DETAILED SOLUTION

4
IIFT 2008

1. After 3000 packets the total revenue decreases, the

Name of optimum revenue would be achieved at 3000 packets.
School State Rank
student Hence, option 2.
Lancer Not 1st
3.
Not in Andhra
Columbus Not Badal Amount in Amount paid
Pradesh Guard Amount Left
her purse to the Guard
Leelavati Rahman
Not from
Maharashtra 3rd 1
Leelavati
Karnataka Not 1st
2
Tabulating the given information that we have, we get
the above table.
3
The name of student from Columbus school is not
Badal, it implies that Badal must be from Lancer school
and Binod must be from Columbus. Let us assume she initially had Rs. x with her, then the
Leelavati school is not in Maharashtra it implies that amount she paid to each of the guard would be:
Rahman is not from Maharashtra and did not secure She was left with Rs. 1 in the end,
3rd rank.
Also,

The contestant from Maharashtra stood 3rd and the
candidate from Karnataka is not 1st implies that the Thus she had Rs. 36 in the beginning.
candidate from Andhra Pradesh must have stood 1st Hence, option 2.
and the one from Karnataka 2nd.
Rahman stood 1st and the position of Badal and 4. Consider option 1: Prof. Chaudhury must be assigned
Binod cannot be determined with the given HRM or Finance or no assignment but cannot be
information. assigned Development studies.
From the given options only option 1 can be true. Consider option 2: Does not violate any condition.
Hence, option 1. Consider option 3: Both Prof. Das and Prof. Fotedar
cannot be given assignments together.
Note : Since both the options 1 or 3 could have been Consider option 4: Prof. Chaudhury cannot be assigned
correct according to the original paper, therefore Trade Policy.
option 3 has been changed and is not the same as in the Hence, option 2.
original paper.
5. Options 1, 2 and 3 do not violate any condition.
2. Option 4:
No. of packets Rate Revenue Prof. Das is assigned Trade Policy, Prof. Banik has to
2000 20 40000 be assigned Psychology.
2200 19 41800 Hence, option 4.
2400 18 43200
2600 17 44200
2800 16 44800
3000 15 45000
3200 14 44800

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 IIFT 2008

6. We have: Amount
Order Name Remarks
spent
Amount
Order Name Remarks 1 Aradhana 1340 Not 2517
spent
2 Chandrima 1193 Smallest
1 Aradhana Not 2517
3 Deepika 2234 Not 1340
Spent the smallest
2 Chandrima Spent more than
amount 4 Heena 2517
Deepika
3 Deepika Not 1340
5 Sumitra 2571 Largest
Spent more than
4 Heena
Deepika The woman who spent 2234 had arrived before the
Spent the largest woman who spent 1193, in this case it would mean
5 Sumitra
amount violation of this condition.
This case is not possible.
Amounts spent are: 2517, 2234, 1340, and 1193
Only case 1 will hold good.
Case 1: If Rs. 2517 is the highest amount spent then the
The amounts spent by the women are as follows:
least amount spent would be Rs. 1139
1) Aradhana Rs. 2234
Case 2: If Rs. 1193 is the least amount spent, then the
2) Chadrima Rs. 1139
highest amount spent would be Rs. 2571
3) Deepika Rs. 1193
Consider case 1: 2517, 2234, 1340, 1193 and 1139 4) Heena Rs. 1340
5) Sumitra Rs. 2517
In this case Sumitra must have spent Rs. 2517 and Heena spent Rs. 1340.
Chandrima must have spent Rs. 1139 as they are the Hence, option 2.
highest and lowest amounts.
7. Rs. 1139 was spent by Chandrima.
Deepika cannot spend Rs. 2234 as it is given that Hence, option 1.
Heena spent more than Deepika.
8. Rs. 1193 was spent by Deepika.
Deepika must have spent Rs. 1193, then Heena Hence, option 3.
should have spent Rs. 1340 and Aradhana would have
spent Rs. 2234. 9. Tabulating the given information:

This information can now be tabulated as: Number of guards Red Green
1 Turn right 2 kmph
Amount
Order Name Remarks 2 Turn left 4 kmph
spent
3 Stop 10 kmph
1 Aradhana 2234 Not 2517
2 Chandrima 1139 Smallest In case of Kartikay:
3 Deepika 1193 Not 1340
Signal
Spent more Red caps Green caps
4 Heena 1340 Number
than Deepika No. of No. of
Direction Speed Duration Distance
5 Sumitra 2517 Largest guards guards
2
Consider Case 2: 2571, 2517, 2234, 1340 and 1193 Start nil North 1 30 mins 1 km
kmph
Sumitra must have spent Rs. 2571 and Chandrima 4
1 2 Turn left 2 15 mins 1 km
must have spent Rs. 1193 as they are the highest and kmph
lowest amounts. 4
2 1 Turn right nil 30 mins 2 km
Now, kmph
Heena spent more than Deepika, Heena could not 10
3 1 Turn right 3 24 mins 4 km
have spent 1340. kmph
Deepika did not spend 1340, it implies that Aradhana 4
4 2 Turn left 2 15 mins 1 km
kmph
spent 1340 and then Heena would have spent 2517
5 3 Stop
and Deepika would have spent 2234.
Total distance travelled by Kartikay is 9 kms.
Hence, option 1.

