Land use and planning quiz with 32 multiple choice questions

1) Which of the maps listed below is not a thematic map?
A. Base map
B. Land use map
C. Slope map
D. Geologic map
E. Physical constraint map
2) This type of plan shows the allocation of land into broad functional classes, e.g., development
areas, conservation/preservation areas; agricultural area and forest areas.
A. Structure Plan
B. General Land Use Plan
C. Development Plan
D. Comprehensive Plan
Discuss this Question
3) Which of the following is not a factor in determining the suitability of land for an industrial
estate?
A. Load-nearing capacity
B. Soil fertility
C. Drainage
D. Slope
E. Location
Correct
4) What ratio between sealable and non-saleable portions of the subdivision is required for
projects developed under BP 220 standards?
A. No fixed ratio
B. 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable
C. 40% saleable and 60% non-saleable
D. Minimum of 50% open space
Incorrect
5) Ebenezer Howard's ideas were adopted by the British Governments in the enactment of the
New Towns Act of 1947. The new towns concept, according to historians, has been illustrated
by Howard on a paper napkin, This famous diagram consists of :
A. One Magnet
B. Two Magnets
C. Three Magnets
D. Four Magnets
Correct
6) Which land use type is normally not classified as urban?
A. Institutional
B. Residential
C. Mining and quarrying
D. Industrial
E. Commercial
Correct
7) The first new town built following Ebenezer Howard's idea is known as:
A. Letchworth
B. Soltaire
C. Sterenage
D. Welwyn
Incorrect
8) This is one of the methods of trip generation modeling, which is concerned with finding the
best functional relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent
variables. This relationship is usually assumed to be linear.
A. Analysis of variance
B. Multiple regression
C. Category analysis
D. Situational analysis
Incorrect
9) Standards for firefighting services prescribe that municipalities with 10,000 or more
population but below 50,000 should provide at least one fire truck. Adjoining municipalities,
however, are allowed to share one fire truck provided that the distance is within prescribed
limits. In such cases, the maximum travel time between municipalities should be
A. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Correct
10) What class of road is not part of a hierarchy?
A. Arterial
B. Collector
C. Distributor
D. Gravel surfaced
E. Local
Incorrect
11) The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies of
Government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is
A. NEDA
B. DAR
C. HLURB
D. DPWH
Correct
12) Agricultural land in its generic synonymous with that basic land classification?
A. Timberland
B. Unclassified public forest
C. Alienable and disposable
D. Ancestral domain
E. Critical watershed
Correct
13) RA No. 8371 is also known as the
A. NIPAS LAW
B. Conservation and biodiversity
C. Agenda 21
D. Indigenous People Rights Act (IPRA)
Incorrect
14) Which of these projects require an EIS?

A. Golf courses and residential subdivision above 10 hectares
B. Drugstore and backyard piggery
C. Projects under Kalakalan 20
D. All of the choices
Incorrect
15) The law that authorizes the establishment and promulgation of different levels of standards
of economic and socialized housing in urban and rural areas provided under the Subdivision
and Condominium Buyers Protective Decree and the National Building Code is
A. BP 220
B. RA 7279
C. PD 957
D. PD 1216
Correct
16) The difference between a census and a survey is that
A. Census makes use of questionnaires while surveys make use of interviews for data gathering
B. Census involves complete enumeration while survey involves sampling
C. Census is done only every 10 years while survey can be done anytime
D. Only the NSO can conduct a census but anybody can conduct a survey
Incorrect
17) Areas generally belonging to ICCs/IPs subject to property rights within ancestral domain
A. Indigenous areas
B. Cultural minority
C. Ancestral areas
D. Ancestral domains
Incorrect
18) Systems, institutions, mechanics and technologies compromising a unique body of knowledge
enclave through time
A. Cultural practices
B. Cultural way of life
C. Indigenous culture
D. Indigenous knowledge systems and practices
Incorrect
19) A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent is authorized to finance, construct,

own, operate and maintain an infrastructure or development facility from which the
proponent is allowed to recover its total investment, operating and maintenance costs plus a
reasonable return thereon by collecting tools, fees, rentals and other charges from facility
users.
A. Build and transfer

B. Build own and operate
C. Build transfer and operate
D. Develop, operate and transfer
Correct
20) The use of scientific methods and information to define the probability and magnitude of
potentially adverse effects which can result from exposure to hazardous materials or situations.
A. Environmental impact statement

B. Environmental risk assessment
C. Scoping
D. None of the choices
Correct
21) The following operating principles are adhered to under the Indigenous People's Right Act,
except
A. Biodiversity
B. Career Development of IPs
C. Protection of the Environment
D. Cultural Diversity and Integrity, Consensus and Peace Building and Human Dignity
Incorrect
22) These are lands that are capable of sustaining the economic productivity levels of crops/land
use over time in a given climatic region without adversely affecting the immediate and
adjoining environment.
A. Indigenous areas
B. Prime agricultural
C. Environmentally critical areas
D. Agro-industrial zones
Incorrect
23) The primary government agency to implement the policies for the IPs is
A. Office of the Cultural Affairs

B. National Commission for the Cultural Communities
C. Commission for the Philippine Minorities
D. National Commission for Indigenous Peoples
Correct
24) How many commissioners comprise the National Commission on Indigenous Peoples?
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Nine
D. Eleven
Incorrect
25) A single detached dwelling units is defined as a house
A. Good for one household

B. Intended for ownership
C. Completely surrounded by yards
D. With one or more of its sides abutting the property line
Correct
26) The National Commission on Indigenous Peoples shall protect the rights of Indigenous peoples,
except those of
A. Children and youth

B. Elders
C. Women
Correct
27) The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may or not be followed is called
A. Consultation
B. Coordination
C. Public hearing
D. Citizen participation
Incorrect
28) One of these plans is not required under AFMA
A. Regional Agro-Industrial Development Plan

B. The SAFDZ Integrated Development Plan
C. The Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Plan
Incorrect
29) The agency responsible for coordinating the housing program is
A. NHA
B. HUDCC
C. HLURB
D. MMDA
Incorrect
30) Ebenezer Howard is regarded as the most influential among the Great Thinkers in modern
urban and regional planning. His famous book, first published in 1898, the revised was titled:
A. Garden Cities
B. Garden Cities of To-morrow
C. Tomorrows Cities
D. To-morrow: A Peaceful Path for Real Reform
Feedback
The only publication he wrote in his life was titled To-Morrow: A Peaceful Path to Real Reform
(1898), which was significantly revised in 1902 as Garden Cities of To-morrow.
(Source:Wikipedia)
Incorrect
31) This is a method of trip assignment which takes into account congestion on the
transportation system. It is the process of determining a pattern of traffic flow for a known
set of interzonal movements so that the relationship between journey time and flow in every
link in the network should be in accordance with that specified for the link.
A. Diversion curves
B. All-or-nothing assignment
C. Capacity resistant
Correct
32) In the identification of needs and the planning of social welfare programs and services, the
planner is expected to
A. Involve the clientele

B. Involve the national and local governments
C. Involve the private sector
Incorrect
33) The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or planning groups for
the purpose of systematizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations is called
A. Public hearing
B. Consultation
C. Coordination
D. Scoping
Correct
34) The 1987 constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain into four categories. Name
the one that is not among the four
A. Agricultural land
B. Mineral land
C. National park
D. Ancestral domain
E. Forest land
Incorrect
35) This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps, illustration and
diagrams which describes what the community wants to develop. It is essentially composed
of community goals; objectives, policies, programs and a physical development plan with
translate the various sectoral plans.
A. Land Use Plan

B. Action Plan
C. Strategic Plan
D. Development Plan
Incorrect
36) Consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs determined in accordance with their respective
customary laws and practices, free from any external manipulation and coercion
A. Indigenous consensus
B. Rights of indigenous people
C. Free and informed consent
Incorrect
37) This refers to a little formally recognizing the rights of possession and ownership of ICCs/IPs
over their ancestral domains identified in accordance with the law.
A. Torres Title
C. Land Title
D. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title
Incorrect
38) A contractual arrangement whereby the public sector contracts out the building of an
infrastructures facility to private entity such that the contractor builds the facility on a turn-key
basis, assuming cost overrun, delay and specified performance risks.

Correct
39) In transportation planning, the collection of data is undertaken through different types of
surveys. The manual counting and classifying, by type of vehicle and direction of travel, all
passing each station during specified periods, supplemented by automation traffic recorder
counts extending over longer periods is called
A. Travel time surveys

B. Roadside survey
C. Network inventories
D. Zoning
Incorrect
40) This law provides a liberalized environment more conducive to private sector investment.
A. RA 6657 and RA 7718 (BOT LAW)

B. Retail Trade Liberalization Act
C. Urban Development and Housing Act
D. All of the choices except none
E. None of the choices
Correct
41) It consists or resource flows provided by bilateral sources and multilateral institutions with
the objective of promoting the economic development and welfare of the recipient country.
A. World Bank
B. Official Development Assistance
C. Internal Revenue Allotment
D. Development
Correct
42) The minimum lot area under PD 957 is
A. 100 sq. m.
B. 72 sq. m.
C. 150 sq. m.
D. 120 sq. m.
Incorrect
43) It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a
project or undertaking and designing appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement
measures.
A. Scoping
B. Initial environmental examination
C. Environmental impact assessment
D. Environmental risk assessment
Correct
44) Ebenezer Howard envisioned a new town deliberately outside normal commuter range of the
old city. It would be fairly small. Its population size shall be:
A. Ten thousand
B. Twenty thousand
C. Twenty-two thousand
D. Thirty thousand
Incorrect
45) This is the process of appraising the feasibility, credibility and probable impacts or
consequences of alternative schemes of development or specific environmental conditions.
A. Environmental impact assessment

B. Evaluation
C. Diagnostic survey
D. Feasibility study
Correct
46) Those suffering from restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within
the range considered normal for a human being as a result of mental, physical or sensory
impairment.
A. Physically challenged
B. Impaired
C. Disabled
D. Disadvantaged
Correct
47) Those persons who may be significantly affected by the project or undertaking are called
A. Indigenous people
B. Stakeholders
C. Squatters
D. Proponent
Incorrect
48) The main regulatory tool for implementing land use plans in the Philippines is
A. Capital investment programs

B. Special assessments
C. Expropriation
D. Zoning
Incorrect
49) The rights of the IPs to cultural integrity shall include
A. Protection of indigenous culture, traditions and institutions

B. Right to establish and control educational and learning systems
C. Right to science and technology
Correct
50) A study which includes all the units in the population

is called
A. Holistic study
B. Phenomenological
C. Survey
D. Census
Hidden EP Quiz No.01

A Scottish biologist who
authored the masterpiece
entitled "Cities in Evolution"
(1915) and who coined the
terms 'folk- work-place', 'city-
region' and 'conurbation' is
acknowledged as the 'father
of regional planning'
o A.
Sir Patrick Leslie

Abercrombie
o B.
Sir Patrick Geddes
o C.
Lewis Mumford
o D.
Barry Parker
2.
He led the crafting of the
regional 'Greater London Plan
of 1944', he designed some of
30 post-war New Towns
approved by the British
Parliament, including
Doncaster area and East
Kent, in which he used open
space as structuring element.
Discuss
o A.
Sir Patrick Leslie

Abercrombie
o B.
Sir Patrick Geddes
o C.
Lewis Mumford
o D.
Charles Abrams
3.
She was called a
'superwoman' who single
handedly sparked
environmental activism in the
1960s-70s with her research
('Silent Spring) on
biomagnification of pesticides
and chemicals in the human
food chain; her advocacies
bore fruit in the creation of US
Environmental Protection
Agency and Environmental
Impact Assessment system in
the 1970s.
o A.
Gro Harlem Brundtland
o B.
Catherine Bauer Wurster
o C.
Rachel Louise Carson
o D.
Marthc1 C. Nussbaum
4.
If 'Earth Hour' is observed on
the last Saturday of March,
'Earth Day USA' is celebrated
annually on April 22, 'World
Town Planning Day' falls on
November 8, 'World
Environment Day' is marked
on the 51h day of the month
of
o A.
May
o B.
June
o C.
September
o D.
October
5.
If 'World Heritage Day' is
marked each year on April 18,
'World Biodiversity Day' is
observed on May 22, 'World
Ocean Day' on June 8, 'World
Indigenous Peoples Day' on
August 9, 'World Animal Day'
on October 4, and 'World
Food Day' on October 16,
when is 'World Water Day'
celebrated?
Discuss
o A.
January 13
o B.
March 22
o C.
June 24
o D.
October 31
6.
Based on his landmark book,
"Design with Nature," 'map
overlay' to identify 'ecological
constraints' was a
tool devised in 1967 by the
first modem environmental
planner.
o A.
Ian L. McHarg
o B.
Konstantinos Doxiadis
o C.
Francis Stuart Chapin Jr
o D.
Erma Bernbeck
7.
This started as a US federal
program in 1949 which aimed
to rehabilitate the outworn or
decaying sections of any town
by extending fund assistance
to LGUs to undertake
improvements in
streetscapes, parks, green
ways, housing, community
centers, etc based on
anticipation that future tax
revenues from real estate will
pay for present costs.
o A.
Land re-adjustment
o B.
Urban restructuring
o C.
Infill and densification
o D.
Urban renewal
8.
As chief planner of New York
City, he collaborated with
Thomas Adams in crafting the
"Regional Plan of New York
and its Environs 1922-1931 ;"
he also conceived, and
executed public works costing
$27 billion between 1324 and
1968 and was responsible for
virtually every parkway,
expressway, and public
housing project in New York
metropolitan area.
Discuss
o A.
William Levitt
o B.
Fiorello La Guardia
o C.
Robert Murray Haig
o D.
Robert Moses
o E.
Warren Buffett
9.
The design of this city by
Lucio Costa and Oscar
Niemeyer (1957) features
large open areas relating to
one other to demonstrate
'freedom' and an overall city
layout resembling a 'dove in
flight'.
o A.
Brasilia
o B.
Sydney
o C.
Chandigarh
o D.
Canberra
o E.
Islamabad
10.
'Ekistics' or the 'science of
human settlements' by Dr
Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951)
was built upon the concept of
"basic needs," which were
later categorized by Johann
Galtung into "material survival
& security needs," "social or
enabling needs," and non-
material "human needs".
Which grouping of needs was
elaborated on by Abraham
Maslow?
o A.
Food, water, clothing,

shelter, sanitation, health
care, energy/fuel,
employment, peace and
order,
o B.
Self-expression, sex,
procreation, recreation,
education,
communication, and
transportation
o C.
Physiological needs,
physical safety, love and
belongingness, esteem,
self-actualization/self-
realization
o D.
Freedom, security,
identity, well-being,
ecological balance
11.
The following are the basic
elements of 'human
settlements' according to Dr.
Konstantinos Doxiadis. Which
one pertains to the built
environment or physical
capital?
o A.
Anthropos
o B.
Nature
o C.
Shells and networks
o D.
Society
o E.
Social structure
12.
What is the smallest unit in
the 'human settlements
planning' or Ekistics by Dr
Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951
)?
o A.
House
o B.
Anthropos
o C.
Organism
o D.
Neighborhood
o E.
Hamlet
13.
Which of the following is not
part of typology of cities under
Ekistics school of Dr
Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951
)?
o A.
ecumenopolis
o B.
Megalopolis
o C.
Metropolis
o D.
Agropolis
o E.
Eperopolis
14.
In "Death and Life of Great
American Cities" (1961) and
"Economy of Cities" (1969),
this planner maintains that
'diversity' promotes innovation
among proximate firms and
spurs the growth of cities,
thus s/he advocated
for heterogeneity, variety, and
mixture in the geographic
clustering of firms as well as
in the composition of city
districts and neighborhoods.
o A.
Herbert Gans
o B.
James Howard Kunstler
o C.
Joel Garreau
o D.
Jane Jacobs
15.
An approach in urban
planning that puts premium on
people and nature by building
upon the historic city or
traditional neighborhood in
such a way that workplaces,
shops, and homes would be
within walking distance of
each other.
o A.
Nee-Populism
o B.
Eco-Village
o C.
New Urbanism
o D.
Dynapolis
o E.
Transit-Oriented
Development
16.
All of the following schemes
are associated with 'New
Urbanism' except:
o A.
Mixed Use Zoning
o B.
Neo-Traditional Design
o C.
Exclusionary Zoning
o D.
Pedestrianization
17.
Because Pre-Spanish
aboriginal communities in the
Philippines were relatively
small and based on kinship
relations, the most common
practice of land tenure in pre-
colonial society, wherein one
would merely enjoy the 'fruits'
of land, was called
o A.
Primitive communism
o B.
Islamic feudalism
o C.
Usufruct
o D.
Tenancy
o E.
Swidden slash-and-burn
18.
This was the Spanish spatial
strategy of forming dense
settlements from scattered
dwellings for purposes of
greater, military defense and
political control - literally
bringing together dispersed
population within hearing
distance of church bells --
which policy was applied on
most Spanish colonies from
16th to18th centuries.
o A.
El Alcance del
Campanario
o B.
Presidio y Fortaleza
o C.
Reduccion
o D.
Evangelizacion
19.
Under the plaza complex
pattern described in 'Le yes
de las lndias' ( 1573), what
would be located next to each
other around a Greco-Roman
quadrangle of a Spanish
colonial settlement?
o A.
Garden, fountains,
monuments, statues,
gallery and promenade
o B.
Governor's mansion,
bishop's palace, general's
manor, hacendero's villa,
military garrison
o C.
Church, town hall, school,

public market
o D.
Houses of peninsulares,
insulares, creoles,
mestizos, principales and
ilustrados
20.
Through Presidential Letter of
Instruction 367 in 1950
combining National Urban
Planning Commission, Real
Property Board, and Capital
City Planning Commission,
the government created this
first physical planning body.
o A.
National Planning
Commission
o B.
National Disaster
Coordinating Council
o C.
National Environmental
Protection Agency
o D.
Human Settlements
Regulatory Commission
21.
In 1964, Republic Act 4341
established this center to
create a pool of professional
planners in the Philippines.
o A.
Local Government
Academy
o B.
Development Academy of
the Philippines
o C.
Institute of Planning
o D.
UPLB Institute of
Environmental Science
and Management
22.
Presidential Decree No. 01
Integrated Reorganization
Plan on September 24, 1972
increased the number of
Philippine regions to 11,
regionalized key ministries
and line departmerts, and
created a major planning
agency of government which
is known today as
Discuss
o A.
Philippine Economic Zone

Authority
o B.
National Land Use

Committee
o C.
Congressional Planning
and Budget Office
o D.
National Economic and

Development Authority
23.
In 2012, how many
administrative regions does
the Philippines have?
o A.
13
o B.
15
o C.
16
o D.
17
24.
Under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 25,
which of the following is not
among the types of cities in
the Philippines.
o A.
Highly Urbanized Cities

o B.
Independent Cities
o C.
Megacities
o D.
Component Cities
25.
In 2011, which Philippine city
had the biggest population,net
income and IRA?
o A.
City of Manila
o B.
Makati City
o C.
Quezon City
o D.
Cebu City
26.
This 1997 document is the
Philippines' official response
to 1992 'UNCED Earth
Summit' and contains a policy
framework that redefines
development as the 'drawing
out of full human potential'
according to the 'appropriate
productivity' of nature, rather
than optimal or maximum
exploitation of natural
resources to achieve GDP
growth.
o A.
Philippine Strategy for

Sustainable Development
o B.
Philippine Philippine
Strategy Covenant for on
Total Sustainable Human
Development
Development
o C.
Strategic national Action

program
o D.
Philippine Agenda 21
27.
This School of Thought holds
that the settlements form in a
balanced manner; they tend
to be spread evenly and
symmetrically in isotropic
space, displaying both
hierarchy and equilibrium
arising from the
interdependence between big
and small settlements and
from the complementation
between their respective
scope of functions
o A.
Galaxy of Settlements
Theory
o B.
Central Place Theory
o C.
Geographic Determinism
o D.
Dependency Theory
28.
This School of Thought
maintains that cities are
'theaters of capital
accumulation',largely a
consequence of class-based
struggle among groups for
strategic dominance and
control surplus. Such conflict
is usually won by the rich and
powerful through agents of
capital such as multi-national
corporations which use the
city to amass wealth by
raising property values
through commercialization,
gentrification, manipulation,
and land speculation.
o A.
Capital Theoretic Model
o B.
Political Economy
o C.
Natural Capitalism
o D.
David Harvey's Circuit of

Capital
29.
This School of Thought
describes a borderless global
economy characterized by
free trade and free movement
of capital wherein nation-
states would have 'lean and
mean' governments which
pursue policies of liberation,
deregulation, privatization, de-
bureaucratization,'unbundling',
'de-coupling', and similar
structural adjustments.
o A.
World Systems Theory
o B.
State Corporatism
o C.
Neo-Liberalism
o D.
Liberal Democracy
30.
Johann Heinreich von
Thunen's theory of agricultural
rent is symbolized as
"LR=Y(p-c)-Ytd' where "Y" is
yield or total harvest, "P" is
price of crop, "C"is production
cost of crop, "t" is transport
cost and "D" is distance to
market. If yield of palay is
3,500 kgs,NFA buying price is
P17.00 per kilo, distance is
5km., given farmer's gross
production cost of 45 cents
per square meter per day for
unit production cost of P12.00
per kilo,would palay
cultivation be profitable at this
specific farm location if
transport cost is P1.00 per kilo
of palay?
Discuss
o A.
Yes
o B.
No
o C.
It depends on the weather
o D.
It depends on quality of
road & capacity of vehicle
31.
In Walter Christaller's Central
Place Theory, The catchment
area of a central place takes
the shape of a hexagon rather
than a perfect circle. If a
particular service or function
such as elementary school
enrolment is represented by
the formula,"C=2.6r2d," what
would be the catchment area
of elementary school if its
radius is 0.50km and diameter
is one km?
Discuss
o A.
0.65 sq.km
o B.
0.75 sq.km
o C.
0.85 sq.km
o D.
0.95 sq.km
32.
In Walter Christaller's Central
Place Theory (1933),
neighborhood store is an
example of first- order
services while grocery store,
gas station, furniture shop,
and post office are examples
of
o A.
Secondary services
o B.
Tertiary services
o C.
Quaternary services
o D.
Quinary services
33.
In central place theory (1933),
this refers to the minimum
population required to make a
'service' viable.
o A.
Resident population
o B.
Captive market
o C.
Threshold population
o D.
Population explosion
34.
A chart-like tool to measure
'centrality' of a place
particularly its range of
economic and social
functions, is called
o A.
Matrix
o B.
lsotims
o C.
Lsodapanes
o D.
Scalogram
35.
All of the following are
practical applications of
Central Place Theory in the
Philippines, except one.
o A.
Location of health centers
o B.
Location of trial courts
o C.
Location of beach resorts
o D.
Location of police stations
36.
What Christallerian principles
form the basis why a state
university, a consumer mall, a
huge sports stadium, or a
tertiary-level hospital can not
be established in each and
every Philippine municipality?
Discuss
o A.
Spatial equity and bio-

geographic equity
o B.
Specialization and
concentration
o C.
Market range and

threshold population
o D.
Profitability and pecuniary

interest
37.
The 'hierarchy of settlements'
in Walter Christaller's Central
Place Theory is characterized
by
o A.
Equally-sized large cities

in every region
o B.
Only one large city, many

small settlements
o C.
Only medium-sized and

small settlements
o D.
A few large cities, some

medium cities, many
small settlements
38.
According to the Chicago
school of human ecology,
'Invasion' refers to how
pioneers and opportunists
push the 'land frontier' farther
out; when immigrants settle in
waves, they define new land
uses for themselves in a
process called
o A.
'evolution'
o B.
'co-location'
o C.
'succession'
o D.
'acclimatization'
o E.
'cohabitation'
39.
In the model of mono-centric
cities, it is assumed that
manufacturers locate close to
transport arteries, blue-collar
workers locate close to their
jobs, while traders and
retailers pay higher for choice
locations in city center to have
command of the market.This
pattern of land use
is explained better by which
theory of spatial planning?
o A.
Urban Bid-Rent by
Alonso, Muth, and Mills
o B.
Cumulative Causation by
Gunnar Myrdal
o C.
Urban Land Nexus

Theory by David Harvey
o D.
City as Growth Machine

by John Logan & Harvey
Molotch
40.
"When all land is identical and
there is perfect competition
among profit-maximizing
firms, land is sold to the
highest willing bidder. As a
firm moves closer to the
center of a place, transport
costs fall which increases the
amount a firm is willing to pay
for land. Thus,land at the
center always has has the
highest value.
Discuss
o A.
Johann Henreich von

Thunen, Walter
Christaller, and George
Kingsley Zipf
o B.
William Alonso, Richard

E. Muth and Edwin S.
Mills
o C.
Alfred Weber, August

Losch, and Walter lsard
o D.
Roderick D. McKenzie,
Amos H. Hawley, Robert
Park
41.
In William Alonso's Bid-Rent
Theory (1960), the most
appropriate use of the
innermost circle in the
diagram is
o A.
Farming of the most

expensive crops
o B.
Terminal for commuters,

central rail station
o C.
Central park
o D.
Shopping & retail services
42.
It in 'Ernest Burgess'
concentric Model (1925),
factories and work-shops
would most likely locate in
o A.
The innermost circle,
o B.
The outermost circle
o C.
The second circle from

the center
o D.
The third circle from the

center
43.
It in Homer Hoyt's model
(1939), where would the elite
class place their high-end
subdivisions?
o A.
Section 'A'
o B.
Section 'B1'
o C.
Section 'C'
o D.
Section 'D'
44.
'Leapfrog development' and
'sprawl' are what you
commonly see in what Peirce
F. Lewis calls
o A.
Circumferential City
o B.
Multi-cellular city
o C.
Stellar City
o D.
Galactic City
45.
The 'multiple nuclei' model of
Harris and Ullmann (1945)
posits that
o A.
Cities have varied natural

res.ources that stimulate
progress in different
locations
o B.
Diversified economic
functions of cities cluster
around several points of
growth
o C.
Zoning of cities closely

follows the flow or 'circuits
of capital'
o D.
Air transport, sea

transport, land transport
facilities are the logical
growth zones of cities
46.
'Urban development' tends to
occur along major
transportation routes
because
o A.
Power/water connections
and other utilities are
naturally linear
o B.
Business can not take

place without roads and
vehicles
o C.
Migration usually occurs

lineally from point A to
point B such as in
exodus, processions, or
diasporas
o D.
People tend to locate

where exchange,
interchange, and access
to other land uses are at
maximum
47.
Which theorist of urban land
use states categorically that
land use follows transport in
the same manner that both
population and business
follow roads?
o A.
Ernest Burgess
o B.
Homer Hoyt
o C.
Chauncey Harris &

Edward Ullman
o D.
Peirce Lewis
48.
Which of the following land-
use models describes the
pattern of radial or axial
growth along lines of least
resistance?
o A.
Multiple Nuclei
o B.
Concentric Zone
o C.
Sector Model
o D.
Polycentric Model
49.
In the model of Homer Hoyt,
the sections of urban land
with the highest values are
those:
o A.
Downtown sections facing

seas, lakes & near
waterfronts
o B.
On top of hills and

elevated areas called
'uptowns'
o C.
Immediately around
public offices I institutional
sector
o D.
Along major roadways
50.
The original concept of
'megalopolis' as an extended
or super-sized urban area is
attributed to
o A.
Jean Gettman
o B.
o C.
Dennis Rondinelli
o D.
Andreas Faludi
1) Which of the maps listed below is not a thematic map?
A. Base map
B. Land use map
C. Slope map
D. Geologic map
E. Physical constraint map
2) This type of plan shows the allocation of land into broad functional classes, e.g.,
development areas, conservation/preservation areas; agricultural area and forest areas.
A. Structure Plan
B. General Land Use Plan
C. Development Plan
D. Comprehensive Plan
3) Which of the following is not a factor in determining the suitability of land for an
industrial estate?
A. Load-nearing capacity
B. Soil fertility
C. Drainage
D. Slope
E. Location
4) What ratio between sealable and non-saleable portions of the subdivision is required for
projects developed under BP 220 standards?
A. No fixed ratio
B. 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable
C. 40% saleable and 60% non-saleable
D. Minimum of 50% open space
5) Ebenezer Howard's ideas were adopted by the British Governments in the enactment of
the New Towns Act of 1947. The new towns concept, according to historians, has been
illustrated by Howard on a paper napkin, This famous diagram consists of :
A. One Magnet
B. Two Magnets
C. Three Magnets
D. Four Magnets
6) Which land use type is normally not classified as urban?
A. Institutional
B. Residential
C. Mining and quarrying
D. Industrial
E. Commercial
7) The first new town built following Ebenezer Howard's idea is known as:
A. Letchworth
B. Soltaire
C. Sterenage
D. Welwyn
8) This is one of the methods of trip generation modeling, which is concerned with finding the
best functional relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent
variables. This relationship is usually assumed to be linear.
A. Analysis of variance
B. Multiple regression
C. Category analysis
D. Situational analysis
9) Standards for firefighting services prescribe that municipalities with 10,000 or more
population but below 50,000 should provide at least one fire truck. Adjoining
municipalities, however, are allowed to share one fire truck provided that the distance is
within prescribed limits. In such cases, the maximum travel time between municipalities
should be
A. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 30 minutes
10) What class of road is not part of a hierarchy?
A. Arterial
B. Collector
C. Distributor
D. Gravel surfaced
E. Local
11) The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies of
Government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is
A. NEDA
B. DAR
C. HLURB
D. DPWH
12) Agricultural land in its generic synonymous with that basic land classification?
A. Timberland
B. Unclassified public forest
C. Alienable and disposable
D. Ancestral domain
E. Critical watershed
13) RA No. 8371 is also known as the
A. NIPAS LAW
B. Conservation and biodiversity
C. Agenda 21
D. Indigenous People Rights Act (IPRA)
14) Which of these projects require an EIS?
A. Golf courses and residential subdivision above 10 hectares

B. Drugstore and backyard piggery
C. Projects under Kalakalan 20
15) The law that authorizes the establishment and promulgation of different levels of standards
of economic and socialized housing in urban and rural areas provided under the
Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protective Decree and the National Building Code
is
A. BP 220
B. RA 7279
C. PD 957
D. PD 1216
16) The difference between a census and a survey is that
A. Census makes use of questionnaires while surveys make use of interviews for data
gathering
B. Census involves complete enumeration while survey involves sampling
C. Census is done only every 10 years while survey can be done anytime
D. Only the NSO can conduct a census but anybody can conduct a survey
17) Areas generally belonging to ICCs/IPs subject to property rights within ancestral domain
A. Indigenous areas
C. Ancestral areas
D. Ancestral domains
18) Systems, institutions, mechanics and technologies compromising a unique body of

knowledge enclave through time
A. Cultural practices
B. Cultural way of life
C. Indigenous culture
D. Indigenous knowledge systems and practices
19) A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent is authorized to finance, construct,

own, operate and maintain an infrastructure or development facility from which the
proponent is allowed to recover its total investment, operating and maintenance costs plus
a reasonable return thereon by collecting tools, fees, rentals and other charges from facility
users.

