Professional Documents
Culture Documents
BENEFICIARIES
The beneficiaries for free electricity connections would be
identified using Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC)
2011 data. However, unelectrified households not covered
under the SECC data would also be provided electricity
connections under the scheme on payment of ` 500 which
shall be recovered by distribution companies of India
(DISCOMs) in 10 instalments through electricity bill.
The expected outcomes of the scheme are as follow
n
Environmental upgradation by substitution of kerosene for
lighting purposes
n
Improvement of education services
n
Better health services
n
Enhanced connectivity through radio, television, mobiles, etc.
n
Increased economic activities and jobs
n
Improved quality of life especially for women
Pradhan Mantri Sahaj ABOUT THE SCHEME
Bijli Har Ghar For easy and accelerated implementation of the scheme,
AGREEMENTS
India and Japan have signed 15 agreements on September 14,
2017 for enhancing bilateral cooperation in several key areas
including investment promotion, civil aviation, and science
and technology. Both leaders also reviewed entire spectrum of
bilateral cooperation. Some of signed agreements
n
MoU on international academic and sports exchange
n
MoC in field of Japanese language education in India
n
Exchange of RoD on Civil Aviation Cooperation (Open Sky)
n
MoC between Ministry of Home Affairs and Cabinet Office
of Japan
India-Japan Investment Promotion Road map between the
12th Indo-Japan
n
Annual Summit n
n
MoU between DBT and National Institute of Advanced
Science & Technology (AIST)
Arrangement between India Post and Japan Post for the
Prime Minister of Japan Shinzo Abe came to India on a two Implementation of Cool EMS service.
day visit to attend the 12th Indo-Japan annual summit n
MoU between RIS and IDE-JETRO for promotion of
meeting held at Ahmedabad on September 13 and 14, cooperation in research related activities.
2017. With the participation of more than 100 Japanese n
MoC between METI and Gujarat on Japan-India special
corporates and envoys, the Gujarat government viewed the programme for Make In India in Mandal Bechraj-Khoraj in
annual meet as a modified version of Vibrant Gujarat Gujarat.
Summit. n
India-Japan Act East Forum.
INDIAS FIRST BULLET TRAIN n
Joint Research Contract Indias Department of Biotechnology
(DBT) and between National Institute of Advanced Industrial
PROJECT Science & Technology (AIST), Japan.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Japanese Prime Minister n
Agreement for International joint exchange programme
Shinzo Abe jointly laid the foundation stone for Indias first between interdisciplinary theoretical and mathematical
high speed bullet train project between Mumbai and sciences programme, RIKEN and National Centres for
Ahmedabad. High-speed train project is expected to be Biological Sciences.
completed by 2022, and is likely to traverse the distance of
over 500 km between in around two hours. Significance of BILATERAL RELATIONS
this project is as follows IndiaJapan relations have traditionally been strong. The
n
Provides high speed connectivity people of India and Japan have engaged in cultural exchanges,
n
The Mumbai-Ahmedabad corridor, would become a Single primarily as a result of Buddhism, which spread indirectly from
Economic Zone and would become the area of rapid growth. India to Japan, via China and Korea. The people of India and
n
Technology transfer envisaged in this project will Benefit Japan are guided by common cultural traditions including the
Indian Railways, and boost the Make in India initiative. heritage of Buddhism, and share commitment to the ideals of
democracy, tolerance, pluralism and open society.
n
The project would be eco-friendly as well as human-friendly.
India and Japan, two of the largest and oldest democracies in
ABOUT HIGH-SPEED RAIL Asia, having a high degree of congruence of political,
High-speed rail is a type of rail transport that operates economic and strategic interests, view each other as partners
significantly faster than traditional rail traffic, using an that have responsibility for and are capable of responding to
integrated system of specialised rolling stock and dedicated global and regional challenges. India is the largest recipient of
tracks. Japanese Official Development Assistance (ODA).
LIST OF MAHARATNAS
As on September 13, 2017 there are 8 Maharatnas, 16
Maharatna Status Navratnas and 73 Miniratnas. There are nearly 300 CPSEs
in total. List of Maharatna are as follows
to Bharat Petroleum n
n
Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited(BPCL)
National Thermal Power Corporation(NTPC)
n
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation(ONGC)
Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) announced n
Steel Authority of India Limited(SAIL)
that the government of India, vide letter dated September 12, n
Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited(BHEL)
2017 has conferred BPCL with Maharatna Status. Accordingly, n
Indian Oil Corporation Limited(IOCL)
the Bharat Petroleum Corporation is entitled to exercise the n
Coal India Limited(CIL)
powers of a Maharatna Company as governed by relevant
guidelines issued by the Department of Public Enterprises.
n
Gas Authority of India Limited(GAIL)
Presently it has a Navratna status. The decision to elevate ABOUT THE NAVRATNAS
BPCL to Maharatna status was taken by a panel headed by The Navratna status is offered to PSEs, which gives a
Cabinet secretary and an announcement to this effect may be company enhanced financial and operational autonomy
made soon. BPCL will be the eighth Central Public Sector and empowers it to invest up to ` 1000 crore or 15% of
Enterprises (CPSE) to get the coveted Maharatna status. The their net worth on a single project without seeking
status will enable BPCL Board to get enhanced powers which government approval. In a year, these companies can
will help in the expansion of its operations, both in India and spend up to 30% of their net worth not exceeding ` 1000
abroad. crore. They will also have the freedom to enter joint
ABOUT THE BPCL ventures, form alliances and float subsidiaries abroad. A
company must first be a Miniratna and have 4
BPCL is an Indian State-controlled Maharatna oil and gas independent directors on its board before it can be made a
company headquartered in Mumbai (Maharashtra). The Navratna.
corporation operates two large refineries of the country located
at Mumbai and Kochi. The company is ranked 358th on the ABOUT THE MINIRATNAS
Fortune Global 500 list of the world's biggest corporations as Miniratnas can also enter into joint ventures, set subsidiary
of 2016. companies and overseas offices but with certain
What is Maharatna Scheme? conditions. Two categories of Miniratnas Miniratna
Category-I have made profits continuously for the last
A Maharatna Company criterion is based on a purely financial three years or earned a net profit of ` 30 crore or more in
health of the company. The government had introduced one of the three years. Miniratna Category-II have made
Navratna scheme, in 1997, to identify CPSEs that had profits continuously for the last three years and should
comparative advantages and to support them in their drive to have a positive net worth.
become global giants.
ECONOMIC ADVISORY
COUNCIL
RECONSTITUTED
Prime Minister Narendra Modi
reconstituted the Economic Advisory
Council (EAC) under the Chairmanship
of Bibek Debroy on September 25, 2017.
Bibek Debroy is an economist and
ABBREVIATIONS member of NITI Aayog. NITI Aayogs
ANBC Adjusted Net Bank Credit Principal Advisor and former Finance
ASSOCHAM Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India
Secretary Ratan Watal has been made
member-secretary of EAC.
BCSBI Banking Codes and Standards Board of India
Members of EAC are Economist Surjit
BER Bank Exchange Rate
Bhalla, National Institute of Public
BFSI Banking Financial Services and Insurance
Finance, Policy director Rathin Roy and
CBS Core Banking Solutions Professor Ashima Goyal, Indira Gandhi
CGRA Currency & Gold Revaluation Account Institute of Development Research.
CPSE Central Public Sector Enterprise Previous Chairperson of EAC, during
CTS Cheque Truncation System Prime Minister Manmohan Singhs period
was, former RBI Governor, C. Rangarajan.
DCCB District Central Cooperative Bank
DNBS Department of Non-Banking Supervision IRDAI HAS FORMED A
EFT Electronic Funds Transfer TEN-MEMBER
FEDAI Foreign Exchange Dealers Association of India COMMITTEE
FRBM Fiscal Responsibility And Budget Management
Insurance regulator IRDAI has formed a
IBA Indian Banks Association ten-member committee on September 24,
IDRBT Institute for Development & Research in Banking Technology 2017 to help in implementing the new
MMMF Money Market Mutual Fund risk-based capital (RBC) regime and it will
NEFT National Electronic Funds Transfer also enhance protection to policyholders.
PPF Public Provident Fund
The committee will be headed by IRDAI
Member (Actuary), Pournima Gupte.
REER Real Effective Exchange Rate
Other nine members of the committee
include four IRDAI officials.
INTERNATIONAL TEXTILE
AND APPAREL FAIR HELD
VASTRA 2017 International Textile and
Apparel Fair was held at the Jaipur
PRADHAN MANTRI LPG PANCHAYAT LAUNCHED Exhibition & Convention Centre in
Jaipur, Rajasthan on September 21 to 24,
Union Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas, Mr.Dharmendra Pradhan 2017. This is the 6th edition of VASTRA.
launched the Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat in Mota Ishanpur village of VASTRA was started in 2012.
Gujarat on September 23, 2017. Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat will focus
on spreading awareness among LPG users about the proper use and benefits The fair was organised by Rajasthan State
of LPG. Industrial Development and Investment
Corporation Ltd. (RIICO) and
This Panchayat will act as an interactive forum for PMUY beneficiaries, co-organised by FICCI. Main focus of the
officials, LPG distributors and NGOs (Non-Governmental Organisations). fair is to create business opportunities.
Under one Panchayat, around 100 LPG customers will be clubbed. The VASTRA 2017, has retail sales apart from
customers can share their experiences with others.The Panchayats will also business forums.
discuss about safety practices, quality of service provided by distributors and
availability of refill cylinders. FUGITIVE ECONOMIC
PT. DEEN DAYAL UPADHAYAY VIGYAN GRAM OFFENDERS BILL, 2017
SANKUL PARIYOJANA LAUNCHED APPROVED
The Minister of Science & Technology, Earth Sciences & Environment, Forest Law Ministry approved the Fugitive
& Climate Change, Dr. Harsh Vardhan launched Pt. Deen Dayal Upadhayay Economic Offenders Bill 2017, in New
Vigyan Gram Sankul Pariyojana in Uttarakhand on September 22, 2017. The Delhi on September 18, 2017. The
main idea of this project is to acquire local resources and skill sets and Fugitive Economic Offenders Bill 2017
transform them using science and technology. So the value addition is would enable the government to seize the
imparted to the local products and services, which would develop the rural property of economic offenders and
community. defaulters who escape from India, through
a new provision.
Four clusters at Gaindikhata, Bazeera, Bhigun (in Garhwal) and Kausani (in
Kumaon) have been selected in Uttarakhand. Around 1 lakh people will be According to the law, a fugitive economic
benefited from this project in four clusters of 60 villages in Uttarakhand. offender, means an individual against
whom an arrest warrant has been issued for
Areas of development in these clusters have been identified as processing and an economic offence and the person has
value addition of milk, honey, mushroom, herbal tea, forest produce, local escaped from the country and refuses to
crops, and traditional craft and handloom of Uttarakhand. Department of return to face criminal prosecution. This
Science and Technology (DST) has allotted ` 6.3 crore fund for 3 years for law would be applicable in cases where the
this project. value of offence is more than ` 100 crores.
GOVERNMENT TO LAUNCH
PROJECT INSIGHT
The Union Finance Ministry, has announced on
September 11,2017 that is has planned to launch
Project Insight from October, 2017, in a move to
restrict black money holdings and transactions. The
Government has signed a contract with L&T
Infotech Ltd., regarding Project Insight.The aim
of this project is to observe and check high value
transactions, and track tax evaders with the help of
technology to restrict black money holdings. The
project will use data mining and big data analytics
technologies to find tax evaders from social media
platforms by calculating mismatches between their
spending pattern and income generated.
