1. What is the maximum capacity of the water potable tank: a. 120 Lt. b. 100 Lt c. 110 Lt.

2. How many hyd systems are there in the ERJ 190 and where are located: a. 2; 1 and 2 located in the rear
fuselage. b. 4; 2 and 4 located in the left side of fuselage and 1 and 3 in the right side. c. 3 ; 1 in the LH center
fuselage bay, 2 in the RH center fuselage bay, 3 in the aft fuselage.
3. What is the function of PTU: a. Transfer hyd power from sys 1 to sys 2 if EDP fails and assist landing gear. b.
Transfer hyd power from sys 3 to sys 1 if ACMP fails and assist pilot. c. Transfer hyd power from sys 2 to sys 3 if
ECS fails and assist brakes.
4. How many hyd EDP are installed in the aircraft: a. 4 in the AGB. b. 2 ; either in the LH AGB and RH AGB. c. 3; in
the LH AGB , RH AGB and APU AGB.
5. Where is installed the two engine fire extinguisher bottles: a. R/H rear wing to fuselage fairing. b. L/H rear
wing to fuselage fairing. c. Mid. E-Bay.
6. What is the maximum differential of pressure in the aircraft: a. 9.6 PSI up to 41,000 ft. b. 8.6 PSI up to 41,000
ft. c. 6.5 PSI up to 41,000 ft.
7. What is the maximum angle of the nose wheel with the steering engaged: a. 76 degrees LH and 76 degrees
RH. b. 170 degrees LH and 170 degrees RH. c. 90 degrees LH and 80 degrees RH.
8. What module processes all landing gear proximity sensors information: a. NWSCM. b. PSEM. c. EDPM.
9. What is the function of BCV: a. Modulate Hyd press for the brakes. b. Control Hyd press for the brakes. c.
Monitor the Hyd press for the brakes.
10. What areas are monitored and protected by the fire protection system: a. Brakes, cockpit , purses and
pockets b. Engines and pylons, APU, 2 cargo compartments and lavatories. c. Fwd e-bay. Mid e- bay and aft e-
bay.
11. What does mean AMS and what system comprise: a. Aircraft Main System ( Hyd Elec Pneumatic Ice
and rain protection). b. Air Module System ( Air Conditioning Landing gear Pressurization ). c. Air
Management System (Air Conditioning Pressurization Pneumatic Ice and Rain Protection).
12. What areas are protected to prevent icing by pneumatic bleed: a. Windshield Horizontal Stabilizer ADSP.
b. TAT sensors, ADSP, Windshield and Water lines. c. Slats, Engine.
13. What is the function of the torque motor: a. Give a suitable torque to wheel assy. b. Monitor the slats anti
ice pneumatic press. c. Controls servo air pressure to the HPSOV and NPRSOV.
14. What is the function of precooler: a. Cools air from lavatories and cargo compartment. b. Cools oil from
engine. c. Cools bleed air by fan when the fan air valve is open.
15. What is the capacity of lavatory water heater: a. 2 Lt. b. 3 Lt. c. 1.5 Lt.
16. Where is located the lavatory water heater : a. Fwd e-bay. b. Fwd RH side of the fuselage. c. Fwd and Aft
lavatories cabinet underneath the sink.
17. What does mean CPCS, Where is located, How many are there and function: a. Cabin Press Controller
System, Mid e-bay, 2, control pressurization. b. Cabin Pressure Control System, Fwd e-bay, 1 (two channels),
control max differential press. c. Cabin Press Control System, Aft e-bay, 1(two channels), control stress cabin.
18. What is the max speed cruise of the ERJ - 190: a. 850 km / h. b. 1003 km / h. c. 910 m / s.
19. How many slat panels are there in E-190: a. 4 each wing. b. 3 each wing. c. 5 each wing.
20. What is the total capacity of the fuel tanks: a. 18,000 Lt (4520GaI) b. 17,000 Lt (4320Gal) c. 16,000 Lt
(4220Gal).
21. The vent systems are designed to: a. Keep the pressure in the tank. b. Out the pressure. c. Keep the pressure
differential (tank / ambient).
22. How many scavenge ejector pumps is installed. a. Five each wing. b. Four each wing. c. Three each wing.
23. In the event of failure of the fuel EDP, what type of pump supplies fuel: a. Backup fuel flow to the engine. b.
DC backup flow to the engine. c. AC backup.
24. What is the max ceiling certified in the ERJ 190: a. 41000 ft. b. 42000 ft. c. 43000 ft.
25. How many level sticks are installed in aircraft: a. 6 per wing. b. 4 per wing. c. 3 per wing.
26. When a exceeding is annunciated on the EICAS "Fuel imbalance": a. 380 Kg. (802) Lbs. b. 490 Kg. (798) Lbs. c.
360 Kg. (792) Lbs.
27. The Fuel Imbalance message disappears when the difference is: a. 35 Kg. (77 Lbs). b. 55 Kg. (121 Lbs). c. 45
Kg. (99 Lbs).
28. How many probes have in total all of the tanks: a. 16 units each wing and one dual unit compensator/probe.
b. 36 unit total wing. c. 34 probe in each wing.
29. What type of smoke detector is installed in the cargo compartment: a. Electric type. b. Mechanical and
electrical. c. Photoelectric type sensor.
30. The ice detector systems include: a. Four ice detector. b. Two ice detector. c. Two for each side.
31. How many TRU are installed on the 190: a. 3 TRU . b. 4 TRU . c. 5 TRU .
32. What is the minimum power of the batteries: a. 28 VDC. b. 22.5 VDC. c. 15 KV A.
33. What is the function of MRC: a. To accommodate the Navigation Radios. b. To accommodate the
Communications Radios. c. Answers A and B are correct.
34. Where is located the MRC # 1 : a. In the Aft Electronic Bay. b. In the Middle Electronic Bay. c. In the Forward
Electronic Bay.
35. What is the maximum angle of nose steering with control pedals: a. 7 degrees RH and 7 degrees LH. b. 76
degrees RH and 76 degrees LH. c. 170 degrees RH and 170 degrees LH.
36. The flight control system is comprised of the: a. Primary, aileron, spoiler. b. Secondary, rudder on yaw axis
control. c. Primary and the secondary flight control surfaces.
37. The primary flight control system consists of: a. Aileron, elevator, rudder, mfs. b. Flap, aileron, rudder. c.
Spoiler, aileron, rudder.
38. Which of the following flight control are controlled by FBW: a. Rudder, elevator, roll spoiler, and all
secondary FCS including HS, flaps, slats, ground spoiler and speed break. b. Rudder, elevator, multifunctional
spoiler, flap and ailerons. c. Primary and secondary surface.
39. Which is the unit provides artificial feel: a. Control yoke. b. Feel and centering unit. c. Trim control and
feeling.
40. S/F motion is sequenced such that: a. Slat extends first. b. Flap extends first. c. Both at the same time.
41. The actuator control electronic (ACE) module is the primary component in the flight control system a total a.
One unit installed. b. Six unit installed. c. Four unit installed.
42. The primary ace units control: a. Rudder, elevator. b. Rudder, flap. c. Slap/ flap.
43. The secondary S/F- ace unit control the: a. Slat, spoiler. b. Slat /flap. c. Flap/spoiler.
44. The HS- ace unit controls: a. HS (horizontal stabilizer). b. Slat. c. Primary/ secondary surface.
45. The flap PDU is located in the: a. Pressurized forward e- bay. b. Pressurized center electronic bay. c.
Pressurized aft e- bay.
46. How many accelerometers are installed in CF 34- 10e5 engine and function: a. 5 , give engine velocity
information. b. 2, give engine vibration information. c. 3, give engine trim information.
47. What is the function of the SPDA: a. Monitor, control and distribution of the dc and ac power. b. Operate
and control of the electrical power of the aircraft. c. Distribution and control of the ac and dc power.
48. What is the function of the MAU and how many are there in the ERJ 190: a. To distribute the signal of
water lines / 4. b. To management the light system in ERJ 190 / 2. c. To interface the different systems of the
aircraft / 3.
49. How many DVDR are installed in the aircraft, where and parameters of recording: a. 3 in aft mid and fwd
e-bay / 10 hours voice 18 hours flight data. b. 1 in aft e bay / 2 hours of voice 20 hours flight data. c. 2 in
fwd and aft e- bay / 2 hours voice 25 hours flight data.
50. How many IRS are there in the ERJ 190, what does mean, and function: a. 3 / internal reversionary system
/ give position of the aircraft. b. 2 / inertial reference system / give attitude, heading and position of the aircraft.
c. 2 / internal reference system / give attitude and position of the aircraft.
51. The ignition exciters provide: a. 12000 to 16000 vac at two pulses per second to the igniters. b. 14000 to
19000 vdc at one pulse per second to the combustion chamber. c. 14000 to 18000 vdc at one pulse per second
to the igniters.
52. The APU operation is limited up to: a. 31.000 ft. b. 32.000 ft. c. 33.000 ft.
53. What does mean ESC, location and function: a. Environmental System Control , Synoptic page, controls
pneumatic sys. b. Electronic System Control ,Fwd E-bay, controls electrical sys. c. Electronic Starter Controller,
Apu compartment, with FADEC controls APU start.
