Professional Documents
Culture Documents
A.T.Belonio
D.A.H. Belonio
2016
Agricultural, Food
and Feed Process
Engineering
VOLUME
AG R I C U LT U R A L ENGINEERING REVIEWER
Agricultural, Food and Feed
Process Engineering
AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING REVIEWER VOLUME 3
by
Copyright 2016
Acknowledgment/Prayer:
We are very much thankful to you God the Father for inspiring us to prepare this review
material to help those who graduated the agricultural engineering degree to pass the
Professional Agricultural Engineering Licensure Examination. May you grant them the
desires of their hearts to pass the exam and be used by You in the future years to come!
The contents of the book are series of questions and problems that compel
the students to review the fundamentals, theories, and concepts in
agricultural engineering. The questions and problems are grouped into
subtopics. Most questions are practical in nature but tricky to test whether
students have thorough understanding of the principles in each of the
different subject matters in agricultural and food process engineering. The
answer for each question and problem is provided at the end of every topic.
This book is the third of the six volumes of the Reviewer. It focuses on the
different topics on agricultural, food, and feed process engineering. It also
includes specific topics on refrigeration, cold storage, heat transfer, and
thermal insulation.
This book is still in draft form and is produced in limited copies. Additional
items will be included in the future to make this material more
comprehensive. Comments and suggestions are welcome for the
improvement of this book.
May this book become useful to the aspiring Agricultural Engineers as they
prepare for the Agricultural Engineering Board Examination. God bless!
ALEXIS T. BELONIO
DANIEL ALEXIS H. BELONIO
Table of Contents
No. of
Pages
General Information
Basic Engineering
Properties of Agricultural and Food Products
Moisture Content
Cleaning, Grading, and Sorting
Size Reduction and Sieving
Mixing and Blending
Air Moving Device
Material Handling
Crop Drying
Crop Storage
Rice Milling
Corn Milling
Coconut Flour Processing
Sugar Processing
Food Process Engineering
Feed Milling
Refrigeration and Cold Storage
Heat Transfer and Thermal Insulation
General
Information
1. A study that deals with the principles 5. These are crops that have high
and practices of processing agricultural moisture content of 30% and more such
products suitable for food and feeds. as fruits and vegetables including dairy,
a. Agricultural processing meat, poultry, and fish and easily
b. Food processing deteriorate or spoil.
c. Feed processing a. Perishable crops
d. All of the above b. Durable crops
c. Flexible crops
2. A study that deals with the d. None of the above
application and practices in converting
agricultural products into different 6. Processing operation which does not
kinds and forms of food. significantly change the physical
a. Agricultural processing characteristics of the product such as
b. Food processing drying and dehydration of fruits and
c. Feed processing vegetables.
d. All of the above a. Primary processing
b. Secondary processing
3. A study that deals with the c. Tertiary processing
application and practices in converting d. None of the above
agricultural products into different
kinds and forms of food suitable for 7. Processing operation which changes
animal consumption. the physical properties of the product
a. Agricultural processing such as processing banana into catsup.
b. Food processing a. Primary processing
c. Feed processing b. Secondary processing
d. All of the above c. Tertiary processing
d. None of the above
4. These are crops that are produced
and harvested with normally low 8. Which country do not belong to the
moisture content of about 20 to 30% ASEAN Free Trade Agreement?
and do not easily deteriorate or spoil. a. China
a. Perishable crops b. Japan
b. Durable crops c. Korea
c. Flexible crops d. All of the above
d. None of the above e. None of the above
Basic Engineering
1. The study that deals with fluids at 6. Newtons law of motion states that:
rest such as those fluids like coconut oil, a. Everybody continues in a state of rest
milk, etc. or of uniform motion in a straight line
a. Hydrodynamic unless compelled by force to change that
b. Hydrostatic state.
c. Hydro pneumatic b. The rate of change of momentum is
d. None of the above proportional to the force applied and
took place in the direction of the force
2. The study that deals with the various application.
factors affecting the relationship c. To every action there is always an
between the rate of flow of fluid and equal and opposite reaction.
the various pressure tending it to cause d. All of the above
or inhibit its flow.
a. Hydrodynamic 7. Mass flow rate states that:
b. Hydrostatic a. The rate of flow of fluid is constant at
c. Hydro pneumatic any point in the system and there is no
d. None of the above accumulation or depletion of fluid within
the system.
3. Fluids include ___. b. The rate of flow of fluid is not
a. solid, gas, and liquid constant at any point in the system and
b. gas and liquid there is accumulation or depletion of
c. liquid fluid within the system.
d. all of the above c. The rate of flow of fluid increases at
any point of the system and there is
4. Which of the following resources are accumulation and no depletion within
considered fluid? the system.
a. Biogas d. None of the above
b. Producer gas
c. Bioethanol 8. What is the mass flow rate of coconut
d. Coconut oil oil in a 2-in. pipe if the velocity of the
e. Sugar cane juice fluid is measured at 0.02 m/s? The
f. All of the above specific weight of oil is 1500 kg/m3.
g. None of the above a. 3.54 kg/sec
b. 3.13 kg/sec
5. Which of the following resources are c. 2.35 kg/sec
not fluid? d. None of the above
a. Biomass
b. Grains and Cereals
c. Fruits and vegetables
d. All of the above
Basic Engineering
12. This refers to the internal resistance 18. An example of Non-Newtonian fluid.
of fluid to shear. a. Purees
a. Viscosity b. Jathropha oil
b. Coefficient of friction of fluid to fluid c. Coconut water
c. All of the above d. None of the above
d. None of the above
19. The characteristic of agricultural
13. Reynolds number is a function of products that determines the angle by
the ___. which it will move freely by gravity with
a. inside diameter of the pipe respect to the material in which it is
b. velocity of fluid inside the pipe held, such as hopper bottom of a storage
c. specific weight of the fluid bin structure.
d. fluid viscosity a. Angle of repose
e. All of the above b. Angle of friction
f. None of the above c. Angle of slide
d. None of the above
Basic Engineering
20. The angle formed by agricultural 25. The plenum chamber of a flatbed
product itself with respect to the dryer registers 2 inches of water. How
horizontal axis which varies with the much is the equivalent pressure of the
moisture content and the amount of chamber in psig?
foreign matter. a. 0.072 psig
a. Angle of repose b. 1.201 psig
b. Angle of friction c. 1.537 psig
c. Angle of slide d. None of the above
d. None of the above
26. The pressure taken perpendicular
21. The unit of pressure. from the direction of fluid where sample
a. Psi application of which is taking the velocity
b. Inches of water of flow of fluid in pipes using pitot- tube
c. Inches of mercury manometer.
d. All of the above a. Static pressure
e. None of the above b. Dynamic pressure
c. Isothermic pressure
22. High pressure is usually expressed d. None of the above
in ___.
a. psi 27. The pressure taken from the
b. inches of water direction of fluid which is also the
c. inches of mercury pressure resulting from force due to
d. All of the above change in velocity of the fluid.
e. None of the above a. Static pressure
b. Dynamic pressure
23. Low pressure is usually expressed in c. Isothermic pressure
___. d. None of the above
a. psi
b. inches of water 28. A simple device used to measure
c. inches of mercury pressure by taking the difference in the
d. All of the above height of fluid inside a tube.
e. None of the above a. Pyschrometer
b. Hydrometer
24. Very low pressure is usually c. Manometer
expressed in ___. d. None of the above
a. psi
b. inches of water 29. An open tube pointing to the
c. inches of mercury direction of flow of the fluid that is
d. All of the above usually used with manometer to
e. None of the above measure static and dynamic pressures.
a. Pitot-Tube
b. Orifice
c. Weir
d. None of the above
Basic Engineering
30. Which of the following instruments 36. The energy available from moving
can measure the flow of fluid? fluids.
a. Pitot tube a. Pressure Energy
b. Venturi meter b. Kinetic Energy
c. Hot wire anemometer c. Potential Energy
d. All of the above d. None of the above
e. None of the above
37. In fluid mechanics, the total hydraulic
31. Which of the following fluids is energy is the sum of ___ energy plus the
considered as highly incompressible? work supplied by the pump or blower
a. Flue gases less friction (conduit and fittings) in the
b. Biogas system.
c. Vegetable oil a. potential and kinetic
d. All of the above b. pressure and kinetic
c. potential, kinetic, and pressure
32. Which of the following fluids is d. None of the above
considered as compressible?
a. Producer gas 38. Which of the following statements is
b. Vegetable oil true?
c. Molasses a. The velocity of fluid flowing in a pipe
d. None of the above is highest at the center and decreases
towards its surfaces.
33. The mass flow rate equation: b. The velocity gradient for streamlined
a. Q = AV flow in a long circular conduit is
b. Q = AV parabolic in shape.
c. Q = A c. The velocity gradient for turbulent
d. None of the above flow flattens and the relationship
between the maximum and the average
34. The available energy due to the velocity changes.
elevation above a reference plane. d. All of the above
a. Pressure Energy e. None of the above
b. Kinetic Energy
c. Potential Energy 39. The process which results in the
d. None of the above diffusion of substances from the region
of high concentration to the region of
35. The available energy due to the low concentration.
internal pressure. a. Energy transfer
a. Pressure Energy b. Mass transfer
b. Kinetic Energy c. Heat transfer
c. Potential Energy d. None of the above
d. None of the above
Basic Engineering
Problem 1
Given:
Inside diameter of pipe - 2 in.
Fluid velocity - 0.02 m/s
Specific weight of fluid - 1500 kg/m3
Solution:
Q = AVd
= 3.14 (2 in.)2/4 x 0.025 m/in. x 0.02 m/s
x 1500 kg/m3
= 2.35 kg/sec
Basic Engineering
Problem 2
Given:
Q - 100 kg/min
Hsd - 6m
Hss - 1m
Hd - 0.2 m
Y - 0.93 kg/l
Solution:
Problem 3
Given:
Q1 - 1 gpm
HP1 - 1.5 hp
N1 - 1700 rpm
H1 - 10 m
N2 - 2200 rpm
Solution:
N1/N2 = Q1/Q2
Q2 = N2Q1/N1
= 2200 rpm ( 1gpm)/1700 rpm
= 1.294 gpm
N12/N22 = H1/H2
H2 = H1 (N22) / N12
= 10 m (2200 rpm)2 / (1700 rpm)2
= 16.75 m
N13/N23 = HP1/HP2
HP2 = HP1 (N23) / N13
= 1.5 hp (2200 rpm)3 / (1700 rpm)3
= 3.25 hp
Properties of Agricultural Products
1. The unhulled grain of Oryza sativa. 7. The slender type paddy has ___
a. Palay length to width ratio.
b. Paddy a. less than 2.0
c. Rough rice b. between 2 to 3
d. All of the above c. more than 3.0
d. None of the above
2. The fibrous layer of paddy when hull
is removed and is commonly known as 8. The free space between the husk of
the silver skin of brown rice. rough rice and the brown rice kernel
a. Lemma and Palea greatly affects milling in the sense that
b. Pericarp ___.
c. Bran layer a. the larger the free space the greater
d. None of the above is the amount of broken grains
b. the smaller the free space the
3. An angle with tangent equals the lesser its abrasive effect to the
coefficient of friction between surfaces rubber-roll huller
of the stored materials. c. the larger the free space, the
a. Angle of contact lesser the breakage and losses
b. Angle of friction d. All of the above
c. Angle of repose
d. All for the above 9. The uneven expansion and
contraction of the inner and the outer
4. The coefficient of friction of rice to layers of the grains that cause fissuring is
steel material is 0.41. What would be a factor of ___.
the minimum angle of the hopper a. mechanical stress
required for the system? b. thermal stress
a. 22 deg. c. physical stress
b. 30 deg. d. All of the above
c. 50 deg. e. None of the above
d. None of the above
10. The specific gravity of rice.
5. The drying temperature of copra is a. 1.11 to 1.12
___. b. 1.19 to 1.30
a. less than 50C c. 1.22 to 1.26
b. between 50 to 95C d. None of the above
c. above 95C
d. None of the above 11. The specific gravity of corn.
a. 1.11 to 1.12
6. The density of pig and poultry feeds b. 1.19 to 1.30
is approximately ___. c. 1.22 to 1.26
a. 250 kg/m3 d. None of the above
b. 450 kg/m3
c. 650 kg/m3
d. None of the above
Properties of Agricultural Products
12. The specific gravity of sorghum 19. The angle of friction of rough rice in
a. 1.11 to 1.12 steel.
b. 1.19 to 1.30 a. 0.41
c. 1.22 to 1.26 b. 0.37
d. None of the above c. 0.36
d. None of the above
13. The bulk density of rough rice.
a. 25 lbs/ft3 20. The angle of friction of shelled corn
b. 36 lbs/ft3 in steel.
c. 45 lbs/ft3 a. 0.41
d. None of the above b. 0.37
c. 0.36
14. The bulk density of shelled corn. d. None of the above
a. 25 lbs/ft3
b. 36 lbs/ft3 21. The angle of friction of soybean in
c. 45 lbs/ft3 steel.
d. None of the above a. 0.41
b. 0.37
15. The physical properties of important c. 0.36
agricultural processing. d. None of the above
a. Surface area
b. Porosity 22. Which of the following thermal
c. Bulk density properties are important in agricultural
d. Angle of repose processing?
e. Angle of friction a. Thermal conductivity
f. All of the above b. Specific heat
c. Coefficient of thermal expansion
16. The angle of repose of rough rice. d. Heat of vaporization
a. 27 degrees e. Thermal diffusivity
b. 33 degree f. All of the above
c. 36 degrees
d. None of the above 23. The thermal conductivity of paddy
grain ___ linearly with temperature,
17. The angle of repose of shelled corn. bulk density, and moisture content.
a. 27 degrees a. increases
b. 33 degree b. decreases
c. 36 degrees c. do not increase or decrease
d. None of the above d. None of the above
24. The amount of heat required to 30. The equivalent loss in the dry matter
raise the temperature of the product of a product due to respiration during
one degree higher when heat is added. storage.
a. Heat of vaporization a. Moisture loss
b. Specific heat b. Dry matter loss
c. Thermal diffusivity c. Respiration loss
d. None of the above d. None of the above
25. The amount of heat required to 31. The pressure drop in the product
remove a certain amount of moisture during drying is a function of ___.
from the product. a. airflow
a. Heat of vaporization b. amount of foreign matter present
b. Specific heat c. moisture content
c. Thermal diffusivity d. depth of drying
d. None of the above e. All of the above
26. Hygroscopic properties important in 32. The terminal velocity of rough rice.
agricultural processing. a. 1.3 to 5.2 m/s
a. Equilibrium moisture content b. 6.0 to 7.1 m/s
b. Mass transfer coefficient c. 7.5 to 9.0 m/s
c. Dry matter loss d. None of the above
d. Tempering period
e. All of the above
Problem 1
What is the porosity of a medium-sized paddy having 21% moisture content wet
basis? If the paddy is to be dried to 14% wet basis, what is the percentage increase
in the porosity of the sample?