20) The use of scientific methods and information to define the probability and magnitude of
potentially adverse effects which can result from exposure to hazardous materials or
situations.
A. Environmental impact statement

B. Environmental risk assessment
C. Scoping
21) The following operating principles are adhered to under the Indigenous People's Right Act,
except
A. Biodiversity
B. Career Development of IPs
C. Protection of the Environment
D. Cultural Diversity and Integrity, Consensus and Peace Building and Human Dignity
22) These are lands that are capable of sustaining the economic productivity levels of crops/land
use over time in a given climatic region without adversely affecting the immediate and
adjoining environment.
A. Indigenous areas
B. Prime agricultural
C. Environmentally critical areas
D. Agro-industrial zones
23) The primary government agency to implement the policies for the IPs is
A. Office of the Cultural Affairs

B. National Commission for the Cultural Communities
C. Commission for the Philippine Minorities
D. National Commission for Indigenous Peoples
24) How many commissioners comprise the National Commission on Indigenous Peoples?
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Nine
D. Eleven
25) A single detached dwelling units is defined as a house
A. Good for one household

B. Intended for ownership
C. Completely surrounded by yards
D. With one or more of its sides abutting the property line
26) The National Commission on Indigenous Peoples shall protect the rights of Indigenous
peoples, except those of
A. Children and youth

B. Elders
C. Women
27) The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may or not be followed is
called
A. Consultation
B. Coordination
C. Public hearing
D. Citizen participation
28) One of these plans is not required under AFMA
A. Regional Agro-Industrial Development Plan

B. The SAFDZ Integrated Development Plan
C. The Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Plan
29) The agency responsible for coordinating the housing program is
A. NHA
B. HUDCC
C. HLURB
D. MMDA
30) Ebenezer Howard is regarded as the most influential among the Great Thinkers in modern
urban and regional planning. His famous book, first published in 1898, the revised was
titled:
A. Garden Cities
B. Garden Cities of To-morrow
C. Tomorrows Cities
D. To-morrow: A Peaceful Path for Real Reform
31) This is a method of trip assignment which takes into account congestion on the
transportation system. It is the process of determining a pattern of traffic flow for a known
set of interzonal movements so that the relationship between journey time and flow in
every link in the network should be in accordance with that specified for the link.
A. Diversion curves
B. All-or-nothing assignment
C. Capacity resistant
32) In the identification of needs and the planning of social welfare programs and services, the
planner is expected to
A. Involve the clientele

B. Involve the national and local governments
C. Involve the private sector
33) The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or planning groups
for the purpose of systematizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations is called
A. Public hearing
B. Consultation
C. Coordination
D. Scoping
34) The 1987 constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain into four categories.
Name the one that is not among the four
A. Agricultural land
B. Mineral land
C. National park
D. Ancestral domain
E. Forest land
35) This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps, illustration and
diagrams which describes what the community wants to develop. It is essentially
composed of community goals; objectives, policies, programs and a physical development
plan with translate the various sectoral plans.
A. Land Use Plan

B. Action Plan
C. Strategic Plan
D. Development Plan
36) Consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs determined in accordance with their respective
customary laws and practices, free from any external manipulation and coercion
A. Indigenous consensus
B. Rights of indigenous people
C. Free and informed consent
37) This refers to a little formally recognizing the rights of possession and ownership of
ICCs/IPs over their ancestral domains identified in accordance with the law.
A. Torres Title
C. Land Title
D. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title
38) A contractual arrangement whereby the public sector contracts out the building of an
infrastructures facility to private entity such that the contractor builds the facility on a turn-
key basis, assuming cost overrun, delay and specified performance risks.

39) In transportation planning, the collection of data is undertaken through different types of
surveys. The manual counting and classifying, by type of vehicle and direction of travel,
all passing each station during specified periods, supplemented by automation traffic
recorder counts extending over longer periods is called
A. Travel time surveys
B. Roadside survey
C. Network inventories
D. Zoning
40) This law provides a liberalized environment more conducive to private sector investment.
A. RA 6657 and RA 7718 (BOT LAW)

B. Retail Trade Liberalization Act
C. Urban Development and Housing Act
41) It consists or resource flows provided by bilateral sources and multilateral institutions with
the objective of promoting the economic development and welfare of the recipient country.
A. World Bank
B. Official Development Assistance
C. Internal Revenue Allotment
D. Development
42) The minimum lot area under PD 957 is
A. 100 sq. m.
B. 72 sq. m.
C. 150 sq. m.
D. 120 sq. m.
43) It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a

project or undertaking and designing appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement
measures.
A. Scoping
B. Initial environmental examination
C. Environmental impact assessment
D. Environmental risk assessment
44) Ebenezer Howard envisioned a new town deliberately outside normal commuter range of the
old city. It would be fairly small. Its population size shall be:
A. Ten thousand
B. Twenty thousand
C. Twenty-two thousand
D. Thirty thousand
45) This is the process of appraising the feasibility, credibility and probable impacts or
consequences of alternative schemes of development or specific environmental conditions.
A. Environmental impact assessment

B. Evaluation
C. Diagnostic survey
D. Feasibility study
46) Those suffering from restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or
within the range considered normal for a human being as a result of mental, physical or
sensory impairment.
A. Physically challenged
B. Impaired
C. Disabled
D. Disadvantaged
47) Those persons who may be significantly affected by the project or undertaking are called
A. Indigenous people
B. Stakeholders
C. Squatters
D. Proponent
48) The main regulatory tool for implementing land use plans in the Philippines is
A. Capital investment programs

B. Special assessments
C. Expropriation
D. Zoning
49) The rights of the IPs to cultural integrity shall include
A. Protection of indigenous culture, traditions and institutions

B. Right to establish and control educational and learning systems
C. Right to science and technology
50) A study which includes all the units in the population is called
A. Holistic study
B. Phenomenological
C. Survey
D. Census
Questions and Answers

1.
Which is not a benefit from having large greenspace in cities?
o A.
Absorbs air pollution
o B.
Gives off oxygen
o C.
Cools the air as water transpires
o D.
Provides habitat to wild beasts
o E.
Provides shade with 1ess electricity required
o F.
Muffles noise and creates an island of peace
2.
A 'drainage basin' is the total land area that contributes runoff to a given stream.
What characteristic of a drainage basin causes it to have an 'efficient' response
to rainfall?
o A.
Sloping topography in bowl-like formation
o B.
Permeable soils
o C.
Plasticity of clay bottom
o D.
Filtration by its wetlands
3.
Under RA 8371, this refers to "all areas generally belonging to ICCs/lPs
comprising lands, inland waters, coastal areas, and natural resources therein,
held under a claim of ownership, occupied or possessed by ICCs/lPs,
by themselves or through their ancestors, since time immemorial, continuously
up to the present."
o A.
Tribal land
o B.
Cultural heritage
o C.
Autonomous region
o D.
Ethnic realm
o E.
Ancestral domain
4.
According to RA 8749, this geographic-based document integrates primary data
and information on natural resources and anthropogenic activities on the land as
evaluated using various risk assessment and forecasting methodologies, and
evaluates environment quality and carrying capacity of an area in such a way
that enables planners and government decision-makers to anticipate the type of
development control necessary in the planning area.
o A.
Natural Resources Inventory
o B.
Environmental Accounting
o C.
Biogeographic Compendium
o D.
Eco-Profile
5.
In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the
'social sector'?
o A.
Education
o B.
Tourism
o C.
Health
o D.
Police Protective Services
o E.
Sports and Recreation

6.
In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the
'economic sector'?
o A.
Housing
o B.
Mining
o C.
ICT and Business Process Outsourcing
o D.
Mariculture
o E.
Small Scale Industries
7.
This process defines the physical platform of development at the local level, and
proceeds by systematically evaluating alternative patterns of resource
use,choosing that use which meets specified goals, and drawing-up appropriate
policies and programs, directed to the best use of land in view of accepted
objectives, and of environmental and societal opportunities and constraints.
o A.
Framework Planning
o B.
Strategic Planning
o C.
Land Use Planning
o D.
Development Planning
8.
This document consists of specific proposals to guide growth in a locality
including statements about community goals, priorities, strategies, and socially-
desired mix of resource uses. These are illustrated by
maps,diagrams,charts,tables that show a coherent spatial framework for
environment protection, economic production, settlements, and infrastructure.
o A.
Charrette
o B.
Chatroulette
o C.
Comprehensive Land Use Plan
o D.
Strategic Plan
o E.
Framework Plan
9.
An essential part of land-use planning, this activity occurs after strategic
planning but before the detailed layout of location, and aims to characterize and
design a parcel of land or specific section of town so that it can function
effectively in relation to the complexity and scale of proposed development and
the range of land uses around it.
o A.
Estate Planning
o B.
Wards and Precincts Planning
o C.
Parcellary Planning
o D.
Site Planning
o E.
Project Planning
10.
This concerns the arrangement, appearance and functionality of a whole town or
city, in particular the shape and form of the city blocks, the uses of public space,
the articulation of physical features in three dimensions, so that residents and
visitors alike can make high-quality connections between people, places and
buildings.
o A.
Architectural Master Plan
o B.
Cityscape and Streetscape
o C.
Urban Design
o D.
Form and Style
o E.
Visual Panorama
11.
This refers to the division of a community into districts or sections according to
present and potential uses of land in order to maximize, regulate, and direct their
use and development.
o A.
Wards & Precincts Planning

o B.
Subdivision Plats
o C.
Land Allocation and Apportionment
o D.
Zoning
12.
It is an integrated development scheme wherein a defined area is
comprehensively planned as a unitary entity such that innovations in site design
and building design are rewarded by government with some flexibility in zoning,
usually relaxation of standards or their replacement with negotiated agreement
between the developer and the LGU.
Discuss
o A.
Enterprise Zone
o B.
Sites and Services model
o C.
Zonal Improvement Program
o D.
Planned Unit Development
13.
This type of land regulation says that man-made structures should be of such
height,bulk, or design so as not to upstage, play down, or draw attention away
from a landmark (e.g. Rizal Monument ), natural landscape, or character of
place
o A.
Design Aesthetics
o B.
Architectural Masterplan
o C.
Cultural Mapping
o D.
Form-Zoning
14.
An innovation in land-use regulation in which the right to develop a property can
be separated or severed from ownership of land in a particular zoning district,
then sold or passed on to another property owner, and exercised in connection
with the development of land in some other part of the jurisdiction.
o A.
Market-based instrument
o B.
Commutation of Rights
o C.
Property Conversion
o D.
Transfer of Oeve!opment Rights
15.
Which is not considered 'production land' in a Philippine LGU?
o A.
Agro-industrial estate
o B.
Cropland
o C.
Orchard
o D.
Fishpond
o E.
Fishpen
16.
Which type of land use is not described as 'urban'?
o A.
Residential
o B.
Institutional
o C.
Industrial
o D.
Mineral
17.
Which type of land use is most easily reversible or convertible to its original
state?
o A.
Forest land
o B.
Memorial park
o C.
Infrastructure land
o D.
Commercial
18.
What is the percent slope of a land parcel that has a change in elevation ('rise')
of 8 meters and is 160 meters long?
o A.
8%
o B.
7%
o C.
6%
o D.
5%
o E.
4%
19.
In slope analysis, land with slope 0% to 3% is described as
o A.
Even and smooth
o B.
Flat to gently sloping
o C.
Level to nearly level
o D.
Gently to moderately undulating
20.
Which of the following soil types has the greatest permeability, and hence has
the least nutrient-holding capacity?
o A.
Sand
o B.
Clay
o C.
Silt
o D.
Loam
o E.
Humus
21.
Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for
agricultural use?
o A.
Climate and rainfall
o B.
Soil quality
o C.
Geologic fault lines
o D.
Slope
22.
These are lands capable of intensive use or cultivation over time and can
sustain the productivity levels of crops in a given climatic region without
adversely affecting the immediate or adjoining environment.
o A.
Agro-industrial estate
o B.
Prime agricultural land
o C.
Alluvial fans
o D.
Icefields or mud paddies
23.
The recommended map scale for provinces is 1:50,000 while that for town/city
CLUP should be at least
o A.
1 :200,000
o B.
1:100,000
o C.
1:25,000
o D.
1:10,000
24.
Which of those listed below is not a 'thematic' map?
o A.
Political - administrative boundaries

o B.
NPAAAD map
o C.
Slope map
o D.
Forest cover map
25.
'Contour lines' on a topographic map indicate
o A.
Soil classes
o B.
Layers of vegetative cover
o C.
Demarcation lines
o D.
Elevation intervals
26.
An 'analytical' map is a composite or overlay of two or more
o A.
Base maps
o B.
Thematic maps
o C.
Aspect maps
o D.
Choropleth maps
27.
In agricultural land use planning, the soil characteristics of solum depth and clay-
silt fraction that would ensure good plant growth are
o A.
<50 cm and <80%
o B.
>100 cm and >80%
o C.
50-100 cm and 40-80%
o D.
10-50 cm and 10-40%
28.
It is a computer system consisting of software and hardware components that
are used to organize, store, process, analyze and display multiple layers of
spatially-referenced information about geographically located features.
o A.
Geodesy and Geodetics
o B.
Global Positioning System
o C.
Electronic Cadastral System
o D.
Geographic Information System
29.
These are geometric coordinates for designating the location of places on the
surface of the Earth; the First gives the location of a place above or below the
equator, expressed by angular measurements ranging from 0 at the equator to
90 at the poles, while the Second gives the location of a place east or west of
an upright line called the prime meridian, and is measured in angles ranging
from 0 at the prime meridian to 180 at the International Date Line.
o A.
Landmass and ocean
o B.
Cartesian x,y, points
o C.
North pole & south pole
o D.
Latitude and longitude
30.
Prior to the development of computer mapping software in the mid-1970s,
spatial analysis was done manually by overlaying different thematic maps of the
same scale, principally to determine
o A.
Geohazards and physical constraints
o B.
Areas that are ideal for urban development
o C.
Critical areas for rehabilitation or intervention
o D.
All of the choices
31.
This refers to aerial photographs that have been rectified to produce an accurate
image of the Earth by removing tilt of planet, relief displacements, and
topographic distortions which occurred when the photo was taken from an
airplane
o A.
Photogrammetry
o B.
Orthophotography
o C.
Remote sensing
o D.
Geomatics
o E.
Geodetics
32.
In a computer graphics/mapping system, this is a data structure for representing
point and line data by means of x,y,z geometric coordinates; it can also be a set
of line segments joined end-to-end to make a curved path in space.
o A.
Vector
o B.
Raster
o C.
Curvature
o D.
Field
o E.
Node
33.
According to Prof. Ernesto Serote, this is the process of putting two or more
thematic maps on top of each other to determine areas of convergence of
certain features of land contributing to the suitability of the area to a particular
purpose, and conversely, to eliminate or screen out areas that are not suitable
for that purpose.
o A.
Thematic superimposition
o B.
Cartographic merging
o C.
Sieve analysis
o D.
Spatial modeling
34.
What rational tool do planners use in selecting from alternative land use
schemes?
o A.
Checklist of criteria
o B.
Linear programming
o C.
Cost-benefit analysis
o D.
Computer simulation
35.
By taking into account both quantitative values and non-quantitative values,
'Planning Balance Sheet' is an 'extended' 'multiple-criteria' form of
o A.
Cost-revenue analysis
o B.
Cost-benefit analysis
o C.
Cost-effectiveness analysis
o D.
Cost-estimate analysis
36.
This refers to the wise and prudent use of any resource that is held in trust.
o A.
Technocracy
o B.
Shepherding
o C.
Protectionism
o D.
Championing
o E.
Stewardship
37.
In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning works with Nature
by conserving natural resources.
o A.
Interconnect open space and greenways to provide corridors and refuge for wildlife
o B.
Delineate clear town edges or greenbelts to protect surrounding farmland
o C.
Encourage quarrying near main rivers to generate substantial revenues for the
municipality
o D.
Create neighborhood pocket-parks and urban mini-forests to serve as lungs of the

city/town
38.
This is the legal term for forest at 1,000 meters elevation or more or with steep
gradients at 50% or more, which perform vital ecological functions and must
therefore be kept perpetually in natural state and free from human intrusion.
o A.
Everlasting Forest
o B.
Permanent Forest
o C.
Virginal Fores!
o D.
Primeval Forest
39.
This is the scientific term for old-growth forest in tropical countries that is
dominated by broad-leaf trees which form thick canopy thus allowing little
sunlight on the forest floor, and includes much-prized hardwood species such as
red lauan, white lauan, red narra, tanguile, tiaong, almon, bagtikan, apitong,
kamagong, yakal, and mayapis.
Discuss
o A.
Dipterocarp Forest
o B.
Deciduous Forest
o C.
Coniferous or 'Pine' Forest
o D.
Tropical Scrub Forest
o E.
Mossy Forest
o F.
Sub-marginal Forest
o G.
Mangrove Forest
o H.
Ever-green Forest
40.
All but one of the following are sub-categories of Forest Reserve.
o A.
Permanent Forest
o B.
Critical River Watershed
o C.
Mangrove Forest
o D.
Military and Civil Reservations
41.
Under RA 7586, these are identified portions of land and water, remarkable
areas, biogeographic zones, habitats of rare and endangered species- all set
aside by reason of their unique physical and biological significance, to be
managed to enhance biological diversity, and to be secured from destructive
human exploitation.
o A.
National Heritage Parks and Reservations
o B.
Resource Reserve
o C.
Ecological Zones
o D.
Protected Areas
42.
A 'watershed' is principally a source of
o A.
Timber for processing into lumber, shelter materials, paper
o B.
Charcoal for grill requirements of five-star restaurants
o C.
Food and prey for biodiverse species in rivers, streams
o D.
Water for humans, animals, plants, and other species

43.
Under RA 7586, poor communities occupying sections of forestland continuously
for at least 5 years prior to legal proclamations, who are dependent on the forest
for subsistence, are considered "tenured migrant communities" and are engaged
by government to undertake reforestation and upland management under this
specific program.
o A.
Agro-Forestry
o B.
Sloping Agricultural Land Technology
o C.
Integrated Social Forestry
o D.
Industrial Forestry
44.
Under Executive Order 23 dated February 1,2011 declaring "moratorium on the
cutting and harvesting of timber," which of the following is exempted from the
total log ban until the year 2016?
o A.
Concessions signed by DENR secretary
o B.
Conversion of mangrove forests
o C.
Selective or rotational harvesting in industrial and commercial plantations
o D.
Small-scale tree cutting, 'carabao logging,' and kaingin
45.
Under Executive Order 26 series of 2011 which declared the National Greening
Program as DA-DAR-DENR Convergence Initiative, how many tree seedlings
should each government employee plant each year, a requirement that also
applies to students identified by DEPED and CHED?
o A.
10
o B.
20
o C.
25
o D.
30
o E.
35
46.
Under RA 9175 Chainsaw Act of 2002, one of the following does not possess a
chainsaw in a legal manner.
o A.
Has a subsisting timber license agreement, production sharing agreement, or a

private land timber permit
o B.
Is duly elected official of upland barangay
o C.
Is an orchard and fruit tree farmer
o D.
Is a licensed wood processor who cuts only timber that has been legally sold
o E.
Is an industrial tree farmer
47.
This broad category refers to land deliberately kept undeveloped for its
contribution to the amenity value of the environment. It offers opportunities for
adventure recreation or passive leisure at low-cost, and at the same time, serves
as protection buffer around sensitive areas and hazardous installations.
o A.
Wilderness
o B.
Tourism & Recreation Zone
o C.
Rangeland
o D.
Open Space
48.
PD 705 Revised Forestry Code Section 16 affirms that, after a salvage zone of
40 meters from the hightide-mark or shoreline, there shall be protective strips of
mangroves or swamps along the coast with width of at least
o A.
20 meters
o B.
25 meters
o C.
30 meters
o D.
35 meters
o E.
40 meters
49.
Republic Act that provides for "conservation and protection of wildlife resources
and their habitats" is numbered as
o A.
RA 9147
o B.
RA 9714
o C.
RA 4791
o D.
RA147
50.
PD 1067 Water Code of 1976 Article 51 requires a three-meter easement from
the banks of creeks, canals, and esteros, in urban areas, but MMDA Resolution
3 s. 1996, has expanded the easement for Metro Manila areas adjoining water
bodies as measured from the banks of Pasig River, tributary streams and the
shoreline, to be at least
o A.
10 meters
o B.
20 meters
o C.
40 meters
o D.
5 meters
1.
Because of public need for salvage zone, how far should a residential property
be from the banks of rivers, streams and waterways in a rural farming area?
Discuss
o A.
5 meters
o B.
20 meters
o C.
40 meters
o D.
100 meters
2.
What would be the most suitable land use of geologic fault with buffer strip of at
least 5 m on both sides from the line?
o A.
Aqueduct or tunnel
o B.
Floodway
o C.
Venice-like canals
o D.
Open space or farm
o E.
Wildlife refuge
3.
What kind of use would be most compatible around a huge oil depot and Petrol-
LPG gas depository?
o A.
Transport terminals
o B.
Commercial
o C.
BPO call centers
o D.
Open space
o E.
Hospitals
4.
The following data help planners identify the appropriate industrial areas in an
LGU, except one.
Discuss
o A.
Indicated as Class A in SAFDZ/NPAAAD maps of the Bureau of Soils and Water

Management
o B.
Part of growth area or growth corridor as stated in the Medium-Term National

Development Plan
o C.
Among sites previously identified in 1970 NPFP national policy on industrial dispersal
& decentralization of development
o D.
already surveyed and positively evaluated by PEZA under RA 7916

5.
Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for heavy
industrial use?
o A.
Load-bearing capacity
o B.
Location
o C.
Slope
o D.
Soil characteristics
6.
Which of the following is not considered a criterion to select industrial estates in
the Philippines?
o A.
Presence of natural resources
o B.
Physical boundary
o C.
Availability of labor
o D.
Existing infrastructure and utilities
o E.
Logistics or efficient movement of goods and products
7.
This document serves as basis for adopting land use and physical planning-
related guidelines and standards to guide the formulation of long-term
framework plans and particularly city/municipal land use plans and zoning
ordinances.
o A.
Long-Term Philippine Investment Plan
o B.
Medium-Term Philippine Development Plan
o C.
National Framework for Physical Planning
o D.
Regional Physical Framework Plan
8.
In the National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030,
"Settlements","Production","Protection," and "Infrastructure" are discussed as
Discuss
o A.
Key Economic Functions of any Local Government Unit
o B.
Land Use Zones that exclude one another
o C.
Land Use Policy Areas whose functional relationships have to be fleshed out at the
local level
o D.
Primary Districts in urban design that have to be delineated in each town or city
9.
One goal of land use planning as stated in the 'National Framework for Physical
Planning 2001-2030' is the utilization of the country's land and water resources
in a manner that provides sufficient and affordable food products to all Filipinos
of the present and future generations through local production and/or
importation.
o A.
"Green Revolution"
o B.
"Agricultural Development"
o C.
"Food Security"
o D.
"Self-Sufficiency in Grains"
10.
'National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030' notes a shift from rural
resource-based environmental problems to urban-based man-made
environmental problems. Which of the following NFPP measures pertains
to development control and urban growth management (UGBs)?
o A.
Delineate land available for or restricted from settlement expansion
o B.
Identify and manage environmentally critical areas
o C.
Match land uses and densities with environmental capacities and service capacities of
infrastructure
o D.
Encourage appropriately planned mixed use developments, transit use,

pedestrianization and cultural/ historical preservation in large urban centers
11.
Which of the following is not a basic step in preparing a CLUP?
Discuss
o A.
Identify stakeholders and analyze the situation
o B.
Develop a detailed organizational management profile
o C.
Formulate goals and translate them into strategies
o D.
Anticipate economic trends and build scenarios
o E.
Identify the needed infrastructure and utilities
o F.
Involve participants in Goals Achievement Matrix
12.
Which of the following steps are common to both CLUP and Comprehensive
Development Plan?
o A.
Urban morphology and physiognomy
o B.
Data collection, problem analysis, sectoral forecasting, formulation of overall vision,

goals, objectives
o C.
Investment programming, zero-based budgeting, earmarking and appropriation
o D.
Community-based monitoring system, local government poverty monitoring system

13.
All of the following tools are relevant to land use planning but one is least used
in land use allocation?
o A.
Land Use Accounting
o B.
Scenario Analysis
o C.
Life Cycle Analysis
o D.
Spatial Modeling
14.
In Ernesto Serote's land use accounting, the following measures increase
overall land supply for planning, except one.
o A.
Reclamation of coastal area
o B.
Infill and densification
o C.
Urban renewal and redevelopment
o D.
NPAAAD
15.
In Ernesto Serote's method of estimating land supply, the following are deducted
from total, except one.
o A.
Environmentally critical areas
o B.
Grasslands and idle lands
o C.
High-risk geohazard zones
o D.
Military and civil reservations
16.
UN-FAO standards state that at least 5.7 hectares of aggregate urban land
(residential, commercial, industrial, etc) and 6 hectares of farmland need to be
reserved for every 1,000 population. How much urban land is needed for a town
of 22,000?
o A.
62.7 hectares
o B.
125.4 hectares
o C.
220 hectares
o D.
11.4 hectares
17.
UN-FAO standards state that at least 0.60 hectares should be devoted to
educational space (public and private) per thousand population. How much
combined area of schools is the minimum for a town of 40,000 people?
o A.
40 hectares
o B.
24 hectares
o C.
10 hectares
o D.
240 hectares
18.
HLURB standards state that at least 2.5 hectares of industrial land needs to be
reserved for every 1,000 population. How much total industrial land is needed for
an independent chartered city of 200,000 people?
o A.
200 hectares
o B.
400 hectares
o C.
500 hectares
o D.
2,500 hectares
19.
Like a mould needed to control shape, the spatial strategy in CLUP is the
creative physical arrangement of space- using activities used to influence the
shape, direction, and intensity of the built environment so as to preserve and
conserve the unbuilt environment.
Discuss
o A.
City Image
o B.
City Metaphor
o C.
Spatial Modeling
o D.
Urban Form
o E.
Urban Template
20.
According to Kevin Andrew Lynch (1961), a good 'urban design' is one where
residents and visitors can use a 'cognitive image' or 'mental map' of the city as
they navigate through the territory in the process of 'wayfinding. He identified
the elements of legibility of place as:
o A.
Circumferentials, arterials, radials, crossroads
o B.
Skyscrapers, skyways, multi-nodals, junctions
o C.
Arched gateways, waterfronts, boulevards, anci promenades
o D.
Paths, edges, nodes, districts, and landmarks
21.
Under the design elements of Kevin Lynch, 'Quiapo church' would be a
landmark while Divisoria would be termed as
o A.
Flea Market
o B.
Icon
o C.
District
o D.
Nodule
o E.
Transshipment
22.
Under Kevin Lynch's scheme (1961), what would best describe Rockwell Makati
and Ortigas Center?
o A.
Landmark
o B.
Cosmopolitan
o C.
District
o D.
Downtown
o E.
Estate
23.
What are the elements of 'urban form'?
o A.
Infill, densification, property conversion, retro-fitting
o B.
Vertical, horizontal, diagonal, curvilinear

o C.
Beauty, amenity, safety, convenience, functionality
o D.
Land use, transport network, layout, building types, density
24.
Which the following indicates good site planning?
o A.
Best orientation to sun, sea and wind
o B.
Congruence and compability with its surrounding
o C.
Proactive features to anticipate possibility of disaster
o D.
Maximized space
o E.
Efficient circulation
o F.
All of the choices
25.
'Smart Growth USA,' with its ten declared principles, deliberately combats
'amorphic sprawl' by means of
o A.
Mixed use zoning rather than conventional exclusionary zoning
o B.
Design of walkable, bikable, sociable, health-oriented settlements

o C.
Residential, commercial, institutional uses are integrated & clustered
o D.
Interconnected modes of transport
o E.
Compact development through infill in
o F.
All of the choices
26.
Which one is not an innovative element of 'Planned Unit Development'?
o A.
Cul de sac, horseshoe design, and motorcourt
o B.
Usable open space
o C.
Complementarity of building types
o D.
Preservation of significant natural land features
27.
This refers to the establishment of mini-forests or small nature parks, lining
roads and highways with trees, shrubs, or ornamental plants, and ground
landscaping of schools, hospitals, and other government agencies in order
to improve the environment in built-up areas.
o A.
Reforestation
o B.
Miniature Forestry
o C.
Urban Forestry
o D.
Silvicuture
o E.
Agro-forestry
28.
This spatial strategy deliberately directs growth towards major roadways that
emanate from a center like rays of a star
o A.
Radial/axial/sectoral
o B.
Central & nodal
o C.
Multi-centric & poly-nodal
o D.
Concentric
o E.
Bi-polar & tri-polar
29.
A 'tri-polar' or 'bi-polar' form in municipal CLUP would focus on comprehensively
developing new sections as magnets or complete attractions for population and
business, inorder to ease pressure on traditional center, and is an example of
o A.
Simple Dispersion
o B.
Concentrated Dispersion
o C.
Simple Concentration
o D.
Compact Development
30.
Which of the following urban street layout creates the most severe transport
congestion?
o A.
Grid-iron or rectilinear
o B.
Circumferential & radial
o C.
Uni-linear or strip development
o D.
Irregular free pattern
31.
What are the tools or levers of authority of city/town Local Government Units to
implement their local plans?
o A.
Clearance, non-conformance, variance, exemptions, licenses, and permits
o B.
Condemnation, legal expropriation, seizure, confiscation, closure and takeover of

property
o C.
Zoning and regulation, subdivision controls, taxation, public investment, incentives to
private investment
o D.
Levies, duties, charges, tolls, and tariffs
32.
Under Philippine zoning codes, a family-run commercial-scale piggery with more
than 10 heads of swine should be properly located in
o A.
General residential zone (R-1)
o B.
Slaughterhouse and abbatoir zone
o C.
Agro-industrial zone
o D.
Rangeland and pastureland
33.
Under Philippine zoning codes, a mixed-use seven-storey structure with
residential condominiums, offices, gyms, shops and boutiques should be
properly located in -
o A.
General residential zone R-1
o B.
Commercial zone C-3
o C.
Tourism recreational zone
o D.
Special economic zone
34.
An area within an LGU where the average density is 35 dwelling units per
hectare or below. with majority of lot sizes between 120 to 800 square meters or
more, is zoned as
o A.
R-1
o B.
R-2
o C.
R-3
o D.
R-4
o E.
Mixed Use Zone
35.
An area in certain cities with regional shopping centers, huge consumer malls,
sports stadiums, high-rise hotels, office towers, is zoned as
o A.
C-1
o B.
C-2
o C.
C-3
o D.
Tourism zone
o E.
Financial District
36.
What color is used to represent industrial areas in zoning map?
o A.
Black
o B.
Gray
o C.
Violet
o D.
Yellow
37.
What color is used to represent institutional areas in zoning map?
o A.
Brown
o B.
Beige
o C.
Blue
o D.
Maroon
38.
What color is used to represent tourism areas in zoning map?
o A.
Orange
o B.
Red
o C.
Purple
o D.
Fuchsia
39.
An example of positive easement is one that
o A.
Preserves a certain habitat
o B.
Protects a certain stream
o C.
Allows the right to harvest a natural crop
o D.
Stipulates not to drain a wetland
40.
Exemptions, special permissions, and relief from provisions of land use and
zoning ordinance are obtained from
o A.
Office of the Mayor/ Local Chief Executive
o B.
Planning Commission or Planning & Dev't Office

o C.
Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments
o D.
Office of the Vice Mayor as head of Sanggunian
41.
A type of land use control where there may be no possibility of the application of
the 'right of reverter' is called
o A.
Restrictive covenants
o B.
Telluric
o C.
Deed of sale
o D.
Monolithic
42.
The total area of permitted building space expressed as a proportion of the total
site is known as:
o A.
Gross Leasable Area
o B.
Buildable Site Formula
o C.
Floor Area Ratio
o D.
Location Quotient
43.
When a proponent of a proposed project applies for 'locational clearance,' which
consideration is first and foremost from the perspective of the approving
authority?
o A.
Community disruption, relocation and the required land acquisition
o B.
Consistency with local land use plan and with zoning map
o C.
Likely impacts on town traffic and local parking
o D.
Carbon Footprint from the use of fossil fuels in power generation, company bus
shuttles, executives' luxury cars
o E.
Amount of tax and non-tax revenues to be received by the Local Government Unit
o F.
Consumption of power, water, and other utilities
44.
A mixed-use building has 6 storeys of 1,000 sq.m each, on a lot area of 2,000
sq.m. What is the FAR?
o A.
2:1
o B.
3:1
o C.
4:1
o D.
5:1
o E.
6:1
45.
Floor Area Ratio of 1.5 and below is considered as low density. What FAR is
labeled as 'very high density'?
o A.
2 and above
o B.
3 and above
o C.
4 and above
o D.
5 and above
46.
This refers to a kind of ad-hoc or arbitrary zoning that allows a small piece of
land to deviate from the district or zone regulations for reasons not found in the
officially-approved CLUP.
o A.
Flexible zoning
o B.
Mixed use zoning
o C.
Euclidean zoning
o D.
Spot zoning
o E.
Optional zoning
47.
A device usually given at the enactment of Zoning Ordinance which grants
property owner relief from certain provisions of ordinance because the
application of the same would result in a particular hardship to the owner.
Discuss
o A.
Exceptionality
o B.
Certificate of Non-Conformance
o C.
Quasi-judicial relief
o D.
Variance
48.
If there are 12 signatures needed to approve construction of a building and 32
signatures needed to thoroughly develop a parcel of non-agricultural land,
whose signature is needed for the issuance of a development permit?
o A.
Planning Consultant
o B.
Real Estate Broker
o C.
Natural Scientist
o D.
Head Local Planner
o E.
Legislator-Sponsor
49.
What document makes possible that funds for priority projects enumerated in
LDIP are budgeted and re:eased yearly?
o A.
Special Allotment Release Order (SARO)
o B.
Notice of Cash Availability (NCA)
o C.
Annual Investment Plan
o D.
PBBS
o E.
Memorandum of Undertaking
o F.
Program of Work and Expenditure Plan
50.
Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal
issuances. Under AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to
other uses, while RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 20 limits it to
o A.
15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized and independent chartered cities
o B.
20% of total arable land in any LGU
o C.
10% of total cultivable land in any city
o D.
25% of total alienable and disposable land
Ep Quiz No.6
The counterpart of Geddes in the University States is Lewis Mumford. Hisstreatise is

. 1.
entitled:
o A.
Culture and Cities
o B.
Cities and Culture
o C.
The Cities of Culture
o D.
The Culture of the Cities
2.
The advocates of the systems view planning does not include one of
thefollowing:
o A.
G. Wilson
o B.
George Chadwick
o C.
J.B. McLoughlin
o D.
Stuart Chapin
o E.
Andreas Faludi
3.
What does reviews Comprehensive Land Use Plans (CLUPs) of
componentcities and municipalities?
o A.
RLUC
o B.
PLUC
o C.
HLURB
o D.
None of the choices
o E.
All of the choices except none
4.
What body ratifies CLUPs of highly urbanized cities?
o A.
RLUC
o B.
PLUC
o C.
HLURB
o D.
None of the choices
o E.
5.
What body reviews CLUPs of independent component cities?
o A.
RLUC
o B.
PLUC
o C.
HLURB
o D.
None of the choices
o E.
6.
What Body ratifies CLUPs of Metro Manila Cities and Municipalities?
o A.
RLUC
o B.
PLUC
o C.
HLURB
o D.
None of the choices
o E.
7.
What body reviews CLUPs of provinces?
o A.
RLUC
o B.
PLUC
o C.
HLURB
o D.
None of the choices
o E.
8.
A comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) must meet the following criteria:
o A.
Technical feasibility
o B.
Socio-economical and financial possibility

o C.
Political viability
o D.
Administrative operability
o E.
All of the choices
9.
Choose the relevant criteria for he best strategic option
o A.
Sustainability
o B.
Feasibility
o C.
Desirability
o D.
Critical and urgent
o E.
None of the choices
o F.
10.
What are the techniques relevant to land use planning?
o A.
Sieve Mapping
o B.
Area Ecological Profiling
o C.
Land Use Accounting
o D.
Critical and urgent
o E.
None of the choices
o F.
11.
What technique is useful for determining strategies?
o A.
Situational analysis
o B.
SWOT analysis
o C.
Land use survey
o D.
Critical and urgent
o E.
None of the choices
o F.

