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AND WITHOUT ANY OMISSION OR DISCREPANCY AT THE APPROPRIATE PLACES
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ANSWER SHEET LIABLE FOR REJECTION.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers),
You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any
case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See dire<;tions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0,33) of the marks a5sigued
to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question.
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1. Along the 'triple line' in a pv diagram 4. A researcher claims that he has
showing all three phases of water, which developed an engine, which while
one of the following statements is working between source and sink
correct? temperatures of 377C and 27C rejects
only 50% of absorbed heat. What will
(a) A substance has the same pressure his engine be ?
and temperature but different
specific volume .
(a) An impossible engine
(b) A substance has same temperature
and specific volume but different (b) A Stirling engine
pressure
(c) A reversible engine
(c) A substance has same specific
volume and pressure' but different
temperature (d) A practical engine
B-DMHHN-NFA -A 2
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7. A system executes a cyclic process 10. An amount of 1000 kJ of heat is_added
during which there are two processes as to a system during a constant pressure
given below : vapourization process at a temperature of
227C. The available energy added to
Q2 = 460 kJ, 2Q1 = -100 kJ, and
1 the system, if the temperature of the
1W2 = 210 kJ surroundings is 27C, is
(b) -210 kJ
(c) 400,kJ
(c) 150 kJ
(d) 300 kJ
(d) -150 kJ
8. For the same compression ratio,: the 11. Consider the following statements :
efficiency of an air standard Otto cycle
IS
L In an ideal gas, there are no inter
molecular forces of attraction and
(a) More than the efficiency of an air
repulsion.
standard Diesel cycle .
(b) Less than the efficiency of an air 2. At very low pressure, all gases
standard Diesel cycle t and "apours approach ideal gas
behaviour.
(c) Equal to the efficiency of an au
standard Diesel cycle
.. 3. Enthalpy of an ideal gas depends
(d) None of the above only on temperature.
9. A Camot engine operates between 37C Which of the above statements are
and 347C. If the engine produces correct?
620 kJ of work, the entropy change
during heat addition is (a) I, 2 and 3
(a) I kJ/K
(b) and 2 only
(b) 2 kJ/K
I and 3 only
(c) 3 kJ/K
3 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA
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12. Consider the following statements 14. An Otto cycle has a compression ratio
pertaining to the properties 9f perfect, of 8. If 250 kJ of work is extracted
non reacting gas mixtures : from the cycle, the heat rejected by the
cycle is
I. The total volume of a mixture is the
sum of partial volumes at the same (a) 500 kJ
pressure and temperature.
(b) 44269.kJ
2. The entropy of a mixture of gases
is the same as ihe entropies of ihe
constituents. (c) 3314 kJ
B-DMHH-N-NFA -A 4
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17. A Carnot heat pump works between 19. Two identical finite bodies of constant
27C and 327C. What will .be its heat capacity at temperatures T 1 and T2
COP? are available to do work in a heat
\ engine. The final temperature Tr
(a) 009 reached by the bodies on delivery of
maximum work is
(b) 100
(a) Tl = 11 +I;
2
(c) 109
(b) 1f = 1i
(d) 20
(c)
'f' ,'
18. Practically it is not feasible to design an
engine which closely foilows the 'Camot
cycle' for the following reasons :
(d) 175 kW
.4. Thermal efficiency is not a function
of source and sink temperatures
21. A single cylinder four stroke engine
Which of the above reasons are operating at 80% of mechanical effi-
correct? r ciency develops a brake power of 60 kW.
The indicated power and the power lost
due to friction respectively are
(a) I and 2
(a) 40 kW and 15 kW
(b) 2 and 3
(b) 75 kW and 20 kW
(c) 3 and 4
(c) 40 kW and 20 kW
5 A - 8-DMBH-N-NFA
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22. The following reasons. are mentioned 24. In Diesel engines, the control of black
while recommending supercharging for smoke in exhaust can be achieved by :
the engines used in aeroplanes and sub-
I. Running the engine at lower load.
marines: '
2. Maintaining the injection system
I. More volumetric efficiency, better
perfect.
combustion and increased power
output. 3. Using Diesel fuel of higher Cetane
_number.
2. Higher peak pressure, increased
and smaller size. Which of the above statements are
correct?
Which of the above reasons is/ are
correct? (a) I, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 25. The source of energy which keeps the
sun shining for billions of years is
23. Consider the following statements (a) Combustion of Hydrogen
regarding supercharging of Diesel
engmes: (b) Nuclear fusion of light elements
'
I. The mechanical efficiency of a (c) Nuclear fission of heavy elements
supercharged Diesel engine is (d) Interaction of currents in the interior
slightly better than that of naturally
of the sun with the galactic
aspirated engine. magnetic field
2. There is reduction in smoke in the
case of supercharged engine in the 26. Which one of the following statements
overload operation. is correct?