QUALITY NATIONALITY
INDEX 2017
Germany, for the sixth year in a row,
topped the Quality of Nationality Index,
with a score of 82.7%. The second spot was
bagged by Denmark and France with
82.4% and Iceland ranked fourth with a
score of 81.3%. Conducted by law
professor Dimitry Kochenov on September
14, 2017, the study was published by
UK-based international immigration
consultants Henley & Partners.
Internal factors
10% 15%
Peace & Weight of
Stability travel
GLOBAL ENERGY COMPANY RANKINGS 2017 15%
freedom
Economic
The Platts Top 250 Global Energy Company Rankings is published by S&P strength 15%
Diversity of
Global Platts annually.The companies are ranked based on financial QNI General travel
performance depending on four important factors namely asset worth, Ranking freedom
15%
revenues, profits, and return on invested capital. First rank was secured by Human
development 15%
Russian gas firm Gazrpom. Second rank was bagged by German utility EON. Weight of
settlement
Third rank was obtained by Indian energy producer, Reliance Industries Ltd 15%
freedom
Diversity of
(RIL). RIL has the worlds biggest refinery complex. Other Indian firms in the settlement
freedom External factors
top of the list are Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) in 7th position and Oil and
Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) in 11th position.
The index objectively measures both the
7TH ASEM ECONOMIC MINISTERS MEETING internal value of nationality the quality
the 7th ASEM (AsiaEurope Meeting) Economic Ministers Meeting was held of life and opportunities for personal
in Seoul, South Korea on September 21 to 22, 2017. Theme for this years growth within a nationalitys country of
meeting was Innovative Partnership for Inclusive Prosperity. The meeting was origin and the external value of
conducted under the Chairmanship of the Ministry of Trade, Industry and nationality. The global mean in 2016 was
Energy of the Republic of Korea. Economic leaders from 30 European and 21 39.32%, with Afghanistan at the last spot
Asian countries participated in the meet. 51 member countries signed a Joint of the index with a score of 14.6 per cent.
Statement on Supporting the Multilateral Trade System. Commerce Minister GLOBAL HUMAN CAPITAL
Mr.Suresh Prabhu represented India.
INDEX
WORLD'S LEAST STRESSED CITIES REVEALED India has been ranked 103 on Global
A new study has revealed on September 14, 2017, the world's most and least Human Capital Index released by World
stressful cities of 2017, based on factors including traffic levels, public transport, Economic Forum (WEF) on September
percentage of green spaces, financial status of citizens including debt levels, 14, 2017. India has scored the least among
physical and mental health, and the hours of sunlight the city gets per year. the BRICS countries. The Global Human
Stuttgart, Germany , a city of roughly 625,000 people in the countrys Capital Index is prepared by WEF (World
southwest region that won ZipJets No. 1 ranking for the least stressful global Economic Forum) for 130 countries based
destination. Luxembourg (no. 2); Hannover, Germany (no. 3); Bern, on the knowledge and skills people possess
Switzerland (no. 4); and Munich, Germany (no. 5), rounded out the remaining that would find value in the global
five spots. The most stressed city in the world is Baghdad. economic system.
1ST SCORPENE-CLASS
SUBMARINE INS KALVARI
Mazagon Dock Ltd delivered INS Kalvari, the
first scorpene-class submarine to Indian Navy,
in Mumbai on September 21, 2017. INS
Kalvari, is the first of the six Scorpene-class
submarines.This was handed over to Indian
Navy by Mazagon Dock Ltd. This would be
commissioned soon. Kalvari is the name of a
Tiger Shark found in the Indian Ocean. The
2nd Scorpene submarine, Khanderi, was
RELIANCE ENERGY LAUNCHED launched in January 2017. The 3rd Scorpene
ROBOT-ELEKTRA submarine, Karanj, would be launched by the
Reliance Energy announced the launch of ELEKTRA on September 11, end of 2017.
2017, a digital assistant bot powered by artificial intelligence, to provide
automated machine responses to customer complaints, requests and INTELLIGENCE WING OF
enquiries. When a customer logs onto Reliance Energy site of Facebook SASHASTRA SEEMA BAL AND
page, ELEKTRA will appear and provide menu-driven chat services. WARB APP LAUNCHED
These include bills payment options via UPI and other online modes, Union Home Minister Rajnath Singh has
register 'no supply complaint' and check restoration status, and launched first Intelligence Wing of Sashastra
information about online services like new connections, change of name, Seema Bal (SSB) and Welfare And
load change, etc. During peak hours, consumers will get an immediate Rehabilitation Board (WARB) App in New
response to their queries from ELEKTRA without any waiting time. Delhi authorized to Protect the shared borders
ELEKTRA at present is already serving 500 customers daily with 3,000 of India with Nepal and Bhutan. It has been
interactions and will be soon upgraded to deliver customised confirmed as the Lead Intelligence Agency
conversational chat responses. (LIA) for both the Indo-Nepal and
Indo-Bhutan borders.
MOVIDIUS MYRIAD X PROCESSING Welfare and Rehabilitation Board (WARB)
UNIT UNVEILED App implements to facilitate retired CAPFs
Intel has introduced a new vision processing unit (VPU) called Movidius (Central Armed Police Forces) and Assam
Myriad X on September 3, 2017. The new Intel VPU? is aimed at Rifles personnel to get their grievances
providing end-to-end artificial intelligence (AI) solutions to a wide range redressed, then can look for skill development
of product categories such as smart cameras, virtual reality (VR) devices, training through National Skill Development
robotics and even drones. Myriad X is the worlds first system-on-chip Corporation under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal
(SOC) shipping with a dedicated neural compute engine for accelerating Vikas Yojna, re-employment and other relevant
deep learning inferences at the edge. important information.
TENNIS
FOOTBALL US OPEN 2017
CALCUTTA FOOTBALL LEAGUE The US Open Tennis 2017 was held from
East Bengal won the Calcutta Football League (CFL) title for the 8th August 22 to September 10, 2017, on
consecutive time at the Kanchenjunga Stadium, in Siliguri, West Bengal on hard courts at the USTA Billie Jean King
September 24, 2017. East Bengal has created a new record by winning the National Tennis Center, in New York. It
Calcutta Football League (CFL) title for the 8th consecutive time. The title was the 137th edition of the US Open
winner was decided based on the number of goals scored. East Bengal Club had Tennis and the 4th and final Grand Slam
scored 28 goals. Whereas, Mohun Bagan Club had scored only 22 goals. It has event of 2017. It was run by the
won all the CFL titles since 2010. International Tennis Federation (ITF).
Rafael Nadal was the winner of Men's
Singles. With this win, Nadal captured his
BADMINTON third US Open title and his 16th Grand
Slam title overall.
KOREA OPEN 2017
PV Sindhu became the first Indian badminton player to lift the title in Korea List of winner -
after she beat Nozomi Okuhara in the womens singles final at Korea Open Event Winner Runner-Up
Superseries in Seoul on September 17, 2017. This was her third Super Series title Men's Singles Rafael Nadal Kevin Anderson
and second this year. In a rematch of the World Championships final which was (Spain) (South Africa)
won by Okuhara, Sindhu avenged her loss from Glasgow and won the Korea Women's Sloane Madison Keys
Singles Stephens (US) (US)
Open Superseries final 22-20 11-21 21-18 and claimed the title. With this
victory, Sindhu became first Indian to win Korea Super Series crown. Sindhu was Men's Doubles Jean-Julien Feliciano Lopez
Rojer (Spain) / Marc
awarded Padma Shri in 2015, Indias fourth-highest civilian honour. (Netherlands) / Lopez (Spain)
Horia Tecau
(Romania)
BASKETBALL Women's Chan Yung-Jan Lucie Hradecka
Doubles (Chinese Taipei) / Katerina
2ND SABA U-16 CHAMPIONSHIP / Martina Hingis Siniakova
(Switzerland) (Czech
India won the Second South Asian Basketball, SABA, Under 16 Republic)
Championship, in Kathmandu, Nepal on September 9, 2017. India won all its
Mixed Doubles Martina Hingis Chan
4 matches and obtained a total of 8 points. In its last match India defeated (Switzerland) / Hao-ching
Bhutan by 131 50 points. India was followed by Bangladesh in the 2nd Jamie Murray (Chinese Taipei)
position and Nepal in the 3rd. India has now qualified for the 2017 (United / Michael
Kingdom) Venus(New
International Basketball Federation, FIBA, Under-16 Asian Championship to Zealand)
be played in Malaysia, in 2017.
Other Tournaments/Events
Name Related Facts
Futures Tennis Title Sasi Kumar Mukund of India had won
(September 24, 2017) his second straight Futures title.
He defeated Arjun Khade by 6-3, 6-4 in
the singles final of the LMW ITF Mens
Futures tennis tournament.
Mukund and Khade had teamed up for
the doubles but lost in the final to
Chandril and Lakshit Sood.
Italian Grand Prix Lewis Hamilton has won the Italian
(September 3, 2017) Grand Prix 2017 to take lead in
Formula-1 title race. The 2017 Italian
Grand Prix was a Formula One motor
race held at the Autodromo Nazionale
Monza in Monza, Italy.
NAGARAJA SHARMA
NEWS KIT The Union government has appointed
M. Nagaraja Sharma as the Chairman and
Managing director of United India
Insurance announced on September 13,
2017. Sharma is currently the director and
general manager of UII. The post of
chairman and MD was vacant after the
retirement of Milind Kharat a few months
ago. UII is headquartered in Chennai.
HALIMAH YACOB
Ms.Halima Yacob was declared on
September 1, 2017 as the first ever female
President of Singapore. She was selected as
the 8th President without election. She
was the first female Speaker of Parliament
in 2013, in Singapore. Out of the three
presidential candidates only she was given
certificate of eligibility for the post.
RAJBHASHA KIRTI
AWARDS AND PURASKAR 2017
Vijaya Bank has bagged the first prize
Other Awards
Award Related Facts
Sarala award Banaj Devi, famous Odia poet and short story writer is to be awarded Sarala award for her short story compilation Kathapua.
(September 26, 2017)
The annual Sarala Puraskar award is one of the prestigious literary awards of Odisha. The awards are given away by Indian
Metals Public Charitable Trust (IMPaCT).
ANR award SS Rajamouli has received the ANR National Award from Vice-President Venkaiah Naidu. He has received the award for his
(September 17, 2017) contribution to the Telugu film industry in Hyderabad.
Container Terminal of Jawaharlal Nehru Port Container Terminal (JNPCT) was given the award in The Gateway Awards 2017 held at Mumbai. The
the Year Award 2017 Gateway Awards are given to appreciate best practices, innovation and motivation in the Indian Maritime industry.
(September 13, 2017)
ASSOCHAM Services Indias first operational Smart City, Gujarat International Finance-Tec City (GIFT City), has won the prestigious ASSOCHAM
Excellence Awards Services Excellence Award in New Delhi. The Awards were presented in the categories of Tourism and Hospitality,
(September 6, 2017) International Financial Services and Technology Hub, Banking and Financial Services, Insurance etc.
NHAI awards The NHAI awarded its first international project in Myanmar to a joint venture of Punj Lloyd-Varaha. NHAI is an autonomous
(September 7, 2017) agency of the Government of India, responsible for management of a network of over 70,000 km of National Highways in
India.