12.
What are the legal basis for the states regulation of land use?
o A.
Police power
o B.
Laws against nuisance and pollution
o C.
The policy that property has social function
o D.
The rule that a person must not do wrong to another person
13.
What kind of project requires an environmental compliance certificate?
o A.
Environmentally critical projects
o B.
Projects in environmentally critical areas
o C.
o D.
None of the choices
14.
Where can we find the highest level policy statements on
environmentalprotection?
o A.
Constitution
o B.
PD 1151
o C.
o D.
None of the Choices
15.
What projects require an environmental impact statement (EIS)
o A.
Environmentally critical projects
o B.
Projects in environmentally critical areas
o C.
Gold courses, major roads and bridges, infrastructure
o D.
o E.
None of he choices
16.
What law lays down the mandates and functions of the Housing and Land
UseRegulatory Board?
o A.
EO 949
o B.
EO 90
o C.
PD 933
o D.
PD 957
17.
A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting land use is:
o A.
o B.
Zoning Ordinance
o C.
Cadastral Survey
o D.
Tax Declaration
18.
A special locational clearance which grants a property owner relief from
certainprovisions of the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular
physicalsurrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the property,
compliance withheight, area, bulk, setback and/or density would result in
particular hardshipupon the owner is called:
o A.
Certified of Non-Conformance
o B.
Exception
o C.
Variance
o D.
None of the choieces
19.
A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of aZoning
ordinance where, because of the specific use would result n a particularhardship
to the owner.
o A.
Variance
o B.
Certificate of Non- Conformance
o C.
Exception
o D.
Development
20.
This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion
andother built-up areas including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said
areasand whereat least 50% of the population area engaged in non-
agriculturalactivities:
o A.
Central business district
o B.
Urban area
o C.
City center
o D.
Suburban area
21.
The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest orplanning
groups for the purpose of systemizing, harmonizing and facilitatingoperations is
called:
o A.
Public hearing
o B.
Consultation
o C.
Coordination
o D.
Scooping
22.
The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may not be
followedis called.
o A.
Consultation
o B.
Coordination
o C.
Public hearing
o D.
Citizen participation
23.
This document is a series of written statements accompanied by
maps,illustrations and diagrams which describes what the community wants
tobecome and how it wants to develop. It is essentially composed of
communitygoals, objectives, policies, programs and physical development plan
whichtranslates the various sectoral plan:
o A.
Land Use Plan
o B.
Action Plan
o C.
Strategic Plan
o D.
Development Plan
24.
The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support
policiesof Government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is:
o A.
NEDA
o B.
DAR
o C.
HLURB
o D.
DPWH
25.
What is zoning?
o A.
It is the designation of species areas of a community as functional land uses of land
may be allowed or regulated on accordance with the development plan.
o B.
It is a tool to implement the development plan
o C.
It is a means of redistributing land acquisition and disposition
o D.
None of the choices
26.
What are the tools for plan implementation?
o A.
Zoning ordinance, taxation and eminent domain
o B.
Zoning, subdivision and building ordinance
o C.
Zoning ordinance, local investment
o D.
Urban land reform
27.
What higher level plans guides Local Government Units (LGUs) in preparingtheir
own comprehensive land use plans (CLUPs)?
o A.
National Physical Framework Plans and Medium-Term Development Plans
o B.
Regional Physical Framework Plans and Regional Development Plans

o C.
Provincial Physical Framework and Provincial Development Plans
o D.
o E.
None of the choices
28.
What is the highest planning body at the regional level?
o A.
NEDA
o B.
The Regional Development Council
o C.
HLURB
o D.
None of the choices
o E.
29.
The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-
sectoraldevelopment plains initiated by their development councils and
approved bytheir Sanggunian is:
o A.
PD 399
o B.
Executive Order No.72
o C.
RA 7160
o D.
PD 1517
30.
The new law regulating the practice of environmental planning is:
o A.
RA 10587
o B.
PD 1517
o C.
PD 957
o D.
None of the above
31.
The law proclaiming certain areas and types of projects as
environmentallycritical and within the scope of the EIS system:
o A.
PD 1586
o B.
Proclamation No. 2146
o C.
PD 1152
o D.
DAO 96-37
32.
Reclassification of the land highly in urbanized areas, after conducting
publichearings for the purpose, shall be limited to:
o A.
10%
o B.
15%
o C.
20%
o D.
25%
33.
Under the Local Government Code, reclassification of agricultural land
incomponent cities and to first to third class municipalities shall be limited to:
o A.
10%
o B.
15%
o C.
20%
o D.
5%
34.
The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and inspection
ofeducational institutions offering courses in environment planning is
theresponsibility of the :
o A.
Commission on Higher Education
o B.
Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners
o C.
Board of Environmental Planning
o D.
School of Urban and Regional Planning
35.
A consulting firm, partnership, company, corporation, or association mayengage
on the practice of environmental planning in the Philippines, providedthat:
o A.
At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the entity shall be registered
environmental planners
o B.
At least 70% of the total capitalization of the entity is owned by registered

environmental planners
o C.
At least 70% of the entire membership of the Board is composed of ENPs and 75% of
the capitalization is owned by them
o D.
At least 75% of the entire membership and 75% of the capitalization is owned by
registered environmental planners
36.
Ancestral domains refer to areas that:
o A.
Belong to ICCs/iPPs compromising lands. Inland waters, coastal areas and natural
resources therein
o B.
Bare within protected areas which have actually been occupied by communities for 5
years before the designation of the same as protected areas in accordance with the
NIPAS Act.
o C.
Are set aside to allow the way of life of societies living in harmony with the
environment adapt to modern technology at their pace
o D.
Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited, are normally with difficult
access.
37.
This law provides for the establishment and management of National
IntegratedProtection Areas System:
o A.
RA 8371
o B.
RA 7586
o C.
RA 7279
o D.
None of the above
38.
RA 8435 or the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act (AFMA) of
1997strives to provide full and adequate support to the sustainable development
of ahighlt modernized agriculture and fishery industry in the Philippines.
UnderAFMA, one of the following has been d-prioritized
o A.
Identification and establishment of model farm
o B.
On-farm production enhancement technologies
o C.
Small-scale irrigation systems
o D.
Research, development and training facilities
39.
Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture and Agro-
IndustrialDevelopment (NPAAAD), it provides the physical basis for the proper
planningof sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in the
identification of24 suitable crops, livestock for local and international markets
without creatingirreversible environmental and human health problems.
o A.
The watershed areas
o B.
o C.
Integrated Area Development
o D.
Strategic Agriculture and Fishery Development Zone
40.
Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceiling under various
legalissuances, e.g. Local Government Code. Under the AFMA, only 5% of
theSAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while the LGC limits to:
o A.
15% of total arable lands on chartered cities and 1st class Municipalities
o B.
10% of total arable lands in any town
o C.
5% of total arable land in any city
o D.
All of the above
41.
The 1987 Constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain onti
fourcategories. Name pf the one that is not among four
o A.
Agricultural land
o B.
Mineral land
o C.
National park
o D.
Ancestral domain
o E.
Forest land
42.
Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local government units,
theNational Government transfers these funds to LGUs for their
administrative,public order and safety operations
o A.
Internal Revenue Allotments

o B.
Budgetary Allocation
o C.
Local Development Allotment
o D.
LGU Budgetary Allotment
43.
As provided for in the Water Code and the HLURB zoning guidelines,
therequired easement in urban areas from the banks of rivers/streams, seas
andlakes is:
o A.
3 meters
o B.
20 meters
o C.
40 meters
o D.
100 meters
44.
Variances and exemptions from the land use plan/zoning map are secured
fromthe:
o A.
Zoning Administrator/Officer
o B.
Municipal Mayor
o C.
Municipal Planning and Development Coordinator (MPDC)
o D.
Local Zoning Board of Adjustments and Appeals (LZBAA)
45.
A kind of ad-hoc zoning that allows a small piece of land to deviate from
theapproved zone of the area for certain reason is called:
o A.
Spot zoning
o B.
Flexible zoning
o C.
Euclidean zoning
o D.
Large lot zoning
46.
Any amendment to the provisions of the zoning ordinance for component
citiesand municipalities can only take effect approval and authentication by the:
o A.
Sangguniang Panlalawigan
o B.
HLURB
o C.
Local Zoning Review Committee
o D.
Local Zoning Board of Adjustment and Appeals (LZBAA)

47.
Alarm over increasing world population may be traced to Thomas Malthustheory
that states
o A.
Population grows geometrically while food supply grows arithmetically
o B.
Population grows arithmetically while food supply grows geometrically
o C.
Population and food grows geometrically
o D.
Population and food grows arithmetically
48.
Many industries want to locate near urban cities because they want to be
o A.
Close to large market
o B.
Close to a major transportation hub
o C.
Avail of urban services and facilities
o D.
All of the choices
49.
In general, an Economic Base ration or Economic Base Multiplier expressed
interms of employment indicates:
o A.
A total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs created in
an industry
o B.
The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of number of jobs created in
the entire country
o C.
The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs created in
the entire region
o D.
The total number of jobs created in a set of industries as a result of a number of jobs
created in an industry.
50.
Traditional location theory analyzes the location of industries by considering
o A.
The cost of marketing and advertising
o B.
Labor wages
o C.
The cost of transporting raw materials to the factory and finished goods to the market
o D.
The costs of transporting consumers to market centers
HIDDEN EP- 8
1.
The slope range that is prescribed as production land use is
A.
0-18%
B.
Above 50%
C.
16-50%
D.
0-8%
E.
None of the choices
2.
The elevation reserved for protection land use is
A.
Above 500
B.
Above 100
C.
Above 2,000
D.
Above 1,000 mtrs.
E.
None of the choices
3.
Under the 1998 Evolutionary Soil Classification System, the classification leveldepicted in the Bureau of
Soils and Water Management is the
A.
Soil order
B.
Soil type
C.
Soil great group
D.
Soil series
E.
None of the choices
4.
A Philippine climatic type characterized by rainfall evenly distributed throughoutthe years refers to:
A.
Type III
B.
Type II
C.
Type IV
D.
Type I
E.
None of the choices
5.
The Philippine forest type that is adapted to growing in steep slopes and inplaces with a distinct wet and
dry season is the
A.
Pine/saleng
B.
Diptrocarp
C.
Molave/molawin
D.
Mangrove
E.
None of the choices
6.
The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoraldevelopment plan initiated by
their development councils and approved by theirSanggunians is:
A.
PD 399
B.
Executive Order No. 72
C.
RA 7160
D.
PD 1517
E.
None of the choices
7.
The law regulating the practice of environmental planning is
A.
PD 1308
B.
PD 1517
C.
PD 957
D.
None of the choices
E.
PD1096
8.
The Law proclaiming of land certain areas and types of projects asenvironmentally critical and within the
scope of the EIS system
A.
PD 1586
B.
Proclamation No. 2146
C.
PD 1152
D.
DAO 96-37
E.
None of the choices
9.
Reclassification of land in highly urbanized areas, after conducting publichearing for the purpose, shall
be limited to
A.
10%
B.
15%
C.
20%
D.
25%
E.
None of the choices
10.
A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting the land use is
A.
B.
Zoning Ordinance
C.
Cadastral Survey
D.
Tax Declaration
E.
None of the choices
11.
A special locational clearance which grants a property owners relief from certainprovisions of the zoning
ordinance where, because of the particular physicalsurrounding, shape or topographical conditions of
the property, compliance withheight, area bulk, setback and/or density would result in a particular
hardship to theowner
A.
B.
Exception
C.
Variance
D.
None of the choices
E.
Zoning Clearance
12.
A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of aZoning ordinance where,
because of the specific use would result in a particularhardship to the owner
A.
Variance
B.
C.
Exception
D.
Development
E.
None of the choices
13.
This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion andother built-up areas
including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areasand whereat least 50% of the population
area engaged in non-agriculturalactivities:
A.
Central business district
B.
Urban area
C.
City center
D.
Suburban area
E.
None of the choices
14.
Cities with a minimum population of 200,000 inhabitants as certified by theNational Statistics Office and
with latest annual income of at least P 50,000,000based on 1996 constant prices as certified by the City
Treasurer are called
A.
Independent Component Cities
B.
Regional Centers
C.
D.
Component Cities
E.
None of the choices
15.
Urbanization began around 4,000 B.C. in the area known as the
A.
Fertile Crescent
B.
Mediterranean
C.
Babylon
D.
Asia
E.
None of the choices
16.
The primary factor/s in the location of cities during the Bronze Age along theIndus Valley is/are:
A.
Transport
B.
Agriculture
C.
Defense
D.
None of the choices
E.
17.
He developed the first theoretical basis for physical planning
A.
Hippodamus
B.
Nicodemus
C.
Nostradamus
D.
Aristotle
E.
None of the choices
18.
They understood the importance of transportation and thus emerges as the firstregional planners of the
world.
A.
Greeks
B.
Romans
C.
Sumerians
D.
Egyptians
E.
None of the choices
19.
It was during this period that the concept of urban design was established
A.
Renaissance
B.
Bronze Age
C.
Medieval Period
D.
Atomic Age
E.
None of the choices
20.
The Garden City as a solution to urban planning problems
A.
Malthus
B.
Ebenezer Howard
C.
Nicodemus
D.
Adam Smith
E.
None of the choices
21.
He theorized that physical planning could not improved urban living conditionsunless it was integrated
with social and economic planning in a context odenvironmental concerns.
A.
William Penn
B.
Patrick Geddes
C.
Peirre L Enfant
D.
None of the Choices
E.
Allan Carreon
22.
The Architect Planner who designed Luneta, Tagaytay and Baguio
A.
Burnham
B.
Concio
C.
Faithful
D.
None of the choices
E.
Lynch
23.
Rectangular streets are examples of the
A.
Grid Iron Pattern
B.
Axial
C.
Radial
D.
Ribbon-Type
E.
None of the choices
24.
What was the most important factor in designing settlement patterns during theSpanish Period in the
Philippines?
A.
Plaza
B.
Economy
C.
Transportation
D.
Religion
E.
None of the choices
25.
Aside from volume and growth, what is the other key point that a tourism analystshould consider in
analyzing tourist arrivals?
A.
Qualitative changes in tourist arrivals
B.
Socio-cultural changes
C.
Political changes
D.
None of the choices

E.
Tourist Comfort
26.
The tourist market can be classified into business, mass holiday, and _____markets.
A.
Eco-tourism
B.
Historical
C.
Location specific natural and cultural
D.
None of the choices
E.
Global
27.
Tourist may create the type of employment opportunities in the area. These aredirect, indirect and ____
jobs.
A.
Multiplier
B.
Induced
C.
Locational
D.
Service
E.
None of the choices
28.
The four in typical economic cycle are recession ______, recovery and boom.
A.
Slump
B.
Deflation
C.
Inflation
D.
Sustainable growth
E.
None of the choices
29.
In formulating its industrial program, the government should consider equity,technical efficiency and
______
A.
Allocative efficiency
B.
Comparative advantages
C.
Resource collection
D.
Availability of skilled labor
E.
None of the choices

30.
Under RA 9003, LGUs are required to divert at least 25% of their solid wastesfrom existing disposal
facilities within a period of:
A.
10 years
B.
2 years
C.
5 years
D.
1 year
E.
None of the choices
31.
At the national level, RA 9003 mandates the creation of National Solid WasteManagement Commission
under the office of:
A.
President
B.
DENR
C.
DILG
D.
NEDA
E.
None of the choices

32.
Republic Act 9003, otherwise known as the National Ecological Solid WasteManagement Program seeks
to:
A.
Promote public health and environment protection
B.
Encourage greater private sector participation while retaining the primary enforcement and
responsibility with the LGUs
C.
Mandates all LGUs to divert at least 25% of all solid wastes from disposal facilities through reuse,
recycling, composting and other resource recovery activities
D.
E.
None of the choices
33.
The National Solid Waste Management Framework shall be formulated andshall include the following:
A.
Analysis and evaluate of the current state, trends, projections of solid waste management on the
national, provincial, ad municipal levels
B.
Characteristics and conditions of collection, storage, processing, disposal, operating methods,

techniques and practices are conducted, taking into account the nature of the waste
C.
D.
None of the choices

34.
It refers to the discipline associated with the control of generations, storage,collection, transfer and
transport, processing and disposal of solid wastes in amanner that is in accord with the best principles of
public health, economies,engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and other environmental considerations
andwhich is also responsive to public attitudes
A.
Environmental Impact Assessment
B.
Development Planning
C.
Waste Segregation
D.
Solid Waste Management
E.
None of the choices
35.
The Local Government Solid Management Plan shall include, but not limited tothe following
components:
A.
City or Municipal profile
B.
Waste characterization
C.
Collection and transfer
D.
Source reduction
E.
All of the choices
36.
Article 2, Sec 21 of RA9003 provides for the mandatory segregation of solidwastes. Specifically, the LGUs
shall promulgate regulations, requiring the owneror person in charge of premises
containing:______________to provide for the residents a designated area and containers in which
toaccumulate source separated recyclable materials to be collected by the municipal orprivate center.
A.
Five residential units
B.
Six residential units
C.
Six or more residential units
D.
At least ten residential units
E.
None of the choices
37.
The following are the minimum criteria siting of sanitary land fills
A.
The site selected must be consistent with the overall land use plan of the LGU
B.
The site must be accessible from major roadways or thoroughfares
C.
The site should have adequate quantity of earth cover material that is easily handled and compacted
D.
All of the Choices except none
E.
None of the choices
38.
Guidelines for identification of common solid waste management problems andare appropriate for
clustered solid waste management services shall be based onthe following:
A.
Available means of cording local government planning between and among LGUs and for the integrated
of such with the national plan
B.
Size and location of areas which should be included
C.
Volume of solid waste which should be generated
D.
Possible life span of the disposal facilities
E.
All of the choices
39.
The LGU shall impose fees in amounts sufficient to pay the cost preparing,Adopting, and implementing a
solid waste management plan. Such fees shall bebased on the following minimum factors:
A.
Type of solid waste
B.
Amount/volume of solid waste
C.
Distance of transfer station to the waste management facility
D.
E.
None of the choices
40.
Areas with high biodiversity value which shall be closed to all human activityexcept for scientific studies
and/or ceremonial or religious use by indigenouscommunities
A.
Restoration Zone
B.
Habitat Management Zone
C.
Bypass Zone
D.
Strict Protection Zone
E.
None of the choices
41.
Each establishment protected area shall be administered by:
A.
Office of the Mayor
B.
Sanggunian Bayan
C.
Planning Officer
D.
Protected Area Management Board
E.
None of the choices

42.
This is an organizational process for determining systematically and objectivelythe relevance, efficiency,
effectiveness and impact of activities in the light of theirobjectives
A.
Planning
B.
Project Identification
C.
Resource Generation
D.
Evaluation
E.
None of the choices
43.
This is undertaken at full development, i.e. some years after project completionwhen full project
benefits and impact are expected to have been realized.
A.
Terminal Evaluation
B.
On-going Evaluation
C.
Ex-post Evaluation
D.
Pre-Evaluation
44.
The Monitoring & Evaluation (M&E) strategy should carefully examine

A.
The contents, i.e. the date and indicators used
B.
The format
C.
The frequency of existing reports
D.
All of the choices
E.
None of the choices
45.
A project with negative Net Present Value(NPV) means;
A.
Benefit cost ration is higher that 1
B.
Present value of benefits is higher than present value of roots
C.
IRR is higher than prevailing interest rate
D.
Discount rate used is higher that IRR
E.
None of the choices
46.
When projecting market demand for a project, which of the followingcombination of techniques is not
advisable:
A.
Survey/planning standards
B.
Market testing/time series analysis
C.
Experts opinion/census
D.
Statistical demand analysis/time series analysis
E.
None of the choices
47.
This indicate the number of years it would take to recoup the investments in heproject
A.
Payback Period
B.
Retention Period
C.
Return on Investment
D.
Profit Margin
E.
None of the choices
48.
Money is more valuable now that tomorrow not because of
A.
Uncertainty of risk
B.
Income opportunities now
C.
Better prospects in the future
D.
Present consumption
E.
None of the choices
49.
Millenium Development Goals (2000-2015) except:
A.
Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
B.
Promote gender equality and empower women
C.
Reduce Child mortality
D.
Minimize Government Corruption
E.
Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and other diseases
50. As per RA7279 of 1992,the acquisition of land at values based on existing use inadvance of actual
need to promote planned development and socialized housing programs is called
A. Land banking
B. Land assembly or consolidation
C. Land swapping
D. Land promotion

