required to put in place -
3. Transaction testing is -
(c) 100% done in high risk areas
4. Which group of branches would have higher weightage in ARF for External Compliances
(d) All have equal marks
5. What is the primary criteria used under RFIA for segregating the branches:
(b) Inherent risk
6. The Audit Report Formats (ARFs) are
(d) Different formats for different categories of branches/ BPR entities
7. Chairman oversees the total Audit function of the Bank. State True or False
(b) false
8. Which of the following is not one of the sub-core parameters under Operational Risk Management in
(a) Documentation
9. RFIA refers to -
(b) Risk Focussed Internal Audit
10 . The concept of Risk Based Supervision is related to which of the pillars of the Basel Accord?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
11 . Supervisor in the context of Basel Accord refers to
(b) RBI
12 . RFIA segregates the branches in to how many groups:
(b) 3
13 . Which of the following is correct with effect from 1.4.2006
(a) Business parameters have been delinked from risk evaluation
14 . Which of the following is not one of the risk parameters in RFIA?
(b) Market Risk Management
15 . Management Letter is not mandatory for all branches. State True or False
(a) true
16 . A branch with 70% marks in business performance will get
(a) A Plus
17 . What are the scores allotted for Self-Audit in the ARF?
(a) 10
18 . At what percentage of score a branch will be rated Unsatisfactory.
(b) <55%
19 . Which is a systematic and timely examination of financial transactions on an ongoing basis to ensur
accuracy & compliance with procedure and guidelines.
(b) Concurrent Audit
20 . Which group of branches would normally have higher weightage in ARF for Operational Risk Manag
(c) Category III
21 . What minimum percentage a branch needs to score to get a Well Controlled rating.
(c) 85%
22 . What is the maximum penalty for false compliances.
(d) 50
23 . Which of the following is a Pre- Sanction Requirement in Credit Risk Management:
(d) Verification of Title Deeds
24 . Irrespective of the scores obtained by it a branch will be rated Not Satisfactorily Run if -
(c) False certifications of serious nature in BMMC
25 . Time norms for submission of compliance remarks by Branch to Controllers would be __ weeks.
(c) 8 weeks
26 . The purpose of RFIA to focus the audit on -
(d) High risk areas

L0666
1 . There are ______ sub factors under factors related to change situation
(a) 4
2 . Soft elements include;
(a) Shared values, skills, style, staff
3 . Managed from the top in OD means;
(a) Modelled by Top Management
4 . Strategy in 7-S model includes;
(a) Plan devised to maintain and build competitive advantage over the
competition.
5 . Using Behavioural Science knowledge in OD means
(c) A discipline that combines research and experience to understand people and
their interactions.
6 . Structure in 7-S model includes;
(b) Who reports to whom
7 . Style in 7-S model includes
(a) Style of leadership adopted
8 . Increase Organisational Effectivness and health also means
(c) More competitive and efficient.
9 . 7-S checklist questions;

(a) Can be explored to understand the situation
10 . OD Interventions involve
(a) Respect for people
11 . Organisational levels include
(a) Individuals
12 . Shared values are;
(a) Super-ordinate goals
13 . There are _________ major criteria to define the effectiveness of an intervention.
(b) 3
14 . There are _______ factors that impact the success of OD interventions.
(a) 2
15 . The OD Process needs;
(a) Buy in and ownership of workers throughout the organization
16 . Organisational Issues means;
(a) Strategic issues
17 . OD Interventions are sponsored by;
(a) CEO
18 . 7-S model can be useful for;

(a) Align departments and processes during a merger or acquisition
19 . Factors related to change relate to ;
(a) Environment of the organization
20 . There are _____ types of strategic interventions
(a) 6
21 . There are ______ types of human interventions
(a) 2
22 . OD Professionals must have;
(a) A solid understanding of the different OD interventions
23 . Increase Organisational Effectivness and health in OD means
(a) Tied to the bottom line.
24 . There are _____ sub factors under factors related to target of change
(a) 2
25 . Planned Interventions in OD means
(a) Activities to make system wide permanent changes in the organization.
26 . OD is a __________ system of change.
(a) Planned
27 . Mckinsey 7-S framework was developed by;

(a) Tom Peters & Robert Waterman
28 . There are ____ types of techno-structural interventions;
(a) 7
29 . Hard elements include;
(a) Strategy, Structure & Systems
30 . Planned in OD means;
(b) A long term approach

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L0637

1. What type of documents is required to cure US Indicia?

(d) All of the above.

2. For the rule of aggregation which is true?

(e) Only b & c are true.

(b) Subject to electronic search for balances in Bucket 1 accounts,

(b) Balances more than $50000 but less than $1Mio

5. Which of the following are true?

(e) All are true.

(d) All are true.

(b) NO action needs to be taken by the branch.

(b) Bucket 5 low value accounts with US indicia,

11 . What is rule of aggregation for preexisting individual accounts in FATCA?

(e) Only a & b are true.

14 . If US Indicia is for FATCA then what Indicia is for CRS?

(c) Other Indicia

(a) 30th June 2014

18 . What is remediation/Curing under FATCA?

22 . Which of the following is true?

23 . What type of accounts exists in Bucket-3 of pre-existing individual accounts FATCA?

(e) e only b & c.

26 . Which is true for low value preexisting accounts for FATCA?

(d) Only b & c are correct,

(b) Bucket 5 accounts are subject to FATCA remediation,

29 . What is alternate procedure for due diligence?

30 . What is meant by pre-existing individual accounts for FATCA?

(c) the Reviewing Authority

2. Empowered Group consists of the __

(a) From 111th employee

4. Measurable roles have following types of KRAs.

(b) Objective only

6. On what basis cohorts are differentiated?

(d) All of above

7. What is the timeline for submission of Self Appraisal?

(c) 31st March - 10th April

(d) No gradation. Only score will be recorded

9. These cohorts are differentiated on the basis of scale & vertical.

(b) Measurable and Non-measurable

10 . How the CDS can be leveraged for performance enhancement?

(d) All of the above

(c) Objective and Subjective both

13 . New performance evaluation system (CDS) is applicable to,

(d) Clerical staff and Officers both

14 . Who will decide Quintile Curve for a cohort?

(b) Empowered group

15 . How many KRAs an officer can have in the new system?

(c) Min 5 Max 10

17 . CDS system will display ones performance on __..basis.

(c) Key Result Area

19 . What is supervisor discretion score in case of officer below CGM?

(a) Budgetary Role

21 . JIBOs/IBOs/Sr. IBOs are part of __. Cohort.

(c) Pre Selected

(c) The assignment where he/she has spent maximum period

23 . A budgetary role is _..

24 . Which role can have both types of KRAs?

(d) Medium Quintile Curve

(b) 15th Feb - 30th April

27 . Which is not a type of Role in the new system?

(d) Pre selected

28 . What is supervisor discretion score in case of CGM?

(a) AAA, AA, A and B

(d) Recalled Assets.

(a) Suits Filed.