Professional Documents
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PAPER 1
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 210
n.c
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
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INSTRUCTIONS
A. General:
1. This booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seals of this booklet before being instructed to do
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so by the invigilators.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this page and on the back page
(page No. 28) of this booklet.
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will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
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gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
5. Answers to the questions and personal details are to be filled on a two-part carbon-less paper, which is
provided separately. You should not separate these parts. The invigilator will separate them at the end
of examination. The upper sheet is a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) which will be
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taken back by the invigilator. You will be allowed to take away the bottom sheet at the end of the
examination.
6. Using a black ball point pen, darken the bubbles on the upper original sheet. Apply sufficient
pressure so that the impression is created on the bottom sheet.
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corresponding answer choices are legible. Read carefully the instructions printed at the beginning of
each section.
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/
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m
boxes provided on the right part of the ORS. Do not write any of this information anywhere else.
Darken the appropriate bubbles UNDER each digit of your Registration No. in such a way that the
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impression is created on the bottom sheet. Also darken the paper code given on the right side of ORS
(R4).
C. Question Paper Format
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The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of three
sections.
12. Section I contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
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14. Section III contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9 (both inclusive).
D. Marking scheme
15. For each question in section I you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble
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corresponding to the correct answer ONLY and zero marks if no bubbles are darkened. In all other
cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded in this section.
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16. For each question in Section II you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. No
negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answer in this section.
17. For each question in Section III you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. No negative marks
will be awarded for incorrect answer in this section.
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper-I and Solution
PART I : PHYSICS
SECTION I : Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A) , (B),
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(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Young's double slit experimental is carried out by using green, red and blue light, one
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color at a time. The fringe widths recorded are G, R and B, respectively. Then,
(A) G > B > R (B) B > G > R (C) R > B > G (D) R > G > B
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1. (D)
Fringe width is given by
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D
B =
d
as R > G > B
ms
R> G> B
2. Two large vertical and parallel metal plates having a separation of 1 cm are connected to a
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DC voltage source of potential difference X. A proton is released at rest midway between
the two plates. It is found to move at 45 to the vertical JUST after release. Then X is
nearly ezy
(A) 1 10 5 V (B) 1 10 7 V (C) 1 10 9 V (D) 1 10 10 V
2. (C)
w.
y
qE
qE
ww
x 45
mg
mg
/
mg = qE
V
V
.co
q = mg
d
mg d 1.6 10 27 10 10 2
10 9 Volts
ms
V = = =1
q 1.6 10 19
3. A mixture of 2 moles of helium gas (atomic mass = 4 amu) and 1 mole of argon gas
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(atomic mass = 40 amu) is kept at 300 K in a container. The ratio of the r m s speeds
v rms (helium)
is
ezy
v rms (argon)
(A) 0.32 (B) 0.45 (C) 2.24 (D) 3.16
3. (D)
w.
3RT
vrms =
M
ww
(v He ) rms M Ar 40
= = = 10
(v Ar ) rms M He 4
(v He ) rms
= 3.16
(v Ar ) rms
2
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IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper I) (3)
4. A small block is connected to one end of a massless spring of un-stretched length 4.9 m.
The other end of the spring (see the figure) is fixed. The system lies on a horizontal
frictionless surface. The block is stretched by 0.2 m and released from rest at t = 0. It then
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executes simple harmonic motion with angular frequency rad/s. Simultaneously at
3
t = 0, a small pebble is projected with speed v from point P at an angle of 45 as shown in
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the figure. Point P is at a horizontal distance of 10 m from O. If the pebble hits the block
at t = 1 s, the value of v is (take g = 10 m/s2)
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ms
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(A) 50 m/s (B) 51 m/s (C) 52 m/s (D) 53 m/s
4. (A)
Motion of block is given by ezy
t
(x 4.8) = (0.2) cos
3
w.
at t = 1 second
(x 4.9) = (0.2) cos
ww
3
= 0.1
x = 5.0
Range of projectile must be
/
u2
= 10m 5m = 5m =
g
m
1
u = 5g = 50 ms
.co
5. Three very large plates of same are kept parallel and close to each other. They are
considered as ideal black surfaces and have very high thermal conductivity. The first and
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third plates are maintained at temperatures 2T and 3T respectively. The temperature of the
middle (i.e. second) plate under steady state condition is
1 1 1
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1
65 4 97 4 97 4
(A) T (B) T (C) T (D) 97 4 T
2 4 2
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5. (C)
2T T 3T
w.