1.
Under RA 7160 Sec. 107, who should prepare the multi-sectoral development plan at the village level?
A.
Sangguniang Barangay
B.
Lupong Tagapamayapa ng Pook
C.
Federation of Village Neighborhood and Homeowners Associations
D.
Barangay Development Council
2.
This principle encourages shared responsibility between government and the private sector in
infrastructure development and management through joint venture schemes such as BOT, BTO, BLT,
BOO, and the like.
A.
GO-NGO Cooptation
B.
Rapprochement
C.
Detente
D.
Public-Private Partnership
E.
State & Non-State Collaboration
3.
A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent undertakes the financing of construction of a
given infrastructure or development facility and after its completion turns it over to the government
agency or local government unit concerned, which shall pay the proponent on an agreed schedule its
total investments expended on the project, plus a reasonable rate of return thereon.
A.
Build and transfer
B.
Build, own and operate
C.
Build, transfer and operate
D.
Develop, operate and transfer
4.
A part of BOT, it is a contractual arrangement whereby the supplier of equipment and machinery for a
given infrastructure facility, if the interest of the Government so requires, operates the facility providing
in the process technology transfer and training to Filipino nationals .
A.
Purchase and activate
B.
Supply and operate
C.
Canvass, Procure and Install
D.
PBAC - prequalify, bid-out and award
5.
As per RA 7718 BOT Law, a Build-Operate-Transfer undertaking at the local level with value between
PhP 200M- 300M has to be approved by what government body?
A.
Local Development Council
B.
Regional Development Council
C.
Cabinet Committee or Cabinet Cluster
D.
Investment Coordination Committee
6.
As in the case of the ZTE-National Broadband Network deal, when a joint venture or negotiated contract
at the national level exceeds the value of PhP 300M, the approving government body is
A.
Cabinet of the President
B.
Council of State
C.
Investment Coordination Committee
D.
NEDA Board
7.
It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a project or
undertaking and then designing appropriate preventive, protective, mitigating, and enhancement
measures.
A.
Environmental Risk Assessment
B.
C.
Environmental Accounting and Audit
D.
Strategic Environmental Assessment
8.
Which environment assessment methodology addresses long-term frameworks, policies, and regulatory
regimes more substantively than project impacts and activity outcomes?
A.
B.
C.
Environmental Accounting and Audit
D.
9.
The use of a set of scientific methods to define the probability and magnitude of potentially adverse
effects which can result from exposure to toxic and hazardous materials, compounds, and substances is
called
A.
Chemical Containment and Control
B.
Toxic Prevention Protocol
C.
D.
10.
What are the basic elements of an EIA study?
A.
Market Aspect, Technical Aspect, Social Aspect, Financial Aspect, Economic Aspect, and Institutional
Aspect
B.
Problem, Objectives, Review of Lit, Conceptual Framework, Methods, Analysis of Data, Conclusions,
Recommendations
C.
Location & Area, Characteristics of Project Undertaking, Magnitude of Impact, Spatial Extant. Duration,
and Complexity
D.
Baseline Data, Mid-stream Data, Operational Conditions, Control Interventions, Post Implementation
11.
Which of the following is most useful in an EIA study?
A.
Performance standards
B.
'LOS' or 'accommodation' standards
C.
Design standards
D.
Convenience standards
12.
RA 8749 Clean Air Act, Sec. 20, generally bans burning which results in poisonous and and toxic fumes,
but with a few exceptions. What agency oversees cremation and incineration of pathological, biological,
contagious wastes?
A.
Bureau of Fire Protection
B.
Department of Interior and Local Government
C.
Philippine Hospitals Association
D.
Department of Health
13.
According to RA 9367 Renewable Energy Act of 2006, what are the 'additives' to gasoline that are
harmful to both people and nature?
A.
Methyl tertiary butyl ether
B.
Isooctane and heptane
C.
Molybdenum oxide
D.
tetraethyl
14.
Which category of industries tend to be generally 'non-pollutive and non-hazardous'?
A.
Transient and fleeting
B.
Light
C.
Cyber-spatial
D.
Medium
E.
Heavy
15.
The following are generally non-pollutive and non-hazardous except one.
A.
Manufacture of bread, pastries, cakes, donuts, biscuits, hopia, and noodles
B.
Assembly and repair of personal computers, home electronic devices, appliances, and appurtenances
C.
Manufacture of paints, paint removers, solvents, lacquers, varnishes, shellac, coating materials
D.
Manufacture of small leather goods such as handbags, luggage, wallets, belts, shoes, and sandals
E.
Publishing and printing of school books, pamphlets, flyers, receipts, greeting cards, social
communications
16.
All of these projects, except one, need not submit Project Description, or Environmental Impact
Statement but need only to comply with registration and documentary requirements of city, town or
barangay.
Discuss
A.
Municipal waterworks system
B.
Sari-sari or neighborhood variety store
C.
Backyard fowl-raising of less than 10 heads
D.
Private-practice office in home garage with 5 employees
17.
These projects need not submit an Environmental Impact Statement but one has to submit a simple
Project Description.
A.
An urban grocery store of around 2,500 sq.m. total area
B.
Cluster of stalls selling goto, lugaw, arrozcaldo, and pares in historic lntramuros, Manila
C.
Palay marketing warehouse of Samahang Nayon or rural farmers' cooperative
D.
Home-based aquaculture using drums, metal tanks, and concrete ponds
18.
What are the proper sections of a Project Description for projects seeking Certificate of Non-Coverage?
A.
Proponent, Goals, Key Result Areas, Project Mechanics, Resources Needed, Loans to be contracted,
Expected ROI
B.
Rationale, Location & Area, Development Plan & Phases, Alternatives, Manpower Requirements, Cost,
Duration & Schedule
C.
Description of Land, Capital, Machines, Materials, Manpower, Management. and Marketing
D.
Objectives, Scope, Methodology, Program of Work, Resource Requirements, Participating Entitites
19.
Except one, the following are considered environmentally-critical areas where all major projects are
subject to IEE
A.
Tubattaha Reef
B.
Chocolate Hills
C.
Mount Banahaw
D.
Tawi-tawi Seaweed Farms
20.
Which of these projects should be subjected to Initial Environmental Examination (IEE) by DEN R's
regional field units?
A.
30 sq.m. DOST field instruments station on the slopes of Mount Apo national park
B.
5,000 sq.m. viewdeck for tourists and watchers of migratory birds in Candaba swamps, Pampanga
C.
Six-classroom extension of an existing public elementary school
D.
Beach house measuring 400 sq.m near world-famous Pagudpud, Ilocos Norte
21.
The following are all examples of environmentally-critical projects (ECPs) except one:
A.
Laiban Dam, Kaliwa River, Tanay, Rizal
B.
Ring Dike - Circumferential around Laguna de Bay
C.
Petrol Refineries & Oil Depots in Batangas City
D.
Perimeter work on centuries-old Plazu Miranda
22.
Which of these projects should submit a full-blown Environmental Impact Statement?
A.
Tree planting on urban parks by 6,000 students
B.
High-end residential subdivision of more than 10 hectares with additional area for golf course
C.
Rain-fed farming of around 50 hectares
D.
Hydroponic and aeroponic farming inside greenhouse tents and cages
23.
Which project in a declared tribal land does not require a full-blown Environmental Impact Assessment?
A.
Mining
B.
Dam for reservoir & hydroelectric power
C.
Sericulture & vermi-composting
D.
National highway
24.
Which of the following conditions requires the most serious consideration in the EIA of a major Sanitary
Landfill for any city or urban LGU?
A.
Around 20 kilometers from the city
B.
Has an in-take capacity of 6 years only
C.
About 100 meters from a river used for water supply
D.
About 1000 meters from an active geologic fault line
25.
Which would not be a priority for EIA investigation of a proposed limestone quarrying-cement
production complex?
A.
Environmental Justice, impacts on sensitive communities, critical habitats, heritage sites, and
endangered species
B.
Management of water quality, air quality, noise, traffic, common industrial wastes, and toxic/hazardous
wastes
C.
Consumption of electricity, water, and other utilities
D.
Company policies on 'hiring and firing' and management training
26.
Which of the following is the best example of 'environmental remediation'?
Discuss
A.
A species of trout becomes extinct in a eutrophic lake.
B.
The annual volume of sewage flowing into a stream is decreased by one half.
C.
The height of a factory smokestack is increased.
D.
PCB-consuming bacteria are sprayed on an area that has soil contaminated with PCBs.
E.
A parcel of forest land is declared a state park.
27.
According .to RA 9003, which three 'environmentally sensitive resources' should a Sanitary Landfill be
most concerned about?
A.
Bionetwork, germplasm, and wildlife habitats
B.
Aquifer, groundwater reservoir, watershed area
C.
Flora, fauna, and biota
D.
Landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes
28.
A reduction in overall water quality due to an increase in the concentration of chemical nutrients in a
waterbody would be an example of
A.
Osmosis
B.
Hypoalimentation
C.
Eutrophication
D.
Fertilization
E.
Denitrofication
29.
If excessive amounts of hot water are discharged into a lake in a case of 'thermal pollution', the
immediate result will most likely be
A.
An increase in the sewage content of the lake
B.
A decrease in amount of dissolved oxygen in the lake
C.
An increase in the amount of PCB pollution in the lake
D.
A decrease in the amount of phospates in the lake
30.
According to RA 9003, segregation of 'solid wastes' into bio-degradable and non-biodegradable should
be done
A.
At the factory level
B.
At source
C.
At the end of production/consumption
D.
At the option of family concerned
31.
This is a garbage recycling center in a village, or for a cluster of villages, which also serves as drop-off
center for sorted wastes, composting center, and processing center to consolidate segregated
recyclables for remanufacturing.
A.
Barangay Waste Recycling Center
B.
Community Junk Shop
C.
Waste Exchange Facility
D.
Materials Recovery Facility
32.
According to the 1997 Code of Ethics for Environmental Planners in the Philippines, Sec.11, the "primary
obligation of the Environmental Planner is to"
A.
Contribute to the incessant development of the profession by sharing and improving knowledge.
B.
Strive for high standards of professional integrity, proficiency, and knowledge
C.
Develop and enhance a healthy professional relationship with colleagues and other professionals
D.
Serve the country and in so doing safeguard public interest
E.
Maintain a harmonious working relationship with client or partner in a noble undertaking.
33.
Which of the following is unethical practice of a registered environmental planner?
A.
Falsely injures the practice of other environmental planners
B.
Provides unjust compensation to colleagues and subordinates
C.
Affixes signature on plans he did not prepare or supervise
D.
Enters competitions where s/he has direct involvement in program formulation
E.
All of the above
34.
Which of the following ethical principles directly pertains to a planner's responsibility to his/her private
client?
A.
Do not plagiarize.
B.
Do not accept work that cannot be performed in a timely fashion
C.
Do not coerce others to reach findings which are not supported by evidence
D.
Do not disclose, without sufficient legal cause, privileged information clearly kept restricted by
concerned party
E.
When in authority and facilitating public hearings, do not make secret deals with participants.
35.
Which act of the planner is not enumerated as punishable under PD 1308 of 1978, "Regulating the
Practice of Environmental Planning in the Philippines"?
A.
Having his/her professional seal done by informal businesses along CM Recto Ave., Manila
B.
Engaging in tha practice of environmental planning in the Philippines without having been registered
C.
Assuming, using or advertising any title or description tending to convey the impression that he is an
environmental planner without holding a valid certificate of registration
D.
Environmental planner without holding a valid certificate of registration
36.
Under PD 1308, a consulting firm, partnership, or company of registered environmental planners should
have
A.
At least 75% of entire membership and 75% of capitalization owned by registered environmental
planners
B.
At least 50% of entire membership and 50% of capitalization owned by registered environmental
planners
C.
The fifty-plus-one rule of membership and capitalization
D.
60%-40% combination of licensed planners and unlicensed planners.
37.
You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Which of the following does NOT
constitute a conflict of interest?
A.
Accepting a monetary gift from a local building firm
B.
Working for a developer who has an action before the Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustment
C.
Applying for business permit and health clearance to operate a private fruit stand in Farmers' Market
D.
Processing a rezoning application of your own property
38.
You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Your wedded spouse runs the
recreational Country Club and applies for a permit to construct an Olympic size swimming pool that
would utilize water from a public spring. What is the most rational action for you to do?
A.
Hire an independent consultant for an objective analysis of the application
B.
Ask for job transfer or reassignment
C.
Just keep quiet about it.
D.
File for divorce.
39.
In a case of sexual harassment in a planning consulting company, the following ethical principles apply
except one.
A.
A planner should not be penalized for sexual urges that have nothing to do with his/her profession.
B.
A planner must not commit a deliberately wrongful act, which reflects adversely on the planner's
professional fitness
C.
A planner must respect the rights of others and must not discriminate.
D.
A planner must have special concern for the long-range consequences of present actions.
40.
Which of the following is an actual conflict of interest?
Discuss
A.
Voting in a public election on an environmental issue that directly affects your consulting services
B.
Making official government recommendations on a site plan that you developed when previously
employed in the private sector
C.
Accepting souvenir gifts from a housing developer at the vendors' and sponsors' area of a planners'
convention
D.
Reporting to PRC an act of dishonesty by a planner about his supposed work experience in a job
originally occupied by you.
41.
A housing developer contacts you with an opportunity to use your expertise as a paid consultant in a
matter not pertaining to your employer's jurisdiction. You would work only on your off-days and
holidays. You should
A.
Report the housing developer for unethical behavior
B.
Make courtesy notification to your immediate supervisor
C.
Decline the offer
D.
Keep quiet about it
42.
Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, what is the most preferred manner of
government procurement of goods and services?
A.
Selective bidding or limited source bidding
B.
Negotiated procurement
C.
Single source procurement or direct contracting
D.
Competitive bidding
43.
In cases where open public biddings have failed on two (2) consecutive occasions and no suppliers have
qualified to participate or win in the bidding, LGUs, through the local chief executive with the approval
of the Sanggunian may undertake procurement of supplies and services without public bidding through:
A.
Selective bidding or limited source bidding
B.
Negotiated procurement
C.
Single source procurement or direct contracting
D.
Competitive bidding
44.
In emergency cases such as typhoon or earthquake damage where the need for supplies and services is
exceptionally urgent or absolutely indispensable and inorder to prevent imminent danger to, or loss of,
life or property, LGUs may make emergency purchases or place repair orders, without open public
bidding, provided
A.
Public safety and vital public services, infrastructure and utilities, would be endangered if contracts are
rescinded, abandoned, terminated, or not taken over,
B.
It is the best offer and most advantageous price among quotations submitted by at least three pre-
selected suppliers kept in the database of the government agency as having reliable, positive track
record
C.
Amount is within the range of 50,000-250,000 or even higher according to ceilings previously approved
by the Government Procurement Policy Board
D.
Goods and commodities of any amount are procured from another government agency under LOI 755
and E0359
E.
All of the choices
45.
Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, the Bids and Awards Committee with five
to seven members has to be headed by
A.
Chief of procuring entity
B.
Resident Ombudsman
C.
Resident auditor detailed by COA
D.
At least third ranking permanent official
46.
Under the rule cited in immediately-preceding question, which of the following should not chair the Bids
and Awards Committee?
A.
Chief of Administrative Division
B.
Audio-Visual Technician
C.
Head of Engineering Section
D.
Planning Officer V
47.
The acceptable form of security furnished by a contractor of a public project as a guarantee of good faith
on his/her part to execute the contracted work in accordance with the terms of the approved contract.
Discuss
A.
Insurance
B.
Collateral
C.
Performance Bond
D.
Retention or Retained Earnings
E.
Surety Bond
F.
Completion Guarrantee
48.
What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from a contract?
A.
Surety
B.
Assurance
C.
Performance
D.
Warranty
E.
Reparation
49.
Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act, Sec 5i, government may hire Consulting Services
for the following functions, broadly matching the competencies of Registered EnPs. For which function
are Environmental Planners generally least prepared?
Discuss
A.
Advisory and review services
B.
Pre-investment or feasibility studies, special studies
C.
Design
D.
Construction supervision
E.
Management-related service and technical services
50. A Highly-Urbanized City (HUG) bids out in transparent manner the revision of its CLUP-ZO for an
approved budget of contract (ABC) of 6 million. Four companies participated in open bidding. In the BAC
evaluation of technical proposals, Company A got 89 points, Company B earned 64 points, Company C,
78 points, and Company D, 42 points as the last company missed out on the required GIS-RS component.
After technical examination, the sealed financial proposals were opened and the bid amounts were
revealed as follows: Company A = 6.3 million; Company B = 6.2 million; Company C = 5.9 million; and
Company D = 4.5 million. Overall, which company offered the "most responsive bid" or "lowest
calculated complying bid" and should receive the Notice of Award of Contract from the head of agency.
A. Company A
B. Company B
C. Company C
D. Company D

1.
These are areas of less than 500 people per km2 whose inhabitants are primarily engaged in agriculture
or in extraction of raw materials, with dwellings which are spaced widely apart and often with little or
no services or utilities
A.
Tribe
B.
Purok
C.
Provincial
D.
Rural
E.
Hamlet
2.
This refers to the unprecedented phenomenon occurring in megacities wherein the rate of increase of
local population overwhelms the natural 'carrying capacity' of cities as ecosystems and outpaces the
'caring capacity' of city institutions in terms of resources and personnel to address complex problems.
A.
Metropolitanization
B.
Conurbation
C.
Hyper-Urbanization
D.
False or Pseudo-Urbanization
3.
A direct result of leapfrog' or 'checkerboard' development, this phenomenon irreversibly converts rural
space into urban space even before the populations meant to use it could be present
A.
Anticipatory Development
B.
Premature Urbanization
C.
Commercialization
D.
Upscale Zoning
4.
In causal order, which should come first in this series or chain of intertwined, multi-dimensional
problems?
A.
Climate Change
B.
Unmanaged Population Growth
C.
Poverty
D.
Land Use Changes
E.
Pollution and Environmental Degradation
F.
Carbon Footprint
5.
According to David Satterthwaite, 95% of deaths and serious injuries from major disasters in the period
1950-2007 occurred in low-income to middle-income countries, and 90% of these deaths happened to
the poorest people. Which conclusion is supported by this information?
A.
Poverty which means low income and low education, is the major cause of disaster
B.
Countries in typhoon belts and Ring-of-Fire region of the world tend to be poor because of frequent
disasters
C.
Poverty and its physical dimensions, i.e. location of homes and livelihoods, increases people's
vulnerability to disaster
D.
The poorer a country, the higher the illiteracy rate, hence the less informed and less prepared people
tend to be.
6.
Settlements in high-risk zones; buildings on natural wetlands; rivers and waterways used as sewers;
recurrent shortages of food, water and power; segments of idle prime land pockmark the city center;
lack of distinctive city image and coherent urban form, all taken together, are manifestations of -
A.
Population Explosion
B.
Disaster Management
C.
Splattered Development
D.
Unmanaged Urbanization
7.
Dr Edward L Glaeser of Harvard University (1995, 2003) correlates 'urban development with
'democratization' in the following observations. Which statement pertains the most to so-called
'annihilation of space' in urban areas?
A.
Information travels at high-speed in cities; transactions between producers and consumers are faster;
cities practically eliminate the transport cost of moving ideas, goods, and people
B.
Cities facilitate human contact and social connection; the demand for cities is fueled by the demand for
interaction
C.
Because people in cities have high level of awareness, it is much harder for rulers to be despotic or
tyrannical
D.
Ineffective governments find it much harder to ignore mass poverty & other social problems in cities
than in the countryside
E.
Revolutions, labor uprisings, and riots are usually born and bred in cities
8.
He formulated the Basic Laws of Ecology in layman's vernacular (National Geographic, 1970) as follows:
"Nature knows best." "There is no such thing as a free lunch." "Everything is connected to everything
else." 'We can never do merely one thing." "Everything goes somewhere." ''There's no 'away' to throw
to."
A.
John Holdren
B.
Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr.
C.
Dr. Barry Commoner
D.
Dr. Eugene Pleasants Odum
9.
In contrast to the environmentalism which highlights 'community' and 'communitarian' solutions, this
type of environmentalism centers on respect for all lifeforms in an atomistic or species-centered
manner, such that humans would be on equal moral footing with sentient animals like pets and non-
sentient organisms like plants, insects, etc.
A.
Eco-centrism
B.
Bio-centrism
C.
Anthropo-centrism
D.
Geo-centrism
10.
They are inveterate optimists who believe that "necessity is the mother of invention" and hence they
assert that all environmental problems can be solved by ever-advancing science and technology, and
limitless human knowledge.
A.
Cornucopians
B.
Soroptimists
C.
Utopians
D.
Dystopians
11.
Which principle of 'Sustainable Development' most directly supports the saying "Think Global, Act
Local."
A.
Principle of Subsidiarity
B.
Polluter Pays Principle
C.
Common but Differentiated Responsibilities
D.
Duty to Care and Not Cause Environmental Hann
12.
According to theorists of 'Social Development' and 'Sustainable Development,' what is the relationship
between the concepts of 'Growth' and 'Development'?
A.
These two realities are essentially similar, hence, interchangeable in use
B.
Growth refers to the entire macro-economy while development refers to people and society
C.
Growth is a pre-condition to development but not enough in itself; it is necessary but not sufficient
condition
D.
Growth is merely quantitative while development is thoroughly qualitative
E.
Growth is indicated by income and infrastructure, while development is indicated by tranquility, peace
and order
13.
The following are the central questions of planning and management. Which question seeks to
determine efficacy or success of a chosen option or course of action?
A.
"where are we now?"
B.
"where are we going?"
C.
"where do we want to be?"
D.
"how do we get there?"
E.
''what resources de we need to get there?"
F.
"how do we know if it is working?"
14.
In what sense does 'professional planning' differ from 'generic,' 'common-sensical,' or 'everyday'
planning?
A.
There is no difference because planning is 'ubiquitous' and can be done by anyone, anytime, anywhere.
B.
Professional planning has scope and goals that transcend one person or groupwhile generic planning is
essentially action-planning on familiar problems with much latitude for personal flexibility.
C.
Professional planning examines only the "natural. environment" while Business Planning considers both
"policy environment" and "market environment."
D.
Object of Professional Planning is "society and nature" while beneficiary of everyday planning is
'oneself.'
15.
Which school of thought maintains that planners should abandon their presumed neutral stance and
instead adopt the side of 'the poor and the disadvantaged' to demand for corrective or remedial
measures from the State and from the Market through 'pressure from below' by way of conflict
confrontation, creative mass actions and backroomnegotiations?
A.
Equity or Activist or Advocacy Planning
B.
Communicative Planning
C.
Liberal Pluralistic Planning
D.
Disjointed lncrementalism
16.
These thinkers started the 'school of transactive planning' which later advocated the radical /critical
notion that planning should smash myths and mobilize people to change structures of domination and
subjugation in society.
A.
Francis Stuart Chapin, George Chadwick, Rexford Tugwell
B.
Norman Krumholtz, John Friedman
C.
Paul Plumberg, Carole Paterman, Paul Bernstein
D.
Charfes Lindbloom, Robert Dahl, Mel Webber
17.
According to David Harvey and Ray Pahl, planning is less a means for urban renewal, but more of "an
agent of change and development in its own right, linked to alternative theories of the city that seek to
address poverty and inequality. Planners should be regarded as creators of urban space, not merely
value-neutral arbiters of development proposals.
A.
Critical/radical planning
B.
Communicative planning
C.
Liberal planning
D.
Activist planning
18.
Strategic Planning as described by Henry Mintzberg is called 'Innovative Planning' for following reasons
except one
A.
because, as in strategies and tactics, a plan has to be calculating and even Machiavellian
B.
Because it seeks to introduce a novel goal, product, process, or pattern
C.
Because it centers on organizational 'fitness' to create or shape change
D.
Because it mobilizes the whole organization to move towards a new direction
19.
According to Karl Wittfogel's 'Hydraulic Civilization' model of Urbanization (1957), what would explain
the emergence in Antiquity (40 00-200 BCE) of the earliest cities also known as 'necropolis' and temple-
towns?
A.
Irrigation for farms revolutionized both economic production and social organization as it resulted in
food surplus. which necessitated large storage warehouses in preparation for war or drought
B.
Strongman rule was hastened by the need to distribute water for irrigation and to ration food.
C.
With abundant food, classes of non-farming workers emerged which eventually led to "division of labor"
and "occupational specialization.
D.
City-building centered on immortalizing kings and heroes in godlike worship through grandiose
monuments, tombs, funeraries, pyramids, mausoleums, shrines, altars, temples, ziggurats, obelisks, etc.
E.
All of the above
20.
Dr Gideon Sjoberg (1933) claims that cultural exchange from overland trade and commerce in pre-
industrial ear fostered the formation of cities, as literate individuals, craftsmen, and tool-makers came
together to debate and test each other's ideas. Competition among non-farming specialists gave birth to
the 'scientific method' as well as to technological advances m plant cultivation and animal breeding.
A.
Acculturation and lnculturation
B.
Socio-Cultural Theory of Urbanization
C.
Diffusion of Technology Information
D.
The Scientific Revolution
21.
What theory of urbanization by RL Carneiro (1970) best explains 'Fortress Cities' during the Dark Ages
476-800AD?
A.
Urbanization was hastened by cultural exchange resu!ting from overland trade caravans
B.
People settled together around strategic places which could benefit from maritime trade.
C.
Strongman rule was necessitated in order io distribute water foi iirigation
D.
After the collapse of army-based imperial government, people had to congregate in cities for better
protection from plunderers and marauders.
22.
2,500 'Cathedral Towns' during the Middle Ages 800-1440 AD showcased the ascendancy of the Church
in all affairs whether religious or secular, and these medieval cities displayed the following physical
characteristics except one:
A.
Narrow, twisty, irregular street radiating from the main center (radiocentric)
B.
Congestion was common; infrastructure for garbage and sewage was absent; sanitation was poor;
C.
Vulnerable to epidemics such as bubonic plague. cholera, typhoid fever, scarlet fever, etc.
D.
Loss of privacy due to overcrowding resulted in loose sexual morals of the population
23.
Outside the walls of Medieval towns and cities, land was used collectively and defined as follows:
'common of pasture,' 'common of turbary,' 'common of piscary,' 'common of estovers,' and 'common of
soil.' Which one refers to everyone's right to take fish, game, or fowl from communal land?
A.
Common of pasture
B.
Common of piscary
C.
Common of soil
D.
Common of turbary
24.
Except for one city below, 'Mercantile Cities' during the Renaissance period served as trading ports for
overseas commerce and played key role in the accumulation of gold and silver by European monarchies
and principalities.
A.
Venice, Italy
B.
Amsterdam, The Netherlands
C.
Dortmund, Germany
D.
Lisbon, Portugal
25.
According to Max Weber in The Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism (1904), what was the key
factor in transition for mercantile economies controlled by European monarchies to profit-driven
individual enterprise or laissez faire?
A.
endemic corruption in highly structured Catholic society made people less imaginative and less
entrepreneurial
B.
Early Protestants generally emphasized hardwork, simplicity, thrift, discipline, savings, & re-investment
of savings
C.
Royal treasuries went bankrupt due to Catholics' culture of excess, lavish celebrations, overindulgence,
etc.
D.
Protestants work without the baggage of Seven Capital Sins such as greed, avarice, envy, lust, gluttony,
etc.
26.
The first grid-iron orthogonal street pattern in continental America was designed in 1682 by
A.
William Penn for Philadelphia, Pennsylvania
B.
Pierre Charles L'Enfant for Washington DC
C.
Peter Minuit for Manhattan Island, New York
D.
John Winthrop for Trimountaine, Boston Common
27.
Before the rise of 'scientific socialism' based on concept of class-struggle, 'normative or Utopian
socialism' based on Christian values was showcased by this philanthropist in New Lanark, Scotland
(1799) where excellent working conditions, decent housing, and cheap services for the working class
increased productivity and profit. Its founder was lateracknowledged as the father of the cooperative
movement.
A.
Robert Owen
B.
John Cadbury
C.
James Buckingham
D.
Sir Christopher Wren
28.
The milestone that marked the start of the Industrial Age in 1769 and changed the primary mode of
economic production was
Discuss
A.
Discovery of crude oil, coal, and gas fuels
B.
Invention of steam engine as source of power
C.
Invention of printing press to propagate scientific knowledge
D.
Invention of trains, trams, and rail for faster movement of goods
29.
At the start of 19th century industrialization in England before the emergence of full-fledged
professional planners, who were the earliest urban planning practitioners who addressed city-wide
problems including 'germ versus filth' dilemma?
A.
Microbiologists, biochemists, pharmacists
B.
Shelter specialists, housing developers, contractors
C.
Industrial engineers, machine engineers, civil engineers
D.
Doctors, epidemiologists, sanitarians, public health personnel
30.
In 1907, what university offered the first academic degree course in city planning under its landscape
architecture department, which program later spun of to become the first ever school of planning in
1929.
A.
Oxford University
B.
Harvard University
C.
Cambridge University
D.
University of Heidelberg
31.
Among the City Beautiful Movement planners, he was the earliest to articulate the principles of urban
design in "City Planning According to Artistic Principles" (1889)
A.
Camilo Sitte
B.
Lldefons Cerda
C.
Lucio Costa
D.
Oscar Niemeyer
E.
William Burtey Griffin
32.
A town is a tool for free man to overcome chaos and lack of order. A city is the grip of man upon
nature.Geometry is the means whereby we perceive the external world and express the world within
us.Geometry is the foundation.Machinery is the result of geometry.The age in which we live is therefore
essentially a geometric one. Town Planning demands uniformity in detail and a sense of movement in
general layout ."
A.
Gordon Cullen
B.
Le Corbusier
C.
Aldo Rossi
D.
Thomas Sharp
E.
Roy Worskett
33.
Which of the following valid critiques of Le Corbusier's (CharlesEdouard Jeanneret) modernist city design
pertains to the so-called 'spatial paradox'?
A.
Architectural determinism or the belief that physical design and visual aesthetics are sufficient to
address the basic problems of population.
B.
Devoid of thorough studies on demographic, social, economic, and transport aspects
C.
Goal to decongest the city by increasing congestion at its core.
D.
Rejection of historic precedents as inspiration for overall design
E.
Lack of humanscale as uniform tall structures tend to be disorienting while extremely-vast open spaces
look inhospitable to humans
34.
Which of the following features does not describe the New Town concept of Clarence Stein as
showcased at Radbum, New Jersey; Columbia, Maryland; Greenbelt, Maryland; Greenhills, Ohio;
Greendale, Wisconsin; and Greenbrook NJ?
A.
Huge manufacturing firm at the center
B.
separation between pedestrian traffic and motor traffic
C.
green spaces which are interconnected
D.
Series of superblocks
E.
Prior land assembly
F.
Neighborhood clusters
35.
The planner who said that survey is a requisite for planning in the famous framework Survey-Analysis
Plan was
A.
Demogriphus
B.
Herodotus
C.
Geddes
D.
Pericles
36.
'Social Engineering' refers to
A.
Designing and building social facilities and infrastructure for the public
B.
Manipulating age, sex, ethnicity, and other demographic factors of social groups
C.
Implementing service-oriented social programs to marginalized social sectors
D.
Changing values, mindsets, habits, and behaviors of people towards desired societal goals
37.
"Sierra Club" is to John Muir, "Audubon Society" to John James Audubon, "Living Earth" to Eugene
Ple.asants Odum, "Spaceship Earth" to Kenneth Boulding, and "Gaia-Mother Earth" is to.
A.
James Lovelock
B.
Henry David Thoreau
C.
Delfin Ganapin
D.
Ame Naess
38.
Dr William Rees coined this concept in 1992 to approximate the amount of productive space, measured
in terms of global hectare (gha) per capita, needed to sustain a population which consumes food, water,
energy, building materials -etc end requires the sink functions of Nature for human waste and pollution.
A.
Land-population ratio
B.
Consumer price index
C.
index of environmental impact
D.
Ecological footprint
39.
Considered as the father of wildlife ecology, he advocated in 1948 a "personal land ethic" for humans to
become 'stewards of the land' and member-citizens of land-community rather than its conquerors or
dominators.
A.
Karol Wojtyla or 'John Paul II'
B.
Ralph Waldo Emerson
C.
Henry Wright
D.
Aldo Leopold
40.
The major objective of 'New Urbanism' movement identified with Jane Jacobs, Leon Krier, Andres
Duany, Elizabeth Plater-Zyberk, et al. is to
A.
Rebuild the architectural fayade of old cities using post-modern methods and technologies
B.
Revitalize urban communities by creating centers' and by reviving traditional civic values
C.
Design gated subdivisions as urban collage and multi-ethnic tapestry
D.
Integrate development of both urban and rural areas in order to save as much farmland as possible
41.
The critique of 'New Urbanism' against so-called 'Gentrification' or upscaling of inner-city neighborhoods
was
A.
The latter is more interested in new businesses than in community rebuilding; hence soul-less and
centerness
B.
The latter leads to the exclusion of low-income groups
C.
the latter does not create mixed communities of varied socio-economic & demographic groups
D.
All of the choices
42.
The following planners were most concerned about "human scale and the social usage of urban space"
A.
David Harvey, Manuel Castells, Ray Pahl
B.
Jane Jacobs, Kevin Lynch, William H. Whyte
C.
Robert Moses, William Levitt, Richard King Mellon
D.
T J Kent, Edwin c. Banfield, Albert Z. Guttenberg
43.
During the period 1565-1896, the urban control points designated by the Spanish colonial government
were the
A.
alcaldias y pueblos
B.
barrios y sitios
C.
Haciendas y villas
D.
cabeceras y poblaciones
44.
During the Spanish colonial period, there were four major forms of land tenure or land holding. Which
one refers to the right of a 'servant' of Spanish Crown to collect tribute from residents of a territory
without any ownership claim over that territory?
A.
'friar lands'
B.
'encomiendas'
C.
'haciendas'
D.
'townships'
45.
Public Lands Act of 1903 granted homesteads to 14 million Filipino families covering 5.3 million hectares,
principally in
A.
Negros Island
B.
Palawan
C.
Mindanao
D.
Samar Island
46.
The Torrens Title System which entrenched the concept of absolute private ownership of land in the
Philippines is a 7 legacy from what colonial period of Philippine history?
A.
Spanish
B.
American
C.
Japanese
D.
British
47.
According to Dr. Ernesto Pernia (1983), the major blunder in Philippine economic policy and
industrialization strategy occurred in the latter period of American colonial rule when
A.
Free trade agreements with USA narrowed Philippine agricultural output to cash crops for export such
as sugar, tobacco, hemp, coconut, palm, rice, and timber.
B.
Progress of Philippine agricultural regions was directly tied to fluctuations of American market during
Great Depression,instead of Filipino production being responsive to domestic demand by inter1inking
Philippine regions with one another
C.
Post-war' import substitution' policy beginning in 1947 focused on capital-intensive urban consumer
goods rather than on resource-based agro-industlialization in provincial centers utilizing agricultural
surplus
D.
All of the choices
48.
Republic Act 2264 empowered LGUs to form local planning boards to craft their development plans
under the close guidance of national government agencies.
A.
Local Governance and Planning Act of 1945
B.
Local Autonomy Act of 1949
C.
Decentralization and Devolution Act
D.
Transparency and Accountability Standards Act
49.
In 1954, Reorganization Plan 53-A of the Government Survey and Reorganization Commission delineated
regions
A.
Nine -representing 9 rays of the sun in Philippine flag or 9 historic territories which fought Spain
B.
Eight -representing major ethno-linguistic groups
C.
Four -representing major island-groupings plus Muslim territories
D.
Six -representing possible component units of a federal system
50. Presidential Decree 824 on February 27, 1975 created the Metro Manila Commission as the first ever
structure of metropolitan governance in the Philippines following the organizational model called
A. Annexation and Amalgamation (one-tier government)
B. Jurisdictional Fragmentation (Council of Local Governments)
C. Voluntary clustering and lnter-LGU cooperation
D. Functional Consolidation (two-tier metropolitan government)