54. How many igniters are there in the APU: a. 4. b. 6. c. 2.
55. What does mean FADEC, and function in the engine: a. Fault Analysis Digital Engine Controller, analysis of
engine stalls. b. Fill Apu Demand Electronic Control, monitor apu. c. Full Authority Digital Electronic/Engine
Control, provides flexible engine operation, reduced pilot workload and improved safety, maintenance and
reliability.
56. What does mean TGB and function: a. Transformer generator Buit, transforms energy. b. Transfer Gear Box,
provides power transmission between inlet gearbox and accessory gear box. c. Transformer Generator Bus
,supplies electrical power to the aircraft..
57. The AGB provides mounting pad for : a. Jacks, HPSOV, NAPRSOV, MCC, mainly. b. IDG, fuel pump, oil tank
and air starter mainly. c. Fuel pump, oil pump, oil filter manifold, Hyd pump, PMA, air turbine starter and IDG
mainly.
58. The LPTACC-HPTACC-VSV-TBV-VBV are controlled by: a. Fuel press engine. b. Bleed air press engine. c. Oil
press engine.
59. How many fuel nozzles are there in the CF 34-10E5 engine: a. 20. b. 25. c. 30.
60. What does mean IDG, location and function: a. Internal Digital Gauge, Aft E Bay, measure the wingspan. b.
International Drive Golf, cockpit, select the best golf players in the world. c. Integrated Drive Generator, Engine,
provides electrical power for the aircraft.
61. Where is located and function of the T 1.2 sensor: a. Compressor provides pressure air data. b. Fan case
Provides oil pressure data. c. Inlet cowl Provides engine inlet air temperature.
62. What is the maximum capacity of the waste tank: a. 85 Lt. b. 95 Lt. c. 75 Lt.
63. What is the function of the ACMP: a. Powers the AMS system. b. Powers the CPCS system. c. Backup of the
EDP.
64. What is the function of the priority valve: a. Allows transfer air bleed between engine 1 and engine 2. b.
Allows transfer hyd power from system 1 to system 2. c. Allows transfer hyd power from system 2 to system 1.
65. What is the main feature of the bootstrap reservoir: a. Avoid the hyd pumps cavitation. b. Avoid overpress in
the hyd pumps. c. Avoid overheat in the hyd fluid.
66. How many extinguisher bottles are installed in the ERJ 190: a. 4 : 2 for engines and 2 for the apu. b. 7 : 2 for
engines 2 for cargo compartments, two for lavatories and 1 for APU. c. 2: for the engines.
67. What type of smoke detector is installed in the lavatories: a. Electric type. b. Ionized principle type. c.
Photoelectric type sensor.
68. What areas are protected to prevent icing by electrical system : a. Wheels, brakes and slats.. b. ADSP, SAT
sensors, windshield. c. ADSP,TAT sensors, windshield ,water lines, static port.
69. What is the function of the low pressure check valve: a. Avoid reverse flow of the low pressure bleed air. b.
Avoid reverse hyd flow into the pump. c. Prevent reverse flow of the high pressure bleed air.
70. How many slat anti-ice temperature sensors are installed in the ERJ 190: a. 4 ; 2 per wing. b. 8; 2 each slat
panel. c. 6; 1 each slat panel #2 and 2 each slat panel # 4 (inboard and outboard).
71. What is the function of BCM: a. Modulate Hyd press for the brakes. b. Control Hyd press for the brakes. c.
Monitor the Hyd press for the brakes.
72 . What module controls the nose wheel steering: a. PSEM. b. NWPSEM. c. NWSCM.
73. How many modes are there for the landing gear operation: a. 4, Electric, Hyd, Pneumatic and manual. b. 3,
Mechanic, hyd and pneumatic. c. 3, Electronic, Electric and manual.
74. What tube distribute hot air to prevent icing in the slat : a. Lip tube. b. D - Duct. c. Piccolo tube.
75. Vacuum generator operates up to: a. 17.000 Ft. b. 18.000 Ft. c. 19.000 Ft.
76. Where is located the waste service panel : a. Aft LH side of the fuselage. b. Aft RH side of the fuselage. c. Aft
LH and RH side of the fuselage.
77. What LRU monitor the water lines ice protection: a. WWSC. b. WMSV. c. WNPM.
78. Where is located the potable water service panel : a. Aft LH side of the fuselage. b. Aft RH side of the
fuselage. c. Aft LH and RH side of the fuselage.
79. Which are the pneumatic sources of the aircraft : a. Engine air bleed, APU air bled and external cart HP air
bleed. b. Anti ice air bleed, wheel air bleed and 5 stage air bleed. c. 5 th and 9 th air bleed, fan air bleed valve
and HPSOV.
80. Where is located the Central Maintenance Computer (CMC) : a. In the MAU 2. b. In the MAU 3. c. In the
MAU 1.
81. What is the total length of the E-190: a. 45 m. b. 55 m. c. 36 m.
82. What is the height of the E -190: a. 12 m. b. 10 m. c. 13 m.
83. What is the wing span of the E -190: a. 26 m. b. 36 m. c. 28 m.
84. What is the max thrust of CF 34-10E: a. 16.000 pounds in ISA condition. b. 18.820 pounds in ISA condition. c.
17.500 pounds in ISA condition.
85. What is the range of the E-190: a. 3200 nautical miles with standard reserves. b. 2300 nautical miles with
standard reserves. c. 4200 nautical miles with standard reserves.
86. How many fuselage jack points has E-190: a. 4. b. 3. c. 2.
87. What is the function of yaw damper: a. Absorb landing gear vibrations . b. Assist nose wheel steering. c.
Avoid Dutch roll.
88. How many sources of AC are there in the E 190: a. Five. b. Three. c. Four.
89. How many sources of DC are there in the E-190: a. Two. b. three. c. Four.
90. How many ICC are there in the ERJ 190: a. 5. b. 7. c. 4.
91. What is the function of ICC: a. Control,protection and distribution of primary AC/DC electrical power. b.
Monitor and protection of primary DC electrical power. c. Cooling and distribution of primary AC electrical
power.
92. How many inverters are there in ERJ-190: a. 2. b. 1. c. 3.
93. Where is located the inverter: a. Fwd E - bay. b. Mid E - bay. c. Aft E - bay.
94. Where is located the point of plumb: a. RH main landing gear wheelwell. b. LH main landing gear wheelwell.
c. Nose landing gear wheelwell.
95 How many ACES are there in the ERJ-190: a. 6. b. 8. c. 5.
96 Where is located the waste tank: a. Aft cargo compartment. b. Aft E - bay. c. Mid E - bay.
97. Where is located the potable water tank: a. Under floor of the fwd cargo compartment. b. Under floor of the
cockpit. c. Under floor behind the rear bulkhead of the aft cargo compartment.
98. How many safety valves are there and names: a. 3 / relief valve-pressure valve and cabin press valve. b. 2 /
positive valve and negative valve. c. Answers A and B are correct.
99. How many recirculation fans are there in ERJ - 190: a. 3. b. 2. c. 4.
100. Control of the cockpit or cabin ambient temperature is between: a. 25 40 C degrees. b. 22 38 C degrees.
c. 19 30 C degrees.
101. The total airflow entering the flight deck and cabin is made up of: a. 50 % fresh air and 50 % recirculated
air. b. 25 % fresh air and 75 % recirculated air. c. 40 % fresh air and 60 % recirculated air.
102. What is the function of the outflow valve: a. Modulates the cabin press controller. b. Modulates the airflow
from the cabin into ambient. c. Monitor the recirculation fan.
103. What valves control temperature ambient: a. Outflow valve. b. Safety valves. c. Pack bypass valve.
104. Pax cabin receives air from: a. Forward cargo compartment. b. Pack RH and LH. c. Recirculation fans.
105. Cockpit receives air from: a. Only LH pack. b. Only RH pack.Flap extends first. c. Both at the same time.
106. How many modules comprise the AFCS ( Automatic Flight Control System) and name: a. One module \ ACM
(Autopilot Control Module). b. Six modules \ ADA (Autopilot Data Aplication). c. Four modules \ AIOP (Actuator
Input Output Processor).
107. How many servos comprise the AFCS in ERJ 190 (Aerorepublica): a. 3 servos. b. 4 servos. c. 2 servos.
108. What servo hasnt AFCS in ERJ 190 ( Aerorepublica): a. Rudder servo. b. Aileron servo. c. Elevator servo.
109. How many digital audio panel (DAP) has the ERJ - 190: a. 2 DAP. b. 3 DAP. c. 4 DAP.
110. What is the primary means of tuning the radios : a. PFD (Primary Flight Display). b. MCDU (Multifunctional
Control Display Unit). c. MFD ( Multifunctional display).
111. The slat PDU is located in the: a. Unpressurized area inside the wing fairing. b. Pressurized center electronic bay. c.
Pressurized aft e- bay.
112. What is the secondary means of tuning radios: a. PFD (Primary Flight Display). b. MCDU (Multifunctional Control
Display Unit). c. MFD (Multifunctional display).
113. How many ramp interphone panels are there in ERJ - 190: a. 3 \ Fwd section mid e - bay Dc external power
panel. b. 2 \ Aft section mid e - bay. c. 1 \ AC External power receptacle.
114. What is the function of the RAT: a. Provide electrical power in the event of a lost of all AC and DC sources. b.
Provide electrical power in the event of a lost of all AC sources. c. Provide electrical power in the event of a lost of all DC
sources.
115. Where is located the RAT: a. In a bay in the RH side of the main landing gear wheelwell section.. b. In a bay in the
LH side of the aircraft nose section. c. In a bay in the RH side of the aircraft nose section.