9. The 2017 International Day for the 18. Which of the following country is 27. Which of the following State
Remembrance of the Slave Trade and its hosting the 2017 International Hindu government has launched Gyankunj
Abolition is observed on which date? Conference (IHC)? e-class project?
a. August 22 b. August 23 c. August 24 a. Nepal b. India c. Sri Lanka a. Tamil Nadu b. Punjab c. Bihar
d. August 25 e. August 28 d. Bhutan e. China d. Gujarat e. Karnataka
IBPS
( )
PO/MT
Pre. Phase I Online Exam 2017
General Instructions
l
This crack set consists of 100 questions in three parts.
l
All questions are compulsory.
l
Answer the questions quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy.
Do not spend too much time on any question.
Time 60 Min. Max. Marks 100
Part Subject Number of Questions
I English Language 30
II Quantitative Aptitude 35
III Reasoning Ability 35
22. Which of the following should be the SIXTH 28. a. cycles b. cycled c. psyche
sentence after rearrangement? d. cycle e. cyclone
a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 29. a. substance b. substances c. substitute
23. Which of the following should be the SECOND d. substituted e. substrate
sentence after rearrangement? 30. a. a b. the c. an d. one e. ones
a. E b. D c. C d. B e. A
46. What is the difference between the total number 59. A person bought two bicycles for ` 1600 and sold
of employees in teaching and medical profession the first at 10% profit and the second at 20% profit. If
together and the number of employees in he sold the first at 20% profit and the second at 10%
management profession? profit, he would get ` 5 more.The difference in the
a. 6770 b. 7700 c. 6700 cost price of the two bicycles was
d. 7770 e. 7670 a. ` 25 b. ` 75 c. ` 50 d. ` 40 e. ` 70
79. What is the position of Q with respect to P? 87. G is a National and .... player.
a. Fifth to the right b. Immediate neighbour a. cricket b. badminton
c. Second to the right d. Third to the left c. Either cricket or badminton d. Cannot be determined
e. None of these e. None of these
Required percent =
540
100 = 90% Now, required difference y + 11y 2 y 22 = 0
2
IBPS
( )
PO/MT
Main Phase II Online Exam 2017
General Instructions
l
This crack set consists of 155 questions in four parts.
l
All questions are compulsory.
l
Answer the questions quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy.
Do not spend too much time on any question.
Time 180 Min. Max. Marks 200
Part Subject Number of Questions
I Reasoning & Computer Aptitude 45
II Data Analysis & Interpretation 35
III General/Economic/Banking Awareness 40
IV English Language 35
18. The person whose sunsign is Virgo is sitting Refuse Treatment Reception
between who among the following? Amount pay
a. The persons whose sunsigns are Pisces and Leo. No Yes
` 10000 Patent Admit
b. The person whose sunsigns are Aries and Libra.
c. The persons whose sunsigns are Libra and Cancer. Checkd by Doctor
d. A and B Found any Disease
e. D and B Yes
Discharge Reports
Generates No
19. Four of the five are alike in a certain way and Treatment for that
Disease by Doctor
hence form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
Negative Report
a. D b. C c. A d. F e. B Collect Reports
Generates
Positive
20. What is the position of G with respect to her
granddaughter according to the given seating Doctor Suggest
for Operation
arrangement?
In ICU
a. 4th to the right b. 4th to the left c. Immediate left
d. Immediate right e. 2nd to the left Operation
Successful
Directions (Q.Nos. 21-25) Read the given information Patient Z wants to admit in hospital. So, different
carefully and answer the given questions. conditions are given in data flow diagram. So, after
Eight employees namely P, Q R, S, T, U, V and W had born analysing above DFD diagram you have to answer the given
in different year starting from 1969 to 2005, but not questions.
30. Statement Bar Council of India (BCI) has 35. Who are the immediate neighbour of J?
decided to go on hunger strike to protest the a. G and L b. E and M c. F and G
implementation of the Legal Services Authority d. J and H e. F and H
(Amendment) Act. Chairman of BCI. 36. Who among the following has a vacant flat to his
Assumptions immediate right?
I. The amendment has several loopholes and is a. K b. H c. J d. L e. G
bound to hurt the litigants interests.
II. All the members of BCI will welcome the decision. 37. Which among the given options does not have
III. The hunger strike held in front of the court will flash memory?
put a pressure on the respective authority. a. Pen Drive b. Hard Disk c. Car Radio
a. Only I b. I and II d. Memory Cards e. Memory Stick
c. I and III d. All of these
e. None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 38-40) Study the following
information carefully and answer the given questions.
31. Statement Despite strong opposition, the A word and number arrangement machine when given an
controversial prohibition of forcible conversion of input line of words and numbers rearranges them following
Religion Bill was passed by the Tamil Nadu Assembly a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration
with the AIDMK and the BJP outvoting the combined of input and rearrangement.
opposition of the DMK, the Congress, the Pattali Input 206 nokia 65 samsung 116 micromax 5 apple 610
Makkal Katchi and the Left parties. A news lenovo panasonic 51 huawei
Assumptions Step I 610 206 nokia 65 samsung 116 micromax 5 apple
lenovo panasonic 51 huawei
I. Conversions create resentment among several
sections and also inflame religious passions, Step II 610 206 65 nokia samsung 116 micromax 5 apple
lenovo panasonic 51 huawei.
leading to communal clashes.
Step III 610 206 65 116 nokia samsung micromax 5 apple
II. Conversions only lead to the isolation of the
lenovo panasonic 51 huawei
converted.
Step IV 610 206 65 116 5 nokia samsung micromax apple
lenovo panasonic 51 huawei
160 13 27 19 12 17
140
a. b. c. d. e.
135
140 120
32 32 32 32 32
115
Production (in tonne)
120
105
102
75
95
100 quantities I and II. Compare the two quantities and mark
85
75
70
80
62
60
55
60 Give answer
45
40
40
40
c. if Quantity I Quantity II d. if quantity I Quantity II
25
IBPS
( )
CLERK
Pre. Phase I Online Exam 2017
General Instructions
l
This crack set consists of 100 questions in three parts.
l
All questions are compulsory.
l
Answer the questions quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy.
Do not spend too much time on any question.
Time 60 Min. Max. Marks 100
Part Subject Number of Questions
I English Language 30
II Numerical Ability 35
III Reasoning Ability 35
25. Why did the little rabbit messenger convey the 30. How did the elephant see the Moon?
Moons message from the top of a rock? From its reflection in the water
In the little rabbits eyes
The message could be heard better from the rock than any In the sky
other place in the jungle. Not mentioned in the passage
The King of rabbits had asked the little rabbit to do so. None of the above
83. How many persons are seated between R and T? 89. How many children are there in the group?
One Two Three I. Sangita has scored more marks than 12 children in
Four None group.
84. If P is related Q and S is related to T in a certain II. Reena has scored less than Sangita.
way, to which of the following would V be related to 90. What is the value of 36$4*8?
following the same pattern? I. P $ Q means divide P by Q.
Y P R II. A * B means multiply A by B.
S X
91. What is Samirs rank from the top in the class of
Directions (Q.Nos. 85-88) In each question below are 30 students?
two statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You
have to take the two given statements to be true even, if I. Sudhir, who is four ranks above Samir, is 15 in
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts rank from the bottom.
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically II. Samir is 3 ranks below Neeta who is 18 from the
follows from the given statements disregarding bottom.
commonly known facts. 92. Who among L, N, F, G and Q was the first to
Give answer reach the college?
if only conclusion I follows I. F reached before L and G but not before Q who
if only conclusion II follows
if either conclusion I or II follows
was not the first to reach.
if neither conclusion I nor II follows II. N reached before F and G and L reached after F.
if both conclusions I and II follow
Directions (Q.Nos. 93-96) Study the following
85. Statements Some pastries are toffees. All toffees information carefully and answer the given questions.
are chocolates. A word and number arrangement machine when given an
Conclusions input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
I. At least some chocolates are toffees. illustration of input and rearrangement.
II. Some toffees are definitely not pastries. Input nine poll 19 34 12 69 hour call
86. Statements Some players are singers. All singers Step I call nine poll 19 34 12 69 hour
are tall. Step II call 12 nine poll 19 34 69 hour
North
and the numbers are arranged in ascending
73. N order.
R P S Q T V X Y
Mother
93. Step II bend 15 will care 46 53 29 then
Husband Step III bend 15 care will 46 53 29 then
K
/ Wife
L
Sister
M 81. 82. 83. 84.
Step IV bend 15 care 29 will 46 53 then
r s 85. Step V bend 15 care 29 then will 46 53
Here, N is mother of L who is the wife of K. Step VI bend 15 care 29 then 46 will 53
Hence, N is mother-in-law of K. Pastrie Toffee
94.
Solutions (Q.Nos. 74-76) According to the Chocolate
information, 95. Input land 62 clear over 41 37 again 56
Sunita > Seema and Renu Step I again land 62 clear over 41 37 56
Conclusions I. T II. X Step II again 37 land 62 clear over 41 56
Radha and Gauri > Renu
Hence, only conclusion I follows. Step III again 37 clear land 62 over 41 56
Sunita > Bina > Radha
86. Step IV again 37 clear 41 land 62 over 56
Sunita (not tallest)
Step V again 37 clear 41 land 56 62 over
Renu (not shortest)
Player Singer Tall Step VI again 37 clear 41 land 56 over 62
On arranging the above data, we get
Hence, Step V is the last but one step.
Gauri > Sunita > Bina > Radha > Renu
> Seema 96. Step II desk 12 year victory 86 71
Conclusions I. T II. T store 65
74. 75.
Hence, both conclusions I and II follow. Step III desk12 store year victory 86 71 65
76. Third
87. Step IV desk 12 store 65 year victory 86 71
Solutions (Q.Nos. 77-80) According to the Water Step V desk 12 store 65 victory year 86 71
given informations Clean
Stone Step VI desk 12 store 65 victory 71 year 86
$ @ > <
Step VII Not step.
= %
Solutions (Q.Nos. 97-100) According to the
Conclusions I. X II. X given informations
77. Statements M R M < R
Hence, either conclusion I or II follows.
R $ T R T Friend ' City Modes of Transport
and T N T = N
88. Gun P Chandigarh Train
M < R T = N
Phone Watch
A~ b'hAm Train
Q
R
AmgmZ
Raipur
Dehradun
Car
Conclusions S Bengaluru Aeroplane
I. N @ M N > M (True) T Jaipur Car
II. T @ M T >M (True)
Conclusions I. X II. X 97. 98. 99. 100.
Hence, both conclusions I and II are true.
Hence, none follows.
78. Statements B % H B H `
89. Both the statements are not sufficient
H $ W H W to give answer. 12
and W @ M W > M
90. From statements I and II, mnyU H$ [aa mJXeH$ ...
B H W > M 36
Conclusions 36 $ 4 * 8 = 36 4 8 = 8
4
I. B @ W B > W (False) = 9 8 = 72
II. M H M < H (False) 91. From Statement I,
Bg| h
Hence, neither conclusion I nor II is true. 15 + + 10 hrZo ^a H$ s H$ aoQ> yO
79. Statements K M K < M H$ [aa OmZH$ mar Ed {deofkm| H$ s gbmh
Sudhir Sameer
M % A M A
and A @ T A > T Sameers rank from the top in the class is Q> mng BQ> ay
20th. gmm kmZ JmoS> Z dmBQ> g
K < M A > T
From Statement II,
Conclusions Omg H$ s OmZH$ mar
I. K A K < T (False) 12 + + 14
narjm H$ s aUZr{V Ho$ gmW gmdS> nong
II. T M T < M (True) Neetu Sameer
Hence, only conclusion II is true.
gmm kmZ, AH$ J{UV, arOqZJ, AJoOr
Sameers rank from the top in the class is ^mfm VWm {hXr ^mfm na AZ gmJr
80. Statements B $ P B P 16th.
IBPS RRBs-VI
OFFICE ASSISTANT
Main (Phase II) Online Exam 2017
General Instructions
l
This crack set consists of 200 questions in five parts.
l
All questions are compulsory.
l
Answer the questions quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy.