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I II III
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper - I and Solution
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By steady state condition :
81 4
T 4 = 8 T4 + T
2
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1/4
97 4 97
T4= T T4= T
2 2
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6. A thin uniform rod, pivoted at O, is rotating in the horizontal
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the end of the rod at t = T and stops. The angular speed of the
system remains throughout. The magnitude of the torque
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| | on the system about O, as a function of time is best
represented by which plot?
ezy
(A) (B)
w.
ww
(C) (D)
/
m
.co
6. (B)
dL
ms
= and L=I 0
dt
dI
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= 0 [ 0 = constant]
dt
at time t, radial distance of insect from O = vt
ezy
1
I = mr l2 mi (vt) 2
3
w.
dI
t
dt
ww
t
When insect stop;
dI
=0
dt
4
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IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper I) (5)
4MLg
7. In the determination of Young's modules Y by using Searle's method, a wire
d2
of length L = 2 m and diameter d = 0.5 mm is used. For a load M = 2.5 kg, an extension
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0.25 mm in the length of the wire is observed. Quantities d and are measured using
a screw gauge and a micrometer, respectively. They have the same pitch of 0.5 mm. The
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number of divisions on their circular scale is 100. The contributions to the maximum
probable error of the Y measurement
(A) due to the errors in the measurements of d and are the same
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(B) due to the error in the measurement of d is twice that due to the error in the
measurement of .
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(C) due to the error in the measurement of is twice that due to the error in the
measurement of d.
(D) due to the error in the measurement of d is four times that due to the error in the
ms
measurement of .
7. (A)
4MLg Y d
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Y= 2
; = + 2
d Y d
d
Contribution of . Contribution of d
ezy 2
d
0.5
L.C. =
100
w.
= d = 5 10 3
5 10 3
ww
= = 20 10 3 = 2 10 2
(0.25)
d 5 10 3
= = 10 10 3 = 10 2
d (0.5)
/
d
= 2
d
m
8. Consider a thin spherical shell of radius R with its centre at the origin, carrying uniform
positive surface charge density. The variation of the magnitude of the electric field | E(r) |
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and the electric potential V(r) with the distance r from the centre, is best represented by
which graph?
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(A) (B)
ezy
w.
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(C) (D)
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper - I and Solution
8. (D)
E
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E =0 (r < R)
KQ
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= (r > R)
r
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V
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KQ
V = (r < R) (Constant)
R
ms
KQ
= (r > R)
r
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9. A bi-convex lens is formed with two thin plano-convex
lenses as shown in the figure. Refractive index n of the
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first lens is 1.5 and that of the second lens is 1.2. Both
the curved surfaces are of the same radius of curvature
R = 14 cm. For this bi-convex lens, for an object
w.
R 14
f2 = = 70 cm
( 1) (1.2 1)
m
1 1 1 1 1 5 2 7 1
= = = = =
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f eq f1 f 2 28 70 140 140 20
feq = 20 cm
ms
1 1 1 1 1 1
= = =
v f u 20 40 40
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v = 40 cm
10. A small mass m is attached to a massless string whose other end is fixed at P as shown in
the figure. The mass is undergoing circular motion in the x-y plane with centre at O and
ezy
constant angular speed . If the angular momentum of the system, calculated about O and
P are denoted by LO and LP respectively, then
w.
6
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IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper I) (7)
10. (C)
LO = (m r2) k
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direction of LP varies with time as its LO
direction will be perpendicular to string LP
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i.e. changing with time.
LO = Constant
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LP = Variable
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11. A person blows into open-end of a long pipe. As a result, a high-pressure pulse of air
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travels down the pipe. When this pulse reaches the other end of the pipe,
(A) a high-pressure pulse starts traveling up the pipe, if the other end of the pipe is open.
(B) a low-pressure pulse starts traveling up the pipe, if the other end of the pipe is open.
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(C) a low-pressure pulse starts traveling up the pipe, if the other end of the pipe is closed.
(D) a high-pressure pulse starts traveling up the pipe, if the other end of the pipe is closed.
w.
11. (B), (D)
If end is open, pressure wave will be reflected in opposite phase when high pressure arrive
low pressure will be reflected
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(A) is wrong
(B) is correct
If end is closed, pressure wave will be reflected in same phase so high pressure will be
reflected back
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(C) is wrong
(D) is correct
m
F
ww
mg mg sin
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper - I and Solution
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LHS F cos =1 cos 45 =
2
1 1
RHS mg sin = 0.1 10 =
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2 2
{LHS = RHS)
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If > 45 ; mg sin > F cos
friction acts towards Q.
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13. A cubical region of side a has its centre at
the origin. It encloses three fixed point
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charges, q at (0, a/4, 0), + 3q at (0, 0, 0)
and q at (0, + a/4, 0). Chooses the correct
option(s).