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 IIFT 2008

10. 12.
Signal Birth School
Red caps Green caps Sex Name Game
Number order Name
No. of No. of 1 M Saurav Trinity Chess
Direction Speed Duration Distance
guards guards
2 M Mahi/ Nilesh Mansarover Cricket
2
Start 0 North 1 30 mins 1 km 3 M Nilesh/ Mahi Mansarover Cricket
kmph
Turn right 4 4 F Kuntala Trinity Chess
1 1 2 15 mins 1 km
(East) kmph 5 F Tamanna St. Stefan
Turn right 4 6 M Arun St. Stefan Football
2 1 nil 30 mins 2 km
(South) kmph 7 M Rohit St. Stefan Hockey
Turn right 10 8 F Janki Trinity Chess
3 1 3 24 mins 4 km
(West) kmph
Turn left 4 From the given information we have:
4 2 2 15 mins 1 km
(South) kmph Sons: Arun (Ar), Mahi (Ma), Rohit (Ro), Nilesh (Ni) and
5 3 Stop Saurav (Sa).
Kartikay would have travelled 1 + 2 1 = 2 km Daughters: Tamanna (Ta), Kuntala (Ku) and Janki (Ja).
towards South St. Stefan: 3 children: Offers any sports: Tamanna,
And he would have travelled 4 1 = 3 km towards Rohit.
West Mansarover: 2 children: Offers only cricket: Mahi and
His final position would be 3 km towards west and 2 Nilesh.
km towards south. Trinity: 3 children: Offers only chess: Kuntala.
Hence, option 1. Mansarover and Trinity offer only Cricket and chess
respectively, it implies that Arun who plays football
11. must be in St. Stefan.
Signal
This means that Saurav and Janki must be in Trinity.
Red caps Green caps Mahi and Nilesh were born in succession, it implies
Number
No. of No. of that they can occupy only slots 2 and 3 in any order.
Direction Speed Duration Distance
guards guards Kuntala was the eldest daughter, she needs to occupy
2 slot 4, and hence Tamanna would be 5th.
Start 0 South 1 30 mins 1 km
kmph The only place left for Arun is 6th.
Turn left 4 Arun is the 6th child.
1 2 2 15 mins 1 km
(East) kmph Hence, option 3.
Turn right 4
2 1 nil 30 mins 2 km
(South) kmph 13. Saurav is a student of Trinity school.
Turn right 10 Hence, option 1.
3 1 3 24 mins 4 km
(West) kmph
Turn left 4 14. From the given information Tamannas game cannot be
4 2 2 15 mins 1 km
(South) kmph determined.
5 3 Stop Hence, option 4.

Thus Kartikay would have travelled 1 + 2 + 1 = 4 km 15. The only pair that was not born in succession was
towards South Kuntala and Arun.
And he would have travelled 4 1 = 3 km towards Hence, option 2.
West
16. From I and II, the conclusion which can be drawn is,
Thus, his final position would be 3 km towards West
Some drivers are engineers or Some engineers are
and 4 km towards South.
drivers.
Hence, option 3.
From I and III: No conclusion is possible since all
parameters are different.
From II and III: No conclusion is possible since the
middle term, Engineers, is not distributed.
Only conclusion 4 follows.
Hence, option 2.

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17. From I and II, the conclusion that can be derived is
Some barbers are not businessmen. Conclusion: 4
From II and III, the conclusion possible is Some
Traders are not Fashion designers. Conclusion: 2.
Looking at the options none of them fits in the above
satisfying them.
Hence, option 4.
18. Let Pritus father be Mr. Z.
Pritus fathers sisters grandfather is Pritus great
grandfather.
Let him be Mr. X.
The only son of Mr. X is Pritus grandfather or
granduncle.
Let him be Mr. Y.
Mr. Y is Mr. Zs father or uncle.
Let the wife of Mr. Y be Mrs. A.
Mrs. A is grandmother of Pritu or grandaunt of Pritu.
Now Priya is the daughter of daughter of Mrs. A or
granddaughter of Mrs. A.
Now, if Sushma is the sister of Pritu, then she becomes
either a real sister of Priya or a cousin sister of Priya.
Hence, option 4.
19. Kamaljeet fulfilled all the conditions except 3 as he
scored 56% marks.
There is no alternative to condition 3, thus he cannot
be admitted.
Hence, option 2.
20. Gaurav had fulfilled all the conditions except 2 since he
is 37 years old.
The alternative to this is that the candidate must be
admitted under the sponsor quota if he has got at least
10 years of experience in supervisory cadre.
Gaurav has got 12 years of experience in supervisory
cadre thus he can be admitted under sponsor quota.
Hence, option 4.
21. The film Dainandini fulfils all the criteria and must be
selected.
Hence, option 1.
22. The film Bhadrasalem fulfils all the conditions except
condition 3.
There is no information on the director clearing the
course.
The given data is not sufficient to make a decision.
Hence, option 2.
23. The film Ek Baar Achanak has not fulfilled condition 1
as it was submitted on 30th November 2007.
It cannot be selected.
Hence, option 4.
TF-MS-PP-04-0209
IIFT 2008
24. The machine is arranging the numbers in the
increasing order of the sum of the digits on the
number.
Input: 245 (11), 316 (10), 436 (13), 519 (15), 868 (22),
710 (8), 689 (23).
The number in the bracket indicates the sum of digits
of the given number.
Step 1: 710 (8), 316 (10), 436 (13), 519 (15), 868 (22),
245 (11), 689 (23).
The machine has swapped 710 (8) with 245 (11).
Step 2: 710 (8), 316 (10), 245 (11), 519 (15), 868 (22),
436 (13), 689 (23).
Thus it has swapped 436 (13) with 245 (11).
Step 3: 710 (8), 316 (10), 245 (11), 436 (13), 868 (22),
519 (15), 689 (23).
Thus it has swapped 436 (13) with 519 (15).
Step 4: 710 (8), 316 (10), 245 (11), 436 (13), 519 (15),
868 (22), 689 (23).
Thus it has swapped 519 (15) with 868 (22).
Going by the logic mentioned above,
Input: 655 (16), 436 (13), 764 (17), 799 (25), 977 (23),
572 (14), 333 (9).
Step 1: 333 (9), 436 (13), 764 (17), 799 (25), 977 (23),
572 (14), 655 (16).
Step 2: 333 (9), 436 (13), 572 (14), 799 (25), 977 (23),
764 (17), 655 (16).
Step 3: 333 (9), 436 (13), 572 (14), 655 (16), 977 (23),
764 (17), 799 (25).
This is the required sequence which is achieved in Step
3.
Hence, option 1.
25. Input: 544 (13), 653 (14), 325 (10), 688 (22), 461 (11),
231 (6), 857 (20).
Step 1: 231 (6), 653 (14), 325 (10), 688 (22), 461 (11),
544 (13), 857 (20).
Step 2: 231 (6), 325 (10), 653 (14), 688 (22), 461 (11),
544 (13), 857 (20).
Step 3: 231 (6), 325 (10), 461 (11), 688 (22), 653 (14),
544 (13), 857 (20).
Step 4: 231 (6), 325 (10), 461 (11), 544 (13), 653 (14),
688 (22), 857 (20).
Step 5: 231 (6), 325 (10), 461 (11), 544 (13), 653 (14),
857 (20), 688 (22).
Total 5 steps would be required.
Hence, option 2.
26. Cannot be determined as the process backward is not
possible.
Hence, option 4.
27. Input: 653 (14), 963 (18), 754 (16), 345 (12), 364 (13),
861 (15), 541 (10).
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 IIFT 2008