116. SSPC are controlled by means of : a. MAU. b. ICC. c. MCDU.
117. Where is located the ELT unit : a. Aft avionics compartment. b. Fwd avionics compartment. c. Mid avionics
compartment..
118. What frequencies transmit the ELT: a. 118.10 Mhz 121.8 Mhz 130.10 Mhz. b. 121.5 Mhz 243 Mhz 406 Mhz.
c. 110.70 Mhz 109.90 Mhz. 113.90 Mhz.
119. Where is located the antenna of ELT: a. In top of the rear fuselage. b. In top of the vertical stabilizer. c. In top of the
Fwd fuselage.
120. How many FCM (Flight Control Module) are there in ERJ - 190: a. 6. b. 4. c. 3.
121. What is the max angle of spoilers deployment: a. 25 degrees. b. 27 degrees. c. 40 degrees.
122. Hyd system 1 and 2 are cooling by means of: a. Radiation and convection. b. fluid to fuel heat exchanger. c.
Conduction.
123. Hyd system 3 is cooling by means of: a. Radiation and convection. b. fluid to fuel heat exchanger. c. Conduction.
124. Engine anti-ice system works with airflow from: a. 4 th engine stage. b. 6 th engine stage. c. 5 th engine stage.
125. FDR begins recording when: a. Engines are turned on or aircraft in the air. b. As soon as power is applied. c. Weight
on wheels is true.
126. CVR begins recording when: a. Engines are turned on or aircraft in the air. b. As soon as power is applied. c. Weight
on wheels is true.
127. What does mean ADSP: a. Aircraft Download System Protection. b. Air Data Smart Probe. c. Airborne Display Supply
Power.
128. How many ADSP are there in aircraft: a. 6 . b. 4. c. 2.
129. What is the function of ADSP: a. Sense total press, static press ,local angle of attack and process total air
temperature. b. Sense total press and static press only. c. Sense Static Air Temperature and pitot press .
130. How many doors type I has ERJ - 190: a. 3. b. 2. c. 4.
131. How many doors type III has ERJ 190: a. 2. b. 3. c. 4.
132. How many fuel injectors has the APU : a. 18. b. 20. c. 12.
133. Fire extinguisher agent contain: a. 3.96 Lbs, Halon 1301. b. 3.86 Lbs, Halon BOl. c 3.98 Lbs, Halon 1301.
134. What is the pressure used as primary source: a. 30 TO 40PSI b. 40 TO 50PSI c. 35 TO 45PSI.
135. How many positions have the drain valve and location in the airplane: a. Close, open. b. Close, open, service c.
Open, close.
136. How ensure a continuous supply of pressurized fuel to the Engine: a. Engine feed systems. b. APU feed. c. Refuel
/Defuel.
137. During operation of the airplane in ground for start the engine used: a. Both fuel pump. b. Each wing supply along
c. Ejectors pump.
138. All of the pump is installed in the: a. Wing area. b. Collector bay. c. Pylon Area.
139. The ejectors pump is a: a. Convergent pump. b. Divergent pump. c. Ventury with no moving parts.
140. How many scavenge ejector pumps is installed: a. Five b. Three c. Three each wing.
141. The scavenge ejector pump installed in the: a. Lowest point of the rear spar. b. Lowest point of the front spar. c.
Lowest point of the wing tank outboard of the rib 1.
142. The mode of operation of primary ejector pump is indicated: a. MFD b. MFD,CMC c. EICAS.
143. Where is located the DC pump: a. RH collector tank. b. LH collector tank. c. APU area.
144. DC pump fail annunciates: a. EICAS. b. MFD. c. PFD.
145. What is the monitor the pressure switch: a. Input of the electrical pumps. b. Output of the electrical pumps. c. Both
at the same time.
146. How many pressure switches have for each pump: a. One b. One for each pump. c. Four in total in each wing.
147. How monitor the status of the AC pump 1/ AC pump 2: a. MAU 1 and MAU 2. b. MAU 1 and MAU 3. c MAU 1 and
SPDA 1.
148. How transmits the data on the ASCB for EICAS: a. SPDA 1 b. SPDA 2 and Mau 3 c. Each Mau.
149. For the start the APU what pump is used: a. L/H AC pump. b. R/H DC Pump. c. DC pump.
150. In what position on the cockpit have to be the switch before to Selecting the APU ON. a. ON b. AC pump 2 c. Auto.
151. If the fire detected in the APU compartment on ground APU shutdown after: a. Ten minutes. b. 10 seconds. c. 5
seconds.
152. The adapter pressure receives pressure between: a. 45 and 50 PSI. b. 35 and 50 PSI. c. 25 and 45 PSI.
153. The fuel can be transferred from wing to wing to maintenance Purpose only: a. In flight DC - power available b. In
ground AC - power available. c. In both conditions.
154. To transfer fuel from the right hand tank to the left hand tank the first step that you need to do is: a. Power off. b.
Connected external power. c. LH tank refuel C/B pulled.
155. When appears the EICAS message "fuel tank lo temp: a. If the fuel temperature drop - 47 C (-35 F). b. If the fuel
temperature drop - 37 C (-35 F). c. If the fuel temperature drop - 87 C (-55 F).
156. Where is installed the two (ECS) pack: a. Behind the fairing. b. Wing to fuselage fairing. c. In both spar rear.
157. How many fans have the forward e-bay: a. One. b. Four. c. Three.
158. How many fans have middle e- bay: a. One. b. Four. c. Three.
159. In which compartment I can put animals: a. Forward E- Bay. b. Mid E-Bay. c. Forward cargo Compartment.
160. If the fan forward cargo fails i will have message in the: a. EICAS. b. PFD. c. MFD.
161. The fan of the forward E-bay and aft -E-Bay are monitoring by AMS: a. Four minutes before to T/O. b. Two minutes
after each aircraft landing. c. Four minutes after each aircraft landing.
162. The pressurization control panel is installed: a. Left hand side of the overheat panel in the cockpit. b. Right hand
side of the overhead panel in the cockpit. c. Below the windshield panel.
163. The outflow valve is driven at rate of the: a. 4 degrees per minutes. b. degrees per seconds. c. 2 degrees per
seconds.
164. How many channels have the cabin pressurization controller: a) Two. b) Four. c) Six.
165. Outflow valve is installed on: a. Forward fairing b. Lower fairing c. Forward fairing bulkhead.
166. What is the function of the dual potentiometers: a. Sends position to each control outflow valve. b. Sends position
signal to each to each channel c. Send position signal to each control channel.
167. If CPCS software logic fails if the outflow valve if the cabin pressure altitude reaches: a. 18,500 Ft. b. 14,500 Ft. c.
13,000 Ft.
168. The primary operation of the CPCS systems is: a. Manual b. Automatic. c. Electrical/manual.
169. Windshield ice and rain protection consist of two systems: a. Windshield heating, windshield wiper. b. Anti-ice, rain
protection. c. Heating.
170. The drain mast has ice protection: a. Heating. b. Heating, and cooling. c. Ice-protection.
171. The ice detection systems operate fully: a. Heating. b. Automatic. c. Cooling.
172. This ice detection is mounted: a. Forward and above the windshield. b. After and below the windshield. c. Forward
and below the windshield.
173. In override position engine and wing anti-ice will be activated by: a. Auto switch. b. Proximity sensor. c. Weight on
wheel signal.
174. When the windshield heating will be operational: a. When the anti-ice open. b. When the engine running. c. Wow
condition.
175. The ice and rain protection system status indications are shown on: a. CMC, EICAS, MFD. b.CMC, MFD,IESS. c.CMC,
PFD, EICAS.
176. The slat anti-ice system utilized hot air from the engine to: a. Supply thermal energy through the slat anti-ice b.
Supply heating to the wing c. Supply hot air to the leading edge.
177. The telescoping duct sends thermal energy through the: a. Slat 2, 3, and 4 piccolo tube. b. Slat 1, 2, and 3 piccolo
tube 3. c. Slat/Flat, 1, 2, 4 piccolo tubes.
178. The slat anti-ice valve located: a. Pylon. b. Forward spar. c. Left wing.
179. The anti-ice flow is based on: a. Altitude, ambient temp, Mach number. b. Slat position, ambient temp, and mach.
c. Altitude, ambient temp, Mach number and slat position.
180. What is the pressure in the wing anti-ice pressure sensor: a. 0-1 00 PSI. b. 0-150 PSI. c. 0-75 PSI.
181. How many anti-icing leak detector sensors have mounted in the wing: a) Six. b)Four. c) 3 in each wing.
182. Where are installed each one (anti-ice leak): a. Both side of the wing. b. Both LH/RH wing anti-icing areas. c. LH/RH
wing, leak, slat areas.
183. The desire skin temperature is calculated: a) Slat position, ambient temperature, mach, and altitude. b) Slat
position, mach airspeed. c) Mach, attitude, altitude, airspeed.
184. The slat anti-ice protection system can be operated in: a. Four mode. b. Two different modes. c. One mode.
185. Anti-ice wing leak appears in the EICAS message in which status: a) Caution (red) b) Amber (yellow) c) Advisory
message.
186. What is the temp of the loop for send signal to the EICAS: a. 130 C. -- 150 C. b. 130 C. - (30 Sec) --- 150 C (2 Sec).
c. 130 C. - (30 Min) --- 15 C (2 Minute).