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(A) The net electric flux crossing the plane x = +a/2 is equal to the net electric flux
w.
As qen = 3q q q = q
q
flux = (C)
.co
0
Obtain (A) is correct as four the two given faces charges are symmetrically located.
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a a
Option (B) is not correct as for y = and y = location of charge is symmetrical so
2 2
fluxes will be equal.
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a a
Option (D) is correct as for z = and x = location of charge is symmetrical.
2 2
ezy
(D) (D) I2 = 2A
8
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IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper I) (9)
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= (i3 i2) (T to S)
2i3 (i3 i2) 1 + 4 (i1 i3) = 0 (i1 i3) 1 1 (i1 i3)
7i3 + i2 + 4i1 = 0 (i3 i2)
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7i3 = i2 + 4i1 (1) 4 (i1 i2) 4
i1
2i2 + (i3 i2) 1 + (i1 i2) 4 + (i3 i2) 1 = 0 Q 4 T
8i2 + 2i3 + 4i1 = 0
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i3 = 4i2 2i1 (2)
7i3 = i2 + 4i1
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( i3 = 4i2 2i1) 7
+
ms
0 = 27i2 + 18i1
2i1 = 3i2
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3i2
i3 = 4i2 2 (from eq. (2))
2
i3 = 4i2 3i2
i3 = i2
ezy
i3 i2 = 0
iPQ = 0 Ans. (A)
w.
iPQ = iST = 0
Eq. circuit will be
ww
2
2 2
i2
/
1 1 6
(i1 i2)
4 4
m
4 12
.co
i1
ms
12
i2 = = 2A Ans. (D)
6
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12
(i1 i2) = = 1A
12
ezy
i1 = 3A Ans. (B)
VP > VS (as current is going from P to S)
w.
VP = VQ
VQ > VS Ans. (C)
ww
Alternate Method
This can also be judge directly by symmetry which show current in PQ and ST is 0.
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper - I and Solution
15. Consider the motion of a positive point charge in a region where there are simultaneous
uniform electric and magnetic fields E E0j and B B0j. At time t = 0, this charge has
velocity v in the x y plane, making an angle with the x axis. Which of the following
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option(s) is (are) correct for time t > 0 ?
(A) If = 0 , the charge moves in a circular path in the x z plane.
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(B) If = 0 , the charge undergoes helical motion with constant pitch along the y axis
(C) If = 10 , the charge undergoes helical motion with its pitch increasing with time,
along the y axis
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(D) If = 90 , the charge undergoes linear but accelerated motion along the y axis.
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ms
u sin i
u k
exa
j
x( j )
u cos
If = 90 motion will be along a straight line and accelerated due to E (as magnetic
force is zero).
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16. A proton is fired from very far away towards a nucleus with charge Q = 120 e, where e is
the electronic charge. It makes a closest approach of 10 fm to the nucleus. The de
m
Broglie wavelength (in units of fm) of the proton at its start is : (take the proton mass,
.co
1
mp = (5/3) 10 27kg; h/e = 4.2 10 15J.s/C; 9 109 m / F; 1 fm = 10 15m)
4 0
ms
16. [7]
1 1 (120)e 2
mv 2 = [By Conservation of energy]
2 4 0 (10 fm)
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p2 1 (120)e2
=
2m p 4 0 (10 10 15 )
120 e2
w.
9 5 27
p =9 10 2 10
3 10 14
ww
p = 30 120 109 27 + 14
e2
p = 3600 10 4 e 2
p = 60 10 2 e
10
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IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper I) (11)
h
=
p
42 10 15
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h 42 15
= = = 10 m
e 60 105 60 10 2 6
= 7 fm
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17. A lamina is made by removing a small disc of diameter 2R from
a bigger disc of uniform mass density and radius 2R as shown in
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the figure. The moment of inertia of this lamina about axes
passing through O and P is IO and IP respectively. Both these
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I
axes are perpendicular to the plane of the lamina. The ratio P
IO
ms
to the nearest integer is
17. [3]
IOW = IOR + IOC
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R
Whole Remaining Cut
Remaining Mass =
4
M
ww
Cut Mass =
4
M(2R) 2 M R2 M 2
IOR = R
2 4 2 4
/
13
IO = IOR = MR 2
8
m
3M 2
IP = ICM + x (2R) 2
4
.co
3M 2 3M 2
= IO x + x 4R 2
4 4
ms
13 3M 37
= MR 2 + 4R 2 = MR 2
8 4 8
exa
IP 37
= 3
IO 13
ezy
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper - I and Solution
18. [6]
Applying principle of superposition
E P whole E P shaded + E P Non shaded
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(Whole) (Re maining) (Cavity)
E PS = EPW E P NS
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Applying Gauss Law Z
tio
R2
For Cylinder, E 2 2R =
0
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R
R
E cy = ; radially outward. R/2
ms
0 P
3 Y
4 R 2R
exa
3 2
For sphere, E 4 (2R)2 =
0 X
R ezy
Esp =
96 0
R R
E PS = both the fields are radially outward.
w.