Step 1: 541 (10), 963 (18), 754 (16), 345 (12), 364 Saurav is pointing to the brother of his sisters
(13), 861 (15), 653 (14). maternal grandmothers only daughter, i.e. his
Step 2: 541 (10), 345 (12), 754 (16), 963 (18), 364 mothers only brother. His mothers brother means his
(13), 861 (15), 653 (14). uncle.
Step 3: 541 (10), 345 (12), 364 (13), 963 (18), 754 Yuvraj is not pointing out Saurav it has to be Saurav
(16), 861 (15), 653 (14). who is pointing towards Yuvraj.
Hence, option 3. Yuvraj is Sauravs maternal uncle.
Hence, option 2.
28. Input: She was interested in doing art film.
Step 1: art she was interested in doing film. 33. Z units are produced at a total cost of Rs. R where
Step 2: art was she interested in doing film.
Step 3: art was in she interested doing film.
Step 4: art was in film she interested doing.
Step 5: art was in film doing she interested. Now, the variable cost Rv for producing Z units is given
The words get arranged according to the last alphabet by,
of each word in the reverse order.
Input: he is going out to search air.
Step 1: out he is going to search air.
Step 2: out is he going to search air. The average variable cost for Z units is given by,
Step 3: out is air he going to search.
Step 4: out is air to he going search.
Step 5: out is air to search he going.
Step 6: out is air to search going he.
Hence, option 2.

29. Step 2: not is the casino considering legal action.

Step 3: not is casino the considering legal action.
Step 4: not is casino action the considering legal.
Step 5: not is casino action legal the considering.
Z = 25
Thus the required sequence is achieved in Step 5.
Hence, option 3.
This is not given in any of the options.
Hence, option 4. 34. H1, H2, H3, , Hn, are n Harmonic means between a and
b ( a), implies that the required Harmonic series is:
30. Input: Father needs to check on the boy.
a, H1, H2, H3, H4, , Hn, b
Step 1: boy Father needs to check on the.
Step 2: boy needs Father to check on the.
Step 3: boy needs Father to on check the.
Thus, only 3 steps are required to get to the final
output.
Hence, option 4.

31. On thickness parameter we have:

Anil is fatter than Debu but thinner than Bibek.
Debu is fatter than Eswar.
Charu is thinner than Debu but fatter than Eswar.
Thus the descending order of fatness is as follows,
Bibek > Anil > Debu > Charu > Eswar.
The thinnest person is Eshwar.
Hence, option 4.

32. Yuvraj is pointing to the brother of his sisters
maternal grandmothers only daughter, i.e. his Similarly,
mothers only brother. His mothers brother means his

uncle.

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 IIFT 2008

Now considering options, we see that only option 4

satisfies equation (ii).

Hence, option 4.

37. As a, b, c are in H.P.,

Hence, option 2. log (a + c) + log (a 2b + c) = log [(a + c)2 2b(a + c)]

= log [(a + c)2 4ac)]
35. We have: = log (a c)2
(n + 2)C8 : (n 2)P4 = 57 : 16
= 2 log (a c)
= 2 log(c a) ( c > a)
Hence, option 3.

38. 12 22 = (1 2)(1 + 2) = 3
32 42 = (3 4)(3 + 4) = 7
52 62 = (5 6)(5 + 6) = 11
72 82 = (7 8)(7 + 8) = 15
And so on till 20012 20022 = 4003
The given expression = (3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + + 4003)
(n + 2)(n + 1)(n)(n 1) = 19 3 7 6 5 4 3 + 20032
Now consider options.
Option 1: n = 20
(n + 2) = 22, but our product is not a multiple of 22.
Option 2: n = 22 = 2007006
But our product is not a multiple of 22. Hence, option 1.
Option 3: n = 15
(n + 2) = 17, but our product is not a multiple of 17. 39. 2 men can be selected in 9C2 ways from 9 men and 2
None of the options gives the correct value of n. women to be selected should not be the wives of the 2
Hence, option 4. men selected.

36. As a, b and c are in A.P., These 2 women can be selected from the remaining 7
women in 7C2 ways.
4 players of the game can be selected in 9C2 7C2 =
756 ways
But, the number of mixed doubles games that can be
played among 2 men and 2 women is 2.
The number of ways in which a mixed doubles game
can be played = 9C2 7C2 2 = 1512
Hence, option 2.
40. The interior angles are 120, 125, 130, 135, 140
and so on and the corresponding exterior angles are

60, 55, 50, 45, 40 and so on.
Now the sum of exterior angles needs to be 360.

60 + 55 + 50 + 45 + 40 + 35 + 30 + 25 + 20
= 360
As a2, b2 and c2 are in G.P., so b4 = a2c2

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 IIFT 2008

The number of sides would be 9.

Hence, option 3.
Hence, option 2.
41. The initial position of the ladder is as shown below: 44. ax2 + bx + c = 0
Let the roots of the given equation are and 2.

25
24
2b2 = 9ac
Hence, option 1.

