1.

Basic Electrical Circuits and Components

Q1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. The SI unit of potential difference is the volt.

B. The SI unit of frequency is the hertz.
C. The SI unit of temperature is the degree centigrade.
D. The SI unit of charge is the coulomb.

Q2. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Conventional current is in the opposite direction to a flow of electrons.

B. If a body develops an excess of electrons it will have an overall positive charge.
C. Voltages in a circuit are usually measured with respect to the ground or earth connection.
D. An e.m.f. represents the energy introduced into a circuit by a battery or generator.

Q3. Which of the following is a correct statement of Ohm's law?

A. R = VI
B. I = V/R
C. V = I/R
D. I = R/V

Q4. Calculate the magnitude of the current I3 in the following circuit.

A. -7 A
B. +13 A
C. +7 A
D. -13 A

Q5. Calculate the magnitude of the voltage V2 in the following circuit.

 A. 14 V
B. -14 V
C. 28 V
D. -7 V

Q6. Calculate the magnitude of the power dissipated in R3 in the following circuit.

A. 45 mW
B. 45 W
C. 150 W
D. 150 mW

Q7. Calculate the effective resistance of the following combination.

A. 39
B. 52
C. 49
D. 12

Q8. Calculate the effective resistance of the following combination.

A. 16
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8
Q9. Calculate the output voltage V of the following circuit.

A. 5V
B. 10 V
C. 6V
D. 3V

Q10. Calculate the output voltage V of the following circuit.

A. 4V
B. 6V
C. 8V
D. 2V

Q11. A sinusoidal signal has a period of 40 ms. What is its frequency?

A. 25 Hz
B. 50 Hz
C. 50 kHz
D. 25 kHz
Q12. What circuit element is represented by the following circuit symbol?

A. An ideal voltage source with a magnitude of V.

B. A voltmeter.
C. A battery with an output voltage of V.

ANSWER KEY
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. B
10. B
11. A
12. B

2. Measurement of Voltages and Currents

Q1. What is the frequency of the following waveform?

A. 20 Hz
B. 10 rad/s
C. 10 Hz
D. 20 rad/s
Q2. Which of the following equations describes the waveform shown in the previous question?

A. v = 5 sin 63 t
B. v = 10 sin 10 t
C. v = 5 sin 10 t
D. v = 10 sin 63 t

Q3. Which of the following equations describes the waveform shown here?

A. v = 8 sin (79t + pi/4)

B. v = 8 sin (90t - pi/4)
C. v = 8 sin (79t - pi/4)
D. v = 8 sin (90t + pi/4)

Q4. In the graph shown below, waveform A lags waveform B by 90 degrees.

A. True
B. False

Q5. What is the average value of a sinusoidal voltage that has a peak value of 15 volts?

A. 0V
B. 9.56 V
C. 10.6 V
D. 19.1 V

Q6. A current of 5 A r.m.s. is passed through a resistor of 4 . What power will be dissipated in the resistor?

A. 20 W
B. 50 W
C. 100 W
D. 200 W
Q7. A moving-coil meter produces a full-scale deflection for a current of 100 A and has a resistance of 500 . Select a series resistor
to turn this device into a voltmeter with an f.s.d. of 1 V.

A. 8.5 k
B. 9 k
C. 9.5 k
D. 10 k

Q8. What reading would be displayed by an analogue ltimeter if it were switched to an AC voltage range and connected to a
symmetrical square waveform of 10 V peak?
A. 7.07 V
B. 9.01 V
C. 10 V
D. 11.1 V

Q9. What reading would be displayed if the signal from the last question were measured on an AC voltage range of a sophisticated
digital ltimeter?

A. 7.07 V
B. 9.01 V
C. 10.0 V
D. 11.1 V

Q10. What is the relationship between the two waveforms shown here?

A. A lags B by pi/4
B. A lags B by pi/2
C. A leads B by pi/4
D. A leads B by pi/2

ANSWER KEY
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. A
 3. Resistance and DC Circuits

Q1. A piece of resistive material has a length of 10 mm, a cross sectional area of 7 mm2 and a resistivity of 4700 10-8 -m. What is its
resistance?

A. 67
B. 67 m
C. 30.4
D. 30.4 k

Q2. Calculate the current I3 in the following circuit.

A. -8A
B. -2 A
C. 2A
D. 8A

Q3. Calculate the voltage V2 in the following circuit.

A. -10 V
B. 10 V
C. 12 V
D. 18 V
Q4. Determine the open-circuit output voltage of the following circuit.

5V

A. 6.82 V
B. 8.18 V
C. 10 V

Q5. Determine the short-circuit current of the following circuit.

2 mA

A. 3.33 mA
B. 5 mA
C. 6.67 mA

Q6. The effective internal resistance of an ideal current source is zero.

A. True
B. False

Q7. Use the principle of superposition to determine the output voltage V of the following circuit (you should be able to do this using mental
arithmetic).

A. 5V B. 7.5V C. 12V D. 15V

Q8. Nodal analysis involves systematically applying Kirchhoff's current law to the nodes within a circuit.

A. True
B. False

Q9. Mesh analysis involves systematically applying Kirchhoff's current law to the meshes within a circuit.

A. True
B. False

Q10. How many meshes are present within the following circuit?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
ANSWER KEY

1. B 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. C

4. Capacitance and Electric Fields

Q1. A 22 F capacitor has a charge of 250 C stored on it. What is the voltage across the capacitor?

A. 0.88 V
B. 5.5 V
C. 11.4 V
D. 15.5 V

Q2. A capacitor has plates 15 times 30 mm which have a separation of 10 m. If the gap between the plates filled with air, calculate the
capacitance of the device.

A. 400 pF
B. 400 nF
C. 400 F
D. 400 mF
Q3. Calculate the capacitance of the capacitor described in the last question if the gap between the plates is filled with a dielectric with a
relative permittivity of 200.

A. 2 pF
B. 80 mF
C. 80 nF
D. 200 nF

Q4. The conducting plates of a capacitor have a separation of 25 m. If the potential across the capacitor is 75 volts, what is the electric
field strength in the dielectric?

A. 3 MV/m
B. 3.3 MV/m
C. 30 MV/m
D. 333 MV/m

Q5. What is the effective capacitance of the following arrangement?

A. 0.5 F
B. 2 F
C. 4.5 F
D. 9 F

Q6. What is the effective capacitance of the following arrangement?

A. 0.5 F
B. 2 F
C. 4.5 F
D. 9 F

Q7. In a capacitor, the relationship between the current and the voltage can be written as I = C dV/dt.

A. True
B. False
Q8. The circuit in (a) below shows an arrangement that applies a step voltage across a combination of a resistor and an initially uncharged
capacitor. What quantity is shown plotted against time in the graph in (b)?

A. The capacitor voltage VC.

B. The current I.

Q9. The circuit in (a) below shows an arrangement that applies a sinusoidal voltage across a capacitor. Given the relationship between the
voltage and the current in a capacitor, which of the following statements is correct?

A. (b) represents the current IC and (c) represents the voltage VC.
B. (b) represents the voltage VC and (c) represents the current IC.
Q10. Calculate the energy stored in a 22 F capacitor when it is charged to 120 V.

A. 290 J
B. 158 mJ
C. 317 mJ
D. 3.17 J
ANSWER KEY

1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. A 10. B

5. Inductance and Magnetic Fields

Q1. A straight wire carries a current of 7 A. What is the magnetic field strength, H, at a distance of 500 mm from the wire?

A. 0.17 A/m
B. 0.22 A/m
C. 2.23 A/m
D. 14 A/m

Q2. A coil of 250 turns carries a current of 3 A. What is the magnetomotive force, F, produced by this arrangement?

A. 83 ampere-turns
B. 187 ampere-turns
C. 356 ampere-turns
D. 750 ampere-turns

Q3. The units of reluctance are ohms ( ).

A. True
B. False

Q4. Faraday's law states that the magnitude of the e.m.f. induced in a circuit is proportional to the magnitude of the flux linking the circuit.

A. True
B. False

Q5. The current in a 25 mH inductor changes at a constant rate of 7 A/s. What voltage is induced across this coil?

A. 3.57 mV
B. 175 mV
C. 350 mV
D. 1.75 V
Q6. Calculate the inductance of the air-filled coil shown here.

A. 176 nH
B. 35 H
C. 87 H
D. 123 H

Q7. Calculate the inductance of this arrangement.

A. 2 mH
B. 20 mH
C. 90 mH
D. 120 mH

Q8. Calculate the inductance of this arrangement.

A. 2 mH
B. 20 mH
C. 90 mH
D. 120 mH
Q9. The circuit in (a) below shows an arrangement that applies a step voltage across a combination of a resistor and an initially unexcited
inductor. What quantity is shown plotted against time in the graph in (b)?

A. The inductor voltage VL.

B. The current I.

Q10. What energy is stored in an inductor of 40 mH when a current of 8 A is passing through it?

A. 1.6 mJ
B. 128 mJ
C. 160 mJ
D. 1.28 J
ANSWER KEY

1. C 2. D 3. B 4. B 5.B 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. D

6. Alternating Voltages and Currents

Q1. Calculate the angular frequency small of a signal that has a cyclic frequency f of 20 Hz.

A. 3.18 rad/s
B. 31.8 rad/s
C. 126 rad/s
D. 168 rad/s

Q2. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to alternating waveforms?

A. In an inductor, the current leads the voltage.

B. In an inductor the voltage lags the current.
C. In a capacitor, the voltage leads the current.
D. In a capacitor, the current leads the voltage.

Q3. Calculate the reactance of an inductor of 15 mH at a frequency of 60 Hz.

A. 0.9
B. 2.7
C. 5.7
D. 6.3
Q4. Calculate the reactance of a capacitor of 470 F at an angular frequency of 150 rad/s.

A. 14.2
B. 56.1
C. 89
D. 130

Q5. A sinusoidal current of 5 A peak and 60 Hz flows through a capacitor of 20 mF. What voltage will appear across the capacitor?

A. 167 mV
B. 663 mV
C. 893 mV
D. 4.17 V

Q6. The diagram below shows a phasor representation of the voltage V across a combination of a resistor and an inductor. Calculate the
magnitude and phase of the voltage V.

A. The magnitude is 168 V and the phase angle is 54degrees

B. The magnitude is 168 V and the phase angle is 36degrees
C. The magnitude is 186 V and the phase angle is 54degrees
D. The magnitude is 186 V and the phase angle is 36degrees

Q7. Determine the complex impedance of the following series arrangement at a frequency of 60 Hz.

A. 239 + j69
B. 239 + j135
C. 170 + j135
D. 170 + j69

Q8. Which of the following combinations of components represents an impedance of 110 + j 314 at a frequency of 100 Hz?

A. An inductor of 50 mH in series with a capacitor of 5 F

B. A resistor of 110 in series with an inductor of 500 mH.
C. A resistor of 110 in series with a capacitor of 5 F.
D. A resistor of 314 in series with an inductor of 5 mH.
Q9. When we wish to divide one complex quantity by another, the computation is ch simpler if we express each quantity in polar form.

A. True
B. False

Q10. Convert a complex impedance of 150 + j200 into a polar form.

A. |Z| = 250; angle = 53degrees

B. |Z| = 350; angle = 47degrees
C. |Z| = 275; angle = 30degrees
D. |Z| = 150; angle = 60degrees

ANSWER KEY
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. A 5.B 6. D 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. A

7. Power in AC Circuits

Q1. When a sinusoidal voltage is applied across a resistance, R, how is the average power, P, related to the r.m.s. voltage, V, and the r.m.s.
current, I ?

A. P = V2I
B. P = VI
C. P = VIR
D. P = VI2

Q2. If a sinusoidal voltage v = Vp sin t is applied across a capacitor, C, what is the average value of the power dissipated in the capacitor?

A. C Vp2
B. 0
C. 2C Vp2
D. Vp2 /C

Q3. In reactive circuits, the product of the r.m.s. voltage and the r.m.s. current is termed the active power.

A. True
B. False

Q4. The voltage across a component is measured as 80 V r.m.s. and the current through it is 4 A r.m.s. If the current leads the voltage by
20degrees what is the apparent power in the component?

A. 109 VA
B. 116 VA
C. 301 VA
D. 320 VA

Q5. In the arrangement of Question 4, what is the active power in the component?

A. 109 W
B. 116 W
C. 301 W
D. 320 W

Q6. In the arrangement of Question 4, what is the reactive power in the component?

A. 109 var
B. 116 var
C. 301 var
D. 320 var

Q7. Since many high-power loads are capacitive, the national power distribution grid tends to have a power factor of 0.8 -- 0.9 leading.

A. True
B. False
Q8. An amplifier has an output impedance Zo of 70 + j35 . What value of load impedance will permit maximum power transfer?

A. 70 - j35
B. -70 + j35
C. 70 + j35
D. -70 - j35

Q9. By what phase angle are the phases of a three-phase supply separated?

A. 60degrees
B. 90degrees
C. 120degrees
D. 180degrees

Q10. When measuring power in a three-wire, three-phase arrangement, the total power can be determined by measuring the power in two of
the three circuits.

A. True
B. False
ANSWER KEY

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. D 5.C 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. A

8. Frequency Characteristics of AC Circuits

Q1. What is the transfer function of the following circuit?

A. Vi ( Z2/(Z1 + Z2)
B. Z2/(Z1 + Z2)
C. Vi ( Z1/(Z1 + Z2)
D. Z1/(Z1 + Z2)
Q2. Calculate the cut-off frequency fc of the following circuit.

A. 96.7 Hz
B. 15.4 rad/s
C. 96.7 rad/s
D. 15.4 Hz

Q3. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Three decades above 470 Hz is 470 kHz.

B. Two decades below 10 MHz is 10 kHz.
C. Three octaves below 64 Hz is 8 Hz.
D. Two octaves above 5 Hz is 20 Hz.

Q4. Calculate the angular cut-off frequency c of the following circuit.

A. 56.8 rad/s
B. 357 Hz
C. 515 rad/s
D. 515 Hz

Q5. What are the characteristics of the following circuit?

A. A high-pass network.
B. A low-pass network.
Q6. What are the characteristics of the following circuit?

A. A high-pass network.
B. A low-pass network.

Q7. What are the characteristics of the following circuit?

A. A high-pass network.
B. A low-pass network.

Q8. What are the characteristics of the following circuit?

A. A high-pass network.
B. A low-pass network.
Q9. Calculate the resonant frequency of the following arrangement.

A. 53 Hz
B. 128 Hz
C. 226 Hz
D. 1421 Hz

Q10. Which of the following forms of filter is optimized for a linear phase response?

