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Pharmacology MCQs for Evaluating Exam

1. Tranylcypromine with food containing tyramine will cause:


a. Anaphylactic reaction
b. Hypertensive crisis
c. Malabsorption syndrome
d. Hyperaldosteronism

2. Treatment by alpha adrenergic blockers as antihypertensives is limited


because they may cause:
a. Syncope
b. SLE
c. Rebound hypertension
d. Heart failure

3. Large doses of phenylephrine leads to severe hypertension which can be


treated by:
a. Atenolol
b. Propranolol
c. Epinephrine
d. Phentolamine

4. A patient taking minoxidil as antihypertensive may experience:


a. Hirsutism
b. Tachycardia
c. Cough

5. Digitalis toxicity includes all of the following except:


a. Nausea, vomiting
b. Vision abnormalities
c. AV nodal block
d. Constipation

6. The most important cardiotonic compound in digitalis is:


a. Digoxin alkaloid
b. Digoxin glycoside
c. Digoxin aglycone
d. The sugar part
7. Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following except:
a. Dry skin
b. Flushing

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c. Delirium & restlessness
d. Diarrhea
8. Acute anginal attack can be relieved by:
a. Sublingual nitroglycerin
b. Oral isosorbide dinitrate
c. blocker
d. Calcium channel blocker

9. Patients with angina and CHF, the best Calcium channel blocker for them is:
a. Nifedipine
b. Amlodipine
c. Diltiazem
d. Verapamil

10. Antihypertensive vasodilators can cause all of the following except:


a. Reflex tachycardia
b. Orthostatic hypotension
c. Heart block
d. Oedema

11. Side effects of HCTZ include all of the following except:


a. Hyperuricaemia
b. Hyperglycaemia
c. Hypokalaemia
d. Hypocalcaemia

12. Which diuretic may cause systemic acidosis:


a. HCTZ
b. Furosemide
c. Spironolactone
d. Acetazolamide

13. Sulfinpyrazone has the following effect:


a. Uricosuric effect
b. Antiplatelet effect
c. Antianginal
d. Antihypertensive

14. Which is true about neurotransmitters:


a. They are secreted and degraded inside the cell
b. They cause stimulate postsynaptic receptors only

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c. Secreted and degraded outside the cell
d. Synthesized outside the cell

15. Pilocarpine which is instilled into the eye will cause:


a. Mydriasis
b. Miosis
c. Increased IOP
d. Corneal deposits

16. In treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, salicylates provide only:


a. Analgesic effect
b. Analgesic & anti-inflammatory effect
c. Disease modifying effect
d. Immunomodulatory effect

17. Acetaminophen is preferred over aspirin in the following cases Except:


a. Patients taking antiplatelets
b. Young children with high fever (Reye's syndrome)
c. Patients with liver disease
d. Patient with peptic ulcer

18. Which of the following anti-neoplastics is used in rheumatoid arthritis:


a. Methotrexate
b. Cisplatin
c. Vincristine
d. Vinblastine

19. Piroxicam is:


a. Decreases prostaglandin synthesis
b. Taken once daily
c. Usually used as antipyretic

20. Which is not true about naloxone (opoids antagonist)


a. It antagonizes morphine respiratory depressant effect
b. It antagonizes phenobarbitone respiratory depressant effect
c. It precipitates morphine withdrawal symptoms
d. It has a short half life.

21. Oral contraceptives cause all the following S/E except:

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a. Fluid retention
b. Hypertension
c. Constipation
d. Chloasma.

22. Which is not true about Mg(OH)2:


a. It is an antacid
b. It causes constipation
c. It should be given with Al(OH)3
d. It has short duration of action

23. Omeprazole mechanism of action:


a. Proton pump inhibitor H+/K+ pump
b. H2- blocker.
c. Cytoprotective drug (e.g. Sucralfate, carbenoxolone)
d. Prostaglandin analogue (e.g. misoprostol)

24. For mineral oil, which not true:


a. Slowly absorbed from GIT
b. Chronic use may cause deficiency in fat soluble vitamins
c. Used as laxative
d. May decrease contraceptive action of O\C

25. The best for elderly patient with chronic constipation:


a. Stimulant laxative
b. Stool softener
c. Non-pharmacological methods

26. Which drug is used as anthelmentic:


a. Pavomate (Pyruvinium paomate)
b. Metronidazole
c. Secnidazole
d. Amikacin

27. Toxicities of anti-neoplastic chemotherapy include:


a. Alopecia
b. Bone marrow depression
c. Hyperuricaemia

28. Critical period of teratogenecity:


a. The 1st week

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b. 3-8 weeks
c. 3-6 months
d. 6-9 months

29. Calcium sodium edetate is used for:


a. Lead poisoning.
b. Atropine poisoning
c. Cyanide poisoning
d. BDZ overdose

30. BAL (dimercaprol) is an antidote in mercury toxicity due to:


a. Prevent its absorption
b. Formation of ring complex rapidly excreted
c. Antagonize the harmful effects of mercury

31. Which of the following can cause optic nerve damage:


a. Ethanol
b. Methanol
c. Morphine
d. Cannabis

32. The toxicity of methanol is due to:


a. Formation of formaldehyde
b. Formation of acetaldehyde
c. Direct toxic effect
d. adrenergic stimulation

33. Inhalation anaethetics include all of the following except:


a. Halothane
b. Fluothane
c. Midazolam
d. Nitrous oxide

34. Shortest acting barbiturate used as anaethetic:


a. Thiopental
b. Phenobarbitone
c. Phenobarbital
d. Primidone.

35. Drugs which are poorly lipid soluble and ionized at blood pH:
a. Penetrate BBB very rapidly

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b. Can not pass BBB
c. Secreted in high concentration in breast milk
d. Generally are not renally excreted

36. Parkinson disease is characterized by deficiency of:


a. Dopamine in the nigrostriatum
b. Acetylcholine in the basal ganglia
c. Norepinephrine in higher brain centers
d. Serotonin in the reticular formation

37. The action of benztropine in Parkinsonism is:


a. Stimulate dopamine release
b. Anticholinergic effect
c. Dopamine agonist
d. It is converted to dopamine in the brain
38. Drugs that may induce Parkinsonism:
a. Haloperidol
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Benzodiazepines
39. The use of levodopa in Parkinsonism instead of dopamine:
a. Levodopa is more potent than dopamine
b. Levodopa is not susceptible to peripheral degradation
c. Dopamine can not pass BBB
d. Dopamine is not available
40. In status epilepticus, the drug of choice is:
a. Carbamazepine
b. Valproate
c. I.V. diazepam
d. Gabapentin
41. In petit mal epilepsy the drug of choice is:
a. Valproic acid & ethosuximide
b. Phenytoin
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Carbamazepin
42. Shortest acting BDZ:
a. Oxazepam
b. Temazepam
c. Triazolam
d. Diazepam
43. Which antidepressant selectively inhibit serotonin reuptake:
a. Imipramine

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b. Phenelzine
c. Fluvoxamine
d. Alprazolam
44. Which step is not found in phase II metabolism:
a. Glucoronidation
b. Glycine conjucation
c. Sulfoxidation
d. Acetylation
45. Functional group metabolism occurs in:
a. Phase I reaction
b. Phase II reaction
c. Phase III reaction d. Bioactivation

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