7 45. Let the time taken to go of 30 km upstream be 3x

hours. Then the time taken to go 40 km upstream is 4x
By Pythagoras theorem, hours.
Let the time taken to go 44 km downstream be 4y
hours. Then the time taken to go 55 km downstream is
The final position would be: 5y hours.
Then we have:
3x + 4y = 10 (i)
4x + 5y = 13 (ii)
Solving for x and y, we have,
x = 2 and y = 1

25
12

481 ~
~ 22
The foot must be drawn out by approximately 22 7
= 15 metres
Hence, option 4.
Hence, option 3.
42. The term 3600840049 can be written as:
36(108) + 84(104) + 49 = 600072 46.
The term 6407522209 can be written as:
64(108) + 752(104) + 2209 = 800472


Similarly,
Hence, option 1.

43. The arithmetic mean of n numbers is greater than or
equal to their geometric mean.
As a, b and c are in Arithmetic Progression, their
arithmetic mean = b

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 IIFT 2008

Now in next year, since the increase in salary was 20%

for all of the employees, it means that the SD will have
gone up by 20%.
Standard Deviation after 20% raise = 400 + 20% of
400 = 400 + 80 = Rs. 480
The new SD would be 480.
Hence, option 2.

50. We have,
Let us take 200 people forming 4 groups (say A, B, C
and D) containing 50 people each.
As 1 person in 100 suffers, so 2 persons will be
suffering from 200 people.
These 2 people (suffering) will be either from 1 group
or 2 groups.
Case 1: 2 people (suffering) from 1 group
There 2 suffering people are either from group A or B
or C or D.
Hence, option 2. So there are 4 possibilities.
In this case, operator will have to perform 54 tests i.e.
47. Let P be the pole.
4 pooled tests for 4 groups and 50 individual tests for
As P lies on the circumference and AB is the diameter,
group containing 2 suffering people.
m APB = 90
Case 2: 2 people (suffering) from 2 groups
P There 2 suffering people are either from groups (A and
B) or (A and C) or (A and D) or (B and C) or (B and D)
x+ 7 or (C and D).
x So there are 6 possibilities.
In this case, operator will have to perform 104 tests i.e.
A B 4 pooled tests for 4 groups and 100 individual tests for
13
2 groups containing 2 suffering people.

Now, (x + 7)2 + x2 = 132 = 169

x2 + 7x 60 = 0 Hence, option 3.
(x + 12)(x 5) = 0 51. If the number selected does not appear on any of the
Solving for x, we get, three dice then the person loses 1, i.e. he does not
x = 5 and x + 7 = 12 win.
Hence, option 3.

48. The total length of the spiral

Hence, option 2.

49. The mean salary was Rs. 1,500 and standard deviation
(SD) was Rs. 400. Since after 1 year each employee got Hence, option 3.
a raise of Rs. 100, it would mean that the SD would still
remain same.

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 IIFT 2008

52. First let us begin by tabulating the given data as shown 55% of 20 crores = 11 crores
below: As probability is 0.7, Expected value = 11 0.7 = 7.7
crores
Jagan Bhola James
If contract is awarded to Jagan from 2nd year onwards,
Present Coverage 55% 40% 25% then:
Claimed Coverage 60% 75% 1st year: 25% of 5 crores = 1.25 crores
Probability that 2nd year onwards = 55% of 15 crores = 8.25 crores
0.60 0.20
claim is true Expected value = 0.3 9.5 crores = 2.85 crores
Choices are: Total expected value = 7.7 + 2.85 = 10.55 crores
1. 5 year contract to Jagan. Option 1: Choice 1 is more profitable than Choice 2:
2. 1 year contract to Bhola and then to Bhola or False
Jagan for next four years. Option 2: Choice 2 is more profitable than Choice 3:
3. 1 year contract to James and then to James or True
Jagan for next four years. Option 3: Choice 3 is more profitable than Choice 1:
Market Credentials: False
Profit potential for the current year: 5 crores Hence, option 2.
Profit potential for next four years: 15 crores 55. To get the prize the customer must uncover two
Expected value of profits for each of the choices: pictures which match each other before uncovering
Choice 1: 55% of 20 crores = 11 crores any of No Prize pictures. The other signs then become
Choice 2: With 60% coverage: insignificant.
60% of 20 crores = 12 crores
As Probability is 0.6, Expected value = 12 0.6 = 7.2 These five signs can occur in 120 ways.
crores In 12 of these permutations, the two matching pictures
If the contract is awarded to Jagan from 2nd year occur before No Prize sign.
onwards, then:
1st year: 40% of 5 crores = 2 crores The probability of winning = 12/120 = 0.1
2nd year onwards = 55% of 15 crores = 8.25 crores Hence, option 1.
Expected value = 0.4(8.25 + 2) = 4.1 crores
56. Since there are 3 pairs of shoes, so shoes can be
Total Expected value = 7.2 + 4.1 = 11.3 crores
selected in 3 ways.
Choice 3: With 75% coverage:
The lower wear can be selected in 7 ways.
75% of 20 crores = 15 crores
The upper wear can be selected in 27 ways (6 + 3 + 6
As probability is 0.2, Expected value = 15 0.2 = 3
3).
crores
The jacket can be selected in 3 ways (2 ways for 2
If contract is awarded to Jagan from 2nd year onwards,
jackets and one way when he does not wear a jacket).
then:
The total number of ways = 3 7 27 3 = 1701
1st year: 25% of 5 crores = 1.25 crores
ways
2nd year onwards = 55% of 15 crores = 8.25 crores
Hence, option 4.
Expected value = 0.8 9.5 crores = 7.6 crores
Total expected value = 3 + 7.6 = 10.6 crores 57. We have,
Hence, option 2.

53. Option 1: Choice 1 is more profitable than Choice 2:

False
Option 2: Choice 3 is more profitable than Choice 2:
False
Option 3: Choice 3 is more profitable than Choice 1:
False
Hence, option 4.