1.
In 1978, American Institute of Planners (established 1917) and American Society of Planning Officials
(established 1934) combined to become the present-day
A.
American Institute of Environmental Planning
B.
Royal Institute ofTown and County Planning
C.
Planning Society of All-America
D.
American Planning Association
2.
The first State-wide land use plan in 1973 which defined Urban Growth Boundaries (UGBs) that
separated urban and rural areas in order to limit growth within serviced areas and to preserve rural
farmland for a timeframe of 20 years, took place in the State of
A.
Oregon
B.
New York
C.
California
D.
Florida
3.
Which planning concept, first upheld by the US Supreme Court in the 1976 case o('Penn Central
Transportation Co. versus City of New York incorporates a market mechanism to mitigate whatever
financial burden local law might have imposed on property?
A.
Planned Unit Development
B.
Conservation Easements
C.
Transfer of Development Rights
D.
Eminent Domain
4.
In all but one of following cases, the US Supreme Court declared "takings" by government as illegal, as it
upheld the Constitutional precept that "private property shall not be taken for public use without just
compensation"
A.
Where a regulation is merely intended to preventa nuisance and remove discomfort caused to the
public
B.
Where a regulation forced a landowner to allow someone else to enter onto the property,
C.
Where a regulation imposes burdens or costs on a landowner that do not bear a reasonable relationship
to the impacts of the project on the community;
D.
Where government can equally accomplish a valid public purpose through less intrusive regulation or
through a requirement of dedicating property
E.
Where a landowner has been denied all economically viable use of the land
5.
In 1987, United States Supreme Court in the case of Nollan versus California Coastal Commission ruled
against- California which required Nollan to dedicate a public sidewalk easement across their beachfront
property as a building permit condition, thus the Court formulated a principle for governments
regulatory action that "land use restrictions must be tied directly to a specific public purpose."
A.
Rough Proportionality
B.
Calibrated Enforcement
C.
Calculated Authority
D.
Rational Nexus
6.
This school of thought claims that cities or human settlements can be studied as though they are
biological organisms subject to laws of evolution, natural selection, competition, adaptation, survival of
the fittest, decline, and death.
A.
Dialectical Historical Materialism
B.
AnarchoSyndicalism by Saul David Afinsky
C.
Frankfurt School of Social Critical Theory
D.
Chicago school of human ecology
7.
Central Place Theory was found faulty in assuming uniform topography, fiat featureless terrain, ease of
travel in all directions and ubiquity or all around presence of economic resources, but its major strength
lies in characterizing the locational advantages of one place in relation to another, a geographic concept
called -
A.
Surrounding
B.
Standing
C.
Situation
D.
State
8.
The weakness of applying Central Place.Theory in a simplistic way on the Philippines is that
A.
Unlike other countlies, Philippines does not have compact land mass with homogenous features
B.
Archipelagic nature creates natural discontinuities that render movement & economic exchange difficult
C.
Spatial integration between urban and rural areas is impeded by poor transport that inflates prices
D.
All of the above
9.
128. George Zipfs Rank-Size Rule, "Pn=P1/N*** was derived from Christallers Central Place Theory,
and asserts that the population of city "n" is equal to the population of the largest city "1" divided by the
rank of "n" in the hierarchy of aces. If the largest city in immediately preceding question had 2.6 million
people in 2007 official census, using Zipfs rule what should have been the population of Davao City if it
was ranked Number?
Discuss
A.
520,000
B.
1,520,000
C.
1,300,000
D.
650,000
10.
Does the formula of George Zipf in the immediately preceding question match the reality on the ground
based on 2007 Official Census of the National Statistics Office?
A.
Yes
B.
Partially
C.
No
D.
Depends on whether old Davao City or Metro Davao is being a;ialyzed
11.
Neo-classical Urban Bid-Rent theory provides the formula for Location Rent at center of city as equal= to
'Rent Gradient' times 'Radius' where 'Rent Gradient' is equal to 'transport cost per capita per year'
multiplied by 'density per sq.km'. If Pateros has a radius distance of 10.266 km from the center of Metro
Manila, with average density of= 29,495.24 persons per km.In 2009 and P15,330 transport cost per
capita per year, what should be the location rent per square meter in Pateros as periphery-town of
Metro Manila? (clue: convert sq.km to sq.m.)
Discuss
A.
4,641 per m2
B.
around 46,41 0 per m2
C.
Around 464,100 per m2
D.
Around 464.10 per m2
12.
According to Raleigh Barlowe (1958), this refers to the most profitable use of land when it yields
optimum returns gen limited inputs; such returns can either be monetary or non-monetary, tangible or
intangible, based on the criteria and interest of the person who makes such decisions.
A.
Maximum Sustainable Rent
B.
Maximum Sustainable Yield
C.
Profit Maximization
D.
Highest and Best Use
13.
In Peirce Lewis' revision of the Ernest Burgess' monocentric model of urban land use, which of the
following describes the spatial decline of concentric cities least effective.
Discuss
A.
The elite and their businesses leave the inner core due to pollution and congestion.
B.
Hollowing-out of the core results in the "donut shape"
C.
Surrounded by the poor in the historic center, government increasingly becomes captive to pressure
groups
D.
Land values rapidly fall in inner-city areas experiencing urban blight and urban decay.
14.
In Urban land use models of the Chicago school of human ecology, the affluent and middle classes are
inclined to E- away from downtown and inner-city in favor of suburban locations and this process results
in a paradox or "spatial mismatch" as regards labor.
A.
Sophisticated upperdasses locate in city-edges with semi-rural conditions where no employment is
available
B.
Lower-classes who cannot create employment by themselves are left to occupy high-priced land in the
inner core of cities.
C.
Blue-collar workers are forced to accept !ow-skill jobs as maids. yayas, gardeners in affluent suburban
subdivisions
D.
Non-tax paying people in the informal sector are closer to the seat of government than the landed
gentry
15.
Social status declines with increasing distance from the center of the city" is a proposition about poor
Third World countries that contradicts the original land use models from the Chicago school of human
ecology,
A.
Donut model
B.
Core-Periphery Dependency Model
C.
Polycentric model
D.
Inverse Concentric
16.
According to M. White (1987), the more economically complex a city, the more varied would be the
number of high growth points, the more socially complex it becomes, and the stronger is its tendency
towards differentiation such as in the case of residents segregating themselves into enclaves according
to economic level, social status, or ethnicity.
A.
Bipolar Model
B.
Palimpsest or Mosaic Model
C.
Multiple Nuclei
D.
Urban Land Nexus Theory
17.
Advancements in transportation and communication technologies have affected many cities in such a
way that information based production can be done by anyone, anywhere at any time regardless of
distance from city center. Which of the following is the likely spatial form arising from these economic
trends?
A.
Cyber-city sends all dirty smokestack industries to remote regions.
B.
CBD becomes an elongated corridor or spine following the lines of telecommunications & electronic
services
C.
Suburban subdivisions form a belt-like edge or natural perimeter around the mother city
D.
Edge cities, office parks, and techno-poles develop in various parts of a complex mother city
18.
According to Wilbur Richard Thompson (1965), once a city reaches a resident population of 250.000, it
attains L1 permanence. Certain city sections may suffer decay and decline, but the city as a whole will
survive because of sheer size and strength of tertiary economy, inherent capacity to diversify, and its
political weight vis-a-vis other settlements.
A.
Urban land Nexus
B.
Urban Ratchet Theory
C.
Urban Spiral Economy
D.
Urban Force Momentum
19.
By plotting on a graph the economic benefits from agglomeration against the costs of congestion and
overconcentration, Leo Klaasen concluded that 'Optimum City Size' of a viable city should be between
A.
20,000-190,000
B.
200,000 -600,000
C.
700,000-One million
D.
One million -Two million
20.
The following are characteristics of a central business district. Which one increases the LGU
responsibility to feguard the well-being of people, often beyond the capacities of a single local
authority?
A.
Large concentration of office and retail activities;
B.
Significantly large number of tertiary and service jobs generated
C.
High price of land forces property-owners to build high
D.
Large regular inflow and outflow of motorists; daytime population higher than nighttime population
21.
Not all megacities become 'world cities'. According to David Simon in World City Hypothesis (1996), the
following criteria determines how a city reaches Tier 1 status. Which criterion is pursued as cities 'de-
industrialize' by banishing dirty smokestack industries from their territories in the contest to achieve
"greater global competitiveness"?
A.
Existence of a sophisticated financial and service complex serving a global clientele
B.
Level of international networks of capital information and communication flows
C.
large number of headquarters of international institutions
D.
Quality of life conducive to attracting investors and retaining skilled international migrants
22.
Which concern of regional planning pertains to institutional capacitation of focal governments, and the
appropriate distribution of authority among them?
A.
spatial integration between urban and rural settlements
B.
Complementation among agriculture, industry, other sectors
C.
Balanced distribution of population
D.
Federalism and decentralization of development
E.
Equitable distribution of resources among places
F.
Reduction of economic disparities among regions
23.
Earliest regional planning models in USA in 1933 revolved around Tennessee Valley, Dallas Plain,
Columbia River Basin, Colorado River, St Lawrence Seaway, Delaware River, Chesapeake Bay watershad,
which are essentially
A.
Cultural or ethno-linguistic regions
B.
Deltaic riverine regions
C.
Natural regions
D.
Crossborder regions
24.
According to economists Theodore Schultz, Jacob Mincer, and Gary S.Becker, this collective term for
people's embodied assets such as knowledge, skills, good health, attitudes, and entrepreneurial
qualities, determines how a local community or region absorbs new technologies, expands productive
capacity and generates own progress.
Discuss
A.
Seven Domains of Intelligence
B.
Intellectual Quotient
C.
Managerial Aptitude
D.
Human Capital
25.
The twin strategy of 'concentrated decentralization' and 'industrial dispersal' to correct urban primacy
and inter-regional divergence in the Philippines was begun under the administration of President
A.
Carlos P. Garcia
B.
Ferdinand E. Marcos
C.
Corazon C. Aquino
D.
Fidel V. Ramos
E.
Gloria M. Arroyo
26.
Under RA7916 Sec. 10, what is the minimum investment of a foreigner who can be granted permanent
resident status within a Philippine ecozone, together with spouse and children below 21 years of age,
who shall all have freedom of ingress and egress to and from the Ecozone without any need of special
authorization from the Bureau of immigration?
A.
US$ 150,000
B.
US$ 300,000
C.
US$ 1,000,000
D.
US$ 2,000,000
27.
Despite global economic recession and decline of demand for luxury goods, a watch company decides to
stay put in Switzerland because of its secure market niche and proven track record in producing Rolex
timepieces. What theory of firm location is likely at work here?
A.
Comparative Advantage
B.
Profit Maximizing Approach
C.
Satisficing Theory
D.
Behavioral Theory
28.
Cognitive processes which include perception, intuition, values and attitudes, underlie locational
behavior and these account for imperfect decisions, meaning that industrial locators do not necessarily
aim for the best possible setup to maximize profit but can be content with 'sub-optimal', 'good-enough'
but 'adequate' decisions.
Discuss
A.
Cogitative Theory of Location
B.
Behavioral Theory of Location
C.
Urban Land Nexus Theory
D.
Organizational Theory (Segmentation & Corporate Mergers)
29.
If a firm subscribes to the Institutional Theory of firm location as shaped by neo-liberal economics, the
firm will logically consider which of the following factors the least.
A.
Costs of doing business (tax and non-tax costs including graft and corruption)
B.
Stability of government and predictability of its policies (fair play, level-playing field)
C.
Peace and order and the physical safety of employees
D.
Leisure opportunities such as golf courses and exclusive resorts for the managerial elite and their
families
30.
Anything that is available to rivals elsewhere is essentially nullified as a source of competitive advantage,
for a firms competitive edge lies in something very local - innovation in strategy, innovation in know-
how, in relationships, in motivation.
Discuss
A.
Dr Michael Porter
B.
Jacob A. Riis
C.
Sir Peter Hall
D.
Dr Mark Gottdeiner
E.
Hernando de Soto
31.
Presidential Decree 1559 defines this natural region used in ecosystem-based planning as a relatively
large area starting at the roof of mountain rivers and encompassing tributaries, streams, and the land
surface whose rainwater runoff drams into a common, downstream point such as a lake, estuary, or
coastal water body.
A.
Drainage Basin
B.
Rainforest
C.
Flood plain
D.
Watershed
32.
Based on 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, this is an area of up to 200 nautical
miles from a States Shore in which a State is given the sovereign right to explore, exploit, conserve, and
manage all natural resources as well as the right to determine the total allowable catch (TAC) of living
resources.
A.
Territorial Sea
B.
Sealanes and Maritime Fairways
C.
Continental Shelf
D.
Exclusive Economic Zone
33.
The taking of fishery species by passive or active gear for trade, business, or profit beyond the level of
subsistence fishing or sports fishing, utilizing marine vessels of 3.1 gross tons (GT) or more, is called
A.
Municipal Fishing
B.
Profitable Fishing
C.
Entrepreneurial Fishing
D.
Commercial Fishing
34.
Under RA 917 4 Wildlife Resources Conservation & Protection Act, jurisdiction over all declared aquatic
critical habitats, all aquatic resources, including but not limited to all fishes, aquatic plants, invertebrates
and all marine mammals, except dugong, including protected coral reefs, fish sanctuaries, and marine
reserves, belongs to
Discuss
A.
Philippine Coast Guard and Patrol Bantay Dagat
B.
DENR Protected Areas and Wildlife Bureau
C.
Department of Agriculture
D.
Department of Science and Technology
35.
In the SEPP, 'geology' covers subsurface conditions, seismic fault lines, bedrock, and minerals while
'patterns of precipitation, temperature, humidity, and wind' are discussed under
A.
Atmospheric and Astro-physical Sciences
B.
Hydrology
C.
Climate
D.
Agro-ecology
36.
In contrast to the long-term skeletal/circulatory framework, this is the overall medium-term action plan
utilized by every local administration to develop socio-economic development projects and implement
sectoral, cross-sectoral, and multi-sectoral programs to be translated into public investment measures
and incentives to private investment.
A.
B.
Blueprint
C.
Comprehensive Development Plan
D.
Master Plan
37.
This refers to any large-scale master-planned development which includes housing, work places, and
related facilities within a self-contained setup, based on the assumption that it can be built from zero,
more or less.
A.
Freiburg or Freetown
B.
Borough
C.
New Town
D.
County Estate
E.
Eco-Industrial Park
38.
If Lands with slope between 18%-30% constitute 45% of total land area, those with slope above 30%
constitute 8%, what percent of Philippine gross land area is generally described as 'alienable and
disposable'?
A.
Roughly 47%
B.
roughly 53%
C.
Roughly 43%
D.
Roughly 57% %
39.
'Land Use' and 'Land Classification' are
A.
The same
B.
Mutually exclusive
C.
'Land Classification' is proper term for legal and bureaucratic transactions while 'Land Use' is used for
basic environmental analysis.
D.
'Land Classification' is a scientific conceptual scheme while 'Land Use' refers to actual utilization or
consumption of land.
40.
"Land use has to be planned for the community as a whole because the conservation of soil, water, and
other natural resources is often beyond the means of individual land user"
A.
True
B.
False
C.
True only for closed societies and socialist economies but not for free market societies
D.
Partially false because free market forces' always know better how to apportion land
41.
Which statement about 'Land Capability' and 'Land Suitability' is true, based on definition from US
Department of Agriculture and United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization?
A.
'Land Capability' refers to the 'carrying capacity' of land while 'Land Suitability' refers to appropriateness
of land for human use and habitation.
B.
'Land Capability' refers to appropriateness of land for engineering and physical intervention while 'Land
Suitability' refers to appropriateness for natural production.
C.
'Land Capability' refers to the broadest uses of land for urban development while 'Land Suitability' refers
to its fitness for rural development.
D.
'Land Capability' is the broad inherent capacity of land to perform at a given level for general use, while
'Land Suitability' is the adaptability of a given land for a specific kind of land use, usually farm crops.
42.
Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for heavy industrial use?
A.
Load-bearing capacity
B.
Location
C.
slope
D.
Soil characteristics
43.
To conserve farm soils by means of bio-engineering, all of the following methods are useful except one:
A.
Use of coco-coir geotextile on erodible soils
B.
Use of rows, furrows, ridges and ditches
C.
Use of terraces and contours on sloping land
D.
Use of soil compactors
E.
Mulching and recycling of organic matter
F.
Cover crops and shelterbelts against wind erosion
44.
To conserve freshwater by means of bio-engineering, all of the following methods are useful except one:
A.
Sub-terranean drilling to interconnect deep-wells
B.
Partially grassed waterways
C.
mini-dams and dikes to slow down stream flow to the sea
D.
Small water impounding projects (SWP)
E.
Rainwater harvesting thru man-made ponds, small farm reservoirs (SFRs)
45.
Which of the following maps display the 'critical facilities' of a city/town?
A.
Map showing military camps, police stations, checkpoints, jails, prisons and Stockades
B.
Map showing sewer lines, canals, tunnels, and underground bunkers
C.
Map showing roads, hospitals, food .warehouses, 4tility trunks for power, water, and communication
D.
Map showing possible evacuation places in schools, churches, gymnasium,and covered courts
46.
Which of those listed below is not a 'decision' map?
A.
Physical constraints map
B.
Geohazard map
C.
Land suitability map
D.
Natural drainage map (rivers and streams)
47.
In preparing a site plan for hectare mixed use project in an urban area, which of following maps is least
useful at the needed scale of 1 : 1,000?
A.
NAMRIA base map
B.
LRA parcel map
C.
Utilities map from LGU Engineer
D.
Phivolcs geologic map
48.
In an output map of the computer-based system referred to in immediately-preceding section, 'roads,'
'irrigation canals' and 'sewers' are represented in the form called
A.
Digital
B.
Vector
C.
Raster
D.
Megapixel
E.
Cellular automata
49.
Prior to the development of computer mapping software in the mid-1970s, spatial analysis was done
manually by overlaying different thematic maps of the same scale, principally to determine
A.
Geohazards and physical constraints
B.
areas that are ideal for urban development
C.
Critical areas for rehabilitation or intervention
D.
All of the choices
50. According to Ernesto Serote, the FAO formula for urban land allocation at 5.7 hectares per thousand
population does not seem to be realistic in highly-urbanized LGUs because of rapid pace of change,
hence, to estimate urban land demand, this method entails time-series comparison of aerial
photographs supplemented by on-foot survey of urban land.
A. Urban Density Method

B. Urban Occupancy Method
C. City Land Census
D. Floor Area Ratio

1.
"Land Evaluation" and "Landscape Analysis" are
A.
The same and actually overlap
B.
Both obsolete and no longer used
C.
Used by different sets of specialists for the same land use process
D.
Essentially at odds because one is scientific while the other is not
2.
Which of the following does not enhance 'connectivity' to create sociable, livable, walkable, health-
oriented communities?
A.
Cul-de-sacs, cuvilinear streets, steel g&tes on roadblock comers; family pets wander & provide
biodiversity excitement
B.
School, church, community assembly center, plaza, and sports facilities are located relatively close to
each other.
C.
300-m average distance of homes to variety of transport choices like buses, FX vans, and shuttles to
railway stations
D.
Bicycle lanes are delineated; strolling and biking promoted, 'no-car policy' declared on selected streets
during holidays.
3.
In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning shapes the pace and direction of city/town
growth.
A.
Expand physically municipal jail and stockade to address increased incidence in criminality
B.
Propose roll-on roll-off port to hasten trade with coastal neighbors
C.
Identify which sections of territory are appropriate for low-rise, medium-rise, and high-rise structures.
D.
Define specific types of commerce that can be allowed in predominantly residential neighborhoods.
4.
In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning addresses global warming and climate
change.
Discuss
A.
Provide for locations of windmill farms as possible joint ventures with private sector
B.
Reward real estate projects that keep more than 40% of their total area as wooded open space
C.
Encourage intercropping of fruit trees and bio-fuel plants in lands designated for agro-forestry
D.
Transfer manufacturing firms to remote locations at least 10 kms away where their fumes can not reach
homes
5.
In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning mitigates natural hazards and reduces
disaster risk.
Discuss
A.
Expand open space in flood-holding areas, evacuation routes, lifelines, and areas of unstable soil
B.
Compel all real estate brokers and dealers to provide hazard disclosure to property buyers in geohazard
zones
C.
Require 10-meter-deep foundations for bulky structures in places prone to recurrent liquefaction
D.
Redirect public funds for capital investment projects from tsunami-prone areas to locations of higher
elevation
6.
All of the following Land Use measures address Climate Change. Which one directly pertains to the
carbon sequestration function performed by trees and plants?
Discuss
A.
Design settlements and communities in. a manner that reduces use of vehicles
B.
Enforce energy-efficiency laws to cover buildings, homes, and industrial design of appliances and
appurtenances identify
C.
Conducive locations and facilitate projects that generate renewable natural energy
D.
Maintain buffer zones and protect undisturbed lands with thick vegetative cover
7.
All of the following Land Use measures address transport bottlenecks and congestion, but which one
increases pedestrian traffic and requires intensified police/security presence?
A.
Establish Floor-Area Ratio and population density ceilings for buildings in the Central Business District
B.
Relocate intercity bus tennin&ls and freight tenninals from the center of town
C.
Enforce walking and biking in specific downtown sections that have vibrant bazaars, tiangges, and
streetside sales
D.
Prohibit on-street or parallel roadside parking along busy arterial roads
8.
To better conserve energy in a community, planners may recommend each of the following except
A.
Promote use of mass transit
B.
Design mixed uses for projects
C.
Encourage landscaping / ornamentation over planting of hardwood tree species
D.
Use of solar energy for passive lighting, passive heating, power for ventilation
9.
Which map is least relevant in preparing a Forest Management Plan that covers multiple LGUs at scale
of 1 :5,000?
A.
Map of tribal or ancestral land
B.
Elevation map
C.
Density map
D.
NIPAS map
10.
This is a Section of forestland with an area of at least 100-meter radius around rivers and springs which
serve to capture freshwater sources being tapped for domestic water supply and irrigation.
A.
Hydrologic Capture Zone
B.
Eco-Park
C.
Water Catchment Reserve
D.
Escarpment
11.
Under RA 7586 NIPAS Act of 1991, which type of protected area aims to assure the natural conditions
necessary to protect species, groups of species, biotic communities or physical features of the
environment where these may require specific human manipulation for their perpetuation.
A.
Haven and Refuge of Endangered Biota
B.
Protected Landscape and Seascape
C.
Genepool and Germplasm Reserve
D.
Wildlife Sanctuary
12.
Which of the following steps in the establishment of NIPAS area addresses overlapping LGU
jurisdictions?
A.
Compilation of technical maps & description of protected areas
B.
Census and registration of protected area occupants
C.
Public notification of coverage of protected areas A
D.
Boundary demarcation and monumenting
13.
A Protected Area Management Plan guides a declared natural biotic area under RA 7586. Under which
sections of 5 ecological zoning might Indigenous Peoples, tenured migrants and/or other residents be
allowed to Coliect and utilize natural resources using traditional melt1ods that are not in conflict with
biodiversity conservation
A.
Strict protection zone & habitat management zone
B.
Sustainable Use Zone & Multiple Use Zone
C.
Cultural zone & restoration zone
D.
Special Use Zone and Buffer Zone
14.
Under RA 7586, poor communities occupying sections of forestland continuously for at least 5 years
prior to legal proclamations, who are dependent on the forest for subsistence, are considered "tenured
migrant communities" and are engaged by government to undertake reforestation and upland
management under this specific program.
A.
Agro-Forestry
B.
Sloping Agricultural Land Technology
C.
Integrated Social Forestry
D.
Industrial Forestry
15.
Based on FAO framework, which component of Watershed Management needs to engage timber
companies, upland concessions, and sawmills to the highest extent possible?
A.
Irrigation, water harvesting, control of land and water pollution
B.
Gully control, rehabilitation of landslips and landslides, control of road erosion
C.
Pastureland protection and improvement
D.
Forest protection and improvement, streambank protection, and sustainable mining
16.
RA 9175 Chainsaw Act of 2002, one of the following does not possess a chainsaw in a legal manner.
A.
Has a subsisting timber license. agreement, production sharing agreement, or a private land timber
permit
B.
Is duly elected official of upland barangay
C.
Is an Orchard and fruit tree farmer
D.
Is a licensed wood processor who cuts only timber that has been legally sold E) is an industrial tree
farmer
17.
These areas are so called because they pose serious dangers to human settlements due to their high
susceptibility to, among others, landslides, subsidence, sinkholes, erosion once their topsoil is exposed.
A.
'geohazards'
B.
'brownfields'
C.
'environmentally critical'
D.
'naturally forbidden'
18.
DENR-FMB 2003, of total Philippine forestland of 15.85 million hectares, 1.5 million hectares are
denuded and 5. 7 million hectares are badly denuded. Under the 12-point agenda of Forest
Management Bureau,which of the latter should have the highest priority in restoration and
reforestation by engaging private sector investors.
A.
Cultivated Areas and Upland Settlements
B.
Shrub lands and marginal grasslands
C.
Wooded Grasslands
D.
Swamps and Marshes
19.
Wilson (1992) estimated that 90% habitat loss of an area results in 50% reduction of number of species.
Under RA 9174 Wildlife Resources Conservation 8 Protection Act, a species or sub-species that faces
high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called
A.
Acutely Threatened Species
B.
Critically Endangered Species
C.
Species Vulnerable to Extinction
D.
Rapidly Disappearing Species
20.
Under RA 9174 Wildlife Resources Conservation & Protection Act, killing of endangered wildlife is
unlawful except in 5 cases. Which of the following might warrant an act of killing by Palawan tribal
leaders after they've gathered proof that they had lost three children to river crocodiles which had
escaped from a science-oriented crocodile farm?
A.
"when killing is done as part of the religious rituals of established indigenous cultural communities"
B.
"when the wildlife is afflicted with an incurable communicable disease"
C.
"when it is deemed necessary to put an end to the misery suffered by the wildlife"
D.
''when it is done to prevent imminent danger to the life or limb of a human being"
E.
''when the wildlife is killed or destroyed after it has been used in authorized research or experiments"
21.
This refers to rights. of landowners along a water body to use the water for their economic needs
provided they return to the same body the water in similar quality.
A.
Riparian Rights
B.
Hydrologic Rights
C.
Rights of First Use
D.
Riverine Rights
22.
The do nothing scenario or absence of a spatial strategy allows a settlement to grow on its own like a
dendrite or living organism without man-made controls, and is called
A.
Leapfrogging
B.
Organic development
C.
Crawling development
D.
Checkerboard spreadsheet
E.
Anything goes
23.
A physical location where industry and/or commercial development is deliberately directed; done either
to reduce I growth pressures elsewhere in the city or to redistribute growth within a city.
A.
Growth Node
B.
Growth Hub
C.
Growth Nub
D.
Growth Mole
E.
Growth Lump
24.
"Urban design uses the climate, natural landscape as well as built assets to create distinctive places that
contribute to locaI identity, structure and meaning. Urban design strengthens the city's character by
reflecting its cultural layers and by enable residents and visitors alike to read the city' by way of its
history, customs, icons, and visual elements."
A.
"Cosmopolitanism"
B.
"Semiotics"
C.
"Sense of Place"
D.
"Symbology"
25.
Designed by Peter Calthorpe (1993), this is a compact, mixed-use urban area around a transport node,
intermodal or rail station with commercial shops, offices, and homes within a pedestrian-oriented radius
of 800 meters maximum. at density< 15-40 dwelling units per acre, all intended to maximize citizen
access to public transport and encourage mass ridership.
A.
lntermodal Exchange Design
B.
Park & Ride
C.
Transit-Oriented Development
D.
Bus Rapid Transit
26.
Which goal of Smart Growth USA" addresses social participation?
A.
Direct growth toward existing population centers, thru public spending on infrastructure and utilities
B.
Foster distinctive, attractive communities with a strong sense of place by creating walkable
neighborhoods and providinga variety of transportation choices
C.
Make development decisions predictable, fair, and cost effective, and encourage stakeholder
collaboration in development decisions
D.
Create a range of housing choices and opportunities by allowing mixture of land uses
E.
Preserve and protect open space, farmland, natural beauty, and environmentally sensitive areas
27.
City design of Paul Downton where the balance of nature is central concern, operated by closed-loop
systems that recycle energy, materials and resources, while minimizing waste through enviro-
preneurship. Its economy is based on knowledge and innovation such as hydrogen-powered mass
transport, sky-gardens, parks on building rooftops,building-integrated solar systems using photovoltaic
skins, and aeroponic and hydroponic urban farming on terraces, walls, facades, andatria.
A.
Evergreen city
B.
Sustainopolis
C.
Ecopolis
D.
Greenopolis
E.
Verde ville
28.
All but one of the following are valid grounds to seek special case treatment or relaxation of zoning
provision in relation to a development project.
A.
The unusual shape of the site precludes designing a structure that would meet yard requirements.
B.
The existing structure has been declared historically significant by the city and must be saved at any cost
C.
Proposed deviation constitutes only a minor encroachment and will not alter the character of the
neighborhood.
D.
Both area of the site and proposed development are consistent with that of other lots in the immediate
vicinity.
29.
Performance zoning according to noise levels (e.g. 55 decibels for Land Category B, US Federal Highway
Administration) would benefit churches, schools, libraries, and residences while performance zoning
according to airquality standards (i.e emissions) would most affect which fixed locations?
A.
Vulcanizing and auto repair shops
B.
large manufacturing establishments
C.
Seaports and wharves
D.
Rotunda and street intersections
30.
Sea-level rise, coastal surges, coral reef damage, biodiversity decline, altered landscapes, increased
frequency and severity) of storms, floods, fires, and droughts; heat-related diseases, increased acidity,
salinization of fresh water, failed harvests and economic losses, are among the known disasters that
arise from -
A.
Tectonic and geologic movements partly caused by the push and pull of interplanetary or astrophysic
forces
B.
Natural variability of atmospheric, hydrospheric, and biogeochemical cycles which all have wayward
patterns
C.
Long-term disturbance of atmospheric and meteorological conditions caused by anthropogenic sources
D.
Natural heating of the Earth as it is pulled closer to the Sun at .the rate of 3 inches per completed orbit
31.
According to scientific studies, the human body begins to be least productive at ambient temperature of
37C and above,while human productivity and mental capacity, in general, are known to be optimal at
___ ambient temperature.
A.
16C
B.
21C
C.
26C
D.
32C
32.
This observed phenomenon refers to increase in global average annual mean temperature of the Earth's
near- surface air and oceans, of about 0.92C in the last 100 years, due to altered composition of the
atmosphere, B which has been attributed to sharp increase in greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions
contributed by humans.
A.
Air Pollution
B.
Ozone Depletion
C.
Greenhouse Effect
D.
Global Warming
33.
Which solution to reduce disaster vulnerability needs the longest-term and most comprehensive
perspective?
A.
Environmental safeguards and natural protection
B.
Regulation of private and public infrastructure to ensure social protection
C.
Safer location for settlements
D.
Safer building construction
34.
According RA 10121 of 2010, this is a management process that analyzes specific potential events of
emerging situations that might-threaten Society or the environment by establishing arrangements in
advance to enable timely, effective, and appropriate responses to such events and situations.
A.
Risk Averse Planning
B.
Crisis Management
C.
Contingency Planning
D.
Search, Rescue, Retrieval & Relief
35.
Integrated into risk-sensitive land use planning process," which component of Risk Assessment"
examines and audits an institutions capabilities and resources to deal with natural hazards?
A.
Hazard identification and evaluation (e.g. analysis of frequency, severity/magnitude, return period or
probability of a hazard of given severity)
B.
Vulnerability analysis (e.g. probable loss of life, injury, building damage, economic impacts)
C.
Potential damage assessment (e.g. monetary estimation of probable loses)
D.
Contingency measures, emergency response. quick reaction mechanisms
36.
Planning for flood control such as construction of major dams, levees, and embankments occurs at What
level?
A.
Zoning District
B.
Town
C.
Regional or Sub-regional
D.
National
37.
As a result of the Ondoy-Peping disaster in September-October 2009, what type of planning can possibly
interlink the "Marikina Watershed," the "Marikina Floodplain," and "Laguna de Bay" with their separate
governing authorities, to Jointly undertake proactive mitigation and prevention measures?
A.
Ecosystem-Based Planning
B.
C.
Reconstruction Planning by Special National Public Reconstruction Commission
D.
Regional Planning by DENR's River Basin Control Office
38.
Based on planning framework of Prof. Ernesto Serote, which of the following best describes
infrastructure land use?
A.
Construction for movement & flow of goods/people
B.
Connective, circulatory, and communicative space
C.
Network of man-made structures & edifices for people's comfort
D.
Amalgam of steel, rock, concrete and glass to shape civilization
39.
'Infrastructure Planning' covers both replacement infrastructure "and new infrastructure for emerging
areas." The following are important considerations in infrastructure planning, but which is first and
foremost of all considerations?
A.
Capacity of infrastructure
B.
Public safety and structural integrity
C.
Level of service (LOS) and quality of service
D.
Age of infrastructure
40.
According to National Water Resources Board 2009, total dependable freshwater supply in the
Philippines at 80% safe yield is approximately 145990 MCM (million cubic meters) per year. What would
be per capita water availability per year when the total population reaches 100 million?
Discuss
A.
14.59 m3 per capita
B.
145.9 m3 per capita
C.
1,459.9 m3 per capita
D.
14,599 m3 per capita
41.
This document contains an LGUs proposed schedule of infrastructure projects listed in order of
construction priority usually for a timeframe of 6 years together with cost estimates, anticipated means
of financing, and commitment of public funds for the purchase, construction, or replacement of physical
assets of the community.
Discuss
A.
DOTC Plan
B.
Annual Investment Plan
C.
Civil Works Program
D.
Capital Investment Program
42.
According to MPWH Highway Planning Manual 1982, each 3.5 meter one-directional lane in an
expressway has an estimated capacity of Passenger Car Units (PCU) per hour or roughly one vehicle
every 2 seconds.
A.
1,000
B.
1,750
C.
2,000
D.
2,400
43.
In transport planning, the manual counting and classifying, by type of vehicle and direction of travel, of
all conveyances passing each station during specified periods, supplemented by automatic traffic
recorder counts extending over longer periods is called
A.
Travel cost method
B.
Roadside survey
C.
Windshield survey
D.
Network inventory
44.
This is a method of trip assignment which takes into account congestion on the transportation system
and centers on determining traffic flow pattern for a known set of inter-zonal movements so that the
relationship between journey time and flow on every link in the network should be in accordance with
that specified for the link.
A.
All-or-nothing AON assignment
B.
Capacity restraint
C.
Diversion curves
D.
Shortest route method
45.
Due to local ingress and egress movements, the following are 'chokepoints' along a transport artery,
except one.
A.
Market
B.
Cockpit or stadium
C.
Mall complex
D.
Unloading zone
E.
Major religious shrine
46.
One of the following strategies to solve traffic congestion belongs more properly to specialist engineers
rather than to generalist planners?
A.
Travel Demand Management
B.
Transport System Managemen
C.
Transport Infrastructure Improvement
D.
Land Use Controls
47.
The following core elements of Transport Policy can be examined more closely to address Climate
Change, except one.
A.
Motor fuels and energy sources
B.
Role of mass transit versus private cars
C.
Industrial design and ergonomics of automobile's accessory features
D.
Relationship between land use and roads in creating chokepoints
48.
What is the best use of a 'Gantt' chart?
A.
Allocates time among various tasks
B.
Shows how different tasks are related
C.
Illustrates how one task must be completed before beginning another
D.
Utilizes a table with alternatives in rows and impact factors in columns
49.
The hierarchic logic in LogFrame or "Z.O.P.P." starts with broad goals which are subsequently broken
down into purposes, objectives, outputs, and activities.
A.
Horizontal
B.
Vertical
C.
Lateral
D.
Diagonal
50. Which essential elements of LogFrame or "Z.O.P.P" are used for plan monitoring and evaluation?
A. Targets and quotas