4 0 96 0
23 R
ww
Given, E =
16K 0
23 23 R
K = 6.
16K 0 96 0
/
P
0i 0i
B P Sh = a
2 a 3 a(4)
2
w.
N
Given BP Sh = 0 aJ BP W BP NS
12
ww
N 0i
=
12 a 2a
N 0i 5 0i
=
12 a 12 a
N = 5
12
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IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper I) (13)
om
= 3R along the axis of the circular wire loop, as
shown in figure. The plane of the square loop makes
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an angle of 45 with respect to the z axis. If the
mutual inductance between the loops is given by
2
0a
tio
, then the value of p is
2p/2 R
20. [7]
olu
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We know,
i
ms
= Mi
is the Magnetic flux linked through square loop, while i is the current flow through the
circular loop.
exa
2
0iR a2
= B(a2 cos 45 ) N = 3
2
2
2{R 2 ( 3R) 2 }2 ezy
2
0ia
= =Mi
2(4)(2)R Z
w.
2
0a 45
M =
8 2R
ww
2
0a
M = (Given)
P 3R
22 R
2 2
0a 0a
/
P
=
8 2R R
22 R
m
p 7 Y
22= 22
.co
X
P = 7
ms
PART II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I : Single Correct Answer Type
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This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A) , (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. The colour of light absorbed by an aqueous solution of CuSO4 is
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(A) orange red (B) blue green (C) yellow (D) violet
21. (A)
The CuSO4 solution is blue. The colour that is absorbed complementary to the colour that
w.
is observed.
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22. Which ordering of compounds is according to the decreasing order of the oxidation state
of nitrogen ?
(A) HNO3 , NO, NH4Cl, N2
(B) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
(C) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(D) NO, HNO3, NH4Cl, N2
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper - I and Solution
22. (B)
HNO3 + 5
NO +2, N2 = 0
om
NH4Cl 3
23. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is
[a0 is Bohr radius]
n.c
h2 h2 h2 h2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 2 ma 02 16 2 ma 02 32 2 ma 02 64 2 ma 02
tio
23. (C)
nh mv2 e2
olu
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mvr = and 2
mv 2 r = e2
2 r r
2
e nh
ms
V= (mvr = )
nh 2
1
m e4 4 2
exa
1
K.E. = mv = 2
2
(1)
2 n 2h 2
h2 ezy
Expression for a0 =
4 2 me 2
h2
me2 = (2)
w.
4 2a 0
h2 1
ww
K.E. = 2
(3)
8ma 02 n2
For n = 2
h2
K.E. =
/
32 2 ma 02
24. The number of aldol reaction(s) that occurs in the given transformation is
m
.co
24. (C)
O OH O
exa
HCHO
CH3 C H CH 2 C H
(1)
(2) HCHO
CH2OH
ezy
HCHO
H OCH 2 CH C CH 2 C CHO
(3)
w.
CH2OH CH2OH
ww
(4) OH Cannizzaro
Reaction
(HOCH2)4C
1, 2, 3 are aldol products while 4 is Cannizzaro product.
14
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IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper I) (15)
om
Waals constant a (atm. liter2 mol 2) is
n.c
tio
1
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(mol liter 1 )
V
(A) 1.0 (B) 4.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 3.0
ms
25. (C)
b = 0 , T = 300K, n = 1
exa
an 2
P (V nb) nRT
V2
P
a
(V) RT PV
a
ezy
RT
V2 V
1
w.
PV a RT
V
ww
y mx C Slope = a
y2 y1 20.1 21.6
Slope m 1.5
x 2 x1 3 2
26. In allene (C3H4), the type(s) of hybridization of the carbon atoms is (are)
/
(A) sp and sp3 (B) sp and sp2 (C) only sp2 (D) sp2 and sp3
26. (B)
m
H H
.co
C C C (allene)
H sp2 sp sp2 H
27. A compound MpXq has cubic close
ms
27. (B)
1 1
X :8 6 4
8 2
w.
1
M ; M2X4 MX2
4
ww
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper - I and Solution
28. (A)
CH3
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CH3 CH CH C CH CH CH CH CH CH 3
H CH3
n.c
O3/H2O
tio
CH3 H
2CH3 COOH HOOC C COOH HOOC C COOH
olu
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H CH3
ms
None is optical isomers active due to absence of chiral carbon.