54. In choice 1: Expected value = 11 crores

In choice 2: Expected value = 11.3 crores
Choice 3: With 55% coverage:

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 IIFT 2008

60. Consider statement 1

Total Covered Covered wagons as %

Year Wagons wagons of total wagons

Number Number
1993 337562 157581 46.68
1994 312405 138642 44.38
1995 291360 121946 41.85
Tan 3x = 1 1996 280791 114065 40.62
Hence, option 3. 1997 272127 106634 39.19
1998 263981 102217 38.72
58. The figure would be as shown below (not drawn to
1999 252944 96371 38.10
scale).
2000 234397 86024 36.70
A 2001 222193 75768 34.10
2002 216717 71950 33.20
2003 214760 68467 31.88
2004 227752 67870 29.80
2005 222379 64417 28.97
B D C As can be seen from the above table, the percentage of
Now, BD = DC, then by Apollonius theorem in ABC, we covered wagons did consistently drop from 1993
have, 2005, but it did not increase in year 2003 when
compared to previous year
And in ADC, we have, This statement is false.

From (i) and (ii), we get, Consider statement 2:

Special
Total Special wagons as % of
type
Year Wagons total wagons
wagons
Number Number
Hence, option 1. 1993 337562 50282 14.90
1994 312405 49208 15.75
59. Since in case of Hemi-sphere, radius is same as height,
it implies that the height for all the three shapes is 1995 291360 47927 16.45
same, i.e. equal to r. 1996 280791 46225 16.46
Assuming the base radius to be r in all the three cases, 1997 272127 45341 16.66
we then have, 1998 263981 43853 16.61
In case of cylinder: The curved surface area = 2 r2 1999 252944 42242 16.70
In case of hemisphere: The curved surface area = 2 r2 2000 234397 40316 17.20
2001 222193 38884 17.50
2002 216717 37275 17.20
Hence, option 4. 2003 214760 37650 17.53
2004 227752 39401 17.30
2005 222379 36454 16.39

The special wagons expressed as a percentage of total

wagons was highest in 2003.
The given option is true.
Hence, option 2.

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61. Again from table given in the solution of the previous For open high sided wagons,
question, it can be readily seen that this would hold
0 2 7
good for the pair 2000 and 2002, where the required Annual growth rate in 1 7
2 7
percentage for both of these years was 17.20%.
Hence, option 3. 0 2

62. 07 5 0371
Annual growth rate in 2003
Departmental 0371
Total Departmental
Year wagons as 0 44
Wagons wagons
% of total wagons
Thus, statement 2 is true.
2002 216717 9536 4.40
2003 214760 10718 4.99 Consider statement 3:

2004 227752 11388 5.00 It was maximum in the year 2001 as can be seen from
table below.
2005 222379 10964 4.93
Statement 3 is false.
It was highest in 2004. Average wagon
Hence, option 3. Year Growth rate
capacity (Tonnes)
63. The calculation is as shown below; 1994 36.2 3.72%
1995 36.9 1.93%
1996 37.8 2.44%
1997 39.1 3.44%
1998 40.5 3.58%
1999 42.3 4.44%
2000 43.8 3.55%
2001 45.9 4.79%
2002 46.6 1.53%
For special type wagons, 2003 46.5 0.215
2004 46.8 0.65%
2005 47.7 1.92%

Hence, option 3.

65. Consider statement 1:

We see that option 1 had seen the lowest annual

growth rate.
Consider statement 2:
Hence, option 1.

64. Consider statement 1:

Annual growth rate of covered wagons in
Consider statement 3:

Annual growth rate of covered wagons in 2000

024 371
10 73 Consider statement 4:
371
Thus, statement 1 is true.

Consider statement 2:

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 IIFT 2008

The highest annual growth rate amongst these Sum of revenue of P, Q and S in 1994 = 675 + 160 + 264
occurred in case of statement 2. = Rs. 1099 whereas the revenue of R in 1994 is Rs.
Hence, option 2. 1716
Statement 2 is false.
66. Observing the given chart carefully it becomes evident
Consider statement 3:
that the growth rate was highest in 1992.
Revenue of P and Q together in 1993 = 342 + 240 = Rs.
Hence, option 2.
582, whereas the revenue of S in 1993 is Rs. 417
67. Statement 3 is true.
Year 90 91 92 93 94 95 Total Average Stability Hence, option 3.

P 45 25 40 38 75 55 278 46.33 0.93 71. The results are as follows

Q 98 40 108 60 40 70 416 69.33 1.02

R 72 92 106 62 132 120 584 97.33 1.39
S 115 158 165 139 88 95 760 126.67 1.645

The stability was maximum for product S as can be

seen from the above table.
Hence, option 4.

68.
Year 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995
Rs.
P 45 405 25 225 40 360 38 342 75 675 55 495
9
Rs.
Q 98 392 40 160 108 432 60 240 40 160 70 280
4
Rs.
R 72 936 92 1196 106 1378 62 806 132 1716 120 1560
13
We see that option 3 has the highest value.
Rs.
S 115 345 158 474 165 495 139 417 88 264 95 285 Hence, option 3.
3
Total 2078 2055 2665 1805 2815 2620 72. The growth rate for each of the statement is as shown
below:
The total revenue was minimum in 1993
Hence, option 3.
69.
Year Total Revenue
P 2502
Q 1664
R 7592
S 2280

The table above shows the total revenue from each

product using the table from the solution of the
previous question.
Product Q fetched the least revenue.
Hence, option 2.

70. Using the table from the above answer:

Consider statement 1:
In 1991, product R fetched the highest revenue,
Statement 1 is false.
Consider statement 2:
We see that option 1 has the least value.
Hence, option 1.

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73. Consider statement 1: = 10 75 0 = 37

Statement 3 is false.
Hence, option 3.

75. Consider statement 1:

Annual increase in FDI inflow in Haryana in 2006
= 5577 2 5 = 2 2
Annual increase in FDI inflow in Punjab in 2007
= 22 340 = 2
Statement 1 is false. Statement 1 is false.

Consider statement 2: Consider statement 2:

The increase in FDI inflow was highest for
Maharashtra.
Statement 2 is false.

Consider option: 3:
Annual increase in FDI inflow in Bihar in 2003
= 34 52 = 2 4
Annual increase in FDI inflow in Karnataka in 2001
= 3553 32 = 254
Statement 2 is false.
Statement 3 is true.
Consider statement 3:
Hence, option 3.

76.

Statement 3 is true.
Hence, option 3.