187. The AMS receives signals from the: a. Pressure switch. AIR CONDITIONING b. Pressure switch and transducer. c.
NAl, proximity switch.
188. Where is mounted the T2 sensor: a. Inlet anti-ice valve. b. lnlet of telescopical duct. c. lnlet cooling.
189. How transmits temperature signal to the FADEC: a. T2 Sensor. b. PT2 Sensor. c. T3 Sensor.
190. Provide signals to modulate the left and right engine NAI valve: a. SPDA 1 and SPDA 2. c. FMC- MAU 2. d. MAU l-
MAU3.
191. When the selector switch is in low/high position the wiper operates at: a. 80 cyc1es per minutes low and 135 cycles
per minute in high b. 80 cyc1es per minutes low and 135 cycles per minutes in high. c. 80 cycles low /125 cycles high.
192. What is interval time between the cycles: a. 7 minutes b. 7.5 seconds. c. 7. seconds.
193. How many channels has the AMS: a) Two channels. b. Four channels. c. One or two stand by.
194. If in the EICAS APPEAR message ice detector fail the Aircraft can be dispatched: a. One inoperative. b. Both
inoperative. c. Two and stand by inoperative.
195. What unit controls the AC EXT PWR: a. The EPM b. The GCU. c. The AGCU.
196. Where is the EPM located: a. In the EICC. b. In the LICC. c. In the AICC.
197. When are the batteries charged: a. When the Ground Service is in use. b. When the AC Bus 1 and 2 are powered. c.
When the Batteries Charge are powered.
198. What precaution should be take when removing a card from the SPDA: a. You have to use static discharge wrist
strap equipment. b. The SPDA cards not require any special precaution when is removing. c. Only require to remove the
AC and DC power.
199. Where is the location of the AC 1 bus: a. In front of the LICC. b. In the AICC. c. At the Back of the LICC.
200. What CB'S are displayed on the MCDU CB page: a. The push out Circuit Breakers. b. The LICC and RICC virtual Circuit
Breakers. c. The SPDA 1 and 2 virtual Circuit Breakers.
201. What happens if any PTT button gets stuck: a. In three seconds disconnect and restore the normal communication.
b. You have to release manually. c. These are not possible.
202. How does the MCDU communicate with VHF comm module: a. Throw the MAU via ASCB. b. Direct to the MRC. c.
Direct to the MRC via ASCB.
203. How many pages or radio information are there in the MCDU: a. Two Radios pages. b. One Radio Page. c. Three
Radios pages.
204. Where you can see the CMC: a. On the MFD 2 screen b. In a Laptop using the LAN connection. c. A and B answer
are correct.
205. You can load the software using the MFD 2: a. YES. b. Yes if you using the reversionary panel. c. NO.
206. If the MFD 2 screen was change how you load the software: a. Using the same screen b. Using the MFD 2 screen c.
Using a laptop with the load software on the LAN connections.
207. Where is the Pilot Reversionary Panel located: a. On the overhead panel. b. At left side of the control quadrant
panel. c. On the left and right lower side of the front panel.
208. If the Aircraft is on the ground with one engine running which probes will be heated: a. Only the left probes. b.
Only the right probes. c. All the probes and the TAT sensors.
209. How can the barometric altimeter correction be performed: a. By the MCDU panels. b. By the Guidance Panels. c.
By the CCD controls.
210. Where is the VHF Nav unit # 1 located: a. In the MRC 1. b. In the MAU 1. c. In the SPDA 1.

The desire skin temperature is calculated. Slat position, ambient temperature, mach and altitude. Slat position,
mach airspeed. Mach, attitude, altitude, airspeed.
The anti-ice flow is based on: Altitude, ambient temp, mach number Slat position, ambient temp, and mach
Altitude, ambient temp, mach number and slat position.
The Apu operation is limited up to 33,000 ft 32,000 ft 31,000 ft.
The pressurization systems will also control the maximum differentials pressure 9.6 psi up to 41,000 8.6 psi up
to 41,000 6.5 psi up to 41,000.
Hyd system 3 is cooling by means of: Fluid to fuel heat exchanger Radiation and convection Conduction.
CPCS fail software logic and close the outflow valve if the cabin pressure altitude reaches 18,500 ft. 14,500 ft.
13,000 ft.
Vacuum generator operates up to: 17,000 ft 18,000 ft 19,000 ft.
In which altitude the vacuum generator the motor starting Below 18,000 ft. Above 18,000 ft. Below 20,000 ft.
What is the max thrust of CF 34-10E: 16,000 pounds in ISA condition 18,820 pounds in ISA condition 17,500
pounds in ISA condition.
What is the pressure is used as primary source 30 to 40psi 40 to 50psi 35 to 45psi.
The adapter pressure receives pressure between: 45 and 50 psi 35 and 50 psi 25 and 45 psi.
How many ACEs are there in the ERJ-190: 6 8 5.
How many FCM (flight control module) are there in ERJ-190: 4 3 5.
What is the function of the priority valve: Allows transfer Hyd power from system 1 to system 2 Allows
transfer Hyd power from system 2 to system 1 Allows transfer air bleed between engine 1 and engine 2.
What is the range of the ERJ-190: 2300 nautical miles with standard reserves 4200 nautical miles with standard
reserves 3200 nautical miles with standard reserves.
What is the max ceiling in the ERJ-190: 41,000 ft 42,000 ft 43,000 ft.
How many scavenge ejector pumps is installed Five Three Three each wing.
Provide signals to modulate the left and right engine NAI valve SPDA 1 and SPDA 2 FMC - MAU 2 MAU 1 -
MAU 3.
Fire extinguisher agent contain 3.96 lbs. Halon 1301 3.86 lbs. Halon BOI 3.98 lbs. Halon 1301.
How many slat anti-ice sensor have installed in the wing Four are mounted. Twor are mounted. Three are
mounted in each wing.
How many slat anti-ices temperature sensors are installed in the ERJ-190 4 ; 2 per wing 8 ; 2 each slat panel 6 ;
1 each slat panel, # 2 and 2 each slat panel #4 (inboard and outboard).
How many anti-icing leak detector sensors have mounted in the wing Six Four 3 in each wing.
How many slat panels are there in ERJ-190 4 each wing 5 each wing 3 each wing.
Each tank contains the following equipment to allow inboard toward the collector bay, but not outboard Baffle
and flapper check valve Baffle and ejector pump Flapper check valve and ac motor.
How to assure maximum fuel availability in the collector bay AC fuel pump right hand tank Three ejector
pumps DC fuel pump and three ejector pump.
What systems incorporated in each tank Vent Float valve Pressure relief valve.
The vent systems are designed to Keep the pressure in the tank Out the pressure Keep the pressure differential
(tank / ambient).
The vent systems incorporate Naca, and flame arrester Surge tank, a naca air inlet Relief valve and naca air
inlet.
The realize valve opens when the differential pressure between the interior and the exterior of the fuel tank is
more than: 3.5 psi 2.5 psi 3 psi.
The flame arrestor prevents flame from entering the fuel vent Minimum time 1.5 minutes 2 2.5 minimum time
2.5 minutes if there is fire.
The air inlet airflow into and out of the tank through Vent Naca Out flow valve.
If the pressure inlet of the engine driven fuel pump drop below __ psi Fuel low press. Drops below 8psi Fuel
low press caution message will appear EICAS at idle speed n2 > 65%.
In the event of failure of the main engine feed ejector pump. What are doing Backup fuel flow to the engine DC
Backup flow to the engine AC Backup.
Aux pump power supply for LH / RH AC bus left / AC ESS bus right /hand ac aux pump. DC bus left / AC
ESS bus right /hand ac aux pump AC bus left / DC ESS bus right /hand ac aux pump.
DC is power by: ESS AC bus 2 ESS DC bus 1 ESS DC bus 2.
The pilot valve closed in each tank close 180 litros (44.3 lts) 160 litros (42.3 gallons) 180 litros (42.8 gallons).
What is the total flow entering the cockpit 52% circulation 48% fresh air 88% des fresh air - 52% hot air 52%
fresh air and 48% of recirculation air.
In what altitude the pack 2 is command off in flight Less than 35, 000 ft Less than 25, 000 ft Less than 45, 000
ft.
What is the mean of the "dump" switch? Control the auto pressurization of the aircraft. Control auto
depressurization of the aircraft. Control auto depressurization of the out flow valve.
Where is attached the smoke detector Below to the passenger cabin floor structure. Between there circulation
filter. Lower flange.
The smoke detector is the type. Electric type. Mechanical and electrical. Photoelectric type sensor.
During smoke removal both pack Open Close Shut off.
When the dump switch emergency procedure depressed, depressurize the cabin at rate of the. 4000 ft./min 2000
ft./min 3000 ft./min.
Explain the use the LFE (auto-manual) increase by 50 ft. every 0.5 seconds. increase by 150 ft. every 0.5
seconds.
The cabin pressurization controller the maximum differential pressure of: 597.09 hpa (8.66psi) 597.07 hpa
(8.66psi) 597.08 hpa (8.66psi).
The difference between the (PC REF) and (PC ACT) named: Delta P Delta PC Delta PE.
The negative pressure realizes to open at differential pressure of the 10hpa (-0,15psi) fully open at -35 hpa (-
0.51psi) 10hpa (-0,16psi) fully open at -35hpa (-0.51 psi) 8hpa (-0,08psi) fully open at -35hpa (0.51psi).