B. Indicators and means of verification
C. Milestones and signposts
D. Gauges and benchmarks

1.
What does ex post facto evaluation seek to do?
A.
Describe conditions under which an undertaking is effective
B.
Identify any unanticipated effects of an undertaking
C.
Detemiine whether stated goals have been achieved
D.
All of the choices
2.
What does an impact evaluation measure that is not dearly described in terminal evaluational projects
end?
A.
Key outputs or outcomes of a project
B.
Indicators, benchmarks, and milestones
C.
Immediate results of an undertaking -
D.
Long-term consequences on people, society, and nature
3.
Program Review and Evaluation Technique-Critical Path Method(PERTCPM) is a project management
technique designed to
A.
Logically connect program and project
B.
Mitigate effects of failed program
C.
Seek efficiency of time & resources in execution & implementation
D.
Identify evacuation routes and remedy errors in disaster risk estimation
4.
In a PERT-CPM, this is a starting node to two or more activities
A.
Concurrent node
B.
Merge node
C.
Simultaneous nodes
D.
Burst node
5.
This theory propounded by James s. Coleman (1988), Robert Putnam (1993), Diane Camey (1998) and
adopted by UNOP (1997), looks at collective non-market assets of people such as trust, solidarity, norms
of reciprocity, common purpose,equality and other resources that are inherent in social relations and
embedded in social networks.
A.
Theory of Social Change
B.
Social Mobilization
C.
Theory of Social Learning
D.
Theory of Social Capital
6.
'Ekistics' or the science of human settlements by Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis was built upon the Concept of
"basic needs," which were later categorized by Johann Galtung into material survival & Security needs,"
"social or enabling needs," and non-material human needs. Which grouping of needs was elaborated on
by Abraham Maslow?
A.
Food, water, clothing, shelter, sanitation, health care, energy/fuel, employment, peace and Order,
B.
Self-expression, sex, procreation, recreation, education, communication, and transportation
C.
Physiological needs, physical safety, love and belongingness, esteem, self-actualization/self-realization
D.
Freedom, security, identity, well-being, ecological balance
7.
Which of the following -all true -about people's participation in planning, implementation and
management holds the same meaning as the statement "people are the principal actors, the subject
rather than the object, of development."
A.
Participation increases the likelihood that policy will be effective and will have long-term benefits as
people provide data and feedback on ground-level needs and concerns to policy-makers and
implementors.
B.
People are not passive beneficiaries or mere recipients of dole-outs.
C.
Participation hastens people's ownership of their problems and builds community leadership so that
they gain control over their own fate and learn to make critical decisions for their common future.
D.
Community participation contributes to institutionalizing positive refonns envisioned by changes in
policy.
8.
World Bank describes this process as the expansion of assets.and capabilities of poor people, as well
as.the expansion of their freedom of choice and action, to participate in, negotiate with, influence,
control, aria hold accountable institutions that affect their lives
A.
Self-Reliance
B.
Needs Achievement
C.
Entitlement
D.
Empowennent
9.
A member of the advocacy/activist/equity school of planning, this planner wrote the classic "Eight Rungs
in the Ladder of Citizen Participation" which describes the varying degrees of people's involvement in
policies, plans, and programs.
A.
Ralph Nader
B.
Susan S. Fainstein
C.
Dr. Martin Luther King Jr
D.
Sherry Amstein
10.
The process of obtaining from people technical advice or opinion which may or may not be followed is
called
A.
Consultation
B.
Cooptation
C.
Cooperation
D.
Collaboration
11.
The process of facilitating and arranging activities and action-plans of different interest-groups or
sectors for the purpose of harmonizing, synchronizing, and consolidating inputs and outputs is called
A.
Input-Output process
B.
Mainstreaming
C.
Coordination
D.
Faci-pulation
12.
It is the international collective term for inclusive, non-State actors whose aims are neither to generate
profits nor to seek governing power but to unite people around the broadest public interest based
ethnical, cultural, religious,scientific, professional, or philanthropic considerations.
A.
Cause-Oriented Groups
B.
Charities
C.
Social Movements
D.
Civil Society
13.
Ratio and Proportion. In 2008, the Philippines had 68 million cellphone units, of which 63 million were
used. If 35% of population in urban areas have buying power to own and use a cellphone while only 15%
of population in rural areas can do the same. what would be the approximate number of cellphone
users in a rural barangay with 4000 people.
Discuss
A.
80
B.
400
C.
600
D.
1,200
14.
In a non-parametric test of correlation to,determine if amount of fertilizer has anything to do with
quantity of farm yield, the following crops were computed to have their respective difference of ranks
square(d2): rice 1; com = 0; wheat = 0; beans = 0; mongo = 1. Given 'Spearman rho' formula "r=6Ed2/
n(n2-1)" what would be the 'r' value?
Discuss
A.
1.1
B.
1.2
C.
0.9
D.
0.2
15.
This is an intuitive method of demand analysis, needs assessment, or forecasting which gathers the
independent views and judgments of recognized experts in panel discussion; or pols and consolidates
their expert opinions thru a survey.
A.
Crystal Ball
B.
Knowledge Management
C.
Delphi Technique
D.
Oracle Method
E.
Authoritative Approach
16.
This family of cross-disciplinary, cross-sectoral approaches in research engages communities to share
their - indigenous knowledge, analyze their local -conditions, in order to plan and to act on their own
problems, through dialogic and participatory processes such as cross-walking, transect, semi-structured
interviews, community mapping, preference ranking, seasonal and historical diagrams, and other tools
of rapid rural appraisal (RRA).
A.
Interactive Andragogy
B.
Participatory Action Research
C.
Virtual Learning Network
D.
Social Anthropology
17.
An enumerative method of study which covers all the units of a population is called
A.
Holism
B.
Gestalt
C.
Sociology
D.
Census
18.
'Baby Boomers' refers to those born in the period 1946-1964. Generation X refers to those born in the
years 1965-1976, and Generation "Y" or "Echo Boomers" refers to those born in the years
A.
1980-2000
B.
2001-2010
C.
1977-2000
D.
1975-2015
19.
The main difference between the economic method of projecting population growth and the
"mathematical methods" (arithmetic, geometric formulae, etc.) is that
A.
The former takes into account movement of people while the latter only considers reproduction and
deaths.
B.
The former forecasts varying rates of growth of local economic output and creates alternative scenarios.
C.
The latter does not consider force majeure or recurrent natural disasters.
D.
The latter is based upon the assumption of do nothing while the former ignores historic patterns.
20.
Between census years 1990 and 2007, the lowest population growth rates per annum in Metro Manila
occurred in .San Juan, -0.03%; City of Manila, 0.09%; Pasay, 0.22%; Makati, 0.3%; Mandaluyong, 0.53%
(versus highest rate at 2.12% in Taguig City). Which of the following statements, all valid, most considers
sustainable capacity and livability?
A.
These NCR areas have higher daytime population than nighttime population.
B.
These NCR areas are likely approaching their viable population limits.
C.
These NCR areas tend to physically decay with population density beyond a tolerable range.
D.
New or young families in these NCR areas are likely to settle somewhere else.
21.
17% of surveyed women wanted 2. 7 average births in contrast to aggregate fertility rate of 3.5 births
per woman; 50% of women don't want any more children; % of women wanted to space births but
could not do so, and nearly 50% of women between ages 15 and 24 have had premarital sex and have
experienced unwanted pregnancies. Which rational conclusion is supported by above data from ESCAP
study1998?
A.
Filipinos' fondness for babies is waning.
B.
Government and social institutions like family, church, and school need to be stricter about people's
sexual behavior
C.
The women in the survey do not accurately represent the overall picture of Filipino womenfolk
D.
There is apparently an unmet need for contraception and family planning among Filipino women
E.
Filipino women are more burdened compared to men when it comes to birth control
22.
Which one do you like?
A.
Option 1
B.
Option 2
C.
Option 3
D.
Option 4
23.
The declared population policy of the Philippine government 2001-2010 aimed to
A.
Uplift reproductive health of women as basis of population management
B.
Support couples in making decisions on the timing, spacing, and the number of children they want in
accordance with their cultural and religious beliefs
C.
Encourage use of contraception among married couples
D.
Enforce one-child rule for all couples
24.
The historic shift of birth and death rates from high to low levels, signaling t'"le tendency of total
population to decline after replacement-level fertility (1.1 % to 1.5%) has been attained, is called
A.
Population Reversal
B.
Demographic Transition
C.
Population Shift
D.
Demographic Deceleration
25.
The following reasons underlie locational motivation of urban poor to live in slum Colonies and
shantytowns. Which reason is socio-cultural in nature and serves to compensate for the lack of
livelihood and employment opportunities in cities?
A.
Proximity to low-skill jobs and sources of income in the urban services Sector, both formal and informal
B.
Zero to low land rents and occupancy fees in marginal lands, residual public lands, easements, and
danger ones
C.
Kinship-based, ethnic-related personal networks serving as safety nets that provide social solidarity and
reciprocity
D.
Alternative modes of access to squatter areas by water through rivers, canals, and coasts
E.
Ease of disposal of solid wastes and liquid wastes into esteros, creeks, and ditches.
F.
Coddling by traditional patronage politicians because of voting power of large concentrations of urban
poor
26.
Of the following solutions to address urban slums, which one adopts an 'as is, where is' approach and
hence not conducive to 'land assembly' for an integrated holistic settlement?
A.
Off-site resettlement
B.
In-city relocation
C.
On-site slum upgrading
D.
Land readjustment
E.
Medium-rise tenements as temporary shelter
F.
Collaborative models such as Gawad Kalinga and 'Habitat for Humanity'
27.
The French urban theorist who first said that each individual, regardless of personal, occupational, or
economic ability of achievement, has a to live in the city in a rights-based approach to urban
development ('Right to the City,' 1968)
A.
Henri Lefebvre
B.
Manuel Castells
C.
Jean Jacques Costeau
D.
Andre Gunder Frank
28.
In welfare-oriented societies, this is a shelter program designed to help homeless individuals and
families progress toward self-sufficiency in an environment of security and support, serving as a middle
point between emergency shelter and permanent housing for a time frame-of six months to two years.
A.
Mass Housing
B.
Transitional Housing
C.
Public Row Housing
D.
Cooperative Housing
29.
Specific principle contained in RA 7279 UDHA that 'developers of proposed subdivision projects shall be
required to develop an ares for socialized housing equivalent to at least 20% of total subdivision area or
total subdivision project cost, at the option of developer, within the same city or municipality, whenever
feasible, so that both government and market can jointly provide for the needs of lower socio-economic
classes
A.
Public Private Resources Exchange
B.
Cooperative Housing Development
C.
Balanced Housing Development
D.
Corporate Social Responsibility
30.
In RA 9397's amendment to expand socialized housing options of national local government under
RA7279 UDHA, which common model/program is being remedied for its uneven effectiveness in
addressing homelessness
Discuss
A.
Transfer of homelot ownership in fee simple
B.
Public rental housing
C.
Usufruct or lease with option to purchase
D.
Timeshare arrangements and communal shelter
31.
According to BP 220, if the minimum distance between 2 two-storey houses is 4 meters, and the
minimum horizontal clearance between their respective roof eaves or overhang is 1.50 m, what would
be the horizontal length of each building's overhang from exterior wall up to the edge of roof
Discuss
A.
0.25m
B.
0.50m
C.
1.00m
D.
1.75m
32.
RA 87 49 Clean Air Act, Sec. 20, generally bans burning which results in poisonous and toxic fumes, but
with a few exceptions. What agency oversees cremation and incineration of pathological, biological, and
contagious wastes?
A.
Bureau of Fire Protection
B.
Department of Interior and Local Government
C.
Philippine Hospitals Association
D.
Department of Health
33.
As per PD 856 or Sanitation Code of 1975, What should be acquired individually by all food Workers,
processors,preparers, vendors, servers in all food establishments, whether formal or informal
businesses?
A.
Lung -ray & HIV-AIDS test from public hospital
B.
Health Clearance from local health Office
C.
Food testing report from Bureau of Food and Drugs lab
D.
face mask and hairnet from Department of Health
34.
The second law of thermodynamics states that no man-made or natural process operates with 100%
efficiency and therefore, waste is inherent in all nature, and waste will always be generated.
A.
Thermal Wasting
B.
Atrophy
C.
Entropy
D.
Dissipation
35.
Also called 'cradle to grave'approach, this refers to the entire process of investigating and valuing the
environmental impacts of a given product or service, in particular, raw materials production,
manufacture, distribution, use and disposal as well as intervening transportation steps necessitated or
caused by the product's existence, in order to identify the options least burdensome to the natural
environment.
A.
Carbon Footprinting
B.
Zero Waste Management
C.
Industrial Design
D.
Product Life Cycle Assessment
36.
Under International Standards Organization ISO 14001 (1996) for business organizations, the principle
that no money should be lent or extended to any firm that has not proven itself to be environmentally
responsible, is contained in which goal of a company's ISO 14001 Environmental Management System?
Discuss
A.
To reduce overall costs
B.
To attract more ethical investment
C.
To gain or retain market share via a green corporate image
D.
To reduce prosecution risks and insurance risks
37.
Of the following forms of evidence that Indigenous Peoples can use to claim aboriginal land, which
category of evidence needs substantial assistance from a planner with extensive background in
anthropology?
A.
Tax declarations and proof of payment of taxes; survey plans and/or sketch maps;
B.
Old improvements such as planted trees, stone walls, rice fields, water systems, orchards,
farms,monuments, houses and other old structures, or pictures thereof;
C.
Historical accounts, Spanish Documents, ancient documents;
D.
Genealogical surveys; written and oral testimonies of living witnesses made under oath; written records
of customs and traditions
E.
Burial grounds or pictures thereof religious sites andfor artifacts in the area
38.
Conventional 'Euclidean' or exclusionary zoning is faulted for the following valid reasons. Which reason
comes from the feminist perspective of Jane Jacobs, et al?
A.
Rigid segregation of land uses unnecessarily lengthens travel distance to meet other needs and
discourages walking. social interaction, and neighborly behavior favorable to local community-building
B.
Self-contained, balanced, sociable communities deter crime, reduce anomie, lessen psychological
distress caused by movement to/from work or school, increase quality family time, and prevent other
social problems.
C.
Exclusionary -.land use encourages satellite bedroom communities where work and other needs are not
available
D.
Increased Vehicle Miles Traveled (VMl) correlates with traffic jatns, accidents, labor productivity losses,
greater greenhouse gas emissions that aggravate air pollution, and huge external economic costs borne
by society in general
E.
Mothers with infants and young children are zoned of production as jobs in the CBD or in factory district
are too far from home to enable women to successfully carry out both domestic duties and formal
employment
39.
Of the following central features of Free Market as described by classical economics, which one has not
been proved to be universally true in open capitalist societies?
A.
Law of Supply and Demand
B.
Profit Motive
C.
Broad Range of Consumer Choices Through Diversified Production
D.
Perfect Competition
40.
This refers to any novel or improved product, process, gadget, or idea that adds utility to a previous or
existing good or service in the market beyond the usual expectations of consumers and often in
response to a felt demand in society.
A.
Ingenuity
B.
Invention
C.
Innovation
D.
Improvisation
E.
High tech gadgetry
41.
In the 21st century, many economically-poor but naturally-endowed countries have focused on the
"Pleasure Economy" or the "Experience Economy" through such flagship programs as ecotourism,
cultural tourism, me?ical tourism, adventure & sports tourism, arts, 'high-touch' activities, high fashion
design or haute couture, etc which are together called
A.
Tertiary services sector
B.
Quaternary services sector
C.
Quinary services sector
D.
Recreational and visitorial services sector
42.
Basic principle of Heritage Conservation which holds that historic structures and treasures should be
utilized by preserving as much of their exteriors as possible while adopting more modem uses in their
interiors.
A.
Total Makeover
B.
Reconfigurative Renovation
C.
Converted Property
D.
Adaptive Reuse
43.
Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal issuances. Under AFMA,
only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec.
20 limits it to
A.
15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized
B.
20% of total arable land in any LGU
C.
10 %of total cultivable land in any city and independent chartered cities
D.
25% of total alienable and disposable land
44.
Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Section 20, reclassification of agricultural land in component
cities and first to third class municipalities is limited to _ of farm land.
A.
5%
B.
10%
C.
15%
D.
20%
45.
Of the five correct criteria for conversion of farmland into non-agricultural uses, which criterion is within
the control of the investor or project proponent, in terms of production activity, design, selection and
mobilization of men, money,materials, and machines.?
A.
The reclassification of land use must be consistent with the natural expansion of the municipality or city,
as contained in their approved land use plan
B.
The area to be reclassified in use is not the only remaining food production area of the community;
C.
Areas with lower crop productivity will be accorded priority for land use conversion;
D.
The proposed project is supportive of agro-industrial development, and will generate alternative
livelihood opportunities for the affected community.
46.
This refers to a set of accounts, usually in monetary figures, widely used in the analysis of inter-industry
relationships and the extent of importing/exporting among industries within an economy whether focal,
regional, or national.
A.
Value added chain
B.
Input/output model
C.
Discounted cash flow tables
D.
Inter-area analysis
47.
Which part of the feasibility study aims to determine a projects desirability in terms of its net
contribution to the overall welfare of the locality, region, or country as a whole?
A.
Sensitivity analysis
B.
Discriminant analysis
C.
Stakeholder or distributive analysis
D.
Economic analysis
48.
Related to time value of money (v) this refers to the rate used to adjust the future streams of costs and
benefits U into their present value, taking into account time preference, opportunity cost of capital,
externalities from currency and exchange, risk, and uncertainty.
A.
Inflation rate
B.
Discount rate
C.
Investment rate
D.
Depreciation rate
49.
Also called 'subscription money,' this is a deposit given to the seller to show that the potential buyer has
serious intentions about the transaction.
A.
Mobilization fund
B.
Subornment
C.
Marked money
D.
Earnest money
E.
Grease money
50. This is a provision made in advance for the gradual liquidation of a future obligation by periodic
charges against the capital account.
A. Downpayment
B. Reservation
C. Amortization
D. Equity
E. Surcharge
F. Pay-off
Hidden EP Quiz No. 20

1.
'Hazard' differs from 'risk' in that
A.
'Hazard' can be avoided while 'risk' always resultin disaster
B.
'Hazard' can be remedied or mitigated while risk is imminent and inevitable.
C.
'Hazard'is merely geologic while risk is essentially economic.
D.
'Hazard' refers to likely occurrence of natural events while 'risk' involves clear and present threat to
human life, propety, and.community welfare.'
2.
Which is not a key element of hazard mitigation planning?
A.
Land-use plans
B.
Development control or management
C.
Land titles
D.
Hazard assessment
3.
The followingare all environmentally critical areas under Presidential Decree 2146. If a common hazard
such as geologic fault line runs through all of them,which of these areas would have the greatest risk?
Discuss
A.
(A) areas with critical slopes
B.
Natural parks, Watershed reserves, Wildlife preserves, and Sanctuaries.
C.
Areas traditionally occupied by ICCs/lPS
D.
Habitat of any endangered or threatened species or indigenous Philippine Wildlife (flora and fauna)
4.
A 'drainage basin' is the total land area that contributes runoff to a given stream. What characteristic of
a drainage basin causes it to have an efficient response to rainfall'?
A.
Sloping topography in bowl-like formation
B.
Permeable soils
C.
Plasticity of clay bottom
D.
Filtration by its wetlands
5.
At the headwaters of a stream where the local gradient/energy is highest,the process of 'erosion'
dominates while at thestream's base level where a delta forms,t.t)e process that dominates is called
A.
Percolation
B.
Evapo-transpiration
C.
Sedimentation
D.
Nundation
E.
Infiltration
6.
What does 'lag time' refer to in the context of flooding?
A.
The time required to clean up an area following a flood
B.
The time it takes for emergency officials to provide relief to residents of a flood-stricken area
C.
The time it takes for streamflow to travel from the drainage divide to the mouth of the stream
D.
The time between rainfall and peak streamflow
7.
What effect does urbanization have on rainfall-runoff relationships?
A.
Impermeable surfaces tend to inhibitinfiltration and thus increase peak flood discharges
B.
Storm sewers tend to route runoff to streams more quickly and thus reduce the lag times
C.
Urbanization tends to decrease the recurrence interval of any given flood
D.
Urbanization tends to increase the frequency of any given flood
E.
All of the choices
8.
What is the mechanism that causes land subsidence?
A.
A reductionin subsurface.fluid pressures within sedimentarylayers
B.
An increase in weight at the land surface
C.
A heavy rainfall for a prolonged time period
D.
The dissolution of soluble bedrock suclh as limestone exposed at the land surface
9.
Tremors or vibrations of the Earth due to shock waves ge11erated by the rupturing of deep ayer rocks
are known as
A.
Raptures
B.
Fault scarp
C.
Earthquakes
D.
Continental drift
E.
Plate tectonics
10.
The natural movement downslope of soil, regolith,or rocks under the influence of gravity without
seismic motion or heavy rainfallis collectively called
A.
Avalanche
B.
Mass wasting
C.
Crustal abrasion
D.
Erosion by wind
E.
Shear stress
11.
6. 'intensity' varies from place to place according to its distance from the epicenter of a tremor,while _
approximates the total physical energy released at the epicenter during a seismic movement.
A.
"scale"
B.
"heft''
C.
"grade'
D.
"magnitude"
E.
"enormity"
12.
Because of the permanent danger zone,no settlement, barangay, sitio, or purok ought to be established
at the foot of an active Volcano within a radius of
A.
4 kms
B.
5 kms
C.
6 kms
D.
7 kms
E.
8 kms
13.
What relevant maps would have to be combined in order to construct a composite hydrometeorologic
risk map?
A.
Historic paths of Philippines' 21 cyclones average per year over a ten-year period
B.
Precipitation, cloudiness, mean temperature,wind patterns of southwest & northeast monsoons, high
tide and low tide
C.
Location of population, type of climate, average rainfall,slope, elevation, rivers and waterways, 50 yr or
100-yr flood level
D.
Coastal surges, saltwater intrusion,groundwater overdraft,land subsidence, loss of soil strength,
liquefaction hazard
14.
These are geometric coordinates for designating the location of places on the surface of the Earth; the
First gives the location of a place above or below the equator, expressed by angular measurements
ranging from at the equator o.90at the poles, while the Second gives the location of a place east or
west of an upright line called the prime meridian, and is measured in angles ranging from at the prime
meridian to 180 at the International Date Line.
A.
Landmass and ocean
B.
Cartesian x,y points
C.
North pole and south pole
D.
Latitude and longitude
15.
In a computer graphics/mapping system, this is a data structure for representing point and line data by
means of geometric coordinates;it can also be a set of line segments joined end-to-end to make a
curved path in space
A.
Vector
B.
Polygon
C.
Curvature
D.
Field
E.
Node
16.
In a computer graphics/mapping system, the point at which a line changes direction or tenninates
A.
Vertex (8) vortex
B.
Centrifuge
C.
Intercept
D.
intersect
17.
This refers to aerial photographs that have been rectified to produce a;; accurate image of the Earth by
removing ti!t of p!anet, relief displacements, and topographic distortions which occurred when the
photo was taken from an airplane
A.
Photogrammetry
B.
Orthophotography
C.
Remote sensing
D.
Geomatics
E.
Geodetics
18.
An aerial photograph taken from a helicopter at a height of 80 meters would produce a map scale of
1:60 with a margin of error of 15 millimeters.If taken from an airplane at an altitude of 1O,OOOm, what
would be the resulting map scale?
A.
1 : 1,000
B.
1 : 2,000
C.
1 : 5,000
D.
1 : 25,000
19.
In eco-engineering or convergence analysis as popularized by Dr Meliton Juanico, what kind of map is
derived by superimposing 'land suitability' and 'physical constraints' on 'existing land use'?
A.
Proposed land use
B.
Agro-ecological zones
C.
Heritage & tourism overlay zones
D.
Disaster-resilient communities
20.
What are the elements of urban form?
A.
Infill, densification, property conversion, retrofitting
B.
Vertical, horizontal,diagonal,curvilinear
C.
Beauty, amenity, safety, convenie:ice.functionality
D.
Land use, transport network, layout, building types,density
21.
A "tripolar" or "bipolar" form in municipal CLUP would focus on comprehensively developing new
sections as magnets or complete attractions for population and business,in order to ease pressure on
traditional center, and is an example of
Discuss
A.
Simple Dispersion
B.
Concentrated Dispersion
C.
Simple Concentration
D.
Compact Development
22.
Which of the following urban street layout creates the most severe transport congestion?
A.
Gridiron or rectilinear
B.
Circumferential & radial
C.
Un-linear/strip development
D.
Irregular free pattern
23.
'it is the merchants ethos, with our consent,that sustains the slumlord and the land rapist,.the polluters
of rivers and atmosphere.In the name of profit they preempt the seashore and sterilize the landscape,
fell the great forests, fill protective marshes,build cynically in the flood plain. It is the claim of
convenience - or its illusion - that drives the expressway through neighborhoods, homes, and priceless
parks, a taximeter of indifferent greed'
A.
Jane Jacobs
B.
Ian McHarg
C.
D.
Rachel Carson
E.
Ame Naess
24.
In the perception of space,which sense affects placement of rooms which could limit unpleasant odors?
A.
Auditory
B.
Olfactory
C.
Visual
D.
Thermal
E.
Tactile
F.
Kinesthetic
25.
Which sensual type enables one to identify materials at a distance?
A.
Auditory
B.
Olfactory
C.
Visual
D.
Themal
E.
tactile
F.
Kinesthetic
26.
What type of distance in space is that which is psychological and is indicated by a hidden band that
contains two or more individuals in a group?
A.
Critical distance
B.
Hypnotic distance
C.
Flight distance
D.
Personal distance
E.
Social distance
27.
The 'clutter -Of cities' consists of disorderly, crisscrossing electricity/telephone utility cables, superfluous
signages, political oversized billboards advertizing messages of sensualism, materialism, and
conspicuous consumption all -of which hinder ones appreciation of outstanding built structures and
cityscapes.
A.
Visual blight
B.
Litter and nuisance
C.
Aesthetic decay
D.
Street anarchy
E.
Communicative pollution
28.
This refers to phenomenon in an area of high building density where heat buildup is intense and
characterized by mean temperature increase of Celsius due to solar reflectance on impervious surfaces,
concentration of air pollutants, dust dome, and smog, all affecting local air circulation and micro-climatic
conditions.
A.
Kelvin Aberration
B.
Pollution Plumes
C.
Thennal Dorne
D.
Infernal City
E.
Urban Heat Island
29.
Which the following indicates good site planning?
A.
Best Orientation to Sun, Sea and Wind
B.
Congruence and compatibility with its surrounding
C.
Proactive features to anticipate possibility of disaster
D.
Maximized space
E.
Efficient circulation
F.
All of the choices
30.
Which one is not an innovative element of Planned Unit Development?
A.
Culde sac, horseshoe design, and motorcourt
B.
Usable open space
C.
Complementarity of building types
D.
Preservation of significant natural land features
31.
This refers to the establishment of mini-forests or small nature parks, lining roads and highways with
trees, shrubs, or ornamental plants, and ground landscaping of Schools, hospitals, and other
government agencies in order to improve the environment in built-up areas.
A.
Reforestation
B.
Miniature Forestry
C.
Urban Forestry
D.
Silvicuture
E.
Agro-Forestry
32.
Presidential Decree 2146 defines amenity areas' as those With high aesthetic values such as the
following,except one.
A.
Outstanding landscapes, Seascapes, and ViewScapes
B.
Planetarium, space observatory, and science centrum
C.
Heritage sites and historic places
D.
(D) municipal plazas and public parks
33.
Which is not a benefit from having large green space in cities?
A.
Absorbs air pollution
B.
Gives off oxygen
C.
Cools the air as Water transpires
D.
Provides habitat to wild beasts
E.
Provides shade withless electricity required
F.
Muffles noise and creates anisland of peace
34.
This nonrenewable resource is the most pollutive source of energy that releases toxic elements such as
lead and arsenic
A.
Krypton
B.
Coal
C.
Hydropower
D.
Titanium
E.
Natural gas
F.
Ethanol
35.
Which natural source of energy can be tapped by barangays and cooperatives for the electrification of
all rural villages
A.
Tidal power and Ocean current
B.
Coal and natural gas
C.
Solar energy
D.
Geothennal
E.
Methane and biogas from sanitary landfills, septic tanks, sewage treatment
F.
Biomass
36.
All of the following, except one, interfere in the harnessing of Solar energy and natural Wind by means
of photovoltaic cells, windmills and turbines?
A.
Oversized roadside tarpaulin signs
B.
Height restrictions in zoning
C.
Large smokestack cylinders and industrial chimneys
D.
Trees in urban parks and on street medians
37.
This refers to the goal or principle of Urban Design that a place needs to foster a 'sense of security and
pleasantness' emanating from
A.
Legibility
B.
Imageability
C.
SIR - smooth interpersonal relations
D.
Conviviality
E.
Peace and tranquility
38.
An eco-centric urban design would focus on
A.
'oikos' or the dynamics of the home as a collection of kindred individuals
B.
Human thrill and excitement derived from living with biodiverse species and wild beasts
C.
Rhythm and balance of the ecosystem; human communion with Nature in a spiritual as well as ethical
sennse
D.
Man's self-satisfaction as the apex of Creation and master-subduer of the Earth as stated in the Holy
Scnptures
39.
'Smart Growth USA,' with its ten declared principles, deliberately combats 'amorphic sprawl' by means
of
A.
Mixed use zoning rather than conventional exclusionary zoning
B.
Design of walkable, bikable, sociable, health-oriented settlements
C.
Residential,commercial, institutional uses are integrated & clustered
D.
Interconnected modes of transport
E.
Compact development through infilling
F.
All of the choices
40.
Under Leadership in Ehergy and Environmental Design (LEED) of the US Green Building Council,which
refers to 'xeriscapir
Discuss
A.
Planting trees that can provide food for building occupants such as mango,avocado, apple, and orange
trees.
B.
Landscape design_ that requires little or no irrigation or maintenance
C.
Using artificial turf in place of real glass on parts of a building
D.
Advanced drip irrigation system that responds to water demand by sensing soil moisture content
E.
Landscape design that directs the flow of rainwater on-site to the area that requires the most irrigation.
41.
Which design can be credited for 'Community Connectivity' under LEED of the US Green Building
Council?
A.
Greenfield site located within short walking distance to many common amenities
B.
Public rental housng connected by on-ramps to alarge freeway intersection
C.
Seven-storey commercial building linked toa food processing plant at a center a 10 hectare complex
D.
Socialized housing site beside academic buildings of a state university
E.
Suburban brownfield within 500 meters from light rail public transportation
42.
In air-conditioning systems, the term 'free cooling'is used to describe the use of the cooling capacity of
ambient air to directly cool the space,thereby:
A.
Reducing the peak cooling load
B.
Reducing the running hours of the chiller
C.
Increasing ventilation rates
D.
Increasing the size of chiller required
43.
An example of positive easement is one that
A.
Preserves a certain habitat
B.
Protects a certain stream
C.
Allows the right to harvest a natural crop
D.
Stipulates not to drain a wetland
44.
Which of the following population characteristics are important in determining 'housing need'?
A.
Socio-economic characteristics
B.
Overcrowding
C.
Formation of new households/families
D.
In-migration, out-migration
E.
AIl of the choices
45.
A tool used to create elite landscapes that convey socio-economic identity, characterized by imitation of
rustic estates or feudal-age manors, detailed ornamental iconography,and other manifestations of
conspicuous consumption
A.
Milionaires 'row
B.
Red light boulevard
C.
Gentrification yacht and polo club
D.
Large lot zoning
46.
Which agency is tasked with the registration of subdivision and condominium dealers, brokers,salesmen,
associations?
A.
National Housing Authority
B.
Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
C.
Securities and Exchange Commission
D.
Presidential Commission on the Urban Poor
E.
Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council
F.
Professional Regulation Commission
47.
In the Philippines,low density housing development means dwelling units per hectare.
A.
35 and below
B.
36 to 150
C.
151 to 210
D.
211and above
48.
Under the National Building Code,residence is not just the home structure proper but can include
accessory structures such as private garage, servants quarter, storehouse, home office,sari sari, and -
A.
Carinderia
B.
Farm and poultry
C.
Day care center
D.
guardhouse
E.
Warehouse
49.
A 'single detached dwelling unit' is defined as a house that is
A.
Good for one household
B.
Intended for ownership
C.
Completely surrounded by a yard
D.
With one or more of its sides abutting the property line
50. The body under the immediate control and supervision of the President of the Philippines, charged
with the main function of coordinating the activities of the government housing agencies to ensure the
accomplishment of the National Shelter Program.
A. NEDA
B. HUDCC
C. NHA
D. HLURB
Hidden EP Quiz No. 21