Do not spend too much time on any question.
Time 120 Min. Max. Marks 200
Part Subject Number of Questions
I Reasoning 40
II English Language 40
III Numerical Aptitude 40
IV Computer Knowledge 40
V General Awareness 40
Part I Reasoning
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain Directions (Q.Nos. 6 -10) Each of the questions below
way and so form a group. Which is the one that does consists of a question and two statements numbered I
not belong to that group? and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the
a. Jasmine b. Rose c. Dahlia data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer
d. Marigold e. Lotus the question. Read both the statements
Give answer
2. Jackal is related to Carnivorous in the same way a. if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
as Goat is related to question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient
a. Omnivorous b. Carnivorous to answer the question
c. Herbivorous d. Multivorous b. if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
e. None of these
question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient
3. If blue is called red, red is called green, green to answer the question
is called black and black is called white, what is c. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone
the colour of grass? are sufficient to answer the question
a. Red b. Black c. White d. if the data even in both the statements I and II are not
d. Green e. None of these sufficient to answer the question
e. if the data in both the statements I and II together are
4. In a certain code, RAID is written as %#$, RIPE is necessary to answer the question
written as %@. How is DEAR written in that code?
a. @#% b. $@#% c. @$#% 6. How many children are there in the group?
d. $#% e. None of these I. Sangita has scored more marks than 12 children in
the group.
5. Radish is related to Root in the same way as II. Reena has scored less than Sangita.
Brinjal is related to
a. Fruit b. Stem c. Flower 7. What is the value of 3 6 $ 4 8?
d. Root e. None of these I.P $ Q means divide P by Q.
II.A B means multiply A by B.
66. The custom of many centuries ago origin is 80. a. superior b. imitable c. comprehensive
slowly disappearing. d. obsolete e. spiritua
a. with many centuries of origin b. originating for many centuries
c. having an origin of many centuries
d. which originated many centuries ago
e. No correction required
67. Any conclusion other than the one which was
reached seems totally unjustified.
a. which has reached seems b. that had reached seem
c. which had reached seems d. which seems was reached
e. No correction required
68. I prefer travelling by bus than by train.
a. travelling by bus to travelling b. to travel by bus than
c. travelling by bus as d. to travelling by bus than
e. No correction required
69. By the end of this century, scientists surely must
discover a cure for the AIDS.
a. have discovered b. must be discovered
c. will have discovered d. might discover
e. No correction required
70. All the representatives are clever and good at
handling people.
a. on handling the people b. with handling people
c. to handling the people d. for handling the people
e. No correction required
Directions (Q.Nos. 81-85) Study the table carefully to 86. If the distance travelled by Truck A and Truck B on
answer the questions that follow. Saturday was the same, what was the respective ratio of
Number of Calls Attended by Six Different Call Centre
Employees between Specific Time Slots the time taken by Truck A to that taken by Truck B to
travel that distance?
Time Slot Employees
a. 6 : 7 b. 13 : 19 c. 11 : 12
P Q R S T U
d. Cant be determined e. None of these
9:01 am -11:00 am 62 60 48 70 55 52
11:01am-1:00 pm 54 58 52 64 45 54 87. If the distance travelled by Truck B on Thursday
2:01 pm-4:00 pm 60 52 50 62 48 50 was 846 km, what was the time taken by it to travel that
4:01 pm-6:00 pm 58 60 42 72 50 58
6:01 pm-8:00 pm 58 56 46 68 58 62
distance?
8:01 pm-10:00 pm 60 55 54 60 54 64 a. 16 h 55 min 12 sec b. 16 h 12 sec
c. 15 h 6 min 4 sec d. Cant be determined
81. Calls attended by U between 4:01 pm to 6:00 e. None of these
pm were what percent of the calls attended by Q
88. What is the average speed of Truck A for all the
in the same time slot? (Rounded off to the
days together?
nearest integer) 8
a. 88 b. 125 c. 97 a. 180 m/sec b. 13 m/sec c. 120 m/sec
9
d. 103 e. 111 6
d. 12 m/sec e. None of these
82. What is the respective ratio of total number 7
of calls attended by S to those attended by R in 89. Average speed of Truck C is approximately, what
the day? percent of average speed of Truck B over the days?
a. 73 : 99 b. 86 : 69 c. 69 : 86 a. 63% b. 74% c. 95% d. 86% e. 69%
d. 99 : 73 e. None of these
83. What is the approximate average number of 90. What is the percent increase in speed of Truck C on
Friday from the previous day?
calls attended by P per hour?
a. 15% b. 28% c. 20%
a. 29 b. 33 c. 22
d. 18% e. None of these
d. 25 e. 36
84. In which time slot were the lowest number of 91. On Independence day, sweets were to be equally
calls attended to? distributed among 350 children. But on that particular
day, 25 children were absent. Thus, each child got 5 extra
a. 11:01 am -1:00 pm b. 8:01 pm -10:00 pm
c. 2:01 pm -4:00 pm d. 9:01 am -11:00 am
sweets. Totally how many sweets did each child get?
e. None of these a. 55 b. 70 c. 50
d. 65 e. None of these
85. On an average, for how many minutes did one
call last in case of T in the entire working hours? 92. 24 men can complete a piece of work in 16 days.
(Rounded off to two digits after decimal) The same work can be completed by 8 women in 72
days, whereas 24 children take 32 days to complete it. If
a. 2.55 b. 2.06
c. 2.18 d. 2.32
10 men, 15 women and 24 children work together, in
e. None of these how many days can the work be completed?
a. 18 b. 8 c. 22
Directions (Q.Nos. 86-90) Study the graph carefully to d. 12 e. None of these
answer the questions that follow.
93. How many seven-digit numbers can be made from
Speed (in km/h) of Three Trucks on Different
the number 3428651, using each digit only once?
Routes on Different Days of the Week a. 49 b. 180 c. 5040
Truck A Truck B Truck C d. 2520 e. None of these
40 amount?
30 a. ` 8400 b. ` 9200 c. ` 6800
d. Cant be determined e. None of these
20
10 95. The number obtained by interchanging the digits of
0 a two-digit number is greater than the original number
Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri Sat
Day by 9. If the sum of the two digits of the number of 13,
what is the original number?
a. 58 b. 76 c. 78
d. Cant be determined e. None of these
165. Which city is hosting the 8th World Renewable 177. Who has been appointed as Indias alternate
Energy Technology Congress? Governor on the Board of Governors of the Asian
a. Pune b. Guwahati c. New Delhi
Development Bank (ADB)?
d. Bhopal e. Mumbai a. Kaushik Basu b. Subhash Chandra Garg
c. Rajiv Mehrishi d. Shaktikanta Das
166. Indias first world peace university has come up e. None of these
in which State? 178. Google has launched Android 8.0 named as
a. Haryana b. Uttar Pradesh c. Maharashtra
a. Cupcake b. Eclair c. Froyo d. Oreo e. Nestle
d. Assam e. Odisha
167. TRAI has signed a Letter of Intent (LoI) with 179. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has
lined up over ...... rocket launches and will be putting
which countrys telecom regulator to jointly conduct
over 70 satellites in space over the next five years.
capacity building exercises in telecom sector?
a. 21 rl b. 26 rl c. 31 rl
a. Indonesia b. Malaysia c. Vietnam d. 36 rl e. None of these
d. Maldivies e. None of these
180. Which Indian sportsperson has been appointed
168. Who has won the 2017 Kenya Presidential as the WHO Goodwill Ambassador for physical
election?
activity in the South-East Asia Region (SEAR)?
a. William Ruto b. Raifa Odinga c. Yoweri Museveni
d. Uhuru Kenyatta e. None of these a. Mary Kom b. Milkha Singh c. Pullela Gopichand
d. Abhinav Bindra e. None of these
169. Which country has successfully launched 181. Ankur Mittal is associated with which sports?
satellite-carrying rocket Simorgh into space?
a. Sprint b. Football c. Shooting
a. Germany b. France c. Japan d. Iran e. China d. Basketball e. Sketting
170. Which country to host 5th Global Conference 182. Which Indian shuttler has won the mens
on Cyber Space (GCCS)-2017? singles Lagos International 2017?
a. Japan b. China c. South Korea a. Karan Rajan Rajarajan b. Rahul Yadav Chittaboina
d. India e. USA c. Manu Attri d. B Sumeeth Reddy
e. None of these
171. Which of the followinng has become the first
power utility to introduce a QR code based bill 183. The International Day for the Remembrance of
payments system in India? the Slave Trade and its Abolition is observed on
a. Tata Power b. Adani Power which date?
c. Reliance Power d. Jindal India Thermal Power a. August 24 b. August 25 c. August 22
e. None of these d. August 23 e. August 26
172. BSNL has launched its BSNL Wallet in 184. Who has been appointed as the new Chairman
partnership with which digital payment company? and Managing Director (CMD) of Air India?
a. Jio Money b. PhonePe c. MobiKwik a. Rajiv Bansal b. Kirti Das c. Nitant Agrawal
d. Paytm e. Freecharge d. Vinay Kumar e. None of these
* Based on Memory 6. What is the average number of eggs produced by farm D over the
years?
a. 7703 b. 7700 c. 7704
d. 7604 e. Other than those given as options
12. Three Science classes A, B and C take a Life Directions (Q.Nos. 24-28) Study the following graph
Science test. The average score of class A is 83. The carefully and answer the questions.
average score of class B is 76. The average score of Water Level of Four Major Rivers (in metres) in Four
class C is 85. The average score of class A and B is 79 Different Months
and average score of class B and C is 81. Then the 250
average score of classes A, B and C is Water level 200
a. 80 b. 80.5 c. 81 d. 81.5 e. 82 (in metres)
150
17. Profit of Company E is what percentage of the 28. What was the respective ratio between the level
income of company C? of River-C in September and the water level of
a. 120% b. 88.14% c. 900% River-B in June?
d. 40% e. Other than those given as options a. 91 : 101 b. 94 : 101 c. 51 : 103 d. 31 : 101 e. 92 : 101
PAPER
a. 32 km b. 14 km 33. The average speed of a bus is three-fifths of the
c. 18 km d. 20 km
e. Other than those given as options average speed of a car which covers 3250 km in 65
hours. What is the average speed of the bus?