Given:
MC wb 1 - 21%
MCwb 2 - 14%
Problem 2
A receiving pit for rough rice is to be designed for a rice mill. If concrete material is
to be used, what is the minimum angle of inclination of the pit to make it self-
emptying? Consider a 0.52 coefficient of friction for rough rice to smooth concrete.
If steel will be used instead of concrete with 0.46 coefficient of friction, what will
be the inclination needed for the pit?
Given:
Material - rough rice
Coef. of friction to concrete - 0.52
Coef. of friction to steel - 0.46
Problem 3
Ten tons of shelled corn is to be stored in a cylindrical silo. Loading is from the
bottom to the top of the cylindrical container, without considering the additional
volume of the cone due to the effect of the angle of repose of the sample. If the
silo requires a ratio of 2D = H, what would be the dimension of the silo? Assume a
45 lb/ft3 bulk density for shelled corn.
Given:
Sample - shelled corn
Weight of sample - 10 tons
Ratio - 2D = H
Density of sample - 45 lb/ft3
Solution:
D2 /4 x H = 13.85 m3
D2/4 x 2 D = 13.85 m3
D3 = (8/) 13.85 m3
D = 2.07 m
H = 4.14 m
Properties of Agricultural Products
Problem 4
Given:
Sample - paddy
Weight of sample - 1.5 tons
Initial temperature of sample - 27C (106.2F)
Final temperature of sample - 45C (138.6F)
Moisture content - 14% wet basis
Solution:
C = 0.22008 + 0.1301 M
= 0.22008 + 0.1301 (0.14)
= 0.22190 BTU/lb-F
Problem 5
What is the latent heat of vaporization of paddy at 28% moisture content wet
basis and at 40C temperature. If 200-kg moisture will be removed from the bulk
of paddy, what is the amount of heat required to remove it?
Given:
Moisture content - 28% wet basis
Temperature - 40C
Moisture to be removed - 200 kg
Solution:
Problem 6
Five hundred tons of paddy, at 16% wet basis, is to be stored in a silo for 6 months.
If the storage temperature in the warehouse will be maintained at 95F, what
would be the expected weight of the paddy after the storage period? Neglect
losses due to insect and pests.
Given:
Product - paddy
Weight of product - 500 tons
Storage time - 6 months
Moisture content - 16%
Storage temperature - 95F
Solution:
Problem 7
Given:
Coefficient of friction - 0.41
Solution:
tan = 0.41
= tan -1 0.41
= 22.3
Problem 8
Given:
MC initial - 25%
MC final - 14%
Initial weight - 4 tons
Solution:
12. The moisture inside the tissue of a 17. The device used by the industry in
material that can only be removed by determining moisture content of grains.
heating or reducing the vapor pressure a. Oven
within the material. b. Electrical resistance and capacitance-
a. Chemically bound moisture type meter
b. Bound moisture c. Infrared moisture meter
c. Free moisture d. All of the above
d. All of the above
18. If 20 kg of water is to be removed
13. The difficult-to-remove moisture from 110-kg paddy, what is the
from the product that requires other percentage moisture content of the
method than heating in order to paddy in wet basis?
remove it. a. 14.5%
a. Chemically-bound moisture b. 16.9%
b. Bound moisture c. 18.18%
c. Free moisture d. None of the above
d. All of the above
19. What is the percentage moisture
14. Which of the following is considered content of the paddy in Item 18 above
primary method in determining when expressed in dry basis?
moisture content? a. 16.4%
a. Oven method b. 19.9%
b. Distillation method c. 22.2%
c. Infrared method d. None of the above
d. All of the above
e. None of the above 20. Determine the amount of moisture
that can be removed from 9 tons of
15. Which of the following is considered paddy with 24% initial moisture content
secondary method in determining dried to 14%.
moisture content? a. 1.05 tons
a. Electrical resistance method b. 1.26 tons
b. Electrical capacitance method c. 1.57 tons
c. Chemical method d. None of the above
d. Hygrometric method
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
Moisture Content
Problem 1
Given:
MCi - 14.5%
Wdm - 76 kg
Solution:
Problem 2
Given:
MCw - 14.5%
Required: MCd
Solution:
Problem 3
What is the equilibrium moisture content of paddy stored in bags at 27C storage
temperature with 90% humidity. If the moisture content of paddy stored is 14%
wet basis, is there a danger for the grains to deteriorate when the condition
prevails for a longer period?
Given:
Storage temperature - 27C
Storage humidity - 90%
Moisture content of sample - 14%
Solution:
Problem 4
Given:
Wm - 20 kg
Wi - 110 kg
Solution:
% MCw = ( Wi Wf ) x 100 / Wi
= ( 20 kg / 110 kg ) x 100
= 18.18 %
Moisture Content
Problem 5
Given:
MCw - 12%
Required: MCd
Solution:
Problem 6
Given:
MCd - 25%
Required: MCw
Solution:
Problem 7
Given:
Wi - 9 tons
MCi - 24%
MCf - 14%
Solution:
Problem 8
Given:
Wf - 7.9 tons
Solution:
ML = Wi Wf
ML = 9 tons 7.9 tons
= 1.05 tons
Moisture Content
Problem 9
Given:
Grain - corn
MC initial - 24%
MC final - 14%
Initial weight - 1000 kg
Solution:
Wi (1 MCi)
Wt. = (1 - MCf)
1000 kg (1 0.24) = (1 0.14)
= 883.72 kg
Problem 10
Given:
Wt. - 883.72 kg
Solution:
12. The material commonly used in 17. A separator used for particles with
separating grains from chaffs according low and high terminal velocity.
to size. a. Air blast separator
a. Indented plate b. Aspirator
b. Perforated sheet c. Fanning mill
c. Steel screen d. None of the above
d. All of the above
18. Vibrator separator is recommended
13. When removing light particles from for separating grains based on ___.
threshed grains that goes with the a. weight
chaffs during operation, what would be b. surface texture
the best course of action that you can c. size
recommend as an Agricultural Engineer d. none of the above
in order to achieve better cleaning and
separation? 19. A grain separator for seed based on
a. Install additional perforated sheets in the affinity for liquid or on the rate at
the cleaning system. which the surface of the seed absorbs
b. Provide an air blast system using a liquid.
blower so it can carry light particles. a. Vibrator separator
c. Reduce the feeding of threshed b. Aspirator
grains. c. Magnetic separator
d. None of the above d. None of the above
14. When using a cylindrical slotted 20. The machine used to separate grains
rotating screen or sheet, the material according to color or reflectivity.
can be separated in terms of ___. a. Color meter
a. weight b. Electronic color sorter
b. shape c. Electric color separator
c. thickness d. None of the above
d. None of the above
21. Precleaners are provided for the rice
15. Indented rotating cylinders are milling plant primarily to ___ and to
usually used for separating grains in improve the quality of the final product.
terms of ___. a. add for the machine requirement
a. thickness b. protect other processing equipment
b. width and length c. reduce the load
c. size d. None of the above
d. None of the above
22. In a tray-type paddy separator,
16. Air blast separation is effective for brown rice moves at the ___ of the tray.
separating the product based on ___. a. bottom
a. size b. middle
b. weight c. top
c. length d. None of the above
d. None of the above
Cleaning, Grading, and Sorting
23. Self -cleaning sieves used for rice 27. Efficiency of ordinary cyclone ranges
mills basically consist of ___. from ___.
a. a brush to remove particles that clogs a. 80 to 90%
the screen of the cleaner b. 95 to 98%
b. one or two balls that continuously c. 98 to 99%
hammer the top sieve of the cleaner d. None of the above
c. assigned operator to do the cleaning
while the machine is operating
d. None of the above
11. The process of reducing the size of 16. Vertical-axis hammer mill is more
materials by applying force to the advantageous than horizontal-axis for
product in excess of its strength. the reason that:
a. Shearing a. It is more effective in grinding
b. Crushing grains with higher moisture
c. Milling content of up to 25%.
d. None of the above b. The power requirement of the
vertical-axis hammer mill is much lower
12. The process of reducing the size of than that of the horizontal-axis
materials by pushing or forcing a thin hammer mill.
sharp knife into it. c. Less broken grains can be derived
a. Shearing from vertical-axis.
b. Crushing d. None of the above
c. Cutting
d. All of the above 17. A grain milling machine consisting
of two cast-iron disk plates with teeth
13. An indicator of the uniformity of or serration on one or on both faces.
ground materials in the resultant a. Hammer mill
product. b. Attrition mill
a. Uniformity index c. Roller mill
b. Particle size d. All of the above
c. Fineness modulus
d. All of the above 18. A grain milling machine suitable for
grinding grains with moisture content
14. The process of reducing the size of of up to 30%.
materials by cutting and crushing a. Hammer mill
actions. b. Attrition or bar mill
a. Milling c. Roller mill
b. Grinding d. All of the above
c. Shearing
d. None of the above 19. A type of mill used for crushing
grains by allowing it to pass through
15. Hammer mills are designed two rotating-cylinder steels, one of
purposely to ___. which is smaller than the other.
a. chop forage materials a. Hammer mill
b. reduce the sizes of granular b. Roller mill
products c. Plate mill
c. compact powdered product d. All of the above
d. None of the above
Size Reduction
20. When reduced material size is 25. In hammer milling, the fineness of a
between 1/8 in. or more, it is classified material is determined by the ___.
as ___. a. number of hammers
a. microscopic range b. speed of hammer
b. sieve range c. size of hole of the screen
c. dimension range d. None of the above
d. None of the above
26. The speed of hammer mills.
21. When reduced material size is a. 200 to 1000 rpm
between 0.125 to 0.0029 in., it is b. 1500 to 4000 rpm
classified as ___. c. 4500 to 6000 rpm
a. microscopic range d. None of the above
b. sieve range
c. dimension range 27. The operating speed of burr mills.
d. None of the above a. Less than 1200 rpm
b. 1200 to 2400 rpm
22. When reduced material size is less c. 2400 to 3200 rpm
than 0.0029 in., it is classified as ___. d. None of the above
a. microscopic range
b. sieve range 28. Performance characteristics of size-
c. dimension range reduction equipment are based on ___.
d. none of the above a. size uniformity
b. temperature rise
23. A device used for classifying c. power requirement
granular materials by passing through d. trouble-free operation
series of screens. e. All of the above
a. Tyler Sieves
b. Tyler screen 29. The power requirement in reducing
c. Tyler Separator the size of grains is ___ for moist grains
d. None of the above than for dried grains.
a. lesser
24. Sieves used in determining the b. the same
fineness modulus of a material includes c. higher
3/8-, 4-, 8-, 14-, 28-, 48-. and ___ -in. d. None of the above
mesh.
a. 60 30. The power requirement of size
b. 80 reduction equipment is ___ for fibrous
c. 100 than crystalline materials.
d. None of the above a. lesser
b. the same
c. higher
d. None of the above
Size Reduction
31. The energy requirement of a 36. The factor affecting the power
hammer mill in grinding shelled corn. requirement of grinding mill.
a. 7.4 kw-hr/ton a. Type of material
b. 5.8 kw-hr/ton b. Moisture content of material
c. 2.3 kw-hr/ton c. Fineness of grinding of material
d. None of the above d. Rate of feeding the material
e. Type and condition of mill
32. A cassava processing plant is f. All of the above
required to grind fresh cassava into
flour, what size-reduction machine 37. The most suitable machine for
would you recommend as an reducing size of materials like forages,
Agricultural Engineer? straw, stalks, and weeds.
a. Hammer mill a. Hammer mill
b. Roller mill b. Roller mill
c. Burr mill c. Burr mill
d. None of the above d. Cutter mill
e. All of the above
33. The size-reduction machine usually
used in feed milling to break dried grains
into suitable size for feeds.
a. Hammer mill
b. Roller mill
c. Burr mill
d. None of the above
2. The auger that is centrally located in 7. A feed mixer with an auger that
a vertical feed mixer and usually rotates elevates the feed to the top of the
at ___ speed. mixing bin and spreads them evenly
a. 100-250 rpm throughout by gravity for another mixing
b. 250-400 rpm cycle.
c. 400-650 rpm a. Horizontal mixer
d. None of the above b. Vertical mixer
c. Inclined mixer
3. Horizontal feed mixer is not d. All of the above
advantageous for feed mixing as
compared with vertical feed mixer for 8. A mixer with U-shaped bin containing
the reason that ___. a central mixing blade or a ribbon
a. it has lower capacity mounted on a rotating shaft.
b. it has high power requirement a. Horizontal mixer
c. it has shorter life span b. Inclined mixer
d. none of the above c. Vertical mixer
d. All of the above
4. If mixing is needed during conveying,
the suitable conveyor to use is ___ type. 9. The assembling and measuring of the
a. bucket needed amount of every solid raw feed
b. screw material in the formulation of the
c. belt desired composition of a mixture.