1.
751. All of the following are exempted from regulation of PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977,
except
A.
Traditional indigenous family dwellings
B.
Socialized and low-cost housing under Batas Pambansa 220
C.
Garden pools,grottos, aquariums not exceeding 500 mm in depth
D.
Piggery and poultry houses of over 100 sqm
E.
Sheds, outhouses, greenhouses ,gazebos, aviaries, not exceeding 6 sqm in total area
2.
752. Under PD 1096, what should be the proportion of the sidewalk to that of the right of way?
A.
1/4
B.
1/5
C.
1/6
D.
1/2
E.
1//7
3.
756. Floor Area Ratio of 1.5 and below is considered as low density. What FAR is labeled as "very high
density?"
A.
2 and above
B.
3 and above
C.
4 and above
D.
5 and above
E.
6 and above
4.
753. Under PD 1096, what is referred to as written authorization by the building official allowing a
constructed structure to be used by the owner
A.
Building permit
B.
Inspectorate clearance
C.
Certificate of completion
D.
Certificate of occupancy
E.
All of the above
5.
754. Under PD 957, which one of the following is not necessary in determining the suitability of the site
for economic or socialized housing?
A.
Physical suitability
B.
Availability of basic needs
C.
On the perimeter of an ecozone
D.
Presence of geohazard
E.
Conformity to the national development plan
F.
Links to the transportation network
6.
755. A mixed use building has 6 storeys of 1.00 sq. meter each on a lot area of 2,000 sq. meter. What is
the FAR?
A.
2:1
B.
3:1
C.
4:1
D.
5:1
E.
6:1
7.
757. What is conventional Euclidean zoning most concerned about?
A.
Unhampered flow of ideas, people, goods and services
B.
Efficiency of land occupancy and non-wastage of space
C.
Compatibility and non-compatibility of land uses
D.
Liberalization and free play of market forces
E.
All of the choices
8.
758. This type of town regulation says that man-made structures should be of such height, bulk, or
design so as not to upstage, play down, or draw attention away from a landmark (eg Eiffel Tower),
natural landscape, or character of place
A.
Design aesthetics
B.
Architectural masterplan
C.
Cultural mapping
D.
Form-zoning
E.
All of the choices
9.
759. When a proponent of a proposed project applies for 'locational clearance,' which consideration is
first and foremost from the perspective of the approving authority?
A.
Community disruption, relocation and the required land acquisition
B.
Consistency with local land use plan and with zoning map
C.
Likely impacts on town traffic and local parking
D.
Carbon Footprint from the use of fossil fuels in power generation, company bus shuttles, executives
luxury cars
E.
Amount of tax and non-tax revenues to be received by the Local Government Unit
F.
Consumption of power, water, and other utilities
10.
760. Exemptions, special permissions and relief from provisions of land use plan and zoning ordinance
are obtained from?
A.
Office of the Mayor/Local Chief Executive
B.
Planning Commission or Planning & Development Office
C.
Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments
D.
Office of the Vice Mayor as head of Sanggunian
E.
Regional Development Office
F.
Provincial Development Office
11.
761. A type of land use control where there may be no possibility of the application of the right of
reverter is called
A.
Restrictive covenants
B.
Telluric
C.
Deed of sale
D.
Monolithic
E.
None of the above
12.
763. The test of 'rational basis,' as defined by the US Supreme Court,
Discuss
A.
Requires that all government actions be the least restrictive means of accomplishing the goal
B.
Justifies a governmental action if there is a reasonable connection between the action and its goal
C.
Tests the relationship between a variance and its hardship
D.
Only applies to zoning actions
E.
All of the above
13.
764. The test of compelling governmental interest as defined by the US Supreme Court,
A.
Means that conditions compel government to act the way that it does
B.
Requires that governmental action be written in forceful language to compel citizens to obey
C.
Requires that legislation generally be the least restrictive means of accomplishing the objective
D.
Applies only if the challenged legislation has an impact on a fundamental religious tenet or suspect
classification
E.
All of the above
14.
765. According to scientific studies at UPLB, one degree Celsius (1C) increase in temperature and
humidity reduces total rice yield by at least 8% and corn yield by at least 5%. In livestock, the loss is as
much as 33% of new offsprings due to
A.
Congenital defects and deformations due to mutation
B.
Reduced appetite, feed intake, and body energy reserve
C.
Excessive burning of calories and loss of weight
D.
Loss of mating opportunities for breeders
E.
All of the above
15.
766. Which of following substances has lowest potential to contribute to air pollution &
atmospheric/meteorologic anomalies?
A.
Nitrous Oxide - N20
B.
Nitrogen Dioxide - NOx
C.
Chlorofluorocarbons - CFCs
D.
Hydrogen-containing CFCs (HCFCs)
E.
Methane
F.
Ozone
16.
767. Which of the following greenhouse gases has the greatest heat-trapping ability per molecule and
was consequently phased out by the Montreal Protocol in 1989?
A.
Carbon dioxide
B.
Carbon monoxide
C.
Chlorofluorocarbon
D.
Methane
E.
Nitrous oxide
17.
768. Which of the following is least likely to be an effect of climate change?
Discuss
A.
Loss of fertile delta regions for agriculture
B.
Change in global patterns of precipitation
C.
Decreased rate of photosynthesis in vegetation
D.
Increased frequency of hurricanes
E.
Extinction of some species that have narrow temperature requirements
F.
None of the choices
18.
769. Climate change will affect the distribution of species because
Discuss
A.
Hot places will become hotter and cold places will become even colder
B.
It will change the location of habitats that provide requirements for growth, survival, or reproduction
C.
Carbon production and carbon footprint of different species are unequal and unevenly distributed
worldwide
D.
Many areas submerged in water will become dry, thus forming new land bridges like in the last glacial
age
E.
All of the choices
F.
None of the choices
19.
770. Framework for Action 2005-2015 (HFA) to make the world safer and to substantially reduce
disaster losses. Which of 5 priority areas below pertains to each community's coping mechanisms and
modifications in its way of life?
A.
Ensure that disaster risk reduction becomes a national and local priority with strong institutional basis
for implementation
B.
Identify, assess, and monitor disaster risks and enhance early warning systems.
C.
Use knowledge, innovation and education to build a culture of safety and resilience at all levels.
D.
Reduce the underlying risk factors
E.
Strengthen disaster preparedness for effective response at all levels
20.
771. The setback of a septic tank from a residential wall should be at least 1.5 meters or 5 feet while
the setback of a disposal field or leach field is 25 meters or 8 feet. What should be the minimum
distance between your septic tank and leach field from your neighbors exterior wall?
Discuss
A.
2 meters
B.
3 meters
C.
4 meters
D.
5 meters
E.
6 meters
21.
772. What should be the minimum distance between a drinking water-well or spring from a septic tank?
A.
15 meters
B.
25 meters
C.
35 meters
D.
45 meters
E.
55 meters
22.
773. What planning measures contribute to the evolution and development of a sustainable
transportation system?
A.
Reduce need to travel
B.
Change people's travel behavior
C.
Integrate different modes of transport
D.
Give people more choices and more accessibility
E.
Provide transport with new sources of energy
F.
All of the above
G.
None of the choices
23.
774. In the physical design of roads, which of the following increases the possibility of accidents and
mishaps?
A.
Prescribed dimensions according to hierarchy of roads
B.
Conforms to natural topography
C.
Conforms to BP 344 Accessibility Law
D.
Blind comers
E.
Moderate slope/grade
F.
Adequate sight distance
24.
775. 'Traffic calming' is a
A.
Course of Tai Chi and 'Qi Gong' exercises to de-stress drivers
B.
Package of grade-separation measures to physically segregate vehicles and pedestrians
C.
Package of measures to increase capacity of local roads so that traffic can move more quickly
D.
Package of traffic engineering measures to reduce speed on local roads and divert through-traffic
elsewhere
E.
Police enforcement campaign to reduce vehicle noise and emissions
25.
776. Which of the following is not a measure of travel demand management (TOM)?
A.
Controls on public transport
B.
Controls on land use development
C.
Controls on vehicle ownership
D.
Controls on vehicle use
E.
Controls on parking
26.
777. The following represent how government subsidizes automobile use over mass transit, except one.
A.
Large annual funding for highway maintenance
B.
Government research on development of fuels
C.
Investment incentives for tollway and expressway Corporations
D.
Market rate and cost-recovery level for light rail fares
E.
All of the above
27.
778. In contrast to pedal-driven 'trisikad', what is environmentalists' basis of opposition to two-stroke
motor-driven tricycles?
A.
Greater incidence of road accidents
B.
Increase in air pollution
C.
Limited Service capacity and range of movement
D.
Slower speed increases congestion along national highways
E.
All of the above
28.
779. The following are the basic elements of human settlements according to Dr. Konstantinos Doxiadis.
Which one pertains to the built environment or physical capital?
A.
Anthropos
B.
Nature
C.
Shells and networks
D.
Society
E.
Social structure
29.
780. An individual, group, organization, sector or Community who has a direct or indirect interest in a
policy, program, or project, who affects or is affected by - positively or negatively - the implementation
and outcome of it, is called
A.
Recipient/beneficiary
B.
Proponent/exponent
C.
Advocate
D.
stakeholder
E.
Shareholder
30.
781. The "SMART test" by George Doran means that both task objectives and 'process objectives have
to be specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and
A.
Tenable
B.
truthful
C.
Time-bounded
D.
Testable
E.
Treatable
31.
782. What is a 'theory' in urban and regional planning as a field of social Science?
A.
An educated guess being tested by numerous experiments
B.
Outcome or proof to establish causal connection among key actors and factors
C.
A set of principles derived from envisioned future state of society
D.
A set of interrelated propositions or hypotheses that has been supported by several studies in the past
E.
All of the choices
32.
783. A prediction is a conditional statement about the future based on mathematical computation or
statistical model that uses available data to extrapolate past and present trends into the future, while
_______is a judgmental statement of what an analyst believes to be the most likely logical future
according to his/her subjective evaluation.
A.
Premonition
B.
Forecast
C.
Foresight
D.
Vibration
E.
Prophecy
33.
784. Which of the following is not a research method?
A.
Questionnaire
B.
Interview
C.
Appraisal
D.
Case study
E.
Survey
34.
785. A "problem tree" is a
A.
A kind of tree that grows in the wrong place
B.
A method of environmental impact assessment
C.
A tool to understand cause and effect relations among problems
D.
Used to trace ancient roots of intractable development problems
35.
786. In the structure of informant interviews, the acronym "STAR" method stands for
A.
Select, Talk, Articulate ,Relate
B.
Solve, Test, Analyze, Repeat
C.
Situation, Task, Action. Result
D.
Salaries, Travels, Add-ons, Refunds
E.
Simple, True, Action, Reflection
36.
787. The strength of survey questionnaire as research instrument lies in
A.
Ability to provide baseline data
B.
Ability to measure or quantify
C.
Ability to reveal potential relations between different sets of data
D.
Ability to draw out the most sincere responses from informants
E.
All of the choices
37.
788. In 'Quality of Life Assessment,' which category of indicators of human ability and well-being would
have a clear spatial dimension?
A.
"to be"
B.
"not to be"
C.
"to dream"
D.
"to become"
E.
"to do"
38.
789. An environmental chemist in a laboratory reports a new discovery based on experimental results.
If the experimental results are to be valid, environmental chemists in other laboratories should be able
to
A.
Repeat the experiment with a different variable and obtain the same results
B.
perform the same experiment and obtain different results
C.
Repeat the same experiment and obtain the same results
D.
Perform the same experiment under different experimental conditions and obtain the same results
E.
All of the above
F.
None of the choices
39.
790. An investigation was designed to determine the effect of ultraviolet light on mold spore growth.
Two groups of mold spores were grown under identical conditions, except one group was exposed only
to ultraviolet light, while the other group was grown in total darkness. In this investigation, the group of
mold spores grown in total darkness is known as the
A.
Experimental group
B.
Pilot group
C.
Control group
D.
Manipulated group
E.
Focus group
40.
791. Two test tubes were filled with a solution of bromthymol blue.A technician exhaled through a
straw into each tube, and the bromthymol blue turned yellow. An aquatic green plant was placed into
each tube, and the tubes were corked. One tube was placed in the dark, and one was placed in direct
sunlight. The yellow solution in the tube in sunlight turned blue, while the one in the dark remained
yellow.Which statement best explains why the solution in the tube placed in sunlight turned to a blue
color?
A.
Oxygen was used for photosynthesis.
B.
Oxygen was removed by respiration.
C.
Carbon dioxide was removed by photosynthesis.
D.
Carbon dioxide was produced by respiration
E.
None of the above
41.
762. The negative criteria for the approval of variance is that
A.
Such relief may be granted without substantial detriment to the public good
B.
Such relief may be granted without substantially impairing the intent and purpose of the land use plan
C.
Such relief may be granted without substantially impairing the intent and purpose of the zoning
ordinance
D.
All of the above.
E.
None of the choices
42.
792. The use of a variety of methods, sources. or field team members, at least three in kind or category,
to cross check and validate information in order to limit possible biases in a research study is called
A.
Corroboration
B.
Confirmatory test
C.
triangulation
D.
Reconnaissance
E.
Cross-disciplinary control 3
43.
793. This method uses words rather than numbers to describe and measure key actors and critical
factors. Words are then arranged on a descriptive scale and given approximate numeric values for
analytic purposes, but such scale can not accurately reflect magnitude or intensity of variables and
dimensions .
A.
Multi-variate Analysis
B.
Qualitative Analysis
C.
Muddling Through
D.
Phenomenology
44.
794. What is the smallest time frame using the cohort survival method of population analysis?
A.
2 years
B.
3 years
C.
4 years
D.
5 years
E.
6 years
45.
795. A country currently has a population of 100 million and an annual growth rate of 35 percent. If the
growth rate remains constant, what will be the population of this country in 40 years?
A.
150 million
B.
200 million
C.
300 million
D.
400 million
E.
600 million
46.
This error in logic means that conclusions drawn from analysis of a group are applied to the groups
members without regard for individual variation or unknown factors that can come from human
attitude and idiosyncratic behavior.
A.
Sweeping generalization
B.
Argumentum ad hominem
C.
Ecological fallacy
D.
Equivocation
E.
Begging the question
F.
Fallacy of affirming the disjunct or the consequent
47.
797. How many square meters are there in one acre?
A.
328
B.
1, 250
C.
4,047
D.
8,700
E.
43560
48.
798. How many acres are there in one hectare?
A.
2.47
B.
0.96
C.
3.28
D.
10
E.
100
49.
799. How many hectares are there in one square kilometer
A.
10
B.
100
C.
1,000
D.
10,000
E.
100,000
50. 800. This refers to amount of energy necessary to raise one gram of water one degree Celsius, its
approximate equivalent inSyteme Internationale metric measurements is 1055 joules .
A. Calorie
B. Kelvin
C. BTU-British Thermal Unit
D. Kilojoule
E. Psi- pounds per square inch

1.
If "pre-industrial society" is mainly agricultural, kinship-based, self-sufficient, and relatively parochial,
"industrial society" in contrast
Discuss
A.
Minimizes farming to channel capital into factories
B.
Prioritizes mining of minerals and precious stones
C.
Aims for mass production through mechanization & automation
D.
Relies on the output of white-collar professionals
2.
Due to greater division of labor, there is more heterogeneity of population and classes of workers
beginning with
A.
Primitive subsistence society
B.
Pre-industrial society
C.
Industrial society
D.
Post-industrial society
3.
Built below the Acropolis in the heart of the city-state, the 'marketplace' was the site where ancient
Greeks came together not only for trading and buying of foodstuffs but also for political, social, and
other secular activities
A.
'Parthenon'
B.
'gymnasium'
C.
'erechtheum'
D.
'agora'
E.
'sumposion'
4.
In the biggest and most crowded city during Antiquity, poor residents of Rome (44 BCE) lived on units in
multi-storey residential buildings which they rented but could not own; these were called
A.
'abode'
B.
'domus'
C.
'appartement'
D.
'tenema'
5.
According to the Chicago school of human ecology, 'Invasion' refers to how pioneers and opportunists
push the 'land frontier' farther out; when immigrants settle in waves, they define new land uses for
themselves in a process called
A.
Evolution
B.
Co-location
C.
Succession
D.
Acclimatization
E.
Cohabitation
6.
This refers to a period in US planning history (1890s) when cities were conceived as total systems
designed with broad circulation arteries, network of parks, cluster of focal buildings, and blocks of civic
centers in aesthetic harmony.
A.
New Towns Movement
B.
City Efficient Movement
C.
City Beautiful Movement
D.
City Functional Movement
7.
Which of the following is not a feature of Frank Lloyd Wrights 'Broadacre City' (1932)?
A.
Each person regardless of age has one acre of federal land
B.
Food garden or small farm would be right next to the house
C.
Manufacture commerce set up in twelve 15-storey buildings
D.
Work within walking distance from the home
E.
Railroad and freeway to interconnect cities
F.
Densification would preserve much open space
8.
An approach in urban planning that puts premium on people and nature by building upon the historic
city of traditional neighborhood in such a way that workplaces, shops, and homes would be within
walking distance of each other.
A.
Neo-Populism
B.
Eco-Village
C.
New Urbanism
D.
Dynapolis
E.
Transit-Oriented Development
9.
In Clarence Steins Six Principles of Regional Planning (1920), which one concerns traffic caused by
roadside parking
A.
Plan simply, but comprehensively
B.
Provide ample sites in the right places for community use
C.
Put factories and industrial buildings where they can be used without wasteful transportation of people
and goods
D.
Cars must be stored inside homes
E.
Bring private land and public land into relationship
F.
Arrange for the occupancy of houses
10.
All of the following are true about urban planning except
A.
Changing a city's physical form does not automatically reshape social life
B.
Planning always takes place within a framework of economic and political realities
C.
Planners should be allowed to control all technical aspects of how cities are built
D.
The goals of the planning experiments of the last century have not been met
E.
Cities should be designed in a way that fosters economic, social, cultural and environmental integration.
11.
In his ''Theory of Good City Form,' he argued that norms such as vitality, sense, fit, access, control,
efficiency, and justice - ought to characterize the performance of cities as settlements.
A.
Kevin Lynch
B.
Edward Tollman
C.
John Trawls
D.
Camillo Sitte
12.
What is the smallest unit in the human settlements planning" by Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951)?
A.
House
B.
Anthropos
C.
Organism
D.
Neighborhood
E.
Hamlet
13.
Which of the following is not part of typology of cities under ekistics school of Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis
(1951)?
A.
Ecumenopolis
B.
Megalopolis
C.
Metropolis
D.
Agropolis
E.
Eperopolis
14.
Under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 25, one of the following is not among the types of cities in the Philippines.
A.
B.
Independent Cities
C.
Sister Cities
D.
Component Cities -
15.
Under RA 7160 LGC Sec 452, what is the minimum population requirement to approve a Highly
Urbanized City?
A.
At least 200,000
B.
At least 500,000
C.
At least 1 million
D.
At least 10 million
16.
In central place theory (1933), this refers to the minimum population required to make a service viable.
A.
Resident population
B.
Captive market
C.
Threshold population
D.
Population explosion
17.
In Walter Christaller's central place theory (1933), neighborhood store is an example of 'first-order
services' while grocery store, gas station, furniture, and post office are examples of
A.
Secondary services
B.
Tertiary services
C.
Quaternary services
D.
Quinary services
18.
''Young dependents" in the Philippine setting refers to population with ages
A.
0-4
B.
0-6
C.
0-10
D.
0-14
19.
"Old dependents" in the Philippine setting refers to population with ages
A.
60 and above
B.
65 and above
C.
70 and above
D.
80 and above
20.
'Working-age population" including those actively seeking and not seeking work, covers those with ages
between
A.
10-65
B.
15-64
C.
18-65
D.
21-60
21.
In the following formal statement on population policy(2010-2016) from President Benigno Simeon
Aquino 111, which statement pertains to the States obligation to inform its citizens of all family planning
alternatives from A to Z.
A.
" ... I am against abortion as outlawed by the Philippine Constitution.
B.
" ... I am in favor of giving couples the right to choose how best to manage their families so that in the
end, their welfare and that of their children are best served.
C.
... The State must respect each individuals right to follow his or her conscience and religious convictions
on matters and issues pertaining to the unity of the family and the sacredness of human life from
conception to natural death.
D.
... In a situation where couples, especially the poor and disadvantaged ones, are in no position to make
an informed judgment, the State has the responsibility to provide complete information:
E.
...ln the range of options provided to couples, natural family planning and modern methods shall always
be presented as equally available."
22.
According to RA 9710, this refers to the strategy for making women's as well as men's concerns and
experiences an integral dimension of the design, implementation, monitoring, and evaluation of policies
and programs in all political, economic, and societal spheres so that women and men benefit equally
and inequality is not perpetuated.
A.
Integration & rationalization
B.
Gender mainstreaming
C.
Sexual equality
D.
Transgender accommodation
23.
A duly-registered cooperative acquires a river-dredging machinery and waste-water treatment
equipment. Should such acquisitions be subject to real property taxation under RA 7160 LGC Section
234?
A.
Yes
B.
No
C.
It depends on the Local Chief Executive
D.
Subject to the discretion of Assessor
24.
Which of the following is not a part of the General Welfare Clause of RA 7160 LGC Section 167
A.
Hospitality and festivity
B.
Economic prosperity
C.
Balanced ecology & social justice
D.
Health and safety
E.
Preservation & enrichment of culture
F.
Appropriate self-reliant science & technology
25.
Which of the following is not considered idle land under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 2377
A.
Agriculture land of at least one-hectare with 50% of whole area bare and uncultivated
B.
Urban land of at least 1,000 sq.m. with 50% of whole area unutilized and unimproved upon
C.
Grazing land with thick grasses used for pasture of 100 heads of cattle
D.
Stud farm on public land with no ongoing breeding or training activities
26.
Under RA 7160 LGC, who among the following incumbents' may be allowed to practice his/her primary
profession while in public office?
A.
Local Chief Executive
B.
Congressman Representative
C.
Vice-Governor
D.
Municipal Accountant
27.
Under RA 7160 LGC Sec 98, who among the following members of the Local School Board, other than
the Governor or Mayor, has an elective office?
Discuss
A.
Division Superintendent or District Supervisor
B.
LGU Treasurer
C.
Chairperson of sanggunians committee on education
D.
Representatives of federations of teachers, SK youth, PTAs, non-academics
28.
Under the super-region concept of the PGMA administration, Central Luzon as part of the Mega Manila
Extended Urban Region, would focus on
A.
Hacienda farming
B.
Meat processing
C.
Commodity logistics chain
D.
Cyber services
E.
Tourism
29.
Of the so-called "super-regions," which one is being promoted as having the comparative advantage in
tourism?
A.
North Luzon
B.
Central Philippines
C.
Baguio & Cordillera Autonomous Region
D.
Davao Silicon Gulf
30.
Which is a significant accomplishment of "Advocacy Planning" movement as fathered by Paul Davidoff
(1965)
A.
Single women with children were assisted to find employment
B.
Social planning was moved from backroom negotiations into the open public forum
C.
Documentation of long-lasting environmental changes was intensified
D.
Affirmative action and social amelioration were mainstreamed into national policy
E.
Businesses were compelled to draw their employees from the ranks of the poor.
31.
"Decide, announce, defend" summarizes "top-down" planning and management; its opposite in 'bottom
up' planning and management that involves multiple stakeholders would be described as -
A.
Delegate, deload, discharge
B.
Discuss, decide, deliver
C.
Debate, distill, deliberate
D.
Dispute, discourse, direct
32.
Of the Eight-Rungs in the Ladder of Citizen Participation (1969), which steps' would require the planner
to perform 'facilitation' role rather than,"advice," "direction," or "manipulation"?
A.
Counseling; therapy
B.
Consultation; placation
C.
Informing
D.
Partnership; delegated power; citizen control
33.
UN-FAO standards_state that at least 5.7 hectares of aggregate urban-land (residential, commercial,
industrial, etc) and 6 hectares of farm need to be reserved for every 1,000 population. How much urban
land is needed for a town of 22,000?
A.
62.7 hectares
B.
125.4 hectares
C.
220 hectares
D.
1.14 hectares
34.
UN-FAO standards state that at least 0.60 hectares should be devoted to education (public and private)
per thousand population. How much combined area of schools is the minimum for a town of 40,000
people?
A.
40 hectares
B.
24 hectares
C.
10 hectares
D.
240 hectares
35.
HLURB standards state that at least 2.5 hectares of industrial land needs to be reserved for every 1,000
population. How much total industrial land is needed for an independent chartered city of 200,000
people?
A.
200 hectares
B.
400 hectares
C.
500 hectares
D.
2,500 hectares
36.
In terms of land use compatibility, what specific use would be least suitable next to a military police
firing range?
A.
Funeraria
B.
Memorial park
C.
Residential
D.
Open space
E.
Forest
37.
What kind of use would be most compatible around a huge oil depot and LPG gas depository?
A.
Transport terminals
B.
Commercial
C.
BPO call centers
D.
Open space
E.
Hospitals
38.
What would be the most suitable use of geologic fault line with buffer strip of at least 5 m on both sides
from the line?
A.
Aqueduct or tunnel
B.
Floodway
C.
Venice-like canals
D.
Open space farm
E.
Wildlife refuge
39.
In classic urban morphology, since cemeteries' perform solemn private functions' that require neither
exchange nor access to commerce, they ought to be located in
A.
Prime agricultural land
B.
Caves and rocky hills
C.
Fringe belts
D.
Desert
E.
Marginal land
40.
'Performance Zoning' can be described as a tool that
A.
Allows property owners with limited development rights to buy additional rights from another property
B.
Cities can use these to encourage development that exceeds the minimum standards
C.
Regulates the character and quality of the use instead of simply regulating the mere use itself
D.
Establishes objective thresholds and maximum limits of the effects or characteristics of land use
41.
Under the current setup, what government agency has the final authority on conversion of agricultural
land?
A.
DAR
B.
Department of Agriculture
C.
Land Registration Authority
D.
Land Management Bureau
E.
HLURB
F.
HUDCC
42.
This refers to the part of a seashore which is alternately covered by the ebb and flow of tide, technically,
to a string of land margining a body of water, between the low-water line usually at the seaward margin
of a , low tide terrace and the upper limit of wave wash at high tide usually marked by a beach scarp or
berm.
A.
Seaside
B.
Seaboard
C.
Foreshore
D.
Seagrass bed
E.
Beachfront
43.
PD 705 Revised Forestry Code Section 16 affirms that, after a salvage zone of 40 meters from the high
tide mark or shoreline, there shall be protective strips of mangroves or swamps along the coast with
width of at least
A.
20 meters
B.
25 meters
C.
30 meters
D.
35 meters
E.
40 meters
44.
Under Executive Order 23 dated February 1,2011 declaring moratorium on the cutting and harvesting of
timber," which of the following is exempted from the total log ban until the year 2016?
A.
Concessions signed by DENR secretary
B.
Conversion of mangrove forests
C.
Alternate harvesting in industrial and commercial plantations
D.
Small-scale tree cutting, 'carabao logging',and kaingin
45.
Under Executive Order 26 series of 2011 which declared the National Greening Program as DA-DAR--
DENR Convergence Initiative, how many tree seedlings should each government employee plant each
year, a requirement that also applies to students identified by DEPED and CHED?
A.
10
B.
20
C.
25
D.
30
E.
35
46.
The 'bundle of rights' over private alienable-&-disposable property include all of the following rights
except
A.
Utilize, cultivate, develop
B.
Enjoy benefits and earn from
C.
Access, prevent access & control
D.
Non-use, abuse, and misuse
E.
Mortgage, sell, or dispose
F.
Transfer and pass on
47.
Which is not an instrument to prove private rights over land?
A.
Certificate of Title
B.
CLOA
C.
Free Patent
D.
DTI-IPR Patent
E.
Tax Declaration
F.
CADT
48.
Under RA 7279 UDHA Sec 3, this refers to housing programs and projects undertaken by the
government or the private sector for the underprivileged and homeless citizens which include sites and
services development, long-term financing, liberalized terms on interest payments, and other related
benefits.
A.
Economic housing
B.
Socialized housing
C.
Low-cost housing
D.
Open-market housing
49.
Under RA 7279 UDHA Sec. 28, the following are legal forms of eviction or demolition of informal
settlements. Which one concerns most directly the safety of the general public in terms of water
security?
Discuss
A.
When persons occupy railroad tracks, RROW, sidewalks, transmission lines, dump
sites,parks,playgrounds and other public places;
B.
When persons occupy easements of pipelines, reservoirs, esteros, creeks, rivers, shorelines, and
beaches
C.
When government infrastructure projects with available funding are about to be implemented;
D.
When there is a court order of eviction of settlers from a legally-owned private property;
50. Below are some of the documented deficiencies of governments socialized housing with rowhouse
design. Which deficiency is considered the principal cause of the failure of off-city relocation in the
Philippines?
A. 24 sq.m. is inappropriate for large urban families which are typically extended
B. Each dwelling unit has no space for waste sorting, composting, gardening, and domestic crop
production
C. Each dwelling has no provision for natural cooling and energy conservation by means of protective
trees
D. Most housing projects have no provisions for near-site workplaces or employment centers