29. As per IUPAC nomenclature, the name of the complex [Co(H2O)4(NH3)2]Cl3 is
exa
(A) Tetraaquadiaminecobalt (III) chloride
(B) Tetraaquadiaminecobalt (III) chloride
(C) Diaminetetraaquacobalt (III) chloride
(D) Diamminetetraaquacobalt (III) chloride ezy
29. (D)
Co(H2O)4 (NH3 )2 Cl3
w.
(A) picric acid (B) barbituric acid (C) ascorbic acid (D) aspirin
30. (D)
O
/
O C CH3
m
COOH
.co
(Aspirin)
ms
(A) Sx z = Sx y + Sy z
(B) Wx z = Wx y + Wy z
ww
(C) Wx y z = Wx y
(D) Sx y z = Sx y
31. (A),(C)
Wx z Wx y Wy z
16
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IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper I) (17)
om
z y z
32. Which of the following molecules, in pure form, is (are) unstable at room temperature?
n.c
(A) (B) (C) (D)
tio
32. (B) , (C)
olu
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(B)
- antiaromatic
ms
(C)
exa
O
+
is antiaromatic ezy
33. Identify the binary mixture(s) that can be separated into individual compounds, by
differential extraction, as shown in the given scheme.
w.
ww
/
34. Choose the correct reason(s) for the stability of the lyophobic colloidal particles.
(A) Preferential adsorption of ions on their surface from the solution
ms
(D) Potential difference between the fixed layer and the diffused layer of opposite charges
around the colloidal particles
34. (A), (D)
ezy
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper - I and Solution
om
ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
36. An organic compound undergoes first order decomposition. The time taken for its
1 1
n.c
decomposition to and of its initial concentration are t1/8 and t1/10 respectively.
8 10
[t ]
tio
What is the value of 1/8 10? (take log102 = 0.3)
[t1/10 ]
olu
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36. [9]
2.302 a0
K= log
t a0 x
ms
2.303 a0
K= log
t1/8 1
exa
a0
8
2.303 a0 t1/8 log 8
K= log ezy
t1/10 1 t1/10 log 10
a0
10
t1/8
w.
10 log 8 10 = 3 log 2 10 = 3 0.3 10 = 9
t1/10
ww
37. When the following aldohexose exists in its D configuration, the total number of
stereoisomers in its pyranose form is
/
m
.co
ms
37. [8]
CH2OH
exa
H
OH H
w.
38. The substituents R1 and R2 for nine peptides are listed in the table given below. How
many of these peptides are positively charged at pH = 7.0?
ww
18
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IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper I) (19)
Peptide R1 R2
I H H
II H CH3
om
III CH2COOH H
IV CH2CONH2 (CH2)4NH2
V CH2CONH2 CH2CONH2
n.c
VI (CH2)4NH2 (CH2)4NH2
VII CH2COOH CH2CONH2
tio
VIII CH2OH (CH2)4NH2
IX (CH2)4NH2 CH3
olu
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38. [4]
Presence of NH2 group containing substituent for R1 and R2 would be positively charged
ms
at pH = 7.0 peptides IV, VI, VIII and IX contains NH2 group.
39. The periodic table consist of 18 groups. An isotope of copper, on bombardment with
exa
protons, undergoes a nuclear reaction yielding element X as shown below. To which
group, element X belongs in the periodic table?
63 1
29 Cu 1H 610 n 211 H X ezy
39. [8]
Compound X is 26Fe and it belongs to group No 8.
w.
40. 29.2% (w/w) HCl stock solution has a density of 1.25 g mL 1. The molecular weight of
ww
HCl is 36.5 g mol 1. The volume (mL) of stock solution required to prepare a 200 mL
solution of 0.4 M HCl is
40. [8]
/
w w
W
.co
% d 10
W
Mw
ms
29.2 1.25 10
36.5
exa
10 M
ezy
M1V1 M2V2
10 V1 0.4 200
w.
0.4 200
V 8 ml
10
ww
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper - I and Solution
om
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A) , (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
x 2 y2
n.c
41. The ellipse E1 : 1 is inscribed in a rectangle R whose sides are parallel to the
9 4
coordinate axes. Another ellipse E2 passing through the point (0, 4) circumscribes the
tio
rectangle R. The eccentricity of the ellipse E2 is
2 3 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
olu
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2 2 2 4
41. (C)
x 2 y2
ms
Required ellipse 2 1 y
a b2 (0, 4)
Given it passes (0, 4)
exa
42
1 b 4 (0, 2)
b2 (3, 2)
Also it passes through (3, 2) ezy (3, 0)
x
9 4
1
a 2 b2
w.