d. All of the above a. Mixing
b. Blending
5. A feed mixer characterized by high c. Pelleting
capacity, short mixing time, and high d. All of the above
power requirement.
a. Horizontal mixer 10. The process of combining different
b. Inclined mixer materials until a certain degree of
c. Vertical mixer homogeneity is achieved.
d. All of the above a. Milling
b. Mixing
c. Feeding
d. None of the above
Mixing and Blending
11. Feed materials are purposely mixed 16. During mixing, round or small
to ___. particles tend to move towards the ___
a. obtain a homogenous feed to of the container.
ensure that animals are given the a. top
same proportions of nutrient b. middle
b. reduce the density of the feed c. bottom
material so that it can be easily d. All of the above
transported
c. improve the digestability of 17. Difficulty in mixing may result if the
feeds solid particles has ___.
d. None of the above a. the same size but of different specific
gravity
12. Basically, the purpose of mixing is b. different sizes
___. c. different shapes
a. to promote the transfer of heat d. All of the above
between hot and cold products
b. to obtain good contact between 18. The type of mixer satisfactory for
materials being mixed extensively large operations.
c. to promote reactions between a. Batch-type mixer
reactants b. Semi-continuous type mixer
d. all of the above c. Continuous-type mixer
e. any two of the above d. None of the above
13. A type of mixer suitable for either 19. The type of mixer suitable for
free flowing or non-free flowing moderate to small operation in which
materials. overhead cost is low and labor cost is
a. Rotating mixer without stirrers not critical.
b. Rotating mixer with stirrers a. Batch-type mixer
c. All of the above b. Semi-continuous-type mixer
d. None of the above c. Continuous-type mixer
d. None of the above
14. An indicator of satisfactory mixing.
a. Produce uniform mixture
b. Less time in mixing materials
c. Less cost
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
12. An axial-type fan with wider axial- 16. A centrifugal blower with blades
flow wheel capable of delivering higher positioned at the same plane with the
pressure than that of the axial-flow fan rotating shaft and has larger housing
and is driven either by belt or by direct than other types of centrifugal blower
drive system. and is capable of handle dirty air and
a. Propeller fan conveys materials that go through the
b. Axial-flow fan fan.
c. Tube-axial fan a. Forward curved-blade centrifugal
d. Vane-axial fan blower
e. None of the above b. Radial or straight-blade centrifugal
blower
13. An axial-flow-type fan with set of c. Backward curved-blade centrifugal
guide vanes located before or after the blower
wheel and is capable to deliver higher d. All of the above
pressure than that of the tube-axial fan.
a. Propeller fan 17. A type of centrifugal blower with few
b. Axial-flow fan blades tilted backward from the
c. Tube-axial fan direction of wheel rotation and is
d. Vane-axial fan inherently high speed with self-limiting
e. None of the above horsepower characteristics, and delivers
higher pressure than that of the forward
14. An air-moving device in which and radial-type centrifugal blowers.
airflow enters the axis of the shaft of a. Forward curved-blade centrifugal
the rotating blades and leaves in blower
perpendicular manner. b. Radial or straight- blade centrifugal
a. Propeller fan blower
b. Axial-flow fan c. Backward curved-blade centrifugal
c. Tube-axial fan blower
d. Centrifugal blower d. All of the above
e. None of the above
18. A low-pressure high-airflow
15. A centrifugal-type blower operating centrifugal-type blower that delivers
at low speed at several inches of uniform airflow along its length.
pressure than that of the axial-type fan a. Axial-type fan
and has a squirrel-cage rotor and large b. Centrifugal blower
number of blades. c. Cross-flow centrifugal blower
a. Forward curved-blade centrifugal d. All of the above
blower e. None of the above
b. Radial or straight-blade centrifugal
blower
c. Backward curved-blade centrifugal
blower
d. All of the above
Air-Moving Device
19. If the width of the blade of an axial- 24. For the same shaft rpm, which of the
type fan is increased, the airflow will following centrifugals delivers higher
relatively ___. pressure?
a. increase a. Forward-curved
b. decrease b. Radial
c. remain the same c. Backward-curved
d. None of the above d. None of the above
20. If the width of the impeller of a 25. The air-moving device commonly
centrifugal-type blower is increased, the used for refrigeration and ventilation
airflow will relatively ___. systems.
a. increase a. Forward-curved
b. decrease b. Radial
c. remain the same c. Backward-curved
d. None of the above d. None of the above
21. If the diameter of the impeller of 26. The air-moving device commonly
the centrifugal-type blower is increased, used for 6-ton flatbed paddy dryers.
the pressure will relatively ___. a. Forward-curved centrifugal blower
a. increase b. Propeller fan
b. decrease c. Vane-axial fan
c. remain the same d. None of the above
d. none of the above
27. The air-moving device commonly
22. If the diameter of the blade of an used for pneumatic conveyor systems.
axial-type fan is increased, the airflow a. Backward-curved centrifugal blower
will relatively ___. b. Propeller fan
a. increase c. Vane-axial fan
b. decrease d. None of the above
c. remain the same
d. None of the above 28. The air-moving device commonly
used for tunnel-ventilated poultry farms.
23. Noise level is highest for ___ a. Radial centrifugal blower
centrifugal blower. b. Propeller fan
a. forward-curved c. Vane-axial fan
b. radial d. None of the above
c. backward-curved
d. None of the above
Air-Moving Device
Casing Dimension (Narrow Backward Curved Casing Dimension (Wide Backward Curved
Centrifugal) Centrifugal)
Hc = 1.4 D Hc = 2.0 D
Bc = 1.35 D Bc = 1.6 D
Wc = W + 0.1 D Wc = W + 0.16 D
where: where:
Hc height of casing, in. Hc height of casing, in.
Bc - breadth of casing, in Bc - breadth of casing, in
Wc width of casing, in. Wc width of casing, in.
D diameter of impeller, in D diameter of impeller, in
W - width of impeller, in W - width of impeller, in
Casing Dimension (Mixed Flow) Casing Dimension (Traverse Flow)
Hc = 2.0 D Hc = 2.2 D
Bc = 2.0 D Bc = 2.2 D
Wc = 0.46 D Wc = W + [D/4]
where: where:
Hc height of casing, in. Hc height of casing, in.
Bc - breadth of casing, in Bc - breadth of casing, in
Wc width of casing, in. Wc width of casing, in.
D diameter of impeller, in D diameter of impeller, in
Problem 1
Given:
Speed - 800 rpm
Rate of flow - 100 ft3
Required:
Specific speed of the fan
Solution:
Ns = N x Q 0.5 / Ps 0.75
= (800 rpm)(100 cfm)0.5 / (1 in.H2O)0.75
= 800 x 10 x 1
= 8,000
Problem 2
A 12inch-diameter fan rotates at 1800-rpm speed. The fan blade has 10-degree
pitch angle. What is the fan flow rate if it has 40% static efficiency?
Given:
Diameter - 12 in.
Speed - 1800 rpm
Static efficiency - 40 %
Required:
Fan flow rate
Solution:
13. The commonly used material- 18. An auger with accessories that
handling equipment. include a suitable support system for
a. Bucket elevator mobility.
b. Screw conveyor a. Feeding auger
c. Belt conveyor b. Portable auger
d. All of the above c. Distributing auger
d. None of the above
14. A conveyor which is essentially
made of an endless belt operating 19. The size of an auger is referred to the
between two or more pulleys with load ___.
supported by idlers. a. diameter of the auger
a. Bucket elevator b. inside diameter of the auger tube
b. Screw conveyor c. outside diameter of the auger tube
c. Pneumatic conveyor d. none of the above
d. None of the above
20. What is the capacity of a 10in.-
15. A conveyor used for fine materials diameter screw conveyor running at 300-
and is made of a helical plate that rpm speed? The screw pitch is equal to
rotates on a trough and moves the its diameter while the shaft diameter is
product by dragging. equal to D. The percentage load is
a. Chain conveyor 30% while the density of corn is 45
b. Pneumatic conveyor lbs/ft3.
c. Screw conveyor a. 2824 kg/hr
d. None of the above b. 3104 kg/hr
c. 4231 kg/hr
16. An auger capable of discharging d. None of the above
materials to one or more locations.
a. Feeding auger 21. The movement of material in a
b. Portable auger processing plant in any direction
c. Distributing auger whether it be horizontal, vertical, or any
d. None of the above combination.
a. Transporting
b. Shipping
c. Material handling
d. All of the above
Material Handling
22. Which of the following is not 27. The factor(s) affecting the capacity of
considered a material handling belt conveyors.
equipment? a. Belt width
a. Bucker elevator b. Angle of trough
b. Screw conveyor c. Belt speed
c. Belt conveyor d. All of the above
d. Lifts, trucks, and carts e. Two of the above
e. None of the above
f. All of the above 28. What is the theoretical rpm of a
bucket elevator with 0.4m-diameter
23. Pulleys used to hold the belts of a head pulley and 0.1-m bucket
belt conveyor to keep them in place. projection?
a. Head pulley a. 45.3 rpm
b. Booth pulley b. 55.4 rpm
c. Idlers c. 66.7 rpm
d. None of the above d. None of the above
24. Pulleys used to drive the belt at the 29. If the operational speed of the
inlet and at the outlet ends of a belt bucket elevator in Item 28 above is 85%
conveyor. of the theoretical speed, what is its
a. Head pulley operational speed?
b. Booth pulley a. 53.4 rpm
c. End pulleys b. 62.1 rpm
d. None of the above c. 69.3 rpm
d. None of the above
25. The angle of inclination of belt
conveyors for conveying paddy and most 30. Which of the following is a
grains. characteristic of belt conveyors?
a. 9 to 12 degrees a. Self cleaning
b. 16 to 17 degrees b. Limited elevating capacity
c. 20 to 24 degrees c. Can convey materials in long distance
d. None of the above d. Negligible damage to product being
conveyed
26. The conveyor used to handle finely e. Two of the above
divided powders, damp , sticky, and f. All of the above
heavy viscous materials and hot
substances and granular materials of all 31. What is the theoretical horsepower
types. requirement of a bucket elevator with
a. Belt conveyor 740-kg/min capacity and 12-m lift and is
b. Screw conveyor loaded up side?
c. Bucket elevator a. 2.3 hp
d. Pneumatic conveyor b. 3.5
e. None of the above c. 4.1 hp
d. None of the above
Material Handling
32. If 850 kg of paddy is to be lifted per 37. What is the capacity of the belt
minute to a 12-m height, what is the conveyor in Item 36 above in tons of
horsepower requirement of the paddy per hour. Assume a paddy
elevator? Loading is on the downside of density of 600 kg/m3.
the elevator booth. a. 29.4 tons per hour
a. 3.35 hp b. 32.6 tons per hour
b. 4.12 hp c. 41.3 tons per hour
c. 5.7 hp d. None of the above
d. None of the above
38. What is the capacity of the belt
33. The type of belt conveyor suitable conveyor in Item 36?
for conveying grains. a. 98.2 tons per hour
a. Flat belt b. 100.2 tons per hour
b. Trough belt c. 110.6 tons per hour
c. V belt d. None of the above
d. None of the above
39. What is the horsepower requirement
34. Commonly used belt conveyor for of the conveyor in Item 36 running
paddy in bag storage. empty?
a. Flat belt a. 0.72 hp
b. Trough belt b. 0.81 hp
c. V belt c. 0.89 hp
d. None of the above d. None of the above
35. The trough angle for belt conveyors 40. What is the horsepower requirement
used for paddy and grains. of the conveyor above in lifting the
a. 10 degrees product?
b. 20 degrees a. 0.32 hp
c. 45 degrees b. 0.48 hp
d. None of the above c. 0.53 hp
d. None of the above
36. The pulley diameter of a belt
conveyor is 50 cm. It will be ran at 48- 41. Referring to Item 36, what is the
rpm speed. If the width of the belt is 40 horsepower required to move the
cm with an estimated cross-sectional product horizontally?
area of 0.012 m2 and a 20-deg surcharge a. 0.32 hp
angle, what will be the speed of the b. 0.48 hp
belt? c. 0.89 hp
a. 75.4 m/min d. None of the above
b. 82.1 m/min
c. 93.2 m/min 42. Still referring to Item 36, what is the
d. None of the above total horsepower requirement of the
conveyor?
a. 1.22 hp
b. 1.69 hp
c. 2.15 hp
d. None of the above
Material Handling
43. Determine the speed of the belt of a 48. Screw conveyors are seldomly used
10m-long belt conveyor needed to for conveying rough rice for the reason
deliver shelled corn to a feeder of a that ___.
storage bin which is 1-m high from the a. it is expensive since the materials are
main floor. The pulley diameter and difficult to fabricate
width of the conveyor is 60 cm and 50 b. it easily wears out screw and trough
cm, respectively, running at 40-rpm because rough rice is abrasive
speed. The cross-sectional area of the c. it doesnt look good to convey rough
conveyor is 0.031 m2. Assume a 700- rice using the conveyor
kg/m3 density for shelled corn. d. none of the above
a. 65.7 m/min
b. 75.4 m/min 49. Assuming the roughness of the
c. 81.2 m/min surface of rough rice and corn is equal,
d. None of the above which of them requires more power to
convey using a screw conveyor?
44. The standard screw pitch for screw a. Rough rice
conveyors. b. Shelled corn
a. 1/2 of the diameter c. Same for both materials
b. 1 of the diameter d. None of the above
c. 1-1/2 of the diameter
d. None of the above 50. If a screw conveyor is inclined, its
capacity to convey will ___.