Which of the above statements are (b) During cooling and dehumidification
correct? process, humidity ratio increases
B-DMHH-N-NFA - A 6
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27. A dimensionless quantity that connects 30. A flat wall with a thermal conductivity
the link between velocity flow field and of 02 kW /mK has its inner and outer
the temperature field is surface temperatures 600C and 200C
respectively. If the heat flux through the
(a) Nusselt number wall is 200 kW /m2; what is the thickness
(b) Prandtl number of the wall?
7 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA
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33. The characteristic length for computing 36. In a two-fluid heat exchanger, the inlet
Grashof number in the case of horizontal and outlet temperatures of the hot fluid
cylinder is are 65C and 40C respectively. For tlie
cold fluid, these are l5C and 43C. The
(a) The length of the cylinder heat exchanger is a
(b) Fluid near a heated plate inclined at 3 7. In a double-pipe heat exc.hanger, the cold
45 to the vertical fluid is water with inlet temperature
20C and mass flow rate 20 kg/ s and
(c) Fluid over a heated horizontal plate the hot fluid water inlet temperature
80C and mass flow rate I 0 kg/ s.
(d) Fluid near a heated cylinder Assume that for water Cp = 4 2 kJ I
kgC, independent ()f temperature. What
is the maximum to which
35. A counter flow shell and tube heat the cold fluid can be heated in a parallel
exchanger is used to heat water with flow and in a counter flow heat
hot exhaust gases. The water. (c = exchanger?
4180 J/kg K) flows at the rate of 2 kg/s
and the exhaust gases (c = 1000 J!kg K)
flow at the rate of 5 kg/ s. If the heat (a) 80C in both parallel flow
transfer surface area is 32 m2 and the counter flow
overall heat _transfer coefficient is
200 W/m2K, the NTU of the heat
exchanger is (b) 50C in both parallel flow and
counter flow
(a) 45
(c) 40C in parallel flow and 50C in
(b) 2-4 counter flow
(c) 86
(d) 40C in parallel flow and 80C in
(d) 1 28 counter flow
B-DMHH-N-NFA -A 8
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38. If a body is at 2000 K, the wavelength 41. For a hemispherical furnace with a flat
at which the body emits maximum circular base of diameter D, the view
amount of radiation is factor from the dome to its base is
(c) 0345 em
(c) 0
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44. In an ideal Vapour Compression (a) 30
Refrigeration cycle the enthalpy values at
salient points are as follows :
(b) 45
At inlet to compressor : 1500 kJ /kg
(c) 50
At outlet to compressor: 1800 kJ/kg
(d) . 55
At inlet to evaporator 300 kJ/kg
What is the COP of the cycle? 46. The COP of an ideal refrigerator is N.
If the machine is operated as a heat
(a) 3 pump between the same temperature
limits, its COP will be
(b) 4
(a) N -1
(c) 5
(b) N
(d) 6
(c) N + 1
45.
(d) 2N
(a) 025 kW
(b) 03 kW
B-DMHH-N-NFA -A 10
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48. Consider the following functions : 50. An air-conditioning system operating on
the reversed Carnot cycle is required to
I. Minimizing friction remove heat from the room at a rate of
25 kW to maintain its temperature
2. Sealing the gas between suction and constant at 20C. The temperature of
discharge ports the surroundings being 35C, the power
required to operate this air-conditioning
3. As a coolant to transfer heat from system will be
the crankcase to the compressor
shell (a) 128 kW
(a) I, 2, 3 and 4
51. The pressure inside a soap bubble of
(b) I and 2 only 50 mm diameter is 25 N 1m2 above the
atmospheric pressure. The surface
(c) 2 and 3 only tension in soap film would be
11 A - 8-DMHH-N-NFA
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53. Unlike the viscosity of liquids, the 56. Which one of the following statements
viscosity of gases increases with is correct?
increasing temperature. Th.is is due to
(a) For a floating body, the stable
(a) Increased cohesive force between equilibrium condition exists when
the molecules position of metacentre remains
higher than the centre of gravity of
(b) Increased momentum transfer in the the body
molecules
... (b) For a floating body, the stable
. (c) Decreased momentum transfer m
equilibrium condition exists when
the molecules :. position of metacentre remains
lower than the centre of gravity of
(d) Increase in both cohesive force and the body
momentum trarisfer
(b) Pressure at a point in a fluid (d) For a floating body, the unstable .
equilibrium condition exists when
position of metacentre remains
(c) Discharge of a fluid
higher than the centre of gravity of
. the body
(d) None of the above
55. When a dolphin glides through air, it 57. A 2-D flow field is defined as
-> -> ->
experiences an external pressure of V = i x - j y. The equation of streamline
075 m of mercury. The absolute passing through the point (1, I) is .
pressure on dolphin when it is 5 m below
the free surface of the water is
(a) xy- 1 = 0
(a) 010 N/mm2
(b) xy +I = 0
(c) xy+2=0
(c) lON/mm2
B-DMHH-N-NFA- A 12
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58. A flownet is a graphical representation 2. Flow separation takes place due to
of streamlines and equipotential lines adverse pressure gradient when
such that these lines divergence angle is large.