9 4
1
a 2 16
ww
9 4 12 3
2
1 =
a 16 16 4
9 4
a2 12
3
/
a2 12 1
So, e 1 = 1
b2
m
16 2
42. The point P is the intersection of the straight line joining the points Q(2, 3, 5) and
.co
1
(A) (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2 2
2
exa
42. (A)
x 2 y 3 z 5
Equation of PQ is
1 4 1
ezy
2
r
3
ww
4 1 13
So, P , ,
3 3 3
Also we take any point on QR is S t 2,4t 3, t 5
20
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IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper I) (21)
om
Q R
1 t + 4 (4t + 2) + 1 (t + 1) = 0 S
1
t
n.c
2
3 9
So, S ,1,
tio
2 2
2 2 2
4 3 1 13 9 1
olu
So, PS 1 =
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3 2 3 3 2 2
sec2 x
43. The integral dx equals (for some arbitrary constant K)
ms
(sec x tan x)9/2
1 1 1
(A) (sec x tan x)2 K
exa
11/2
(sec x tan x) 11 7
1 1 1
(B) 11/2
(sec x tan x)2 K
(sec x tan x) 11 7 ezy
1 1 1
(C) 11/2
(sec x tan x)2 K
(sec x tan x) 11 7
w.
1 1 1
(D) 11/2
(sec x tan x)2 K
(sec x tan x) 11 7
ww
43. (C)
1 1
Let sec x + tan x = t sec x = t
2 t
/
dt
sec x tan x + sec2 x=
dx
m
dt
sec x (sec x + tan x) =
.co
dx
2
1 1
t
ms
2 t dt
9/2
t 1 1
t t
2 t
exa
1
t
=
1 t dt = 1 t 9/2 t 13/2 dt
ezy
11/2 2
2 t
1 t 7/2 t 11/2 1 (sec x tan x) 7/2
(sec x tan x) 11/2
= +K= K
7 11 7 11
w.
2 2
2 2 2 2
ww
44. Let z be a complex number such that the imaginary part of z is nonzero and a = z 2 + z + 1
is real. Then a cannot take the value
1 1 3
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)
3 2 4
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper - I and Solution
44. (D)
z = x + iy ; y 0
a = z2 + z + 1
om
a = (x + iy)2 + (x + iy) + 1
= (x2 y2 + x + 1) + i (2xy + y)
2xy + y = 0
n.c
y (2x + 1) = 0
1
x= y 0
tio
2
1 1
a = x2 y2 + x + 1 = y2 1
olu
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4 2
3
a= y2
4
ms
y 0 y2 > 0
3
y2 = a 0
exa
4
3
a<
4 ezy
3
a
4
w.
alternative (D) is correct.
x 2 cos
ww
, x 0
45. Let f(x) = x , x , then f is
0, x 0
(A) differentiable both at x = 0 and at x = 2
(B) differentiable at x = 0 but not differentiable at x = 2
/
45. (B)
.co
x 2 cos ; x 0
f(x) = x
ms
0 ; x 0
At x = 0
exa
h 2 cos 0
f (0 h) f (0) h
RHD at x = 0 = Lt = Lt 0
h 0 h h 0 h
ezy
f (0 h) f (0)
LHD at x = 0 = Lt
h 0 h
( h) 2 cos
w.
h
= Lt = Lt h cos =0
h 0 h h 0 h
ww
LHD = RHD
f is differentiable at x = 0
22
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IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper I) (23)
At x = 2
f (2 h) f (2)
LHD at x = 2 Lt
h 0 h
om
( h)2 cos 0
2 h 0
= Lt using L'Hospital
n.c
h 0 h 0
1
[ 2(2 h)] cos (2 h) 2 sin
tio
2 h 2 h (2 h)2
= Lt
h 0 1
olu
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=
LHD is equal to
f (2 h) f (2)
RHD at x = 2 = Lt
ms
h 0 h
(2 h) 2 cos
exa
2 h 0
= Lt
h 0 h 0
ezy 1
2(2 h) cos (2 h) 2 sin ( )
2 h 2 h (2 h)2
= Lt (using H'Hospital)
h 0 1
w.
= (4) (0) + =
RHD =
ww
46. (B)
Method I
m
5 5
Total no. of ways = 35 3
C1 3 1 3
C2 3 2
.co
System I
Boxes I II III
exa
Balls 1 2 2
For this system no. of ways
5! 1 5 4 3 2
ezy
= 3! = 6 = 90
2!2!1! 2! 2 2 2
System II
w.