45. The type of screw utilized for screw a. increase
conveyors, which are used to mix b. decrease
materials while conveying. c. be the same
a. Variable pitch screw d. none of the above
b. Steeped diameter screw
c. Ribbon screw 51. A 15-degree inclination of conveyor
d. None of the above will roughly increase its power by 25%
while a 25-degree inclination will
46. A device used to support long increase the power of the conveyor by
horizontally-oriented screw. roughly ___.
a. End bearings a. 30%
b. Hangers brackets b. 40%
c. Trough c. 50%
d. None of the above d. None of the above
47. A U-shaped trough without cover is 52. The type of bucket elevator designed
usually used for screw conveyors ___ to handle grains.
oriented in position. a. Centrifugal
a. vertically b. Positive ( gravity)
b. inclined c. Continuous (direct gravity)
c. horizontally d. None of the above
d. None of the above
Material Handling
53. Which of the following is a good 58. Which of the following statements is
design feature for bucket elevators. true in selecting bucket elevator belts.
a. Clean out provision for booth a. As the diameter of the pulley
b. Belt tension take up increases, the number of plies required
c. Replaceable liners at point of wear for the belt increases.
d. Provision to remove large foreign b. As the diameter of the pulley
materials such as metals and stones. increases, the number of plies required
e. All of the above for the belt decreases.
f. None of the above c. As the diameter of the pulley
increases, the number of plies required
54. Carrying capacity of bucket in bucket for the belt remains the same.
elevator is usually calculated by design d. None of the above
engineers considering a ___ of the rated
capacity. 59. A pneumatic conveyor moves
a. 60 to 75% granular materials at a velocity beyond
b. 85 to 90% the ___ of the materials.
c. 95 to 100% a. superficial velocity
d. None of the above b. apparent velocity
c. terminal velocity
55. The capacity of a bucket elevator is a d. none of the above
function of ___.
a. bucket size 60. Pneumatic conveyor is used very
b. bucket spacing seldom in conveying rough rice for the
c. belt speed reason that ___.
d. all of the above a. it is heavy to convey
e. None of the above b. the shape is not round
c. it is abrasive
56. A device used to tighten the belt in d. None of the above
order to provide proper tension of the
belt of a belt conveyor. 61. The main reason that pneumatic
a. Belt take up unit conveyor is not preferred over bucket,
b. Belt idler pulley belt and screw conveyors is because the
c. Belt tripper pneumatic conveyor ___.
d. None of the above a. is expensive
b. has high power requirement
57. The actual horsepower requirement c. requires manpower when loading a
of bucket elevators is ___ higher than material
the theoretical value due to friction, d. None of the above
power transmission and drive losses.
a. 5 to 10% 62. Conveying material can be changed
b. 10 to 15% easily when using ___.
c. 15 to 20% a. screw conveyor
d. None of the above b. bucket elevator
c. pneumatic conveyor
d. None of the above
Material Handling
Problem 1
Given:
Pulley Diameter - 0.2 m
Bucket projection - 0.1 m
Solution:
Nt = 54.19 / (R)
= 54.19 / ( 0.15 m x 3.28 ft/m)
= 54.19 / 0.701
= 77.3 rpm
Problem 2
Given:
Nt - 77.3 rpm
- 0.85
Solution:
No = x Nt
= 0.85 (77.3 rpm)
= 65.7 rpm
Material Handling
Problem 3
Given:
Capacity - 545 kg/min
Lift - 10.7 m
Loading - downside
Required: Theoretical Hp
Solution:
Hp = Q H F / 4562
= [545 kg/min (10.7 m) (1.5 m)] 4562
= 1.9 hp
Problem 4
Given:
Screw diameter - 8 inches
Shaft diameter - 2 inches
Screw pitch - 4 inches
Screw speed - 80 rpm
Loading - 45%
Solution:
Ct = [(D2 d2)/36.6][P x N]
= [(8 in)2 (2 in)2 /36.6] [4 in x 80 rpm]
= 524.59 ft3/hr
@ 45% loading
= 524.59 ft3/hr x 0.45
= 236.07 ft3/hr
Material Handling
Problem 5
Given:
Pulley diameter - 0.4 m
Bucket projection - 0.1 m
Solution:
Problem 6
Given:
Efficiency - 0.80
Theoretical speed - 66.7 rpm
Solution:
No = 0.80 Nt
= 0.80 (66.7 rpm)
= 53.4 rpm
Material Handling
Problem 7
Given:
Capacity - 740 kg/min
Lift - 12 m
Loading - up side
Required: Theoretical Hp
Solution:
Hp = QHF/4562
= (740 kg/min)(12 m)(1.2) / 4562
= 2.3 Hp
Problem 8
Given:
Q - 850 kg/min
H - 12 m
Loading - downside
Required: Hp requirement
Solution:
QHF
Hpe =
4562
= 3.35 hp
Material Handling
Problem 9
The pulley diameter of a belt conveyor is 50 cm. It will be ran at 48-rpm speed. If the
width of the belt is 40 cm with a 0.012 m2 estimated cross-sectional area and a 20-
deg surcharge angle, what will be the capacity of the belt conveyor in tons of paddy
per hour? Assume a 600 kg/m3 paddy density.
Given:
Pulley diameter - 50 cm
Pulley speed - 48 rpm
Belt width - 40 cm
Belt cross-sectional area - 0.012 m2
Surcharge angle - 20 deg
Paddy density - 600 kg/m3
Required: Belt capacity in tph
Solution:
(a) V belt = 3.1416 x Dp x Np
= 3.1415 x (50 cm/100 cm/m) x 48 rpm
= 75.4 m / min
(b) Capacity = A x V x 60
= 0.012 m2 x 75.4 m/min x 60
= 54.3 m3/min x 600 kg/ m3
= 32,580 kg/hr x ton/1000 kg
= 32.58 tons/hr
Problem 10
Given:
Q - 10 kg/min
Angle - 45
Required: Output in tons/hour
Solution:
Q inc = Q horizontal Sin 45
= (10 kg/min) x Ton/1000 kg x
60 min/hr x 0.707
= 0.42 ton per hour
Material Handling
Problem 11
Determine the power required of a 10m-long
belt conveyor needed to deliver shelled corn
to a feeder of a storage bin which is 1-m high
from the main floor. The pulley diameter and
width of the conveyor are 60 cm and 50 cm,
respectively, running at 40-rpm speed. The
cross-sectional area of the conveyor is 0.031
m2. Assume a 700-kg/m3density for shelled
corn.
Given:
Belt length - 10 m
Lift -1m
Pulley diameter - 60 cm
Belt width - 50 cm
Pulley speed - 40 rpm
Belt x-area - 0.031 m2
Product - shelled corn
Density - 700 kg/m3
Required: Horsepower required to drive the
belt conveyor
Solution:
V = 3.14 D x N
= 3.14 x 0.6 m x 40 rpm
= 75.4 m/min
C = V x A x 60
= 75.4 m/min x 0.031 m2 x 60
= 140.24 m3/hr x 700 kg/m3 x
ton/1000 kg
= 98.17 ton/hr
(a) Hpe = [(S/0.3048) (A + B (3.28 L))] / 1000
= [[(75.4 m3/min)/0.3048]
[0.3+0.00187(3.281x10 m)]]/100
= 0.89 hp
(b) Hpv = C (0.48 + 0.01 L) / 100
= 98.17 (0.48 + 0.01 (1m) / 100
= 0.48 hp
(c) Hph = (L/0.3048) (1.015) (C/1000)
= (1/0.3048) (1.015) (98.17 ton/hr)
= 0.32 hp
Total Hp = Hpe + Hpv + Hph
= 0.89 hp + 0.48 hp + 0.32 hp
= 1.69 hp (use 2 hp)
Material Handling
Problem 12
Calculate the theoretical power required to drive a 10meter-long screw conveyor
having 6-inches diameter. The conveyor shaft is supported by a roller-type bearing
and is used to convey ground lime at 10-tph rate. The conveyor speed is 40 rpm.
Also, compute the power required for the motor.
Given:
Screw length - 10 meters
Screw diameter - 6 inches
Type of bearing - roller
Product - ground lime
Capacity - 10 tons per hour
Screw speed - 40 rpm
Required: Theoretical Power
Motor Power
Solution:
HP = L (DS + Q k) / 1,000,000
= 10 m x 3.28 ft/m ( 18 x 40 rpm + 10,000 kg/hr x 2.2 lb/kg x 0.6) / 1,000,000
= 32.8 ft/min (720 rpm + 1320 lb/hr) / 1,000,000
= 0.456 hp
MHP = H x P / 0.85
= 0.456 x 2 / 0.85
= 1.074 hp
Problem 13
Given: Q - 10 kg/min
Angle - 45
Required: Output in tons/hour
Solution:
HPinc = HPhor x Sin
= 2 hp x sin 45 deg
= 1.4 hp
Crop Drying
11. If 9 tons of a product is to be dried 17. Referring to Item 15, what is the
from 24 to 14% moisture content, what moisture reduction per hour?
would be the final weight of the a. 29.07 kg/hr
product? b. 27.09 kg/hr
a. 7953.4 kg c. 20.97 kg/hr
b. 8837.3 kg d. None of the above
c. 9741.4 kg
d. None of the above 18. The divisional layer between the
dried and the undried products in a
12. What is the weight of moisture to be drying system.
removed from the product in Item 11? a. Drying layer
a. 1046.5 kg b. Drying zone
b. 2285.6 kg c. Drying front
c. 2634.4 kg d. All of the above
d. None of the above
19. The amount of heat required to raise
13. The recommended depth of grains one gram of water one degree
in a shallow-bed dryer. centigrade.
a. Up to 12 inches a. One BTU
b. Up to 18 inches b. One calorie
c. Up to 24 inches c. One joule
d. All of the above d. All of the above
14. A 45C drying temperature is equal 20. A solar dryer is used to reduce the
to ___. moisture content of 4 tons of paddy rice
a. 113F from 25 to 15% wet basis. How much is
b. 131F the amount of moisture removed?
c. 121F a. 471 kilos
d. none of the above b. 417 kilos
c. 714 kilos
15. Two tons of paddy was dried in a d. None of the above
mechanical dryer from 24 to 14% in 8
hours. What is the final weight of the 21. A device that generally removes
product after drying? excess moisture by forced ventilation
a. 1767.4 kg either with or without addition of heat.
b. 1677.4 kg a. Fryer
c. 1776.4 kg b. Dehydrator
d. None of the above c. Dryer
d. None of the above
16. What is the drying capacity of the
dryer in Item 15? 22. A batch-type dryer with vertical
a. 200 kg/hr holding bin used for deep-bed drying.
b. 250 kg/hr a. Recirculating dryer
c. 125 kg/hr b. Vertical bin dryer
d. None of the above c. Batch-type dryer
d. None of the above
Crop Drying
23. A mechanical dryer equipped with 28. If the point is moved horizontally to
series of holding bins that allow grains the left of the psychrometric chart, the
to continuously pass through its drying process is ___.
chamber until their moisture content is a. heating
reduced to a desired level. b. cooling
a. Batch dryer c. drying
b. Continuous-flow dryer d. None of the above
c. Recirculating dryer
d. None of the above 29. Shelled corn initially at 24% is to be
dried to 14%. If the initial weight of the
24. A batch-type dryer that circulates or corn is 1000 kilos, what would be its
mixes the grains during drying. final weight?
a. Vertical-bin dryer a. 782 kg
b. Recirculating dryer b. 827 kg
c. Flat-bed dryer c. 872 kg
d. None of the above d. None of the above
25. An air chamber maintained under 30. What is the weight of moisture
pressure and is usually connected to removed from the corn grains in Item 29
one or more distribution ducts in a above?
drying system. a. 128 kg
a. Drying bin b. 173 kg
b. Plenum chamber c. 218 kg
c. Air duct d. None of the above
d. None of the above
31. The usual depth of grains in a deep-
26. The component of a dryer that bed batch dryer.
converts the velocity pressure of the fan a. 18 inches
to static pressure. b. 2 to 8 ft
a. Drying bin c. 8 to 10 ft
b. Plenum chamber d. None of the above
c. Manometer
d. None of the above 32. In grain drying theory, drying occurs
when ___.
27. What is the relative humidity of the a. the vapor pressure of grains is
air if the psychrometer measures 40C higher than the vapor pressure of the
for both the dry bulb and the wet bulb air
temperatures? b. the vapor pressure of grains is
a. 40% lower than the vapor pressure of the
b. 80% air
c. 100% c. the vapor pressure of grains is
d. All of the above equal with the vapor pressure of the
air
d. None of the above
Crop Drying
33. Compute the drying efficiency of a 37. A flatbed dryer is using a direct fired
one-ton capacity flat-bed dryer used to biomass furnace for heating paddy. As
dry paddy from 21 to 14% in 8 hrs. The an Agricultural Engineer, what would you
fuel consumption rate of the dryer is 7 recommend to eliminate entirely fly
lph. Assume a 600 kCal/kg heat of ashes that goes with the hot air in the
vaporization and a 9,000 kCal/kg bin during drying?
heating value of fuel. The density of a. Increase the height of the plenum
fuel is 0.76. chamber to slow down the velocity of
a. 10.24% the air in the bin
b. 11.35% b. Reduce the rpm of the blower to slow
c. 12.75% down the air velocity of the hot air
d. None of the above c. Install a heat exchanger in the furnace
d. None of the above
34. What is the fuel consumption rate
of a 2-ton grain dryer required to dry 38. The dryer is equipped with optimum
paddy from 22 to 14% in 8 hrs. The size of blower and furnace to push the
dryer efficiency is 45%. Assume a 600- air into a metal drying bin. As an
kCal/kg heat of vaporization for paddy. Agricultural Engineer, what would you
a. 4.53 lph recommend to improve the pressure
b. 3.56 lph draft of air at the plenum chamber?
c. 2.78 lph a. Replace the bin with bigger plenum
d. None of the above chamber
b. Reduce the drying temperature of the
35. What is the required dimension for air when operating the dryer
a square bin with 1-ton paddy load if c. Seal the bin plenum chamber
the dryer requires 0.45-m thickness. d. None of the above
Assume a 576-kg/m3 grain density.
a. 2 m
b. 3 m
c. 4 m
d. None of the above
Problem 1
Given:
Capacity - 2 tons
MCi - 24%
MCf - 14%
Time - 8 hours
Solution:
Wf = Wi (1-MCi) / (1 MCf)
= 2 tons (1-0.24) / (1-0.14)
= 1.767 tons
Problem 2
Given:
MC initial - 24 %
MC final - 14 %
Drying time - 8 hours
Solution:
Problem 3
Given:
Wt initial - 2 tons
Drying time - 8 hours
Solution:
Cd = Wi / Td
= 2 tons / 8 hours
= 0.25 ton / hour
Problem 4
Given:
Wt initial - 2 tons
Wt final - 1.767 tons
Drying time - 8 hours
Solution:
Problem 5
Compute the apparent air velocity in a 1-ton capacity flat-bed dryer with 2.4m-x-
2.4m dimension square bin. The specific airflow rate of the dryer is 50 m3 per
minute of air per m3 of grain. Assume a 500-kg/m3 density of grain.