61.
(a) Existence of velocity potential is an Vz = 25 m/S
indication of irrotational nature of
/ D 2 =300mm
the flow
D 1 =450mm
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62. Bernoulli's equation is applicable between (b) There is only one normal shock in
any two points located in the converging part and none in the
diverging part
(a) Rotational flow of an incompressible
fluid (c) There is only one normal shock in
the diverging part and none in the
. (b) Irrotational flow of compressible or converging part
incompressible fluid
(d) There are two or more normal
. (c) Steady, rotational flow of an incom- shocks, depending on the pressure
pressible fluid drop, in the diverging part and none
in the converging part
.
(d) Steady, irrotational flow of an
incompressible fluid 65. Consider the statements
pertaining to boundary layer on 'solid
surfaces:
63. Water flows through a smooth circular
pipe of diameter D and length L because
of a pressure difference t'!.P across the I. The boundary layer separation takes
length. The volume flow rate is Q and place if the pressure gradient ts
the flow is turbulent with Reynolds zero .
number 105. If the pressure difference is
increased to 4 t'!.P the volume flow rate 2. The condition of boundary layer
will be
SeparatiOn ay = 0.
. . (au)
IS
y=O
(a) 2 Q
B-DMHH-N-NFA -A 14
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'
66. For laminar flow through a round pipe, (c) The friction factor varies inversely
the shear stress with flow Reynolds number
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71. ln a compressible flow with friction (a) Penstock/Nozzle
choking through a constant area duct
with supersonic flow at inlet, if the pipe (b) Guide vanes/Inlet .of the
'.
rutiner
length is reduced with the same exit
pressure (c) Vanes receiving impact of jet
{a) Exit flow will still be sonic (d) Outlet of the runner /Entrance of
the draft tube
(b) The velocity at exit is subsonic
{a) The velocity undergoes a jump but 75. Choked flow through an isentropic nozzle
pressure and entropy remam implies :
unchanged
I. Discharge is maximum
(b) The pressure undergoes a jump but
velocity and entropy remain 2. Discharge is zero
unchanged
3. Nozzle exit pressure ,.,; critical
pressure
(c) The velocity and pressure undergo
a jump, but entropy remams
unchanged because there is no heat 4. Mach number at the throat is unity
transfer
Which of the above statements are
correct?
{d) Velocity, pressure and entropy all
undergo a jump
(a) I, 2, 3 and 4
B-DMHH-N-NFA -A 16
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76. In a two stage gas turbine plant, with (c) Delivers unit discharge at unit
intercooling and reheating power
(a) Both work ratio and thermal (d) Produces unit power with unit head
efficiency increase available
(b) Work ratio increases but thermal
efficiency decreases 80. Negative slip occurs in reciprocating
pumps, when delivery pipe is
(c) . Therm'a! efficiency increases but
work ratio decreases (a) Long and suction pipe is short and
pump is running at low speed
(d) Both work ratio and thermal
efficiency decrease
(b) Long and suction pipe is short and
pump is running at high speed
77. The ratio of power outlet of the pump to
the power input to the pump is known as (c) Short and suction pipe is long and
pump is running at low speed
(a) Mechanical efficiency
(d) Short and suction pipe is long and
(b) Static efficiency
pump Is running at high speed
(c) Overall efficiency
(b) Mechanical energy into hydraulic 3. Pressure does not vary along the
energy moving vanes
17 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA
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82. A water jet 00015 m 2 in area issues 84. A converging-diverging nozzle is operated
from a with 15 m/ s velocity. It is at a pressure difference which is not the
made to impinge perpendicular on to a design value for isentropic flow. As a
plate that moves away from the jet with consequence a normal shock is formed
a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the in the diverging portion. ll). this situation
plate due to this impact is the Mach number at the throat is
Which of the above statements is/are 86. A super critical boiler requires
correct?
B-DMHH-N-NFA -A 18
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87. The correct sequence of location of (b) High evaporation rate is achieved
equipment in the flue gas path from through forced circulation of water
furnace exit up to chimney is through tubes
19 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA
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92. The collection efficiency of cyclone 94. Following points express the effect of
separators increases with : keeping high clearance volume for the
cylinders in reciprocating compressor.
I. Decreasing particie size Which one of the following points IS
disagreeable ?