The ice protection system includes the following Slat anti-ice systems, ice detention systems. Ice detection
system, pilot and static port. Slat anti-ice system, pilot and static, ice detention system.
When the sensor indicated overheat condition: Temp 124c (255f) Temp 125c (257f) Temp 130c (262f).
If occurs overheat send the signal to the: SPDA 2 over ARINC 429. SPDA 2 over ARINC 429. AMS controller
over ARINC 429.
The air turbine starter increases the engine. Fan speed from zero percent N1 to approximately 30 percent N1.
Core speed from zero percent N2 to approximately 50 percent N2. Fan speed from zero percent N1 to
approximately 50 percent N1. Core speed from zero percent N2 to approximately 30 percent N2.
The fire detection loops are: Smoke sensing devices. Pneumatic sensing devices. Photo sensing devices.
Thermocouple sensing devices.
The primary nozzle is attached to the: Outer frame of the turbine rear frame assembly. Inner frame of the
turbine rear frame assembly. Outer frame of the turbine front frame assembly. Inner frame of the turbine front
frame assembly.
The Transcowl is: In the front of the inlet cowl. Aft of the core cowl. Aft of the fan cowl. In the front of the aft
core cowl.
The thrust reverser: Helps in accelerating the aircraft during take off. Helps in slowing down the aircraft during
landing. Provide a smooth, aerodynamic surface over the engine fan case. Provides a smooth, aerodynamic
surface for the inlet airflow.
The hydraulic pump is at 10 oclock position on the: Forward side of the transfer gearbox (TGB). Aft side of
the accessory gearbox (AGB). Forward side of the accessory gearbox (AGB). Aft side of the transfer gearbox
(TGB).
The fan module is at the: Forward end of the engine. Aft end of the engine. Forward end of the LPT module.
Aft end of the LPT module.
The drive system module drivers: HPC after engine start. LPC after engine start. HPC during engine start. LPT
during engine start.
The engine data plate is on the: Fan case at the 9 oclock, aft of the oil tank. Core case at the 3 oclock position,
aft of the oil tank. Fan case at the 3 oclock position, aft of the oil tank. Core case at the 9 oclock position, aft
of the oil tank.
The forward sump is bolted to the: Turbine frame hub front face. Fan frame hub aft face. Fan frame hub front
face. Turbine frame hub aft face.
The booster assembly pressurizes the: Inlet air for the combustor. Inlet air for the compressor. Exhaust air for
the compressor Exhaust air for the combustor.
The HPC stators provide structural support for the engine between the: Fan frame assembly and the LPT
assembly. Fan frame assembly and the combustion case. Combustion case and the LPT assembly. LPT
assembly and the turbine frame assembly.
The Low Pressure Turbine (LPT) rotor and stator is: Aft of the high pressure turbine (HPT) shroud and stage 2
nozzle. Aft the high pressure compressor (HPC) shroud and stage 1 nozzle. Aft the high pressure turbine (HPT)
shroud and stage 1 nozzle. Aft the high pressure compressor (HPC) shroud and stage 2 nozzle.
The LPT rotor and stator extracts energy from the: Exhaust gases and drives the high pressure. Exhaust gases
and drivers the fan and booster rotors. Inlet air and drivers the fan and boosters rotors. Inlet air and drivers the
high pressure compressor.
The Accessory Gearbox (AGB) is on the: Fan case at the 6 oclock position. Compressor case at the 8 oclock
position. Fan case at the 8 oclock position. Compressor case at the 6 oclock position.
The drive system module drives the: Low pressure compressor LPC during engine start. High pressure
compressor HPC during engine start. High pressure compressor HPC during engine full power. Low pressure
compressor HPC during engine full power.
The primary airflow provides approximately: 25 percent of the engine thrust. 15 percent of the engine thrust. 45
percent of the engine thrust. 85 percent of the engine thrust.
The fuel pump is Aft of the: Transfer gearbox TGB at the 10 oclock position. Transfer gearbox TGB at the 7
oclock position. Accessory gearbox AGB at the 10 oclock position. Accessory gearbox AGB at the 7 oclock
position.
The main fuel oil heat exchanger Heats the engine lubricating oil. Cools the engine lubricating oil. Cools the
IDG lubricating oil. Heats the IDG lubricating oil.
The permanent magnetic alternator PMA is on the forward side of the: Accessory gearbox AGB at the 10
oclock. Transfer gearbox TGB at the 8 oclock. Accessory gearbox AGB at the 8 oclock. Transfer gearbox
TGB at the 10 oclock.
The N1 speed sensor measures the fan speed of the engine and sends signal to the: FMU and to the aircraft.
FADEC and to the aircraft. FADEC and to the PMA. FMU and to the PMA.
The fuel filter impeding bypass switch on the: Fuel pump. AGB. Fuel filter. TGB.
The fuel filter impeding bypass switch is a: Normally closed type switch. Normally open type switch. Three
pole switch. Four pole switch.
The electrical chip detector collects: Magnetic particles that are suspended in the supply oil. Magnetic particles
that are suspended in the scavenge oil. Non magnetic particles that are suspended in the supply oil. Non
magnetic particles that are suspended in the scavenge oil.
The oil filter bypass sensor is in the: Oil tank module. AGB module. Oil filter module. TGB module.
The oil pressure transmitter provides a proportional: DC output to the aircraft equivalent to the oil supply
pressure supplied to the oil tank. DC output to the aircraft equivalent to the oil supply pressure supplied to the
bearing sumps. AC output to the aircraft equivalent to the oil supply pressure supplied to the bearing sumps.
AC output to the aircraft equivalent to the oil supply pressure supplied to the oil tank.
The ignition exciters provide 14,000 to 18,000 Vdc output at the rate of approx: One pulse per second to the
FADEC. One pulse per second to the igniters. Two pulse per second to the igniters. Two pulse per second to the
FADEC.
The VSV system controls the amount of airflow through the: High pressure turbine (HPT) Fan and boosters
module. High pressure compressor (HPC). Low pressure turbine (LPT).
The TBV is at the 8: 30 position on the compressor. 6: 30 position on the compressor. 6:30 position on the fan
case. 8:30 position on the fan case.
The manual drive assemblies are on the: Head end of the feedback actuators. Piston end of the locking
actuators. Head end of the locking actuators. Piston end of the feedback actuators.
The ICU isolates the thrust reverser system from the aircraft: Pneumatic supply. Hydraulic supply. Electrical
supply. Oil supply.
What is the range of the overheat condition occurs: 124c (255f) 134c (264f) 128c (248f).
The NAI valve regulates to a pressure setting to the: 70 + 7 psi if upstream above 100 psi and 70 + 5psi below
100psi 80 + 7 psi if upstream is above 150 psi and 80 + 5psi below 150psi 75 + 5 psi if upstream is above 200
psi and 75 + 5psi below 75psi.
There are three sensing element connected to the windshield heater control. Two connected to windshield
heater /one auxiliary. Three connected to windshield /one auxiliary. Two connected to heater /two auxiliary.
Each when has discrete lines to SPDA 1? Two Four Six.
The water waste system controller temperature heating on/off maintain drain mast temp of: 71* C 91* C 14* C.
The safety thermostat is set to open when the mast below. 10* C 8* C 5* C.
The ice detection systems include is directly connected to: SPDA 1 SPDA 12 MAU.
How MCDU rail show is it possible to tune the radio? By using the radio control panel There are no possible to
recover these radio Using the CCD throw the PFD screen.
Where are the controls to can the flight attendant and the ground personal? On the radio page of the MCDU On
the audio controls panels On the PFD screen using the CCD.
What is the purpose of the TAT sensor input to the ADSP Send the TAT information to be process by the air
data unit The TAT sensor do not send inputs to the ADSP The TAT send inputs direct to the MAUs.
If the number 2 ADS failed and no auto reversion occurs what can the copilot gets the signal? By the pilot
automatic function Manually by the co-pilot reversionary panel Manually by the pilot reversionary panel.
How many G/S and VOR/LOC antennas are there total? Two antennas for G/S and two antennas for VOR/LOC
One G/S dual antenna and two VOR/LOC antenna One G/S dual antenna and one dual VOR/LOC antenna.

What is the maximum capacity of the water potable tank 120 Lt. 100 Lt. 110 Lt.
How many hyd systems are there in the ERJ 190 and where are located: 2; 1 and 2 located in the rear fuselage. 4; 2
and 4 located in the left side of fuselage and 1 and 3 in the right side. 3 ; 1 in the LH center fuselage bay, 2 in the RH
center fuselage bay, 3 in the aft fuselage.
What is the function of PTU: Transfer hyd power from sys 1 to sys 2 if EDP fails and assist landing gear. Transfer hyd
power from sys 3 to sys 1 if ACMP fails and assist pilot. Transfer hyd power from sys 2 to sys 3 if ECS fails and assist
brakes.
How many hyd EDP are installed in the aircraft: 4 in the AGB. 2 ; either in the LH AGB and RH AGB. 3; in the LH AGB , RH
AGB and APU AGB.
Where is installed the two engine fire extinguisher bottles: R/H rear wing to fuselage fairing. L/H rear wing to fuselage
fairing. Mid. E-Bay.
What is the maximum differential of pressure in the aircraft: 9.6 PSI up to 41,000 ft. 8.6 PSI up to 41,000 ft. 6.5 PSI up to
41,000 ft.