30. The ratio of Smitas age to her mother is 3 : 7 a. 30 km/h b. 20 km/h c. 35 km/h
respectively and the difference in their ages is 32 d. 36 km/h e. Other than those given as options
years. What will be the ratio of their ages 4 years
hence? 34. Mehul sold an item for ` 5625 and incurred a loss
of 25%. At what price should he have sold the item
a. 4 : 19 b. 5 : 14
c. 3 : 20 d. 7 : 15 to gain a profit of 25%?
e. 3 : 8 a. ` 9375 b. ` 9357
c. ` 9753 d. ` 9573
31. The ratio of number of male and female e. Other than those given as options
employees in an office is 5 : 3. In the office there are 1
Engineers and Managers. If 30% of the male 35. A person spends of his income on food. He
3
employees are managers and 40% of the female spends the rest of the income in the ratio 4 : 1 on
employees are engineers then what is the ratio of buying clothes and books respectively. He spent
number of Engineers in the company to the total
number of employees? ` 2400 on the books. Find the total income of man.
a. 47 : 43 b. 33 : 50 a. ` 18000 b. ` 24000
c. 47 : 80 d. 52 : 75 c. ` 12000 d. ` 14000
e. Other than those given as options e. Other than those given as options
38. From bakery store Lalit turns to his right and 41. Who is living immediately above Raghus floor?
drives 4 km and reaches Point C. He then takes a a. Maya b. Ashok c. Amit d. Pavan e. Rajeev
right turn and drives 5 km and reaches school and
drops his son. What is the distance between bakery 42. Who lives on the topmost floor?
shop and school? a. Amit b. Ashok c. Pavan d. Raghu e. Maya
a. 3.10 km b. 5.13 km 43. On which floor is Amit living?
c. 6.4 km d. 4.56 km a. 7 b. 6 c. 5 d. 4 e. 3
e. 7.5 km
39. From the school he drives 5 km towards left then 44. If all the people are arranged in the same order
as they would appear in the dictionary, starting from
turns right and drives 2 km and reaches point D.
top floor to bottom floor, position of how many
Point D is in which direction of Point A?
person(s) will remain unchanged after the
a. North-West b. South-West
c. South-East d. North-East
rearrangement?
e. North a. None b. One c. Two
d. Three e. More than three
PAPER
a. TUBJMR b. RUBJMT c. TSBHOR extreme ends?
d. TIJHASD e. Other than those given as options a. N, M b. Q, L c. O, Q
d. Other than those given as options
Directions (Q.Nos 66-70) Study the following
e. Cannot be determined
information and answer the questions.
Eight friends F, G, H, L, M, N, O and Q are sitting in a 68. Based on the given arrangement, Q is related to
straight line facing North, but not necessary in the N and H is related to F in same way as M is related
same order. to?
l
H is sitting second to the right of N and L is sitting a. M b. F c. L
third to the right of H. d. Q e. Other than those given as options
l
M is sitting to the immediate right of F. 69. How many persons are sitting between Q and
l
Number of persons can sit between G and L is same M?
as the numbers of persons are sitting between Q and a. One b. Two c. Three
F. d. Four e. More than four
l
O is sitting to the immediate right of L who is not an 70. Who is sitting third to the left of H?
immediate neighbour of G. a. Q b. N c. L
l
F is not an immediate neighbour of N. d. No one e. Other than those given as options
PAPER
Some wood artisans make wooden masks (99)
d. is eager to join them in whatever they are doing
customary religious sentiments. The tools used for
e. No error.
wood craft are mainly the carpenters tools, carving
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) In the following passage chisels and the wood. The woods that they use are soft
there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. and are easily available. There are thousands of wood
These numbers are printed below the passage and craftsmen making pieces of wood carved itmes of (100)
against each, five words are suggested, one of which fill beauty.
the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate words
without changing to meaning of the blanks. 91. a. renovating b. decorating c. beautifying
d. colouring e. framing
The art of wood carving is very old craft in India. Since
time immemorial, man had started (91) his home by 92. a. established b. found c. inserted
using wood carving methods. They used to make dolls d. set-up e. tend
and toys for their children. Wood carft in India is a
common heritage and is (92) to exist across all parts of
93. a. beautifully b. remarkably c. splendidly
d. skilfully e. effectively
the country. The traditional craftsmen used wood, stone,
earth and colour for painting as raw materials. They (93) 94. a. difficulty b. tenacity c. accuracy
carved doors, door frames and brackets in palaces and d. austerity e. frugality
temples. Images of Gods, Idols and Deities were also
made of wood. Sacred woods were used in such 95. a. pedigree b. culture c. legacy
creations. The wood carvers had to retain strict (94) d. custom e. heritage
throughout the period they were occupied in the work. 96. a. zest b. flavour c. squirt
There was no restriction on the usage of colour and
d. fragrance e. spirit
varnish. We can see carved wooden symbols in the rural
arreas which reminds us of a tribal (95). Wood carft is 97. a. presentation b. affirmation c. illustration
still being used for carving toys and dolls. The modern d. demonstration e. manifestation
wood carving has touched a new height of
sculpturesque perfection. At maintain traditional local 98. a. experimental b. innovative c. creative
(96) at the same time. d. imaginative e. traditional
The religious product includes images of Gods and 99. a. exhibiting b. illustrating c. indicating
legendary figures like Durga, Ganesha, etc. Some d. depicting e. presenting
craftsmen carve a single piece of wood to form an
object. These attempts are made for artistic (97). Some 100. a. wonderful b. decorative c. exceptional
distinct forms and shapes of items of wood carft have d. anomalous e. exemplary
PAPER
Thursday W
100 2 3 Rajeev Pavan
Friday P
2 Arvind Raghu
Number of Engineers in Company Saturday S
1 Maya Rajeev
40 6x
= 3x = Sunday Q
100 5 It is clear from table that only one person
Ashoks position will remain unchanged 60. (b) 61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (a)
Required ratio = Number of Engineer : after the rearrangement.
6x 6 65. (c) As, M I C R O
Total employee = : 8x = : 8 Solutions (Q.Nos. 45-49) From given
5 5 +1 1 +1 1 +1
arrangement, seating arrangement is as
= 6 : 40 = 3 : 20 follows N H D Q P
32. (d) 33. (a) X J
B and W I D E S
34. (a) Given, SP = ` 5625, Loss % = 25% +1 1 +1 1 +1
100 A M
CP = SP
(100 Loss %) X H E D T
40. (c) 41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (c)
40 B o o st e rs
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q.Nos. 1-4) What will come in place of II. If Ram moves with the speed of six-fifth of its original
question mark (?) in the following questions? speed, then he reaches office 45 minutes earlier.
1 1 1 III. If Ram moves with original speed of 60 km/h.
1. 1 + 1 3 + 1 3 9 + 1 3 9 27 Which of the above statement(s) is/are required to
furnish the answer?
1 a. Statements I and II are necessary.
+ =?
1 3 9 27 81 b. Statements II and III are necessary.
a. 1.37 b. 1.57 c. 2.37 d. 2.57 e. 0.37 c. Statements I and III are necessary.
d. Only statement I can give the answer.
256 16 ? 8 2 e. All statements are necessary.
2. =1
92 7 6 + ? 2 11. Find the work completed by Ram and Shyam in how
a. 11 b. 12 c. 6 d. 9 e. 16 many days.
I. If Ram is twice efficient as B.
3. 3
1728 2 3136 3 21952 = ? 3
II. Shyam can complete this work in 24 days.
a. 9 b. 8 c. 12 d. 6 e. 4
III. If Ram joins the work after 2 days of the start of the
4. 37% of 6845 185% of 253266 = ? work.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are required to
1 1 1
a. b. c. furnish the answer?
37 5 5 35 5 27
a. Statements I and II are necessary.
1 1
d. e. b. Statements II and III are necessary.
5 47 5 57
c. Statements I and III are necessary.
d. All statements are necessary.
Directions (Q.Nos. 5-9) In the following questions, two e. None of the statements can give the answer.
equations are given, you have to find out the values and
give answer. 12. Find the present population of the city.
a. if x > y b. if x < y c. if x y
I. If the population of the city is 144000, two years ago.
d. if x y e. if x = y or the value cant be determined. II. If population of the city increases at the rate of 20%
per year.
5. I. 12x 2 + 15x = 4 x 2 7 II. y 3 = 1728
III. If the population of the city decreased by 1/10th of
its total population.
6. I. x 2 17 x + 60 = 0 II. 2y 2 19 y + 44 = 0
Which of the above statement(s) is/are required to
7. I. x 4 = 256 II. y 3 = 729 furnish the answer?
9 5 5 1
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III
d. All of these e. None can find the answer
8. I. (x 7 18) = (8 x7) II. (y 18 3) = (2 18
y )
2 4 2 5 13. Find the total surface area of a solid cone.
9. I. 841x 707281 = 0 II. y 6 y 3 y 3 y 3 y 3 = 9 5 I. If height of the cone is twice of its radius.
II. If area of its base is 44 cm 2 .
Directions (Q.Nos. 10-14) In the following questions, a
question is followed by three statements I, II and III. III. If the slant height is 5 times its radius.
You have to study the statements and decide which of Which of the above statement(s) is/are necessary to
the statements is necessary to give the answer. furnish the answer?
a.Only I b. II and III c. I and II
10. Find the distance between Rams house and his office. d. Only III e. All of these
I. If Ram moves with the speed of two-fifth of his
original speed, then he reaches office 15 min late. 14. Find the amount paid after 3 years.
I. If the principle is ` 10000.
II. The amount doubles itself in 3 years. 21. If NHAI could receive a total of ` 9695 crore as External
III. The amount triples itself in 4 years. Assistance, by what percent (approximately) should it
Which of the above statement(s) is/are necessary to increase the Market Borrowing to arrange for the
furnish the answer? shortage of funds?
a. I and II b. II and III a. 4.5% b. 7.5% c. 6%
c. Only III d. All are necessary d. 8% e. None of these
e. None of these
22. If the Toll is to be collected through an outsourced
15. A student travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 hours. He agency by allowing a maximum 10% commission, how
travelled partly on foot at the rate of 4 km/h and partly much amount should be permitted to be collected by
on bicycle at the rate of 9 km/h. The distance travelled the outsourced agency, so that the project is supported
on foot is with ` 4910 crore?
a. 15 km b. 16 km c. 17 km a. ` 6213 crore b. ` 5827 crore c. ` 5401 crore
d. 14 km e. None of these d. ` 5316 crore e. None of these
16. A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance 23. The central angle corresponding to Market Borrowing is
downstream than upstream. The ratio of the speed of the
a. 52 b. 137.8 c. 187.2
boat in stillwater and that of the current is d. 192.4 e. None of these
a. 3 : 1 b. 2 : 1 c. 4 : 3 d. 1 : 2 e. 5 : 4
24. The approximate ratio of the funds to be arranged
17. The average weight of first 11 persons among 12 persons through Toll and that through Market Borrowing is
is 95 kg. The weight of 12th person is 33 kg more than a. 2 : 9 b. 1 : 6 c. 3 : 11
the average weight of all the 12 persons. The weight of
d. 2 : 5 e. None of these
the 12th person is
a. 97.45 kg b. 128.75 kg c.131 kg Directions (Q.Nos. 25-28) The following pie-charts
d. 128 kg e. None of these show the distribution of students of graduate and post
graduate levels in seven different institutes in a town.
18. The average weight of six members are 3.95. The
average of two of them is 3.4, while the average of the Total Number of Students of Total Number of Students of
Graduate Level = 27300 Post Graduate Level = 24700
other two is 3.85. The average of the remaining two
members are N P N P
12% 12% 15% 12%
a. 4.7 b. 4.6 c. 4.8 Q M Q
M
d. 4.5 e. None of these 13% 8% 13%
17%
19. A and B invest in the ratio of 3 : 5. After six months, C T
R T
R
17% 14%
joins the business investing an amount equal to Bs. At 15% S 17% S
14% 21%
the end of the year, what will be ratio of their profits?
a. 3 : 5 : 5 b. 6 : 10 : 5 c. 8 : 10 : 5
d. 3 : 5 : 2 e. 4 : 5 : 9
25. What is the total number of graduate and post graduate
Directions (Q.Nos. 20-24) The following pie-chart level students in institute R?
shows the sources of funds (in ` crores) to be collected by a. 8320 b. 7916 c. 9116
the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) for its d. 8099 e. None of these
Phase II projects. Study the pie-chart and answers the
questions that follow. 26. What is the ratio between the number of students
studying at post graduate and graduate levels
External respectively from institute S?