A. The Butterworth filter.

B. The Chebyshev filter.
C. The Bessel filter.

ANSWER KEY

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. A 5.B 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. C

9. Transient Behaviour

Q1. The switch in the following circuit closes at t = 0. If the capacitor is initially discharged, calculate the voltage on the capacitor at t = 3 s.

A. 2.43 V
B. 12.6 V
C. 13.8 V
D. 14.2 V

Q2. The switch in the following circuit closes at t = 0. If the inductor is initially de-energised, calculate the time at which the current in the
coil reaches 150 mA.

A. 1.44 ms
B. 4.82 ms
C. 6.93 ms
D. 12.7 ms
Q3. Which of the following equations is not a correct statement of the initial and final value formulae?

A. v = Vi + (Vf -- Vi)e-t/T
B. v = If + (Ii -- If)e-t/T
C. v = Vf + (Vi -- Vf)e-t/T

Q4. Derive an expression for the output voltage of the following circuit, for the period after t = 0.

A. v = 6 + 6e-t/0.2
B. v = 12 - 6e-t/0.2
C. v = 6 - 6e-t/0.2
D. v = 12 - 12e-t/0.2

Q5. Which of the following equations could describe the voltage waveform shown here?

A. v = -Ve-t/T
B. v = Ve-t/T
C. v = V(1 - e-t/T)
D. v = -V(1 - e-t/T)

Q6. For an exponential curve of the form v = A(1 -- e-t/T), the waveform has achieved approximately 37% of its total transition at a time t =
T.

A. True
B. False

Q7. How would you categorise the behaviour of the following circuit, for the input waveform shown?

A. It resembles a differentiator.
B. It resembles an integrator.
Q8. How would you categorise the behaviour of the following circuit, for the input waveform shown?

A. It resembles a differentiator.
B. It resembles an integrator.

Q9. In a second order system, critical damping corresponds to the situation where the damping factor is equal to 1.

A. True
B. False

Q10. In a second order system, a damping factor of greater than 1 causes the system to be underdamped.

A. True
B. False
ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. A 5.A 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. B

10. Electric Motors and Generators

Q1. A coil consisting of 50 turns of copper wire has an area of 30 cm2. Determine the peak magnitude of the sinusoidal voltage produced
across the terminals of the coil if it rotates within a magnetic field of 700 mT at a rate of 3000 rpm?

A. 5.25 V
B. 13 V
C. 25 V
D. 33 V

Q2. What is normally used to convert the alternating voltage produced by rotating a coil in a magnetic field, into a direct voltage?

A. A regulator.
B. A transformer.
C. A commutator.
D. A semiconductor rectifier.

Q3. In the following diagram of a DC generator, what is indicated by the label 'X'?
 A. The commutator.
B. The armature.
C. The field coils.
D. The armature windings.

Q4. In the diagram of the previous question, what is indicated by the label 'Y'?

A. The commutator.
B. The field coils.
C. The armature windings.
D. The armature.

Q5. In the following diagram of an alternator, what is indicated by the label 'Z'?

A. The armature windings.

B. The field coils.
C. The brushes.
D. The slip rings.

Q6. In the diagram of the previous question, what is indicated by the label 'W'?

A. The slip rings.

B. The field coils.
C. The brushes.
D. The armature windings.

Q7. A six-pole alternator is required to operate at 50 Hz. What is the required rotation speed?

A. 17 rpm
B. 50 rpm
C. 1000 rpm
D. 3000 rpm

Q8. What is the rotation speed of a six-pole synchronous motor when used with a single-phase 60 Hz supply?

A. 60 rpm
B. 180 rpm
C. 3,600 rpm
D. 10,800 rpm
 Q9. What form of motor is shown here?

A. DC permanent magnet motor.

B. A synchronous AC motor.
C. A shunt-wound DC motor.
D. A squirrel-cage induction motor.

Q10. Power generation is dominated by DC machines, particularly in high-power applications.

A. True
B. False
ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5.A 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. B

11. Electronic Systems

Q1. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. A 'systemic' approach might be seen as a 'reductionist' approach, implying that a complex system is no more than the sum
of its parts.
B. A 'systems' approach to engineering represents a 'holistic' approach, that combines both systematic and systemic issues.
C. A 'systematic' approach involves looking at properties of the whole system, rather than simply at individual parts.

Q2. Top-down design is widely used within the development of engineering systems of all kinds. How should this approach be categorised?

A. A systems approach.
B. A systematic approach.
C. A systemic approach.

Q3. What is meant by a 'system'?

A. Any combination of elements that has a single input and a single output.
B. Any closed volume for which all the inputs and outputs are known.
C. Any combination of components or elements that has a useful function.

Q4. The inputs and outputs of a system can be any form of physical quantity.

A. True
B. False

Q5. When considering the public address system shown here, which of the following statements is correct?
 A. The input is sound and the output is an electrical signal.
B. Both the input and the output are sound.
C. Both the input and the output are electrical signals.
D. The input is an electrical signal and the output is sound.

Q6. Most real-world physical quantities are continuous?

A. True
B. False

Q7. No real-world physical quantities are discrete.

A. True
B. False

Q8. Digital signals can take only two values.

A. True
B. False

Q9. Binary signals are the most common form of digital signals?

A. True
B. False
ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. A 5.D 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. D 10. A

12. Sensors

Q1. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Actuators and transducers are both examples of sensors.

B. Sensors and transducers are both examples of actuators.
C. Sensors and actuators are both examples of transducers.

Q2. What term describes the maximum expected error associated with a measurement or a sensor?

A. Resolution.
B. Range.
C. Accuracy.
D. Precision.

Q3. Which of the following forms of temperature sensor produces a large change in its resistance with temperature, but is very non-linear?

A. A thermistor.
B. A pn junction sensor.
C. A platinum resistance thermometer.

Q4. One of the most widely used forms of light sensor is the photodiode. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. A photodiode is an example of a photoconductive sensor.

B. A photodiode can be used as either a photoconductive or a photovoltaic sensor.
C. A photodiode is an example of a photovoltaic sensor.
Q5. The image below shows a strain gauge. With the device oriented as shown, what is the direction of sensitivity of the device?

A. Horizontal.
B. Vertical.

Q6. What form of displacement sensors are shown here?

A. Absolute position encoders.

B. Opto-switches.
C. Inductive proximity sensors.
D. Potentiometers.

Q7. What form of displacement sensor is shown here?

A. An incremental position encoder.

B. An absolute position encoder.
C. A reflective opt-switch.
D. A slotted opto-switch.
Q8. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Integration tends to amplify high-frequency noise present in a signal.

B. Velocity can be determined using a position transducer by differentiating its output signal.
C. Velocity can be determined using a position transducer by integrating its output signal.

Q9. In the following circuit, if the resistance of the sensor varies linearly with the measured quantity, then the output voltage Vo is also
linearly related to the measured quantity.

A. True
B. False

Q10. All mechanical switches suffer from switch bounce.

A. True
B. False
ANSWER KEY
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5.A 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. A

13. Actuators

Q1. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. A typical LED has an operating voltage of about 0.7 V.

B. The light output of an LED is approximately proportional to the current passing through it.
C. The light output of an LED is approximately proportional to the voltage across it.
Q2. Liquid crystal displays (LCDs) are widely used in a range of electronic systems. Which of the following describes the construction of
such a display?

A. A pn junction formed using materials such as gallium arsenide or gallium phosphide.

B. Two sheets of polarized glass with a thin layer of oily material sandwiched between them.
C. Two sheets of conducting material separated by a layer of insulating dielectric.

Q3. For long distance communication we often make use of fibre-optic cable. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Fibres made from glass can be used over distances of several hundred kilometers.
B. Fibres made from glass are only suitable for short range communication.
C. Fibres made from optical polymer can be used over distances of several hundred kilometers.

Q4. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. When measuring AC quantities, the calibration of many meters means that incorrect readings will be produced unless the
waveform is sinusoidal.
B. Moving-iron meters can be used to measure AC or DC quantities.
C. The deflection of a moving-coil meter is proportional to the average value of the current.
D. The most widely-used form of meter is the moving-iron meter.

Q5. What form of electric motor is most widely used in high-power applications?

A. DC motors.
B. AC motors.
C. Stepper motors.

Q6. In a stepper motor, how is the speed of rotation determined?

A. By the current supplied to the motor.

B. By the load applied to the motor.
C. By the magnitude of the voltage applied.
D. By the frequency of the waveforms used.
Q7. What form of sound actuator would usually be used for ultrasonic applications?

A. A permanent-magnet speaker.
B. A moving-iron speaker.
C. A piezoelectric actuator.

Q8. Many light dimmers operate by repeatedly turning the light On and OFF at high speed.

A. True
B. False

Q9. A typical LED has an efficiency of about 75%.

A. True
B. False

Q10. Many wrist watches use electric motors to move conventional hands. What form of motor is most suited to this application?

A. A stepper motor.
B. An AC motor.
C. A DC motor.
ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. D 5.B 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. A

14. Control and Feedback

Q1. The temperature control system in the human body is an example of a closed-loop control system.

A. True
B. False

Q2. The diagram below shows a closed-loop control system. What element is represented by the circle labeled X?

A. The forward path.

B. The error signal.
C. The user.
D. The goal.

Q3. In a temperature control system, what represents the output of the system?

A. The heating element.

B. The heat produced by the system.
C. The actual temperature achieved.
D. The required temperature.

Q4. What is the voltage gain of the following arrangement?

 A. A/(1+AB)
B. (1+AB)/B
C. (1+AB)/A
D. B/(1+AB)

Q5. Under what conditions does the gain of a feedback system approximate to 1/B?

A. The loop gain AB << 1.

B. The feedback path gain B >> 1.
C. The forward path gain A >> 1.
D. The loop gain AB >> 1.

Q6. What is the gain of the following passive attenuator?

A. 0.1
B. 0.11
C. 9
D. 10

Q7. What is the effect of negative feedback on the gain of an amplifier?

A. It reduces the gain by a factor of (1 + AB).

B. It increases the gain by a factor of 1/B.
C. It reduces the gain by a factor of 1/B.
D. It increases the gain by a factor of (1 + AB).

Q8. What is the effect of negative feedback on the bandwidth of an amplifier?

A. It reduces the bandwidth, often by a factor of 1/B.

B. It increases the bandwidth, often by a factor of (1 + AB).
C. It increases the bandwidth, often by a factor of 1/B.
D. It reduces the bandwidth, often by a factor of (1 + AB).

Q9. What are the effects of negative feedback on the input and output resistance of an amplifier?

A. It increases input resistance and decreases output resistance.

B. It can either increase or decrease the input and output resistance depending on how it is applied.
C. It decreases input resistance and increases output resistance.
D. It increases both input and output resistance.

Q10. Negative feedback reduces the noise corrupting a signal by a factor of (1 + AB).

A. True
B. False
ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. A 5.D 6. A 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. B
 15. Operational Amplifiers

Q1. What signal corresponds to pin 3 of this operational amplifier?

A. The non-inverting input.

B. The non-inverting output.
C. The positive supply voltage.
D. The inverting input.

Q2. What characteristics would characterize an ideal operational amplifier?

A. An infinite voltage gain, zero input resistance and an infinite output resistance.
B. An infinite voltage gain, an infinite input resistance and zero output resistance.
C. An infinite voltage gain, an infinite input resistance and an infinite output resistance.
D. An infinite voltage gain, zero input resistance and zero output resistance.

Q3. The graphs below show the input and output waveforms of an amplifier. What is the gain of this circuit?

A. -2.5
B. -0.4
C. 0.4
D. 2.5

Q4. What is the voltage gain of this circuit?

 A. 0.091
B. 0.1
C. 10
D. 11

Q5. In the following circuit, what value of R1 is required to give a voltage gain of -50?

A. -49 kilohm.
B. 49 kilohm.
C. 50 kilohm.
D. -50 kilohm.

Q6. What are the characteristics of the following circuit?

A. It has a voltage gain of unity, a low input resistance and a high output resistance.
B. It has a voltage gain of unity, a high input resistance and a high output resistance.
C. It has a voltage gain of unity, a high input resistance and a low output resistance.
D. It has a voltage gain of unity, a low input resistance and a low output resistance.

Q7. What would be a typical value for the unity-gain bandwidth of a 741 operational amplifier?

A. 104
B. 105
C. 106
D. 107

Q8. The following circuit is to be used to construct an amplifier with a gain of -20 using a 741 op-amp. Which of the following would be
appropriate values for the two resistors?
 A. R1 = 20 ohms and R2 = 1 ohms.
B. R1 = 20 kilohm and R2 = 1 kilohm.
C. R1 = 20 Megohm and R2 = 1 Megohm.
D. R1 = 20 Gigohm and R2 = 1 Gigohm.

Q9. An amplifier is constructed using a 741 op-amp. What is the maximum gain that can be achieved if the arrangement must have a
bandwidth of 10 kHz?

A. 10
B. 100
C. 1,000
D. 10,000

Q10. In the following circuit, the use of negative feedback decreases the output resistance.

A. True
B. False

ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5.C 6. C 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. A

16. Semiconductors and Diodes

Q1. Which of the following materials is not a semiconductor?

A. Silicone.
B. Germanium.
C. Gallium arsenide.
D. Gallium nitride.
Q2. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. At room temperatures, pure semiconductors make excellent conductors.

B. The dominant charge carriers within a doped semiconductor are called majority charge carriers.
C. Conduction within pure semiconductors is termed intrinsic conduction.
D. Doping pure semiconductor material with small amounts of donar impurities produces an n-type semiconductor.

Q3. What is a typical conduction voltage for a silicon diode?

A. 0.25 V.
B. 0.5 V.
C. 0.7 V.
D. 1.1 V.

Q4. What would be a typical magnitude for the reverse current in a general-purpose silicon diode?

A. A few picoamps.
B. A few nanoamps.
C. A few microamps.
D. A few milliamps.

Q5. Which type of special-purpose diode is formed by a junction between a layer of metal and a layer of semiconductor?

A. A varactor diode.
B. A tunnel diode.
C. A zener diode.
D. A Schottky diode.

Q6. Which type of special-purpose diode has the characteristics of a voltage-controlled capacitor?

A. A varactor diode.
B. A zener diode.
C. A tunnel diode.
D. A Schottky diode.

Q7. Estimate the peak ripple voltage in the following arrangement.

A. 10 mV.
B. 25 mV.
C. 50 mV.
D. 100 mV.

Q8. Estimate the peak ripple voltage in the following arrangement.

 A. 10 mV.
B. 25 mV.
C. 50 mV.
D. 100 mV.

Q9. Envelope detectors based on diodes are used in most forms of AM radio, from crystal sets to superheterodyne receivers.

A. True
B. False

Q10. Estimate the maximum positive voltage produced by the following arrangement.

A. 4.3 V.
B. 5.7 V.
C. 6.3 V.
D. 7.7 V.
ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. B 5.D 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. B

20. Power Electronics

Q1. What is the dominant form of distortion produced by the simple push-pull amplifier shown here?

A. Harmonic distortion.
B. Crossover distortion.
C. Clipping.

Q2. The efficiency of an electronic amplifier is important primarily because this determines the amount of waist heat produced within the
amplifier.

A. True
B. False
Q3. What class of amplifier is shown here?

A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class AB.
D. Class C.

Q4. In Class C amplifiers, the active devices are switches and are either completely ON or completely OFF.

A. True
B. False

Q5. The symbol for which component is shown here?

A. A power diode.
B. A triac.
C. A thyristor.
D. A diac.

Q6. When a thyristor has been fired by an appropriate gate pulse, when will it to turn off?

A. When the applied voltage changes polarity.

B. When the current through the device falls below the holding current.
C. After a fixed period of time determined by circuit components.
D. When a gate pulse of the opposite polarity is applied.
Q7. In the simple lamp dimmer shown here, what method of power control is being used?

A. Feedback control.
B. Phase control.
C. Proportional control.
D. Burst firing.

Q8. Determine the output voltage of the following regulator (assuming that the input voltage is sufficiently high to allow normal operation).

A. 11 V.
B. 12 V.
C. 15 V.
D. 16 V.

Q9. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. The output voltage of a switching regulator is controlled by altering the switching frequency.
B. A great advantage of switching regulators is that their power consumption is very low.
C. Switching regulators use switching speeds of 20 kHz or more.
D. Both bipolar transistors and FETs have very good switching characteristics.

Q10. A power supply that makes use of a switching regulator is referred to as a switch-mode power supply.

A. True
B. False
 Introduction to Semiconductors

1. An atom is made up of

A) protons.
B) neutrons.
C) electrons.
D) all of the above

2. The maximum number of electrons in each shell of an atom is

A) 2.
B) 2n2 where n is the number of the shell.
C) 4.
D) 8.

3. An n-type semiconductor material

A) is intrinsic.
B) has trivalent impurity atoms added.
C) has pentavalent impurity atoms added.
D) requires no doping.

4. A diode conducts when it is forward-biased, and the anode is connected to the __________ through a limiting resistor.

A) positive supply
B) negative supply
C) cathode
D) anode

5. The wide end arrow on a schematic indicates the __________ of a diode.

A) ground
B) direction of electron flow
C) cathode
D) anode

6. The term bias in electronics usually means

A) the value of ac voltage in the signal.

B) the condition of current through a pn junction.
C) the value of dc voltages for the device to operate properly.
D) the status of the diode.

7. Doping of a semiconductor material means

A) that a glue-type substance is added to hold the material together.

B) that impurities are added to increase the resistance of the material.
C) that impurities are added to decrease the resistance of the material.
D) that all impurities are removed to get pure silicon.

8. The forward voltage across a conducting silicon diode is about

A) 0.3 V.
B) 1.7 V.
C) 0.7 V.
D) 0.7 V.

9. You have an unknown type of diode in a circuit. You measure the voltage across it and find it to be 0.3 V. The diode might be

A) a silicon diode.
B) a germanium diode.
C) a forward-biased silicon diode.
D) a reverse-biased germanium diode.
10. A reverse-biased diode has the _____ connected to the positive side of the source, and the _____ connected to the negative side of the
source.

A) cathode, anode
B) cathode, base
C) base, anode
D) anode, cathode

11. The movement of free electrons in a conductor is called

A) voltage.
B) current.
C) recombination.
D) equilibrium.

12. A silicon diode is forward-biased. You measure the voltage to ground from the anode at _____, and the voltage from the cathode to
ground at _____.

A) 0 V, 0.3 V
B) 2.3 V, 1.6 V
C) 1.6 V, 2.3 V
D) 0.3 V, 0 V

13. There is a small amount of current across the barrier of a reverse-biased diode. This current is called

A) forward-bias current.
B) reverse breakdown current.
C) conventional current.
D) reverse leakage current.

14. The boundary between p-type material and n-type material is called

A) a diode.
B) a reverse-biased diode.
C) a pn junction.
D) a forward-biased diode.

15. Reverse breakdown is a condition in which a diode

A) is subjected to a large reverse voltage.

B) is reverse-biased and there is a small leakage current.
C) has no current flowing at all.
D) is heated up by large amounts of current in the forward direction.

16. As the forward current through a silicon diode increases, the voltage across the diode

A) increases to a 0.7 V maximum.

B) decreases.
C) is relatively constant.
D) decreases and then increases.

17. Which statement best describes an insulator?

A) A material with many free electrons.

B) A material doped to have some free electrons.
C) A material with few free electrons.
D) No description fits.

18. As the forward current through a silicon diode increases, the internal resistance

A) increases.
B) decreases.
 C) remains the same.

19. A silicon diode measures a low value of resistance with the meter leads in both positions. The trouble, if any, is

A) the diode is open.

B) the diode is shorted to ground.
C) the diode is internally shorted.
D) the diode is working correctly.

20. Single-element semiconductors are characterized by atoms with ____ valence electrons.

A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 2

21. Effectively, how many valence electrons are there in each atom within a silicon crystal?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16

22. What occurs when a conduction-band electron loses energy and falls back into a hole in the valence band?

A) doping
B) recombination
C) generation
D) none of the above

23. What types of impurity atoms are added to increase the number of conduction-band electrons in intrinsic silicon?

A) bivalent
B) octavalent
C) pentavalent
D) trivalent
E) none of the above

24. What factor(s) do(es) the barrier potential of a pn junction depend on?

A) type of semiconductive material

B) the amount of doping
C) the temperature
D) all of the above

25. Under normal conditions a diode conducts current when it is

A) reverse-biased.
B) forward-biased.
C) avalanched.
D) saturated.

26. For a forward-biased diode, as temperature is _____, the forward current _____ for a given value of forward voltage.

A) decreased, increases
B) increased, increases
C) increased, decreases
D) decreased, decreases

27. For a forward-biased diode, the barrier potential _____ as temperature increases.

A) decreases
B) remains constant
 C) increases

28. An ideal diode presents a(n) _____ when reversed-biased and a(n) _____ when forward-biased.

A) open, short
B) short, open
C) open, open
D) short, short

29. The most common type of diode failure is a(n) _____.

A) open
B) short
C) resistive
ANSWER KEY
1. All of the above
2. 2n2 where n is the number of the shell.
3. has pentavalent impurity atoms added.
4. positive supply
5. anode
6. the value of dc voltages for the device to operate properly.
7. that impurities are added to decrease the resistance of the material.
8. 0.7 V.
9. a germanium diode.
10. cathode, anode
11. current.
12. 2.3 V, 1.6 V
13. reverse leakage current.
14. a pn junction.
15. is subjected to a large reverse voltage.
16. is relatively constant.
17. A material with few free electrons.
18. decreases.
19. the diode is internally shorted.
20. 4
21. 8 22. recombination 23. Pentavalent 24. all of the above 25. forward-biased. 26. increased, increases 27. Decreases 28. open,
short 29. open

Diode Applications

1. If the ac supply is 60 Hz, what will be the ripple frequency out of the half-wave rectifier?

A) 30 Hz
B) 50 Hz
C) 60 Hz
D) 120 Hz

2. If the ac supply is 50 Hz, what will be the ripple frequency out of the full-wave rectifier?

A) 50 Hz
B) 60 Hz
C) 100 Hz
D) 120 Hz

3. A silicon diode in a half-wave rectifier has a barrier potential of 0.7 V. This has the effect of

A) reducing the peak output voltage by 0.7 V.

B) increasing the peak output voltage by 0.7 V.
C) reducing the peak input voltage by 0.7 V.
D) no effect.

4. In a regulated supply, what term describes how much change occurs in the output voltage for a given change in the input voltage?
 A) load regulation
B) voltage regulator
C) line regulation
D) ripple voltage

5. In a regulated supply, what term describes how much change occurs in the output voltage over a certain range of load current values,
from minimum to maximum current?

A) line regulation
B) voltage regulator
C) current regulator
D) load regulation

6. PIV is which of the following?

A) peak input voltage

B) peak inverse voltage
C) peak immediate voltage
D) positive input voltage

7. Refer to Figure 2-1. The probable trouble, if any, indicated by these voltages is

MCQs in Diode Applications Fig. 01

Figure 2-1
A) one of the diodes is open.
B) a diode is shorted.
C) an open transformer secondary.
D) the filter capacitor is shorted.
E) no trouble exists.

8. Refer to Figure 2-1. If the voltmeter across the transformer reads 0 V, the probable trouble, if any, would be

A) one of the diodes is open.

B) a diode is shorted.
C) an open transformer secondary.
D) the filter capacitor is shorted.
E) no trouble exists.

9. Refer to Figure 2-2. Which oscilloscope trace indicates the output from a properly operating half-wave rectifier without a filter?

MCQs in Diode Applications Fig. 02

 Figure 2-2.
Assume that each scope has the same settings
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d

10. Refer to Figure 2-2. Which oscilloscope trace indicates the output from a properly operating full-wave rectifier with a filter?

A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d

11. Refer to Figure 2-2. Which oscilloscope trace indicates the output from a full-wave filtered rectifier with an open diode?

A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d

12. Refer to Figure 2-2. The oscilloscope trace in (b) could represent the output from

A) a full-wave rectifier (no filter) with an open diode.

B) a normal half-wave power supply.
C) a filtered full-wave rectifier with an open diode.
D) a full-wave rectifier with a shorted diode.

13. Refer to the circuit in Figure 2-3(a). Refer to the output waveforms shown in Figure 2-4 and select the correct approximate output
waveform.

MCQs in Diode Applications Fig. 03

 Figure 2-3
MCQs in Diode Applications Fig. 04

Figure 2-4
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d

14. Refer to the circuit in Figure 2-3(b). Refer to the output waveforms shown in Figure 2-4 and select the correct approximate output
waveform.

A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d

15. Refer to the circuit in Figure 2-3(c). Refer to the output waveforms shown in Figure 2-4 and select the correct approximate output
waveform.

A) a
 B) b
C) c
D) d

16. Refer to the circuit in Figure 2-3(d). Refer to the output waveforms shown in Figure 2-4 and select the correct approximate output
waveform.

A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d

17. Refer to Figure 2-5. Which diode arrangement will supply a negative output voltage?

MCQs in Diode Applications Fig. 05

Figure 2-5
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d

18. Refer to Figure 2-5. Which diode arrangement will supply a positive output voltage?

A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d

19. A silicon diode has a voltage to ground of 117 V from the anode. The voltage to ground from the cathode is 117.7 V. The diode is

A) open.
B) shorted.
C) forward-biased.
D) reverse-biased.

20. The output frequency of a half-wave rectifier is _____ the input frequency.

A) one-half
B) twice
C) equal to
D) none of the above
21. Each diode in a center-tapped full-wave rectifier is _____ -biased and conducts for _____ of the input cycle.

A) forward, 90
B) reverse, 180
C) forward, 180
D) reverse, 90

22. The output frequency of a full-wave rectifier is _____ the input frequency.

A) one-half
B) equal to
C) twice
D) one-quarter

23. What is the PIV for each diode in a full-wave center-tapped rectifier? Note: Vp(out) = peak output voltage.

A) Vp(out) 0.7 V
B) Vp(out) + 0.7 V
C) 2Vp(out) 0.7 V
D) 2Vp(out) + 0.7 V

24. In the operation of a half-wave rectifier with a capacitor-input filter, the ripple factor can be lowered by _____ the value of the filter
capacitor or _____ the load resistors.

A) decreasing, decreasing
B) decreasing, increasing
C) increasing, decreasing
D) increasing, increasing

25. What type of diode circuit is used to clip off portions of signal voltages above or below certain levels?

A) clipper or limiter
B) clamper
C) IC voltage regulator
D) none of the above

26. What type of diode circuit is used to add or restore a dc level to an electrical signal?

A) clipper or limiter
B) clamper
C) IC voltage regulator
D) none of the above

27. What is the VRRM (PIV rating) for the 1N4001 rectifier diode?

A) 50 V
B) 100 V
C) 200 V
D) 400 V
E) none of the above

28. How many terminals do the 7800 series fixed positive voltage regulators have?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) none of the above
 ANSWER KEY

1. 60 Hz
2. 100 Hz
3. reducing the peak output voltage by 0.7 V.
4. line regulation
5. load regulation
6. peak inverse voltage
7. the filter capacitor is shorted.
8. an open transformer secondary.
9. b
10. c
11. d
12. a full-wave rectifier (no filter) with an open diode.
13. c
14. b
15. d
16. a
17. c
18. a
19. forward-biased.
20. equal to
21. forward, 180
22. twice
23. 2Vp(out) + 0.7 V
24. increasing, increasing
25. clipper or limiter
26. clamper
27. 50 V
28. 3

Special Purpose Diodes

1. The process of emitting photons from a semiconductive material is called

A) photoluminescence.

B) gallium arsenide.

C) electroluminescence.

D) gallium phosphide.

2. The normal operating region for a zener diode is the

A) forward-bias region.

B) reverse-bias region.

C) zero-crossing region.

D) reverse-breakdown region.

3. Schottky diodes are also known as

A) PIN diodes.

B) hot carrier diodes.

C) step-recovery diodes.

D) tunnel diodes.
4. A laser diode normally emits

A) coherent light.

B) monochromatic light.

C) coherent and monochromatic light.

D) neither coherent nor monochromatic light.

5. An 8.2 V zener has a resistance of 5 . The actual voltage across its terminals when the current is 25 mA is

A) 8.2 V.

B) 125 mV.

C) 8.325 V.

D) 8.075 V.

6. A 6.2 V zener is rated at 1 watt. The maximum safe current the zener can carry is

A) 1.61 A.

B) 161 mA.

C) 16.1 mA.

D) 1.61 mA.

7. Refer to Figure 3-1. If the load current increases, IR will _____ and IZ will _____.

MCQs in Special-Purpose Diodes Fig. 01

Figure 3-1

A) remain the same, increase

B) decrease, remain the same

C) increase, remain the same

D) remain the same, decrease

8. Refer to Figure 3-1. If VIN attempts to increase, VR will

A) increase.

B) decrease.

C) remain the same.

9. Refer to Figure 3-1. If VIN increases, IZ will

A) increase.
B) decrease.

C) remain the same.

10. Refer to Figure 3-1. If VIN decreases, IR will

A) increase.

B) decrease.

C) remain the same.

11. Refer to Figure 3-2. Identify the Schottky diode.

MCQs in Special-Purpose Diodes Fig. 02

Figure 3-2

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

12. Refer to Figure 3-2. Which symbol is correct for a zener diode?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

13. Refer to Figure 3-2. Find the tunnel diode symbol.

A) a

B) b
C) c

D) d

E) e

14. Refer to Figure 3-2. Which symbol is correct for a photodiode?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

15. Refer to Figure 3-2. Which symbol is correct for an LED?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

16. An LED is forward-biased. The diode should be on, but no light is showing. A possible trouble might be

A) the diode is open.

B) the series resistor is too small.

C) none. The diode should be off if forward-biased.

D) the power supply voltage is too high.

17. The Schottky diode is used

A) in high-power circuits.

B) in circuits requiring negative resistance.

C) in very fast-switching circuits.

D) in power supply rectifiers.

18. A tunnel diode is used

A) in high-power circuits.

B) in circuits requiring negative resistance.

C) in very fast-switching circuits.

D) in power supply rectifiers.

19. You have an application for a diode to be used in a tuning circuit. A type of diode to use might be

A) an LED.

B) a Schottky diode.

C) a Gunn diode.

D) a varactor.
20. Zener diodes with breakdown voltages less than 5 V operate predominantly in what type of breakdown?

A) avalanche

B) zener

C) varactor

D) Schottky

21. Zener diodes with breakdown voltages greater than 5 V operate predominantly in what type of breakdown?

A) avalanche

B) zener

C) varactor

D) Schottky

22. What type of diode is commonly used in electronic tuners in TVs?

A) varactor

B) Schottky

C) LED

D) Gunn

23. A varactor is a pn junction diode that always operates in _____-bias and is doped to _____ the inherent capacitance of the
depletion region.

A) forward, maximize

B) reverse, maximize

C) reverse, minimize

D) forward, minimize

24. LEDs are made out of

A) silicon.

B) germanium.

C) gallium.

D) silicon and germanium, but not gallium.

25. What type of diode maintains a constant current?

A) LED

B) zener

C) current regulator

D) pin

E) none of the above

26. What diode operates only with majority carriers?

A) laser

B) tunnel

C) Schottky
D) step-recovery

27. What kind of diode is formed by joining a doped semiconductor region with a metal?

A) laser

B) tunnel

C) pin

D) Schottky

28. Which diode employs graded doping?

A) zener

B) LED

C) tunnel

D) step-recovery

29. What diode is used in seven-segment displays?

A) zener

B) LED

C) laser

D) Schottky

30. Back-to-back varactor diodes are used for what reason?

A) over-voltage protection

B) a wider tuning range

C) to eliminate harmonic distortion

D) no reason; only zeners are used in a back-to-back configuration

ANSWER KEY

1. electroluminescence.
2. reverse-breakdown region.
3. hot carrier diodes.
4. coherent and monochromatic light.
5. 8.325 V.
6. 161 mA.
7. remain the same, decrease
8. increase.
9. increase.
10. decrease.
11. e
12. b
13. d
14. c
15. a
16. the diode is open.
17. in very fast-switching circuits.
18. in circuits requiring negative resistance.
19. a varactor.
20. Zener 21. Avalanche 22. Varactor 23. reverse, maximize 24. gallium. 25. current regulator 26. Schottky 27. Schottky 28. step-
recovery 29. LED 30. to eliminate harmonic distortion
 Bipolar Junction Transistor

1. The dc load line on a family of collector characteristic curves of a transistor shows the

A) saturation region.

B) cutoff region.

C) active region.

D) all of the above

2. A transistor data sheet usually identifies DC as

A) hre.

B) hfe.

C) IC.

D) VCE.

3. When a transistor is used as a switch, it is stable in which two distinct regions?

A) saturation and active

B) active and cutoff

C) saturation and cutoff

D) none of the above

4. For a silicon transistor, when a base-emitter junction is forward-biased, it has a nominal voltage drop of

A) 0.7 V.

B) 0.3 V.

C) 0.2 V.

D) VCC.

5. The value of DC

A) is fixed for any particular transistor.

B) varies with temperature.

C) varies with IC.

D) varies with temperature and IC.

6. The term BJT is short for

A) base junction transistor.

B) binary junction transistor.

C) both junction transistor.

D) bipolar junction transistor.

7. A BJT has an IB of 50 A and a DC of 75; IC is:

A) 375 mA

B) 37.5 mA

C) 3.75 mA

D) 0.375 mA

8. A certain transistor has IC = 15 mA and IB = 167 A; DC is:

A) 15

B) 167

C) 0.011

D) 90

9. For normal operation of a pnp BJT, the base must be _____ with respect to the emitter and _____ with respect to the collector.

A) positive, negative

B) positive, positive

C) negative, positive

D) negative, negative

10. A transistor amplifier has a voltage gain of 100. If the input voltage is 75 mV, the output voltage is:

A) 1.33 V

B) 7.5 V

C) 13.3 V

D) 15 V

11. A 35 mV signal is applied to the base of a properly biased transistor with an r'e = 8 and RC = 1 k. The output signal voltage at
the collector is:

A) 3.5 V

B) 28.57 V

C) 4.375 V

D) 4.375 mV

12. Refer to Figure 4-1; the value of VBE is:

Figure 4-1

A) 0.6 V

B) 0.7 V

C) 1.2 V

D) 0.079 V

13. Refer to Figure 4-1; the value of VCE is:

A) 9.9 V

B) 9.2 V

C) 0.7 V

D) 19.3 V

14. Refer to Figure 4-1; the value of VBC is:

A) 9.2 V

B) 9.9 V

C) 9.9 V

D) 9.2 V

15. Refer to Figure 4-2; if VCE = 0.2 V, IC(sat) is:

Figure 4-2

A) 0.05 mA

B) 2.085 mA

C) 1.065 mA

D) 7.4 mA

16. Refer to Figure 4-2. Determine the minimum value of IB that will produce saturation.

A) 0.25 mA

B) 5.325 A
 C) 1.065 A

D) 10.425 A

17. Refer to Figure 4-2. Determine the minimum value of V IN from the following that will saturate this transistor.

A) 13.21 V

B) 12.51 V

C) 0.7 V

D) 9.4 V

18. Refer to Figure 4-3. The value of DC = 100 and VIN = 8 V. Determine IC(sat).

Figure 4-3

A) 18 mA

B) 7.92 mA

C) 1.8 mA

D) 8 A

19. Refer to Figure 4-3. In this circuit DC = 100 and VIN = 8 V. The value of RB that will produce saturation is:

A) 92 k

B) 9.1 M

C) 100 k

D) 150 k

20. Refer to Figure 4-3. The measured voltage, VCE, is 20 V. The transistor is in

A) saturation.

B) cutoff.

C) normal.

D) not enough data.

21. Refer to Figure 4-3. You measure VCE and find it nearly equal to zero. You now know that the transistor is

A) operating in cutoff.

B) operating normally.
 C) operating in saturation.

D) operating below cutoff.

22. What is the order of doping, from heavily to lightly doped, for each region?

A) base, collector, emitter

B) emitter, collector, base

C) emitter, base, collector

D) collector, emitter, base

23. What are the two types of bipolar junction transistors?

A) npn and pnp

B) pnn and nnp

C) ppn and nnp

D) pts and stp

24. Which of the following is true for an npn or pnp transistor?

A) IE = IB + IC

B) IB = IC+ IE

C) IC = IB + IE

D) none of the above

25. What is the ratio of IC to IB?

A) DC

B) hFE

C) DC

D) either DC or hFE, but not DC

26. What is the ratio of IC to IE?

A) DC

B) DC / (DC + 1)

C) DC

D) either DC / (DC + 1) or DC, but not DC

27. In what range of voltages is the transistor in the linear region of its operation?

A) 0 < VCE

B) 0.7 < VCE < VCE(max)

C) VCE(max) > VCE

D) none of the above

28. What does DC vary with?

A) IC

B) C

C) both IC and C

D) IC, but not C

29. What is (are) common fault(s) in a BJT-based circuit?

A) opens or shorts internal to the transistor

B) open bias resistor(s)

C) external opens and shorts on the circuit board

D) all of the above

30. What is (are) general-purpose/small-signal transistors case type(s)?

A) TO-18

B) TO-92

C) TO-39

D) TO-52

E) all of the above

31. The magnitude of dark current in a phototransistor usually falls in what range?

A) mA

B) A

C) nA

D) pA

ANSWER KEY

1. all of the above

2. hfe
3. saturation and cutoff
4. 0.7 V
5. varies with temperature and IC.
6. bipolar junction transistor
7. 3.75 mA
8. 90
9. negative, positive
10. 7.5 V
11. 4.375 V
12. 0.7 V
13. 9.9 V
14. 9.2 V
15. 2.085 mA
16. 10.425 A
17. 13.21 V 18. 7.92 mA 19. 92 k 20. Cutoff 21. operating in saturation. 22. emitter, collector, base 23. npn and pnp 24. IE = IB + IC
25. either DC or hFE, but not DC 26. either DC / (DC + 1) or DC, but not DC 27. 0.7 < VCE < VCE(max) 28. both IC and C 29. all of the
above 30. all of the above 31. nA
Transistor Bias Circuits

1. Voltage-divider bias has a relatively stable Q-point, as does

A) base bias.

B) collector-feedback bias.

C) both of the above

D) none of the above

2. Emitter bias requires

A) only a positive supply voltage.

B) only a negative supply voltage.

C) no supply voltage.

D) both positive and negative supply voltages.

3. Clipping is the result of

A) the input signal being too large.

B) the transistor being driven into saturation.

C) the transistor being driven into cutoff.

D) all of the above

4. Changes in DC result in changes in

A) IC.

B) VCE.

C) the Q-point.

D) all of the above

5. The input resistance at the base of a voltage-divider biased transistor can be neglected

A) at all times.

B) only if the base current is much smaller than the current through R2 (the lower bias resistor).

C) at no time.

D) only if the base current is much larger than the current through R 2 (the lower bias resistor).

6. What is the Q-point for a fixed-bias transistor with IB = 75 A, DC = 100, VCC = 20 V, and RC = 1.5 k?

A) VC = 0 V

B) VC = 20 V

C) VC = 8.75 V

D) VC = 11.25 V
7. Ideally, for linear operation, a transistor should be biased so that the Q-point is

A) near saturation.

B) near cutoff.

C) where IC is maximum.

D) halfway between cutoff and saturation.

8. Refer to Figure 5-1. The value of IB is

Figure 5-1

A) 53 A.

B) 50 A.

C) 50 mA.

D) 53 mA.

9. Refer to Figure 5-1. The value of IC is

A) 10 A.

B) 10 mA.

C) 5 mA.

D) 50 mA.

10. Refer to Figure 5-1. The value of DC is

A) 5.3.

B) 53.

C) 94.

D) 100.
11. Refer to Figure 5-2. Determine IC.

Figure 5-2

A) 5 A

B) 5 mA

C) 0 mA

D) 10 mA

12. Refer to Figure 5-2. Assume that IC IE. Find VE.

A) 5 V

B) 10 V

C) 15 V

D) 2.5 V

13. Refer to Figure 5-2. Assume IC IE. Determine the value of RC that will allow VCE to equal 10 V.

A) 1 k

B) 1.5 k

C) 2 k

D) 2.5 k

14. Refer to Figure 5-2. Calculate the current I2.

A) 32 mA

B) 3.2 mA

C) 168 A

D) 320 A

15. Refer to Figure 5-3(a). The most probable cause of trouble, if any, from these voltage measurements would be
Figure 5-3

A) the base-emitter junction is open.

B) RE is open.

C) a short from collector to emitter.

D) no problems.

16. Refer to Figure 5-3(b). The most probable cause of trouble, if any, from these voltage measurements is

A) the base-emitter junction is open.

B) RE is open.

C) a short from collector to emitter.

D) no problems.

17. Refer to Figure 5-3(c). The most probable cause of trouble, if any, from these voltage measurements is
 A) the base-emitter junction is open.

B) RE is open.

C) a short from collector to emitter.

D) no problems.

18. Refer to Figure 5-3(d). The most probable cause of trouble, if any, from these voltage measurements is

A) the base-emitter junction is open.

B) RE is open.

C) a short from collector to emitter.

D) no problems.

19. The most stable biasing technique used is the

A) voltage-divider bias.

B) base bias.

C) emitter bias.

D) collector bias.

20. At saturation the value of VCE is nearly _____, and IC = _____.

A) zero, zero

B) VCC, IC(sat)

C) zero, I(sat)

D) VCC, zero

21. The linear (active) operating region of a transistor lies along the load line below _____ and above _____.

A) cutoff, saturation

B) saturation, cutoff

22. What is the most common bias circuit?

A) base

B) collector

C) emitter

D) voltage-divider

23. What is the dc input resistance at the base of a BJT?

A) DCRC

B) dc (RC || RE)

C) DC re

D) DCRE
24. Which transistor bias circuit provides good Q-point stability with a single-polarity supply voltage?

A) base bias

B) collector-feedback bias

C) voltage-divider bias

D) emitter bias

25. Which transistor bias circuit arrangement has poor stability because its Q-point varies widely with DC?

A) base bias

B) collector-feedback bias

C) voltage-divider bias

D) emitter bias

26. Which transistor bias circuit arrangement provides good Q-point stability, but requires both positive and negative supply voltages?

A) base bias

B) collector-feedback bias

C) voltage-divider bias

D) emitter bias

27. Which transistor bias circuit arrangement provides good stability using negative feedback from collector to base?

A) base bias

B) collector-feedback bias

C) voltage-divider bias

D) emitter bias

28.

FIGURE 5-4

Refer to Figure 5-4. In the voltage-divider biased npn transistor circuit, if RC opens, the transistor is

A) saturated.
 B) cutoff.

C) nonconducting.

29. Refer to Figure 5-4. In the voltage-divider biased npn transistor circuit, if R2 opens, the transistor is

A) saturated.

B) cutoff.

C) nonconducting.

30. Refer to Figure 5-4. In the voltage-divider biased npn transistor circuit, if R1 opens, the transistor is

A) saturated.

B) cutoff.

C) nonconducting.

ANSWER KEY

1. collector-feedback bias
2. both positive and negative supply voltages
3. all of the above
4. all of the above
5. only if the base current is much larger than the current through R 2 (the lower bias resistor).
6. VC = 8.75 V
7. halfway between cutoff and saturation.
8. 50 A
9. 5 mA
10. 100
11. 5 mA
12. 2.5 V
13. 1.5 k
14. 320 A
15. RE is open
16. no problems.
17. a short from collector to emitter
18. the base-emitter junction is open
19. voltage-divider bias
20. zero, I(sat)
21. saturation, cutoff
22. voltage-divider
23. DCRE
24. voltage-divider bias
25. base bias
26. emitter bias
27. collector-feedback bias
28. nonconducting
29. saturated
30. cutoff