1.
In planning public facilities and utilities, 'population density' should be rationally matched with
A.
Materials & machines
B.
Nuts and bolts
C.
Service capacity infrastructure
D.
Investments of government
2.
In water supply planning, what classification of water should a residential consumer get from a faucet?
A.
Class AA
B.
Class B
C.
Class C
D.
Class D
E.
Class E
3.
A water system composed of a source, reservoir, distribution system, and communal faucets. Usually,
one faucet serves 4 to 6 households, generally suitable for rural and urban-fringe areas where houses
are clustered densely to justify a simple piped-system.
A.
Level I
B.
Level II
C.
Level III
D.
Level IV
4.
Under PD198 dated May 25, 1973, if a 'water district' can be created for at least one municipality or
cluster of municipalities, what would be the minimum population to be serviced within a water district?
A.
15,000
B.
25,000
C.
35,000
D.
45,000
E.
55,000
5.
Since the permitted width of four-wheel vehicle is 2.5 meters and the minimum clearance between two
parallel vehicles is 0.50 meters, what should be the ideal width of a two-lane farm-to-market road also
called barangay road?
A.
3 meters
B.
6 meters
C.
9 meters
D.
12 meters
6.
Which law exempts, in Section 20, cremation, siga, bonfires, traditional cultural practices, etcetera from
the total ban on incineration?
A.
RA 8749
B.
RA 9003
C.
RA 6969
D.
RA 9275
7.
According to RA 9367 Renewable Energy Act of 2006, what are the additives to gasoline that are harmful
to both people and nature?
A.
Methyl tertiary butyl ether
B.
Isooctane and heptane
C.
Molybdenum oxide
D.
Tetraethyl
8.
Which of the following is least effective for controlling soil erosion caused by wind and water?
A.
planting windbreaks
B.
Planting cover crops
C.
Removing crop stubble from surface
D.
Using conservation tillage
9.
The following factors combine to cause flashfloods and large-scale flooding, except
A.
Amount of rainfall
B.
Winds and gusts
C.
Loss of tree cover causing erosion & siltation
D.
waterways clogged with household wastes
E.
Impervious concrete surfaces
F.
Natural topography
10.
The shifts in perspective from victim as receiver to victim as actor, 'from doleout of goods to capacity-
building and institution-building,' 'from individual aid to restoration of the social system,' 'from outside
response to community initiatives' -all form part of the paradigm of
A.
Quick emergency response
B.
Disaster risk reduction
C.
Disaster recovery management
D.
Search, rescue & rehab
11.
In the equation, Disaster = (Hazard)x (Exposure/Preparedness) x (Vulnerability/Coping Capacity),
Disaster can be reduced by
A.
Decreasing vulnerability by eliminating hazard
B.
Training people to cope and cope unceasingly
C.
Preparing people to anticipate and to equip themselves constantly
D.
Changing the equation of exposure by creating a risk-free world
12.
The logical equation to describe "Risk" would be
A.
Risk = Susceptibility x Vulnerability diveded by Adaptive/Coping capacity
B.
Risk = Exposure x Duration x Extent x Frequency
C.
Risk = Hazard x Population Density + Income
D.
Risk = Exposure x Probability x Coincidence
13.
Which factor increases a population's 'vulnerability' to disaster?
A.
Young-age and old-age dependency
B.
Lack of resources to change physical location
C.
Crowding & congestion
D.
Lack of information
E.
Illness and disability
F.
All of the choices
14.
Which of the following will not reduce vulnerability to hazards
A.
Maintaining 'healthy' natural systems
B.
Restricting development in hazardous areas
C.
Stockpiling emergency goods and disaster relief
D.
Requiring safer building standards
15.
In William Alonso's Bid-Rent Theory (1960), the most appropriate use of the innermost circle in the
diagram is
A.
Farming of the most expensive crops
B.
Terminal for commuters, central rail station
C.
Central park
D.
Shopping & retail services
16.
In Ernest Burgess' concentric model (1925), factories and workshopswould most likely locate in
A.
The innermost circle
B.
The outermost circle
C.
The second circle from the center
D.
The third circle from the center
17.
In Homer Hoyt's model (1939), where would the elite class place their high-end subdivisions?
A.
Section 'A'
B.
Section 'B1'
C.
Section 'C'
D.
Section 'D'
18.
'Leapfrog development' and 'sprawl' commonly results from what Pierce F. Lewis calls
A.
Circumferential City
B.
Multi-cellular City
C.
Stellar City
D.
Galactic City
19.
The 'multiple nuclei' model of Harris and Ullmann (1945) posits that
A.
Cities have varied natural resources that stimulate progress in different locations
B.
Diversified economic functions of cities cluster around several points of growth
C.
Zoning of cities closely follows the flow or circuits of capital
D.
Air transport, sea transport, land transport facilities are the logical growth zones of cities
20.
In classical theories of industrial location by Weber, Losch, and lsard, what are the three factors that
firms are most concerned about?
A.
Minerals, electricity, water
B.
Costs of money, taxes, stock exchange growth
C.
Location of raw materials, location of market, transport
D.
Product image, promotion & advertising, public relations
21.
The most profitable utilization of property based on what is physically possible, ecologically sound,
legally permissible, and financially viable, thus resulting in the optimal value of the property, is called
A.
Maximum Sustainable Yield
B.
Feasibility
C.
Highest & Best Use
D.
Cost-efficiency
22.
According to R. Hurd, since land value depends on economic rent, and rent on location, and location on
convenience, and convenience on nearness, we may eliminate the intermediate steps and say that land
value depends on nearness."
A.
Social connection
B.
Proximity and access
C.
Ease of movement
D.
Free play of market forces
23.
In the conventional land economics by Raleigh Barlowe (1958), what are the three determinants of land
value?
A.
Farm harvest, wild growth, usufruct
B.
Scarcity, utility, desirability
C.
Sale, lease, rent
D.
Location, permanence, transferability
24.
Why do land values at the center of an overpopulated city fall drastically?
A.
Pollution, land degradation, disease
B.
Urban blight, decay, and criminality
C.
Congestion, overcrowding, traffic
D.
Deteriorating quality of life
E.
All of the choices
25.
The highest and best use of a 30 sq.km freshwater lake based on computation of both monetary and
non-monetary values, is best illustrated in the following combination:
A.
Five-star resort hotel that caters to foreign tourists, with boating, wakeboarding, jetski and other sports
facilities;
B.
Five-star resort hotel plus high-end Retirement Haven that contributes substantial revenues to the LGU;
C.
Manufacturing park with 20 locators and ready facilities for industrial cooling and dumping of factory
wastewater;
D.
Ecotourism plus fisheries, ferry transport, sports, wellness centers, floodholding area, aquatic parks and
sanctuaries
26.
Which is not one of Natures ecosystemic services and functions as adopted by the United Nations?
A.
Climate regulation
B.
Food and fiber
C.
Nutrient cycling
D.
Soil formation
E.
Physical aberrations and anomalies
F.
Biological treatment of water and storm runoff
27.
"Conservation" from the perspective of environmental economics' would include all but one of the
following
A.
Society's savings from strict preserves
B.
Elimination of social and economic waste
C.
Orderly and efficient resource use
D.
Maximization of social net returns over time
28.
"Environmental Economics" by Randall and Howe calculates the value in use of natural resources by
creating them as
A.
Stock resources, flow resources, reproducing resources
B.
Renewable, replenishable, replicable
C.
Extant, extinct, exhaustible
D.
Inputs, throughputs, outputs
29.
In "Ecological Economics" by Daly and Costanza, non-use of ENR has economic value because it can
result in greater "environmental protection and security"
A.
Existence value
B.
Insurance value
C.
Bequest value
D.
Vicarious value
E.
All cf the above
30.
'Republic Act that provides for conservation and protection of wildlife resources and their habitats is
numbered as
A.
RA 9147
B.
RA 9714
C.
RA 4791
D.
RA 1479
31.
Under RA 7076 People's Smallscale Mining Act of 1991, who are the preferred holders of small-scale
mining permits?
A.
Guilds
B.
Cooperatives
C.
Sanggunian
D.
NGOs
E.
Micro-scale and cottage enterprises
32.
Under RA 7076 People's Small-scale Mining Act of 1991, the following are characteristics of small-scale
mining except
A.
Capitalization of not more than 10 million
B.
Use of explosives for excavating and tunneling
C.
Not more than 20 hectares in total size
D.
Gross production not more than 50,000
E.
Artisanal and labor-intensive
33.
Under RA 7942 Philippine Mining Act of 1995, a mining enterprise with capitalization of more than 10
million and an operating area of over 20 hectares, can be considered
A.
Medium-scale
B.
Global-scale
C.
Large-scale
D.
Cottage-scale
34.
Under RA 8371, this refers to "all areas generally belonging to ICCs/lPs comprising lands, inland waters
coastal areas, and natural resources therein, held under a claim of ownership, occupied or possessed by
ICCs/lPs, by themselves or through their ancestors, since time immemorial, continuously up to the
present"
A.
Tribal land
B.
Cultural heritage
C.
Autonomous region
D.
Ethnic realm
E.
Ancestral domain
35.
An area within a city or town where the average density is 20 dwelling units per hectare or below, with
majority of lot sizes are between 300-800 square meters or more, is zoned as
A.
R-1
B.
R-2
C.
R-3
D.
R-4
E.
Mixed Use Zone
36.
986. An area in most cities where regional shopping centers, huge consumer malls, sports stadiums,
high-rise hotels, office towers are located, is zoned as
A.
C-1
B.
C-2
C.
C-3
D.
Tourism zone
E.
Financial District
37.
An LGU regulation prohibiting a landowner from using his/her residential lot as a firing range is
considered an exercise of the power of the State called
A.
Escheat
B.
Eminent domain
C.
Taxation
D.
Police power
E.
Moral suasion
F.
Sovereignty
38.
According to RA 10066 National Cultural Heritage Act of 2009, this refers to "historical sites or structures
hallowed and revered for their history or association as declared by the National Historical Institute"
A.
Epochal Landmark
B.
National Treasure
C.
National Cultural Property
D.
Historic Shrine
E.
Sacred Place
39.
Which of the following is not a major Heritage Site in the Philippinesas declared by UNESCO?
A.
Baroque churches of Manila, Sta. Maria, Paoay & Miag-ao
B.
Tubattaha Reef Marine Park
C.
Magellan's Cross in Cebu
D.
Rice Terraces of the Philippines
E.
Puerto Princesa Underground River
F.
Historic Town of Vigan
40.
"Identity, structure, and meaning - Cities that have buildings and natural features with strong identities,
street patterns that are easy to comprehend, and other form elements that have functional and
symbolic meanings are likely to be more imageable than cities lacking such attributes."
Discuss
A.
Kevin Lynch
B.
Edward Tollman
C.
John Trawls
D.
Camilo Sitte
41.
Under Kevin Lynch's scheme (1961), what would best describe Rockwell Makati and Ortigas Center?
A.
Landmark
B.
Cosmopolitan
C.
District
D.
Downtown
E.
Estate
42.
In statistics, this is a value in a set of sample observations which occurs most often or with the greatest
frequency
A.
Recurrence
B.
Returns
C.
Mode
D.
Average
E.
Sum
F.
Minuend
43.
'Linear regression' is a statistical method used to:
A.
Establish that as supplies increase, prices decrease
B.
Calculate the probability of a sample value being within 1.96 standard-deviations of the mean
C.
Determine the influence of one or more independent variables on a dependent variable
D.
Estimate the degree to which research findings may be generalized
44.
What does the Gini coefficient measure?
A.
Savings rate
B.
Real estate tax
C.
Income inequality
D.
Poverty
E.
Return on investment
45.
Which of the following data-sets is least needed in Economic Area Analysis?
A.
Population forecasts
B.
Employment trends
C.
Income levels
D.
Cohort survival
E.
Poverty incidence of households
F.
Retail sales of registered enterprises
46.
Under Executive Orders 127, 127-A and 292, which of the following is not a function of the Department
of Finance?
A.
Formulation, institutionalization and administration of fiscal policies of government;
B.
Supervision of the revenue operations of all.local government units;
C.
Conceptualization of major government investments on infrastructure and utilities;
D.
Review, approval and management of all public sector debt, domestic or foreign;
E.
Formulation, institutionalization and administration of fiscal and tax policies;
47.
Which of the following is not a function of the National Economic and Development Authority?
A.
Proper allocation of expenditures for each development activity between current operating
expenditures and capital outlays;
B.
Evaluation of the fiscal, monetary and balance of payments implications of major national projects,
C.
Privatization and public accountability of corporations and assets owned, controlled or acquired by the
government
D.
Advice the President on matters concerning social development, education, manpower, health and
nutrition, population and family planning, housing, human settlements, and the delivery of other social
services;
E.
Recommend appropriate policies, programs and projects consistent with national development
objectives
48.
Which of the following is not a function of the Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council?
A.
Custodian and keeper of all resources of government related to housing and urban development;
B.
Determine participation and coordinate activities of key housing agencies in national housing program;
C.
Monitor, review and evaluate the effective exercise by government housing agencies of their assigned
functions;
D.
Assist in the maximum participation of the private sector in all aspects of housing and urban
development;
E.
Recommend new legislation and amendments to existing laws as may be necessary for the attainment
of governments objective in housing;
49.
According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, the total cumulative housing
need would reach 6,732,464 by year 2016, but governments capacity to directly provide houses only
averages 120,000 units per annum. What would be a more rational strategy for housing development?
A.
Leave to private households the matter of housing development according to the free play of market
forces;
B.
Allow big foreign companies with enormous capital to undertake mass shelter projects;
C.
Rationalize taxation of land so that developers can bring down overall cost of house and lot packages;
D.
LGUs should improve CLUP-Zoning so that price of land would be kept low
E.
Stimulate participation of business, civic, religious, and cooperatives sectors in multi-partite housing
production.
50. According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, the total cumulative
housing need According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, among nine
countries in East Asia being compared, the Philippines has the highest officially-reported poverty
incidence at 26.6%, the highest Gini coefficient at 0.448, the lowest rate increase in real per capita
income at 2.3% per annum, and among the highest unemployment rates per annum. These figures
indicate that
A. Philippine growth is not broadbased and could not create vast employment opportunities for the
majority;
B. Macroeconomic growth has not been adequately translated into human development and social
progress.
C. Public investment favors few competitive sectors in central and urban places to the neglect of the
marginal and disadvantaged sectors;
D. Economic growth in real terms' is often too small to be offset by high population growth.
E. Bad governance means there are chronic leakages of government resources & low accountability and
transparency in the development management.
F. All of the choices

1.
Which characteristic of megalopolis descrtbes its tendency to develop a multi-nuclei or multi-nodal
spatial pattern?
Discuss
A.
Is an expansive urban region with over 10 million population (Giles Clarke)
B.
Tends to be dependent on food, water, and energy supplies of its neighboring regions
C.
Has complex form as 'mother city' breeds smaller offspring-cities in sprawling manner
D.
Requires broad type of regional governance beyond the capacity and resources of a single LGU authority
2.
This process deals with efficient placement of activities and land uses such as farms, settlements,
industries, transport hubs, infrastructure, wilderness etc across a significantly large area broader than a
single city or town.
A.
Watershed Planning
B.
Area Development Planning
C.
Regional Planning
D.
Physical Planning
3.
Klaasen enumerates the criteria for creating planning regions as follows. Which criterion pertains to the
role of a leading center or a complex of exporting firms or lead industries?
A.
Must be large enough to take investment decisions of an economic size
B.
Must be able to supply its own industries with necessary labor
C.
Should have a homogenous economic structure
D.
Must contain at least one growth point
E.
Must have a common approach to and awareness of its own problems
4.
Which is not a method to delineate a region?
A.
Force field analysis
B.
Gravitational analysis
C.
Factor analysis
D.
Flow analysis
E.
Ethno-lirguistic and socio-cultural profiling
F.
Weighted index number method
5.
"High-growth regions with expanding economic activity will attract net migration from other parts of the
country, thus favoring them further. Capital investments tend to have a similar effect: increased demand
in expanding centers spur additional investments, which in turn will increase incomes and demand or
cause a further round of investments."
A.
Cumulative Causation
B.
Positive Reinforcement
C.
Economic Modernization
D.
Circuits of Capital
6.
According to Gunnar Myrdal, 'forward linkage' refers to the 'development of external economies for an
industry's products" while 'backward linkage' refers to
A.
Connection with lagging or backward enterprises in the rural countryside
B.
Development of auxiliary industries to supply input
C.
Attraction of capital and enterprises to exploit expanding demands
D.
Expansion of service industries and others serving the local market
7.
'Residentiary services' refers to domestic living-related services such as housing, grocery, catering,
recreation, etc while 'services that cut across varied types of firms such as security, banking, insurance,
courier services, etc are called
A.
Logistical
B.
Financial
C.
Diagonal
D.
Interlocal
E.
Messengerial
F.
Transborder
8.
Which thrust of regional planning addresses core-periphery, center-hinterland economic exchange &
spatial integration?
A.
Enforce urban growth control such as greenbelts or analogous schemes to protect the natural
environment
B.
Cultivate a role for each component-settlement such as administrative center, manufacturing hub,
tourism, zone, etc
C.
Develop transport corridors in 'hub and spokes design' with major infrastructure reaching out to
population centers
D.
Resist development in flood plains or on earthquake fault zones by utilizing these areas as parks. farms,
buffers, etc
9.
A region that is defined by common physical features such as resource base, lake, coast, ecosystem is
called 'natural or ecological region'; while that which is defined by extent of economic connectedness or
market exchange is called a "functional region"; that which is created by law regardless of natural or
economic commonality is called
A.
Homogenous region
B.
formal region
C.
Historic region
D.
Virtual region
10.
'Industrial dispersal' began with Memorandum Circular dated Dec 16, 1973 which banned establishment
of additional medium and heavy industries in the national capital within a 50 kilometer radius from
A.
Rizal Monument, Luneta
B.
Malacariang Palace
C.
Bonifacio Monument
D.
Quezon Memorial Circle
11.
The first export processing zone in the Philippines which became operational in 1972 was
A.
Bataan EPZ
B.
Mactan EPZ
C.
Baguio EPZ
D.
Zamboanga de Ayala EPZ
E.
Phividec Misamis Oriental
12.
Although theoretically flawed, "Super-Region" as conceived by the administration of Pres. Gloria
Macapagal Arroyo sought to build upon perceived comparative advantage of a cluster of territories such
as agri-processing, tourism, commodity logistics chain, or cyber-services. Which 'super-region' ought to
focus on 'agri-business'?
A.
Northern Luzon Quadrangle
B.
Metro Luzon Urban Beltway
C.
CALABARZON Industrial Heartland
D.
Central Philippines (Visayas, Palawan and parts of Mindanao)
E.
Subic - Clark Freeport complex
F.
Bangsa Moro Juridical Authority
13.
Under the 'super-region' concept of the PGMA administration, Central Luzon as part of the Mega Manila
'Extended Urban Region', would focus on
A.
Hacienda farming
B.
Meat processing
C.
Commodity logistics chain
D.
Cyber services
E.
Tourism
14.
Of the so-called 'super-regions,' which one is being promoted as having the comparative advantage in
'tourism'?
A.
North Luzon
B.
Central Philippines
C.
Baguio & Cordillera Autonomous Region
D.
Davao Silicon Gulf
15.
Under Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, what is closest to the meaning of
'inclusive growth'?
A.
Compromise
B.
Transactional
C.
Equality
D.
Beneficial to all particularly lagging groups
E.
Only for the Yellow Army
16.
The 'center-down' paradigm of neo-classical economics of the 1960s assumed that benefits from the
national-level or macro economic growth trend to_____component regions and lower-level
communities.
A.
Cascade
B.
Sprinkle around in spurts
C.
Pour down
D.
Trickle down
17.
In John Friedman's (1966, 1973) taxonomy of regions according to economic condition, which refers to
'fagging regions'?
A.
Core regions
B.
Upward transitional areas
C.
Resource frontier areas
D.
Downward transitional areas
E.
Special problem areas
F.
Latifundio-minifundio
18.
The phenomenon of 'urban primacy' mostly in Third World countries wherein a single metropolis
corners a disproportionate share of a country's population, resources, and investments by reason of
historical or political precedence, or as a result of foreign colonial influence, is also called "Manila
imperialism" in the Philippines.
A.
It is desirable because of the efficient use of space and economies of scale.
B.
It proves that benefits from agglomeration outweigh the disbenefits from congestion and
overconcentration
C.
It demonstrates that Third World countries remain as colonies of Western imperialist powers.
D.
It shows polarization within a country and siphoning off of economic assets and human talent from
hinterland
19.
Which of the following is not among the Philippine government strategies to attain 'concentrated
decentralization'?
A.
Regional industrial centers
B.
Special economic zones
C.
Growth corridors, growth triangles, growth polygons
D.
Agora and agurbia
20.
According to Francois Perroux (1955), this phenomenon in economics refers to a propulsive or
expanding firm/industry, or cluster of such firms/industries, which induces development of other
firms/industries that are technically or functionally related to it, and stimulates prosperity of the locality
or region through the flow of goods and services.
A.
Market town
B.
Entrepot
C.
Axis Mundi
D.
Growth Pole
E.
Ecozone
21.
Which is not an element of Special Economic Zone or ecozone under PEZA?
A.
Free trade zone
B.
Financial banking center
C.
Export processing zone
D.
Industrial park or industrial estate
22.
According to RA 7916 Sec 4, this refers to a tract of land of at least 50 contiguous hectares which is
subdivided and developed according to a comprehensive plan under a unified continuous management
and with provisions for basic infrastructure and utilities, with or without pre-built standard factory
buildings (SFBs)
A.
Industrial corridor
B.
Regional manufacturing hub
C.
Export processing zone
D.
Industrial estate
23.
RA 7916 reiterates Sec. 12, Art XII of Philippine Constitution,"The State shall promote the preferential
use of Filipino labor, domestic materials and locally produced goods and adopt measures that help make
them competitive." What technical planning concept pertains most aptly to this?
A.
Inflow - outflow - backflow
B.
Trickle up and trickle down
C.
Economic nationalism or Filipinism
D.
Forward linkages and backward linkages in production
24.
An industrial estate that is established to develop new industries is called "developmental" while an
industrial estate meant to advance, improve or increase the level of industrial activjty particularly in
poor regions is called
A.
"specialized"
B.
"ancillary"
C.
"promotional"
D.
"survival"
E.
"subsistential"
25.
The following central variables except one were used by Alfred Weber, August Losch, Walter lsard,
Melvin Greenhut and others, in so-called classical theories of industrial location.
A.
The costs of distributing and marketing finished goods to the end-user
B.
Wages of labor
C.
The costs of transporting raw materials to the factory
D.
Perks and privileges for managers
26.
When a firm locates close to sources of natural resources such as Pittsburg or Ruhr valley, it is called
"materials--oriented;" when a firm locates close to where there are large populations such as Shanghai
or Tokyo, it is called --
A.
Customer-friendly
B.
Client-centered
C.
Demographicaily-responsive
D.
Market-oriented
27.
According to Walter lsard, firms or industries that are indifferent to the physical attributes of geographic
location to carry out profitable business are called:
A.
Vagabond
B.
Wanderlust
C.
Itinerant
D.
Footloose
28.
An American car company breaks up its production process because of high wage cost of unionized
Iabor in Detroit and moves its manufacturing plants to China where labor costs are low and sources of
refined metals are close by. What theory of firm location likely underpins this decision?
A.
Market-Oriented Approach by August Losch
B.
Least Cost Approach by Alfred Weber
C.
Profit-Maximizing Approach by Walter lsard
D.
Organizational Theory (Segmentation & Mergers)
29.
A Swedish computer company relocates to Silicon Valley, California, where despite high wage costs, IT
companies boast of highest IQ points per square-meter of floorspace, and have vibrant linkages with
topnotch universities to create state-of-the-art technologies. What theory of firm location is operational
here?
A.
Theory of Human Capital
B.
C.
Satisficing Theory
D.
Behavioral Theory
30.
Despite global economic recession and decline of demand for luxury goods, a watch company decides to
stay put in Switzerland because of its secure market niche and proven track record in producing Rolex
timepieces. What theory of firm location is likely at work here?
A.
Comparative Advantage
B.
C.
Satisficing Theory
D.
Behavioral Theory
31.
In 1970, the Presidential Advisory Council on Public Works and Community Development and the UP
Institute of Environmental Planning together drafted the first-ever national physical framework plan
that attempted to address spatial inequity or imbalance among regions using the concept of
A.
Integrated area development
B.
Growth pole/growth center
C.
Selective territorial closure
D.
New society
32.
The declared strategy of the national government since the 1980s to promote greater complementarity
between agriculture and industry sectors and between urban and rural places is called
A.
Import Substitution Industrialization
B.
Export Oriented Industrialization (EOI)
C.
Countrywide urban-Rural Linkages (CURL)
D.
Balanced Agro-Industrial Development Strategy (BAIDS)
33.
"Development process should be redefine in such a way that urban development promotes rural
development while rural development supports urban development." (John Friedman)
A.
Agropolis / agropolitan approach
B.
Rurban interlink
C.
Agro-based countryside development
D.
Michael Lipton model
34.
This sub-national development approach of government from the mid-1970s to mid-1990s refers to the
necessary combination of agricultural, industrial, and institutional activities in mutually reinforcing
manner - fostering the growth of viable market towns or mid-size cities that offer broad services and
amenities meant to achieve both stability of population movement and agro-industrial growth; closely
tied to, and integrated with, efficient agricultural production.
A.
Autonomous Autarchic Development
B.
C.
Endogenous Self-Reliant Development
D.
Selective Territorial Closure
35.
As conceptualized in 1989, the private-led "Agro-Industrial Development Area (AIDA)" scheme
analogous to Japan's "One Town One Product" model would cluster several villages to carry out the
following components except:
Discuss
A.
Family farm school or folk school
B.
Small-scale agro-processing industries
C.
Rural development center
D.
Roll-on-roll-off (RORO) port
36.
RA 8550 Fisheries Code defines it is a band of dry land and adjacent ocean space in which terrestrial
processes and uses, as well as oceanic processes and uses directly affect each other; its geographic
extent has a landmark limit of one (1) kilometer from the shoreline at high tide to a seaward limit of 200
meters isobath.
A.
Seashore land
B.
Foreshore land
C.
Coastal Zone
D.
Aqua Marine Zone
37.
This refers to the part of a seashore which is alternately covered by the ebb and flow of tide, technically,
to a string of land margining a body of water, between the low-water line usually at the seaward margin
of a low tide terrace and the upper limit of wave wash at high tide usually marked by a beach scarp or
berm.
A.
Seaside
B.
Seaboard
C.
Foreshore
D.
Seagrass bed
E.
Beachfront
38.
Under RA 8550, what is the extent of municipal waters of a seaside town as measured from its
shoreline?
A.
7 km
B.
10 km
C.
15 km
D.
20 km
39.
Under RA 8550 Fisheries Code of 1998, if the total width of water body between two seaside
municipalities is less than 30 km, each one's municipal waters is determined by using
A.
Comparative sizes of fishing population
B.
A median line on common water body
C.
Preponderance of maritime and aquatic activities
D.
Ratio and proportion according to length of shoreline
40.
Philippines is one of 18 mega-diverse countries which together contain two-thirds of the world's
biodiversity. Philippines has over 30% of Southeast Asia's coral reef cover, a square kilometer of which
can produce between 30 to 40 metric tons of seafood annually. Which area is considered among the
most serious hotspots in rapid coral reef destruction?
A.
Sulu
B.
Boracay
C.
Palawan
D.
Mindoro
41.
According to 1997 study on 775 coral formations by Dr Edgardo Gomez, Dr Helen Yap of UP Marine
Science Institute, 30% of total Philippine coral reef cover is dead, 39% dying, 25% in fair condition, how
much remains in excellent condition?
A.
approximately 5%
B.
Approx. 8%
C.
Approx. 26%
D.
Approx. 31 %
42.
The following are illegal and destructive forms of fishing in Philippine marine waters, except one.
A.
Use of crude, traditional, or artisanal gadgets
B.
use of dynamites and other explosives
C.
Use of fine mesh nets
D.
Muro-ami
E.
Use of cyanide on reef-based or pelagic species
F.
Use of beach seine and bottom-scouring trawls
43.
Wilson (1992) estimated that 90% habitat loss of an area results in 50% reduction of number of species
Under RA 9174 "Wildlife Resources Conservation & Protection Act", a species or sub-species that faces
high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called
A.
Acutely Threatened Species
B.
Critically Endangered Species
C.
Species Vulnerable to Extinction
D.
Rapidly Vanishing Species
44.
Because land use changes affect a species' ability to migrate, __ are necessary to give species a route to
reach their new habitats.
A.
Science Reserves & Ranches
B.
Zoos & Botanical Gardens
C.
Lifelines
D.
Wildlife Corridors
45.
The Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES) on March 3, 1973 has been
helpful in protecting endangered animals and plants, of which the Philippines has over 800, by
A.
Listing all species that can be hunted, traded, and used commercially
B.
Listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled
C.
Funding projects for breeding endangered plants and animals
D.
Preventing the hunting of whales and dolphins
E.
Specifying prices for certain plant and animal products
46.
This refers to the totality of cultural properties preserved and developed through time and passed on for
posterity.
A.
National patrimony
B.
Customs & traditions
C.
Patriotic legacy
D.
Cultural heritage
E.
Bequeaths & bequests
47.
Which of the following is not a major Heritage Site in the Philippines as declared by UNESCO?
A.
Baroque churches of Manila, Sta. Maria, Paoay & Miag-ao
B.
Tubattaha Reef Marine Park
C.
Magellan's Cross in Cebu
D.
Rice Terraces of the Philippines
E.
Puerto Princesa Underground River
F.
Historic Town of Vigan
48.
According to RA 10066 National Cultural Heritage Act of 2009, this refers to "historical sites or structures
hallowed and revered for their history or association as declared by the National Historical Institute"
A.
Epochal Landmark
B.
National Treasure
C.
National Cultural Property
D.
Historic Shrine
E.
Sacred Place
49.
Basic principle of Heritage Conservation which holds that historic structures and treasures should be
utilized by preserving as much of their exteriors as possible while adopting more modern uses in their
interiors.
A.
Total Makeover
B.
Reconfigurative Renovation
C.
Converted Property
D.
Adaptive Re-use
50.
Presidential Decree 2146 defines 'amenity areas' as those with high aesthetic values such as the
following, except one.
A.
Outstanding landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes
B.
Planetarium, space observatory, and science centrum
C.
Heritage sites and historic places
D.
Municipal plazas and public parks

Land use and planning quiz with 32 multiple choice questions

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1) Which of the maps listed below is not a thematic map?

6) Which land use type is normally not classified as urban?

10) What class of road is not part of a hierarchy?

13) RA No. 8371 is also known as the

14) Which of these projects require an EIS?

16) The difference between a census and a survey is that

19) A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent is authorized to finance, construct,

A. Build and transfer

A. Environmental impact statement

A. Office of the Cultural Affairs

25) A single detached dwelling units is defined as a house

A. Good for one household

A. Children and youth

28) One of these plans is not required under AFMA

A. Regional Agro-Industrial Development Plan

29) The agency responsible for coordinating the housing program is

A. Involve the clientele

A. Land Use Plan

A. Build and transfer

A. Travel time surveys

A. RA 6657 and RA 7718 (BOT LAW)

42) The minimum lot area under PD 957 is

A. Environmental impact assessment

A. Capital investment programs

49) The rights of the IPs to cultural integrity shall include

A. Protection of indigenous culture, traditions and institutions

50) A study which includes all the units in the population

Hidden EP Quiz No.01

Sir Patrick Leslie

Sir Patrick Geddes

Sir Patrick Leslie

Sir Patrick Geddes

Gro Harlem Brundtland

Catherine Bauer Wurster

Rachel Louise Carson

Francis Stuart Chapin Jr

Infill and densification

Robert Murray Haig

Food, water, clothing,

Shells and networks

Mixed Use Zoning

Church, town hall, school,

Philippine Economic Zone

National Land Use

National Economic and

Highly Urbanized Cities

Philippine Strategy for

Strategic national Action

Capital Theoretic Model

David Harvey's Circuit of

World Systems Theory

It depends on the weather

Location of health centers

Location of trial courts

Location of beach resorts

Location of police stations

Spatial equity and bio-

Market range and

Profitability and pecuniary

Equally-sized large cities

Only one large city, many

Only medium-sized and

A few large cities, some