Assistance
11486 a. 14 : 19 b. 19 : 21 c. 17 : 21
Market SPVS d. 19 : 14 e. None of these
Borrowing 5252
29952
Toll 27. What is the ratio between the number of students studying
4910 at post graduate level from institute S and the number of
Annuity
students studying at graduate level from institute Q?
6000
a. 13 : 19 b. 21 : 13 c. 13 : 8
d. 19 : 13 e. None of these
20. Near about 20% of the funds are to be arranged through 28. How many students of institutes M and S are studying
a. SPVS b. External assistance at graduate level?
c. Annuity d. Market Borrowing a. 7516 b. 8463 c. 9127
e. None of these d. 9404 e. None of these
40 B o o st e
Reasoning Ability
rs
Directions (Q.Nos. 1-5) In the following questions, 8. Statements No dog is a cat. All cats are mats.
relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Conclusions I. Some dogs are mats.
Study the conclusion based on the given statements and II. All dogs can never be mats.
select the appropriate answer.
Give answer
9. Statements All balls are pencils. All keys are balls.
a. if only conclusion II is true Conclusions I. At least some pencils are keys.
b. if only conclusion I is true II. All pencils are balls.
c. if both conclusiono are true
d. if either conclusion I or II is true 10. Statements Some candles are matches.
e. if neither conclusion I nor II is true. Some matches are rockets.
Conclusions I. At least some rockets are candles.
1. Statements S L I = P E > R; L > Q II. No rocket is a candle.
Conclusions I. P S II. I > R
Directions (Q.Nos. 11-13) Each of the question below
2. Statements G > R E = A T S; D A J consists of a question and three statements numbered
I, II and III. You have to decide whether the data
Conclusions I. T D II. R > S
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
questions. Read all the three statements and
3. Statements A B > C D E < F
Give answer
Conclusions I. A E II. C < F a. if the statements II and III are sufficient to answer the
question but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer
4. Statements G > R E = A T S; D A J the question
Conclusions I. J > G II. J = G b. if all the statements taken together are not sufficient to
answer the question
5. Statements S L I = P E > R; L > Q c. if the statement I and II is sufficient to answer the
Conclusions I. L < R II. E Q question but statement III is not sufficient to answer the
question
Directions (Q.Nos. 6-10) In each question below, two d. if all the statements are sufficient enough to answer the
statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II question
have been given. You have to take the given statements to e. if statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly but statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the
known facts and then decide which of the given question.
conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts. 11. Which of the following represents come in a code
Give answer langauges?
a. if either conclusion I or II is true I. pit na ja od means you may come here
b. if both conclusions are true II. ja ta ter means come and go
c. if neither conclusion I nor II is true III. od na pit ter means you may go home
d. if only conclusion II is true
e. if only conclusion I is true 12. How many sons does D has?
I. B and F are brothers of A.
6. Statements Some plugs are tablets. No tablet is a door. II. C is the sister of A and F.
Conclusions I. Some plugs are definitely not doors. III. C and E are daughters of D.
II. All doors are plugs.
13. Who amongst P, Q, R, S and T is in the middle while
7. Statements All flowers are thorns. standing in a line.
Some flowers are leaves. I. Q is to the right of T.
Conclusions I. No leaf is a thorn. II. S is between P and T.
II. Some thorns are leaves. III. Q is between T and R.
Directions (Q.Nos. 14-16) Read the following Step VIII zebra risen house casio 26 49 56 78
information and answer the given questions. Step VIII is the last step of the given arrangement as
Q is the brother of P. K is the mother of P. Q is married the intended output of the arrangement is obtained.
to C. C is the daughter-in-law of L. P is the mother of N. As per the rules followed in the given steps find the
N is the sister of V. appropriate steps for the given input.
Input 36 15 queen grams tiger 84 yatch 67
14. How is K related to C?
a. Sister b. Daughter-in-law 21. What is the fourth element to the left of the seventh
c. Mother d. Daughter element from the left end in step VI of the given
e. Mother-in-law arrangement?
a. queen b. 67 c. grams d. yatch e. 15
15. How is L related to N?
a. Grandfather b. Uncle c. Grandson 22. In which of the following steps of the given
d. Son e. Son-in-law arrangements is 36 queen tiger found consecutively in
the same order?
16. If N has only one brother as sibling, how is V related to
a. Step IV b. Step VI
Q? c. Step II d. Both steps VII and VI
a. Father b. Nephew c. Uncle e. Both steps II and V
d. Son e. Brother
Directions (Q.Nos. 17-18) Study the given information 23. How many elements are there between gram and 15 in
carefully to answer the given questions. step VII?
S is 10 m South of T. T is 6 m West of U. U is 15 m a. One b. Three c. None
North of V. W is 6 m East of V. X is 5 m North of W. d. More than three e. Two
17. In what direction is X with respect to T? 24. How many elements are three between queen and 67
a. North-East b. South-West c. South in step V?
d. South-East e. East a. Two b. Three c. One
d. More than three e. None
18. If V is 16 m West of V and Z is 5 m North of Y, then
what is the distance between Z and S? 25. In step I, grams is related to 15 following a certain
a. 3 m b. 20 m c. 15 m d. 10 m e. 6 m pattern. Following the same pattern, 84 is related to 67
in step IV. In step VIII, to which of the following is
19. If the word FRACTION, first all the consonants are queen related to following the same pattern?
arranged in alphabetical order from left to right and a. 36 b. 15 c. yatch d. 84 e. 67
then all the vowels are arranged in alphabetical order
from left to right, which of the following is the fifth 26. Five movies D, E, F, G and H are released on five
letter from the right? different days of the same week starting from Monday
a. F b. N c. T d. R e. A and ending on Friday but not necessarily in the same
order. F is released on one of the days before Thursday.
20. If all the digits of the number 6379452 are arranged in Only two movies are released between F and G. H is
ascending order from left to right, what will be the sum released immediately before G. D is released on one of
of the fourth digit from the left and second digit from the days after H. Which movie was released on
the right after rearrangement? Wednesday?
a. 10 b. 12 c. 15 d. 13 e. 11 a. E b. Either G or D c. G
d. H e. D
Directions (Q.Nos. 21-25) Study the following
information carefully and answer the given questions. 27. In the number 76534218, each digit is replaced by the
When a word and number arrangement machine is next digit i.e., 1 is replaced by 2, 2 is replaced by 3
given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges and so on and then the digits are arranged in ascending
them following a particular rule. The following is an order from left to right, which digit will fifth from the left
illustration of input and rearrangement.
and ?
(All the numbers are two-digit numbers)
a. None b. 7 c. 6 d. 5 e. 4
Input 49 78 risen zebra 56 casio 26 house
Step I casio 49 78 risen zebra 56 26 house 28. In a certain code language, job requires expertise is
Step II casio 49 78 risen zebra 56 house 26 written as la nu si. expertise in area is written as li bo
Step III house casio 78 risen zebra 56 house 26 49 la and requires are a inspection is written as si dm bo.
Step IV house casio 49 78 risen zebra 56 26 How is inspection written in that code language ? (All
Step V risen house casio 78 zebra 56 26 49 the given codes are two letter codes only).
Step VI risen house casio 78 zebra 26 49 56 a. si b. either nu or su c. eiher bo or si
Step VII zebra risen house casio 78 26 49 56 d. dm e. bo
29. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 35. How many people sit between U and V when counted
BORINGLY each of which has as many letters between from the left of V?
them in the word in both directions (forward and a. One b. Three c. More than three
backward) as in the english alphabetical series? d. None e. Two
a. More than three b. None
c. Three d. Two Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) Study the following
e. One information to answer the given qeustions.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated in a
30. The following series is based on the english alphabets straight line with equal distance between each other,
and numbers which of the following will come in place but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are
of the question mark in the given series? facing North while some of them are facing South. C sits
fourth to the left of B. B faces North. G sits fourth to the
XW2, TS6, PO10, LK14, ?
a. HG18 b. JI18 c. HG16 right of D. H sits third to the left of C. Immediate
neighbours of H face the opposite directions (i.e., if one
d. IH18 e. JG12
neighbour faces the North, then the other faces South
Directions (Q.Nos. 31-35) Study the following and vice-versa).
information to answer the given questions. A sits to the immediate left of D. F sits second to the
Eight people R, S, T, U V, W, X and Y are sitting around right of E and face the opposite direction to that of E. E
a square table (but not necessarily in the same order), in does not sit at an extreme end of the line. Immediate
such a way that four of them sit at four corners while neighbours of E face the same direction (i.e., if one
four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones neighbour face the North, then the other also faces the
sitting in the middle of the sides are facing outside (i.e., North and vice-versa).
opposite to the centre) and the ones sitting in the Persons sitting at the extreme ends faces the same
corners are facing the centre. direction (i.e., if one person faces North, then the other
T sits in middle of one of the sides. Only two persons sits also faces North and vice-versa.)
between T and Y. V sits second to the left of X. X faces H faces a direction opposite to that F (i.e., if F faces
same direction as Y (i.e., if Y faces the centre then X also North, then H faces South and vice-versa).
faces the centre and vice-versa). Only three persons sit
between X and U. R is an immediate neighbour of U, but 36. How many persons sit between B and A?
not Y. Only one person sits between R and S. a. One b. More than three c. Three
d. None e. Two
31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based
on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which 37. Which of the following reperesented the persons sitting
one of the following does not belong to that group? at the extreme ends of the line?
a. U b. R c. Y a. F, G b. A, F c. C, F d. A, C e. A, B
d. V e. X
38. What is the position of H with respect to E?
32. What is the position of S with respect to R? a. Immediate left b. Second to the left
a. Second to the right b. Fourth to the right c. Immediate right d. Third to the right
c. Third to the left d. Third to the right e. Second to the left
e. Second to the left
39. Four of the given five are alike in a certain way based on
33. Who sits exactly between T and Y when counted from the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which
the left of T? of them does not belong to that group?
a. R, S b. V, W c. W, X a. F b. D c. C
d. R, V e. U, V d. A e. Other than those given as options
34. Which of the following is true regarding W as per the 40. Which of the following is true with respect to the given
given arrangement? arrangement?
a. W sits at one of the corners of the table. a. Only two people sit between G and E.
b. W sits second to the left of S. b. D sits second to the left of C.
c. W is an immediate neighbour of both V and T. c. D and E face the same direction.
d. None of the given options is true. d. H is an immediate neighbour of A.
e. Only three people sit between W and Y. e. None of the given statements is true.
w
-la
-in
er
Hence, neither conclusion I nor II is true. ht Son Mother
ug
Da
7. (c) By statements,
+
C Q P N V
Couple Brother Mother Sister
Z 15 m
S
Key
5m 5m
Ball
Y 16 m V 6m W
Pencil
Hence, only conclusion I is true. 17. (d)
10. (a) By statements, 18. (d) Distance between ZS = Distance between YV Distance
between TU = 16 6 = 10 m
Candle Match Rocket 19. (d) According to the question, arrangement is as follows
CFNRTAIO
Hence, either conclusion I or II is true.