74. Consider statement 1:

Annual increase in FDI in Bihar in 2001
= 55 5 = 4 27
Annual increase in FDI in Rajasthan in 2007
= 10034 5077 = 4 57
Statement 1 is true.
Consider statement 2:
Statement 4 has the lowest value.
Hence, option 4.

77. Consider statement 1:

Statement 2 is true.
Consider statement C:
Annual increase in FDI in Madhya Pradesh in 2004
= 177 1 13 1 = 3 70
Annual increase in FDI in Maharashtra in 2005 Statement 1 is false.

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Consider statement B:

Statement 2 is true.

Consider statement 3:

Statement 2 is false.

Consider statement 3:

Statement 3 is true.

Consider statement 4:

Statement 3 is true.
Hence, option 3.

78.

Statement 4 is false.
Hence, option 4.

80. Consider statement 1:

Absolute annual increase in exports from Asia in 2003
= 2138300 1807800 = 330500
Absolute annual increase in exports from Asia in 2006
= 3577700 3059000 = 518700
Statement 1 is true.

Consider statement 2:
Absolute annual increase in exports from Germany in
2001 = 571645 551818 = 19827
Absolute annual increase in exports from US in 2003 =
724771 693103 = 31668
Statement 2 has the highest value. Statement 2 is false.
Hence, option 2. Hence, option 2.

79. Consider statement 1:

Statement 1 is true.

Consider statement 2:

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81. 84.
Unit Per Unit Per Unit
Year Revenue Units Profit Cost Year Unit Price Units Profit
Price Cost Cost
2000 10 700 70 0 700 10 2000 8 10 70 -140
2001 14 1400 100 100 1300 13 2001 11.2 13 100 -180
2002 12 1200 100 300 900 9
2002 9.6 9 100 60
2003 12 900 75 150 750 10
2003 9.6 10 75 -30
2004 11 1100 100 0 1100 11
2005 8 400 50 150 250 5 2004 8.8 11 100 -220
2006 10 200 20 100 100 5 2005 8 6 50 100
2007 14 700 50 200 500 10 2006 10 6 20 80
2008 10 600 60 0 600 10 2007 14 12 50 100
2009 10 800 80 400 400 5
2008 10 12 60 -120
2010 15 900 60 300 600 10
2009 10 6 80 320
The table above shows the complete analysis of cost. 2010 15 12 60 180
We see that the cost per unit is highest in the year
2001. The table above shows the new price per unit and cost
Hence, option 2. per unit.
We see that there is loss for 5 years.
82. From the table given in the solution of the above
Hence, option 3.
question, the total units sold in the period 20002010
= 765 85. Cumulative Profit before the change is Rs. 1700
Average is 69.55 or 70 units. Cumulative Profit after the change is Rs. 150
Hence, option 2. Change in cumulative profit is Rs. 1700 Rs. 150 =
Rs. 1550
83.
Hence, option 2.
Max Min Average
Volatility
Value Value Value 86. Option 1 is incorrect as the author states that the direct
Price per model was not at all being exploited by any of their
15 8 11.45 0.611
unit competitors.
Cost per Option 2 is incorrect as the analysis points out that the
13 5 8.91 0.898
unit warehouse sends the product to the dealer.
Total Option 3 is incorrect as the author states that the norm
400 0 154.55 2.588
profit of the industry is to push the production of the factory
Revenue 1400 200 809.09 1.483 to the customers. It does not depend upon the
customer feedback.
The table above shows the volatility of each parameter. Option 4 is correct whenever the production exceeds
We see that volatility is maximum for Total Profit. the demand, manufacturers put down the prices to
Hence, option 3. push sales.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

87. Option 1 is incorrect as the author states that direct

model helped the company to achieve a stellar
performance with regards to efficiency in raw material.
Option 2 is incorrect as the author states this in the
fifth paragraph by saying, The quality of information
is inversely ... in this case excess inventory.
Option 3 is eliminated as the author states this in the
8th paragraph by saying, We also learned to take into
account ... limited variety of expensive parts.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

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88. Options 1 and 2 are eliminated as the market cannot be
matched with warehouse or stockpiles.
Option 4 is incorrect as the author states that the
conventional manufacturing process requires to
maintain stockpiles. Also, distributors cannot be
matched with velocity as they need to be matched with
warehouses.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
89. The author states that it was their company alone
which incorporated information gathering process and
customer feedbacks which enabled them to market
products with latest available technologies.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
90. Option 1 is incorrect as the author states that there
were always more pirates than enough in the
Caribbean seas but he does not state that there were
more pirates at Belize than in the Caribbean seas.
Option 2 is incorrect as the author confesses that he
was not an experienced sailor and that he would sink
the ship in less than an hour if he was given charge.
Option 3 is incorrect as the author states that they used
to consider corporal Charker as the most authoritarian
non commissioned officer.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
91. Option 3 is false as the author states that although they
not seen the notorious pirate gang, they had heard so
much about them that reinforcements were sent for.
All the other options are true.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
92. Option 4 is the correct answer as the author states this
in the first sentence of the 7th paragraph.
All the other options are false.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
93. Option 4 is incorrect because the author was the one
walking around the harbour with Corporal Charker. It
can be inferred from the last line that Gill is the name
of the author. The name of the sergeant was Drooce.
All the other options are true.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
94. Option 1 is incorrect as the author states that on the
26th January, the moon was only two days old.
Option 2 is incorrect as the author states that
according to Conseil, the Captain of Nautilus was a
person who returned contempt for indifference.
Option 4 is incorrect as from the chronicle; it is clear
that the Nautilus was not in the vicinity of Island
Crespo, but had just left Keeling Island for the Indian
Peninsula.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
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IIFT 2008
95. Option 2 is false because the author states that the
second officer came to take the altitude of the sun
before the 21st January. It is however unclear on which
day this event occurred.
All the other options are true.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
96. The author describes the tentacles of the molluscs, the
snouts of the Isabella sharks, cocos of the coral
formations and the colourless infusorias that adhere to
themselves for several leagues.
Hence the correct answer is option 1.
97. Option 1 is eliminated as Nautilus was travelling at that
speed between 21st and 23rd January and not 22nd and
24th January.
Option 2 is incorrect as the author saw the molluscs on
25th January and not 26th January.
Option 3 is incorrect as the author fancied (imagined)
the boat to be owned by the PO Company and
travelling from Ceylon to Sydney.
Option 4 is explained in the second paragraph of the
passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
98. A rumble is a deep, heavy, muffled sound.
A fracas is a riotous brawl.
An aquifer is any geological formation containing or
conducting ground water.
A chalice is a bowl shaped drinking vessel.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
99. Briny means salty.
Puerile means childishly foolish.
Prophylactic means defending or protecting from
disease or infection.
Vitriolic means something highly caustic or severe or
a strong and erosive acid.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
100. A maelstrom is a large powerful whirlpool.
Alacrity is cheerful readiness or promptness.
Slighting is treating as of small importance.
Acclivity is an upward slope of ground.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
101. Since the Hon. Ige was confronted with incivility, the
word in the blank should have a negative connotation.
This eliminates options 2 and 4.
Proscription is an act of banishing. Since Justice Ige
cannot banish the cads and only curses them, this
option is eliminated.
Malediction means to utter a curse.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
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102. Prophesy is the verb which means to predict
something.
Prophecy is the noun which means a prediction.
The first blank needs a verb and the second blank
needs a noun.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
103. The public figure is said to be facing inquiry into
allegations of having obtained money by deception, the
person has to be troubled or engaged in a struggle or
conflict. This eliminates options 1 and 4.
Endangered is generally used to denote a threat with
extinction. The threat here is of a much larger degree
and hence can be eliminated.
Embattle means to be engaged in a struggle or
conflict.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
104. Lugubrious is mournful. His listeners will not enjoy
his mournful wit. Moreover, satire is sarcastic and
ironic but not mournful. Thus, options 1 and 3 are
eliminated.
Smarted means to cause a sharp and superficial
pain. The victims cannot smart and suffer at the same
time. Hence, option 2 is also eliminated.
Trenchant wit is caustic and cutting wit. To wince
is to draw back or tense the body as from pain.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
105. The sentence talks about the Presidents
Administration and not the President, the pronoun that
can be used is it only. This eliminates options 1 and 4.
Option 3 is incorrect as it talks about the president
losing the vote and not the Presidents Office. This
eliminates option 3 as well.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
106. The verb indicate should agree with the rise and not
negative attitude and should, therefore, should be
singular. This eliminates option 1.
Option 3 is eliminates as the word that is not required
after therefore.
Option 4 is incorrect because of the tense used. The
sentence talks about an on-going process and the
present continuous tense is needed.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
107. Options 2 and 4 are incorrect as the correct usage
would be a single sentence.
Option 3 puts forward the same idea as option 1 but
option 1 is better expressed.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
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108. The use of chemical spill as a subject is awkward in
option 2. It seems as if the chemical spill were a person
causing the delay.
There is nothing incorrect about options 3 and 4.
But the directions of the question are clear. The
original sentence is correct and there is no reason to
alter it.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
109. Travesty is a literary or artistic composition, so
inferior in quality as to be an imitation of its model.
Paragon is a model or pattern of excellence. Hence
the relation between the two is that of approximate
opposites.
Disqualification can be the effect of ineptitude which
means quality or condition of being without skill.
Hence, option 2 is eliminated.
A sentinel is a person or a thing that watches or
stands as if watching. Creed is any system or
codification of belief. Since these words are not
opposites of each other, option 3 is incorrect.
Conundrum is anything that puzzles.
Accountability is not the opposite of conundrum and
hence, option 4 is also eliminated.
Autonomy is independence or freedom.
Subordinate is an inferior or a dependent person or
thing. These two words are opposites of each other.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
110. Contrite means to be filled with a sense of guilt.
Obdurate means to be stubbornly resistant to moral
influence. These two words are opposites of each
other.
Grief and lament are approximate synonyms of each
other. Thus, option 1 is eliminated.
Sophisticated and cultured are synonyms of each other
and hence, option 3 is incorrect.
Since favourable and assenting are synonyms, option 4
is eliminated.
Aphoristic means giving or making a brief statement
of a principle which is available to all. Esoteric is that
which is known by a restricted number of people.
These two are opposites.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
111. A peccadillo is a very minor or slight sin or offense; a
trifling fault. A flaw is a feature that mars the
perfection of something; defect; fault. Therefore the
relationship is synonymous in nature.
Clandestine is something executed with secrecy.
Since openness is an antonym of clandestine, option 1
is eliminated.
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Forensics is the art or study of argumentation and
courts of law. Judiciary means pertaining to the
judicial branch or system or to judges. These words
are not synonyms but one is used in another. Forensics
cannot lead to judiciaries. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
An invasion is an entrance as if to take possession or
overrun against any form of enemy. A putsch is a
plotted attempt to overthrow a government. Since,
they are not synonyms and since an invasion cannot
lead to a putsch; option 4 is incorrect.
A nick is a small notch, groove, chip, or the like, cut
into or existing in something. A score is a notch,
scratch, or incision; a stroke or line.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
112. A mutter is an utterance of indistinct words in a low
tone.
A definition is not necessarily easy. Hence, option 1 is
incorrect.
Blunder and polished cannot be related and thus,
option 2 is eliminated.
To expedite is to speed up the process. It may not
necessarily complete the process. Hence, option 4 is
incorrect.
To articulate is to speak well in distinct syllables.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
113. Requiem is a musical service or a dirge for the
repose of the dead.
Humility is the quality of being humble.
Prerequisite means required beforehand.
Reign means royal rule.
Resolution means a formal expression of opinion or
intention made, usually after voting, by a formal
organization, a legislature, a club, or other group.
None of these words are opposite in meaning to
requiem.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.
Note: Fifth option has been added to reduce the
ambiguity seen in the question.
114. Aspersion is a damaging or a derogatory remark or
criticism.
Infamy is evil fame or reputation.
Restriction is confinement.
Tradition is something that is handed down.
Obeisance is a movement of body expressing deep
respect or deferential courtesy.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
115. Stolidity is the ability to remain not easily stirred or
moved emotionally.
Posterity means all descendants of one generation.
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IIFT 2008
Proximity is nearness in place, time, order,
occurrence or relation.
Agility is the power of moving quickly and easily.
Sobriety is the state or quality of being sober.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
116. Options 2 and 4 are eliminated as the paragraph
cannot start with statement I. Statement I states even
more, which suggests a continuing idea.
Statement IV talks of a contraction which has been
introduced in Statement II. Statement IV cannot come
before Statement II.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
117. Statement I cannot start the paragraph as it talks about
at the time. Since the statement is talking about a
specific time, it needs to be introduced before using
this statement. Thus, options 2 and 4 are eliminated.
Statement III states that he says. This person needs to
be introduced before using this statement and since
there is only one person mentioned in all statements
put together; statement I should precede statement III.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
118. Option 3 is eliminated as statement II talks about its
effects. Since the cause of this effect should be
introduced before using this statement, statement II
cannot start the paragraph.
Statement V talks about formate which is further
explained in statement II. Thus, statement II should
follow statement V.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
119. Disinterested means unbiased.
Uninterested means not interested.
With these definitions, only S2 and S4 are the
sentences where the word has been used correctly.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
120. To use on the contrary correctly, the sentence must
have two contradicting ideas.
Intelligence and Impatience are not contradicting
ideas. Hence, S2 is incorrect.
It is not contradicting if a cosmopolitan city is
expensive. Thus, S3 is also incorrect.
Being rich and being in debt are two contradicting
ideas, thus, S1 is correct.
Passing and failing are two contradicting ideas and
hence, S4 is correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
121. China is not a member of the G8 group of countries.
Hence, option 2.
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 IIFT 2008