Boxes I II III
Balls 1 3 1
ww
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper - I and Solution
2
47. If lim x x 1
ax b = 4, then
x x 1
om
(A) a = 1, b = 4. (B) a = 1, b = 4 (C) a = 2, b = 3 (D) a = 2, b = 3
47. (B)
x2 x 1
n.c
lim ax b 4
x x 1
x2 x 1 ax 2 ax bx b
tio
lim 4
x x 1
olu
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(1 a)x 2 (1 a b)x (1 b)
lim 4
x x 1
ms
Limiting value is finite nonzero so highest degree in numerator and denominator will be
same.
Therefore 1 a = 0 a = 1
exa
1 a b
and 4
1
1 1 b ezy
4
1
b = 4 answer is (B)
w.
48. The function f : [0, 3] [1, 29], defined by f(x) = 2x3 15x2 + 36x + 1, is
(A) one-one and onto. (B) onto but not one-one.
ww
(C) one-one but not onto. (D) neither one-one nor onto.
48. (B)
Given function is f : [0, 3] [1, 29]
f(x) = 2x3 15x2 + 36x + 1
/
f(x) at x = 2 is 29
f(x) at x = 3 in 27
It is onto. answer is (B)
exa
49. The locus of the mid-point of the chord of contact of tangents drawn from points lying on
the straight line 4x 5y = 20 to the circle x2 + y2 = 9 is
ezy
(A) 20(x2 + y2) 36x + 45y = 0 (B) 20(x2 + y2) + 36x 45y = 0
(C) 36(x2 + y2) 20x + 45y = 0 (D) 36(x2 + y2) 20x 45y = 0
w.
49. (A) x2 + y2 = 9
4 20
x+ y=9
ww
5
P(h, k)
5 x + (4 20)y = 45 .. (i)
hx + ky = h2 + k2 ... (ii) 4x 5y = 20
5 4 20 45
4 20
h k h k2
2
Q ,
5
24
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IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper I) (25)
9h
= ... (iii)
h k2
2
45k
om
4 20 = . (iv)
h k2 2
n.c
4(9h) 45k
2
20
2
h k h k2
2
36h 45k
tio
2
20
2
h k h k2
2
olu
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36 x 20 (x2 + y2) = 45 y
20 (x2 + y2) 36x + 45 y = 0
ms
correct answer is (A).
50. Let P = [aij] be a 3 3 matrix and let Q = [bij], where bij = 2i+jaij for 1 i, j 3. If the
exa
determinant of P is 2, then the determinant of the matrix Q is
(A) 210 (B) 211 (C) 212 (D) 213
50. (D) ezy
P = [aij]
Q = [bij]
w.
bij = 2i + j . aij
b11 = 22a11 b21 = 23 . a21 b31 = 24 a31
3
b22 = 24 . a22 b32 = 25 a32
ww
b12 = 2 a12
b13 = 24 a13 b23 = 25 . a22 b33 = 26 a33
Given P = a 21 a 22 a 23 2
a 31 a 32 a 33
m
Q = 23 a 21 24 a 22 25 a 23
24 a 31 25 a 32 26 a 33
ms
2 3 4
Q = 2 2 2 2a 21 2a 22 2a 23
22 a 31 22 a 32 22 a 33
ezy
a 31 a 32 a 33
ww
Q = 22 23 24 22 21 21
Q = 213
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper - I and Solution
om
51. If y (x) satisfies the differential equation y ' y tan x 2x sec x and y (0) = 0, then
2 2
n.c
(A) y (B) y '
4 8 2 4 18
tio
2
4 2 2
(C) y (D) y '
3 9 3 3 3 3
olu
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ms
tan xdx log cos x
I.F. = e e cos x
y cos x 2x sec x.cos xdx
exa
ycos x = x2 + c
y cos x = x2 ( y(0) = 0)
y = x2 sec x ezy
2
4 2 2
y and y '
4 8 2 3 3 3 3
w.
52. A ship is fitted with three engines E1, E2 and E3. The engines function independently of
1 1 1
ww
each other with respective probabilities , and . For the ship to be operational at least
2 4 4
two of its engines must function. Let X denote the event that the ship is operational and let
X1, X2 and X3 denote respectively the events that the engines E1, E2 And E3 are
functioning. Which of the following is (are) true?
/
3
(A) P X1c X
16
m
7
(B) P [Exactly two engines of the ship are functioning |X] =
8
.co
5
(C) P X X 2
16
ms
7
(D) P X X1
16
exa
X 1 1 3 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 8
2 4 4 4 4 2 2 4 4 2 4 4
8 1 1 1
w.