Given:
Total airflow - 50 m3/min
Area - 2.4 m x 2.4 m
Grain density - 500 kg/m3
Solution:
Q = 50 m3/min-m3 x 2 m3
= 100 m3/min
Problem 6
Compute the drying efficiency of a one-ton capacity recirculating-type dryer used to
dry paddy from 21 to 14% in 8 hrs. The fuel consumption rate of the dryer is 7 lph of
diesel. Assume a 600 kcal/kg heat of vaporization and a 9,000 kcal/kg heating value
of fuel. The density of fuel is 0.76.
Given: Capacity - 1 ton FCR - 7 lph diesel
MC i - 21% Hv - 600 kcal/kg
MC f - 14% HVF - 9,000 kcal/kg
Td - 8 hours f - 0.76
Required:
Drying Efficiency
Solution:
Wf = 1 ton (1-.021)/(1-.14) Qf = 7 liters/hr x 9,000 kcal/kg
= 0.918 ton x 0.76 kg/liter
WR = 1 ton 0.918 ton = 47,880 kcal/hr
= 81.4 kg Ed = 6,104 kcal/hr x 100/
Qo = 81.4 kg x 600 kcal/kg 47,880 kcal/hr
= 48,840 kcal/8 hours = 12.75%
= 6,104 kcal/hr
Problem 7
What is the fuel consumption rate of a 2-ton grain dryer required to dry paddy
from 22 to 14% in 8 hrs.? The dryer efficiency is 45%. Assume a 600 kcal/kg
heat of vaporization for paddy.
Given:
Capacity - 2 tons d - 45%
Mci - 22% Hv - 600 kcal/kg
MCf - 14%
Drying Time = 8
Solution:
1. The process in which air moves 7. If 5000 bags of paddy are to be piled
through the mass of stored grains at a 20-bags high, how many square meters
low rate to maintain grain quality. of floor space is required? (0.23 m/bag)
a. Cooling a. 111 sqm
b. Aeration b. 121 sqm
c. Fanning c. 211 sqm
d. None of the above d. None of the above
13. The optimum relative humidity for 18. The size of wire mesh used in storage
storing fruits and vegetables is ___. to protect stored product from insects
a. 60-70% and rodents.
b. 80-90% a. inch mesh
c. 90-100% b. inch mesh
d. All of the above c. inch mesh
d. All of the above
14. What is the peak storage capacity of
a 5m-diameter grain storage bin with 6- 19. Changes in texture, odor, flavor, and
m average height and 28-deg minimum nutritive value of grains during prolonged
angle of fill? storage, even in the absence of insects
a. 126.5m and microorganisms, are due to ___.
b. 162.5m a. moisture and temperature
c. 156.2m b. vapor pressure and temperature
d. None of the above c. vapor pressure and moisture
d. all of the above
15. The recommended overall height by e. None of the above
ASAE for an agricultural pallet bin.
a. 72 or 133 cm 20. The recommended dimension for
b. 62 or 122 cm maximum piling of stacks to conform
c. 52 or 112 cm with the fumigating sheets in situations
d. None of the above where warehouses cannot be made
airtight.
16. A storage system for holding buffer a. 7.3 m x 21.9 m x 4.5 m
stocks and is usually located at the b. 6.3 m x 20.9 m x 4.5 m
shipping receiving terminals. c. 5.3 m x 19.8 m x 4.5 m
a. Village level storage system d. None of the above
b. Commercial level storage system
c. Centralized storage system 21. The recommended stack height in a
d. All of the above warehouse should not exceed the height
of the walls plus a space of at least ___
17. A storage structure made of pre- between the top of the stacks and the
fabricated reinforcement concrete with roof frame.
metal siding and with either a hopper a. 1 meter
bottom or a flat bottom. b. 1.5 meters
a. Warehouse c. 2.0 meters
b. Silo d. None of the above
c. Bulk container
d. All of the above 22. The rrecommended optimum stock
height for paddy stored in a warehouse.
a. 16 layers
b. 18 layers
c. 20 layers
d. All of the above
Crop Storage
23. The recommended optimum stock 27. Safe storage moisture content of
height for maize stored in a warehouse. copra for use as feed ingredient.
a. 16 layers a. 5.8 %
b. 18 layers b. 11%
c. 20 layers c. 13%
d. All of the above d. None of the above
24. The method of piling grains that 28. Safe storage moisture content of
provides ventilation space between bags copra for use as feed ingredient.
and allows circulation of convective air a. 5.8 %
current which, in turn, becomes the b. 11%
medium for heat dissipation. c. 13%
a. Chinese Method d. None of the above
b. Japanese Method
c. Philippine Method
d. None of the above
Problem 1
Given:
Length of pile - 8 m
Width of pile - 6 m
Height of pile - 3.6 m
Solution:
Problem 2
Given:
No of bags - 5000 bags
Height of pile - 20 bags
Height of bag - 0.23 m/bag
Solution:
Problem 3
Given:
Diameter of grain - 5m
Average height - 6m
Angle of fill - 28
Solution:
D/2 tan
V = (D2/4) EH + (D2/4)
3
= 117.8 m3 + 8.70 m3
= 126.50 m3
Crop Storage
Problem 4
Two piles of shelled corn in bags will be stored in a warehouse having a dimension
of 15-m wide by 30-m long and 6-m high. How many bags of the product would be
contained per pile inside the warehouse?
Given:
Length - 30 m
Width - 15 m
Height - 6m
Required:
No. of bags per pile
Solution:
Volume = 30 m x 15 m x 6 m
= 2,700 m3
number of bags = 2,700 m3 12 bags/m3
= 32,400 bags
Problem 5
6. The maximum percentage of milling 12. A fraction of grain with its length
recovery from rice mills. equal to or greater than an average of
a. 69% three-fourths.
b. 75% a. Large broken grain
c. 80% b. Small broken grain
d. None of the above c. Head grain
d. None of the above
Rice Milling
13. A rice processing plant operates at 5 18. The measure of the machines ability
tons per hour. The milling and head rice to remove hulls with minimum
recoveries of the rice mill are 69% and breakage.
95%, respectively. What is its input a. Coefficient of hulling
capacity? b. Coefficient of breakage
a. 7.24 tons per hour c. Coefficient of wholeness
b. 3.45 tons per hour d. All of the above
c. 4.75 tons per hour
d. None of the above 19. A dehulled paddy but with bran layer
remaining intact.
14. Referring to Item 13, what is the a. Rough rice
throughput rate of the rice mill in kg b. Milled rice
broken grains per hour? c. Brown rice
a. 0.172 ton per hour d. All of the above
b. 0.250 ton per hour
c. 0.350 ton per hour 20. If the end-product in milling is brown
d. None of the above rice, the grain has just passed through a
___.
15. If a rice huller has 0.90 hulling a. paddy cleaner
coefficient and 0.80 wholeness b. rubber roll huller
coefficient, what is the output per hour c. whitener
of the rice huller in Item 13 in kg of d. sifter
brown rice? e. None of the above
a. 6.52 tons per hour
b. 4.50 tons per hour 21. The minimum hulling efficiency
c. 4.00 tons per hour requirement for rice mill based on
d. None of the above standard performance criterion.
a. 90%
16. An example of a rice huller. b. 80%
a. Steel-fluted huller c. 70%
b. Rubber-roll d. None of the above
c. Disk
d. Centrifugal 22. The recommended peripheral speed
e. All of the above of a rubber roller for hulling operation.
a. 10 m/s
17. A rice mill huller that has high b. 14 m/s
milling recovery. c. 18 m/s
a. Steel huller d. None of the above
b. Rubber huller
c. Stone disk 23. The percentage speed difference
d. All of the above between rubber rollers.
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. None of the above
Rice Milling
24. The speed of the fixed rubber roll in 30. A machine used to remove the bran
a rubber roll huller is slower by ___ from brown rice.
compared to that of the adjustable a. Polisher
roller. b. Husker
a. 20 % c. Whitener
b. 25 % d. All of the above
c. 30 %
d. None of the above 31. The extent by which the bran layer
of the brown rice is removed as a result
25. The husking ratio of a rubber roll of whitening.
huller is about ___. a. Milling degree
a. 60-70 % b. Degree of whitening
b. 80-90 % c. Milling recovery
c. 95-98 % d. All of the above
d. None of the above
32. A type of whitener consisting of a
26. If the rubber roll huller wears out, flutted-roller rotating inside a hexagonal
the peripheral speed of the roller will chamber with slot-type perforations.
___. a. Abrasive-type whitener
a. decrease b. Frictional-type whitener
b. increase c. All of the above
c. be the same d. None of the above
d. None of the above
33. The manufacturers recommended
27. In a disk huller, the stationary disk is speed for the rotating cone in a vertical
located at the ___. abrasive whitening cone must not
a. top of the huller exceed ___.
b. bottom of the huller a. 13 m/s
c. side of the huller b. 14 m/s
d. None of the above c. 15 m/s
d. None of the above
28. The manufacturers prescribed
peripheral velocity for a disk huller is 34. The recommended clearance for a
___. disk huller in order to achieve high
a. 10 m/s brown rice recovery with less breakage.
b. 14 m/s a. of the length of the paddy grain
c. 18 m/s b. of the thickness of the paddy grain
d. None of the above c. of the length of the paddy grain
d. None of the above
29. The manufacturers recommended
speed for a horizontal abrasive whitener
is ___.
a. 800 rpm
b. 1000 rpm
c. 1200 rpm
d. All of the above
Rice Milling
35. The adjustment clearance for rubber 40. The process of grinding pellets into
brakes in a vertical abrasive whitening coarse granular form.
cone is ___. a. Coarse pelleting
a. 1 to 2 mm from cone coating b. Crumbling
b. 2 to 3 mm from cone coating c. Milling
c. 3 to 4 mm from cone coating d. None of the above
d. None of the above
41. Grinding feeds will basically ___.
36. The auxillary device in a rice mill a. make the feed attractive to the
that receives the fine bran particles animals
from milled rice and gives a glossy b. improve its digestability
appearance to the product. c. prolong its storage period
a. Whitener d. None of the above
b. Grader
c. Polisher 42. A machine that separates paddy from
d. All of the above brown rice.
a. Screen sifter
37. A machine that smoothens the b. Paddy separator
surfaces of milled rice after removing c. Paddy husker
the bran making it shiny. d. Rice whitener
a. Whitener e. None of the above
b. Polisher
c. Sifter 43. The capacity of a compartment- type
d. Grader separator is ___.
e. All of the above a. 20-30 kg. brown rice per hour
b. 40-60 kg. brown rice per hour
38. A machine used to segregate various c. 70-80 kg. brown rice per hour
fractions/sizes of milled rice. d. None of the above
a. Whitener
b. Grader 44. A one-ton-per-hour rice mill is to be
c. Whitener designed. The milling recovery is 68%
d. None of the above while the hulling efficiency is 90%. What
size of paddy separator will you
39. The process of compressing mash recommend?
feeds with the use of live steam to a. 26 compartments
produce small chunks or cylindrical b. 32 compartments
feeds. c. 40 compartments
a. Mixing d. None of the above
b. Crumbling
c. Pelleting
d. All of the above
Rice Milling
Problem 1
A single-pass rice mill was tested for 30 min. and gave the following results: input
paddy, 1000 kg; milled rice produced, 650 kg; broken rice produced, 150 kg; and
weight of head rice, 200 kg. Compute the following: (a) Throughput capacity, (b) %
Milling recovery, (c) % Broken grains, and (d) % Head rice recovery.
Given:
Wp - 1000 kg
Wmr - 650 kg
Whr - 200 kg
Wbr - 150 kg
Time - 30 min.
Solution:
Throughput Capacity = Wp x MR / To
= 1000 kg x 0.65 / 30 min/60 min/hr
= 1300 kg milled rice per hr
Problem 2
Given:
Wt of paddy - 5 tons
Milling time - 6 hors
Wt of brown rice - 3950 kg
Wt of milled rice - 3250 kg
Solution:
Problem 3
Given:
Weight of brown rice - 3950 kg
Weight of paddy - 5000 kg
Solution:
Problem 4
Given:
Head rice recovery - 85%
Solution:
Problem 5
Given:
Wt. of paddy - 5000 kg
Solution:
Problem 6
A disk huller with 600-mm diameter will be installed as return huller for a rice
milling plant. As an Agricultural Engineer, determine the diameter of the pulley
required for the huller. The motor for the huller will have 4-inches pulley diameter
and is expected to run at 1740 rpm.
Given:
Diameter of huller - 600 mm
Motor pulley - 4 in.
Motor speed - 1740 rpm
Required: Huller pulley diameter
Solution:
Huller rpm = (14 m/s ) (60 s/min) /[ 3.14 (0.6 m)]
= 445.8 rpm
Huller Pulley D = 4 in (1740 rpm) / 445.8 rpm
= 15.6 in. use 16 in.