What is the maximum angle of the nose wheel with the steering engaged: 76 degrees LH and 76 degrees RH. 170
degrees LH and 170 degrees RH. 90 degrees LH and 80 degrees RH.
What module processes all landing gear proximity sensors information: NWSCM. PSEM EDPM.
What is the function of BCV: Modulate Hyd press for the brakes. Control Hyd press for the brakes. Monitor the Hyd
press for the brakes.
What areas are monitored and protected by the fire protection system: Brakes, cockpit , purses and pockets. Engines
and pylons, APU, 2 cargo compartments and lavatories. Fwd e-bay. Mid e- bay and aft e-bay.
What does mean AMS and what system comprise: Aircraft Main System ( Hyd Elec Pneumatic Ice and rain
protection). Air Module System ( Air Conditioning Landing gear Pressurization ). Air Management System (Air
Conditioning Pressurization Pneumatic Ice and Rain Protection).
What areas are protected to prevent icing by pneumatic bleed: Windshield Horizontal Stabilizer ADSP. TAT sensors,
ADSP, Windshield and Water lines. Slats, Engine.
What is the function of the torque motor: Give a suitable torque to wheel assy. Monitor the slats anti ice pneumatic
press. Controls servo air pressure to the HPSOV and NPRSOV.
What is the function of precooler: Cools air from lavatories and cargo compartment. Cools oil from engine. Cools bleed
air by fan when the fan air valve is open.
What is the capacity of lavatory water heater: 2 Lt. 3 Lt. 1.5 Lt.
Where is located the lavatory water heater : Fwd e-bay. Fwd RH side of the fuselage. Fwd and Aft lavatories cabinet
underneath the sink.
What does mean CPCS, Where is located, How many are there and function Cabin Press Controller System, Mid e-bay, 2,
control pressurization. Cabin Pressure Control System, Fwd e-bay, 1 (two channels), control max differential press. Cabin
Press Control System, Aft e-bay, 1(two channels), control stress cabin.
What is the max speed cruise of the ERJ - 190: 850 km / h. 1003 km / h. 910 m / s.
How many slat panels are there in E-190: 4 each wing. 3 each wing. 5 each wing.
What is the total capacity of the fuel tanks: 18,000 Lt (4520GaI) 17,000 Lt (4320Gal) 16,000 Lt (4220Gal).
The vent systems are designed to: Keep the pressure in the tank. Out the pressure. Keep the pressure differential (tank /
ambient).
How many scavenge ejector pumps is installed. Five each wing. Four each wing. Three each wing.
In the event of failure of the fuel EDP, what type of pump supplies fuel: Backup fuel flow to the engine. DC backup flow
to the engine. AC backup.
What is the max ceiling certified in the ERJ 190: 41000 ft. 42000 ft. 43000 ft.
How many level sticks are installed in aircraft: 6 per wing. 4 per wing. 3 per wing.
When a exceeding is annunciated on the EICAS "Fuel imbalance": 380 Kg. (802) Lbs. 490 Kg. (798) Lbs. 360 Kg. (792) Lbs.
The Fuel Imbalance message disappears when the difference is: 35 Kg. (77 Lbs). 55 Kg. (121 Lbs). 45 Kg. (99 Lbs).
How many probes have in total all of the tanks: 16 units each wing and one dual unit compensator/probe. 36 unit total
wing. 34 probe in each wing.
What type of smoke detector is installed in the cargo compartment: Electric type. Electric type. Photoelectric type
sensor.
The ice detector systems include: Four ice detector. Two ice detector. Two for each side.
How many TRU are installed on the 190: 3 TRU . 4 TRU . 5 TRU .
What is the minimum power of the batteries: 28 VDC. 22.5 VDC. 15 KV A.
What is the function of MRC: To accommodate the Navigation Radios. To accommodate the Communications Radios.
Answers A and B are correct.
Where is located the MRC # 1 : In the Aft Electronic Bay. In the Aft Electronic Bay. In the Forward Electronic Bay.
What is the maximum angle of nose steering with control pedals 7 degrees RH and 7 degrees LH. 76 degrees RH and 76
degrees LH. 170 degrees RH and 170 degrees LH.
The flight control system is comprised of the: Primary, aileron, spoiler Secondary, rudder on yaw axis control. Primary
and the secondary flight control surfaces.
The primary flight control system consists of: Aileron, elevator, rudder, mfs. Flap, aileron, rudder. Spoiler, aileron,
rudder.
Which of the following flight control are controlled by FBW: Rudder, elevator, roll spoiler, and all secondary FCS
including HS, flaps, slats, ground spoiler and speed break Rudder, elevator, multifunctional spoiler, flap and ailerons.
Primary and secondary surface.
Which is the unit provides artificial feel: Control yoke. Feel and centering unit. Trim control and feeling.
S/F motion is sequenced such that: Slat extends first. Flap extends first. Both at the same time.
The actuator control electronic (ACE) module is the primary component in the flight control system a total: One unit
installed. Six unit installed. Four unit installed.
The primary ace units control: Rudder, elevator. Rudder, flap. Slap/ flap.
The secondary S/F- ace unit control the: Slat, spoiler. Slat /flap. Flap/spoiler.
The HS- ace unit controls: HS (horizontal stabilizer). Slat. Primary/ secondary surface.
The flap PDU is located in the: Pressurized forward e- bay. Pressurized center electronic bay. Pressurized aft e- bay.
How many accelerometers are installed in CF 34- 10e5 engine and function: 5 , give engine velocity information. 2, give
engine vibration information. 3, give engine trim information.
What is the function of the SPDA: a. Monitor, control and distribution of the dc and ac power. b. Operate and control of
the electrical power of the aircraft. c. Distribution and control of the ac and dc power.
What is the function of the MAU and how many are there in the ERJ 190: a. To distribute the signal of water lines / 4.
b. To management the light system in ERJ 190 / 2. c. To interface the different systems of the aircraft / 3.
How many DVDR are installed in the aircraft, where and parameters of recording: a. 3 in aft mid and fwd e-bay / 10
hours voice 18 hours flight data. b. 1 in aft e bay / 2 hours of voice 20 hours flight data. c. 2 in fwd and aft e- bay /
2 hours voice 25 hours flight data.
How many IRS are there in the ERJ 190, what does mean, and function: a. 3 / internal reversionary system / give
position of the aircraft. b. 2 / inertial reference system / give attitude, heading and position of the aircraft. c. 2 / internal
reference system / give attitude and position of the aircraft.
The ignition exciters provide: a. 12000 to 16000 vac at two pulses per second to the igniters. b. 14000 to 19000 vdc at
one pulse per second to the combustion chamber. c. 14000 to 18000 vdc at one pulse per second to the igniters.
The APU operation is limited up to: a. 31.000 ft. b. 32.000 ft. c. 33.000 ft.
What does mean ESC, location and function: Environmental System Control , Synoptic page, controls pneumatic sys.
Electronic System Control ,Fwd E-bay, controls electrical sys. Electronic Starter Controller, Apu compartment, with
FADEC controls APU start.
How many igniters are there in the APU: 4 6 2.
What does mean FADEC, and function in the engine: a. Fault Analysis Digital Engine Controller, analysis of engine stalls.
b. Fill Apu Demand Electronic Control, monitor apu. c. Full Authority Digital Electronic/Engine Control, provides flexible
engine operation, reduced pilot workload and improved safety, maintenance and reliability.
What does mean TGB and function: a. Transformer generator Buit, transforms energy. . Transfer Gear Box, provides
power transmission between inlet gearbox and accessory gear box. Transformer Generator Bus ,supplies electrical
power to the aircraft..
The AGB provides mounting pad for : a. Jacks, HPSOV, NAPRSOV, MCC, mainly. b. IDG, fuel pump, oil tank and air starter
mainly. c. Fuel pump, oil pump, oil filter manifold, Hyd pump, PMA, air turbine starter and IDG mainly.
The LPTACC-HPTACC-VSV-TBV-VBV are controlled by: a. Fuel press engine. b. Bleed air press engine. c. Oil press engine.
How many fuel nozzles are there in the CF 34-10E5 engine: 20 25 30.
What does mean IDG, location and function: a. Internal Digital Gauge, Aft E Bay, measure the wingspan. b.
International Drive Golf, cockpit, select the best golf players in the world. c. Integrated Drive Generator, Engine,
provides electrical power for the aircraft.
Where is located and function of the T 1.2 sensor: a. Compressor provides pressure air data. b. Fan case Provides oil
pressure data. c. Inlet cowl Provides engine inlet air temperature.
What is the maximum capacity of the waste tank a. 85 Lt. b. 95 Lt. c. 75 Lt.
What is the function of the ACMP: Powers the AMS system. Powers the CPCS system. Backup of the EDP.
What is the function of the priority valve: Allows transfer air bleed between engine 1 and engine 2. b. Allows transfer
hyd power from system 1 to system 2. c. Allows transfer hyd power from system 2 to system 1.
What is the main feature of the bootstrap reservoir: a. Avoid the hyd pumps cavitation. b. Avoid overpress in the hyd
pumps. c. Avoid overheat in the hyd fluid.
How many extinguisher bottles are installed in the ERJ 190: 4 : 2 for engines and 2 for the apu. 7 : 2 for engines 2 for
cargo compartments, two for lavatories and 1 for APU. 2: for the engines.
What type of smoke detector is installed in the lavatories: a. Electric type. b. Ionized principle type. c. Photoelectric type
sensor.
What areas are protected to prevent icing by electrical system a. Wheels, brakes and slats.. b. ADSP, SAT sensors,
windshield. c. ADSP,TAT sensors, windshield ,water lines, static port.
What is the function of the low pressure check valve: a. Avoid reverse flow of the low pressure bleed air. b. Avoid
reverse hyd flow into the pump. c. Prevent reverse flow of the high pressure bleed air.
How many slat anti-ice temperature sensors are installed in the ERJ 190 4 ; 2 per wing. b. 8; 2 each slat panel. c. 6; 1
each slat panel #2 and 2 each slat panel # 4 (inboard and outboard).
What is the function of BCM: . Modulate Hyd press for the brakes. b. Control Hyd press for the brakes. c. Monitor the
Hyd press for the brakes.
What module controls the nose wheel steering: a. PSEM. b. NWPSEM. c. NWSCM.
How many modes are there for the landing gear operation: a. 4, Electric, Hyd, Pneumatic and manual. b. 3, Mechanic,
hyd and pneumatic. c. 3, Electronic, Electric and manual.
What tube distribute hot air to prevent icing in the slat : a. Lip tube. b. D - Duct. c. Piccolo tube.
Vacuum generator operates up to: a. 17.000 Ft. b. 18.000 Ft. c. 19.000 Ft.
Where is located the waste service panel : Aft LH side of the fuselage. b. Aft RH side of the fuselage. c. Aft LH and RH
side of the fuselage.
What LRU monitor the water lines ice protection: a. WWSC. b. WMSV. c. WNPM.
Where is located the potable water service panel : a. Aft LH side of the fuselage. b. Aft RH side of the fuselage. c. Aft LH
and RH side of the fuselage.
Which are the pneumatic sources of the aircraft : a. Engine air bleed, APU air bled and external cart HP air bleed. b. Anti
ice air bleed, wheel air bleed and 5 stage air bleed. c. 5 th and 9 th air bleed, fan air bleed valve and HPSOV.
Where is located the Central Maintenance Computer (CMC) : a. In the MAU 2. b. In the MAU 3. c. In the MAU 1.
What is the total length of the E-190: a. 45 m. b. 55 m. c. 36 m.
What is the height of the E -190: a. 12 m. b. 10 m. c. 13 m.
What is the wing span of the E -190: a. 26 m. b. 36 m. c. 28 m.
What is the max thrust of CF 34-10E: a. 16.000 pounds in ISA condition. b. 18.820 pounds in ISA condition. c. 17.500
pounds in ISA condition.
What is the range of the E-190: a. 3200 nautical miles with standard reserves. b. 2300 nautical miles with standard
reserves. c. 4200 nautical miles with standard reserves.
How many fuselage jack points has E-190: a. 4. b. 3. c. 2.
What is the function of yaw damper: a. Absorb landing gear vibrations . b. Assist nose wheel steering. c. Avoid Dutch
roll.
How many sources of AC are there in the E 190: a. Five. b. Three. c. Four.
How many sources of DC are there in the E-190 a. Two. b. three. c. Four.
How many ICC are there in the ERJ 190: 5 7 4.
What is the function of ICC: a. Control,protection and distribution of primary AC/DC electrical power. b. Monitor and
protection of primary DC electrical power. c. Cooling and distribution of primary AC electrical power.
How many inverters are there in ERJ-190: 2 1 3.
Where is located the inverter: a. Fwd E - bay b. Mid E - bay. c. Aft E - bay.
Where is located the point of plumb: a. RH main landing gear wheelwell. b. LH main landing gear wheelwell. c. Nose
landing gear wheelwell.
How many ACES are there in the ERJ-190: 6 8 5.
Where is located the waste tank: a. Aft cargo compartment. b. Aft E - bay. c. Mid E - bay.
. Where is located the potable water tank: a. Under floor of the fwd cargo compartment. b. Under floor of the cockpit. c.
Under floor behind the rear bulkhead of the aft cargo compartment.
. How many safety valves are there and names: a. 3 / relief valve-pressure valve and cabin press valve. b. 2 / positive
valve and negative valve. c. Answers A and B are correct.
How many recirculation fans are there in ERJ - 190: 3 2 4.
Control of the cockpit or cabin ambient temperature is between: a. 25 40 C degrees. b. 22 38 C degrees. c. 19 30 C
degrees.
The total airflow entering the flight deck and cabin is made up of: a. 50 % fresh air and 50 % recirculated air. b. 25 %
fresh air and 75 % recirculated air. c. 40 % fresh air and 60 % recirculated air.
What is the function of the outflow valve: a. Modulates the cabin press controller. b. Modulates the airflow from the
cabin into ambient. c. Monitor the recirculation fan.
What valves control temperature ambient a. Outflow valve. b. Safety valves. c. Pack bypass valve.
Pax cabin receives air from: a. Forward cargo compartment. b. Pack RH and LH. c. Recirculation fans.
Cockpit receives air from: a. Only LH pack. b. Only RH pack.Flap extends first. c. Both at the same time.
How many modules comprise the AFCS ( Automatic Flight Control System) and name: a. One module \ ACM (Autopilot
Control Module). b. Six modules \ ADA (Autopilot Data Aplication). c. Four modules \ AIOP (Actuator Input Output
Processor).
How many servos comprise the AFCS in ERJ 190 (Aerorepublica): a. 3 servos. b. 4 servos. c. 2 servos.
What servo hasnt AFCS in ERJ 190 ( Aerorepublica): a. Rudder servo. b. Aileron servo. c. Elevator servo.
How many digital audio panel (DAP) has the ERJ - 190: a. 2 DAP. b. 3 DAP. c. 4 DAP.
What is the primary means of tuning the radios : a. PFD (Primary Flight Display). b. MCDU (Multifunctional Control
Display Unit). c. MFD ( Multifunctional display).
The slat PDU is located in the: a. Unpressurized area inside the wing fairing. b. Pressurized center electronic bay. c.
Pressurized aft e- bay.
What is the secondary means of tuning radios: a. PFD (Primary Flight Display). b. MCDU (Multifunctional Control Display
Unit). c. MFD (Multifunctional display).
How many ramp interphone panels are there in ERJ - 190: a. 3 \ Fwd section mid e - bay Dc external power panel.
b. 2 \ Aft section mid e - bay. c. 1 \ AC External power receptacle.
What is the function of the RAT: a. Provide electrical power in the event of a lost of all AC and DC sources. b. Provide
electrical power in the event of a lost of all AC sources. c. Provide electrical power in the event of a lost of all DC
sources.
Where is located the RAT: a. In a bay in the RH side of the main landing gear wheelwell section.. b. In a bay in the LH
side of the aircraft nose section. c. In a bay in the RH side of the aircraft nose section.
. SSPC are controlled by means of : a. MAU. ICC c. MCDU.
Where is located the ELT unit : a. Aft avionics compartment. b. Fwd avionics compartment. c. Mid avionics
compartment..
What frequencies transmit the ELT: a. 118.10 Mhz 121.8 Mhz 130.10 Mhz. b. 121.5 Mhz 243 Mhz 406 Mhz. c.
110.70 Mhz 109.90 Mhz. 113.90 Mhz.
Where is located the antenna of ELT: a. In top of the rear fuselage. b. In top of the vertical stabilizer. c. In top of the Fwd
fuselage..
How many FCM (Flight Control Module) are there in ERJ - 190: 6 4 3.
What is the max angle of spoilers deployment: a. 25 degrees. b. 27 degrees. c. 40 degrees.
Hyd system 1 and 2 are cooling by means of: a. Radiation and convection b. fluid to fuel heat exchanger. c. Conduction.
Hyd system 3 is cooling by means of: a. Radiation and convection. b. fluid to fuel heat exchanger. Conduction.
Engine anti-ice system works with airflow from: a. 4 th engine stage. b. 6 th engine stage. c. 5 th engine stage.
FDR begins recording when: a. Engines are turned on or aircraft in the air. b. As soon as power is applied. c. Weight on
wheels is true.
CVR begins recording when: a. Engines are turned on or aircraft in the air b. As soon as power is applied. c. Weight on
wheels is true.
What does mean ADSP: a. Aircraft Download System Protection. b. Air Data Smart Probe. c. Airborne Display Supply
Power.
How many ADSP are there in aircraft: 6 4 2.
What is the function of ADSP: a. Sense total press, static press ,local angle of attack and process total air temperature. b.
Sense total press and static press only. c. Sense Static Air Temperature and pitot press .
How many doors type I has ERJ - 190: 3 2 4.
How many doors type III has ERJ 190: 2 3 4.
How many fuel injectors has the APU 18 20 12.
Fire extinguisher agent contain: a. 3.96 Lbs, Halon 1301. b. 3.86 Lbs, Halon BOl. c 3.98 Lbs, Halon 1301.
What is the pressure used as primary source: a. 30 TO 40PSI b. 40 TO 50PSI c. 35 TO 45PSI.
How many positions have the drain valve and location in the airplane: a. Close, open. b. Close, open, service c. Open,
close.
How ensure a continuous supply of pressurized fuel to the Engine: a. Engine feed systems. b. APU feed. c. Refuel
/Defuel.
During operation of the airplane in ground for start the engine used: a. Both fuel pump. b. Each wing supply along c.
Ejectors pump.
138. All of the pump is installed in the: a. Wing area. b. Collector bay. c. Pylon Area.
The ejectors pump is a: a. Convergent pump. b. Divergent pump. c. Ventury with no moving parts.