2. Increasing particle density
(a) By increasing clearance volume
3. Decreasing gas velocity
volumetric efficiency decreases
4. Increasing number of gas revolu-
tions (b) By increasing clearance volume
power consumption increases
5. Increasing cyclone diameter
(c) By increasing clearance volume
Which of the above . statements are chances of piston striking cylinder
correct? head gets reduced
8-DMHH-N-NFA- A 20
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96. Across the nonnal shockwave : (a) I and 3
1. Stagnation pressure decreases
(b) 2 and 3
whereas stagnation temperature
remains constant
(c) I and 4
2.' Mach number before the shock-
wave is always greater than one (d) 2 and 4
and after the shockwave, the Mach
number need not be less than one
_98. What is the power required to drive a
3. Across the shockwave there is a
centrifugal air compressor, when impeller
rise in pressure and temperature
diameter is 045 m and N is 7200 rpm?
4. The product of Mach number
downstream of nonnal shockwave (a) 2878 kW /kg/s
and upstream of nonnal shockwave
is always one (b) 3078 kW/kg/s
Which of the above statements are
correct? (c) 2778 kW
21 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA
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100. In supersonic flow of air, a diverging 102. Statement (I) : A breeder reactor does
passage results in not require moderator.
(a) Increase in velocity and pressure Statement (II) : The parasite absorption
of neutrons is low.
(b) Decrease in pressure and density
(c) Increase in velocity and density 103. Statement (I) : Property tables list
different values of some
(d) Decrease in velocity and pressure properties for a sub-
stance at the same state
Directions : as a result of using
different reference states.
Each of the next Twenty (20) items consists
of two statements, one labelled as the Statement (II) : The reference state
'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement chosen is . of no conse-
(II)'. You are to examine these two quence in thermodynamic
statements carefully and select the answers to process calculations as
these items using the codes lii.ven below : long as we use values
from the single consis-
Codes:. . tent set of tables.
101. Statement (I) :Negative temperatures Statement (II) : The discharge through
are impossible on the an orifice varies as W 12
Kelvin scale. whereas the discharge
through a mouthpiece
Statement (II) : The Kelvin scale is varies as H213 (where H
thermodynamic tempera- is. the head causing the
ture scale. flow in both cases).
B-DMHH-N-NFA -A 22
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106. Statement (I) : A rocket engme can 111. Statement (I) : An SI engine requires
operate even in vacuum greater spark .advance at
and in any fluid medium. lower loads.
108. Statement (I) : When a given body Statement (II) : The steam flowing to the
floats in different liquids, turbine is produced
the volume displaced will directly in . the reactor
decrease with increase core.
in the specific gravity of
the fluid.
113. Statement (I) : Modem turbines have
Statement (II) : The weight of the velocity compounding at
floating body is equal to the initial stages and
the weight of the volume pressure compounding in
displaced. subsequent stages.
109. Statement (I) : The vertical. boilers are Statement (II) : Excessive tip leakage
used to save the floor occurs m the high
space. pressure region of'
reaction blading.
Statement (II) : Horizontal boilers are
more efficient than
vertical boilers.
114. Statement (I) : In CI engines increase .
of load decreases the
110. Statement (I) : A small insect can sit on knocking tendency.
the free surface of a
liquid though insect's
density is higher than Statement (II) : Increase of load m-
that of the liquid. creases the temperature
of mixture and thereby
Statement (II) : Liquids have viscosity. decrease in delay angle.
23 A-; B-DMilli-N-NFA.
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115. Statement (I) : In Impulse turbines 118. Statement (I) : The tertn surge indicates
pressure change occurs a phenomenon of instabi-
only in the nozzles of the lity which takes place at
machine. The pressure low flow values and
of liquid does not change which involves an entire
while flowing through the system including not only
rotor of the machine. the centrifugal compres-
sor, but also the group of
components traversed by
the fluid upstream and
Statement (II) : The pressure of liquid downstream of it.
changes while it flows
through the rotor of the
machine m Reaction Statement (II) : Choking is defined as
turbine. separation of fluid from
the rotor blades of
centrifugal compressor.
BDMHH-N-NFA - A 24
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
25 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
B-DMilli-N-NF A- A 26
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
- I
27 A - B-DMHH-N-NFA
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
B-DMHH-N -NFA- A 28
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Serial No.
I
56441
TEST BOOKLET
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
A
Paper-II
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFI'ER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibUity to encode and f'"ill in the Roll
Number and Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/ discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
I
write anything else on the Test Booklet. L---------------1
4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet.
In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the
Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions
sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE:
(i) There are four altematives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be
no penalty for that question.
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1. In a crank and slotted lever Which of the above statements are
quick-return motion, the distance correct?
between the ftxed centres is
150 mm and the length of the
driving crank is 7 5 mm. The ratio of (a) 1 and 4
the time taken on the cutting and t. :' t.
return strokes is
(b) 1 and 3
(a) 15
(c) 22 !,
(d) 2 and 4
(d) 293
(b) (c)
'
Oscillating cylinder. engine
)
B-DMHH-N-NFB /54A 2
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6. A slider moves with uniform velocity 8. The sensitiveness of a governor is
v on a revolving link of length r defined as
with angular velocity w. The Coriolis
Nl- N2 Nl + N2
acceleration component of a point (a) (b)
on the slider relative to a coincident Nl + N2 Nl -N2
point on the link is equal to
{c) 2 ( N1 + N2) (d) 2 ( Nl- N2)
Nl- N2 Nl + N2
'
(a) wv parallel to the link where N1 and N 2 are the maximum
and the m1n1mum equilibrium
," speeds of the governor respectively.