Problem 7
Given:
Throughput capacity - 5 tph
Milling recovery - 69%
Hulling efficiency - 95%
Required: No. of compartments
Solution:
C p = 5 tph / 0.69
= 7.25 tph of paddy
C br = 7.25 tph x 0.95
= 6.9 tph brown rice
No. of compartments = 6.9 tph x 1000 kg/ton
x 1 comp/50 kg-hr
= 138 compartments
Rice Milling
Problem 8
Given:
Weight of paddy - 1000 kg
Operating time - 2 hours
Weight of brown rice - 805 kg
Weight of whole brown rice - 900 g per
kg of brown rice
Required:
Hulling coefficient, wholeness coefficient,
husking efficiency, and throughput rate
Solution:
1. The process of reducing corn kernel 7. The minimum main product recovery
into grits, germ, and pericarp with or requirement based on the performance
without conditioning. criteria for corn mill.
a. Dry milling a. 44%
b. Hammer milling b. 54%
c. Attrition milling c. 64 %
d. None of the above d. None of the above
5. The ratio of the weight of corn kernel 11. The process of rewetting dried corn
input to the total operating time. kernels to about 18 to 22% moisture
a. Input capacity content and tempering them to make
b. Output capacity the pericarp and the germ become more
c. Milling capacity pliable and easier to remove during
d. All of the above degermination process.
a. Wet milling
6. The ratio of the weight of corn grits b. Degermination process
to the total weight of corn kernel input c. Conditioning
expressed in percent. d. None of the above
a. % input capacity
b. % main product recovery
c. % milling recovery
d. All of the above
Corn Milling
12. The starch component of corn 17. The process of softening and
kernel. conditioning corn kernels for subsequent
a. 11-23% milling and for preventing germination
b. 4-8% and fermentation.
c. 2-4% a. Cleaning
d. 61-68% b. Steeping
e. 2-16% c. Grinding
f. None of the above d. None of the above
13. The fiber component of corn kernel. 18. In steeping process, corn kernel is
a. 11-23% soaked in water at a controlled
b. 4-8% temperature of ___ for 30 to 50 hours.
c. 2-4% a. 35C
d. 61-68% b. 48C
e. 2-16% c. 64C
f. None of the above d. None of the above
14. The protein/gluten component of 19. The process of milling corn kernels
corn kernel. by soaking them first in chemicals before
a. 11-23% subjecting them to a size- reduction
b. 4-8% equipment and other successive
c. 2-4% processes.
d. 61-68% a. Dry milling process
e. 2-16% b. Wet milling process
f. None of the above c. Wet and dry milling process
d. None of the above
15. The oil component of corn kernel.
a. 11-23% 20. A chemical added to prevent
b. 4-8% bacterial growth and to reduce the bond
c. 2-4% between the gluten and starch in corn
d. 61-68% kernels during steeping process.
e. 2-16% a. Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
f. None of the above b. Sodium chloride (NaCl)
c. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
16. The shrinkage component of corn d. None of the above
kernel.
a. 11-23% 21. The process of milling corn kernels
b. 4-8% by subjecting them into size-reduction
c. 2-4% processes after cleaning.
d. 61-67% a. Dry milling process
e. 2-16% b. Wet milling process
f. None of the above c. Wet and dry milling process
d. None of the above
Corn Milling
22. The major product(s) produced 26. The product of corn wet-milling
during corn wet-milling process. process that has high protein
a. Condensed Corn Fermented concentrate typically supplied at 60%
Extractive protein, 2.5% fat, and 1% fiber and is
b. Corn Germ Meal considered an excellent cattle feed.
c. Corn Gluten Feed a. Condensed Corn Fermented
d. Corn gluten Meal Extractive
f. All of the above b. Corn Germ Meal
c. Corn Gluten Feed
23. The corn step liquor which is a high- d. Corn gluten Meal
energy liquid feed ingredient with f. All of the above
protein value of 25% on a 50% solid
basis and also a source of B-vitamins
and mineral when used as pellet fiber.
a. Condensed Corn Fermented
Extractive
b. Corn Germ Meal
c. Corn Gluten Feed
d. Corn gluten Meal
f. All of the above
11. The storage moisture content 17. The mother liquor separated from
requirement for white sugar. crystals by centrifuging.
a. 3.0% a. Sugar honey
b. 0.3% b. Molasses
c. 0.03% c. Syrup
d. None of the above d. All of the above
e. None of the above
12. White and refined white sugars are
packed in standard sizes which is ___, 18. The brown sugar produced from a
respectively. sugar mill generally destined for further
a. 50 and 46 kg processing to white sugar in a refinery.
b. 60 and 40 kg a. Molasses
c. 60 and 50 kg b. Raw sugar
d. All of the above c. White sugar
d. None of the above
13. Sticking together of two or more
crystals during centrifuging and drying 19. The concentrated juice from the
operations. evaporator.
a. Crystallization a. Molasses
b. Agglomeration b. Syrup
c. Coagulation c. Extracted juice
d. All of the above d. None of the above
14. The residue derived from cane 20. Insoluble solids in juice or in other
milling after extraction of juice. liquids which can only be removed by
a. Molasses mechanical means.
b. Bagasse a. Suspended solids
c. Filter cake b. Sugar crystals
d. All of the above c. Bagasse
d. All of the above
15. The apparatus used for the
separation of suspended-solid 21. The treatment of raw sugar to
sediments from turbid-sugar solutions. remove the film of adhering molasses.
a. Centrifuge a. Clarification
b. Clarifier b. Extraction
c. Extractor c. Affination
d. None of the above d. None of the above
16. The material retained on the filter 22. The by-product of sugarcane
screen and is discharged from the filters processing.
after filtering clarifier muds. a. Bagasse
a. Filter Scum b. Molasses
b. Filter Sediments c. Filter cake
c. Filter cake d. All of the above
d. None of the above
Sugar Processing
23. The fine fraction of bagasse 28. The type of molasses used as food
obtained by screening or by pneumatic syrup and blended with other syrups.
separation generally used as a filter aid a. Edible molasses
in filtration. b. Blackstrap molasses
a. Mud press c. Organic molasses
b. Bagacillo d. None of the above
c. Trash
d. None of the above 29. The process of heating the juice and
adding lime after passing the milling
24. The term that refers to cane tops, rollers to form coagulants from
leaves, dead stalks of cane, and any impurities and then allowed to settle in
other vegetable matters delivered with a large tank.
the cane. a. Filtration
a. Mud press b. Clarification
b. Bagacillo c. Extraction
c. Trash d. None of the above
d. All of the above
30. The process of separation of sugar
25. The measure of dissolved solids in crystals from dark syrup after crystalizing
sugar liquor or syrup using with the use of a high-speed rotating
refractometer also known as the cylindrical basket.
percentage sugar by mass. a. Fugalling
a. Glycemic index b. Filtering
b. Brix c. Clarifying
c. Brix index d. All of the above
d. All of the above
31. The process after clarification of
26. The process involving introduction of sugar juices before subjecting them to
carbon dioxide gas into limed juice or evaporation.
syrup to remove color and non-sugar a. Coagulation
solids. b. Extraction
a. Color extraction c. Filtration
b. Carbonization d. None of the above
c. Extraction
d. All of the above 32. Coconut sugar contains ___ sucrose
than sugarcane.
27. The type of molasses used primarily a. the same amount of
as animal feed and is also used to b. lesser amount of
produce ethanol, compressed yeast, c. more amount of
citric acid, and rum. d. None of the above
a. Edible molasses
b. Blackstrap molasses
c. Organic molasses
d. None of the above
Sugar Processing
33. Coconut sugar contains ___ of 39. An instrument used to reduce the
macro and micro nutrients than sugar relative humidity of air in coconut sugar
cane. storage.
a. the same amount a. Pyschrometer
b. more amount b. Dehumidifier
c. less amount c. Hydrometer
d. None of the above d. None of the above
34. The collection time requirement for 40. An instrument used to measure the
harvesting coconut sap for coco sugar sugar level of coconut sap.
processing. a. Refractometer
a. 4 to 5 hours b. pH meter
b. 6 to 9 hours c. Glycimeter
c. 10 to 14 hours d. All of the above
d. None of the above
41. The dark-brown color of coconut
35. The cooking temperature for sugar is basically the result of drying
coconut sap for sugar processing. sugar crystals at ___ temperature.
a. 80C a. low
b. 90C b. medium
c. 100C c. high
d. All of the above d. None of the above
11. The process of heating the product 15. The process of pumping the product
to nearly boiling point achieving against a steel plate through a very small
stability of the food product against opening of 0.0001 diameter at a
spoilage due to microorganism. pressure of about 3500 psi to reduce the
a. Cooking size of fat globules such as those in milk,
b. Sterilization mayonnaise, and others to a point that
c. Pasteurization fats have no tendency to rise.
d. None of the above a. Homogenizing
b. Conching
12. The process often used in heating c. Pressing
cans and their content under vacuum d. None of the above
condition to remove air and other
entrapped gases before sealing. 16. The process used in many food
a. Exhausting products by giving deaeration treatment
b. Sterilizing to improve the color and flavor, to retain
c. Heating the aroma, and to reduce the volume of
d. All of the above the product.
a. Degassing
13. A drying technology that has the b. Blending
ability to maintain the original c. Exhausting
appearance of the product with no d. All of the above
shrinkage, retain shape and structure.
a. Heated air drying 17. The process usually applied to nuts
b. Conduction drying and beans of various sorts in order to
c. Freeze drying bring about the desired flavor.
d. All of the above a. Drying
b. Blanching
14. A type of dryer commonly used in c. Roasting
food industry where dried materials are d. Pasteurization
injected into it in an automized form to e. None of the above
produce powdered product.
a. Spray dryer 18. Brown spots on dried vegetables are
b. Drum dryer caused by ___.
c. Pneumatic dryer a. too high drying temperature used
d. All of the above b. low drying temperature used
c. optimum drying temperature used
15. The complete destruction of all d. None of the above
forms of life in the product being
processed. 19. An indicator of food quality which
a. Cooking determines its acceptability to the
b. Sterilization consumers.
c. Pasteurization a. Taste
d. None of the above b. Flavor
c. Palatability
d. None of the above
Food Process Engineering
20. The process used in canning in which 26. A pretreatment method used for
there is a rigid regulation on the cooking vegetables to destroy enzymes that can
temperature in such a manner that cause undesirable changes in color and
packages are not misshapen or broken flavor during drying and storage.
by too rapid cooling. a. Cleaning
a. Tempering b. Blanching
b. Freezing c. Drying
c. Refrigeration d. None of the above
d. None of the above
27. A pretreatment method for fruits
21. An example of Newtonian fluid with and vegetables to retard spoilage and
low viscosity. darkening of skins.
a. Soup a. Blanching
b. Chocolate b. Sulfuring
c. Juices c. Sterilizing
d. All of the above d. All of the above
22. An example of Non-Newtonian fluid
with high viscosity. 28. Pretreatment of fruits and
a. Juices vegetables are recommended to ___.
b. Drinks a. stop enzymatic activity which
c. Mashed vegetables results in color, flavor, and
d. All of the above nutrient losses or changes
b. stop ripening and spoilage
23. The pre-drying temperature c. hasten drying rate and improve
requirement for mushroom. storability of the product
a. 80-90F d. None of the above
b. 120-125F
c. 250-300F 29. The formation of a case like a
d. None of the above leathery material outside of a very high-
e. All of the above sugar food, such as fruit, which doesnt
24. The roasting temperature for allow water to pass through during
pumpkin seeds, sunflower seeds, and drying is a factor of ___.
peanuts. a. slow drying
a. 200 - 250F b. rapid drying
b. 250 - 300F c. normal drying
c. 300 - 350F d. None of the above
d. None of the above
30. The requirement(s) for a good
25. The recommended temperature for dehydrator:
drying vegetables. a. Some forms of temperature control.
a. 125F b. A fan to circulate air and remove
b. 150F moisture.
c. 175F c. Easy to remove and wash trays.
d. 200F d. All of the above
e. All of the above
Food Process Engineering
31. Sulfured foods are recommended 36. Another term used for citric acid.
for storage using ___. a. Table salt
a. metal can container b. Lemon salt
b. plastic container c. Acid salt
c. bottle with can cover container d. All of the above
d. All of the above
37. These are fruit rolls characterized by
32. Conditioning dried fruits after drying tasty chewy dried fruit made by pouring
is basically done to ___. pursed fruit into a flat surface for drying.
a. allow the moisture to equalize a. Fruit rolls
throughout the entire fruit so that b. Dried fruit
there will be no damp spots where c. Fruit leathers
molds may grow d. All of the above
b. increase the quality of dried fruit
prior to packaging 38. Which of the following statements is
c. improve the color and taste of the true?
fruit a. Different foods requiring similar
d. none of the above drying times and temperature
can be dried together.
33. Sulfur treatment on fruits and b. Vegetables with strong odor or
vegetables can be replaced by ___. flavor should be dried separately.
a. sulfite dips c. Dont dry strong-smelling
b. steam blanching vegetables in an electric
c. water blanching dehydrator because dehydrators
d. All of the above are not screened and insect may
e. None of the above invade the food.
d. All of the above
34. An example of chemicals used as e. None of the above
sulfite dip.
a. Sodium bisulfite 39. The commonly used methods for
b. Sodium sulfite pasteurizing foods.
c. Sodium metabisulfite a. Freezing and oven drying
d. None of the above b. Steaming and Blanching
e. All of the above c. Boiling and drying
d. All of the above
35. The use of rotating or exchanging e. None of the above
trays in a dehydrator is recommended
when drying fruits and vegetables ___. 40. The recommended storage time for
a. to reduce drying time dried foods.
b. to increase the efficiency of the a. 2 4 months
dryer b. 4 12 months
c. to promote even drying of product c. 12 24 months
d. None of the above d. All of the above
Food Process Engineering
56. The canning temperature for low- 62. The freezing temperature for eggs.
acid vegetables, meat and poultry in a a. 29 30C
pressure canner. b. 29 30F
a. 115C c. 28F
b. 100C d. None of the above
c. 74C
d. None of the above
Food Process Engineering
63. A frozen product made from 68. Tenderness of poultry meat can be
pasteurized mixture of sugar, solid milk, maintained during cold storage by ___.
stabilizer, food acid, and flavorings such a. storing it in aluminum foil
as fruits, fruit juices or extracts, and b. storing it in plastic net
water. c. storing it unpacked
a. Ice cream d. All of the above
b. Sherbet
c. Frozen milk 69. The process of hanging meat at a
d. All of the above temperature between 0 to 3C to
create tenderizing effect before freezing.