Right
11. (c) From statement I, II and III, 5th
you may come here pit na ja od ...( i ) Then, fifth letter from right = R
20. (b) When the digits of the number 6379472 arranged in
come and go ja ta ter ...(ii)
ascending order, then rearrangement will be
you may go home od na pit ter ...(iii) 2345679
Now, fourth digit from the left = 5
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have, come ja
and second digit from the right = 7
Hence, it is clear that only statement I and II are sufficient to
answer the question. Sum of fourth and second digit = 5 + 7 = 12
40 B o o st e
English Language
rs
Directions (Q.Nos. 1-10) Read the following passage infrastructure to make it more energy efficient) has
carefully and answer the questions given below it. been widespread. Retrofit programmes have been
Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help supported and adopted in diverse forms in many
you locate them while answering some of the questions. settings and their ability to recruit householders and
From a technical and economic perspective, many then to impact their energy use has been discussed
assessments have highlighted the presence of quite extensively.
cost-effective opportunities to reduce energy use in Frequently, these discussions have criticised the extent
buildings. However, several bodies note the significance to which retrofit schemes rely on incentives and the
of multiple barriers that prevent the take-up of energy provision of new technologies to change behaviour
efficiency measures in buildings. whilst ignoring the many other factors that might limit
These include lack of awareness and concern, limited either participation in the schemes or their impact on
access to reliable information from trusted sources, fears the behaviours and practices that shape domestic
about risk, disruption and other transaction costs, energy use. These factors are obviously central to the
concerns about up-front costs and inadequate access to success of retrofit schemes, but evaluations of different
suitably priced finance, a lack of confidence in suppliers schemes have found that despite these they still have
and technologies and the presence of split incentives significant impacts.
between landlords and tenants. New experts suggest that the best estimate of the gap
The widespread presence of these barriers led experts to between the technical potential and the actual in-situ
predict that without a concreted push from policy, performance of energy efficiency measures is 50% with
two-thirds of the economically viable potential to improve 35% coming from performance gaps and 15% coming
energy efficiency will remain unexploited by 2035. from 'comfort taking' or direct rebound effects.
These barriers, are albatross around the neck that They further suggest that the direct rebound effect of
represent a classic market failure and a basis for energy efficiency measures related to household heating
governmental intervention. is likely to be less than 30% while rebound effects for
While these measurements focus on the technical, various domestic energy efficiency measures vary from
financial or economic barriers preventing the take-up of 5 to 15% and arise mostly from indirect rebound effects
energy efficiency options in buildings, others emphasise (i.e, where savings from energy efficiency lead to
the significance of the often deeply embedded social increased demand for other goods and service).
practices that shape energy use in buildings. These Other analyses also note that the gap between technical
analyses focus not on the preferences and rationalities potential and actual performance is likely to vary by
that might shape individual behaviours, but on the measure, with the range extending from 0% for
entangled cultural practices, norms, values and routines measures, such as solar water heating to 50% for
that underpin domestic energy use. measures, such as improved heating controls.
Focusing on the practice-related aspects of consumption And others note that levels of comfort taking are likely
generates very different conceptual framings and policy to vary according to the levels of consumption and fuel
prescriptions than those that emerge from more poverty in the sample of homes where insulation is
traditional or mainstream perspectives. But the installed, with the range extending from 30% when
underlying case for government intervention to help to considering homes across all income groups to around
promote retrofit and the diffusion of more energy 60% when considering only lower income homes, the
efficient particles is still apparent, even though the forms scale of these gaps is significant because it materially
of intervention advocated are often very different to those affects the impacts of retrofit schemes and expectations
that emerge from a more technical or economic and perceptions of these impacts go on to influence
perspective. levels of political, financial and public support for these
Based on the recognition of the multiple barriers to schemes.
change and the social, economic and environmental The literature on retrofit highlights the presence of
benefits that could be realised if they were overcome, multiple barriers to change and the need for
government support for retrofit (renovating existing government support, if these are to be overcome.
1. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in 9. The author in the given passage is
meaning to the world 'Concreted' as used in the A. of the view that no amount of efforts can bring about
passage? changes in employing energy efficiency schemes in his
a. Collaborative b. Piled c. Subtracting country.
d. Necessary e. Weak B. positive that more evidence on retrofit schemes is
essential to make people more aware and sensitive
2. Whichof the following is most nearly the opposite in towards them.
meaning to the word 'Robust' as used in the passage? C. cynical about the present state of energy efficiency
a. Manual b. Loose c. Vogue measures taken in his country.
d. Filmsy e. Flexible Code
a. Only A b. Only B c. Only C
3. Which of the following is most nearly same in meaning d. A and B e. B and C
to the word Unexploited as used in the passage?
a. Untapped b. Unanswered c. Explored 10. As mentioned in this passage and according to the
c. Developed d. Vacant experts, in order to exploit existing potential to better
energy efficiency measures
4. The title for the given passage could be a. availability of sufficient funding is a must
a. How to Measure the Impact of Retrofit Programmes of b. availability of reliable information from dependable source
Energy Conservation must be ensured
b. Barriers to Effective Usage of Energy c. adequate and trustworthy suppliers of energy must be
c. Views of Stalwarts on Disadvantages of Retrofit made available
Programmes d. governmental support by implementing adequate policies
d. Existing Practices of Conserving Energy is essential
e. How Much Energy is to be Consumed e. All of the above
5. According to the author, to make programmes tor Directions (Q.Nos. 11-15) Which of the phrase given
conserving energy more successful below the sentence should replace the word/phrase
A. only latest technology must be employed. underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically
B. the author's country must adhere to norms followed correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no
in countries where such programmes have been correction is required, select No correction required as
successful. the answer.
C. change must be brought in the attitudes of people 11. Being as I am a realist, I could not accept his statement
with respect to efficient usage of energy that super natural beings have caused the disturbance.
Code
a. Only A b. Only B c. Only C a. That I am a realist b. Being a realist
d. A and B e. B and C c. Being that I am a realist d. Realist that I am
e. No correction required
6. Which of the following is most nearly the same in
meaning to the word Underpin as used in the passage? 12. When the boy regain consciousness, he wanted to eat
something.
a. Undermine b. Determine c. Criticise
d. Abandon e. Dispose a. If the boy regain b. When the boy regained
c. Despite the boy regain d. On the boy regaining
7. Which of the following is true in context of the e. No correction required
passage?
a. Employing retrofit programmes is relatively a new concept
13. The social worker wanted to bring about little changes in
and is yet to become popular. the lives of the people of that village.
b. The government so far has been least supportive of a. to bring back b. to bring up c. to bring forth
retrofit programmes. d. bringing about e. No correction required
c. Lack of trust on landlords has been clted as one of the
major barriers to employing energy efficiency schemes. 14. Raghunath proposes to lay claim for the insurance
d. Retrofit schemes are dependent on incentives to bring company as soon as he recovers from the accident.
about attitudinal change towards energy efficiency a. lay claim to b. lay claim on
schemes. c. laying claim towards d. lay claim against
e. All of the above e. No correction required
15. The new concession announced by the government will 21. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence
have only a marginalised effect on the lives of the after rearrangement?
people. a. A b. B c. C d. E e. D
a. marginal effect off b. margin of effect on
c. marginal effect on d. marginalising effect in 22. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence
e. No correction required after rearrangement?
a. A b. B c. F d. D e. E
Directions (Q.Nos. 16-20) The following questions have
two blanks, each blank indicating that something has 23. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence
been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank after rearrangement?
that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. F
16. Three unknown assailants ............ on motorcycles and 24. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence
opened ............ barely a few metres from where the after rearrangement?
actor was shooting. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
a. came; shooting b. rode; rounds
c. arrived; fire d. approached; hitting
25. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH)
e. climbed; shots
sentence after rearrangement?
a. A b. F c. D d. C e. B
17. The police ............ in ............ a car theft case within a
matter of two hours of registration of the complaint. Directions (Q.Nos. 26-30) Read these sentences to find
a. achieved; solving b. victorious; catching out whether there is any grammatical error in them.
c. famed; arresting d. succeeded; cracking The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.
e. failed; assigning Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is
no error, mark No error as your answer. (Ignore the
18. The Health Ministry has approved major expansion of errors of punctuation, if any).
post-graduate seats in key departments of AIIMS to
26. The director explained (a)/the theme and (b)/ the
.......... the severe .......... of specialists across the country.
concept of (c)/ the international folk festival. (d) No
a. address; dearth b. correct; loss error (e)
c. improve; damage d. rectify; limits
e. good; shortage 27. The fight among (a)/ rival candidates between the
medium (b)/ of catchy slogans (c)/ has started. (d) No
19. With the ............. wedding season, people are leaving no
error (e)
stone unturned to make their wedding cards ............. .
a. prolonged; beyond b. ongoing ; special 28. Acting on a tip-off (a)/ the anti-robbery squad led (b)/
c. instant; great d. sudden; while by inspector laid (c)/ a trap for the robbers. (d) No
e. estimated; legible error (e)
20. The tourism data ............. that Indians are ........... the 29. The process of (a)/ revising figures of damage (b)/ to
biggest spenders while on holidays. get additional compensation (c)/ has began. (d) No
a. says; within b. reveal; amongst error (e)
c. proclaims; between d. states; surrounded
e. speaks; amid 30. Farmers who grow the crop (a)/ are the worse hit, as
the investment (b)/ they make on a crop is (c)/ huge as
Directions (Q.Nos. 21-25) Rearrange the following six compared to the profit. (d) No error (e)
sentences A, B, C, D, E and F is the proper sequence to
form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given Directions (Q.Nos. 31-40) In the given passage, there
questions. are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
A. When these millennium development goals were members are printed below the passage and against
first formulated in 1990, 53.5% of all Indian each five words are suggested, one of which fits the
children were malnourished. blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in
each case. .
B. This would still be below the target of reducing
malnourishment to 28.6%. Generally a disaster (31) in significant loss in social,
C. India has been moderately successful in reducing psychological and economics aspects. It not only (32) to
poverty. structural damages, but also leaves families torn apart,
D. Since then, progress has been slow. children orphaned, livelihoods destroyed and
communities traumatised. Non-structural factors, such
E. Today, it is estimated that malnourishment could
as lack of responsiveness of government officials and
decline to 40% by the end of 2015.
ineffective leadership are mainly (33) for any disaster
F. However, eradicating hunger along with mismanagement. India is (34) to a variety of natural
malnourishment still remains a key challenge, and man-made disasters. Strong and effective
according to the millennium development goals. emergency management has been a felt (35) in all
corners of the world.
