101 Speed Tests For IBPS CWE Bank Specialist Officer Exam With Success Guarantee PDF

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[ ii ]
PREFACE
101 Speed Tests for IBPS CWE Bank Specialist Officer Exam with Success Guarantee
IF YOU MASTER THIS BOOK SUCCESS IS GUARANTEED IN THE UPCOMING IBPS SPL EXAM
Yes, its true. If you can master this book you will crack the IBPS CWE Bank Specialist Officer Exam for sure. This is the
1st and the Most Innovative Book for the most sought after IBPS Bank SPL Exam. It contains all the IMPORTANT
CONCEPTS which are required to crack this exam. The concepts are covered in the form of 101 SPEED TESTS.
No matter where you PREPARE from a coaching or any textbook/ Guide 101 SPEED TESTS provides you the right
ASSESSMENT on each topic. Your performance provides you the right cues to IMPROVE your concepts so as to perform
better in the final examination.
It is to be noted here that these are not mere tests but act as a checklist of students learning and ability to apply concepts
to different problems.
The book is based on the concept of TRP Test, Revise and Practice. It aims at improving your SPEED followed by
STRIKE RATE which will eventually lead to improving your SCORE.
How is this product different?

1st unique product with 101 speed tests.
Each test is based on small topics which are most important for the IBPS SPL exam. Each test contains around 25-
30 MCQs on the latest pattern of the exam.
The whole syllabus has been divided into 4 sections which are further distributed into 96 topics.
1. QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE is distributed into 31 topics.
2. REASONING ABILITY is distributed into 30 topics.
3. ENGLISH is distributed into 14 topics.
4. PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE (IT) is distributed into 7 topics.
5. PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE (Marketing) is distributed into 6 topics.
5. PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE (Agriculture) is distributed into 7 topics.
In the end of each section a Sectional Test is provided so as to sum up the whole section.
Finally at the end a FULL TEST is provided so as to give the candidates the real feel of the final exam.
In all, the book contains 3000+ Quality MCQs in the form of 101 tests.
Solutions to each of the 101 tests are provided at the end of the book.
The book provides Separate Tests. The book comes with perforation such that each test can be torn out of the book.
Separate Time Limit, Maximum Marks, Cut-off, Qualifying Score is provided for each test.
The book also provides a separate sheet, SCORE TRACKER where you can keep a record of your scores and
performance.
It is advised that the students should take each test very seriously and must attempt only after they have prepared
that topic.
Once taken a test the candidates must spend time in analysing their performance which will provide you the right
cues to IMPROVE the concepts so as to perform better in the final examination.
It is our strong belief that if an aspirant works hard on the cues provided through each of the tests he/ she can improve
his/ her learning and finally the SCORE by at least 20%.
[ iii ]
SYLLABUS
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
1. Numbers 1-2 29. DI Table chart 63-66
2. Fraction, HCF and LCM 3-4 30. Data sufficiency based on age,
3. Square root & Cube roots 5-6 Directions & Relationship 67-68
4. Percentage-1 7-8 31. Comparison, Critical analysis, Date,
5. Percentage-2 9-10 Day based on data sufficiency 69-70
6. Surds and Indices 11-12 32. Section test : Quantitative Aptitude 71-74
7. Simplification 13-14 REASONING

8. Average 15-16
33. Alphabet and Numbers arrangement 75-76
9. Ratio & Proportion - 1 17-18
34. Analogy 77-78
10. Ratio & Proportion - 2 19-20
35. Classification 79-80
11. Chain rule/ Unitary method 21-22
36. Series - I 81-82
12. Times and Work/ Pipes
37. Series - II 83-84
and Cisterns 23-24
38. Coding & decoding 85-86
13. Profit, Loss and Discount 25-26
39. Direction & Distance 87-88
14. Distance, Speed and Time 27-28
40. Blood Relation 89-90
15. Alligations and Mixtures 29-30
41. Time, Sequence, Number
16. Simple interest/
and Ranking Test 91-92
Compound Interest 31-32
42. Cubes and Dice 93-94
17. Problems on Ages 33-34
43. Problem Solving - 1 95-96
18. Logarithms 35-36
44. Problem Solving - 2 97-98
19. Linear equations 37-38
45. Analytical Decision Making 99-102
20. Quadratic equations 39-41
46. Coded Inequalities 103-104
21. Rational expressions 41-42
47. Statements & Arguments 105-106
22. Probability 43-44
48. Evaluating Inferences 107-108
23. Permutation & Combination 45-46
49. Syllogisms - 1 109-110
24. Clock and Calendars 47-48
50. Syllogisms - 2 111-112
25. Mensuration 49-51
51. Input output - 1 113-114
26. DI Line graph 51-54
52. Input output - 2 115-116
27. DI Bar graph 55-58
53. Assumptions 117-118
28. DI Pie chart 59-62
54. Statement and Conclusions 119-120
[ iv ]
55. Course of Action 121-124 81. Operating System 191-192
56. Cause and Effect 125-126 82. Programming /Software Engineering 193-194
57. Non-verbal reasoning - 1 127-128 83. Data Base Management System (DBMS) 195-196
58. Non-verbal reasoning - 2 129-132 84. Data Structure/Compiler Design 197-198
59. Sitting arrangement 133-134 85. Section Test : Professional Knowledge (IT) 199-202
60. Strengthening and
Weakening Argument 135-138
PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE (Marketing)
61. Forcefulness of Arguments 139-140 86. Fundamentals of Marketing 203-204
62. Section Test : Reasoning 141-144 87. The Market, Product and Branding 205-206
88. Market Situations Based on Price, Distributition,
ENGLISH Promotion and Advertising 207-208
63. Synonyms/Antonyms 145-146 89. Market Segmentation, Targeting
& Positioning 209-210
64. One Word Substitution 147-148
90. Modern Marketing 211-212
65. Subject-Verb Agreement 149-150
91. Marketing in Banking Industry 213-214
66. Correct usage of Prepositions 151-152
92. Section Test :
67. Correct order of 153-154
Professional Knowledge (Marketing) 215-218
Tenses in a sentence
68. Parallelism 155-156 PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE (Agriculture)
69. Reading Comprehension - I 157-160 93. Biology and Plant Biotechnology 219-220
70. Reading Comprehension - II 161-164 94. Plant Physiology, Genetics and

Plant breeding 221-222
71. Para Jumbles 165-166
95. Environmental and Soil Sciences,
72. Cloze Test-I 167-168
Horticulture 223-224
73. Cloze Test-II 169-170
96. Agronomy, Entomology and Plant Pathology 225-226
74. One Word with Different Meanings 171-172
97. Fisheries, Veterinary Science and
75. Sentence Completion 173-174 Animal Husbandry 227-228
76. Passage Completion 175-178 98. Agricultural Engineering and
77. Section Test : English 179-184 Seed Technology 229-230
99. Government Sponsored Schemes and
PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE (IT) Agricultural Finance 231-232
78. Computer Fundamentals/Digital Logic 185-186 100. Section Test:

Professional Knowledge (Agriculture) 233-236
79. Computer Architecture & Organisation 187-188
101. Full Test 237-256
80. Networking 189-190
101 SPEED TEST - SOLUTIONS 1-95

[v]
101 SPEED TEST (Topics)
Marks Scored =
Success Gap =
Max. Cut-off Qualifying Correct Answers 1 -
Speed Test Time Qualifying Marks -
Marks Marks Marks (0.25 Incorrect
Marks Scored
Answers)
1 20 30 12 20
2 25 35 10 18
3 30 40 18 28
4 20 30 10 18
5 20 30 10 18
6 20 30 12 22
7 20 30 10 25
8 20 30 10 20
9 20 30 10 20
10 20 30 12 22
11 20 30 10 20
12 20 30 10 20
13 20 30 10 22
14 20 30 10 20
15 20 30 12 20
16 25 35 15 25
17 20 30 10 22
18 20 20 7 15
19 20 20 8 16
20 20 20 7 16
21 20 30 10 18
22 20 25 8 18
23 20 30 10 20
24 20 30 10 20
25 20 25 10 17
26 20 30 8 15
27 20 30 8 15
28 20 30 8 16
29 20 30 8 18
30 20 20 8 16
31 20 30 10 17
32 35 50 24 35
33 20 30 10 18
34 20 30 12 22
35 20 30 12 24
[ vi ]
101 SPEED TEST (Topics)
Marks Scored =
Success Gap =
Max. Cut-off Qualifying Correct Answers 1 -
Speed Test Time Qualifying Marks -
Marks Marks Marks (0.25 Incorrect
Marks Scored
Answers)
36 20 30 10 20
37 20 30 10 20
38 20 30 10 22
39 20 25 10 18
40 20 30 10 20
41 20 25 12 20
42 20 20 10 18
43 20 30 8 18
44 20 25 8 16
45 20 30 10 20
46 20 20 8 16
47 20 20 7 14
48 20 30 10 18
49 20 30 7 16
50 20 25 7 20
51 20 20 7 14
52 20 20 7 14
53 20 20 7 12
54 20 20 7 12
55 20 30 7 18
56 20 30 10 20
57 20 15 6 14
58 20 30 8 16
59 30 25 10 24
60 20 20 7 14
61 20 20 7 14
62 35 50 24 38
63 20 30 10 25
64 20 30 10 25
65 20 30 10 26
66 20 30 12 24
67 20 30 12 24
68 20 20 8 16
69 30 30 12 24
70 20 30 12 24
[ vii ]
101 SP EED TEST (Topics)
Marks S cored =
Succes s Gap =
Max. Cut-off Qualifying Correct Ans wers 1 -
Speed Tes t Time Qualifying Marks -
Mark s Mark s Mark s (0.25 Incorrect
Mark s Scored
Ans wers )
71 20 30 12 24
72 20 30 12 24
73 20 28 12 24
74 20 30 12 24
75 20 30 12 24
76 20 20 12 24
77 30 50 24 28
78 20 30 15 20
79 20 30 15 20
80 20 30 15 20
81 20 30 15 20
82 20 30 15 20
83 20 30 15 20
84 20 30 15 20
85 30 75 37.5 48
86 25 30 16 26
87 20 30 17 26
88 25 35 18 26
89 20 31 17 26
90 20 30 16 26
91 25 37 19 28
92 30 75 37.5 50
93 20 34 17 25
94 25 40 20 30
95 25 38 19 29
96 25 38 19 29
97 25 40 20 30
98 20 33 16 25
99 25 40 20 30
100 30 75 37.5 50
101 120 200 120 160
[ viii ]
1 Numbers
Max. Marks : 30 No. of Qs. 30 Time : 20 min. Date : ........./......../................
1. Fifty - three per cent of a number is 358 less than the square 9. On Republic Day sweets to be equally distributed among 450
of 26. What is the value of three-fourth of 23 pre cent of children. But on that particular day, 150 children remained
that number ? absent. Thus, each child got 3 sweets extra. How many sweets
(a) 103 (b) 109.5 (c) 113 did each child get ?
(d) 103.5 (e) None of these (a) 6 (b) 12
2. Sum of eight consecutive numbers of Set A is 376. What is (c) 9 (d) Cannot be determined
the sum of five consecutive numbers of another set if its (e) None of these
minimum number is 15 ahead of average of Set A ? 10. If a number is subtracted by two-third of 75 per cent of 600,
(a) 296 (b) 320 (c) 324 the value so obtained is 320. What is the number ?
(d) 284 (e) None of these (a) 300 (b) 620 (c) 720
3. What is the least number that can be added to the number (d) 500 (e) None of these
1020 to make it a perfect square ? 11. The sum of five consecutive numbers is 270. What is the sum
(a) 65 (b) 12 (c) 59
of the second and the fifth number ?
(d) 4 (e) None of these
(a) 108 (b) 107
4. What is the least number to be subtracted from 945 to make
(c) 110 (d) Cannot be determined
it perfect square ?
(e) None of these
(a) 16 (b) 30 (c) 24
12. The sum of twice of a number and thrice of 42 is 238. What
5. Deepak has some hens and some goats. If the total number will be the sum of thrice of that number and twice of 42 ?
of animal heads is 90 and the total number of animal feet is (a) 245 (b) 250 (c) 264
248, what is the total number of goats Deepak has ? (d) 252 (e) None of these
(a) 32 (b) 36 13. The difference between a two digit number and the number
(c) 34 (d) Cannot be determined obtained by interchanging the two digit is of the number is 9.
(e) None of these If the sum of the two digits of the number is 15, then what is
6. The sum of the who digits of a number is 15 and the the original number ?
difference between them is 3. What is the product of the (a) 89 (b) 67
two digits of the two digit number ? (c) 87 (d) Cannot be determined
(a) 56 (b) 63 (e) None of these
(c) 42 (d) Cannot be determined 14. An AC consume 8 units of electricity in 30 minutes and a
(e) None of these bulb consumes 18 units of electricity in 6 hours. How much
7. There are some parrots and some tigers in a forest. If the total unit of electricity will both AC and bulb consume in 8
total number of animal heads in the forest are 858 and total days if they run 10 hours a day ?
number of animal legs are 1746, what is the number of (a) 1280 unit (b) 1528 unit (c) 1248 unit
parrots in the forest ? (d) 1520 unit (e) 1620 unit
(a) 845 (b) 833
(c) 800 (d) Cannot be determined 1
15. A number when subtracted by of itself gives the same
(e) None of these 7
8. Two - third of three-fourth of one-fifth of a number is 15. value as the sum of all the angles of a triangle. What is the
What is 30 per cent of that number ? number ?
(a) 45 (b) 60 (c) 75 (a) 224 (b) 210 (c) 140
(d) 30 (e) None of these (d) 350 (e) 187
1. a b c d e 2. a b c d e 3. a b c d e 4. a b c d e 5. a b c d e
RESPONSE 6. a b c d e 7. a b c d e 8. a b c d e 9. a b c d e 10. a b c d e
GRID 11. a b c d e 12. a b c d e 13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e
2 SPEED TEST 1
16. Three-fourth of one number is equal to five-sixth of another 23. Which number should replace both the question marks in
number. What is the respective ratio of the first number to the following equation ?
the second number? ? 243
(a) 12 : 11 (b) 11 : 9 =
432 ?
(c) 9 : 10 (d) Cannot be determined
(a) 308 (b) 312 (c) 324
(e) None of these
17. Twice the square of a number is six times the other number.
24. What is the greater of two numbers whose product is 640, if
What is the ratio of the first number to the second ?
the sum of the two numbers, exceeds their difference by 32 ?
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 2 : 5
(a) 45 (b) 50 (c) 55
(e) None of these 25. Five-sixth of a number is 720. What will 45% of that number
18. If the positions of the digits of a two digit number are be?
interchanged, the number obtained is smaller than the original (a) 346.6 (b) 388.8 (c) 392.2
number by 27. If the digits of the number are in the ratio of (d) 344.4 (e) None of these
1 : 2, what is the original number ?
(a) 36 (b) 63 3 7
26. By how much is th of 568 lesser than th of 1008 ?
(c) 48 (d) Cannot be determined 4 8
(e) None of these (a) 444 (b) 448 (c) 456
19. On a Schools Annual Day sweets were to be equally (d) 456 (e) None of these
distributed amongst 112 children. But on that paricular day, 27. Twice the square of a number is more than eleven times the
32 children were absent. Thus the remaining children got 6 number by 21. The number can have which of the following
extra sweets. How many sweets was each child originally values.
supposed to get ? 7 3 7
(a) 4 or - (b) 7 or (c) 3 or
(a) 24 (b) 18 2 2 2
(e) None of these 9
(d) or 4 (e) None of these
2
4 3
20. If 3 is subtracted from 6 and difference is multiplied by 28. The product of two successive even numbers is 6888. Which
5 5 is the greater of the two numbers ?
355 then what will be the final number ? (a) 78 (b) 82 (c) 86
(a) 1004 (b) 884 (c) 774 (d) 90 (e) None of these
(d) 994 (e) None of these 29. At the first stop on his route, a driver uploaded 2/5 of the
21. The number obtained by interchanging the digits of a two packages in his van. After he uploaded another three
digit number is less than the original number by 63. If the packages at his next stop, 1/2 of the original number of
sum of the digits of the number is 11, what is the original packages remained. How many packages were in the van
number? before the first delivery?
(a) 29 (b) 92 (a) 25 (b) 10 (c) 30
(c) 74 (d) Cannot be determined (d) 36 (e) None of these
(e) None of these 30. An army Commander wishing to draw up his 5180 men in
22. One-fifth of a number is 81. What will 68% of that number be the form of a solid square found that he had 4 men less. If he
could get four more men and form the solid square, the
?
number of men in the front row is
(a) 195.2 (b) 275.4 (c) 225.6
(a) 72 (b) 68 (c) 78
(d) 165.8 (e) None of these

2 Fraction, HCF and LCM
2
1. The respective ratio between the present ages of Ram and 9 11
Rakesh is 6 : 11. Four years ago, the ratio of the ages was (a) (b)
8 12
1 : 2 respectively. What will be Rakeshs age after five years ?
(a) 45 years (b) 29 years 3
(c) (d) Cannot be determined
(c) 49 years (d) Cannot be determined 4
(e) None of these (e) None of these
2. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 150% and the 8. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the
denominator of the fraction is increased by 350%, the denominator is increased by 350%. The resultant fraction is
25 5
, what is the original fraction ? . What was the original fraction ?
resultant fraction is 12
51
5 5 7
11 11 15 (a) (b) (c)
(a) (b) (c) 9 8 12
17 15 17 11
(d) (e) None of these
13 12
(d) (e) None of these 3 4
15 9. The difference between the th of th of a number and
4 5
3 7
3. By how much is th of 968 less than th of 1008 ? 1 2
4 8 th of th of the same number is 648. What is the number ?
6 5
(a) 154 (b) 146 (c) 165 (a) 1110 (b) 1215 (c) 1325
(d) 158 (e) None of these (d) 1440 (e) None of these
4. Two third of three-fourth of one-fifth of a number is 15. 4 3
What is 30 per cent of that number ? 10. If 3 is subtracted from 6 and difference is multiplied by
5 5
(a) 45 (b) 60 (c) 75
355 then what will be the final number ?
(a) 1004 (b) 884 (c) 774
5. The value of which of the following fractions is less than (d) 994 (e) None of these
twenty per cent ? 11. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 240% and the
5 2 2 denominator of the fraction is decreased by 50%, the
(a) (b) (c) 5
6 3 5 resultant fraction is 2 . What is the original fraction?
6
1 2 1 2 5
(d) (e) (a) (b) (c)
4 11 4 3 12
6. When 30% of one number is subtracted from another number,
4
the second number reduces to its four-fifth. What is the (d) (e) None of these
ratio between the first and the second number respectively ? 11
(a) 4 : 7 (b) 3 : 2 12. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the
denominator is increased by 300%, the resultant fraction is
(e) None of these 15
. What was the original fraction ?
7. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 400% and the 26
denominator is increased by 500%. The resultant fraction is 8 10 9
(a) (b) (c)
20 11 11 13
. What was the original fraction ? 10
27 (d) (e) None of these
13
GRID 11. a b c d e 12. a b c d e
4 SPEED TEST 2
13. One-fifth of a number is 81. What will 68% of that number be ? 24. Find the least multiple of 11 which, when divided by 8, 12
(a) 195.2 (b) 275.4 (c) 225.6 and 16, leaves 3 as remainder.
(d) 165.8 (e) None of these (a) 13 (b) 18 (c) 28
14. Philip, Tom and Brad start jogging around a circular field (d) 9 (e) None of these
and complete a single round in 18, 22 and 30 seconds 25. What least number should be added to 3500 to make it exactly
respectively, In how much time, will they meet again at the divisible by 42, 49, 56 and 63?
starting point ? (a) 10 (b) 18 (c) 25
(a) 3 min 15 sec (b) 21 min (d) 28 (e) None of these
(c) 16 min 30 sec (d) 12 min 26. Find the least number which, when divided by 72, 80 and 88,
(e) None of these leaves the remainders 52, 60 and 68 respectively.
15. Amit, Sucheta and Neeti start running around a circular track (a) 7900 (b) 7800 (c) 7200
and complete one round in 18, 24 and 32 seconds (d) 7600 (e) None of these
respectively. In how many seconds will the three meet again 27. Find the greatest number of 4 digits which, when divided by
at the starting point if they all have started running at the 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7, should leave remainder 1 in each case.
same time ? (a) 9661 (b) 9671 (c) 9695
(a) 196 (b) 288 (d) 9696 (e) None of these
(c) 324 (d) Cannot be determined 28. The traffic lights at three different road crossings change
(e) None of these after every 48 sec., 72 sec., and 108 sec. respectively. If they
16. The numbers 11284 and 7655, when divided by a certain all change simultaneously at 8:20:00 hrs, then at what time
number of three digits, leave the same remainder. Find that will they again change simultaneously?
number of three digits. (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14
(d) 191 (e) None of these 29. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 44 and 264
17. The LCM of two numbers is 2079 and their HCF is 27. if one respectively. If the first number is devided by 2, the quotient
of the numbers is189, find the other. is 44. What is the other number?
(a) 273 (b) 279 (c) 297 (a) 108 (b) 44 (c) 124
18. Find the least number which, when divided by 18, 24, 30 and 30. The product of two number si 2160 and their HCF is 12. Find
42, will leave in each case the same remainder 1. the possible pairs of numbers.
(a) 2521 (b) 2556 (c) 2456 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
19. Find the greatest number of six digits which, no being divided 31. Find the greatest number of 4 digits and the least number of
by 6, 8, 9 nad 10, leaves 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 as remainder 5 digits that have 144 as their HCF.
respectively. (a) 10080 (b) 10980 (c) 10008
(d) 997916 (e) None of these 32. Find the least number from which 12, 18, 32 or 40 may be
20. what least number nust be subtracted from 1936 so that the subtracted.
remainder when divided by 9, 10, 15 will leave in each case (a) 1440 (b) 1540 (c) 1656
the same remainder 7? (d) 1640 (e) None of these
(a) 29 (b) 39 (c) 49 33. Find the least number that, being increased by 8, is divisible
(d) 59 (e) None of these by 32, 36 and 40.
21. What greatest number can be subtracted from 10,000 so that (a) 1432 (b) 1492 (c) 1472
the remainder may be divisible by 32, 36, 48 and 54 ? (d) 1570 (e) None of these
(a) 9136 (b) 9191 (c) 9933 34. Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12 and 15 minutes
(d) 9216 (e) None of these respectively. All the three begin to toll at 8 a.m. At what time
22. Find the least number which, when divided by 8, 12 and 16, will they toll together again?
leaves 3 as the remainder in each case; by 7 leaves no (a) 8.45 a.m. (b) 10. 30 a.m. (c) 11.00 a.m.
remainder. (d) 1. 30 p.m.
(a) 145 (b) 147 (c) 148 35. Four metal rods of lengths 78 cm, 104 cm, 117 cm and 169 cm
(d) 157 (e) None of these are to be cut into parts of equal length. Each part must be as
23. Find the greatest number that will divide 55, 127 and 175 so long as possible. What is the maximum number of pieces
as to leave the same remainder in each case. that can be cut?
(a) 26 (b) 24 (c) 23 (a) 27 (b) 36 (c) 43

23. a b c d e 24. a b c d e 25. a b c d e 26. 27. a b c d e
GRID
33. a b c d e 34. a b c d e 35. a b c d e
v
3 Square Root & Cube Roots

Directions (Qs. 1-30): What should come in place of the 10. 7 447 21 + 73 - 26 = ?
question mark (?) in the following questions? (a) 196 (b) 16 (c) 13
1. (d) 169 (e) None of these
1190 7225 ? = 3094
11. 38% of 295 + 62% of 445 = ?
(a) 221 (b) 121 (c) 214
(a) 380 (b) 388 (c) 346
( )
2
2. 5 -1 = ?- 2 5 ? 15 4 - 40
12. =
25 2
(a) 6 (b) 6+2 5 (c) 6 5 (a) 20 (b) 45 (c) 25
(d) 6-2 5 (e) None of these (d) 50 (e) None of these
? 25 13. ( 656 164 )2 = ?

3. =
36 (11 3 - 18 ) (a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 64
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5
(d) 6 (e) None of these 2
14. 255 17 5 = ( ? )
4. 12 145 6 + 34 = ? 11. 3
(a) 9 (b) (c) 3
(a) 18 (b) (324)2 (c) 18
(d) 27 (e) 81
(d) 18 (e) None of these 15. (32 42 5) 36 = (?)2 80
2 2 2 (a) (100)2 (b) (c) 100
5. (13) - ( 5 ) - 676 + 7 = ( ? ) 10
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 5
( )
2
(d) (25)2 (e) 5 16. 6 +1 = ?+ 2 6
6. (16 )2 - 53 + 169 = ( ? )
2
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 4 6 +7
(a) (12)2 (b) 144 (c) 12 (d) 4 6 (e) None of these
(d) (144)2 (e) None of these 17. 12 184 23 + 26 - 73 = ?
2
7. 225 + 2304 = ?- (12 ) (a) 7 (b) ( 7 )2 (c) 7
(a) 205 (b) 207 (c) 206 (d) (49)2 (e) None of these
8. 450 + 890 + 685 = ?
18. (13)2 - ( 4 )3 - 676 + 2 = ( ? )
2
(a) 43 (b) 45 (c) 55 (a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 81

9. 3 6859 = ?- 4 19. ( 74 ) (
676 - 42 ? = 496 )
(a) 26 (b) 25 (c) 23 (a) 1024 (b) 1296 (c) 1156
16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e
6 SPEED TEST 3
20. (41)2 + (38)2 (0.15)2 =? Directions (Qs. 31-36 ): What approximate value will come in
(a) 3125.0225 (b) 1713.49 (c) 3125.15 place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (You
(d) 59204.0225 (e) None of these are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
21. 97344 = ? 31. 3100 567 250 = ? 8

(a) 302 (b) 322 (c) 292 (a) 620 (b) 670 (c) 770
(d) 750 (e) 700
32. 54 2120 460 = ?
22. (2 392 - 21 + ) ( 8 -7 ) 2
= ( ?)
2
(a) 120 (b) 140 (c) 160
(d) 180 (e) 200
(a) 4 (b) 4 (c) 12
33. 2 2230 = ?
(d) 2 (e) 6
(a) 54 (b) 59 (c) 41
23. 7365 + (5.4)2 + ? = 7437.16 (d) 37 (e) 47
(a) 1894 (b) 1681 (c) 1764
(d) 2025 (e) None of these 34. ( 7921 - 2070.25 ) 1
4
=?
(a) 11 (b) 14 (c) 15

24. ( )
3 ? = 756 67 804
(d) 9 (e) 13
( 3 795657 7) (3.8 5.5) = ?

(a) 195112 (b) 250047 (c) 226981
(d) 274625 (e) None of these 35.
25. (34.12)2 7396 = ? (a) 48 (b) 22 (c) 43

(a) 1080.1744 (b) 1078.1474 (c) 1078.1744 (d) 26 (e) 31
(d) 1080.1474 (e) None of these 36. If 21025 = 145 , then the value of 210.25 + 2.1025 = ?
26. (73425 33267 22418 17650) 11025 = ? (a) 0.1595 (b) 1.595 (c) 159.5
(a) 10165 (b) 9785 (c) 8370
37. What is the least number to be added to 2000 to make it a
(d) 9450 (e) None of these perfect square?
27. {(56)2 + (44)2} ? = 16 (a) 25 (b) 64 (c) 36
(d) 317 (e) None of these 38. If (22)3 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer
so obtained is 9516. What is the number?
28. 17 + 51 + 152 + 289 = ? (a) 144 (b) 142 (c) 138
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 8
39. If the square of a number is subtracted from 4052 and the
(d) 11
difference is multiplied by 15, the answer so obtained is 41340.
29. What is the number?
217 + 52 + 12 = ?
(a) 36 (b) 1024 (c) 32
(d) 15 (e) 10 40. A gardener plants 34969 mango trees in his garden and
arranges them so that there are so many rows as there are
30. 10201 - 3136 = ? mango trees in each row. The number of rows is
(a) 45 (b) 42 (c) 46 (a) 187 (b) 176 (c) 169

40. a b c d e
4 Percentage -1
Directions (Qs. 1-18): What should come in place of the 1

question mark (?) in the following questions? 10. of 3842 + 15% of ? = 24499
2
1. 76% of 1285 = 35% of 1256 + ? (a) 3520 (b) 3250 (c) 3350
(d) 533 (e) None of these 11. 57% of 394 2.5% of 996 = ?
(a) 215 (b) 175 (c) 200
2. (21.5% of 999)1/3 + (43% of 601)1/2 = ?
(d) 180 (e) 205
(a) 18 (b) 22 (c) 26
12. 40% of 265 + 35% of 180 = 50% of ?
(d) 30 (e) 33
(a) 338 (b) 84.5 (c) 253.5
3. 64.5% of 800 + 36.4% of 1500 = (?)2 + 38 (d) 169 (e) None of these
(a) 32 (b) 38 (c) 42
1 1
(d) 48 (e) 34 13. 4 3 + ? = 20% of 120
5 3
4. 41% of 601 250.17 = ? 77% of 910
(a) 800 (b) 500 (c) 700 1
(a) 10 (b) 10 (c) 5
(d) 650 (e) 550 15
5. 40.005% of 439.998 + ?% of 655.011 = 228.5
14. 14% of 250 ? % of 150 = 840
(a) 8 (b) 17 (c) 12
(a) 15 (b) 18 (c) 16
(d) 20 (e) 5
6. 25% of 84 24% of 85 = ? 15. 18% of 609 + 27.5% of 450 = ?
(a) 424.2 (b) 488.4 (c) 482.8 (a) 220 (b) 233 (c) 267
(d) 428.4 (e) None of these (d) 248 (e) 274
7. 20.06% of 599 + 10.01% of 901 = ? 16. 125% of 3060 85% of ? = 408
(a) 150 (b) 210 (c) 250 (a) 3890 (b) 3940 (c) 4020
(d) 280 (e) 300
17. If x% of 500 = y% of 300 and x% of y% of 200 = 60, then x = ?
8. 14.2% of 5500 + 15.6% of ? = 1795
(a) 10 2 (b) 20 2 (c) 15 2
(a) 6500 (b) 6200 (c) 5600
(d) 5800 (e) None of these (d) 30 2 (e) None of these
9. 36% of 245 40% of 210 = 10 ? 18. 185% of 400 + 35% of 240 = ? % of 1648
(a) 4.2 (b) 6.8 (c) 4.9 (a) 85 (b) 75 (c) 125
(d) 5.6 (e) None of these (d) 50 (e) None of these
8 SPEED TEST 4
19. Pradeep invested 20% more than Mohit. Mohit invested
2
10% less than Raghu. If the total sum of their investment is 25. What is 25% of 50% of rd of 630 ?
3
` 17880, how much amount did Raghu invest ?
(a) ` 6000 (b) ` 8000 (c) ` 7000 (a) 36.5 (b) 52.5 (c) 45.5
(d) ` 5000 (e) None of these (d) 68.5 (e) None of these
20. In a college, 200 students are there in which 36% are girls. 26. Natasha decided to spend 45% of her salary on shopping.
Each boys monthly fees is ` 480 and each girl paid 25% less On completion of her shopping, she realised that she had
monthly fees in comparison to boy. What is the total monthly spent only ` 11475, which was 60% of what she had decided
fees amount paid by boys and girls ? to spent. How much is Natashas salary ?
(a) ` 873400 (b) ` 867300 (c) ` 876300 (a) ` 29600 (b) ` 38800
(d) ` 873600 (e) None of these (c) ` 42500 (d) Cannot be determined
21. Twenty per cent of Anujs annual salary is equal to seventy (e) None of these
five per cent of Rajs annual salary. Rajs monthly salary is 27. The income of A is 150% of the income of B and the income
60% of Ravis monthly salary. If Ravis annual salary is of C is 120% of the income of A. If the total income of A, B
` 1.44 lakh. What is Anujs monthly salary ? and C together is ` 86000, what is Cs income ?
(a) ` 270000 (b) ` 27000 (c) ` 324000 (a) ` 30000 (b) ` 32000 (c) ` 20000
(d) ` 5400 (e) None of these (d) ` 36000 (e) None of these
22. In a college 12% of total students are interested in sports. 28. Mr. Giridhar spends 50% of his monthly income on
3 household items and out of the remaining he spends 50%
th of total students are interested in dance. 10% of total on transport, 25% on entertainment, 10% on sports and
4
remaining amount of ` 900 is saved. What is Mr. Giridhars
students are interested in singing and remaining 15 students
monthly income ?
are not interested in any activity. How many students are
there in the college ? (weight in gm)
(a) 450 (b) 500 (a) ` 6000 (b) ` 12000
(c) 600 (d) Cannot be determined (c) ` 9000 (d) Cannot be determined
23. Amans expense is 30% more than Vimals expense and 29. In a mixture of milk and water the proportion of water by
Vimals expense is 10% less than Ramans expense. If the weight was 75%. If in the 60 gm mixture, 15 gm water was
sum of their expenses is ` 6447, then what would be the added, what would be the percentage of water ?
Amans expense ? (a) 75% (b) 88% (c) 90%
(a) ` 2200 (b) ` 2457 (c) ` 1890 (d) 100% (e) None of these
(d) ` 2100 (e) None of these 30. The product of one-third of a number and 150% of another
24. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 35% number is what per cent of the product of the original
marks to pass. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 30 numbers?
marks. What would be the maximum marks of test ? (a) 80% (b) 50%
(a) 280 (b) 180 (c) 200 (c) 75% (d) 120%
(d) 150 (e) 210 (e) None of these

RESPONSE
GRID
29. a b c d e 30. a b c d e
5 Percentage -2
1. The digit at unit place of a two-digit number is increased by 7. The owner of a boutique decides to calculate the per centage
100% and the digit at ten place of the same number is of customers who purchase hats. If 40 per cent of the stores
increased by 50%. The new number thus formed is 19 more customers decide to purchase items, and of those customers
than the original number. What is the original number ? 15 percent purchase hats, then what per cent of the stores
(a) 22 (b) 63 customers purchase hats ?
(c) 24 (d) 25 (a) 4 % (b) 6 %
(d) None of these (c) 15 % (d) 24 %
2. In a co-education school there are 15 more girls than boys. If (e) None of these
the number of girls is increased by 10% and the number of 8. In a company, there are 75% skilled workers and remaining
boys is also increased by 16%, there would be nine more ones are unskilled. 80% of skilled workers and 20% of
girls than boys. What is the number of students in the school? unskilled workers are permanent. If number of temporary
(a) 240 (b) 225 workers is 126, then what is the number of total workers ?
(c) 265 (d) 245 (a) 480 (b) 510
(e) None of these (c) 360 (d) 377
3. A number is increased by 10% and then reduced by 10%. (e) None of these
After these operations, the number: 9. There were two candidates in an election. 10% of the voters
(a) does not change (b) decreases by 1% did not vote. 60 votes were declared invalid. The elected
(c) increases by 1% (d) increases by 0.1% candidate got 308 votes more than his opponent. If the
(e) None of these elected candidate got 47% of the total votes, how many
4. The population of a city increases at the rate of 4% per votes did each candidate get?
annum. There is an additional annual increase of 1 % in the (a) 2316 and 2012 (b) 2629 and 2324
population due to the influx of job seekers. Therefore, the % (c) 2871 and 2575 (d) 2914 and 2606
increase in the population after 2 years will be : (e) None of these
(a) 10 (b) 10.25 10. A student scored 30% marks in the first paper of Physics out
(c) 10.55 (d) 10.75 of 180 marks. He has to get an overall score of at least 50% in
(e) None of these
two papers. The second paper is carrying 150 marks. The
5. In a factory, producing parts of an automobile, the parts
percentage of marks he should score in the second paper to
manufactured on the shop floor are required to go through
get the overall average score is:
quality checks, each conducted after a specific part of the
(a) 80% (b) 76%
processing on the raw material is completed. Only parts that
(c) 74% (d) 70%
are not rejected at one stage are put through subsequent
(e) None of these
stages of production and testing. If average rejection rates
11. The price of petrol is increased by 25%. How much per cent
at these three testing stages during a month are 10%, 5%
must a car owner reduce his consumption of petrol so as not
and 2% respectively, then what is the effective rejection rate
for the whole plant ? to increase his expenditure on petrol?
(a) 17% (b) 15.20% (a) 25% (b) 50%
(c) 84.80% (d) 16.21% (c) 30% (d) 20%
12. In a mathematics exam, a student scored 30% in the first
1 paper out of total of 180. How much should he score in the
6. In a class, 40% of the boys is same as of the girls and
2 second paper (out of 150) if he is to get at least 50% marks
there are 20 girls. Total number of students in the class is : overall?
(a) 70 (b) 45 (a) 75% (b) 80%
(c) 35 (d) 25 (c) 74% (d) 84%
10 SPEED TEST 5
13. The total tractor population in a state is 2,94,00 out of which 20. There are two candidates Bhiku and Mhatre for an election.
1,50,00 are made by Mahindra & Mahindra. Out of every 100 Bhiku gets 65 % of the total valid votes. If the total votes
Mahindra tractors, 98 are red in colour, but only 5.3% of the were 6,000, what is the number of valid votes that the other
total tractor population is red. Find the percentage of non- candidate Mhatre gets if 25 % of the total votes were
Mahindra tractors that are red. declared invalid?
(a) 5.025% (b) 5.130% (a) 1575 (b) 1625
(c) 6.125% (d) 6.140% (c) 1675 (d) 1525
(e) 7.145% (e) 1700
14. 7% of the total quantity of wheat is lost in grinding when a
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-30): What approximate value should come
3 in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?
country has to import 6 million tonnes, but when only 7 %
4 21. 32.05% of 259.99 =?
is lost, it can import 3 million tonnes. Find the quantity of (a) 92 (b) 88
wheat grown in the country. (c) 78 (d) 90
(a) 500 million tonnes (b) 400 million tonnes (e) 83
(c) 600 million tonnes (d) 700 million tonnes 22. 4.78% of 1255 + 3.24% of 440 = 0.5% of ?
(e) 800 million tonnes (a) 14260 (b) 14492
15. A landowner increased the length and breadth of a (c) 14636 (d) 14849
rectangular plot by 10% and 20% respectively. Find the (e) 15002
percentage change in the cost of the plot. 23. 35.05% of 3365 + 8900 41.99 =- ?
(a) 35% (b) 33% (a) 1350 (b) 1390
(c) 22.22% (d) 32% (c) 1430 (d) 1480
(e) 38% (e) 1530
16. In an examination, Mohit obtained 20% more than Sushant 24. (385% of 463) 179 = ?
but 10% less than Rajesh. If the marks obtained by Sushant (a) 10 (b) 16
are 1080, find percentage marks obtained by Rajesh if the (c) 24 (d) 30
full marks are 2000. (e) 40
(a) 72% (b) 86.66% 25. 84.04% of 1845 + 23.97% of 178.05 = ?
(c) 78.33% (d) 79.33% (a) 1510 (b) 1530
(e) 81% (c) 1550 (d) 1570
17. Out of the total production of iron from hematite, 20% of the (e) 1590
ore gets wasted. Out of the remaining iron, only 25 % is pure 26. 25% of 1078 + 182% of 668 = ?
iron. If the pure iron obtained in a year form a mine of hematite (a) 1050 (b) 1125
was 80,000 kg, then the quantity of hematite mined in the (c) 1250 (d) 1325
year is (e) 1475
(a) 4,00,000 kg (b) 5,00,000 kg
(c) 4,50,000 kg (d) 6,00,000 kg 1 5
27. 59.98% of 2920 + 2075 = ?
(e) 7,00,000 kg 13 18
18. The population of a village is 10,000. If the population (a) 360 (b) 480
increases by 10% in the first year, by 20% in the second year (c) 520 (d) 660
and due to mass exodus, it decreases by 5 % in the third (e) 320
year, what will be its population after 3 years? 28. (23.6% of 1254) (16.6% of 834) = ?
(a) 13,860 (b) 11,540 (a) 159.5 (b) 157.5
(c) 12,860 (d) 12,540 (c) 155.5 (d) 153.5
(e) 13,550 (e) None of these
19. In a medical certificate, by mistake a candidate gave his height 29. 137% of 12345 = ?
as 25 % more than actual. In the interview panel, he clarified (a) 17000 (b) 15000
that his height was 5 feet 5 inches. Find the percentage (c) 1500 (d) 14300
correction made by the candidate from his stated height to (e) 900
his actual height. 30. 22.005% of 449.999 = ?
(a) 28.56 (b) 20 (a) 85 (b) 100
(c) 25 (d) 30 (c) 125 (d) 75
(e) 35 (e) 150

GRID 23. a b c d e 24. a b c d e 25. a b c d e 26. 27. a b c d e

6 Surds and Indices
( 9 )3 ( 81 )5 ( 27)2 = ( 3)(?)
DIRECTIONS (Q. 1-30): What will come in place of question
8.
mark (?) in the following questions?
1. (4 4)3 (512 8)4 (32 8)4 = (2 2)? + 4 (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 7
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 6
9. 81.1 42.7 23.3 = 2?
(a) 7.1 (b) 14 (c) 0.5
3 2 2 ?-3 (d) 9 (e) None of these
2. ( 0.125) ( 0.25) ( 0.5) = ( 0.5)
(a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 14 16 32

10. =?
(d) 10 (e) None of these 9 27 81
3. (16 4)3 (4)5 (2 8)2 = (4)?

12 11 13
2 2 2
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3 (a) (b) (c)
4. (?)2 (12)2 (48)2 = 81 9

2
(a) 26 (b) 32 (c) 9 (d) (e) None of these
3
5. (0.064) (0.4)7 = (0.4)? (0.0256)2 11. (49)3 (7)2 = ?
(a) 17 (b) 2 (c) 18 (a) 2401 (b) 49 (c) 343
12. 643.1 84.3 = 8?
6. 93 812 273 = (3)?
(a) 10.5 (b) 7.4 (c) 1.2
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5
13. 87 26 82.4 = 8?
343 49 (a) 10.6 (b) 9.6 (c) 8.6
7. =?
216 16 81 (d) 6.6 (e) None of these
14. (27)18 (27)3 = ?
75 75 76 (a) (27)54 (b) (27)21 (c) (27)15
(a) (b) (c)
67 68 67 (d) (27)6 (e) None of these
15. (31)31 (31) 27 = ?
74 (a) (961)2 (b) 4 (c) (31)2
(d) (e) None of these (d) 29791 (e) None of these
68
12 SPEED TEST 6
16.
{(12) }-2 2
=?
23. ( 0.04 )2 ( 0.008) ( 0.2 )6 = ( 0.2 )?
{(12) }2 -2 (a) 6
(d) 9
(b) 5
(e) None of these
(c) 8
12
(a) 12 (b) 4.8 (c) 24. 64 16 256 = (4)(? 3)
144
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5
17. 812.5 94.5 34.8 = 9?
25. (5)2 (25)3 125 = (5)?
(a) 3.7 (b) 9.4 (c) 4.7
(a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 8
18. 173.5 177.3 174.2 = 17? 26. (6)4 (36)3 216 = 6(? 5)
(a) 8.4 (b) 8 (c) 6.6 (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7

19. 64 362 216 = 6(?)

27. ( 5)( 3.5) ( 5 )( 4.8) ( 5)( 2.4) ( 5 )(?) = ( 5 )(5.1)
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5
(d) 6 (e) None of these (a) 5.4 (b) 5.2 (c) 5.6
20. 252.7 54.2 55.4 = ( ? )
(a) 1.7 (b) 3.2 (c) 1.6 28. 52 253 625 = (5)?
(a) 11 (b) 10 (c) 13
( 8)
6 3 ?
21. ( 64 ) 84 = ( 8 )
29. (7)3 (49)2 343 = 7(? 2)
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3

30. 93.5 32.2 9(?) = 91.4
3.5 2.2 ?
22. ( 3) (9) 27 = ( 3)
(a) 3.1 (b) 6.4 (c) 3.2
(a) 3.7 (b) 4.6 (c) 5.9 (d) 4.6 (e) None of these

7 Simplification
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 to 28) : What will come in place of qustions 9. (64)4 (8)5 = ?
mark (?) in the following questions? (a) (8)12 (b) (8)8
1. 19.99 9.9 + 99.9 = ? (c) (8)4 (d) (8)2
(a) 129. 79 (b) 297. 801
(e) None of these
(c) 1009 (d) 296.91
(e) None of these 10. (12.25)2 625 = ?
2. 99 21 - 3 ? = 1968 (a) 235.1625 (b) 125.0625
(a) 1367631 (b) 111 (c) 375.2625 (d) 465.3625
(c) 366731 (d) 1367 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
11. 383 38 3.8 = ?
2 5 3 (a) 58305.8 (b) 57305.6
3. ? = 790
7 6 8
(c) 56305.4 (d) 55305.2
(a) 8848 (b) 8246
(e) None of these
(c) 8484 (d) 8868
(e) None of these 12. 43.231 12.779 6.542 0.669 = ?
4. (41)2 + (38)2 (0.15)2 = ? (a) 27.341 (b) 25.242
(a) 3125.0225 (b) 1713.49 (c) 23.241 (d) 21.342
(c) 3125.15 (d) 59204.0225
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
13. 572 + 38 0.50 16 = ?
5. 100000 = ?
(a) 289 (b) 305
(a) 260 (b) 277
(c) 448 (d) 565
(c) 284 (d) 300
(e) 316 (e) None of these
6. 456.675 + 35.7683 67.909 58.876 = ? 14. 6269 + 0.75 444 + 0.8 185 = ? 15
(a) 33382 (b) 3587 (a) 448 (b) 450
(c) 1540 (d) 2756
(c) 452 (d) 454
(e) 2830
7. (7684 + 5454 + 9041) (601 + 296 + 557) = ? (e) 455
(a) 24 (b) 15
3 2 11
(c) 33 (d) 9 15. ? = 1056
(e) 41 7 5 13
8. {(52)2 + (45)2} ? = 8 (a) 7280 (b) 7296
(a) 611.345 (b) 487.225
(c) 7308 (d) 7316
(c) 591.125 (d) 372.425
(e) None of these (e) 7324
14 SPEED TEST 7
23. 561 35.05 19.99 = ?
16. 6138 + 3 17576 = ? 9
(a) 320 (b) 330
(a) 676 (b) 729 (c) 315 (d) 325
(c) 784 (d) 841 (e) 335
(e) 961
24. (15.01)2 730 = ?
1 (a) 6125 (b) 6225
17. ( 27 )7.5 ( 729 )1.75 (19683)-2 ?
= ( 27 )
(19683)-5 (c) 6200 (d) 6075
(e) 6250
(a) 2 (b) 5 25. 4895 + 364 0.75 49 = ?
(c) 7 (d) 9 (a) 5119 (b) 3895
(e) 15 (c) 3907 (d) 5210
18. (e) None of these
31329 5 = ?
26. 434.43 + 43.34 + 3.44 + 4 + 0.33 = ?
(a) 855 (b) 865
(a) 421.45 (b) 455.54
(c) 875 (d) 885 (c) 485.54 (d) 447.45
19. (78700 1748) + (3.79 121.24) = ? 27. (23.6% of 1254) (16.6% of 834) = ?
(a) 305 (b) 415 (a) 159.5 (b) 157.5
(c) 525 (d) 635 (c) 155.5 (d) 153.5
28. (78.95)2 (43.35)2 = ?
20. 6080 3 74000 + 4 6560 = ?
(a) 4353.88 (b) 4305
(a) 30 (b) 80 (c) 4235.78 (d) 4148
(c) 130 (d) 170 (e) None of these
(e) 210 DIRECTIONS (Qs.29-30): What approximate value should
1 2 3 come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
21. of of of 1715 = ? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
8 3 5
29. 9999 99 9 = ?
(a) 80 (b) 85
(a) 18 (b) 15
(c) 90 (d) 95
(c) 6 (d) 11
(e) 75 (e) 20
22. 25.05 123.95 + 388.999 15.001 =? 30. 23.001 18.999 7.998 = ?
(a) 900 (b) 8950 (a) 4200 (b) 3000
(c) 8935 (d) 8975 (c) 3500 (d) 4000
(e) 8995 (e) 2500

8 Average
1. The average age of 80 boys in a class is 15. The average age 8. The total of the ages of a class of 75 girls is 1050, the average
of a group of 15 boys in the class is 16 and the average age age of 25 of them is 12 yre and that of another 25 is 16 yr.
of another 25 boys in the class is 14. What is the average Find the average age of the remaining girls.
age of the remaining boys in the class ? (a) 12 yr (b) 13 yr (c) 14 yr
(a) 15. 25 (b) 14
(d) 15 yr (e) None of these
(c) 14. 75 (d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these 9. Average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh is 63. Rahuls
2. In a class, the average height of 35 girls was measured 160 score is 15 less than Ajay and 10 more than Manish. If Ajay
cm. Later on, it was discovered that the height of one of the scored 30 marks more than the average scores of Rahul,
girl was misread as 144 cm, while her actual height was 104 Manish and Suresh, what is the sum of Manishs and
cm. What was the actual average height of girls in the class ? Sureshs scores ?
(rounded off to two digits after decimal) (a) 120 (b) 111
(a) 159.86 cm (b) 158.54 cm (c) 159.56 cm (c) 117 (d) Cannot be determined
(d) 158. 74 cm (e) None of these (e) None of these
3. The average age of the family of five members is 24. If the 10. The average weight of 45 students in a class was calculated
present age of youngest member is 8 yr, then what was the
as 36 kg. It was later found that the weight of two students
average age of the family at the time of the birth of the
youngest member ? in the class was wrongly calculated. The actual weight of
(a) 20 yr (b) 16 yr (c) 12 yr one of the boys in the class was 32 kg. but it was calculated
(d) 18 yr (e) 21 yr as 34 kg, and the weight of another boy in the class was 45
4. The average of four consecutive odd numbers is 36. What is kg. whereas it was calculated as boy in the class was 45 kg.
the smallest of these numbers ? whereas it was calculated as 40 kg. What is the actual average
(a) 31 (b) 35 (c) 43 weight of the 45 students in the class ? (Rounded off to two-
(d) 47 (e) None of these digits after decimal)
5. In a class, there are 32 boys and 28 girls. The average age of (a) 36.07 kg (b) 36.16 kg
the boys in the class is 14 yr and the average age of the girls
(c) 35.84 kg (d) Cannot be determined
in the class is 13 yr. What is the average age of the whole
(e) None of these
class ? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(a) 13.50 (b) 13.53 (c) 12.51 11. The respective ratio between the speeds of a car, a train and
(d) 13.42 (e) None of these a bus is 5 : 9 : 4. The average speed of the car, the bus and
6. The sum of five numbers is 924. The average of first two the train is 72 km/h together. What is the average speed of
numbers is 201.5 and the average of last two number is 196. the car and the train together ?
What is the third number ? (a) 82 km/h (b) 78 km /h
(a) 133 (b) 129 (c) 84 km/h (d) Cannot be determined
(c) 122 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
(e) None of these 12. The total marks obtained by a student in physics, Chemistry
7. The average marks of 65 students in a class was calculated
and Mathematics together is 120 more than the marks
as 150. It was later realised that the marks of one of the
obtained by him in Chemistry. What are the average marks
students was calculated as 142, whereas his actual marks
were 152. What is the actual average marks of the group of obtained by him in Physics and Mathematics together ?
65 students ? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal) (a) 60 (b) 120
(a) 151.25 (b) 150.15 (c) 151.10 (c) 40 (d) Cannot be determined
(d) 150.19 (e) None of these (e) None of these
16 SPEED TEST 8
13. The average marks in Science subject of a class of 20 students 22. A man drives to his office at 60 km/hr and returns home
is 68. If the marks of two students were misread as 48 and 65 along the same route 30 km/hr. Find the average speed.
of the actual marks 72 and 61 respectively, then what would (a) 50 km/hr (b) 45 km/hr (c) 40 km/hr
be the correct average ? (d) 55 km/hr (e) None of these
(a) 68.5 (b) 69 (c) 69.5 23. Find the average of five consecutive even numbers a, b, c, d
(d) 70 (e) 66 and e.
14. The average age of seven boys sitting in a row facing North (a) d (b) b (c) c
is 26 yr. If the average age of first three boys is 19 yr and the (d) a (e) None of these
average age of last three boys is 32 yr. What is the age of the 24. A cricketer has completed 10 innings and his average is 21.5
runs. How many runs must he make in his next innings so as
boy who is sitting in middle of the row ?
to raise his average to 24?
(a) 28 yr (b) 29 yr (c) 24 yr
(a) 69 (b) 59 (c) 49
(d) 31 yr (e) None of these
15. In an exam, the average was found to be 50 marks. After 25. A person divides his total route of journey into three equal
deducting computational errors the marks of the 100 arts and decides to travel the three parts with speeds of 40,
condidates had to be changed from 90 to 60 each and the 30 and 15 km/hr respectively. Find his average speed during
average came down to 45 marks. The total number of the whole journey.
candidates who took the exam were (a) 14 km/hr (b) 24 km/hr (c) 34 km/hr
(a) 300 (b) 600 (c) 200 (d) 44 km/hr (e) None of these
(d) 150 (e) None of these 26. One-third of a certain journey is covered at th rate of 25 km /
16. The average age of a group of 16 persons is 28 yrs and 3 hr, one-fourth at the rate of 30 km / hr and the rest at 50 km /
months. Two persons each 58 yrs old left the group. The hr. Find the average speed for the whole journey.
average age of the remaining persons is 1 1 1
(a) 26 (b) 24 (c) 22 (a) 33 km / hr (b) 44 km / hr (c) 33 km/ hr
3 4 5
17. The average weight of 50 balls is 5 gm. If the weight of the 1
(d) 44 km / hr (e) None of these
bag be included the average weight increases by 0.05 gm. 5
What is the weight of the bag? 27. The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is
(a) 5.05 (b) 6.05 (c) 7.05 ` 8,000. The average salary of 7 technicians is `12,000 and
(d) 7.55 (e) None of these the average salary of the rest is Rs 6,000. The total number
18. The average age of a group of 10 students is 15 yrs. When 5 of workers in the workshop is :
more students joined the group the average age rose by 1 yr. (a) 21 (b) 20 (c) 23
The average age (in years) of the new students is (d) 22 (e) None of these
(a) 18 yrs (b) 17 yrs (c) 16 yrs 28. The mean monthly salary paid to 75 workers in a factory is
(d) 12 yrs (e) None of these `5,680. The mean salary of 25 of them is ` 5,400 and that of
19. The average weight of 8 persons is increased by 2.5 kg when 30 others is `5,700. The mean salary of the remaining workers
one of them who weighs 56 kg is replaced by a new man. The is
weight of the new man is (a) ` 5,000 (b) ` 7,000 (c) ` 6,000
(d) ` 8,000 (e) None of these
(a) 73 kg (b) 72 kg (c) 75 kg
29. The average monthly expenditure of a family was `2200
(d) 80 kg (e) None of these
during the first 3 months; `2250 during the next 4 months
20. The average weight of A, B and C is 84 kg. If D joins the and `3120 during the last 5 months of a year. If the total
group, the average weight of the group becomes 80 kg. If saving during the year were `1260, then the average monthly
another man E who weighs 3 kg more than D replaces A, income was
then the average of B, C, D and E becomes 79 kg. What is the (a) ` 2605 (b) ` 2805 (c) ` 2705
weight of A? (d) ` 2905 (e) None of these
(a) 64 kg (b) 72 kg (c) 75 kg 30. The average age of a family of five members is 24. If the
(d) 80 kg (e) None of these present age of the youngest member is 8 years, what was
21. The average of 11 results is 50. If the average of first 6 results the average age of the family at the time of the birth of the
is 49 an that of last 6 is 52, find the 6th result. youngest member?
(a) 50 (b) 52 (c) 56 (a) 20 years (b) 16 years (c) 12 years
(d) 60 (e) None of these (d) 18 years (e) 21 years


v
9 Ratio & Proportion - 1

1. The total number of students in a school is 819. If the number (a) 17 : 23 (b) 24 : 11 (c) 23 : 20
of girls in the school is 364, then what is the respective ratio (d) 11 : 24 (e) None of these
of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the 8. A and B started a business by investing ` 35,000 and
school ? ` 20,000 respectively. B left the business after 5 months and
(a) 26 : 25 (b) 21 : 17 (c) 18 : 13 C joined the business with a sum of ` 15,000. The profit
(d) 5 : 4 (e) None of these earned at the end of the year is ` 84,125. What is B's share of
2. If a dividend of ` 57,834 is to be divided among Meena, profit?
Urmila and Vaishali in the proportion of 3:2:1, find Urmila's (a) `14133 (b) `15,000
share. (c) `13,460 (d) Cannot be determined
(a) ` 19,281 (b) ` 17,350 (c) ` 23,133 (e) None of these
(d) ` 19,278 (e) None of these 9. Ninad, Vikas and Manav enter into a partnership. Ninad
3. A sum of money is to be divided among Z, X, Y in the invests some amount at the beginning. Vikas invests double
respective proportion of 4:5:6 and another sum to be divided the amount after 6 months and Manav invests thrice the
between A and B equally. If Z got ` 2000 less than A, how amount invested by Ninad after 8 months. They earn a profit
much did X get? of `45, 000 at the end of the year. What is Manavs share in
(a) ` 10,000 (b) ` 5,000 the profit? 11.
(c) ` 4,000 (d) Cannot be determined (a) ` 25,000 (b) ` 15,000 (c) ` 12,000
(e) None of these (d) ` 9,000 (e) None of these
4. The total number of boys in a school are 16% more than the 10. In a college the students in Arts and Commerce faculties
total number of girls in the school. What is the ratio of the were in the ratio of 4 : 5 respectively. When 65 more students
total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school ? joined Commerce faculty the ratio became 8 : 11. How many
(a) 25:21 (b) 29:35 students are there in Arts faculty?
(c) 25:29 (d) Cannot be determined (a) 520 (b) 650
(e) None of these
5. Ratio of the earning of A and B is 4:7 respectively. If the
earnings of A increase by 50% and the earnings of B decrease (e) None of these
by 25% the new ratio of their earnings becomes 8:7 11. Sarita started a boutique investing an amount of ` 50,000.
respectively. What are A's earnings? Six months later Neeta joined her with an amount of
(a) ` 26,000 (b) ` 28,000 (c) ` 21,000 ` 80,000. At the end of one year they earned a profit of
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these ` 18, 000. What is Saritas share in the profit?
6. Rinku and Pooja started a business initially with ` 5,100 and (a) ` 9]000 (b) ` 8]000 (c) ` 12]000
` 6,600 respectively. If the total profit is ` 2,730 what is
(d) ` 10]000 (e) None of these
Rinku's share in the profit ?
(a) `1,530 (b) `1,540 (c) `1,200 1 2
12. If of Sunit's salary is equal to of Rajan's salary and
(d) `1,180 (e) None of these 2 5
7. The total number of boys in a school is 15% more than the their total salary is ` 36,000, find Rajan's salary.
total number of girls in the school. What is the ratio of the (a) ` 16,000 (b) ` 20,000 (c) ` 22,000
total number of boys to the total number of girls in the
school?
18 SPEED TEST 9
13. Which number should replace both the question marks in 23. A sum of money is be distributed among A, B, C, D in the
the following equation? proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets Rs. 1000 more than D, what
? 189 is Bs share?
= (a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 1500 (c) Rs. 2000
84 ?
(a) 126 (b) 124 (c) 130 (d) None of these
(d) 132 (e) 136 24. The electricity bill of a certain estabilshment is partly fixed
14. The largest and the second largest angles of a triangle are in and partly variea as the number of units of electricity con-
the ratio of 13 : 12. The smallest angle is 20% of the sum of sumed. When in a certain month 540 units are consumed,
the largest and the second largest angles. What is the sum the bill is Rs, 1800. In another month 620 units are consumed
of the smallest and the second largest angles ? and the bill is Rs. 2040. In yet another month 500 units are
(a) 120 (b) 108 (c) 100 consumed. The bill for that month would be:
(d) 102 (e) None of these (a) Rs. 1560 (b) Rs. 1680 (c) Rs. 1840
15. Mr. Pandit owned 950 gold coins all of which he distributed (d) Rs. 4400 (e) None of these
amongst his three daughters Lalita, Amita and Neeta. Lalita 25. What is the ratio whose terms differ by 40 and the measure
gave 25 gold coins to her husband, Amita donated 15 gold
coins and Neeta made jewellery out of 30 gold coins. 2
of which is ?
The new respective ratio of the coins left with them was 7
20 : 73 : 83. How many gold coins did Amita receive (a) 16 : 56 (b) 14 : 56 (c) 15 : 56
from Mr. Pandit? (d) 16 : 72 (e) None of these
(a) 380 (b) 415 (c) 400 26. Railway fares of 1st, 2nd and 3rd classes between two
(d) 350 (e) None of these stations were in the ratio of 8 : 6 : 3. The fares of 1st and 2nd
16. The ratio of the money with Rita an Sita is 7 : 15 and that class were subsequently reduced by 1/6 and 1/12,
with Sita and Kavita is 7 : 16. If Rita has ` 490, how much respectively. If during a year, the ratio between the
money does Kavita have? passengers of 1st, 2nd and 3rd classes was 9 : 12 : 26 and
(a) 1050 (b) 2200 (c) 2400 total amount collected by the sale of tickets was Rs 1088,
then find the collection from the passengers of 1st, class.
17. If A : B = 3 : 4, B : C = 8 : 10 nad C : D = 15 : 17
(a) Rs 260 (b) Rs 280 (c) Rs 300
Then find A : B : C : D.
(a) 9 : 12 : 13 : 11 (b) 4 : 5 : 6 : 7 (c) 7 : 6 :11 : 19 (d) Rs 320 (e) None of these
(d) 9 : 12 : 15 : 17 (e) None of these 27. In two alloys, the ratio of iron and copper is 4 : 3 and 6 : 1,
18. A hound pursues a hare and takes 5 leaps for every 6 leaps respectively. If 14 kg of the first alloy and 42 kg of the second
of the hare, but 4 leaps of the hound are equal to 5 leaps of alloy is mixed together to form a new alloy, then what will be
the hare. Compare the rates of the hound and the hare. the ratio of iron to copper in the new alloy ?
(a) 5 : 6 (b) 4 : 5 (c) 25 : 24 (a) 11 : 3 (b) 11 : 8 (c) 8 : 1
(d) 24 : 25 (e) None of these (d) None of these
19. If a carton containing a dozen mirrors is dropped, which of 28. The ratio of the amount for two years under CI annually and
the following cannot be the ratio of broken mirrors to un- for one year under SI is 6 : 5. When the ratio of interest is
broken mirrors? same, then the value of the rate of interest is :
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 3 : 2 (a) 12.5% (b) 18% (c) 20%
(d) 1 : 1 (e) 7 : 5 (d) 16.66% (e) None of these
20. If (a + b) : (b + c) : (c + a) = 6 : 7 : 8 and a + b + c = 14, then find 29. In an engineering college the average salary of all engineering
a : b : c and the value of a, b and c. graduates from Mechanical trade is Rs. 2.45 lacs per annum
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 6 : 7 : 9 (c) 3 : 4 : 8 and that of the engineering graduates from Electronics trade
(d) 7 : 5 : 9 (e) None of these is Rs. 3.56 lacs per annum. The average salary of all
21. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are Mechanical and Electronics graduates is Rs. 3.12 lacs per
in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a proposal to increase these annum. Find the least number of Electronics graduates
seats by 40%, 50%, and 75 respectively. What will be the passing out from this institute.
ratio of increased seats? (a) 43 (b) 59
(a) 2 : 3 : 4 (b) 6 : 7 : 8 (c) 6 : 8 : 9
(d) None of these
30. Fresh grapes contain 80 per cent water while dry grapes
22. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college is 7 : 8.
If the precentage increase in the number of boys and girls contain 10 per cent water. If the weight of dry grapes is
be 20% and 10% respectively, what will be the new ratio? 250 kg then what was its total weight when it was fresh ?
(a) 8 : 9 (b) 17 : 18 (a) 1000 kg (b) 1125 kg (c) 1225 kg
(c) 21 : 22 (d) Cannot be determined (d) 1100 kg (e) None of these


v
10 Ratio & Proportion - 2

2
1. The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 2 and their 8. A, B and C are partners. A receives of the profit and B and
expenditures are in the ratio 5 : 3. If each savs ` 2000, what is 5
their income? C share the remaining profit equally. As income is increased
(a) 10000, 6000 (b) 12000, 8000 by ` 220 when the profit rises from 8% to 10%. Find the
(c) 15000, 10000 (d) 18000, 12000 capitals invested by A, B and C.
(e) None of these (a) 8000, 7250, 7250 (b) 9000, 7250, 7250
1 (c) 10000, 8250, 8250 (d) 11000, 8250, 8250
2. Find a fractions which shall bear the same ratio to that (e) None of these
27
3 5 9. Shri Ramlal distributed his savings among his wife, two sons
does to . and one daughter in such a way that wife gets double of
11 9
(a) 1 : 27 (b) 1 : 45 (c) 1 : 55 what each son gets and each son gets double of what the
(d) 1 : 65 (e) None of these daughter gets. If the amount received by each son is Rs.
3. An exployer reduces the number of his employees in the 48,000, what was the total amount distributed by Shri Ramlal?
ratio 9 : 8 and increases their wates in the ratio 14 : 15. State (a) Rs. 92,000 (b) Rs. 2,20,000
whether his bill of total wages increases or decreases, and in (c) Rs. 1,80,000 (d) Rs. 2,12,000
what ratio.
(e) None of these
(a) 21 : 20 (b) 31 : 20 (c) 22 : 31 11.
10. What will come in place of both the question marks (?) in the
(d) 31 : 22 (e) None of these
4. ` 50 is divided among 6 men, 12 women and 17 boys so that following questions?
2 men get as much as 5 boys and 2 women as much as 3 ( ? )1/2 = 5
boys. Find the share of a boy.
(a) ` 1 (b) ` 10 (c) ` 5
42 ( ? )1/3
(d) ` 11 (e) None of these (a) 2 0 (b) 210
5. A, B and C enter into partnership. A advances one-fourth of (c) 10 2 (d) 10
the capital for one-fourth of the time. B contributes one-fifth
of the capital for half of the time. C contributes the remaining (e) 20
capital for the whole time. How should they divide a profit of 11. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls study-
` 1140? ing in a school is 25 : 29. The total number of students study-
(a) 100, 160, 880 (b) 160, 100 , 280 ing in the school is 270. If 15 boys and 15 girls take admis-
(c) 200, 260, 680 (d) 160, 200, 780
sion in the school, what will be the new ratio of the boys and
(e) None of these
6. A began a business with ` 450 and was joined afterwards by girls studying in the school?
B with ` 300. When did B join if the profits at the end of the (a) 6 : 7 (b) 8 : 9 (c) 7 : 8
year were divided in the ratio 2 : 1 ? (d) 7 : 9 (e) None of these
(a) 2 months (b) 3 months (c) 4 months 12. There are two numbers such that the sum of twice the first
(d) 9 months (e) None of these number and thrice the second number is 141 and the sum of
7. A and B rent a pasture for 10 months. A puts in 100 cows for thrice the first number and twice the second number is 174.
8 months. How many cows can B put in for the remaining 2 Which is the larger number?
months, if he pays half as much as A?
(a) 52 (b) 36 (c) 48
(a) 300 (b) 600 (c) 800
20 SPEED TEST 10
13. Mr. Shrimat inherits 2505 gold coins and divides them 22. 20 litres of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 5 : 3.
amongst his 3 sons Bharat, Parat and Marat in a certain If 4 litres of this mixture be replaced by 4 litres of milk, the
ratio. Out of the total coins received by each of them, Bharat ratio of milk to water in the new mixture would be:
sells 30 coins, Parat donates his 30 coins and Marat loses 25 (a) 2 : 1 (b) 7 : 3 (c) 8 : 3
coins. Now the ratio of gold coins with them is 46 : 4 : 34 (d) 4 : 3 (e) None of these
respectively. How many coins did Parat receive from his 23. Three containers have their volumes in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5.
father? They are full of mixture of milk and water. The mixtures contain
(a) 705 (b) 950 (c) 800 milk and water in the ratio of (4 : 1), (3 : 1) and (5 : 2) respectively.
(d) 850 (e) None of these The contents of all these three containers are poured into a
14. The cost of 11 kgs of Sugar is ` 264. The cost of 14 kgs of fourth container. The ratio of milk and water in the fourth
tea is ` 252 and the cost of 17 litres of milk is ` 544. What is container is
the total cost of 24 kgs of sugar, 21 kgs of tea and 25 litres of (a) 4 : 1 (b) 151 : 48 (c) 157 : 53
milk? (d) 5 : 2 (e) None of these
(a) ` 1,745 (b) `1,800 (c) ` 1,825 24. The ratio of third proportional to 12 and 30 and the mean
(d) `1,764 (e) None of these proportional between 9 and 25 is
15. Populations of two villages X and Y are in the ratio of 5 : 7 (a) 2 : 1 (b) 5 : 1 (c) 7 : 15
respectively. If the population of village Y increases by 25000 (d) 9 : 14 (e) None of these
and the population of village X remains unchanged the 25. The compound ratio of (2 : 3), (6, 11) and (11: 2) is:
respective ratio of their populations becomes 25 : 36. What (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 11 : 24
is the population of village X? (d) 36 : 121 (e) None of these
(a) 6,25,000 (b) 6,75,000 (c) 8,75,000 1 1 1
(d) 9,00,000 (e) None of these 26. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio : : and its
2 3 4
16. Number of students studying in colleges A and B are in the perimeter is 104 cm. The length of the longest side is:
ratio of 3 : 4 respectively. If 50 more students join college. A (a) 52 cm (b) 48 cm (c) 32 cm
and there is no change in the number of students in College (d) 26 cm (e) None of these
B, the respective ratio becomes 5 : 6. What is the number of 27. The ratio of three numbers A, B and C is 6: 8:15. If A, B and
students in College B? C are increased by 300%, 275% and 100% respectively, what
(a) 450 (b) 500 (c) 400 will be the new ratio of A, B and C?
(d) 600 (e) None of these (a) 5 : 4 : 5 (b) 4 : 5 : 5 (c) 5 : 4 : 4
a b c a+b+c (d) 3 : 4 : 5 (e) 3 : 4 : 15
17. If = = , then is equal to: 28. X started a business by investing `120000. 1.5 years later, Y
3 4 7 c
joined the business by investing `150000, and 3.5 years
1 later, a third person Z joined the business by investing
(a) 7 (b) 2 (c)
2 `280000. At the end of 6.5 years, they earned a profit of
1 `108941. What is the difference between Zs share and Xs
(d) (e) None of these share in the profit?
7
18. If (4x 3y ) : (2x + 5y ) = 12 : 19, then (x : y) is:
2 2 2 2 (a) `1379 (b) ` 2758 (c) `4137
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 3 : 2 (d) `5516 (e) `6895
(d) 2 : 1 29. The ratio of two numbers is 4 : 7. If each of these numbers
19. If x2 + 4y2 = 4xy, then x : y is increases by 30, their ratio will become 5 : 8 . What is the
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 1 average of these two numbers?
(d) 1 : 4 (e) None of these (a) 135 (b) 145 (c) 155
(d) 165 (e) 175
A B C 30. Shalini and Nalini invested ` 80,000 each and started a
20. : : is equal to
If A : B : C = 2 : 3 : 4, then
B C A business. After one year Shalini invests an additional amount
(a) 4 : 9 : 16 (b) 8 : 9 : 12 (c) 8 : 9 : 16 of ` 20,000 and Nalini withdraws ` 30,000. At the end of two
(d) 8 : 9 : 24 (e) None of these years they earn a profit of ` 93,000. What will be Nalinis
21. A sum of Rs. 1300 is divided amongst P, Q, R and S such hare in the profit?
that (a) ` 39,000 (b) ` 54,000 (c) ` 52,000
P 's share Q 's share R 's share 2
= = = . 31. Salary of Mr. X is 80% of the salary of Mr. Y, and the salary of
Q 's share R 's share S's share 3 Mr. Z is 120% of the salary of Mr X. What is the ratio between
Then, Ps share is: the salaries of X, Y and Z respectively?
(a) `140 (b) `160 (c) ` 240 (a) 4 : 6 : 5 (b) 4 : 5 : 6 (c) 16 : 24 : 25
(d) `320 (e) None of these (d) 16 : 25 : 24 (e) None of these

v
11 Chain Rule/ Unitary Method

1. An industrial loom weaves 0.128 metres of cloth every
3
second. Approximately, how many seconds will it take for 9. If of a cistern is filled in 1 minute, how much more time will
the loom to weave 25 metres of cloth? 5
(a) 178 (b) 195 (c) 204 be required to fill the rest of it?
(d) 488 (e) None of these (a) 30 sec (b) 40 sec (c) 36 sec
2. A flagstaff 17.5 m high casts a shadow of length 40.25 m. (d) 24 sec (e) None of these
The height of the building, which casts a shadow of length 10. If x men, working x hours per day, can do x units of work in
28.75 m under similar conditions will be: x days, then y men, working y hours per day would be able
(a) 10 m (b) 12.5 m (c) 17.5 m to complete how many units of work in y days?
(d) 21.25 m (e) None of these
x2 x3 y2
5 (a) (b) (c)
3. A man completes
8
of a job in 10 days. At this rate, how y3 y2 x3
many more days will it take him to finish the job?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 y3
1 x2
2 11. A rope makes 70 rounds of a circumference of a cylinder
4. 36 men can complete a piece of work in 18 days. In how whose radius of the base is 14 cm. How many times can it go
many days will 27 men complete the same work? round a cylinder with radius
11.20 cm?
(a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 22 (a) 40 (b) 49 (c) 100
(d) 24 (e) None of these (d) None of these
5. A fort had provision of food for 150 men for 45 days. After 10 12. If 5 engines consume 6 metric tonnes of coal when each is
days, 25 men left the fort. The number of days for which the running 9 hours a day, how many metric tonnes of coal will
remaining food will last, is be needed for 8 engines, each running 10 hours a day, it
1 1 being given that 3 engines of the former type consume as
(a) 29 (b) 37 (c) 42 much as 4 engines of the latter type?
5 4
(d) 5 4 (e) None of these 1 8
6. 39 persons can repair a road in 12 days, working 5 hours a (a) 3 (b) 8 (c) 8
8 9
day. In how many days will 30 persons, working 6 hours a
day, complete the work? 12
25
13. Some persons can do a piece of work in 12 days. Two times
7. If 7 spiders make 7 webs in 7 days, then 1 spider will make
the number of such persons will do half of that work in:
1 web in how many days?
(a) 6 days (b) 4 days (c) 3 days
7 (d) 12 days (e) None of these
(a) 1 (b) (c) 7
2 14. A garrison of 500 men had provisions for 27 days. After
(d) 49 (e) None of these 3 days a reinforcement of 300 men arrived. For how many
8. If 18 pumps can raise 2170 tonnes of water in 10 days, work- more days will the remaining food last now?
ing 7 hours a day, in how many days will 16 pumps raise 1736 1
tonnes of water, working 9 hours a day? (a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17
2
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8
GRID 11. a b c d e 12. a b c d e 13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e
22 SPEED TEST 11
15. A garrison had provision for a certain number of days. After started at 9 a.m. while machine P is closed at 11 a.m. and the
1 remaining two machines complete the work. Approximately
10 days, of the men desert and it is found that the provi- at what time will the work be finished?
5
sions will now last just as long as before. How long was (a) 11:30 a.m. (b) 12 noon (c) 12:30 p.m.
that? (d) 1 p.m. (e) None of these
(a) 15 days (b) 25 days (c) 35 days 23. A, B and C together earn Rs. 300 per day, while A and C
(d) 50 days (e) None of these together earn Rs. 188 and B and C together earn Rs. 152. The
16. A contractor undertakes to do a piece of work in 40 days. He daily earning of C is:
engages 100 men at the beginning and 100 more after 35 (a) Rs. 40 (b) Rs. 68 (c) Rs. 112
days and completes the work in stipulated time. If he had (d) Rs. 150 (e) None of these
not engaged the additional men, how many days behind 24. 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while
schedule would it be finished? 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10 days. In how
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 many days will 10 women complete it?
17. A contractor employed 30 men to do a piece of work in 38 (d) 50 (e) None of these
days. After 25 days, he employed 5 men more and the work 25. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while
was finished one day earlier. How many days he would have 26 men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, the time taken
been behind, if he had not employed additional men? by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will
be:
1 3 (a) 4 days (b) 5 days (c) 6 days
(a) 1 (b) 1 (c) 1
4 4 (d) 7 days (e) None of these
1 26. Twenty women can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen men
(d) 1 (e) None of these can complete the same work in fifteen days. What is the ratio
2
between the capacity of a man and a woman?
1 (a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 5 : 3
18. 12 men and 18 boys, working 7 hours a day, can do a
2 (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
piece of work in 60 days. If a man works equals to 2 boys, 27. 10 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days and 15 women
then how many boys will be required to help 21 men to do can complete the same work in 12 days. If all the 10 men and
twice the work in 50 days, working 9 hours a day? 15 women work together, in how many days will the work get
(a) 30 (b) 42 (c) 48 completed?
(d) 90 (e) None of these 1 2
(a) 6 (b) 6 (c) 6
19. 2 men and 7 boys can do a piece of work in 14 days; 3 3
3 men and 8 boys can do the same work in 11 days. Then, 2
8 men and 6 boys can do three times the amount of this (d) 7 (e) None of these
3
work in 28. Seven men can complete a work in 12 days. They started the
(a) 18 days (b) 21 days (c) 24 days work and after 5 days, two men left. In how many days will
(d) 30 days (e) None of these the work be completed by the remaining men?
20. If the cost of x metres of wire is d rupees, then what is the (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7
cost of y metres of wire at the same rate? (d) 8 (e) None of these
xy 29. 12 men complete a work in 9 days. After they have worked
(a) Rs. (b) Rs. (xd) (c) Rs. (yd) for 6 days, 6 more men join them. How many days will they
d
take to complete the remaining work?
yd (a) 2 days (b) 3 days (c) 4 days
(d) Rs. (e) None of these
x (d) 5 days (e) None of these
21. A does a work in 10 days and B does the same work in 15 30. Three men, four women and six children can complete a work
days. In how many days they together will do the same in seven days. A woman does double the work a man does
work? and a child does half the work a man does. How many women
(a) 5 days (b) 6 days (c) 8 days alone can complete this work in 7 days?
(d) 9 days (e) None of these (a) 7 (b) 8
22. A machine P can print one lakh books in 8 hours, machine Q (c) 12 (d) Cannot be determined
can print the same number of books in 10 hours while ma- (e) None of these
chine R can print them in 12 hours. All the machines are

30. a b c d e
12 Times and Work/ Pipes and Cisterns
1. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days and B 8. A can do a work in 18 days, B in 9 days and C in 6 days.
and C finish the same work together in 16 days. After A has A and B start working together and after 2 days C joins
worked on it for 5 days and B for 7 days, C finishes it in them. What is the total number of days taken to finish the
13 days. In how many days will C alone be able to finish work ?
the work ? (a) 4.33 day (b) 4.0 day (c) 4.66 day
(a) 16 (b) 24 (c) 36 (d) 5.33 day (e) None of these
(d) 48 (e) 50 9. A worker is paid Rs 56 for 35 hour in a week. Up to 40 hours,
2. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 5 and 6 hours, respectively. he is paid at the normal rate and on overtime, 1.5 times the
Pipe C can empty it in 12 hours. The tank is half full. All the normal. How many hours did he work to get Rs 88 ?
three pipes are in operation simultaneously. After how much (a) 48 hours (b) 50 hours (c) 58 hours
time, the tank will be full ? (d) 55 hours (e) 60 hours
10. A and B can do the a piece of work in 6 days. A alone can do
9 8 it in 10 days. What time will B require to do it alone ?
(a) 3 h (b) 11 h (c) 2 h
17 11 (a) 20 days (b) 15 days (c) 25 days
3 (d) 3 days (e) 2 days
13
(d) 1 h (e) 2 h 11. A cistern is filled up in 5 hours and it takes 6 hours when
17 17 there is a leak in its bottom. If the cistern is full, in what time
3. Ramesh is twice as good a workman as Sunil and finishes a shall the leak empty it ?
piece of work in 3 hours less than Sunil. In how many hours (a) 6 h (b) 5 h (c) 30 h
they together could finish the same piece of work ? (d) 15 h (e) 25 h
1 2 12. Pipe A and B running together can fill a cistern in 6 minutes.
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 1 If B takes 5 minutes more than A to fill the cistern then the
3 3 times in which A and B will fill the cistern separately will be,
4. A cistern has two taps (which fill it in 12 min and 15 min, respectively:
respectively) and an exhaust tap. When all three taps are (a) 15 min, 20 min (b) 15 min, 10 min
opened together, it takes 20 min to fill the empty cistern. (c) 10 min, 15 min (d) 25 min, 20 min
How long will the exhaust tap take to empty it ? (e) None of these
(a) 20 min (b) 16 min (c) 12 min 13. I can do a piece of work in 8 days, which can be done by you
(d) 10 min (e) 7 min in 10 days. How long will it take to do it if we work together?
3
5. A mother and a daughter working together can complete a (a) 4 4 days (b) 5 days (c) 5 1 days
certain work in 4 days. But if the mother worked alone she 9 9 2
could complete the work in 6 days. Both of them worked for 7 8
(d) 4 days (e) 4 days
one day and then the mother had to leave. How long will the 9 9
daughter take to complete remaining work ? 14. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 hours and 12 hours respectively,
(a) 7 days (b) 8 days (c) 6 days while the third can empty it in 20 hours . If all the pipes are
(d) 9 days (e) 10 days opened together, the tank will be filled in :
6. If 15 women or 10 men can complete a project in 55 days, in 1
(a) 7 hours (b) 10 hours (c) 8 hours
how many days will 5 women and 4 men working together 2
complete the same project ? 1
(d) 9 hours (e) 6 hours
(a) 75 (b) 8 (c) 9 10
(d) 85 (e) 90 15. A and B weave a carpet in 10 days and 15 days, respectively.
7. 24 men working 8 hours a day can finish a work in 10 days. They begin to work together but B leaves after 2 days. In
Working at the rate of 10 hours a day, the number of men what time will A complete the remaining work ?
required to finish the same work in 6 days is : 1 2
(a) 30 (b) 32 (c) 34 3 3
(d) 36 (e) None of these (d) 8 days (e) None of these
24 SPEED TEST 12
16. A can do a piece of work in 25 days B in 20 days. They work 24. A cistern has two taps which fill it in 12 minutes and 15
together for 5 days and then A goes away. In how many minutes respectively. There is also a waste pipe in the cistern.
days will B finish the remaining work ? When all the pipes are opened, the empty cistern is full in 20
(a) 17 days (b) 11 days (c) 10 days minutes. How long will the waste pipe take to empty a full
(d) 12 days (e) None of these cistern?
17. A pipe can fill a cistern in 6 hours. Due to a leak in its bottom,
(a) 12 minutes (b) 10 minutes (c) 8 minutes
it is filled in 7 hours. When the cistern is full, in how much time
(d) 16 minutes (e) 20 minutes
will it be emptied by the leak?
(a) 42 hours (b) 40 hours (c) 43 hours 25. Two taps can fill a tank in 20 minutes and 30 minutes
(d) 45 hours (e) 48 hours respectively. There is an outlet tap at exactly half level of
18. Two men and 7 children complete a certain piece of work in that rectangular tank which can pump out 50 litres of water
4 days, while 4 men and 4 children complete the same work per minute. If the outlet tap is open, then it takes 24 minutes
in only 3 days. The number of days required by 1 man to to fill an empty tank. What is the volume of the tank?
complete the work is : (a) 1800 litres (b) 1500 litres (c) 1200 litres
(d) 2400 litres (e) None of these
(d) 51 days (e) 52 days
19. A can do a work in 9 days. If B is 50% more efficient than A, 26. Two taps can separately fill a cistern in 10 minutes and 15
then in how many days can B do the same work alone ? minutes, respectively and when the waste pipe is open, they
(a) 13.5 (b) 4.5 (c) 6 can together fill it in 18 minutes. The waste pipe can empty
(d) 3 (e) None of these the full cistern in :
20. A can do a piece of work in 10 days, while B alone can do it (a) 7 minutes (b) 13 minutes (c) 9 minutes
in 15 days. They work together for 5 days and the rest of the (d) 23 minutes (e) 25 minutes
work is done by C in 2 days. If they get Rs 450 for the whole 27. Two pipes P and Q would fill a cistern in 24 and 32 minutes,
work, how should they divide the money ?
respectively. Both pipes are kept open. When should the
(a) ` 225, ` 150, ` 75 (b) `250, `100, `100 first pipe be turned off so that the cistern may be just filled in
(c) `200, `150, `100 (d) `175, `175, `100 16 minutes?
(e) None of these
(a) After 10 minutes (b) After 12 minutes
21. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 minuets, 8 minutes
and 12 minutes, respectively. The pipe C is closed 6 minutes (c) After 14 minutes (d) After 16 minutes
before the tank is filled. In what time will the tank be full ? (e) None of these
(a) 4 min (b) 6 min (c) 5 min 28. One tap can fill a cistern in 2 hours and another can empty
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these the cistern in 3 hours. How long will they take to fill the
22. A can do 50% more work as B can do in the same time. B cistern if both the taps are open?
alone can do a piece of work in 20 hours. A, with help of B,
(a) 7 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 5 hours
can finish the same work in how many hours ?
(d) 8 hours (e) None of these
(a) 12 (b) 8 (c) 13 1 29. A cistern has a leak which would empty it in 8 hours. A tap is
3 turned on which admits 6 litres a minute into the cistern and
1 it is now emptied in 12 hours. The cistern can hold
1
(d) 5 (e) 47 (a) 7860 litres (b) 6840 litres (c) 8640 litres
2 2
23. There are two taps to fill a tank while a third to empty it. (d) 8840 litres (e) None of these
When the third tap is closed, they can fill the tank in 10 30. If 15 men or 24 women or 36 boys can do a piece of work in
minutes and 12 minutes, respectively. If all the three taps be 12 days, working 8 hours a day, how many men must be
opened, the tank is filled in 15 minutes. If the first two taps associated with 12 women and 6 boys to do another piece of
are closed, in what time can the third tap empty the
1
tank when it is full? work 2 times as great in 30 days working 6 hours a day?
4
(a) 8 min and 34 sec (b) 9 min and 32 sec
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6
(c) 7 min (d) 6 min (d) 10 (e) 12
(e) None of these

13 Profit, Loss and Discount
1. A shopkeeper bought 30 kg of wheat at the rate of ` 45 per 8. By selling goods for ` 153, a man loses 10%. For how much
kg. He sold forty per cent of the total quantity at the rate of should he sell them to gain 20%?
` 50 per kg . Approximately, at what price per kg should he (a) 304 (b) 204 (c) 504
sell the remaining quantity to make 25 per cent overall profit? (d) 404 (e) 604
(a) ` 54 (b) ` 52 9. By selling goods for ` 240, a merchant gains 25%. How
(c) ` 50 (d) ` 60 much per cent would he gain by selling it for ` 216?
(e) ` 56 1 1
1
2. A man buys a single apple for ` 25. If he were to buy a dozen (a) 12 % (b) 13 % (c) 6 %
2 2 2
apples, he would have to pay a total amount of ` 250. What
would be the approximate per cent discount he would get on 1 1
(d) 14 % (d) 17 %
buying a dozen apples ? 2 2
(a) 32 (b) 20 (c) 12 10. What profit per cent is made by selling an article at a certain
(d) 8 (e) 17 price, if by selling at two-third of that price there would be a
3. Manoj sold an article for ` 15000. Had he offered a discount loss of 20%?
of 10% on the selling price, he would have earned a profit of (a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 15%
8%. What is the cost price ? (d) 20% (e) None of these
(a) ` 12500 (b) ` 13500 (c) ` 12250 11. By selling oranges at 32 a rupee, a man loses 40%. How
(d) ` 13250 (e) None of these many a rupee must he sell to gain 20 p.c.?
4. Naresh purchased a TV set for ` 11250 after getting discount (a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 20
of 10% on the labelled price. He spent ` 150 on transport (d) 25 (e) None of these
and ` 800 on installation. At what price should it be sold so 12. The cost price of 16 articles is equal to the selling price of
that the profit earned would have been 15% if no discount 12 articles. The gain or loss per cent is ________ .
was offered ?
1 1 1
(a) ` 12937.50 (b) ` 14030 (c) ` 13450 (a) 13 % (b) 33 % (c) 15 %
(d) ` 15467.50 (e) None of these 3 3 2
5. The profit earned after selling a wrist watch for ` 4080 is the 1 1
(d) 11 % (e) 43 %
same as loss incurred after selling the same wrist watch for 2 2
` 3650. What is the cost price of the wrist watch ? 13. By selling 33 metres of cloth, I gain the selling price of 11
(a) ` 3785 (b) ` 3800 (c) ` 3775 metres. The gain per cent is ________ .
(d) ` 3865 (e) None of these (a) 20% (b) 22% (c) 48%
6. The profit earned after selling an article for ` 996 is the same (d) 50% (e) 70%
as loss incurred after selling the article for ` 894. What is the 14. 5% more is gained by selling a cow for ` 350 than by selling
cost price of the article ? it for ` 340. The cost price of the cow is ________ .
(a) ` 935 (b) ` 905 (c) ` 945 (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 300
(d) ` 975 (e) None of these (d) 250 (e) 350
7. A man sells two watches for ` 99 each. On one he gained 15. A man buys apples at a certain price per dozen and sells
10% and on the other he lost 10%. His gain or loss per cent them at eight times that price per hundred. His gain or loss
is ________ . per cent is ________.
(a) 1% (b) 2% (c) 3%
(a) 4% (b) 4% (c) 5%
(d) 4% (e) 7%
(d) 5% (e) 9%
26 SPEED TEST 13
16. A milkman buys some milk contained in 10 vessels of equal 25. A profit of 20% is made on goods when a discount of 10% is
size. If he sells his milk at ` 5 a litre, he loses ` 200; while given on the marked price. What profit per cent will be made
selling it at ` 6 a litre, he would gain ` 150 on the whole. Find when a discount of 20% is given on the marked price?
the number of litres contained in each cask. 2 2 1
(a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 40 (a) 6 % (b) 7 % (c) 3 %
3 3 4
(d) 45 (e) 50
4 1
17. A watch passes through three hands and each gains 25%. If (d) 7 % (e) 9 %
the third sells it for ` 250, what did the first pay for it? 5 4
(a) 128 (b) 130 (c) 145 26. A dealer sells a table for ` 400, making a profit of 25%. He
(d) 150 (e) 180 sells another table at a loss of 10%, and on the whole he
makes neither profit nor loss. What did the second table
1 cost him ?
18. If by selling an article for ` 60, a person loses of outlay
7 (a) 700 (b) 800 (c) 900
(cost), what would he have gained or lost per cent by selling
(d) 950 (e) 1000
it for ` 77?
27. Each of the two horses is sold for ` 720. The first one is sold
(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 11%
at 25% profit and the other one at 25% loss. What is the %
(d) 15% (e) 25%
loss or gain in this deal ?
19. I sold a book at a profit of 7%. Had I sold it for ` 7.50 more,
(a) 7.25% (b) 6.25% (c) 8.5%
22% would have been gained. Find the cost price.
(d) 9.25% (e) 10.25%
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50
28. Each of the two cars is sold at the same price. A profit of
(d) 55 (e) 60
10% is made on the first and a loss of 7% is made on the
20. A reduction of 40 per cent in the price of bananas would
second. What is the combined loss or gain ?
enable a man to obtain 64 more for ` 40. What is the reduced
price per dozen ? 150 160 180
(a) % (b) % (c) %
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 5 203 203 205
(d) 4 (e) 8 170
(d) % (e) None of these
3 205
21. A man purchased an article at th of the list price and sold 29. Profit earned by an organisation is distributed among officers
4
at half more than the list price. What was his gain per cent ? and clerks in the ratio of 5 : 3. If the number of officers is 45
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% and the number of clerks is 80 and the amount received by
(d) 100% (e) 150% each officer is `25,000, what was the total amount of profit
22. I lose 9 per cent selling pencils at the rate of 15 a rupee. How earned?
many for a rupee must I sell them to gain 5 per cent? (a) `22 lakh (b) `18.25 lakh
(a) 10 (b) 13 (c) 15
(c) `18 lakh (d) `3.25 lakh
(d) 18 (e) 20
23. Goods are sold so that when 4 per cent is taken off the list (e) None of these
price, a profit of 20% is made. How much per cent is the list 30. A shopkeeper labelled the price of his articles so as to earn
price more than the cost price ? a profit of 30% on the cost price. He,then sold the articles by
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% offering a discount of 10% on the labelled price. What is the
(d) 100% (e) 150%
actual per cent profit earned in the deal?
24. A man sells an article at 5% profit. If he had bought it at 5%
less and sold it for ` 1 less, he would have gained 10%. Find (a) 18% (b) 15%
the cost price. (c) 20% (d) Cannot be determined
(a) 100 (b) 150 (c) 200 (e) None of these
(d) 250 (e) 300

14
Max. Marks : 30 No. of Qs. 30
Distance, Speed and
Time : 20 min.
Time
Date : ........./......../................
4 8. A man takes 6 hrs 30 min in walking to a certain place and

1. The average speed of a car is 1 times the average speed of riding back. He would have gained 2 hrs 10 min by riding
5
a bus. A tractor covers 575 km in 23 hours. How much both ways. How long would he take to walk both ways?
distance will the car cover in 4 hours if the speed of the bus (a) 8 hr 30 min (b) 8 hr 40 min (c) 8 hr 50 min
is twice speed of the tractor ? (d) 9 hr (e) None of these
(a) 340 km (b) 480 km (c) 360 km 9. A Train which travels at the uniform rate of 10 m a second
(d) 450 km (e) None of these leaves Madras for Arconum at 7 a.m. At what distance from
2. A bike covers a certain distance at the speed of 64 km/h in 8 Madras will it meet a train which leaves Arconum for Madras
hours. If the bike was to cover the same distance in at 7.20 a.m., and travels one-third faster than the former does,
approximately 6 hours, at what approximate speed should the distance from Madras to Arconum being 68 km?
the bike travel ? (a) 40 (b) 38 (c) 36
(a) 80 km/h (b) 85 km/h (c) 90 km/h (d) 34 (e) None of these
(d) 75 km/h (e) 70 km/h 10. A, B and C can walk at the rates of 3, 4 and 5 km an hour
3. The speed of a boat when travelling downstream is 32 km/h, respectively. They start from Poona at 1, 2, 3 oclock
whereas when travelling upstream it is 28 km/h. What is the respectively. When B catches A, B sends him back with a
speed of the boat in still water ? message to C. When will C get the message?
(a) 27 km/h (b) 29 km/h (a) 5.15 (b) 5.20 (c) 5.30
(c) 31 km/h (d) Cannot be determined (d) 6.00 (e) None of these
(e) None of these 11. Two men start together to walk a certain distance, one at
4. The ratio between the speed of a train and a car is 16 : 15
respectively. Also, a bus covered a distance of 480 km in 8 h. 3
km an hour and the other at 3 km an hour. The former
3
The speed of the bus is three-fourth the speed of the train. 4
How much distance will the car cover in 6 h? arrives half an hour before the latter. Find the distance.
(a) 450 km (b) 480 km (a) 7 km (b) 7.5 km (c) 8 km
(c) 360 km (d) Cannot be determined (d) 8.5 km (e) None of these
(e) None of these 12. A motor car does a journey in 10 hours, the first half at 21
5. Car A runs at the speed of 65 km/h and reaches its destination km per hour, and the rest at 24 km per hour. Find the
in 8h. Car B runs at the speed of 70 km/h and reaches its distance.
destination in 4h. What is the respective ratio of distances (a) 224 km (b) 234 km (c) 236 km
covered by Car A and Car B ? (d) 240 km (e) None of these
(a) 11 : 7 (b) 7 : 13 (c) 13 : 7 13. A person going from Pondicherry to Ootacamond travels
(d) 7 : 11 (e) None of these 120 km by steamer, 450 km by rail and 60 km by horse transit.
6. A bus started its journey from Ramgarh and reached Devgarh The journey occupies 13 hours 30 minutes, and the rate of
in 44 min with its average speed of 50 km/hr. If the average 1
speed of the bus is increased by 5 km/hr, how much time will the train is three times that of the horse transit and 1
2
it take to cover the same distance ? times that of the steamer. Find the rate of the train.
(a) 40 min (b) 38 min (c) 36 min (a) 30 km/hr (b) 60 km/hr (c) 80 km/hr
(d) 31 min (e) 49 min (d) 90 km/hr (e) None of these
2 14. How many seconds will a train 60 m in length, travelling at
7. The wheel of an engine 4 metres in circumference makes
7 the rate of 42 km an hour, rate to pass another train 84 m
seven revolutions in 4 seconds. Find the speed of the train long, proceeding in the same direction at the rate of 30 km an
in km per hour. hour?
(a) 27 (b) 30 (c) 33 (a) 42 (b) 43.2 (c) 45
28 SPEED TEST 14
15. A train 75 metres long overtook a person who was walking 23. The speed of a boat in still water is 6 km/hr and the speed
1 of the stream is 1.5 km/hr. A man rows to a place at a distance
seconds.
at the rate of 6 km an hour, and passed him in 7 of 22.5 km and comes back to the starting point. Find the
2
Subsequently it overtook a specond person, and passed total time taken by him.
(a) 8 hr (b) 9 hr (c) 10 hr
3
him in 6 seconds. At what rate was the second person (d) 11 hr (e) None of these
4
travelling? 24. A man rows upstream 16 km and downstream 28 km, taking
(a) 2 km/m (b) 3 km/m (c) 5 km/m 5 hours each time. The velocity of the current is ________
(d) 6 km/m (e) None of these km/hr.
16. A train takes 5 seconds to pass an electric pole. If the length (a) 1 (b) 1.2 (c) 1.4
of the train is 120 metres, the time taken by it to cross a (d) 2 (e) None of these
railway platform 180 metres long is _______ seconds. 25. A boat moves upstream at the rate of 1 km in 10 minutes and
down-stream at the rate of 1 km in 6 minutes. The speed of
(a) 12.5 (b) 13.5 (c) 14.5
the current is ________ km/hr.
(a) 1 (b) 1.2 (c) 1.4
17. A train is running at the rate of 40 kmph. A man is also going
in the same direction parallel to the train at the speed of 25
26. A can row a certain distance down a stream in 6 hours and
kmph. If the train crosses the man in 48 seconds, the length
return the same distance in 9 hours. If the stream flows at the
of the train is _______ metres.
(a) 100 (b) 150 (c) 200 1
rate of 2 km per hour, find how far he can row in an hour
18. A train speeds past a pole in 15 seconds and speeds past a in still water.
platform 100 metres long in 25 seconds. Its length in metres
1 1 1
is ________ . (a) 11 km/h (b) 12 km/h (c) 13 km/h
(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 150 4 3 3
19. A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the same (d) 14 km/h (e) None of these
3
direction in which the train is going, at the rate of 2 kmph
27. The current of a stream runs at the rate of 4 km an hour. A
and 4 kmph respectively and passes them completely in 9
boat goes 6 km back to the starting point in 2 hours. The
and 10 seconds respectively. The length of the train is
speed of the boat in still water is ________ km/hr.
_________ metres.
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 8
(a) 72 metres (b) 54 metres (c) 50 metres
(d) 45 metres (e) None of these
28. A man walked at a speed of 4 km/hr from point A to B and
20. A boat goes 40 km upstream in 8 hours and 36 km downstream
came back from point B to A at the speed of 6 km/hr. What
in 6 hours. The speed of the boat in still water is ________
would be the ratio of the time taken by the main in walking
km/hr.
from point A to B that from point B to A?
(a) 5 (b) 5.5 (c) 6 (a) 5 : 3 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 2 : 1
(d) 6.5 (e) None of these (d) 4 : 3 (e) 3 :2
21. A boat travels upstream from B to A and downstream from 29. A car travels a distance of 560 km in 9.5 hours partly at a
A to B in 3 hours. If the speed of the boat in still water is speed of 40 kmh1 and partly at 160 kmh1. What is the
9 km/hr and the speed of the current is 3 km/hr the distance distance it tragel at the speed of 160 kmh1?
between A and B is ________ km. (a) 120 km (b) 240 km (c) 320 km
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 18 (d) 360 km (e) 420 km
(d) 21 (e) None of these 30. A train 120 metres in length passes a pole in 4 seconds and
22. A man can row at 4 km/hr in still water and the velocity of another train of length 210 metres travelling in the same
the current is 1 km/hr. It takes him 1 hour to row to a place direction in 15 seconds. What is the speed of the second
and back. How far is the place ? train?
(a) 2 (b) 2.4 (c) 3.4 (a) 8 ms1 (b) 12 ms1 (c) 22 ms1
(d) 4 (e) None of these (d) 30 ms 1
(e) 38 ms 1

30. a b c d e
15 Alligations and Mixtures
1. A mixture of certain quantity of milk with 16 litres of water is 9. A container contained 80 kg of milk. From this container,
worth 90 P per litre. If pure milk be worth ` 1.08 per litre, how 8 kg of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This
much milk is there in the mixture? process was further repeated two times. How much milk is
(a) 60 (b) 70 (c) 80
now contained by the container?
(a) 48 kg (b) 56 kg (c) 58.32 kg
2. How many kg of salt at 42 P per kg must a man mix with 25 kg
of salf at 24 P per kg so that he may, on selling the mixture at (d) 59.46 kg (e) None of these
40 P per kg gain 25% on the outlay? 10. Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper 9 times. In
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 25 what ratio should these metals be mixed so that the mixture
(d) 30 (e) None of these may be 15 times as beavy as water?
3. 300 gm of sugar solution has 40% sugar in it. How much (a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 2 : 3
sugar should be added to make it 50% in the solution? (d) 4 : 5 (e) None of these
(a) 40 gm (b) 50 gm (c) 60 gm 11. How much water must be added to a cask which contains 40
(d) 70 gm (e) None of these
litres of milk at cost price ` 3.5/litres so that the cost of milk
4. There are 65 students in a class. 39 rupees are distributed
among them so that each boy gets 80 P and each girl gets reduces to ` 2/litre?
30 P. Find the number of boys and girls in that class. (a) 20 (b) 35 (c) 45
(a) 45, 20 (b) 40, 25 (c) 39, 26 (d) 50 (e) None of these
(d) 29, 36 (e) None of these 12. 11. to sell his milk at cost price
A dishonest milkman preofesses
5. A person has a chemical of ` 25 per litre. In what ratio but he mixes it with water and thereby gains 25%. The
should water be mixed in that chemical so that after selling percentage of water in the mixture is ___________.
the mixture at ` 20/litre he may get a profit of 25%? (a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 20%
(a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 25% (e) None of these
13. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in proportion
6. In what ratio should milk and water be mixed so that after
7 : 5. When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off and the can is
2
selling the mixture at the cost price a profit of 16 % is made? filled with B, the proportion of A and B becomes 7 : 9. How
3
many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially?
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 6
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 2 : 5 (a) 20 l (b) 21 l (c) 30 l
(e) None of these (d) 36 l (e) None of these
7. A trader has 50 kg of rice, a part of which he sells at 14% 14. In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of milk to water is 2 : 1. If the
profit and the rest at 6% loss. On the whole his loss is 4%. ratio of milk to water is to be 1 : 2, then amount of water to be
What is the quantity sold at 14% profit and that at 6% loss? further added is ___________.
(a) 2, 48 (b) 4, 46 (c) 5, 45 (a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 60
(d) 7, 43 (e) None of these (d) 80 (e) None of these
8. A vessel of 80 litre is filled with milk and water. 70% of milk
15. In what ratio must a person mix three kinds of wheat costing
and 30% of water is taken out of the vessel. It is found that
the vessel is vacated by 55%. Find the initial quantity of milk him ` 1.20, ` 1.44 and ` 1.74 per kg, so that the mixture may
and water. be worth ` 1.41 per kg?
(a) 20, 60 (b) 30, 50 (c) 50, 30 (a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 5 : 7 (c) 12 : 7 : 7
(d) 60, 20 (e) None of these (d) 13 : 7 : 9 (e) None of these
30 SPEED TEST 15
16. In three vessels each of 10 litres capacity, mixture of milk 23. Find the ratio in which rice at Rs. 7.20 a kg be mixed with
and water is filled. The ratios of milk and water are 2 : 1, 3 : 1 rice at Rs. 5.70 a kg to produce a mixture worth Rs. 6.30 a
and 3 : 2 in the three respective vessels. If all the three kg.
vessels are emptied into a single large vessel, find the (a) 1 : 3 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 4
proportion of milk and and water in the mixture. (d) 4 : 5 (e) None of these
(a) 181 : 49 (b) 101 : 49 (c) 121 : 59 24. In what ratio must tea at Rs. 62 per kg be mixed with tea at
(d) 131 : 69 (e) None of these Rs. 72 per kg so that the mixture must be worth Rs. 64.50 per
17. Milk and water are mixed in a vessel A in the proportion 5 : 2, kg?
and in vessel B in the proportion 8 : 5. In what proportion (a) 3 : 1 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 4 : 3
should quantities be taken from the two vessels so as to (d) 5 : 3 (e) None of these
form a mixture in which milk and water will be in the 25. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk costing Rs. 12
proportion of 9 : 4? per litre to obtain a mixture worth of Rs. 8 per litre?
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 5 : 7 (c) 7 : 2 (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 2 : 3
(d) 7 : 9 (e) None of these (d) 3 : 2 (e) None of these
18. A butler stores wine from a butt of sherry which 26. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of tea worth Rs.
contained30% of spirit and he replaced what he had stolen 60 a kg and Rs. 65 a kg so that by selling the mixture at Rs.
by wine containing only 12% of spirit. The butt was then 68.20 a kg he may gain 10%?
18% strong only. How much of the butt did he steal? (a) 3 : 2 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 3 : 5
1 2 2
(a) (b) (c) 27. A jar full of whisky contains 40% alcohol. A part of this
3 5 3
whisky is replaced by another containing 19% alcohol and
4 now the percentage of alcohol was found to be 26%. The
7 quantity of whisky replaced is:
19. Jayashree purchased 150 kg of wheat of the rate of ` 7 per
1 2 2
kg. She sold 50 kg at a profit of 10%. At what rate per kg (a) (b) (c)
3 3 5
should she sell the remaining to get a profit of 20% on the
total deal? 3
(a) 6.50 (b) 8.75 (c) 7.50 5
(d) 9.75 (e) None of these 28. Two vessels A and B contain spirit and water mixed in the
ratio 5 : 2 and 7 : 6 respectively. Find the ratio in which these
20. A jar contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio
mixture be mixed to obtain a new mixture in vessel C contain-
4 : 1. When 10 litres of the mixture is taken out and 10
ing spirit and water in the ratio 8 : 5 ?
litres of liquid B is poured into the jar, the ratio becomes
2 : 3. How many litres of liquid A was contained in the jar? (a) 4 : 3 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 5 : 6
(a) 12 l (b) 14 l (c) 16 l
29. Two vessels A and B contain milk and water mixed in the
(d) 20 l (e) None of these
ratio 8 : 5 and 5 : 2 respectively. The ratio in which these two
21. In a mixture of milk and water the proportion of water by
weight was 75%. If in 60 gm of mixture 15 gm water was mixtures be mixed to get a new mixture containing 69 3 %
added, what would be the percentage of water? (Weight in 13
milk, is :
gm)
(a) 2 : 7 (b) 3 : 5 (c) 5 : 2
(a) 75% (b) 88% (c) 90% (d) 5 : 7 (e) None of these
(d) 100% (e) None of these
30. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio
22. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of pulses cost- 7 : 5. When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off and the can in
ing Rs. 15 and Rs. 20 per kg respectively so as to get a filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7 : 9. How many
mixture worth Rs. 16.50 per kg? litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially?
(a) 3 : 7 (b) 5 : 7 (c) 7 : 3 (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 21
(d) 7 : 5 (e) None of these (d) 25 (e) None of these

16 Simple Interest/Compound Interest
1. The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal is (a) ` 12500 (b) ` 33140
` 2000 in five years at the rate of 4% per annum. What would (c) ` 15800 (d) Cannot be determined
be the compound interest accrued on same principal at same (e) None of these
rate in two years ? 9. The simple interest accrued on an amount of ` 40000 at the
(a) ` 716 (b) ` 724 (c) ` 824 end of three years ` 12000. What would be the compound
(d) ` 816 (e) None of these interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the
2. What total amount would Mithilesh get at the end of three same period ?
years if he invests an amount of ` 11200 in a scheme, which (a) ` 18765 (b) ` 15350 (c) ` 21555
(d) ` 13240 (e) None of these
offers simple interest 8.5% per annum for three years ?
10. Vishwas borrowed a total amount of ` 30000, part of it on
(a) ` 14056 (b) ` 14348 (c) ` 13852 simple interest rate of 12% per annum and remaining on
(d) ` 15064 (e) None of these simple interest rate of 10% per annum. If at the end of 2 yr he
3. Arun invested a sum of money at a certain rate of simple paid in all ` 36480 to settle the loan amount, what was the
interest for a period of for a period of four years. Had he amount borrowed at 12% pre annum ?
invested the same sum for a period of six years the total (a) ` 16000 (b) ` 18000 (c) ` 17500
interest earned by him would have been fifty per cent more (d) ` 12000 (e) None of these
than the earlier interest amount. What was the rate of interest 11. The simple interest accrued on an amount of ` 17000 at the
per cent per annum? end of four years is ` 6800. What would be the compound
(a) 4 (b) 8 interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the
(c) 5 (d) Cannot be determined same period ?
(e) None of these (a) ` 7889.7 (b) ` 8324
4. Rohit invested some amount at the rate of 6 pcpa and at the (c) ` 6990.5 (d) Cannot be determined
end of 2 yr he got ` 8730 simple interest. How much (e) None of these
compound interest he will get on same amount and same 12. A sum of Rs. 2600 is lent out in two parts in such a way that
rate of interest after 2 yr. the interest on one part at 10% for 5 years is equal to that on
(a) ` 5820 (b) ` 5949.60 (c) ` 5900 the other part at 9% for 6 years. The sum lent out at 10% is
________ .
(d) ` 5994.60 (e) None of these
(a) 1250 (b) 1350 (c) 1450
5. What amount a man would have received on a principal of (d) 1550 (e) 1650
` 4000 after two yr simple interest @ 5% per annum ?
1
(a) ` 4161 (b) ` 5200 (c) ` 4410 13. The simple interest on a sum of money is th of the
(d) ` 4100 (e) ` 4190 16
6. The simple interest accrued on an amount of ` 27500 at the principal and the number of years is equal to the rate per
end of three years is ` 10230. What would be the approximate cent per annum. The rate per cent annum is ________ .
compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same 1 1 1
(a) 6 % (b) 6 % (c) 6 %
rate in the same period ? 4 3 5
(a) ` 11550 (b) ` 12620 (c) ` 10950 1 1
(d) ` 11900 (e) ` 13500 (d) 4 % (e) 7 %
5 7
7. The simple interest accrued on an amount of ` 84000 at the 14. A sum of money will double itself in 16 years at simple interest
end of 3 yr is ` 30240. What would be the compound interest at in yearly rate of ________ .
accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same 1 1 1
period ? (a) 13 % (b) 11 % (c) 10 %
2 2 2
(a) ` 30013.95 (b) ` 31013.95 (c) ` 32013.95 1 1
(d) ` 33013.95 (e) ` 34013.95 (d) 9 % (e) 11 %
8. Kruti took a loan at a simple interest rate of 6% in the first 2 7
15. At a certain rate of simple interest, a certain sum doubles
year with an increase of 0.5% in each subsequent year. She itself in 10 years. It will treble itself in years ________ .
paid interest of ` 3375 after four years. How much loan did (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 25
she take ? (d) 30 (e) 45
32 SPEED TEST 16
16. The difference between the interest received from two 26. What would be the compound interest accrued on an amount
different banks on ` 500 for 2 years is ` 2.50. The difference of ` 7850 at the rate of 14% per annum in two years ?
between their rates is _______ . (a) ` 2351.86 (b) ` 2880.37 (c) ` 2518.22
(a) 1% (b) 2% (c) 0.5% (d) ` 2290.23 (e) ` 34013.95
(d) 0.25% (e) 1.5% 27. What will be the compound interest accrued on an amount
17. Some amount out of ` 7000 was lent at 6% per annum and of ` 10000 @ per annum in two years if the interest is
the remaining at 4% per annum. If the total simple interest compounded half-yearly ?
from both the fractions in 5 yrs. was ` 1600, find the sum lent (a) ` 4400 (b) ` 4600 (c) ` 4641
at 6% per annum. (d) ` 4680 (e) None of these
(a) 1500 (b) 2000 (c) 2500 28. What will be the difference between the simple interest
(d) 3000 (e) 5000 and compound interest earned on a sum of ` 985.00 at the
18. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to ` 600 in 4 rate of 14% per annum at the end of two years ?
years and ` 650 in 6 years. Find the rate of interest per annum. (a) ` 16.408 (b) ` 14.214 (c) ` 19.218
(a) 3% (b) 5% (c) 9% (d) ` 17.405 (e) None of these
(d) 10% (e) 15% 29. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 4 years at
19. Arun and Ramu are friends. Arun borrowed a sum of ` 400 at 4 per cent per annum exceeds the compound interest on the
5% per annum simple interest from Ramu. He returns the same sum for 3 years at 5 per cent annum by ` 57. Find the
amount with interest after 2 years. Ramu returns to Arun 2% sum.
of the total amount returned. How much did Arun receive ? (a) 24000 (b) 25000 (c) 26000
(a) 9 (b) 8.80 (c) 7.5 (d) 3000 (e) 40000
(d) 7 (e) 10.5 30. A sum of money at compound interest amounts in two years
20. A person lent at certain sum of money at 4% simple interest; to ` 2809, and in three years to ` 2977.54. Find the rate of
and in 8 years the interest amounted to ` 340 less than the interest and the original sum.
sum lent. Find the sum lent. (a) 2000 (b) 2100 (c) 2200
(a) 500 (b) 600 (c) 1000 (d) 2500 (e) 3000
(d) 1500 (e) 1700 31. A sum is invested at compound interest payable annually.
21. Sonika invested an amount of ` 5800 for 2 years. At what The interest in two successive years was ` 225 and ` 236.25.
rate of compound interest will she get an amount of ` 594.5 Find the rate of interest.
at the end of two years ? (a) 2% (b) 3% (c) 5%
(a) 5 p.c.p.a. (b) 4 p.c.p.a. (c) 6 p.c.p.a. (d) 9% (e) 11%
(d) 8 p.c.p.a. (e) None of these 32. A merchant commences with a certain capital and gains
22. The compound interest earned by Suresh on a certain annually at the rate of 25 p.c. At the end of 3 years he has
amount at the end of two years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. was ` ` 10,000. What was his original capital ?
1414.4. What was the total amount that Suresh got back at (a) 5120 (b) 5353 (c) 5456
the end of two years in the form of principal plus interest (d) 5657 (e) 5757
earned ? 33. In what time will 6250 amount to ` 6632.55 at 4 p.c. compound
(a) ` 9414.4 (b) ` 9914.4 (c) ` 9014.4 interest payable half-yearly?
(d) ` 8914.4 (e) None of these 3 3 3
23. What would be the compound interest accrued on an amount (a) (b) (c)
5 2 4
of ` 7400 @ 13.5 p.c.p.a. at the end of two years ?
(Rounded off to two digits after decimal) 5 9
(d) (e)
(a) ` 2136.87 (b) ` 2306.81 (c) ` 2032.18 2 11
(d) ` 2132.87 (e) None of these 34. What sum of money at compound interest will amount to
24. If the compound interest accrued on an amount of ` 14500 ` 2249.52 in 3 years if the rate of interest is 3% for the first
in two years is ` 4676.25, what is the rate of interest p.c.p.a ? year, 4% for the second year, and 5% for the third year?
(a) 11 (b) 9 (c) 15 (a) 2000 (b) 4000 (c) 3000
25. What would be the compound interest accrued on a amount 35. If the simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at
of ` 8000 at the rate of 15% per annum in three years ? 5% is ` 150, find the corresponding CI.
(a) ` 4283 (b) ` 4051 (c) ` 4167 (a) 197 (b) 157.62 (c) 137.36
(d) ` 4325 (e) None of these (d) 117.17 (e) 127.34

v
17 Problems on Ages
1. The average age of a man and his son is 16 years. The ratio 9. Ten yrs ago, A was half of B in age. If the ratio of their
of their ages is 15 : 1 respectively. What is the sons age? present ages is 3 : 4, what will be the total of their present
(a) 30 years (b) 32 years (c) 2 years ages?
(d) 4 years (e) None of these
(a) 25 (b) 35 (c) 45
2. The average age of a lady and her daughter is 28.5. The ratio
of their ages is 14 : 5 respectively. What is the daughters
age? 10. The sum of the ages of a mother and her daughter is 50 yrs.
(a) 12 years (b) 15 years Also 5 yrs ago, the mothers age was 7 times the age of the
(c) 18 years (d) Canno be determined daughter. What are the present ages of the mother and the
(e) None of these daughter?
3. Present age of Sudha and Neeta are in the ratio of 6 : 7 (a) 35, 5 (b) 40, 10 (c) 30, 20
respectively. Five years ago their ages were in the ratio of (d) 25, 15 (e) None of these
5 : 6 respectively. What is Sudhas present age? 11. The ratio of the fathers age to the sons age is 4 : 1. The
(a) 30 years (b) 35 years
product of their ages is 196. What will be the ratio of their
(c) 40 years (d) Cannot be determined
ages after 5 years?
(e) None of these
4. Average age of 36 children of the class is 15 years. 12 more (a) 7 : 3 (b) 14 : 9 (c) 11 : 4
children joined whose average age is 16 years. What is the (d) 17 : 3 (e) None of these
12.
11.
The ratio of Ritas age to the age of her mother is 3 : 11. The
average age of all the 48 children together?
(a) 15.25 years (b) 15.5 years (c) 15.3 years difference of their ages is 24 yrs. What will be the ratio of
(d) 15.4 years (e) None of these their ages after 3 yrs?
5. Two years ago the ratio of the ages of Swati and Khyati was (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 7
5 : 7 respectively. Two years hence the ratio of their ages will (d) 2 : 5 (e) None of these
be 7 : 9 respectively. What is the present age of Khyati?
(a) 16 years (b) 14.5 years 1
13. A mans age is 125% of what it was 10 years ago, but 83 %
(c) 12 years (d) Cannot be determined 3
(e) None of these of what it will be after 10 years. What is his present age?
6. The age of a man is 4 times that of his son. 5 yrs ago, the man
was nine times as old as his son was at that time. What is the (a) 30 yrs (b) 40 yrs (c) 50 yrs
present age of the man? (d) 60 yrs (e) None of these
(a) 28 yrs (b) 32 yrs (c) 40 yrs 14. The age of a man is three times the sum of the ages of his
(d) 42 yrs (e) None of these two sons. Five years hence, his age will be double of the
7. After 5 yrs, the age of a father will be thrice the age of his sum of the ages of his sons. The father's present age is
son, whereas five years ago, he was 7 times as old as his son (a) 40 years (b) 45 years (c) 50 years
was. What are their present ages? (d) 55 years (e) 65 years
(a) 30 yrs (b) 40 yrs (c) 50 yrs 15. The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is 3 : 4
(d) 60 yrs (e) None of these
respectively. Four years hence Q will be 5 years older than P.
8. 10 Yrs ago, Sitas mother was 4 times older than her daughter.
What is Ps present age?
After 10 yrs, the mother will be two times older than the
daughter. What is the present age of Sita? (a) 15 years (b) 20 years
(a) 10 yrs (b) 30 yrs (c) 20 yrs (c) 25 years (d) Cannot be determined
(d) 40 yrs (e) None of these (e) None of these
34 SPEED TEST 17
16. Present ages of Rama and Shyama are in the ratio of 4 : 5 24. The sum of the ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3
respectively. Five years hence the ratio of their ages be- years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest
comes 5 : 6 respectively. What is Ramas present age? child?
(a) 25 years (b) 22 years (c) 20 years
(a) 4 years (b) 8 years (c) 10 years
17. In a family, a couple has a son and daughter. The age of the
father is three times that of his daughter and the age of the 25. If 6 years are subtracted from the present age of Gagan and
son is half of his mother. The wife is nine years younger to the remainder is divided by 18, then the present age of his
her husband and the brother is seven years older than his grandson Anup is obtained. If Anup is 2 years younger to
sister. What is the age of the mother? Madan whose age is 5 years, then what is Gagans present
(a) 40 years (b) 45 years (c) 50 years age?
(d) 60 years (e) 65 years (a) 48 years (b) 60 years (c) 84 years
18. Rams present age is three times his sons present age and (d) 96 years (e) 100 years
two-fifth of his fathers present age. The average of the
26. The ratio between the school ages of Neelam and Shaan is
present ages of all of them is 46 years. What is the differ-
5 : 6 respectively. If the ratio between the one-third age of
ence between the Rams sons present age and Rams fathers
present age? Neelam and half of Shaans age is 5 : 9, then what is the
school age of Shaan?
(a) 68 years (b) 88 years
(c) 58 years (d) Cannot be determined (a) 25 years
(e) None of these (b) 30 years
19. Abhays age after six years will be three-seventh of his (c) Cannot be determined
fathers age. Ten years ago, the ratio of their ages was 1 : 5.
(d) 35 years
What is Abhays fathers age at present?
(a) 30 yrs. (b) 40 yrs. (c) 50 yrs. (e) None of these
(d) 60 yrs. (e) 70 years 27. A is two years older than his son. In two years, his age will
20. The present ages of three persons are in proportions be twice the age of his son. The present age of the son is:
4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was 56. (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9
Find their present ages (in years).
(d) 10 (e) 11
(a) 8, 20, 28 (b) 16, 28, 36 (c) 20, 35, 45
(d) 25, 30, 40 (e) None of these 28. Eighteen years ago, a father was three times as old as his
21. Tanyas grandfather was 8 times older to her 16 years ago. son. Now the father is only twice as old as his son. Then the
He would be 3 times of her age 8 years from now. Eight years sum of the present ages of the son and the father is:
ago, what was the ratio of Tanyas age to that of her grand- (a) 54 (b) 72 (c) 105
father? (d) 108 (e) 116
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 5 (c) 3 : 8 29. One year ago, Preeti was four times as old as her daughter
(d) 11 : 53 (e) None of these Sonal. Six years hence, Preetis age will exceed her daughters
22. Q is as much younger than R as he is older than T. If the sum age by 9 years. The ratio of the present ages of Preeti and
of the ages of R and T is 50 years, what is definitely the
her daughter is :
difference between R and Qs age?
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 25 years (a) 9 : 2 (b) 11 : 3 (c) 12 : 5
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these (d) 13 : 4 (e) 17 : 7
23. The sum of the ages of a father and his son is 45 years. Five 30. The present age of the father and the son are in the ratio of
years ago, the product of their ages is 34. Find the present 8:3. After 12 years the ratio of their ages will be 2:1. What is
age of father. the sum of the present age of the father and the son?
(a) 32 years (b) 36 years (c) 38 years (a) 66yrs (b) 70yrs (c) 74yrs
(d) 40 years (e) 39 years (d) 78yrs (e) 80yrs.

18 Logarithms
6. If a = log24 12, b = log36 24, C = log48 36. Then 1 + abc is
1. Find log 5 3 5 .
equal to
(a) 2ac (b) 2bc (c) 2ab
1 1 1
(a) (b) (c)
2 5 3 (d) 2abc (e) None of these
7. If log 2 = 0.30103, then find the number of digits in 256.
1
(d) (e) None of these (a) 13 (b) 15 (c) 17
15
2. If log8x + log8 1 = 1 , then find the value of x.
6 3 8. If A = log 2 log 2 log 4 256 + 2 log 2 2 , then A is equal to
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 16 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5

1 9. If log10 x log10 x = 2 log x 10 , then a possible value of

3. Find the value of log10 25 2 log10 3 + log10 18 .
2 x is given by
(a) 18 (b) 1 (c) log103 (a) 10 (b) 1/100 (c) 1/1000
(d) log109 (e) None of these (d) 1/10000 (e) None of these
10. log 216 6 to the base 6 is

log8 17 log 2 2 17
4. - =
log 9 23 log 3 23 (a) 3 (b) 3/2 (c) 7/2
(d) 2/7 (e) None of these
17 2 8
(a) (b) (c)
8 3 9 11. If log 7 log5 ( x + 5 + x ) = 0 , find the value of x.
5. Simplify : (d) 2 (e) None of these
1 1 k
1
+
1
+
1 12. If log a b = , logb c = and logc a = , then the value
2 3 5
log xy ( xyz ) log yz ( xyz ) log zx ( xyz )
of k is
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 3 (a) 25 (b) 35 (c) 30
36 SPEED TEST 18
17. What is the value of
13. If log a ( ab) = x , then log b ( ab ) is
log13 (10 ) / log169 (10 )

1 x x
(a) (b) (c)
x x +1 x -1
1
(a) (b) 2 (c) 1
2
x
1- x
(d) log10 13 (e) None of these
1 1 18. What is the value of

14. If log8 x + log8 = = , then the value of x is
6 3
2 log ( 5 8) + log (128 125) + log ( 5 2 )
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 16
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2
15. What is the value of [log10 (5log10 100)]2
19. What is the value of log100 0.11
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2
(d) 1 (e) None of these (a) 1/2 (b) 1/2 (c) 2
16. What is the value of (d) 2 (e) None of these
20. What is the value of

1
log10 125 - 2 log10 4 + log10 32 + log10 1
3

log
1 2 log 1 3 log 1 4 .... log 1 1000

1 2 3 4 1000
(a) 0 (b) (c) 1
5
(a) 1 (b) 1 (c) 1 or 1
2
5

GRID 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e
19 Linear Equations
1. If x + y = 23 and xy = 126; what is the value of (x)2 + (y)2 ? 7. If A = x2 y2, B = 20 and x + y = 10, then
(a) 250 (b) 317 (a) A is greater than B
(c) 340 (d) Cannot be determined (b) B is greater than A
(e) None of these (c) A is equal to B
2. If 7x + 5y = 20 and 12x + 5y = 75, what is the value of xy? (d) It is not possible to compare A and B as the data
(a) 25 (b) 18 provided is inadequate
(c) 30 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
(e) None of these 8. If x + 2y = 2x + y, then x2 /y2 is equal to
3. Perimeter of a rectangle is 40 cms and the length and the (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2
breadth are in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. What is the (d) 4 (e) None of these
area of rectangle in square square cm? 9. A club has 108 members. Two-thirds of them are men and
(a) 72 (b) 98 (c) 84 the rest are women. All members are married except for 9
(d) 96 (e) None of these women members. How many married women are there in
the club?
4. If 2x + 3y = 87 and 3x 3y = 48, what is the value of x?
(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 27
(a) 11 (b) 29 (c) 72
10. In a class there are 18 boys who are over 160 cm tall. If
5. Ganeshis monthly income is twice Jassis monthly income.
these boys constitute three fourths of the boys and the total
Two-third of Jassis monthly income is equal to
number of boys is two-third of the number of students in
Sukhvinders monthly income. If Sukhvinders annual in-
the class, then what is the number of girls in the class?
come is ` 2.34 lakhs, what is Ganeshis monthly income?
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 18
(a) ` 14,625 (b) ` 29,250
(c) ` 58,500 (d) ` 28,230
11. A railway half-ticket costs half the full fare. But the reser-
(e) None of these
vation charge on the half-ticket is the same as that on full
6. In a class of 30 students and 2 teachers, each student got
ticket. One reserved first-class ticket for a journey between
sweets that are 20% of the total number of students and
two stations is ` 525 and the cost of one full and one-half
each teacher got sweets that are 30% of the total number
reserved first class tickets is `. 850. What is the reserva-
of students. How many sweets were there?
tion charge?
(a) 188 (b) 180
(a) ` 125 (b) ` 200
(c) 208 (d) 178
(c) ` 145 (d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
GRID 11. a b c d e
38 SPEED TEST 19
12. Krishna has some hens and some goats. If the total number 16. The bus fare for one person is ` 420 from Agra to Aligarh
of animal heads are 81 and the total number of animal legs and the train fare between the same places for one person
are 234, how many goats does Krishna have? is equal to three-fourths the bus fare for two persons be-
(a) 45 (b) 24 tween the same places. What is the total fare paid by 3 per-
sons travelling by bus and 4 persons travelling by train be-
tween the two places?
(e) None of these
(a) ` 3,360 (b) ` 3,460 (c) ` 3,440
13. The difference between two numbers is 3 and the differ-
ence between their squares is 63. Which is the larger num-
17. Two bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets from
ber? city A to C cost Rs. 77 but three tickets from city A to B
(a) 12 (b) 9 and two tickets from city A to C cost `73. What are the
fares for cities B and C from A ?
(a) ` 4, ` 23 (b) ` 13, `17 (c) ` 15, `. 14
(e) None of these (d) ` 17, `13 (e) None of these
14. The difference between a two-digit number and the number 18. I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I keep 2, 3 or 4 in a
obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is pack, I am left with one sweet. If I keep 5 in a pack, I am left
with none. What is the minimum number of sweets I have
9. What is the difference between the two digits of the
to pack and distribute ?
number? (a) 25 (b) 37 (c) 54
(a) 3 (b) 2 (d) 65 (e) None of these
(c) 1 (d) Cannot be determined 19. A player holds 13 cards of four suits, of which seven are
black and six are red. There are twice as many diamonds as
(e) None of these spades and twice as many hearts as diamonds. How many
15. There are some parrots and some tigers in a forest. If the clubs does he hold ?
total number of animal heads in the forest is 858 and the (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6
total number of animal legs is 1,846, what is the number
20. In a family, the father took 1/4 of the cake and he had 3
of parrots in the forest?
times as much as each of the other members had. The total
(a) 845 (b) 833 number of family members is
(c) 800 (d) Cannot be determined (a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 10
(e) None of these

v
20 Quadratic Equations
20
1. If x2 + 7x + 12 = 0 and y2 + 9y + 20 = 0, then what is the DIRECTIONS (Q. 7-13): In the following questions, two equations
relation between x and y? numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations
(a) x > y (b) x < y and
(c) x y (d) x y Give answer (a) If x > y
(e) None of these Give answer (b) If x y
Give answer (c) If x < y
DIRECTIONS (Q. 2-6): In each of these questions, two equations
Give answer (d) If x y
numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations
Give answer (e) If x = y or the relationship cannot be established.
and
Give answer (a) if x < y 7. I. x2 x 12 = 0
Give answer (b) if x y II. y2 + 5y + 6 = 0

Give answer (c) if x > y 8. I. x2 8x + 15 = 0
Give answer (d) if x y II. y2 3y + 2 = 0
11.
Give answer (e) if x = y or the relationship cannot be established. 9. I. x2 32 = 112
2. I. x2 + 13x + 42 = 0
II. y 169 = 0
II. y2 + 19y + 90 = 0
10. I. x 121 = 0
3. I. x2 + 15x + 56 = 0
II. y2 23y + 132 = 0 II. y2 121 = 0
11. I. x2 16 = 0
4. I. x2 + 7x + 12 = 0
II. y2 9y + 20 = 0
II. y2 + 6y + 8 = 0
3 4
5. I. x2 22x + 120 = 0 12. I. + = x
x x
II. y2 26y + 168 = 0
5
6. I. x2 + 12x + 32 = 0 2 (7) 2
II. y = =0
II. y2 + 17y + 72 = 0 y
40 SPEED TEST 20
13. I. x2 + 11x + 30 = 0 DIRECTIONS (Q. 18-20): In each of these questions, two
II. y2 + 7y + 12 = 0 equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the
DIRECTIONS (Q. 14 - 17): In each of these questions, two are equations and
given. You have to solve these equations and find out the values Give answer
of x and y and (a) If x > y
Give answer (b) If x y
(a) If x < y (c) If x < y
(b) If x > y (d) If x y
(c) If x y (e) If x = y or the relationship cannot be established.
(d) If x y
(e) If x = y
18. I. 25 x2 - 125 = 0
14. I. 16x2 + 20x + 6 = 0 II. 361 y + 95 = 0

II. 10y2 + 38y + 24 = 0
5 5 x
15. I. 18x2 + 18x + 4 = 0 19. I. - =
7 21 42
II. 12y2 + 29y + 14 = 0
16. I. 8x2 + 6x = 5 y y 250
II. 4 + 16 =
II. 12y2 22y + 8 = 0 y
17. I. 17x2 + 48x = 9 20. I. 5x2 18x + 9 = 0

II. 13y2 32y 21 II. 3y2 + 5y 2 = 0

21 Rational Expressions
3 1 8 4 2 5 5 1 5 4 3 2
1. If all the fractions , , , , , and are arranged (a) (b) (c)
(d) (e)
5 8 11 9 7 7 12 2 14 9 4 3
in the descending order of their values, which one will be 9 3 6 4 7
the third? 8. Out of the fractions , , , and which is the
31 17 23 11 25
1 4 5 largest?
(a) (b) (c)
8 9 12 9 3 6 4
8 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) (e) None of these 31 17 23 11
11 (e) None of these
2. The value of which of the following fractions is less than 3 4 6 8 7
twenty per cent? 9. Out of the fractions , , , and , which is the sec-
7 9 11 13 15
5 2 2 1 2 ond highest fraction?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
6 3 5 4 11
4 8 6 1 3 3 4 6 7
3. Out of the fractions , , , and what is the sum of the (a) (b) (c) (d)
5 9 7 3 8 7 9 11 15
largest and smallest fractions? (e) None of these
11.
5 3 1 7 3 5 16 4 9
10. If the fractions , , , and are arranged in ascend-
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 1 (d) 2 5 8 25 5 16
7 5 7 9
(e) None of these ing order of their values, which one will be the second?
3 16 9 4 5
4 5 3 1 2 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
4. Out of the fractions , , , and what is the differ- 5 25 16 5 8
9 11 7 4 5
ence between the largest and smallest fractions? 6 13 15 3 4
11. Out of the fractions , , , and which is the
2 1 3 4 11 23 29 7 13
(a) (b) (c) (d) third lowest fraction?
35 45 35 45
(e) None of these 6 13 15 3 4
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
5 7 4 4 9 11 23 29 7 13
5. Out of the fractions , , , and which is the third 4 2 9 6 5
12 13 7 15 14 12. If the fractions , , , and are arranged in ascend-
highest? 5 7 13 11 9
7 4 4 ing order of their values, which one will be the second?
5 9
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 6 4 2 5
12 13 7 15 14 (a) (b) (c) (d)
11 5 7 9
3 4 5 7 8 (e) None of these
6. Out of the fractions , , and which is the sec-
7 9 1112 15 13. Which of the following set of fractions has the fractions in
ond highest fraction?
descending order?
3 4 5 7 8
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 2 3 1 4 1 2 3 4 2 1 3 4
7 9 11 12 15 (a) , , , (b) , , , (c) , , ,
7 8 3 7 3 7 8 7 7 3 8 7
4 5 1 3 2
7. Out of the fractions , , , and which is the second 2 1 4 3 4 3 1 2
9 14 2 4 3 (d) , , , (e) , , ,
highest fraction? 7 3 7 8 7 8 3 3
42 SPEED TEST 21
2 5 1 3 5 2 3 22. Find out the missing figures (denoted by stars) in the
14. If the fractions , , , , , and are arranged in following equations, the fractions being given in their lowest
3 7 6 8 11 7 5
terms:
ascending order of their values, which fraction will be the
fifth? 1 2 5 2
2 - 3 +1 - = 0
3 2 1 5 2 3 6 *
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
5 3 6 11
(e) None of these (d) 5 (e) None of these
15. Which set of fractions is in descending order? 23. Expres the followng recurring decimals into vulgar decimals.
7 5 2 3 3 2 5 7 7 5 3 2 0.532
(a) , , , (b) , , , (c) , , ,
8 7 3 5 5 3 7 8 8 7 5 3
231 532 532 524
2 3 5 7 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) , , , (e) None of these 990 900 999 1000
3 5 7 8 (e) None of these
16. Which of the following responses has the fractions in as- 24. Express the following as vulgar fractions.
cending order?
5 3 4 2 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 5.00983
(a) , , , (b) , , , (c) , , ,
11 8 9 7 11 9 8 7 7 8 9 11 983 983 983
(a) 5 (b) 5 (c) 5
2 4 3 5 99999 99000 100000
(d) , , , (e) None of these
7 9 8 11 983
4 2 3 6 5 99900
17. If the fractions , , , and are arranged in descend-
9 7 8 13 11 25. Find 17.83 + 0.007 + 310.0202
ing order, which fraction will be the second?
(a) 322.86638 (b) 325.86638 (c) 327.86638
4 2 3 6 5
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (d) 329.86638 (e) None of these
9 7 8 13 11
9 7 5 4 11 26. Find 17.1086 - 7.9849
18. If the fractions , , , and are arranged in ascend-
11 9 6 5 3 (a) 8.12368 (b) 9.12368 (c) 9.42368
ing order, which one will be the fourth?
9 7 5 4 11
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 27. What is 27 1.2 5.5262 0.6 equal to?
11 9 6 5 13
19. Which of the following has the fractions in ascending or- (a) 121.57 (b) 121.75 (c) 121.75
der?
2 3 5 6 2 6 5 3 6 2 5 3 (d) 121.75 (e) None of these
(a) , , , (b) , , , (c) , , , 28. Which one is the largest among the following?
7 5 11 17 7 17 11 5 17 7 11 5
2 6 3 5 (a) 0.725 (b) 0.725 (c) 0.725
(d) , , , (e) None of these
7 17 5 11 (d) 0.725 (e) None of these
20. Which of the following has the fractions in descending 29. Which one of the following is correct?
order?
7 2 5 5 2 7
5 9 7 3 3 5 7 9 (a) - <- <- (b) - <- <-
(a) , , , (b) , , , 10 3 8 8 3 10
7 11 9 5 5 7 9 11
9 7 5 3 9 5 3 7 5 7 2 7 5 2
, , , , , , (c) - <- <- (d) - <- <-
(c) (d) 8 10 3 10 8 3
11 9 7 5 11 7 5 9
1 p
21. Simplify : 5 + 30. If 2.5252525....... = (in the lowest form), then what is the
1 q
6+
1
8+ q
10 value of ?
p
81 71 81 80
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (a) 0.4 (b) 0.42525 (c) 0.0396
496 243 496 497 (d) 0.396 (e) None of these
(e) None of these

29. a b c d e 30. a b c d e
22 Probability
DIRECTIONS (Q. 1-3): Study the given information carefully and 1 1 1

(a) (b) (c)
answer the questions that follow. 6 10 12
A basket contains 4 red, 5 blue and 3 green marbles. 1
45
1. If two marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability 6. If four caps are picked at random, what is the probability
that both are red ? that none is green ?
3 1 2 7 5 7
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)
7 2 11 99 99 12
1 5
(d) (e) None of these (d) (e) None of these
6 12
2. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability 7. If three caps are picked at random, what is the probability
that at least one is blue ? that two are red and one is green ?
7 37 5 9 6 1
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)
12 44 12 22 19 6
7 3
44 22
3. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability 8. If one cap is picked at random, what is the probability that it
that either all are green or all are red ? is either blue or yellow?
7 7 5 2 1 3
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)
44 12 12 9 4 8
1 6
44 11
4. A basket contains three blue and four red balls. If three balls 9. If two caps are picked at random, what is the probability that
are drawn at random from the basket, what is the probability at least one is red ?
that all the three are either blue or red ? 1 16 19
(a) (b) (c)
1 3 3 21 33
(a) 1 (b) (c)
7 14 7
3 19
28 10. An urn contains 3 red and 4 green marbles. If three marbles
are picked at random, what is the probability that two green
DIRECTIONS (Q. 5-9): Study the following information carefully and one is red ?
to answer the questions that follow.
3 18 5
A box contains 2 blue caps, 4 red caps, 5 green caps and 1 yellow (a) (b) (c)
7 35 14
cap.
4
5. If two caps are picked at random, what is the probability that (d) (e) None of these
both are blue ? 21
44 SPEED TEST 22
11. Two packs of cards are thoroughly mixed and shuffled and 19. There are 4 boys and 4 girls. They sit in a row randomly.
two cards are drawn at random, one after the other. What is What is the chance that all the girls do not sit together?
the probability that both of them are jacks? 12 13 14
(a) 1/13 (b) 2/13 (c) 7/1339 (a) (b) (c)
13 14 15
1 15
(d) 1/169 (e) (d) (e) None of these
179 16
12. A student has 60% chance of passing in English and 54% 20. The letters of the word ARTICLE are arranged in different
chance of passing in both English and Mathematics. What ways randomly. What is the chance that the vowels occupy
is the percentage probability that he will fail in Mathematics? the even places?
(a) 12 (b) 36 (c) 4 1 1 1
(d) 10 (e) 14 (a) (b) (c)
34 35 36
13. When three coins are tossed together, the probability that 1
all coins have the same face up, is (d) (e) None of these
37
1 1 1 21. A committee of 4 is to be formed from among 4 girls and
(a) (b) (c)
3 6 8 5 boys. What is the probability that the committee will have
number of boys less than number of girls?
1 1
(d) (e) 1 1 1
12 17 (a) (b) (c)
4 5 6
14. Three students are picked at random from a school having
a total of 1000 students. The probability that these three 1
students will have identical date and month of their birth, is 7
22. A box contains 4 black balls, 3 red balls and 5 green balls.
3 3 1 2 balls are drawn from the box at random. What is the
(a) (b) (c)
1000 365 (365) 2 probability that both the balls are of the same colour?
47 1 19
2 (a) (b) (c)
(d) (e) None of these 68 6 66
365
2
15. Ten identical particles are moving randomly inside a closed (d) (e) None of these
box. What is the probability that at any given point of time 11
all the ten particles will be lying in the same half of the box? 23. In a box carrying one dozen of oranges, one-third have become
bad. If 3 oranges are taken out from the box at random, what
1 1 2 is the probability that at least one orange out of the three
(a) (b) (c)
2 5 9 oranges picked up is good?
2 9 1 54 45
(d) (e) (a) (b) (c)
11 42 55 55 55
16. 3 digits are chosen at random from 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 and 9 3
without repeating any digit. What is the probability that 55
their product is odd? 24. A box contains 5 green, 4 yellow and 3 white marbles.
(a) 2/3 (b) 5/108 (c) 5/42 3 marbles are drawn at random. What is the probability that
(d) 8/42 (e) 9/42 they are not of the same colour?
17. Each of the 3 persons is to be given some identical items 13 41 13
such that product of the numbers of items received by each (a) (b) (c)
44 44 55
of the three persons is equal to 30. In how many maximum
152
different ways can this distribution be done? (d) (e) None of these
(a) 21 (b) 24 (c) 27 55
(d) 33 (e) 35 25. Out of 15 students studying in a class, 7 are from Maharashtra,
18. A dice is thrown. What is the probability that the number 5 from Karnataka and 3 from Goa. Four students are to be
shown on the dice is not divisible by 3? selected at random. What are the chances that at least one is
from Karnataka?
1 2 1
(a) (b) (c) 12 11 100
3 3 4 (a) (b) (c)
13 13 15
2 51
5 15

23 Permutation & Combinations
1. From amongst 36 teachers in a school, one principal and one 9. A student is to answer 10 out of 13 questions in an
vice-principal are to be appointed. In how many ways can examination such that he must choose at least 4 from the
this be done ? first five questions. The number of choices available to him
(a) 1260 (b) 1250 (c) 1240 is
2. A boy has 3 library cards and 8 books of his interest in the (d) 346 (e) None of these
library. Of these 8, he does not want to borrow chemistry part
10. There are 100 students in a college class of which 36 are
II unless Chemistry part I is also borrowed. In how many
boys studying statistics and 13 girls not studying statistics.
ways can he choose the three books to be borrowed ?
If there are 55 girls in all, then the probability that a boy
(a) 56 (b) 27 (c) 26
(d) 41 (e) None of these picked up at random is not studying statistics, is
3. In how many ways can six different rings be worn on four (a) 3/5 (b) 2/5 (c) 1/5
fingers of one hand ? (d) 4/5 (e) None of these
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 11. The number of ways in which 6 men and 5 women can dine
(d) 16 (e) None of these at a round table if no two women are to sit together is given
4. In how many ways can 7 persons be seated at a round table by :
if 2 particular persons must not sit next to each other ? (a) 6! 5! (b) 30 (c) 5! 4!
(a) 5040 (b) 240 (c) 480 (d) 7! 5! (e) None of these
(d) 720 (e) None of these 12. A student is to answer 10 out of 13 questions in an
5. In how many different ways can the letters of the word examination such that he must choose at least four from the
MATHEMATICS be arranged so that the vowels always first five questions. The number of choices available to him
come together ? is:
(a) 10080 (b) 4989600 (c) 120960 (a) 140 (b) 196 (c) 280
6. The number of ways in which four letters of the word 13. The number of ways in which a team of eleven players can
MATHEMATICS can be arranged is be selected from 22 players including 2 of them and excluding
(a) 136 (b) 2454 (c) 1680 4 of them is:
(d) 192 (e) None of these (a) 16C11 (b) 16C5 (c) 16C9
7. There are 4 candidates for the post of a lecturer in 20
(d) C9 (e) None of these
Mathematics and one is to be selected by votes of 5 men.
14. In how many different ways can hte letters of the word
The number of ways in which the votes can be given is
PRETTY be arranged?
(a) 24 (b) 36 (c) 40
(a) 120 (b) 36 (c) 360
8. The number of ways in which 6 men and 5 women can dine (d) 720 (e) None of these
at a round table if no two women are to sit together is given 15. In how many different ways can be letters of the word
by CYCLE be arranged?
(a) 6 ! 5 ! (b) 5 ! 4 ! (c) 30 (a) 120 (b) 4240 (c) 30
(d) 7 ! 5 ! (e) None of these (d) 80 (e) None of these
46 SPEED TEST 23
16. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 24. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability
TRUST be arranged? that at least one is blue?
(a) 240 (b) 120 (c) 80
DIRECTIONS (Qs.17 & 18): Answer these questions on the (a) (b) (c)
12 44 12
basis of the information given below :
From a group of 6 men and 4 women a Committee of 4 persons is to 7
be formed. (d) (e) None of these
44
17. In how many different ways can it be done so that the
committee has at least one woman? 25. How many different ways can the letters in the word
(a) 210 (b) 225 (c) 195 ATTEND be arranged?
(a) 60 (b) 120 (c) 240
18. In how many different ways can it be done, so that the
committee has at least 2 men? (d) 80 (e) None of these
(a) 210 (b) 225 (c) 195 26. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
(d) 185 (e) None of these OFFICES be arranged?
19. In how many ways can 5 boys be chosen from 6 boys and 4
girls so as to include exactly one girl? (a) 2520 (b) 5040 (c) 1850
(d) 90 (e) 60 27. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
20. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
ARMOUR be arranged?
CORPORATION be arranged?
(a) 3326400 (b) 1663200 (c) 831600 (a) 720 (b) 300 (c) 640
(d) 415800 (e) 207900 (d) 350 (e) None of these
"COUNTRY" be arranged in such a way that the vowels 28. The committee should consist of 2 Professors, 2 Teachers
always come together? and 1 Reader?
(a) 720 (b) 1440 (c) 2880 (a) 450 (b) 225 (c) 55
PROBLEM be arranged ? 29. the committee should include all the 3 Readers?
(a) 5060 (b) 720 (c) 5040 (a) 90 (b) 180 (c) 21
23. If two marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability
that both are red? 30. In how many different ways can 4 boys and 3 girls be
3 1 2 arranged in a row such that all boys stand together and all
(a) (b) (c) the girls stand together?
7 2 11
(a) 75 (b) 576 (c) 288
1
6

24 Clocks and Calendars
1. The number of times in a day the Hour-hand and the Minute- 8. At what time between 5.30 and 6 will the hands of a clock be
hand of a clock are at right angles, is at right angles?
(a) 44 (b) 48 (c) 24
5 7
(d) 12 (e) None of these (a) 43 min . past 5 (b) 43 min . past 5
2. An accurate clock shows the time as 3.00. After hour hand 11 11
has moved 135, the time would be (c) 40 min. past 5 (d) 45 min. past 5
(a) 7.30 (b) 6. 30 (c) 8.00 (e) None of these
(d) 9.30 (e) None of these 9. At what time between 4 and 5 oclock will the hands of a
3. An accurate clock shows 8 O' clock in the morning. watch point in opposite directions?
Throughout how many degrees will the hour hand rotate, (a) 45 min. past 4 (b) 40 min. past 4
when the clock shows 2 O' clock in the afternoon?
(a) 150 (b) 144 (c) 168 4 6
(c) 50 min . past 4 (d) 54 min . past 4
4. March 1, 2008 was Saturday. Which day was it on March 1, (e) None of these
2002? 10. How much does a watch lose per day, if its hands coincide
(a) Thursday (b) Friday (c) Saturday
(d) Sunday (e) None of these
every 64 minutes? 11.
5. How many times are an hour hand and a minute hand of a 8 5
clock at right angles during their motion from 1.00 p.m. to (a) 32 min. (b) 36 min. (c) 90 min.
11 11
10.00 p.m.? (d) 96 min. (e) None of these
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 18
11. The last day of a century cannot be
6. At what approximate time between 4 and 5 am will the (a) Monday (b) Wednesday (c) Tuesday
hands of a clock be at right angle? (d) Friday (e) None of these
(a) 4 : 40 am (b) 4 : 38 am (c) 4 : 35 am 12. Which of the following is not a leap year?
(d) 4 : 39 am (e) None of these (a) 700 (b) 800 (c) 1200
7. At what time between 3 and 4 oclock, the hands of a clock (d) 2000 (e) None of these
coincide?
13. How many days are there in x weeks x days?
4 (a) 7 x2 (b) 8 x (c) 14 x
(a) 16 minutes past 3
11 (d) 7 (e) None of these
5 14. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week
(b) 15 minutes past 3
on Jan 1, 2010?
61
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday (c) Friday
5
(c) 15 minutes to 2 (d) Wednesday (e) None of these
60
15. On 8th Feb, 2005 it was Tuesday. What was the day of the
4 week on 8th Feb, 2004?
(d) 16 minutes to 4
11 (a) Tuesday (b) Monday (c) Sunday
(e) None of these (d) Wednesday (e) None of these
48 SPEED TEST 24
16. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year. 23. Ashish leaves his house at 20 minutes to seven in the
(a) 2014 (b) 2016 (c) 2017 morning reaches Kunals house in 25 minutes. They finish
(d) 2018 (e) None of these their breakfast in another 15 minutes and leave for their
17. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be office which takes another 35 minutes. At what time do they
(a) Wednesday (b) Saturday (c) Tuesday leave Kunals house to reach their office?
(d) Thursday (e) None of these (a) 7.40 a.m. (b) 7.20 a.m. (c) 7.45 a.m.
18. What was the day of the week on 17th June, 1998? (d) 8.15 a.m. (e) None of these
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday 24. Reaching the place of meeting on Tuesday 15 minutes before
(c) Wednesday (d) Thursday 8.30 hours, Anuj found himself half an hour earlier than the
(e) None of these man who was 40 minutes late. What was the scheduled time
19 If 21st July, 1999 is a wednesday, what would have been of the meeting?
the day of the week on 21st July, 1947 ? (a) 8.00 hrs (b) 8.05 hrs (c) 8.15 hrs
(a) Monday (b) Sunday (c) Thursday (d) 8.45 hrs (e) None of these
(d) Saturday (e) None of these 25. A clock gaining 2 min every hour was synchronised at
20. At an enquiry office at a railway station, a passenger was midnight with a clock losing 1 min every hour. How many
told that a train for New Delhi has left 15 minutes ago, but minutes behind will its minute hand be at eleven the
after every 45 minutes a train leaves for New Delhi. The following morning ?
next train will leave at 8.30 p.m. At what time was this (a) 23 (b) 27 (c) 22
information given to the passanger ? (d) None of these (e) None of these
(a) 7.45 pm (b) 8.00 pm (c) 8.15 pm 26. Rama remembers that she met her brother on Saturday, which
(d) 8.05 pm (e) None of these was after the 20th day of a particular month. If the 1st day of
21. A watch is a minute slow at 1 p.m. on Tuesday and 2 minutes that month was Tuesday, then on which date did Rama meet
fast at 1 p.m. on Thursday. When did it show the correct her brother ?
time ? (a) 24th (b) 23rd (c) 25th
(d) None of these
(a) 1:00 a.m. on Wednesday
(b) 5:00 a.m. on Wednesday 1
27. In 2 hours the hour hand of a clock rotates through an
(c) 1:00 p.m. on Wednesday 2
(d) 5:00 p.m. on Wednesday angle of
22. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon
28. On 27 March, 1995 was a Monday. Then what days of the
of a week day. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the
week was 1 November, 1994?
senior clerk, Who was on leave that day. The senior clerk
(a) Monday (b) Sunday
put up the application to the desk officer next day in the
(c) Tuesday (d) Wednesday
evening. The desk officer studied the application and
29. 16 January 1997 was a Thursday. What day of the week was
disposed off the matter on the same day i.e., Friday. Which
4 January 2000?
day was the application received by the inward clerk ?
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday
(a) Monday
(d) Friday (e) None of these
(b) Wednesday
30. In a year 28th February is Tuesday; if the leap year is
(c) Tuesday
excluded, then 28th March will be a
(d) Previous weeks Saturday
(a) Sunday (b) Tuesday (c) Monday
(e) None of these (d) Saturday (e) None of these

25 Mensuration
1. The circumference of two circles is 83 m and 220 m 7. What will be the area (in square metre) of 1.5 m wide garden
respectively. What is the difference between the area of the developed around all the four sides of a rectangular field
larger circle and the smaller circle ? having area equal to 300 sq. m and breadth equal to three-
(a) 3422 sq m (b) 3242 sq m (c) 3244 sq m fourth of the length ?
(d) 3424 sq m (e) None of these (a) 96 (b) 105
2. The length of a rectangle is twice the diameter of a circle. (c) 114 (d) Cannot be determined
The circumference of the circle is equal to the area of a square
(e) None of these
of side 22 cm. What is the breadth of the rectangle if its
perimeter is 668 cm ? 8. The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what per
(a) 24 cm (b) 26 cm cent should the width be decreased to maintain the same
area?
(c) 52 cm (d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these 1 1 1
(a) 37 (b) 39 (c) 40
3. The area of a square is 196 sq. cm. whose side is half the 2 3 4
radius of a circle. The circumference of the circle is equal to 1
breadth of a rectangle, if perimeter of the rectangle is 4
712 cm. What is the length of the rectangle ? 9. If radius of a circle is increased by 5%, find the percentage
(a) 196 cm (b) 186 cm (c) 180 cm increase in its area.
(d) 190 cm (e) None of these
(a) 10.25% (b) 12.50% (c) 13.5%
4. The perimeter of a square is double the perimeter of a (d) 14.5% (e) None of these
rectangle. The area of the rectangle is 240 sq cm. What is the
10. If all the sides of a hexagon (six-sided figure) is increased by
area of the square ?
2%, find the % increase in its area.
(a) 100 sq cm (b) 36 cq cm
(a) 4.04 (b) 5.5 (c) 6.5
(c) 81 sq cm (d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
11. Two poles, 15 m and 30 m high, stand upright in a playground.
5. The circumference of two circles is 132 m, and 176 m
If their feet be 36 m apart, find the distance between their
respectively. What is the difference between the area of the
tops.
larger circle and the smaller circle ?
(a) 1048 sq m (b) 1076 sq m (c) 1078 sq m (a) 35 cm (b) 39 cm (c) 45 cm
(d) 1090 sq m (e) None of these (d) 50 cm (e) None of these
6. If the perimeter of a square is equal to the radius of a circle 12. A semi-circle is constructed on each side of a square of
whose area is 39424 sq. cm, what is the area of the square ? length 2m. Find the area of the whole figure.
(a) 1225 sq. cm (b) 441 sq. cm (a) (5 + 3p) m2 (b) (4 + 3p) m2
(c) 784 sq. cm (d) Cannot be determined (c) (4 + p) m2 (d) (4 + 2p) m2
50 SPEED TEST 25
13. A cord is in the form of a square enclosing an area of 22 cm2.
If the same cord is bent into a circle, then find the area of that
circle.
(a) 20 cm2 (b) 25 cm2 (c) 26 cm2 100
(d) 28 cm2 (e) None of these 49
16
14. The largest triangle is inscribed in a semi-circle of radius
14 cm. Find the area inside the semi-circle which is not P Q
occupied by the triangle.
(a) 100 cm2 (b) 112 cm2 (c) 115 cm2 (a) 12 (b) 4 (c) 3
(d) 2 (e) 6
(d) 113 cm2 (e) None of these
21. A rectangle has perimeter of 50 metres. If its length is 13
15. In a quadrilateral, the length of one of its diagonal is 23 cm
metres more than its breadth, then its area is:
and the perpendiculars drawn on this diagonal from other
(a) 124 m2 (b) 144 m2 (c) 114 m2
two vertices measure 17 cm and 7 cm respectively. Find the 2 2
(d) 104 m (e) 117m
area of the quadrilateral.
22. A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with a beverage.
(a) 250 cm2 (b) 276 cm2 (c) 300 cm2
The contents of the bowl are transferred into a cylindrical
(d) 325 cm2 (e) None of these
vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height. If the
16. A cube of maximum volume (each corner touching the surface diameter is same for both bowl and cylinder, then the volume
from inside) is cut from a sphere. Find the ratio of the volumes of the beverage in the cylindrical vessel will be
of the cube and the sphere.
2
(a) 66 %
(a) 2: 3p (b) 3 : 2p (c) 5 : 4p 3
(d) 3: 2p (e) None of these (b) 78.5%
17. The volumes of two cubes are in the ratio of 8 : 125. Then (c) 100%
find the ratio of their edges and surface areas. (d) More than 100% (that is, some liquid will still be left in
(a) 4 : 9 (b) 4 : 25 (c) 4 : 36 the bowl)
(d) 4 : 30 (e) None of these (e) None of these
18. A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of 23. If the angle of triangle are in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2, then the
triangle
a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. Find the
smaller side of the rectangle. (a) is obtuse angled triangle
(a) 50 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 70 cm (b) has one angle greater than 80
(d) 80 cm (e) None of these (c) is a right triangle
19. A right circular cone is exactly fitted inside a cube in such a (d) is acute angled triangle
way that the edges of the base of the cone are touching the (e) None of these
edges of one of the faces of the cube and the vertex is on the 24. What is the maximum number of pieces of 5 cm 5 cm 10 cm
opposite face of the cube. If the volume of the cube is of cake that can be cut from a big cake of 5cm 30 cm 30 cm
343 cc, what, approximately, is the volume of the cone? size?
(a) 80 cc (b) 90 cc (c) 110 cc (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 18
(d) 30 (e) 32
(d) 105 cc (e) None of these
25. A rectangular piece of iron sheet measuring 50 cm by 100 cm
20. The following figure contains three squares with areas of
is rolled into cylinder of height 50 cm. If the cost of painting
100, 16 and 49 sq. units respectively laying side by side as
the cylinder is ` 50 per square metre, then what will be the
shown. By how much should the area of the middle square
cost of painting the outer surface of the cylinder?
be reduced in order that the total length PQ of the resulting
(a) ` 25.00 (b) ` 37.50 (c) ` 75.00
three squares is 19?
(d) ` 87.50 (e) None of these

26 DI Line Graph
Directions (Q. 1-3) : Study the given graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Number of Days Taken by Three Carpenters to Finish Making one Piece each of four Different items of Furniture
Carpenter X
Carpenter Y
Carpenter Z
16
14
12
10
8
6
] 4
2
0
Chair Table Bed Cupboard
1. If Carpenter X and Carpenter Y were to make a chair together 3. If Carpenters X, Y and Z were to make a table together how
how many days would they take ? many days would they take ?
(a) 1 day (b) 4 days (c) 3 days (a) 4 days (b) 3 days (c) 1 day
(d) 2 days (e) None of these (d) 2 days (e) None of these
2. What is the total number of days that Carpenter Z will take
to make one piece each of all the four items together ?
1
59
1
(d) 1 days (e) None of these
32
Directions (Q. 4-8): Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Percent Profit Made by two Companies over the Years
Percent profit = Income Expenditure 100
Expenditure
60
50
Percent Profit
40
Company A
30
20 Company B
10
0
2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
Years
RESPONSE
52 SPEED TEST 26
4. If the amount of profit earned by Company A in the year 7. What is the average percent profit earned by Company B
2007 was ` 1.5 lakh, what was its expenditure in that year ? over all the years together ?
(a) ` 1.96 lakh (b) ` 2.64 lakh (c) ` 1.27 lakh
1 1 1
(d) ` 3.75 lakh (e) None of these (a) 19 (b) 24 (c) 12
5. What is the respective ratio of the amount of profit earned 3 6 3
by Company A and B in the year 2009 ? 1
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 7 (d) 37 (e) None of these
6
8. If in the year 2008, the income of both the companies A and
(e) None of these
B was the same, what was the respective ratio of expenditure
6. If in the year 2004 the expenditure incurred by Company A
of Company A to the expenditure of Company B in that year?
and B was the same, what was respective ratio of the Income
(a) 21 : 25 (b) 7 : 9
of Company A and B in that year ?
(a) 27 : 28 (b) 14 : 23
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. 9 - 13): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Number of Students (in Thousands)
in three Schools over the Year
4
Number of students
3.5
(in thousands)
3
2.5 School A
2 School B
1.5 School C
1
0.5
0
2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
Years
9. What was the average number of students in all the Schools 12. What was the difference between the total number of
together in the year 2006 ? students in all the schools together in the year 2003 and
(a) 30000 (b) 9000 (c) 3000 number of students in School B in the year 2005 ?
(a) 2000 (b) 3000 (c) 3500
10. How many times the total number of students in all the three
Schools A, B and C together was exactly equal among the (d) 2500 (e) None of these
given years ? 13. What was the approximate average number of students in
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 4 School A over all the years together ?
11. Total number of students in School B and School C together (d) 1800 (e) 2700
in the year 2004 was approximately what percentage of the
total number of students in School B and School C together
in the year 2007 ?
(a) 85 (b) 80 (c) 75 (d)
184 (e) 131

SPEED TEST 26 53
Directions (Q. 14-18): Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.
Quantity of Wheat (in Thousand Tonnes) exported by Three Countries Over the Years.
1000
900
(in thousand Tonnes)
Quantity of Wheat
800
700
600 Company A
500 Company B
400
Company C
300
200
100
0
2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008
Year
14. What is the per cent increase in exports of company C from 16. Per cent rise in exports from the previous years was the
2004 to 2008 ? maximum during which year for company B ?
(a) 2005 (b) 2004 (c) 2006
(a) 50 (b) 33.33 (c) 150
(d) 133.33 (e) None of these 17. What are the average exports of company B for all the years?
15. Total exports of company A for all the years are approximately (in thousands tonnes rounded off to two digits after decimal)
what per cent of the total exports of company B for all the (a) 766.67 (b) 667.14 (c) 657.14
years ? (d) 756.57 (e) None of these
18. What is the ratio between total exports of the three companies
(a) 75 (b) 128 (c) 139
in 2003 and 2006 respectively ?
(d) 68 (e) 72 (a) 41 : 29 (b) 51 : 29 (c) 29 : 51
Directions (Q.19-23) : Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow :
Profit (in lakhs) made by three companies over the years
Profit = Income Expenditure
9
8
7
Profit (in lakhs)
6
Company A
5
Company B
4
Company C
3
2
1
0
2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
Years
19. If the Income of Company A in the year 2005 was ` 22. Profit made by Company A in the year 2002 was what per
1354300, what was its expenditure in that year ? cent of the total profit made by all the three companies in
(a) ` 921600 (b) ` 833500 (c) ` 648200 that year ?
20. If the expenditure of Company B in the year 2006 was (a) 31.25 (b) 28.24 (c) 21.43
` 2211430, what was its income in that year ? (d) 36.25 (e) None of these
(a) ` 2912260 (b) ` 2814680 (c) ` 3209670 23. What is the per cent increase in profit of Company C in the
(d) ` 2711430 (e) None of these year 2002 from the previous year ? (rounded off to the nearest
21. What is the approximate average profit made by Company
integer)
A in all the years together ?
(a) ` 398000 (b) ` 382000 (c) ` 483000 (a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 21
(d) ` 512000 (e) ` 405000 (d) 28 (e) None of these

54 SPEED TEST 26
Directions (Q. 24-28): Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.
Quantity of Various Items Sold and Price per kg
30 60
25 50
Price 20 40
Price in ` per kg
15 30 Quantity sold in quintals
10 20 Quantity
5 10
0 0
A B C D E F
Items
24. If the quantity sold of item D increased by 50% and the Profit Earned = Total Income Total Investment in the year
price reduced by 10%. What was the total value of the
quantity sold for item D ?
(a) ` 675 (b) ` 6750 (c) `67550 100
(d) ` 67500 (e) None of these 90 90 90
25. Approximately, what is the average price per kg of items A, Per cent Profit Earned 80 80 80
B&C? 70 70
65 75
(a) ` 9.50 (b) ` 8 (c) ` 7.50 60 55 70
60
(d) ` 9 (e) ` 10.50 50 55 55
50
26. What is the ratio between the total values of quantity sold 40 45
for items E & F respectively ? 30
(a) 15 : 14 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 5 : 7 20
(d) 7 : 5 (e) None of these 10
27. Total value of the quantity sold for item C is what per cent of 0
the total value of the quantity sold for item E ? 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
(a) 111 (b) 85 (c) 90 Year
28. If the price as well as the quantity sold is increased by 20% 29. If the profit earned in 2006 by Company B was `8,12,500,
for item A, what is the total value of quantity sold for item what was the total income of the company in that year?
A? (a) `12,50,000 (b) `20,62,500
(a) ` 48500 (b) ` 49000 (c) ` 42000 (c) `16,50,000 (d) `18,25,000
(e) None of these
Dircctions (Qs. 29-30): Study the following graph carefully to 30. If the amount invested by the two companies in 2005 was
answer these questions. equal, what was the ratio of the total income of the Company
Per cent profit earned by two companies producing A to that of B in 2005?
electronic goods over the years (a) 31 : 33 (b) 33 : 31
(c) 34 : 31 (d) 14 : 11
Profit Earned
% Profit = 100 (e) None of these
Total Investment

27 DI Bar Graph
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Number of Students (in Hundreds) from two Different Schools who Qualified in an Exam in six Different Years
100
90
80
Number of students
70
(in hundreds)
60
50 School P
40 School Q
30
20
10
0
2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Years
1. What was the approximate per cent increase in the number (a) 30000 (b) 30500 (c) 29000
of students who qualified in the exam from School-Q in the (d) 29500 (e) None of these
year 2007 as compared to the previous year ?
4. Total number of students who qualified in the exam from
(a) 30 (b) 36 (c) 45 School-P over all the years together was approximately what
(d) 49 (e) 26 percentage of total number of students who qualified in the
2. What was the respective ratio between the number of exam from both the schools together in the year 2006 and
students who qualified in the exam from School.-P in the 2007 together ?
year 2005 and the number of students who qualified in the (a) 143 (b) 159 (c) 155
exam from School-Q in the year 2008 ? (d) 165 (e) 147
(a) 13 : 18 (b) 17 : 18 (c) 17 : 19 5. If 40 per cent of the total students who qualified in the exam
(d) 13 : 19 (e) None of these from both the schools together over all the years are females,
3. What was the difference between the total number of then what was the total number of males who qualified in
students who qualified in the exam in the year 2005 from the exams over all the years from both the schools together ?
both the schools together and the total number of students (a) 51000 (b) 54000 (c) 56000
from School-Q who qualified in the exam over all the years
together ?
RESPONSE
GRID
56 SPEED TEST 27
DIRECTIONS (Qs.6-10): Study the given graph carefully to DIRECTIONS (Qs.11-15) : Study the following graph carefully
answer the questions that follow: and answer the questions that follow :
Number of people (in thousands) using three different types of Three Different Products (in thousands) Produced by a Company
mobile services over the years in Five Different Years
70 35
30
Number of Products
60
25
(in thousands)
50
(in thousands)
No. of People
20 Compact Disks (CD's)

40 15 Pen Drives
Key Boards
30 N 10
20 M 5
L 0
10 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
0 Years
2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
Years
11. What was the average number of Pen-drives produced by
the company over all the years together ?
6. What is the total number of people using mobile service M
in the years 2008 and 2009 together ? (a) 1700 (b) 1.7 lakh (c) 17000
(a) 35,000 (b) 30,000 (c) 45,000 (d) 85000 (e) None of these
(d) 25,000 (e) None of these 12. What was the total number of all the products produced by
7. Number of people using mobile service N in the year 2006 the company in the year 2006 and 2008 together ?
forms approximately what percent of the total number of
(a) 10750 (b) 107.5 lakh (c) 105700
people using all the three mobile services in that year ?
(a) 18 (b) 26 (c) 11
(d) 23 (e) 29 13. What was the respective ratio between the number of CDs
8. What is the respective ratio of number of people using mobile produced by the company in the year 2009 and the number
service L in the year 2005 to those using the same service in of Keyboards produced by the company in the year 2005 ?
the year 2004 ? (a) 9 : 10 (b) 11 : 10 (c) 10 : 9
(a) 8 : 7 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 19 : 13
9. The total number of people using all the three mobile 14. What is the difference between the total number of Pen-
services in the year 2007 is what percent of the total number drives and CDs produced by the company together in the
of people using all the three mobile services in the year 2008 year 2008 and the number of key boards produced by the
? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) company in the year 2006 ?
(a) 89.72 (b) 93.46 (c) 88.18 (a) 40000 (d) 4000 (c) 35000
10. What is the average number of people using mobile service
15. What was the respective ratio between the number of Key
M for all the years together ?
boards produced by the company in the years 2006, 2007
2 1 2 and 2009 ?
(a) 16 (b) 14444 (c) 16666
3 6 3
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 : 3
1 (d) 1 : 2 : 1 (e) None of these
6
SPEED TEST 27 57
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20): Study the following graph and 19. What is the difference between the number of females in
pie-chart carefully to answer the questions that follow. Organization B and the number of females in Organization
Percentage Breakup of Males and Females in the Five E?
Organizations. (a) 210 (b) 350 (c) 170
100 20. What is the number of females in Organization D?
90 (a) 3855 (b) 3250 (c) 3300
80 (d) 3675 (e) None of these
Number of People
70
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21 - 25): Study the following graph carefully
60
Female and answer the questions given below it.
50
Male Number of Students Studying in Various Colleges from
40
30 Various Faculties (Number in Thousands)
20
10
80
0
A B C D E 70 65
Organization 60 56
60
Number of Students
51.2 50
50 Arts
44
40
40 36.5 Science
33
30 30
Percentage Breakup of Employees 30 25
Commerce
in Five Different Organizations 20
[Total number (N) = 35000] 10
0
H I J K
E A Colleges
14% 18%
D
15% 21. What is the difference between the total number of students
B studying in college H and those studying in college K ?
22% (a) 16100 (b) 15800 (c) 16300
C (d) 16700 (e) None of these
31%
22. What is the total number of students studying in all the
colleges together ?
(a) 520900 (b) 520700 (c) 610200
16. Total number of employees in Organization C is 23. What is the respective ratio of the students from the faculty
approximately what per cent of total number of employees of Science from colleges H and I together to the students
in Organization D ? from the same faculty from colleges J and K together ?
(a) 147 (b) 279 (c) 312 (a) 43 : 45 (b) 41 : 43 (c) 45 : 43
(d) 207 (e) 183 (d) 43 : 41 (e) None of these
17. What is the total number of males in all the Organizations 24. The number of students from the faculty of Science from
together ? college I are approximately what per cent of the total number
(a) 13350 (b) 14700 (c) 15960 of students studying in that college ?
18. What is the total number of males in Organization A and C (d) 31 (e) 39
together ? 25. What is the average number of students from the faculty of
Commerce from all the colleges together ?
(a) 6125 (b) 8400 (c) 8025
(a) 36825 (b) 38655 (c) 35625

58 SPEED TEST 27
27. What is the respective ratio of total number of students
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-30): Study the following graph carefully
studying B.Sc. in the colleges C and E together to those
to answer the questions that follow.
Number of Students Enrolled in Three Different studying B.A. in the colleges A and B together ?
Disciplines in Five Different Colleges (a) 24 : 23 (b) 25 : 27 (c) 29 : 23
500 28. What is the respective ratio of total number of students
450 studying B.Sc., B.A. and B. Com. in all the Colleges together?
400 (a) 71 : 67 : 75 (b) 67 : 71 : 75
Number of Students
350
300 B. A.
(c) 71 : 68 : 75 (d) 75 : 71 : 68
250 B. Sc. (e) None of these
200 B. Com. 29. Number of students studying B.Com. in College C forms
150
approximately what per cent of the total number of students
100
50
studying B.Com. in all the colleges together ?
0 (a) 39 (b) 21 (c) 44
A B C D E
Colleges d) 33 (e) 17
30. Number of students studying B.A. in College B forms what
per cent of total number of students studying all the
26. What is the total number of students studying B.Sc. in all
disciplines together in that college ? (rounded off to two
the Colleges together ?
digits after decimal)
(a) 1825 (b) 1975 (c) 1650
(a) 26.86 (b) 27.27 (c) 29.84
RESPONSE
GRID
28 DI Pie Chart
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : Study the following Pie-chart carefully (a) 400 (b) 420 (c) 450
to answer these questions. (d) 480 (e) 470
Percentagewise Distribution of Teachers who Teach six 5. What is the respective ratio of the number of teachers who
Different Subjects teach Biology and the number of teachers who teach Physics?
Total Number of Teachers = 2000 (a) 6 : 7 (b) 4 : 7 (c) 3 : 5
Percentage of Teachers (d) 4 : 5 (e) None of these
English DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10): Study the following Pie-chart carefully

Biology
7% to answer these questions.
12%
Percentage of Students Enrolled in
Different Streams in a College
Total number of students = 3500
History
Economics
27%
25%
IT
20% Arts
30%
Physics Mathematics
14% Management
15%
16%
% ce
1. If five-seventh of the teachers who teach Mathematics are

12 mer
Science
m
female, then number of male Mathematics teachers is 22%

Co
approximately what percentage of the total number of

teachers who teach English ?
(a) 57 (b) 42 (c) 63
Percentage Break-up of Girls Enrolled in
(d) 69 (e) 51
These Streams out of the Total Students
2. What is the difference between the total number of teachers Total number of girls = 1500
who teach English and History together and the total number
of teachers who teach Mathematics and Biology together ?
(a) 146 (b) 156 (c) 180
(d) 160 (e) None of these IT
18%
3. If the percentage of Biology teachers is increased by 40 Arts
per cent and percentage of History teachers decreased by Managem en 38%
t
20 per cent then what will be the total number of Biology 1 2%
and History teachers together ? Sc
ie
(a) 634 (b) 654 (c) 658 Commerce 11 nce
%
(d) 778 (e) None of these 21%
4. What is the approximate average number of teachers teaching
Economics, History and Biology together ?
RESPONSE
GRID
60 SPEED TEST 28
6. What is the total number of boys enrolled in Management Female player = 2000
and IT together ?
(a) 1050 (b) 810 (c) 1120 Rugby
(d) 980 (e) None of these 10% Lawn
Tennis
7. What is the respective ratio of number of girls enrolled in Football
22%
Arts to the number of boys enrolled in Science ? 13%
(a) 14 : 23 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 114 : 121 Hockey
(d) 53 : 65 (e) None of these 15%
Cricket
8. What is the total number of girls enrolled in Science and
40%
Commerce together?
(a) 450 (b) 495 (c) 345
Percentage of females players who play different sports
9. If 20% of the girls enrolled in Science change their stream to
11. What is the average number of players (both male and
Management then what will be the new number of female) who play football and rugby together ?
Management students altogether ? (a) 620 (b) 357 (c) 230
(d) 1003 (e) None of these 12. What is the difference between the number of the female
players who play lawn tennis and the number of male players
10. Number of girls enrolled in Arts, Science and Commerce
who play rugby ?
forms. What per cent of total number of students in the (a) 94 (b) 84 (c) 220
college ? (d) 240 (e) None of these
(a) 25 (b) 40 (c) 60 13. What is the respective ratio of the number of female players
who play cricket and number of male players who play
hockey?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11 - 15): Study the following Pie-chart (a) 20 : 7 (b) 4 : 21 (c) 20 : 3
carefully to answer the questions that follow. (d) 3 : 20 (e) None of these
Percentagewise Distribution of Players Who Play Five 14. What is the total number of male players who play football,
cricket and lawn tennis together ?
Different Sports. Two players are 4200 out of which Female
(a) 1724 (b) 1734 (c) 1824
Players are Equal to 2000
Total player = 4200 15. Number of male players who play rugby is approximately
what percentage of the total number of players who play
lawn tennis ?
Rugby (a) 33 (b) 39 (c) 26
13% Lawn (d) 21 (e) 43
Tennis
Football 25% DIRECTIONS (Qs.16-20): Study the given Pie-charts carefully
17% to answer the questions that follow.
Hockey Break up of Number of Employees Working in Different
10%
Departments of an Organisation, the Number of Males and the
Cricket
35% number of Employees who Recently got Promoted in each
Department
Break up of Employees working in Different Departments :
Total Number of Employees = 3600
Percentage of players who play different sports
Employees working in Different Departments
SPEED TEST 28 61
(a) 36.18 (b) 30.56 (c) 47.22
Accounts 17. The total number of employees who got promoted from
all the departments together was what per cent of the total
20% Production
35% number of employees working in all the departments
Marketing together? (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
18% (a) 56 (b) 21 (c) 45
HR IT (d) 33 (e) 51
12% 15% 18. What is the total number of females working in the Production
and Marketing departments together ?
Break up of Number of Males in each Department (a) 468 (b) 812 (c) 582
Total Number of Males in the Organisation = 2040 (d) 972 (e) None of these
Break up of Number of Males Working cin each Department 19. If half of the number of employees who got promoted from
the IT department were males, what was the approximate
Accounts percentage of males who got promoted from the IT
5% department?
(a) 61 (b) 29 (c) 54
(d) 42 (e) 38
M 15
20. How many females work in the Accounts department ?

ar %
ke
tin
(a) 618 (b) 592 (c) 566

HR
g
Production (d) 624 (e) None of these

10% 50%
IT DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25) : Study the following Pie-charts
carefully and answer the questions given below.
20%
Disciplinewise Break up of Number of candidates
appeared in Interview and Disciplinewise Break up and
Number of candidates selected by an organization
Break up of Number of Employees who Recently got
Disciplinewise Break up of
Promoted in each Department
Number of candidates appeared
Total Number of Employees who got promoted = 1200
by the organization
Number of Employees who Recently got Promoted from
Total Number of Candidates Appeared
each Department
in the interview = 25780
Percentage
Accounts
8%
Ot
Production A
Marketing
her
gr Commerce,
33% ic
s
22% u 18
, 12
1 4 ltu
re
,
HR IT Management,
16 ing,
11% 26% 12 Science, 28

r
nee
gi
En
16. The number of employees who got promoted from the HR

department was what per cent of the total number of Disciplinewise Break up of Number of candidates selected
employees working in that department ? (rounded off to two after interview by the organization
digits after decimal) Total Number of Candidates Selected
after the interview = 7390 Percentage
RESPONSE
GRID
62 SPEED TEST 28
16 rce,
Oth
Accounts
Ag
me
Dept,
ers
ric
ul
Production
Com
, 14
7 ture, 17% Dept,
Marketing 28%
Management,
20 Science, Dept,
11 ring,
32 18% HR Dept,
nee
IT Dept, 14%
gi
En
23%
21. Approximately what was the difference between the number

of candidates selected from Agriculture discipline and Ratio of Men to Women
number of candidates selected from Engineering discipline?
Department Men Women
(a) 517 (b) 665 (c) 346
Production 11 1
(d) 813 (e) 296
HR 1 3
22. For which discipline was the difference in number of
IT 5 4
candidates selected to number of candidates appeared in
interview the maximum ? Marketing 7 5
Accounts 2 7
(a) Management (b) Engineering (c) Science
(d) Agriculture (e) None of these
26. What is the number of men working in the Marketing
23. The total number of candidates appeared in interview from department ?
Management and other discipline was what percentage of (a) 132 (b) 174 (c) 126
number of candidates appeared from Engineering discipline? (d) 189 (e) None of these
(a) 50 (b) 150 27. The number of men working in the production department
(c) 200 (d) Cannot be determined of the organization forms what per cent of the total number
of employees working in that department ?
(e) None of these
(rounded off to two digits after decimal)
24. Approximately what was the total number of candidates (a) 89.76 (b) 91.67 (c) 88.56
selected from Commerce and Agricultural discipline together? (d) 94.29 (e) None of these
(a) 1700 (b) 1800 (c) 2217 28. What is the respective ratio of the number of men working in
(d) 1996 (e) 1550 the Accounts department of the total number of employees
25. What was the ratio between the number of candidates working in that department ?
appeared in interview from other discipline and number of (a) 9 : 2 (b) 7 : 6 (c) 2 : 9
candidates selected from Engineering discipline respectively (d) 6 : 7 (e) None of these
(rounded off to the nearest integer) ? 29. What is the respective ratio of the number of Women working
in the HR department of the Organization and the total
(a) 3609 : 813 (b) 3094 : 813 (c) 3094 : 1035
number of employees in that department ?
(d) 4125 : 1035 (e) 3981 : 767
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 2 : 5 (c) 2 : 9
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-30): Study the following pie chart and (d) 3 : 7 (e) None of these
table carefully to answer the questions that follow. 30. The number of women working in the IT department of the
Percentage break up of employees working in various Organization forms approximately what per cent of the total
departments of an organization and the ratio of men to number of employees in the Organization from all
women in them departments together ?
Percentage Break up of Employees (a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 19
Total Number of Employees = 1800 (d) 15 (e) 10

29 DI Table Chart
Directions (Q. 1-5) : Study the following table carefully to answer 5. What is the approximate percentage of cancelled flights by
the questions that follow. airlines-P and R in 2007 compared to cancelled flights by
Number of flights cancelled by five different airline-S in 2005 ?
(a) 356 (b) 280 (c) 265
airlines in six different years
(d) 340 (e) 314
Airline P Q R S T Directions (Q. 6-10): Study the following table carefully to answer
Year the questions that follow.
2005 240 450 305 365 640 Number of Soldiers (in thousands) retired
2006 420 600 470 446 258
during six different years
2007 600 680 546 430 610
2008 160 208 708 550 586
2009 140 640 656 250 654 Academies
Years
2010 290 363 880 195 483 Air Army Navy Coast Guard BSF
2004 2.5 5.2 1.6 0.6 4.2
1. What was the difference between the highest number of 2005 3.7 6.1 1.9 1.8 5.1
flights cancelled by airline - Q and the lowest number of 2006 2.9 6.9 2.4 1.2 3.7
flights cancelled by airline-T out of all the six years ? 2007 5.4 7.2 2.8 2.7 5.2
(a) 446 (b) 456 (c) 432 2008 4.2 6.4 1.5 5.4 4.4
(d) 442 (e) None of these 2009 5.6 8.4 3.5 3.6 6.3
2. What was the approximate percentage increase in number
of flights cancelled by airline-S in the year 2008 as compared 6. What is the difference between the total number of Soldiers
to previous year ? retired from Air Force in the year 2006, 2007 and 2008 and the
number of Soldiers retired from Army in the year 2009 ?
(a) 127 (b) 27 (c) 150
(a) 4700 (b) 4100 (c) 3600
(d) 45 (e) 117
3. What was the average number of flights cancelled by the 7. Total number of Soldiers retired from BSF in the years 2005
airlines P, R, S and T in the year 2008 ? and 2006 together was approximately what per cent of the
(a) 551.5 (b) 501 (c) 405 total number of Soldiers retired from Navy over all the years
(d) 442.4 (e) None of these together ?
4. In 2010, 40% flights are cancelled by airline-R due to bad (a) 70 (b) 54 (c) 64 (d)
weather and technical fault. How many flights are cancelled 75 (e) 80
by airline-R due to technical fault ? 8. What was the average number of Soldiers retired together in
the year 2007 ?
(a) 528 (b) 568 (c) 468
(a) 4660 (b) 46600 (c) 23300
64 SPEED TEST 2
9. In which force the number of the soldiers retired 11. The number of candidates who did not qualify in bank K
continuously increased from the year 2004 to 2009 ? was approximately what per cent of the candidates who did
(a) Air Force (b) Army and BSF only not qualify in bank I ?
(c) Coast Guard (d) Navy only (a) 48 (b) 51 (c) 42 (d)
(e) None of these 44 (e) 53
10. What was the respective ratio between the number of Soldiers 12. What was the respective ratio of the number of candidates
retired from Army in the year 2004 and number of soldiers who qualified in bank H to the number of candidates who
retired from Coast Guard in the year 2006 ? qualified in bank L?
(a) 13 : 4 (b) 13 : 6 (c) 3 : 26 (a) 2 : 5 (b) 5 : 6 (c) 3 : 7
(d) 26 : 3 (e) None of these (d) 5 : 8 (e) None of these
Directions (Q. 11 - 15): Study the following table carefully and 13. What was the average number of candidates who appeared
answer the questions given below it. for the interview in bank H, J and L together ?
Number of Candidates Appearing for an Interview for a Post in (a) 1800 (b) 2000 (c) 1500
Various Banks and Percentage of Candidates Qualifying (d) 1700 (e) None of these
14. What was the difference between the number of candidates
Candidates Percentage of Candidates who qualified in banks I and J together and the number of
Bank
Appearing Qualifying candidates who did not qualify in the same banks ?
H 1500 14 (a) 3028 (b) 3040 (c) 3036
I 2200 26
15. What was the total number of candidates qualifying in banks
J 3000 17
K, L and M together ?
K 980 20
(a) 1042 (b) 1057 (c) 1050
L 1200 28
M 2500 21
Directions (Q. 16-20) : Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below:
Monthly expenditure (in thousands) by five people on Rent, Food, Childrens Education, Clothes and Travelling.
Expenditure Ren Food Childrens Clothes Travelling

People t Education
A 12.5 7.50 6.52 3.30 4.72
B 16.0 8.55 8.38 2.75 5.86
C 13.8 11.40 12.60 6.30 9.30
D 9.65 17.80 9.65 8.40 7.85
E 14.5 9.00 10.25 3.90 5.42
16. What is the total monthly expenditure made by D on rent, B 17. What is the average monthly expenditure on food by all the
on clothes and E on travelling together ? people together ?
(a) ` 18720 (a) ` 108500 (b) ` 10850 (c) ` 54250
(b) ` 178200 (d) ` 52450 (e) None of these
(c) ` 17800 18. Whose monthly expenditure on all the heads together is the
(d) ` 184720 lowest among them ?
(e) None of these (a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) E

SPEED TEST 2 65
19. If the monthly expenditure of C on childrens education is 20. What is the respective ratio between the monthly expenditure
increased by 5%, then what will be his yearly expenditure on made by A on travelling and the monthly expenditure made
childrens education ? by D on clothes ?
(a) ` 158760 (b) ` 1587600 (c) ` 13230 (a) 57 : 105 (b) 105 : 59 (c) 37 : 103
(d) ` 132300 (e) None of these (d) 59 : 105 (e) None of these
Directions (Q. 21-25) : Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Percentage of Marks Obtained by Various Students in
Various Subjects in an Examination
Marks
Students English (out Hindi Science History Maths Geography
(out of (out of (out of (out of (out of
of 100)
100) 100) 100) 100) 100)
A 68 75 82 60 96 55
B 88 73 85 65 88 65
C 75 56 72 75 75 80
D 70 66 80 80 72 62
E 72 60 68 74 68 75
F 85 70 90 70 74 70
21. What is approximate overall percentage obtained by C in (a) 45 (b) 55 (c) 50

the examination ? (d) 60 (e) None of these
(a) 78 (b) 69 (c) 75 24. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by D in
(d) 71 (e) 65 History and Geography together ?
22. What is the difference in the marks obtained by B in English (a) 73.40 (b) 72.80 (c) 70.50
and Maths together and the marks obtained by F in the (d) 68.80 (e) None of these
same subjects ? 25. What is the average marks obtained by all the students
(a) 24 (b) 17 (c) 15 together in Science ?
(d) 28 (e) None of these (a) 77.16 (b) 120.50 (c) 118
23. The marks obtained by E in Geography are what per cent of (d) 121 (e) None of these
the marks obtained by E in Hindi ?

GRID 24. 25.
66 SPEED TEST 2
Directions (Q. 26-30): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Number (N) of six type of Electronic Products sold by Six
different stores in a month and the price per product (P)
(price in ` 000) charged by each Store
Store A B C D E F
Product N P N P N P N P N P N P
L 54 135 48 112 60 104 61 124 40 136 48 126
M 71 4.5 53 3.8 57 5.6 49 4.9 57 5.5 45 4.7
N 48 12 47 18 52 15 54 11.5 62 10.5 56 11
O 52 53 55 48 48 50 54 49 59 47 58 51
P 60 75 61 68 56 92 44 84 46 76 59 78
Q 43 16 44 15 45 14.5 48 15.6 55 18.2 55 14.9
26. What is the total amount earned by Store C through the sale (a) ` 38.4 lakh (b) ` 0.384 lakh (c) ` 3.84 lakh
of M and O type products together ? (d) ` 384 lakh (e) None of these
(a) ` 2719.2 lakh (b) ` 271.92 lakh 29. What is the respective ratio of total number of N and L type
(c) ` 2.7192 lakh (d) ` 27.192 lakh products together sold by Store D and the same products
(e) None of these sold by Store A ?
27. Number of L type product sold by Store F is what percent of (a) 119 : 104 (b) 102 : 115 (c) 104 : 115
the number same type of products sold by Store E ? (d) 117 : 103 (e) None of these
(a) 76.33 (b) 124 (c) 83.33 30. What is the average price per product charged by all the
Stores together for Product Q ?
28. What is the difference in the amount earned by Store A
(a) ` 14700 (b) ` 15700 (c) ` 15200
through the sale of P type products and that earned by
Store B through the sale of Q type products ?
RESPONSE
GRID
v
30 Data sufficiency based on Age, Directions, Relationship
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 - 20) : Each question below is followed by 7. In a row of girls facing North, what is Ds position from the
two statements I and II. You are to determine whether the data left end?
given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You I. D is twentieth from the right end.
should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose II. There are ten girls between B and D.
between the possible answers. 8. Town M is towards which direction of Town K?
Give answer (a) if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the I. Town K is towards North-West of Town D.
question, but the statement II alone is not II. Town M is towards South - East of Town D.
sufficient. 9. How many daughters does P have?
Give answer (b) if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer
I. K and M are sisters of T.
the question, but the statement I alone is not
II. Ts father is husband of Ps mother.
sufficient.
Give answer (c) if both statements I and II together are needed to 10. Towards which direction is Village M from Village T?
answer the question. I. Village P is to the south of Village M and Village P is to
Give answer (d) if either the statement I alone or the statement II the west of Village T.
alone is sufficient to answer the question. II. Village K is to the east of Village M and Village K is to
Give answer (e) if you cannot get the answer from the statements 11.
the north of Village T.
I and II together, but need even more data. 11. How is D related to M?
1. What is the age of C, in a group of A, B, C, D and E, whose I. K and D are the only sisters of R.
average age is 45 years? II. M is married to Rs father.
I. Average of the ages of A and B is 53 years. 12. What is Rs position from the left end in a row of children
II. Average of the ages of D and E is 47 years facing South?
2. Tower P is in which direction with respect to tower Q?
I. There are forty children in the row.
I. P is to the West of H, which is to the South of Q.
II. D is tenth to the left of R and fifteenth from the right
II. F is to the West of Q and to the North of P.
end of the row.
3. How is K related to N?
I. N is the brother of M, who is the daughter of K. 13. Towards which direction was D facing when he started his
II. F is the husband of K journey?
4. What is Nidhis age? I. D walked 20 metres after he started, took a right turn
I. Nidhi is 3 times younger than Rani. and walked 30 metres and again took a right turn and
II. Surekha is twice the age of Rani and the sum of their faced West.
ages is 72. II. D walked 20 metres after he started, took a left turn and
5. What is Seemas age? walked 30 metres and again took a left turn and faced
I. Seemas age is half of Reema age West.
II. Reema is 5 years younger than her sister. 14. How many daughters does A have?
6. What is Deepalis age? I. A has four children.
I. Deepali is two times younger than Nisha. II. B and C are sisters of D who is son of A.
II. Supriya is twice the age of Nisha.
68 SPEED TEST 30
15. How far is A from the starting point? 18. Pole X is in which direction with respect to pole Y?
I. A moves 5 km. towards East, then 2 km. towards left,
I. Pole H is to the north-east of pole X and to the north of
10 km, towards right and finally. 2 km, towards right
and stops pole Y.
II. A moves 2 km. towards East, then 2 km. towards right, II. Pole R is to the east of pole X and to the north of pole Y.
13 km, towards left and finally, 2 km. towards left and
19. How many children does Seema have?
stops.
16. In a row of 40 students facing North, how many students are I. Seema, the mother of Varshas sister has only one son.
there between R and S? II. Varsha has only three siblings.
I. Ss position in the row is 15th from the right end. 20. How is Anil related to Sanjay?
II. Rs position in the row is 4th from the left end.
I. Sanjays son is the brother of only sister of Anil.
17. How many children does Suneeta have?
II. Radhika, the only daughter of Sanjay has only two
I. X is the only daughter of Suneeta.
brothers.
II. Y is brother of X.

v
31 Comparison, Critical Analysis, Date, Day based on Data Sufficiency

Direction (Qs 1 to 30): Each question below consists of a 6. Amongst, A, B, C, D, E and F, each are having a different
question and two statements numbered I and II are given height. Who is the shortest?
below it. You are to determine whether the data provided I. C is shorter than only B.
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read II. A is taller than only D and F.
both the statements and 7. How is must written in a code language?
Give answer (a) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to I. you must see is written as la pa ni and did you see
answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not is written as jo ni pa in that code language.
sufficient. II. you did that written as pa si jo in that code language.
Give answer (b) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to 8. On which day of the week does Artis birthday fall?
answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not I. Sonu correctly remembers that Artis birthday falls after
sufficient. Wednesday but before Sunday.
Give answer (c) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II II. Raj correctly remembers that Artis birthday falls before
alone are sufficient to answer the question Friday but after Tuesday.
Give answer (d) if the data in both Statements I and II are not 9. How is sure written in a code language?
sufficient to answer the question. I. he is sure is written as ja ha ma in that code language.
Give answer (e) if the data in both the Statements I and II together II. is he sure is written as ka ja ma in that code language.
are necessary to answer the question. 10. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having different age, who is the
1. What does Pe mean in a code language? youngest among them?
I. Na Si La Lo means you may go now and Ne Si Na I. Q is younger than only 11. P.
Pe means he may go there in that code language. II. S is older than only R.
II. Ki Se Pe Bo means come there and see and Se Ni Bo 11. On which day of the week did Sourav visit Delhi?
Ki means come here and see in that code language. I. Sourav visited Delhi after Monday but before Thursday
2. Who among M, N, O, P and Q is the youngest? but not on an odd day of the week.
I. N, the 2nd youngest, is younger than Q, O and M. II. Sourav visited Delhi before Friday but after Monday.
II. O, the 2nd oldest, is older than N. 12. On which day of the week from Monday to Sunday did Arub
3. What is the code for walks in the code language? leave for London?
I. In the code language she walks fast is written as he I. Arun did not leave for London during the weekend.
ka to. II. Aruns brother left for London on Friday tw days after
II. In the code language she learns fast is written as jo Arun left for London.
ka he. 13. How is new written in a code language?
4. On which month of the year was Divya born? I. new good clothes is written as 5 3 9 in that code
I. Her mother correctly remembers that Divya was born language.
after June and before September. II. good clothes are costly is written as 9 6 7 3 in that
II. Her father correctly remembers that she was born after code language.
March and before August. 14. On which day in July was definitely Mohons mothers
5. What is the code for those if in a certain language those brithday?
lovely red roses is written as pe so la ti? I. Mohan correctly temembers that mothers brithday is
I. ni jo ke pe means stopped at red light. before eighteenth but after twelfth July.
II. ba di ti ga means roses are very pretty and fo hi la II. Mohans sister correctly remembers that their mothers
means lovely day outside. birthday is after fifteenth but before nineteenth July.
70 SPEED TEST 31
15. How is near written in a code language? II. Rajesh is 16th from the top and is 5 ranks above suresh
I. go near the tree is writen as sa na pa ta in that code who is 13th from the bottom.
language. 24. Who amongst P, R, S, T and V, each having a different height,
II. tree is near home is written as jas pa da sa in that is the tallest?
code language. I. T is taller than R and V.
16. Among A, B, C, D and E, each having scored different mark II. P is shorter than R.
in an exam, who has scored the lowest marks? 25. What is the code for your in the code language ?
I. D has scored more marks than only three of them. I. In the code language buy your own book is written as
II. A has scored more marks than only E. ta na pi la and do try your best. is written as sa jo ta
17. How is jump written in a certain code language? be.
I. Jump and play is written as 3 5 7 in that code II. IN the code language please submit your reports is,
language. written as ke si do ta your house is grand is written as
II. play for now is written as 5 9 8 in that code language. fi ta go hi.
18. Among P, Q, R, S and T, each having a different height, who 26. How is come written in a code language ?
is the tallest? I. When will you come is written as da na pa ka.
I. T is taller than only P among them. II. Can you come back is writter as sa pa ka ho
II. S is shorter than only R among them. 27. On which day in March was Ws birthday?
19. On which day of the month is definitely Meenas birthday? I. Ws brother correctly remembers that Ws birthday was
I. Meenas brother correctly remembers that Meenas before fifteenth but after thirteenth March.
birthday is after 25th but before 29th of this month. II. Ws sister correctly remembers that Ws birthday was
II. Meenas father correctly remembers that Meenas after eleventh but before sixteenth March.
birthday is after 27th but before 31st of this month. 28. How is never written in a code language?
20. What does be mean in a code language? I. never do this is written as pa, da na in that code
I. sa ka ho means water satisfies thirst in that code language and do this again is written as na ka da in
language. that code language.
II. be ho na means water is blue in that code language. II. always do this in written as ma pa ja in that code
21. Among P, Q, R, S and T who reached the office first, if each language.
of them reached in different time? 29. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having a different height who is
I. R reached before Q only. the shortest?
II. S reached after P only. I. Q and R are taller than only P and T.
22. What is the code for brave in the code language? II. R is shorter than S
I. In the code language boy is brave is written as ha ka 30. What is Ks position from the left end of a row of thirty
ta children?
II. In the code language brave and clever is written as I. D is tenth from the right and of the row and there are
na pe ka five children between D and K.
23. How many children are there in the class? II. There are nine children between K and M.
I. Shamika ranks 13th from the top and is 3 ranks above
Rajesh who is 18th from the bottom.


30. a b c d e
32 Section Test : Quantitative Aptitude
1. [(58)2 (48)2] ? = 2152.96 Directions (Qs. 11-15): Study the following graph and table
(a) 60 (b) 2500 (c) 50 carefully and answer the questions given below them.
Percenta ge of Obese men, Obese women

2. 7432 92.9 18.5 = ? 35
(a) 1450 (b) 1600 (c) 1480 30
a nd Obese children
(d) 1560 (e) None of these 25 Obese men
3. 3
92 21 ? 1968 20 Obsese women
15 Obese children
(a) 1367631 (b) 111 (c) 1366731
10
3 5
4. 9634 ? 28.902 0
8
(a) 115 (b) 95 (c) 110 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
Years
5. 19.99 9.9 + 99.9 = ? Total Number of Men, Women and Children in the state over
(a) 129.79 (b) 297.801 (c) 1009 the years
(d) 296.91 (e) None of these Years Men Women Children
6. 5554.999 50.007 = ? 2004 54, 000 38, 000 15, 000
(a) 110 (b) 150 (c) 200
2005 75, 000 64, 000 21, 000
(d) 50 (e) 125
7. (18.001)3 = ? 2006 63, 000 60, 000 12, 000
(a) 5830 (b) 5500 (c) 6000 2007 66, 000 54, 000 16, 000
(d) 6480 (e) 5240 2008 70, 000 68, 000 20, 000
Directions (Qs.8-10): Find out the approximate value which should 2009 78, 000 75, 000 45, 000
replace the question mark (?) in the following questions. (You are
not expected to find out the exact value). 11. What was the approximate average of obese men, obese
women and obese children in 2007?
8. 953.7 950.9989 95? (a) 12,683 (b) 12,795 (c) 12,867
(a) 1.9 (b) 3 (c) 2.99 (d) 12,843 (e) 12,787
(d) 3.6 (e) 2.7 12. The number of obese men in the year 2009 was what per cent
3.001 of the men not suffering from obesity in the same year?
9. 1000 of 1891.992 = ? (a) 55 (b) 60 (c) 50.5
4.987
(a) 2500 (b) 1230 (c) 1640
(d) 1525 (e) 2130 13. What was the ratio of the obese women in the year 2006 to
10. the obese men in the year 2008?
0.0004 0.0001 36.000009 ?
(a) 0.10 (b) 1.45 (c) 145 (a) 6 : 7 (b) 21 : 65 (c) 15 : 73
(d) 14.5 (e) 1450 (d) 48 : 77 (e) None of these
72 SPEED TEST 32
14. What is the difference between the number of obese women Directions (Qs. 21-25): Study the following information carefully
and obese children together in the year 2006 and the number to answer these questions.
of obese men in the same year? Percentage of employees in various departments of an
(a) 5,475 (b) 5,745 (c) 4,530 organization and these male-female ratio
Total No. of Employees = 2500
(d) 31,650 (e) None of these
15. What was the total number of children not suffering from
127%
%
obesity in the year 2004 and 2005 together?
%
ts 8
11
(a) 4,350 (b) 31,560 (c) 4,530
ic s
cou
t
gis
(d) 31,650 (e) None of these
Ac
Lo
HR
16. 4 boys and three girls are to be seated in a row in such a 16% Operations
way that no two boys sit adjacent to each other. In how 18%
many different ways can it be done? IT
Marketing
(a) 5040 (b) 30 (c) 144 15% 14%
17. Mr. X invested certain amounts in two different schemes
A & B. Scheme A offers simple interest at 12 p.c.a. and Ratio Male : Female
Scheme B offers compound interest at 10 p.c.p.a. Interest
accrued on the amount invested in Scheme A in 2 years was Department Male : Female
` 3600 and the total amount invested was ` 35.000. What Administration 7:5
was interest accrued on the amount invested in Scheme B? Accounts 2:3
(a) ` 4,800 (b) ` 4,200 HR 5:3
(c) ` 4,000 (d) Cannot be determined Marketing 7:8
(e) None of these IT 3:4
18. 12 men take 36 days to do a work while 12 women complete Operations 5:4
3 Logistics 6:5
th of the same work in 36 days. In how many days 10 men Printing 2:1
4
and 8 women together will complete the same work? 21. What is the ratio of male employees in Administration to
those in Printing Department?
(a) 6 (b) 27 (a) 7 : 4 (b) 4 : 7 (c) 3 : 4
(c) 12 (d) Data inadequate (d) 7 : 3 (e) None of these
(e) None of these 22. What is the difference between the total number of employees
in IT and that in Operations Department?
19. A grocer purchased 2 kg.of rice at the rate of ` 15 per kg. and (a) 75 (b) 150 (c) 100
3 kg. of rice at the rate of ` 13 per kg. At what price per kg. (d) 50 (e) None of these
1 23. What is the ratio of the total number of males in HR and
should he sell the mixture to earn 33 % profit on the cost Marketing to the total number of females in these two
3
departments?
price?
(a) 13 : 15 (b) 15 : 13 (c) 13 : 17
(a) ` 28.00 (b) ` 20.00 (c) ` 18.40 (d) 17 : 14 (e) None of these
(d) ` 17.40 (e) None of these 24. How many female employees are there in the HR
20. A boat takes 6 hours to travel from place M to N downstream Departments?
(a) 250 (b) 120 (c) 125
and back from N to M upstream. If the speed of the boat in (d) 150 (e) None of these
still water is 4 km./hr., what is the distance between the two 25. What is the difference between the numbers of male and
places? female employees in Logistics Department?
(a) 8 kms. (b) 12 kms. (c) 6 kms. (a) 50 (b) 25 (c) 75
(d) Data inadeqate (e) None of these

SPEED TEST 32 73
Directions (Qs. 26-30): Study the following information carefully 33. In how many different ways can the letter of the word
and answer the questions given below it. BANKING be arranged?
(a) 5040 (b) 2540 (c) 5080
Out of the 15,000 candidates eligible for an Officers post in (d) 2520 (e) None of these
a Public Sector Bank, 450 candidates have prior experience of 34. Meenal purchased a car for ` 2,50,000 and sold it for
working in Public Sector banks in rural area only. 25% of the total ` 3,48,000. What is the percent profit she made on the car?
number of candidates have prior experience of working in Public
(a) 40 (b) 39.2 (c) 38.4
Sector Banks in urban areas only. 12% of the total number of
candidates have prior experience of working in Private Sector (d) 38 (e) None of these
Banks in urban areas only. 2% of the total number of candidates 35. There are some parrots and some tigers in a forest. If the
have prior experience of working in Private Sector banks in rural total number of animal heads in the forest is 858 and the total
areas only. 3,600 candidates have worked in both Public and Private number of animal legs is 1,846, what is the number of parrots
Sector Banks in urban areas only. 600 candidates have worked in in the forest?
both Public and Private Sector Banks in rural areas only. The (a) 845 (b) 833
remaining candidates have no prior experience of working in the (c) 800 (d) Cannot be determined
Banking industry. (e) None of these
26. How many candidates have prior experience of working in
Directions (Qs. 36-40): Following bar-graph shows the number
rural areas (both Public Sector and Private Sector Banks
together)? (in thousand) of tyres produced by two companies A and B during
(a) 4,350 (b) 4,950 (c) 4,800 the period 1990-95. The line graph shows the percentage of sales
(d) 4,900 (e) 4,850 of these two companies in this period.
27. How many candidates have prior experience of working in
Public Sector Banks (Urban and Rural areas together)? 100 96
(a) 12,450 (b) 8,400 (c) 10,050 90
90
(d) 10,650 (e) None of these 84
80 81
80
28. What is the ratio of the candidates who have a prior experience 75
Production (in thousand)
72
of working in Public Sector Banks in rural areas only to the 70 64 65
60
candidates who have a prior experience of working in Private 60 56
Company A
Sector Banks in rural areas only? 50 48
Company B
(a) 4 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 2 : 3 40
(d) 3 : 4 (e) None of these 30
29. What is the total number of candidates who have worked in
20
Private Sector Banks in urban areas?
(a) 1,800 (b) 2,250 (c) 4,050 10
(d) 36,600 (e) None of these 0
30. The candidates who have no prior experience of working in 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995
the banking industry are what per cent of the candidates
who have worked in Public Sector Banks in both urban and
rural areas together? 95
100 Company A Company B
(a) 60.5 (b) 63.5 (c) 62
90 84
75
31. Sonika invested an amount of ` 5800 for 2 years. At what 80
rate of compound interest will she get an amount of ` 594.50 72 72
76
at the end of two years? 70 67 70
(a) 5 pcpa (b) 4 pcpa (c) 6 pcpa 60
64
(d) 8 pcpa (e) None of these
% Sale
32. If numerator of a fraction is increased by 150% and the 50 55

denominator of the fraction is increased by 350%, the
40
25
resultant fraction is . What is the original fraction? 30
51
11 11 15 20
(a) (b) (c)
17 15 17 10
13
(d) (e) None of these 0
15 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995

74 SPEED TEST 32
36. What is the percentage rise in selling of tyres by Company (a) 2 : 3 : 3 (b) 4 : 3 : 2
A from the year 1992 to 1993? (c) 13 : 12 : 12 (d) Cannot be determined
(a) 12% (b) 8.4% (c) 17.6% (e) None of these
(d) 24.2% (e) None of these
37. In which year is the percentage rise or fall in production of Direction (Qs. 46-50) : In each of the following questions, a
tyres by Company B the maximum as compared to its question is followed by information given in three statements.
previous year? You have to study the question alongwith the statements and
(a) 1991 (b) 1992 (c) 1993 decide, the information given in which of the statement(s) is
(d) 1994 (e) 1995 necessary to answer the question.
38. The total number of tyres sold by Company A in the year
1994 is what percentage more/less than the number of tyres 46. In how many days can 16 men and 8 women together
sold by it in 1993? complete the piece of work?
(a) 12.725% (b) 18.125% (c) 22.225% I. 8 men complete the piece fo work in 10 days.
(d) 24.625% (e) 27.5% II. 16 women complete the piece of work in 10 days.
39. The total number of tyres sold by Company B in the year III. 5 women take 32 days to complete the piece of work.
1995 is what percentage of the total number of tyres produced (a) 103 (b) 109.5 (c) 113
by Company A in the year 1993? (a) Only I and II (b) Only I and III
(a) 52.5% (b) 57.6% (c) 60% (c) Only II and III (d) Only I and either II or III
(d) 62.5% (e) 78.4%
(e) Any two of the three
40. What is the ratio of the average number of tyres produced
47. What is the speed of the train?
by Company A in all six years together to the total number of
tyres sold by Company B in the year 1994? I. Train crosses a pole in 10 seconds
(a) 158:143 (b) 178:151 (c) 207:190 II. Length of the train is 240 metres.
(d) 235:224 (e) 142:193 III. Train crosses a platform of equal length in 20 seconds.
41. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and its (a) Only I and II (b) Only II and III
3 (c) All I, II and III (d) Any two of the three
denominator by 25%, then the fraction so obtained is . (e) II and either I or III
5
What is the original fraction? 48. What is the area of the square?
3 3 I. Measure of diagonal of the square is given.
(a) (b)
5 8 II. Measure of one side of square is given.
5 III. Perimeter of the square is given.
(c) (d) Cannot be determined
8 (a) Only II (b) Only III
(e) None of these (c) Only I and III (d) Only II and III
42. Sri Ganesh bought 40 kgs of wheat at ` 12.50 per kg and (e) Any one of the three
25 kgs of it at ` 15.10 per kg. He mixed them together. At 49. What is the two digit number?
what rate should he sell the mixture to earn 10% profit? I. The number obtained by interchanging the digits of
(a) ` 13.50 (b) ` 13.25 (c) ` 14.75 the number is greater than the original number by 18.
(d) ` 14.85 (e) None of these II. Sum of the two digits of the number is 14.
43. A team of 5 children is to be selected out of 4 girls and 5 III. Difference between the two digits of the number is 2.
boys such that it contains at least 2 girls. In how many
(a) Any two of the three
different ways the selection can be made?
(b) Only I and III
(a) 105 (b) 60 (c) 100
(d) 120 (e) None of these (c) II and either I or III
44. Suresh invested a sum of ` 15000 at 9 per cent per annum (d) All the three
simple interest and ` 12000 at 8 per cent per annum (e) III and either I or II
compound interest for a period of 2 years. What amount of 50. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?
interest did Suresh earn in 2 years? I. Simple interest earned per annum is ` 5,300
(a) ` 4096.60 (b) ` 4696.80 (c) ` 4896.60 II. The difference between the compound and simple
(d) ` 4698.60 (e) None of these interest on an amount is ` 1,060 at the end of 2 years.
45. A, B and C started a business with investment in the ratio III. An anount doubles itself in 5 years with simple interest.
5 : 6 : 8 respectively. After one year C withdrew 50% of (a) All the three (b) Only III
his capital and A increased his capital by 60% of his (c) Either II or III (d) Only III or I and II
investment. After two years in what ratio should the earned (e) Question cannot be answered even with the
profit be distributed among A, B and C respectively?
information in all three statements

RESPONSE
GRID
33 Alphabet and Numbers Arrangement
33
DIRECTIONS (Q. 1-5) : Answers the questions given below 9 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
'CHILDREN' each of which has as many letters between them
referring to the following arrangement:
in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet?
J * R 3 PL2 # I N 7 O C @ K 5 D = M $ 6 B< AQ 4 (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 4
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as regards (d) 2 (e) None of these
their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. 10. How many such digits are there in the number 764528 each
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) 2 3 # (b) O I C (c) K O 5 of which is as far away from the beginning of the number
(d) # P I (e) B $ < as when the digits are arranged in descending order within
2. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the the number?
following series based on the above arrangement? (a) None (b) One (c) Two
PRJ#L3712@ ON? (d) Three (e) More than three
(a) D K C (b) 5 @ O (c) D K @ 11. The letters in the word DANGEROUS are changed in such a
(d) = 5 @ (e) None of these way that the consonants are replaced by the previous letter
3. It the above series is re-arranged in the reverse order,
which will be the eleventh element to the left to the in the English alphabet and the vowels are replaced by the
sixteenth element from the left end? next letter in the English alphabet. Which of the following
(a) J (b) 6 (c) B will be the third letter from the left end of the new set of
(d) < (e) None of these letters?
4. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement (a) B (b) M (c) O
each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and (d) L (e) None of these
not immediately followed by a symbol? 12. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the
(a) None (b) Two (c) Four
next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each
(d) Three (e) None of these
5. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How
each of which is immediately preceded by a number and many vowels are present in the new arrangement?
immediately followed a consonant? (a) Four (b) One (c) Two
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Three (e) None of these
(d) More than three (e) None
6. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the third, the DIRECTIONS (Q.13- 17) : Study the sets of numbers given below
fifth, the seventh and the tenth letters of the word and answer the question, which follow:
'OUTRAGEOUS', which of the following will be the second
letter of that word? It more than one such word can be formed, 489 541 654 953 783
give 'X' as the answer and if no such word can be formed, 13. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending
give 'Y' as the answer. order, which of the following will be the lowest number?
(a) E (b) A (c) S (a) 489 (b) 541 (c) 654
(d) Y (e) X
(d) 953 (e) 783
7. The positions of the first and the second digits in the number
7986032451 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the 14. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers which of the
third and fourth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of following numbers will be the difference between the second
the following will be the fifth digit from the right end after digit of second highest number and the second digit of the
the rearrangement? highest number?
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 4 (a) Zero (b) 3 (c) 1
8. If the letters of the word 'PRINCE' are rearranged as they 15. If in each number the first and the second digits are
appear in the English alphabet, the position of how many
letters will remain unchanged after the rearrangement? interchanged, which will be the third highest number?
(a) Four (b) One (c) Two (a) 489 (b) 541 (c) 654
(d) Three (e) None of these (d) 953 (e) 783
76 SPEED TEST 33
16. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first (a) 9
digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit (b) 3
of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers? (c) 5
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) No such number can be formed
(d) 4 (e) 5 (e) More than one such number can be formed
17. If in each number, the first and the last digits are
interchanged, which of the following will be the second DIRECTIONS (Q.26-Q.30) : In each of the following questions,
highest number? two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row
(a) 489 (b) 541 (c) 654 is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and
(d) 953 (e) 783 the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The
18. How many meaningful English words can be formed with operation of numbers progress from the left to the right.
the letters ARILT using each letter only once in that word?
Rules:
(a) None (b) One (c) Two
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd
(d) Three (e) More than three
number, they are to be added.
DIRECTIONS (Q.19- 21) : The following questions are based (ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to
upon the alphabetical series given below: be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the
S L U AY J V E I O N Q G Z B D R H
19. If 'SU' is related 'HD' and 'UY' is related to 'DZ' in a certain perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from
way, to which of the following is YV related to following the the perfect square.
same pattern? (iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the
(a) ZQ (b) IN (c) BG first number is to be divided by the second number.
(d) QO (e) DZ (v) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the second
20. What will come in place of question (?) mark in the following one is to be subtracted from the first number.
series? 26. 15 8 21
LA UJ YI EG? p 3 27
(a) ZH (b) IB (c) NR If 'p' is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant
(d) QR (e) QH of the second row?
21. In a certain code 'VERB' is coded as 'YJBG' and 'QUIZ' is (a) 58 (b) 76 (c) 27
coded as 'OSVQ'. How will 'JOHN' be coded in the same (d) 82 (e) None of these
code language?
27. 12 64 17
(a) EQDG (b) AEDI (c) YIRO
(d) VNRQ (e) EQGD 20 m 16
22. The positions of the first and the sixth letters in the word If 'm ' is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant
CONTAGIOUS are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of of the second row?
the second and the seventh letters are interchanged, and so (a) 69 (b) 85 (c) 101
on. Which letter will be the second to the right of the fifth (d) 121 (e) None of these
letter from the right end? 28. 85 17 35
(a) O (b) N (c) I 16 19 r
(d) T (e) None of these If 'r' is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant
23. Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is substituted by the of the second row?
next higher digit and each even digit is substituted by the (a) 175 (b) 5 (c) 75
previous lower digit and the digit so obtained are rearranged (d) 210 (e) None of these
in ascending order, which of the following will be the third 29. 24 15 3
digit from the left end after the rearrangement?
d 6 15
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5
(d) 6 (e) None of these If 'd' is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant
24. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word of the second row?
SEARCHES each of which has as many letters between them (a) 37 (b) 8 (c) 22
in the word as in the English alphabet? (d) 29 (e) None of these
(a) None (b) One (c) Two 30. 28 49 15
(d) Three (e) More than three h 3 12
25. If it is possible to form only one such number with the third, If 'h' is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant
the sixth and the seventh digits of the number 7394261 which of the second row?
is the perfect square of a two-digit odd number, which of the (a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 19
following will be the first digit of that two-digit odd number? (d) 27 (e) None of these

RESPONSE
34 Analogy
33
34
1. A 'Square' is related to 'Cube' in the same way as a 'Circle' is 8. NUMBER : UNBMRE : : GHOST : ?
related to (a) HOGST (b) HOGTS (c) HGOST
(a) Sphere (b) Circumference (c) Diameter
(d) HGSOT (e) HGOTS
(d) Area (e) None of these
9. DRIVEN : EIDRVN : : BEGUM : ?
2. In a certain code BRIGHT is written as JSCSGG. How is
JOINED written in that code? (a) EUBGM (b) MGBEU
(a) HNIEFO (b) JPKEFO (c) JPKMDC (c) BGMEU (d) UEBGM
(d) KPJCDM (e) None of these (e) BGMUE
3. '34' is related to '12' in the same way as '59' is related to 10. PRLN : X Z T V : : J L F H : ?
(a) 45 (b) 14 (c) 42 (a) RTNP (b) NPRT (c) NRPT
(d) 38 (e) 47
(d) NTRP (e) RPNT
4. 'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is
11. XWV : UTS : : LKJ : ... ?
related to
(a) Fruit (b) Stem (c) Flower (a) IHG (b) JKL (c) STU
(d) Root (e) None of these (d) MNO (e) KIG
DIRECTIONS (Q. 5 - 24) : For each of the following questions 12. QYGO : SAIQ : : UCKS : ?
there is some relationship between the two terms to the left of :: (a) WDMV (b) VFNU (c) WDLU
and the same relationship obtains between the two terms to its
(d) VEMU (e) WEMU
right. In each of these questions the fourth term is missing. This
term is one of the alternatives among the five terms given below. 13. YAWC : UESG : : QIOK : ?
Find out this term. (a) MINC (b) MIKE (c) KOME
5. ADE : FGJ :: KNO : ? (d) MMKO (e) LIME
(a) PQR (b) TPR (c) PQT
14. CFIL : PSVY : : HKNQ : ?
(d) RQP (e) PRS
(a) NPSV (b) LPSY (c) LORU
6. DGPGJ : MPQPS : : KNENQ : ....?
(a) RUFUX (b) RFUFX (c) RXUXF (d) MOQT (e) MPSU
(d) RFUFX (e) None of these 15. 122 : 170 : : 290 : ?
7. UTS : EDC : : WVU : ? (a) 299 (b) 315 (c) 332
(a) XWV (b) WXY (c) SJM (d) 344 (e) 362
(d) RPO (e) SRP
78 SPEED TEST 34
16. 42 : 56 : : 110 : ? 25. Which of the following pairs of words have the same
(a) 132 (b) 136 (c) 144
relationship as FAN : HEAT?
(d) 148 (e) 156
17. 12 : 20 : : 30 : ? (a) Water : Drink (b) Light : Night
(a) 15 (b) 32 (c) 35 (c) Teach : Student (d) Air : Breathe
(d) 42 (e) 48
(e) Food : Hunger
18. 3 : 10 : : 08 : ?
(a) 10 (b) 13 (c) 17 26. A disease would always necessarily have
(d) 14 (e) 16 (a) Medicine (b) Bacteria (c) Cause
19. 08 : 28 : 15 : ?
(d) Cure (e) Fever
(a) 63 (b) 126 (c) 65
(d) 124 (e) 26 27. 'Army' is related to 'Land' in the same way as 'Navy' is related
20. 08 : 09 : : 64 : ? to _____.
(a) 16 (b) 25 (c) 125
(a) Ships (b) Battle (c) Water
(d) 32 (e) 20
21. 6 : 24 : : 5 : ? (d) Admiral (e) Defence
(a) 23 (b) 22 (c) 26 28. A 'Tumbler' is related to 'Empty' in the same way as a 'Seat' is
(d) 20 (e) 19
related to
22. 6 : 35 : : 11 : ?
(a) 120 (b) 115 (c) 122 (a) Occupied (b) Person (c) Chair
(d) 121 (e) 124 (d) Sitting (e) Vacant
23. 3 : 27 : : 4 : ?
29. Secretly is to openly as silently is to__
(a) 140 (b) 75 (c) 100
(d) 80 (e) 64 (a) scarcely (b) impolitely (c) noisily
3 (d) quietly (e) None of these
24. 3:3 ::5:?
8 30. Spring is to as coil as ring is to____
5 3 1 (a) rope (b) loop (c) cowl

(a) 5 (b) 5 (c) 5
8 8 8 (d) stretch (e) None of these
5 1
(d) 2 (e) 6
8 8

35
35 Classification
33
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the 8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
basis of their positions in English alphabet and so form a form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group. group?
(a) HJG (b) PQN (c) DEB (a) Garlic (b) Ginger (c) Carrot
(d) TUR (e) KLI (d) Radish (e) Brinjal
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group?
group ?
(a) Clutch (b) Wheel (c) Break
(a) Rose (b) Jasmine (c) Hibiscus (d) Car (e) Gear
(d) Marigold (e) Lotus 10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
3. Four of the following five pairs of alphas and numerals have form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
same relationship between their elements as in the case of group?
the pair PROBLEM : 2948375 and hence form a group. Which (a) 196 (b) 256 (c) 529
one does not belong to the group? (d) 576 (e) 324
(a) BORE : 8497 (b) MOEP : 5972 11. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
(c) LBOR : 3849 (d) OMEP : 4572 form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
(e) EROL : 7943 group?
4. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way (a) RPN (b) WSU (c) HDF
(d) LHJ (e) QMO
and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to
that group?
(a) DONE : NOED (b) WANT : NATW group?
(c) WITH : TIHW (d) JUST : SUTJ (a) 169 (b) 441 (c) 361
(e) HAVE : AVEH (d) 529 (e) 289
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so 13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group? group?
(a) Hill (b) Valley (c) Dam (a) PM (b) EB (c) TQ
(c) River (e) Mountain (d) IF (e) VY
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so 14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group? group?
(a) 115 (b) 85 (c) 95
(a) 50 (b) 65 (c) 170
(d) 75 (e) 155
(d) 255 (e) 290
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
group? (a) 115 (b) 161 (c) 253
(a) 21 (b) 35 (c) 42 (d) 391 (e) 345
(d) 56 (e) 49
80 SPEED TEST 35
16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so 23. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
group? to that group?
(a) OMQ (b) HFJ (c) TPR (a) KP (b) BY (c) DW
(d) TRV (e) VTX (d) HU (e) GT
24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on
hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
the English alphabetical series and so form a group. Which
to that group?
is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) JLNK (b) TVXU (c) ACEB
(a) MLJ (b) WVT (c) OMK (d) PRTQ (e) GJKH
(d) JIG (e) TSQ 25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that to that group?
group? (a) GIJF (b) OQRN (c) KMNL
(a) Diabetes (b) Smallpox (d) UWXT (e) CEFB
(c) Conjunctivitis (d) Chickenpox 26. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
(e) Plague hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so to the group?
(a) Break (b) Change (c) Split
(d) Divide (e) Separate
group?
27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
(a) Mustard (b) Jowar (c) Wheat hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
(d) Paddy (e) Bajra to the group?
20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so (a) Train (b) Instruct (c) Educate
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that (d) Advocate (e) Coach
group? 28. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
(a) 45 (b) 35 (c) 85 hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
(d) 25 (e) 75 to the group?
21. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and (a) Extend (b) Higher (c) Upward
(d) Rise (e) Ascend
hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
(a) Succeed (b) Victory (c) Triumph
group?
(d) Compete (e) Win
(a) Volume (b) Size (c) Large
22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and (d) Shape (e) Weight
hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong 30. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
to that group? form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
(a) Fair (b) Impartial (c) Indifferent group?
(d) Unbiased (e) Just (a) Anxiety (b) Worry (c) Inhibition
(d) Curiosity (e) Weariness

36
36 Series - I
33
DIRECTIONS (Q. 1 - 12) : What should come in place of question 9. 12 18 36 102 360 (?)
mark (?) in the following number series? (a) 1364 (b) 1386 (c) 1384
1. 1050 420 168 67.2 26.88 10.752 ?
10. 71 78 99 134 183 (?)
(a) 4.3008 (b) 6.5038 (c) 4.4015
(a) 253 (b) 239 (c) 246
2. 0 6 24 60 120 210 ?
11. 342 337.5 328.5 315 297 (?)
(a) 343 (b) 280 (c) 335
(a) 265.5 (b) 274.5 (c) 270
3. 15 19 83 119 631 (?)
12. 161 164 179 242 497 (?)
(a) 731 (b) 693 (c) 712
(a) 1540 (b) 1480 (c) 1520
4. 19 26 40 68 124 (?)
(a) 246 (b) 238 (c) 236 DIRECTIONS (Q. 13 - 21) :In each of these questions, a number
(d) 256 (e) None of these series is given. In each series, only one number is wrong number.
5. 11 10 18 51 200 (?) Find out the wrong number.
(a) 885 (b) 1025 (c) 865
13. 3601 3602 1803 604 154 36 12
(a) 3602 (b) 1803 (c) 604
6. 14 24 43 71 108 (?)
(d) 154 (e) 36
(a) 194 ( b) 154 (c) 145
14. 4 12 42 196 1005 6066 42511
(a) 12 (b) 42 (c) 1005
7. 144 173 140 169 136 (?)
(d) 196 (e) 6066
(a) 157 ( b) 148 (c) 164
15. 32 16 24 65 210 945 5197.5
(a) 945 (b) 16 (c) 24
8. 656 352 200 124 86 (?)
(d) 210 (e) 65
(a) 67 (b) 59 (c) 62
82 SPEED TEST 36
16. 7 12 40 222 1742 17390 208608 24. 354 180 64 21 10.2 ?
(a) 7 (b) 12 (c) 40 (a) 5.6 (b) 8.7 (c) 3.8
(d) 1742 (e) 208608 (d) 1.7 (e) None of these
17. 6 91 584 2935 11756 35277 70558 25. 4.5 18 2.25 ? 1.6875 33.75
(a) 91 (b) 70558 (c) 584 (a) 27 (b) 25.5 (c) 36
18. 9050 5675 3478 2147 1418 1077 950 26. 59.76 58.66 56.46 52.06 ? 25.66
(a) 3478 (b) 1418 (c) 5675 (a) 48.08 (b) 46.53 (c) 43.46
(d) 2147 (e) 1077 (d) 43.26 (e) None of these
19. 8424 4212 2106 1051 526.5 263.25 131.625 27. 36 157 301 470 ? 891
(a) 131.625 (b) 1051 (c) 4212 (a) 646 (b) 695 (c) 639
(d) 8424 (e) 263.25 (d) 669 (e) None of these
20. 850 600 550 500 475 462.5 456.25 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 28 to 30) : Which one of the letters when
(a) 600 (b) 550 (c) 500 sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall
(d) 4625 (e) None of these complete it?
21. 8 12 24 46 72 108 216 28. abbcbcacbab
(a) 12 (b) 24 (c) 46 (a) a b c c (b) acbc (c) b a a a
(d) 72 (e) None of these (d) c c a a (e) None of these
29. a b c b b a c c a ba
DIRECTIONS (Q. 22 - 27) :What should come in place of question
mark (?) in the following number series? (a) c c a b (b) bbca (c) a c b c
(d) a a c b (e) None of these
22. 980 484 260 112 50 ? 3.5 30. acacbcbacab
(a) 25 (b) 17 (c) 21 (a) c a c b (b) babc (c) a b a c
(d) 29 (e) None of these (d) b a b a (e) None of these
23. 1015 508 255 129 66.5 ? 20.875
(a) 34.50 (b) 35 (c) 35.30

37 Series - II 37
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 to 5): In each of these questions, a number 8. 7 6 10 27 104 515
series is given. In each series, only one number is wrong. Find out 9 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
the wrong number. What will come in place of (4)?
1. 3601 3602 1803 604 154 36 12 (a) 152 (b) 156 (c) 108
(d) 154 (e) 36 9. 6 16 57 244 1245 7506
2. 4 12 42 196 1005 6066 42511 4 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(a) 12 (b) 42 (c) 1005 What will come in place of (4)?
(d) 196 (e) 6066 (a) 985 (b) 980 (c) 1004
3. 2 8 12 20 30 42 56 (d) 1015 (e) None of these
(a) 8 (b) 42 (c) 30 10. 8 9 20 63 256 1285
(d) 20 (e) 12 5 (1) (2) (3) (4)(5)
4. 32 16 24 65 210 945 5197.5 What will come in place of (5)?
(a) 945 (b) 16 (c) 24 (a) 945 (b) 895 (c) 925
5. 7 13 25 49 97 194 385 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11 to 15): What will come in place of question
(a) 13 (b) 49 (c) 97 mark (?) in the following number series?
(d) 194 (e) 25
11. 12, 30, 56, 90, 132, ?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6 to 10): In each of these questions a number (a) 178 (b) 182 (c) 185
series is given. Below the series one number is given followed by (d) 189 (e) 196
(1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). You have to complete this series following 12. 91, 381, 871, 1561, 2451, ?
the same logic as in the original series and answer the question (a) 3541 (b) 3621 (c) 3681
that follow.
(d) 3716 (e) 3772
6. 5 9 25 91 414 2282.5 13. 110, 440, 990, 1760, 2750, ?
3 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) 3680 (b) 3610 (c) 37820
What will come in place of (3)? (d) 3840 (e) 3960
(a) 63.25 (b) 63.75 (c) 64.25 14. 5, 6, 11, 20, 33, 50, ?
(a) 64 (b) 71 (c) 78
7. 15 9 8 12 36 170
(d) 81 (e) 84
19 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
What will come in place of (2)? 15. 2, 7, 24, 77, 238, 723, ?
(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 22 (a) 1948 (b) 1984 (c) 2010
84 SPEED TEST 37
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 to 20): Which is the next number in the DIRECTIONS (Q. 26- 30) : In each of the following questions a
following number series? number series is given. After series, below i t, a number alongwith
16. 780, 681, 592, 513, 444, 385,? (1), (2), (3) (4) and (5) is given. You have to complete the series
(a) 320 (b) 324 (c) 332 following the same sequence as that of the given series. Then
(d) 336 (e) 340 answer the question that follows.
17. 6, 17, 55, 196, 825,?
26. 8 6 9 23 87 429
(a) 4176 (b) 4212 (c) 4232
(d) 4256 (e) 4281 6 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
18. 72, 193, 293, 374, 438, 487,? What will come in place of (3) ?
(a) 521 (b) 523 (c) 525 (a) 21 (b) 11 (c) 19
19. 4,45,368,2583,15504,? 27. 2 3 10 29 172 885
(a) 77521 (b) 77522 (c) 77523 1 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(d) 77524 (e) 77525 What will come in place of (2) ?
20. 180, 271, 352, 423, 484, 535,? (a) 11 (b) 7 (c) 9
(d) 579 (e) 580
28. 5 7 10 36 136 690
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21 to 25) : Which one of the letters when 2 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall What will come in place of (5) ?
complete it? (a) 310 (b) 330 (c) 110
21. a c a b c b c c b c a (d) 64 (e) None of these
(a) b b a b (b) b a b a (c) a a b b 29. 8 9 13 11.5 18 14
(d) b b a a (e) None of these 12 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
22. What will be the next term in ? What will come in place of (4) ?
DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ........... (a) 13.5 (b) 19.5 (c) 22
(a) LKPO (b) ABYZ (c) JIRQ (d) 18 (e) None of these
(d) LMRS (e) None of these 30. 8 4 6 15 52.5 236.25
23. ZXVTR.... 12 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(a) O, K (b) N, M (c) K, S What will come in place of (4) ?
(d) M, N (e) P, N (a) 36.25 (b) 33.25 (c) 26.75
24. C, e, G, i, K.... (d) 32.75 (e) None of these
(a) O, K (b) m, O (c) k, M
(d) M, k (e) O, p
25. m_ _ l m _ l _ m m _ l
(a) mllml (b) mlmll (c) llmlm
(d) mmlml (e) llmll

38 Coding & Decoding 38
1. In a certain code ENGLISH is written as FMHKJRI. How is 6. JAQDKP
OCTOBER written in that code? (a) 85%38 (b) $5%3$ (c) $5%38
(a) PBUNCDS (b) PBUCNSD (c) BPUNCSD (d) $53%8 (e) None of these
(d) PBUCNDS (e) None of these 7. QDBGRM
2. If a 'truck' is called 'train', 'train' is called 'tractor', 'tractor' is (a) %*617 (b) $*67 (c) %*167
called 'ship', 'ship' is called 'aeroplane', 'aeroplane' is called (d) % *61 (e) None of these
'bulldozer' and bulldozer' is called 'scooter' which of the
8. IKQLMS
following can fly?
(a) 43#74 (b) 3#7 (c) 43#74
(a) Ship (b) Aeroplane (c) Bulldozer
(d) 93#74 (e) None of these
(d) Tractor (e) None of these
3. In a certain code language 'te da ka ni' means 'intelligence 9. In a certain code MODE is written as #8%6 and DEAF is
is in genes', 'se po lo ni' means, 'genes are not responsible' written as %67$. How is FOAM written in that code?
and 'ba da fu te' means 'intelligence is through experience'. (a) $87# (b) $#7% (c) #87%
What does 'ka' stand for in that code language? (d) $87% (e) None of these
(a) genes (b) through 10. If '+' means '', '' means '', '' means '' and '' means '+'
(c) intelligence (d) in then what is the value 9 7 + 85 17 15 = ?
(e) responsible (a) 73 (b) 83 (c) 79
DIRECTIONS (Q.4-Q.8) : In each of these questions a group of
11. If the alphabets are assigned values such as A = 3, D = 6,
letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol
G = 8, I =2, L = 4 and T =5 then what is the sum of values of
numbered (a), (b), (c) & (d). Letters are to be coded as per the
scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
serial number of the combination, which represents the letter (a) 26 (b) 28 (c) 30
group. Serial number of that combinations is your answer. If (d) 32 (e) None of these
none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (e) i.e. 12. In a certain code WEAK is written as 5%9$ and WHEN is
'None of these'. written as 5*%7. How HANK written in that code?
(a) *9$7 (b) 9*$7 (c) $97*
Letters D K M B I N P R J A L S E Q G
(d) 9*7$ (e) None of these
Number /
% 3 7 H 4 @ $ 1 8 5 # 9 2 6 13. In a certain code BRIGHT is written as JSCSGF. How is
Symbol Code
JOINED written in that code?
Conditions (a) HNIEFO (b) JPKEFO (c) JPKMDC
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, (d) KPJCDM (e) None of these
both are to be coded as the code of the vowel. 14. In a certain code BOARD is written as 51324 and SIDE is
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the written as 9647. How is BASE written in that code?
codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged. (a) 5397 (b) 5937 (c) 5697
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second (d) 5297 (e) None of these
and the fifth letters are to be coded as .
15. If 'P' denotes '', 'Q' denotes '', 'R' denotes '' and 'T' denotes
4. KQAPJE '+'; then
(a) 35$82 (b) 358$2 (c) 25$82
24 T 16 Q 32 P 8 R 4 = ?
(d) 25$83 (e) None of these
5. EMANRB 1
(a) 4 (b) 39 (c)
(a) *75@12 (b) 275@1* (c) 75@2 4
(d) *75@1* (e) None of these (d) 40 (e) None of these
86 SPEED TEST 38
16. In a certain code ORGANISE is written as BHSPDRHM. 22. OUBNYE
How is DESTINED written in that code? (a) b58152 (b) b#8152 (c) 2#815b
(a) SRDCCDMH (b) SRDCEFOJ (d) 25815b (e) b581#2
(c) UTFECDMH (d) UTFEEFMH 23. In a certain code language 'TERMINAL' is written as
(d) None of these 'NSFUMBOJ' and 'TOWERS' is written as 'XPUTSF'. How is
17. In a certain code language JOURNEY is written as TNISZFO. 'MATE' written in that code?
How is BONDING written in that code language? (a) FUBN (b) UFNB (c) BNFU
(a) ANMEHOJ (b) MNAEHOJ (d) BNDS (e) None of these
(c) MNAEJOHJ (d) OPCEFMH 24. In a certain code language, 'how can you go' is written as 'ja
(e) None of these da ka pa', 'can you come here' is written as 'na ka sa ja' and
'come and go' is written as 'ra pa sa'. How is 'here' is written
DIRECTIONS (Q.18-22) : In each question below is given a in that code language?
group of letters followed by five combinations of number / (a) ja (b) na (c) pa
symbol codes numbered 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). You have to find out (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
which of the combinations correctly represents the group of 25. In a certain code THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU. How is
letters based on the following coding system and the conditions SOULFUL written in that code?
and mark the number of that combination as your answer. Two (a) VPTKKTE (b) VPTKETK (c) TPVKKTE
or more conditions may be applicable to a single combination. (d) TNRKMVG (e) None of these
Letter : P MA C X E D O U H B N Z Y G 26. In a certain code language 'how many goals scored' is written
Number / symbol Code: 3 $ 4 7 9 b 6 2 # 8 1 % 5 ? as '5 3 9 7'; 'many more matches' is written as '9 8 2'; and 'he
Conditions : scored five' is written as '1 6 3'. How is goals' written in that
(i) If both the first and last elements are vowels, the codes code language?
for the vowels are to be interchanged. (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 5 or 7
(ii) If the group of elements contains a single vowel, that (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
vowel is to be coded as the code for the element 27. In a certain code BUILDER is written as JVCKSFE. How is
following it. SEALING written in that code?
(iii) If the second element is a vowel and the fifth element is (a) BTFKHOJ (b) JOHKBFT (c) TFBKHOJ
a consonant, the vowel is to be coded as the code for (d) BFTKJOH (e) None of these
the consonant. 28. In a certain code BLACK is written as 'ALBKC' and SMART
18. PXUNCM is written as 'AMSTR'. How is CLOCK written in that code?
(a) $9#173 (b) $91173 (c) 39717$ (a) CLOKE (b) CLOCK (c) OLCKC
(d) 39117$ (e) 39#17$ (d) OLCCK (e) None of these
19. DEHAZN 29. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as 'PKBNXSHQ',.
(a) 6b441 (b) 6%4%1 (c) 114%6 How is SANCTION written in that code?
(d) 6b4b7 (e) 6%4%1 (a) TBODMNHS (b) DOBTMNHS
20. MHCYBG (c) TBODSHNM (d) DOBTOPJU
(a) $758? (b) ?758$ (c) $?758 (e) None of these
(d) 758$? (e) ? c 57$8 30. 'BE' is related to 'GJ' in the same way as 'PS' is related to
21. OMPCZA (a) UY (b) UX (c) UZ
(a) 2$37%4 (b) 437$%2 (c) 4$37%2 (d) VY (e) None of these
(d) 2%37$4 (e) 4$3722

RESPONSE
39 Direction & Distance
33
39
1. Starting from Point X, Joy walked 15 metres towards West. 7. Towards which direction was the vehicle moving before it
He turned left and walked 20 metres. He again turned left stopped at point Q?
and walked 15 metres. After which he turned right and walked (a) North (b) East (c) South
for another 12 metres. How far is Joy from point X if he is (d) West (e) North-East
facing North at present? 8. Raman starts from point P and walks towards South and
(a) 27 m (b) 35 m (c) 32 m stops at point Q. He now takes a right turn followed by a left
turn and stops at point R. He finally takes a left turn and
(d) 42 m (e) None of these stops at point S. If he walks 5 km before taking each turn,
2. Town D is 12 km towards the North of town A. Town C is 15 towards which direction will Raman have to walk from point
km towards the West of town D. Town B is 15 km towards S to reach point Q?
the West of town A. How far and in which direction is town (a) North (b) South (c) West
B from town C? (d) East (e) North-West
(a) 15 km towards North (b) 12 km towards North 9. Town D is to the West of town M. Town R is to the South of
(c) 3 km towards South (d) 12 km towards South town D. Town K is to the East of town R. Town K is towards
(e) cannot be determined which direction of town D?
3. Rahul started from point A and travelled 8 km towards (a) South (b) East
the North to point B, he then turned right and travelled 7 (c) North-East (d) South-East
(e) None of these
km to point C, from point C he took the first right and
10. Mohan walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and
drove 5 km to point D, he took another right and travelled walked 15 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 20
7 km to point E and finally turned right and travelled for metres. He again took a right turn and walked 15 metres.
another 3 km to point F. What is the distance between How far is he from the starting point?
point F and B? (a) 95 metres (b) 50 metres
(a) 1 km (b) 2 km (c) 3 km (c) 70 metres (d) Cannot be determined
(d) 4 km (e) None of these (e) None of these
4. Meghna drives 10 km towards South, takes a right turn and 11. W walked 40 metres towards West, took a left turn and walked
drives 6 km. She then takes another right turn, drives 10 km 30 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 20 metres,
and stops. How far is she from the starting point? He again took a right turn and walked 30 metres. How far
(a) 16 km (b) 6 km (c) 4 km was he from the starting point?
(d) 12 km (e) None of these (a) 70 metres (b) 60 metres
(c) 90 metres (d) Cannot be determined
5. Vikas walked 10 metres towards North, took a left turn and
(e) None of these
walked 15 metres, and again took a left turn and walked 10 12. Town D is 13 km towards the East of town A. A bus starts
metres and stopped walking. Towards which direction was from town A, travels 8 km towards West and takes a right
he facing when he stopped walking? turn. After taking the right turn, it travels 5 km and reaches
(a) South (b) South-West town B. From town B the bus takes a right turn again, travels
(c) South-East (d) Cannot be determined 21 km and stops. How far and towards which direction must
(e) None of these the bus travel to reach town D?
(a) 13 km towards South (b) 5 km towards West
DIRECTIONS (Q. 6 & 7) : Study the following information (c) 21 km towards South (d) 5 km towards South
carefully to answer these questions. (e) None of these
A vehicle starts from point P and runs 10 km towards North. It DIRECTIONS (Q. 13 & 14) : Study the following information
takes a right turn and runs 15 km. It now runs 6 km after taking a carefully to answer these questions.
left turn. It finally takes a left turn, runs 15 km and stops at point Q.
Point P is 9 m towards the East of point Q. Point R is 5 m towards
6. How far is point Q with respect to point P? the South of point P. Point S is 3 m towards the West of point R.
(a) 16 km (b) 25 km (c) 4 km Point T is 5 m towards the North of point S. Point V is 7 m towards
(d) 0 km (e) None of these the South of point S.
RESPONSE
GRID
11. a b c d e 12. a b c d e
88 SPEED TEST 39
13. If a person walks in a straight line for 8 m towards West from How far and in which direction is she now from her home?
point R, which of the following points would he cross the (a) 9 km towards South
first?
(b) 130 km towards South-East.
(a) V (b) Q (c) T
(d) S (e) Cannot be determined (c) 130 km towards South-West.
14. Which of the following points are in a straight line? (d) 11 km towards North-West.
(a) P, R, V (b) S, T, Q (c) P, T, V
(e) None of these
(d) V, T, R (e) S, V, T
15. P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a straight line facing North. P DIRECTIONS (Qs. 22 - 25) : These questions are based on the
sits next to S but not to T. Q is sitting next to R who sits on diagram given below showing four persons stationed at the four
the extreme left corner. Who sits to the left of S if T does not corners of a square piece of plot as shown.
sit next to Q?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R C A
(d) T (e) Cannot be determined E
16. A person travels 12 km due North, then 15 km due East, after
that 15 km due West and then 18 km due South. How far is
he from the starting point? N S
(a) 6 km (b) 12 km (c) 33 km
(d) 60 km (e) 65 km
17. In a meeting, the map of a village was placed in such a
manner that south-east becomes north, north-east becomes W
B D
west and so on. What will south become?
(a) North (b) North-east (c) North-west 22. A starts crossing the plot diagonally. After walking half the
(d) West (e) South distance, he turns right, walks some distance and turns left.
18. A school bus driver starts from the school, drives 2 km Which direction is A facing now?
towards North, takes a left turn and drives for 5 km. He then (a) North-east (b) North (c) North-west
takes a left turn and drives for 8 km before taking a left turn (d) South-east (e) None of these
again and driving for further 5 km. The driver finally takes a 23. From the original position given in the above figure, A and
left turn and drives 1 km before stopping. How far and B move one arm length clockwise and then cross over to the
towards which direction should the driver drive to reach the corner diagonally opposite; C and D move one arm length
school again? anti-clockwise and cross over the corner diagonally
(a) 3 km towards North (b) 7 km towards East opposite. The original configuration ADBC has now
(c) 6 km towards South (d) 6 km towards West changed to :
(e) 5 km towards North (a) CBDA (b) DACB (c) BDAC
19. The houses of A and B face each other on a road going (d) ACBD (e) ADCB
north-south, As being on the western side. A comes out of 24. From the original position, B and D move one and a half
his house, turns left, travels 5 km, turns right, travels 5 km to length of sides clockwise and anti-clockwise respectively.
the front of Ds house. B does exactly the same and reaches Which one of the following statements is true?
the front of Cs house. In this context, which one of the (a) B and D are both at the midpoint between A and C
following statements is correct ? (b) B is at the midpoint between A and C, and D is at the
(a) C and D live on the same street. corner originally occupied by A.
(b) Cs house faces south. (c) D is at the midpoint between A and C, and B is at the
(c) The houses of C and D are less than 20 km apart. corner originally occupied by C.
(d) Cs houses faces west. (d) B and D are both at the midpoint between A and D.
(e) None of the above
(e) None of these
20. Roma walked 25 metre towards south, took a right turn and
25. From the positions in the original figure, C and A move
walked 15 metre. She then took a left turn and walked 25
diagonally to opposite corners and then one side each
meter. Which direction is she now from her starting point?
clockwise and anti-clockwise respectively. B and D move
(a) South-east (b) South (c) South-west
two sides each clockwise and anti-clockwise respectively.
(d) North-west (e) None of these
Where is A now?
21. Anu starts from her home, walks 5 km towards South, takes
(a) At the north-west corner
a left turn and walks 3 km. She then takes a right turn and
walks 2 km before taking a right turn again and walking (b) At the south-east corner
3 km. She then takes a left turn and walks 4 km before taking (c) At the north-east corner
a left turn and walking 3 km before stopping. (d) At the south-west corner
(e) None of these

40 Blood Relation
33
40
1. Pointing to a boy, Urmila said, "He is the son of my 7. In F R + H T, how is F related to T?
grandfather's only daughter." How is Urmila related to the (a) Son-in-law (b) Daughter-in-law
boy? (c) Son (d) Daughter
(a) Mother (b) Maternal Aunt (e) None of these
(c) Paternal Aunt (d) Data inadequate 8. In G T + Q M, how is M related to G?
(e) None of these (a) Brother (b) Sister
(c) Sister-in-law (d) Cannot be determined
DIRECTIONS (Q. 2 & 3) : Study the following information (e) None of these
carefully to answer the questions given below: 9. D is brother of B. M is brother of B. K is father of M. T is wife
(i) 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q'. of K. How is B related to T?
(ii) 'P Q' means 'P is brother of Q'. (a) Son (b) Daughter
(iii) 'P Q' means 'P is mother of Q'. (c) Son or Daughter (d) Data inadequate
(iv) 'P + Q' means 'P is father of Q'. (e) None of these
2. Which of the following means 'M is maternal uncle of T?
(a) M K + T (b) M K + T (c) M K T DIRECTIONS (Q.10-14) : Read the following information carefully
(d) M K T (e) None of these and answer the questions which follow:
3. Which of the following means 'H is paternal grandfather (i) 'P Q' means 'P is son of Q'.
of T? (ii) 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q'.
(a) H + J + T (b) T K + H (c) H + J T (iii) 'P + Q' means 'P is brother of Q'.
(d) H J + T (e) None of these (iv) 'P Q' means 'P is mother of Q'.
4. Madhu said, 'My mother's only son Ashok has no son'. 10. How is T related to S in the expression 'T R + V S'?
Which of the following can be concluded? (a) Sister (b) Mother (c) Aunt
(a) Ashok has only daughters. (d) Uncle (e) None of these
(b) Ashok is not married. 11. How is T related to S in the expression 'T R V S'?
(c) Ashok does not have a father. (a) Father (b) Sister
(d) Ashok has only one sister (c) Daughter (d) Aunt
12. How is S related to T in the expression 'T + R V + S'?
DIRECTIONS (Q. 5-8) : These questions are based on the
(a) Uncle (b) Nephew
following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
(c) Son (d) Cannot be determined
(i) 'A B' means 'A is father of B'. (e) None of these
(ii) 'A B' means 'A is daughter of B'. 13. Which of the following means that 'S is the husband of T'?
(iii) 'A + B' means 'A is sister of B'. (a) T R V + S (b) T R V S (c) TR+VS
(iv) 'A B' means 'A is husband of B'. (d) T R V + S (e) None of these
5. In F R H L, how is H related to F? 14. How is V related to T in the expression 'T R + V S'?
(a) Father (b) Brother (a) Aunt (b) Nephew (c) Niece
(c) Sister (d) Cannot be determined (d) Uncle (e) None of these
(e) None of these 15. Pointing to a girl, Arun said, "She is the only daughter of my
6. Which of the following indicates 'N is mother of K'? grandfather's son." How is the girl related to Arun?
(a) K + L N F (b) K + L N M (a) Daughter (b) Sister
(c) H K N (d) N F + K (c) Cousin sister (d) Data inadequate
90 SPEED TEST 40
16. Pointing to a photograph, Rasika said "He is the grandson 24. There is a family of 6 persons A, B, C, D, E and F. There are
of my grandmother's only son". How is the boy in two married couples in the family. The family members are
photograph related to Rasika? lawyer, teacher, salesman, engineer, accountant and doctor.
(a) Son (b) Nephew D, the salesman is married to the lady teacher. The doctor is
(c) Brother (d) Cannot be determined married to the lawyer. F, the accountant is the son of B and
(e) None of these brother of E. C, the lawyer is the daughter-in-law of A. E is
the unmarried engineer. A is the grandmother of F. How is E
DIRECTIONS (Q.17- 21) : Read the following information carefully related to F?
and answer the questions which follows :
(a) Brother
'A B' means 'A is brother of B'. (b) Sister
'A B' means 'A is daughter of B'. (c) Father
'A B' means 'A is wife of B'. (d) Cannot be established (cannot be determined)
'A + B' means 'A is son of B'. (e) None of these
17. How is T related to P in the expression 'P + Q R T'?
(a) Maternal grandmother DIRECTIONS (Q.25- 30) : Study the following information
(b) Maternal grandfather carefully to answer the given questions.
(c) Paternal grandmother
(d) Grandson J, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are 4 married couples sitting in a circle
(e) None of these facing the centre. The profession of the males within the group
18. Which of the following means 'P is sister of S'? are Lecturer, Lawyer, Doctor and Scientist. Among the males only
(a) P + Q R S (b) P + Q R S R (the Lawyer) and V (the Scientist) are sitting together. Each man
(c) P Q R S (d) P Q + R S is seated besides his wife. U, the wife of the Lecturer is seated
(e) None of these second to the right of V. T is seated between U and V. P is the wife
19. How is P related to S in the expression 'S R + Q P'? of the Doctor. Q is not the Doctor. S is a male.
(a) Father (b) Grandson (c) Son 25. Which of the following is P's position with respect to S?
(d) Grandfather (e) None of these (a) Second to the right (b) Second to the left
20. How is R related to P in the expression 'P + Q R T'? (c) Immediate right (d) Immediate left
(a) Niece (b) Paternal Uncle (e) Third to the left
(c) Paternal Aunt (d) Either (b) or (c) 26. Which of the following is J's position with respect to T?
(e) None of these (a) Third to the left (b) Fourth to the right
21. How is S related to P in the expression 'P Q R S'? (c) Third to the right (d) Opposite T
(a) Nephew (b) Uncle (c) Aunt (e) Second to the right
(d) Either (b) or (c) (e) None of these 27. Which of the following is not true regarding the couples?
22. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of (a) P is the wife of S
4 adults and 3 children, two of whom, F and G are girls. A and (b) T is the wife of Q
D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to
(c) R is the husband of J
one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D
and G is their child. Who is C ? (d) J and S are seated adjacent to each other
(a) G's brother (b) F's father (c) E's father (e) All are true
(d) A's son (e) None of these 28. The wives of which two husbands are immediate
23. Examine the following relationships among members of a neighbours?
family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F. (a) UT (b) SR (c) VQ
1. The number of males equals that of females (d) RV (e) None of these
2. A and E are sons of F. 29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their
3. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl seating position in the above arrangement and so form a
4. B is the son of A group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
5. There is only one married couple in the family at present (a) RSJ (b) TRV (c) VTV
Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from (d) SGP (e) UPQ
the above?
30. Who is the Lawyer's wife?
(a) A, B and C are all females
(b) A is the husband of D (a) T (b) P
(c) E and F are children of D (c) J (d) U
(d) D is the grand daughter of F (e) None of these
(e) None of these

41
41 Time, Sequence, Number and Ranking Test
DIRECTIONS (Q. 1-5) : Study the following arrangement 7. In a row of forty children, R is eleventh from the right end
carefully and answer the questions given below: and there are fifteen children between R and M. What is M's
position from the left end of the row?
426138958165158539492321572624274
1. If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, (a) Fourteenth (b) Fifteenth
which of the following will be seventh from the right end of (c) Thirteenth (d) Cannot be determined
the arrangement? (e) None of these
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 1 8. In a row of forty boys facing North, R is twelfth from the left
(d) 9 (e) 7 end and T is eighteenth from the right end. How many boys
2. How many such 2s are there in the above arrangement are between R and T in the row?
each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit (a) 10 (b) 11
and also immediately followed by an odd digit? (c) 12 (d) Cannot be determined
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (e) None of these
(d) Three (e) More than three 9. Mohit correctly remembers that his father's birthday is not
3. How many such 1s are there in the above arrangement, after eighteenth of April. His sister correctly remembers that
each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect square? their father's birthday is before twentieth but after
(a) None (b) One (c) Two seventeenth of April. On which day in April was definitely
(d) Three (e) More than three their father's birthday?
4. If one is added to each of the even digits and two is (a) Seventeenth
added to each of the odd digits given in BOLD in the (b) Nineteenth
above arrangement, how many digits will appear twice in (c) Eighteenth
the new number thus formed? (d) Seventeenth or Eighteenth
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (e) None of these
(d) Three (e) More than three
10. If it is possible to form only one such number with the third,
5. Which of the following is seventh to the right of the
the sixth and the seventh digits of the number 7394261 which
nineteenth digit from the right end of the above arrangement?
is the perfect square of a two-digit odd number, which of the
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 1
following will be the first digit of that two-digit odd number?
(a) 9
6. Pratap correctly remembers that his mother's birthday is
(b) 3
before twentythird April but after nineteenth April, whereas
his sister correctly remembers that their mother's birthday is (c) 5
not on or after twentysecond April. On which day in April is (d) No such number can be formed
definitely their mother's birthday? (e) More than one such number can be formed
(a) Twentieth 11. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to
(b) Twentyfirst the right of R, who is sixteenth from the right end of the row.
(c) Twentieth or Twentyfirst What is W's position from the right end of the row?
(d) Cannot be determined (a) Eleventh (b) Tenth (c) Twelfth
(e) None of these (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
RESPONSE
GRID
11. a b c d e
92 SPEED TEST 41
12. Meena correctly remembers that her father's birthday is after (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8
eighteenth May but before twentysecond May. Her brother (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
correctly remembers that their father's birthday is before 20. If the digits on the dial of a clock are replaced by alternate
twenty-fourth May but after twentieth May. On which date English alphabet beginning with D such as D replaces 1, F
in May was definitely their father's birthday? replaces 2 and so on, then where will be the hour hand at
(a) Twentieth (b) Nineteenth 19.45 O' clock?
(c) Eighteenth (d) Cannot be determined (a) Between O and Q (b) Between N and P
(e) None of these (c) Between P and R (d) Between M and O
13. Nitin correctly remembers that Nidhi's birthday is before (e) None of these
Friday but after Tuesday. Derek correctly remembers that 21. In a row of girls, Ravina is 15th from the left and Mohini is
Nidhi's birthday is after Wednesday but before Saturday. 18th from the right. If they inter-change their places, Mohini
On which of the following days does Nidhi's birthday becomes 15th from the left. How many girls are there in the
definitely fall? row?
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Wednesday (a) 33 (b) 48 (c) 47
(d) Thursday (e) Cannot be determined (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
14. Smita correctly remembers that last year Diwali was 22. In a row of 40 boys Sameer was shifted 10 places to the right
celebrated before November but after May. Sanjay correctly of Raman and Kailash was shifted 10 places to the left of
remembers that last year he had Diwali holidays after July. Vikas. If Vikas was 26th from the left end and there were
Mohan correctly remembers that the month in which Diwali three boys between Kailash and Sameer after shifting, what
was celebrated had only 30 days. In which month of the was the position of Raman in the row?
year was Diwali definitely celebrated?
(a) Data inadequate
(a) July (b) August (c) September
(b) 10th from the left end
(d) October (e) November
(c) 10th from the right end
15. Seema's watch is 6 minutes fast and the train, which should
(b) 39th from the right end
have arrived at 7 p.m. was 14 minutes late. What time is it by
(e) None of these
Seema's watch when the train arrived?
(a) 7 : 05 pm (b) 7 : 30 pm (c) 7 : 01 pm 23. Pratap correctly remembers that his mother's birthday is
(d) 7 : 31 pm (e) None of these before twenty-third April but after nineteenth April, whereas
his sister correctly remembers that their mother's birthday is
16. In a row of children facing North, Ritesh is twelfth from the
left end. Sudhir who is twenty-second from the right end is not on or after twenty-second April. On which day in April
fourth to the right of Ritesh. Total how many children are is definitely their mother's birthday?
there in the row? (a) Twentieth
(a) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (b) Twenty-first
(d) 34 (e) None of these (c) Twentieth or Twenty-first
17. In a class, among the passed students Neeta is 22nd from (d) Cannot be determined
the top and Kalyan, who is 5 ranks below Neeta is 34th from (e) None of these
the bottom. All the students from the class have appeared Directions (Qs.24 & 25): The following questions are based upon
for the exam. If the ratio of the students who passed in the the alphabetical series given below:
exam to those who failed is 4 : 1 in that class, how many
students are there in the class? T J E N U QAK I O G R M S P B H F D LV C
(a) Data inadequate (b) 60 (c) 75 24. If OD is related to 'GF' and 'EB is related to 'NP' in a certain
(d) 90 (e) None of these way, to which of the following is 'AL' related to, following
18. Among A, B, C, D and E each reaching school at a different the same pattern ?
time, C reaches before D and A and only after B. E is not the (a) KD (b) QV (c) KL
last to reach school. Who among them reached school last? (d) KV (e) DQ
(a) D (b) A (c) C 25. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these series based on the above alphabetical series?
19. In a row of thirty-seven boys facing South, R is eighth. to TE JU NK ? GH
the right of T who is fourteenth to the left of D. How many (a) IS (b) IR (c) AG
boys are there between D and R in the row? (d) AR (e) AM

42
SPEED TEST 42 93
Cubes and Dice

1. Each of the six faces of a cube is numbered by one of the
digits from 1 to 6. This cube is shown in its four different K H B
positions in the figure I, II, III, and IV. B K H
A M P
6 1 5 6
What is the letter opposite to A?
(a) H (b) P (c) B
3 2 4 2 6 4 2 4
(d) M (e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 5 -8) : A cube is coloured red on all faces. It is
cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal size. Now, answer the
I II III IV following questions based on this statement :
Consider the following statements. 5. How many cubes have no face coloured?
1. Figures II and III are sufficient to known as to which (a) 24 (b) 16 (c) 8
face is opposite to the face numbered 6. (d) 0 (e) None of these
2. figures II and III are sufficient to known as to which 6. How many cubes are there which have only one face
coloured?
face is opposite to the face numbered 4. .
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16
3. Figures I and IV are sufficient to known as to which (d) 24 (e) None of these
face is opposite to the face numbered 3.
7. How many cubes have two red opposite faces?
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 0 (b) 8 (c) 16
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (d) 24 (e) None of these
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
8. How many cubes have three faces coloured?
(e) None of these
(a) 24 (b) 16 (c) 8
2. Six faces of a cube are numbered from 1 to 6, each face
carrying one different number. Further,
1. The face 2 is opposite to the face 6.
2. The face 1 is opposite to the face 5.
3. The face 3 is between the face 1 and the face 5 9.
4. The face 4 is adjacent to the face 2.
Which one of the following is correct? How many dots are there on the dice opposite to the one
(a) The face 2 is adjacent to the face 3 dot?
(b) The face 6 is between the face 2 and the face 4 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5
(c) The face 1 is between the face 5 and the face 6 (d) 6 (e) None of these
(d) None of the above 10. Select from alternative, the box that can be formed by folding
the sheet shown.
(e) None of these
3. Six squares are coloured, front and back, red (R), blue (B), 1
yellow (Y), green (G), white (W) and orange (O) and are
hinged together as shown in the figure given below. If they 4 3 6
are folded to form a cube, what would be the face opposite 2
the white face?
R B 5
G Y O 2 4 3
W
(a) 3 5 (b) 6 3 (c) 2 5
(a) R (b) G (c) B
(d) O
(e) None of these 4
4. Three views of a cube following a particular motion are given (d) 3 (e) None of these
1
below:
94 SPEED TEST 42
11. Select from alternative, the box that can be formed by folding 14. Which number is on the face opposite to 6 on the dice
the sheet shown. whose four positions as shown below ?
6 6 5 1
2 4 4 4 2
3 2 6
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3

= 15. A cube is painted white on all the sides. It is then cut into 64
smaller cubes of equal sizes. How many of these smaller
+ cubes have no paint on any side?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4
16. How many cubes are there in the following figure?

(a) (b) (c)
+ =

12. Select from the alternative, the box that can be formed by
folding the sheet shown in figure (X) :
(a) 6 (b ) 10 (c) 12
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17 - 19) : The questions below are to be
answered on the basis of the three views of a cube given as
follows :
5 4 2
4 6 6
1 3 5
(X)
17. Which number is on the face opposite to 1 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 6
18. Which number is on the face opposite to 4 ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6
(a) A only (b) A and C only
(c) A , C and D only (d) A, B, C and D 19. Which number is at the bottom face of figure 1?
13. Three positions of a cube are as shown below : (d) 1 (e) None of these
20. Four positions of a cube are shown below. Which symbol
is opposite to the face having ?
?

+ +

The figure on the face opposite the triangle is the : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) pentagon (b) circle
(c) question mark (d) rectangle (a) D (b) (c)
(e) None of these

43
SPEED TEST 43 95

Problem Solving - I
Time : 20 min.
43
Date : ........./......../................
DIRECTIONS (Q.1- 5) : Read the following passage carefully (a) None (b) One (c) Two
and answer these questions given below it. (d) Three (e) Four
7. Which of the following plays is scheduled on Saturday?
A group of seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G, work as Economist, (a) Q (b) W (c) R
Agriculture Officer, IT Officer, Terminal Operator, Clerk, Forex (d) S (e) T
Officer and Research Analyst, for Banks L, M, N, P, Q, R and S, but 8. R is related to S in a certain way. In the same way P is
not necessarily in the same order. C works for Bank N and is related to V based on the given schedule. Which of the
neither Research Analyst nor a Clerk. E is an IT Officer and works following is W related to the following the same pattern?
for Bank R.A works as Forex Officer and does not work for Bank L (a) P (b) Q (c) R
or Q. The one who is an Agricultural Officer works for Bank M. (d) T (e) Cannot be determined
The one who works for Bank L works as a Terminal Operator. F
9. On which of the following days is Play W scheduled?
works for Bank Q. G works for Bank P as a Research Analyst. D is
not an Agricultural Officer. (a) Monday (b) Tuesday
1. Who amongst the following works as an Agriculture Officer? (c) Wednesday (d) Saturday
(a) C (b) B (c) F (e) Cannot be determined
(d) D (e) None of these 10. Which of the following plays is scheduled on Friday?
2. What is the profession of C? (a) R (b) T (c) Q
(a) Terminal Operator (b) Agriculture Officer (d) W (e) S
(c) Economist (d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Q.11-Q.15) : Study the following information
3. For which bank does B work? carefully and answer the questions given below:
(a) M (b) S (c) L P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends working in a call centre.
(d) Either M or S (e) None of these Each of them has different day offs in a week from Monday to
4. What is the profession of the person who works for Bank S? Sunday not necessarily in the same order. They work in three
(a) Clerk (b) Agriculture Officer different shifts I, II and III with at least two of them in each shift.
(c) Terminal Operator (d) Forex Officer R works in shift II and his day off is not Sunday. P's day off
(e) None of these is Tuesday and he does not work in the same shift with either Q or
5. Which of the following combinations of person, profession W. None of those who work in shift I has day off either on
and bank is correct? Wednesday or on Friday. V works with only T in shift III. S's day
(a) A - Forex Officer - M off is Sunday. V's day off is immediate next day of that of R's day
(b) D - Clerk - L off. T's day off is not on Wednesday. W's day off is not on the
(c) F - Agriculture Officer - Q previous day of P's day off. S works in shift I. Q does not work in
(d) B - Agriculture Officer - S the same shift with R and his day off is not on Thursday.
(e) None of these 11. Which of the following is W's day off?
(a) Tuesday (b) Monday (c) Saturday
DIRECTIONS (Q.6-10) : Study the following information to (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
answer the given questions. 12. Which of the following is R's day off?
Each of seven plays viz. P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are scheduled to be (a) Friday (b) Thursday (c) Tuesday
staged on a different day of a week starting from Monday and (d) Wednesday (e) None of these
ending on Sunday of the same week. Play V is scheduled on 13. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift II?
Thursday. Two plays are scheduled to be held between Play V (a) RP (b) RV (c) QWS
and Play P. Only one play is scheduled between Play T and Play S. (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
Play T is not scheduled on the day immediately before or 14. Which of the following is Q's day off?
immediately after the day when Play V is scheduled. Play R is (a) Friday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday
scheduled the day immediately before the day when Play W is (d) Monday (e) None of these
scheduled. Play S is not scheduled after Play Q. 15. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift I?
6. How many plays are scheduled to be staged between Play R (a) RV (b) RP (c) QWS
and Play S? (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
96 SPEED TEST 43
DIRECTIONS (Q.16-20) : Study the following information 21. Which of the following groups of employees work in
carefully and answer the questions given below: Administration department?
(a) EGH (b) AF (c) BCD
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight students, each having a (d) BGD (e) Data inadequate
different height 22. In which department does E work?
(ii) D is shorter than A but taller than G. (a) Personnel (b) Marketing
(iii) E is taller than H but shorter than C. (c) Administration (d) Data inadequate
(iv) B is shorter than D but taller than F. (e) None of these
(v) C is shorter than G. 23. Which of the following combinations of employees
(vi) G is not as tall as F. department-favourite sport is correct?
16. Which of the following is definitely false? (a) E-Administration-Cricket
(a) G is shorter than F (b) C is shorter than F (b) F-Personnel-Lawn Tennis
(c) F is taller than C. (d) B is taller than E. (c) H-Marketing-Lawn Tennis
(e) All are true (d) B-Administration-Table Tennis
17. If another student J, who is taller than E but shorter than G, (e) None of these
is added to the group, which of the following will be definitely 24. What is E's favourite sport?
true? (a) Cricket (b) Badminton (c) Basketball
(a) C and J are of the same height (d) Lawn Tennis (e) None of these
25. What is G's favourite sport?
(b) J is shorter than D.
(a) Cricket (b) Badminton (c) Basketball
(c) J is shorter than H. (d) Lawn Tennis (e) None of these
(d) J is taller than A.
(e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-30): Study the following information
18. Which of the following will definitely be the third from top carefully and answer the given questions.
when the eight students are arranged in descending order P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends, all of a different height
of height? and fatness.
(a) B (b) F (c) G (i) Q is the thinnest and tallest among them.
(d) B or G (e) Cannot be determined (ii) S is not as short as T, but shorter than R.
19. How many of them are definitely shorter than F? (iii) W is not as fat as R, but fatter than V.
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (iv) R and T are taller than W but shorter than R
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these (v) V is fatter than T and the shorter among them.
20. Which of the following is redundant to answer all the above (vi) R is third among them in fatness in descending order.
questions?
(a) (ii) only 26. Who is the fattest among them?
(b) (ii) and (iii) only (a) P (b) S
(c) (iii) and (iv) only (c) Either P or S (d) Either T or S
(d) (ii) and (v) only (e) None of these
(e) All are necessary to answer the above questions. 27. Which of the given statements is not required to find out
the thickest among them?
DIRECTIONS (Q.21-25) : Study the following information (a) (i) (b) (vi)
carefully and answer the questions given below: (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (v)
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight employees of an organization (e) None of these
working in three departments, viz Personnel, Administration and 28. If they are made to stand in ascending order of their heights,
Marketing with not more than three of them in any department. who will come in the middle?
Each of them has a different choice of sports from football, cricket, (a) R (b) S (c) T
volleyball, badminton, lawn tennis, basketball, hockey and table (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
tennis, not necessarily in the same order. 29. If they are made to stand in ascending order of their fatness,
D works in Administration and does not like either football or who will be the second from the last?
cricket. F works in Personnel with only A, who likes table tennis. (a) S (b) V (c) W
E and H do not work in the same department as D. C likes hockey (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
and does not work in Marketing. G does not work in Administration 30. Who obtained the same place in height and fatness among
and does not like either cricket or badminton. One of those who them when arranged in ascending order of their height and
work in Administration likes football. The one who likes volleyball fatness?
works in Personnel. None of those who work in Administration (a) P (b) Q (c) R
likes either badminton or lawn tennis. H does not like cricket. (d) S (e) None of these

RESPONSE
44
SPEED TEST 44 97
Problem Solving - II
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-5) : Study the following information carefully Doctor and earns more than the Engineer and the lawyer. T is
and answer the questions given below: married to the Chartered Accountant and she earns the least. No
lady is either lawyer of Engineer. Q, the Teacher, earns less than P
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven persons wearing a different
the Banker. W is married to Q and he earns more than S and P.
colour shirt - white, red, black, green, yellow, blue and violet
V is not the Lawyer. The Chartered Accountant earns less than
and a different colour trousers - blue, red, white, black, cream,
Lawyer but more than the Banker.
yellow and indigo. The persons, colour of the shirt and colour
of the trousers above are not necessarily in the same order. 6. Who earns the maximum in the family?
No person is wearing shirt and trousers of same colour. (a) V (b) W (c) R
(ii) B is wearing red colour shirt and is not wearing cream or (d) S (e) None of these
yellow colour trousers. D is wearing green colour shirt and 7. Which of the following is a pair of married couple?
indigo colour trousers. Colour of A's shirt and F's trousers is (a) RT (b) VT (c) QT
same. Colour of E's shirt and C's trouser is same. G is wearing (d) ST (e) None of these
blue shirt and E is wearing blue trousers. F is not wearing 8. What is P's position from the top when they are arranged
any yellow dress. Red and blue is not the combination of in descending order of their income?
shirt and trousers of any of the persons. (a) Second (b) Fourth (c) Third
1. What is the colour of A's trousers? (d) Sixth (e) None of these
(a) White (b) Cream (c) Blue 9. What is the profession of V?
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these (a) Engineer
2. What is the colour of G's trousers? (b) Chartered Accountant
(a) Red (b) Cream (c) White (c) Engineer or Chartered Accountant
(d) Indigo (e) None of these (d) Data inadequate
3. Who wears violet colour shirt? (e) None of these
(a) C (b) F (c) C or F 10. At least how many male members are there in the family?
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four
4. What is the colour of F's shirt? (d) Five (e) None of these
(a) Blue (b) Violet (c) Green
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Q.11-15) : Study the following information
5. What is the colour of B's trousers? carefully to answer these questions.
(a) Red (b) White (c) Indigo A group of people has six family members and an advocate. These
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these are L, M, N, O, P, Q and R and having different professions. Each
one of them is a journalist, businessman, architect, doctor and
DIRECTIONS (Q.6-10) : Study the following information pilot but not necessarily in this order. These are three males and
carefully and answer the questions given below: three females in the family out of which there are two married
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family. Each one of couples. M is a businessman and is the father of P. Q is a doctor
them has a different profession-Doctor, Teacher, Lawyer, Engineer, and grandfather of P. N is a housewife and is daughter-in-law of O.
Architect, Chartered Accountant and Banker and their incomes L is neither a pilot nor a journalist. R is an advocate. N is not the
are different. There are two married couples in the group. R is the mother of P and O is not married to M. No lady is a journalist.
GRID
98 SPEED TEST 44
11. Which of the following groups represents the three ladies 18. Which colour does A like?
in the group? (a) Brown (b) Red (c) White
(a) N, P, L (b) P, L, N (c) L, N, O (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
(d) O, P, L (e) None of these 19. Which colour does K like?
12. Who is married to Q? (a) Green (b) Blue
(a) N (b) O (c) Blue or Green (d) Data inadequate
(c) L (d) Can't be determined (e) None of these
20. In which Standard do three of them study?
(e) None of these
(a) Only III (b) Only V
13. Who among the following family members is an
(c) Only III or V (d) Data inadequate
architect?
(e) None of these
(a) L (b) O
(c) P (d) Cannot be determined DIRECTIONS (Q.21-25) : Study the following information to
(e) None of these answer the given questions.
14. Which of the following is the profession of P? Six lectures are scheduled in a week starting from Monday
(a) Architect (b) Pilot and ending on Sunday of the same week. Computer Science is not
(c) Architect or pilot (d) Journalist on Tuesday or Saturday. Psychology is immediately after
(e) None of these Organizational Behaviour. Statistics is not on Friday and there is
15. How is Q related to O? one day gap between Statistics and Research Methods. One day
(a) Father (b) Mother prior to the schedule of Economics there is no lecture. (as that day
(c) Mother-in-law (d) Son-in-law is the 'off' day and Monday is not the off day.)
21. Which of the following is the last lecture scheduled?
(e) None of these
(a) Statistics (b) Research Methods
DIRECTIONS (Q.16-20) : Study the following information (c) Psychology (d) Cannot be determined
carefully and answer the questions given below: (e) None of these
22. If Wednesday is the 'off' day, the code would be 2-4, if
A, M, P, J, H, D and K are seven students of a school. They study Thursday was the 'off' day, the code would be 3-3. Taking
in Standard III, IV and V with atleast two in any one standard. into account the 'off' day' which of the following code is
Each of them has different choice of colour from - blue, red, green, correct?
yellow, black, white and brown, not necessarily in the same order. (a) 2-4 (b) 3-3
M studies in Standard IV with only D who likes red colour. A (c) 4-2 (d) Cannot be determined
studies in Standard V and does not like either blue or green. He (e) None of these
does not study in Standard V and likes yellow colour. P and J 23. Which lecture is scheduled on Friday?
study in the same Standard but not with A. None of these who (a) Economics (b) Psychology
study in Standard III likes white. The one who likes black studies (c) Computer Science (d) Cannot be determined
in Standard IV. J likes brown colour. P does not like blue colour. (e) None of these
16. Which colour does P like? 24. How many lectures were scheduled between Economics and
(a) Green (b) Blue Psychology?
(c) Blue or Green (d) Data inadequate (a) One (b) Two
(e) None of these (c) Three (d) Cannot be determined
17. Which of the following combinations is definitely (e) None of these
correct? 25. Which day is Computer Science scheduled?
(a) III - H - Black (b) IV - K - Blue (a) Monday (b) Wednesday
(c) Thursday (d) Cannot be determined
(c) V - A - Blue (d) IV - D - Green
(e) None of these
(e) All are incorrect

RESPONSE
45 Analytical Decision Making
43
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-5) : Study the following information carefully 3. Prakash Gokhale was born on 4th August 1977. He has
secured 65 percent marks in postgraduation and 58 percent
and answer the questions given below:
marks in graduation. He has been working for the past ten
Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-Credit years in the Advances Department of a bank after completing
in a bank. The candidate must his postgraduation. He has secured 45 percent marks in the
(i) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 60 percent marks. Group Discussion and 50 percent marks in the Interview.
(ii) have post-qualification work experience of at least ten years 4. Sudha Mehrotra has been working in the Advances
in the Advances Section of a bank. Department of a bank for the past twelve years after
(iii) be at least 30 years and not more than 40 years as on 1.4.2010. completing her B Com Degree with 60 percent marks. She
(iv) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the Group has secured 50 percent marks in the Group Discussion and
Discussion. 40 percent marks in the Interview. She was born on 15th
(v) have secured at least 50 percent marks in the Interview. February 1972.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions: 5. Amit Narayan was born on 28th May 1974. He has been
EXCEPT working in the Advances department of a bank for the past
eleven years after completing his B Sc Degree with 65 percent
(A) at (i) above, but has secured at least 50 percent marks in
marks. He has secured 55 percent marks in the Group
graduation and at least 60 percent marks in post-graduation
discussion and 50 percent marks in the Interview.
in any discipline, the case is to be referred to the General
Manager-Advances. DIRECTIONS (Q.6-10) : Study the following information
(B) at (ii) above, but has total post-qualification work experience carefully and answer the questions given below:
of at least seven years, out of which at least three years as
Manager-Credit in a bank, the case is to be referred to the Following are the conditions for selecting System Manager in an
Executive Director. organization: The candidate must
In each question below details of one candidate are given. You (i) be a graduate engineer in IT, Computer Science or Electronics
have to take one of the following courses of action based on the with at least 60 percent marks.
information provided and the conditions and subconditions given (ii) be at least 30 years and not more than 40 years as on 1.9.2009.
above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. (iii) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the written
You are not to assume anything other than the information examination
provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on (iv) have secured at least 50 percent marks in the selection
01-04-2010. interview.
Give answer (a) if the case is to be referred to the Executive Director. (v) have post-qualification work experience of at least 10 years
Give answer (b) if the case is to be referred to the General in the systems department of an organisation.
Manager -Advances In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions:
Give answer (c) if the data are inadequate to take a decision. EXCEPT
Give answer (d) if the candidate is not to be selected. (A) at (i) above, but has secured at least 60 percent marks in ME-
Give answer (e) if the candidate is to be selected. IT or Computer Science, the case is to be referred to DGM-
1. Shobha Gupta has secured 50 percent marks in the Interview Systems.
and 40 percent marks in the Group Discussion. She has been (B) at (v) above, but has post-qualification experience of at least
working for the past eight years, out of which four years as five years as Deputy Systems Manager, the case is to be
Manager-Credit in a bank, after completing her BA degree referred to the GM-Systems.
with 60 percent marks. She was born on 12th September In each question below, details of one candidate are given. You
1978. have to take one of the following courses of action based on the
2. Rohan Maskare was born on 8th March 1974. He has been information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given
working in a bank for the past twelve years after completing above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer.
his B Com degree with 70 percent marks. He has secured 50 You are not to assume anything other than the information
percent marks in both the Group Discussion and the provided for each candidate. All these cases are given to you as
Interview. on 1-9-2009.
GRID
100 SPEED TEST 45
Give answer (a) if the candidate is to be selected In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions:
Give answer (b) if the candidate is not to be selected EXCEPT
Give answer (c) if the case is to be referred to DGM-Systems. (A) at (ii) above, but has secured at least 50 percent marks in
Give answer (d) if the case is to be referred to GM-Systems. postgraduation and at least 65 percent marks in the selection
Give answer (e) if the data provided are not adequate to take a process, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
decision. (B) at (iii) above but has at least twelve years post-qualification
6. Samir Ghosh was born on 25th May 1978. He secured 65 work experience out of which at least eight years as Senior
percent marks in BE-IT in the year 1999. Since then, he has Manager-HR in an organisation, the case is to be referred
been working in the systems department of an organisation. to Chairman.
He has secured 50 percent marks in both written examination In each question below details of one candidate are given. You
and selection interview. have to take one of the courses of action based on the information
7. Navin Prakash has secured 62 percent marks in BE-Computer provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above
Science. He has been working in the systems department of and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You
an organisation since July 1999 after completion of BE. He are not to assume anything other than the information provided
was born on 4th April 1974. He has secured 55 percent in each question. All these cases are given to you as on
marks in selection interview and 45 percent marks in the 01-05-2010.
written examination. Give answer (a) if the candidate is to be selected
8. Neeta Pathak has been working as Deputy Systems Give answer (b) if the candidate is not to be selected
Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after Give answer (c) if the data provided are not adequate to take a
completing her BE in IT with 70 percent marks. She has decision.
secured 45 percent marks in selection interview and 55 Give answer (d) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
percent marks in the written examination. She was born on Give answer (e) if the case is to be referred to Chairman
12th November 1978. 11. Pranab Ghosh was born on 8th March 1968. He has been
9. Ashok Malhotra was born on 19th March 1977. He has working for the past eighteen years in an organisation out
secured 56 percent marks in both selection interview and of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR after
written examination. He has secured 58 percent marks in completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 percent marks.
BE-IT and 72 percent marks in ME-IT. He has been working He had successfully implemented HR-System last year in
in the system department of an organisation for the past 11 his organisation. He has secured 50 percent marks in the
years after completing ME-IT. selection process.
10. Gemma D' Souza was born on 15th December 1972. She has 12. Sheetal Jha has been working in an organisation for the
secured 60 percent marks in both written examination and past twenty years out of which ten years as Senior Manager-
selection interview. She has been working as Deputy System HR after completing her postgraduation in Personnel
Manager for the last 6 years in an organisation after Management with 70 percent marks. She was born on 2nd
completing her BE-Electronics with 75 percent marks. December 1965. She has secured 45 percent marks in the
selection process.
DIRECTIONS (Q.11-20) : Study the following information 13. Prabir Sengupta was born on 8th May 1963. He has secured
carefully and answer the questions given below: 65 percent marks in the selection process. He has been
Following are the conditions for selecting Assistant General working for the past fifteen years in an organisation, out of
Manager - HR in an organization. which twelve years as Senior Manager-HR, after completing
The candidate must his postgraduation in HR with 55 percent marks. He has
(i) be at least 40 years and not more than 50 years old as on successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation
1.5.2010. during the last two years.
(ii) be postgraduate in Personnel Management/HR with at least 14. Shailesh Kumar has been working in an organisation for the
60 percent marks. past thirteen years, out of which nine years as Senior
(iii) have post-qualification work experience of at least fifteen Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with
years out of which at least five years as Senior Manager-HR 68 percent marks. He was born on 15th September 1968. He
in an organisation. has secured 48 percent marks in the selection process. He
has successfully implemented HR-System in his
(iv) have successfully implemented HR-System in his/her
organisation two years back.
organisation some time during the past three years.
(v) have secured at least 45 percent marks in the selection
process.
SPEED TEST 45 101
15. Navin Chopra was born on 12th June 1967. He has been (iii) have secured at least 60 percent marks in Postgraduate
working for the past sixteen years, out of which seven years degree/diploma in Management/Economics/Statistics.
as Senior Manager-HR, after completing his postgraduation (iv) be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years as on
in Personnel Management with 75 percent marks. He has 01-03-2010.
secured 44 percent marks in the selection process. He has (v) have post graduation work experience of at least 2 years as
successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation General Banking Officer in a bank,
last year. (vi) have secured at least 50 percent marks in the written
16. Meera Kulkarni has been working for the past seventeen examination,
years, out of which eight years as Senior Manager-HR, after (vii) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the Personal
completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management interview.
with 66 percent marks. She has successfully implemented In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions:
HR-System in her organisation during the last two years . EXCEPT
She has secured 49 percent marks in the selection process. (A) at (iii) above, but has secured at least 60 percent marks in CA
She was born on 14th December 1971. or ICWA, the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment.
17. Akash Shastri was born on 12th April 1967. He has been (B) at (vii) above, but has secured at least 65 percent marks in
working for the past sixteen years, out of which six years as the written examination and at least 35 percent marks in the
Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his personal interview, the case is to be referred to President-
postgraduation in HR with 58 percent marks. He has Recruitment.
successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation In each question below are given details of one candidate. You
last year. He has secured 65 percent marks in the selection have to take one of the following courses of action based on the
process. information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given
18. Shekhar Jena has been working for the past fifteen years, above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer.
out of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR, in an You are not to assume anything other than the information
organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on
68 percent marks. He has secured 60 percent marks in the 01-03-2010.
selection process. He was born on 16th August 1965. He Give answer (a) if the data provided are inadequate to take a
has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation decision.
in past three years. Give answer (b) if the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment.
19 Sunetra Govil was born on 5th April 1964. She has been Give answer (c) if the case is to be referred to President-
working for the past seventeen years, out of which nine Recruitment.
years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation. She has Give answer (d) if the candidate is to be selected.
secured 48 percent marks in the selection process. She has
Give answer (e) if the candidate is not to be selected.
also secured 69 percent marks in the post graduation in
21. Kesav Vora was born on 8th November 1978. He has secured
Personnel Management. She successfully implemented HR-
65 percent marks in Std XII and 60 percent marks in
System in her organisation last year.
Graduation. He has secured 58 percent marks in MA
20. Mohit Saxena was born on 27th July 1963. He has been
Economics and 60 percent marks in ICWA. He has been
working for the past thirteen years, out of which nine years
working in a bank as a generalist officer for the past two
as Senior Manager-HR, after completing his post graduation
years after completing his education. He has also secured
in HR with 67 percent marks. He has secured 49 percent
50 percent marks in the written examination and 45 percent
marks in the selection process. He has successfully
marks in the personal interview.
implemented HR-System in his organisation during the past
22. Arindam Ghosh has been working in a bank as a generalist
three years.
officer for the past four years after completing his
DIRECTIONS (Q.21-25) : Study the following information postgraduate diploma in management with 60 percent marks.
carefully and answer the questions given below: He has secured 50 percent marks in the written examination
and 40 percent marks in the personal interview. He has also
Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General secured 70 percent marks in Std XII. He was born on 25th
Banking in a bank:- February 1975.
The candidate must
(i) have secured at least 60 percent marks in Std XII.
(ii) have secured at least 55 percent marks in Graduation in any
discipline.

102 SPEED TEST 45
23. Sohan Majhi has secured 65 percent marks in BSc and 70 In each question below are given details of one candidate. You
percent marks in MSc Statistics. He has been working in a have to take one of the following courses of action based on the
bank as a generalist officer for the past three years after information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given
completing his postgraduation. He has secured 55 percent above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer.
marks in the written examination and 50 percent marks in the You are not to assume anything other than the information
personal interview. He was born on 8th July 1982. provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on
24. Neha Salve has been working in a bank as a generalist officer 1-1-2010.
for the past four years after completing his postgraduate Give answer (a) if the data provided are not adequate to take a
degree in Economics with 60 percent marks. She has secured decision.
60 percent marks in both graduation and Std XII. She was Give answer (b) if the candidate is to be selected.
born on 24th August 1979. She has secured 70 percent marks Give answer (c) if the candidate is not to be selected.
in the written examination and 38 percent marks in the Give answer (d) if the case is to be referred to GM-Personnel.
personal interview. Give answer (e) if the case is to be referred to ED-Personnel.
25. Neeta Jaiswal was born on 2nd June 1980. She has been 26. Sohan Awasthi was born on 8th June 1987. He has secured
working in a bank as a generalist officer for the past three 55 percent marks in both selection examination and personal
years after completing her postgraduate degree in Economics interview. He can pay the security deposit of ` 50,000. He
with 60 percent marks. She has secured 68 percent marks in has secured 68 percent marks in post graduation and
HSC and 58 percent marks in BCom. She has also secured 50 59 percent marks in graduation.
percent marks in both the written examination and personal 27. Anuj Soren was born on 25th March 1984. He has secured
interview. 58 percent marks in graduation and 63 percent marks in
postgraduation. He has secured 50 percent marks in both
DIRECTIONS (Q.26-30) : Study the following information
selection examination and personal interview. He is ready to
carefully and answer the questions given below: pay the security deposit of ` 50,000.
Following are the conditions for selecting Management Trainee 28. Seema Biswas was born on 15th May 1985. She has secured
in an organization: 65 percent marks in graduation and 70 percent marks in
The candidate must postgraduation. She is ready to pay ` 50,000 as security
(i) be a graduate with at least 60 percent marks. deposit. She has also secured 45 percent marks in the
(ii) be not less than 21 years and not more than 28 years as on selection examination.
1.1.2010 29. Abhinav Ghosal has secured 52 percent marks in the personal
(iii) be ready to pay ` 50,000 as security deposit. interview and 40 percent marks in the selection examination.
(iv) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the selection He can pay ` 25,000 as security deposit. Alternatively, he
examination. can sign a bond of one year. He was born on 3rd December
(v) have secured at least 50 percent marks in personal interview. 1984. He has secured 63 percent marks in graduation.
In the case of a candidate who has satisfied all the above conditions: 30. Namita Jaiswal has secured 62 percent marks in graduation
EXCEPT and 52 percent marks in personal interview. She was born on
12th July 1983. She is ready to pay the security deposit of
(A) at (i) above, but has secured at least 65 percent marks in
` 50,000. She has secured 46 percent marks in the selection
postgraduation, the case is to be referred to GM-Personnel.
examination.
(B) at (iii) above, but is ready to sign a bond for one year, the
case is to be referred to ED-Personnel.

46
SPEED TEST 46 103

Coded Inequalities
Time : 20 min.
46
Date : ........./......../................
DIRECTIONS (Q.1- 6) : In the following questions, the symbols 5. Statements:
d, $, *, @ and c are used with the following meanings as M @ D, D d K, K c R
illustrated below: Conclusions:
I. R $ M II. K d M III. K $ M
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither equal to nor greater than Q'. (a) Only I is true
'P c Q' means 'P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q' (b) Only II is true
'P d Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q. (c) Only III is true
'P @ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q' (d) Only either II or III and I are true
'P * Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'. (e) Only either II or III is true
In each question three statements showing relationship have been 6. Statements:
given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II and III. F @ T, T d K, K * D
Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which Conclusions:
conclusion(s) is/are definitely true? I. D @ F II. F @ K III. D @ T
1. Statements: (a) Only II and III are true (b) Only I and III are true
B c N, N @ R, F * R (c) Only I and II are true (d) All I, II and III are true
Conclusions: (e) None of these
I. B c R II. F * N III. R $ B
DIRECTIONS (Q.7-12) : In the following questions, the symbols
(a) Only I and II are true (b) Only I and III are true @, d, , $ and % are used with the following meanings as
(c) Only II and III are true (d) All I, II and III are true illustrated below :
(e) None of these
2. Statements: 'P d Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
D $ M, M * B, B d J 'P Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.
Conclusions: 'P % Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'
I. J c D II. B @ D III. J @ M
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'.
(a) Only I and II are true (b) Only I and III are true
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given
(c) Only II and III are true (d) All I, II and III are true statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and
(e) None of these III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer
3. Statements: accordingly.
F * T, T $ N, N @ R 7. Statements:
I. B c R II. F * N III. R $ B B % N, N d F, F H
Conclusions: Conclusions:
I. R $ T II. N c F III. F $ R I. H $ N II. F % B III. B % H
(a) None is true (b) Only I is true (a) Only I and II are true (b) Only I and III are true
(c) Only II is true (d) Only III is true (c) Only II and III are true (d) None of true
(e) Only II and III are true (e) All I, II and III are true
4. Statements: 8. Statements:
W d K, K c F, F $ M W d F, F % K, K $ M
Conclusions: Conclusions:
I. M c K II. W @ F III. F @ W I. M % F II. M d F III. W $ K
(a) Only I is true (b) Only II true
(a) Only I is true (b) Only II is true
(c) Only either I or II is true (d) Only III is true
(c) Only III is true (d) Only II and III are true
(e) None of these
(e) None is true
104 SPEED TEST 46
W $ B, B @ M, M R H $ V, V % M, K c M
Conclusions: Conclusions: I. K c V
I. R $ B II. R @ B III. M % W II. M @ H
(a) Only either I or II is true III. H c K
(b) Only either I or II and III are true (a) Only I and III are true (b) Only II and III are true
(c) Only III is true (c) Only I and II are true (d) All are true
(d) All I, II and III are true (e) None of these
(e) None of these 15. Statements:
10. Statements: K # T, T $ B, B @ F
M D, D $ K, K @ T Conclusions: I. F $ T
Conclusions: II. K # B
I. T % D II. K % M III. M % T III. T $ F
(a) Only I is true (b) Only II is true (a) None is true (b) Only I is true
(c) Only III is true (d) Only I and III are true (c) Only I and II are true (d) Only II and III are true
(e) None of these (e) All are true
K @ F, F $ M, M d T
Z # F, R @ F, D c R
Conclusions:
Conclusions: I. Z # R
I. T % F II. M % K III. K $ T
II. F # D
(a) Only I and II are true (b) Only I and III are true
III. D @ Z
(c) Only II and III are true (d) All I, II and III are true
(a) None is true (b) Only I is true
(e) None of these
(c) Only III is true (d) Only either I or III is true
12. Statements:
(e) All are true
N A, A % B, B d D
17. Statements:
Conclusions:
M c R, R % D, D @ N
I. D % A II. B $ N III. N % D
(a) None is true (b) Only I is true Conclusions: I. M c N
(c) Only II is true (d) Only III is true II. N $ R
(e) Only I and II are true III. M c D
(a) Only I and II are true (b) Only II and III are true
DIRECTIONS (Q.13-17) : In the following questions, the (c) Only I and III are true (d) All are true
symbols @, #, %, $ and c are used with the following meaning (e) None of these
as illustrated below:
DIRECTIONS (Q.18-20) : In these questions, relationship
'P # Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'. between different elements is shown in the statements. These
'P c Q' means 'P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q' statements are followed by two conclusions.
'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q.
'P $ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q' Mark answers if
'P @ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'. (a) Only conclusion I follows.
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given (b) Only conclusion II follows.
statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and (c) Either conclusion I or II follows.
III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer (d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
accordingly. (e) Both conclusion I and II follows.
13. Statements: R @ D, D c W, B $ W 18. Statement: P Q=R>S>T
Conclusions: Conclusions: I. P T
II. T < Q
I. W # R II. B c D III. W $ R
19. Statement: L M<N>OP
(a) None is true (b) Only I is true
Conclusions: I. O < M
(c) Only III is true (d) Only either I or III is true
II. P N
(e) All are true
20. Statement: A > B, B C = D < E
Conclusions: I. C < A
II. D B

47 Statements & Arguments
47
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-15) : In making decisions about important Arguments: I. Yes, this will help the public sector
questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between "strong" undertakings to attract and retain competent workforce.
arguments and "weak" arguments. "Strong" arguments must be II. No, public sector undertakings cannot afford to pay
both important and directly related to the questions. "Weak" salaries to the level of private sector.
arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be III. Yes, otherwise the public sector undertakings will not
of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the be able to compete with the private sector organisations.
question. (a) None is strong (b) Only III is strong
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, (c) Only I is strong (d) Only II is strong
II and III. You have to decide which of the arguments is a "strong" (e) Only I and III are strong
argument and which is a "weak" argument. 5. Should there be a complete ban on registration of new cars
1. Should smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol by the actors for a few months in the big cities in India?
be completely banned in the movies in India? Arguments: I. Yes, this will significantly reduce the number
Arguments: I. Yes, this will significantly reduce the trend of of cars on the already overcrowded roads of the big cities in
smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol among the youth in India.
India. II. Yes, the existing car owners will be very happy as they
II. No, there should be no such ban on the creative will face less traffic snarls in peak hours.
pursuits of the filmmaker. III. No, this is highly discriminatory against those who
III. No, the films portray the society and hence such scenes decide to buy cars now and hence should not be enforced.
should be an integral part of the movie if the storyline (a) Only I is strong (b) Only I & III are strong
demands so. (c) Only III is strong (d) All are strong
(a) None is strong (b) Only I & II are strong (e) None of these
(c) Only II & III are strong (d) Only I & III are strong 6. Should the Govt restrict use of electricity for each household
(e) All are strong depending upon the requirement?
2. Should sale of vital human organs be made legal in India? Arguments: I. Yes, this will help government tide over the
Arguments: I. No, it goes against our culture. problem of inadequate generation of electricity.
II. No, this will lead to unhealthy practices. II. No, every citizen has the right to consume electricity
III. Yes, this will bring an end to the illegal trading of human as per their requirement as they pay for using electricity.
organs. III. No, the Govt does not have the machinery to put such
(a) None is strong (b) Only I & II are strong a restriction on the use of electricity.
(c) Only III is strong (d) Only II & III are strong (a) Only I is strong (b) Only II is strong
(e) All are strong (c) Only I and II are strong (d) Only II and III are strong
3. Should the conscription of citizens for defence services be (e) All I, II and III are strong
made compulsory in India? 7. Should the Govt order closure of all educational institutions
Arguments: I. Yes, this is the only way to tackle the serious for a month to avoid fast spreading of the contagious viral
shortage of manpower in defence services. infection?
II. No, instead the compensation package be made Arguments: I. No, the closure of educational institutions
comparable to other job sectors to attract people to join alone is not the solution for curbing the spread of the viral
defence services. infection.
III. Yes, many other countries have made this compulsory. II. No, students will visit crowded places like malls,
(a) Only I is strong (b) Only II is strong markets, playgrounds etc. in more numbers and spread the
(c) Only I and II are strong disease, as they will have a lot of spare time at their disposal.
(d) Only either I or II is strong III. Yes, young persons are more prone to get affected by
(e) None of these the viral infection and hence they should remain indoors.
4. Should the salary and perquisites of public sector (a) None is strong (b) Only I is strong
undertaking employees to made equivalent to those in the (c) Only III is strong (d) Only I and II are strong
private sector? (e) All I, II and III are strong
106 SPEED TEST 47
8. Should the Govt ban export of all types of foodgrains for 11. Statement: Should the number of holidays given to Govt
the next one year to tide over the unpredicted drought employees be reduced to only five in a year?
situation in the country? Arguments: I. Yes, such holidays subsequently reduce
Arguments: I. Yes, there is no other way to provide food to working hours, thus adversely affecting the economy of
its citizens during the year. the nation.
II. No, the Govt does not have its jurisdiction over private II. No, employees require intermittent rest from hectic work
exporters for banning exporters. schedule.
III. Yes, the Govt should not allow the exporters to export 12. Statement: Should all correspondence courses at graduate
foodgrains and procure all the foodgrains held by such level be stopped?
exporters and make it available for home consumption. Arguments: I. No, correspondence courses help needy
(a) Only I and II are strong (b) Only II and III strong students to pursue studies and earn at the same time.
(c) Only I and III are strong(d) All I, II and III are strong II. Yes, quality education is not possible without teachers
(e) None of these and classrooms.
9. Should there be a common syllabus for all subjects in 13. Statement: Should only nuclear power be used to generate
graduate courses in all the universities across the country? electricity?
Arguments: I. Yes, this is the only way to spring in uniformity Arguments: I. Yes, this will help reduce air pollution to a
in the education system in the country. great extent.
II. Yes, it will help standardise the quality of graduation II. No, radioactive material used in nuclear plants is unsafe
certificates being given by different universities in the for large-scale use.
country. 14. Statement: Should the Govt remove all the slums in major
III. No, each universities should have the autonomy to cities?
decide its syllabus based on the specific requirement of the Arguments: I. Yes, slums are a nuisance to the people living
university. in big cities.
(a) None is strong (b) Only I is strong II. No, inhabitants of slums are also citizens of the country
(c) Only II is strong (d) Only I and II are strong and they contribute towards the growth of the nation.
15. Statement: Should cricket replace hockey as the national
(e) Only II and III are strong
sport of India?
10. Should all those students who failed in one or two subjects
Arguments: I. Yes, the performance of the hockey team has
in HSC be allowed to take admission in degree courses and
been dismal for the last few years.
continue their study, subject to their successfully passing
II. No, cricket is the national sport of Australia and no
in the supplementary examination? two countries must have the same national sport.
Arguments: I. Yes, this will help the students to complete 16. Statement: Should the sale of all the toys made in China be
their education without a break of one year. banned in India?
II. Yes, this is a forward-looking strategy to help the Arguments: I. Yes, there are very cheap and hence will put
students and motivate them for higher studies. the local toy manufacturers out of business.
III. No, such students do not choose to continue their II. No, Indian toys are of much better quality and their
studies without having passed in all the subjects in HSC. sale will not be affected.
(a) Only I is strong (b) Only II is strong 17. Statement: Should there be no examination upto Std IX in
(c) Only III is strong all the schools in India?
(d) Only either II or III and I are strong Arguments: I. No, students need to go through the process
(e) None of these of giving examinations right from young age.
DIRECTIONS (Q.11-20) : In making decisions about important II. Yes, this will help students to think laterally and achieve
questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between "strong" then creative pursuits.
arguments and "weak" arguments. "Strong" arguments must be 18. Statement: Should there be only a uniform rate of income
both important and directly related to the question. "Weak" tax irrespective of the level of income?
arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be Arguments: I. Yes, this will substantially reduce the work
of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the of the officials of the income tax department.
question. Each question below is followed by two arguments II. No, this will reduce Govt. tax collection to a large extent.
numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is 19. Statement: Should there be only two political parties in India?
a "strong" argument and which is a "weak" argument. Arguments: I. Yes, in many developed countries there are
Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I only two political parties.
and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a "strong" II. No, Indian electorate is not mature to select between
argument and which is a "weak" argument. only two political parties.
20. Statement: Should the sale of tobacco products be restricted
Give answer (a) if only argument I is strong. to only a few outlets in each city/town?
Give answer (b) if only argument II is strong. Arguments: I. Yes, this will substantially reduce
Give answer (c) if either argument I or II is strong. consumption of tobacco products.
Give answer (d) if neither argument I nor II is strong. II. No, those who want to purchase tobacco products
Give answer (e) if both arguments I and II are strong. should get them at convenient locations.

48 Evaluating Inferences
43
48
DIRECTIONS (Q. 1-30) : Below is given passages followed by PASSAGE - 2

several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts The deterioration in the overall asset quality of banks
stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference gross Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) are reportedly 27% higher
separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its at the end of December 2009 than at the end of December 2008 is
not surprising. Any slowdown in growth is bound to trigger a rise
degree of truth or falsity.
in NPAs as more and more companies default on loan repayments.
Given answer (a) if the inference is 'definitely true', i.e. it properly The effect would be pronounced when the slowdown coincides
follows from the statement of facts given. with a severe global recession. But for the restructuring of loans
Given answer (b) if the inference is 'probably true', though not permitted by the Central Bank on fairly generous terms, NPAs
'definitely true' in the light of the facts given. would have been still higher. Prudent banks that took care while
Given answer (c) If the 'data are inadequate', i.e. from the facts sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction
given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or disbursement diligently should be able to weather the crisis. But it
false. is one thing to have NPAs rise because of a cyclical downturn,
Given answer (d) if the inference is 'probably false' though not and quite another to have them rise because of policy errors that
'definitely false' in the light of the facts given. are entirely within the realm of policymakers. And this is what we
Given answer (e) if the inference is 'definitely false', i.e. it cannot need to guard against. Excessively low interest rates skew the
possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given risk-reward equation by making projects that are actually not viable
facts. appear viable till interest rates reverse and the same projects cease
PASSAGE - 1 to be viable! It is now well established that long periods of unduly
Privatisation is no panacea when it comes to education. Nor low interest rate encourage banks to take more risks. A low interest
can high-cost intervention at the tertiary stage produce quality rate regime driven by an easy money policy rather than
talent. The backbone of quality education is primary schooling. macroeconomic fundamentals leads to excessive expansion of
And improving that is not just a question of funding. The credit. It incentives banks to take on more risk in search of higher
government has taken some steps to improve the situation by returns and misprice risk.
increasing the percentage of allocation in the budget. But it has 6. Higher NPAs indicate shortcomings in disbursement and
done precious little to increase the efficacy of public spending in follow-up of credit given by banks.
education. For that is a political and administrative task. Teachers 7. The Central Bank always allows banks to restructure their
who do not turn up to teach at rural schools (absenteeism is about loans in the event of rise in NPAs.
30% according to one estimate) and teachers who are not equipped 8. Lower interest rate cycle projects commercially unviable
or motivated to teach but continue in service with challenge are projects as viable.
part of India' socio-political reality. 9. Low interest rate on credit reduces the capacity to absorb
1. Motivating the primary school teachers and improving various unaccounted risk factors.
attendance of these teachers are major challenges in India. 10. Bank's NPAs occur only due to economic factors.
2. The Indian Govt has not done enough to improve the quality PASSAGE - 3
of secondary education.
3. Govt has been unsuccessful in achieving the desired result There has been considerable debate in India regarding the
in education. privatisation of higher education. In this debate, there is generally
4. Quality of education is ensured in all the privately run an implicit assumption that privatisation is essentially the same as
corporatisation, i.e. private investment comes due to the potential
educational institutions in India.
of returns. In the higher education field, privatisation and
5. Allocating more funds in the budget for primary education
corporatisation are actually quite different. Privatisation is
will substantially improve the quality of education.
108 SPEED TEST 48
regarding who controls the educational institute and the role of PASSAGE - 5
government in the management and funding of the institute, while Investors today have more investment options than were
corporatisation is about making profits. In India, there is no doubt available just a few years ago. Choice in any decision making is
that private not-for-profit universities need to be encouraged to good in so far it provides variety differentiation and bench-marking.
increase education opportunities, and for the fact that there is no It could also, however, at times lead to clutter and "noise" if the
other alternative as the government simply cannot create enough options are mostly similar and undifferentiated. To make sense of
public universities to satisfy the demand. However, the guidelines this choice conundrum, it is imperative for an investor to define
for private not-for-profit universities should be made clear, simple the objective both returns and digestible risk and then identify
and transparent to ensure that they are truely not for profit and the possible options. The investor also needs to select the mix
offer a level playing field to all those who might want to set up a and regularly monitor that objectives and investment outcomes
private university. remain aligned. Sounds simple, but can present the most
11. Privatisation of higher education has yet to make proper confounding situations which multiplies with the quantum of
shape in India. wealth.
21. Investment of higher amount is relatively simpler than smaller
12. Expansion of higher education opportunities in India is
amounts.
needed to meet the increasing demand.
22. Investors need to critically evaluate the risk of each
13. Corporatisation of higher education has benefited the investment options.
students in the developed countries. 23. Present-day investors need to use their judgement more
14. Privatisation of higher education will lead to critically before investing.
commercialisation of education in India. 24. Multiple investment options of similar type help in making
15. India does not have any extant guidelines for setting up better investment decisions.
higher educational institutions by private entities. 25. In the past, investors were generally guided by the fund
PASSAGE - 4 managers.
Asia has become the growth centre of the world economy PASSAGE - 6
in recent years. Within the region, India and South Korea are the The performance of Indian agriculture is largely dependent
third and fourth largest economies after China and Japan. Though on amount of rainfall across the country. A substantive part of the
the Asian growth stories mainly revolve around India and China, cultivable land is dependent on irrigation which is directly related
South Korea has remained a key player for these countries as one to monsoon. However, agriculture and allied activities account
of their major trading and investment partners. South Korea for less than even one-fourth of the total GDP. The component of
adopted outward-oriented economic policies with the beginning the manufacturing sector that depends on agriculture for the
of its first five-year economic development plan in 1962, which supply of intermediates is not very high, which suggests that the
resulted in high growth and the integration of the Korean economy structure of industrialisation has changed over the years. Several
with the rest of the world. Subsequently, high and consistent components of the tertiary sector that are crucial for the growth of
economic growth made South Korea one of the high-income the rest of the economy have grown sizeably, thanks to IT and
BPO. So it is less likely that aggregate economic growth will be
economies in Asia. Korea is still growing at a faster rate compared
adversely affected if rainfall is scanty. Yet, a somewhat different
to other developed economies. India on the other hand adopted
picture emerges if we look deeper into the matter. Still, a very
an import substitution policy since its Independence until the significant chunk of the population and work for depends on
early 1990s. Since India has introduced wide-ranging economic agriculture for its livelihood. A decline in agriculture reduces per
policy reforms and is moving towards market-driven economy. capita food availability, which in turn, pulls down the standard of
This has resulted in consistent high economic growth over the living.
last one-and-a-half decades. 26. Agro based activities constitute more than 25 percent of
16. Only Korean economy is considered as robust by the GDP in India.
international community. 27. The industrialisation process had undergone significant
17. Japan's economic growth over the last decade is the highest changes over the past few decades.
in Asia. 28. Non-industrial and non-agricultural sector activities have
18. The Korean economy is traditionally different than the Indian considerably grown over the past few years.
economy in its approach. 29. Weak monsoon have adverse effect on GDP even though
19. The economic growth of India prior to 1990s was much non-agricultural sector activities may continue to be the
higher than the present growth rate. same.
20. India and China together are considered to be the driving 30. Manufacturing sector no longer depends on agricultural
force of the Asian economy. sector.

49
SPEED TEST 49 109

Syllogisms - I
Time : 20 min.
43
49
Date : ........./......../................
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-15) : In each of the questions below are given 5. Statements: All hills are trees.
three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. All trees are jungles.
You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem All jungles are bushes.
to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both of the Conclusions: I. All trees are bushes.
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions II. Some jungles are hills.
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly (a) None follows (b) Only I follows
known facts. (c) Only II follows (d) Both I and II follow
1. Statements: Some phones are computers. (e) None of these
All computers are radios. 6. Statements: All rockets are poles.
Some poles are trams.
All radios are televisions.
Some trams are ropes.
Conclusions: I. All televisions are computers.
II. Some radios are phones. All ropes are tents.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows Conclusion: I. Some tents are trams.
(c) Only II follows (d) Both I and II follow II. Some ropes are rockets.
(e) None of these III. Some trams are rockets.
2. Statements: All rings are fingers. IV. Some poles are rockets
Some ears are fingers. (a) Only I and II follow (b) Only I, II and III follow
All ears are necklaces. (c) Only I and III follow (d) Only I and IV follow
Conclusions: I. Some necklaces are fingers. (e) None of these
II. Some necklaces are rings. 7. Statements: All dials are mirrors.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows All mirrors are spoons.
(c) Only II follows (d) Both I and II follow Some spoons are decks.
(e) None of these Some decks are chairs.
3. Statements: Some bottles are cups. Conclusions: I. Some decks are mirrors.
Some cups are plates. II. Some spoons are dials.
No spoon is a plate. III. Some decks are dials.
Conclusions: I. Some spoons are bottles. IV. Some chairs are spoons.
II. No bottle is a spoon. (a) None follows (b) Only I follows
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows (c) Only II follows (d) Only III follows
(c) Only II follows (d) Either I or II follow (e) Only IV follows
8. Statements: Some houses are forests.
(e) None of these
4. Statements: All pens are erasers. All forests are trees.
Some trees are hills.
Some erasers are sharpeners.
All hills are buses.
Some sharpeners are staples
Conclusions: I. Some sharpeners are pens. Conclusions: I. Some buses are trees.
II. Some staples are erasers. II. Some trees are houses.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows III. Some hills are houses.
(c) Only II follows (d) Both I and II follow IV. Some buses are forests.
(e) None of these (a) Only I and II follow (b) Only I, II and IV follow
(c) Only I, II and III follow (d) All I, II, III and IV follow
(e) None of these
110 SPEED TEST 49
9. Statements : Some lakes are rivers. 14. Statements: All desks are chairs.
Some rivers are mountains. All chairs are tables.
Some mountains are books. All tables are boxes.
Some books are papers. All boxes are trunks.
Conclusions: I. Some books are rivers. Conclusions: I. Some trunks are tables.
II. Some papers are lakes. II. All chairs are boxes.
III. Some mountains are lakes. III. Some boxes are desks.
IV. No paper is a lake. IV. All desks are trunks
(a) None follows (a) Only I, II and III follow (b) Only I, II and IV follow
(b) Only either II or IV follows (c) Only II, III and IV follow (d) All follow
(c) Only II follows (e) None of these
(d) Only IV follows 15. Statements: Some birds are goats.
(e) Only either II or IV and III follow Some goats are horses
10. Statements: Some tigers are horses. Some horses are lions.
All horses are goats. Some lions are tigers.
All goats are dogs. Conclusions: I. Some tigers are goats.
Some dogs are cats. II. No tigers is goat
Conclusions: I. Some cats are tigers. III. Some lions are birds.
II. Some dogs are horses. IV. No lion is bird.
III. Some goats are tigers. (a) Only either I or II follows
IV. Some cats are horses (b) Only either III or IV follows
(a) Only I and II follow (b) Only I, II and III follow (c) Only either I or II and either III or IV follow
(c) Only II and III follow (d) Only II, III and IV follow (d) Only I and III follow
11. Statements: All notebooks are pens. DIRECTIONS (Q.16-20) : In each questions below are two / three
No pen is a table statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
Some tables are desks. have to take the two / three given statements to be true even if
All desks are tanks. they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then
Conclusions: I. Some tanks are pens. decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
II. Some desks are notebooks. given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
III. Some tanks are tables. Give answer
IV. No tanks is a pen. (a) if only conclusion I follows.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only III follows (b) if only conclusion II follows.
(c) Only IV follows (d) Only either I or IV follows (c) if either conclusion I or II follows.
(e) Only either I or IV and III follows (d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
12. Statements: All belts are rollers. (e) if both conclusions I and II follows.
Some rollers are wheels. 16. Statements: No holiday is a vacation.
All wheels are mats. Some vacations are trips.
Some mats are cars. Conclusions: I. No trip is a holiday.
Conclusions: I. Some mats are rollers. II. Some holidays are definitely not trips.
II. Some mats are belts. 17. Statements: Some kites are birds.
III. Some cars are rollers. No kite is an aeroplane.
IV. Some rollers are belts. Conclusions: I. All aeroplanes are birds.
(a) Only I and II follow (b) Only I, III and IV follow II. Some birds are definitely not kites.
(c) Only I and IV follow (d) Only II, III and IV follow 18. Statements: All metals are plastics.
(e) None of these All plastics are fibres.
13. Statements: Some tyres are rains. Conclusions: I. At least some fibres are metals
Some rains are flowers. II. Some metals are not fibres.
All flowers are jungles. 19. Statements: Some animals are plants.
All jungles are tubes. All plants are rocks.
Conclusions: I. Some jungles are tyres. Conclusions: I. All plants are animals.
II. Some tubes are rains. II. Atleast some rocks are animals.
III. Some jungles are rains 20. Statements: Some institutes are banks.
IV. Some tubes are flowers. All institutes are academies.
(a) Only I, II and III follow (b) Only II, III and IV follow All academies are schools.
(c) Only I, III and IV follow (d) All follow Conclusions: I. All banks can never be schools.
(e) None of these II. Any bank which is an institute in a school.

50
SPEED TEST 50 111

Syllogism - II
Time : 20 min.
43
50
Date : ........./......../................
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-5) : In each of the questions below are given 4. Statements:
three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I , II All trees are gardens.
and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if All gardens are stones.
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read All stones are fences.
all the conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions:
conclusions logically follows from the given statements I. Some fences are gardens.
disregarding commonly known facts. II. All gardens are stones.
1. Statements: III. Some stones are trees.
Some flowers are bins. (a) Only I and II follows (b) Only I and III follows
Some bins are handles (c) Only II or III follow (d) All follow
All handles are sticks. (e) None of these
Conclusions: 5. Statements:
I. Some sticks are bins. All books are leaves.
II. Some handles are flowers. Some leaves are jungles.
III. Some sticks are flowers. No jungle is box.
(a) Only II follows (b) Only III follows Conclusions:
(c) Only I and II follow (d) Only I and III follow I. Some jungles are books.
(e) None of these II. No book is box.
2. Statements: III. Some leaves are boxes.
Some towers are windows. (a) None follows (b) Only I follows
All windows are houses. (c) Only II follows (d) Only III follows
Some houses are temples (e) Only I and II follow
Conclusions:
I. Some towers are temples. DIRECTIONS (Q.6-25) : In each questions below are given
II. Some houses are towers. two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
III. Some temples are windows. and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all
the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
(c) Only III follows (d) Only I and II follow
logically follows from the given statements disregarding
(e) None of these
commonly known facts. Give answer.
3. Statements:
Some walls are doors. (a) if only conclusion I follows.
Some doors are cots. (b) if only conclusion II follows.
Some cots are chairs. (c) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Conclusions: (d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
I. Some chairs are doors. (e) if both conclusions I and II follows.
II. Some cots are walls. 6. Statements:
III. No chair is door. Some toys are desks.
(a) Only II follows Some desks are pens.
(b) Only III follows All pens are rods.
(c) Only either I or III follows Conclusions:
(d) Only I follows I. Some rods are toys.
(e) None of these II. Some pens are toys.
GRID 6. a b c d e
112 SPEED TEST 50
7. Statements: 15. Conclusions:
Some table are huts. I. No card is a paper.
No hut is ring. II. Some papers are cards.
All rings are bangles. 16. Conclusions:
Conclusions: I. All cards being papers is a possibility.
I. Some bangles are tables. II. All boards being papers is a possibility.
II. No bangles is table. 17. Statements: All rings are circles.
8. Statements: All squares are rings.
Some chairs are rooms. No ellipse is a circle.
All rooms are trees. Conclusions: I. Some, rings being ellipses is a possibility.
All trees are poles. : II. At least some circles are squares.
Conclusions: 18. Statements : No house is an apartment.
I. Some poles are chairs. Some bungalows are apartments.
II. Some trees are chairs. Conclusions: I. No house is a bungalow.
9-10. Statements: II. All bungalows are houses.
All buildings are houses. 19. Statements: Some gases are liquids.
No house is an apartment.
All liquids are water.
All apartments are flats.
Conclusions: I. All gases being water is a possibility.
9. Conclusions:
II. All such gases which are not water can
I. No flat is a house.
never be liquids.
II. No building is an apartment.
20. Statements: All minutes are seconds.
10. Conclusions:
All seconds are hours.
I. All buildings being flats is a possibility.
II. All apartments being building is a possibility. No second is a day.
11-12.Statements: Conclusions: I. No day is an hour.
Some oceans are seas. II. At least some hours are minutes.
All oceans are rivers. (21-22): Statements: Some teachers are professors.
No river is a canal. Some lecturers are teachers.
11. Conclusions: 21. Conclusions: I. All teachers as well as professors being
I. All rivers can never be oceans. lecturers is a possibility.
II. All canals being oceans is a possibility. II. All those teachers who are lecturers are
12. Conclusions: also professors.
I. No ocean is a canal. 22. Conclusions: I. No professor is a lecturer.
II. At least some seas are rivers. II. All lecturers being professors is a
13-14. Statements: possibility.
No day is night. (23-24):
All nights are noon. Statements: Some flowers are red.
No noon is an evening. Some roses are flowers.
13. Conclusions: 23. Conclusions:
I. No day is noon. I. All those flowers which are roses are red.
II. No day is an evening. II. No rose is red.
14. Conclusions: 24. Conclusions :
I. No evening are nights. I. All roses being red is a possibility.
II. All days being noon is a possibility. II. Some flowers can never be roses.
25. Statements: Some hills are mountains.
15-16. Statements:
All mountains are high.
Some papers are boards
Conclusions: I. All hills being high is a possibility.
No board is a card.
II. Some mountains can never be hills.

51
SPEED TEST 51 113

Input Output - 1
Time : 20 min.
51
Date : ........./......../................
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-5) : A word and number arrangement machine DIRECTIONS (Q. 6 to 10) : Study the following information to
when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them answer the given questions:
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of an input and rearrangement. A word arrangement machine when given an input line of words
rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an
Input : 17 put show on 39 27 85 gold illustration of input and rearrangement.
Step I : show 17 put on 39 27 85 gold Input: age road own wire tire ink pen uni dice eat
Step II : show 85 17 put on 39 27 gold Step I : uni age road own wire tire ink pen eat dice
Step III : show 85 put 17 on 39 27 gold Step II : uni own age road wire tire ink eat pen dice
Step IV : show 85 put 39 17 on 27 gold
Step III : uni own ink age wire tire eat road pen dice
Step V : show 85 put 39 on 17 27 gold
Step IV : uni own ink eat age wire tire road pen dice
Step VI : show 85 put 39 on 27 17 gold
And step four is the last step of the rearrangement.
Step VII : show 85 put 39 on 27 gold 17
and step VII is the last step of the rearrangement of the above As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of
input. the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of Input for the questions
the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input: gem stat ace cast omit fan rate uncut era input
1. Input : glass full 15 37 water now 85 67 6. Which of the following would be the final arrangement?
Which of the following will be step VI of the above input? (a) cast gem fan rate stat uncut omit input era ace
(a) 85 now 67 full glass 15 37 (b) uncut omit input era ace cast fan gem rate stat
(b) water 85 now 67 glass full 15 37 (c) uncut omit input era ace stat rate gem fan cast
(c) water 85 now 67 glass 37 full 15 (d) uncut omit input era ace stat fan gem rate cast
(d) There will be no such step. (e) None of these
(e) None of these 7. In Step III, which of the following words would be at 6th
2. Step II of an input is: ultra 73 12 16 mail sort 39 kite. Which of position from the left?
the following steps will be the last but one? (a) rate (b) ace (c) stat
(a) VIII (b) IX (c) VII (d) gem (e) None of these
(d) VI (e) None of these
8. Which step number would be the following output? uncut
3. Step III of an input is: win 75 voice 15 39 store gap 26. Which
omit gem stat ace rate era input fan cast
of the following is definitely the input?
(a) voice 15 win 75 39 store gap 26 (a) II (b) III (c) V
(b) voice win 75 15 39 store gap 26 (d) IV (e) None of these
(c) 15 75 win voice store gap 26 9. In step IV of the rearrangement, if omit is related to era and
(d) Cannot be determined rate is related to fan in a certain way, which of the following
(e) None of these would ace be related to following the same pattern?
4. Step II of an input is: tube 83 49 34 garden flower rat 56. How (a) rate (b) input (c) stat
many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement? (d) gem (e) None of these
(a) Four (b) Five (c) Six 10. Which of the following would be step VII?
(d) Three (e) None of these (a) uncut omit input era ace stat rate gem fan cast
5. Input : hunt for 94 37 good 29 48 book. (b) uncut omit input era ace rate stat fan gem cast
How many steps will be required to complete the (c) uncut omit input era ace cast fan gem rate stat
rearrangement? (d) uncut omit input era stat ace rate gem fan cast
(a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (e) There will be no such step as the input gets rearranged
(d) Seven (e) None of these before step VII.
114 SPEED TEST 51
DIRECTIONS (Q.11 to 15) : Study the following information to DIRECTIONS (Q. 16 to 20) : A word and number arrangement
answer the given questions: machine when given an input line of words and numbers
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The
line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular following is an illustration of input rearrangement.
rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input : but 32 71 glory fair south 65 84
(All the numbers are two-digit numbers.) Step I : south but 32 71 glory fair 65 84
Input : sine 88 71 cos theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 Step II : south 84 but 32 71 glory fair 65
Step I : cos sine 71 theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 88 Step III : south 84 glory but 32 71 fair 65
Step II : delta cos sine theta 14 56 gamma 26 88 71 Step IV : south 84 glory 71 but 32 fair 65
Step III : gamma delta cos sine theta 14 26 88 71 56 Step V : south 84 glory 71 fair but 32 65
Step IV : sine gamma delta cos theta 14 88 71 56 26 Step VI : south 84 glory 71 fair 65 but 32
Step V : theta sine gamma delta cos 88 71 56 26 14 and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules
Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of questions the appropriate step for the given input.
the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input. 16. Step III of an input is : year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house 39.
Input for the questions: How many more steps will be required to complete the
Input : for 52 all 96 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46 (All the rearrangement?
numbers given in the arrangement are two digit numbers). (a) Three (b) Four (c) Two
11. Which word/ number would be at 8th position from the (d) Five (e) None of these
right in step IV ? 17. Input : any how 49 24 far wide 34 69.
(a) 15 (b) road (c) hut Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
(d) jam (e) stop (a) VI (b) VII (c) V
12. Which step number would be the following output? Bus all (d) VIII (e) None of these
for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73. 18. Step II of an input is : town 74 pair 15 31 nice job 42.
(a) There will be no such step. Which of the following is definitely the input?
(b) III (a) pair 15 31 town nice job 42 74
(c) II (b) pair 15 town 31 74 nice job 42
(d) V (c) pair 15 town 74 31 nice job 42
(e) VI (d) cannot be determined
13. Which of the following would be step VII? (e) None of these
(a) stop road jam hut for bus all 15 96 73 5246 38 25 19. Input : play over 49 37 12 match now 81.
(b) road jam hut for bus all stop 15 25 38 46 52 73 96 Which of the following will be step IV?
(c) stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 52 46 38 25 15 (a) play 81 over 49 37 match now
(d) jam hut for bus all 25 road stop 15 96 73 52 46 38 (b) play 81 over 49 37 12 now
(e) There will be no such step (c) play 81 over 49 now 37 match 12
14. Which word/number would be at 6th position from the left (d) There will be no such step
in step V? (e) None of these
(a) 25 (b) stop (c) jam 20. Step II of an input is : war 58 box cart 33 49 star 24.
(d) all (e) road Which of the following steps will be the last?
15. Which of the following would be step III? (a) V (b) VI (c) IV
(a) hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 (d) VII (e) None of these
(b) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut 38 stop 96 46 73 52
(c) hut for bus all jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 25
(d) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52
(e) None of these

52 Input Output - 2
43
DIRECTIONS (Q. 1 to 6) : A word and number arrangement 6. Input : buy win task 52 38 43 door 12. Which of the following
machine when given an input line of words and numbers will be step IV ?
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The (a) 52 buy 43 door 38 task 12 win
following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (b) 52 buy 43 door 38 task win 12
(c) 52 buy 43 door task win 38 12
Input : go now 52 38 17 for again 65
(d) There will be no such step
Step I : 65 go now 52 38 17 for again
(e) None of these
Step II : 65 again go now 52 38 17 for
Step III : 65 again 52 go now 38 17 for DIRECTIONS (Q. 7 to 12) : Study the following information
Step IV : 65 again 52 for go now 38 17 carefully and answer the given questions:
Step V : 65 again 52 for 38 go now 17
A word arrangement machine when given an input line of words
Step VI : 65 again 52 for 38 go 17 now
and number rearranges them following a particular rule in each
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of Input : shop 17 table 20 53 oven desk 39
the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Step I : 17 shop table 20 53 oven desk 39
1. Input : show 51 36 new far 81 46 goal
Step II : 17 table shop 20 53 oven desk 39
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
Step III : 17 table 20 shop 53 oven desk 39
(a) VII (b) VIII (c) VI
Step IV : 17 table 20 shop 39 53 oven desk
(d) V (e) None of these
Step V : 17 table 20 shop 39 oven 53 desk
2. Input : home turf 39 24 86 44 roll over
and Step V is the last step of the rearrangement.
Which of the following steps will be the last?
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of
(a) X (b) IX (c) VIII
the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
(d) VII (e) None of these
7. Input : 89 bind 32 goal house 61 12 joy
3. Step II of an input is : 76 ask 12 32 begin over join 42.
How many steps will be required to complete the
How many more steps will be required to complete the
arrangement?
rearrangement ?
(a) Four (b) Five (c) Six
(a) Four (b) Five (c) Six
(d) Seven (e) None of these
(d) Three (e) None of these
8. Step II of an input is : 15 yes 62 51 48 talk now gone
4. Step IV of an input is : 58 box 47 dew 15 21 town pot.
Which of the following will be step VI ?
Which of the following steps will be the last?
(a) 15 yes 48 talk 51 now gone 62
(a) VII (b) VI (c) VIII
(b) 15 yes 48 talk 51 62 now gone
(d) IX (e) None of these
(c) 15 yes 48 talk 51 now 62 gone
5. Step III of an input is : 94 car 86 window shut 52 31 house.
(d) There will be no such step.
Which of the following is definitely the input?
(e) None of these
(a) 94 car window 86 shut 52 31 house
9. Step III of an input is : 21 victory 30 joint 64 47 all gone
(b) 80 window 94 car shut 52 31 house
How many steps will be required to complete the
(c) car shut window 86 52 31 house 94
rearrangement?
(d) Cannot be determined
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five
(e) None of these
(d) Six (e) None of these
116 SPEED TEST 52
10. Input : win 92 task 73 59 house range 34 14. Input : 72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey
Which of the following will be step IV of the above input? How many steps will it take to complete the rearrangement?
(a) 34 win 59 task 73 range 92 house (a) Three (b) Four (c) Five
(b) 34 win 92 59 task 73 house range (d) Six (e) None of these
(c) 34 win 92 task 73 59 house range 15. Input : nice flower 24 12 costly height 41 56
(d) There will be no such step Which of the following will be step III ?
(e) None of these (a) 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56
11. Input : save 21 43 78 them early 36 for (b) 12 nice 34 height 41 flower costly 56
Which of the following steps will be the last but one? (c) 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56
(a) VI (b) VII (c) VIII (d) 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56
(d) V (e) None of these (e) None of these
12. Input : desire 59 63 all few 38 46 zone 16. Step II of an input is : 16 victory 19 36 53 store lake town.
How many steps will be required to complete the Which of the following will be step V ?
rearrangement? (a) 16 victory 19 town store 36 53 lake
(a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (b) 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake
(d) Seven (e) None of these (c) 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake
(d) There will be no such step
DIRECTIONS (Q. 13 to 20) : Study the following information
(e) None of these
carefully and answer the given questions:
17. Step III of an input is : 15 yes 29 ask for soap 42 37
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input Which of the following is definitely the input?
line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular (a) ask yes 29 15 for soap 42 37
rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and (b) yes ask 15 29 for soap 42 37
rearrangement. (c) 29 15 yes ask for soap 42 37
Input : 51 pour 32 start now 23 46 house (d) Cannot be determined
Step I : 23 51 pour 32 start now 46 house (e) None of these
Step II : 23 start 51 pour 32 now 46 house 18. Input : milk pot 18 24 over goal 36 53
Step III : 23 start 32 51 pour now 46 house Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
Step IV : 23 start 32 pour 51 now 46 house (a) VI (b) V (c) VII
Step V : 23 start 32 pour 46 51 now house (d) VIII (e) None of these
Step VI : 23 start 32 pour 46 now 51 house 19. Step III of an input is : 36 win 44 95 86 ultra box queen
and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement How many more steps will be required to complete the
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of rearrangement?
the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input. (a) Three (b) Four (c) Five
13. Step II of an input is : 18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31 (d) Six (e) None of these
How many more steps will be required to complete the 20. Input : new 22 model 27 pump 38 11 join
rearrangement? How many steps will be required to complete the
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five rearrangement?
(d) Six (e) None of these (a) Four (b) Five (c) Six
(d) Seven (e) None of these

GRID 20. a b c d e
53
SPEED TEST 53 117

Assumptions
Time : 20 min.
43
53
Date : ........./......../................
DIRECTIONS (Q. 1 to 15) : In each question below is given a Assumptions I : The management of the organisation may
not grant leave to most of these employees.
statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An
II : These employees may be able to complete their education
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have
during the sabbatical leave.
to consider the statement and the following assumption and decide 7. Statement : The college administration has instructed all the
which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. students to stop using cell phones within the college
Give answer (a) if only assumption I is implicit premises.
Give answer (b) if only assumption II is implicit. Assumptions I : The students may stop using cell phones in
Give answer (c) if either assumption I or II is implicit. the college premises.
Give answer (d) if neither assumption I nor II is implicit. II : The students may continue to use cell phones in the
college premises.
Give answer (e) if both assumptions I and II are implicit. 8. Statement : The Govt has decided to levy congestion tax on
1. Statement : Even though the number of sugar factories is passengers traveling by air to and from the metro cities.
increasing at a fast rate in India, we still continue to import it Assumptions I : The tax so collected may be adequate to
from other countries. meet part of the expenses for providing additional resources
Assumptions I : Even the increased number of factories may to handle huge traffic.
not be able to meet the demand of sugar in India II : Passengers traveling by air to and from these cities may
II : The demand for sugar may increase substantially in future. be able to pay extra amount by way of congestion tax.
2. Statement : The government an nounced a h eavy 9. Statement : The local citizens group submitted a memorandum
compensation package for all the victims of the terrorist to the civic authority for allowing them to convert the vacant
attacks. plot in the locality into a garden at their own cost.
Assumptions I : Such incidents of terror may not occur in Assumptions I : The local citizen group may be able to gather
near future. enough funds to develop the garden.
II : Compensation may mitigate the anger among the citizens II :The civic authority may not accede to the requests of the
against the current government. local citizen group.
10. Statement : Most of the private companies have decided
3. Statement : Many organizations have switched over to online against awarding annual increase in the salaries of their
mode of examinations. employees for the previous year due to the current economic
Assumptions I : Candidates from all parts of the country situation.
may be well-versed using computers. Assumptions I : Majority of the employees may leave their
II : Online mode of examinations helps in recruiting more job to protest against the decision.
capable personnel. II : These companies may announce hike in salaries next
4. Statement : Government has decided to relocate all the year.
factories from the city with immediate effect to reduce 11. Statement : Mr X started at 9.00 am from his residence to
pollution. attend a meeting scheduled to be held at 11.00 am and
Assumptions I : Pollution in the city being caused only instructed his assistant to meet him at the venue of the
because of the factories existing there. meeting and hand over the relevant documents.
II : People may be able to manage travelling daily to the Assumptions I : Mr. X may arrive at the meeting place before
relocated factories. 11.00 am.
5. Statement : Gambling through lotteries is banned by the II : Mr. X's assistant may be able to arrive at the venue
before commencement of the meeting.
Central Government in all the states with immediate effect.
12. Statement : The city transport corporation has introduced
Assumptions I : This may save innocent citizens from getting air-conditioned buses on various routes to attract people
cheated of their hard-earned money. travelling to their work places by car and hence reduce
II : The citizens may not gamble in any other way if the congestion on the roads.
lotteries are banned. Assumptions I : Majority of the people may still prefer to
6. Statement : Many employees of the organisation applied travel to their work places in their own cars.
for special sabbatical leave of two years to pursue higher II : Many people may now opt for these buses for travelling
education. to their work places.
RESPONSE
118 SPEED TEST 53
13. Statement : The state govt has announced an amnesty scheme (A) Technical colleges affiliated to different universities
for all the housing societies defaulting on payment of may not welcome the apex body's decision and may
municipal taxes asking these societies to pay upfront six per continue with the same syllabus as at present.
cent of the dues and regularize their status without any penalty. (B) The industry may welcome the decision of the apex
Assumptions I : Most of the defaulting housing societies body and scale up their hiring from these colleges.
may now opt for the amnesty scheme and pay up their dues. (C) The Govt may not allow the apex body to implement its
II : Other housing societies which have been paying their decision in all the colleges as it may lead to chaos.
taxes regularly may file case against the govt for (a) None of implicit (b) Only (A) is implicit
discriminatory practices. (c) Only (B) is implicit(d) Only (C) is implicit
14. Statement : The railway authority has announced (e) Only (A) and (B) are implicit
suspension of movements of train on the main track within 18. Statement : Govt has urged all the citizens to use electronic
the city limit for carrying out major repair works of Saturday media for carrying out their daily activities, whenever
and Sunday and advised the commuters to plan their journey possible, instead of using paper as the manufacture of paper
accordingly. requires the cutting down of a large number of trees causing
Assumptions I : The commuters may protest against the severe damage to the ecosystem.
decision of the railway authority and may disrupt other Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the
transport services. above statement?
II : The municipal authority may be able to deploy additional (A) Most people may be capable of using electronic media
buses during Saturday and Sunday to help the commuters. to carry out various routines.
15. Statement : "If you are a first-class graduate with good (B) Most people may have access to electronic media for
communication skills an also have work experience of at carrying out their daily routine activities.
least two years in sales-related activities, you are welcome (C) People at large may reject the govt's appeal and continue
in our organization" - An employment advertisement. using paper as before.
Assumptions I : Many with good communication skills may (a) Only (A) is implicit
not respond to the advertisement. (b) Only (B) is implicit
II : All the first-class graduates may possess good (c) Only (A) and (B) are implicit
communication skills. (d) Only (C) is implicit
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Q. 16 to 20) : In each question below is given a 19. Statement : The Govt has decided to auction construction
statement followed by three assumptions (A), (B) and ( C). An of highway to private entities in several blocks across the
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You country on build-operate-transfer basis.
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the
and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. above statement?
(A) An adequate number of private entities may not
16. Statement : The police authority cordoned off the entire respond to the Government's auction notification.
locality for the entire day and stopped all vehicular (B) Many private entities in the country are capable of
movement for the visit of a top functionary of the constructing highways within a reasonable time.
government in view of the threat perception and advised all (C) The Govt's proposal of build-operate-transfer may
the residents in the area to limit their movement outside financially benefit the private entities.
their dwellings. (a) Only (A) and (B) are implicit
Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the (b) Only (B) and (C) are implicit
above statement? (c) Only (B) is implicit
(A) The police personnel may not be able to control the (d) Only (A) and (C) are implicit
vechicular movement in the locality and may seek help (e) None of these
from the armed forces. 20. Statement : The airlines have requested all their bona fide
(B) People living in the locality may move out of their passengers to check the status of flight operations before
houses for the day to avoid inconvenience. leaving their homes as heavy fog is causing immense
(C) The Govt functionary may request the police authority problems to normal flight operations.
to lift the ban on the movement of residents of the Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the
locality outside their dwellings. above statement?
(a) None of implicit (b) Only (A) is implicit (A) Majority of the air passengers may check the flight
(c) Only (B) is implicit(d) Only (C) is implicit status before starting their journey to the airport.
(e) Only (B) and (C) are implicit (B) The Govt may take serious objection to the notice
17. Statement : The apex body controlling universities in the issued by the airline company.
country has decided to revise the syllabus of all the technical (C) Majority of the passengers may cancel their tickets
course to make them focused towards the present needs of and postpone their journey till the situation becomes
the industry, thereby making the technical graduates more normal.
employable that they are at present. (a) None of implicit (b) Only (A) is implicit
Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the (c) Only (B) is implicit(d) Only (C) is implicit
above statement? (e) Only (A) and (C) are implicit

54
SPEED TEST 54 119

Statement and Conclusions
Time : 20 min.
43
54
Date : ........./......../................
DIRECTIONS (Q. 1 to 18) : In each question below is given a Conclusions :
statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You I : The population of developing countries will not
have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then continue to increase in future.
consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them II : It will be very difficult for the governments of
logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information developing countries to provide its people decent
given in the statement. quality of life.
Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows. 5. Statement : Mr. X is one of the probable candidates
Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows. shortlisted for the post of Director of K. L. M. Institute.
Give answer (c) if either I or II follows. Conclusions :
Give answer (d) if neither I nor II follows. I : Mr. X will be selected as Director of K. L. M. Institute.
Give answer (e) if both I and II follows. II : Mr. X will not be selected as Director of K. L. M.
1. Statement : Although we have rating agencies like Crisil. Institute.
ICRA, there is demand to have a separate rating agency for 6. Statement :
IT Companies to protect investors. We follow some of the best and effective teaching learning
practices used by leading institutes all over the world. A
Conclusions :
statement of professor of MN Institute.
I : Assessment of financial worth of IT Companies calls
Conclusions :
for separate set of skills, insight and competencies. I. The MN Institute is one of the leading institutes of the
II : Now the investors investing in I. T. Companies will get world.
protection of their investment. II. Whatever is being followed by worlds leading institutes
2. Statement : Company "Y" will improve the manufacturing will definitely be good and useful.
facilities for the production of shaving kits as a result of 7. Statement :
which capacity would increase and cost would be reduced In the absence of national health insurance or social security
A spokesperson of the Company "Y". cover, a person with limited resources has to depend on
Conclusions : government hospitals, which are crowded, overburdened
I : The products of Company "Y" will complete the market and understaffed.
norms in the quality and cost factor. Conclusions :
II : There will be demand of shaving kits of Company "Y"? I. National health insurance is meant only for the affluent
3. Statement : During 1997-98 the total loss incurred by the sections of society.
111 Public Sector Units was to the tune of ` 6809 crore, II. The government hospitals provide treatment on nominal
which was converted into paid capitals by the Government charges or free.
of its total investment of ` 5129 crore. 8. Statement :
Conclusions : We do not need today in India extraordinary specialists but
I : The Government is left with only one option that is to those trained ordinary doctors who are dedicated to their
profession.
privatise these units.
Conclusions :
II : The Government did not take care in the matter of
I. We should promote medical profession with dedicated
investments in these public sector units. ordinary doctors rather than promoting high specialised
4. Statement : Population increase coupled with depleting medical education.
resources is going to be the scenario of many developing II. Extraordinary specialists are not dedicated to their
countries in days to come. profession.
120 SPEED TEST 54
9. Statement : 16. Statements :
The Government will review the present policy of the diesel A study of planning commission reveals boom in revenues.
price in view of further spurt in the international oil prices However, this has been of little avail owing to soaring
A spokesman of the Government. expenditure. In the event, there has been a high dose of
deficit financing, leading to marked rise in prices.
Conclusions :
Large financial outlays year after year had little impact on
I. The Government will increase the price of the diesel after the standard of living.
the imminent spurt in the international oil prices. Conclusions :
II. The Government will not increase the price of the diesel I. A boom in revenues leads to soar in prices.
even after the imminent spurt in the international oil II. Large financial outlays should be avoided.
prices. 17. Statements :
10. Statement : The average number of students per teacher is 50 in the
Vegetable prices are soaring in the market. urban area whereas it is 60 in rural areas. The national average
Conclusions : is 55.
Conclusions :
I. Vegetables are becoming a rare commodity.
I. The student-teacher ratio in the rural areas is higher than
II. People cannot eat vegetables. in the urban areas.
11. Statement : II. More students study with the same teacher in the rural
Being from a business family, Chandan was apparently areas as compared to those in the urban areas.
convinced by his parents and other family members to join 18. Statement :
the family trade. Morning walks are good for health.
Conclusions : Conclusions :
I. People should take up their family profession so that I. All healthy people go for morning walks.
family prospers. II. Evening walks are harmful.
19. Statement : The cost of manufacturing cars in state A is 30
II. It is necessary to keep in family members happy by
per cent less than the cost of manufacturing cars in state B.
choosing familys business. After transportation fee for the differential distances of states
12. Statement : A and B and the interstate taxes, it is cheaper to manufacture
Global ecological issues have eclipsed local environmental cars in state B than in state A for selling these cars in State C.
problems which are being faced by the poor societies. Which of he following supports the conclusion draw in the
Conclusions : above statement?
I. Poor societies always have to suffer because of their (a) The cost of transportation from state A to state C is
poverty. more than 30 per cent of the production cost.
II. Global ecological issues are not so important. Rich (b) The production cost of cars in state B is lower in
comparison to state A.
societies can bear with it.
(c) Only entry tax at state C is more for the production
13. Statements : originating in state A.
Of the ten fishermen caught in a storm, nine managed to (d) Entry tax at state C is more for the products originating
return to the shore. in state B.
Praveen has not yet returned after four days. (e) The total of transportation cost of cars from state B to
Conclusions : state C and entry tax of cars at state C is less than 30
I. Praveen got killed in the storm. per cent of the production cost of cars in state B.
II. Praveen has survived the storm. 20. Statement : There was a slow decline in the number of
14. Statements : patients with flu-like symptoms visiting various health
facilities in the city during the last fortnight.
Now you dont need an import licence to own a VCR.
Which of the following substantiates the fact mentioned in
Conclusions : the above statement?
I. VCRs are now manufactured indigenously. (a) Majority of the people suffering from flu visit the health
II. VCRs are now freely permitted to be imported. facilities in the city.
15. Statements : (b) There has been a continuous increase in the sale of
Just about everyone in Germany has been on a diet at one medicines for curing flu in the city limits.
time or the other and millions of them have learned that the (c) People have started visiting the crowded places like
weight they lose is all too easily regained. malls and cinema halls during the last fortnight after a
Still despite their frustration, few question the wisdom of cautioned gap of one month.
(d) There is a sudden increase in the number of deaths
dieting.
caused by flu-like symptoms followed by respiratory
Conclusions : complications.
I. Germany should stop dieting. (e) None of these
II. Germans do not learn from experience.

55 Course of Action
55
43
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-8) : In each question below is given a 3. Statement : Many political activities have decided to state
statement followed by three courses of action numbered (A), (B) demonstrations and block traffic movement in the city during
and (C). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to peak hours to protest against the steep rise in prices of
be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard essential commodities.
to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given Courses of action:
in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement (A) The Govt should immediately ban all forms of agitations
to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action in the country.
logically follow(s) for pursuing.
(B) The police authority of the city should deploy
1. Statement : A heavy unseasonal downpour during the last additional forces all over the city to help traffic
two days has paralysed the normal life in the state in which movement in the city.
five persons were killed but this has provided a huge relief (C) The state administration should carry out preventive
to the problem of acute water crisis in the state.
arrests of the known criminals staying in the city
Courses of action:
(a) Only (A) (b) Only (B)
(A) The state government should set up a committee to
(c) Only (C) (d) Only (A) and (B)
review the alarming situation.
(B) The state government should immediately remove all (e) None of these
the restrictions on use of potable water in all the major 4. Statement : The school dropout rate in many districts in the
cities in the state. state has increased sharply during the last few years as the
(C) The state government should send relief supplies to all parents of these children make them work in the fields owned
the affected areas in the state. by others to earn enough for them to least one meal a day.
(a) None (b) Only (A) Courses of action:
(c) Only (B) and (C) (d) Only (C) (A) The Govt should put up a mechanism to provide food
(e) All (A), (B) and (C) grains to the poor people in these districts through
2. Statement : A large private bank has decided to retrench public distribution system to encourage the parents to
one-third of its employees in view of the huge losses incurred send their wards to school.
by it during the past three quarters. (B) The Govt should close down some of these schools in
Courses of action:
the district and deploy the teachers of these schools to
(A) The Govt should issue a notification to general public
nearby schools and also ask remaining students to join
to immediately stop all transactions with the bank.
these schools.
(B) The Govt should direct the bank to refrain from
(C) Govt should issue arrest warrants for all the parents
retrenching its employees.
(C) The Govt should ask the central bank of the country to who force their children to work in fields instead of
initiate an enquiry into the bank's activities and submit attending classes.
its report. (a) Only (A) (b) Only (B) (c) Only (C)
(a) None (b) Only (A) (c) Only (B) (d) Only (A) and (B) (e) None of these
(d) Only (C) (e) All (A) and (C)
RESPONSE 1. a b c d e 2. a b c d e 3. a b c d e 4. a b c d e
GRID
122 SPEED TEST 55
5. Statement : One aspirant was killed due to stampede while 8. Statement : A sudden cloud burst over the island city resulted
participating in a recruitment drive of police constables. into unpredicted rainfall causing a flood-like situation in the
Courses of action: entire area. A large number of people were caught unaware
(A) The officials in charge of the recruitment process should and were stranded on the road.
immediately be suspended. Courses of action :
(B) A team of officials should be asked to find out the A : The local administration should immediately put in
circumstances which led to the death of the aspirant place an action plan for avoiding such a situation in
and submit its report within a week. future.
(C) The Govt should ask the home department to stagger B : The local administration should immediately deploy
the number of aspirants over more number of days to personnel to help the stranded people to move to safer
avoid such incidents in future. places.
(a) Only (A) (b) Only (B)
C : The local administration should advise all the citizens
(c) Only (C) (d) Only (B) and (C)
not to venture out on the road till the situation improves.
(e) None of these
(a) Only A follows (b) Only B follows
6. Statement : Many students of the local school fell ill for the
(c) Only C follows (d) Both B and C follows
fourth time in a row in the last six months after consuming
(e) All A, B and C follows
food prepared by the school canteen.
Courses of action : DIRECTIONS (Q.9-30) : In each question below is given a
A : The school management should immediately terminate statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
the contract of the canteen and ask for compensation. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be
B : The school management should advise all the students taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to
not to eat food articles from the canteen. the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in
C : The owner of the canteen should immediately be the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement
arrested for negligence. to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action
(a) None follows (b) Only B follows logically follow(s) for pursuing.
(c) Only C follows (d) Only A and B follows
Give answer (a) if only course of action I follows.
(e) Only B and C follows
Give answer (b) if only course of action II follows.
7. Statement : Many school buses have fitted CNG kit without
Give answer (c) if either course of action I or II follows.
observing the safety guidelines properly. This results into
some instances of these buses catching fire due to short Give answer (d) if neither course of action I nor II follows.
circuit and endangering the lives of the school children. Give answer (e) if both courses of action I and II follow.
Courses of action : 9. Statement : There have been sporadic cases of stone
A : The regional transport authority should immediately throwing and damaging vehicles in the locality during the
carry out checks of all the school buses fitted with day following altercation between two local youth clubs
CNG kit. last night.
B : The management of all the schools should stop hiring Courses of action :
buses fitted with CNG kit. I: The local police administration should arrest all those
C : The govt should issue a notification banning school who are caught committing these acts.
buses for the use of CNG kit. II : The local police administration should call a meeting of
(a) Only A follows (b) Only B follows office bearers of both the clubs of the local to bring the
(c) Only C follows (d) Only A and C follows situation under control.
(e) None of these
GRID
SPEED TEST 55 123
10. Statement : A huge truck overturned on the middle of the 15. Statement : A major river in the city was reduced to a polluted
main road and blocked most part of the road, causing a huge and dirty canal after tonnes of sewage made way into it over
traffic jam. the years.
Courses of action : Courses of action :
I : The traffic department should immediately deploy its I : All those who dumped garbage and sewage into the
personnel to divert traffic through other roads.
river should be penalized.
II : The traffic department should immediately send men
II : The government should modify the sewage system and
and equipment to move the truck and clear the road.
find an alternate way to dump the city's waste.
11. Statement : Some workers of the company making diamond
jewellery were caught while there were leaving the premises 16. Statement : Water table in most parts of the State has gone
as they were trying to smuggle small pieces of diamonds down to such a level that its extraction for irrigation purposes
hidden in their purses. is not economical any more.
Courses of action : Courses of action :
I : The management of the company should immediately I : Extraction of ground water for any purpose in the State
put on hold all activities in the premises till a fool-proof should be banned for some time in order to replenish
security system is in place. the water table.
II : The belongings of all the workers should thoroughly II : The Government should make provisions for alternative
be searched before they leave the premises of the methods of irrigation so that the farmers are not
company. compelled to use ground water.
12. Statement : A huge tidal wave swept away many fishing
17. Statement : A university librarian reported increased cases
boats and hutments of the fishermen living along the
of theft of books from the library.
coastline.
Courses of action :
Courses of action :
I : The fishermen should henceforth be restrained from I : Stricter security arrangements should be put in place
constructing their huts along the coast line. in order to prevent such incidents.
II : The local administration should send a team of officials II : All the students in the university should be made to
to assess the extent of damage and suggest remedial pay a hefty fine in order to replace the lost books.
measures. 18. Statement : Indigenous tribes living near Amazon forests
13. Statement : A large number of invitees who attended the are cutting down trees to cover their basic needs, thus
marriage function fell ill due to food poisoning and were severely affecting the ecological balance in the area.
rushed to various hospitals located in the area. Courses of action :
Courses of action : I : All the tribes living near the Amazon rain forests should
I : The government should ban such marriage functions be forced to shift to urban areas of the country.
till further notice.
II : The tribes should be allowed to continue doing so as
II : The local hospitals should be advised by the
they cut down trees for their basic needs and not for
government to provide best services to the affected
commercial purposes.
people.
14. Statement : An increasing number of farmers prefer to avail 19. Statement : Severe drought is reported to have set in several
loans from local moneylenders instead of the banks owing parts of the country.
to complicated paperwork involved in banks. Courses of action :
Courses of action : I : Govt. should immediately make arrangement for
I : Local moneylenders who charge interest rates lower providing financial assistance to those affected.
than the banks should be punished. II : Food, water and fodder should immediately be sent to
II : Banks should simplify the procedure to avail of loans all these areas to save the people and cattle.
so as to suit the farmers.

124 SPEED TEST 55
20. Statement : A large number of lower ranked politicians are Courses of action :
murdered by anti-social elements in City A. I : The government should order an enquiry into the
Courses of action : matter.
I : All those in the city with criminal records should II : The civic body should set up a fact-finding team to
immediately be arrested. assess the damage and take effective steps.
II : The city police should keep a close vigil on the 26. Statement : There is an alarming increase in the number of
movements of anti-social elements so as to prevent people suffering from malaria in many parts of the city.
future attacks. Courses of action :
21. Statement : It is reported that though Vitamin E present in I : The municipal corporation has advised all the govt
fresh fruits and fresh vegetables is beneficial for human body, hospitals to store adequate supply of malaria drugs.
capsuled Vitamin E does not have same effect on human II : The municipal corporation has urged people to use
body. mosquito repellants and keep their premises clean.
Courses of action : 27. Statement : Many people have encroached upon govt.
I : The sale of capsuled Vitamin E should be banned. property and built their houses and business establishments.
II : People should be encouraged to take fresh fruits and Courses of action :
fresh vegetables to meet the body requirement of I : The government should take immediate steps to remove
Vitamin E. all unauthorised constructions on govt land.
22. Statement : India has been continuously experiencing military II : All the encroachers should immediately be put behind
threats from its neighbouring countries. bars and also be slapped with a hefty fine.
Courses of action : 28. Statement : The meteorological department has predicted
I : India should engage into an all out war to stop the normal rainfall throughout the country during the current
nagging threats. monsoon.
II : India should get the neighbours into a serious dialogue Courses of action :
to reduce the tension at its borders. I : The govt should reduce the procurement price of
23. Statement : India has now been recognised by the Western foodgrains for the current year.
World as a vast resource of knowledge and are eager to use II : The govt should reduce subsidy on fertilizers for the
the same. current year.
Courses of action : 29. Statement : The dolphin population in India has been
I : India should exploit this opportunity to hasten its decreasing sharply over the past few years.
economic growth. Courses of action:
II : India should bargain effectively with the Western World I. Dolphins should be declared an endangered species
and become a super power in South Asia. and bred in aquariums or protected areas.
24. Statement : It is estimated that about twenty lakhs people II. Locals should be enlisted to protect dolphins.
will visit the city during the ensuring festival. 30. Statement : Cell phone users have found that tariff plans are
Courses of action : not as attractive as promoted by telecom companies and
I : The civic authority should make adequate complained to regulatory authority about the same.
arrangements to tackle the situation. Courses of action:
II : All the hospitals in the city should be put on high alert I. The regulatory authority should direct telecom
in case on any eventuality. compenies to be trasparent on the tariff structure of all
25. Statement : Drinking water supply to many parts of the town plans.
has been disrupted due to loss of water because of leakage II. The government should restrict the number of telecom
in pipes supplying water. companies operating in the country.

RESPONSE
GRID 30. a b c d e
56 Cause and Effect
43
56
DIRECTIONS (Q. 1 to 28) : Below in each question are given 6. A. The average day temperature of the city has increased
two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either by about 2 degrees in the current year over the average
of past ten years.
independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or
B. More people living in rural areas of the state have
of a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of
started migrating to the urban areas in comparison with
the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which the earlier year.
of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship 7. A. Most of the shopkeepers in the locality closed their
between these two statements. shops for the second continuous day.
Give answer (a) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is B. Two groups of people living in the locality have been
its effect. fighting with each other with bricks and stones, forcing
Give answer (b) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is people to stay indoors.
its effect. 8. A. The Govt has decided to increase the prices of LPG
Give answer (c) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent cylinders with immediate effect.
causes. B. The Govt has decided to increase the prices of
Give answer (d) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of kerosene with immediate effect.
independent causes. 9. A. A cyclonic storm is expected to hit the coastline in the
Give answer (e) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of state during the next 48 hours.
some common cause. B. Warning has been issued that heavy rains are expected
1. A. State Govt has ordered immediate ban on airing of in the coastal region in the state during the next 48
certain movie channels on television. hours.
B. A few social activities have come together and 10. A. Majority of the first year students of the engineering
demanded ban on telecasting 'Adult' movies on college failed in Mathematics in the semester
television. examination.
2. A. Employment scenario in the country has remarkably B. The college authority terminated the contract of the
improved recently. Professor who taught mathematics to the first-year
B. The number of prospective job-seekers going abroad students.
has increased recently. 11. A. The committee appointed by the Government on the
3. A. Government has tightened security checks at all fee structure of the professional courses has drastically
important places and also at various public places. reduced the fees of various courses in comparison to
B. Incidences of terrorist attacks are increasing day by those charged in the last year.
day. B. The parents of aspiring students seeking admission to
4. A. The high court has fixed a time limit for repairing all the professional courses had launched a severe agitation
roads in the city. protesting against the high fees charged by the
professional institutes and the admission process was
B. Road development authorities in the city are carrying
delayed considerably.
out road repair work on an urgent basis.
12. A. The farmers have decided against selling their Kharif
5. A. There is an outbreak of several epidemics in the country.
crops to the Government agencies.
B. There was a worst flood situation ever experienced in
the past in most parts of the country. B. The Government has reduced the procurement price of
Kharif crops starting from last month to the next six
months.
126 SPEED TEST 56
13. A. The Reserve Bank of India has recently put restrictions 24. A. There has been sharp decline in sales of passenger
on few small banks in the country. cars during the last few months.
B. The small banks in the private and co-operative sector B. Many finance companies have announced attractive
in India are not a position to withstand the competitions schemes of car loans with moderate interest rate.
of the bigger in the public sector. 25. A. All the airlines companies in India have increased the
14. A. The performance of India sportspersons in the recently air fares in all routes with immediate effect.
held Olympics could not reach the level of expectation B. There has been substantial reduction in aviation fuel
the country had on them. prices in India during the past few weeks.
B. The performance of Indian sportpersons in the last 26. A. Computer education has been made compulsory for all
Asian games was far better than any previous games. the classes by many schools.
15. A. Large number of people living in the low lying areas B. The current job market prefers computer-literate
have been evacuated during the last few days to safer workforce.
places. 27. A. The standard of education in evening college of the
B. The Government has rushed in relief supplies to the State has been deteriorating.
people living in the affected areas. B. The standard of school education has been fast
16. A. Many schools have banned the sale of fast food in deteriorating in the State.
their premises. 28. A. All domestic airlines increased the fares in all sectors
B. Obesity in youngsters has been linked to their poor with immediate effect.
eating habits. B. Railways increased the fare of all its classes with
17. A. The share prices are touching all all-time low. immediate effect.
B. Most of the organizations have been grounding or 29. Statement : Majority of the employees of the ailing
terminating employees and undergoing cost-cutting organisation opted for voluntary retirement scheme and left
exercises wherever possible. the organisation with all their retirement benefits within a
18. A. A substantial increase in unhealthy competition has fortnight of launching the scheme.
been observed among the students. Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above
B. A rise of 23% is reported every year in the cases of effect?
suicide after declaration of grade 10th and 12th (a) The company has been making huge losses for the
examination results. past five years and is unable to pay salary to its
19. A. The glaciers at the poles of the earth are melting at a employees in time.
fast rate. (b) The management of the company made huge personal
B. In recent times there has been a substantial increase in gains through unlawful activities.
the incidents of earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. (c) One of the competitors of the company went bankrupt
20. A. Though mobile phones find a good number of users in last year.
rural India, computers and Internet still remain a distant (d) The company owns large tracts of land in the state
dream. which will fetch huge sum to its owners.
B. In the recent past there has been a large-scale migration (e) None of these
from the rural parts of India to the urban sectors. 30. Statement : The Govt has recently increased its taxes on
21. A. There has been a continuous increase in average petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent.
temperature during winter in many parts of the country Which of the following can be a possible effect cause of the
over the past few years. above cause?
B. There has been significant changes in the wind pattern (a) The petroleum companies will reduce the prices of
across the country over the last few years. petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent.
22. A. The conditions of all the major roads in the city have (b) The petroleum companies will increase the prices of
deteriorated causing hardship to motorists. petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent.
B. The municipal authority has sanctioned significant (c) The petroleum companies will increase the prices of
amount to repair all the major roads in the city. petrol and diesel by about 5 per cent.
23. A. The BPO sector has laid off a large number of (d) The petrol pumps will stop selling petrol and diesel till
employees in the recent months. the taxes are rolled back by the Govt.
B. Very few projects are now being outsourced to BPO (e) None of these
sector.

57 Non-verbal Reasoning - I
43
Directions (Qs. 1 to 5): In each of the questions given below which one of the five Answer Figures on the right should come after the
Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Problem Figures Answer Figures

1.
S C O B E B S O L O O L B
E E B K E S K O S L S S K
C S K L C S L O C E E E L C
O B K L L O B K C E S O L B K C E L C B K C B K C B K E S O
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
2.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
3.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
o o
c
4.
c
o c c o c o o o
c
c o
o o c
c
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
5. E L S S S
L L
E E H H L L
=HOLE H K C C L H L L
O H L C H
K H S S H
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
GRID
128 SPEED TEST 57
Directions (Qs. 6 to 10) : In each of the following questions a series Answer Figures
begins with an unnumbered figure on the extreme left. One and only
one of the five lettered figures in the series does not fit into the o * o * *
series. The two unlabelled figures, one each on the extreme left and z * o s z s * o s o =
the extreme right, fit into the series. You have to take as many aspects (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
into account as possible of the figures in the series and find out the
one and only one of the five lettered figures which does not fit into 12. Problem Figures
the series. The letter of that figure is the answer.
6. ?
s s s s s s s
Answer Figures
= = = = = = =
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
13. Problem Figures
7. N

?
N
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Answer Figures
8.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
s c s c s c 14. Problem Figures
9. c s
c s s c c s
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) ?

Answer Figures
10.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Directions (Qs. 11-15) : In each of the questions given below (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
which one of the five answer figures on the bottom should come 15. Problem Figures
after the problem figures on the top if the sequence were
continued?
11. Problem Figures ?
z s * o = Answer Figures
o z
o s ? =
* *
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
58 Non-verbal Reasoning - II
43
Directions (Qs. 1 to 5): In each of the questions, there are two 3. Problem Figures
sets of figures. The figures on upper side are problem figures
marked by letters (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5), and on the bottom side
are answer figures marked by numbers (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). A
?
series is established, if one of the five answer figures is placed in
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
place of the (?) sign in the problem figures. That figure is your
Answer Figures
answer.
1. Problem Figures
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

? 4. Problem Figures
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Answer Figures ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Answer Figures
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
2. Problem Figures (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

5. Problem Figures
S = S S 0 C S C ?
= 0 C ? ? = 0
?
? C 0 ? =
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Answer Figures Answer Figures
S C 0 S
S
? S C = S C
0 = C 0 = 0 = ?
? ? = C ? 0 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
GRID
130 SPEED TEST 58
Directions (Qs. 6 to 10): In each of the following questions series beings with unlabelled figure on the extreme left. One and only one
of the five lettered figures in the series does not fit into the series. The two unlabelled figures one each one the extreme left and the
extreme right fit into the series. You have to take as many aspects into account as possible of the figure sin the series and find out the
one and only one of the five lettered figures which does not fit into the series. The letter of that figure is the answer.
6.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
7.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
8. X S P U
C S L O P
O T T C C S C L L O
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
9. S C S S C S S
C S C C S C C
C S C S C S C S C S C S C S
S S C S S
C C S C S C S C C
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
10. C S
C
S C
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Directions (Qs. 11 to 15): In each of the following questions, a related pair of figures is followed by five lettered pairs of figures. Select
the pair that has relationship similar to that in the question figure. The best answer is to be selected from a group of fairly close choices.
11.
I II I II I II I II I II I II
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
12.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
13.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
SPEED TEST 58 131
14.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
15.
I II I II I II I II I I II II
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Directions (Qs. 16 to 20): In each of the following questions, a related pair of figures (unnumbered) is followed by five lettered pairs
of figures. Out of these five, four have relationship similar to that in the question figure. Only one pair of figures does not have similar
relationship. Select that pair of figures which does not have a relationship similar to that in the question figure. The letter of that pair
is your answer.
16.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
S
17.
S
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
= === SC * C C CC CC P SC / CC
S S S
T
= SC SS SS * * ** * C T P SC / PP P
* C / / / /
18. SC T C
S
S
C T
CCC T
T T TT
/ S
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
19.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
20.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Directions (Qs. 21 to 25) : In each of the questions given below, which one of the five Answer Figures on the right should come after
the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?
21. Problem figures 22. Problem figures
Answer figures
Answer figures
S S
S S
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
132 SPEED TEST 58
23. Problem figures 27. Problem Figures
DZ T DO T
DO T DZ Z T O
T Z DZ
Answer figures
Answer Figures
DZ Z D O
O DO T DZ T Z DZ T
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) T T O O
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
24. Problem figures
28. Problem Figures
S VC S V S
C P U
U
U
U
C VS CV S V C
Answer figures P
P
P
P
V CC CC C Answer Figures
V V V V
P U
P
P
S S S S S
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) U U U
U
P
25. Problem figures (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
29. Problem Figures

C
* C D C D C C
s Dz z s DD s
Answer figures z o Co s s o o z z o
Answer Figures
C z o
D C D s z C C z C
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
z o s z o o D s D s o D s
Directions (Qs. 26-30): In each of the questions given below (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
which one of the following five answer figures should come after
the problem figures, if the sequence were continued? 30. Problem Figures
26. Problem Figures
Z O E VP TD SA Z
E V P T D SA ZB Answer Figures
Answer Figures
B B B = =
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

= A Z = A Z B
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

59 Sitting Arrangement
43
59
DIRECTIONS (Q.1 to 4) : Study the following information 5. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
carefully and answer the questions given below it: (a) B, E (b) S, T (c) P, R
(d) B, F (e) None of these
(i) Six boys B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, B6 and six girls C1, C2, C3, C4, C5
and C6 are standing in rows in such a way that each girl 6. Who amongst the following faces A?
faces one boy, not necessarily in the same order. (a) R (b) T (c) P
(ii) C1 is to the immediate right of the girl who is facing B5 the (d) Q (e) S
boy at the extreme right. Only B2 is between B4 and B5. B6 is 7. How many persons are seated between T and S?
to the immediate left of B1 and to the immediate right of B3. (a) One (b) Two (c) Three
C3 is facing B1 and is to the immediate left of C2. C6 is third to (d) Four (e) None
the left of C4. 8. P is related to V in the same way as C is related to F. Which
1. Which of the following girls is facing B4? of the following is E related to, following the same pattern?
(a) C5 (b) C4 (c) C3 (a) B (b) D (c) C
(d) C6 (e) None of these (d) A (e) None of these
2. Which of the following pairs of a boy and a girl is at one of 9. Which of the following is true regarding F?
the extreme ends? (a) F sits second to right of C.
(a) C1, B5 (b) C4, B5 (c) C5, B2 (b) F is not an immediate neighbour of A.
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these (c) F sits third to left of D.
3. Which of the following boys is to the immediate left of B4? (d) F sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
(a) B1 (b) B2 (c) B1 or B2 (e) F faces V.
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these 10. Who amongst the following sits exactly between P and Q?
4. Who is facing C2? (a) R (b) V (c) S
(a) B1 (b) B6 (c) B4 (d) T (e) Cannot be determined
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Q. 11 to 16) : Study the following information
DIRECTIONS (Q. 5 to 10) : Study the following information to carefully and answer the given questions.
answer the given questions. P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and X are captains of eight different cricket
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people teams, namely Australia, New Zealand, India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka,
each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent England, West Indies and South Africa, but not necessarily in the
persons. In row 1, P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are same order. All of them are seated around a circular table and are
facing south. In row 2, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them facing the centre.
are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each P sits third to the left of the Sri Lankan captain. Only two people
member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. sit between T and W. Neither T nor W is an immediate neighbour
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T of P. Neither T nor W is the captain of Sri Lanka. The captain of
faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme South Africa sits second to the right of S. S is not an immediate
ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the neighbour of P. S is not the Sri Lankan captain and P is not the
extreme ends. Only two people sit between B and E. E does not captain of South Africa. The Australian captain sits third to the
face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate left of V. The Australian and Sri Lankan captains are not immediate
neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour neighbours. Only one person sits between S and the Indian captain.
of R. Captains of Pakistan and New Zealand are immediate neighbours.
134 SPEED TEST 59
S is not the captain of New Zealand's team. Only one person sits 19. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to
between Q and the captain of England. The captain of England is the immediate right of the second person?
an immediate neighbour of X. W and Q are not immediate (a) B G (b) G A (c) A H
neighbours. (d) H E (e) CF
11. How many people sit between T and the captain of England 20. Who is third to the left of E?
when counted in clockwise direction from T? (a) A (b) C (c) G
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
(d) Four (e) Five
12. Who is the captain of the Australian team? DIRECTIONS (Q. 21 - 25) : Study the following information
(a) P (b) V (c) W carefully and answer the given questions:
(d) T (e) Q Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square
13. Which of the following would come in place of question table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the
mark based upon the given seating arrangement? square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The
VS XR TV RP? ones who sit at the four corners face the centre while those who
(a) SW (b) WX (c) QW sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
(d) QX (e) VR P, who faces the centre, sits third to the right of V. T, who faces the
14. Which of the following is true with respect to the given centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits
seating arrangement? between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre.
(a) R is the captain of South Africa. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.
(b) W is an immediate neighbour of V. 21. Who sits second to the left of Q?
(c) The captains of Australia and England are immediate (a) V (b) P (c) T
neighbours. (d) Y (e) Cannot be determined
(d) Four people sit between W and Q. 22. What is the position of T with respect to V?
(e) X sits second to the left of S. (a) Fourth to the left (b) Second to the left
15. Who is the Indian captain? (c) Third to the left (d) Third to the right
(a) Q (b) V (c) X (e) Second to the right
(d) T (e) Cannot be determined 23. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
DIRECTIONS (Q. 16 to 20) : Study the following information group?
carefully and answer the questions given below: (a) R (b) W (c) V
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the (d) S (e) Y
centre. B is third to the right of F and third to the left of H. C is 24. Which of the following will come in place of the question
fourth to the left of A, who is not an immediate neighbour of F or mark based upon the given seating arrangement?
B. E is not an immediate neighbour of B. G is second to the right of WP TR QW RS ?
D. (a) Y T (b) VY (c) V Q
16. Who is to the immediate left of B? (d) P Y (e) Q V
(a) D (b) G (c) D or G 25. Which of the following is true regarding R?
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these (a) R is an immediate neighbour of V.
17. Who is to the immediate right of H? (b) R faces the centre.
(a) A (b) E (c) F (c) R sits exactly between T and S.
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these (d) Q sits third to left of R
18. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate (e) None of these
neighbours of F?
(a) C H (b) E D (c) H D
(d) C E (e) None of these

60
SPEED TEST 60 135

Strengthening and weakening argument
Time : 20 min.
43
Date : ........./......../................
1. Except from a research report Average life expectancy in 4. Which of the following strengthens the argument?
southern part of India is far more than that in Western India. (a) Agricultural research is scientific.
While the average life of a native of South India is 82 years, (b) Science gives abstract theories.
the average life of a native of Western India is only 74 years.
Based on the above fact, the proposal that the above study (c) Verified information is reliable.
makes is that if an individual moves from Western India to (d) Science is a compulsory subject.
South India, his/her life expectancy would immediately (e) None of these
increase by eight years. 5. The chairman of a car company announced in a meeting that
Which of the following statements would weaken the above- all trials of its first product, a new model of car 'X', are over
mentioned studys proposal that people belonging to and the company is planning to launch its car in the market
Western parts of India should move to South India to after six months.
increase their life expectancy? Which of the following would strengthen the chairman's
(a) The average life expectancy of population living in decision?
Eastern part of the country is also less than the
population living in South India. I. Material management and other resources will have to
(b) Nearly 80% of the population in Southern India has a be in fine tune to maintain production schedule.
minimum age of 83 years. II. Company should also make plans for products other
(c) Higher life expectancy in Southern India can be ascribed than car.
to the genetic makeup of the population belonging to III. The network of dealers must be finalised and all legal,
that area. financial and other matters in this regard should be
(d) The average life expectancy of South India is finalised at the earliest.
comparable to the best averages in the world. (a) Only I (b) Only II
(e) Higher life expectancy in Southern India can be (c) Only I and III (d) All the three
attributed to better environmental conditions and better
healthcare facilities. (e) None of these
6. The prospects for the Indian economy this year will be
Directions (Qs. 2 to 4): Study the following information to answer influenced by the behaviour of the monsoon and expansion
the given questions. of commerce and trade. The Eleventh Plan has envisaged a
growth target of 8%. If the agriculture sector does well and
Science is a sort of news agency comparable in principle to the world trade conditions improve then it is possible to
other news agencies. But this news agency gives us information
achieve a growth of 6-7%. We need to improve our economy
which is reliable to an extraordinarily high degree due to elaborate
studies spread over centuries. So, science should be read with the and aim at a higher rate of growth in order to feed our
same interest with which we read news. population, maintain the standard of living and improve the
quality of life. It is now more than 10 years since we have
2. Which of the following will weaken the above argument?
adopted reforms. We need to go forward in liberalisation but
(a) Man is an intelligent creature. we cannot throw open the market for everything. There are
(b) Science gives information. sectors like village industries which need protection.
(c) Scientific information is revised. Which of the following weakens the following statement:
(d) News agencies cannot verify news. "The current trend of liberalisation is good enough to sustain
(e) None of these about 6% growth."
3. Which of the following may be regarded as an assumption (a) Micro and small industries are helpful in achieving
in the above passage? sustained growth, so they need protection.
(a) Verification of news is necessary.
(b) Govt should not hesitate in opening market operations.
(b) Science encourages investigative spirit.
(c) India should make bilateral trade agreements with other
(c) Science is objective in approach.
countries.
(d) Science gives us news and not any other information
regarding national phenomenon. (d) India should open its market for all.

136 SPEED TEST 60
7. Mass public education in the past half-century has clearly (b) Technologies like the telephone allow us to confirm
failed at the most basic level. In fact, it has been detrimental that our friends are alive and well even when we are
to the public welfare. Recent studies show that only about separated from them by vast distances.
half of the country's graduating high school seniors can (c) It is possible to live near and even with a friend
compose a simple business letter. without knowing for certain that he or she is in good
Which one of the following, if true, gives the strongest circumstances.
support to the author's argument? (d) Merely living near or with a friends will not necessarily
(a) A larger percentage of high school seniors than ever ensure that the friend remains alive and in good
before are able to write a business letter correctly. circumstances.
(b) At least 15 percent of today's high school seniors (e) Often circumstances dictate that one friend must move
speak English as a second language. far away, and for him instead to remain among his
(c) Fewer than half of the high school seniors graduating friends would be so inconvenient that it would place
today can do the math necessary to complete an too much strain on the friendship.
income tax return. 10. If too much pressure is exerted on the bottom shelf of a
(d) More accurate data show that only 46 percent of the bookcase, the entire bookcase will collapse. Sherry's
nation's high school seniors can compose a simple bookcase has collapsed. Therefore, too much pressure
business letter. must have been exerted on its bottom shelf.
(e) A survey taken five decades ago showed that four Which one of the following criticisms best describes a
out of five graduating seniors could write an weakness in the argument above?
acceptable business letter. (a) It supports its conclusion with irrelevant evidence.
8. Considering the current economy, the introduction of a (b) It contains a shift in the meaning of the word
new brand of cereal is unlikely to expand total sales of "collapse" from "partial collapse" to "full collapse".
cereal, but rather will just cause some existing buyers of (c) It concludes that an outcome has been caused by a
cereal to switch brands. So it makes no sense for the particular factor that may be only one possible cause
Coolidge Corporation to introduce another brand of cereal, of the outcome in question.
since it will only hurt sales of the brands of cereal it (d) It overlooks the possibility that some bookshelves
already produces. have only one shelf.
Which one of the following, if true, would most seriously (e) It draws an overly broad conclusion from
weaken the argument above? contradictory evidence.
(a) Total sales of cereal will increase as the total 11. Ethologists, people who study animal behaviour, have
population increases. traditionally divided an organism's actions into two
(b) Many new brands of cereal sell extremely well for the categories: learned behaviour (based on experience) and
first year of their existence. instinctive behaviour (based on genotype). Some current
(c) Coolidge Corporation currently produces fewer brands scholars reject this distinction, claiming that all behaviour
of cereal than do its competitors. is a predictable interaction of experience and genotype.
(d) Some cereal buyers regularly switch from brand to Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the
brand, even when no new brands have been arguments made in the sentence above?
introduced. (a) All organisms with identical genotypes and identical
(e) Research indicates that the new brand will attract experience sometimes respond differently in different
more buyers of competitors' cereals than buyers of situations.
other Coolidge brands. (b) All organisms with different genotypes and identical
9. In friendship one sees one's friends as another "self." One experience always respond identically in identical
cares about him or her in the same way that one cares about situations.
oneself. Since each of us desires to know that we exist and (c) All organisms with similar genotypes and similar
are in good circumstances, each of us also wishes to know experience always respond differently in identical
that our friends are likewise alive and well. Thus, true situations.
friendship requires that one live with or near one's friends. (d) All organisms with identical genotypes and identical
Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken experience always respond identically in identical
the argument above? situations.
(a) Most people care for themselves much more than (e) All organisms with identical genotypes and different
they care for their friends. experience always respond identically in identical
situations.

GRID
SPEED TEST 60 137
12. Media are not just passive channels of information. Not determined by the designers that choosing a low physical
only do they supply the stuff of thought, but they also fidelity simulation was acceptable as long as cognitive fidelity
shape the process of thought. And what the Internet seems in a team simulation was maintained through subjecting
to be doing is chipping away our capacity for concentration. soldiers to pressure situations in a simulated combat setting
Which of the following if true, would most strengthen the and attempting to ensure that naturalistic decision making
argument presented above ? of soldiers would not be compromised.
(a) Nietzsche was forced to use a typewriter when he Which of the following statements, if true, weakens the logic
started losing his vision. After he mastered the machine, of the above passage ?
i. A number of studies have shown that high levels of
he could type with his eyes closed. It was later found
physical stress lead to a weaking of the decision making
that under the effect of the machine. Nietzsches prose
capabilities of human beings.
changed from arguments to aphorisms, from thoughts ii. It has been convincingly demonstrated by various
to puns, from rhetoric to telegram style. studies that human beings by nature are not designed
(b) One of the effects of the timekeeping instruments has to adapt to high levels of mental stress.
been that we have started deciding on our daily activities iii. Numerious studies have shown that simulated
based on the clock and not based on our senses. environments can be designed to be good substitutes
(c) Studies have shown that the essay writing skills of an for real life combat situations.
average 15 -20 year old, who spends a lot of time iv. Studies have shown that simulated exercises for armed
browsing the Internet, is comparable to what it was forces personnel have tended to induce a systematic
among the average 15-20 year old, throughout the 1980s type of correct and common behaviour among the
and the 1990s. trainees.
(d) A recent study has shown that the number of people v. Officers, when short listing soldiers for critical
who fall asleep while reading a printed book has operations, pick up battle-hardened soldiers rather than
increased in the last five years. those who have been trained through simulations.
(e) The ability of the younger judges, who have grown up (a) i and ii (b) ii and iii (c) i and iv
with ready access to Internet, to judge complex and (d) i, ii, iv, and v (e) ii, iii, iv and v
intricate cases, has, on an average, become better as 15. Silver is especially and repetitively savage about what he
compared to what it was for judges of comparable age sees as the extravagant claims made for particle physics,
profile during the 1920s. arguing that once the proton, neutron and electron were
13. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the
found and their properties experimentally confirmed, the very
argument presented in the previous question ?
(a) Nietzsche was forced to use a typewriter when he expensive searches for ever more exotic particles, such as
started losing his vision. After he mastered the machine, the Higgs Boson, were increasingly harder to justify other
he could type with his eyes closed. It was later found than by their importance to particle physicists. Most of the
that under the effect of the machine. Nietzsches prose particles resemble ecstatic happiness: They are very short-
changed from arguments to aphorisms, from thoughts
to puns, from rhetoric to telegram style. lived and have nothing to do with everyday life. His repeated
(b) One of the effects of the timekeeping instruments has assault goes to the level of sarcasm: Finding the Higgs
been that we have started deciding on our daily activities Boson will be a magnificent technical and theoretical triumph.
based on the clock and not based on our senses. Like a great Bobby Fisher game. Of course, this is a tad
(c) Studies have shown that the essay writing skills of an
average 15-20 year old, who spends a lot of time unfair, even if some of the claims of its practitioners invite
browsing the Internet, is comparable to what it was such assaults on their field.
among the average 15-20 year old, throughout the 1980s Which of the following, if true, will weaken the argument
and the 1990s.
described in the passage?
(d) A recent study has shown that the number of people
who fall asleep while reading a printed book has (a) All streams of new science need to undergo through a
increased in the last five years. period of uncertainty and we should not criticize
(e) The ability of the younger judges, who have grown up research in particle physics alone.
with ready access to Internet, to judge complex and
intricate cases, has, on an average, become better as (b) Necessity is the mother of every invention.
compared to what it was for judges of comparable age (c) Knowledge has preceded application in all spheres of
profile during the 1920s. science.
14. As the information on air warface tasks and stressors was
(d) Funding agency supporting research on Higgs Boson
being gathereed and scenarios were being developed, a
parallel effort ensued to identify a test bed simulation for air do not mind wasting their money.
warfare teams. To maintain experimental control it was (e) Do not expect everyone to appreciate everything.

GRID
138 SPEED TEST 60
16. The Yoga system is divided into two principal parts Hatha 18. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the
and Raja Yoga. Hatha Yoga deals principally with the speakers argument?
physiological part of man with a view to establish his health (a) CEOs of small organisations come from good
and train his will. The processes prescribed to arrive at this educational background.
end are so difficult that only a few resolute souls go through (b) CEOs of big organisations are very difficult to hire.
all the stages of its practice. Many have failed and some (c) A few big family businesses have CEOs from within
have died in the attempt. It is therefore strongly denounced the family.
by all the philosophers. The most illustrious Shankaracharya (d) CEOs in big organisation take much longer to reach
has remarked in his treatise called Aparokshanubhuti that top, as compared to their counterparts in small
"the system of Hatha Yoga was intended for those whose organisations.
wordly desires are not pacified or uprooted. (e) Big organisations contribute more towards moral
Which one of the following, if true, most substantially development of society.
strengthens the idea given in the passage? 19. The purpose of the proposed law requiring a doctors
(a) The percentage of people in a given ashram practising prescription for obtaining hypodermic needles is to lower
Raja Yoga is more than the percentage of people the incidence of drug-related deaths, both accidental and
practising Hatha Yoga. intentional, involving hypodermic needles. But even knitting
needles can be lethal if they fall into the wrong hands; yet
(b) The number of people in a given ashram practising
everyone would agree that imposing legal restrictions on
Raja Yoga is more than the number of people practising
obtaining knitting needles would be preposterous. Hence
Hatha Yoga. the proposed law involving hypodermic makes no sense
(c) The number of Yoga schools teaching Raja Yoga is and should not be enacted.
more than the number of Yoga schools teaching Hatha Which of the following, it true, would provide most support
Yoga. for the argument above?
(d) The number of teachers teaching Raja Yoga is more (a) Knitting needles have been known to cause injury and
than the number of teachers teaching Hatha Yoga. death.
(e) The percentage of students who have successfully (b) The benefits of hypodermic needles outweigh those of
learnt Raja Yoga is more than the percentage of students knitting needles.
who have successfully learnt Hatha Yoga. (c) The proposed law would not deter the sort of activity
(17-18): According to recent reports, CEOs of large organisations known to result in drug-related deaths.
are paid more than CEOs of small organisations. It does not seem (d) Knitting needles are not readily available to anybody
who wants to obtain them.
fair that just because a CEO is heading a big organisation she/he
should be paid more. CEOs salary should be related to
20. A drug that is very effective in treating some forms of cancer
performance, especially growth in terms of sales and profits.
can, at present, be obtained only from the bark of the Raynhu,
Of course, big organisations are more complex than the a tree that is quite rare in the wild. It takes the bark of
small, but all CEOs require significant amount of energy and time approximately 5,000 trees to make one pound of the drug. It
in managing organisations. There is no proof that CEOs of big follows, then, that continued production of the drug must
organisations are more stressed than CEOs of small organisations. inevitably lead to the raynhus extinction.
All CEOs should be paid according to their performance. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the
17. A person seeking to refute the argument might argue that above conclusion?
(a) The drug made from Raynhu bark is dispensed to
(a) CEOs should be paid equally.
doctors from a central authority.
(b) Managing big organisation is more challenging than (b) The drug made from the Raynhu bark is expensive to
small. produce.
(c) If CEOs of small companies performs well, the company (c) The Raynhu generally grows in largely inaccessible
would become big and so would be CEOs salary. places.
(d) CEOs, who travel more should be paid more. (d) The Raynhu can be propagated from cuttings and
cultivated by farmers.
(e) Highly qualified CEOs should be paid more because
they have acquired difficult education.

GRID
61
SPEED TEST 61 139

Forcefulness of Arguments
Time : 20 min.
43
Date : ........./......../................
DIRECTIONS (Q. 1-15) : Each question below is followed by 6. Statement: Should government established higher level
two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of institutes of Technology (IIT's) be privatised?
the argument is a forceful argument. Arguments:
I. Yes, privatisation will make these institutes financially
Give answer (a) if only argument I is forceful.
Give answer (b) if only argument II is forceful. healthy, competitive and quality conscious.
Give answer (c) if either I or II is forceful. II. Yes, privatisation is the key of the new era-can we
Give answer (d) if neither I nor II is forceful. survive without it?
Give answer (e) if both I and II are forceful. 7. Statement: Should vacations of court judges be reduced?
1. Should all beggars on the roads in the big cities in India be Arguments:
forcibly sent to villages? I. Yes, it will speed up judicial process and many people
Arguments: are likely to get justice in reasonable time.
I. No, this is grossly unfair and these people will die of II. Yes, it is a sign of British legacy, why should we carry
hunger if they are sent to villages. it further?
II. Yes, these people create a bad impression of our country 8. Statement: Should the practice of transfers of clerical cadres
in the eyes of the foreigners who visit our country and employee from one city to another government offices to be
hence should be removed. stopped?
2. Should all the criminals convicted for committing murder be Arguments:
awarded capital punishment? I. No, transfer of employees is a routine administrative
Arguments: matter and we must continue it.
I. Yes, this will be a significant step towards reducing II. Yes, it involves lot of governmental expenditure and
cases of murder in future. inconvenience to many compared to the benefits it
II. No, nobody has the right to take any person's life yields.
irrespective of the acts of such individuals. 9. Statement: Should higher qualification be the only criteria
3. Should all the professional colleges in India be encourage for internal promotions in any organisation?
to run their own courses without affiliation to any university? Arguments:
Arguments: I. Yes, why not? In fact only higher qualification is more
I. Yes, this is only way to create more opportunities for important than other factors.
those who seek professional training. II. No, quality of performance and other factors are more
II. No, this will dilute the quality of professional training important than mere higher qualification in case of
as all such colleges may not be equipped to conduct internal promotion.
such courses. 10. Statement: Should Indian scientists working abroad be called
4. Should there be a maximum ceiling imposed on the earnings back to India?
of an individual in an organization? Arguments:
Arguments: I. Yes, they must serve the motherland first and forget
I. Yes, this will help equitable distribution of earnings to about discoveries, honours, facilities and all.
all the employees. II. No, we have enough talent, let them stay where they
II. No, the organization should have free hand to decide want.
the pay packets of its employees. 11. Should the school teachers be necessarily involved in the
5. Should there be a compulsory military training for each college census activities?
student in India? Arguments:
Arguments: I. No, this will adversely affect the quality of teaching
I. No, this goes against the basic democratic right of an programme.
individual to choose his/her own programs. II. Yes, the teachers are the best fit for this job.
II. Yes, this is the only way to build a strong and powerful
nation.
GRID 11. a b c d e
140 SPEED TEST 61
12. Should India engage into a dialogue with neighbouring II. Yes, the manufacturers and traders will be benefited by
countries to stop cross border tension? this which in turn will boost tax collection.
Arguments: III. No, no other country has adopted such system.
I. Yes, this is the only way to reduce the cross border (a) None of forceful
terrorism and stop loss of innocent lives. (b) Only I and III are forceful
II. No, neighbouring countries cannot be relied upon in (c) Only II is forceful
such matters, they may still engage in subversive (d) Only II and III are forceful
activities. (e) None of these
13. Study all the utility services be immediately brought under 18. Should all the students graduating in any discipline desirous
essential services to avoid frequent agitation and strikes by of pursuing post graduation of the subjects of their choice
the employees? be allowed to enroll in the post graduate courses?
Arguments: Arguments:
I. No, otherwise how the employees may voice their I. Yes, the students are the best judge of their capabilities
grievances and demands. and there should not be restrictions for joining post
II. Yes, the employees are becoming more and more greedy graduation courses.
and they take the general public for a ride by striking II. No, the students need to study relevant subjects in
work. graduate courses to enroll in post graduate courses
14. Should all the unauthorised structures in the city be and the students must fulfill such conditions.
immediately demolished III. No, there are not enough institutes offering post
Arguments: graduate courses which can accommodate all the
I. No, where will the people residing in such houses live? graduates desirous of seeking post graduate education
II. Yes, this will give a clear message to general public and of their own choice.
they will refrain from constructing unauthorised (a) None is forceful
buildings. (b) Only I and II are forceful
15. Should the railways in India be privatised in a phased manner (c) All are forceful
(d) Only I and III are forceful
like other public sector enterprises?
(e) None of these
Arguments:
19. Should there be complete ban on Indian professionals
I. Yes, this is the only way to bring in competitiveness
seeking jobs elsewhere after getting their education in India?
and provide better service to the public.
Arguments:
II. No, this will pose a threat to national security of our I. Yes, this is the only way to sustain present rate of
country as multinationals will enter into the fray. technological development India.
DIRECTIONS (Q. 16-20) : Each question below is followed by II. No, the Indians settled abroad send huge amount of
three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which foreign exchange and this constitute a significant part
of the arguments is a 'forceful'. of foreign exchange reserve.
16. Should the income generated out of agricultural activities III. No, the practical knowledge gained by Indians by
be taxed? working in other countries help India develop its
economy.
Arguments: (a) None is forceful
I. No, farmers are otherwise suffering from natural (b) Only I and II are forceful
calamities and low yield coupled with low procurement (c) Only III is forceful
price and their income should not be taxed. (d) Only II and III are forceful
II. Yes, majority of the population is dependent on (e) All are forceful
agriculture and hence their income should be taxed to 20. Should there be only few banks in place of numerous smaller
augment the Government resources. banks in India?
III. Yes, many big farmers earn much more than majority of Arguments:
the service earners and they should be taxed to remove I. Yes, this will help secure the investor's money as these
big banks will be able to withstand intermittent market
the disparity. related shocks.
(a) All are forceful (b) Only II and III are forceful II. No, large number of people will lose their job as after
(c) Only I is forceful (d) Only I and II are forceful the merger many employees will be redundant.
(e) None of these III. Yes, this will help consolidate the entire banking
17. Should all the indirect taxes in India be combined into a industry and will lead to healthy competition.
single tax on all commodities? (a) None is forceful argument
Arguments: (b) Only I and III are forceful argument
I. Yes, this will considerably simplify the tax collection (c) Only II and III are forceful argument
mechanism and the cost of collecting tax will also (d) Only I and II are forceful argument
(e) All are forceful arguments.
reduce.

62 Section Test : Reasoning
62
43
on it. Neither Ritu nor Akash sits on chair number four. There is only one
Directions (Qs. 1-5): Study the following information to answer the
person between Rohan and Ritu. Alka sits on the right (not necessarily
given questions.
immediate right) of Rishi and Rishi never sits adjacent to Rohan.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of 6. Who among the following sit at extreme ends?
words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each (a) Sony, Ritu (b) Akash, Rishi
step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (c) Monu, Ritu (d) Akash, Sony
Input : yellow 7 green 14 2 clear to 23 own 18 under 19 44 (e) Can't be determined
Step 1 : 2 7 green 14 clear to 23 own 18 under 19 44 yellow 7. Who among the following sits on the immediate right of Alka?
Step II : 22 37 green 14 clear to own 18 19 44 under yellow (a) Manu (b) Rohan (c) Ritu
Step III : 22 31 47 green clear own 18 19 44 to under yellow (d) Akash (e) None of these
Step IV : 22 31 41 97 green clear 18 44 own to under yellow 8. How many persons are sitting between Ritu and Manu?
Step V : 22 31 41 91 87 clear 44 green own to under yellow (a) One (b) Two (c) Three
Step VI : 22 31 41 91 87 44 clear green own to under yellow (d) Four (e) None of these
Step VI : is the last step of the above rearrangement. As per the rules 9. Who among the following is different from the others, based upon
followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the given seating arrangement?
the appropriate step for the input given below. (a) Sony (b) Alka (c) Rohan
Input: virus 11 inter 5216 arm keep 47 wind 22 quick 31 66 luck (d) Ritu (e) Manu
1. Which of the following would be the last step? 10. If (from left to right) the first person interchanges his position
(a) IV (b) V (c) VI with the person at fifth position and the second person interchanges
(d) VII (e) None of these his position with the person at sixth position and so on, which of
2. Which of the following is step IV? the following will be the fifth from the right end in the new
(a) 16 47 22 31 52 11 arm 66 inter keep luck quick virus wind arrangement?
(b) 16 47 22 31 11 inter 52 arm 66 keep luck quick virus wind (a) Ritu (b) Tinku (c) Akash
(d) Rishi (e) None of these
(c) 16 47 22 11 31 inter 66 keep 52 arm luck quick virus wind
(d) 16 22 3147 11 arm 52 inter keep luck quick virus wind Directions (Qs. 11-15): In each question below are given two/three
(e) None of these statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
3. Which of the following element would be at the 8th position from take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
the right in step V? with commonly known facts and then decide which of the two conclusions
(a) 11 (b) arm (c) 66 logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known
(d) inter (e) None of these facts.
4. In step V and VI of the rearrangement, if 'arm' is related to Give answer (a) : if only conclusion I follows.
'li ' and 'keep' is related to 'inter' in a certain way, which of the Give answer (b) : if only conclusion II follows.
following would 'quick' be related to, following the same pattern? Give answer (c) : if either conclusion I or II follows.
(a) keep (b) luck (c) virus Give answer (d) : if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(d) 66 (e) None of these Give answer (e) : if both conclusions I and II follow.
5. In step III of the rearrangement, if '52' is related to 'keep' and 'arm'
is related to ' 3 1 ' in a certain way, which of the following would (11-12):
'66' be related to, following the same pattern? Statements: All bags are purses.
(a) quick (b) virus (c) luck No purse is black.
(d) arm (e) None of these All blacks are beautiful.
Directions (Qs. 6-10) : On the basis of the information given below, 11. Conclusions: I. Some bags being black is a possibility.
answer the following questions. II. At least some purses are bags.
Eight friends, viz Manu, Ritu, Tinku, Rishi, Alka, Rohan, Sony and 12. Conclusions: I. All purses being beautiful is a possibility.
Akash, sit in a row having chairs numbered one to eight in ascending order II. Some bags are not black.
from left to right. They all are facing North direction. Tinku sits on chair (13-14):
number six. There are exactly two persons between Tinku and Manu. Statements: Some fishes are cats.
Ritu and Akash always sit adjacent to each other. Sony sits adjacent to Some dogs are cats.
neither Manu nor Tinku. Alka never sits on a chair having an odd number No fish is black.
142 SPEED TEST 62
13. Conclusions: I. At least some cats are not black. 21. Who amongst the following sits third to the left of E?
II. There is a possibility that some fishes are (a) Manager (b) G (c) A
dogs. (d) Financial Advisor (e) B
14. Conclusions: I. No dog is black. 22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the
II. Some cats are black. given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
15. Statements: No rose is red.
(a) F-Chairman (b) G-President (c) D-Manager
No flower is a rose.
(d) A-Financial Advisor (e) Managing Director
Conclusions: I. At least some flowers are red.
23. Who among the following is the President of the company?
II. All red are flowers.
(a) A (b) C (c) H
Directions (Qs.16-20) : These questions are based on the following (d) G (e) D
information. Study it carefully and answer the questions. 24. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating
Seven members L, H, K, T, F, J and R represent different countries arrangement?
in Olympics viz, USA, China, Korea, France, Russia, Australia and Japan; (a) The Group Leader of the company is an immediate neighbour
each one competes for a different sport, viz. Volleyball, Archery, Rifle of the Vice President.
Shooting, Tennis, Boxing, Athletics and Football. The order of persons, (b) G sits second to the right of D.
countries and games is not necessarily the same.
(c) The Group Leader and the Company Secretary are immediate
K represents China for Archery. T represent USA but not for
neighbours.
Volleyball or Rifle Shooting. The one who represents Japan competes for
Boxing. F competes for Volleyball but not for Korea. L represent Australia (d) The Chairman of the company sits to the immediate left of
for Athletics. The one who represents Russia competes for Tennis. J the Managing Director.
does not represent Korea or Japan. R competes for Rifle Shooting. (e) The Group Leader sits second to the left of D.
16. Which of the following combinations is correct? 25. Which of the following posts does B hold in the company?
(a) J - Tennis - France (b) R - Tennis-Russia (a) Chairman (b) Manager
(c) R - Tennis - France (d) J - Tennis - Russia (c) Company Secretary (d) Vice President
(e) None of these (e) Financial Advisor
17. Who represents Japan? 26. Who among the following sits exactly between the Managing
(a) F (b) R (c) J Director and H?
(d) H (e) None of these (a) H and the Chairman (b) B and G
18. F represents which country? (c) The Chairman and C (d) F and C
(a) France (b) Russia (c) Japan (e) E and the Group Leader
(d) Korea (e) None of these
27. Who among the following is the Group Leader?
19. The one who competes for Rifle Shooting, represents which
country? (a) C (b) F (c) G
(d) H (e) A
(a) France (b) Korea (c) Japan
(d) USA (e) None of these Directions (Qs. 28-31): Read the following information and the sentences
20. For which game does T compete? (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) given below it carefully and answer the questions
(a) Boxing (b) Football which follow:
(c) Tennis (d) Cannot be determined A host of foreign companies are in talks with the Indian government
(e) None of these for selling B 150, a tough, short-haul plane ideal for connectivity of
smaller towns which is lacking in India at present.
Directions (Qs. 21-27): Study the following information carefully and
(A) B 150 planes have not only low operating costs than
answer the given questions.
competing planes like Cezana but also a much better track
Eight colleagues, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around a record in terms of safety and efficiency.
circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each (B) The profit margin of road transport operators in the smaller
one of them holds a different postManager, Company Secretary, towns connected by B 150 planes has been reduced
Chairman, President, Vice President, Group Leader, Financial Advisor substantially as a majority of people prefer air transport
and Managing Director. over other means of transport.
A sits third to the right of the Managing Director. Only two people (C) Smaller towns, at present, are better connected by roads and
sit between the Managing Director and H. The Vice President and the railways as compared to flight services.
Company Secretary are immediate neighbours. Neither A nor H is a Vice (D) B 150 planes are capable of operating in sectors where large
President or a Company Secretary. The Vice President is not an immediate airlines cannot fly due to challenging conditions such as mist,
neighbour of the Managing Director. The Manager sits second to the left short runways, etc. Such planes can also double up as cargo
of E. E is not an immediate neighbour of H. The Manager is an immediate planes and charter flights for the rich and the elite.
neighbour of both the Group Leader and the Financial Advisor. The (E) B 150 planes need to operate in the existing airports which
Financial Advisor sits third to the -right of B. B is not the Vice President. are situated in bigger cities only and are poorly connected to
C sits on the immediate right of the Chairman. A is not the Chairman. F is the smaller cities.
not an immediate neighbour of A. G is not an immediate neighbour of the
Manager.

SPEED TEST 62 143
28. Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) can be inferred 36. Statement: The govt has directed all the degree colleges to declare
from the facts/information given in the statement? (An inference is result of all the examinations within a fortnight after the last date of
something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the examination.
given facts.) Assumptions:
(a) Only A (b) Only B (c) Only C I. The college authorities may not be able to declare all the
(d) Both B and D (e) Only E results within the stipulated time.
29. Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned II. Many college authorities may not be able to conduct all the
above would weaken the offer made by the foreign companies for examinations in time.
selling B 150 planes to Indian government? Directions (Qs.37-40): Read the following information and five
(a) A (b) B (c) C statements given below it carefully and answer the questions which
(d) D (e) E follows:
30. Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned
People in the remote village of Kenal are now totally self-sufficient
above represents a possible consequence of the success of B 150 and liberal and no longer wait till people from urban areas dish out
planes in smaller cities? empowerment as a special privilege or favour.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (A) Many of the residents formed a group and initiated a self-help
(d) D (e) E micro-credit programme which provided help and support to the
31. Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) would favour villagers to start a new business.
the foreign companies bid to sell B 150 planes in India? (B) There was a time when the villagers had to seek favours from their
(a) Only A (b) Only B urban counterparts.
(c) Both B and C (d) Both A and D (C) Kenal lacks the new advancements and technological developments
(e) Both E and C owing to a lack of urban intervention.
(D) Many other villages are now approaching the people from Kenal
Directions (Qs. 32-36): In each question below is given a statement to help them follow the same directions.
followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is (E) Women in Kenal too are realising the importance of empowerment
something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the and are taking every possible step to add to their familys kitty.
statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the 37. Which of the statements numbered (A) , (B), (C), (D) and (E) can
assumption is implicit in the statement. be inferred from the given statement? (An inference is something
which can be directly inferred from the given facts.)
Give answer (a) if only Assumption I is implicit. (a) Only (A) (b) Only (B) (c) Only (C)
Give answer (b) if only Assumption II is implicit. (d) Only (D) (e) Both (A) and (E)
Give answer (c) if either Assumption I or Assumption II implicit. 38. Which of the statements numbered (A) , (B), (C), (D) and (E)
Give answer (d) if neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit. mentioned above would prove that intervention from their urban
Give answer (e) if both Assumption I and Assumption II are implicit. counterparts can also be beneficial to a certain extent?
32. Statement: The govt has decided earnmark a separate lane in the (a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C)
metropolis for passenger vehicles with more than one occupant. (d) (D) (e) (E)
Assumptions: 39. Which of the statements numbered (A) , (B), (C), (D) and (E)
I. The move may help decongest the roads of the metropolis. mentioned above represents a step which helped the process of
liberalization and empowerment of the villagers?
II. Many people may resort to car pool system to avoid traffic
(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C)
snarls. (d) (D) (e) (E)
33. Statement: Manish invited all his friends to his house for dinner 40. Which of the following represent a result / repercussion of the
on his birthday and requested his mother to arrange for the birthday success experienced by the residents of the village Kenal?
party. (a) (B) (b) (C)
Assumptions: (c) Both (C) and (E) (d) (A)
I. Most of Manishs friends may attend his birthday party. (e) (D)
II. Manishs mother may be able to make all the arrangements
Directions (Qs.41-45): In each question below is given a statement
including food for all his friends. followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. A course of
34. Statement: The civic authority of the metropolis has decided to action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement,
suspend sanctioning of new building proposals for six months and follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the
assess the impact of the current building projects on the citys. basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume
Assumptions: everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested
I. The builders lobby may move the court against the civic courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
bodys decision.
II. The civic authority may be able to complete the impact study 41. Statement: The members belonging to two local clubs occassionally
in about six months. fight with each other on the main road and block traffic movement.
35. Statement: The railway authority has announced that it will carry Courses of action:
out major repair work for two days beginning Saturday on the I. The local police station should immediately deploy police
main line connecting the two big cities in the state, bringing the rail personnel round the clock on the main road.
service to a halt. II. Those involved in fighting should be identified and put behind
Assumptions: bars.
I. People may reschedule their journey in view of the railway III. The local administration should disband the management of
authoritys decision. the two clubs with immediate effect.
(a) Only I and II follow (b) Only II and III follow
II. People may still plan their travel by train between the two
(c) Only I and III follow (d) All I, II and III follow
cities even on these two days. (e) None of these

144 SPEED TEST 62
42. Statement: Many students of the local school fell ill for the fourth 46. Problem Figures
time in a row in the last six months after consuming food prepared
by the school canteen.
Courses of action:
I. The school management should immediately terminate the
contract of the canteen and ask for compensation.
II. The school management should advise all the students not to Answer Figures
eat food articles from the canteen.
III. The owner of the canteen should immediately be arrested for
negligence.
(a) None follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows (d) Only I and II follow (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(e) Only II and III follow 47. Problem Figures
43. Statement: Many school buses have fitted CNG kit without
observing the safety guidelines properly. This results into some
instances of these buses catching fire due to short circuit and
endangering the lives of the school children.
Courses of action:
I. The regional transport authority should immediately carry Answer Figures
out checks of all the school buses fitted with CNG kit.
II. The management of all the schools should stop hiring buses
fitted with CNG kit.
III. The govt should issue a notification banning school buses for
the use of CNG kit (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
48. Problem Figures
(c) Only III follows (d) Only I and III follow
(e) None of these
44. Statement: A sudden cloud burst over the island city resulted into
unpredicted rainfall causing a flood-like situation in the entire area.
A large number of people were caught unaware and were stranded
on the road. Answer Figures
Courses of action:
I. The local administration should immediately put in place an
action plan for avoiding such a situation in future.
II. The local administration should immediately deploy
personnel to help the stranded people to move to safer places. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
III. The local administration should advise all the citizens not to
venture out on the road till the situation improves. 49. Problem Figures
Z
(c) Only III follows (d) Only I and III follow
(e) All I, II and III follow Z Z Z
45. Statement : It is reported that during the last fortnight there has U U Z U U U
been three cases of near-miss situation involving two aircrafts over Answer Figures
the busy city airport. In all these cases, both the aircraft came
perilously close to each other and could avoid collision Z as the U Z
pilots acted just in time. Z Z Z Z
Courses of action: U U U U Z U U
I. The pilot of all the six aircraft involved in these incidents
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
should be de-restored immediately.
II. Some flights should be diverted to other airports for the next 50. Problem Figures
few months to decongest the sky over the city airport.
III. Air traffic controllers of the city airport should be sent for
refresher courses in batches to prepare themselves to handle
such a pressure situation.
(c) Only III follows (d) Only II and III follow Answer Figures
(e) None of these
Directions (Qs. 46-50) : In each of the question given below which one
of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem
figures on the left, if the sequence were continued? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

63 Synonyms/Antonyms
Directions (1-15) : Pick up the correct synonyms for each of the 10. HONORARY
following words. (a) honest (b) dignified (c) unpaid
1. HAUGHTY (d) praiseworthy (e) None of these
(a) imperial (b) imperious (c) adamant 11. FORESEE
(d) empire (e) None of these (a) contemplate (b) visualise (c) assume
2. LOQUACIOUS (d) hypothesis (e) None of these
(a) Victorian (b) bombastic (c) verbose 12. ANNEX
(d) ambiguous (e) None of these (a) add (b) low (c) copy
3. BEQUEST (d) initial (e) None of these
(a) Parsimony (b) matrimony (c) heritage 13. MENAGE
(d) patrimony (e) None of these (a) suffocation (b) system (c) law
4. RECUPERATE (d) household (e) None of these
(a) recapture (b) reclaim (c) recover 14. INFIRMITY
(d) regain (e) None of these (a) disease (b) malady (c) weakness
5. ATTENUATE (d) slimness (e) None of these
(a) repent (b) make thin (c) force 15. IMMINENT
(d) divide (e) None of these (a) eminent (b) immediate (c) future
6. ABSTINENCE (d) impending (e) None of these
(a) synchronic (b) torrential (c) restraint Direction (Qs. 16-25 ) : Pick up the correct antonyms for each of
(d) gluttony (e) None of these the following words.
6. TACITURNITY 16. REINFORCING
(a) dumbness (b) changeableness (a) contradicting (b) wishing (c) jolting
(c) hesitation (d) reserve (d) forcing (e) re-inventing
(e) None of these 17. SLUMP
8. BLITHE (a) output (b) rise (c) slide
(a) joyless (b) grudging (c) somnolent (d) slack (e) input
(d) cheerful (e) None of these 18. SHRANK
9. CAPTIVATE (a) Hope (b) Depended (c) Grew
(a) repel (b) subjugate (c) dangerous (d) Pretended (e) Integrated
(d) fascinate (e) None of these
146 SPEED TEST 63
19. DETERIORATED Directions : In these questions, you find a number of sentences,
(a) Reduced (b) Moderated part of which is underlined. You may also find only a group of
(c) Depreciated (d) Encouraged words which is underlined. For each underlined part, four words/
(e) Recovered phrase are listed below. Choose the word which is nearest of the
20. BANISHED opposite of the underlined word or phrase.
(a) Secluded (b) Embraced (c) Included 26. He plunged into the turbid waters of the stream.
(d) Loved (e) Delivered (a) deep (b) muddy (c) clear
21. BEFRIENDED (d) fresh (e) None of these
(a) recoiled (b) killed (c) accepted 27. Where ignorance is sometimes bliss, illiteracy is always
(d) mistrusted (e) ignored considered a curse.
22. FRAIL (a) erudition (b) experience (c) education
(a) Unhealthy (b) Massive (c) Rich (d) information (e) None of these
(d) Robust (e) Civilised 28. The news brought by the maidservants authentic.
23. SPLENDIDLY (a) authoritative (b) baseless (c) rediculous
(a) Wisely (b) Unfairly (c) Rudely (d) vacuous (e) None of these
(d) Reluctantly (e) Unimpressively 29 The proposal was denounced by one and all.
24. CHARMED (a) announced (b) pronounced (c) appraised
(a) Offended (b) Stunned (c) Repulsed (d) commended (e) None of these
(d) Jealous (e) Outraged 30. The doctor said that there is no improvement in the condition
25. AVID of the patient.
(a) unenthusiastic (b) efficient (c) boring (a) depression (b) deterioration (c) change
(d) impartial (e) incompetent (d) degradation (e) None of these

64 One Word Substitution
Direction (1-30): In each of the following questions, out of the 10. Be the embodiment or perfect example of
four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the (a) Signify (b) Characterise (c) Personify
given words/sentence. (d) Masquerade (e) None of these
1. List of headings of the business to be transacted at a meeting 11. Cutting for stone in the bladder
(a) Schedule (b) Agenda (a) Dichotomy (b) Tubectomy
(c) Proceedings (d) Excerpts (c) Vasectomy (d) Lithotomy
(e) None of these 12. That which makes it difficult to recognise the presence of
2. Through which light cannot pass real nature of somebody or something
(a) Dull (b) Dark (c) Obscure (a) Cover (b) Mask (c) Pretence
(d) Opaque (e) None of these (d) Camouflage (e) None of these
3. Stealing from the writings of others 13. Yearly celebration of a date or an event
(a) Copying (b) Reframing (a) Centenary (b) Jubilee
(c) Reproducing (d) Plagiarism (c) Anniversary (d) Birthday
4. Constant effort to achieve something 14. One who has suddenly gained new wealth, Power or prestige
(a) Perseverance (b) Attempt (a) Aristocrat (b) Affluent (c) Maverick
(c) Enthusiasm (d) Vigour (d) Parvenu (e) None of these
(e) None of these 15. Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence
5. A person not sure of the existence of God (a) Formalism (b) Statesmanship (c) Protocol
(a) Theist (b) Atheist (c) Agnostic (d) Hierarchy (e) None of these
(d) Cynic (e) None of these 16. Of outstanding significance
6. One who deserts his religion (a) Meaningful (b) Ominous (c) Evident
(a) Deserter (b) Turn-coat (c) Fanatic (d) Monumental (e) Rational
(d) Apostate (e) None of these 17. One who promotes the idea of absence of government of
7. One who uses fear as a weapon of power any kind, when every man should be a law into himself
(a) Terrorist (b) Militant (c) Extremist (a) Anarchist (b) Belligerent
(d) Anarchist (e) None of these (c) Iconoclast (d) Agnostic
8. The original inhabitants of a country (e) None of these
(a) Aborigines (b) Citizens (c) Natives 18. Land so surrounded by water as to be almost an island
(d) Primitive (e) None of these (a) Archipelago (b) Isthmus (c) Peninsula
9. One desirous of getting money (d) Lagoon (e) None of these
(a) Avaracious (b) Voracious (c) Garrulous
(d) Greedy (e) None of these
148 SPEED TEST 64
19. That which cannot be done without 26. A man can be sentenced to death for killing another human
(a) Irrevocable (b) Impracticable being.
(c) Indispensable (d) Impossible (a) fratricide (b) regicide (c) homicide
(e) None of these (d) genocide (e) None of these
20. One who travels from place to place 27. A careful preservation and protection of wildlife is the need
(a) Itinerant (b) Mendicant of the hour.
(c) Journeyman (d) Tramp (a) Embarkment (b) Promotion
(e) None of these (c) Conservation (d) Management
21. He spent a long time cutting all the waste paper into pieces. (e) Enhancement
(a) slashing (b) ripping (c) shredding 28. The officer was not willing to take a definite stand on that
(d) disposing (e) None of these point.
22. We are looking forward to a good winter this year. (a) vague (b) evasive
(a) encouraging (b) getting (c) hoping (c) ambiguous (d) complex
(d) predicting (e) visualising (e) None of these
23. Rajesh was a hater of learning and knowledge. 29. He does unpaid work for the Red Cross.
(a) misogynist (b) misologist (a) honorific (b) honest (c) honorary
(c) misanthropist (d) bibliophile (d) honourable (e) None of these
(e) None of these 30. The advertisement assured the public that the medicine
24. Ravi impressed everyone with his persuasive and fluent would give back to the users, their youthful vigour and
speech. appearance.
(a) discourse (b) expression (c) eloquence (a) rejuvenate (b) restore (c) replenish
(d) lecture (e) None of these (d) render (e) None of these
25. The bus has to go back and forth every six hours.
(a) travel (b) run (c) cross
(d) shuttle (e) commute

65 Subject-Verb Agreement 65
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any

error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The 10. The bankers association (a) / has submitted a memorandum
number of this part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (b) / for the fulfilment of (c) / their demands. (d) / No Error (e)
(e).
11. Five quintals of wooden coal (a) / are (b) / his annual
1. A band of musician (a) / have been engaged (b) / for the (c)
requirement (c) / for the unit. (d) / No Error (e)
inauguration function. (d) /(e)
12. Dickens have (a) / vehemently criticised (b) / the philosophy
2. The number (a) / of persons interested (b) / in psychology
(c) in Hard Times. (d) / No Error (e)
are (c) / generally small. (d) / No Error (e)
13. All his money (a) / is spent (b) / and all his (c) / hopes ruined.
3. The managers comments (a) / on the preparation of the test
(d) / No Error (e)
matches (b) / for this tour (c) / has been generally praised.
14. This rule may (a) / and ought to be (b) / disregarded for (c) /
(d) / No Error (e)
the time being. (d) / No Error (e)
4. The details (a) / of the incident (b) / was not known (c) / to
15. He is one of the (a) richest man (b) / if not the richest man
me. (d) / No Error (e)
(c) / in the world. (d) / No Error (e)
5. The majority of (a) / writers never (b) / passes (c) / this
16. We can almost get (a) / everything in (b) / this market (c) / at
stage. (d) / No Error (e)
reasonable price. (d) / No Error (e)
6. A large part of (a) / the distinctive features (b) / of the mind
17. Every (a) Tom, Dick and Harry (b) drink (c) / wine these
is due to its being (c) / an instrument of communication. (d)
days. (d) / No Error (e)
/ No Error (e)
18. He and I (a) / is partners in (b) the firm (c) / named Unique
7. A part of (a) / the mango (b) / are (c) / rotten. (d) / No Error (e)
builders. (d) No Error (e)
8. A part of (a) / the mangoes (b) / are (c) / rotten. (d) / No Error
19. He is one of the (a) / great man (b) that have (c) ever lived.
(e)
(d) / No Error (e)
9. The governing body at (a) / its first meeting (b) / have
20. The magistrate and collector (a) were (b) / present there (c)
decided (c) / to conduct the test again. (d) / No Error (e)
/ on the spot. (d) / No Error (e)
150 SPEED TEST 65
21. Horse and carriage (a) / are (b) / waiting there (c) for the 26. Never before (a) / I had been asked (b) / to go there (c) / by
couple. (d) / No Error (e) bus. (d) / No Error (e)
22. Rice and fish (a) / are (b) / my (c) / favourite dish. (d) / No 27. On no account (a) / this switch must (b) / be touched (c) / by
Error (e) you. (d) / No Error (e)
23. Under no circumstances (a) / I can help you in (b) / this 28. Seldom I had seen (a) / such a (b) / beautiful girl, (c) / said
venture, said Sita. (d) / No Error (e) Mohanti. (d) / No Error (e)
24. I dont like (a) / such a bright colour (b) / nor she does, 29. Under a tree (a) / was sleeping an (b) old lady (c) with her
(c) / said to Ram. (d) / No Error (e) young child. (d) / No Error (e)
25. Every member of (a) / his family is (b) / addicted to gambling 30. To such a degree (a) / he created (b) the problems that
(c) / and so John is. (d) / No Error (e) (c) people thrashed him. (d) / No Error (e)

66 Correct Usage of Prepositions
Directions (Qs. 1-30) : Read each sentence to find out whether 10. The debatable of the Congress party (a) / admits no other
there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the explanation (b) / than its (c) poor performance during the
sentence. The number of this part is the answer. If there is no last five years. (d) / No Error (e)
error, the answer is (e)
11. The society does not (a) / hold itself responsible (b) / for the
1. He was sleeping (a) / in his room when a thief (b) / entered
loss or damage to (c) / any item. (d) / No Error (e)
into his house (c) / and took away a lot of things. (d) / No 12. In spite of being (a) / very busy at project work (b) / he
Error (e) saves time (c) to the relatives. (d) / No Error (e)
2. In her concluding speech (a) / she said (b) / almost nothing 13. Some persons (a) / get promotions (b) / even if they are not
(c) / worth listening to. (d) / No Error (e) (c) / worthy for them. (d) / No Error (e)
3. It was apparent for (a) / everyone present (b) / that if the 14. While he was returning (a) / from the office (b) / a man
patient did not receive (c) / immediate medical aid he would attacked on (c) / him with a dagger. (d) / No Error (e)
die. (d) / No Error (e) 15. The decline of her moral (a) / was caused by a lot of (b) /
4. He proposed me (a) / that we should go to the Disco (b) / factors that were once (c) / fascinating to her. (d) / No Error
(e)
and then have (c) / dinner at a restaurant. (d) / No Error (e)
16. He took me to a restaurant (a) / and ordered for two cups
5. There appears (a) / to be a little liaison (b) / among the (3) /
(b) / of cold coffee (c) / which the waiter brought in an hour.
two groups of the society. (d) / No Error (e)
(d) / No Error (e)
6. The team (a) / complained to the manager (b) / against the
17. There are some animals (a) / that can live (b) / both in water
captain (c) / and the poor facilities provided in the hotel. an land (c) / without any difficulty. (d) / No Error (e)
(d) / No Error (e) 18. During his tour (a) / to the south (b) he visited not only to
7. Yesterday I met (a) / a man (b) / who was blind (c) / with the Chennai (c) / but also Karnataka. (d) / No Error (e)
right eye. (d) / No Error (e) 19. The President Mr. Kalam (a) / is much sought after (b) / by
8. The principal distributed (a) / the sweet among (b) / our school students and (c) / is invited for many functions.
friends (c) / who bade him farewell. (d) / No Error (e) (d) / No Error (e)
9. As per the invitation card (a) / Rahim marries (b) / with Sayra 20. His mother is not well (a) / but he (b) / does not look for her
(c) / on 13th December, Monday. (d) / No Error (e) (c) / properly. (d) / No Error (e)
152 SPEED TEST 66
21. We may have to await for (a) / a new political revival (b) / to 26. In difficult time (a) she prefers keeping her counsel (b) rather
eradicate the (c) / corruption from our economy. (d) / No than wandering (c) / here and there for relief. (d) / No Error
Error (e) (e)
22. When she was (a) / in jail (b) / she was debarred to send 27. The persons who are (a) / suffering from diabetes are (b) /
(c) / a letter even to her son. (d) / No Error (e) advised to substitute (c) / saccharine by sugar. (d) / No
23. Despite of the best efforts (a) / put by the doctors (b) / the Error (e)
condition of the patient (c) / is deteriorating from bad to 28. He always says (a) / that he prefers to go (b) / home to stay
worse. (d) / No Error (e) in (c) / a hotel at night. (d) / No Error (e)
24. The militant yielded for (a) / the temptation and fell (b) / into 29. Hardly had we settled down (a) / for the rest (b) / when we
the trap (c) / of police. (d) / No Error (e) were startled by the (c) / strange sound of trumpets. (d) / No
25. Many people in India (a) / are dying from hunger (b) / but Error (e)
government seems (c) / to be ignorant of such crude fact. 30. He was able to (a) / free himself with (b) / the debts by (c) /
(d) / No Error (e) working day and night. (d) / No Error (e)

67 Correct Order of Tenses in a Sentence
Directions (Qs. 1 to 7) : Below each sentence has given four 8. The honourable court had taken a leniency view because
possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b), (c) the accused had no previous criminal record.
or (d) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on (a) had viewed leniency
the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), (c) or (b) had taken a leniency viewing
(d). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (c) had taken a lenient view
(e) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a No (d) took a lenient view
improvement response will be signified by the letter (e). (e) No correction required
9. The government should launch such projects which should
1. I laid all the facts before him so that he could make his reversible the destructive cycle of flood and drought.
own Judgement.
(a) laid all the facts in front of him (a) should have reversible
(b) lay all the facts before him (b) should be reverse
(c) lay all the facts in front of him (c) should have been reverse
(d) did I lay all the facts before his (d) should reverse
(e) No improvement (e) No correction required
2. If only she had told me about her problem I would have 10. A committee comprising eminent experts from various fields
helped her. were setting up.
(a) would help (b) could help (a) was set up (b) were being set up
(c) had helped (d) would not help (c) was setting up (d) was being set up
(e) No improvement (e) No correction required
3. Apollo was worshipped as long as the Roman Empire 11. Our foreign exchange reserves have been increased
continued. substantial.
(a) was continued (b) ruled (c) lasted (a) have been increased substantially
(d) did not exist (e) No improvement (b) have increased substantially
4. The patient could have been saved if he had been taken to (c) have substantially increasing
the hospital in time. (d) had increased substantially
(a) could be saved (b) could save (e) No correction required
(c) had been saved (d) can saved 12. Every novel activity will be likely to face resistance from
(e) No improvement vested interests.
5. Knowing very little English, it was difficult to converse with (a) is likely to face (b) will be likely facing
the foreigner.
(a) I found it difficult to converse (c) would be like facing (d) would like to face
(b) to converse was difficult (e) No correction required
(c) conversing was difficult 13. All human beings are vulnerable to greed and temptations.
(d) It was not easy to conversed (a) are vulnerable for (b) have vulnerability of
(e) No improvement (c) were vulnerable at (d) have been vulnerable with
6. The father together with his sons and daughters have gone (e) No correction required
to see a film. 14. How did the burglar got into the bank is a mystery.
(a) are gone (b) has gone (c) is gone (a) How did the burglar get
(d) is going (e) No improvement (b) What did the burglar get
7. The stranger asked the little girl what is her name. (c) How the burglar got
(a) What her name is (b) What her name was (d) Why did the burglar get
(c) What was her name (d) Her name is what (e) No correction required
(e) No improvement 15. In any serious investigation, all points of suspicions should
Directions (Qs. 8 to 17) : Which of the phrases (a) , (b), (c) , check properly.
(d) and (e) given below each sentence should replace the phrase (a) must check properly
given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence (b) should be checked properly
grammatically correct if it has an error in it? If the sentence is (c) should properly check
correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (e) i.e. No (d) must properly check
correction required as the answer. (e) No correction required
154 SPEED TEST 67
16. Several of our projects have delayed because the (c) My parents took me to Jammu to visit my grandmother
equipment we ordered was delivered late. as a child.
(a) have been delayed when (d) A child, my parents took me to Jammu to visit my
(b) delayed because of grandmother
(c) are delayed since (e) None of these
(d) were delayed with 23. Anyone interested in the use of computer can learn much if
(e) No correction required you have access to a state-of-the microcomputer.
17. People should be have their own mechanism to guard against (a) if he has access to (b) if access is available to
the activities of unscrupulous elements. (c) by access to (d) from access to
(a) shall be have their own (e) None of these
(b) should be having its own 24. No matter what experience you have had with forest fires, if
(c) should have owning its you would have witnessed the fire roaring down through the
(d) should have their own canyon, you would have been terrified.
(e) No correction required (a) if you witnessed
Directions (Qs. 18-30): In each of these questions, in the given (b) if you had witnessed
sentences, a part of the sentence is bold. Beneath each sentence, (c) if you could witness
four different ways of phrasing the bold part are indicated. Choose (d) if you will have witnessed
the best alternative. (e) None of these
25. The bank has hired a consultant who will look into any
18. We want the teacher to be him who has the best rapport issues which arise during the merger.
with the students.
(a) is looking over (b) will be looked after
(a) We want the teacher to be he
(c) will look out (d) looks down on
(b) We want him to be the teacher (e) No correction required
(c) We desire the teacher to be him
26. Ramesh worries endlessly about his sons future as he was
(d) We anticipate the teacher to be him
so poor in studies.
(e) None of these (a) worry endless (b) worried endless
19. Today this is a totally different world than we have seen in
(c) worried endlessly (d) worries endless
the last decade.
(e) No correction required
(a) than what we seen 27. The little boy appeared all of a sudden out of nowhere and
(b) then we have seen
take everyone by surprise.
(c) from what we seen
(a) took everyone as surprised
(d) from what we have seen
(b) take everyone with surprised
(e) None of these (c) took everyone by surprises
20. Although he was the most friendly of all present and
(d) took everyone by surprise
different from the others, he hadnt hardly any friends
except me.
(a) different from the others, he hardly had any friends 28. All she could think about was the beautiful dress and how
except I she could earn enough money to buy it.
(b) different than the others, he hardly had any friends (a) All she can think (b) All she could thought
except me
(c) different than the others, he hardly had any friends (c) All she can thought (d) All she can thinking
except I (e) No correction required
(d) different from the others, he hardly had any friends 29. Mohan had make up his mind about going on the world
except me
(e) None of these tour all alone.
21. Since we are living in Bombay for five years, we are reluctant (a) made minds (b) make his mind
to move to another city. (c) make up his minding (d) made up his mind
(a) Being that we living
(b) Since we were living (e) No correction required
(c) Since we have been living 30. She rushed to the station but could find any trace of her
(d) Being that we have been living daughter there.
(e) None of these
22. As a child, my parents took me to Jammu to visit my (a) not found trace (b) find no trace
grandmother. (c) found not trace (d) finding no trace
(a) When I was a child, my parents took me to Jammu to
visit my grandmother
(b) My parents took me, as a child, to Jammu to visit my
grandmother

68 Parallelism
Directions (Qs.1-20): Choose the correct option for the underlined 7. In Sachin's house, no one is allowed to smoke, wear shoes,
sentence or the part of sentence. Make sure to follow the rules of or to eat in the living room.
parallel structure. (a) wear shoes or eating on the living room.
1. His colleagues appreciated both his determination and the (b) to wear shoes, or to eat in the living room.
attention he paid to the detail. (c) or wear shoes, or eat in the living room.
(a) and the way he paid attention to detail. (d) wear shoes and not to eat in the living room.
(b) and his attention to detail. (e) None of the above.
(c) and also praised his attention to detail. 8. In Spain, Vikas stayed in hotels that were of a modern
(d) also they praised his attention to detail. nature, had comfortable furnishings, and less expensive.
(e) None of the above. (a) Vikas stayed in hotels that were of a modern nature,
2. Latika likes square dancing and to write poetry. comfortable furnishings, and less expensive.
(a) and writing poetry. (b) Vikas stayed in hotels that were modern, comfortable
(b) and also like to write poetry. and less expensive.
(c) and she likes to write poetry. (c) Vikas stayed in hotels that were having modern nature,
(d) and like to write poetry as well. had comfortable furnishings, and less expensive.
(e) None of the above. (d) Vikas stayed in hotels that were of a modern nature,
3. Rohan is an expert in both international history and also in comfortable furnishings and also less expensive.
hardware engineering. (e) None of the above.
(a) and hardware engineering as well. 9. The suit was brightly colored, and the stitches were small,
(b) and in hardware engineering. and neat, and they were spaced evenly.
(c) and in hardware also. (a) The quilt was of a bright color, with small stitches that
(d) and hardware engineering. were neat and were evenly spaced.
(e) None of the above. (b) The quilt was brightly color, with small stitching and
4. Most of the Indians either have a television in their that were neat and evenly spaced.
bedroom or wanting to put one there. (c) The quilt was of a bright color, with small stitches that
(a) or want to put one there. were neat and evenly spaced.
(b) or are wanting to put one there. (d) The quilt was of a bright color, with small stitches that
(c) or also want to put one there. were neat and evenly spaced.
(d) or putting one there. (e) None of the above.
(e) None of the above. 10. Vicky said that he didn't have the time, nor was he interested
5. Ajay vowed that during his vacation, he would do nothing in learning to drive.
but sleeping, fishing and watch movies. (a) Vicky said that he had neither the time nor the interest
(a) but sleep, do fishing and watch a movie. in learning to driving.
(b) but sleeping, fishing and also watching a movie. (b) Vicky said that he neither had the time nor the interest
(c) but sleep, fish and watch movies. in learning to drive.
(d) both b and c. (c) Vicky said that he does not have the time nor interested
(e) None of the above. in learn to drive.
6. We were told to stay at the police station and that we should (d) Both a and c.
have our identification ready. (e) None of the above.
(a) and to have our identification ready.
(b) and have our identification ready.
(c) and we should have our identification ready.
(d) Both a and c.
(e) None of the above.
156 SPEED TEST 68
11. In her cooking class, Madhuri learned to blending exotic 16. He could work on the project as he is both interested in it
spices, to substitute ingredients, and to set an attractive and also he is familiar with the problems involved.
table. (a) He could work on the project as he is both interested in
(a) Madhuri learned to blend exotic spices and substituting it and familiar with the problems involved.
ingredients, and to set an attractive table. (b) He could work on the project as he is both interested in
(b) Madhuri learned to blending exotic spices, to substitute it and has some familiarity with the problems involved.
ingredients, and to set an attractive table. (c) He could work on the project as he is both interested in
(c) Madhuri learned to blend exotic spices, to substitute it and familiar with the problems involved.
ingredients, and to set an attractive table. (d) He could work on the project as he is both interested in
(d) Madhuri learned to blend exotic spices, substitution it and familiar with the problems involved also.
of ingredients, and to setting an attractive table. (e) None of the above.
(e) None of the above. 17. At first, Bajaj's sewing machine was considered both to be
12. The health gym offers something for everybody: exercise very expensive and also too complicated to use for general
equipment, aerobics classes and a swimming pool. use.
(a) everybody: exercise equipment, aerobics classes, and (a) Bajaj's sewing machine was considered both expensive
a swimming pool. and also complicated to use for general use.
(b) everybody: exercise equipment, aerobics classes, and (b) Bajaj's sewing machine was considered to be very
there is a swimming pool. expensive and too complicated for general use.
(c) everybody: exercise equipment, also aerobics classes, (c) Both a and b.
and there is a swimming pool too. (d) Bajaj's sewing machine was considered to be very
(d) everybody: exercise equipment, and aerobics classes expensive, but too complicated for general use.
as well as there is a swimming pool. (e) None of the above.
(e) None of the above. 18. Julia's parents told her that she must agree to either attend
13. During the drive along the highway, we are amazed both by the college or either to work in the family business.
the snowcapped mountains on one side and also the (a) either attend the college or to work in the family
beautiful lakes on the other. business.
(a) we were amazed by the snowcapped mountains on one (b) either attend college or working in the family business.
side and the beautiful lakes on the other. (c) either attending college or to work in the family
(b) we got amazed both with the snowcapped mountains business.
on the one side and the beautiful lakes on the other as (d) All the above.
well. (e) None of the above.
(c) we were amazed by both the snowcapped mountains 19. Ritik is not only an excellent actor but he sings.
on one side, the beautiful lakes on the other. (a) Ritik is not only an excellent actor but he also sings.
(d) Both a and c. (b) Ritik is not only an excellent actor but also a good
(e) None of the above. singer.
14. All these desserts are not only fattening and they are also (c) Ritik is not only an excellent actor but he is also a good
high in cholesterol. singer.
(a) desserts are not only fattening, but they're also high in (d) All the above.
cholesterol too. (e) None of the above.
(b) desserts are not only fattening, but they are also high 20. We'll never forget the principal, who never had a kind word
in cholesterol. for anyone, who had no sympathy, was short tempered, and
(c) desserts are not only fattening, but also high in cruel.
cholesterol. (a) We'll never forget the principal, who was cruel,
(d) desserts are not only fattening and also high in unsympathetic, was short tempered, and who never
cholesterol. had a kind word for anyone.
(e) None of the above. (b) We'll never forget the cruel, unsympathetic, short
15. Picasso's painting has subtle color contrasts, also has tempered principal, who never had a kind word for
intriguing textures, and a pleasing balance. anyone.
(a) subtle color contrasts, the textures are intriguing, and (c) We'll never forget the principal who is cruel,
a pleasing balance. unsympathetic, and also short-tempered, and who
(b) subtle color contrasts, intriguing textures, and the never had a kind word for anyone.
balance is pleasing. (d) We'll never forget the principal who was also cruel,
(c) subtle color contrasts, intriguing textures and a was unsympathetic, was short-tempered, and who also
pleasing balance. never had a kind word for anyone.
(d) All the above. (e) None of the above.
(e) None of the above.

69 Reading Comprehension - I
Directions (Qs. 1 to 8) : Read the following passage carefully another way, the knowledge economy, i.e., the creation of
knowledge for profit, trumps the knowledge society, i.e., the
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases
creation of knowledge for its own sake or the sake of the greater
have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering good. As is said, knowledge is power, but money is even more
some of the questions. power. Perheps the scientist was alluding to this victory of
A few weeks ago, a newspaper article quoted a well known scientist capitalism over the pursuit of pure knowledge when he accused
saying, "IT has destroyed Indian science". One caji speculate IT of having a negative influence on Indian science.
about the various ways in which the growth of the IT sector and Surely, knowledge has become a commodity like any other and as
other similar knowledge industries such as biotechnology has led a result, knowledge workers are like any other labourers, who will
to a decline in basic scientific research in India. seil their wares to the highest bidder. One Solution is to accept
and even encourage the commoditization of knowledge; if so,
The most obvious reason is money; pay scales in IT and BT are Indian universities and research centres should copy their western
much higher than one can aspire to in academia. The argument counterparts by becoming more and more like corporations. These
goes: why should a bright B. Tech, or M.Sc. Student enroll in a centres of learning should convert themselves into engines of
Ph.D. programme when she can make a lot more money writing growth. In this logic, if we increase academic salaries and research
code? Not only does a fresh IT employee make a lot more than a grants to match IT paycheques we will attract good people into
fresh M.Tech. Student, his/her pay will rise much faster in IT than academia, where, in any case, it is rumoured that a certain elusive
in academia. A professor's pay at a government-run university, feeling called the quality of life is better.
even after the Sixth Pay Commission, tops out at far less than a 1. According to the passage what did the scientist actually
senior executive's salary in a major industry. mean when he said, IT has destroyed Indian Science?
Second, the social Status of IT and BT Jobs equal or even exceed (a) The centresmeant for Scientific research are being
the social status of corresponding academic positions, since they utiliized by IT industries
are seen as knowledge industries, which plays to the best and (b) The IT industry does not employ people pursuing
worst instincts of the societal Order. As quintessential white collar higher studies
professions, neither do they compel a successful entrepreneur to (c) As information is readily available on the internet
resort to violence and corruption, nor do they demand any physical because of IT, there is no need to seek further
labour. Unlike real estate or road construction, it is feit that IT information
workers can become rich while staying honest and sweat-free. (d) IT has distorted the truth as stated by indian science
(e) The desire for money has overshadowed the search
Assuming that the labour pool for academia and IT is roughly the for knowledge
same, the difference in our collective preferences biases the labour 2. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title
market towards IT and away from academia. Further, when the for the passage ?
imbalance between IT and academia continues for years and even (a) Is the Future of IT Bright ?
decades, a destructive loop, from academias point of view, is (b) The IT Industry and the World Economy
created. When our best and brightest take IT jobs over academic (c) Research and Academics Losing the Battie
ones for a decade or more, faculty positions in our universities Against IT
and research centres are no longer filled by the best candidates. (d) Scientific Research and the Need for Well Trained
As faculty quality goes down, so does the capacity to train top- Faculty
class graduate students who, after all, are teachers in training. In (e) Information Technology and its Advantages
response to decreasing faculty quality, even those students who 3. Why does the author say that knowledge has become a
otherwise choose an academic profession, decide to join industry commodity?
Or go abroad for their studies. These foreign trained graduates (a) As it is no longer desirable in any professional fleld
prefer to come back to corporate India if at all they do come (b) As there are too many educational Institutes in the
country which do not provide quality education
back and the downward cycle replicates itself in each generation.
(c) As knowledge is now available easily as compared to
In other words, academia is trapped within a perfect storm created the past
by a combination of social and economic factors. (d) As knowledgeable people seil their Services for the
In this socio-economic calculus, the members of our societal highest price possible
classes should prefer an IT job to an academic one. Or, to put it (e) Like commodities knowledge too becomes stale after a
certain period
RESPONSE 1. a b c d e 2. a b c d e 3. a b c d e
GRID
158 SPEED TEST 69
4. What, according to the author, is a destructive loop ? 9. CAPACITY
(a) Many people quit their existing jobs to work in the IT (a) qualification (b) capability (c) voltage
industry which in turn leads to the downfall of the other (d) quantity (e) volume
industries. 10. ALLUDING
(b) The fact that the best minds do not want to become (a) referring (b) breaking (c) escaping
teachers and this in turn leads to good students seeking (d) imposing (e) clinging
knowledge elsewhere 11. SPECULATE
(c) The fact that people working in the IT industry do not (a) visit (b) contemplate (c) remark
pursue higher studies which in turn leads to the (d) argue (e) regulate
deterioration in quality of employees 12. QUINTESSENTIAL
(d) The unending use of resources by the IT industry (a) typical (b) different (c) necessary
leading to a dearth of resources in the country (d) unique (e) excellent
(e) Less grants are being provided by the Government to
academic institutes which in turn leads to poor quality Directions (Qs. 13 to 15) : Choose the word/group of words
students joining the same which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word/ group of words
5. Which of the following mentioned below is/are the authors printed in bold as used in the passage.
suggestion/s to promote interest in Indian academic ? 13. BRIGHT
(A) Research centres should adopt the corporate culture (a) soft (b) dark (c) dull
as is done in the West. (d) vivid (e) dim
(B) Lessening the number of research grants given. 14. ELUSIVE
(C) Making academic salaries equivalent to those paid in (a) definite (b) happy (c) mysterious
IT Industries. (d) worthwhile (e) remarkable
(a) Only (C) (b) Only (A) 15. FRESH
(c) Only (B) and (C) (d) Only (A) and (C) (a) used (b) stale (c) tired
(e) None of these (d) experienced (e) aged
6. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the Directions (Qs.16 to 23) : Read the following passage carefully
passage? and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have
(A) It is believed that the quality of life is better when been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering
pursuing scientific research. some of the questions.
(B) People currently seek knowledge only for the greater
good of the society Thinking of what education might look like in the next decade,
(C) Money is not perceived to be as powerful as one quickly realizes that the trends in technology are leaving a
knowledge. large number of our students behind. Today is an age of
(a) Only (A) and (C) (b) Only (B) exponential change. New and ever-improving technologies are
(c) Only (A) and (B) (d) Only (B) and (C) popping up every day and in every corner of society.
(e) All (A), (B) and (C) Educating the best and the brightest in this brave new world will
7. Which of the following according to the author, are factors take a new and improved educational paradigm. Allowing our
responsible for the declining interest in scientific research? educational tools to age in the corner of the classroom will be the
(A) Slower progress of work in research mistake that may cost us our future. Throwing away masses of
(B) Lesser monetary compensation in research related children to inequitable access will ensure that we languish at the
activities bottom of the global pool of employable workers for decades to
(C) Societal perception towards research come.
(a) Only(A) (b) Only (C) Technology will shape in a way we educate students in the
(c) Only (B) and (C) (d) Only (A) and (B) next decade. A user is not simply a person who uses. For the student,
(e) All (A), (B) and (C) being a user should involve using the latest technology in a free
8. Which of the following is true about the perception towards and autonomous manner. This new-found freedom will allow the
IT jobs as given in the passage ? student to become an active participant in his/her education instead
(A) They are physically tiring. of a passive passenger. In our current technological society, being
(B) They are considered to be managerial level jobs. a user also means being tracked. Tracking a student means having
(C) They require usage of dishonest means. the ability to target education towards weaknesses and strengths.
(a) Only (B) (b) Only (A) and (B) The ability to accurately customize curricula to the individual has
(c) Only (C) (d) Only (B) and (C) been the holy grail of educational philosophy for many years. This
(e) All (A), (B) and (C) are true golden age of technological development may soon enable this
dream to become a reality.
Directions (Qs. 9-12) : Choose the word/group of words which is Current educational curricula and individual assessment is
most SIMILAR in meaning to the word /group of words printed in arbitrary at best. Accurately assessing a student can only be
bold as used in the passage. achieved by using modern tracking and database technologies.
Imagine a world where every child has a tablet computer with
ready access to the internet. Further, imagine that every student
SPEED TEST 69 159
can access all the knowledge of humankind freely at any moment (B) Improving the educational syllabus would become
in time. Continue to imagine a world where a misspelled word easier.
brings up a spelling challenge application instead of an auto (C) Teachers would be able to devote more time to teaching.
correction. Try to contemplate what it would mean for a teacher to (a) Only (C) (b) All (A), (B) and (C)
have a database of every misspelled word, every misunderstood (c) Only (B) and (C) (d) Only (A) and (B)
concept or every missed, equation for each of their students. Try (e) Only (A)
to envision a teacher with the ability to customize the experience 17. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the
of the individual user with minimal effort. Imagine the curriculum passage?
being automatically targeted to the user through an intuitive (A) In the presence of technology each student would
educational platform that knows all strengths and each unique require constant monitoring by other individuals to
weakness. In the last few hundred years, most individuals would maximize learning.
consider an education as something you receive. You often hear (B) Educational philosophy is based on the belief of
the question asked, Where did you receive your education? As tailoring educational syllabus to individual student
we proceed through the next decade, education will slowly move capability.
away from reception and toward being custom designed for the (C) The author visualizes that each student 'will have access
individual user. New technology will not only allow us to receive to technology in the future.
an education, but also develop an education. The question we (a) Only (A) and (B) (b) Only (B)
might ask in ten years, How did you develop your education? (c) Only (C) (d) Only (B) and (C)
The question of where will still be important, but the how of the (e) All (A), (B) and (C)
matter will be the focus that defines the individual. 18. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title
To make this a reality we will need a standardized platform for the passage?
from which to develop a student's unique education. This (a) Technology - A Welcome Relief to Teachers
standardized platform will allow us to tailor a custom curriculum (b) Revamping the Educational Sector - An Impossible
that will be matched to talents, interests and life goals. For the Future
educator, a standardized platform will create a way to assist the (c) Education - Arbitrary But a Reality
student in discovering a true purpose in life through a unique (d) Technology and the Economy
educational experience. The basics of reading, writing and (e) Technology - Reshaping the Future of Education
arithmetic will not be taught as much as they will be discovered 19. How, according to the author, will the perception towards
and used. Learning will become a reciprocal experience between education change over the next decade?
the teacher, the student and the machine. (a) Where an individual gets his education will gain
Under a standardized platform, each of these three increasing importance
participants will have a role to play. The teacher will be the facilitator, (b) Education will be viewed as a prerogative of the elite
assisting the development of the curriculum and inspiring the only
direction the student takes. The student will be the user, gathering (c) Creativity in an individual will be regarded as needless
resources, skills and knowledge in an efficient and measured (d) The importance of education will decline
sequence. The machine will do the work of data gathering and (e) None of these
analysis, which will assist the teacher and student in refining the 20. What does the author mean by the term tracking a student?
curriculum. This data gathering work of the machine will also free (a) Analyzing the strengths and weaknesses of a student
the teacher from the burden of record-keeping and tedious tasks and designing an educational syllabus accordingly
that currently distract from the real job of teaching and learning. (b) Assessing whether a student is paying due attention
Under a standardized system, grade level will be far less important. to the existing curriculum offered by an institute of
Achievement and progression will be measured by accomplishment learning
and intelligence as a benchmark for success. The question of (c) Analyzing the positives and negatives of an
failure or success will be irrelevant and replaced with a standard educational institute and modifying it suitably to cater
and consistent measurement of potential and overall intelligence. to industrial requirements
Information will no longer be missed but continually rehearsed (d) Following a student to the educational institute that he
and monitored for retention by the machine. Tasks such as data visits frequently in order to estimate the time he spends
tracking, reporting and record keeping are currently accomplished there
manually. These tasks could easily be delegated to an intuitive (e) None of these
database. Developing a standard to follow would eliminate these 21. According to the author, why is the current education
tasks and free the teacher to do their main job of teaching students. provided not satisfactory?
The next decade may mark the moment in history when all are (a) The teachers providing education are not qualified
granted equal access to technology. Access to quality education enough to emphasize on quality
will only be gained through investment and universal (b) Quality of education provided is not uniform across
standardization of this technology. If we continue to divert wealth the globe and individual assessment is subjective
towards fruitless goals and corporate greed, this opportunity will (c) The educational sector is fraught with corrupt practices
be lost or hopelessly delayed. and thus does not produce the desired result
16. According to the author, which of the following will be the (d) The education system is not guided by technology
benefit(s) of introducing a standardized technological and hence the pace of learning is slow
platform? (e) There are too many schools in the country which
(A) Potential of a child will take precedence over the grades cannot be monitored effectively
he/she scores.
GRID 21. a b c d e
160 SPEED TEST 69
22. What is the authors vision regarding the integration of some extent but even taking these policies into consideration,
technology with education? there was still a net devaluation. 1991 is often cited as the year of
(A) A substantial database consisting of each students economic reform in India. Surely, the government's economic
learning curve would be readily available. policies changed drastically in that year, but the 1991 liberalisation
(B) An error would activate a software which would was an extension of earlier, albeit slower, reform efforts that had
encourage learning rather than auto-correcting. begun in the 1970s when India relaxed restrictions on imported
(C) Experimentation in academics would be encouraged. capital goods as part of its industrialization plan.
(a) Only (C) (b) Only (A) and (B) While the devaluation of 1991 was economically necessary
(c) All (A), (B) and (C)(d) Only (A) and (C) to avert a financial crisis, the radical changes in India's economic
(e) None of these policies were, to some extent, undertaken voluntarily by the
23. How has the author defined the term 'user' ? government of PVNarasimha Rao. In July of 1991 the Indian
(a) One who invests in the latest technology even when it government devalued the rupee by between 18 and 19 per cent.
is beyond his/her means 24. What is meant by currency devaluation?
(b) One who uses available technology to the maximum (a) Fall in price level
and for the longest period (b) Fall of exports
(c) One who freely and actively participates in acquiring (c) Reduction in the purchasing capacity
skills and knowledge in a systematic manner (d) Negative balance of trade
(d) Anyone who invests in technology as per his/her (e) None of these
requirement and where with all 25. Let us suppose that the price of 1 Dollar as on 31st March
(e) None of these 2010 was `47 but, as on 18 May 2010, `49 was required for
Directions (Qs. 24 to 27) : Read the passage carefully and the same. What does it mean?
answer the questions given below it. (a) Devaluation of Dollar
(b) Devaluation of Rupee
Currency devaluation takes place when one countrys (c) Not concerned with value of currency
currency is reduced in value in comparison to other currencies. (d) Devaluation of both the currencies
After currency devaluation, more of the devalued currency is (e) None of these
required in order to purchase the same amount of other currencies. 26. Devaluation of Indian rupee will lead to which of the
Afictional example: If last year, one US Dollar purchased 50 Indian following?
Rupees, and this year, one US Dollar can only purchase 45 Indian (a) It will reduce the price of Indian products abroad.
Rupees, the US dollar has undergone a currency devaluation. (b) It will reduce the demand of Indian products worldwide.
Currency devaluation can take two forms. It can either be (c) Exporters will incur loss.
the natural result of market forces, or it can be the result of (d) Importers will be benefited.
government intervention. In the first scenario, the global market (e) None of these
changes its opinion about the stability, value or future of a 27. What are the ways of currency devaluation?
currency and decides that it is willing to pay less. In the second (a) Mutual agreement between two countries.
scenario, a nation's government fixes the relative price of their (b) By market forces and govt control
currency below its present level and prohibits currency exchange (c) According to the instructions of the World Bank?
at any other rate. (d) By growth of exports.
Currency devaluation can help achieve a more desirable (e) None of these
balance of trade. For nations experiencing a trade deficit (when
imports exceed exports) , a currency devaluation will reduce the Directions (Qs. 28 to 30) : (Mark the statements) true with
reference to the passage.
price of their products abroad and increase the price of foreign
products in domestic markets. Increased demand for products in 28. I. A govt takes resort to devaluation in the case of an
other countries due to lower prices can also mean more jobs and economic crisis,
lower unemployment rates at home. II. Currency devaluation helps exporters positively.
Since its Independence in 1947, India has faced two major (a) Only I (b) Only II
financial crises and two consequent devaluations of the rupee. (c) Both I & II (d) Either I or II
These crises were in 1966 and l991 and they had similar causes. (e) None of these
29. I. Currency devaluation may result in more employment
The 1966 devaluation was the result of the first major financial opportunities.
crisis the government faced. Since 1950, India ran continued trade II. As a result of devaluation the country will have to pay
deficits that increased in magnitude in the 1960s. Two additional less for the imported goods.
factors played a role in the 1966 devaluation. The first was India's (a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I & II
war with Pakistan in late 1965. The second factor is the drought of (d) Either of the two (e) None of these
1965/1966. The sharp rise in prices in this period, which led to 30. I. It was 1991 when the process of economic reforms
devaluation, is often blamed on the drought, but in 1964/1965 was started in India.
there was a record harvest and still, prices rose by 10%. The drought II. Devaluation of 1991 was economically necessary to
was a catalyst for, rather than a direct cause of, devaluation. avert the financial crisis.
Following the 1966 devaluation, the government initially (a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I & II
liberalized its trade restrictions by reducing export subsidization (d) Either I or II (e) None of these
and import tariffs. These actions counteracted the devaluation to

70 Reading Comprehension - II
Directions (Qs. 1-9): Read the following passage carefully and 1. Why is the consumer likely to be swept off his feet?
answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases in (a) He is easily taken in by the deceptive publicity.
the passage are printed in bold to help you locate them while (b) He is wooed by the charm of foreign brands readily
answering some of the questions. available in the market.
In a country where consumers have traditionally had a raw
(c) He is not aware of the Law of Torts as practised abroad.
deal, the Consumer Protection Act was one of the most progressive
acts of legislation introduced in 1986. Before this, a shop could (d) He is not aware of the benefits of the consumer rights.
get away easily with the line goods once sold will not be taken (e) The Consumer Protection Act has been implemented
back or exchanged or a car parking contractor with park at your and he can seek redressal.
own risk. It is not that things have changed now but at least a
legislation is in place and a forum is available to seek redressal . 2. What does lack of... verdicts imply?
One of the basic limitations of this act is its mystification and (a) A lack of the basis of the system, trained staff and
general ignorance. No consumer agency or group has made its decisions based on fact
provisions general, nor has any redressal commission or forum. (b) A paucity of funds, jury and judgement
Restricted as it is by a lack of in frastructure and personnel and
great verdicts to encourage consumers. The legislation is (c) A lack of resources, employees and final decision based
comprehensive. It gives consumers the right to redress against on facts
defective goods, deficient services and unfair trade practices. (d) Not having the required manpower, economy and
Consumer courts must deliver their judgements within 40 days, decisive ruling
but rarely is this deadline adhered to. This reviewer had a first-
hand experience of the chairman of a consumer court in Delhi who (e) None of these
adjourned a case against a foreign airline for two years on the 3. Which of the following statements is/are true?
grounds that he did not have staff to type the orders. His A. Girimajis attempt is comprehensive but could have done
replacement found the backlog so shocking that he dismissed
with an angle or two more.
several cases without applying his mind, in the process working
against the interests of consumers. But what is more important is B. Though the Act allows the consumer to approach the
that the law has it that a consumer can approach court on his own court on his own, yet a lawyer to represent him is
without having to pay legal fees. In practice, this does not happen. insisted upon.
The chairperson of the National Commission, who is a sitting
C. Despite the Act, much remains the same.
judge, is so attuned to delivering judgments which can stand
scrutiny in a civil court of law that it is insisted upon that a consumer (a) Only A and C (b) Only A and B
must be represented by a lawyer. If not, cases are adjourned with (c) Only B and C (d) Only B and C
impunity and set for another day. Girimajis attempt is creditable in
(e) None of these
that it is the first of its kind and has addressed almost all possible
angles. She has discussed redressals in complaints about housing, 4. What does the author mean by mystification of the Act?
basic telephony, rail transportation, power supply, life insurance (a) The mysterious Act is yet to be resolved.
and medical negligence. There are even tips on how to file a (b) The consumer is wary of the Act.
complaint. But it is mired in the case files of the National/ State
Commissions of the Consumer Forum. A useful dimension would (c) The Act is not easily accessible.
have been a comparison with the Law of Torts practised abroad. It (d) The consumer remains unaware of his rights and
is necessary here also, especially in an era of economic liberalisation, privileges.
when the consumer is like ly to be swept off his feet by free-market
(e) The plight of the consumer is yet to end.
forces.
GRID
162 SPEED TEST 70
5. Which of the following best describes the judges 11. Attuned
replacement? (a) Brought into harmony
(a) He was partial towards the airline as it was a foreign (b) Adjusted
one. (c) Hazardous
(b) He never bothered to safeguard the interests of the (d) Out of tune
reviewer. (e) Malpractice
(c) He dismissed cases without even giving a second 12. Adjourned
thought to what cases came to him. (a) Stopped (b) Postponed (c) Decided
(d) He was apathetic and uninterested about the direction (d) Cleared (e) Pended
the case might head in. Directions (Qs. 13-15): Select the word which is most OPPOSITE
(e) He passed irrelevant verdicts indifferently. in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
6. What does the Act broadly cover?
13. Impunity
(a) It protects the right to redress. (a) Penalised
(b) It is a forum that protects the redresser. (b) Fine
(c) It shields the consumer from deceptive and unfair trade (c) Sentence
practices. (d) Freedom from punishment
(d) It enables the plaintiff to fight his case free of cost. (e) None of these
(e) None of these 14. Mired
7. Which of the following is a limitation of the Act? (a) Buried (b) Muddy (c) Steeped
(a) It does not cover the international law of torts. (d) Free (e) None of these
15. Redressal
(b) It is not comprehensive with regard to liberal economy.
(l) Plea
(c) No forum or commission has come forward to bring it
(b) Justice
to light. (c) Sue for compensation
(d) Its red-tapism (d) Not to compensate
(e) None of these (e) Put right
8. How has Girimajis attempt been creditable? DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-23): Read the following passage carefully
(a) It has given the Act a new dimension. and answer the questions given below it. Certain words / phrases
(b) She has brought all the loopholes in the Act to the have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering
consumers notice. some of the questions.
(c) She has looked at the Act in a very disinterested and Amartya Sen wrote about the Indian tradition of skepticism
impersonal manner. and heterodoxy of opinion that led to high levels of intellectual
(d) She has discussed the law in the most explicit manner. argument. The power sector in India is a victim of this tradition at
its worst. Instead of forcefully communicating, supporting and
(e) Her implicit dialogue with the consumer has made him
honestly and firmly implementing policies, people just debate
aware of his rights.
them. It is argued that central undertakings produce power at
9. What is the functionary role of the chairman of the National
lower tariffs and must therefore build most of the required extra
Commission? capacities. This is a delusion. They no longer have access to
(a) To be the titular head of the commission low-cost government funds.
(b) To be accountable to the public Uncertainty about payment remains a reason for the
(c) To prevent any dissent arising out of his verdicts and hesitation of private investment. They had to sell only to SEBs
Acts (State Electricity Boards). SEB balance sheets are cleaner after the
(d) To adjourn the cases with impunity securitisation of the Rs 40,000 crore or so owed by SEBs to
(e) None of these central government undertakings, now shown as debt instruments.
Directions (Qs. 10-12): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR But state governments have not implemented agreed plans to
ensure repayment when due. The current annual losses of around
in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Rs 28,000 crore make repayment highly uncertain. The central
10. Forum undertakings that are their main suppliers have payment security
(a) Dias (b) Podium (c) Platform because the government will come to their help. Private enterprises
(d) Stage (e) None of these do not have such assurance and are concerned about payment
security, that must be resolved.
GRID 15. a b c d e
SPEED TEST 70 163
By the late 1990s, improving the SEB finances was 18. Which of the following is the reason for apathy of private
recognised as fundamental to power reform. Unbundling SEBs, investors in power sector?
working under corporate discipline and even privatisation and (a) Their hesitation
not vertically integrated state enterprises, are necessary for (b) Uncertainly of their survival
efficient and financially viable electricity enterprises. Since (c) Cut-throat competition
government will not distance itself from managing them, privatising (d) Lack of guarantee of timely returns
(e) None of these
is an option. The Delhi model has worked. But it receives no public
19. What was the serious omission on the part of the State
support.
Government?
The Electricity Act 2003, the APRDP (Accelerated Power (a) Agreement for late recovery of dues
Reform and Development Programme) with its incentives and (b) Reluctance to repay to private investors as per agreed
penalties, and the creation of independent regulatory commissions, plan
were the means to bring about reforms to improve financial viability (c) Non-implementation of recovery due to unplanned and
of power sector. Implementation has been half-hearted and results haphazard polices
disappointing. The concurrent nature of electricity in the (d) Lack of assurance from private enterprises
Constitution impedes power sector improvement. States are more (e) None of these
responsive to populist pressures than the central government, 20. Which of the following is/are considered necessary for
and less inclined to take drastic action against electricity thieves. improving performance of electricity enterprises?
(A) Corporate work culture
Captive power would add significantly to capacity. However, (B) Privatisation
captive generation, three years after the Act enabled it, has added (C) Properly integrated state enterprises
little to capacity because rules for open access were delayed. (a) All the three (b) (a) and (b) only
Redefined captive generation avoids state vetoes on purchase or (c) (a) and (c) only (d) (b) and (c) only
sale of electricity except to state electricity enterprises. Mandating (e) None of these
open access on state-owned wires to power regardless of 21. The example of Delhi Model quoted by the author
ownership and customer would encourage electricity trading. The underlines his feelings of
Act recognised electricity trading as a separate activity. A A. happiness about its success.
surcharge on transmission charges will pay for cross-subsidies. B. unhappiness for lack of public support
These were to be eliminated in time. Rules for open access and the C. disgust towards privatisation.
quantum of surcharge by each state commission (under broad (a) (a) and (b) only (b) (b) and (c) only
principles defined by the central commission) have yet to be (c) (a) and (c) only (d) All the three
announced by some. The few who have announced the surcharge (e) None of these
have kept it so high that no trading can take place. 22. Which of the following was/were not considered as the
instrument(s) to accomplish financial well-being of power
16. The author thinks it appropriate to
sector?
(a) discuss any policy in details and make it fool proof
(a) The Electricity Act 2003
instead of implementing it hastily.
(b) The APRDP with its incentives and penalties
(b) follow Indian tradition meticulously as skepticism is
(c) Setting up of independent regulatory commissions
essential for major decisions. (d) States vulnerability to populist pressures
(c) divert our energies from fruitlessly contracting policies (e) Taking drastic action against electricity thieves.
to supporting its implementation whole-heartedly. 23. Why were the results of the power sector reforms NOT as
(d) intellectual arguments and conceptualisation of every had been anticipated?
policy is definitely better than its enforcement. (a) The means to bring about reforms were illconceived.
(e) none of these (b) The enforcement of the reform means was inadequate
17. Why are the central undertakings not capable of generating and apathetic.
power at low cost? (c) The Act and the reform measures were contradicting
(a) Due to paucity of low-cost funds with each other.
(b) Due to their access to Government funds (d) The incentives on the one hand and penalties on the
(c) Due to their delusion about government funds other created dissatisfaction.
(d) Because of their extra capacities (e) None of these
(e) None of these

164 SPEED TEST 70
Directions (Qs. 24-30) : Read the following passage and answer (c) exaggerated revelation of the strengths and
the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in weaknesses of economy
hold to bold you to locate them while answering some of the (d) making our country on par with Finland
questions. (e) None of these
26. The author seems to be in favour of
We have inherited the tradition of secrecy about the budget
from Britain where also the system has been strongly attacked by (a) maintaining secrecy of budget
eminent economists and political scientists including Peter Jay. (b) judicious blend of secrecy and openness
Sir Richard Clarke, who was the originating genius of nearly every (c) transparency in budget proposals
important development in the British budgeting techniques during (d) replacement of public constitution by secrecy
the last two decades, has spoken out about the abuse of budget
(e) None of these
secrecy: The problems of long-term tax policy should surely be
debated openly with the facts on the table. In my opinion, all 27. The secrecy of the budget is maintained by all of the
governments should have just the same duty to publish their following countries except
expenditure policy. Indeed, this obligation to publish taxation A. Finland
policy is really essential for the control of public expenditure in B. India
order to get realistic taxation implications. Realising that
C. United States
democracy flourishes best on the principles of open government,
more and more democracies are having an open public debate on (a) Only A (b) Only B (c) Only C
budget proposals before introducing the appropriate Bill in the (d) A and C (e) B and C
legislature. In the United States the budget is conveyed in a 28. Which of the following statements is definitely TRUE in the
message by the President to the Congress, which comes well in context of the passage?
advance of the date when the Bill is introduced in the Congress. (a) The British Government has been religiously
In Finland the Parliament and the people are already discussing in
maintaining budget secrecy.
June the tentative budget proposals which are to be introduced in
the Finnish Parliament in September. Every budget contains a (b) Budget secrecy is likely to lead to corrupt practices.
cartload of figures in black and white - but the dark figures represent (c) Consulting unjustifiable taxes with public helps make
the myriad lights and shades of Indias life, the contrasting tones them accept those taxes.
of poverty and wealth, and of bread so dear and flesh and blood (d) There should be no control on public expenditure in
so cheap, the deep tints of adventure and enterprise and mans democratic condition.
ageless struggle for a brighter morning. The Union budget should
(e) None of these
not be an annual scourge but a part of presentation of annual
accounts of a partnership between the Government and the people. 29. Sir Richard Clarke seems to deserve the credit for
That partnership would work much better when the nonsensical (a) transformation in the British budgetary techniques.
secrecy is replaced by openness and public consultations, resulting (b) maintenance of secrecy of the British budget.
in fair laws and the peoples acceptance of their moral duty to pay. (c) detection of abuse of transparency in budget.
24. How do the British economists and political scientists react
(d) bringing down the tax load on British people.
to budget secrecy? They are
(a) in favour of having a mix of secrecy and openness. (e) None of these
(b) indifferent to the budgeting techniques and taxation 30. From the contents of the passage, it can be inferred that the
policies. author is
(c) very critical about maintenance of budget secrecy. (a) authoritarian in his approach.
(d) advocates of not disclosing in advance the budget
(b) a democratic person.
contents.
(e) None of these (c) unaware of Indias recent economic developments.
25. The author thinks that openness in budget is essential as it (d) a conservative person.
leads to (e) None of these
(a) prevention of tax implications
(b) peoples reluctance to accept their moral duties

71 Para Jumbles
Directions (Qs. 1 to 5): Rearrange the following six sentences C. The broadbased agitation against SEZs has demonstrated
(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful the power of popular protest in the State.
paragraph, then answer the questions given below them. D. Those opposed to the projects had questioned the propriety
of the government acquiring large tracts of land and then
A. It will take extraordinary political commitment and liberal selling them to promoters at low prices.
public funding during the 11th Plan for affordable housing
E. A coastal State with an area of 3,700 square kilometers and
to become a credible goal.
a population of about 1.4 million, Goa has always been
B. The National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy of the extremely sensitive to the impact of unrestrained economic
United Progressive Alliance Government seeks to make development.
access to housing, long acknowledged as a fundamental 6. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence?
right, a reality for all.
(a) A (b) B (c) C
C. The task is staggering even if we go by conservative (d) D (e) E
estimates.
7. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence?
D. The housing shortage to be met during the Plan is 26.53 (a) A (b) B (c) C
million units, which include the backlog from the 10th Plan. (d) D (e) E
E. If the existing stock of poor quality dwellings and the 8. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence?
growing urbanizationdriven demand are taken into account, (a) A (b) B (c) C
the real deficit will be even higher.
(d) D (e) E
1. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence? 9. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) E (d) D (e) E
2. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence? 10. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST)
(a) A (b) B (c) C sentence?
(d) D (e) E (a) A (b) B (c) C
3. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence? (d) D (e) E
(a) A (b) B (c) C
Directions (Qs. 11 to 15): Rearrange the following six sentences
(d) D (e) E
(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
4. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence? paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) E A. The British government plans to insist that spouses should
5. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST) have to learn English before they are allowed into Britain to
sentence? join their husbands or wives have run into a barrage of
(a) A (b) B (c) C opposition and warnings that the idea could breach human
(d) D (e) E rights laws.
B. The responses to an official consultation on the proposal
Directions (Qs. 6 to10): Rearrange the following six sentences published on Thursday was more than two to one against
(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) and in the proper sequence to form a the proposal, with many warning it could break up marriages
meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below because many cannot afford or access English lessons.
them. C. Immigration lawyers have told ministers that spouses and
A. The upsurge of public activism against the setting up of fiances should not be barred from joining a partner in the
Special Economic Zones, which eventually forced the State U.K. for language reasons and that the plan could breach
Government to announce the scrapping of all 15 such the human rights convention's guarantees to the right to
projects, is an impressive case in point. marry and have a family life.
B. Early last year, a similar agitation coerced the government D. The anonymised responses were 68 to 31 against the pre-
into calling for a revision of the Goa Regional Plan 2011, a entry english test for spouses.
controversial document that opened up large swathes of E. Other immigration organizations said the measure would
land, including green belts and coastal stretches, for discriminate against those from rural areas in South Asia,
construction. where the opportunities to learn English are limited.
166 SPEED TEST 71
11. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence? (D) Vishnu Raman was a poor Brahmin and a farmer by
(a) A (b) B (c) C profession.
(d) D (e) E (E) The next day when he returned, he was rewarded with
12. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence? a gold coin in the bowl he left behind.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (F) Just as he was preparing to lie down he saw a huge
(d) D (e) E cobra swaying with his hood open.
13. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence? 21. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence
(a) A (b) B (c) C after rearrangement?
(d) D (e) E (a) B (b) C (c) E
14. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence? (d) D (e) F
(a) A (b) B (c) C 22. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after
(d) D (e) E rearrangement?
15. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST) (a) A (b) D (c) F
sentence? (d) C (e) E
(a) A (b) B (c) C 23. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after
(d) D (e) E rearrangement?
Directions (Qs. 16 to 20) : Rearrange the following six sentences (a) F (b) D (c) C
(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to from a (d) B (e) E
meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. 24. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST)
sentence after rearrangement?
(A) He immediately acknowledged Mohans good work and (a) D (b) B (c) C
invited him to his home for dinner. (d) E (e) F
(B) One day a wealthy merchant sent his sons bicycle to 25. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence
the shop for repair. after rearrangement?
(C) The next day the merchant came to claim the bicycle (a) E (b) F (c) B
and noticed that it was shiny. (d) A (e) D
(D) After repairing the bicycle, Mohan cleaned it up and
made it look new. Directions (Qs. 26 to 30) : In each of the following items some
(E) Once upon a time, there was a boy named Mohan who parts have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these
worked as an apprentice in a bicycle shop. parts which are labelled P, Q, R, S to produce the correct sentence.
(F) Other apprentices in the shop laughed at Mohan for Choose the proper sequence and mark in your Answer Sheet
doing unnecessary work. accordingly.
16. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence 26. Feeling flattered by praise of the fox to the piece of cheese
after rearrangement? (P) / the crow began to crow (Q) / it held on its beak (R) /
(a) A (b) B (c) C unmindful of what will / happen (S).
(d) D (e) F The proper sequence should be
17. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after (a) SPRQ (b) QSRP (c) RSPQ
rearrangement? (d) QSPR (e) PQSR
(a) A (b) B (c) C 27. There is that the woman is a kitchen-maid and (P) / the
(d) D (e) E traditional belief (Q) / an instrument of mans pleasure (R) /
18. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after and a child-bearing machine (S).
rearrangement? The proper sequence should be
(a) A (b) B (c) C (a) QPSR (b) RQPS (c) QSPR
(d) D (e) E (d) RSPQ (e) PSRQ
19. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) 28. The rapid endangerment and death of many minority
sentence after rearrangement? languages not only among logistics and anthropologists
(a) A (b) B (c) D (P) / with issues of cultural identity (Q) / is a matter of
(d) E (e) F widespread concern (R) / but among all concerned (S).
20. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence The proper sequence should be
after rearrangement? (a) PSRQ (b) RQPS (c) RPSQ
(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) QRPS (e) SPQR
(d) E (e) F 29. Violence even before she is born (P) / and can happen
Directions (Qs. 21 to 25) : Rearrange the following six sentences throughout a womans life (Q) / against women (R) / takes
(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to from a many forms (S).
meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below The proper sequence should be
them. (a) RPSQ (b) PQSR (c) RSQP
(d) SQRP (e) QPRS
(A) At first he got scared, but then he thought, I have 30. I saw two roads covered with the yellow (P) / directions in a
never worshipped her; that is why I am not able to get forest (Q) / branching in two different (R) leaves of autumn (S).
anything from my land. The proper sequence should be
(B) One day unable to tolerate the summer heat, he went to (a) PQRS (b) PQSR (c) PRSQ
rest under a big banyan tree. (d) PSRQ (e) QSRP
(C) He rushed to his village and placed his humble offering
of milk in a bowl before the snake.
72 Cloze Test-I
Directions (Qs. 1-30) : In the following passage there are blanks, 9. (a) anxious (b) realise (c) imagine
each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed (d) pretend (e) apprehend
below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, 10. (a) exile (b) power (c) bondage
one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate (d) suspense (e) abeyance
word in each case. PASSAGE -2
Now-a-days, under the (1) system of education, however good it
PASSAGE -1 may be, when a young man comes out of the university, there
'Quit India' came not from the lips but the aching heart of millions. seems to be this (2) in him that the higher the standard of living
In this open rebellion, the Indian (1) reached its climax. The British rises, the less should a man work. Thus, mathematically, higher
were nut only (2) by it, but also were obliged to quit unilaterally, the standard of living, according to this misconceived notion, the
The importance of Quit India can be (3) from Lord Linlithgow's less the (3) ultimately, what? should be the highest standard of
living then? (4) work ! This leads to an unhealthy (5) among the
statement, "I am engaged here, in meeting by far the most (4)
workers . A typist who types over twenty letters a day asks his (6)
rebellion since that 6 1857, the gravity and extent ill which we
how many letters he had typed that day. The latter (7) " fifteen".
have so far (5) from the world for reasons of military security".
The former thinks , " Tomorrow I should type only fifteen or even
Still more significant was Churchill's gloomy disclosure to the (8). This tendency is quite (9) and may ultimately lead to (10)
King Emperor that, "the idea of (6) of power had become an even ones family life may be affected adversely due to such
admitted (7) in the minds of British party leaders", although his tendency.
public statements were diametrically opposite. The (8) created by 11. (a) extinct (b) proposed (c) developed
Quit India made the British (9) that they could no longer keep (d) modern (e) outdated
India in (10) 12. (a) apprehension (b) realisation (c) anxiety
1. (a) patriotism (b) freedom (c) liberation (d) worry (e) misconception
(d) revolution (e) leadership 13. (a) work (b) time (c) salary
2. (a) attacked (b inspired (c) enfeebled (d) energy (e) comfort
(d) threatened (e) impressed 14. (a) Ample (b) No (c) Minimum
3. (a) established (b) diffused (c) gauged (d) Less (e) Maximum
(d) determined (e) invigorated 15. (a) ambition (b) jealousy (c) delay
4. (a) trivial (b) serious (c) auspicious (d) dispute (e) competition
16. (a) colleague (b) client (c) boss
(d) praiseworthy (e) magnificent
(d) subordinate (e) employee
5. (a) elicited (b) excluded (c) abstained
17. (a) remembers (b) types (c) suggests
(d) concealed (e) prevented
(d) replies (e) does
6. (a) transfer (b) seizure (c) grabbing
18. (a) more (b) all (c) less
(d) retainment (e) enhancement (d) some (e) few
7. (a) fantasy (b) tactics (c) occurrence 19. (a) unnatural (b) unfortunates (c) healthy
(d) inevitability (e) disillusionment (d) heartening (e) discouraging
8. (a) anarchy (b) violence (c) taboos 20. (a) retardation (b) denial (c) evil
(d) exigencies (e) vengeance (d) complexity (e) progress
168 SPEED TEST 72
PASSAGE -3 21. (a) killing (b) alive (c) born
Hundreds of plants and animals are (21) every day due to (d) left (e) lost
deforestation and urbanization what might happen if this continues
22. (a) speak (b) told (c) estimation
in the future ? The last mass extinction of plant and animal species
(d) believe (e) consider
occurred 65 million years ago with the Dinosaurs. In all, five mass
extinctions have occurred and scientists (22) earth is in sixth mass 23. (a) shape (b) development
extinction. The world as it is now is threatened, including people, (c) deterioration (d) warmth
who are responsible for earths (23). Pesticides contaminating (e) expansion
water; over harvesting of animals and plants; air pollution; illegal 24. (a) altered (b) created (c) produced
fishing and the Clearing of land are direct results of urbanization (d) made (e) brought
and deforestation. People have (24) and damaged almost half a
25. (a) void (b) dissipate (c) argument
earth's land, at a very unsustainable rate.
(d) reverse (e) increase
Global warming is having a serious impact as well. A six-degree
Celsius increase in global temperature killed 95% of All species on 26. (a) delay (b) birds (c) slowdown
Earth 251 million years ago. An increase of six-degree Celsius is (d) hasten (e) acceleration
forecast this Century if a change is not made to (25) the damage 27. (a) spare (b) bear (c) destroy
done to earth. Humans will be one of the 95% of species lost. (d) amend (e) generation
Noticeable, changes of global warming include migration (26) and 28. (a) animals (b) difficulty (c) issues
the change in season Urnings. Migrating birds are migrating earlier,
(d) humans (e) problem
which in turn is causing them to hatch eggs and (27) young earlier
than they did at the beginning of this Century. While this is just 29. (a) extinction (b) better (c) wealth
the tip of the iceberg many other (28) regarding the extinction of (d) sugma (e) demand
plant and animal species need addressing. It is more important 30. (a) endangered (b) threaten (c) evaluated
now than ever before to pull our heads out of the sand arid make (d) living (e) compared
changes for the (29) of the earth. Future generations are (30), as
they are a species as well.

73 Cloze Test-II
Directions (Qs. 1 to 28) : In the following passage there are blanks, 4. (a) made (b) comprise (c) consisted
each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed (d) is (e) contained
below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, 5. (a) cater (b) provide (c) manage
one of which fits the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate (d) survive (e) give
word in each case. 6. (a) gap (b) position (c) distance
(d) length (e) thought
PASSAGE-1
7. (a) reduction (b) sea (c) cropping
Prior to independence the healthcare sector in India was in a (1)
(d) disabling (e) emergence
with a large number of deaths and rampant spread of infectious
8. (a) needy (b) destitute (c) bigger
diseases. After independence the Government of India laid (2) on
(d) affluent (e) much
primary healthcare and India has put in sustained efforts to better
9. (a) slowly (b) improve (c) many
the healthcare system (3) the country, The government initiative
(d) improvised (e) tremendous
was not enough to meet the demands of a growing population be
10. (a) speed (b) pace (c) inequality
it in primary, secondary or tertiary healthcare. Alternate sources
(d) uniformity (e) seriousness
of finance were critical for the sustainability of the health sector.
PASSAGE-2
Till about 20 years ago, private sector ventures in the healthcare
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE)
seetor (4) of only solo practitioners, small hospitals and nursing
Act, 2009, which came (11) effect in April this year, is meant to
homes. The quality of service provided was excellent especially in
transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of
the hospitals run by charitable trusts and religious foundations.
universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic
In 1980s realizing that the government on its own would not be
session just (12) the corner, it is fast becoming clear that (13) well
able to (5) for healthcare, the government allowed the entry of
intentioned ideas into (14) will take some doing. For a start, the
private sector to reduce the (6) between supply and demand for
guidelines for admissions under the RTE prohibit schools from
healthcare. The establishment of the private sector has resulted in
conducting any sort of student profiling. The stress on a random
the (7) of opportunities in terms of medical equipment, information
yet justifiable admission process means that schools will have to
technology in health services. BPO, telemedicine and medical
resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving
tourism.
admission to a good school to pure (15) will only incentivise
Large companies and (8) individuals have now started five star
manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE.
hospitals which dominate the space for the high end market. The
The main problem facing the education sector is that of a
private sector has made (9) progress, but on the flip side it is also
resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to
responsible for increasing (10) in the healthcare sector. The private
education are all very well, (16) we have the infrastructure in place
sector should be more socially relevant and effort must be made
first. Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission
to make private sector accessible to the weaker sections of society.
and not the (17) way around. In that sense, legislators assessment
1. (a) shambles (b) failure (c) demand of ground realities is (18) target when they endorse the closure of
(d) prosperity (e) ruined tens of thousands of low-cost private schools for not meeting the
2. (a) bricks (b) emphasize (c) request minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and
(d) stress (e) important playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing
3. (a) through (b) across (c) sharing down (19) on private schools for failing to conform to abstract
(d) with (e) on bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education
170 SPEED TEST 73
should focus on upgrading and expanding the existing on the right to information is not new, we may ...(23)... the bill to be
government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then brought early this time. The previous Government had set up a
can we ensure the much needed supply-demand (20) in the high-level committee to prepare a draft bill. But nothing has been
education sector. heard about the matter since, ...(24)... the committee did quite some
11. (a) with (b) for (c) on work. The issue, however, has come to such a pass that a solution
(d) into (e) in
cannot be ...(25)... further. Sunlight is the best disinfectant, a foreign
12. (a) around (b) near (c) into
judge once said, while ...(26)... the unwarranted secrecy in an
(d) about (e) reaching
administrative system. When those in authority know that people
13. (a) forming (b) translating (c) having
(d) taking (e) framing have the right to ask questions and the government is under the
14. (a) affect (b) ideas (c) practice ...(27)... to provide them with answers, ...(28)... of authority, or of
(d) concept (e) procedure public finances, for personal or party ends is less likely to happen.
15. (a) benefit (b) merit (c) chance 21. (a) strictness (b) rudeness (c) leniency
(d) basis (e) method (d) economy (e) transparency
16. (a) unless (b) until (c) executed 22. (a) personally (b) busy (c) not
(d) provided (e) exercised (d) reluctantly (e) absolutely
17. (a) other (b) any (c) two
23. (a) expect (b) wait (c) try
(d) differ (e) after
(d) frustrate (e) appeal
18. (a) on (b) of (c) often
(d) taken (e) off 24. (a) even (b) as (c) because
19. (a) soft (b) more (c) less (d) until (e) though
(d) only (e) hard 25. (a) found (b) expected (c) delayed
20. (a) need (b) equilibrium (d) looked (e) longed
(c) expectation (d) attempt 26. (a) nurturing (b) criticising (c) demanding
(e) aspects
(d) appreciating (e) upholding
PASSAGE-3
27. (a) pretention (b) affect (c) substance
The Government seems to be in right earnest to ensure more
(d) obligation (e) property
...(21)... in governance. The Prime Ministers announcement that
his Government is ...(22)... drafting legislation to establish the 28. (a) misuse (b) governance (c) dishonour
citizens right to information is indeed welcome . Though the talk (d) curbing (e) breach

74 One Word With Different Meanings
Directions (1-10): In each question below are given two 9. I. Some of the African immigrants indulge in smuggling
sentences numbered I and II. In these sentences, two homonyms in our country.
are given in italics type, which may be either mis-spelt or II. Many emmigrants from India have settled in America.
inappropriate in the context of the sentences. Read both the 10. I. He did not accede to may request.
sentences carefully and decide on their correctness on the II. Dont exceed the limits.
basis of the italicised words. Directions (Qs. 11-30): Below is given a single word with
Give answer. options to its meaning in different contexts. You have to select
(a), if only sentence I is correct; all those options which are synonyms of the word when the
(b), if only sentence II is correct; context is changed. Select the correct alterative from (a), (b),
(c), if both the sentences I and II are correct; (c), (d) and (e) which represents all those synonyms.
(d), if I as well as II are incorrect, but both could be made correct 11. ALTER
by interchanging the italicised words; (1) Fix (2) Change
(e), if neither I nor II is correct and the sentence could not be (3) Gender (4) Modify
made correct by interchanging the italicised words. (a) Only (1) (b) Both (2) and (4)
1. I. An ordnance declaring Presidents rule in the state (c) Only(2), (3) and (4) (d) Only (1), (2) and (3)
has been issued today. (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
II. The ordinance depot is situated far away from this 12. MYSTERIOUS
city. (1) Cryptic (2) peculiar
2. I. You should talk to your boss in a reverent manner. (3) Queer (4) Secret
II. Our reverend Principal is coming. (a) Only (4) (b) Both (2) and (4)
3. I. He was being laughed at for his antic gesture. (c) Both (1) and (4) (d) Only (1), (2) and (4)
II. Antique articles are priced much these days. (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
4. I. The tragic tale narrated by the old man efected all the 13. NAIVE
children. (1) Sophisticated (2) primitive
II. The humane attitude of the new manager affected a (3) Uninitiated (4) uninstructed
profound change in labour relations. (a) Only (4) (b) Both (1) and (3)
5. I. He is wrapt up in pleasurable contemplation. (c) All (2), (3) and (4) (d) Only (1), (3) and (4)
II. I listened to her song with rapt attention. (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
6. I. I think this electric metre is faulty. 14. EXAGGERATE
II. I require two meters of cloth for this purpose. (1) Boast (2) Brag
7. I. His manners are urban. (3) Overdo (4) Overstate
II. People of urbane area are civil in manners. (a) Only (3) (b) Both (1) and (4)
8. I. He won the election only because of the support he (c) Only (1), (3) and (4) (d) Only (1), (2) and (4)
got from his zealous party workers. (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
II. Savitas friends were jealous of her success in the
prestigious competition.
172 SPEED TEST 74
15. TENDENCY 23. OBEDIENCE
(1) Disposition (2) inclination (1) Accomplishment (2) Flexibility
(3) Trend (4) leaning (3) Obeisance (4) Respect
(a) Only (1) (b) Both (1) and (3) (a) Only (4) (b) Both (1) and (3)
(c) Both (2) and (3) (d) Only (1), (3) and (4) (c) Both (3) and (4) (d) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4) (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
16. PROSPECTIVE 24. OBLIGATION
(1) Future (2) likely (1) Indebtedness (2) Demand
(3) Retrospective (4) potential (3) Responsibility (4) Duty
(c) Only (1), (2) and (4) (d) Only (1), (2) and (3) (c) Only (1), (3) and (4) (d) Only (1), (2) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4) (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
17. DEFICIENCY 25. RESPITE
(1) Insufficiency (2) totally (1) Reprieve (2) Relief
(3) Wholly (4) entirely (3) Suspension (4) Recess
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4) (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
18. DIGNITY 26. COMPATIBLE
(1) Humility (2) Self-respect (1) Similar (2) standardised
(3) Humbleness (4) Self-regard (3) Simpatico (4) interchangeable
(c) Only (1), (3) and (4) (d) Only (1), (2) and (4) (c) Only (1), (2) and (4) (d) Only (1), (2) and (3)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4) (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
19. OBSOLETE 27. INTERRUPT
(1) Disused (2) redundant (1) Disrupt (2) Break up
(3) Superfluous (4) surplus (3) Examination (4) Progress
(c) Only (1), (3) and (4) (d) Only (1), (2) and (4) (c) Both (1) and (2) (d) Only (1), (2) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4) (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
20. REFLECTION 28. TANTALISE
(1) Observation (2) suspension (1) Taunt (2) Spoof
(3) Outburst (4) Expression (3) Charade (4) Tease
(c) Both (2) and (3) (d) Only (1), (3) and (4) (c) Only (1), (3) and (4) (d) Only (1), (2) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4) (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
21. INTEGRATION 29. STALEMATE
(1) Intensifying (2) combination (1) Deadlock (2) Impasse
(3) Heightening (4) consolidation (3) Standstill (4) Dead-end
(c) Both (1) and (2) (d) Only (1), (2) and (3) (c) Only (1), (3) and (4) (d) Only (1), (2) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4) (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
22. NOURISHING 30. RITUAL
(1) Tiring (2) toiling (1) Rite (2) pattern
(3) Tasty (4) nutritious (3) Use (4) habit
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4) (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

30. a b c d e
75 Sentence Completion
Direction (Qs. 1 to 5) : In each of these questions, a sentence has Direction (Qs. 6 to 10) : In each of these questions, a sentence
one or two blanks, each blank indicating the something has been has one or two blanks, each blank indicating the something has
omitted. Beneath the sentence are given four words or a set of been omitted. Beneath the sentence are given four words or a set
word. Choose the word or the set of words for each blank that of word. Choose the word or the set of words for each blank that
best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. The _______ successfully repelled every _______ on the 6. The perpetual spinning of particles is much like that of a
city. top, with one significant difference, unlike the top, the
(a) defenders-comment particles have no need to be wound up, for .............. is one
(b) citizens-onslaught of their .............. properties.
(c) thieves-robbery (a) revolution-radical
(d) judge-criticism (b) rotation-intrinsic
(e) None of these (c) motion-intangible
(d) acceleration- hypothetical
2. He was _______ very clever, but he _______ performed
excellently. (e) None of these
(a) certainly-obviously 7. The .............. terrorist was finally .............. by the police.
(b) never-also (a) famous-apprehended
(c) not-always (b) notorious-nabbed
(d) rarely-seldom (c) crafty-admonished
(e) None of these (d) renowned, caught
3. A _______ analysis of these substances will show that (e) None of these
they differ _______ . 8. It is foolish to vent your spleen on a/an .............. object. Still,
you make .............. enemies that way.
(a) random-minutely
(a) immobile-bitter (b) interesting-curious
(b) detailed-essentially
(c) humane-more (d) inanimate-fewer
(c) careful-completely
(e) None of these
(d) final-Structurally
9. Compromise is .............. to passionate natures because it
(e) None of these
seems to surrender, and to intellectual natures it seems a
4. When the _______ polished the stones, they gleamed with
.............. .
a breath-taking brilliance.
(a) unsuited-submission
(a) graphologist (b) cosmetologist
(b) odious-confusion
(c) lapidary (d) beagle
(c) intimidations-dichotomy
(e) None of these
5. As _______ head of the organisation, he attended social (d) inherent-fabrication
functions and civil meetings, but had no _______ in the (e) None of these
formulation of company policy. 10. The village headman was unlettered, but he was no fool, he
(a) hypothetical-vote could see through the .............. of the businessmans
(b) titular-voice proposition and promptly .............. him down.
(c) nominal-competition (a) deception -forced (b) naivete-turned
(d) former-pride (c) potential-forced (d) sophistry-turned
174 SPEED TEST 75
Directions (Qs. 11-15) : Pick out the most effective word from the 21. Prabhas .................. in athletics yielded rich ............ as she
given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully got a scholarship.
complete. (a) performance, money
11. He has a _____ knowledge about ancient Indian scriptures. (b) defeat, results
(a) delectable (b) profound (c) enriching (c) behaviour, appreciation
(d) vociferous (e) lamentable (d) excellence, dividends
12. Your allegation should be based on facts and not on_____. (e) failure, disappointment
(a) surmise (b) proofs 22. The police ............... any attempt of arson by ............... at the
(c) projections (d) antipathy trouble spot quite in time.
(e) records (a) squashed, surrounding
13. He spent whole of his life in ______ the miseries of the (b) made, encircling
downtrodden people. (c) predisposed, visiting
(a) destroying (b) absorbing (d) thwarted, presenting
(c) advocating (d) avoiding (e) pre-empted, arriving
(e) mitigating 23. The ..................... imposed for non-payment was too .............
14. The _______ climate of our town will help to recover his for it to bring in improvement in collection.
health. (a) fine, severe (b) toll, simple
(a) enchanting (b) prestigious (c) penalty, low (d) damage, cruel
(c) salubrious (d) enriching (e) punishment, harsh
(e) proverbial
24. Somesh ................ me coming to his table, he smiled and
15. He has the _____ distinction of losing the election for the
sixth consecutive term. ............ me a chair.
(a) reliable (b) manifest (a) found, signalled (b) met, sat
(c) lamentable (d) dubious (c) looked, gave (d) saw, offered
(e) refreshing (e) welcomed, took
25. The leaders were .............. needed by those to .............. they
Directions (Q. 16-30) : Each question below has two blanks,
each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose addressed.
the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the (a) angrily, who (b) readily, which
sentence as a whole (c) scarcely, whom (d) rarely, where
(e) joyfully, when
16. Many teachers ................. the lack of professional freedom 26. I am not ............. to sell you my house unless you offer a
as the ............. for leaving the job.
more ................. price.
(a) cited, reason
(b) explained, force (a) agree, better (b) prepared, realistic
(c) claimed, understanding (c) ready, correct (d) having, actual
(d) argued, culprit 27. Due to ...................... rainfall this year, there will be ..................
(e) believe, ground cut in water supply.
17. Skeptics would not ............... that the earth actually moves, (a) scanty, substantial (b) meagre, least
let alone that it ................ around the sun. (c) insufficient, no (d) surplus, abundant
(a) permit, orbits (b) accept, revolves (e) abundant, considerable
(c) experience, circles (d) assume, went 28. In a changing and ......................... unstructured business
(e) challenge, spins environment, creativity and innovation are being ...................
18. Unpredictable ................... of the child could not lead the demanded of executives.
consultants to any ................... . (a) excessively, rapidly
(a) performance, setting (b) highly, extremely
(b) belief, judgement (c) increasingly, moderately
(c) operation, purpose (d) progressively, increasingly
(d) behaviour, conclusion (e) highly, speedily
(e) react, decision 29. We are .................. to have him ................... here to make this
19. A public servant who is guilty will not .............. punishment
function a great success.
and no ................... person will be punished.
(a) be, sincere (b) flee, guilty (a) happy, have (b) unhappy, arrive
(c) defend, common (d) avoid, uniformed (c) sure, come (d) pleased, over
(e) escape, innocent (e) wonderful, again
20. Few professions can ............... the sheer variety and constant 30. Efforts to ..................... the issue will not be successful
................. of being a doctor. ................... both sides continue to blame each other.
(a) like, struggle (b) share, enthusiast (a) resolve, if (b) discuss, unless
(c) match, challenge (d) draw, work-load (c) address, whether (d) settled, because
(e) justify, exception (e) close, although
76 Passage Completion
Directions (Qs. 1-5) : In each of the following questions a short 3. But no depreciation is allowed on Live Stock i.e. Horses
passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and .Although the horses are in the nature of fixed assets in the
represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer hands of the owner, no depreciation is allowed under Income
choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent. Tax Act. Instead when the animal dies or becomes
permanently useless the entire value of the horse can be
1. After the East Asia crisis, the World Bank conducted a study written off as revenue loss in the year in which it dies or
on the underlying reasons for the crisis. It was found that at becomes permanently useless. When the gross income
least a major part of the fundamental responsibility was on exceeds the total expenditure, it results in net profit which
banks, which had understated their non performing accounts will be taxable at usual rates of tax applicable to the person.
by as much as 47%. Since this was a study and not an .. Although the live stock is in the nature of
investigation.. Nevertheless, the Basel committee fixed assets of the owners buy them, maintain them, train
on supervision did take cognizance, and issued circulars them, and participate in races and Sell them or send them
and directives not only on supervision, but also on Internal away to studs when they are useless.
Functional Management. It will be remembered by those (a) But when the gross income is less than the expenditure,
interested that Basel committee had also acted expeditiously then results in loss
after the Barring Bank's failure, to separate treasury and (b) But when the gross income is higher than the
lending operations from the decision making processes. expenditure, then results in loss
Bank failures are nothing new in the world, although we in (c) But when the gross income is equal to expenditure then
India have been insulated g from such traumas for more result is loss
than two decades. (d) But when the gross income is there loss is the result
(a) The findings were not taken note of (e) But when the gross income is increasing then result is
(b) The findings were not taken seriously becoming evident
(c) The findings were not legally binding on any one 4. Aggregation of risks is somewhat quite new to banks in
(d) The fallout from this revelation was only taken note of India. While some banks have started thinking in that line
(e) The fallout from this revelation was seriously taken by trying to put integrated limits framework and integrated
2. Whether the Government is right in bailing out a private risk policies as well as using CBS solutions for technological
sector bank is an issue that is decided more than by the long integration, the effort required is beyond such requirement.
term social security policy of the Government ,than by Risk aggregation would mean aggregating the individual
economic reasons alone.. Nevertheless, in a risk measures to decide most appropriate assets class that
situation of scarcity of resources, bailing out somebody would contain the risk to the desired level dictated by the
means the denial of resources to others. The irony of it is risk appetite .Capital allocation (about how much) would be
that in performing its duties of proper governance to the based on such strategies..
larger society through the process of bailing out, Government (a) Most banks are yet to conceptualize the same in their
excuses the lack of corporate governance in banks. processes
(a) Economists world over learnt it hard way during the (b) Most banks have already integrated it in their
Great depression functioning; it is working over the years satisfactorily.
(b) This is elementary principle of economics taught in (c) Which would in long run prove to be the growth
schools impeding
(c) Reasons are not limited to these two but extend to debts, (d) Of risk aggregation which is really a new concept to
liquidity & credit ratings issues Indian banks
(d) It was unexpected and came like a bolt from the blue (e) On expected lines of the regulation conditions laid down
(e) Particularly true for the Asian countries like India and in the manual of the bank
China
GRID
176 SPEED TEST 76
5. However, it is possible that the non -resident entity may 8. He has lost most of his lifes earning in the stock market but
have a business connection with the resident Indian entity. __________.
(a) he still seems to be leading his life luxuriously and
In such a case, the resident Indian entity could be treated as
extravagantly
Permanent Establishment of the nonresident entity. (b) he could not save enough to repay his enormous debts
During the last decade or so, India has seen a (c) stock market is not a safe option to invest money unless
steady growth of outsourcing of business processes by done with caution
non residents or foreign companies to IT -enabled entities (d) experts have been suggesting to avoid investments in
in India. Such entities are either branches or associated stock market because of its unpredictable nature
enterprises of the foreign enterprise or an independent India (e) None of these
9. Achieving equality for women is not only a laudable goal,
enterprise. The nonresident entity or foreign company will __________.
be liable to tax in India only if the IT -enabled BPO unit in (a) political reforms are also neglected preventing women
India constitutes its Permanent Establishment. from entering legislatures and positions of power
(a) The tax treatment of the Permanent Establishment in (b) the problem is also deep-rooted in the society and
such a case is under consideration supported by it
(b) How would the profit would be shared is not decided (c) their empowerment is purposefully hampered by people
with vested interests in all sections of the society
yet?
(d) it is also equally difficult to achieve and maintain for a
(c) A lengthy and cumber some process requiring a lot of long term
application of mind and revenue principles is ahead for (e) None of these
the tax department of India 10. __________ or else they would not keep electing him year
(d) A new trend is seen in last decade. after year.
(e) Indian companies have a lot on stake as competition (a) The party leader gave a strong message to the mayor
increases. for improving his political style
Directions (Qs. 6-10) : Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) (b) Owing to numerous scandals against the mayor, he
given below each statement should be placed in the blank space was told to resign from the post immediately
provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct (c) The mayor threatened the residents against filing a
sentence? If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark (e), ie complaint against him
None of these, as the answer.
(d) The residents must really be impressed with the political
6. Refuting the rationale behind frequent agitations for style of their mayor
formation of separate States, a recent report __________ . (e) None of these
(a) proved that such agitations result in loss of
governmental property Directions (Qs. 11-20) : Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(b) indicated that the formation of small states does not given below each statement should be placed in the blank space
necessarily improve the economy provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct
(c) suggested that only large-scale agitations have been sentence? If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark (e) as the
effective in bringing out desired change in the past answer.
(d) recommended dividing large States into smaller ones 11. .............the soil today is nowhere as rich in native minerals
to improve governance as it used to be some centuries ago.
(e) None of these
(a) As there is a growing consent among farmers regarding
7. Overlooking the fact that water scarcity intensifies during
summer, __________. limiting the use of chemical fertilizers
(a) the government issued guidelines to all builders to limit (b) As the chemical inputs in agriculture improved the yield
their consumption to acceptable limits many folds
(b) provision for rainwater harvesting has been made to (c) Owing to the uninhibited use of chemical inputs in
aid irrigation in drought-prone areas agriculture
(c) the water table did not improve even after receiving
(d) Awareness among farmers regarding the side effects
normal monsoon in the current year
of chemical farming grew when
(d) many residential areas continue to use swimming pools,
wasting large quantities of water (e) None of the above
(e) None of these
SPEED TEST 76 177
12. Although information technology has entered the homes, (d) the powerful mining lobby had bribed the officials to
offices and hearts of many citizens of India,........ . obtain permit for mining on ecologically sensitive land
(a) India provides the highest number of IT experts to the (e) None of the above
world every year 16. After two years, high inflation moderated in the later part of
(b) many people in rural areas still remain ignorant of its 2011-12 in response to past monetary tightening and growth
immense benefits deceleration. High inflation had adverse consequences on
(c) government has done its best by funding research in welfare and on saving and investment, particularly household
this field appropriately saving in financial assets. The most serious consequence
(d) the face of communication in the years to come would of inflation is As growth slowed down, in
change completely from the bygone years part due to high inflation, it further reduced the welfare of
(e) None of the above the common man through adverse impact on employment
and incomes.
13. While the environment friendly nuclear energy could make
a large addition to the energy resources,........ . (a) its destructive allocation impact on the industries that
were lately coming up.
(a) experts have a lot of expectations from this cleaner
method of producing energy (b) its negative impact on the rich and high-profile people.
(b) the government is determined to extract maximum out (c) its adverse distributional impact on the poor, people
of this technology in the near future without social security and pensioners.
(c) international lobby has been pressurizing the (d) its wayward consequences on the public distribution
developing nations to shift their energy production system meant for the poor.
from coal to nuclear power. (e) its unfavourable bearing on day to day commodities
(d) the problem of locating adequate numbers of Uranium that are used by the common man.
reserves to run the reactors is yet be sorted out 17. Current indications are that fiscal targets can again be missed
(e) None of the above in 2013-14, unless immediate remedial measures are
14. ........., experts proposed the idea of a common school system. undertaken. The risks to fiscal targets laid down for 2013-14
(a) Overlooking the fundamental right of quality education are large if the envisaged tax buoyancies are not realised
of every child in India and the cap on subsidies is not adhered to. During the first
quarter of 2013-14, the fiscal deficit of the central government
(b) Since the curricular requirements of a rural child is
was more than one third of the budget estimate for the whole
different from an urban child
year. Estimates of fiscal multipliers for India show that while
(c) Based on the fact that difference in the quality of
impact multiplier on growth is higher for revenue and
schools acts as a ground for discrimination
expenditures, the long-run multiplier is higher for capital
(d) Since a large percentage of Indian children are getting outlays. In this context, credible fiscal
free aducation consolidation............................................. is crucial for
(e) None of the above improving long-run growth prospects.
15. As allegations of crores of rupees changing hands to permit (a) accompanied with macro-financial stability
illegal mining began to fly thick and fast,...... .
(b) accompanied with an expenditure switching strategy
(a) government ordered an enquiry which exposed a nexus that reduces government's revenue spending
between mine operators and bureaucrats
(c) accompanied with the human face of its financial policy
(b) it caused great damage to the surrounding ecosystem
(d) accompanied with a greater thrust on effective financial
and the environment in general
inclusion
(c) the officials have been irresponsible in failing to bring
(e) accompanied with higher capital outlay
it to the notice of the court in time

GRID 17. a b c d e
178 SPEED TEST 76
18. During 2011-12, the banking sector remained robust with clearances............................................... The Government has
high capital adequacy, even though rising NPA levels initiated some steps to augment the production potential of
emerged as a concern. The NPAs, however, are in part a core sectors, in particular mining, in the recent period.
reflection of overall slowdown in the economy. An analysis (a) will be detrimental to exports
using data since June 2000 brings out this pro-cyclicality in (b) will hamper the economic growth
asset quality of Indian banks. The Reserve Bank has
undertaken several initiatives (c) will help to boost investments
..................................................................... facilitating better (d) will encourage to boost the performance of core
banking experience for the disabled and intra-bank transfer industries.
of deposit facility to benefit the common man. (e) will lead revival of industrial growth
(a) like some concrete steps to attract FDI in this sector 20. During 2011-12, the Reserve Bank continued with its efforts
(b) like faster grievances redressal mechanism to strengthen security features of banknotes and increase
(c) like steps to augment the production potential of core public awareness ......................................There was a marked
sectors decline in the volume and value of small coins in circulation
in 2011-12 as coins of denomination of 25 paise and below
(d) like initiatives to augment non-debt creating flows ceased to be legal tender from June 30, 2011. A committee
(e) like initiatives to improve transparency and constituted by the government is examining the issues
accountability relating to the increase in demand for coins and supply/
19. With limited fiscal and monetary space available to provide distribution bottlenecks.
a direct stimulus to domestic growth, an expenditure (a) to address the challenge of counterfeit notes
switching policy is needed that reduces government's (b) to initiate steps to encourage debit/credit cards in place
revenue spending by cutting subsidies and using the of banknotes
resources so released to step up public capital expenditures.
Such an action would also provide some space for monetary (c) to handle the situation of using smaller denomination
policy, but, importantly, lower interest rates alone are unlikely of coins
to jumpstart the investment cycle. Fast-tracking of (d) to cover the expenses of printing new banknotes
infrastructure projects and pending regulatory (e) to stop the menace of black money
RESPONSE 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

GRID
77 Section Test : English
Directions (Q. 1-15) : Read the following passage carefully and An indicator of the crisis is the attempt to conjure up faculty
answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have when MCI carries out inspections of new colleges, one of its
been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering regulatory functions. Judging by news reports, the practice of
some of the questions. presenting fake faculty students or private medical practitioners
hired for the day during MCI inspections in private colleges is
In February 2010 the Medical Council of India announced a
common. What is interesting is that even government colleges
major change in the regulation governing the establishment of are adopting unscrupulous methods. Another indicator is the
medical colleges. With this change, corporate entities were
extraordinary scheme, verging on the ridiculous that is being put
permitted to open medical colleges. The new regulation also carried
in place by the MCI to make inspections foolproof. Faculty in all
the following warning : permission shall be withdrawn if the
medical colleges are to be issued an RFID-based smart card by the
colleges resort to commercialization. Since the regulation does
MCI with a unique Faculty Number. The card, it is argued, will
not elaborate on what constitutes resorting to commercialization,
eliminate the possibility of a teacher being shown on the faculty
this will presumably be a matter left to the discretion of the
of more than one college and establish if the qualifications of a
Government.
teacher are genuine. In the future, it is projected that biometric
A basic requirement for a new medical college is a pre-existing
RFID readers will be installed in the colleges that will enable a
hospital that will serve as a teaching hospital. Corporate entities
Faculty Identification, Tracking and Monitoring System to monitor
have hospitals in the major metros and that is where they will have
faculty from within the college and even remotely from MCI
to locate medical colleges. The earlier mandated land requirement
for a medical college campus, a minimum of 25 acres of contiguous headquarters.
land, cannot be fulfilled in the metros. Not surprisingly, yet another The picture above does not even start to reveal the true and
tweak has been made in the regulation, prescribing 10 acres as the pathetic situation of medical care especially in rural India. Only a
new minimum campus size for 9 cities including the main metros. fraction of the doctors and nursing professionals serve rural areas
With this, the stage is set for corporate entities to enter the medical where 70 per cent of our population lives. The Health Ministry,
education market. with the help of the MCI, has been active in proposing yet another
Until now, medical education in India has been projected as innovative solution to the problem of lack of doctors in the rural
a not-forprofit activity to be organised for the public good. While areas. The proposal is for a three-and-a-half year course to obtain
private bodies can run medical colleges, these can only be societies the degree of Bachelor of Rural Medicine and Surgery (BRMS).
or trusts, legally non-profit organizations. In opening the door to Only rural candidates would be able to join this course. The study
corporate colleges, thus, a major policy change has been effected and training would happen at two different levels Community
without changing the law or even a discussion in Parliament, but Health Centers for 18 months, and sub-divisional hospitals for a
by simply getting a compliant MCI to change the regulation on further period of 2 years and be conducted by retired professors.
establishment of medical colleges. This and other changes have After completion of training, they would only be able to serve in
been justified in the name of addressing the shortage of doctors. their own state in district hospitals, community health centres,
At the same time, over 50 existing medical colleges, including 15 and primary health centres.
run by the government, have been prohibited from admitting The BRMS proposal has invited sharp criticism from some
students in 2010 for having failed to meet the basic standards doctors organizations on the grounds that it is discriminatory to
prescribed. Ninety per cent of these colleges have come up in the have two different standards of health care one for urban and
last 5 years. Particularly shocking is the phenomenon of the other for rural areas, and that the health care provided by such
government colleges falling short of standards approved by the graduates will be compromised. At the other end is the opinion
Government. Why are state government institutions not able to expressed by some that something is better than nothing, that
meet the requirements that have been approved by the central since doctors do not want to serve in rural areas, the government
government ? A severe problem faced by government-run may as well create a new cadre of medics who will be obliged to
institutions is attracting and retaining teaching faculty, and this is serve there. The debate will surely pick up after the government
likely to be among the major reasons for these colleges failing to formally lays out its plans. What is apparent is that neither this
satisfy the MCI norms. The crisis building up on the faculty front proposal nor the various stopgap measures adopted so far address
has been flagged by various commissions looking into problems the root of the problem of health care.
of medical education over the years.
180 SPEED TEST 77
The far larger issue is government policy, the low priority (C) The healthcare providers through this proposal would
attached by the government to the social sector as a whole and not be up to the mark.
the health sector in particular, evidenced in the paltry allocations (a) Only (A) (b) Only (A) and (B)
for maintaining and upgrading medical infrastructure and medical
(c) Only (B) and (C) (d) Only (B)
education and for looking after precious human resources.
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)
1. What solution is being offered by the Health Ministry for
the shortage of doctors in rural areas ? 5. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title
(a) Increase the number of government run hospitals in for the passage ?
the rural areas thereby increasing the number of (a) Healthcare in India The Questionable Changes
doctors catering to the people in these regions. (b) Medical Centres in Rural India
(b) Make it mandatory for doctors serving in the urban (c) Commercialization of Medical Education in India
areas to serve in the rural areas for a specific number of (d) The Medical Council of India
years (e) The BRMS Proposal The Way Out for Rural India
(c) Set up increasing number of community health centres 6. What is one of the major problems faced by the government
in rural areas run medical institutions ?
(d) Hire retired professors of medicine to offer medical help
(a) Dearth of land required for the setting up of medical
to people living in the rural areas till the time more
institutions
doctors are appointed
(b) Lack of funds for running the colleges
(e) Run a separate medical course for three and a half years
which can be taken up only by rural candidates who (c) Dearth of teaching faculty
would ultimately serve in the rural areas (d) Excessive competition from colleges run by corporate
2. Why have some existing medical colleges been prohibited bodies
from admitting students ? (e) Dearth of students opting for these colleges
(a) As these have adopted corrupt practices and have been 7. What is the idea behind the MCI putting in place the RFID-
taking huge donations from their students based smart card ?
(b) As all these colleges were illegally set up and were not (A) To monitor and track faculty from MCI headquarters in
approved by the government in the first place the future.
(c) As the course offered by these colleges is not in line (B) To put a stop to the practice of colleges of presenting
with the course offered by the government run colleges fake faculty members.
(d) As these have failed to meet the norms set by the central (C) To verify the authenticity of faculty member
government for running the college qualifications.
(e) As there are absolutely no faculty members left in these (a) Only (A) and (B) (b) All (A), (B) and (C)
colleges to teach students
(c) Only (C) (d) Only (B) and (C)
3. Which of the following is/are the change/s announced by
the MCI in the regulation governing the establishment of (e) Only (B)
medical college? 8. What is the authors main intention behind writing this
(A) Allowing the commercialization of medical colleges. passage ?
(B) Reducing the earlier mandated land requirement for a (a) To make the general public aware of the healthcare
medical college campus for metros. facilities available in India
(C) Allowing corporate bodies to open medical colleges. (b) To bring to light the problems faced by the healthcare
(a) Only (B) (b) Only (A) and (B) sector in India despite changes suggested and goad
(c) Only (C) (d) Only (B) and (C) the government into attaching priority to the sector
(e) All (A), (B) and (C) are true (c) To bring to light the problems faced by rural people in
4. Which of the following are the different opinions regarding terms of healthcare facilities and thus exhort urban
the BRMS proposal ? doctors to serve in the rural areas
(A) At least a small step has been taken to improve the (d) To make the general public aware of the benefits arising
healthcare facilities in the rural areas through this from the changes brought about by the MCI in the
proposal. healthcare sector
(B) There should be uniform healthcare facilities available (e) To urge the corporate bodies to look into the matter of
for people living in both rural and urban area healthcare facilities in the rural areas
SPEED TEST 77 181
Directions (Q. 912) : Choose the word/group of words which is (D) They have begun to calculate the pluses, the minuses and
most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in the economic costs of the interrupted life in dollars,
bold as used in the passage. productivity and dysfunction.
9. FLAGGED (E) What sort of toll is all this disruption and metnal channel
(a) highlighted (b) stopped (c) bannered switching taking on our ability to think clearly work
effectively and function as healthy human beings?
(d) caused (e) hoisted
(F) Over the past five years, psychologists, efficiency, experts
10. FALLING SHORT
and information-technology researchers have begun to
(a) remaining tiny (b) limiting explore those questions in detail.
(c) stumbling upon (d) just satisfying 16. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence?
(e) not meeting (a) A (b) B (c) C
11. PERMITTED (d) D (e) E
(a) forbidden (b) pressed (c) allowed 17. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence?
(d) sent (e) forced (a) A (b) B (c) C
12. SHOCKING (d) D (e) E
(a) wicked (b) pleasing (c) appalling 18. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence?
(d) electrifying (e) scandalous (a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) F
Directions (Q. 1315) : Choose the word/group of words which 19. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence?
is most opposite in meaning to the word/ group of words printed (a) A (b) B (c) C
in bold as used in the passage. (d) D (e) E
13. UNSCRUPULOUS 20. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST)
(a) corrupt (b) even (c) constant sentence?
(d) honest (e) measured (a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) E
14. SHARP
(a) mild (b) thin (c) blunt Directions (Qs. 21-25): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(d) rounded (e) pointed given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in
15. COMPLIANT bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the
sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required,
(a) fixed (b) unyielding (c) stagnant
mark (e) as the answer.
(d) obedient (e) negative
21. The world is becoming increasingly polarised between the
rich and the poor.
Directions (Qs. 16-20): Rearrange the following six sentences
(a) among rich (b) around the rich
(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a
(c) in between the rich(d) amid rich persons
meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below
(e) No improvement
them.
22. Apollo was worshipped as long as the Roman Empire
(A) Do the devices that make it possible to do so many things at
continued.
once truly raise our productivity or merely help us spin our
(a) was continued (b) ruled (c) lasted
wheels faster?
(d) did not exists (e) No improvement
(B) More important, theyre exploring what can be done about it
23. The honourable court had taken a leniency view because
how we can work smarter, live smarter and put our beloved
the accused had no previous criminal record.
gadgets back in their proper place, with us running them,
not the other way around. (a) had viewed leniency
(C) The dinging digital devices that allow us to connect and (b) had taken a leniency viewing
communicate so readily also disrupt our work, our thoughts (c) had taken a lenient view
and what little is left of our private lives. (d) took a lenient view

182 SPEED TEST 77
24. Our foreign exchange reserves have been increased 29. As _______ head of the organisation, he attended social
substantial. functions and civil meetings, but had no _______ in the
(a) have been increased substantially formulation of company policy.
(b) have increased substantially (a) hypothetical-vote
(b) titular-voice
(c) have substantially increasing
(c) nominal-competition
(d) had increased substantially
(d) former-pride
(e) None of these
25. Every novel activity will be likely to face resistance from 30. The perpetual spinning of particles is much like that of a top,
vested interests. with one significant difference, unlike the top, the particles
(a) is likely to face have no need to be wound up, for .............. is one of their
(b) will be likely facing .............. properties.
(c) would be like facing (a) revolution- radical
(d) would like to face (b) rotation- intrinsic
(c) motion- intangible
(d) acceleration- hypothetical
(e) None of these
Directions (Qs. 26-30): Each question below has two blanks,
each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Find out
Directions (Qs. 31-40): In the following passage, there are blanks,
which option can be used to fill up the blank in the sentence in the
each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed
same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.
below the passage and against each, five words, are suggested
26. A new law has been passed stating that no actor would be one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
allowed to shoot beyond twelve hours in a day and those word in each case.
who this norm would henceforth be for it. Most of us are (31) of open conflict and avoid it if we can.
(a) followed, punished And there is a (32) to expressing and working through conflict. If
(b) accompanied, reprimanded the working through involves harsh words and name-calling people
(c) flouted - penalized feel deeply hurt and relationships can be (33). Sometimes
permanently. Some group members may be afraid that if they really
(d) defied, applauded
(34) their anger, they may go out of control and become Violent, or
(e) obeyed, disciplined they may do this. These fears can be very (35) and based on
27. The newly-opened restaurant at the District Centre .............. experience. So why take the risk ? Why not avoid conflict at all
to the tastes of people from all walks of life and one is likely costs ? Conflict is rather like disease (36) is best, that means
to find an .............. group there. attending to areas where (37) may occur before they become an
(a) appeals - archetypal issue. If you have not (38) a conflict happening, your next choice
is to treat it early, 93. or hope that it goes away. If it goes away over
(b) panders - connoisseur
time fine. If it (39). then you will still have to handle (treat) it and it
(c) caters - ecletic is likely to be more (40).
(d) inhibits - diverse 31. (a) scared (b) careful (c) reckless
(e) None of these (d) aware (e) worried
28. Physicians may soon have _______ to help paralysed people 32. (a) challenge (b) measure (c) principle
move their limbs bypassing the _______ nerves that once (d) chance (e) risk
controlled their muscles. 33. (a) established (b) maligned (c) damaged
(a) instruments detrimental (d) rebuilt (e) involved
(b) ways damaged 34. (a) sublimate (b) express (c) minimize
(c) reason involuntary (d) regulate (e) control
(d) impediments complex 35. (a) baseless (b) imaginary
(e) None of these (c) exaggerative (d) real (e) national

GRID 34. a c d e 35. a c d e
b b
SPEED TEST 77 183
36. (a) cure (b) diagnosis
44. This comes / at a time / when fund allocation /
(c) prescription (d) prevention
(a) (b) (c)
(e) medicine
37. (a) harmony (b) discomfiture is been doubled. No error
(c) disagreement (d) consensus /
(d) (e)
(e) statement
38. (a) expressed (b) ignored (c) induced 45. As the prison will get /
(d) seen (e) perverted (a)
39. (a) doesnt (b) wont (c) dont
(d) not (e) hasnt an official telephone facility soon, the prisoners
40. (a) credible (b) serious (c) fraudulent /
(b)
(d) urgent (e) skilled
Directions (Qs. 41-50) : Read each sentence to find out whether wont have to make calls in discreet manner
there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error,if (c)
any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the
answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is (e). (ignore errors of through smuggled mobile phones. No error
punctuation, if any). /
(d) (e)
41. The Government has asked individuals / 46. The area was plunged into / darkness mid a wave of /
(a)
(a) (b)
with income of over 110 lakhs to
/ cheering and shouting slogans like 'Save The Earth'.
(b) / /
(c) (d)
electronic file tax returns for the year 2011 -12,
/ No error
(c)
(e)
something which was optional till last year. No error
(d) (e) 47. The poll contestants approached /
(a)
42. The power tariff had already / been increased twice in /
(a) (b) the commission complaining that the hoardings
/
(b)
the last 15 months and the Electricity Board had also
/
(c) violated the code of conduct
/
levied additional monthly charges to consumers. (c)
(d)
and influenced public perception. No error
/
No error (d) (e)
(e)
48. The country has / adequate laws but problems /
43. Despite of curfew / in some areas, minor / (a) (b)
(a) (b)
arise when these are not
communal incidents were reported /
/ (c)
(c)
implemented in letter and spirit. No error
from different areas of the walled city. No error /
/ (d) (e)
(d) (e)

184 SPEED TEST 77
49. The Management feels that / 50. As far the issue of land encroachment /
(a) (a)
the employees of the organisation are in villages is concerned, people will

/ /
(b) (b)
non-productive, and do not want to work hard. have to make a start from their villages by
/ / /
(c) (d) (c)
No error sensitising and educating the villagers about this issue.

.
(e) (d)
No error
(e)
78 Computer Fundamentals/Digital Logic
1. What difference does the 5th generation computer have from 8. A compiler means
other generation computers? (a) A person who compiles source programs
(a) Technological advancement (b) The same thing as a programmer
(b) Scientific code (c) Keypunch operator
(c) Object Oriented Programming (d) A program which translates source program into object
(d) All of the above program
(e) None of the above (e) None of the above
2. Which of the following computer language is used for 9. The organization and interconnection of the various
artificial intelligence?
components of a computer system is
(a) FORTRAN (b) PROLOG
(a) Architecture (b) Networks
(c) C (d) COBOL
(c) Graphics (d) Designing
3. Which type of system puts the user into direct conversation
with the computer through a keyboard? 10. An index register that is automatically incremented or
(a) Real time processing decremented with each use is
(b) Interactive computer (a) Auto index (b) Asynchronous
(c) Batch processing (c) Assembler (d) Compiler
(d) Time sharing (e) None of the above
(e) None of the above 11. Which network is a packet switching network?
4. The term referring to evacuating the content of some part of (a) Ring network (b) LAN
the machine is known as (c) Star network (d) EuroNET
(a) Dump (b) Enhancement (e) None of the above
(c) Down (d) Compiler 12. Which of the following registers is loaded with the contents
(e) None of the above of the memory location pointed by the PC?
5. A program that is employed in the development, repair or (a) Memory Address Register
enhancement of other programs is known as (b) Memory Data Register
(a) System software (c) Instruction Register
(b) Software tool (d) Program Counter
(c) Applications program (e) None of the above
(d) Utility program 13. A temporary storage area, attached to the CPU, for I/O
(e) None of the above operations is a________.
6. Codes consisting of light and dark marks which may be
(a) Chip (b) Buffer
optically read is known as
(c) Register (d) Core
(a) Mnemonics (b) Bar code
(c) Decoder (d) All of the above
(e) None of the above 14. What type of control pins are needed in a microprocessor to
7. A type of channel used to connect a central processor and regulate traffic on the bus, in order to prevent two devices
peripherals which uses multipling is known as from trying to use it at the same time?
(a) Modem (b) Network (a) Bus control (b) Interrupts
(c) Multiplexer (d) All of the above (c) Bus arbitration (d) Status
186 SPEED TEST 78
15. Which of the following storage and retrieval methods would 23. Which of the following boolean algebra statements represent
be well suited to your processing requirements if you only commutative law
need to retrieve records one at a time and there is no fixed (a) (A+B)+CA+(B+C)
pattern to the requests for data and records? (b) (A)(B+C)((A)B)+((A)C)
(a) indexed sectors (b) Sequential (c) A+BB+A
(d) A+AA
(c) Direct (d) indexed direct
(e) None of the above 24. Which of the following buses is primarily used to carry
16. The functional difference between SR flip-flop and JK flip- signals that direct other ICs to find out what type of operation
flop is that is being performed?
(a) JK flip-flop is faster than SR flip-flop (a) data bus (b) control bus
(b) JK flip-flop has a feed back path (c) address bus (d) address decoder bus
(c) JK flip-flop accepts both inputs 1 (e) None of the above
(d) JK flip-flop does not require external clock 25. I/O mapped systems identify their input/output devices by
(e) None of the above giving them a(n) ________.
17. The inverter OR gate and AND gate are called decision- (a) 8-bit port number
making elements because they can recognize some input (b) 16-bit port number
(c) 8-bit buffer number
_____ while disregarding others. A gate recognizes a word
(d) 8-bit instruction
when its output is _____ (e) None of the above
(a) words, high (b) bytes, low 26. The register in the 8085A that is used to keep track of the
(c) bytes, high (d) character, low memory address of the next op-code to be run in the program
(e) None of the above is the:
18. A p- channel enhancement type MOSFET performs much (a) stack pointer (b) program counter
the same function as a PNP transistor, except that (c) instruction pointer (d) Accumulator
(a) it operates much faster (e) None of the above
(b) it is considerably larger 27. When referring to instruction words, a mnemonic is:
(c) it is controlled by voltage rather than by current, so (a) a short abbreviation for the operand address
that it requires very little current at the control terminal (b) a short abbreviation for the operation to be performed
(c) a short abbreviation for the data word stored at the
(d) it is controlled by current rather than by voltage like a
operand address
bipolar transistor. (d) shorthand for machine language
19. The simplified form of the Boolean expression (X + Y 28. The technique of assigning a memory address to each I/O
+ XY)(X + Z) is device in the computer system is called:
(a) X + Y + Z (b) XY + YZ (a) memory-mapped I/O
(c) X + YZ (d) XZ + Y (b) ported I/O
(e) None of the above (c) dedicated I/O
20. A shift register moves the _____ left or right. Serial loading (d) wired I/O
means storing a word in a shift register by entering _____ (e) None of the above
bit per clock puls(e) With parallel or broadside loading, it 29. Logic circuits that are designated as buffers, drivers, or
buffer/drivers are designed to have:
takes only one _____ pulse to load the input wor(d)
(a) a greater current/voltage capability than an ordinary
(a) light, eight, clock (b) right, eight, clock logic circuit.
(c) bits, one, register (d) bits, one, clock (b) greater input current/voltage capability than an ordinary
(e) None of the above logic circuit.
21. A typical microcomputer may have up to 65,536 registers (c) a smaller output current/voltage capability than an
in its memory. Each of these registers, usually called a _____ ordinary logi(c)
(a) Address (b) memory location (d) greater input and output current/voltage capability than
(c) Registers (d) Chip an ordinary logic circuit.
30. How many address bits are needed to select all memory
22. Multiplication of 478 by 528 is locations in the 2118 16K 1 RAM?
(a) (3144)8 (b) (4147)8 (a) 8 (b) 10
(c) (3146)8 (d) (3184)8 (c) 14 (d) 16

30. a b c d e
79 Computer Architecture & Organisation
1. Where does a computer add and compare data? 8. When a subroutine is called, the address of the instruction
(a) Hard disk (b) Floppy disk following the CALL instructions stored in/on the
(c) CPU chip (d) Memory chip (a) stack pointer (b) accumulator
(e) None of these (c) program counter (d) stack
2. Which of the following registers is used to keep track of (e) None of these
address of the memory location where the next instruction 9. Interrupts which are initiated by an instruction are
is located? (a) internal (b) external
(a) Memory Address Register (c) hardware (d) software
(b) Memory Data Register (e) None of these
(c) Instruction Register 10. Memory access in RISC architecture is limited to instructions
(d) Program Register (a) CALL and RET (b) PUSH and POP
(e) None of these (c) STA and LDA (d) MOV and JMP
3. Pipelining strategy is called implement (e) None of these
(a) instruction execution 11. MIMD stands for _____.
(b) instruction prefetch (a) Multiple instruction multiple data
(c) instruction decoding (b) Multiple instruction memory data
(d) instruction manipulation (c) Memory instruction multiple data
(e) None of these (d) Multiple information memory data
4. When the RET instruction at the end of subroutine is (e) None of these
executed, 12. The average time required to reach a storage location in
(a) the information where the stack is iniatialized is memory and obtain its contents is called_____.
transferred to the stack pointer (a) Latency time (b) Access time
(b) the memory address of the RET instruction is (c) Turnaround time (d) Response time
transferred to the program counter (e) None of these
(c) two data bytes stored in the top two locations of the 13. Memory unit accessed by content is called______.
stack are transferred to the program counter (a) Read only memory
(d) two data bytes stored in the top two locations of the (b) Programmable Memory
stack are transferred to the stack pointer (c) Virtual Memory
(e) None of these (d) Associative Memory
6. What is meant by a dedicated computer? (e) None of these
(a) which is used by one person only 14. n bits in operation code imply that there are ___________
(b) which is assigned to one and only one task possible distinct operators.
(c) which does one kind of software (a) 2n (b) 2n
(d) which is meant for application software only (c) n/2 (d) n2
7. The most common addressing techniques employed by a 15. A three input NOR gate gives logic high output only
CPU is when_____.
(a) immediate (b) direct (a) one input is high (b) one input is low
(c) indirect (d) register (c) two input are low (d) all input are high
(e) all of these (e) None of these
188 SPEED TEST 79
16. The multiplicand register & multiplier register of a hardware (a) Interrupt from Hard disk
circuit implementing booth's algorithm have (11101) & (b) Interrupt from Mouse
(1100). The result shall be ______. (c) Interrupt from Keyboard
(a) (812)10 (b) (12)10
(d) Interrupt from CPU temperature sensor
(c) (12)10 (d) (812)10
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
25. How many 32 k 1 RAM chips are needed to provide a
17. PSW is saved in stack when there is a _____.
memory capacity of 256 kbyte?
(a) interrupt recognized
(b) execution of RST instruction (a) 8 (b) 32
(c) Execution of CALL instruction (c) 64 (d) 128
(d) All of these (e) None of these
(e) None of these 26. A CPU generally handles an interrupt by executing an
18. In computers, subtraction is carried out generally by____. interrupt service routine
(a) 1's complement method (a) as soon as an interrupt as raised
(b) 2's complement method (b) by checking the interrupt register at the end of fetch
(c) signed magnitude method cycle
(d) BCD subtraction method (c) by checking the interrupt register after finishing the
19. Cache memory works on the principle of_____. execution of the current instruction
(a) Locality of data (d) by checking the interrupt register at fixed time intervals.
(b) Locality of memory (e) None of these
(c) Locality of reference 27. For a magnetic disk with concentric circular tracks, the seek
(d) Locality of reference & memory latency is not linearly proportional to the seek distance due
(e) None of these
to
20. When CPU is executing a Program that is part of the
(a) non-uniform distribution of requests
Operating System, it is said to be in _____.
(a) Interrupt mode (b) System mode (b) arm starting and stopping inertia
(c) Half mode (d) Simplex mode (c) higher capacity of tracks on the periphery of the platter
(e) None of these (d) use of unfair arm scheduling policies
21. Register renaming is done in pipelined processors (e) None of these
(a) as an alternative to register allocation at comptile time 28. Consider a 4-way set associate cache consisting of 128 lines
(b) for efficient access to function parameters and local with a line size of 64 words. The CPU generates a 20-bit
variables address of word in main memory. The number of bits in the
(c) to handle certain kinds of hazards TAG, LINE and WORD fields are respectively.
(d) as part of address translation (a) 9, 6, 5 (b) 7, 7, 6
22. The amount of ROM needed to implement a 4 bit multiplier is (c) 7, 5, 8 (d) 9, 5, 6
(a) 64 bit (b) 128 bit (e) None of these
(c) 1 kbit (d) 2 kbit 29. Consider a disk pack with 16 surfaces, 128 tracks per surface
(e) None of these and 256 sectors per track. 512 byte of data are stored in a
23. Let the page fault service time be 10 Ms in a computer with
bit serial manner in a second. The capacity of the disk pack
average memory access time being 20 ns. If one page fault
is generated for every 106 memory accesses, what is the and the number of bits required to specify a particular section
effective access time for the memory? in the disk are respectively
(a) 21 ns (b) 30 ns (a) 256 Mbyte, 19 bit (b) 256 Mbyte, 28 bit
(c) 23 ns (d) 35 ns (c) 512 Mbyte, 20 bit (b) 64 Gbyte, 28 bit
24. A computer handles several interrupt sources of which of 30. A CPU has 24-bit instructions. A program starts at address
the following are relevant? 300 (in decimal). Which one of the following is a legal
Interrupt from CPU temperature sensor program counter (all values in decimal)?
Interrupt from Mouse (a) 400 (b) 500
Interrupt from Keyboard (c) 600 (d) 700
Interrupt from Hard disk (e) None of these

80 Networking
1. Your company has a LAN in its downtown office and has (c) 100 picowatts (d) 10 miliwatts
now set up a LAN in the manufacturing plant in the sub- (e) None of these
urbs. To enable everyone to share data and resources be- 10. The synchronous modems are more costly than the asyn-
tween the two LANs, what type of device(s) are needed to chronous modems because
connect them? Choose the most correct answer. (a) they produce large volume of data
(a) Modem (b) Cable (b) they contain clock recovery circuits
(c) Hub (d) Router (c) they transmit the data with stop and start bits
(e) None of these (d) they operate with a larger bandwidth
2. A distributed network configuration in which all data/infor- (e) None of these
mation pass through a central computer is 11. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) bus network (b) star network (a) terminal section of a synchronous modem contains the
(c) ring network (d) Point-to-point network scrambler
(e) None of these (b) receiver section of a synchronous modem contains the
3. In a synchronous modem, the receive equilizer is known as scrambler
(a) adaptive equilizer (b) impariment equilizer (c) transmission section of a synchronous modem contains
(c) statistical equilizer (d) compromise equilizer the scrambler
(e) None of these (d) control section of a synchronous modem contains the
4. Which of the following transmission systems provide the scrambler
highest data rate to in individual device? (e) None of these
(a) computer bus (b) telephone lines 12. In a synchronous modem, the digital-to-analog converter
(c) voice and mode (d) lease lines transmits signal to the
(e) None of these
(a) equilizer (b) modulator
5. Communiction circuits that transmit data in both directions
(c) demodulator (d) terminal
but not at the same time are operating in
(a) a simplex mode (b) a half duplex mode (e) None of these
(c) a full duplex mode (d) an asynchronous mode 13. Which of the following communications lines is best suited
(e) None of these to interactive processing applications?
6. While transmitting odd-parity coded symbols, the number (a) narrow band channel
of zeros in each symbol is (b) simplex lines
(a) odd (b) even (c) full duplex lines
(c) a and b both (d) unknown (d) mixed band channels
7. What is the minimum number of wires needed to send data 14. In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token
over a serial communication link layer? management are responsibility of
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) session layer (b) network layer
(c) 4 (d) 6 (c) transport layer (d) data link layer
8. A communications device that combines transmissions from 15. In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by
several I/O devices into one line is a ____________ (a) network layer (b) data link layer
(a) concentrator (b) modifier (c) transport layer (d) session layer
(c) multiplexer (d) full-duplex line (e) None of these
(e) None of these 16. How many OSI layers are covered in the X.25 standard?
9. How much power (roughly) a light emitting diode can couple (a) Two (b) Three
into an optical fiber? (c) Seven (d) Six
(a) 100 microwatts (b) 440 microwatts (e) None of these
16. a b c d e
190 SPEED TEST 80
17. Which of the following might be used by a company to sat- 24. The research and development department at your office
isfy its growing communications needs? has been experimenting with different technologies to help
(a) front end processor improve the performance of the network. One group has
(b) multiplexer been examining the use of a broadband network versus a
(c) controller based band network. Select the correct statement about
(d) concentrator broadband and baseband.
(e) None of these (a) Broadband networks carry several channels on a single
18. What is the number of separate protocol layers at the serial cable, whereas in a baseband network several cables
interface gateway specified by the X.25 standard? carry one channel
(a) 4 (b) 2 (b) Baseband networks carry a single channel on a single
(c) 6 (d) 3 cable, whereas broadband networks carry several chan-
(e) None of these nels on a single cable
19. You have a class A network address 10.0.0.0 with 40 (c) Baseband refers to local area networks, and broadband
subnets, but are required to add 60 new subnets very soon. refers to wide area networks.
You would like to still allow for the largest possible num- (d) Baseband operates at a standard bit rate, whereas broad-
ber of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you band may operate at different rates as needed
assign? (e) Broadband and baseband refer to the different frequen-
(a) 255.240.0.0 (b) 255.248.0.0 cies at which infrared operates then transmitting sig-
(c) 255.252.0.0 (d) 255.254.0.0 nals in certain conditions
25. A network consists of eight NT servers. You are planning
(e) 255.255.255.255
to move servers to different segments of your network, what
20. What is the default subnet mask for a class C network?
utility should be used at each server to determine which
(a) 127.0.0.1 (b) 255.0.0.0
server generates the most traffic?
(c) 255.255.0.0 (d) 255.255.255.0 (a) NBTSTAT
(e) None of these (b) NETSTAT.EXE
21. Which of the following technique is used for fragment? (c) Performance Monitor
(a) a technique used in best-effort delivery systems to avoid (d) Network Monitor
endlessly looping packets (e) ARP.EXE
(b) a technique used by protocols in which a lower level 26. You are working with a network that has the network ID
protocol accepts a message from a higher level proto- 192.168.10.0. What subnet should you use that supports up
col and places it in the data portion of the low level to 25 hosts and a maximum number of subnets?
frame (a) 255.255.255.192 (b) 255.255.255.224
(c) one of the pieces that results when an IP gateway di- (c) 255.255.255.240 (d) 255.255.255.248
vides an IP datagram into smaller pieces for transmis- (e) 255.255.255.252
sion across a network that cannot handle the original 27. Which of the following best illustrates the default subnet
datagram size mask for a class A,B, and C Network?
(d) All of these (a) 0.0.0.0, 0.0.0.1, 0.0.1.1
(e) None of these (b) 255.255.255.0, 255.255.0.0, 255.0.0.0
22. What part of 192.168.10.51 is the Network ID, assuming a (c) 255.0.0.0, 255.255.0.0, 255.255.255.0
default subnet mask? (d) 255.255.0.0, 255.255.255.0, 255.255.255.255
(a) 192 (b) 192.168.10 (e) None of these
(c) 0.0.0.5 (d) 51 28. You are working with three networks that have the network
(e) None of these IDs 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0. What subnet
23. Which of the following statements is correct for the use of mask can you use to combine these addresses into one?
packet switching? (a) 255.255.252.0 (b) 225.255.254.0
(a) the subdivision of information into individually ad- (c) 255.255.255.240 (d) 255.255.255.252
dressed packets in conjunction with alternative rout- (e) None of these
ing arrangement enabled the transmission path to be 29. What part of 172.16.3.1 is the Network ID, assuming a de-
altered in the event of congestion or individual link fault subnet mask?
failure (a) 172 (b) 172.16.3
(b) the employment of additional intelligence within the (c) 0.0.0.1 (d) 51
network enabled more sophisticated error control and (e) None of these
link control procedures to be applied 30. With an IP address of 100, you currently have 80 subnets.
(c) by employing wide bandwidth circuits for the trunk What subnet mask should you use to maximize the number
networks substantial economies through extensive shar- of available hosts?
ing of capacity could be achieved. (a) 192 (b) 224
(d) All of these (c) 240 (d) 248
(e) None of these (e) 252

RESPONSE 22. a c d e 23. a c d e 24. a c d e 25. a c d e 26. a c d e
b b b b b
81 Operating System
1. The strategy of allowing processes that are logically runnable 8. Assembly code data base is associated with
to be temporarily suspended is called (a) assembly language version of the program which is
(a) preemptive scheduling created by the code generation phase and is input to
(b) non preemptive scheduling the assembly phase.
(c) shortest job first (b) a permanent table of decision rules in the form of
(d) first come first served patterns for matching with the uniform symbol table to
(e) None of the above discover syntactic structure.
2. The LRU algorithm (c) consists of a full or partial list or the token's as they
(a) pages out pages that have been used recently appear in the program. Created by Lexical analysis and
(b) pages out pages that have not been used recently used for syntax analysis and interpretation.
(c) pages out pages that have been least used recently (d) a permanent table which lists all key words and special
(d) pages out the first page in a given area symbols of the language in symbolic form.
3. Which of the following systems software does the job of
9. In which addressing mode the effective address of the operand
merging the records from two files into one?
(a) Security software (b) Utility program is the contents of a register specified in the instruction and
(c) Networking software (d) Documentation system after accessing the operand, the contents of this register is
(e) None of the above incremented to point to the next item in the list?
4. Which of the following statements is false? (a) index addressing (b) indirect addressing
(a) the technique of storage compaction involves moving (c) auto increment (d) auto decrement
all occupied areas of storage to one end or other of (e) None of the above
main storage 10. In which addressing mode the contents of a register specified
(b) compaction does not involve relocation of programs in the instruction are first decremented, and then these
(c) compaction is also know as garbage collection contents are used as the effective address of the operands?
(d) the system must stop everything while it performs the (a) index addressing (b) indirect addressing
compaction (c) auto increment (d) auto decrement
5. User-Friendly Systems are: 11. What is the name given to the values that are automatically
(a) required for object-oriented programming provided by software to reduce keystrokes and improve a
(b) easy to develop computer user's productivity?
(c) common among traditional mainframe operating (a) Defined values (b) Fixed values
systems (c) Default values (d) Special values
(d) becoming more common (e) None of the above
(e) None of the above 12. The Register - to - Register (RR) instructions
6. Which of the following addressing modes, facilitates access (a) have both their operands in the main store
to an operand whose location is defined relative to the (b) which perform an operation on a register operand and
beginning of the data structure in which it appears? an operand which is located in the main store, generally
(a) Ascending (b) Sorting (c) Index leaving the result in the register, except in the case of
(d) Indirect (e) None of the above store operation when it is also written into the specified
7. The FIFO algorithm storage location.
(a) executes first the job that last entered the queue
(c) which perform indicated operations on two fast
(b) executes first the job that first entered the queue
(c) execute first the job that has been in the queue the registers of the machine and leave the result in one of
longest the registers.
(d) executes first the job with the least processor needs (d) All of the above
RESPONSE
192 SPEED TEST 81
13. The process of transferring data intended for a peripheral 23. The primary purpose of an operating system is to:
device into a disk (or intermediate store) so that it can be (a) make computer easier to use
transferred to peripheral at a more convenient time or in (b) keep system programmers employed
bulk, is known as (c) make the most efficient use of the hardware
(a) multiprogramming (b) spooling (d) allow people to sue the computers
(c) caching (d) virtual programming (e) None of the above
(e) None of the above 24. Which of the following capabilities is required for a system
14. The process of transferring data intended for a peripheral program to execute more than one program at a time?
device into a disk (or intermediate store) so that it can be (a) word processing (b) compiling
transferred to peripheral at a more convenient time or in (c) virtual memory (d) multitasking
bulk, is known as (e) None of the above
(a) multiprogramming (b) spooling 25. In which of the storage placement strategies a program is
(c) caching (d) virtual programming placed in the largest available hole in the main memory?
(e) None of the above (a) best fit (b) first fit
15. The action of parsing the source program into the proper (c) worst fit (d) buddy
syntactic classes is known as (e) None of the above
(a) syntax analysis (b) lexical analysis 26. Which of the following is not true about the memory
(c) interpretation analysis (d) general syntax analysis management?
(e) None of the above (a) virtual memory is used only in multi-user systems
16. Banker's algorithm for resource allocation deals with (b) segmentation suffers from external fragmentation
(a) deadlock prevention (b) deadlock avoidance (c) paging suffers from internal fragmentation
(c) deadlock recovery (d) mutual exclusion (d) segmented memory can be paged
17. Relocation bits used by relocating loader are specified 27. Job Control Language (JCL) statements are used to
(generated) by (a) read the input from the slow-speed card reader to the
(a) relocating loader itself (b) linker high-speed magnetic disk
(c) assembler or translator (d) macro processor (b) specify, to the operating system, the beginning and end
(e) None of the above of a job in a batch
18. Which of the following scheduling objectives should be (c) allocate the CPU to a job
applied to the following: the system should admit jobs to (d) All of the above
create a mix that will keep most devices busy (e) None of the above
(a) to be fair 28 Paging
(b) to balance resource utilization (a) is a method of memory allocation by which the program
(c) to obey priorities is subdivided into equal portions, or pages and core is
(d) to be predictable subdivided into equal portions or blocks.
(e) None of the above (b) consists of those addresses that may be generated by a
19. The higher versions of the operating systems are so written processor during execution of a computation.
that programs designed for earlier versions can still be run. (c) is a method of allocating processor time
What is it called? (d) allows multiple programs to reside in separate areas of
(a) upgradability (b) upward mobility core at the time
(c) universality (d) upward compatibility (e) None of the above
(e) None of the above 29. Which of the following is not true about documentation?
20. Which policy replaces a page if it is not in the favoured (a) documentation, of a system, should be as clear and
subset of a process's pages? direct as possible
(a) FIFO (b) LRU (b) documentation increases the maintenance time and cost
(c) LFU (d) Working set (c) documentation gives better understanding of the
(e) None of the above problem
21. Which of the following can be accesses by transfer vector (d) All of the above
approach of linking? (e) None of the above
(a) external data segments 30. A relocate program form is one which
(b) external subroutines (a) cannot be made to execute in any area of storage other
(c) data located in other procedures than the one designated for it at the time of its coding
(d) All of the above or translation.
(e) None of the above (b) consists of a program and relevant information for its
22. Which of the following terms refers to the degree to which relocation.
data in a database system are accurate and correct? (c) can itself performs the relocation of its address-sensitive
(a) data security (b) data validity portions.
(c) data independence (d) data integrity (d) All of the above

82 Programming /Software Engineering
1. The program can access the private members of a class 9. RAD stands for ?
(a) Directly (a) Rapid Application Development
(b) only through other private members of the class (b) Relative Application Development
(c) only through other public members of the class (c) Ready Application Development
(d) None of the above (d) Repeated Application Development
(e) Both private and public members (e) None of these
2. To hide a data member from the program, you must declare 10. Which of the following is a tool in design phase ?
the data member in the _____ section of the class (a) Abstraction
(a) concealed (b) confidential (b) Refinement
(c) hidden (d) private (c) Information Hiding
(e) restricted (d) All of these
3. A variable's _____ indicates how long the variable remains (e) None of these
in the computer's memory 11. Which of the following comments about object oriented
(a) area (b) extent design of software, is not true ?
(c) lifetime (d) reach (a) objects inherit the properties of class
(e) scope (b) classes are defined based on the attributes of objects
4. Management of software development is dependent upon ? (c) an object can belong to two classes
(a) People (b) Product (d) classes are always different
(c) Process (d) All of these (e) None of these
(e) None of these 12. Design phase includes?
5. During software development which factor is most crucial? (a) data, architectural and procedural design only
(a) People (b) Process (b) architectural, procedural and interface design only
(c) data, architectural and interface design only
(c) Product (d) Project
(d) data, architectural, interface and procedural design
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
6. Which is not a software life cycle model?
13. To completely write the program in FORTRAN and rewrite
(a) Spiral Model (b) Waterfall Model
the 1% code in assembly language, if the project needs 13
(c) Prototyping Model (d) Capability maturity Model days, the team consists of ?
(e) None of these (a) 13 programmers (b) 10 programmers
7. Build and Fix model has? (c) 8 programmers (d) 100/13 programmers
(a) 3 Phases (b) 1 Phases (e) None of these
(c) 2 Phases (d) 4 Phases 14. If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the
(e) None of these remaining 1% in assembly language, the percentage increase
8. Waterfall model is not suitable for ? in the programming time compared to writing the entire
(a) Small Projects program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly
(b) Complex Projects language is ?
(c) Accommodating change (a) 10 (b) 5
(d) All of the above (c) 13 (d) 8
RESPONSE
194 SPEED TEST 82
15. Structured programming codes includes ? 24. When you omit parameters from a function call, values can
(a) sequencing (b) alteration be provided by
(c) iteration (d) multiple exit from loops (a) formal parameters
(e) only A, B and C (b) reference parameters
16. Data structure suitable for the application is discussed in ? (c) overloaded parameters
(a) data design (b) architectural design (d) default parameters
(c) procedural design (d) interface design (e) None of these
(e) None of these
25. In which statements, does a 'continue' statements cause the
17. In object oriented design of software , objects have ?
control to go directly to the test condition and then continue
(a) attributes and names only
the looping process?
(b) operations and names only
(a) 'for' and 'while'
(c) attributes, name and operations
(d) None of these (b) 'while' and 'if-else'
18. Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, (c) 'do-while' and 'if-else'
unit testing is applied for each class. Class tests includes ? (d) 'while' and 'do-while'
(a) Fault based testing (e) None of these
(b) Random testing 26. The feature in object-oriented programming that allows the
(c) Partition testing same operation to be carried out differently, depending on
(d) All of these the object, is_____
(e) None of these (a) inheritance (b) polymorphism
19. The document listing all procedures and regulations that (c) overfunctioning (d) overriding
generally govern an organization is the ? (e) None of these
(a) Personal poling bank
27. When an argument is passed by reference,
(b) Organizing manual
(a) a variable is created in the function to hold the
(c) Administration policy manual
argument's value
(d) Procedure log
(b) the function cannot access the argument's value
(e) None of these
20. Which of the following is done in order a data in phase 1 of (c) a temporary variable is created in the calling program
the system development life cycle ? to hold the argument's value
(a) Reviewing policies and procedures (d) the function accesses the argument's original value in
(b) Using questionnaires to contact surveys the calling program
(c) Conducting Interviews (e) None of these
(d) All of above 28. The process of extracting the relevant attributes of an object
(e) None of these is known as
21. A graphic representation of an information system is called ? (a) polymorphism (b) Inheritance
(a) Flow chart (b) Pictogram (c) Abstraction (d) data hiding
(c) Data flow diagram (d) Histogram (e) None of these
(e) None of these 29. Which of the following while clause will stop the loop when
22. In the system concepts, the term integration ? the value in the age variable is less than the number 0?
(a) implies structure and order (a) while age < 0 (b) while (age < 0)
(b) refers to the manner in which each component functions
(c) while age > = 0; (d) while (age > = 0);
with other component of the system
(e) while (age > = 0)
(c) means that part of the computer system depend on one
another 30. If you want to override constructor default values for an
(d) refers to the holism of system object you are instantiating, you must also override
(e) None of these (a) all other parameters to that constructor
23. The model remains operative until the software is retired ? (b) all parameters to the left of that value
(a) Waterfall (b) Incremental (c) all parameters to the right of that value
(c) Spiral (d) All of the above (d) no other parameters to that constructor

30. a b c d e
83 Data Base Management System (DBMS)
1. Which of the following is a database administrator's 8. Which command is used to remove an index from the
function? database in SQL?
(a) database design (a) DELETE INDEX (b) DROP INDEX
(b) backing up the database (c) REMOVE INDEX(d) ROLL BACK INDEX
(c) performance monitoring (e) None of the above
(d) user coordination 9. What is the name given to the database management system
(e) All of the above which is able to handle full text data, image data, audio and
2. Primitive operations common to all record management video?
systems include (a) Full media (b) Graphics media
(a) Print (b) Sort (c) Multimedia (d) Hypertext
(c) Look-up (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
(e) None of the above 10. When using a database management system, the first thing
3. Each of data files has a _____ that describe the way the data that you must do is to
is stored in the file. (a) create a database file
(a) File structure (b) Records (b) activate file editor
(c) Fields (d) Database (c) load the software into your microcomputer
(e) None of the above (d) keep a floppy disk in readiness
4. What is the language used by most of the DBMSs for helping (e) None of the above
their users to access data? 11. If the record management system allows you to edit values
(a) High level language before they are recorded on disk, you can
(b) Query language (a) correct spelling changes before they are recorded
(c) SQL (b) change the name of a field
(d) 4GL (c) change the width of a field
(e) None of the above (d) All of the above
5. Data item characteristics that are important in data (e) None of the above
management include 12. The relational model uses some unfamiliar terminology. A
(a) Punctuation (b) Language tuple is equivalent to a:
(c) Spelling (d) Width
(a) Record (b) Field
(c) File (d) Data base
6. A locked file can be
(e) Data item
(a) accessed by only one user
13. Which command is used to remove an index from the
(b) modified by users with the correct password
(c) is used to hide sensitive information database in SQL?
(d) both (b) and (c) (a) DELETE INDEX (b) DROP INDEX
(e) None of the above (c) REMOVE INDEX(d) ROLL BACK INDEX
7. If the record management system allows you to edit values (e) None of the above
before they are recorded on disk, you can 14. What is the name given to the database management system
(a) correct spelling changes before they are recorded which is able to handle full text data, image data, audio and
(b) change the name of a field video?
(c) change the width of a field (a) Full media (b) Graphics media
(d) All of the above (c) Multimedia (d) Hypertext
196 SPEED TEST 83
15. Which password management feature ensures a user cannot 24. EMPNO ENAME SAL
reuse a password for a specified time interval? A822 RAMASWAMY 3500
(a) Account Locking A812 NARAYAN 5000
(b) Password History A973 UMESH 2850
(c) Password Verification A500 BALAJI 5750
(d) Password Expiration and Aging Use these data for the following Question
(e) None of the above Declare a number := 5;
16. Which privilege is required to create a database? b number := null;
(a) SYSDBA (b) DBA c number := 10;
(c) SYSOPER (d) RESOURCE Begin
(e) None of the above if a > b AND a ( Select count(*) from Emp E2 where E1.SAL
17. What is the type of Oracle backup in which all uncommitted > E2.SAL )
changes have been removed from the datafiles? will retrieve
(a) Full backup (a) 3500,5000,2500 (b) 5000,2850
(b) Consistent backup (c) 2850,5750 (d) 5000,5750
(c) Inconsistent backup (e) None of the above
(d) Differential backup 25. Dedicated server configuration is
(e) None of the above (a) One server process - Many user processes
18. Which type of file is part of the Oracle database? (b) Many server processes - One user process
(a) Control file (b) Password file (c) One server process - One user process
(c) Parameter files (d) Archived log files (d) Many server processes - Many user processes
19. What type of failure occurs when Oracle fails due to an 26. How can you CALL Reports from Forms4.0 ?
operating system or computer hardware failure? (a) Run_Report built_in
(a) Application failure (b) Call_Report built_in
(b) Instance Failure (c) Run_Product built_in
(c) Media Failure
(d) Call_Product built_in
(d) Rollback failure
27. The Data Manipulation Language statements are
20. What Oracle backup and recovery file contains user and
(a) INSERT
system data?
(a) Control file (b) Datafile (b) UPDATE
(c) OnLine ReDo file (d) Offline ReDo file (c) SELECT
(e) None of the above (d) All of the above
21. When is the SGA created in an Oracle database (e) None of the above
environment? 28. Sequence of events takes place while starting a Database is
(a) When the database is created (a) Database opened, File mounted, Instance started
(b) When a user process is started (b) Instance started, Database mounted & Database opened
(c) When the database is mounted (c) Database opened, Instance started & file mounted
(d) When the instance is started (d) Files mounted, Instance started & Database opened
22. Which of the followin g packaged procedure is 29. What are the types of Calculated columns available ?
UNRESTRICTED? (a) Summary, Place holder & Procedure column
(a) CALL_INPUT (b) Summary, Procedure & Formula columns
(b) CLEAR_BLOCK (c) Procedure, Formula & Place holder columns
(c) EXECUTE_QUERY (d) Summary, Formula & Place holder columns
(d) USER_EXIT (e) None of the above
(e) None of the above 30. What built-in subprogram is used to manipulate images in
23. Databases overall structure is maintained in a file called image items ?
(a) Redolog file (b) Data file (a) Zoom_out (b) Zoom_in
(c) Control file (d) All of the above (c) Image_zoom (d) Zoom_image

30. a b c d e
84 Data Structure/Compiler Design
1. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are 8. The complexity of Binary search algorithm is
(a) Processor and memory (a) O(n) (b) O(log )
(b) Complexity and capacity (c) O(n2) (d) O(n log n)
(c) Time and space (e) None of these
(d) Data and space 9. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is
(e) None of these
2. The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm (a) O(n) (b) O(log n)
is measured by (c) O(n2) (d) O(n log n)
(a) Counting microseconds (e) None of these
(b) Counting the number of key operations 10. Each array declaration need not give, implicitly or explicitly,
(c) Counting the number of statements the information about
(d) Counting the kilobytes of algorithm (a) the name of array
(e) None of these (b) the data type of array
3. The space factor when determining the efficiency of (c) the first data from the set to be stored
algorithm is measured by (d) the index set of the array
(a) Counting the maximum memory needed by the
algorithm (e) None of these
(b) Counting the minimum memory needed by the 11. If the sequence of operations - push(1), push(2), pop, push
algorithm (1), push(2), pop, pop, pol , push(2), pop are preformed on
(c) Counting the average memory needed by the algorithm a stack, the sequence of popped out values are ?
(d) Counting the maximum disk space needed by the (a) 2, 2, 1, 1, 2 (b) 2, 2, 1, 2, 2
algorithm (c) 2, 1, 2, 2, 1 (d) 2, 1, 2, 2, 2
4. Which of the following case does not exist in complexity 12. Queue can be used to implement ?
theory (a) radix sort (b) quick sort
(a) Best case (b) Worst case (c) recursion (d) depth first search
(c) Average case (d) Null case
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
5. The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when 13. A machine took 200 sec to sort 200 names, using bubble
(a) Item is somewhere in the middle of the array sort. In 800 sec, it can approximately sort ?
(b) Item is not in the array at all (a) 400 names (b) 800 names
(c) Item is the last element in the array (c) 750 names (d) 850 names
(d) Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all (e) None of these
(e) None of these 14. A machine needs a minimum of 100 sec to sort 1000 names
6. The Average case occur in linear search algorithm by quick sort. The minimum time needed to sort 100 names
(a) When Item is somewhere in the middle of the array will be approximately ?
(b) When Item is not in the array at all (a) 50.2 sec (b) 6.7 sec
(c) When Item is the last element in the array (c) 72.7 sec (d) 11.2 sec
(d) When Item is the last element in the array or is not
there at all (e) None of these
(e) None of these 15. The number of binary trees with 3 nodes which when
7. The complexity of linear search algorithm is traversed in post order gives the sequence A,B, C is ?
(a) O(n) (b) O(log n) (a) 3 (b) 9
(c) O(n2) (d) O(n log n) (c) 7 (d) 5
198 SPEED TEST 84
16. The average search time of hashing with linear probing will 3. No L-attributed definition can be evaluated in the
be less if the load factor ? framework of bottom-up parsing.
(a) is far less than one 4. Code improving transformations can be performed at
(b) equals one both source language and intermediate code level.
(c) is far greater than one (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(d) All of the above (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
17. A binary tree that has n leaf nodes. The number of nodes of 26. Some code optimizations are carried out on the intermediate
degree 2 in this tree is ? code because
(a) log2n (b) n 1 (a) they enhance the portability of the compiler to other
(c) n (d) 2n target processors
(e) None of these (b) program analysis is more accurate on intermediate code
18. As part of maintenance work, you are entrusted with the than on machine code
work of rearranging the library books in a shelf in proper (c) the information from data flow analysis cannot be used
order, at the end of each day. The ideal choice will be ? for optimization
(d) the information from the front end cannot be used for
(a) Bubble sort (b) Insertion sort
optimization
(c) Selection sort (d) Heap sort
(e) None of these
(e) None of these 27. Which of the following are true?
19. The way a card game player arranges his cards as he picks 1. A programming language which does not permit global
them up one by one, is an example of ? variables of any kind and has no nesting of procedures/
(a) bubble sort (b) selection sort functions, but permits recursive can be implemented
(c) insertion sort (d) merge sort with static storage allocation
(e) None of these 2. Multi-level access link (or display) arrangement is
20. The average successful search time for sequential search on needed to arrange activation records only, if the
n items is ? programming language being implemented has nesting
(a) n/2 (b) (n 1)/2 of procedures/functions.
(c) (n + 2)/2 (d) log(n) + 1 3. Recursion in programming languages cannot be
(e) None of these implemented with dynamic storage allocation
21. Linked lists are suitable for which of the following problems? 4. Nesting of procedures/functions and recursion require
(a) Insertion sort (b) Binary search a dynamic heap allocation scheme and cannot be
(c) Radix sort (d) Polynomial manipulation implemented with a stack-based allocation scheme for
(e) None of these activation records.
22. The lexical analysis for a modern computer language such 5. Programming languages which permit a function to
as Java needs the power of which one of the following return a function as its result cannot be implemented
machine models in a necessary and sufficient sense? with a stack based storage allocation scheme for
(a) Finite state automata activation records
(b) Deterministic push down automata (a) 2 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) Non-deterministic push down automata (c) 1, 2 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 5
(d) Turing machine (e) None of these
28. Which one of the following is a top-down parser?
(e) None of these
(a) Recursive descent parser
23. In a compiler, keyboards of a language are recognized during (b) Operator precedence parser
(a) parsing of the program (c) An LR (k) parser
(b) the code generation (d) An LALR (k) parser
(c) the lexical analysis of the program (e) None of these
(d) data flow analysis 29. The grammar A AA | (A) | is not suitable for predictive-
(e) None of these parsing because the grammar is
24. Which data structure in a compiler is used for managing (a) ambiguous (b) left-recursive
information about variables and their attributes? (c) right-recursive (d) an operator grammar
(a) Abstract syntax-tree (b) Symbol table (e) None of these
(c) Semantic stack (d) Parser table 30. Consider the grammar S (S) | a
(e) None of these Let the number of states in SLR (1), LR(1) and LALR (1)
25. Which of the following statements are true? parsers for the grammar be n1, n2 and n3 respectively. Which
1. There exist parsing algorithms for some programming of the following relationships holds good?
languages whose complexities ar less than (n3). (a) n1 < n2 < n3 (b) n1 = n3 < n2
2. A programming language which allows recursive can (c) n1 = n2 = n3 (b) n1 n3 n2
be implemented with static storage allocation. (e) None of these

85 Section Test : Professional Knowledge (IT)
1. Identify the addressing modes of below instructions and 6. The common property of functional language and logical
match them : programming language :
(A) ADI : (1) Immediate addressing (a) Both are declarative
(B) STA : (2) Direct addressing (b) Both are based on ?-calculus
(C) CMA : (3) Implied addressing (c) Both are procedural
(D) SUB : (4) Register addressing (d) Both are functional
(a) A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4 (b) A-2,B-1,C-4,D-3 (e) None of these
(c) A-3,B-2,C-1,D-4 (d) A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1 7. On receiving an interrupt from an I/O device, the CPU
(e) None of these (a) halts for predetermined time
2. Which of the following IP address class is a multicast (b) branches off to the interrupt service routine after
address? completion of the current instruction
(a) Class A (b) Class B (c) bran ches off to the interrupt service routin e
(c) Class C (d) Class D immediately.
(e) None of these (d) hands over control of address bus and data bus to the
3. While unit testing a module, it is found that for a set of test interrupting device
data, maximum 90% of the code alone were tested with a (e) None of these
probability of success 0.9. The reliability of the module is 8. The maximum amount of information that is available in
(a) atleast greater than 0.9 one portion of the disk access arm for a removal disk pack
(b) equal to 0.9 (without further movement of the arm with multiple heads)
(c) atmost 0.81 (a) a plate of data (b) a cylinder of data
(d) atleast 1/0.81 (c) a track of data (d) a block of data
4. X.25 is ________ Network. 9. Consider a logical address space of 8 pages of 1024 words
(a) Connection Oriented Network mapped with memory of 32 frames. How many bits are there
(b) Connection Less Network in the physical address ?
(c) Either Connection Oriented or Connection Less (a) 9 bits (b) 11 bits
(d) Neither Connection Oriented nor Connection Less (c) 13 bits (d) 15 bits
5. Which of the following can be used for clustering of data? 10. CPU does not perform the operation
(a) Single layer perception (a) data transfer
(b) Multilayer perception (b) logic operation
(c) Self organizing map (c) arithmetic operation
(d) Radial basis function (d) all of the above
200 SPEED TEST 85
11. A chip having 150 gates will be classified as 18. Match the following:
(a) SSI (b) MSI (a) calloc() i. Frees previously allocated
(c) LSI (d) VLSI space
(e) None of these (b) free() ii. Modifies previously allocated
12. If an integer needs two bytes of storage, then the maximum space
value of unsigned integer is (c) malloc() iii. Allocates space for array
(a) 2161 (b) 2151 (d) realloc() iv. Allocates requested size of
(c) 216 (d) 215 space
(e) None of these codes:
13. Negative numbers cannot be represented in a b c d a b c d
(a) Signed magnitude form (a) iii i iv ii (b) iii ii i iv
(b) '1' s complement form (c) iii iv i ii (d) iv ii iii i
(c) '2' s complement form (e) None of these
(d) Both 1's and 2's form 19. Which one of the following is not an addressing mode?
(e) None of these (a) Register indirect (b) Autoincrement
14. Working software is not available until late in the process in (c) Relative indexed (d) Immediate operand
(a) Waterfall model (e) None of these
(b) Prototyping model 20. Computers can have instruction formats with
(c) Incremental model (a) only two address and three address instructions
(d) Evolutionary Development model (b) only one address and two address instructions
(e) None of these (c) only one address, two address .and three address
15. Equivalence partitioning is a ____________ testing method instructions
that divides the input domain of a program into classes (d) zero address, one address, two address and three
of data from which test cases can be derive(d) address instructions
(a) White box (b) Black box (e) None of these
(c) Regression (d) Smoke 21. Which is not a typical program control instruction?
(e) None of these (a) BR (b) JMP
16. Match the following: (c) SHL (d) TST
(a) Data link layer i. Flow control (e) None of these
(b) Network layer ii. Node to node delivery 22. Suppose you want to delete the name that occurs before
(c) Transport layer iii. Mail services "Vivek" in an alphabetical listing. Which of the following
(d) Application layer iv Routing data structures shall be most efficient for this operation ?
Codes: (a) Circular linked list (b) Doubly linked list
a b c d (c) Linked list (d) Dequeue
(a) ii i iv iii (e) None of these
(b) ii iv i iii 23. A thread is usually defined as a light weight process because
(c) ii i iii iv an Operating System (OS) maintains smaller data structure
(d) ii iv iii i for a thread than for a process. In relation to this, which of
(e) None of these the following statement is correct ?
17. The versions of windows operating system like windows (a) OS maintains only scheduling and accounting
XP and window Vista uses following file system: information for each thread
(a) FAT-16 (b) OS maintains only CPU registers for each thread
(b) FAT-32 (c) OS does not maintain a separate stack for each thread
(c) NTFS (NT File System) (d) OS does not maintain virtual memory state for each
(d) All of the above thread

SPEED TEST 85 201
24. Which one of the following set of gates is best suited (a) e15 (b) e5
for 'parity' checking and 'parity' generation ? (c) 1 e5 (d) 1 e10
(a) AND, OR, NOT (b) NAND, NOR 31. On receiving an interrupt from an I/O device, the CPU
(c) EX-OR, EX-NOR (d) AND , XOR (a) halts for predetermined time
(e) None of these (b) branches off to the interrupt service routine after
25. Start and stop bits are used in serial communications for completion of the current instruction.
(a) Error detection
(c) branches off to the interrupt service routine
(b) Error correction
immediately.
(c) Synchronization
(d) hands over control of address bus and data bus
(d) Slowing down the communication
to the interrupting device
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
26. For a data entry project for office staff who have never
32. The number of bits required for an IPV6 address is
used computers before (user interface and user-friendliness
are extremely important), one will use (a) 16 (b) 32
(a) Spiral model (b) Component based model (c) 64 (d) 128
(c) Prototyping (d) Waterfall model (e) None of these
(e) None of these 33. Which data structure is needed to convert infix notation to
27. An SRS post-fix notation?
(a) establishes the basis for agreement between client and (a) Branch (b) Queue
the supplier. (c) Tree (d) stack
(b) provides a reference for validation of the final product. (e) None of these
(c) is a prerequisite to high quality softwar(e) 34. Which of the following statement is not true in context of
(d) all of the above strings in C language?
(e) None of these (a) It is array of characters.
28. The SQL Expression (b) Last character of character array is always '10'.
Select distinct T. branch name from branch T, branch S
(c) C inserts the null character automatically
where T. assets > S. assets and S. branch-city =
(d) Any string in C can be read by the function get char '0'.
DELHI, finds the name of
(e) None of these
(a) all branches that have greater asset than any branch
35. When simplified with Boolean Algebra (x + y)(x + z)
located in DELHI.
simplifies to
(b) all branches that have greater assets than allocated
in DELHI. (a) x (b) x + x(y + z)
(c) the branch that has the greatest asset in DELHI. (c) x(1 + yz) (d) x + yz
(d) any branch that has greater asset than any branch (e) None of these
located in DELHI. 36. Which of the following is the fastest logic
(e) None of these (a) TTL (b) ECL
29. Dijkestra banking algorithm in an operating system, solves (c) CMOS (d) LSI
the problem of (e) None of these
(a) deadlock avoidance 37. Which of the following table helps in representing the
(b) deadlock recovery previous and next state of the sequential circuit prior to and
(c) mutual exclusion after the clock pulse respectively?
(d) context switching (a) Truth table
(e) None of these (b) Characteristics table
30. The multiuser operating system, 20 requests are made to (c) excitation table
use a particular resource per hour, on an average the (d) Both (a) and (b).
probability that no request are made in 45 minutes is (e) None of these

b b b b b
202 SPEED TEST 85
38. CIDR (Classless Inter domain Routing)- (c) Prims algorithm
(a) It is used in Class C networks (d) Warshalls algorithm
(b) It is used in Class B networks (e) None of these
(c) It is used in Class A networks
46. Minimum number of interchange needed to convert the array
(d) All of the above
89,19,40,14,17,12,10,2,5,7,11,6,9,70, into a heap with the
(e) None of these
maximum element at the root is
39. Internal auditors should review data system design before
they are- (a) 0 (b) 1
(a) Developed (b) Implemented (c) 2 (d) 3
(c) Modified (d) All of the above (e) None of these
(e) None of these 47. If storage class is missing in the array definition, by default
40. A program that places programs into main memory and it will be taken to be
prepares them for execution- (a) Automatic
(a) Linker (b) Assembler
(b) external
(c) Loader (d) Absolute entity
(c) static
(e) None of these
41. Which languages has recently become the defector standard (d) either automatic or external depending on the place of
for interfacing application programs with relational database occurrence
system? (e) None of these
(a) Oracle (b) SQL 48. The minimum number of comparisons required to determine
(c) Dbase (d) 4GL if an integer appears more than n/2 times in a sorted array
(e) None of these of n integers is
42. The C declaration in A [3] [5] of containing .. elements (a) (n) (b) (logn)
is itself an array containing integers.
(c) (log*n) (d) (1)
(a) 3, 5 (b) 5, 3
(e) None of these
(c) 3, 3 (d) 5, 5
(e) None of these 49. If each address space represents one byte of storage space,
43. The digital logic family which has the lowest propagation how many address lines are needed to access RAM chips
delay time is arranged in a 4 6 array, where each chip is 8K 4 bits
(a) ECL (b) TTL (a) 13 (b) 14
(c) CMOS (d) PMOS (c) 16 (d) 17
44. An assembly program contains: 50. Artificial intelligence is
(a) Imperative and declarative statements
(a) It uses machine-learning techniques. Here program can
(b) Imperative statements and assembler directives
learn From past experience and adapt themselves to
(c) Imperative and declarative statements as well as
new situations
assembler directives
(d) Declarative statements and assembler directives (b) Computational procedure that takes some value as input
(e) None of these and produces some value as output.
45. Which of the following algorithm solves the all pair shortest (c) Science of making machines performs tasks that would
path problem? require intelligence when performed by humans
(a) Dijkstras algorithm (d) None of these
(b) Floyds algorithm (e) All of the above

86 Fundamentals of Marketing
1. Marketing is: 8. Proper Marketing requires
(a) Only selling (a) planning
(b) meeting human & social needs while earning profits (b) sympathy
(c) focus on customer (c) knowledge of products
(d) focus on producing goods/ service (d) (a) and (b) both
(e) Both (b) and (c) (e) (a) and (c) both
2. Before Industrial Revolution, selling was no problem as: 9. Market information means
(a) marketing had not evolved (a) knowledge of companies
(b) people was not important (b) cross-country information
(c) people don't want to sell any thing (c) knowledge of related markets
(d) small scale enterprises dominated the economy (d) knowledge of current customers
3. Long term objective of marketing is 10. Marketing and Selling are
(a) customer satisfaction (a) not required if profit is high
(b) profit maximisation (b) not required if sales are high
(c) cost cutting (c) not required in monopolistic conditions
(d) profit maximisation with customer (d) All of the above
4. In marketing attitude can best be defined as a 11. Direct Marketing is neccessary for
(a) rude behaviour of salesperson (a) having a focussed approach
(b) rude behaviour of consumer (b) boosting sales
(c) mental state of consumer (c) better customer contacts
(d) ego of the marketing executive (d) All of the above
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
12. In Marketing it is necessary to identify
5. Which of the following is true?
(a) potential sellers
(a) Marketing is not required in a buyers market
(b) selling employees
(b) Marketing is not required in a sellers market
(c) potential products and services
(c) Marketing is not required after globalisation (d) key existing and potential customers
(d) Marketing is not required after liberalisation (e) All of the above
(e) Marketing is not required due to spread of MNC 13. Marketing is required for
6. Which of the following statements is true? (a) boosting production (b) reducing costs
(a) Marketing makes the company loose money due to (c) boosting profits (d) improving customer service
high cost. (e) All of the above
(b) Marketing is not important in profit- making companies 14. Marketing is successful when
(c) Marketing sharpens the mind set of the employees (a) demand exceeds supply
(d) Marketing is a time-bound seasonal function (b) supply exceeds demand
(e) Marketing is a waste (c) exports are heavy and costly
7. Find the true statement (d) salesmen are effective
(a) Marketing is a waste of the employee's time (e) All the above
(b) Marketing is not required in India due to its large market 15. Aggressive Marketing is necessitated due to
(c) Marketing involves additional work (a) globalisation (b) increased competition
(d) Marketing is not required today due to spread of IT (c) increased production(d) increased job opportunities
(e) None of these (e) All of these
204 SPEED TEST 86
16. In marketing the benefits of selling extend to 26. Marketing is the art of ________.
(a) Only products and services (a) buying more (b) paying more
(b) Only after sales services (c) selling more (d) talking more
(c) Lifelong relationship with the buyer (e) only (a) & (b)
(d) All of these 27. Which of the following statements is correct?
(e) None of these (a) Marketing is not required due to globalisation
17. Sequence of a sales process is _________. (b) Marketing causes higher expenses and losses
(a) a call, a lead, presentation and sale (c) Marketing is not required in profit - making companies
(b) a lead, a call, presentation and sale (d) Marketing sharpens the mind of the employees.
(c) presentation, sale, lead and call (e) Marketing is a waste of time in established companies
(d) presentation, lead, sale and call 28. Selling is _______.
(a) different from Marketing
(e) sale, call, lead and presentation
(b) a sub-function of marketing
18. In marketing POS ________.
(c) same as Marketing
(a) Preparation for Sales (d) more than Marketing
(b) Point of Superiority (e) All of these
(c) Point of Sales 29. Social Marketing is _______.
(d) Primary Outlook of Salesmen (a) Share market prices
(e) Position of Sales (b) Marketing by the entire society
19. Niche Market means a ________. (c) Internet Marketing
(a) free market (b) social market (d) Marketing for a social cause
(c) equity market (d) capital market (e) Society bye-laws
(e) specified market for a target group 30. _____ is not a pre-sales activity.
20. A Market Plan is ________. (a) Lead generation (b) Product design
(a) company's prospectus (c) Sales presentation (d) After-sales service
(b) Memorandum of Association (e) Scanning the Yellow Pages
(c) document for marketing strategies 31. Marketing is the combined study of
(d) business goals (a) Buyers behaviour and consumer tasks
(e) action plan for better production (b) Product demand and Product supply
21. Effective communication is not required in marketing if __. (c) Brand building and Publicity
(a) Demand exceeds supply (d) Sales force abilities and customer response
(b) Supply exceeds demand (e) All of the above
(c) Buyer is illiterate 32. Direct Marketing means
(d) Seller is illiterate (a) face to face marketing
(e) None of these (b) over the counter marketing
22. Marketing is not required for _____. (c) door to door marketing
(a) Corporate Loans (b) Exports
(c) Imports (d) Credit Cards
33. The ultimate aim of Marketing is to provide
(e) None of these
(a) More business to the Company
23. Marketing is a ________. (b) More profit
(a) day-to-day function (c) More staff
(b) one-off affair (d) More production
(c) one-man show (e) More products
(d) collective process 34. The meaning of conversion in terms of sales is -
(e) means to earn additional income (a) designing new products
24. Marketing helps in _______. (b) converting purchaser into sellers
(a) boosting production (c) converting sellers into purchasers
(b) getting new clients (d) converting perspective customers into purchasers
(c) interacting with strangers (e) conversion of religion
(d) All of these 35. The sales process begins with
(e) None of these (a) customer identification
25. Marketing of services is essential for _______. (b) lead generation
(a) manufacturing (b) Insurance (c) sales presentation
(c) hotels (d) Only (a) and (b) (d) sales closure
(e) Only (b) and (c) (e) sales meet

87 The Market, Product and Branding
1. Brand management is important as ________ . 8. Critical success factors for a firm includes ________.
(a) Companies wanted to achieve scale economies. (a) Changing lifestyles and attitudes
(b) It supplemented financial management practices (b) Low-cost production efficiency
(c) It suited production and operations personnel (c) Both [a] and [b]
(d) Companies wanted to differentiate their products and (d) Marketing strategy
highlight distinctions in acompetitive environment. (e) None of the above
(e) None of these 9. A differentiated product may be unique by itself but it will
2. Continuously renewing the difference makes your product only be successful only ________ .
____________. (a) if it satisfies customers' needs
(a) Look superior (b) Unacceptable
(b) if price differential is minimal
(c) Not conform with evolving changes
(c) if brand can be classed as aspirational
(d) Conform to the changing behavior and beliefs of
(d) differentiated products will always be successful
customers
3. If two different brands are distributed by one company, it is 10. Which of the following statements about choosing a name
________. for a new soft drink is UNTRUE?
(a) Wholesale (b) Co-branding (a) Name should be memorable and easy to pronounce
(c) Joint venture (d) Merger (b) Name must be checked by experts to ensure it doesn't
(e) None of these infringe on another brand
4. XXX is selecting and analyzing a target market and (c) The name should have positive associations with
developing a marketing mix to gain long-run competitive benefits and features of the product
advantages. XXX is creating a. (d) Brand name must be modern and contemporary
(a) Corporate strategy (b) Target design (e) None of these
(c) Mix strategy (d) Marketing strategy 11. Establishing and maintaining a distinctive place in the market
(e) None of these for an organization/product is ________.
5. Direct consumers of a nonprofit organization are its ____ . (a) Profiling (b) Profiling segmentation
(a) Consumer public (b) Member public (c) Segmentation (d) Positioning
(c) Client public (d) Non business public
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
12. _____ shows how consistent customers are in buying your
6. ________ organization is customer-centric and its decisions
brand, how long they have been buying and how long they
are based on involvement of all in the organization.
(a) Brand based (b) Consumer based may buy?
(c) Marketing (d) Competition based (a) Customer loyalty (b) Brand loyalty
(e) None of these (c) Product loyalty (d) Company loyalty
7. Measuring your brand's performance means you are ____ . (e) None of these
(a) Managing your brand right 13. _____ of ad means how frequently you should expose your
(b) Measuring your strategies target group to your message.
(c) Maintaining your brand position (a) Frequency (b) Copy
(d) Maintaining your brand picture (c) Copy strategy (d) Media
206 SPEED TEST 87
14. Market is divided into groups on the basis of age, family (c) These are retail outlets with a narrow product focus
size, gender, income, occupation, education, religion, race, but sell products at low prices by bulk buying, low
generation, nationality, or social class is the best description margins and selling high volumes
of _____ . (d) These are retail outlets with a wide product focus but
(a) Demographics (b) Psychographics with a wide width and depth to products
(c) Behavioral (d) Geographic (e) These are retail outlets with a narrow product focus
(e) None of these but with wide width and depth
15. What approach should a brand manager adopt to know the 23. Product life cycle theory maximizes profit at.
status of a brand in terms of consumer perceptions? (a) Developed Stage (b) Early Stage
(a) Compare two or three brands (c) Matured Stage (d) Declined Stage
(b) Analyze market segmentations (e) Cannot be predicted
(b) Select potential target markets 24. Marketing Plans are used for
(c) Understand customer's needs (a) doing Research by Marketing students
(e) None of these (b) planning Departments
16. _____ is getting into different versions of the same market? (c) purchase of consumable items from retail outlets
(a) Product extension (b) Brand diversification (d) All of the above
(c) Market extension (d) Line extension (e) None of these
(e) None of these 25. Product mix means
17. Introducing additional items in the same product category (a) distributing mix products
by adding new flavors, forms, colors, ingredients or package (b) collecting ideas to sell better
sizes, under the same brand name, is _____. (c) satisfying the customer
(a) Line extensions (d) bundle of products required by the customer
(b) Product mix (e) products designed by the Company
(c) Interactive marketing 26. Innovation helps in
(d) Service intangibility (a) designing new products
(e) None of these (b) improving marketing
18. _____ can be defined in terms of needs, segmentation and (c) increasing sales
geography. (d) maximizing prospective customers
(a) Markets (b) Production (e) All of the above
(c) Promotion (d) Management 27. Successful Marketing strategies need
(e) None of these (a) knowledge of consumer tastes
19. Management research is to find out facts about business (b) good leadership
(c) proper direction and guidance
and management This is concerned with _____.
(d) knowledge bank of peers
(a) Marketing planning. (b) Human resources.
(e) All of the above
(c) Production planning. (d) All of the above.
28. Diversification means
(e) None of these.
(a) marketing in different countries
20. When a study has been conducted and is available for others
(b) marketing in diverse companies
to see, it becomes _____. (c) making new, diversed products
(a) Primary data. (b) Ordinal data. (d) dealing only with foreign markets
(c) Secondary data. (d) Nominal data (e) All of the above
(e) None of these 29. Buyer Resistance' means _____.
21. To investigate new markets _____ management function is (a) Buyer's interest in the product
important. (b) Buyer being aggressive with the seller
(a) Finance functions. (b) Marketing. (c) Buyer's hesitation in buying the product
(c) Production. (d) HRM. (d) Buyer becoming a seller
(e) None of these (e) Buyer purchasing the product
22. _____ is a category killer. 30. Direct Marketing is useful for _____ .
(a) Products which stock must have products that need to (a) Designing Products
be stocked by retailers due to consumer demand like (b) Sending e-mails
Coca Cola & Kellogg's. (c) Increased production
(b) These are specialty stores with a deep product line to (d) Bigger job opportunities
be sold in restricted shop space (e) None of these
a b c d e
14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e 16. a b c d e 17. 18. a b c d e
29. a b c d e 30. a b c d e
88 Market Situations Based on Price, Distributition,
Promotion and Advertising
1. A company's own retail outlets are meant _____. (d) All of the above
(a) To avoid the threat of distributors' power (e) None of these
(b) To own and control the distribution channel 9. Duration of _____ should be short and should not be
(c) Distribution is profitable repeated.
(d) All of the above (a) Sales promos (b) Market promos
(e) None of the above (c) Brand promos (d) Product promos
2. Advertising _____ can attract consumers only if it is based (e) None of these
on their needs. 10. An effective advertising campaign _____
(a) Reach (b) Copy (a) Revolves around a strong central idea
(c) Frequency (d) Media (b) Should appeal to consumers self interest
(e) None of these (c) Must not be generalised
3. Major source of power in a distribution channel is the _____.
(a) Company (b) Brand
(c) Distributor (d) Customer (e) None of these
(e) None of these 11. Prices of luxury product are explained by _____ .
4. Factors affecting choice of distribution channel include (a) Plus-one pricing
_____. (b) Skim pricing
(a) Customer value (b) Sales revenues (c) Strategic account pricing
(c) Both [a] and [b] (d) Customer services (d) Segment pricing
(e) None of the above (e) None of these
5. Air India runs TV commercials that show its staff going out 12. _____ about Place/Distribution decisions is CORRECT?
of their way to help customers. An important secondary (a) Product classes are not related to Place objectives
audience for these ads is: (b) The product life cycle is not related to Place objectives
(a) Civil aviation authority (c) Place decisions are short-term decisions that are easy
(b) Competitors to change
(c) Air India employees (d) Different market segments may require separate Place
(d) Air travelers arrangements.
6. Pricing models offers opportunity to set different prices for 13. Addition of 2.25 liter bottle by Coca Cola will ____ .
different needs is _____. (a) Increase customer base and usage
(a) Segment pricing (b) Enhance customer loyalty
(b) Skim pricing (c) Generate more profit
(c) Value-in-use pricing (d) Develop brand image
(d) Strategic account pricing
(e) None of these
7. Advertising helps sales promotion by creating awareness 14. Communication through a news story about an organization
and comprehension that creates _____. and its products that is transmitted through a mass medium
(a) Customer pull (b) Customer push at no charge is ____.
(c) Customer loyal (d) Customer image (a) Advertising (b) Sales promotion
(e) None of these (c) Personal selling (d) Publicity
8. Advertising copy _____. (e) None of these
(a) Provides continuity in a brand's advertising 15. _____ is a disadvantage of using an agent in a channel of
(b) Help a brand achieve distinctiveness distribution?
(c) Provides a common benchmark on which all concerned (a) Length of channel (b) Cost factor
in the company and the agency can evaluate merits of (c) Lack of control (d) Speed of distribution
advertising campaign (e) Absence of market knowledge
208 SPEED TEST 88
16. _____ enables a company to control channels of (c) number of customers converted
distribution? (d) All of the above
(a) Vertical marketing system (e) None of these
(b) Franchising 26. Promotion means
(c) Exclusive dealing arrangements (a) additional responsibility
(d) Vertical integration (b) undertaking research in marketing
(e) All of the above (c) advertisement and publicity for marketing
17. Distribution where a limited number of outlets in a (d) going up the promotional ladder
geographical area to sell its products are used is called (e) All of the above
_____? 27. Negotiation skills help in ____.
(a) Exhaustive distribution (a) evolving a consensus
(b) Exclusive distribution (b) breaking the ice
(c) Intensive distribution (c) carry marketing further
(d) Selective distribution (d) Mutual win-win situation
(e) Segmented distribution (e) All of these
18. Power in marketing channels is now with _____ ? 28. Relationship Marketing is useful for
(a) Distributor (b) Manufacturer (a) trade between relatives
(c) Retailer (d) Wholesaler (b) trade between sister concerns
(e) Consumer (c) cross-selling of products
19. ______ is a strength associated with franchising? (d) preparing a list of relatives
(a) Reduces marketing promotional and administration (e) There is no such term as Relationship Marketing
costs 29. Good Public Relations means improved _____.
(b) Goal conflict does not arise (a) Marketing skills (b) Brand Image
(c) Reduces levels of channel conflict within the channel (c) Customer Service (d) All of these
(d) Combine the strengths of a large sophisticated (e) None of these
marketing-oriented organization with the energy and 30. One method of Market Monitoring is ____.
motivation of a locally owned outlet (a) Monitor Performance of sales staff.
(e) All of the above (b) Monitor the SENSEX
20. Best method of advertisement is (c) Monitor Media Outlets
(a) glow sign boards (b) internet (d) Monitor profits
(c) Television (d) Consumer awareness (e) None of these
(e) customer satisfaction 31. Networking helps in marking Marketing Function
21. A form of distribution in which manufacturer makes an agreement (a) a difficult task (b) a laborious task
with a middleman in each market stipulating that the distribution (c) an easier task (d) Networking is worthless in
of the product will be confined in that area is: Marketing
(a) mass distribution (e) Networking has a partial role
(b) exclusive agency distribution 32. Effective marketing helps in._____ .
(c) selective distribution (a) developing new product
(d) price based distribution (b) creating a competitive environment
(e) None of these (c) building demand for products
22. If Marketing is done effectively, _____ is not required (d) All of these
(a) Advertisment (b) Pubilicity (e) None of these
(c) Market Research (d) Market Segmentation 33. Pricing strategy for credit cards depends on _____.
(e) None of these (a) Competition (b) Customers income
23. Sales forecasting involves (c) Customer relations (d) Customer awareness
(a) sales planning (b) sales pricing (e) Customer usage
(c) distribution channels (d) consumer tastes 34. Aggressive Marketing is needed due to ____.
(e) All of these (a) Globalisation
24. Proper pricing is essential for ____. (b) Intense competition
(a) extra charges for extra services (c) Additional production
(b) levy of VAT (d) More jobs
(c) good customer service (e) All of the above
(d) putting burden on the customer 35. Which means of communication is the most popular for
(e) service with extra facilities publicity?
25. Selling skills are measured by ____. (a) Magazines (b) Television
(a) number of goods sold (c) Radio (d) Outdoor exhibition
(b) amount of profit earned (e) None of these
89 Market Segmentation, Targeting & Positioning
1. 4 P's of Marketing are ____. (c) Product era (d) Positioning era
(a) Primary Marketing Techniques (e) None of these
(b) Person, Place, Product and Promotion 9. Positioning has to stem from the point of view of _____.
(c) Promoting Authority (a) Customers' (b) Competitors'
(d) Purpose, Place, Passion, and Product (c) General Managers' (d) Brand Owners'
2. Qualities essential in good marketing are ____. 10. _____ is a marketer's major positioning tool that has a direct
(a) aggressiveness (b) pushy impact on product performance and is linked to customer
(c) perseverance (d) politeness value.
(e) Only (c) and (d) (a) Product quality (b) Social marketing
3. ______ is not a part of 7 P's of Marketing. (c) Specialty marketing (d) Production quality
(a) Product (b) Price (e) None of these
(c) Production (d) Promotion 11. ______ determines why customers buy?
(e) People (a) Customer needs analysis
4. Market Share means _____. (b) Brand-based customer model
(a) share market (b) share prices
(c) Good brand promise
(c) IPOs (d) Scope for marketing
(d) Brand management process
(e) Share of business among pproducers
(e) None of these
5. If lots of customers like the brand and are inclined to be
12. Marketers need to position their brands clearly in target
bound into a contract, they would be known as _____.
customers' minds. The strongest brands go beyond attributes
(a) Loyal customer (b) Difficult customer
or benefit positioning. They are positioned on the basis of
(c) Potential customer (d) Finicky customer
_____.
(e) None of these
(a) Desirable benefit
6. _____ evokes a hierarchical set of customer response effects
i.e. building awareness, comprehension, intentions, and (b) Good packaging
actions. (c) Strong beliefs and values
(a) Distribution (b) Communication (d) Service inseparability
(c) Merchandizing (d) Branding (e) None of these
(e) None of these 13. Target marketing featuring customized marketing
7. Apart from the 'four Ps' of marketing mix, the three additional programmes is _______.
elements of service brands are people, process, and ____ . (a) Individual marketing (b) Segment marketing
(a) Physical evidence (c) Family marketing (d) Local marketing
(b) Physiological evidence (e) Niche marketing
(c) Psychological evidence 14. _____ segmentation divides the market into different units
(d) Packaging like nations, states, regions, cities or neighbourhoods.
(e) None of these (a) Geographic (b) Demographic
8. Unique Selling Proposition (USP) started in _____. (c) Psychographic (d) Behavioral
(a) Advertising era (b) Image era (e) Socio-economic
210 SPEED TEST 89
15. _____ segmentation is where the market is divided on the 24. Motivation is essential to effective marketing. What other
basis of age, family size, life cycle, gender, income, qualities are required for marketing?
occupation, education and religion . (a) Confidence
(a) Geographic (b) Demographic (b) Effective Communication skills
(c) Psychographic (d) Behavioral (c) Team work
(e) Socio-economic
(d) Perseverance
16. To be useful market segments must assess on _____ criteria.
(a) five (b) two
(c) three (d) four 25. Market Penetration is possible through
(e) Six (a) more calls to the same buyers
17. Market Segmentation means (b) more calls to potential buyers
(a) dividing the market into groups (c) surrogate marketing
(b) segmenting by age (d) alternate marketing
(c) segmenting by tastes (e) All of these
(d) geographic segmenting 26. Market penetration connotes
(e) None of the above (a) covering a wider area
18. In Marketing, Market penetration means (b) entering sellers' houses
(a) entering customers houses (c) covering all shops and business houses
(b) covering stores and shops (d) All of these
(c) covering a wide market (e) None of these
(d) All of the above 27. Lead generation means ____.
(e) None of these (a) Tips for selling tactics
19. Rural Marketing is more effective if arranged through.
(b) Tips for more efficient production
(a) melas
(c) Develop leaders
(b) village fairs
(d) sources for prospective clients
(c) door to door campaign
(e) None of these 28. Marketing orientation focuses on _____?
20. Buyer Resistance means _____. (a) Customers (b) Suppliers
(a) Buyers interest in the product (c) Competitors (d) Employees
(b) Buyer fighting with the seller (e) All of the above
(c) Buyers hesitation in buying the product 29. Push marketing style requires _____.
(d) Buyer becoming a seller (a) Proper planning
(e) Buyer buying the product (b) Good pushing strength
21. Opportunities for growth and expansion are identified by (c) Teamwork
finding _____ (d) Ability to identify products
(a) Customers' beliefs about the segment (e) Aggressive marketing
(b) Customers believe about competitors 30. CRM (Customer Relationship Management) is _____.
(c) Customer's perceptions about the brand (a) A pre-sales activity
(d) Customer's response about the products
(b) A tool for lead generation
(e) None of these
(c) An on going daily activity
22. What explains Maslow's Motivation Theory best?
(d) Task of a DSA
(a) Importance of motivation of customer development
(b) When people are driven by particular need at particular (e) Customer complaint cell
times 31. While determining levels of preferences of consumers in
(c) When human needs are arranged in a hierarchy relation to the criterion consumers give priority to a brand
(d) All of these due _____.
(e) Only (b) and (c) (a) Customer service
23. Customer Database is used by (b) Consistent performance
(a) individuals (b) institutions (c) Price value relationship
(c) builders (d) marketing experts (d) Accessibility

30. a b c d e 31. a b c d e
90 Modern Marketing
1. Modern marketing includes 9. Modern marketing is _______.
(a) publicity on internet (a) telemarketing
(b) advertisement on internet (b) web marketing
(c) Bulk emails (c) internet advertisement
(d) telemarketing (d) e-mails
(e) All of these
(e) all of these
2. Digital Marketing means ________.
10. Online value proposition should _______.
(a) selling by using calculators
(b) marketing of digital instruments (a) Be communicated to site visitors and in all marketing
(c) marketing by using Internet and Telephones communications
(d) export finance (b) Be a clear differentiator from online competitors
(e) None of these (c) Target market segment(s) that the proposition will
3. Transaction Marketing means appeal to
(a) marketing only to strangers (d) Given financial back up
(b) mere selling of goods (e) All of the above
(c) doing banking transactions 11. Achieving marketing objectives through use of electronic
(d) All of the above communications technology is _______.
(e) None of these (a) E-marketing (b) E-business
4. Modern marketing includes ________. (c) Internet marketing (d) E-commerce
(a) digital marketing (b) tele marketing (e) None of the above
(c) e-commerce (d) e- mails solicitation
12. Using the Internet for marketing research to find out
(e) All of these
customers needs is _______.
5. e- marketing is same as _______.
(a) virtual marketing (b) digital marketing (a) Satisfying customer requirements
(c) real time marketing (d) All of these (b) Anticipating customer requirements
(e) None of these (c) Identifying customer requirements
6. Digital marketing is selling ______. (d) All of the above
(a) digital goods (b) calculators (e) None of these
(c) through internet (d) All of these 13. Assessing the demand for digital services or online revenue
(e) None of these contribution is _______.
7. Internet Marketing means _______. (a) Anticipating customer requirements
(a) Internal Marketing (b) Satisfying customer requirements
(b) Marketing to a core group (c) Identifying customer requirements
(c) Marketing to employees
(d) None of the above
(d) All of these
14. Direct online contribution effectiveness is the _______.
(e) None of these
8. Online Marketing is useful for ______. (a) Reach of audience volume of a site
(a) Selling Old Products (b) Proportion of sales influenced by the web site
(b) Sending e-mails (c) Proportion of business turnover ach ieved by
(c) Increasing production e-commerce transactions
(d) Additional job opportunities (d) First and third option above
(e) Higher expenses (e) None of the above
212 SPEED TEST 90
15. _______ is NOT an element of a companys external micro- 23. Internet marketers are using ________ as a form of word of
environment that need to be assessed during situation mouth, or word of mouse, to draw attention to their sites.
analysis for e-marketing? (a) event marketing (b) subliminal marketing
(a) Supplier analysis (c) viral marketing (d) place marketing
(b) Competitor analysis (e) public relations
(c) Intermediary analysis 24. The main actors in a modern marketing system would include
(d) Demand analysis all of the following EXCEPT: (Select the LEAST LIKELY.)
(e) None of the above (a) suppliers (b) marketing intermediaries
16. Modern marketing EXCLUDES _______. (c) the end user (d) advertising agencies
(a) Digital marketing (e) None of these
(b) Tele-marketing 25. Over time, marketing management has offered five distinct
(c) Door-to-door marketing concepts under which organizations conduct their marketing
(d) E-mail solicitation activities. Which of the following DOES NOT belong on the
(e) None of these correct list of these concepts?
17. Web marketing involves (a) econometric concept (b) production concept
(a) Selling web cameras (b) Web advertisements (c) product concept (d) marketing concept
(c) e-mail chatting (d) Browsing the web
(e) None of these
(e) Door-to-door canvassing
26. The _________questions whether the pure marketing
18. Online Marketing is mostly useful for marketing of
concept is adequate in an age of environmental problems,
(a) saving accounts (b) credit cards
resource shortages, rapid population growth, worldwide
(c) home loans (d) NRI deposits
economic problems, and neglected social services.
(e) business accounts
(a) service concept (b) societal marketing concept
19. Good competition helps in
(c) product concept (d) not-for-profit concept
(a) improved sales
(e) None of these
(b) improved customer service
27. The major marketing developments as we enter the new
(c) improved brand image
millennium can be summed up in a single theme:
(d) All of these
(a) innovation (b) the Internet
(e) None of these
20. The best promotional tool in any marketing is _______ (c) virtuality (d) connectedness
(a) Pamphlets (e) None of these
(b) Newsletters 28. Under which of the following marketing connections would
(c) Word of mouth publicity connecting through strategic alliances most likely fall?
(d) Regional Advertisement (a) Connections with Customers
(e) Viral marketing (b) Connections with Government
21. Modern marketing calls for more than developing a good (c) Connections with Marketing Partners
product, pricing it attractively, and making it accessible. (d) Connections with the World Around Us
Companies must also ________ with present and potential (e) None of these
stakeholders, and the general public. 29. Dell Computer recently ran advertisements telling how it
(a) attract (b) reach partners with Microsoft and Intel to provide customized e-
(c) relate to (d) advertise to business solutions. This would be an example of which of
(e) communicate the following?
22. If a company is guilty of marketing myopia, then it is: (a) mix network (b) supply management
(a) in danger of having dangerous cost overruns because it (c) relationship channel (d) strategic alliance
is trying to please too many diverse customer groups. (e) None of these
(b) so taken with its products that it focuses only on existing 30. Today marketing is:
wants and loses sight of underlying consumer needs. (a) Product driven
(c) guilty of prejudice toward certain customer groups. (b) Services driven
(d) falling into the trap of "copying" rather than "inventing" (c) Improvement of bottom line (Profitability)
products. (d) Cost conscious
(e) None of these (e) Customer driven market


30. a b c d e
91 Marketing in Banking Industry
1. In today's changing banking scenario, aggressive promotion 9. _______ is not a channel for bank marketing?
of business is necessary where the competition exists on (a) Telemarketing (b) Internet Banking
(a) branch up-keep (c) Mobile banking (d) satisfied customers
(b) expeditious service (e) None of these
(c) use of advanced digital technology 10. Marketing in Banks is defined as
(d) good customer service (a) Negotiable Instruments Act
(e) All of these (b) Banking Regulation Act
2. When you desire to upgrade a customer, which category (c) RBI Act
would be targeted by the bank: (d) Companies Act
(a) A regular visitor to the bank (e) None of these
(b) A person ordering large number of bank drafts 11. Marketing in banks is
(c) A person regularly maintaining a loan/deposit account (a) a one-day function (b) a one-man function
(d) A person regularly getting bank drafts encashed (c) a one-off affair (d) All of these
(e) A person functioning as agent for a depository account (e) None of these
3. In banks, loans & advances are considered as 12. Marketing is required in banks due to
(a) assets (b) liabilities (a) globalisation (b) computerisation
(c) resources (d) expenditure (c) larger population (d) government policies
4. Bank marketing means 13. Bank assurance means
(a) selling by banks (b) buying by banks (a) assuring to repay bank loans
(c) merger of banks (b) assuring to repay credit card dues
(d) selling bank's products and services (c) assuring to repay home loans
(e) selling products in banks (d) Insurance of banks
5. Mark the incorrect statement (e) selling of Insurance products by a bank
(a) marketing has no relevance for public sector banks 14. Target group for marketing Internet Banking is _______.
(b) marketing has no relevance in Private Sector Banks (a) all customers
(c) marketing has no relevance in Foreign Banks (b) all literate customers
(d) All of these (c) all computer literate customers
(e) None of these (d) only borrowers
6. Marketing is not required in ________. (e) All of these
(a) Selling Credit/ Debit Cards 15. Digital Banking is available through _______.
(b) Net Banking (c) Corporate Loans (a) Mobile phones (b) Internet
(d) Retail Loans (e) All of these (c) Telephones (d) All of these
7. Bank Marketing is necessary due to (e) None of these
(a) globalisation (b) recession 16. Mutual Funds can be sold to existing bank customers by.
(c) bank mergers (d) limited resources (a) Outdoor marketing (b) Telemarketing
(e) selling different items in bank branches (c) Cross-selling (d) Internal Marketing
8. Marketing of Internet Banking means (e) All of the above
(a) meeting of Banks on the net 17. Demat accounts are useful for _______.
(b) net practice (a) Online trading of shares
(c) marketing usage of Banking transactions through (b) Locker operations
internet (c) ATMs
(d) transactions with foreign banks (d) loan sanction
(e) All of the above (e) Export finance
16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e
214 SPEED TEST 91
18. Rural bank marketing has good scope for _____. 28. The USP of a Credit Card is
(a) Industrial loans (b) Corporate loans (a) cashless operations
(c) NRI loans (d) Tractor loans (b) only for HNIs
(e) All of these (c) only for men
19. Bancassurance can be sold to _____. (d) only for employed persons
(a) Banks (b) Insurance companies (e) transactions through cheque book
(c) Insurance agents (d) Bank customers 29. EMI can be a marketing tool if
(e) All of the above (a) EMI is increasing
20. Bulk Savings Accounts can be mobilized by _____. (b) It is very high
(a) Door-to-door canvassing (c) It is very low
(b) Making cold calls (d) EMI has no impact on marketing
(c) E-mail solicitation (e) EMI is a flat rate
(d) Contacting individuals working in an institution 30. The USP of a Current Account is
(e) Writing letters (a) high profitability (b) liquidity
21. A prospect means ____ ? (c) low rate of interest (d) costly transactions
(a) any customer who walks into the bank (e) friendly features
(b) an employee of the bank 31. Bancassurance means
(c) a customer who is interested in bank's product (a) assurance of banks for quality service
(d) depositor of the bank (b) assurance for sanction of loans
(e) borrower of the bank (c) selling of insurance products by banks
22. Difference between Direct and indirect Bank Marketing is (d) selling credit cards
(a) Direct Marketing is to Bank's employees. Indirect is to (e) selling debit cards
outsiders 32. Banks sell insurance for
(b) Direct Marketing is to outsiders. Indirect is to (a) increasing deposits
employees (b) increasing loans
(c) Direct Marketing is to Bank's owners. Indirect is to (c) increasing clients
outsiders (d) earning more profits
(d) Direct Marketing is to other Bank's employees. Indirect (e) taking over insurance companies
is to outsiders 33. The target group for Personal Loans is
(e) None of these (a) All Private Limited Companies
23. Rural marketing involves (b) All Businessmen (c) All Salaried persons
(a) selling to rural banks (d) Minor children (e) Newborn infants
(b) selling by rural banks 34. Savings Accounts can be opened by _______
(c) selling to rural customers (a) All individuals fulfilling KYC norms
(d) arranging industrial exhibitions (b) All tax payers only
(e) All of the above (c) All individuals above the age of 18
24. Product development is/has (d) All businessmen only
(a) useful for bank marketing (e) All students below the age of 18
(b) not useful for bank marketing 35. A short term loan is repayable within _______
(c) no role to play in bank marketing (a) 20 years
(d) All of the above (b) 3 years
(e) None of these (c) As per the borrowers wish
25. Target market for Home Loans is (d) As per the guarantors wish
(a) builders (b) housing societies (e) There is no need to repay short term loans
(c) agriculturists (d) All of these 36. USP in marketing language means _______
(e) None of these (a) Uniform Selling Practices
26. Societies and Trusts are a target groups for opening ____ . (b) Unique Sales Person
(a) Current Accounts (b) Savings Accounts (c) Unique Selling Proposition
(c) Car Loan Accounts (d) Corporate Loan Accounts (d) Unique Savings Plans
(e) Education Loan Accounts (e) Useful Sales Persons
27. Safe Deposit Locker can be canvassed among 37. An IPO Loan is meant for
(a) all existing account holders (a) Meeting personal needs
(b) persons below poverty line (b) For higher education
(c) students (c) Medical treatment
(d) jewelers (d) For starting a new industry
(e) ATM cardholders (e) For purchase of shares

92 Section Test : Professional knowledge (Marketing)
1. Marketing in banks is defined as (b) it is selling at the lowest price possible.

(a) Negotiable Instruments Act (c) it has the highest labour productivity that it can.
(b) Banking Regulation Act (d) it is making what its customers want.
(c) Reserve Bank of India Act (e) None of these
(d) Companies Act 7. Find the incorrect statement
(e) None of these (a) Marketing has no relevance in public sector banks
2. In marketing terms, attitude can best be defined as a (b) Marketing has no relevance in private sector banks
(a) rude behaviour of salesperson (c) Marketing has no relevance in foreign banks
(b) rude behaviour of consumer (d) All of these
(c) mental state of consumer (e) None of these
(d) ego of the marketing executive 8. Vegetable market in India is nearly an example of
(e) None of these (a) perfect Competition
3. According to product life cycle theory, the profit is maximum (b) monopoly
in (c) oligopoly
(a) developed Stage (b) early stage (d) imperfect competition
(c) matured Stage (d) declined Stage (e) high monopsony
(e) None of these 9. Marketing in banks is
4. In banks, loans & advances are considered as (a) a one-day function
(a) assets (b) liabilities (b) a one-man function
(c) resources (d) cause of expenditure (c) a one-off affair
(e) None of these (d) All of these
5. What is meant by the term psychological pricing? (e) None of these
(a) The process of raising the customer awareness of the 10. Modern methods of marketing include
supposed values/qualities of your product, so building (a) publicity on the net
its brand image. (b) advertisement on the net
(b) The cutting out of wholesalers from the distribution chain. (c) soliciting business through e-mails
(c) Setting prices that reinforce the concept of value. e.g. (d) telemarketing
99 and not 100. (e) All of these
(d) The forces of supply and demand and how they 11. In a selling process in todays world
determine price. (a) only standard products are sold
(e) None of these (b) no customization required
6. A firm is productively efficient when (c) the seller need not have product knowledge
(a) it is producing its product or service at the lowest unit (d) the seller should aim at customer satisfaction
cost that it can. (e) only quantum of sales matters
GRID 11. a b c d e
216 SPEED TEST 92
12. The nominal scale used for marketing research, refers to (c) Communication Expense
(a) population characteristics based on age or sex or (d) Commission
ownership of a specific consumer durable (e) Awards
(b) ordering of scale 19. Explain what is meant by the term advertising elasticity.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) The responsiveness of demand to price changes.
(d) Incom of people (b) How much advertising influences sales.
(e) None of these (c) It measures the responsiveness of the demand for a
13. In the era of globalisation of business, M & A means product to changes in the amount of advertising spent
(a) Money & Assets on it.
(b) Marketing & Alliances (d) The change in demand caused by a change in income.
(c) Mergers & Acquisitions (e) None of these
(d) Means & Acquisition 20. In the interests of efficiency and obtaining more economies
(e) Markets & Acquisitions of scale, two firms agree to join together and become one.
14. All of the following are extension strategies for a product, This is an example of a
except (a) hostile take-over
(a) finding new uses for the product. (b) hostile merger.
(b) encouraging more frequent use and purchase of the (c) friendly merger.
product. (d) friendly take-over.
(c) developing new markets for the product. (e) None of these
(d) repackaging the product. 21. In recent years autonomous working groups have come to
(e) None of these play an important part in many businesses. What are their
15. The long-run for a company is when essential features?
(a) the scale of production itself, and thus capacity can be (a) The group reports directly to the senior management
increased. above them in the hierarchy of the firm.
(b) the time it takes to buy and install new plant. (b) The creation of teams which have a high level of
(c) Both (a) and (b) autonomy and control over their immediate working
(d) the time interval between the payment of a firms fixed costs. environment.
(e) None of these (c) The bringing together of various individuals who have
a common interest in solving certain problems.
16. One of the following qualities is not required for effective
(d) A group of experts brought into research new ways of
marketing. That is
producing a product.
(a) Self-motivation
(e) None of these
(b) Effective communication skills
22. Just in time (JIT) technique is getting wider acceptance world
(c) Team work
over. The technique was first introduced in
(d) Perseverance
(a) India
(e) Sympathy (b) Indonesia
17. In Marketing Mix 4Ps imply (c) Japan
(a) Product, Price, Place, Promotion (d) America
(b) Product, Price, Policy, Place (e) None of these
(c) Product, Place, Promotion, Policy 23. For an economic organization like bank, MIS means
(d) Place, People, Product, Policy (a) Middle Income Scheme
(e) Promotion, Product, Price, People (b) Management Information System
18. Which among the following a fixed expense in sales budget? (c) Management of Information & Science
(a) Incentives (d) Marketing Information System
(b) Rent (e) Only (b) and (c)
12 a b c d e 13 a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e 16. a b c d e

SPEED TEST 92 217
24. A firm can be considered to be efficient when it (c) a gift
(a) is producing its product or service at the lowest (d) display of communication skills
possible average cost. (e) All of these
(b) is fully utilising its capacity. 31. Cross-selling covers
(c) has minimised the amount of waste that it produces. (a) identifying customer needs
(d) employs the maximum number of workers. (b) matching the products to customer needs
(e) None of these (c) convincing the customers of product benefits
24. Which of the following might cause a downturn in the
(d) responding to questions and objections of customers
economy?
(e) All of these
(a) The demand for a product is exceeding its supply.
32. Market information means
(b) A total fall in output and expenditure.
(a) knowledge of shops and bazaars
(c) Distinct signs of growing business confidence.
(b) knowledge of shopping malls
(d) Stocks are starting to exceed demand.
(c) knowledge of customer profile and product mix
(e) None of these
26. In online marketing, there is (d) knowledge of various languages
(a) no exchange (e) None of these
(b) exchange is the core of marketing 33. Prior to the industrial revolution,selling was no problem and
(c) Guarantee no sales team is required because
(d) Only warranty (a) marketing was not a subject then
(e) None of these (b) people was not a subject then
27. SWOT analysis refers to (c) people dont want to sell anything
(a) marketing tool to understand constraints and potentials (d) small-scale enterprises dominated the economic scene
of self and competitor (e) None of these
(b) external environment analysis 34. Consumer information sources are
(c) internal environment analysis (a) personal source and commercial source
(d) strategic planning for selling product (b) public source
(e) south-west organization for trade (c) experiential source
28. Market segmentation is done by firms for all of the following (d) All of the three above
reasons, except (e) Only (a) and (b)
(a) to increase market share.
35. Which of the following forms the highest share in household
(b) to assist new product development.
savings in India ?
(c) so that they can develop multi-purpose advertising
(a) Deposits
campaigns.
(b) Currency
(d) to extend products into new markets.
(c) Share & Debentures
(e) None of these
29. Which among the following is not a tool for marketing (d) Real estate
planning appraisal? (e) Physical asset
(a) External appraisal 36. A Cash Cow is
(b) Internal appraisal (a) a product which generates a significant amount of profit
(c) Gap analysis for a company.
(d) SWOT analysis (b) a product with a high market share, and a high rate of growth.
(e) PCOT analysis (c) a product with a low market share and a low rate of growth.
30. A presentation means (d) a product which generates a significant amount of
(a) display of products money for a company.
(b) explaining the utility of products (e) None of these

218 SPEED TEST 92
37. In market segmentation, which among the following is not 44. Proper pricing is needed for
an economic component? (a) extra charges for extra services
(a) Age (b) Sex (b) levy of VAT
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Income level (c) good customer service
(e) Taxes (d) putting burden on the customer
38. Effective communication skills are not required in marketing if (e) service with extra facilities
(a) demand exceeds supply 45. A defence strategy of identifying weakness in the competitor
(b) supply exceeds demand and aggressively going after that market niche is called
(c) buyer is illiterate (a) Pre-emptive (b) Counter offensive
(c) Mobile defence (d) Position defence
(d) seller is illiterate
(e) Flanking defence
(e) None of these
46. The long term objective of marketing is
39. Market research is needed for
(a) customer satisfaction
(a) deciding the market area
(b) profit maximisation
(b) deciding the right product to be sold (c) cost cutting
(c) making proper marketing decisions (d) profit maximisation with customer
(d) deciding right time to sell (e) None of these
(e) All of these 47. In todays changing banking scenario, aggressive promotion
40. A situation whereby market is expanded by developing new of business is necessary where the competition exists on
products to satisfy new consumer needs is called (a) branch up-keep
(a) Market development (b) expeditious service
(b) Diversification (c) use of advanced digital technology
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) delightful customer service
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) (e) All of these
(e) None of these 48. All of the following are examples of unfair competition, except
41. Zero-Based Budgeting (ZBB) means (a) two firms agreeing to fix their prices.
(a) a tool for marketing cost analysis (b) three companies agreeing to share a market between them.
(c) a monopolist charging excess prices for its product.
(b) a tool for financial analysis
(d) exploiting a patent that the firm has on a product it has
(c) each year, budgeting starts from a scratch
developed itself.
(d) a certain percentage of sales
(e) None of these
(e) Only (a) and (b)
49. Rising interest rates can have all but one of the following
42. A product life cycle implications for an economy. Which one is it?
(a) shows how a products sales or profits, depending on (a) Credit sales will fall.
the units used, may rise and fall over its life. (b) Investment may start to fall as business loses
(b) tells you how long a product will sell for and make a confidence.
profit. (c) Potential exporters will see the UK market as one worth
(c) is divided into three stages. selling to.
(d) shows how profitable a product will be. (d) As the cost of maintaining working capital rises so
(e) None of these stocks will need to be reduced.
43. A market is said to be oligopolistic when (e) None of these
(a) it is dominated by a single supplier of a product. 50. Internet banking means
(b) a few significant suppliers dominate the market for a product. (a) Meeting of banks on the Net
(c) there are many small firms supplying the same product. (b) Net practice
(d) there are many branded varieties of the product on the (c) Banking transactions through internet
market. (d) Transactions with foreign countries
(e) None of these (e) All of these

93 Biology and Plant Biotechnology
1. The microbes play an important role in the catalytic (c) S phase (d) M phase
complicated chemical reactions of (e) G3 phase
(a) Wine productions (b) Fermentaton 10. Bt cotton is resistant to bollworm, it ie due to
(c) Dairy product (d) All of the above (a) Bt is repellent to bollworm
(e) None of these (b) Bt is contact poison for bollworm
2. Which among the following contains only one type of (c) Bt is stomach poison; it changes the permeability of
nucleic acid? stomach due to generation of pores in alkaline
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus environment of stomach
(c) Dead virus (d) All (d) Bt is causing death due to asphagsiation of insect
3. The plant virus was first isolated in crystalline form 11. Bacterial genes lack
(a) TMV (b) Baceriophages (a) Exons (b) Introns
(c) Cyanophages (d) HIV (c) Promoters (d) Operator
4. The molecular scissors used to cut DNA into specific genes
12. The terminal codons are
of interest are called
(a) AUG, GUG , GUC (b) UAG, UAA, AGA
(a) Exonucleases
(b) Restriction endonucleases (c) UAA, UAC, AUG (D) UAA, UAG, UUA
(c) Ligases (e) None of these
(d) Polymerases 13. Which sequence in case of eukaryotes is important for mRNA
(e) None of these tailing?
5. The quickest way to produce homozygous breeding lines (a) GAGAGA (b) GAATTC
from heterozygous parents is through: (c) UACGAC (d) UACUAAC
(a) Half-seed technique (b) Doubled haploids (e) None of these
(c) Introgression (d) Aneuploidy 14. Transfer of genes (gene flow) in between different species
(e) None of these is known as
6. Which of the following organelle lack membrane? (a) Vertical gene flow
(a) Mitochondria (b) Ribosomes (b) Horizontal gene flow
(c) Microtubules (d) Peroxisomes (c) Lateral gene flow
(e) None of these (d) Side gene flow
7. Virions are____ (e) None of these
(a) DNA viruses (b) RNA viruses 15. Most commonly used organism in SCP is
(c) Naked DNA viruses (d) Naked RNA viruses (a) Bacillus (b) E. coli
(e) None of these (c) Spirulina (d) Pseudomonas
8. DNA is present in (e) None of these
(a) Nucleus (b) Mitochondria 16. The bond between sugar and nitrogenous base in case of
(c) Chloroplast (d) All the avbove DNA is known as
(e) None of these (a) Gycosidic bond (b) Phosphodiester bond
9. DNA replication occur in which stage of cell division? (c) H-bond (d) Peptide bond
(a) G1 phase (b) G2 phase (e) N-bond

16. a b c d e
220 SPEED TEST 93
17. Which of the following amino acid participate in urea cycle? 29. Liquid N2 has a temperature
(a) Arginine (b) Lysine (a) - 196C (d) - 186C
(c) Tryptophan (d) Histidine (c) - 176C (d) - 172C
(e) None of these (e) 165C
18. The techniques to clone the first gene were developed in 30. Which of the following is/are Bio-insecticides?
(a) 1972 (b) 1987 (a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(c) 1976 (d) 1977 (b) Bacillus popiliae
(e) 1980
(c) Both (a) and (b)
19. Biosensers are used as
(d) E. Coli
(a) Purified enzymes (b) Antibodies
(c) Whole microbial cells (d) Any of the above (e) None of these
(e) None of these 31. Father of Soil Microbiology is
20. Which enzyme plays important role in reverse transcription? (a) Winogradsky (b) Beirjenick
(a) DNA plymerase (b) RNA plymerase (c) Spermi (d) Hiltner
(c) Reverse transcriptase (d) Ribonuclease (e) Donald
(e) None of these 32. Match the following :
21. Commonly used host in gene cloning is (i) Amylase (A) Bacillus sp.
(a) E.coli (b) Pseudomonas (ii) Invertase (B) Saccharromyces
(c) Fungi (d) Bacillus cersevisiae
(e) None of these (iii) Proteases (C) Aspergillus niger
22. Bioreactors are used for (iv) Lipases (D) Rhizopus sp.
(a) Production of ethanol
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) Production of enxymes on large scale
(a) A B C D
(c) Producton of celll dculture on large scale
(b) B C D A
(e) None of these (c) C A B D
23. Double stranded DNA can be isolated from ssDNA or RNA (d) D C B A
by using (e) None of these
(a) Ion exchange column 33. Match the following :
(b) Sephadex column (i) Whisky (A) Grape wine
(c) Hydroxyapatite column (ii) Rum (B) Potato
(d) Affinity chromatography (iii) Brandy (C) Grain mash
(e) None of these (iv) Vodka (D) Molasses
24. Who is credite with discovery of Bacterea? Codes :
(a) `Louis pasteur (b) Leewenhoek (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) Needham (d) Tyndall (a) A B C D
(e) None of these (b) C D A B
25. Faultative free living N fixing bacterium (c) B A C D
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter (d) C D B A
(c) Klebsiella (d) All of above (e) None of these
(e) None of these 34. Match the following
26. Vitamin B2 is produced by (i) Tryptophan (A) Brevibacterium sp.
(a) Ashbya gossypii (b) Pseudomonas (ii) Valine (B) Entero-bactericeae
(c) Brevibacterium sp. (d) Spirulina
(iii) Glutamic acid (C) Claviceps
(e) None of these
(iv) Lysine (D) E.coli
27. First Antifugal antibiotic
(a) Cycloheximide (b) Aureofungin Codes :
(c) Neomycin (d) Nystatin (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(e) None of these (a) A B C D
28. Neomycin is produced by (b) C A D B
(a) S. Nouesii (b) S. fradiae (c) B C A D
(c) S. erthyreus (d) S. Venezuelea (d) B A C D
(e) None of these (e) D C A B


94 Plant Physiology, Genetics and Plant breeding

1. The main function of endoplasmic reticulum (rough ER) is 10. The chemical nature of GA3 is
(a) Fat synthesis (a) Phenolic (b) Terpene
(b) Protein synthesis (c) Purine (d) Indole
(c) Disease resistance (e) None of these
(d) Chlorophyll synthesis 11. Guttation is not favoured under
2. Photorespiration is high in (a) Low humidity
(a) Maize (b) Sugarcane (b) High humidity
(c) Pineapple (d) Rice (c) Low root pressure
(e) Potato (d) High humidity and low root pressure
3. Tick out which is not correctly matched (e) None of these
(a) Chloroplast - chlorophyll
12. The xylem and phloem elements in the plant are surrounded
(b) Chromoplast - red pigments
by a layer of living cells called
(c) Leucoplast - storage proteins
(a) Casparian strips (b) Pericycle
(d) Nucleolus - fat
(c) Stele (d) Endodermis
(e) None of these
4. Ribosomes are produced in
(a) ER (rough) (b) Nucleolus 13. A plant hormone, which is primary regulator of abscission
(c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast process is
(e) None of these (a) Ethylene (b) Auxin
5. Latent heat of vaporization (water to vapour) is (c) ABA (d) Gibberellins
(a) 80 cal (b) 540 cal (e) None of these
(c) 586 cal (d) 620 cal 14. Growing of plant in soilless nutrient solution is referred as
(e) 500 cal (a) Aeroponics (b) Hydroponics
6. Transpiration is measured by (c) Xeroponics (d) Thaloponics
(a) Lysimeter (b) Potometer (e) None of these
(c) Tensionmeter (d) Auxanometer 15. Most commonly grown crop plants are included in
(e) None of these (a) Halophytes (b) Glycophytes
7. Stomata are regulated by (c) Sciophytes (d) Xerophytes
(a) N (b) P (e) None of these
(c) K (d) Ca 16. Optimum temperature for maximum crop development in
(e) Na wheat is
8. Maximum density of water exists at (a) 10-15C (b) 20-25C
(a) 0C (b) 4C (c) 25-30C (d) 30-35C
(c) 40C (d) 100C (e) 5-10C
(e) 90C 17. Little leaf and rosette of apple, white bud of maize are
9. Plant lost water in transpiration upto the extent of the deficiency symptoms of
(a) 80% (b) 90% (a) Fe (b) Zn
(c) 95% (d) 99% (c) CI (d) Mo
(e) 85% (e) Al

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e
222 SPEED TEST 94
18. In citrus plant, die back disease is the result of deficiency of (c) CAM plant (d) C2 plants
(a) N (b) P (e) None of these
(c) Boron (d) Copper 30. For C3 plants, the optimum temperature for photosynthesis
(e) K is
19. Acid rains are due to which of the following gases? (a) 15 25C (b) 25 30C
(a) CO2 and CO (b) Ozone and CO2 (c) 30 47C (d) 35C
(c) NO2 and SO2 (d) NH3 and CO2 (e) 10 - 15C
(e) None of these 31. Respiratory quotient (RQ) for fatty acids is
20. Which one of the following is a most harmful pollutant by (a) 0.7 (b) 0.5
automobiles? (c) 1.33 (d) 2.0
(a) SO2 (b) CO (e) 2.5
(c) N2O (d) CO2 32. Krebs cycle produces
(e) NH3 (a) 18 ATP (b) 30 ATP
21. Callus is induced to form roots in the medium of
(c) 32 ATP (d) 36 ATP
(a) Auxin
(e) 10 ATP
(b) Cytokinins only
33. First time IAA from human urine was isolated by
(c) More cytokinins than auxin
(a) Kogl (b) Went
(d) More auxin than cytokinins
(c) Adns (d) Miller
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
22. Blue light is always less efficient in photosynthesis than
34. Polymer of cellulose is
(a) White (b) Red
(c) Orange (d) Violet (a) b - D glucose (b) a - glucose
(e) Green (c) Fructose (d) Glucose
23. Protein content in pulses ranges from (e) glucose
(a) 10 - 15% (b) 20 - 25% 35. Green house gas for global worming is
(c) 25 - 30% (d) 40 - 45% (a) O2 (b) CH4
(e) 15 - 20% (c) SO2 (d) CO2
24. Protein content of cereals ranges from (e) NH3
(a) 8 - 12% (b) 12 - 15% 36. Enzyme used to cut double stranded RNA is
(c) 15 - 20% (d) 20 - 25% (a) DNAase
(e) 1 - 8% (b) Reverse transcriptase
25. Natural inhibitor of IAA oxidases is (c) Restriction endonuclease
(a) Caffeic Acid (b) Coumaric acid (d) Lipase
(c) ABA (d) Lactic Acid 37. What is seed multiplication ratio in potato and groundnut
(e) None of these are, respectively?
26. How many ATP are required to produce 1 mole of hexose in (a) 1 : 4 and 1 : 8 (b) 1 : 8 and 1 : 4
photosynthesis? (c) 1 : 10 and 1 : 8 (d) 1 : 8 and 1 : 10
(a) 8 (b) 18 (e) 1 : 2 and 1 : 5
(c) 28 (d) 38 38. The term cybrid refers to the
(e) None of these (a) Somatic hybrids (b) Gametic hybrids
27. Which process is also known as glycolate pathway? (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Cell Division
(a) Photosynthesis (b) Respiration (e) None of these
(c) b - oxidation (d) Photorespiration 39. Pusa Arunima and Pusa Surya are new varieties of
(e) None of these (a) Mango (b) Guava
28. The transpiration ratio is highest for (c) Citrus (d) Ber
(a) C3 plants (b) C4 Plants (e) Brinjal
(c) CAM plants (d) C2 plants 40. Pusa Ratna is a new variety of
(e) None of these (a) Wheat (b) Bajra
29. Photosynthesis inhibited by 20% O2 in (c) Rice (d) Mungbean
(a) C3 plants (b) C4 plants (e) Potato

95 Environmental and Soil Sciences, Horticulture 95
1. Which element is considered as energy currency for the (c) 78% (d) 82%
plant? (e) 60%
(a) N (b) P 10. Which of the following is correct?
(c) K (d) Mo (a) P2O5 0.44 = P (b) P2O5 2.29 = P
(e) Cu (c) P2O5 0.83 = P (d) P2O5 1.20 = P
2. The purpling along the leaf edges is the characteristic (e) P2O5 0.22 = P
deficiency symptom of 11. Sulphur content (%) in potassium sulphate is
(a) P (b) K (a) 50 (b) 22
(c) B (d) Fe (c) 17 (d) 12
(e) Mo (e) 60
3. Fe is an important component of enzymes 12. Sodium adsorption ratio (SAR) can be calculated by using
(a) Nitrogenase (b) Nitrate reductase of formula
(c) Nitrite reductase (d) All of these (a) SAR = Na+ / Ca 2 + Mg 2+
(e) None of these
4. Fertilizers containing CI ions are not suitable for (b) SAR = Na+ / Ca 2 + Mg 2+ / 2
(a) Sugarcane (b) Potato
(c) Wheat (d) Pigeonpea (c) SAR = Ca2+ + Mg2+ / Na +
(e) Tomato (d) SAR = Na+ / Ca 2 + + K / 2
5. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter cause nitrification are an
(e) None of these
obligate
13. The exchangeable sodium ratio (ESR) can be calculated as
(a) Autotrophic bacteria (a) ESR = Exchangeable (C2+ + Mg2+ )/Exchangeable Na+
(b) Heterotrophic becteria (b) ESR = Exchangeable Na+ /
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Saprophytes Exchangeable (Ca 2+ + Mg 2 + )
6. Biuret in urea applied as a foliar spray in citrus fruits should (c) ESR = Exchangeable Na+/Exchangeable (Ca2+ + K+)
not be more than (d) ESR = Exchangeable Na+/Exchangeable (Ca2+ + Mg2+)
(a) 0.25% (b) 0.50% (e) None of these
(c) 0.75% (d) 1.50% 14. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(e) 1.00% Soil order Pronunciation
7. P content in DAP is (a) Entisols : Recent
(a) 20% (b) 36%
(b) Aridisols : Arid
(c) 46% (d) 50%
(c) Histosols : Organic
(e) 15%
8. Chemical formula of single superphosphate is (d) Vertisols : Pedalfor
(a) Ca (H2PO4) (b) CaHPO4 15. A clay soild must contain at least ......clay separate, to be
(c) Ca3 (PO4) (d) Ca (H2PO4) CaSO4 2H2O designated a clay
(e) CaPO4 (a) 70% (b) 80%
9. Concentration of nitrogen in soil air is (c) 40% (d) 35%
(a) 70% (b) 74% (e) 60%
224 SPEED TEST 95
16. Select the wrong pair from the following given below: (c) Ammonia (d) CO2
(a) Strengite : FePO4. 2H2O (e) N2
(b) Variscite : AlPO4. 2H2O 27. Mycorrhizae is the association of
(c) Gibbsite : Al2O3. 3H2O (a) Higher plants & fungi (b) Algae & fungi
(d) Hematite : FeOOH (c) Lower plants & fungi (d) Both (a) & (b)
(e) All of the above (e) None of these
17. Boron content in borax (suhaga) is 28. When was Ganga action plan launched?
(a) 11% (b) 25% (a) June 1985 (b) December 1985
(c) 19% (d) 39% (c) May 1984 (d) July 1984
(e) 20% (e) May 1980
18. The rate of weathering is generally high in 29. Pungency in chilli is due to presence of:
(a) Arid tropical climate (a) Capsaicin (b) Sulphur
(b) Arid temperate climate (c) Amides (d) Magnesium
(c) Humid tropical climate (e) Calcium
(d) Humid temperate climate 30. Browning in Cauliflower is due to deficiency/excess of:
(e) None of these (a) Boron (b) Nitrogen
19. Which one of the following pair is mismatched? (c) Copper (d) Molybdenum
(a) L value : Larsen (e) Aluminium
(b) Integrated soil test approach : Colwell 31. Best method of vegetative propagation in Aonla is:
(c) Biogas : Desai (a) Veneer grafting (b) Air layering
(d) Law of limiting factor : Lundegardh (c) Chip budding (d) Patch budding
(e) All of the above (e) None of these
20. Tick out the incorrect match: 32. Vegetative parthenocarpy is found in:
List I (Ore) List II (Mineral) (a) Grape (b) Banana
(a) Dolomite CaCO3. MgCO3 (c) Fig (d) Seedless guava
(b) Gibbsite AI2O3. 3H2O (e) None of these
(c) Gypsum CaSO4. 2H2O 33. In India the productivity of banana is highest in:
(d) Geothite Fe2O3 (a) West Bengal (b) Tamil Nadu
(e) All of above (c) Kerala (d) Maharastra
21. The main constituent of biogas is (e) Andhra Pradesh
(a) H2 (b) H2S 34. An ideal fruit for making jelly should be rich in
(c) N2 (d) CH4 (a) Pectin and sugars (b) Acids and proteins
(e) NH3 (c) Sugars and acids (d) Pectin and acids
22. Nalgonda technique is used for (e) None of these
(a) Chloride (b) Fluoride 35. In India, which of the following fruit has the highest
(c) Bromide (d) Cadmium production ?
(e) Sodium (a) Mango (b) Citrus
23. How many agro-climatic zones are found in India? (c) Banana (d) Grapes
(a) 15 (b) 16 (e) Apple
(c) 17 (d) 18 36. Leaf scorching in Mango is due to
(e) 25 (a) Chloride toxicity (b) Chloride deficiency
24. Which of the following anzymes is involved in the primary (c) N deficiency (d) P deficiency
carboxylation in C4 plants? (e) Fe
(a) RUBP Carboxylase (b) PEP 37. Black tip in mango is a physiological disorder due to
(c) Oxygenase (d) Carboxylase (a) Chloride toxicity (b) Carbon monoxide
(e) None of these (c) Deficiency of Mg (d) Excess Boron
25. The pH of normal rain is (e) Carbon dioxide
(a) 6.5 (b) 5.6 38. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(c) 4.6 (d) 3.6 (a) Phalsa : Tiliaceae
(e) 5.0 (b) Litchi : Sapindaceae
26. Which harmful gas is emitted by masonry building materials, (c) Apple : Rosaceae
even ground water ? (d) Mulberry : Apocynaceae
(a) H2S (b) Radon (e) All of the above

96 Agronomy, Entomology and Plant Pathology
1. Rice crop needs (c) U.P. (d) Bihar
(a) Warm and humid climate (e) Maharashtra
(b) Hot and humid climate 10. The best suited temperature for growth of sugarcane lies
(c) Dry and hot conditions between
(d) Cold and dry climate (a) 15 - 20C (b) 20 - 25C
(e) None of these (c) 26 - 32C (d) 32 - 35C
2. The genus oryza includes (e) 18 - 20C
(a) 14 speacies (b) 22 species 11. Consider the following pairs of crops and varieties and select
(c) 24 speacies (d) 30 species the pair which is not correctly matched.
(e) 15 speacies (a) Barley : Clipper
3. Productivity of rice is highest in (b) Cotton : Sujata
(a) Haryana (b) Punjab (c) Cowpea : Pusa Phalguni
(c) West Bengal (d) Uttar Pradesh (d) Green gram : UPAS 120
(e) Bihar (e) All of the above
4. Photoperiodically, rice is a type of ......... plant 12. Botanical name of Ragi is
(a) Long day (b) Short day (a) Eleusine coracana (b) Echinochloa frumentacea
(c) Day neutral (d) Intermediate (c) Panicum miliacium (d) Eleusine panica
5. For transplanting one hectare area of rice how much area is 13. Stomata closing can be induced by
sufficient for nursery raising (a) Kaoline (b) Linseed oil
(a) 100 m2 (b) 500 m2 (c) 2, 4 - D (d) PMA
(c) 100 m2 (d) 1500 m2 (e) None of these
(e) 700 m 2 14. Virachola isocrates is a fruit pest of :
(a) Mango (b) Citrus
6. Dead heart and white head damage to rice is caused by
(c) Apple (d) Pomegranate
(a) Gall midge (b) Leaf roller
(e) Banana
(c) Army worm (d) Stem borer
15. Callosobruchus chinensis is storage pest of :
(e) None of these
(a) Wheat (b) Gram
7. Gene responsible for dwarfing characters in rice is
(c) Rice (d) Groundnut
(a) Tift 23 A (b) Dee-gee-woo-gen (e) Maize
(c) Norin - 10 (d) Opaque - 2 16. Certain secretions attract the opposite sex of the same species
(e) Opaque - 1 which are termed as:
8. Directorate of Wheat Research (DWR) is located at (a) Hormones (b) Kairomones
(a) Hyderabad (b) New Delhi (c) Synomones (d) Pheromones
(c) Karnal (d) Bikaner (e) Enzymes
(e) Lucknow 17. Following insecticide is safely recommended on vegetables
9. Which state has the largest acreage and highest production (a) Carbaryl (b) Aldicarb
of sugarcane in country? (c) Endrin (d) Malathion
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka (e) Eldrin
16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e
226 SPEED TEST 96
18. Following insecticide belongs to organophosphate group (c) Endosulfan (d) Meta aldehyde
(a) Sulphur (b) Carbofuran (e) Phorate
(c) Malathion (d) Endosulfan 29. Highly evolved insect order is
(e) None of these (a) Hymenoptera (b) Coleoptera
19. Aphids and white flies are effectively controlled by (c) Hemiptera (d) Diptera
(a) Fumigants (b) Stomach poisons (e) None of these
(c) Contact insecticides (d) Systemic insecticide 30. Which pesticide is suitable for controlling the white grub ?
(e) Respiratory insecticides (a) Malathion (b) Chlorpyriphos
20. The spotted boll worm is (c) Phorate (d) Aldicarb
(a) Earias vittella (e) Endosulfan
(b) Earias insulana 31. Tundu disease (yellow ear rot) of wheat caused by
(c) Helicoverpa armigera Clavibacter tritici is usually associated with
(d) Pectinophora gossypiella (a) Heterodera evenae
21. Sugarcane is recently infested by following wooly aphid - (b) Anguina tritici
(a) Caratovacuno lanigera (c) Meloidogyne incognita
(b) Eriosoma lanigera (d) Pratylenchulus sp.
(c) Aphis gossypii 32. Tick out the sexual spores of fungi
(d) Lipaphis spp. (a) Chlamydospores (b) Sporangiospores
(e) None of these (c) Zoospores (d) Zygospores
22. Nicotine cause failure of nervous system and commercially (e) None of these
available as 33. The black wart disease of potato specially confined to
(a) Nicotine sulphate (b) Nicotine phosphate Darjeeling hills is caused by pathogen
(c) Nicotine (d) Acetylcholine (a) Synchytrium endobioticum
(e) Nicotine phosphide (b) Plasmodiophora brassicae
23. Which of the following pairs is not correct? (c) Sclerospora sorghi
Insecticide Trade name (d) Plasmopora viticola
(a) Endosulfan Thiodan (e) None of these
(b) Chlorpyriphos Dursban 34. The disease caused by Leptosphaeria sacchari in
(c) Dimethoate Rogor sugaracane is
(d) Phorate Nuvacron (a) Red rot (b) Black rot
(e) All of the above (c) Ring spot (d) Brown rot
24. Central Insecticides Laboratory (CIL) is located at: (e) None of these
(a) Gurgaon (b) Faridabad 35. The symptoms of powdery mildew of pea (caused by
(c) Ghaziabad (d) Kanpur Erysiphe polygoni) first appears on
(e) Noida (a) Stem (b) Roots
25. Transgenic crop which have highest area in world is: (c) Leaves (d) Flowers
(a) Soybean (b) Maize (e) Buds
(c) Cotton (d) Mustard 36. Wilt of pigeonpea is caused by
(e) Gram (a) Fusarium udum (b) Gibberella indica
26. Father of insect physiology is (c) Rhizopus nigricans (d) Aspergillus flavus
(a) Starling (b) R.H. Painter (e) None of these
(c) Wigglesworth (d) Snodgrass 37. The pathogen of rice blast or rotten neck is
(e) Kuhn (a) Ustilago tritici (b) Pyricularia oryszae
27. Silver fish belonging to the order (c) Alternaria alternata (d) Plasmopora viticola
(a) Protura (b) Hymenoptera (e) None of these
(c) Thysanura (d) Pronura 38. In India the leaf rust of coffee was first time recorded in
(e) None of these (a) 1856 (b) 1870
28. Common mollusicide is (c) 1880 (d) 1943
(a) Chlorphyriphos (b) Atropine (e) 1945

b b b b b
38. a b c d e
97 Fisheries, Veterinary Science and Animal Husbandry

1. Fresh water prawns yield eggs @ (c) Bombay duck (d) Tuna
(a) 100 nos./g (b) 500 nos./g (e) Scoliodon
(c) 1000 nos./g (d) 5000 nos./g 11. Indian river prawn is associated with
(e) 1500 nos/g (a) M. rosenbergii (b) M. lameraii
2. The inland fish production is almost how much % of total (c) M. malcomsonii (d) M. idea
fish production in India (e) None of these
(a) Over 50 % (b) 30 % 12. The national fish of India is
(c) 20 % (d) 40 % (a) Rastrelliger kanagurta
(b) Labeo rohita
(e) 35%
(c) Catla catla
3. Minamata Bay disease in Japan happened due to (d) Clarias batrachus
(a) Methyl mercury (b) Cadmium poisoning (e) None of these
(c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Methyl isocyanides 13. The fertilized eggs of Catla take about _ to _ hrs for hatching
(e) None of these at 30C
4. Indian hill trout is (a) 10 to 12 (b) 12 to 14
(a) Schizothorax (b) Rohu (c) 14 to 18 (d) 18 to 24
(c) Marieus bola (d) Catla (e) 4 ot 16
(e) None of these 14. Match the following
5. For spawning of 1 kg of carp, how much water is required in 1 LH - RH-A A. Minnow
hatchery 2 Lates calcarifer B. Salmon
(a) 1 m3 (b) 10 m3 3 Pangasius pangasius C. Toxicant
(c) 50 m 3 (d) 80 m3 4 Azolla D. Insect
(e) 5m 3 5 Calcium carbide E. Feritilizer
6. Larvae of fresh water mussle (L. marginalis) is 6 Smolt F. Predator
(a) Tocophor (b) Pedivelligen 7 Esomus dandricus G.. Nitrogen fixation
8 Potamogeton H. Reproduction
(c) Glochidium (d) Spat 9 Anisops I. Grass carp
(e) None of these 10 Biogas slurry J. Molluscs
7. Widely distributed and cultured fish species in world is
Answers of matching
(a) Silver carp (b) Grass carp
(c) Common carp (d) L. rohita (a) 1 H, 2 F, 3 J, 4 G, 5 C, 6 B, 7 A, 8 I, 9 D, 10 E
(e) Golden carp (b) 1 A, 2 J, 3 F, 4 E, 5 C, 6 I, 7 H, 8 D, 9 B, 10 G
(c) 1 F, 2 J, 3 H, 4 G, 5 C, 6 B, 7 A, 8 I, 9 D, 10 E
8. Central Institute of Fresh water Aquaculture is located at
(d) 1 H, 2 F, 3 H, 4 C, 5 B, 6 G, 7 I, 8 A, 9 E, 10 D
(a) W.B (b) Bihar (e) 1 J, 2 B, 3 A, 4 C, 5 D, 6 E, 7 F, 8 G, 9 H, 10 I
(c) M.P. (d) Bihar 15. Match the following :
(e) Orrisa Product Protein
9. The main causative agent of Epizootic Ulcerative Syndorme (A) Milk (i) Keratin
(EVS) is (B) Egg (ii) Myosin
(a) Aphanomyces invadens (C) Meat (iii) Casein
(b) A. hydrophilla (D) Wool (iv) Albumen
(c) Pseudomonas maxima (a) A iv B ii C iii Di
(d) Myxobolus cyprini (b) A i B iii C iv D ii
(e) None of these (c) A iii B iv C ii Di
10. Species contributing largest to fish catch in India (d) A ii B iv C iii Di
(a) Indian mackerel (b) Sardin (e) A ii B iii C i D iv
228 SPEED TEST 97
(a) Zein (b) Lactalbumin
16. Highest milk producing country in the world is (c) Casein (d) Albumin
(a) USA (b) CIS (e) Lasein
(c) Switzerland (d) India 28. First clone Dolly was made in
(e) England (a) Sheep (b) Goat
17. Match of following : (c) Cow (d) Buffalo
Revolutions Related to (e) Horse
(a) White (i) Fishery 29. Maximum producer of wool
(b) Blue (ii) Agriculture (a) Rajasthan (b) Haryana
(c) Yellow (iii) Milk (c) U.P. (d) Punjab
(d) Green (iv) Oil seeds (e) Himachal
(a) A iii B iv C ii Di 30. Temperature for LTLT pasteurization
(b) A ii B iii C i D iv (a) 61 - 63C (b) 42 - 49C
(c) A iv B ii C i D iii (c) 62 - 65C (d) 51 - 65C
(d) A iii B i C iv D ii (e) 50 -55C
(e) A i B iii C ii D iv 31. Maximum sheep population in
18. Mycology is a study of (a) USA (b) Australia
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) UK (d) India
(c) Fungi (d) Parasites (e) China
(e) plants 32. Ranikhet is a ..........disease.
19. Antibiotics are products of (a) Viral (b) Nematode
(a) Bacteria and fungi (c) Bacterial (d) Fungal
(b) Fungi and parasites (e) Viroidal
(c) Parasites and bacteria 33. Egg shell made up of
(d) Fungi and viruses (a) Ca(OH)2 (b) Ca3(PO4)2
(e) None of these (c) CaCO3 (d) CaO
20. Bird flu is caused by (e) CaCl2
(a) Avian adenovirus (b) Avian influenza virus 34. Yellow colour of egg is due to
(c) Avian poxvirus (d) Avian leucosis virus (a) Carotene (b) Anthocyanin
(e) Avian bacteria
(c) Vitamin B (d) Xanthophyll
21. Photoreceptors (Rods and cones) of eye are present in
(e) Vitamin C
(a) Sclera (b) Cornea
35. Gestation period of cow is ....... days.
(c) Retina (d) Pupil
(a) 283 - 285 (b) 290 - 292
(e) Lens
22. Let down of milk is initiated by the hormone (c) 142 - 145 (d) 152 - 154
(a) Prolactin (b) Lactogen (e) 270 - 280
(c) Oxytocin (d) Lactopoietin 36. Mareks disease found in
(e) None of these (a) Cattle (b) Poultry
23. Cattle and buffalo belongs to family (c) Sheep (d) Goat
(a) Bovidae (b) Suidae (e) Horse
(c) Equidae (d) Cammelidae 37. Tallest breed of sheep
(e) None of these (a) Deccani (b) Bikaneri
24. Surathi buffalo breed is a native or (c) Nellore (d) Nilgiri
(a) Orissa (b) W.B. (e) None of these
(c) U.P. (d) Gujarat 38. Worlds ..... % buffalo are found in India
(e) M.P (a) 30 (b) 20
25. Maximium fat (%) in milk of (c) 40 (d) 50
(a) Murrah (b) Mehsana (e) 60
(c) Bhadawari (d) Zafrabadi 39. Indian Veterinary Research Institute is located at
(e) None of these (a) Delhi (b) Karnal
26. Highest milk yielder is (c) Izatnagar (d) Jhansi
(a) Murrah (b) Mehsana (e) Lucknow
(c) Zafrabadi (d) Bhadawari 40. Ovarian cycle in cow and buffalo is
(e) None of these (a) 30 days (b) 27 days
27. Cow milks protein is called (c) 21 days (d) 28 days
(e) 25 days
b b b b b
98 Agricultural Engineering and Seed Technology

1. Haryali yojna is related to 9. Calorific value of high speed diesel is ______ kcal/kg.
(a) Soil management (b) Water management (a) 9,500 (b) 10,550
(c) Crop Management (d) Air management (c) 11,550 (d) 12,500
(e) Pesticides management (e) 9,000
2. ________Sugar found in germinating seed in large amount. 10. The requirement of air for full combustion of 1 kg fuel in S.I.
(a) Maltose (b) Sucrose engine is about _____ kg.
(c) Cellobiase (d) Lactose (a) 12.5 (b) 14.2
(e) Fructose (c) 15.1 (d) 17.6
3. Maximum moisture content for safe storage in wheat seed is (e) 13.2
(a) 12 (b) 15 11. Normal consumption of fuel in litres/hour by a 35 hp tractor
(c) 7 (d) 20 is:
(e) None of these (a) 2 . 5 (b) 3 . 0
4. Murate of potash is (c) 3 5 . (d) 4 . 0
(a) K2SO4 (b) KCI (e) 4.5
(c) KNO3 (d) K2HPO4 12. If S is slip and Va is the actual trvel speed and Vt is theoretical
(e) KNO2
wheel speed then
5. Loose smut is
(a) S = (Vt Va)/ Vt (b) S = 1 Vt / Va
(a) Internally seed borne
(c) S = Va / Vt (d) S = Vt /Va
(b) Externally seed borne
(e) None of these
(c) Air borne
13. Disc angle in disc plough is :
(d) Water borne
(a) 30 35 (b) 34 37
(e) None of these
6. Gauch - 1 is a variety of (c) 38 40 (d) 42 45
(a) Castor (b) Groundnut (e) 35 40
(c) Sesamum (d) Soybean 14. The upper safe noise level for machine operator is:
(e) Pea (a) 85 db (b) 100 db
7. The cutter bar of a tractor operated onower makes____ (c) 110 db (d) 115 db
strokes/min. (e) 70 db
(a) 400 500 (b) 500 750 15. A reaper is used for :
(c) 800 1200 (d) 1250 1500 (a) cutting crop
(e) 500 600 (b) cutting and windrowing
8. Power operated Paddy transplanter is being manufactured (c) cutting and threshing
in India by (d) Cutting grass
(a) M/s Escorts Ltd. (e) None of these
(b) M/s Mitsubishi Ltd. 16. Sub soilders are operated at maximum depth of :
(c) M/s Eicher tractors Ltd. (a) 30 40 cm (b) 45 75 cm
(d) M/s Mahindra Ltd. (c) 75 90 cm (d) 10 20 cm
(e) None of these (e) 50 60 cm
16. a b c d e
230 SPEED TEST 98
17. For operating rotavator in trashy soils, which lines are better? (a) 0 5 to 2 0 cycles/s (b) 2 0 to 4 . 0 cycles/s
. . .
(a) L - shaped (b) Hook shaped (c) 4 . 0 to 6 . 0 cycles/s (d) 3.0 to 5.0 cycles/s
(c) Backward curved (d) Straight blade (e) None of the above
(e) C-shaped 27. Pressure angle in spur gears ranges :
18. Soil strength is determined by: (a) 0 5 (b) 5 10
(a) Penetrometer (b) Micrometer
(c) Hydrometer (d) Dynamometer 1
(c) 14 20 (d) 20 25
(e) Hygrometer 2
19. Compression pressure in petro engine cylinder is : (e) 4 9
(a) 6 10 kg/cm2
28. Weight transfer is denoted is :
(b) 10 20 kg/cm2
(c) 20 35 kg/cm2 (P h) (P X)
(a) W= (b) W=
(d) 35 45 kg/cm2 X h
(e) 8 13 kg/cm2
20. Length of cutter bar for the tractor operated mower or vertical (X h) P
(c) W= (d) W=
conveyor reaper is P (h X)
(a) 1 . 5 3 . 0 m (b) 3 . 0 4 . 5 m
. .
(c) 4 5 5 5 m (d) > 5 5 m (e) None of these
(e) 2.0 4.0 m 29. In a C.I. engine, the compressor pressure inside the cylinder
21. The compression ratio of diesel engines are in the order of: normally in the range of ........kg/cm2 :
(a) 4 to 8 : 1 (b) 9 to 13 : 1 (a) 15 25 (b) 25 35
(c) 1 to 20 : 1 (d) 21 to 30 : 1 (c) 35 45 (d) 45 35
(e) 2 to 5 : 2 (e) 10 15
22. Large tilt angle is best for : 30. Main combustible constituent of biogas is :
(a) Hard soil (a) Methane (b) Ethane
(b) Sticky and non scouring soil
(c) Butane (d) Carbon dioxide
(c) Dry and cemented soil
(e) Ammonia
(d) Soft soil
31. Towed force can be given by :
23. The movement of soil across a tool surface without sticking Tf 1.21
= + 0.04
is called as: (a) w Cn
(a) Pulverisation (b) Inversion
(c) Scouring (d) Turning 1.21
Tf = + 0.04
Cn
(e) None of these (b)
24. Electrical resistance of a thermistor:
(a) Increases as the temperature increases
1.21
(b) Decreases as the temperature increases Tf = + 0.046
Cn
(c)
(c) Remains unaffected with change in temperature
(d) Increases at low temperature and decreases at high
(d) T f = 1.24W + 0.046
temperature
25. V - shaped sweeps are best suited for : 32. An adiabatic process takes place at :
(a) Primary tillage (a) Constant heat (b) Constant enthalpy
(b) Stubble mulch tillage (c) constant temperature(d) Constant pressure
(c) Rotary tillage (e) None of these
(d) Minimum tillage 33. Heavy draft of a disc plough is due to :
(e) Secondary tillage (a) Blunt disc (b) Furrows too wide
26. A tractor seat suspension should have its natural frequency (c) Loose bearings (d) Sharp disc
is the range of : (e) None of these

32. a b c d e 33. a b c d e
99 Government Sponsored Schemes and Agricultural Finance
99
1. In principle of increasing risk, the nonequity capital used 10. Deficit financing means
will be (a) Relying on foreign aid
(a) At increasing rate (b) At decreasing rate (b) Spending by borrowing
(c) At constant rate (d) (a) & (b) (c) Not spending for development
(e) None of these (d) Spending excess of revenue
2. Choose the best measure to find worthiness of investment (d) None of these
(a) Pay back period (b) B-C ratio 11. Effective rate of protection for domestic country is calculated by
(c) NPV (d) IRR t - ar 1+ a
(a) e = (b) e =
(e) None of these 1+ a t - ar
3. In the rational region of production function, choice of t - ar 1- a
indicator is (c) e = (d) e =
(a) Factor - factor price ratio 1- a t - ar
(b) Factor - product price ratio t + ar
(e) e =
(c) Product - proudct price ratio a +1
(d) Factor - product quantity 12. SDRs came into effect from
4. When MC is at lowest, MP will be (d) 1990 (e) 1955
(a) Decreasing (b) Maximum 13. Stagflation is referred to
(c) Increasing (d) Minimum (a) High unemployment and high growth
(e) Constant (b) High employment and high growth
5. Marketable surplus is given by (c) High unemployment and low growth
(a) MS = P + C (b) MS = P + C/2 (d) High growth and low employment
(c) MS = P C (d) MS = C P 14. If liberal monetary policy is undertaken, then
(e) MS = P C (a) LM curve shifts right (b) LM curve shifts left
6. Present value of future money is calculated by use of : (c) IS curve shifts right (d) IS curve shifts left
P P (e) None of these
(a) (b) 15. GNP deflator is
(1 + i) t
(1 + t)i
t (a) Nominal GNP/Nominal GDP
1 (b) Nominal GNP/Real GNP
(c) P ( 1 + i )t (d) P 1 +
i (c) Nominal GNP/Real GDP
(e) None of these (d) Real GNP/Nominal GDP
7. What is bullet loan? (e) None of these
(a) Single repayment loan, having amortization 16. Mahalwari system was introduced by
(b) Single repayment loan, having no amortization (a) William Bentinck (b) Lord Curzon
(c) Multi repayment loan, having amortization (c) Thomas Munro (d) Dalhousie
(d) Multi repayment loan, having no amortization (e) Warren Hastings
(e) None of these 17. Law of subsitution is given by
8. Consumer is neither worse off nor better off than before in (a) Marshall (b) Smith (c) Gossen
(a) Hicks substitution effect (d) Pigon (e) None of these
(b) Marshall substitution effect 18. Monopoly receives entire consumer surplus
(c) Shitsky substitution effect (a) First degree (b) Second degree
(d) Ratchet substitution effect (c) third degree (d) Fourth degree
(d) None of these (e) Fifth degree
9. Estimates of national income in India are annually prepared by 19. When MPP is zero
(a) RBI (b) CSO (a) MC is maximum (b) MC become vertical
(c) National Income Committer (c) MC is minimum (d) MC becomes horizontal
(d) Planning Commission (e) SBI (e) None of these

232 SPEED TEST 99
20. When the demand curve is relatively flatter, then demand is 30. Arithmetic mean and variance are always equal in
(a) Relatively inelastic (b) Relatively elastic (a) Normal distribution (b) Poisson distribution
(c) Unitary elastic (d) All (c) Binomial (d) All of these
21. The resources use efficiency in agriculture is measured by
(a) Summation of production elasticities 31. c2 is calculated by the help of formula
c2 = ( O - E ) / E
(b) Ratio of opportunity cost to marginal value product 2
(a)
(c) Regression coefficient
(d) Least cost combination (b) c2 = ( O - E ) /(E)2
(e) Highest cost combination
c2 = ( O - E ) / O
2
22. Which one of the following pairs of characteristics and (c)
institutional arrangement is not correctly matched? c2 = ( E - O) / (O)2
2
(d)
(a) Individual ownership and individual Better
operatorship of land farming (e) c2 = ( E - O) /E
(b) Individual ownership and collective Cooperative 32. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
operatorship of land joint farming (a) Etawah pilot project - Albert Mayer
(c) Collective ownership and individual Cooperative (b) Crow more food campaign - J.L. Nehru
operatorship of land tenant farming (c) Co-operative movement - M. K
(d) Collective ownership and individual Collective (d) Sewagram Project - Vinoba Bhave
operatorship of land Farming (e) White Revolution - Smith
23. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using 33. The first KVK was established in 1974 at :
code given below: (a) Nagpur (b) Nilokheri (c) Ludhiana
List I List II (d) Pondichery (e) Kanpur
(Act/order) (Year) 34. The full form of A.T.M.A. is:
A. Prevention of food adulteration act 1. 1967 (a) Agriculture Technology Management association
B. Fruit products order act 2. 1975 (b) Agriculture Technology Management Agency
C. Solvent extracted oil (control) order 3. 1954 (c) Agriculture Technology Mission Agency
D. Vegetable oil products 4. 1956 (d) Agriculture Technology Monitoring Agency
A B C D A B C D (d) None of these
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 1 2 35. Method of mass communication is :
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 (a) Demonstration (b) Farm visit
(e) 3 4 2 1 (c) Group discussion (d) News paper
24. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development came (e) T.V.
into existence on 36. Kisan Bharti periodical is published from:
(a) July 12, 1982 (b) July 22, 1984 (a) Delhi (b) Lucknow (c) Hisar
(c) October 15, 1986 (d) August 10, 1983
(d) Pant Nagar (e) Kanpur
(e) July 5, 1982
25. Value added Tax is a/an 37. Sevagarm attempt was started under the supervision of :
(a) Direct tax (b) Indirect tax (a) F.L. Bryne (b) R.N. Tagore
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Can not be classified (c) J.L. Nehru (d) M.K. Gandhi
(e) None of these (e) Indira Gandhi
26. Inflation is measured by 38. Panchayati Raj was first time started on 2nd October, 1959 in:
(a) WPI (b) CPI (a) Bombay (Maharastra)
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) PPI (b) Nagaur (Rajasthan)
(e) None of these (c) Shimla (Himachal Pradesh)
27. The most frequent occurred value of data or whose (d) Patna (Bihar)
frequency is maximum is known as (e) Kanpur (U.P)
(a) Arithmetic mean (b) Mode (c) Median 39. Extension is :
(d) GM (e) Mean deviation (a) education for all village people
28. Which measure of central tendency requir es data
(b) teaching through learning by doing and seeing is
arrangement in ascending or descending order for its
estimation? believing
(a) Arithmetic mean (b) Median (c) two way channel
(c) Mode (d) Harmonic mean (d) All of these
(e) GM (d) None of these
29. The mean of the binomial distribution is 40. Which of the following scheme is exclusively meant for sefl-
employment for rural youths ?
(a) np (b) npq (c) npq (a) NREP (b) TRYSEM (c) IRDP
(d) (e) None of these (d) DPAP (e) ATMA
pq
RESPONSE
40. a b c d e
100 Section Test: Professional Knowledge (Agriculture)
1. Dry farming in India is extensively practised in 7. Excavated ponds are constructed advantageously in
(a) Punjab plains (b) Deccan region ______areas for run off collection.
(c) Kanara plains (d) Coromendal plains (a) Hilly (b) Flat
(e) North plains (c) Both of these (d) Desert
2. Which is the main source of irrigation of agriculture land in (e) None of these
India? 8. Supplementary pollination is recommended in :
(a) Tanks (b) River (a) Sunflower (b) Soyabean
(c) Wells (d) Canals (c) Mustard (d) Groundnut
3. The state with highest production of large cardamom in India 9. The ratio between area of crop irrigated and quantity of
is water applied to crop is termed as :
(a) Meghalaya (b) Arunachal Pradesh (a) Duty (b) Delta
(c) Sikkim (d) Assam (c) Base period (d) Irrigation quotient
(e) Kerala (e) None of these
4. Which crop is sown in the largest area in M.P.? 10. Which of these species of Rhizobium is classified under
(a) Jowar (b) Soyabeen slow growing type ?
(c) Rice (d) Wheat (a) R. mililoti (b) R. trifolli
(e) Maize (c) R. lupini (d) R. leguminosarum
5. Which of these amino acids are present in Quality Protein (e) None of these
Maize in higher quantities?
11. What is the seed rate of isabgol ?
(a) Histidine and isoleucine
(a) 6-8 kg/ha (b) 10-12 kg/ha
(b) Leucine and methionine
(c) 13-15 kg/ha (d) 18-20 kg/ha
(c) Threonine and valine (e) 20 20 kg/ha
(d) Lysine and tryptophane 12. How much percent of its urea requirement is met through
(e) None of these indigenous production by India ?
6. How many three budded sets will be required for planting (a) 65 (b) 75
two hectare sugarcane crop? (c) 85 (d) 95
(a) 20,000 - 25,000 (e) 80
(b) 30,000 - 40,000 13. The growth regulator that stimulates cell elongation is :
(c) 70,000 - 80, 000 (a) Ethylene (b) Abscissic acid
(d) 90, 000 - 1,00,000 (c) Cytokinin (d) Auxin
GRID
234 SPEED TEST 100
14. Golden rice was designed to produce _______, a precursor 22. The first step in traversing for mapping is :
of Vitamin A. (a) Study of geology of area
(a) Beta carotene (b) Alfa carotene (b) Field mapping of area
(c) Gamma carotene (d) Zeta carotene (c) Reconnaissance surveying of area
15. In India, highest productivity (kg/ha) of bajara is in the state (d) Observing relief of area
of : (e) None of these
(a) Rajasthan (b) Haryana 23. Upon flooding, the phosphorus availability in soil :
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh (a) Increases
(e) Punjab (b) Decreases
16. The other name of IRS-P6, a state-of-art satellite mainly for (c) First increases then decreases
agricultural application is :
(d) First decreases then increases
(a) RESOURCESAT-1 (b) RESOURCESAT-2
(e) None of these
(c) CARTOSAT-2B (d) RISAT-2
24. The most practical method of Anonla propagation is :
(e) RISAT-4
(a) By seeds (b) Budding
17. In which of the following crops, calcium nutrition is of greater
(c) Grafting (d) Cutting
significance?
(e) None of these
(a) Mustard (b) Soyabean
25. In India fully ripened and dehydrated development stage of
(c) Groundnut (d) Sunflower
date palm is termed as :
(e) Wheat
(a) Gandora (b) Doka
18. Detachment and transport of soil particles by a concentrated
(c) Dang (d) Pind
flow of water is called :
(e) Daung
(a) Raindrop erosion (b) Sheet erosion
26. Which of these varieties is of Shima Mirchi ?
(c) Interrill erosion (d) Rill erosion
(a) Yolo wonder (b) Pusa jwala
(e) None of these
(c) Jawahar-218 (d) Phule jyoti
19. Spraying of kaoline reduces transpiration from leaf surface
(e) Jawahar-200
by :
27. For small seeded types, the seed rate (kg/ha) of water melon
(a) Stomatal closure
is :
(b) Forming a film
(a) 1 - 1.5 (b) 2 - 2.5
(c) Increased reflectance
(c) 3 - 3.5 (d) 4 - 4.5
(d) Increased hydration
(e) 5 - 5.5
20. The worldwide radio-navigation system formed by a
28. Which of these planting system of orchards has the provision
constellation of 24 satellites is :
of quick growing and early maturing filler trees :
(a) GIS (b) GPS
(a) Hexagonal (b) Triangular
(c) VRT (d) DSS (c) Rectangular (d) Quincunx
21. With which of the following crops, Cichorium intybus weed 29. Which part of the groundnut plants, the grubs of Holotrichia
is associated ? consanguinea eat?
(a) Berseem (b) Wheat (a) Roots (b) Stem
(c) Oat (d) Napier grass (c) Flowers (d) Leaves
(e) None of these (e) Fruits

29. a b c d e
SPEED TEST 100 235
30. The use of DDT in agriculture was withdrawn by the 38. In transgenic soyabean, which gene produces ESPS that is
government in the year: relatively insensitive to glyphosate ?
(a) 1979 (b) 1989 (a) aroA (b) dw1
(c) 1999 (d) 2009 (c) rbsS (d) Cry
(e) 1990 (e) aro B
31. What is the threshold level of nymphs per leaf of cotton 39. The incubation period of Rinderpest disease in cattle is of
jassid to undertake spraying of insecticides? how many days?
(a) 1-2 (b) 3-4 (a) 8-10 (b) 3-7
(c) 5-6 (d) 7-8 (c) 1-3 (d) 13-15
(e) 8-9 (e) 7-12
32. The Plant Qurantine (Regulation of Import into India) order
40. Polyvalent tissue culture vaccine is used against disease
was passed in the year :
of cattle ?
(a) 1914 (b) 1947
(a) Rinderpest
(c) 1993 (d) 2003
(b) Foot and Mouth
(e) 2005
(c) Anthrax
33. Cereal Cyst Nematode is :
(d) Black quarter
(a) Heterodera avene
(b) Angunia tritia (e) None of these
(c) Globodera pallida 41. Which of these is the biggest goat breed ?
(d) Meloidogyne incognita (a) Jamunapari (b) Surti
(e) None of these (c) Mehsana (d) Marwari
34. Green ear disease of pearl-millet is characterized by : (e) None of these
(a) Gall formation 42. Which of these is superior most system of grazing
(b) Honey secretion management of animals in grasslands ?
(c) Rotting of ear (a) Continuous grazing
(d) Bunchy appearance (b) Deferred grazing
(e) None of these (c) Rotational grazing
35. The white blister disease in crucifers is caused by : (d) Deferred rotational grazing
(a) Alternaria brassicicola (e) None of these
(b) Albugo candida 43. The density of water at 25C temperature is :
(c) Bacillus cereus (a) 9970.75 kg/m3
(d) Fusarium oxysporum
(b) 997.075 kg/m3
36. When two species of same genus are crossed, it is called
(c) 99.7075 kg/m3
hybridization.
(d) 9.97075 kg/m3
(a) Interspecific (b) Intraspecific
(e) 900.00 kg/m3
(c) Intervarietal (d) Intercolonial
44. Which of these is not a fresh water fish ?
(e) Intracolonial
37. What degree of inbreeding depression is generally shown (a) Salmon
by self pollinated crops ? (b) Catla
(a) High (b) Moderate (c) Mystus
(c) Low (d) Almost nil (d) Garmbusia

RESPONSE
GRID
236 SPEED TEST 100
45. Which of the following statements about NABARD is are (a) 1999 (b) 2000
true? (c) 2001 (d) 2005
(1) NABARD has a dual role as it is an apex body and a (e) 2002
refinance institution.
48. Lab to land programme started on
(2) NABARD service as a refinance institution and
(a) 15 June 1979 (b) 10 June 1979
provides investment credit to agriculture and cottage
and village industries (c) 1 June 1979 (d) 25 June 1979
(3) NABARD accepts deposits to improve its capitals (e) 20 June 1979
(4) None of these 49. K.V.K. was recommended by ______in 1974.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Shah commission
(c) 3 only (d) 1 & 2 (b) Ramaswami committee
(e) All of the above (c) Vijay kelkar committee
46. NFSM was started in the year_____ (d) M.S. Mehta committee
(a) 2002 (b) 2003 (e) None of these
(c) 2004 (d) 2007 50. Where was first KVK established ?
(e) 2008 (a) Chandigarh
47. Sampoorn Grammeen Rojgar Yojana (SGRY) was started (b) Kolkata
in_____year. (c) Pondicherry
(d) Port Blair
(e) None of these

101 Full Test : IBPS Specialist Officer
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE Directions (Qs. 11 - 15) : In each of the following questions a

number series is given. Only one number is wrong in each series.
Directions (Qs. 1-5): What value should come in place of question Find out that wrong number, and taking this wrong number as
mark (?) in the following equations? the first term of the second series formed following the same
1. 4.78% of 1255 + 3.24% of 440 = 0.5% of ? logic, find out the third term of the second series.
(a) 14260 (b) 14492 (c) 14636 (d) 14849 11. 1 2 8 21 88 445
(e) 15002 (a) 24.5 (b) 25 (c) 25.5 (d) 25
2. (128.5 64) + (13.8 465) = ? 25 (e) None of these
(a) 524.48 (b) 556.02 (c) 574.36 (d) 585.64 12. 6 7 18 63 265 1365
(e) 596.16 (a) 530 (b) 534 (c) 526 (d) 562
1
= (2)? (e) None of these
(4)3.7 (8)12 (32)1
3.
(8)-3 13. 7 23 58 127 269 555
(a) 0.2 (b) 1.8 (c) 2.6 (d) 3.2 (a) 263 (b) 261 (c) 299 (d) 286
(e) 4.8 (e) None of these
14. 5 4 9 18 66 195
4056 ? (a) 12 (b) 25 (c) 20 (d) 18
4. =
? 7776 (e) None of these
(a) 5612 (b) 5616 (c) 5620 (d) 5624 15. 2 7 28 146 877 6140
(e) 5628 (a) 242 (b) 246 (c) 252 (d) 341
(e) None of these
2 3 5
5. of of of 51975 = ? Directions (Qs. 16-20): Study the following Pie-chart and the
7 11 9
table given below it carefully to answer these questions.
(a) 1980 (b) 2110 (c) 2160 (d) 2250
(e) 2300 Percentage-wise Distribution of lecturers in six different
subjects in a university
Directions (Qs. 6-10): Find out the approximate value which Total Number of Lecturers: 1600
should replace the question mark (?) in the following questions. Percentage of Lecturers
(You are not expected to find out the exact value).
Chemistry
13%
6. 953.7 950.9989 = 95?
Zoology
(a) 1.9 (b) 3 (c) 2.99 (d) 3.6 22% Education
(e) 2.7 18%
3.001 Physics Hindi
7. 1000 + of 1891.992 = ? 14% 12%
4.987
(a) 2500 (b) 1230 (c) 1640 (d) 1525 Mathematics
21%
(e) 2130
8. 0.0004 0.0001 36.000009 = ? Ratio of male to Female Lecturers in the University
(a) 0.10 (b) 1.45 (c) 145 (d) 14.5 Lecturers Males Females
(e) 1450 Mathematics 3 4
9. 137% of 12345 = ? Education 5 3
(a) 17000 (b) 15000 (c) 1500 (d) 14300 Hindi 1 3
(e) 900 Chemistry 1 7
10. 3739 + 164 27 = ?
Physics 9 5
(a) 105400 (b) 4000 (c) 8200 (d) 690
(e) 6300 Zoology 7 9
238 SPEED TEST 101
16. Total number of lecturers (both male and female) in Hindi is Directions (Qs. 26-30): Study the following information carefully
approximately what per cent of the total number of female to answer the questions that follow :
lecturers in Mathematics and Chemistry together?
In a tournament, a total number of 400 players have
(a) 58 (b) 43 (c) 47 (d) 51
participated in five different sports, viz badminton, hockey, lown
(e) 40
tennis, cricket and baseball. 15 per cent of the total players have
17. What is the difference between the total number of lecturers
participated in badminton. Two-fifths of the total players have
(both male and female) in Zoology and the total number of
participated in hockey. 6 per cent of the total players have
male lecturers in Chemistry and Education together?
participated in lawn tennis. 25 per cent of the total players have
(a) 192 (b) 182 (c) 146 (d) 136
participated in cricket. Remaining players have participated in
(d) None of these
baseball. One-fourth of the hockey players are females. 20 per
18. What is the difference between the number of female lecturers
cent of badminton players are males. Half the players who have
in Zoology and the number of male lecturers in Hindi?
participated in Lawn Tennis are males. There are 45 female cricket
(a) 156 (b) 160 (c) 150 (d) 153
players. No female player has participated in baseball.
(e) None of these 26. The number of female players participating in badminton is
19. What is the total number of male lecturers in the university? approximately what percentage of the number of players
(a) 696 (b) 702 (c) 712 (d) 668 participating in baseball?
(e) None of these (a) 72 (b) 75 (c) 80 (d) 95
20. What is the ratio of the number of female lecturers in Physics (e) 86
to the number of male lecturers in Mathematics? 27. What is the difference between the number of male players
(a) 5:9 (b) 2:9 (c) 3:7 (d) 5:3 participating in hockey and the number of female players
(e) None of these participating in lawn tennis?
21. Punit, Vinit and Ajit begin to jog around a stadium. They (a) 92 (b) 9 (c) 102 (d) 108
complete their revolutions in 45 seconds, 54 seconds and 36 (e) None of these
seconds respectively. After how many seconds will they be 28. If due to certain reason cricket game was dropped and all the
together at the starting point ? cricket players left the tournament, then what would be the
(a) 360 (b) 600 (c) 540 (d) 450 total number of male players in the tournament?
(e) None of these (a) 200 (b) 210 (c) 190 (d) 220
22. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 350% and the (e) None of these
denominator of the fraction is increased by 300%, the 29. What is the ratio of the number of male players participating
9 in badminton to the number of female players participating
resultant fraction is . What is the original fraction? in hockey?
22
(a) 3:11 (b) 3:10 (c) 6:11 (d) 11:6
3 5 7 4
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) None of these
4 12 9 11 30. What is the total number of female players participating in
(e) None of these the tournament?
23. 9 Men working for 7 hours a day can complete a piece of (a) 130 (b) 120 (c) 145 (d) 155
work in 15 days. In how many days can 6 men working for 9 (e) None of these
hours a day, complete the sample of work ?
Directions (Qs. 31-35) : Study the following table carefully and
1 3 3 answer the questions given below it.
(a) 17 days (b) 16 days (c) 16 days (d) 15 days
2 4 4
(e) None of these Number of Teachers in various Universities (Males &
24. Nitin rides a bicycle at the speed of 15 kms/hr., but stops for
Females) and percentage of PhDs amongst them
10 minutes to take rest every 20 kms. How much time will he
take to cover a distance of 150 kms.? Males Females
(a) 12 hours 30 minutes (b) 11 hours 10 minutes Univers % of No of % of
(c) 10 hours 20 minutes (d) 12 hours 10 minutes ities No. of Teachers PhDs Teachers PhDs
(e) None of these A 175 32 125 44
25. A bag contains four red, six black and seven green balls. B 250 74 105 40
Three balls are drawn randomly. What is the probability C 180 45 120 55
that the balls drawn contain exactly two red balls? D 320 65 80 80
E 290 30 100 35
39 301 55 353
(a) (b) (c) (d) 31. What is the average number of female teachers in all the
340 340 408 408
Universities together ?
54 (a) 100 (b) 105 (c) 108 (c) 106
(e)
91 (e) None of these
SPEED TEST 101 239
32. What is the total number of non PhD male teachers from 42. In a college election fought between two candidates, one
University A and C together ? candidate got 55% of the total valid votes. 15% of the votes
(a) 137 (b) 208 (c) 145 (d) 218 were invalid. If the total votes were 15,200, what is the number
(e) None of these of valid votes the other candidate gots?
33. What is the respective ratio of the non-PhD male teachers (a) 7106 (b) 6840
from University D to the non-Ph.D. female teachers from the (c) 8360 (d) 5814
same University ? (e) None of these
(a) 7:1 (b) 13 : 4 (c) 9:5 (d) 16:13 2
(e) None of these 43. Farah got married 8 years ago. Today her age is 1 times her
7
34. What is the difference between the number of female PhD age at the time of her marriage. At present her daughters
teachers from University E and male non-PhD teachers from age is one-sixth of her age. What was her daughters age 3
the same University ? years ago?
(a) 165 (b) 52 (c) 158 (d) 75 (a) 6 years (b) 4 years
(e) None of these (c) 3 years (d) Cannot be determined
35. The number of PhD teachers in University B (Both males (e) None of these
and females) is approximately what per cent of the total 44. The simple interest obtained on an amount of ` 45,000 at the
number of teachers in the University ? end of 4 years is ` 15,300. What would be the approximate
(Both males and females) compound interest obtained on the same amount at the same
(a) 54 (b) 68 (c) 64 (d) 52 rate of interest in the same period?
(e) 58 (a) `18,244 (b) ` 19,500
36. A, B, C, D and E are five consecutive odd numbers. The sum (c) ` 16,285 (d) ` 18,566
of A and C is 146. What is the value of E? (e) ` 17,364
(a) 75 (b) 81 (c) 71 (d) 79
(e) None of these 4 5
45. By how much is of 1150 less than of 1248?
37. Excluding the stoppages, the speed of a bus is 64 km/hr and 5 6
including the stoppage the speed of he bus is 48 km/hr. For (a) 140 (b) 115
how many minutes does the bus stop per hour? (c) 125 (d) 120
(a) 12.5 minutes (b) 15 minutes (e) None of these
(c) 10 minutes (d) 18 minutes
Directions (Qs.46-50): Study the following graph carefully to
(e) None of these
38. Swapnil, Aakash and Vinay begin to jog around a circular answer the questions:
stadium. They complete their revolutions in 36 seconds, 48 Quantity of wheat (in thousand tonnes) exported by
three companies over the years
seconds and 42 seconds respectively. After how many
seconds will they be together at the starting point. Company A Company B Company C
(a) 504 seconds (b) 940 seconds
1000
(c) 1008 seconds (d) 470 seconds
Quantity of Wheat (in thousand Tonnes)
900
(e) None of these
800
39. On a test consisting of 250 questions, Jassi answered 40%
700
of the first 125 questions correctly. What percent of the
other 125 question does she need to answer correctly for 600
her grade on the entire exam to be 60%? 500
(a) 75 (b) 80 400

(c) 60 (d) Cannot be determined 300
(e) None of these 200
40. The average monthly income of a family of four earning 100
members was `15,130. One of the daughter in the family got 0
married and left home, so the average monthly income of the 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008
family came down to ` 14,660. What is the monthly income Year
of the married daughter? 46. The percentage rise in exports from the previous year was
(a) ` 15,350 (b) ` 12,000 the maximum during which year for Company B?
(c) ` 16,540 (d) Cannot be determined (a) 2005 (b) 2004
(e) None of these (c) 2006 (d) 2008
41. Prathik sold a music system to Karthik at 20% and Karthik (e) None of these
sold it to Swasthik at 40% gain. If Swasthik paid ` 10,500 for 47. What is the ratio of total exports of the three companies in
the music system, what amount did Prathik pay for the same? 2003 to that in 2006?
(a) ` 8,240 (b) ` 7,500 (a) 41 : 29 (b) 51 : 29
(c) ` 6,250 (d) Cannot be determined (c) 29 : 51 (d) 29 : 41
240 SPEED TEST 101
48. What are the average exports of Company B for all the years? 1: P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In
(in thousand tonnes rounded off to two digits after decimal) row 2: A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing
(a) 766.67 (b) 667.14 North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member
(c) 657.14 (d) 756.57 seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(e) None of these S sits third to the right of Q. Either S or Q sits at an extreme
49. Total exports of Company A for all the years is approximately end of the line. The one who faces Q sits second to the right of E.
what percent of the total exports of Company B for all years? Two people sit between Band F. Neither B nor F sits at an extreme
(a) 75 (b) 128 (c) 139 (d) 68 end of the line. The immediate neighbour of B faces the person
(e) 72 who sits third to the left of P. R and T are immediate neighbours. C
50. What is the percent increase in the exports of company C sits second to the left of A. T does not face the immediate
from 2004 to 2008? neighbour of D.
(a) 50 (b) 33.33 54. Who amongst the following sit at the extreme ends of the
(c) 150 (d) 133.33 rows?
(e) None of these (a) S, D (b) Q, A (c) V, C (d) P, D
(e) Q, F
Reasoning 55. Who amongst the following faces S?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Directions (Qs. 51-53): Study the following information to
(e) F
answer the given questions:
56. How many persons are seated between V and R?
A word and number arrangement machine when given an (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a (e) None of these
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of 57. P is related to A in the same way as S is related to B based on
input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers the given arrangement. Which of the following is T related
and are arranged as per some logic based on the value of the to, following the same pattern?
number.) (a) C (b) D (c) E (d) F
Input : win 56 32 93 bat for 46 him 2811 give chance (e) Cannot be determined
Step I : 93 56 32 bat for 46 him 28 11 give chance win 58. Which of the following is true regarding T?
Step II : 11 93 56 32 bat for 46 28 give chance win him (a) F faces T.
Step III : 56 11 93 32 bat for 46 28 chance win him give (b) V is an immediate neighbour of T.
Step IV : 28 56 11 93 32 bat 46 chance win him give for (c) F faces the one who is second to the right of T.
Step V : 46 28 56 11 93 32 bat win him give for chance (d) T sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
Step VI : 32 46 28 56 11 93 win him give for chance bat (e) Q sits second to the right of T.
Step VI is the last step of the arrangement the above input. 59. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the
each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given one that does not belong to that group?
input. (a) A-T (b) B-T
Input for the questions: (c) F-P (d) C-V
Input: fun 89 at the 28 16 base camp 35 53 here 68 (All the (e) E-Q
numbers given in the arrangement are two-digit numbers.) 60. Which of the following expressions is definitely true if the
51. Which of the following would be step II? given expressions R < P as well as S > Q are definitely
(a) 89 fun at 28 16 base camp 35 53 here 68 the true?
(b) 35 53 28 68 16 89 the here fun camp base at (a) P> Q = R T < S (b) S > T R > Q < P
(c) 16 89 at fun 28 camp base 35 53 68 the here (c) Q > R T > P S (d) S > T R > Q > P
(d) 53 28 68 16 89 35 the here fun camp base at (e) None of these
(e) None of these Directions (Qs. 61-65): Each of the questions below consists of
52. Which word/number would be at seventh position from the a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it.
left in step IV? You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements
(a) base (b) at (c) 35 (d) the
are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements
(e) 53
and give answer.
53. Which step number would be the following output?
53 28 68 16 89 at 35 the here fun camp base (a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer
(a) There will be no such step. the question, while the data in statement II alone are
(b) III (c) II (d) V (e) IV not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
Directions (Qs. 54-59): Study the following information to the question, while the data in statement I alone are not
answer the given questions: sufficient to answer the question.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six (c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II
people each such that they are equidistant from each other. In row alone are sufficient to answer the question.
SPEED TEST 101 241
(d) if the data even in both statements I and II together are 67. Statements: Z @ M, M K, K F
not sufficient to answer the question. Conclusions: I. F Z
(e) if the data in both statements I and II together are II. K Z
necessary to answer the question. III. F M
61. Which bag amongst P, Q, R, S and T is the heaviest? (a) None is true (b) Only I is true
I. Bag Q is heavier than R and S. Bag T is heavier than (c) Only II is true (d) Only III is true
only bag P. (e) Only II and III are true
II. Only three bags are lighter than R. The weight of bag Q 68. Statements: B J, J % W, WM
is 50 kg, which is 2 kg more than bag R. Conclusions: I. M J
62. Are all the five friends - A, B, C, D and E - who are seated II. W B
around a circular table facing the centre? III. B M
I. A sits to the left of B. B faces the centre. D and E are (a) None is true (b) Only I is true
immediate neighbours of each other. C sits second to (c) Only II is true (d) Only III is true
the right of E.
(e) Only I and III are true
II. D sits second to right of C. C faces the centre. Both E
69. Statements: V % H, H @ F, FdE
and A are immediate neighbours of D. B sits second to
Conclusions: I. F @ V
the right of A.
63. In a college, five different subjects, viz Physics, Chemistry, II. F V
Botany, Zoology and Mathematics, are taught on five III. E % H
differeIlt days of the same week, starting from Monday and (a) Only either I or II is true
ending on Friday. Is Chemistry taught on Wednesday? (b) Only III is true
I. Two subjects are taught between Zoology and (c) Only I and II are true
Mathematics. Mathematics is taught before Zoology. (d) All I, II and III are true
Chemistry is taught on the day immediately next to the (e) Only either I or II and III are true
day when Physics is taught. Botany is not taught on 70. Statements: W T, T d N, N%D
Friday. Conclusions: I. D T
II. Three lectures are scheduled between the lectures of II. W N
Botany and Zoology. Mathematics is taught III. D @ T
immediately before Physics. (a) None is true (b) Only I is true
64. Is it 9 o'clock now? (c) Only II is true (d) Only III is true
I. After half an hour, the minute and the hour hands of (e) Only I and II are true
the clock will make an angle of exactly 90 with each
other. Directions (Qs. 71-75): Study the following information carefully
II. Exactly 15 minutes ago, the hour and the minute hands and answer the questions given below:
of the clock coincided with each other. Following are the conditions for selecting Chief Manager Sales in
65. Is F granddaughter of B? an organization. The candidates must.
I. B is the father of M. M is the sister of T. T is the mother (i) be graduate in any discipline with at least 60 per cent marks.
of F. (ii) have secured at least 55 per cent marks in the selection
II. S is the son of F. V is the daughter of F. R is the brother process.
of T. (iii) be at least 30 years and not more than 40 years as on 1.5.2009.
Directions: (Qs. 66-70): In the following questions, the symbols (iv) be a postgraduate degree/diploma holder in Marketing/Sales
, d, %, @ and are used with the following meaning illustrated Management.
below: (v) have post-qualification work experience of at least eight years
P%Q means P is not smaller than Q. in the Sales/Marketing division of an organization.
PQ means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions.
PQ means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q. EXCEPT
PdQ means P is not greater than Q. (A) at (ii) above, but has secured more than 65 per cent marks in
P @ Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q. graduation, the case is to be referred to GM-Sales.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given (B) at (v) above, but has post-qualification work experience of
statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and at least five years as Manager - Sales in an organization, the
III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer case is to be referred to VP Sales.
accordingly. In each questions below details of one candidates are given. You
66. Statements: R d K, K M, M@J are to take one of the following courses of action based on the
Conclusions: I. J K information and the conditions and sub-conditions given above
II. M R and mark the number of that course of action as the answer. You
III. R J are not to assume anything other than the information provided in
(a) Only I and II are true (b) Only II and III are true each case. All these cases are given to you as on 01.05.2009.
(c) Only I and III are true (d) All I, and III are true Mark answer (a) if the candidate is to be selected.
(e) None of these Mark answer (b) if the candidate is not be selected.
242 SPEED TEST 101
Mark answer (c) if the data provided are inadequate to take II. The productivity of the company may increase.
decision. III. The profit earned by the company may be more than
Mark answer (d) if the case is to be referred to the GM - Sales. the amount to be spent for the incentive programmes.
Mark answer (e) if the case is to be referred to the VP - Sales. (a) None is implicit
71. Abhinav Shukla has secured 62 per cent marks in graduation (b) All are implicit
and 58 per cent marks in the selection process. He has been (c) Only II and III are implicit
working in the marketing division of a company for the past (d) Only I and II are implicit
nine years after completing his postgraduate diploma in (e) None of the above
Marketing with 55 percent marks. He was born on 5th Aug 78. Statement The company has decided to increase the price
1974. of all its products to tackle the precarious financial position.
72. Pravin Vohra was born on 2nd July 1972. He has been working Assumptions
in the sales division of an organization for the past ten years I. The company may be able to wipe out the entire losses
after completing his postgraduate degree in Sales incurred earlier by this decision.
Management with 50 per cent marks. He has secured 68 per II. The buyer may continue to buy its products even after
cent marks is graduation and 50 per cent marks in the selection the increase.
process. III. The company has adequate resources to continue
73. Mita Keswani has been working in the marketing division of production for few more months.
an organization for the past eleven years after completing (a) None is implicit
her post graduation. She has secured 62 per cent marks in (b) Only II and III are implicit
the selection process and 70 per cent marks in graduation. (c) Only I and III are implicit
She was born on 2nd November 1978. (d) Only II is implicit
74. Dillip Puhan has secured 52 per cent marks in the selection (e) None of the above
process and 72 per cent marks in graduation. He has been 79. Statement The State Govt. has unilaterally increased by five
working for the past twelve years in the marketing division per cent octroi on all commodities entering into the State
of a company after completing his post graduation in without seeking approval of the Central Govt.
Marketing Management. He was born on 19th March 1972. Assumptions
75. Seema Mahajan was born on 12th July 1973. She has secured
I. The State Govt. may be able to implement its decision.
56 per cent marks in the selection process. She has been
II. The Central Govt. may agree to support the State Govts
working in the sales division of an organization for the past
decision.
thirteen years after completing her postgraduate degree in
III. The State Govt. may be able to earn considerable
Sales Management. She has secured 59 per cent marks in
amount through the additional octroi.
graduation.
(a) All are implicit (b) Only I and II are implicit
Directions (Qs. 76-80): In each question below is given a (c) None is implicit (d) Only II and III are implicit
statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. (e) None of the above
An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You 80. Statement Ashok decided to leave office at 4:00 pm to catch
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions a flight to Bangalore departing at 6 : 00 pm.
and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement, Assumptions
then decide which of the answer (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) is correct I. The flight to Bangalore may be delayes.
answer and indicate it on the answer sheet. II. He may be able to reach airport will before 6 : 00 pm
76. Statement Z-TV, the only TV which gives the viewers chance III. He may get adequate time to reach for a vehicle to go to
to watch two programmes simultaneously An the airport.
advertisement. (a) All are implicit (b) Only II and III are implicit
Assumptions (c) None is implicit (d) Only II is implicit
I. Sale of Z-TV may increase because of the (e) None of the above
advertisement. Directions (Qs. 81-85): In each question below are two/three
II. Some people may be influenced by the advertisement statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
and buy Z-TV. have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if
III. The sale of Z-TV may be on the downward trend. they seem to be a variance with commonly known facts and then
(a) None is implicit decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from
(b) All are implicit
the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(c) Only II and III are implicit
(d) Only I and II are implicit Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows.
(e) None of the above Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows.
77. Statement The company has recently announced series of Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
incentives to the employees, who are punctual and sincere. Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
Assumptions Give answer (e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
I. Those who are not punctual at present may get 81-82 Statements: Some institutes are banks. All institutes are
motivated by the announcement. academies. All academies are schools.
SPEED TEST 101 243
81. Conclusions: Directions (Qs. 91-95) : In each of the questions given below
I. Some institutes are not schools. which one of the five answer figures on the right should come
II. All academies being banks is a possibility. after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were
82. Conclusions: continued.
I. All banks can never be schools.
91. Problem Figures
II. Any bank which is an institute is a school.
83-84 Statements: All energies are forces. No force is torque. All Z D O
torques are powers. D O D U OO U D D D D
83. Conclusions: Z U D D D Z O Z U Z U
I. All energies being power is a possibility. Answer Figures
II. All powers being force is a possibility.
O Z Z Z Z
84. Conclusions: D D D Z D D D O D O D O U D
I. All those powers if they are forces are also energies. O U DU O D U D U D
Z U Z U
II. No energy is torque. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
85. Statements: Some paintings are drawings. All sketches are
92. Problem Figures
paintings.
Conclusions: O Z D D D O = D D D
I. All sketches are drawings. D D Z = O D Z = O V D = O V
II. Some sketches being drawings is a possibility. = V Z 3 5
Directions (Qs. 86-87): Study the following information to Answer Figures

answer the given questions :
D V D D V D V V = V =
Point P is 5 m towards the South of Point M. Point Q is 3 m towards D D O D O D 3 D D 5 D
O V = 3 = =
the East of Point P. Point O is 3 m towards the East of Point M.5
5 O B C 5 3 5 O 3
Point N is 2 m towards the South of Point Q. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
86. A person, facing North, takes a left turn from point M, walks
4m and stops. He then takes another left turn, walks 5 m and 93. Problem Figures

stops at point R. Which of the following points, including R,
fall in a straight line ? D U OD U D O Z D U Z U D O O=U
(a) M, O, R (b) N, R, P
(c) R, O, Q (d) R, Q, N Answer Figures
(e) Q, P, R
87. How far and towards which direction
OZ Zis
Point
U D OO
from
O =Point
U O U = S U = SU= S U = S U =
N?
(a) 5 m towards South (b) 7 m towards North (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(c) 8 m towards West (d) 7 m towards West 94. Problem Figures
(e) 5 m towards North
Directions (Qs.88-90): The following questions are based upon
the alphabetical series given below:
T J E N UQ AK I O G R M S PB HF D LVC Answer Figures
88. If OD is related to 'GF' and 'EB is related to 'NP' in a certain
way, to which of the following is 'AL' related to, following
the same pattern ?
(a) KD (b) QV (c) KL (d) KV (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(e) DQ
89. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following 95. Problem Figures
series based on the above alphabetical series? =
TE JU NK ? GH = = = =
(a) IS (b) IR (c) AG (d) AR
(e) AM Answer Figures
90. If in a certain code 'GRIM' is coded as 'RMOS' and 'DUSK' is
=
coded as 'LQPI' how will 'STOP' be coded in the same code
= = = = = = =
language?

(a) MJIS (b) PJGB (c) JPJIS (d) MJGB
(e) PGJB (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
244 SPEED TEST 101
100. Problem Figures
Directions (Qs. 96-100) : In each of the following questions,
there is a set of four figures called the Problem set followed by a =S = S S =
set of five other figures labelled (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) called the
Answer set. One of the boxes in the Problem set contains a
question mark. Select a suitable figure from the Answer set which S
C C
= ?
will substitute this question mark so that a series is formed by Answer Figures
the figures in the Problem set taken in order. The letter of the
selected figure is the answer.
96. Problem Figures C
=S S = =S = S =S
? (a) (b) (c)
English Language
(d) (e)
Answer Figures
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 101-115) : Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) When times are hard, doomsayers are aplenty. The problem
97. Problem Figures is that if you listen to them too carefully, you tend to overlook the
most obvious signs of change. 2011 was a bad year. Can 2012 be
S * ? C any worse? Doomsday forecasts are the easiest to make these
C
T C
S
T ? * C #
#T ?
* days. So let's try a contrarian's forecast instead.
Let's start with the global economy. We have seen a steady
flow of good news from the US. The employment situation seems
Answer Figures to be improving rapidly and consumer sentiment, reflected in retail
expenditures on discretionary items like electronics and clothes,
T # * CT #T # has picked up. If these trends sustain, the US might post better
# * C # C T growth numbers for 2012 than the 1.5-1.8 percent being forecast
? C * * *C currently.
Japan is likely to pull out of a recession in 2012 as post-
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) earthquake reconstruction efforts gather momentum and the fiscal
98. Problem Figures
stimulus announced in 2011 begins to pay off. The consensus
estimate for growth in Japan is a respectable 2 per cent for 2012.
? The "hard-landing" scenario for China remains and will

remain a myth. Growth might decelerate further from the 9 per cent
that it expected to clock in 2011 but is unlikely to drop below 8-8.5
Answer Figures percent in 2012.
Europe is certainly in a spot of trouble. It is perhaps already
in recession and for 2012 it is likely to post mildly negative growth.
The risk of implosion has dwindled over the last few months -
peripheral economies like Greece, Italy and Spain have new
governments in place and have made progress towards genuine
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) economic reform.
99. Problem Figures Even with some of these positive factors in place, we have
to accept the fact that global growth in 2012 will be tepid. But there
? is a flipside to this. Softer growth means lower demand for

commodities and this is likely to drive a correction in commodity
prices. Lower commodity inflation will enable emerging market
Answer Figures central banks to reverse their monetary stance. China, for instance,
has already reversed its stance and has pared its reserve ratio
twice. The RBI also seems poised for a reversal in its rate cycle as
headline inflation seems well on its way to its target of 7 per cent
for March 2012.
That said, oil might be an exception to the general trend in
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) commodities. Rising geopolitical tensions, particularly the
SPEED TEST 101 245
continuing face-off between Iran and the US, might lead to a spurt (C) Commodity inflation would be lesser.
in prices. It might make sense for our oil companies to hedge this (a) Only (B) (b) Only (A) and (B)
risk instead of buying oil in the spot market. (c) Only (A) and (C) (d) Only (C)
As inflation fears abate and emerging market central banks (e) All (A), (B) and (C)
begin to cut rates, two things could happen Lower commodity 103 Which of the following can be said about the present status
inflation would mean lower interest rates and better credit ol the US economy ?
availability. This could set a floor to growth and slowly reverse (a) There is not much improvement in the economic
the business cycle within these economies. Second, as the fear of scenario of the country from the year 2011
untamed, runaway inflation in these economies abates, the global (b) The growth in the economy of the country, in the year
investor's comfort levels with their markets will increase. 2012, would definitely be lesser than 1.8 percent
Which of the emerging markets will outperform and who (c) The expenditure on clothes and electronic commodities,
will get left behind? In an environment in which global growth is by consumers, is lesser than that in the year 2011
likely to be weak, economies like India that have a powerful (d) There is a chance that in 2012 the economy would do
domestic consumption dynamic should lead; those dependent on better than what has been forecast
exports should, prima facie, fall behind. Specifically for India, a fall (e) The pace of change in the employment scenario of the
in the exchange rate could not have come at a better time. It will country is very slow.
help Indian exporters gain market share even it global trade remains 104. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title
depressed. More importantly, it could lead to massive import for the passage ?
substitution that favours domestic producers. (a) The Economic Disorder
Let's now focus on India and start with a caveat. It is (b) Indian Economy Versus The European Economy
important not to confuse a short-run cyclical dip with a permanent (c) Global Trade
de-rating of its long-term structural potential. The arithmetic is (d) The Current Economic Scenario
simple. Our growth rate can be in the range of 7-10 per cent (e) Characteristics of The Indian Economy
depending on policy action. Ten per cent if we get everything 105. According to the author, which of the following would
right, 7 per cent if we get it all wrong. Which policies and reforms characterize Indian growth scenario in 2012 ?
are critical to taking us to our 10 per cent potential ? In judging
(A) Domestic producers will take a hit because of depressed
this, let's again be careful. Lets not go by the laundry list of reforms
global trade scenario.
that FIIs like to wave: increase in foreign equity limits in foreign
(B) On account of its high domestic consumption, India will
shareholding, greater voting rights tor institutional shareholders
in banks, FDI in retail, etc. These can have an impact only at the lead.
margin. We need not bend over backwards to appease the FIIs (C) Indian exporters will have a hard time in gaining market
through these reforms - they will invest in our markets when share.
momentum picks up and will be the first to exit when the momentum (a) Only (B) (b) Only (A) and (B)
flags, reforms or not. (c) Only (B) and (C) (d) Only (A)
The reforms that we need are the ones that can actually raise (e) All (A), (B) and (C)
out. Sustainable long-term growth rate. These have to come in areas 106. Why does the author not recommend taking up the reforms
like better targeting of subsidies, making projects in infrastructure suggested by FII's ?
viable so that they draw capital, raising the productivity of agriculture, (a) These will bring about only minor growth
improving healthcare and education, bringing the parallel economy (b) The reforms suggested will have no effect on the economy
under the tax net, implementing fundamental reforms in taxation like ol our country, whereas will benefit the FII's significantly
GST and the direct tax code and finally easing the myriad rules and (c) The previous such recommendations had backfired
regulations that make doing business in India such a nightmare. A (d) These reforms will be the sole reason for our country's
number of these things do not require new legislation and can be economic downfall
done through executive order. (e) The reforms suggested by them are not to be trusted
101. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the as they will not bring about any positive growth in
passage ? India
(a) China's economic growth may decline in the year 2012
107. Which of the following is TRUE as per the scenario presented
as compared to the year 2011
in the passage?
(b) The European economy is not doing very well
(a) The highest growth rate that India can expect is 7
(c) Greece is on the verge of bringing about economic
reforms percent
(d) In the year 2012, Japan may post a positive growth and (b) The fall in the exchange rate will prove beneficial to
thus pull out of recession India
(e) All are true (c) Increased FDI in retail as suggested by Flls would
102. Which of the following will possibly be a result of softer benefit India tremendously
growth estimated for the year 2012 ? (d) The reforms suggested by the author require new
(A) Prices of oil will not increase. legislation in India
(B) Credit availability would be lesser. (e) None is true
246 SPEED TEST 101
108. According to the author, which ot the following reform/s is/ (F) These diseases progress differently over a period of time
are needed to ensure long term growth in India? and share certain characteristics.
(A) Improving healthcare and educational facilities. 116. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence
(B) Bringing about reforms in taxation. after rearrangement ?
(C) Improving agricultural productivity. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
(a) Only (B) (b) Only (A) and (B) (e) E
(c) Only (B) and (C) (d) Only (A) 117. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after
(e) All (A), (B) and (C) rearrangement ?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 109-112) : Choose the word/group of words (e) E
which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words 118. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence
printed in bold as used in the passage. after rearrangement ?
109. DRAW (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
(a) entice (b) push (e) E
(c) decoy (d) attract 119. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after
(e) persuade rearrangement ?
110. CLOCK (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
(a) watch (b) achieve (e) None of these
(c) time (d) second 120. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST)
(e) regulate sentence after rearrangement ?
111. ABATE (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
(a) rise (b) gear (e) None of these
(c) hurl (d) lessen Directions (121-130) : In the following passage, there are blanks.
(e) retreat Each, of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed
112. EMERGING below the passage and against each, five words are suggested,
(a) raising (b) developing one of which Fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
(c) noticeable (d) conspicuous word in each case.
(e) uproaring
New technology has led directly to (121) standards of living yet
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 113-115) : Choose the word/group of words science tends to follow market forces as well as to (122) them, It is
which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words not surprising that the rich get richer in a continuing cycle of
printed in bold as used in the passage. (123) while the poorest are often left behind. A special (124) should
113. MYRIAD be made by the powerhouses of world science to address the un
(a) trivial (b) difficult met the challenges of the poor. Ending (125) poverty can relieve
(c) few (d) effortless many of the pressures on the environment. When impoverished
(e) countless households are (126), (127) on their farms, for example, they face
114. TEPID less pressure to cut down neighboring forests in (128) of new
(a) moderate (b) high farmland. Still, even as extreme poverty ends, we must not fuel
(c) warm (d) irregular prosperity with a lack of (129) for industrial pollution and the
(e) little (130) burning of fossil fuels.
115. MYTH 121. (a) Visible (b) Declining
(a) reality (b) belief (c) Improved (d) Amicable
(c) contrast (d) idealism (e) Rigorous
(e) falsehood 122. (a) Fail (b) Claim
(c) Market (d) Avoid
Directions (116-120) : Rearrange the following six sentences (e) Lead
(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a 123. (a) Wealth (b) Growth
meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below (c) Poverty (d) Improvement
them.
(e) Economy
(A) It is a general term used to describe over 200 individual 124. (a) Effort (b) Care
diseases. (c) Practice (d) Occasion
(B) The abnormal cells grow with-out any control, invade (e) Sanction
through normal tissue barriers and reproduce indefinitely. 125. (a) Marginal (b) Apparent
(C) The word cancer comes from Latin, meaning a crab. (c) Superficial (d) Extreme
(D) These characteristics include development within any tissue (e) Dismal
of a malignant growth. 126. (a) Abnormally (b) Less
(E) A tumor was called cancer because of swollen veins around (c) More (d) Excessively
the area resembling a crabs limb. (e) Unreasonably
SPEED TEST 101 247
127. (a) Efficient (b) Meticulous 136. Although scared of heights, she gather all her courage and
(c) Careful (d) Dependent stood a top the 24-storied building to participate the activities.
(e) Productive (a) gathered all her courage
128. (a) View (b) Search (b) gathered all courageous
(c) Expectation (d) Lust (c) gather all courageous
(e) Place (d) is gathered all courage
129. (a) Attitude (b) Mobility (e) mo correction required
(c) Initiative (d) Concern 137. Naturally, with everything gone so well for them, it was time
(e) Ease for celebration,
130. (a) Unchecked (b) Repeated (a) go so well (b) going so well
(c) Periodical (d) Occasional (c) gone as well (d) going as well
(e) Limited (e) No correction required
138. The ban was imposed by state's commercial taxes department
Directions (131-135) : In each of the following sentences there last Friday after protests by a certain community, which had
are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of threat to burn cinema screening the controversial movies.
words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). Find out which (a) had threat to burning
pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the (b) had throated to burn
same sequence to make the sentence grammatically correct and (c) had threatened to burn
meaningfully complete. (d) had threatened to burning
131. Liberalization has removed all the legalities . And (e) No correction required
.. Floodgates to multinational companies. 139. Rakesh, an avid football player who captained his team in
(a) Hurdles . Awarded school and colleges, will inaugurate the match tomorrow in
(b) Barrier Opened Pune.
(c) Obstacles .. Guarded (a) will be inaugurate (b) is inauguration
(d) Manipulation . Closed (c) will inaugurating (d) is inaugurate
(e) Battles . Threw (e) No correction required
132. The . On some of the towns has created .. Among 140. At a musical night organized for them, the artistic side of the
the residents of the other part of the country. doctors came as forward., as they, sang beautifully and made
(a) Attack .. Ambition the evening truly memorable.
(b) Raid . Awareness (a) come forward (b) come to the fore
(c) Bombardment Panic (c) cane to the forth (d) came to the fore
(d) Spell .. Satisfaction (e) No correction required
(e) Shower . Dampness
133. . to the popular belief that every astrologer nurtures Directions (Qs. 141-145) : Below is given a single word with
blind faith in fate, our astrologer believes in options to its meaning in different contexts. You have to select all
(a) Contrary .. Action those options which are synonyms of the word when the context is
(b) According . Thoughts changed. Select the correct alternatives from (a), (b), (c), (d) & (e)
(c) Bowing Present which represent all those synonyms.
(d) Proving . Forecasting 141. HAMPER
(e) Pointing .. Devotion (1) Prevent (2) A large basket
134. His .. Has yielded him the . Fruit. (3) A gift (4) A laundry
(a) Fate Undesirable (a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 4 (c) 3, 1 (d) 1, 4
(b) Efforts .. Unwanted (e) 4, 3
(c) Action . Viable 142. DENT
(d) Perseverance Desired (1) Tooth of Gearwheel (2) Sleaze
(e) Emphasis . Expected (3) Depression (4) Penetration
135. His Contribute to the Tsunami relief fund was (a) 1, 4 (b) 2, 4 (c) 3, 1 (d) 1, 2
. By his staff members.
(e) 4, 3
(a) Meager Admired
143. STRIKE
(b) Spontaneous Nullified
(1) Military Attack (2) Discover
(c) Negligible Sanctioned
(3) Lockout (4) Snap
(d) Noteworthy Improved
(a) 1, 2, 4 (b) 2, 4 (c) 3, 1 (d) 1, 4
(e) Generous Appreciated
(e) 4, 3
Direction (136 - 140): which of the phrase A, B, C, D is given 144. GLANCE
below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in (1) A quick look (2) Scan
the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence (3) Review (4) Reflect
is Correct as it is given and no correction required mark E as the (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 2 (c) 2, 1, 4 (d) 2, 3, 4
answer. (e) All of (1), (2), (3), (4)
248 SPEED TEST 101
145. CARRIAGE (A) void (B) quash
(1) Bearing (C) annual (D) stay
(2) Transportation (E) lift (F) post
(3) a fee charged for transportation (a) (A) and (D) (b) (B) and (C)
(4) A machine (c) (C) and (E) (d) (E) and (F)
(a) 1, 3, (b) 2, 3 (c) 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3
(e) (C) and (D)
(e) All of (1), (2) (3) , (4)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 146-150) : The following questions consist Professional Knowledge: IT
of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words
151. The standard protocol of the Internet is ___________.
denoted by A, B, C, D, E & F as answer choices and from the six
(a) TCP/IP (b) Java
choices you have to pick two correct answers, either of which
(c) HTML (d) Flash
will make the sentence meaningfully complete.
(e) None of these
146. ___________ before the clock struck 8 on Saturday night, 152. A __________is a computer attached to the Internet that
India Gate was swamped with people wearing black tee-shirts runs a special Web server software and can send Web pages
and holding candles. out to other computers over the Internet
(a) web client (b) web system
(A) Minutes (B) Time
(c) web page (d) web server
(C) Later (D) Quickly (e) None of these
(E) Since (F) Seconds 153. After a user has saved and deleted many files, many scattered
(a) (B) and (E) (b) (A) and (C) areas of stored data remain that are too small to be used
(c) (A) and(F) (d) (B) and (D) efficiently, causing________.
(e) (C) and (E) (a) disorder (b) turmoil
(c) disarray (d) fragmentation
147. The Stales should take steps to the process of teachers"
(e) None of these
appointments as the Centre has already sanctioned six lakh 154. Which of the following is the communications protocol that
posts. sets the standard used by every computer that accesses
(A) fasten (B) move Web-based information?
(C) hasten (D) speed (a) XML (b) DML
(E) early (F) quicken (c) HTTP (d) HTML
(a) (D) and (F) (b) (A) and (C) (e) None of these
155. Which of the following converts all the statements in a
(c) (C) and (F) (d) (D) and (E)
program in a single batch and the resulting collection of
(e) (B) and (D) instructions is placed in a new file?
148. A senior citizen's son threatened her every day and (a) compiler (b) interpreter
physically harmed her, forcing her to transfer her properly to (c) converter (d) instruction
him. (e) None of these
(A) superficially (B) mistakenly 156. A program that generally has more user-friendly interface
(C) allegedly (D) miserably than a DBMS is called a
(a) front end (b) repository
(E) doubtfully (F) purportedly
(c) back end (d) form
(a) (C) and (F) (b) (A) and (E) (e) None of these
(c) (C) and (E) (d) (D) and (F) 157. When you install a new program on your computer, it. Is
(e) (A) and (C) typically added to the ___________menu.
149. Medical teachers said that the management had continued (a) All Programs (b) Select Programs
to remain to their cause leading to the stretching of their (c) Start Programs (d) Desktop Programs
strike. (e) None of these
(A) unmoved (B) lethargic 158. Which of the following contains information about a single
(C) unconcerned (D) apathetic "entity" in the database like a person, place, event, or thing?
(E) indifferent (F) bored (a) query (b) form
(c) record (d) table
(a) (B) and (C) (b) (C) and (F)
(e) None of these
(c) (A) and (E) (d) (A) and (D) 159. Which of the following is NOT a goal of transaction
(e) (D) and (E) processing system?
150. The parents had approached the high court to the (a) To capture, process and store transactions
government order after their children, who passed UKG, were (b) To produce a variety of documents related to routine
denied admission by a school. business activities
SPEED TEST 101 249
(c) To reduce manual efforts associated with processing 168. A small program which loads OS into the memory is called as
business transactions _____
(d) To produce standard reports used for management (a) ROM (b) bootstrap loader
decision making (c) BIOS (d) RAM
160. A proxy server is used for which of the following? 169. As OS program module that selects the next job to be
(a) To provide security against unauthorized users admitted for execution is called as ____________.
(b) To process client requests for web pages (a) scheduler (b) compiler
(c) To process client requests for database access (c) throughput (d) dispatcher
(d) To provide TCP/IP (e) None of these
(e) None of these 170. Semaphore can be used for solving ______
161. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not (a) wait & signal (b) deadlock
updated, this causes (c) synchronization (d) priority
(a) data redundancy (b) information overload (e) None of these
(c) duplicacy data (d) data inconsistency 171. On what principle does Distributed OS work?
(e) None of these (a) File foundation (b) Single system image
162. The code that relational database management systems use (c) Multi system image (d) Networking image
to perform their database task is referred to as (e) None of these
(a) QBE (b) SQL 172. Which of the following is not a jump statement in C++?
(c) OLAP (d) Sequel Server (a) break (b) Goto
(e) None of these (c) Exit (d) Switch
163. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to (e) None of these
(a) unlock the database 173. C++ exception handling mechanism mainly uses how many
(b) provide a map of the data keywords?
(c) uniquely identify a record (a) Four (b) Three
(d) establish constraints on database operations (c) Two (d) One
164. Terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often 174. After defining the function template, the next step to call it
connected to complex inventory and sales computer in another function such as _____.
systems. (a) int() (b) secondary()
(a) Data (b) Sales (c) template() (d) main()
(c) Query (d) Point-of-sale (POS) (e) None of these
(e) None of these 175. __________ are one of the attributes of C++ that support
165. System software is a set of programs that enables your run-time polymorphism.
computer's hardware devices and __________software to (a) Pointers (b) Derived classes
work together. (c) Virtual functions (d) Heap tree
(a) management (b) processing (e) None of these
(c) utility (d) application 176. To increase the value of c by one, which of the following is
(e) None of these wrong?
166. The capability of an operating system to enable two or more (a) c++; (b) c=c+1;
than two programs to execute simultaneously in a single (c) c+1=>c; (d) c+=1;
(e) None of these
computer system by using a single processor is called
177. Which of the following is a keyword is used for storage
(a) Multiprocessing (b) Multitasking
class?
(c) Multiprogramming (d) Multiexecution
(a) printf (b) external
(e) None of these
(c) auto (d) scanf
167. State whether the following statement is True or False for (e) None of these
cache memory. 178. File manipulation functions in C are available in which header
(i) Cache memories are high-speed buffers which are file?
inserted between the processors and main memory. (a) streams.h (a) stdio.h
(ii) They can also be inserted between main memory and (c) stdlib.h (d) files.h
mass storage. (e) None of these
(iii) It can be used as secondary memory. 179. ___________is the collection of memory structures and
(a) i- True, ii- False, iii-True Oracle background processes that operates against an Oracle
(b) i- False, ii- True, iii-True database.
(c) i-True, ii-True, iii-False (a) Database (b) Instance
(d) i- False, ii- False, iii-True (c) Tablespace (d) Segment
250 SPEED TEST 101
180. A _________is a logical grouping of database objects, 190. An ADT is defined to be a mathematical model of a user-
usually to facilitate security, performance, or the availability defined type along with the collection of all ____________
of database objects such as tables and indexes. operations on that model.
(a) tablespace (b) segments (a) Cardinality (b) Assignment
(c) extents (d) blocks (c) Primitive (d) Structured
(e) None of these (e) none of these
181. __________is the smallest unit of allocation in an Oracle 191. De Morgan's second therm says that NAND gate is
database. equivalent to a bubbled _____ gate.
(a) Database (b) Instance (a) AND (b) XAND
(c) Tablespace (d) Database Block (c) XOR (d) OR
182. An Oracle _____________is a set of tables and views that 192. What logic function is produced by adding an inverter to
are used as a read-only reference about the database. each input and the output of an AND gate?
(a) Database dictionary (b) Dictionary table (a) NAND (b) NOR
(c) Data dictionary (d) Dictionary (c) OR (d) XOR
183. An Oracle object type has two parts the _______and 194. When a transistor is cut off or saturated, transistor _____
__________. have almost no effect
(a) Instance and body (a) Wave (b) Variations
(b) Segment and blocks (c) Stage (d) Circuits
(c) Specification and body (e) None of the above
(d) Body and segment 195. Express -7 as 16-bit signed binary numbers.
(e) None of these (a) 0000 0000 0000 0111
184. By, default, Oracle object types are__________ (b) 1000 0000 0000 0111
(a) INSTANTIABLE (b) NOT INSTANTIABLE (c) 0111 0000 0000 0001
(c) FINAL (d) OVERRIDING (d) 0111 0000 0000 0000
(e) None of these (e) None of the above
185. A method modifier tells Oracle that new subtypes may not 196. Which transport class should be used with a perfect network
override a method is called ______.
layer ?
(a) INSTANTIABLE (b) NOT INSTANTIABLE
(a) TP0 and TP2 (b) TP1 and TP3
(c) FINAL (d) OVERRIDING
(c) TP0, TP1, TP3 (d) TP0, TP1, TP2, TP3, TP4
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
186. The E-R model is expressed in terms of
197. The main objective of designing various modules of a
I. Entities
software system is :
II. The relationship among entities.
(a) To decrease the cohesion and to increase the coupling
III. The attributes of the entities.
(b) To increase the cohesion and to decrease the coupling
IV. Functional relationship.
(a) I,II (b) I,II, IV (c) To increase the coupling only
(c) II,II,IV (d) I,II,IV (d) To increase the cohesion only
(e) none of these (e) None of these
187. Representation of data structure in memory is known as: 198. Three essential components of a software project plan are :
(a) recursive (b) abstract data type (a) Team structure, Quality assurance plans, Cost
(c) storage structure (d) file structure estimation
(e) none of these (b) Cost estimation, Time estimation, Quality assurance
188. If the address of A[1][1] and A[2][1] are 1000 and 1010 plan
respectively and each element occupies 2 bytes then the (c) Cost estimation, Time estimation, Personnel estimation
array has been stored in _________ order. (d) Cost estimation, Personnel estimation, Team structure
(a) row major (b) column major (e) None of these
(c) matix major (d) All of the above 199. The term 'hacker' was originally associated with :
(e) none of these (a) A computer program
189. An adjacency matrix representation of a graph cannot contain (b) Virus
information of : (c) Computer professionals who solved complex computer
(a) nodes (b) edges problems.
(c) direction of edges (d) parallel edges (d) All of the above
(e) none of these (e) None of these
SPEED TEST 101 251
200. Reliability of software is dependent on : This theory is called
(a) Number of errors present in software (a) Quickest the best (b) Instant service
(b) Documentation (c) Service on time (d) Timely effort
(c) Testing suties (e) None of these
(d) Development Processes 159. In India, which commission can be approached to curb
misleading advertisements
(e) None of these (a) MRTP (b) MTP
OR (c) ISPT (d) QTP
(e) None of these
Professional Knowledge: Marketing 160. "Consumer purchases are strongly influenced by the internal
psychological and personal characteristics and external
151. Analysis of marketing problem helps in social and environmental influences". This statement is
(a) Evaluating marketing opportunities
(b) Reducing marketing staff (a) True (b) False
(c) Reducing profits (c) False for external environment
(d) Good communication (d) True for external environment only
(e) Motivation (e) Can't say
152. Leads for industrial loans can be obtained from 161. Importance of marketing has increased in the recent years
(a) Reserve bank of India due to which of the following.
(b) District industrial centers (a) Consumer experiencing wide choices of goods and
(c) colleges services
(d) Export houses (b) Availability of information to consumer about goods
(e) Trade centers and services
153. Customization result in ________________. (c) Customised and target communications and offerings
(a) Customer exodus (d) All the above
(b) Customer retention
(e) None of these
(c) Customer complaints
162. ______comprises the process of developing and
(d) Training of staff
maintaining a portfolio of products that satisfy the needs of
(e) varying the interest rates
154. Advertisements are necessary for ______________. the customers from different segments:
(a) only old products (a) Product mix
(b) launching new products (b) Product planning
(c) only costly products (c) Product marketing
(d) only obsolete products (d) Product manufacturing
(e) advertisements are wasteful expenses (e) None of these
155. A Master policy in the case of Life insurance 163. Business of a bank is increasing, but increase of business of
indicates_______________. other banks is higher than the increase in the business of
(a) policy is sale the concerned bank. The result would be:
(b) policy is in the name of servant (a) Lowering of profits
(c) only one life is assured (b) Lowering of business turnover
(d) there are several beneficiaries (c) Lowering of market price
(e) life assured should be a male (d) Increase in market share
156. Financial inclusion needs canvassing the accounts of (e) All of the above
______________. 164. In India which among the following determines the prices of
(a) Financial Institutions banking products:
(b) NRIs (a) Government of India
(c) HNIs (b) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Housewives (c) Policy formulation by IBA
(e) Persons below a specified income level
(d) Policy formulation by Boards of concerned banks
157. Effective retail banking presupposes____________.
(a) Large Premises
(b) Huge kiosks 165. Which of the following actions on the part of the marketing
(c) big sales force channels is a part of market information?
(d) coordination between marketing and front office staff (a) Gather information about current customers
(e) More products (b) Gather information about potential customers
158. A theory states that no matter how efficiently goods / (c) Gather information about competitors
services are produced, if they cannot be delivered to the (d) Disseminate the information to producer
customer in the quickest possible time it is vain. (e) All of the above
252 SPEED TEST 101
166. A bank makes use of certain other persons on hire basis for 174. Marketing is complex in Banks compared to other commercial
marketing of bank services. This process is called: concerns. Which among the following justifies this
(a) Direct sale agents statement?
(b) Direct marketing agents (a) Bank Marketing is a service Marketing
(c) Direct representatives (b) The focus of the bank marketing is customer
(d) Outsourcing of financial services (c) The Bank marketing is doubly oriented
(e) All of the above (d) Banking products are intangible
167. A bank offers discount coupons to the customers availing (e) None of these
consumer loans from the bank. Which of the following kinds 175. Which of the following Bank India is known to be the first
of marketing mix is it? Indian Bank to adopt the concept of Market Segmentation?
(a) Direct marketing (b) Personal selling (a) Punjab National Bank (b) State Bank of India
(c) Advertising (d) Public relation (c) ICICI Bank (d) Bank of Baroda
(e) Sales promotion (e) Canara Bank
168. While taking a decision on 'brand extension decision' main 176. Many banks offer Project Counseling in their products
factor to be considered are: portfolio. Product counseling can be placed in which of the
(a) Value perception from the point of view of customer following product categories of Banks?
(b) Advantage of the product over the nearest competitors (a) Deposits
(c) Quantity of sales (b) International Banking
(d) None of the above (c) Consultancy
(e) Both (a) & (b) (d) Advances
169. Major functions of a bank marketing management are to (e) Guarantees
systematically manage the process of which of the following: 177. The best promotional tool in any marketing is
(a) Collection of information (a) Pamphlets
(b) Evaluation of information (b) Newsletters
(c) Disseminating market information (c) Word of mouth publicity
(d) All of the above (d) Regional Advertisements
(e) Both (b) & (c) (e) Viral marketing
170. Which of the following is not a factor makes the MIS 178. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of
important in the present day environment? Internet Banking.
(a) Information explosion (a) All the customers
(b) Communication gap (b) All the educated customers
(c) Prompt decision making (c) All the computer educated customers
(d) Non-price competition (d) Only creditors
(e) None of the above (e) All of the above
171. Which of the following is not a component of MIS? 179. A bank has a special product for senior citizens which
(a) Internal records system provides cheque book on saving account with customer
(b) Marketing research system name on cheque book, free of cost debit card with over draft
(c) Market intelligence system facility of Rs.15,000,a special pouch for holding passbook,
(d) Marketing Management and science system cheque book and debit card, facility for withdrawal and
(e) None of these deposits at any branch of the bank, free of cost remittances
172. Marketing Information System is concerned with information to any branch of the bank, and free cost remittances to any
relating to which of the following? branch of another bank covered under RTGS facility. Which
(a) The computer hardware system used in handling the of the following is the core product in this offering?
data base (a) Overdraft (b) Remittances
(b) The set of input and output reports to collate and (c) Saving Accounts (d) All of these
purvey information (e) None of these
(c) The structure of people, equipment and procedures for 180. Market Segmentation helps in ____________ .
generating and processing the information (a) Identifying the target gourp
(d) The software used for collecting and processing the (b) Focussed marketing
information (c) Improved lead generation
(e) All of the above (d) Only (a) and (b)
173. Which among the following generally does not come under (e) All (a), (b) and (c)
Corporate Banking? 181. The sequence of a sales process is _____________ .
(a) Structured Finance (a) Lead generation, call, presentation and sale
(b) Government Banking (b) Sale, presentation, Lead generation and call
(c) FI, Capital Markets & Custodial Services (c) Presentation, Lead generation, Sale and Call
(d) Debit Cards (d) Lead generation, Call, Sale and Presentation
(e) None of these (e) There is no sequence required
SPEED TEST 101 253
182. 'Value -added services' means ___________ . 191. A market where there are manysellers offering an identical product
(a) Better value at a premium and where there is free entry to the market is known as -
(b) Costlier services (a) Monopoly
(c) Additional services (b) Oligopoly
(d) Better value at a discount (c) Perfect competition
(e) At a par services (d) Monopolistic competition
183. Market segmentation is useful for _________. (e) None of above
(a) Preferential marketing 192. Which of the following is the best definition of a market?
(b) Targeting existing clients (a) A shopping center
(c) Identifying prospects (b) An arrangement of buyers and sellers
(d) Knowing customers' tastes (c) An industry with many competitors
(e) All of the above (d) An industry that is not a monopoly
(e) None of above
184. Banks sell insurance for
193. Marketing is a Social-economic activity because-
(a) Increasing Deposits
(a) Marketing is related with Social Staisfaction
(b) Increasing Loans (b) It is a Social Person
(c) Increasing Clients (c) It is a Corporate Citizen
(d) Earning more profits (d) All of the above
(e) Taking over insurance companies (e) None of these
185. A form of distribution in which manufacturer makes an 194. Who is the Potential Customer of the Bank?
agreement, with a middleman in each market area stipulating (a) A Person who want to take loan from the Bank
that the distribution of the product within that is to be (b) A Staff of Bank
confined solely to that middleman is known as (c) A Manager of Bank
____________ . (d) Present Customer
(a) Mass Distribution (e) None of these
(b) Exclusive agency distribution 195. The market analysis function includes-
(c) Selective distribution (a) Purchasing Power of Consumer
(d) Price Distribution (b) Consumer's Income
(e) None of these (c) Study of teh market environment
186. A situation where by market is expanded by developing new (d) All of these
products to satisfy new consumer needs is called (e) None of these
_____________. 196. Which is the branding of Bank?
(a) Market development (a) Fixed deposits or Term deposits
(b) Diversification (b) Personal Loan
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Mutual Fund
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) All of these
187. In online marketing, there is _________. 197. Marketing is important for bank customer, in which area-
(a) No exchange (a) Available of bank loan at fair rate of interest
(b) Exchange is the core of marketing (b) Knowledge of banking's new product
(c) Guarantee (c) Selling of Credit cards
(d) Only warranty
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
198. In Consumer-orientation, bank considered-
188. Market Segmentation can be resorted to by means of (a) Bank customer's need
(a) segmenting by age (b) Bank customer's requirement
(b) segmenting by income (c) Bank customer's attitude
(c) segmenting geographically (d) All of the above
(e) None of these 199. What is after sale service of the bank?
189. TheTarget Group for Agricultural Loans is (a) To pay the loan
(a) any farmer (b) To provide Job
(b) farm labourers (c) To make the payment after or on maturity of Fixed
(c) any individual dealing in agricultural or related activity deposits
(d) farmers' societies (d) To provide loan
190. The meaning of "Conversation" in terms of sales is 200. Which is not the concept of marketing?
(a) Designing new products (a) Social marketing concept
(b) Converting Purchasers into sellers (b) Product disposal planning concept
(c) Converting sellers into purchasers (c) Marketing concept
(d) Converting perspective customers into purchasers (d) Product concept
(e) Conversion of religion (e) None of these
254 SPEED TEST 101
161. What is the recommended rate of application of the herbicide
OR metsulfuron in wheat ?
(a) 4 g/ha (b) 10 g/h
Professional Knowledge: Agriculture (c) 16 g/ha (d) 22 g/ha
151. An auction market in which participants buy and sell for (e) None of these
delivery on a specified future date is called : 162. ICPL-87 is the variety of :
(a) Commodity market (b) Contract market (a) Green gram (b) Black gram
(c) Futures market (d) Open market (c) Gram (d) Pigeon pea
(e) Cooperative market (e) Maize
152. India has been divided into how many principal cotton 163. The safe limit of land slope in border irrigation method in
growing regions ? medium loam soil is :
(a) Three (b) Two (a) 0.05 - 0.20% (b) 0.20 - 0.40%
(c) Five (d) Four (c) 0.40 - 0.60% (d) 0.60 - 0.80%
(e) Seven (e) 0.20 - 0.35%
153. The major agriculture land in India is under 164. How much area of total area of transplanting is required for
(a) Plantation crops (b) Food crops raising paddy nursery ?
(c) Cash crops (d) oil seeds (a) 5% (b) 10%
(e) None of these (c) 15% (d) 20%
154. Jhum cultivation is prevalent in (e) 8%
(a) Manipur (b) Madhya Pradesh 165. Herbicide paraquat is recommended for the control of
(c) Punjab (d) Haryana cascuta weed in
(e) Himachal Pradesh (a) Berseem (b) Lucern
155. Fishing is highly developed along the western coast of India as (c) Oats (d) Barley
(a) The continental shelf along the western coast is not (e) None of these
well developed 166. Which of these elements can partially substitute
(b) The continental shelf along the western coast is well Molybdenum in nitrogen fixation by Rhizohium ?
pronounced (a) Sodium (b) Silicon
(c) The continental slope along the western coast is well (c) Vanadium (d) Cobalt
developed (e) None of these
(d) The continental slope along the western coast is not 167. The biofertilizer that can neither be cultured in the absence
well developed of living roots nor isolated on agar plate by standard
(e) None of these microbiological technique is :
156. Green Revolution in India has so far been the most (a) VAM (b) Azospirillum
successful in the case of (c) Azotobacter (d) Rhizobium
(a) Rice and wheat (b) Tea and coffee (e) None of these
(c) Wheat and potato (d) Mustard and Oilseeds 168. For how many days Medium Range Weather Forecasting
(e) Cotton is valid ?
157. Yellow Revolution is related to : (a) 1-3 (b) 3-10
(a) Pulses (b) Oilseeds
(c) 10-15 (d) 15-21
(c) Meat (d) Vegetables
(e) 5-12
(e) Flowers
169. In dapog method of nursery raising of paddy, the seedlings
158. Bikaneri Nerma Bt Cotton was developed at :
are ready for transplanting in how many days ?
(a) RAU, Bikaner (b) IARI, New Delhi
(a) 8-10 (b) 12-14
(c) UAS, Dharwad (d) TNAU, Coimbatore
(c) 20-22 (d) 28-30
(e) None of these
(e) 15-20
159. The herbicide Carfentrazone is used to control weeds in :
170. The Agroforestry system involving crops + trees + pasture
(a) Wheat (b) Maize
+ animals is called :
(c) Paddy (d) Cotton
(a) Agri-silviculture (b) Silvi-pastoral
(e) Gram
(c) Agri-horticulture (d) Agri-silvipastoral
160. Ajmer comes under which agroclimatic zone of Rajasthan ?
(e) None of these
(a) Semi-arid eastern plain
171. The optimum temperature for wheat germination is :
(b) Flood prone eastern plain
(a) 25-27C (b) 20-22C
(c) Sub-humid southern plain
(c) 15-17C (d) 10-12C
(d) Irrigated north western plain
(e) 23-25C
(e) None of these
SPEED TEST 101 255
172. Which of these elements is important in stabilizing various 182. Which of these statements is correct in relation to viroids?
enzyme systems in plants ? (a) These were discovered by Theodor Otto Diener.
(a) Nitrogen (b) Phosphorus (b) They consist of small-circular coat.
(c) Potassium (d) Sulphur (c) Their RNA lack protein coat.
(e) Iron (d) All the above statement are correct.
173. The soils difficult to cultivate because of high expansion (e) None of these
and contraction due to high clay content are classified as : 183. The _______content of rice plant and its susceptibility to
(a) Vertisols (b) Alfisols blast disease are inversely related :
(c) Histosols (d) Inceptisols (a) Zinc (b) Silicon
(c) Nitrogen (d) Boron
(e) None of these
(e) Coppor
174. The nitrogen percentage in humus is about :
184. The fungicide Carbendazim is a
(a) 4 - 4.5% (b) 5 - 5.5%
(a) Organophosphate (b) Pyrimidine
(c) 6 - 6.5% (d) 7 - 7.5%
(c) Triazole (d) Bensimidazole
(e) 6 - 6.9% (e) None of these
175. The gypsum equivalent or iron pyrite used for reclamation 185. Which disease is caused by Sporisorium sorghi in sorghum ?
of sodic soils is : (a) Grain smut (b) Head smut
(a) 0.85 (b) 0.19 (c) Long smut (d) