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VISION IAS
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Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2017 Test 2104

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

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THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rd of the allotted marks will be
deducted.

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fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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1. Constitutionalism is a philosophy of limited 4. Which of the following words were added

government. Which of following features of by 42nd Amendment Act to the Preamble?
the Indian Constitution helps in enforcing 1. Socialist
this philosophy? 2. Secular
1. Fundamental Rights 3. Sovereign
4. Integrity
2. Directive Principles of state policy
Select the correct answer using the code
3. Fundamental duties
given below.
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only
given below.
(b) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 5. Which of the following is/are correct about
the basic structure of the Indian
2. Which of the following is/are the defining Constitution?
features of the parliamentary form of (a) The basic structure of the Constitution
Government in India? has been defined under article 368.
1. Watertight separation of powers between (b) The basic structure of the Constitution
executive, legislature and judiciary. can be abrogated by a constitutional
amendment.
2. Executive being responsible to the
(c) Powers of the Supreme Court under
legislature.
Articles 32 is not a part of the basic
3. Division of powers between center and
structure.
state.
(d) None of the above.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. 6. With reference to provisions regarding
(a) 1 and 2 only citizenship in India, consider the following
(b) 1 and 3 only statements:
(c) 2 only 1. Indian Constitution identifies only the
(d) 2 and 3 only persons who became citizens of India at
its commencement but not subsequent to
3. Which of the following writs can be issued that.
against private individual as well as public 2. A person shall not be a citizen of India if
authority? he/she has voluntarily acquired the
citizenship of any foreign state.
1. Habeas Corpus
3. Both Parliament and State legislature
2. Mandamus
have the power to make provisions
3. Prohibition
regarding citizenship.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the above statements given above
given below. is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) None
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7. The rights provided in Part III of the
constitution are called Fundamental rights
because:
(a) They place limitations on the powers of
the authority of the state.
(b) They are part of Human Rights that are
declared by United Nations.
(c) They are guaranteed by the Fundamental
law of the land.
(d) They are guaranteed by nature for one
who has born as human being.
8. With reference to the members of constituent
assembly, consider the following statements:
1. Different communities were represented
in proportion to their population.
2. Princely states were given no
representation.
3. Both Mahatma Gandhi and M A
Jinnah were members of constituent
assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are
not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Forcible conversions impinge upon which of
the following rights guaranteed under Article
25 of the constitution?
(a) Freedom of Conscience
(b) Right to Profess
(c) Right to Practice
(d) Right to Propagate
10. Why Indian federalism is termed asymmetric
federalism?
(a) Some states are given special status and
privilege.
(b) Indian Constitution has numerous
unitary or non-federal features.
(c) The Union enjoys unbridled power and
authority.
(d) Some states do not have legislative
councils.
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11. Which of the following Directive Principles
was/were added to the Constitution through
amendments?
1. To secure opportunities for healthy
development of children.
2. Equal pay for equal work for men and
women.
3. To promote equal justice and to provide
free legal aid to the poor.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12. Consider the following statements with
regard to National Emergency:
1. National emergency can be imposed by
the President when the security of India
is threatened by war or external
aggression or internal disturbance.
2. During the National Emergency,
fundamental rights under Articles 19 and
20 are suspended automatically.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. With reference to the Attorney General of
India, consider the following statements:
1. He has the right to audience in all the
courts in India.
2. He can be nominated as a member of
any committees of the Parliament.
3. He can attend the proceedings of
Parliament and can vote.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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14. Consider the following statements regarding 17. With reference to the Union Public Service
National Human Rights Commission: Commission (UPSC), consider the following
1. It can suo-motu inquire into any statements:
violation of human rights. 1. Salary, allowance and pension of UPSC
2. It has power to punish violators of members are charged upon consolidated
human rights. fund of India.
3. It cannot award monetary relief to the 2. The UPSC chairman can be removed on
victims. the grounds and in the manner similar to
Which of the statements given above is/are the judge of Supreme Court.
not correct? 3. The chairman or a member of UPSC is
(a) 1 and 3 only not eligible for second term.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1 and 2 only correct?
(d) 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
15. With reference to the Election Commission, (c) 1 and 3 only
consider the following statements: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Article 324 enumerates the required
qualifications for Election 18. Which of the following initiatives of the
Commissioner. Government is/are said to be giving effect to
2. State Election Commission regulates the Directive Principles of State Policies?
elections to the Legislative councils. 1. Old age pension schemes for people
3. The Chief Election Commissioner can above 65 years.
override the decisions of other election 2. Adoption of Criminal Procedure Code
commissioners. (1973).
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Seenchayi
not correct? Yojana
(a) 1 and 2 only 4. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
(b) 2 and 3 only Employment Guarantee Program.
(c) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3 given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only
16. The Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) (b) 2 and 3 only
is appointed by the President on the (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
recommendation of a committee. Who (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
among the following are the members of that
committee? 19. Which of the following statements is not
1. Prime Minister correct with respect to the Government of
2. Speaker of Lok Sabha
India Act of 1919?
3. Union Minister of Home Affairs
(a) It divided the provincial subjects into
4. Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha
reserved and transferred.
5. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
(b) It introduced bicameral legislature at
Select the correct answer using the code
centre with upper and Lower Houses.
given below.
(c) This act authorized states to enact their
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
own budget.
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) It provided for separate electorate for
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Muslims, Sikhs and Anglo Indians for
(d) 1, 3 and 5 only
the first time.
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20. Consider the following statements regarding 23. Which of the following would fall under
Central Bureau of Investigation: definition of State as defined in Article 12 of
1. It was established on the the Constitution?
recommendation of the Santhanam 1. Delhi Metro Rail Corporation
Committee on Prevention of 2. Unique Identification Authority of India
Corruption. 3. NITI Aayog
2. It drives its powers from the Central 4. RBI
Reserve Police Force Act, 1949. Select the correct answer using code given
3. It can investigate cases relating to below.
infringement of fiscal and economic (a) 1 and 3 only
laws. (b) 2 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
correct? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
24. Which of the following functions is/are
(c) 2 and 3 only
performed by Constitution in a democracy?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It restricts the exercise of power by the
state.
21. With reference to sixth schedule, which of
2. It empowers and as well as restricts the
the following statements is correct?
freedom of the people.
(a) Autonomous districts created under sixth
3. It represents a collective demand for
schedule fall outside the executive
political self determination.
authority of state.
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) Only president can increase or decrease
given below.
the area of autonomous districts under
(a) 1 only
sixth schedule.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) The district and regional councils in
(c) 2 and 3 only
these regions are empowered to assess
(d) 1, 2 and 3
and collect land revenue.
(d) None of the above
25. Which of the following is/are the
Fundamental Duties under the part IVA of
22. Which of the following statements is/are
the Constitution of India?
correct regarding Fundamental Rights?
1. They are sacrosanct in nature and cannot 1. To develop scientific temper and
be amended. humanism
2. They are available against the actions of 2. To encourage participation of workers in
both State and private individuals. management of industries
3. They operate as checks on tyranny of 3. To pay taxes
both executive and Legislature. 4. To cast vote
Select the correct answer using code given Select the correct answer using the code
below. given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
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26. Which of the following statements is/are 29. Consider the following statements with
correct with respect to Right to equality in regard to Fundamental Duties:
the Indian Constitution ? 1. The framers of the Indian constitution
1. There shall be no discrimination by state incorporated Fundamental duties with a
purpose to create a feeling of
against any citizen on any ground.
nationalism among the citizens.
2. Any law prescribing residence within a
2. The parliament by passing a bill with
state for employment can be enacted simple majority can change the
only by that state legislature or the provisions in Fundamental duties.
Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using code correct?
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. With reference to the Constitution
Amendment bill, consider the following
27. Indian Constitution is called a living statements:
document because 1. It can be introduced in either house of
1. Indian Constitution is open to changes as the Parliament.
per the changing needs of the society. 2. There is no provision for joint sitting in
2. The constitution provides enough case of deadlock.
flexibility of interpretation for both 3. The president can withhold his assent to
political class and the Judiciary. such a bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct?
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. Which of the following statements is/are
28. Which of the following rights are implicit correct regarding the Article 20 (Protection
under the Right to Freedom of Speech and in respect of conviction of offences)?
1. No ex-post-facto law shall be enacted
expression?
whether in civil or criminal matters.
1. Right against pre-censorship on
2. Protection against self-incrimination
newspapers and movies covers protection against giving thumb
2. Freedom of the Press impression and blood specimens.
3. Freedom of silence 3. In case of corruption charges against a
4. Right to demonstration or picketing and public servant either the court or
strike department should take action to avoid
Select the correct answer using code given double jeopardy.
below. Select the correct answer using code given
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None of the above are correct
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32. Which of the following are part of the 34. With reference to Charter Act of 1833,
Directive Principles of State Policy? consider the following statements:
1. It made the Governor-General of Bengal
1. To promote voluntary formation and
as the Governor-General of India.
democratic control of co-operative 2. It recommended for the appointment of
societies. Macaulay Committee on Indian Civil
2. To protect and improve the environment Service.
3. British government took over financial
and to safeguard forests and wild life.
activities from East India Company.
3. To provide free medical facilities to all Which of the statements given above is/are
the citizens of the country. correct?
4. To organise agriculture and animal (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
husbandry on modern and scientific
(c) 2 and 3 only
lines. (d) 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. 35. With reference to the Comptroller and
Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider
(a) 1 and 2 only
the following statements:
(b) 3 and 4 only 1. He submits his audit report to the
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only President and the Governor of the
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only concerned state.
2. He compiles and maintain accounts of
centre and states.
33. Consider the following statements about
3. He conducts audit of expenditure on
Emergency Provisions: behalf of the Parliament.
1. All types of emergency proclaimed by Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
the President has to be approved by the
(a) 1 and 2 only
Parliament.
(b) 1 and 3 only
2. In the case of National emergency, (c) 2 and 3 only
Parliamentary approval must be given (d) 1, 2 and 3

within 2 months from the date of

36. With reference to fifth schedule, consider the
proclamation.
following statements:
3. The proclamation of Financial 1. Fifth schedule deals with administration
emergency remain in operation for 6 and control of scheduled areas existing
months . in any state of India.
2. State having scheduled areas has to
Which of the statements given above is/are
establish a tribal advisory council.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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37. Which of the following circumstances are
suitable for the imposition of President's
Rule?
1. No party has secured majority in a State
assembly after General Elections or in
the case of hung assembly.
2. Allegations of maladministration against
the state government.
3. When the State government pursues
policies that are anti-secular.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
39. The Directive principles of State policy have
been useful to India because:
1. They are intended to fill in the vacuum
in Part III by providing for social and
economic rights.
2. They help courts in exercising judicial
review.
3. They enable the opposition to exercise
influence and control over the operations
of the government.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only

38. With reference to the Election Commission,
consider the following statements:
1. Parliament determines the conditions for
service and tenure of office of the Chief
Election Commissioner.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner can
be removed on the grounds and in the
manner similar to the judge of Supreme
Court.
3. The Model code of conduct
determined by the Parliament and
enforced by Election Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are
not correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
40. Consider the following statements about
Financial Emergency:
1. The President may issue directions for
reduction of the salaries of all class of
persons serving the Union except the
judges of Supreme Court.
2. The resolutions for its proclamation and
revocation shall be passed by either
is
House of the Parliament with a simple
majority.
Which of the statements given above is/ are
correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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41. With reference to Public Service 43. Consider the following statements regarding
the functions of Finance Commission:
Commissions, consider the following
1. Parliament determines the qualification,
statements: selection procedure and tenure of its
1. Both State Public Service Commission members.
2. It provides the guidelines for distribution
and Joint Public Services Commission
of share of taxes among centre, state and
are constitutional bodies. Public Sector Undertakings.
2. Members of State Public Service 3. Each state has to constitute a State
Finance Commission to allocate revenue
Commission and Joint Public Services
to Panchayati Raj institutions.
Commission submit their resignation to Which of the statements given above are not
correct?
the President.
(a) 1 only
3. Union Public Service Commission and (b) 1 and 2 only
Joint Public Services Commission (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
submit annual reports to the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are 44. Which among the following are
not correct? constitutional bodies?
1. Law Commission of India
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. National Commission for Minorities
(b) 1 and 3 only 3. National Commission for Backward
(c) 2 and 3 only Classes
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
42. Consider the following statements: (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. DPSPs require legislation for their
(d) None
implementation while the Fundamental
Rights are automatically enforced. 45. With reference to the National Commission
for Schedule Castes, consider the following
2. Unlike the case of Fundamental Rights,
statements:
the courts cannot declare a law violative 1. The members and chairperson of the
of any of the Directive Principles as commission are appointed by the
President.
unconstitutional and void.
2. It submits annual report to the
Which of the statements given above is/are parliament.
3. It has the powers of a civil court.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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46. Which of the following measures can be 48. Consider the following statements with

taken by the National Commission for reference to administration of Union

Scheduled Tribes (NCST)? Territories in India.

1. Unlike the Governor of a state, an
1. Prevention of alienation of tribal people
administrator of a Union Territory is not
from land.
a constitutional head.
2. Reduction of the practice of shifting
2. Governor of a state, who is also
cultivation.
administrator of adjoining union
3. Implementation of the provisions of territory, in that capacity has to act on
Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled advice of council of ministers.
Areas) Act, 1996. 3. Constitutional provision for

Select the correct answer using the code administration of union territory also
applies to any acquired territories.
given below.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only
correct ?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
47. Consider the following statements regarding

the Linguistic Minorities: 49. Constitution makers, refrained from giving

1. The status of the Linguistic Minority is legal enforceability to the Directive

conferred by the Central Government. Principles of State Policy because:

(a) They believed in an awakened public
2. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
opinion as the ultimate sanction for the
is a constitutional body.
fulfilment of these principles.
3. The Commissioner for Linguistic
(b) The essential rights of the citizens had
Minorities work under the aegis of
been guaranteed through the
Ministry of Culture. Fundamental Rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) They knew that these are ideals which
not correct? could never be implemented in such a

(a) 1 and 2 only diverse country.

(b) 2 and 3 only (d) They knew that the country will never
have the resources to implement these
(c) 1 and 3 only
principles.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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50. Consider the following statements regarding 53. Which of the following Directive
National Emergency:
Principles is/are not under part IV of the
1. The legislative power of the state is
suspended. Constitution?
2. Laws made by the Parliament on the
1. Instruction in mother tongue.
State list become inoperative
immediately after the national 2. Claims of SC's and ST's to services and
emergency is withdrawn. posts of the State.
3. President can modify the distribution of
revenues between Centre and States. 3. Participation of workers in management
Which of statements is/are correct? of industries.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer from the code
(c) 1 and 2 only given below.
(d) 3 only
(a) 3 only

51. Which among the following is/are audited by (b) 2 only

the Comptroller and Auditor General of
(c) 1 and 2 only
India?
1. Accounts and expenditure of Reserve (d) 1, 2 and 3
Bank of India
2. Accounts and expenditure of Food
54. Consider the following statements:
Corporation of India
3. Secret Service expenditures 1. The Centre has a duty to ensure that
Select the correct answer using the code
State government is carried on
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only accordance with the constitutional
(b) 1 only provisions.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above 2. President's rule can be imposed in a state

only after the Governor of the state

52. The Indian Councils Act of 1861 introduced
sends a report to the President.
which of the following provisions for the
first time in India? 3. The President has to obtain the written
1. Power to issue ordinances in Indian
consent of the Lok Sabha for imposing
administration
2. Nomination of Indians as non-official National emergency.
members to Viceroy's council
Which of the above statements is/are
3. New office of Secretary of State for
India correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 3 only
given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only
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55. Consider the following statements regarding 57. With reference to constitutional provisions
National Human Rights Commission regarding freedom of religion, consider the
following statements:
(NHRC):
1. State cannot spend the public money
1. It was formed under the aegis of UN from taxation for the promotion of any
Human Rights Council. particular religion.
2. It has its own nucleus of investigating 2. State can impose fees to control the
secular administration of religious
staff for investigating into complaints.
institutions.
3. It can only look into matter of Human
Which of the statements given above is/are
rights violation within 1 year of its correct?
occurrence. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 58. Members of the Constituent Assembly of
(c) 2 and 3 only India were:
1. Directly elected
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Indirectly elected
3. Nominated
56. A religious denomination must satisfy which Select the correct answer using the code
of the following necessary conditions in given below.
order to exercise the Freedom to manage (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
religious affairs under the article 26?
(c) 2 and 3 only
1. Group of individuals with a system of (d) 1, 2 and 3
beliefs.
2. A group with common organization. 59. Which of the following provisions were part
of the Objectives Resolution passed by
3. Collective having a distinctive name.
Jawaharlal Nehru in the constituent
4. Group having a religious text of their
assembly?
own. 1. Fundamental Rights
5. A leader who preaches a distinct 2. Safeguards to minorities, tribal,

doctrine. depressed and other backward classes

3. Promotion of World peace and welfare
Select the correct answer using code given
of mankind
below. Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only given below.
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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60. Which of the following functions were 63. Consider the following statements with
performed by the constituent assembly of respect to Fundamental Rights:
India?
1. They promote political and social
1. Enactment of the ordinary laws
democracy.
2. Adoption of National Flag and National
Anthem. 2. These rights, being absolute in nature,
3. Election of the First President of India. can be enforced through the issue of
Select the correct answer using the code Writs.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only
not correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
61. Consider the following statements with (d) Neither 1 nor 2
regard to enactment of the Constitution of
India:
64. Indian Constitution is said to be the
1. On November 26, 1949, date of
synthesis of Parliamentary Sovereignty and
commencement of Constitution, the
entire constitution came into force. Judicial Supremacy. Which among the
2. With the commencement of following statements support(s) this
Constitution, both the India argument?
Independence Act of 1947 and
1. The powers to amend the Constitution
Government of India Act of 1935 were
provided under article 368 of the
repealed.
Which of the statements given above is/are constitution.
correct? 2. The power of judicial review provided
(a) 1 only under the Article 13(2).
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Both 1 and 2
given below.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only

62. Consider the following statements about the (b) 2 only

Union Territory of Delhi: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. The chief minister is appointed by the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Lieutenant Governor.
2. The legislative assembly can make laws
65. Dr. Ambedkar called which of the following
on all the matters of state list.
fundamental rights as the most important
3. The strength of the Council of Ministers
is fixed at 15 per cent of the total article of the constitution, without which
strength of the assembly. Indian constitution would be a nullity?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Right to Constitutional Remedies
correct?
(b) Right to Freedom of Speech and
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Expression
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Right to Religious and Cultural freedom
(d) None of the above (d) Right against Exploitation
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66. The Chairman or Members of State Human 69. Which of the following commissions/
Rights Commission can be removed in committee accepted 'language' as the criteria
which of the following manner? for reorganization of states?
(a) By the Governor after referring the 1. Dhar Commission
2. JVP Committee
matter to the High Court for an inquiry.
3. Fazl Ali Commission
(b) By the President after consulting with
Select the correct answer using the code
the Governor and Chief Minister of the
given below.
state. (a) 1 only
(c) By the President after referring the (b) 1 and 2 only
matter to the Supreme Court for an (c) 3 only
inquiry. (d) 2 and 3 only
(d) By the High Court after an inquiry.
70. Consider the following statements with
67. Indian form of government is described as reference to Article 32 of the Indian
federation with centralizing tendency. Which Constitution:
among the following provisions of the 1. Right to move Supreme Court in case of
infringement of Fundamental Rights can
constitution supports this tendency?
be curtailed in certain circumstances.
1. Single and flexible constitution
2. Only Fundamental Rights guaranteed by
2. Provision of All India Services the Constitution can be enforced under
3. Appointment of State Governor by the Article 32.
Center. 3. Parliament can empower any other court
Select the correct answer using the code to issue writs of all kinds.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

68. With reference to religious and cultural

71. Consider the following statements in the
freedom granted under the Constitution, context of Preamble to the Constitution:
consider the following statements: 1. The Preamble states that the Constitution
1. Any kind of religious instruction is derives its authority from the constituent
completely prohibited in all the schools assembly of India.
administered by the state. 2. Indian constitution was the first
2. It is compulsory for an individual from a constitution in world to begin with a
minority group to attend to religious Preamble.
instructions in schools maintained by 3. Preamble is a part of the Constitution
and gives clarity in interpretation of the
same minority group.
constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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72. Consider the following pairs: 75. With reference to union territories consider
Writs Scope the following statements:
1. Prohibition : Against judicial as well 1. Union territories are not part of union of
as quasi- judicial
India under Article 1 of the Constitution.
authorities
2. Union territories are not part of federal
2. Certiorari : Both preventive and
curative in nature system in India.
3. Quo Warranto : For aggrieved as well Which of the statements given above is/are
as non-aggrieved correct?
person (a) 1 only
Which of the pairs given above mentioned
(b) 2 only
pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 76. Preamble declares India as sovereign. What
does this imply?
73. Consider the following statements with 1. There is no authority above India and is
reference to martial law in India:
free to conduct its own affair.
1. The Indian constitution under the Article
2. India can acquire a foreign territory or it
34 defines martial law.
can cede a part of its territory in favor of
2. Both Martial Law and National
Emergency can be imposed in any part of the a foreign state.
country. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the above mentioned given below.
statement/statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

74. With reference to Right to Property, consider 77. Which of the following is/are the reasons for
the following statements: creating Union Territories in India?
1. It is a constitutional right under Indian 1. Cultural distinctiveness
Constitution.
2. Strategic importance
2. The 42nd Amendment act abolished
3. Interest of tribal people
Right to Property as a fundamental right.
3. It is protected against executive action 4. Administrative consideration
but not legislative action. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are given below.
correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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78. In the context of Indian federation, consider 81. Consider the following statements with
the following statements: regard to Parliament's power to reorganize
1. States have no right to secede from the the states:
federation. 1. Any bill contemplating the changes can
2. It is the result of an agreement among the be introduced in the parliament only
states. with the prior recommendation of the
President.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Under article 3, the Parliament's power
correct?
to diminish the areas of a state includes
(a) 1 only
the power to cede Indian territory to a
(b) 2 only
foreign state.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Any bill aiming to reorganise the states
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 shall be passed in the parliament by a
special majority.
79. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
regard to National Emergency in India: correct?
1. When it is proclaimed, the state (a) 1 only
government is suspended automatically (b) 1 and 2 only
and Centre assumes complete control (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
over the state government.
2. It's proclamation and continuation
requires the approval of Parliament with 82. Which of the following bodies submit their
annual report to the President?
a special majority.
1. Central Information Commission
3. 3.The President can revoke a National
2. National Human Rights Commission
emergency on his own without the need
3. Central Vigilance Commission
for Parliamentary approval.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are given below.
correct? (a) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
83. Consider the following statements with
80. Which of the following is/are the reference to citizens of India:
components of basic structure of the 1. Citizens by birth as well as naturalized
Constitution? citizens are eligible for the office of the
1. Supremacy of the Constitution President of India.
2. Fundamental Duties under the part of
2. Welfare state
IVA to the Indian Constitution are
3. Parliamentary system
applicable only to Citizens of India.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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84. Preamble states India as a democratic 87. Recently, the workers of the Delhi
country, in this context consider the Municipal Corporation were on strike and
following statements: there was no collection or disposal of
1. Referendum, Initiative, Recall and garbage by them. This led to a dangerous
Plebiscite are the four main devices of situation of spreading of communicable
representative democracy. diseases. If an aggrieved person approaches
2. Preamble provides for political SC, it may issue which of the following
democracy only and not for the social writs in this case?
and economic democracy.
(a) Certiorari
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Mandamus
correct?
(c) Quo warranto
(a) 1 only
(d) Prohibition
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 88. Consider the following statements with
reference to the idea of liberalism in the
85. With reference to loss of citizenship under context of Indian Constitution:
the Citizenship act, 1955, consider the 1. Indian liberalism gives primacy to the
following statements: rights of the individuals over the rights
1. If a person renounces his Indian of community.
citizenship, their minor children also 2. Reservations for SC/ST community in
loses their citizenship. constitution is an example of Indian
2. The application for renunciation or liberalism.
termination of citizenship can be Which of the statements given above is/are
withheld if India is engaged in war. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 89. Which of the following Fundamental Rights
(d) Neither 1 nor 2. are also available to foreign nationals?
1. Equality before law and Equal
86. Consider the following statements: Protection of law
1. States can provide special benefits to its 2. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds
residents in the matter of the rights given
of race, religion, caste, sex or place of
by Indian constitution.
birth
2. As per the article 19 of the Constitution,
3. Right to elementary education
all the Indian citizens have the freedom
4. Protection of language, script and
of movement and residence in any part
culture of minorities
of India.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are
given below.
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
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90. Consider the following statements with 93. Consider the following statements regarding
regard to 42nd Constitutional Amendment
the Attorney General of India:
Act:
1. It made changes in the Preamble and 1. He must be qualified to be a judge of the
Seventh Schedule of the constitution.
Supreme court.
2. It also imposed restrictions on the
review powers of the judiciary 2. Article 76 provides the procedure for his
overriding the ruling under Minerva
removal.
Mills Case.
3. The Act gave primacy to the Directive 3. He has to resign when the Council of
Principles of State Policy over the
Ministers is dissolved.
Fundamental Rights.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
91. Which of the following statements is/are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct regarding the Article 17 (Abolition of
Untouchability)?
1. It abolishes untouchability and its 94. Which of the following directive principles
practice in any form.
is/are based on the Gandhian Principles?
2. "Untouchability" has been defined under
Article 17. 1. To promote equal justice and to provide
3. It is available only against the state. free legal aid to the poor.
4. It is implemented by "Protection of Civil
Rights Act, 1955". 2. To raise the level of nutrition and the
Select the correct answer using code given standard of living of people and to
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only improve public health.
(b) 1 and 4 only 3. To organise village panchayats and
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 4 only endow them with necessary powers and

authority to enable them to function as

92. Which of the following is/are the necessary
units of self-government.
features of federation?
1. Dual system of government Select the correct answer using the code
2. Written constitution
given below.
3. Independent judiciary
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 2 only
given below.
(b) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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95. Consider the following statements with 97. Which of the following statements is correct
reference to amendment of the constitution:
regarding Article 21 (Protection of Life and
1. Formation of new states requires
Personal Liberty)?
amendment in constitution under article
368. (a) It is available against only arbitrary
2. Special majority required for executive action but not against
amendment is the majority of the total
arbitrary legislative action.
membership of each House and a
majority of 2/3rd of the members present (b) It can be suspended only during the
and voting. operation of National Emergency.
3. Amendment of the provisions related to
(c) Right to life under this article provides
federal features of the constitution
requires special majority and consent of for both active and passive euthanasia.

the half of the states' legislatures. (d) None of the above

Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
98. Which of the following provisions can be
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only amended by Special Majority of both the

(c) 2 and 3 only house of Parliament only?

(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Fundamental Rights

96. Consider the following pairs: 2. Directive Principles of State Policy

Constitutional Borrowed from 3. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the

provisions
supreme court
1. Fundamental Rights : United States
4. Power of Parliament to amend the
2. Idea of Residual : Canada
power constitution
3. Rule of the law : Britain
5. Abolition or creation of legislative
4. Power of judicial : France
councils in states
review
5. Directive Principles of : Ireland Select the correct answer using the code
States Policy given below.
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
(a) 1 and 2 only
matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
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99. Which of the following statements is/are 100. Which of the following statements is/are
correct with regard to the India
correct with regard to the Fundamental
Independence Act, 1947?
Duties? 1. It provided that India can alter any law

1. They can be used by the courts to
determine the constitutionality of a law.
2. They can be enforced by the Parliament
through legislation.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
(a) 1 only
made by the British in relation to India,
including the India Independence Act,
1947 itself.
2. It abolished the office of Governor
General in India.
3. Though it declared India as independent,
it did not proclaim the lapse of British
Paramountcy over Indian Princely states.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.

(b) 2 only (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

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