25 B o o st e rs
Computer Knowledge
1. are specially designed computer chips that reside 8. Different components on the motherboard of a PC unit are
other devices, such as your car or your electronics linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting
thermostat. lines. What are these lines called?
a. Servers b. Embedded computers a. Conductors b. Buses c. Connectors
c. Robotic computers d. Mainframe d. Consecutive e. None of these
e. None of these
9. Which of the following is the correct option that allows
2. Which among the following is a symbol on the screen users to bring together copies of workbooks that other
that represents a disk, document or program that you users have worked on independently in MS Excel?
can select? a. Copying b. Merging c. Pasting
a. Keys b. Caps c. Icon d. Compiling e. None of these
d. Monitor e. Program
10. Which of the following software majors has entered into a
3. A repair for a known software bug, usually available joint venture with the Saudi Prerogative Company to offer
at no charge on the Internet, is called a(n) IT services in the middle east country?
a. Version b. Patch c. Tutorial a. HCL b. TCS c. Intel d. Wipro e.lnfosys
d. FAQ e. None of these
11. An electronic device, operating under the control of
4. Which among the following refers to the overall instruction that can accept and process the data, produce
structure of the database? output and store the results for future use, is called
a. View b. Conceptual a. Input b. Computer c. Software
c. Schema d. Data independence d. Hardware e. None of these
e. Normalisation
12. Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the
5. Which component is required to process data into presentation as a thumbnail and is useful for rearranging
information and consists of integrated circuits? slides?
a. Hard disks b. RAM a. Slide Sorter b. Slide Show c. Slide Master
c. CPU d. ROM d. Notes Page e. Slide Design
e. Floppy disks
13. What do we call a network, whose elements may be
6. The DBMS ensures data integrity by managing separated by some distance? It usually involves two or more
transactions through ACID test. What does ACID network and dedicated high speed telephone lines.
stands for in computer science? a. LAN b. WAN c. URL
a. Artistic, Collaborative, Inference, Durability d. PAN e. None of these
b. Analytic, Consistency, Inference, Duration
c. Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability 14. In Microsoft PowerPoint, two kinds of sound effects files
d. Atomicity, Collaborative, Inference, Duration that can be added to the presentation are
e. Adherence, Consistency, Isolation, Durability a. .wav files and .mid files b. wav files and .gif files
c. wav files and .jpg files d. jpg files and .gif files
7. In the following URL : e. None of these
http://www.example.com:80/path/to/myfile.html
Here 'www.example.com, :80 and stand for .......... 15. Which of the following technology firms launched a new
and .......... respectively. premium smart phone named Pixel, which will rival with
a. IP and Source b. Domain name and Port the likes of Apple and Samsung?
c. File name and Path d. Path and Port a. Microsoft b. Google c. Nokia
e. IP and Locator d. Xiaomi e. Huawei
18. A light sensitive device that converts drawings, printed 23. is designed to communicate instructions to a
text or other images into digital form is called machine, particularly a computer. It can be used to
a. Keyboard b. Plotter c. Scanner create programs to control the behavior of a machine or
d. OMR e. Printer to express algorithms.
a. PROM b. Programming language
19. The thick, rigid metal platters that are capable of storing c. Microcontrollers d. EPROM
retrieving information at a high rate of speed are e. Microprocessor
a. hard disk b. SAN c. soft disk
d. flash memory e. cache memory 24. What function in a table in MS-Excel displays row data
in a column or column data in a row?
20. One or more defects or problems that prevent the a. Transpose b. Index c. Hyperlink
software from working as intended or working at all is a d. Rows e. Columns
a. bug b. bot c. programming
language d. fuzzy logic e. error 25. Adwords is a/an for businesses wanting to
display ads on google and its advertising network.
21. DBMS ensures data integrity by managing transactions a. advertising service by microsoft
through ACID test. What does ACID stands for in b. advanced search engine
computer science? c. advertising service by google
a. Artistic, Collaborative, Inference, Durability d. automatic words search engine by yahoo
b. Analytic, Consistency, Inference, Duration e. advertising service by yahoo
9. (b) Merging allows users to bring together copies of 19. (a) Hard disk drive is the most common and usually largest
workbooks in Excel. data storage device of the computer system.
10. (e) Software major Infosys has entered into a joint venture 20. (a) A software bug is an error, flow, failure or fault in a
with the Saudi Prerogative Company to offer IT services in the computer program that produces an incorrect or unexpected
middle eastern country. The Bengaluru-based IT services firm result.
will own 70% of the joint venture. 21. (c) A transaction in a database system must maintain
11. (b) Computer is an electronic device operating under the Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, and Durability (commonly
control of instruction that can accept and process the data, known as ACID properties) in order to ensure accuracy,
produce output and store the results. completeness, and data integrity.
12. (a) Slide sorter view in PowerPoint or Open Office Impress is a 22. (e) 23. (b) 24. (a)
window that displays thumbnail versions of all your slides, 25. (c) Google AdWords is an online advertising service that
arranged in horizontal rows. This view is useful to make global enables advertisers to compete to display brief advertising
changes to several slides at one time. copy to web users, based in part on cookies, keywords,
13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b) predefined by the advertisers that might link the copy to the
content of webpages shown to users.
ONE L ners
BANKING AWARENESS
l BANKING INNOVATION n
The private sector bank which received n
The World Bank in its Global Economic
the prestigious Green Bond Pioneer Prospect report projected a robust growth
n
Recently the Union Cabinet has Award for being the 'Pioneers in Emerging for the Indian economy in the 2017 is 7.1%
approved the establishment of Fund of Markets-India' is YES Bank
Funds for Startups (FFS) at which of the
n
To reduce the premium burden on
following bank? SIDBI
n
The subsidiary of Tata Teleservices farmers and ensure early settlement of
which announced its tie-up with Indian claim for the full sum insured, the Union
n
Which bank became the first private Railway Catering and Tourism Cabinet approved the proposal of
sector bank in India to open dedicated Corporation to provide an additional Crop Insurance Scheme
branch for start-ups? RBL Bank payment gateway is mRUPEE n
From the view of International economy,
n
The first bank to offer RuPay Kisan n
Niraj Mittal was appointed as the What does the third World imply?
Card with Aadhaar authentication is Managing Director and Head of The Developing Countries
Oriental Bank of Commerce
Institutional Banking of DBS Bank India n
Which initiative has recently been
n
A fixed amount paid once a year or at launched by NITI Aayog?
interval of a stipulated period is known as l ECONOMY Women Transforming India
Annuity
n
The committee that was constituted to n
The Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is open
n
The banks are required to maintain a examine the desirability and feasibility of to all Indians between the age of
certain ratio between their cash in hand having a new financial year will be 18-40 years
and total assets, which is called headed by which former Chief Economic n
Meghalaya became the first State in
Statutory Liquid Ratio.
Adviser Shankar Acharya North-East India to achieve 100%
n
Indias first contactless mobile payment success in implementing the
n
The maximum contribution Gross
solution iTap has been launched by Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
ICICI Bank Domestic Product (GDP) in India by the
various sectors of the economy in last
n
Andhra Bank launched Immediate ten-years is Service-Industry-Agriculture
l FINANCIAL INSTITUTION
Payment Service (IMPS) across all its
n
India ranked which position on the n
Export-Import Bank of India
branches in association with the National
Sustainable development Goal Index of commenced operations in 1982
Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
the United Nation over 149 nations? 110 n
First Regional Rural Bank came into
n
Which bank launched skill development
n
The major contribution towards the existence in October 2, 1975
mission initiated by the Centre to train
millions of youths and make India a hub Gross Domestic Saving in India in recent n
Industrial Credit and Investment
for skilled workforce? Federal Bank time is Household Sector Corporation of India (ICICI) was
n
According to Census 2011, which State established in 1991
n
Union government has launched a
seven pronged plancalled Indradhanush has lowest rural population? Sikkim n
The first development financial
Mission to revamp functioning of n
Which Indian Union Territory has institution in India that has got merged
Public Sector Banks highest sex ratio? Puducherry with a bank is ICICI Bank
n
Which bank along with SIDBI entered n
The annual average economic growth n
In 1960, the first State Industrial
into a partnership to guarantee 75% of target revised by the Planning Development Corporations (SIDC) was
loans of up to ` 15 crore extended to Commission for the 12th Five Year Plan established in Bihar
energy efficiency projects under the (2012-17) from the 9% envisaged earlier n
All India Financial Institutions (AIFI) is a
World Bank initiative? Yes Bank to 8.0% group composed of Development
n
Which state became the first State in n
Which project of Kerala government will Finance Institutions (DFI) and Investment
the country to allow issuance of motor bring together different schemes in health Institutions that play a pivotal role in the
insurance policies in digital form by sector under one umbrella? Financial Markets
launching e-Vahan Bima Scheme? Sampoorna Arogya Keralam n
Industrial Finance Corporation of India
Telangana is government-owned development bank
n
The economy of India is the seventh-
n
Which bank has launched largest in the world by Nominal GDP to cater to the long-term finance needs of
iWork@home programme for its women the Industrial Sector
n
Which was appointed as the head of
employees? ICICI Bank National Housing Bank (NHB), a wholly
one man committee to study issues n
n
Max Life and Max Financial Services related to gramin dak sevaks? owned subsidiary of Reserve Bank of
agreed to merge with which life insurance Kamlesh Chandra India (RBI), was set-up on July 9, 1988
company? HDFC Life
ECONOMY l
the bank to be listed on the stock exchanges within 6
years
It is important to note that the companies having assets
Q& A
limit is 74 %.
02 Discuss about the Taxation Laws 05 Explain about India Post Payments Bank.
The Union Cabinet under the chairmanship of Prime
(Amendment) Bill, 2016. Minister Narendra Modi has given its approval for setting up
The Lok Sabha passed the Taxation Laws (Amendment) the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) as a Public Limited
Bill, 2016 on August 10, 2016, that seeks to amend the Company under the Department of Posts, with 100%
Income Tax Act, 1961, and Customs Tariff Act, 1975. The government of India equity. The Cabinet approved a
Bill seeks to amends the Income Tax Act (IT), 1961 and the proposal in this respect on June 1, 2016. India has 154000
Customs Tariff Act, 1975. It will provide income tax benefit post offices, of which 139000 are rural post offices. IPPB
to employers in the textile sector on additional employment will obtain banking licence from the Reserve Bank of India
provided the employee has worked for 150 days and not (RBI) by March 2017 and by September 2017, all 650
240 days as mandated earlier. branches of the postal payments bank would become
Amendments to IT Act, 1961 operational.
Deduction in respect of employment of new employees Its services will be available across the country through
The limit of employing employee for minimum of 240 days these 650 payments bank branches, linked post offices and
in the previous year to obtain a deduction on taxable alternative channels, riding on modern technology including
income has been reduced to 150 days for businesses mobiles, ATMs and simple digital payments. At present, the
which manufacture apparel. core banking network of post offices is more than that of
Amendments Customs Tariff Act, 1975 the countrys largest lender State Bank of India (SBI). After
State Bank of India, India Post has the largest deposits
Customs duty on marble and granite blocks and slabs valued at ` 6 lakh crore.
Proposes to increase in customs duty on imports of granite
and marble to 40% from earlier 10%
06 Which new Agenda will replace Five-Year
Plans?
03 Explain guidelines for On-Tap Bank
Licence. Abandoning the ancient concept of Five-Year Plans that
India has been following since 1951, the National Institution
The RBI released much-awaited guidelines for 'on tap' for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog has decided on June
universal banking licence on August 1, 2016 , but excluded
22, 2016 to come up with a 15-year vision document in
large industrial houses as eligible entities from the purview, tandem with global trends and economic growth.
though they can invest in banks up to 10 %. As per the
Guidelines for 'on tap' Licensing of Universal Banks in the The first 15-year vision document will come into effect from
Private Sector, the initial minimum paid-up voting equity 2017-18 after the end of the 12th Five Year Plan. It will be
capital for a bank should be ` 500 crore and thereafter, the formulated with central objective of eradication poverty. It
bank should have a minimum net worth of ` 500 crore at all will come along with a 7-year National Development
times. Some features of the draft norms include Agenda which will lay down the programmes schemes, and
strategies to achieve the long-term vision. The long vision
l
a minimum capital of ` 500 crore