(b) 2wv perpendicular to the link
9. Which of the following statements
are correct for mating gears with
involute profiles?
{c) wv perpendicular to the link
1. The pressure angle, from the
start of the engagement to
the end of the engagement,
(d) 2wv parallel to the link remains constant.
2. The pressure angle is
maximum at the beginning of
the engagement, reduces to
7. The governor becomes isochronous, zero at pitch point, starts
when decreasing and again becomes
maximum at the end of the
engagement.
(a) F = ar+b 3. The face and flank of the teeth
are generated by a single curve
and the normal to this curve at
any point is tangent to the base
(b) F =ar-b
circle of the gear.
4. The centre distance for a pair
of mating gears can be varied
(c) F = ar 2 + b
within limits without altering
the velocity ratio.
Select the correct answer using the
(d) F = ar
code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
where F is controlling force, r is (b) 1 and 3 only
radius of rotation for governing (c) 2 and 4 only
balls and a, b are constants. (d) 2, 3 and 4
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10. Two involute gears are designed to 13. In a locomotive, the ratio of the
mesh for a given centre distance connecting rod length to the crank
and a given angular velocity ratio radius is kept very large in order to
(other than 1). During assembly,
the centre distance has increased {a) minimize the effect of primary
slightly. Then which of the following forces
changes occur?
(b) minimize the effect of
1. Velocity ratio changes
forces
2. Pressure angle changes
(c) have perfect balancing
3. Pitch circle diameter changes
(d) start the locomotive
4. Working depth changes
conveniently
5. Base circle radius changes .
B-DMHH-N-NFB/54A 4
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16. The equation of free vibration of 19. Two plates are jointed as shown in
d 2x the figure
a system is - - + 647t 2 x = 0. Its
dt 2
natural frequency would be
p p
(a) 47t Hz
(b) B1t Hz
(c) 647t 2 Hz
(d) 4 Hz
The maximum tensile and shear
..
' 17. Linear vibration analysis has the stresses are 70 Nfmm 2 and
greatest advantage because of 56 Nfmm 2 respective'ly. The plate
is 70 mm wide and 125 mm thick.
(a) Newton's laws of motion What will be the value of l if the
(b) eigenvalue analysis total load carried by the joint
is 85 kN?
(c) Rayleigh quotient
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 55 mm
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
{c) 45 mm
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
B-DMHH-N-NFB/54A 5 [ P.T.O.
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21. Rivets undergo single shear in 23. A truncated conical pivot bearing
has semi-cone angle a and the two
radii are r1 and r2 respectively with
r1 > r2 The coefficient of friction
(a) lap joint and single-cover butt between the sliding surfaces is
joint For an axial thrust load of W kN,
the reduction in torque due to
friction (assuming uniform rate of
(b) single-cover butt joint wear) is
and
double-cover butt joint
22. A multi-disc clutch employs 3 steel 24. Which of the following statements
and 2 bronze discs having outer are correct regarding power
diameter of 300 mm and inner transmission through V-belts?
diameter of 175 mm. If the coefficient
of friction is 025 and axial force on 1. V-belts are used at the high-
each pair of surfaces is 5 kN, then speed end.
the torque transmitted (assuming 2. V-belts are used at the low-
uniform wear) is speed end.
3. V-belts are of standard lengths.
(c) 2, 3 and 4
B-DMHH-N -NFB/54A 6
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25. Pressure angle of involute gears does 27. If the centre distance between a pair
not exceed 25, since of spur gears in mesh is 240 mm
and the pinion moves five times
faster than the gear, then the pitch
(a) this will lead to unwanted
circle diameters of pinion and gear
radial force
respectively are
3. velocity ratio does not change 29. The bending moment (M} and twisting
moment (T) at four particular
4. output torque of the driven sections P, Q, R and S along the
gear changes length of a shaft are as follows :
(b) Q
(c) 2 and 3
(c) R
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30. If 1J and m represent the maximum 33. When a shaft rotates in anti-
tension and mass per unit length of clockwise direction at high speed in
a belt, then the maximum permis- a bearing, it will
sible speed of the belt is given by
(a) move towards right of the
(a)
f1i (b) be.aring making metal to metal
contact
(c)
V3m
{2T; (d) tf (b) have contact at the lowest
point of the bearing
31. The efficiency of a power screw is (c) move towards left of the
maximum , when the lead (helix) bearing making metal to metal
angle is contact
B-DMHH- N-NFB/54 A 8
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36. A hole of diameter 35 mm is to be 39. Which of the following figures may
punched in a sheet metal of represent Mohr's circle?
thickness t and ultimate shear
strength 400 MPa, using punching
force of 44 kN. The maximum value
oft is
(a) 05 mm
(b) 10 mm
;I
(c)
(d)
1 mm
2 mm
(b)
0
37. Two principal tensile stresses of
magnitudes 40 MPa and 20 MPa
are acting at a point across two
perpendicula r planes. An oblique (c)
plane makes an angle of 30 with
the major principal plane. The
normal stress on the oblique plane
is
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41. The modulu s of rigidity and the bulk Which of the above stateme nts
modulu s of a materia l are found as are correct ?
70 GPa and 150 GPa respecti vely.
Then (a) 1 and 2
42. Consid er the following stateme nts : 44. A tension membe r of square cross-
section of side 10 mm and Young's
1. Cross-s ection of a membe r of modulu s E is to be replace d by
truss experie nces uniform anothe r membe r of square cross-
stress. section of same length but Young's
modulu s E/2. The side of the new
2. Cross-s ection of a beam square cross-s ection, require d to
experie nces minimu m stress. mainta in the same elongat ion
under the same load, is nearly
3. Cross-s ection of a beam
(a) 14 mm
experie nces linearly varying
stress.
(b) 17 mm
4. Cross-s ections of truss (c) 8 mm
membe rs experie nce only
compre ssive stress. (d) 5 mm
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45. An aluminium bar of 8 m length and 47. A beam of length L and flexural
a steel bar of 5 mm longer in length rigidity EI is simply supported at
are kept at 30 c. If the ambient the ends and canies a concentrated
temperature is raised gradually, at load W at the middle of the span.
what temperature the aluminium Another beam of identical length L
bar will elongate 5 mm longer than and flexural rigidity EI is fixed
the steel bar (the linear expansion horizontally at both ends and
coefficients for steel and aluminium carries an identical concentrated
are 12 x 10-6 ;oc and 23 x w- 6 ;oc load W at the mid-span. The ratio of
central deflection of the first beam
respectively)?
to that of the second beam is
li (a) 507 c
(a) 1
(b) 690 c
(c) 1437 c (b) 2
(d) 337 c
(c) 025
46. The part of the shear force diagram
for a beam is shown in the figure
(d) 4
14 kN
(b) 58 kN m
(c) 116kNm
(3)2/3
(c) .J3ii (d)
(d) -80kN m 2 (11)1/ 3
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49. A shaft of diameter 8 em is subjecte d 51. Two concentr ic springs, having same
to a bending moment of 3000 N m number of turns and free axial
and a twisting moment of 4000 N m. length, are made of same material .
The maximu m normal stress One spring has mean coil diameter
induced in the shaft is equal to of 12 em and its wire diameter is
10 em. The other one has mean
coil diameter of 8 em and wire
250
(a) MPa diameter of 06 em. If the set of
1t
springs is compres sed by an axial
load of 2000 N, the loads shared by
the springs will be
(a) 40 mm
(a) 4
(b) 45 mm
(b) 3
(c) 49 mm (c) 2
(d) 53 mm (d) 1
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53. If a thin-walle d cylinder with closed 55. What is the slenderne ss ratio of a
hemispher ical ends with thickness 4 m column with fixed ends if its
12 mm and inside diameter of cross-sect ion is square of side
1250 mm is to withstand a 40mm?
pressure of 15 MPa, then the
maximum shear stress induced is
(a) 100
(b) 50
;I
{b) 3905 MPa
(c) 160
(c) 7812 MPa
(d) 173
(d) 905 MPa
54. A 4 m long solid round bar is used as 56. A cantilever beam, 2 m in length, is
a column having one end fixed and subjected to a uniformly distribute d
the other end free. If Euler's critical load of 5 kNJm. If E =200 GPa
load on this column is found as and I = 1000 em 4 , the strain energy
10 kN and E = 210 GPa for the stored in the beam will be
material of the bar, the diameter
of the bar is
(a) 7Nm
(a) 50 mm
(b) 12 N m
(b) 40 mm
(c) 8 Nm
(c) 60 mm
(d) 45 mm (d) 10 N m
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57. Conside r the following stateme nts 59. Cast iron possess ing which one
in connec tion with the phase of the following metallo graphic
diagram s : structu res is best suited for
dampin g capacity in enginee ring
1. Phase diagram s of binary applica tions?
alloys change by the presenc e
of other alloying elemen ts.
(a) austeni te --> ferrite + pearlite (b) glass transiti on temper ature of
a materia l
(b) austeni te -->ferrite + martens ite
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61. Consider the following statements in Which of the above statements
connection with thermoplastics : are correct?
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66. In the process of metal rolling 68. Consider the following statements for
operation, along the arc of contact an induction furnace :
in the roll gap there is a point called
the neutral point, because 1. High-frequen cy current is
(a) on one side of this point, the
generally used for the furnace
working.
work material is in tension and
on the other side, the work 2. There is less loss of alloying
material is in compression elements due to oxidation.
(b) on one side of this point, the
3. Pronounced stirring action of
work material has velocity
molten metal occurs inside the
greater than that of the roll
furnace.
and on the other side, it has
velocity lesser than that of the 4. Slag cover is essential for the
roll efficient working of the furnace.
(c) on one side of this point, the
Which of the above statements
work material has rough are correct?
surface finish and on the other
side, the work material has (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
very fine finish (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) at this point there is no (c) I, 2 and 3 only
increase in material width, but (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
on either side of neutral point,
the material width increases 69. The proportion of acetylene and
67. The process of impregnation in oxygen used in gas welding is
powder metallurgy technique is (a) 2 : 1
best described by which of the (b) 1: 1
following?
(c) 1:2
(a) Mter sintering operation of
powder metallurgy, rapid (d) 3: 4
cooling is performed to avoid
thermal stresses 70. In liquid-state welding process, the
zones formed are
(b) Low melting point metal is
filled in the pores of a sintered (a) gas-shielded zone, fusion zone
powder metallurgy product and unaffected original base
(c) Liquid oil or grease is filled in
metal zone
the pores of a sintered powder (b) liquid zone, fusion zone and
metallurgy product heat-affected unmelted zone
(d) During sintering operation of (c) liquid-shield ed zone, gas-
powder metallurgy, rapid shielded zone and flux-metal
heating is performed to avoid reactive zone
sudden produce of high (d) fusion zone, heat-affected
internal pressure due to unmelted zone and unaffected
volatilization of lubricant original base metal zone
B-DMHH-N -NFB/54A 16
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71. A simple turning operation is carried 74. In a plunge grinding operation, the
out on a lathe machine at constant workpiece is 10 mm wide, the wheel
spindle speed. What will happen is of 20 em diameter and 2 em wide.
after a few turning passes? The wheel speed is 3000 r.p.m. and
(a) Cutting velocity will increase the table speed is 25 m/min. If the
and surface finish improves depth of cut is 002 mm, grain
(b) Cutting velocity will decrease density is 250 fern 2 and the
and surface finish deteriorates grinding forces are 20 N tangential
and 38 N thrust, the specific energy
(c) Cutting velocity will increase
is
and chattering occurs
(d) Cutting velocity will decrease {a) 75-4 x 10 4 Nfmm 2
and chattering reduces
(b) 7-54 x 10 4 N/mm 2
72. A milling cutter having 8 teeth is
rotating at 150 r.p.m. If the feed (c) 75-4 x 10 6 N/mm 2
per tooth is 01 mm, the table speed
in mm per minute is
(d) 754x10 6 Nfmm 2
(a) 70
(b) 120
75. Consider the following statements
(c) 125 with reference to grinding wheel
(d) 187 characteristics :
B-DMHH-N-NFB/54A 17 [ P.T.O.
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76. In NC machines, slides are positioned 79. The fatigue failure of a tool is due to
by hydraulic ram and are influenced
by
(a) abrasive friction, cutting fluid
and chip breakage
(a) length of stroke and mass to be
displaced
(b) variable thermal stresses,
(b) feed and spindle speed chip breakage and variable
dimensions of cut
(c) length of stroke and feed
(c) abrasive friction, chip breakage
(d) spindle speed and mass to be and variable dimensions of cut
displaced
(d) chip breakage, variable
77. Which one of the following thermal stresses and cutting
statements is correct about an fluid
oblique cutting?
(a) Direction of chip flow velocity 80. In accelerated tool life tests, the three
is normal to the cutting edge of main types of quick and less costly
the tool tool life testing are
(d) Cutting edge clears the width (b) measurement of abrasive wear;
of the workpiece multi-pass turning; conven-
tional measurement of diffusion
wear
78. A toothpaste tube can be produced
by
(c) extrapolation on the basis
(a) solid forward extrusion of steady wear; multi-pass
turning; taper turning
(b) solid backward extrusion
(d) comparative performance
(c) hollow backward extrusion against tool chipping; taper
tuming; measurement of
(d) hollow forward extrusion abrasive wear
B-DMHH-N-NFB/54A 18
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81. In an orthogona l turning process, (c) at very low feed rates and/ or
the chip thickness = 032 mm, when there is large difference
feed= 02 mm/rev. Then the cutting between the coefficients of
ratio will be static and dynamic friction at
the slider and guideway
(a) 26
interfaces
{b) 32 (d) at very low feed rates and large
difference in coefficient of only
(c) 1-6 dynamic friction at headstock
spindle and bed of machine
(d) 18 tool
82. In an orthogona l cutting operation, 84. Consider the following reasons for
shear angle = 113 1", cutting force using non-conve ntional machining
= 900 N and thrust force = 810 N. processes :
Then the shear force will be approxi-
1. High-stren gth alloys
mately (given sin1131' = 02)
2. Complex surfaces
(a) 650 N
3. High accuracies and surface
(b) 720 N finish
Which of the above are correct?
(c) 620 N
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 680 N
(b) 1 and 3 only
83. The stick-slip motion is found to (c) 2 and 3 only
occur in machine tool slides under
certain conditions which are {d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) at very high feed rates andfor 85. Exponenti al smoothen ing methods
when there is small difference are best suited under conditions
between the coefficients of when
static and dynamic friction at
the slider and guideway (a) forecasting horizon is relatively
interfaces large
(b) at very high feed rates and (b) forecasting for large number
when there is small difference of items
between the coefficients of (c) available outside informatio n is
static and dynamic friction at
more
the headstock spindle and bed
of machine tool (d) All of the above
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86. The correct sequence of increasing (c) moderate stock-out cost, high
production volume is stock-out cost and low stock-
out cost
(a) batch, job, flow and mass
(d) stock-out costs whose sequence
(b) mass, flow, batch and job depends on other factors also
8-DMHH-N-NFB /54A 20
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94. The addressing mode used in the 97. In a FORTRAN program
instruction PUSH B is
(a) direct (a) all statements must be
numbered
(b) register
(b) the numbered statements
(c) register indirect
must be referred
(d) immediate
(c) the statements referred must
be numbered
95. Index register in a microproces sor is
used for (d) all statements must be referred
(d) i = i - 2
96. In the FORTRAN program
the value of M in the end will be 100. Program status word (PSW) contains
various status of
(a) 10
(a) program
(b) 11
(b) CPU
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Directions : 102. Statement (I) :
Each of the following twenty (20) items In case of partial balancing of
consists of two statements, one labelled locomotives, the maximum
as 'Statement (!)' and the other as magnitude of the unbalanced force
'Statement (II)'. You are to examine these perpendicula r to the line of stroke
two statements carefully and select the is called hammer blow and this
answers to these items using the code has to be limited by proper choice
given below. of the balancing mass and its
radial position. /
Code:
Statement (II) :
(a) Both Statement (I) and
The effect of hammer blow is to
Statement (II) are individually
cause variation in pressure
true and Statement (II) is
between the wheel and the rail,
the correct explanation of
and it may sometimes cause the
Statement (I)
lifting of wheels from the rails.
(b) Both Statement (I) and
Statement (II) are individually
true but Statement (II) is not 103. Statement (I) :
the correct explanation of
In interference fit, the outer
Statement (I)
diameter of the inner cylinder will
(c) Statement (I) is true but be more than the inner diameter of
Statement (II) is false the hollow outer cylinder.
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105. Statement (I) : 109. Statement (!) :
Worm and worm wheel drive can Cobalt exhibits hexagonal close-
be reversible. packed structure below 420 'C.
Statement (II) : Statement (II) :
If the friction angle is more than Structure of cobalt changes to
the lead angle, the drive will be face-centred cubic structure
reversible. above 420 'C.
1
110. Statement (I) :
106. Statement (!) : Melting point of alloy containing
In die casting process, molten 62% tin and 38% lead is 327 'C.
metal is injected at high pressure Statement (II) :
into a metallic die.
Low melting point of this alloy
Statement (II) : enables delicate parts of metal to
In this die casting process, some be soldered.
excess metal as required than
filling the mold is also forced into
111. Statement (!) :
the parting plane.
Salts like sodium chloride, sodium
hydroxide when added to water to
use as quenching media, cooling
107. Statement (I) : rate of quenching media will be
increased.
!-sections are best suited for
carrying bending load in one Statement (II)
lateral direction.
When salts are added to water,
Statement (II) : during quenching, distortion and
crack appearance in the quenched
In the zone, in the vicinity of steel components reduces.
neutral axis of !-beams, !-section
has the least material.
112. Statement (I) :
In drawing process, cross-section
of round wire is reduced by pulling
108. Statement (I) :
it through a die.
Cast iron is good in compression.
Statement (II) :
Statement (II) :
Bundle drawing produces wires
It is extensively used in members that are polygonal in cross-section
of the truss. rather than round.
B-DMHH-N-NFB/54A 23 [ P.T.O.
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113. Statement (I) : 117. Statement (I) :
For high extrusion pressure, the In sand molding process, pouring
initial temperature of billet should time depends on materials being
be high. cast, complexity of casting, section
thickness and size.
Statement (II)
Statement (II) :
As the speed of hot extrusion is
increased, it may lead to melting of In order to maintain optimum
alloy constituents. pouring time, thickness of casting
is the important factor. '
114. Statement (I) : 118. Statement (I) :
For casting of metal like The length of the oxidizing flame is
magnesium, top gating is not smallest compared to neutral or
used. reducing flame.
B-DMHH-N-NFB I 54A 24
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
B-DMHH-N-NFB/54A 25 [ P.T.O.
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
'
B-DMHH-N-NFB/54A 26
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
***
B--DMHH-N-NFB/54A 27 BS4-71*
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