(ii) P
Exactly twoengines arefunctioning 32 4 4 2 = 7
X 8 8
ww
32
26
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IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper I) (27)
1 1 3 1 1 1 1
X 4 2 4 2 4 2 4 5
(iii) P
X2 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 3 8
om
4 2 4 2 4 2 4 2 4
1 1 1 1 3 1 3
n.c
X 2 4 4 4 4 4 4 7
(iv) P =
X1 1 3 3 1 1 1 3 1 3 16
tio
2 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
olu
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ms
3
tan 2 0 and 1 sin
2
exa
Then cannot satisfy
4 4 3 3
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D) 2
53. (A), (C), (D)
2 2 3 ezy 3 2 2
Conditions :
w.
tan ( ) > 0 tan <0
3
and 1 < sin <
ww
2
3 5 1
, 0 < cos <
2 3 2
1
sin ) = sin2
/
1 + 2 cos = 2sin ( + )
1
sin ( + ) = + cos
2
ms
1 4
< sin ( + ) < 1
2 2 3
exa
2
54. Let S be the area of the region enclosed by y e x , y = 0, x = 0, and x = 1. Then
1 1
(A) S (B) S 1
ezy
e e
1 1 1 1 1
(C) S 1 (D) S 1
4 e 2 e 2
w.
y= e , y = 0, x = 0, x = 1
1
x2
e dx
0
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper - I and Solution
We have
0 x 1
0 x2 x 1
om
0 x2 x 1
2 x 1
x
1 e e e
n.c
1 1 1 1
x 2 2 1
e dx e x dx e x
dx e x
1
e
tio
0 0 0 0
1
S 1
e
olu
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x2 1
Also e
e
ms
1 1
x2 1 1
e dx dx
0 0
e e
exa
1
S
e
(C) is wrong because (B) is correct. ezy
1 1
x2 1 1 2
e dx 1 1 e
0 2 2
w.
1 1 1
1
2 e 2
ww
x 2 y2
55. Tangents are drawn to the hyperbola 1 , parallel to the straight line 2x y = 1.
9 4
/
2 2 2 2 2 2
.co
a 2m 2 b 2
exa
y mx
y 2x 4 2
ezy
ma 2 b 2
and point of contact is ,
c c
w.
2 9 4
,
ww
4 2 4 2
9 1
,
2 2 2
28
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IIT JEE 2012 Question Paper & Solution (Paper I) (29)
om
56. Let S be the focus of the parabola y2 = 8x and let PQ be the common chord of the circle
x2 + y2 2x 4y = 0 and the given parabola. The area of the triangle PQS is
n.c
56. [4]
Q
Solving y2 = 8x
tio
and x2 + y2 2x 4y = 0
Simultaneously, we get (2, 4) and (0, 0) S
olu
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P (2, 0)
Focus is (2, 0)
1
ms
Area = 2 4 = 4 sq. units.
2
57. Let p(x) be a real polynomial of least degree which has a local maximum at x = 1 and a
exa
local minimum at x = 3. If p(1) = 6 and p(3) = 2, then p (0) is
57. [9]
Since least degree hence p(x) is cubic. ezy
Let p (x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d
p (1) = 6 = a + b + c + d (1)
p (3) = 2 = 27a + 9b + 3c + d (2)
w.
From (5)
4 = 26a 48a + 2c
m
4 22a
c 11a 2 (6)
2
.co
From (3)
3a + 2b + c = 0
ms
c = f (0) = 11a 2 = 11 2 = 9
58. Let f : IR IR be defined as f(x) = x x 2 1 . The total number of points at which f
ezy
x2 x 1 if x 1
ww
x 2 x 1 if 1 x 0
=
x 2 x 1 if 0 x 1
x 2 x 1 if x 1
So, total no. of local maxima and local minima is = 5
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JEE-MAIN 2012 : Paper - I and Solution
om
59. [4]
1 1 1 1
n.c
6 log3/2 4 4 4 ...
3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2
1 1
tio
put x = 4 4 ...
3 2 3 2
olu
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x
x2 = 4
3 2
2
3 2x = 12 2 x
ms
3 2x 2 x 12 2 = 0
exa
4 2
x= ; x= 3 / 2 not possible
3
ezy
14 2
6 log3/2
3 2 3
w.
4
6 log3/2
9
ww
6 2=4
2 2 2
60. If a, b and c are unit vectors satisfying a b b c c a 9 , then 2a 5b 5c is
60. [3]
/
2 2 2
a b b c c a 9
m
2 2 a b +2 2 b c +2 2 c a =9
.co
3
a b b c c a (1)
2
ms
2
Now, a b c 0
1+1+1+2 a b b c c a 0
exa
3
a b b c c a (2)
2
ezy
2
Now, 2a 5b 5c
ww
= 4 + 25 + 25 + 20 a b 50 b c 20(a c)
= 54 10 25 10 = 9 2a 5b 5c 3
30
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