How many scavenge ejector pumps is installed: a. Five b. Three c. Three each wing.
The scavenge ejector pump installed in the: a. Lowest point of the rear spar. b. Lowest point of the front spar. c. Lowest
point of the wing tank outboard of the rib 1.
The mode of operation of primary ejector pump is indicated: a. MFD b. MFD,CMC c. EICAS.
Where is located the DC pump: a. RH collector tank. b. LH collector tank. c. APU area.
DC pump fail annunciates a. EICAS. b. MFD. c. PFD.
What is the monitor the pressure switch: a. Input of the electrical pumps. b. Output of the electrical pumps. c. Both at
the same time.
How many pressure switches have for each pump: a. One b. One for each pump. c. Four in total in each wing.
How monitor the status of the AC pump 1/ AC pump 2: a. MAU 1 and MAU 2. b. MAU 1 and MAU 3. c MAU 1 and SPDA
1.
How transmits the data on the ASCB for EICAS: a. SPDA 1 b. SPDA 2 and Mau 3 c. Each Mau.
For the start the APU what pump is used: a. L/H AC pump. b. R/H DC Pump. c. DC pump.
In what position on the cockpit have to be the switch before to Selecting the APU ON. a. ON b. AC pump 2 c. Auto.
If the fire detected in the APU compartment on ground APU shutdown after: a. Ten minutes. b. 10 seconds. c. 5
seconds.
The adapter pressure receives pressure between a. 45 and 50 PSI. b. 35 and 50 PSI. c. 25 and 45 PSI.
The fuel can be transferred from wing to wing to maintenance Purpose only: a. In flight DC - power available b. In
ground AC - power available. c. In both conditions.
To transfer fuel from the right hand tank to the left hand tank the first step that you need to do is: a. Power off. b.
Connected external power. c. LH tank refuel C/B pulled.
When appears the EICAS message "fuel tank lo temp: a. If the fuel temperature drop - 47 C (-35 F) b. If the fuel
temperature drop - 37 C (-35 F). c. If the fuel temperature drop - 87 C (-55 F).
Where is installed the two (ECS) pack: a. Behind the fairing. b. Wing to fuselage fairing. c. In both spar rear.
How many fans have the forward e-bay: a. One. b. Four. c. Three.
How many fans have middle e- bay: a. One. b. Four. c. Three.
In which compartment I can put animals: a. Forward E- Bay. b. Mid E-Bay. c. Forward cargo Compartment.
If the fan forward cargo fails i will have message in the a. EICAS. b. PFD. c. MFD.
The fan of the forward E-bay and aft -E-Bay are monitoring by AMS: a. Four minutes before to T/O. b. Two minutes after
each aircraft landing. c. Four minutes after each aircraft landing.
The pressurization control panel is installed: a. Left hand side of the overheat panel in the cockpit. b. Right hand side of
the overhead panel in the cockpit. c. Below the windshield panel.
The outflow valve is driven at rate of the: a. 4 degrees per minutes. b. degrees per seconds. c. 2 degrees per seconds.
How many channels have the cabin pressurization controller: a) Two. b) Four. c) Six.
Outflow valve is installed on: a. Forward fairing b. Lower fairing c. Forward fairing bulkhead.
What is the function of the dual potentiometers: a. Sends position to each control outflow valve. b. Sends position signal
to each to each channel c. Send position signal to each control channel.
If CPCS software logic fails if the outflow valve if the cabin pressure altitude reaches: a. 18,500 Ft. b. 14,500 Ft. c. 13,000
Ft.
The primary operation of the CPCS systems is: a. Manual b. Automatic. c. Electrical/manual.
Windshield ice and rain protection consist of two systems: a. Windshield heating, windshield wiper. b. Anti-ice, rain
protection. c. Heating.
The drain mast has ice protection: a. Heating. b. Heating, and cooling. c. Ice-protection.
The ice detection systems operate fully: a. Heating. b. Automatic. c. Cooling.
This ice detection is mounted: a. Forward and above the windshield. b. After and below the windshield. c. Forward and
below the windshield.
In override position engine and wing anti-ice will be activated by: a. Auto switch. b. Proximity sensor. c. Weight on
wheel signal.
When the windshield heating will be operational: a. When the anti-ice open. b. When the engine running. c. Wow
condition.
The ice and rain protection system status indications are shown on: a. CMC, EICAS, MFD. b.CMC, MFD,IESS. c.CMC, PFD,
EICAS.
The slat anti-ice system utilized hot air from the engine to: a. Supply thermal energy through the slat anti-ice b. Supply
heating to the wing c. Supply hot air to the leading edge.
The telescoping duct sends thermal energy through the: a. Slat 2, 3, and 4 piccolo tube. b. Slat 1, 2, and 3 piccolo tube 3.
c. Slat/Flat, 1, 2, 4 piccolo tubes.
The slat anti-ice valve located: a. Pylon. b. Forward spar. c. Left wing.
The anti-ice flow is based on: a. Altitude, ambient temp, Mach number. b. Slat position, ambient temp, and mach. c.
Altitude, ambient temp, Mach number and slat position.
What is the pressure in the wing anti-ice pressure sensor: a. 0-1 00 PSI. b. 0-150 PSI. c. 0-75 PSI.
How many anti-icing leak detector sensors have mounted in the wing: a) Six. b)Four. c) 3 in each wing.
Where are installed each one (anti-ice leak): a. Both side of the wing. b. Both LH/RH wing anti-icing areas. c. LH/RH wing,
leak, slat areas.
The desire skin temperature is calculated: a) Slat position, ambient temperature, mach, and altitude. b) Slat position,
mach airspeed. c) Mach, attitude, altitude, airspeed.
The slat anti-ice protection system can be operated in: a. Four mode. b. Two different modes. c. One mode.
Anti-ice wing leak appears in the EICAS message in which status: a) Caution (red) b) Amber (yellow) c) Advisory message.
What is the temp of the loop for send signal to the EICAS: a. 130 C. -- 150 C. b. 130 C. - (30 Sec) --- 150 C (2 Sec). c.
130 C. - (30 Min) --- 15 C (2 Minute).
The AMS receives signals from the: a. Pressure switch. b. Pressure switch and transducer. c. NAl, proximity switch.
Where is mounted the T2 sensor: a. Inlet anti-ice valve. b. lnlet of telescopical duct. c. lnlet cooling.
How transmits temperature signal to the FADEC: a. T2 Sensor. b. PT2 Sensor. c. T3 Sensor.
Provide signals to modulate the left and right engine NAI valve: a. SPDA 1 and SPDA 2. c. FMC- MAU 2. d. MAU l-MAU3.
When the selector switch is in low/high position the wiper operates at: a. 80 cyc1es per minutes low and 135 cycles per
minute in high b. 80 cyc1es per minutes low and 135 cycles per minutes in high. c. 80 cycles low /125 cycles high.
What is interval time between the cycles: a. 7 minutes b. 7.5 seconds. c. 7. seconds.
How many channels has the AMS: a) Two channels. b. Four channels. c. One or two stand by.
If in the EICAS APPEAR message ice detector fail the Aircraft can be dispatched: a. One inoperative. b. Both
inoperative. c. Two and stand by inoperative.
What unit controls the AC EXT PWR: a. The EPM b. The GCU. c. The AGCU.
Where is the EPM located: a. In the EICC b. In the LICC. c. In the AICC.
When are the batteries charged: a. When the Ground Service is in use. b. When the AC Bus 1 and 2 are powered. c.
When the Batteries Charge are powered.
What precaution should be take when removing a card from the SPDA: a. You have to use static discharge wrist strap
equipment. b. The SPDA cards not require any special precaution when is removing. c. Only require to remove the AC
and DC power.
Where is the location of the AC 1 bus a. In front of the LICC. b. In the AICC. c. At the Back of the LICC.
What CB'S are displayed on the MCDU CB page: a. The push out Circuit Breakers. b. The LICC and RICC virtual Circuit
Breakers. c. The SPDA 1 and 2 virtual Circuit Breakers.
What happens if any PTT button gets stuck: a. In three seconds disconnect and restore the normal communication. b.
You have to release manually. c. These are not possible.
How does the MCDU communicate with VHF comm module: a. Throw the MAU via ASCB. b. Direct to the MRC. c. Direct
to the MRC via ASCB.
How many pages or radio information are there in the MCDU: a. Two Radios pages. b. One Radio Page. c. Three Radios
pages.
Where you can see the CMC: a. On the MFD 2 screen b. In a Laptop using the LAN connection. c. A and B answer are
correct.
You can load the software using the MFD 2: a. YES. b. Yes if you using the reversionary panel. c. NO.
If the MFD 2 screen was change how you load the software: a. Using the same screen b. Using the MFD 2 screen c. Using
a laptop with the load software on the LAN connections.
Where is the Pilot Reversionary Panel located: a. On the overhead panel. b. At left side of the control quadrant panel. c.
On the left and right lower side of the front panel.
If the Aircraft is on the ground with one engine running which probes will be heated: a. Only the left probes. b. Only the
right probes. c. All the probes and the TAT sensors.
How can the barometric altimeter correction be performed: a. By the MCDU panels. b. By the Guidance Panels. c. By the
CCD controls.
Where is the VHF Nav unit # 1 located: a. In the MRC 1. b. In the MAU 1. c. In the SPDA 1.