64. Which of the following material is a. Aging
used for packaging frozen poultry b. Freezing
products? c. Tempering
a. Plastic d. None of the above
b. Edible coating
c. Aluminum foil 70. Frozen poultry products are only
d. Waxed cardboard good for a period of ___.
e. All of the above a. 1 to 6 months
b. 6 to 12 months
65. Changes in the flavor of meat, fish c. 1 to 2 years
or poultry during freezing is due to the d. All of the above
___.
a. change in temperature of the 71. If a poultry product is stored at a
product temperature between 35- 40F, the
b. microorganisms that were product quality can be maintained
killed during storage within ___.
c. oxidation of fats a. 1 to 2 months
d. none of the above b. 1 to 2 days
c. 1 to 2 hours
66. In order to minimize darkening of d. none of the above
carcass of poultry meat, it is
recommended that before cold storage 72. The flesh obtained from
poultry meat should be ___. domesticated animals.
a. slowly be frozen and undergo a. Carcass
scalding process b. Meat
b. frozen rapidly c. Giblets
c. undergo scalding process d. None of the above
d. None of the above
73. The meat from rabbit.
67. The term used for internal organs of a. Lapan
poultry suitable for cold storage. b. Venison
a. Carcass c. Chevon
b. Giblets d. None of the above
c. Gills
d. None of the above
Food Process Engineering
74. The meat of sheep that is less than 79. Which of the following statements is
one year old. true in cold storage of meat?
a. Lamb a. Extreme temperature fluctuation
b. Mutton during defrosting contributes to
c. Chevon shorter storage life of the meat.
d. None of the above b. Freezing meat and its subsequent
frozen storage improve the quality of
75. The method used in preserving meat products.
meat. c. Proper handling of meat prior to
a. Smoking process freezing reduces the quality of frozen
b. Refrigeration products.
c. Freeze drying d. None of the above
d. Irradiation
e. All of the above 80. The process in heating copra to
facilitate the removal of oil during
76. Which of the following statements is pressing.
true? a. Drying
a. When beef is stored at a lower b. Steaming
temperature, it will have longer c. Conditioning
storage life than when it is stored at d. None of the above
higher temperature.
b. Storing beef at lower 81. One thousand nuts, at 800 grams
temperature will shorten its storage per nut, will produce ___ of copra.
life. a. 220 kg
c. Storing beef at higher b. 320 kg
temperature will prolong its storage c. 420 kg
life. d. None of the above
d. All of the above
10. Pelleting of feeds in the feed milling 15. The process of preparing raw
plant is done after ___. materials for mixing and making them
a. cleaning digestible to the animals.
b. grinding a. Blending
c. mixing b. Grinding
d. None of the above c. Pelleting
d. None of the above
11. Cleaning and drying of feed material
are done in the milling plant after ___. 16. The usual storage period for mixed
a. grinding the feed material feed.
b. pelleting the feed material a. 2 to 7 days
c. reception of raw material b. 8 to 15 days
d. None of the above c. 16 to 30 days
d. None of the above
12. The assembling and measuring of
the required qualities of raw material 17. Quality control in feed milling plant is
into batch of desired operation. basically done ___.
a. Mixing a. at the receiving center
b. Blending b. after pelleting process
c. Grinding c. both at the receiving center and after
d. None of the above pelleting process
d. None of the above
13. The process of obtaining a
homogenous mixture of feeds so that 18. The standard size of pallet for 25-kg
animal can be offered with different bag feeds.
nutrients in the desired proportion. a. 120 cm x 80 cm
a. Mixing b. 120 cm x 100 cm
b. Blending c. 120 cm x 160 cm
c. Grinding d. None of the above
d. None of the above
19. The standard size of pallet for 50-kg
14. The process of making feeds into bag feeds.
acceptable solid particles so nutrients is a. 120 cm by 80 cm
properly distributed. b. 120 cm by 100 cm
a. Mixing c. 120 cm x 160 cm
b. Pelleting d. None of the above
c. Grinding
d. None of the above 20. The principal liquid ingredient in feed
milling plant.
a. Water
b. Molasses
c. Coconut oil
d. None of the above
Feed Milling
21. In feed milling plant, gravity 27. A mechanical feeding device that
conveyors for dry grains require a controls the flow of feeds through the
minimum slope of ___. amplitude of the vibration and by
a. 26 degrees regulating the thickness of the layer of
b. 35 degrees feed by means of a slide.
c. 60 degrees a. Rotating lock feeder
d. None of the above b. Feed rolls
c. Vibratory feeder
22. In feed milling plant, gravity d. None of the above
conveyors for meal and light ingredients
require a minimum slope of _____. 28. A mechanical feeding device that
a. 26 degrees controls the flow of feeds through the
b. 35 degrees speed of rotation of the compartment
c. 60 degrees valve .
d. None of the above a. Rotating lock feeder
b. Feed rolls
23. The conveyor used in feed milling c. Vibratory feeder
plants for distributing materials over d. None of the above
silos.
a. Belt conveyor 29. Homogeneity of particles during
b. Screw conveyor mixing can be achieved more for ___
c. Chain conveyor materials.
d. None of the above a. smaller particles
b. large particles
24. For the same size of a conveyor unit, c. small and large
chain conveyors has ___ capacity over d. None of the above
screw conveyors.
a. lower 30. The more uniform is the particle size
b. higher the ___ is the homogeneity.
c. the same a. easier
d. None of the above b. difficult
c. harder
25. The typical speed requirement for d. None of the above
chain conveyor in a feed milling plant.
a. 10 to 20 m/min 31. Segregation of feed materials and
b. 20 to 30 m/min ingredients is facilitated when there is
c. 30 to 40 m/min ___ variation on the specific density of
d. None of the above materials to be mixed.
a. lower
26. The most commonly used grinding b. higher
equipment in feed milling plants. c. lower and higher
a. Roller mill d. None of the above
b. Attrition mill
c. Hammer mill
d. None of the above
Feed Milling
13. The amount of heat added to or 18. The quantity of heat required to
removed from a substance without change a unit mass of solid to gas
changing its temperature. without change in temperature.
a. Sensible heat a. Latent heat of fusion
b. Latent heat b. Latent heat of vaporization
c. Specific heat c. Latent heat of sublimation
d. All of the above d. None of the above
14. The heat added to or removed from 19. The latent heat of fusion of water is
a substance causing a change in its state ___.
but without changing its temperature. a. 336 kJ/kg
a. Sensible heat b. 144 BTU/lb
b. Latent heat c. All of the above
c. Specific heat d. None of the above
d. All of the above
20. At higher elevation, ___.
15. The quantity of heat required to a. water will boil at 100C
change a unit mass of a liquid into b. water will boil above 100C
gaseous state without change in c. water will boil below 100C
temperature. d. water will not boil
a. Latent heat of vaporization e. None of the above
b. Latent heat of fusion
c. Latent heat condensation 21. The amount of heat transmitted to
d. None of the above a wall is a factor of ___.
a. wall thickness
16. The quantity of heat required to b. temperature difference
change a unit mass of solid to liquid c. resistance of heat flow of the
state without change in temperature. wall materials
a. Latent heat of vaporization d. all of the above
b. Latent heat of fusion
c. Latent heat of sublimation 22. A material with high emissivity ___.
d. All of the above a. will collect more heat
b. will not collect heat
17. The quantity of heat required to c. will transmit heat
change a unit mass of gas to liquid state d. None of the above
without change in temperature.
a. Latent heat of vaporization 23. The basic use of insulating materials
b. Latent heat of condensation for a refrigeration system is ___.
c. Latent heat of fusion a. to retard heat flow
d. All of the above b. to prevent surface condensation
c. to control noise and vibration
d. All of the above
Refrigeration and Cold Storage
24. Which of the following insulating 30. One ton refrigeration is the amount
materials for a refrigeration system is of heat required to melt one ton of ice
efficient and less expensive? in ___.
a. Asbestos a. 12 hours
b. Styrofoam b. 24 minutes
c. Aluminum foil c. one day
d. All of the above d. None of the above
25. The cooling coil of a refrigeration 31. One ton refrigeration is equal to
system. ___.
a. Condenser a. 288,000 BTU/day
b. Evaporator b. 12,000 BTU/hr
c. Compressor c. 200 BTU/min
d. None of the above d. All of the above
36. The removal of accumulated ice 41. To reduce the relative humidity of air,
from the surface of cooling coils that it is recommended to use a ___.
operates below freezing point. a. humidifier
a. Dehumidification b. dehumidifier
b. Defrosting c. psychrometer
c. Ice melting d. None of the above
d. None of the above
42. In a domestic refrigerator, the
37. A refrigeration system used to condenser can be found ___.
either cool or heat a given space a. inside the refrigerator cabinet
normally by exchanging the functions of b. outside the refrigerator cabinet
the evaporator and the condenser. c. beneath the freezer
a. Heat pump d. None of the above
b. Humidifier
c. Dehumidifier 43. Freezers in a refrigerator
d. None of the above compartment are normally found at the
upper section of the cabinet for the
38. The air that flows through the gaps reason that ___.
around doors, windows and others. a. it is easy to load a product
a. Air intake b. it is easy to install in the cabinet
b. Air changes c. heat will efficiently be
c. Infiltration distributed throughout the
d. None of the above refrigerator compartment
d. None of the above
39. The difference between the dry
bulb and the wet bulb temperatures. 44. When a product is termed as frozen,
a. Wet bulb depression it is ___.
b. Relative humidity a. chilled and stored above freezing
c. Dew point temperature point
d. None of the above b. stored between 10F to 10F
c. stored at 10F to 50F
40. The temperature at which liquid is d. All of the above
converted to solid state upon the
removal of its latent heat of fusion. 45. Another important factors in cold
a. Cooling point storage of perishable products are:
b. Solid point a. Energy and power requirement
c. Freezing point inside the storage room.
d. None of the above b. Temperature and heat loss in the
storage room.
c. Humidity and air motion inside
the storage room.
d. None of the above
Refrigeration and Cold Storage
46. The use of plastic polyethylene 50. An important factor that contributes
sheet as packaging material for cold in proper refrigeration of perishable
storage is ___. crops is ___.
a. to provide heat insulating effect a. constant temperature
on the product b. free air circulation
b. to make the product attractive c. control of relative humidity
to the customer d. All of the above
c. to prevent moisture loss in the
product 51. The process of retarding moisture
d. None of the above and oxidation loss from the product
during cold storage by continuously
47. The purpose of refrigeration in providing a film or a coating that adheres
storing perishable products is ___. to the products surface.
a. to improve the quality of the a. Blanching
product b. Thawing
b. to arrest or retard the natural c. Glazing
process of deterioration d. None of the above
c. to hasten ripening or maturity
of product, such as fruits and 52. A type of freezer that operates at -
vegetables 30F and below air temperature and at
d. All of the above 500 to 100 fpm velocity.
a. Sharp freezer
48. The process of exposing freshly- b. Air-blast freezer
harvested product and carefully- c. Contact plate freezer
prepared food to subzero temperatures d. All of the above
and holding them at 32C during
storage period to maintain their quality. 53. A type of freezer used for fish
a. Cold storage products in which the products are
b. Quick freezing placed in shelves or in aluminum pans or
c. Sharp freezing plates covered by pipe coils or
d. All of the above evaporators at a temperature of 20 to -
29C.
49. If vegetables are stored at a a. Sharp freezer
temperature between 0 to 30C, the b. Air-blast freezer
product is under ___. c. Contact plate freezer
a. frozen storage d. All of the above
b. refrigerated storage
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
Refrigeration and Cold Storage
54. The method of freezing the surface 59. The method of freezing shrimp in an
of poultry meat using mist of liquid agitated cold brine solution with fixed
prior to storage in an air-blast freezer or concentration and temperature.
cold storage room. a. Blast freezing
a. Liquid immersion freezing b. Immersion freezing
b. Liquid spray freezing c. Tunnel freezing
c. Conveyor tunnel freezing d. None of the above
d. All of the above
60. At 18C, scallop meat has a frozen
55. The freezing point of milk. storage life of ___.
a. -0.545C a. 1 - 2 months
b. -0.545F b. 3 - 6 months
c. 0. 545C c. 7 - 12 months
d. None of the above d. None of the above
56. Freezer-burn in meat products is a 61. ASHRAE is the acronym for ___.
result of ___. a. Association of Heat, Refrigeration,
a. storing meat products in a freezer and Air Conditioning Engineers
with plastic sheet to prevent moisture b. American Society of Heating,
loss Refrigerating, and Air Conditioning
b. storing meat products without Engineers
plastic sheet at high relative humidity c. Association of Sensible Heating,
b. storing meat products without Refrigeration, and Air Cooling
plastic sheet at low relative humidity Engineers
d. None of the above d. None of the above
57. The recommended time for storing 62. An equipment used to clean, cool,
beef cuts at 18C is ___. heat, humidify, or dehumidify air.
a. 6 to 12 months a. Air heat exchanger
b. 3 to 4 months b. Air conditioner
c. 1 to 2 months c. Air-cooled condenser
d. None of the above d. All of the above
58. Ground beef can be safely stored at 63. The process of removing moisture
18C within a period of ___. from the air.
a. 6 to 12 months a. Dehydration
b. 3 to 4 months b. Air suction
c. 1 to 2 months c. Dehumidify
d. None of the above d. All of the above
Refrigeration and Cold Storage
64. The most popular refrigerant used 70. The condenser efficiency of an air
for a refrigeration system. conditioner can be increased by ___.
a. R-12 (Dichlorodifluoromethane) a. reducing the condenser surface area
b. R-22(Monochlorodiflouromethane) b. increasing the condenser surface
c. R-502 area
d. All of the above c. increasing the amount of refrigerant
flowing in the condenser
65. The most popular refrigerant for d. None of the above
air-conditioning.
a. R-12 (Dichlordifluoromethane) 71. The operating temperature of an
b. R-22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane) evaporator in an air-conditioning system.
c. R-502 (mixture of R-22 and R115) a. 20F
d. All of the above b. 40F
c. 60F
66. The popular refrigerant for low- d. All of the above
temperature refrigeration systems.
a. R-12 (Dichlordifluoromethane) 72. Refrigerated air-conditioning is used
b. R-22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane) in ___.
c. R-502 (mixture of R-22 and R115) a. hot temperature with high humidity
d. All of the above b. hot temperature with low humidity
c. hot temperature with either high or
67. The process in which the air is low humidity
cooled, cleaned and circulated. d. None of the above
a. Air conditioner
b. Air conditioning 73. Which of the following statements is
c. Air cooling and cleaning true?
d. All of the above a. The motor and the compressor of a
refrigeration system is separately
68. An air-conditioning system in which installed.
the condenser is located separately b. The motor and the compressor of a
from the evaporator and uses refrigeration system are housed in the
interconnecting refrigerant lines. same compartment.
a. Split-system air conditioning system c. The compressor and the motor of a
b. Package- equipment air conditioning refrigeration system is non-hermetic
system type.
c. All of the above d. None of the above
d. None of the above
74. A refrigerated system that cleans,
69. The cooling equipment of an air dehydrates and cools a compartment.
conditioner. a. No frost refrigerator
a. Condenser b. Chiller
b. Evaporator c. Freezer
c. Compressor d. Air conditioner
d. Expansion valve e. None of the above
e. None of the above
Refrigeration and Cold Storage
75. The highest pressure in the 80. The state of the refrigerant at the
refrigeration system is found at ___. condenser side immediately after leaving
a. the capillary tube the compressor.
b. the entrance of the evaporator coil a. Superheated gas
c. the entrance of the condenser tube b. Lukewarm liquid
d. the evaporator coil, immediately c. Saturated gas
before the compressor d. None of the above
e. None of the above
81. The state of the refrigerant at the
76. The component of a refrigeration evaporator side immediately before the
system positioned next to the compressor.
condenser. a. Superheated gas
a. Capillary tube b. Lukewarm liquid
b. Filter c. Saturated gas
c. Compressor d. None of the above
d. None of the above
82. A newly discovered refrigerant not
77. The component of a refrigeration harmful to the ozone layer and also
system located after the capillary tube. known as ozone-friendly gas.
a. Evaporator a. R12
b. Compressor b. Ammonia
c. Condenser c. Suva Mp 52 (R-134a)
d. None of the above d. All of the above
85. The mixture of vapor and liquid. 91. A passage from the outside of a leaky
a. Saturated gas room caused by cracks in windows,
b. Saturated liquid doors and other possible sources.
c. Superheated gas a. Heat loss
d. None of the above b. Air infiltration
c. Air gap
86. The mixture of liquid and gas. d. None of the above
a. Saturated gas
b. Saturated liquid 92. The primary refrigerant for
c. Superheated gas refrigerators known as Dichlorodifluoro-
d. None of the above methane.
a. R-11
87. The charging pressure for b. R-12
refrigerator and for freezer using R-12 c. R-22
refrigerant. d. None of the above
a. 19 psi
b. 65 psi 93. The primary refrigerant for air-
c. 75 psi conditioning systems known as
d. None of the above Monochlorodifluoro-methane.
a. R-11
88. The charging pressure for air b. R-12
conditioning unit using R-12 refrigerant. c. R-22
a. 19 - 45 psi d. None of the above
b. 65 - 75 psi
c. 80 - 90 psi 94. An extruded foam used for low-
d. None of the above temperature systems such as
refrigeration, building and sub-zero
89. A dry ice is ___. insulation.
a. solid H2O a. Polystyrene foam
b. solid CO b. PVC foam
c. solid CO2 c. Plastic foam
d. None of the above d. All of the above
Problem 1
Given:
m - 150 kg Solution:
Te - 28C
Tf - -2.2C Qt = m Cb (Te Tf) + mh1 + m Ca (Tf Ts)
Ts - -20C = 150 kg (3.5 kJ/kg-C) [28 - (-2.2)C]
Cb - 3.5 kJ/kg-C + 150 kg (250 kJ/kg) + 150 kg (1.75
Ca - 1.75 kJ/kg-C kJ/kg-C) [-2.2 (-20)C]
h1 - 250 kJ/kg = 58, 027.5 kJ
Required: Cooling load (Qt)
Refrigeration and Cold Storage
Problem 3
Problem 4
Problem 5
Solution:
Product load:
0.9 x 100 x (85-35)/24 = 187 BTU/hr
0.75 x 200 x (85-35)/24 = 312 BTU/hr
Space Load:
6 x 8 + 6 x 7 x 2 + 8 x 7 x 2 + 6 x 8 = 292 ft2
Using 6.5 BTU/ft2-hr
292 ft2 x 6.5 BTU/ ft2-hr = 1,898 BTU/hr
Total Heat Load:
187 + 312 + 1,898 = 2,397 BTU/hr
Heat Transfer and Thermal Insulation
4. The amount of heat transferred per 10. If the temperature surrounding the
unit temperature per unit length. material is reduced, the thermal
a. Emissivity conductivity also ___.
b. Thermal conductivity a. changes in a decreasing manner
c. Heat transfer coefficient b. changes in increasing manner
d. None of the above c. does not change
d. None of the above
5. When heat is transmitted through
molecular waves, it is transmitted by 11. Fluids with low molecular weight
___. have ___.
a. Convection a. high thermal conductivity
b. Conduction b. low thermal conductivity
c. Radiation c. no thermal conductivity
d. None of the above d. None of the above
6. The amount of heat required to 12. Heat basically transfers from ___.
raise one pound of water one degree a. lower temperature to high
Farenheight. temperature
a. Thermal capacity b. high temperature to lower
b. Specific heat temperature
c. British Thermal Unit c. lower pressure to high pressure
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Heat Transfer and Thermal Insulation
25. The ability of a material to give up 30. Which of the following fluids has
or to receive heat. the highest heat transfer coefficient?
a. Resistance a. Gases
b. Thermal conductance b. Liquids
c. All of the above c. Boiling water
d. None of the above d. All of the above
35. What is the heat transfer loss per 40. Basically, the thermal conductivity
foot of a 2-inch nominal pipe (OD=2.37 of a material will increase if the ___.
in.) covered with 1-inch-thick insulating a. thickness is increased
material having an average thermal b. temperature is increased
conductivity of 0.037 BTU/hr-ft-F. The c. temperature is decreased
inner and outer temperatures of the d. All of the above
insulation are 380 and 80F,
respectively. 41. Which of the following statements
a. 161 BTU/hr-ft is true?
b. 111 BTU/hr-ft a. Heat transfer rate is higher on edges
c. 125 BTU/hr-ft of boxes.
d. None of the above b. Heat transfer rate is higher on
corners of boxes.
36. The Prantdl number is a function of c. Heat transfer rate is lower on
___. walls of boxes.
a. viscosity, specific heat, and thermal d. None of the above
conductivity
a. specific heat, heat transfer 42. A good insulator for kiln dryer.
coefficient, and thermal conductivity a. Rice husk
c. viscosity, diameter of pipe, thermal b. Brick
conductivity c. Concrete
d. None of the above d. None of the above
37. Heat transfer coefficient by force 43. A material that is poor conductor of
convection is determined by what heat or has low thermal conductivity.
dimensionless numbers? a. Conductor
a. Nusselt, Prantdl, Reynolds b. Insulator
b. Nusselt, Prantdl, Grashof c. Resistor
c. Reynolds, Grashof, Prantdl d. All of the above
d. None of the above
44. A good example of high-
38. One British thermal unit (BTU) is temperature insulating material.
equal to ___. a. Iron
a. 1055 J b. Wood
b. 1505 J c. Asbestos
c. 1550 J d. All of the above
d. None of the above
45. Which of the following materials
39. If the heated pipe is changed with a has low thermal conductivity?
higher pipe schedule, the transfer of a. Building brick
heat will ___. b. Asbestos
a. increase c. Firebrick
b. decrease d. Concrete
c. remains the same e. None of the above
d. All of the above
Heat Transfer and Thermal Insulation
46. Insulators used for steam lines are 51. An extruded foam used for low-
classified as ___. temperature systems such as
a. low temperature range insulator refrigeration, building and sub-zero
b. medium temperature range insulation.
insulator a. Polystyrene foam
c. high temperature range insulator b. PVC foam
d. None of the above c. Plastic foam
d. All of the above
47. A good example of a dual-
temperature insulator. 52. A ceramic material designed to be
a. Expanded silica resistant to high temperature, i.e.,
b. Cellular glass 1000 to 1800C.
c. Vermiculite a. Refractory
d. All of the above b. Asbestos
c. Fiber glass
48. A form of insulants used in d. None of the above
industrial insulation application.
a. Flexible strips 53. The factor(s) that need(s) to be
b. Foil considered in selecting an insulant.
c. Flexible pipe section and a. Operating temperature
mattresses b. Maintenance cost
d. All of the above c. Ability to resist mechanical and heat
damage
49. Which of the following statements d. All of the above
is true?
a. In insulation, heat gain is more 54. To protect the insulant from
costly than heat loss. mechanical damage, it must be
b. The cost of extracting heat from provided with ___.
refrigerated space is the same with the a. metal sheet cladding
cost of heat losses from a high b. nets and asbestos cement
temperature system. c. wire net and bituminous compound
c. The cost of insulating high d. All of the above
temperature system is the same with
that of low temperature system. 55. The StefanBoltzmann constant is
d. All of the above equal to ___.
a. 0.147 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F4
50. The presence of moisture in a low- b. 0.174 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F4
temperature insulation material may c. 0.174 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F3
cause ___. d. None of the above
a. reduction in the insulating value of
the material 56. The equation for heat transfer by
a. improvement in the insulating value radiation in gray bodies is ___.
of the materials a. Qr = AT4
c. reduction in the cost of the b. Qr = AT4
insulating materials c. Qr = AT4
d. All of the above d. None of the above
Heat Transfer and Thermal Insulation
Radiation
Qr = A T 4
where:
Qr - heat trabsfer rate, W
- emmisivity
- Stefan-Boltzman constant, 5.7x104
W/m2-K4
A - surface area, m2
T - temperature of the surface of the
material, K
Heat Transfer and Thermal Insulation
Problem 1
Problem 2
Given:
Area of the wall - 4 ft x 8 ft
Wall thickness - 1 in.
Heat conducted - 900 BTU
Difference in temp - 15F
Solution:
Qk = 900 BTU/ 3 hours
= 300 BTU/hr
K = (300 BTU/hr) (0.083 ft) / (32 ft2) (15F)
= 0.052 BTU/hr-ft-F
Heat Transfer and Thermal Insulation
Problem 3
Given:
Fire brick - 9 in. K - 0.72 BTU/hr-ft-F
Insulating Brick - 5 in. K - 0.08 BTU/hr-ft-F
Red brick - 7.5 in. K - 0.5 BTU/hr-ft-F
t1 - 1500F
t4 - 150F
Required:
Temperatures at t2, t3, and at the
contact surface area
Solution:
Qk1-4 = 1 ft2 (1500F-150F) /
[(9in/12in/ft/0.72 BTU/hr-ft-F)
+ (5in/12in/ft/0.08BTU/hr-ft-F)
+ (7.5in/12in/ft/0.5BTU/hr-ft-F)]
= 180 BTU/hr
Problem 4
Given:
Material - steel plate
Thickness - 1 in
Insulation - 2 in.
T1 - 450F
T3 - 100F
K steel - 29 BTU/hr-ft-F
K insulation - 0.5 BTU/hr-ft-F
Required:
Temperature between the
steel plate and the insulation
1 in. 2 in.
Solution:
Problem 5
Problem 7
Given:
Pipe inside diameter - 2 cm
Pipe outside diameter - 4 cm
Thickness of asbestos - 3 cm
K pipe - 19 W/m-C
K asbestos - 0.2 W/m-C
Temperature inside the pipe - 600C
Temperature outside the asbestos - 100C
Required:
Heat transfer rate per foot length of pipe
Solution:
Problem 8
What is the heat loss per ft of the 9-inch-thick wall of a brick kiln made from a
material with 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-F thermal conductivity? The outside and inside
temperatures are 1500F and 400F, respectively.
Given:
Brick wall thickness - 9 in.
Thermal conductivity - 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-F
Inside temperature - 1500F
Outside temperature - 400F
Required:
Heat loss per ft 2
Solution:
Qk = A x [0.18 BTU/hr-ft-F x (1500F 400F)] / (9 in/12 in/ft)
= 264 BTU/hr-ft2
Heat Transfer and Thermal Insulation
Problem 9
Given:
Required:
Heat transfer rate by conduction
Solution:
Qk = A 0.65 BTU/hr-ft-F (50 C) / 6 in.
= 0.65 BTU/hr-ft-F (122F) /
(6 in./12 in./ ft)
= 158.6 BTU/hr-ft2
The Authors: