Mtech ENTERANCE TEST COMMUNICATION THEORY QUESTIONS BANK

Mtech ENTERANCE TEST COMMUNICATION THEORY QUESTIONS BANK
SECTION-A
Q.1 The area of a parallelogram with diagonals 3i+j-2k and i-3j+4k is
(a) 48 (b) 75 (c) 91 (d) 40
Q.2 For any four vectors a, b, c, & d (a X b). (c X d) =
(a) (a. c) (b. d) (a. d) (b. c)
(b) [a. (b x d)] c- [a .(b x c) ] d
(c) (a x c). (b x d)
(d) None of these
Q.3 The points (5,-1,1), (7,-4,7), (1,-6,10) and (-1,-3,4) form the vertices of a
(a) Tetra hedron
(b) Irregular quadrilateral

(c) rhombus
(d) none of these
Q.4 An equations of odd degree has at least one real root whose sign is / has _______
(a) opposite to that of the last term
(b) same as that of the last term
(c) no relation with last term
(d) none of these
Q.5 Roots of the equation 28x3 -9x 2 +1 = 0 are
(a) 1/4, 1/3 , 3/7 (b) -1/4, 3+ 2i / 7
(c) 1/4, 5/9, 2/7 (d) -1/4, 2+3i / 7

Q.6 If f(x) is divided by (x-a) then the reminder is
(a) f(a) (b) f(x-a) (c) always zero (d) none of these
Q.7 For a set of complex nos, the following statement is false
(a) arg z = - arg z (b) z = z then z
(c) img . z = 1/2i (z z ) (d) z1z2 = z1 + z2
Q.8 Solutions of the equation
Iy / ix+1 3y+4i /3x+y = 0 (x&y are real) are
(a) x = 2, y=+ 1.5 (b) x=1.5, y=+ 2
(c) x = 1, y =0 (d) x=0, y=1
Q.9 The locus of z when z-i / z-2 is purely imaginary, is
(a) a circle (b) a parabola
(c) a hyperbola (d) a rectangle
Q.10 If Y=a cos (ln X) + b Sin (ln X) then X2 Yn+2 + (2n+1)XY n+1 + (n2 + 1) Yn
(a) One (b) zero
(c) 1/2 (cos x + sinx) (d) Ln X
Q.11 If X = a [Cos t + ln tan 2 (t/2)] and Y= a sint then d2y / dx2 =
(a) Sin t / a cos2t (b) Sin t/ a2 Cos 2 t
(c) Sin t/ a Cos 4 t (d) Sin t / a2 Cos 4

t
Q.12 The curves r=ae and re and re = b
(a) are concentric (b) Cut orthogonally
(c) have common tangent (d) have common pole
Q.13 lim 1+Ln X X =
x 1 1-2X + X2
(a) 1/2 (b) 0 (c) - 1/2 (d)
Q.14 lim X2+2CosX 2 =
x 0 X.Sin3X
(a) 1/12 (b) -1/12 (c) 1/2 (d) -1/2
Q.15 lim (Cos x) /2-x =
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) /2 (d) /4
Q.16 The dimensions of hte rectangular box, with open top, of max. capacity whose surface area is
432 Sq, are
(a) 2,2,3 (b) 5,8,10 (c) 3,6,9 (d) 12,12,6
Q.17 Three parts of 24 such that the continued product of first, square of second and the cube of
third is max are
(a) 4, 6,14 (b) 6,8,10 (c) 2,10,12 (d) 4,8,12
Q.18 A wire of length b is cut into two parts which are bent in the form of a square and circule respectively. The
least value of the sum of the area 80 found is
(a) b2 /4 (+4) (b) b2 /4 (c) b2 / +4 (d) b2 / 2

Q.19 0 dx / (16+x2) 912 =
(a) 1/48 (b) 6/7.48 (c) 24 / 35.48 (d) 1/46.7.5
Q. 20 The are bounded by the three straight lines x +2y = 2, y-x=1 and 2x+y =7 is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 6 (d) 3
Q.21 1 2 e2x + 1 / e2x 1 dx =
(a) 0 (b) Ln e2 +1 / e (c) 1 (d) Ln e / e2 + 1
ln x ln y
Q.22 1 0 e x+y
dx dy =
(a) 8 ln8 16 + e (b) 8 ln8

(c) 16 (d) -16
Q.23 The area bounded by the curves
XY = 2, 4Y = X2 & Y =4 is
(a) 28 / 3 (b) 2 Ln 4
(c) 28/3 2 Ln 4 (d) 28 / 3 + 2Ln 4
Q.24 The volume of the tetrahedron in space cut from the first octant by the plane 6X+3Y+2Z = 6 is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
Q.25 Solution of the diff equa.
tanX. Sin2Yy dx + cos2XcotY dy = 0 is
(a) tan2X = cot 2Y (b) tan2X+cot2Y
(c) tan2X cot2y =C (d) none of these
Q.26 Solution of the diff equation
3X4p2-Xp-Y = 0 (p=dy/dx) is
(a) XY = C (3CX - 1) (b) XY = C
(c) X2 + Y2 = 1 (d) Y = X +C
Q.27 The equation of the curve which passes through (1,1) and whose slope at any point (X,Y) is 1+Y/X, is
(a) Y=X (b) Y=X (1+Ln X)
(c) Y = 1+Ln X (c) Y = X2+Ln X
Q.28 1 5
Loge 5 5 =
Log1010 5 e
(a) (b) e (c) 1 (d) 0
Q.29 The determinant 1 1 1

1 2 3 = 0
1 3 6
(a) 2 1 1 (b) 2 1 1
2 2 3 3 2 3
2 3 6 4 3 6
(c) 1 2 1 (d) 3 1 1
1 5 3 6 2 3
1 9 6 10 3 6
Q.30 b2+c2 a2 a2
b2 c2+a2 b2
c2 c2 a2+b2
(a) abc (b) 4abc (c) 4a2b2c2 (d) a2b2c2
Q.1 L{t 7/2 e3t}
(a) 105 /16 S 9/2 (b) 105 /16(S-3) 9/2
(c) 105 / 32 S7/2 (d) none of these
Q.2 L{ 0 Cos6t Cos 4t / t dt } =
(a) Ln 2/3 (b) Ln 3/2 (c) Ln 6 (d) Ln 1/6
Q.3 L-1 { 64 / 81 S4 256} =

(a) 1/2 [Sinh4t Sin4t] (b) 1/2 [Sinh4t + Sin4t]
(c) 1/3 [1/2 Sinh4t/3 Sin4t/3] (d) 1/2 [1/2 Sinh4t/3 Sin4t/3]
Q.4 Rank of a matrix of order mxn (m<n)=
(a) m (b) n (c) <m (d) does not exist
Q.5 A lower triangular matrix A = [aij] is defined as
(a) aij= 0 for i>j (b) aij= 0 for i<j
(c) aij= 0 for i=j (d) none of these
Q.6 The values of the constants a & b for which the system of equation
X+2Y+3Z = 6
X+3Y+5Z=9
2X+5Y+aZ=b
has no solution; are

(a) a = 8, b=5 (b) a 8, b = 15
(c) a 8, b 15 (d) a = 8, b 15
Q.7 If A is an n x n matrix having Eigen values relation 1, 2. n then the following relation is
true
(a) IAI = 1. 2. n
(b) IAI = 1+ 2+ n
(c) A = 1. 2. n
(d) A = 1+ 2.. n
Q.8 A real square matrix is said to the orthogonal if
(a) A=A-1 (b) A = AT
(c) AT = A-1 (d) A = -AT
Q.9 A matrix which diagonalizes the matrix
4 1
A = is
2 3
(a) 1 1 (b) 1 -2
-2 1 1 1
(c) 2 -2 (d) 2 1
10 5 1 5
Q.10 If = r / r5 and f (1) = 0 the f (r) =
(a) - 1/3r3 (b) 1/3 1/3r3 (c) r4 (d) 1/4r4
Q.11 The acute angle between the surfaces
X2+Y2+Z2 = 9 and Z = X2+Y2-3 at the point (2, -1, 2) is
(a) Sin -1 (821) (b) Cos-1 (821)
(c) Sin-1 (63/821) (d) Cos-1 (821/63)
Q.12 If. A = 0 then A is known as
(a) Solenoidal function (b) irrotational function

(c) Potential function (d) conservative vector field
Q.13 The work done in moving a particle is the force field F = 3X2 i + (2XZ-Y)j+Zk along a straight line
from (0,0,0) to (2,1,3) is
(a) 6 (b) 25 (c) 16 (d) 14
Q.14 The flux of water through a cube bounded by X = 0, X=b, Y = 0, Y=b, Z = 0 and Z=b is __________
if the velocity vector is = 4xzi - y2j + yzk m/sec
(a) 3b4/2 m3/sec (b) 3b4/2 m2/sec
(c) 3b4/2 m/sec (d) 3b4/2
Q.16 The Fourier expansion of the function
f(x) = { -k, - <X<0
k, 0<X<
has
(a) only sine component
(b) only cosine component
(c) only dc component
(d) dc component and cosine component

Q.17 The direct current part and amplitude of the first harmonic from the following table consisting
of the variations of periodic current
T Sec : 0 T/6 T/3 T/2 2T/3 5T/6 T
A amp: 1.98 1.30 1.05 1.30 -.88 -.25 1.98
are
(a) 0.75 & 1.072 (b) 1.5 & 1.072
(c) 0.75 & 1 (d) 1.5 7 1
Q.18 If f (x) = x2 is (-, ) then 1/(2n-1)2 =
(a) 2/12 (b) 2/6 (c) 2/8 (d) 2/90
Q.19 The function whose fourier sine transform is 1/s e-as, is
(a) tan -1 x/a (b) 2/ cot-1 x/a
(c) cot -1 x/a (d) 2/ tan-1 x/a

Q.20 Convolution of two functions is
(a) commutative but not associative

(b) Associative but not cumulative
(c) Commutative as well as associative
(d) Neither commutative nor associative

Q.21 0 sinax / x dx, a>0 is equal to
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) /2 (d) does not exist
Q.22 The domain of the unction
f(z) = Y 0 e-xt dt + i Yn is
n=0
(a) entire complex plane except x = 0, y = 1 (b) for all X & Y
(c) x = 0, Y= +2 (d) X > 0 and -1 < Y < 1
Q.23 If f(z) = XY2 + iX2Y then choose the false statement

(a) Cauchy Riemann conditions are satisfied every where
(b) C R conditions are satisfied only at origin
(c) f exists only at origin
(d) f is no where analytic
Q.24 c dz/z + 9
2
where c is the curve I z 3i I = 4, is equal to
(a) /3 (b) - /3 (c) 0 (d) does not exist
Q.25 A box contains a tickets numbered 1 to 9. If 3 tickets are drawn from the box one at a line then
the probability that they are alternatively either odd, even, odd or even, odd, even will be
(a) 10 / 63 (b) 5/42 (c) 5/18 (d) 5/9
Q.26 If A&B are independent events then
P (AB)
(a) P(A) P(B) (b) P(A) P(B)
(c) P(A) P(B) (d) P(A) + P(B)

Q.27 A Student has to answer a multiple choice question with 5 alternatives. The prob that the
student know the answer given that he answered it correctly; is
(a) p (b) p/5 (c) 4p+1/5 (d) 5p/4p+1
Where p = prob that he knew the correct answer.
Q.28 The probability that 4 out of 3840 generators fail if the prob of failure is 1/1200; is
(a) 0.041 (b) 0.178 (c) 0.114 (d) 0.06
Q.29 Suppose a continuous random variable x has the probability density
f (x) = k (1-x2), 0<x<1,
0, elsewhere;
then k =
(a) 1 (b) 3/2 (c) 2/3 (d) -1
Q.30 Assume that 50% of all engineering students are good in mathematics. Then the prob that
among 18 engineering students at least 2 and at most 9 are good in maths ; is
(a) .5920 (b) .4073
(c) .1670 (d) .083528/3
SECTION B
Q1. Periodic signal with halfwave symmetry is:-
(a) Even signal.

(b) Odd signal.
(c) D.c signal.
(d) Neither even nor odd.
Q2. Fourier transform of d.c signal with unity strength is:-
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2()
(d) 2
Q3. Fourier transform of (t):-
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2()
(d) 2()
Q4. If x()= (- 0) then x(t):-
(a) e-j 0t
(b) (t)
(c) 1/2 ej 0t
(d) 1
Q5. Fourier transform of sgn(t):-
(a) 2/j
(b) -2/j
(c) 1
(d) 0
Q6. For a distortion less transmission through LTI system phase of H() is:-
(a) Constant.
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) Linearly dependent on
Q7. For a distortion less transmission through an LTI system amplitude of H() is:-
(a) Constant.
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) Linearly dependent on
Q8. Random signals can be modeled by:-
(a) Differential equation

(b) Difference equation
(c) Statistical parameter
(d) Integral
Q9. Power signals are the signals with:-
(a) 0<E<, P=0

(b) 0<E<, P=
(c) 0<P<, E=
(d) 0<P<, E=0
Q10. Even part of the unit step signal is:-
(a)
(b) 1
(c) 1/2sgnt
(d) 0
Q11. A coin is tossed three times, the probability of coming head two times is :-
(a) 3/8
(b) 2/8
(c) 2/4
(d) 2/6
Q12. The probability of simultaneous occurance of events A and B are:-
(a) ( ) = () ()
(b) ( ) = () + ()

(c) ( ) = () ()
(d) ( ) = [1 ()[1 ()]
Q13. If the random variables X and Y are uncorrelated then:-
(a) FX,Y(x,y)=fX(x)fY(y)
(b) Cov(x,y)=0
(c) RXY=0
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q14. A random process X(t) is called wide sense stationary if:-
(a) First order moment is constant

(b) Second order moment is constant.
(c) Autocorrelation function is independent of time.
(d) All of the above.
Q15. If random process X(t) is Ergodic then:-
(a) Statistical averages and time averages are different.

(b) Statistical averages and time averages are same.
(c) Statistical averages are greater than time averages.
(d) Both are zero.
Q16. Spectral density of white noise is:-
(a) Exponential.
(b) Uniform.
(c) Constant.
(d) Normal.
Q17. Autocorrelation of white noise is:-
(a) A delta function.

(b) Gaussian.
(c) Constant.
(d) Normal.
Q18. The noise performance of the DSB-SC carrier is:-
(a) Better than SSB-SC.

(b) Less than SSB-SC.
(c) As good as SSB-SC.
(d) None of the above.
Q19. Quadrature Amplitude modulation (QAM) is used :-
(a) For transmitting only one message signal.

(b) For transmitting two message signals with twice transmission bandwidth requirement.
(c) For transmitting two message signals using the same transmission bandwidth.
Q20. Thermal noise is independent of:-

(a) Bandwidth
(b) Temperature
(c) Center frequency
(d) Boltzmans constant
Q21. An FM signal with a modulation index of 9 is applied to a frequency tripler. The
modulation index in the output signal will be:-
(a) 0
(b) 3
(c) 9
(d) 27
Q22. In commercial T.V transmission in India, picture and speech signal are modulated
respectively as:-
(a) VSB and VSB

(b) VSB and SSB
(c) VSM and FM
(d) FM and VSB
Q23. If the signal g(t) has energy E, the energy of the signal g(2t) is equal to:-
(a) E
(b) E/2
(c) 2E
(d) 4E
Q24. The amplitude spectrum of a Gausssian pulse is:
(a) Uniform.
(b) A sine function.
(c) Gaussian.
(d) An impulse function.
Q25. The envelope detector is a/an:-

(a) Synchronous detector
(b) Asynchronous detector
(C) Product demodulator
(d) Coherent detector
Q26. In phase modulation, the frequency deviation is:-
(a) Independent of the modulating signal frequency.
(b) Inversely proportional to the modulating signal frequency.
(c) Directly proportional to the modulating signal frequency.
(d) Inversely proportional to the square root of the modulating frequency.
Q27. Pre-emphasis in FM system involves:-
(a) Compression of modulating signal.
(b) Expansion of modulating signal.
(c) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
(d) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
Q28. The noise at the input to an ideal frequency detector is white. The detector is operating
above threshold. The power spectral density(psd) of the noise at the output is:-
(a) Raised cosine.
(b) Flat.
(c) Parabolic.
(d) Gaussian.
Q29. The maximum power efficiency of an AM modulator is:-
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%
Q30. The Fourier transform of a real valued time signal has:-
(a) Odd symmetry.
(b) Even symmetry.
(c) Conjugate symmetry.
(d) No symmetry.
(1) Overflow and underflow refer to conditions in

(a) Stacks (c) Threads
(b) Process (d) None of the above
(2) _________________ is the Data Structure that is to be used when there is great deal of
data modification.
(a) Sorted array (c) Graphs
(b) linked list (d) unsorted array
(3) Merge sort requires at most _______________ passes to sort an N element array A.
(a) log n (c) 2n
(b) n log n (d) n+1
(4) Suppose A is an array of [N] elements in memory and we use selection sort to sort these
[N] elements. The array A is sorted after
(a) N passes (c) (N+1) passes
(b) N-1 passes (d) N/2 passes
(5) The complexity of Insertion sort in worst case is given by
(a) n(n-1) (c) n(n+1)
2 2
(b) n(n-1) (d) n(n+1)

4 4
(6) A graph is said to be _______________, if for any pair u, v of nodes in G, if there is a

path from u to v (or) a path from v to u.
(a) Strongly connected (c) Unilaterally connected
(b) Loosely connected (d) Bi laterally connected
(7) A connected graph T without any cycles is called __________ .
(a) Complete Tree (c) Isolated
(b) Free Tree (d) unique Tree
(8) If the value at [N] is greater than (or) equal to the value at each of the children of N, then
that tree is called
(a) Binary search Tree (c) 2 Tree
(b) General Tree (d) Heap

(9) If two binary trees T and T1 have the same structure and have the same contents at the
corresponding nodes, then they are called
(a) Similar (c) Complete
(b) Copies (d) None of the above
(10) In sequential representation of a tree with depth (d), we will require an array with
approximately
(a) 2d elements (c) 2d elements
(b) 2d-1 elements (d) 2d+1 elements
(11) A terminal node is called a
(a) leaf (c) edge node
(b) brunch (d) son
(12) A linear list in which elements can be added (or) removed at either end but not in the
middle.
(a) Priority Queue (c) Queue
(b) De-que (d) Stack
(13) Convert the following arithmetic infix expression. Q into its equivalent postfix expression.
Q : A+(B*C-(D/E F)*G)*H)
(a) ABC*D*EF /G*-H+ (c) ABC*DEF/G*-H*+

(b) AB+C*DEF /G*-H* (d) ABC*DEF /G*-H*+
(14) 5 =
(a) 2 (c) 3
(b) 2.4 (d) 2.5
(15) -8.5 =
(a) -9 (c) -8
(b) 8 (d) 8.5
(16) In complexity theory, the maximum value of f(n) for any possible input represents .
(a) Best Case (c) Average Case
(b) Worst Case (d) None of the above
(17) In a sequential representation of a Binary Tree, if a node N occupies TREE [K], then
its right child is stored in
(a) TREE[2*K+1] (c) TREE[1]
(b) TREE [2*K] (d) None of the above
(18) The inorder traversal is sometime called as
(a) NLR traversal (c) LNR traversal
(b) LRN traversal (d) RLN traversal
(19) If NE represents No of external Nodes and NI represent No of Internal Nodes, then one
of the following is true.
(a) NE = NI-1 (c) NE = NI+1
(b) NE = NI (d) NI + NE = 1
(20) A matrix A that contains entries of only 0 and 1 is called a
(a) Adjacency Matrix (c) Symmetric Matrix
(b) Path Matrix (d) Bit Matrix
(21) The condition is known as _______________, when there is no room for a new item in a
Queue during PUSH operation.
(a) Underflow (c) Overflow
(b) Medium flow (d) None of the above
(22) The post order from of the given Tree.
(a) DBFEAGCLJHK. (c) EBDFAKAJLGC.
(b) DFEBGLJKHCA. (a) None of the above.
A
B C
D E G H
F J K
(23) One of the following is not a hashing function.
(a) Diversion method
(b) Midsquare method
(c) Folding method
(d) Chaining method

(24) In tree construction which is the suitable efficient data structure?
(a) Array
(b) Linked list
(c) Stack
(d) Queue
(25) How many different trees are possible with 10 nodes ?
(a) 1014 (c) 1000
(c) 10 (d) 1024
1. An open loop control system has its

(a) control action independent of the output or desired quantity
(b) controlling action, depending upon human judgment
(c) internal system changes automatically taken care of
(d) None of the above
2. The major disadvantage of a feedback system may be
(a) Inaccuracy
(b) inefficiency
(c) Unreliability
(d) instability
3. Properties of a transfer function
(a) It is ratio of Laplace Transform of output to input and assumes zero initial conditions
(b) It depends on system elements and not input and output of the system
(c) Coefficients of the powers of S in denominator and numerator are all real constant. The order
of denominator is usually greater than or equal to the order of numerator
(d) It is a function which transfer one physical system into another physical system.
4. Two blocks G1(s) and G2(s) can be cascaded to get resultant transfer function as
(a) G1(s) + G2(s)
(b) G1(s) / G2(s)
(c) G1(s) G2(s)
(d) 1+G1(s) G2(s)
5. The principles of super position and time invariance can be applied to
(a) linear time invariant system
(b) non-linear time invariant system
(c) digital control system
(d) both (a) and (b)
6. Signal flow graph (SFG) is a
(a) polar graph
(c) log log graph
(d) a special type of graph for analyzing modem control system
(e) a topological representation of a set of differential equations
7. Step signal is a
(a) signal whose value changes from zero to A at t= 0 and remains constant at A for t>0.
(b) signal whose value increases linearly with time from an initial value of zero at t=0.
(c) signal whose value varies as a square of time from an initial value of zero at t=0.
8. Open loop systems are
(a) Innaccurate
(b) Simple and economical
(c) generally stable
(d) All of the above
9. Pick up false statement. Routh-Hurwitz criterion
(a) is used for determining stability of a system
(b) is an algebraic procedure
(c) gives the exact location of roots of the characteristic equation
(d) does not indicate relative degree of stability or instability
10. Which of the following is the time domain method of determining stability of a control
system
(a) Bode plot
(b) Nyquist plot
(c) Nicholos chart
(d) Routh-Hurwitz array
(f) Root locus technique
11. Bode plot is drawn on
(a) semi log graph paper
(b) log log graph paper
(c) polar graph paper
(d) centimeter graph paper
12. If the gain margin is positive and the phase margin is negative the system is
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) indeterminist
(d) Marginal Stable
13. The valid relation between setting time ts and rise time tr is
(a) tr>ts
(b) ts>tr
(c) ts=tr
(d) none of these
14. As a root moves further away from imaginary axis the stability
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) not affected
(d) none of these
15. Human system can be considered as
(a) open loop system
(b) close loop system with single feedback
(c) close loop system with multivariable feedback
(d) none of these
16. Transfer function of a system is defined as the ratio of output to input in
(a) Laplace transform
(b) Z-transform
(c) Fourier transform
(d) Simple algebraic form
17. Which of the following is a closed loop system
(a) electric switch
(b) Washing Machine
(c) Artillery Gun
(d) auto-pilot for an aircraft
18. A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero is
(a) highly stable
(b) highly oscillatory
(c) relatively stable
(d) none of these
19. The type-0 system has
(a) net pole at the origin
(b) no pole at the origin
(c) simple at one origin
(d) two poles at the origin
20. A signal is said to be energy signal
(a) if it have finite energy and zero power.
(b) if it have infinite energy and finite power.
(c) if it is nonsymmetrical signal.
(d) If all the above conditions are satisfied
21. The main advantages of Bode plot is
(a) Multiplication of magnitude can be in to addition.
(b) A simple method for sketching an approximate log curve is available.
(c) It is based on asymptotic approximation.
22. The time domain specifications are
(a) Delay time
(b) Rise time
(c) Peak time
23. A servo system must have
(a) feedback system
(b) power amplifier to amplify error
(c) capacity to control position or its derivative
(d) none of these
24. Delay time is
(a) the time taken for response to reach 50% of final value for the very first time.
(b) the time taken for response to reach from 0% to 100% for the very first time.
(c) the time taken for the response to reach the peak value for the first time.
(d) the time taken by the response to reach and stay within specified error
25. The constants associated with a steady state error

(a) Positional error constant
(b) Velocity error constant
(c) Acceleration error constant
26. In a feedback system the transient response
(a) Decays at constant rate
(b) gets magnified
(c) decays slowly
(d) decays more quickly
27. How many decades are between 10 rad/sec and 1000 rad/sec
(a) Two decades
(b) One decades
(c) Four decades
(d) None decades
28. Introduction of feedback decreases the effect of
(a) disturbances
(b) noise signals
(c) error signals
(d) all the above
29. What is the effect of PD controller on system performance?
(a) to increase the damping ratio of the system and so the peak overshoot is reduced.
(b) to reduce the steady state error.
(c) to produce corrective measures for any constant error.
30. The test signals used in control systems are
(a) impulse step
(b) ramp
(c) step
(d) all of the above
1. The min term designation for ABCD is:
(a)m0 (b) m10 (c) m14 (d) m15

2. Convert the given decimal (457) into gray code form.
(a)(100101101) (b)(100111010) (c)(001100111) (d)(101110110)
3. A TTL circuit with totem pole output has:
(a) High output impedance (b) low output impedance (c) very high output impedance
4. TTL uses
(a) Multi emitter transistors (b) multi collector transistors (c) multi base transistors
(d) Multi emitter or collector transistors
5. Advanced schottky is a part of:
(a) ECL family (b) CMOS family (c) TTL family (d) none of above
6. For wired AND connection we should use
(a) TTL gates with active pull up (b) TTL gates with open collector
(c) TTL gates without active pull up and with open collector
(d) any of above
7. Which of the following is true
(a) SOP is a two level logic (b) POS is a two level logic
(c) Both SOP and POS are two level logic
(d) Hybrid function is two level logic
8. The problem of logic race occurs in
(a) SOP functions (b) Hybrid functions (c) POS functions
(d) SOP and POS functions
9. In which function is each term known as min term
(a) SOP (b) POS (c) Hybrid (d) both SOP and POS
10. In which function is each term known as max term
(a) SOP (b) POS (c) Hybrid (d) both SOP and Hybrid
11. In the expression A+BC, the total number of min terms will be
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
12. Identify the logic operation performed by the circuit given below
(a) NOT (b) AND (c) OR (d) NAND
13. How many inputs are required for a 1-of-10 BCD decoder?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 1
14. Select one of the following statements that best describes the parity method of error
detection:
(a) Parity checking is best suited for detecting single-bit errors in transmitted codes.
(b) Parity checking is best suited for detecting double-bit errors that occur during the
transmission of codes from one location to another.
(c) Parity checking is not suitable for detecting single-bit errors in transmitted codes.
(d) Parity checking is capable of detecting and correcting errors in transmitted codes.
15. The observation that a bubbled input OR gate is interchangeable with a bubbled output
AND gate is referred to as:
(a) a Karnaugh map
(b) DeMorgan's second theorem
(c) the commutative law of addition
(d) he associative law of multiplication
16. The difference between a PLA and a PAL is:
(a) The PLA has a programmable OR plane and a programmable AND plane, while the PAL
only has a programmable AND plane.
(b) The PAL has a programmable OR plane and a programmable AND plane, while the PLA
only has a programmable AND plane.
(c) The PAL has more possible product terms than the PLA.
(d) PALs and PLAs are the same thing.

17. Each programmable array logic (PAL) gate product is applied to an OR gate and, if
combinational logic is desired, the product is ORed and then:
(a) the polarity fuse is restored
(b) sent to an inverter for output
(c) sent immediately to an output pin
(d) passed to the AND function for output
18. How many flip-flops are required to make a MOD-32 binary counter?
(a) 3 (b) 45 (c) 5 (d) 6
19. Using four cascaded counters with a total of 16 bits, how many states must be deleted to
achieve a modulus of 50,000?
(a) 50,000 (b) 65,536 (c) 25,536 (d) 15,536
20. A MOD-12 and a MOD-10 counter are cascaded. Determine the output frequency if the
input clock frequency is 60 MHz.
Q.1 The cross over distortion in a class B amplifier is prevented by:
(a) biasing the individual transistors deeply into cutoff
(b) biasing the transistors just slightly above cutoff
(c) biasing the transistors just slightly into cutoff
(d) by adjusting the load resistance so that the transistor will turn on and off faster
Q.2 Class C amplifiers:
(a) usually contain two transistors
(b) usually contain an LC tank circuit in the BJT collector circuit
(c) usually contain a single BJT that conducts through 360 degrees of the ac input cycle
(d) usually contain a single BJT that conducts through 270 degrees of the ac input cycle
Q.3 Class D amplifiers have a maximum theoretical efficiency of:
(a) 25 % (b) 78.5% (c) 50% (d) over 90%

Q.4 Calculate the voltage gain for voltage series feedback when the amplifier gain is A = -
2000 and = -1/50.
(a) Gain ~ -2000 (b) Gain ~ -1/50 (c) Gain ~ 50 (d) Gain ~ -48.75
Q.5 At the______ a crystal acts as an open circuit
(a) series-resonant frequency (b) parallel-resonant frequency
(c) non-resonant frequency (d) none of the above
Q.6 Which of these is an application of the 555 IC?
(a) Astable multivibrator (b) A/D converter
(c) D/A converter (d) Comparator
Q.7 Which of these is an application of the 566 IC?
(a) Monostable multivibrator (b) VCO
(c) Comparator (d) Astable multivibrator
Q.8 The low frequency response of a BJT amplifier is affected by:
(a) the BJT internal capacitances (b) the supply voltage
(c) the coupling and bypass capacitor values (d) all of the above
Q.9 The input value of freq f1 for a FET amplifier will normally be ________ the input value
of freq f1 for a comparable BJT amplifier.
(a) similar to (b) much lower than (c) greater than (d) less than or equal to
Q.10 The overall bandwidth for a double tuned amplifier with optimum coupling of 0.02, and a
resonant frequency of 1 MHz is:
(a) 33 kHz (b) 30 kHz (c) 32 kHz (d) 31 kHz
(a) 500 kHz (b) 1,500 kHz (c) 6 MHz (d) 5 MHz
1. In which year the first operating system was developed

(a) 1910
(b) 1940
(c). 1950
(d). 1980
2. MS-DOS developed in
(a) 1991
(b) 1984
(c.) 1971
(d) 1961
3. CHKDSK command is used to
(a) Analyze the hard disk error
(b) Diagnose the hard disk error
(c) Report the status of files on disk
4. FAT stands for
(a) File Accomodation Table
(b) File Access Tape
(c) File Allocation Table
(d) File Activity Table
5. Format command is used to
(a) Prepare a blank disk
(b) Create a new blank disk from a used one
(c) Both of above
(d) None of above
6. UNIVAC is
(a) Universal Automatic Computer
(b) Universal Array Computer
(c) Unique Automatic Computer
(d) Unvalued Automatic Computer
7. VGA is
(a) Video Graphics Array
(b) Visual Graphics Array
(c) Volatile Graphics Array
(d) Video Graphics Adapter
8. MSI stands for
(a) Medium Scale Integrated Circuits
(b) Medium System Integrated Circuits
(c) Medium Scale Intelligent Circuit
(d) Medium System Intelligent Circuit
9. MICR stands for
(a) Magnetic Ink Character Reader
(b) Magnetic Ink Code Reader
(c) Magnetic Ink Cases Reader
(d) None
10. EBCDIC stands for
(a) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
(b) Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code
(c). Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code
(d) Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange Code
11. Chief component of first generation computer was
(a) Transistors
(b) Vacuum Tubes and Valves
(c) Integrated Circuits
(d) None of above
12. FORTRAN is
(a) File Translation
(b) Format Translation
(c) Formula Translation
(d) Floppy Translation
13. EEPROM stand for
(a) Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
(b) Easily Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
(c) Electronic Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
14. Which of the following devices can be sued to directly image printed text?
(a) OCR
(b) OMR
(c) MICR
(d) All of above
15. The output quality of a printer is measured by
(a) Dot per inch
(b) Dot per sq. inch
(c) Dots printed per unit time
(d) All of above
16. In analog computer
(a) Input is first converted to digital form
(b) Input is never converted to digital form
(c) Output is displayed in digital form
(d) All of above
17. In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed
(a) Parallel only
(b) Sequentially only
(c) Both sequentially and parallel
(d) All of above
18. The instructions for starting the computer are house on
(a) Random access memory
(b) CD-Rom
(c) Read only memory chip
(d) All of above
19.. The ALU of a computer normally contains a number of high speed storage element
called
(a) Semiconductor memory
(b) Registers
(c) Hard disks
(d) Magnetic disk
20. In which language is source program written?
(a) English
(b) Symbolic
(c) High level
(d) Temporary
21. Which of the following terms is the most closely related to main memory?
(a) Non volatile
(b) Permanent
(c) Control unit
(d). Temporary
22. The metal disks, which are permanently housed in, sealed and contamination free
containers are called
(a) Hard disks
(b) Floppy disk
(c) Winchester disk
(d) Flexible disk
23. Which of the following is a way to access secondary memory?
(a) Random access memory
(b)Action method
(c) Transfer method
(d) Density method
24. Which of the following memories allows simultaneous read and write operations?
(a) ROM
(b) RAM
(c) EPROM
(d) None of above
25. Which of the following are (is) considered to be video component?
(a) Resolution
(b) Color depth
(c) Refresh rate
(d) All of the alcove
26. The difference between memory and storage is that memory is . and storage is
(a) Temporary, permanent
(b) Permanent, temporary
(c) Slow, fast
(d) All of above
27. A floppy disk contains
(a) Circular tracks only
(b) Sectors only
(c) Both circular tracks and sectors
28. Ethernet uses
(a) Bus topology
(b) Ring topology
(c) Mesh topology
29. The term baud is a measure of the:
(a) speed at which data travels over the communication line
(b) memory capacity
(c) instruction execution time
(d) all of the above
30. A bootstrap is:
(a) a memory device
(b) a device to support the computer
(c) an error correction technique
Q1. Operating wavelength window of 1550nm is not yet in use with fibre optic system because;-
(a) Loss in fiber is higher at 1300 nm.

(b) Suitable Laser devices have not yet been obtained.
(c) Wavelength multiplexing is not possible at this wavelength.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Q2. Total internal reflections can take place when light travels from:-
(a) Diamond to glass.

(b) Water to glass.
(c) Air to water.
(d) Air to glass.
Q3. The colour of LED can be changed by:-
(a) Using different band gap semiconductor.

(b) By changing the doping level of the semiconductor.
(c) By increasing applied voltage.
Q4. Optical communication is feasible only in IR range because:-
(a) It offers minimum dispersion.

(b) It offers minimum attenuation.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Q5. Material dispersion of an optical fiber vanishes if:-
(a) Refractive index of the core varies linearly with wavelength.

(b) Refractive index of core remains constant with wavelength.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Q6. In comparison to LED, Laser has:-
(a) No tuning arrangements.

(b) Higher emission efficiency.
(c) Narrow spectral width.
(d) Provision for confinement.
Q7. A cable that offers lowest dispersion is:-
(a) SMSI
(b) MMSI
(c) MMGI
(d) None of these.
Q8. A graded index profile in optical fiber cable provides:-
(a) Less waveguide dispersion than SI profile.

(b) Less material dispersion than SI profile.
(c) Less attenuation in SI profile.
(d) Less modal dispersion than SI profile.
Q9. Normalised frequency (v) for a single mode cable is:-
(a) v2.4
(b) 2.4v3.8
(c) v2.4
(d) 0v3.8
Q10. Which of the semiconductor can be used to fabricate a LED.:-
(a) Si
(b) Ge
(c) GaAs
(d) None of these
Q11. Which of the following condition should be obeyed by every LASER:-
(a) Rate of stimulated emission should be greater than the rate of spontaneous emission.
(b) There should be no spontaneous emission.
(c) Rate of stimulated emission should be equal to the rate of spontaneous emission.
(d) There should be no stimulated emission.
Q12. Noise equivalent power of a photo detector is:-
(a) Inversely proportional to the dark current.

(b) Proportional to the square root of the dark current.
(c) Directly proportional to the dark current.
Q13. To be used as photodiode PIN diode should be connected:-
(a) Forward bias.

(b) Reverse bias
(c) Zero bias.
(d) Either (a) or (c).
Q14. Modulation used in fiber optic are :-
(a) BPSK
(b) QPSK
(c) ASK and PCM
(d) None.
Q15. The light propagates along fiber by:-
(a) Total internal reflection.

(b) Total internal refraction.
Q16. The ability of a receiver used in optical fiber communication is to achieve a certain performance
levels depends on:-
(a) Type of photo-detector.

(b) Effect of noise in the system.
(c) The characteristics of the successive amplifying stages.
(d) All the three mentioned above.
Q17. At critical angle of incidence:-
(a) Light ray in air is perpendicular to the glass surface.

(b) Light ray in air is parallel to the glass surface.
(c) There ray in air is 45 degrees to the glass surface.
Q18. Refraction of light ray at the interface is a result of:-
(a) Difference in speed of light in two materials having same refractive indices.
(b) Same speed of light in two materials having difference in refractive indices.
(c) Difference in speed of light in two materials having different refractive indices.
Q19. Which of the following is having the highest refractive index:-
(a) Diamond.
(b) Air
(c) Water
(d) Glass
Q20. An optical repeater consists of:-
(a) Series of receivers.

(b) Series of transmitters.
(c) A receiver and transmitter placed back to back.
Q21. Photo detector is a :-
(a) Triangular device.

(b) Square law device.
(c) Linear device.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Q22. Photo detectors used in optical fiber is:-
(a) PIN, APDs

(b) PIN, Gunn diodes
(c) APD, Gunn diodes.
Q23. In the wavelength range (11-16) m , the principal optical source material is:-
(a) In GaAsBr
(b) In GaAsF
(c) In GaAsP
(d) None of (a), (b) and (c).
Q24. In the first window of optical fiber, light sources are generally
(a) GaAlP
(b) GaAlBr
(c) GaAlAs
(d) GeAlAs
Q25. Distance bandwidth product is maximum in :-
(a) Step index multimode fiber.

(b) GI multimode fiber.
(c) Single mode fiber.
Q26. Dispersion in silica fibers is minimum at wavelength:-
(a) 850 nm
(b) 1300 nm
(c) 1550 nm
(d) 650 nm
Q27. -23 dBm indicates a power of :-
(a) 23 mwatts
(b) 10 mwatts
(c) 5 watts
(d) 35 mwatts
Q28. Responsivity of a photodiode is specified as:-
(a) Amps/watts
(b) Watts/amp
(c) Volts/watt
(d) Watts/volt.
Q29. Graded index fiber with the following value of index profile, (), results in minimum
dispersions:-
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q30. Spectral width of LED is typically:-
(a) 20-100 nm.

(b) 1-10 nm.
(c) 500-1000 nm.
(d) 1000-1500nm.
Q1. Bidirectional Label Switched Path is a concept used for bidirectional data flow in
a) Frame Relay
b) Carrier Ethernet
c) GMPLS
d) ATM
Q2. A label in MPLS is carried between _______ & _______ headers of the packet.
a) Layer 2 and Layer 3
b) Layer 1 and Layer 2
c) Layer 3 and Layer4
d) Layer 4 and Layer 5
Q3. TETRA supports unprotected data upto _____ kbps and protected data upto
_______ kbps
a) 28.8 and 9.6/19.2
b) 64 and 32
c)128 and 19.2/28.8
d) 128 and 64
Q4. A single RF carrier in TETRA is of net _________ kbps data rate and is divided in
to 4 logical channels of __________kbps each.
a) 33.6 and 7.2

b) 28.8 and 7.2
c) 32 and 8
d) 64 and 9.6
Q5. Single Bus speed in Passport 7480 is
a) 800 mbps
b) 600 mbps
c) 155mbps
d) 8 mbps
Q6 The speed on the Ethernet port on CP card of Passport 7480 is
a) 19.2 mbps
b) 10 mbps
c) 8 mbps
d) 2 mbps
Q7. In Carrier Ethernet a multipoint service connecting one or more roots and a set of
leaves, but preventing inter-leaf communication is
a) E Line
b) E tree
c) E LAN
d) E virtual private LAN
Q8. In Carrier Ethernet for traffic engineering frames will be discarded if the number of
frames
a) Exceed Committed Information Rate
b) Exceeds Maximum rate
c) Exceed maximum rate but within Committed Information Rate
d) Exceed Committed Information Rate but within maximum rate
Q9. In control plane of the Frame Relay architecture

a) Signalling is done over B channel for establishment of virtual calls over D, B and H
channels
b) Signalling is done over D channel for establishment of virtual calls over D, B

and H channels
c) Signalling is done over H channel for establishment of virtual calls over D, B and H
channels
d) Signalling is done over B and H channels for establishment of virtual calls over D, B
and H channels
Q10. Frame relaying
i) Is a reliable multiplexed service
ii) is a ack service
iii) has flow control mechanism
a) Statement (i) and (ii) are correct
b) Statement (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) Statement (i) and (iii) are correct
d) All statements are correct
e) All statements are incorrect
Q11. In Frame Relay no commitment of network on delivery of frames on a particular

connection implies
a) Committed Information Rate =0
b) Committed information Rate = 1
c) Committed information Rate = -1
d) Committed information Rate =
Q12. For Consolidated Link Layer Management in Frame Relay, a separate DLCI
number _______ is reserved for sending link layer control messages from the network
to the user device.
a) 1024
b) 1023
c) 1022
d) 1021
Q13. Provider Backbone Bridging with Traffic Engineering is a technology used in
a) ATM
b) Frame Relay
c) Carrier Ethernet
d) MPLS
Q14.Generic Flow Control field in ATM header is used
a) For User to Network Interface only
b) For Network to Network Interface only
c) For both User to Network Interface and Network to Network Interface
d) None of the above
Q1. The theoretical radiation resistance of a half wave dipole is
a) 36.5 ohms
b) 100ohms
c) 73 ohms
d) 50 ohms
Q2. Short circuited stubs are preferred to open-circuited stubs because the latter are
a) More difficult to make and correct
b) made of a transmission line with a different ZO
c) liable to radiate
d) incapable of giving a full range of reactance
Q3. Stub matching eliminates standing waves on

a) load side
b) transmitter side
c) both sides of stub
d) none
Q3.For a transmission line with L >> R and C >> G, phase constant is
a) proportional to frequency
b) constant
c) inversely proportional to frequency
d) proportional to velocity
Q4. Which of the following antennas is best excited from a waveguide?
a) biconical
b) horn
c) helical
d) discone
Q5. In a distortion less line, propagation constant is
a) directly proportional to frequency
b) inversely proportional to frequency
c) independent of frequency
d) independent of primary constants
Q6.A matching stub should be
a) nearest to load
b) nearest to transmission end
c) mid-way between both
d) anywhere between two
Q7.The reflection coefficient on a shorted transmission line

a) -1
b) +1
c) 0
d) infinity
Q8.The characteristic impedance ZO equals
a) ZOC / ZSC
b) ZSC / ZOC
c) (ZSC / ZOC)1/2
d) (ZSC.ZOC) 1/2
Q9. If a loss less line of 50 ohms terminated in a load Zl has VSWR = 2.0 and the
voltage maxima occurs with the load, the Zl is
a) 25 ohms
b) 50 ohms
c) 100 ohms
d) 150 ohms.
Q10. A (75- j50) load is connected to a coaxial transmission line of Zo = 75 at 10

GHz. The best method of matching consists in connecting
a) a short circuit stub at the load
b) an inductance at the load
c) a capacitance at some specific distance from the load
d) a short circuited stub at some specific distance from the load
Q11. Impedance inversion may be obtained by a
a) half wave line.
b) full wave line
c) quarter wave line
d) all of the above

Q12. Helical antenna is
a) circularly polarized
b) horizontally polarised
c) elliptically polarised
d) vertically polarised
Q13. For transmission line matching over a wide range of frequencies it is best to use
a ________
a) double stub.
b) single stub.
c) quarter wave transformer.
d) all of the above
Q14. In a transmission line terminated with a load equal to the characteristic

impedance, the reflection coefficient is ___
a) 1
b) -1
c) infinity
d) 0
Q15. Input impedance of a shorted lossless line of length / 4 is ________
a) 0
b) infinity
c) 1
d) None of the above
Q16. On a transmission line with standing waves, the distance between a voltage
maxima and adjacent current maxima is _______
a) / 4
b) / 2
c) / 8
d)
Q17. If the spacing between the wires of a transmission line is increased, its
characteristic impedance will__________
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain the same
d) become zero
Q18. There will be no reflection in a transmission line if it is terminated by an

impedance _________.
a) equal to the characteristic impedance
b) greater than the characteristic impedance
c) equal to the input impedance
d) greater than the input impedance
cryptography
1. In the Known-Text attack, the cryptanalyst knows.
(a) Encryption algorithm.
(b) Cipher text
(c) One or more plaintext, cipher text pairs formed with the secret key.
2. In the Cipher Text only attack, the cryptanalyst knows .
(a) Encryption algorithm (c) Both of the above
(b) Cipher text (d) None of the above
3. If the time required to break the cipher exceeds the useful lifetime of the
information, then the encryption scheme is said to be.
(a) Computationally Secure (c) Conditionally Secure
(b) Unconditionally Secure (d) None of the above
4. The characteristic of Caeser cipher that enables us to use bruteforce

cryptanalysis is
(a) Encryption and decryption algorithm are known.
(b) There are only 25 keys to try.
(c) The language of the plain text is known and recognizable
5. The methods used to conceal the existence of the massage is said to be.
(a) Cryptography (c) Cryptology
(b) Steganography (d) Cryptanalysis.
6. The methods used to render the message unintelligible to outsiders by various

transformations is said to be.
(a) Cryptography (c) Cryptology
(b) Steganography (d) Cryptanalysis
7. If me limit ourselves to reversible mappings in block cipher, then the number of

different transformation is ( n is the number of bits)
(a) 2n (c) 2n !
(b) n (d) 2n/2
8. The total number of rounds used for encryption in D E S is
(a) 16 (b) 24
(c) 8 (d) 15
9. The block size of the input plain text in D E S is
(a) 48 bits (b) 64 bits
(c ) 56 bits (d) 28 bits

10. The size of the key fed to each round after permuted choice 2 in D E S is
(a) 48 bits (b) 64 bits
(c) 56 bits (d) 28 bits
11. The possible approaches to attack the RSA algorithm is.
(a) Brute Force (c) Timingng attacks
(b) Mathematical Attacks (d) All of the above
12. Insertion of massage into the network from a fraudulent source is called.
(a) Content modification (c) Source repudiation
(b) Masquerade (d) Destination repudiation
13. ----------------- does not use a key but is a function only of the input massage.
(a) Message Digest (c) Message encryption
(b) MAC (d) None of the above
14. The algorithm used for digital signature in PGP services is
(a) RSA (c) Radix 64 conversion
(b) CAST (d) IDEA
15. In order to enable the recipient to determine of the correct public key was used to
decrypt the massage digest for authentication , the following is used to compare the
plain text copy with decrypted digest .
(a) Trailing two Octets (c) Leading two octets
(b) First and last octet (d) Only the First octet
16. In Encapsulating security payoad packet, the security association is identified by
(a) Sequence number (c) Security number
(b) Security Parameter Index (d) AH information
17. In SSL, the master secret represents
(a) An X509.V3 certificate of the peer
(b) 48 bytes shared between the client and server

(c) Algorithm used to encrypt the data.
18. System designed to lure a potential attacker away from critical systems are
called.
(a) Nuke (c) Malware
(b) Honey Pots (d) None of the above
19. A virus that mutates with every infection, Making detection by the signature of the
virus impossible
(a) Stealth virus (c) Metamorphic virus
(b) Polymorphic virus (d) Parasite virus
20. A worm executes a copy of itself on another system using.
(a) Remote execution capability.
(b) Electronic Mail facility
(c) Remote login capability
21. One of following is not a part of Security Services.
(a) Authentication (c) Traffic padding
(b) Access control (d) Data Integrity
22 The algorithm used for e-mail compatibility in PGP is
(a) Radix 64 (c) Z IP
(b) DSS (d) CAST
23. The session key encryption for S/MIME cryptographic algorithms.
(a) ElGamal and RSA (c) SHA1 and MDS

(b) DSA and RSA (d) None of the above
24. The firewalls that takes the basic principle of pkt filtering and adds the concept of
history, so that the firewall considers the pkt in context of previous pkts is.
(a) Stateful inspection (c) Application Gateway
(b) Circuit relay (d) NAT
25. The attack in which the malicious host controls the flow of communication and
can eliminate or alter the information sent by one of the original participants
without the knowledge of sender or recipient is called.
(a) Blind Spoofing (c) Denial of service attack
(b) Man in the middle attack (d) Non-blind spoofing
26. ------ has the capacity to travel from one computer to another without any human
action.
(a) Virus (c) Trojan
(b) Worm (d) Spyware
27. If Caesar was from Japan then in how many combination can a cipher text
msg be broken
(i) 1945
(ii) 1944!
(iii) 1944 X 1945
(iv) 1944
Hint: Japanese language has 1945 characters.
1. The maximum possible value of Entropy is:

(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) infinite
2. Redundancy in Communication System:
(a) reduces efficiency of communication (b) helps to detect errors
(b) helps to correct errors (d) all of the above
3. In order to get back the original signal from the sampled signal, it is necessary to use:
(a) low pass filter (b) band pass filter
(c) high pass filter (d) band reject filters
4. In communication, the sampling technique leads to:
(a) higher efficiency (b) higher speed of communication
(c) cheaper equipment (d) all of the above
5. The adverse effect of noise in a communication system is maximum in:
(a) encoder (b) channel (c) receiver (d) source
6. If X and Y are two independent Gaussian random variables, each with average value
zero with variance 62 , the joint density function is defined as:
(a) f(X,Y) = f(X) + f(Y) (b) f(X,Y) = f(X) . f(Y)
(c) f(X,Y) = f(X) - f(Y) (d) (c) f(X,Y) = f(X) / f(Y)
7. Amount of information in a continuous signal is:
(a) zero (b) 2-bits (c) 4-bits (d) infinite
8. Entropy is basically measure of:
(a) rate of information (b) average information
(c) probability of information (d) disorder of information
9. The auto-correlation function of white noise is:
(a) step function (b) impulse function (c) Gaussian function
(d) constant
10. Channel information is exactly equal to:

(a) bandwidth of demand (b) amount of information per sec
(c) noise rate in the demand (d) none of the above
11. If the sampling time is less than the Nyquist interval:
(a) simpler filters can be used to obtain the original signal
(b) bandwidth increases (c) channel capacity increases
(d) guard time becomes less
12. A signal of maximum frequency of 10 kHz is sampled at Nyquist rate. The time interval
between two successive samples is:
(a) 50 s (b) 100 s (a) 1000 s (a) 5 s
13. If the probability of PK of a message is 1/8, then the information in bits is:
(a) 1 bit (b) 2 bits (c) 3 bits (d) 4 bits
14. For a Gaussian process, auto-correlation also implies:
(a) statistical dependence (b) statistical independence
(c) ergodic process (d) none of the above
15. In a PCM system, signal is sampled at a rate fs and the number of pulses in one code-
group is p. The the number of pulses per second is:
(a) fs (b) pfs (c) fs/p (d) p/fs
16. The bandwidth needed for transmitting 4 kHz signal using PCM with 128 quantising
levels is:
(a) 4 kHz (a) 16 kHz (a) 28 kHz (a) 64 kHz
17. To demodulate PCM, it is first converted into:
(a) PWM (b) PPM (c) PAM (d) PDM
18. In PCM, for 128 standard quantising levels, the maximum error will be:
(a) 1/128 of the total amplitude range (b) 1/256 of the total amplitude range
(c) 1/64 of the total amplitude range (b) 1/32 of the total amplitude range
19. The line code that has zero dc component for pulse transmission of random binary data is
(a) Non-return (b) Return to zero (c) Alternate Mark Inversion (d) None of
the above
20. Fading channel can cause
(a) Burst error (b) Fading error (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
21. Convolutional interleaving is superior to block interleaving because
(a) it requires less memory
(b) offers more flexibility
(c) Both of the above
22. Channel bandwidth requirement in QPSK reduces over BPSK by a factor of

(a) two (b) four (c) six (d) one
23. MSK has lower ISI compared to QPSK because

(a) the baseband signal is small
(b) the baseband signal is smoother
(c) both (a) and (b)
24. Schwartz inequality contain an equality condition useful for getting

(a) optimum filter relation (b) correlator relation (c) both (a) and (b)
25. The bit probability of error for PSK is same as that of

(a) QPSK (b) 16-QAM (c) FSK (d) GMSK
26. In integration and dump receiver, the integration process enhances

(a) signal and noise energy both (b) signal energy more than noise energy
(c) only signal energy irrespective of noise energy (d) none of the above
27. Which is the common attribute of FM, PCM and Spread Spectrum communication
systems
(a) data of interest occupies a bandwidth less than the minimum bandwidth necessary
to send data
(b) data of interest occupies a bandwidth in excess of the minimum bandwidth
necessary to send data
(c) data of interest occupies minimum bandwidth necessary to send data
(d) there is no common attribute
28. In Spread Spectrum communication spreading of spectrum is achieved before
transmission with use of a code that is
(a) dependent on data sequence (b) independent on data sequence
(c) dependent on data sequence and type of transmitter
(d) dependent on data sequence and type of receiver.
29. In Spread Spectrum communication a maximum length sequence generated is always

periodic with with a period of
(a) N = 2m -1 (b) N = 2m-1 (c) N = 2m 1 (d) N = 2m+1
30. In Spread Spectrum communication spreading gain is the ratio of

(a) Bit duration to Chip duration
(b) Chip duration to bit duration
(c) Bit duration in previous to next duration
1. With PAD interface, max speed of data rate in DTU is (2)
(a) 32 kb ps (b) 64 kb ps (c) 1152 kb ps (d) 288 kb ps
2. The output of DTU to RR is (2)
(a) logic 1- 0V, logic 0 - -1.5V (b) logic 1- -1.5 V, logic 0- 0V
(c) logic 1- 0V, logic 0 - + 1.5V (d) logic 1- 0V, logic 0- +1.5V
3. Max speed of TP ch wkg in DTU is (2)
(a) 300 bauds (b) 400 bauds (c) 100 bauds (d) 200 bauds
4. Eqpt DTU works at : (2)

(a) 48 V DC (b) 27 V DC (c) 48 V DC (d) 52 V DC
5. The freq of the clk reqd by a sp channel working at FBR in 12 ch mode ADM Mux will be (2)
(a) 1.8sec (b) 31.5sec (c) 3.5sec (d) 0.48 msec
Ques 1 . For parallel RLC circuit, which one of the following statements is NOT
correct?
(a) The bandwidth of the circuit deceases if R is increased.
(b) The bandwidth of the circuit remains same if L is increased
(c) At resonance, input impedance is a real quantity
(d) At resonance, the magnitude of input impedance attains its minimum

value.
Ques 2. At room temperature, a possible value for the mobility of electrons in the
inversion layer of a silicon n-channel MOSFET is
(a) 450 cm2/V-s (b) 1350 cm2/V-s (c) 1800 cm2/V-s (d) 3600 cm2/V-s
Ques 3. In the Karnaugh map shown below, which of the loops shown
represents a legal grouping?
(a) A.
(b) B.
(c) C.
(d) D.
Ques 4. Physical logic gates take a finite time to respond to changes in their
input signals. What name is given to this time?
(a) Propagation delay time.
(b) Set-up time.
(c) Rise time.
(d) Hold time.
Ques 5.The conditions for oscillation to occur are described by which of the
following?
(a) The Barkhausen criterion.
(b) Lenz's law.
(c) Nyquist's theorem.

(d) Faraday's law.
Ques 6. Calculate the frequency of oscillation of the Wien-bridge oscillator

shown here.
(a) 159 Hz.
(b) 238 Hz.
(c) 327 Hz.
(d) 424 Hz.
Ques 7. What is the function of transistor T3 in the following circuit for a

simple operational amplifier?
(a) As a current limiter.
(b) As a VBE multiplier.
(c) As a constant current source (as part of a current mirror formed with
T4).
(d) As an active load for the differential amplifier formed by T1 and T2.
Ques 8. What is meant by 'pink noise'?
(a) Most of the noise power is concentrated at high frequencies.
(b) The noise has a uniform spectrum.
(c) Most of the noise power is concentrated at low frequencies.
(d) The noise has a frequency equal to that of pink light.
Ques 9.Which of the following is not a form of multivibrator?
(a) Astable.
(b) Tristable.
(c) Bistable.
(d) Monostable.
Ques 10. A J-K flip-flop has two control inputs. What happens to the Q
output on the active edge of the clock if both control inputs are asserted
simultaneously?
(a) The Q output is set to 1.
(b) The Q output toggles to the other state.
(c) The Q output is reset to 0.
(d) The Q output remains unchanged.
Ques 11. What is the function of the following circuit?
(a) A four-bit ripple counter.
(b) A four-bit memory register.
(c) A four-bit shift register.
(d) None of above.
Ques 12. What is the frequency of the output of the following circuit?
(a) 1 Hz.
(b) 16 Hz.
(c) 4 Hz.
(d) 8 Hz.
Ques 13. What is the function of the following circuit?
(a) A modulo-6 counter.
(b) A modulo-8 counter.
(c) A modulo-10 counter.
(d) A modulo-12 counter
Ques 14. What type of logic gate is shown here?

(a) A two-input TTL AND gate.
(b) A two-input TTL OR gate.
(c) A two-input TTL NOR gate.
(d) A two-input TTL NAND gate
Ques 15. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) TTL logic has very low power consumption and is therefore widely used in
highly integrated components.
(b) Standard TTL devices have a propagation delay that is dominated by the
storage time of the bipolar transistors used.
(c) TTL devices have logic levels of about 3.4 V and 0.2 V.
(d) TTL logic normally operates from a single 5 V supply.
Ques 16. What is meant by the rise time of a waveform?
(a) The time taken for the waveform to increase from 10% to 90% of the
height of a step.
(b) The time taken for the waveform to increase from 0% to 90% of the
height of a step.
(c) The time taken for the waveform to decrease from 90% to 10% of the
height of a step.
(d) The time delay from when the input step changes by 50% to when the
output step changes by 50%.
Ques 17. What is meant by the fan-out of a logic gate?
(a) The physical distance between the output pins on the device.
(b) The amount of cooling required by the gate.
(c) The number of other gates that can be connected to one of the gate's
inputs.
(d) The number of other gates that can be connected to the gate's output
Ques 18. Which 'law' describes the exponential growth of integrated circuit
complexity?
(a) Lenz's law.
(b) Faraday's law.
(c) Nyquist's theorem.
(d) Moore's law.
Ques 19. In the following PLA, which output implements the logic function
ABCD?
(a) X
(b) Y
(c) Z
(d) None of above.
Ques 20. What would be a typical settling time for a general-purpose 8-bit
DAC?
(a) 1 to 10 nanoseconds.
(b) 100 nanoseconds to 1 microsecond.
(c) 10 to 100 microseconds.
(d) 100 microseconds to 1 millisecond.
Ques 21. What are the methods adopted to reduce Boolean function?
(a) Karnaugh map.
(b) Variable entered map technique.

(c) Tabular method or Quine Mc-Cluskey method.
Ques 22. What is meant by the droop of a sample and hold gate?
(a) The rate of decay of the output voltage.
(b) The voltage by which the input quantity is lowered during sampling.
(c) The voltage difference between the output voltage and the actual
voltage being sampled.
(d) The time taken to take a sample.
Ques 23. What is meant by a single-chip data acquisition system?
(a) A single integrated circuit containing an ADC and a DAC.
(b) A single integrated circuit containing a DAC and a demultiplexer.
(c) A single integrated circuit containing an ADC and a multiplexer.
(d) A single integrated circuit containing all the elements of a data

acquisition system.
Ques 24. What should be done with an unused TTL input that is required to be
at logical 1?
(a) It should be connected directly to the zero volt supply rail.
(b) It should be left disconnected.
(c) It should be connected directly to the positive supply rail.
(d) It should be tied to the positive supply rail through an appropriate

resistor
Ques 25. What is the cause of storage time in a bipolar transistor?
(a) The 'memory effect' of the device.

(b) The inertia of the minority charge carriers.
(c) The time taken to remove excess charge stored in the base region as a
result of saturation.
(d) The inertia of the majority charge carriers.
Ques 26. What Boolean expression describes the output X of this

arrangement?
(a) X = A + B + C
(b) X = A.(B + C)
(c) X = A + (B.C)
(d) X = (A.B) + C
Ques 27. For the output F to be 1 in the logic circuit shown, the input
combination should be
A
B
C
(a) A = 1, B= 1. C = 0 (b) A = 1, B= 0,C = 0
(c) A = 0, B= 1. C = 0 (d) A = 0, B= 0, C = 1
Ques 28. What is the most widely used method for the automated
simplification of Boolean expressions?
(a) Fast Fourier transforms.
(b) Karnaugh maps.
(c) Binary reduction.
(d) Quine-McCluskey minimisation
Ques 29.What logic function corresponds to the following arrangement?
(a) L = (S1 AND S2) OR (S3 AND S4).
(b) L = S1 OR (S2 AND S3) OR S4.
(c) L = (S1 OR S2) AND (S3 OR S4).
(d) L = S1 AND (S2 OR S3) AND S4.
Ques 30. Assuming that flip-flops are in reset condition initially, the
count sequence observed at QA in the circuit shown is
Output
DA QA DB QB DC QC
QA QB QC
Clock
(a) 0010111 (b) 0001011 (c) 0101111 (d) 0110100
Ques 1. A satellite downlink at 12GHZ operates with a transmit power of 6w & an

antenna gain of 48.2db. The EIRP in dBw is.
(a) 56 dBw.
(b) 5.6 dBw.
(c) 0.56 dBw.
Ques 2. Calculate the gain of a 3m parabolidal antenna operating at a frequency of

12GHZ .Assume an aperture efficiency of 0.5.
(a) 48.9 dB.
(b) 56.4 dB.
(c) 4.89 dB.
(d) 489 dB.
Ques 3..The range between a ground station & a satellite is 42000km. Calculate the
free space loss at a frequency of 6GHZ.
(a) 20.04 dB.
(b) 21.04 dB.
(c) 200.4 dB.
(d) 201.4 dB.
Ques 4. SCPC is a classification of following.

(a) TDMA
(b) FDMA
(c) CDMA
Ques 5.One of the following is not a basic requirement of Earth Station antenna.
(a) High directive gain.
(b) Low noise temperature.
(c) Easily steerable.
(d) Low diameter.
Ques 6. One of the following statement is incorrect for Geo orbit satl.
(a) Weak signal after travelling over 35,000 km.
(b) No problem with freq changes.
(c) High coverage area.
(d) Most suitable for polar regions.
Ques 7. Org responsible for reports, recommendations, resolution and decision

publishing wrt radio comn in satl is
(a) Gen Secretriate.
(b) IFRB.
(c) CCIR.
(d) CCITT.
Ques 8. Eccentricity is applicable in one of the following

(a) Keplers Ist law.
(b) Keplers IInd law.
(c) Keplers IIIrd law.
Ques 9.In retrograde orbit, orbit moves in

(a) Same dirn of earth rotation.
(b) Same dirn of earth rotation but on equator.
(c) Counter dirn of earth rotation.
(d) Counter dirn of earth rotation but on equator.
Ques 10.One of the following is not an orbital elements in Keplerian element set
(a) Eccentricity.
(b) Inclination.
(c) Perigee.
(d) Elevation.
Ques 11. Axis tangent to the orbital plane is

(a) Roll.
(b) Pitch.
(c) Yaw.
(d) None of the abov.e
.
Ques 12.Telemetry data is generally
(a) Digitised FSK/PSK using TDM.
(b) Digitised FSK using TDM.
(c) Digitised PSK using FDM.
(d) Digitised FSK/PSK using FDM.
Ques 13.Atmospheric losses in satl comn consist of

(a) Atmospheric absorption.
(b) Atmospheric attenuation.
(c) Travelling ionospheric disturbances.
(d) All the above.
Ques 14. One of the block not part of receiver side in satl comn is
(a) Decoder.
(b) Demodulator.
(c) Up/down converter.
(d) HPA.
Ques 15. SCPC is classification of

(a) TDMA.
(b) FDMA.
(c) CDMA.
Ques 16.Right ascersion of ascending node is

(a) Rotates orbit within its orbital plane.
(b) Establishes time tables of the orbit.
(c) Average value of angular position of the satl with reference to the perigee.
Ques 17. The downlink transmission rate in a satl circuit is 61 Mb/s and the required
Eb/No at grnd stn receiver is 9.5 Db. Required C/No is
(a) 8.735 dB.
(b) 87.35 dB.
(c) 78.35 dB.
(d) 7.835 Db.
Ques 18. Following constitute to intermodulation noise in space link.

(a) Amplitude nonlinearities.
(b) Phase nonlinearities.
Ques 19. GPS uses one of the following freq band.

(a) L band.
(b) S band.
(c) C band.
(d) Ku band.
Ques 20. One of the following is not a Fwd Error Correction code
(a) Block codes.
(b) Trellis codes.
(c) Concatenated codes.
(d) Convolution codes.
Ques 21. In satl comn, Burst code word is used for

(a) Guard time.
(b) Reference time.
(c) Stn identification.
(d) All the above.
Ques 22. TWTA can be operated at saturation level in

(a) FDMA
(b) SCPC
(c) TDMA
.
Ques 23. In satl comn Eb/No is determined by
(a) BER.
(b) Mtd of modulation and coding.
(c) Implementation loss.
(d) All the above.
Ques 24. An FM/TV carrier is specified as having a modulation index of 2.571, top
modulating freq of 4.2 MHz then the protection ration reqd for quality impairment factor
of 4.2 is
(a) 22.6 dB.
(b) 25.2 dB.
(c) 26.2 dB.
(d) 22.2 dB.
Ques 25. Main cause of atmospheric absorption in satl comn is

(a) Hail.
(b) Ice.
(c) Snow.
(d) Rain.
Q1. Round robin scheduling is essentially the preemptive version of ________.

(a) FIFO
(b) Shortest job first
(c) Shortes remaining
(d) Longest time first
Q2. Let S and Q be two semaphores initialized to 1, where P0 and P1 processes the
following statements wait(S);wait(Q); ---; signal(S);signal(Q) and wait(Q); wait(S);---
;signal(Q);signal(S); respectively. The above situation depicts a _____ .
(a) Semaphore
(b) Deadlock
(c) Signal
(d) Interrupt
Q3. The process related to process control, file management, device management,
information about system and communication that is requested by any higher level language
can be performed by __________.
(a) Editors
(b) Compilers
(c) System Call
(d) Caching
Q4. The solution to Critical Section Problem is : Mutual Exclusion, Progress and Bounded
Waiting.
(a) The statement is false
(b) The statement is true.
(c) The statement is contradictory.
Q5. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________.
(a) Output
(b) Throughput
(c) Efficiency
(d) Capacity
Q6. Which of the following file name extension suggests that the file is Backup copy of
another file?
(a) TXT
(b) COM
(c) BAS
(d) BAK
Q7. Which technique was introduced because a single job could not keep both the CPU and
the I/O devices busy?
(a) Time-sharing
(b) Spooling
(c) Preemptive scheduling
(d) Multiprogramming
Q8. A thread
(a) is a lightweight process where the context switching is low
(b) is a lightweight process where the context switching is high
(c) is used to speed up paging
(d) none of the above
Q9. ______ is a high level abstraction over Semaphore.

(a) Shared memory
(b) Message passing
(c) Monitor
(d) Mutual exclusion
Q10. Which of the following is crucial time while accessing data on the disk?
(a) Seek time
(b) Rotational time
(c) Transmission time
(d) Waiting time
Q11. Which of the following disk scheduling techniques has a drawback of starvation ?
(a) SCAN
(b) SSTF
(c) FCFS
(d) LIFO
Q12. _________ page replacement alogorithm suffers from Belady's anamoly.

(a) LRU
(b) MRU
(c) FIFO
(d) LIFO
Q13. _________ does the job of allocating a process to the processor.

(a) Long term scheduler
(b) Short term scheduler
(c) Medium term scheduler
(d) Dispatcher
Q14. Which of the following statement is not true?

(a) Multiprogramming implies multitasking
(b) Multi-user does not imply multiprocessing
(c) Multitasking does not imply multiprocessing
(d) Multithreading implies multi-user
Q15. In the ___________ method of data transfer, the participation of the processor is
eliminated during data transfer.
(a) Buffering
(b) Caching
(c) Direct Memory Access
(d) Indirect Memory Access
Q16. In Priority Scheduling a priority number (integer) is associated with each process. The
CPU is allocated to the process with the highest priority (smallest integer = highest priority). The
problem of, Starvation ? low priority processes may never execute, is resolved by __________.
(a) Terminating the process.
(b) Aging
(c) Mutual Exclusion
(d) Semaphore
Q17. Which directory implementation is used in most Operating System?

(a) Single level directory structure
(b) Two level directory structure
(c) Tree directory structure
(d) Acyclic directory structure
Q18. The kernel of the operating system remains in the primary memory because ________.
(a) It is mostly called (used)
(b) It manages all interrupt calls
(c) It controls all operations in process
(d) It is low level
Q19. A set of resources' allocations such that the system can allocate resources to each
process in some order, and still avoid a deadlock is called ________.
(a) Unsafe state
(b) Safe state
(c) Starvation
(d) Greeedy allocation
Q20. The principle of locality of reference justifies the use of ________.

(a) Virtual Memory
(b) Interrupts
(c) Main memory
(d) Cache memory
Q21. In a virtual memory environment

(a) segmentation and page tables are stored in the cache and do not add any
substantial overhead
(b) slow down the computer system considerable
(c) segmentation and page tables are stored in the RAM
Q22. Situations where two or more processes are reading or writing some shared data and
the final results depends on the order of usage of the shared data, are called ________.
(a) Race conditions
(b) Critical section
(c) Mutual exclusion
(d) Dead locks
Q23. _________ allocates the largest hole (free fragmant) available in the memory.
(a) Best Fit
(b) Worst Fit
(c) First Fit
Q24. A process is
(a) Program in execution
(b) A concurrent program
(c) Any sequential program
(d) Something which prevents deadlock
Q25. Demand paged memory allocation

(a) allows the virtual address space to be independent of the physical memory
(b) allows the virtual address space to be a multiple of the physical memory size
(c) allows deadlock to be detected in paging schemes
(d) is present only in Windows NT
Q26. It is not the layer of the Operating system.

(a) Kernel
(b) Shell
(c) Application program
(d) Critical Section
Q27. ___________ begins at the root and follows a path down to the specified file
(a) Relative path name
(b) Absolute path name
(c) Standalone name
Q28. The problem of fragmentation arises in ________.

(a) Static storage allocation
(b) Stack allocation storage
(c) Stack allocation with dynamic binding
(d) Heap allocation
Q29. Thrashing occurs ________.

(a) when excessive swapping takes place
(b) when you thrash your computer
(c) whenever deadlock occurs
(d) when no swapping takes place
Q30. The higher versions of operating systems are so written that programs designed for
earlier versions can still be run. What is it called ?
(a) Up gradiability
(b) Upward mobility
(c) Universality
(d) Upward Compatibility
Q1. The Vector call location of interrupt TRAP in 8085 microprocessor is:
(a) 002CH
(b) 0034H
(c) 003CH
(d) 0024H
Q2. Set Interrupt Mask is a ____________byte instruction in 8085.
(a) 2-byte
(b) 1-byte
(c) 3-byte
Q3. The only interrupt which is level and edge sensitive both is
(a) RST 5.5
(b) RST 6.5
(c) RST 7.5
(d) TRAP
Q4 The stack can be defined in a program of 8085 mp, using the instruction:
(a) STA XXXX
(b) PUSH
(c) PULL
(d) LXI SP, XXXX
Q5. A nibble is a group of:
(a) 2 bits
(b) 4 bits
(c) 8 bits
(d) 16 bits
Q6 An extended ASCII code is the combinations of :
(a) 128
(b) 256
(c) 512
(d) 64
Q7 The address lines required for an 8K byte memory chip are:
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 10
Q8 What are number of memory chips needed to design 8K-byte memory if memory chip size is
1024 X 1:
(a) 128
(b) 64
(c) 32
(d) 256
Q9. When instruction STA is been used for transfer of data between MPU and I/O devices, it means
it is:
(a) memory-mapped I/O technique
(b) peripheral-mapped I/O technique
(c) absolute technique
(d) partial technique
Q10. How many T-states are there in a CALL instruction of 8085 microprocessor?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 18
Q11. Instruction ACI of 8085 microprocessor means:

(a) add immediate to accumulator with carry
(b) add register to accumulator with carry
(c) add register to accumulator
(d) add immediate to accumulator
Q12. In instruction CMP (compare with accumulator) of 8085 microprocessor, if contents of

accumulator are equal to contents of operand, then Zero flag is:
(a) set
(b) reset
(c) not affected
(d) complemented
Q13. In instruction INR (Increment contents of register/ memory by 1) of 8085 MP, if the operand is a
memory location, then it is specified by the contents of _________ register pair.
(a) BC
(b) DE
(c) HL
(d) SP
Q14. Instruction RAL of 8085 MP means:
(a) rotate accumulator left
(b) rotate accumulator right
(c) rotate accumulator left through carry

(d) rotate accumulator right through carry
Q15. 1-byte RST-7 instruction has a restart address at:
(a) 0030H
(b) 0028H
(c) 0038H
(d) 0020H
Q16. The sixth bit of instruction SIM in 8085 MP is always:
(a) SOD
(b) SID
(c) SDE
(d) Dont Care
Q17. In instruction XCHG of 8085 MP, the contents of register H are exchanged with the contents
of register:
(a) D
(b) B
(c) C
(d) A
Q18 Instruction DAD of 8085 MP falls in which group?
(a) Data Transfer Group

(b) Arithmetic and Logical Group
(c) Branch Control Group
(d) I/O and Machine Control
Q19. 8086 MP can address ____________memory at the maximum.
(a) 64K
(b) 512 K
(c) 1 Mbyte
(d) 2 Mbyte
Q20. Numbers of status flags in 8086 MP are:
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) 16
Q21. The Associated offset register of Code Segment(CS)register is:
(a) Code segment
(b) Stack segment
(c) Data segment
(d) Extra segment

Q22. The signal used to synchronize operations of multiple processors in a system of 8086 MP is:
(a) Ready
(b) Reset
(c) Test
(d) NMI
Q23. In which addressing mode of 8086, the operands offset is given in the instruction as a 8- bit or
16-bit displacement element:
(a) Direct addressing
(b) Register indirect addressing
(c) Based addressing
(d) Indexed addressing
Q24. MOV AX, [SI + 05] is an example of 8- bit displacement of:
(a) Indexed Addressing
(b) Based Indexed Addressing
(c) Based Indexed with Displacement
(d) Based Addressing
Q25. Segment registers and Instruction pointer are parts of _______ in 8086 mp.
(a) Execution Unit (EU)

(b) Bus Interface Unit (BIU)
(c) Decoding circuit
(d) ALU
Q26. The defaults register combination of Code Segment register in 8086 is:
(a) Base Pointer
(b) Stack Pointer
(c) Instruction Pointer
(d) Source Index (SI)
Q27. The number of latches (373), ALE signal enables in 8086.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None of above
Q28. The maximum number of T- states, any instruction of 8085 can have are:
(a) 10
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 18
Q29. When all address lines are decoded to generate one unique output pulse, it is called as:
(a) Partial Decoding
(b) Device address pulse
(c) I/O address pulse
(d) Absolute decoding
Q30. A program that interprets the input from a keyboard and converts the input into its binary
equivalent is:
(a) Compiler
(b) Monitor program
(c) Interpreter
(d) Assembler

Mtech ENTERANCE TEST COMMUNICATION THEORY QUESTIONS BANK

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Mtech ENTERANCE TEST COMMUNICATION THEORY QUESTIONS BANK

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Mtech ENTERANCE TEST COMMUNICATION THEORY QUESTIONS BANK

Q.1 The area of a parallelogram with diagonals 3i+j-2k and i-3j+4k is

(a) 48 (b) 75 (c) 91 (d) 40

Q.2 For any four vectors a, b, c, & d (a X b). (c X d) =

(a) (a. c) (b. d) (a. d) (b. c)

(b) [a. (b x d)] c- [a .(b x c) ] d

(d) None of these

(a) Tetra hedron

(b) Irregular quadrilateral

(d) none of these

(a) opposite to that of the last term

(b) same as that of the last term

(c) no relation with last term

(d) none of these

Q.5 Roots of the equation 28x3 -9x 2 +1 = 0 are

(a) 1/4, 1/3 , 3/7 (b) -1/4, 3+ 2i / 7

(c) 1/4, 5/9, 2/7 (d) -1/4, 2+3i / 7

Q.7 For a set of complex nos, the following statement is false

(a) arg z = - arg z (b) z = z then z

(c) img . z = 1/2i (z z ) (d) z1z2 = z1 + z2

Q.8 Solutions of the equation

Iy / ix+1 3y+4i /3x+y = 0 (x&y are real) are

(a) x = 2, y=+ 1.5 (b) x=1.5, y=+ 2

(c) x = 1, y =0 (d) x=0, y=1

Q.9 The locus of z when z-i / z-2 is purely imaginary, is

(a) a circle (b) a parabola

(c) a hyperbola (d) a rectangle

(c) 1/2 (cos x + sinx) (d) Ln X

Q.11 If X = a [Cos t + ln tan 2 (t/2)] and Y= a sint then d2y / dx2 =

(a) Sin t / a cos2t (b) Sin t/ a2 Cos 2 t

(c) Sin t/ a Cos 4 t (d) Sin t / a2 Cos 4

Q.12 The curves r=ae and re and re = b

(a) are concentric (b) Cut orthogonally

(c) have common tangent (d) have common pole

Q.13 lim 1+Ln X X =

Q.14 lim X2+2CosX 2 =

(a) 1/12 (b) -1/12 (c) 1/2 (d) -1/2

Q.15 lim (Cos x) /2-x =

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) /2 (d) /4

(a) 2,2,3 (b) 5,8,10 (c) 3,6,9 (d) 12,12,6

(a) 4, 6,14 (b) 6,8,10 (c) 2,10,12 (d) 4,8,12

(a) b2 /4 (+4) (b) b2 /4 (c) b2 / +4 (d) b2 / 2

Q.19 0 dx / (16+x2) 912 =

(a) 1/48 (b) 6/7.48 (c) 24 / 35.48 (d) 1/46.7.5

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 6 (d) 3

Q.21 1 2 e2x + 1 / e2x 1 dx =

(a) 0 (b) Ln e2 +1 / e (c) 1 (d) Ln e / e2 + 1

(a) 8 ln8 16 + e (b) 8 ln8

Q.23 The area bounded by the curves

(c) 28/3 2 Ln 4 (d) 28 / 3 + 2Ln 4

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

Q.25 Solution of the diff equa.

tanX. Sin2Yy dx + cos2XcotY dy = 0 is

(a) tan2X = cot 2Y (b) tan2X+cot2Y

(c) tan2X cot2y =C (d) none of these

Q.26 Solution of the diff equation

(a) Y=X (b) Y=X (1+Ln X)

(c) Y = 1+Ln X (c) Y = X2+Ln X

(a) (b) e (c) 1 (d) 0

Q.29 The determinant 1 1 1

(a) abc (b) 4abc (c) 4a2b2c2 (d) a2b2c2

Q.1 L{t 7/2 e3t}