122. UNESCO launched the Education For All (EFA) 131. Accidental Empires: How the Boys of Silicon Valley
movement. Make Their Millions, Battle Foreign Competition, and
Hence, option 4. Still Cant Get a Date is written by Robert X Cringely.
Hence, option 2.
123. Mexico is a member of the OECD group.
Hence, option 3. 132. Storting is Parliament of Norway and Riksdag is the
Parliament of Sweden.
124. The correct match is
Hence, option 2.
Olympic host
Year 133. View from the outside: Why good economics works for
cities
everyone is written by P. Chidambaram.
1 1976 iii Montreal Hence, option 1.
2 1992 iv Barcelona
3 1964 ii Tokyo 134. Maastricht Treaty was signed by the European nations
4 2012 i London to enter into a monetary union.
Hence, option 3.
Hence, option 4.
135. Bajaj has a tie up with a Germen insurer.
125. The correct match is Hence, option 3.
IPL Franchise Owner 136. Tata Chemicals has acquired General Chemical
Reliance Industrial Products Inc. of USA in 2008.
1 Mumbai Indians iii
Industries Hence, option 1.
2 Royal Challengers i UB group
137. Anti-Naxalite Force is not part of the Central Police
3 Chennai Super Kings iv India Cements
Forces under the Union Government of India.
4 Delhi Daredevils ii GMR Holdings
Hence, option 4.
Hence, option 2.
138. The correct order in terms of decreasing length of land
126. Albania is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers border shared with India is Bangladesh, China,
Group. Pakistan, Nepal, and Myanmar.
Hence, option 4. Hence, option 4.

127. The correct match is 139. The IAEA was established in 1957. France conducted
its first nuclear weapons test in 1960 and China
Bharat Ratna conducted its first nuclear test in 1964.
Year
recipients Hence, option 3.
1 Pandit Ravi Shankar ii 1999
2 Ustad Bismillah Khan iii 2001 140. Daulagiri, the seventh highest mountain peak in the
3 M S Subbulakshmi iv 1998 world, is located in Nepal.
4 Satyajit Ray i 1992 Hence, option 1.

Hence, option 1. 141. The correct match is

128. Siouguluan River flows in Taiwan not Malaysia. Organization Purpose

Hence, option 4. Refinancing agricultural
1 NABARD ii
credit
129. International Monetary Fund is headquartered at Financial assistance for
Washington D.C, USA. 2 NCDC i
warehousing
Hence, option 3. 3 SCARDB iv Land development
130. In 1994 the Hockey World cup, hosted in Sydney, was Inter-state sale of
4 NAFED iii
won by Pakistan. agricultural products
Hence, option 3.
Hence, option 1.

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 IIFT 2008

142. The correct order in terms of decreasing sex ratio is 149. The correct match is
Kerala, Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and
Diseases Plants
Orissa.
Hence, option 1. i. Black heart d. Potatoes
ii. Red Rot c. Sugarcane
143. The correct match is iii. Karnal Bunt b. Wheat
iv. Powdery Mildew a. Peas
Artists Instruments
i. N. Rajam b. Violin Hence, option 2.
ii. Satish Vyas a. Santoor
iii. Vilayat Khan d. Sitar 150. In April 2008 ISRO launched the satellite
CARTOSAT-2A form Sriharikota.
iv. Asad Ali Khan c. Rudra Vina
Hence, option 2.
Hence, option 2.

144. The correct match is

Sobriquets Primary Names

i. Emerald Island b. Ireland
ii. Island of pearls a. Bahrain
iii. Holy land d. Palestine
iv. Land of thunderbolt c. Bhutan

Hence, option 3.

145. In 2007, Indra Nooyi was awarded Padma Bhushan by

Government of India.
Hence, option 1.

146. The antibiotic penicillin is obtained from Penicillium

fungi.
Hence, option 2.

147. The correct match is

Railway Zone Head Quarter

i. South-East Central c. Bilaspur
ii. North-East Frontier b. Maligaon
iii. North Eastern d. Gorakhpur
iv. West Central a. Jabalpur

Hence, option 1.

148. The correct match is

Inventions/Discoveries Inventors/ Discoverer

i. Cassette(Audio) a. Philips Co.
ii. Super Computer b. J. H. Van Tassel
iii. Cloning(Mammal) c. Wilmut et al
iv. HIV d. Mortagnier

Hence, option 1.

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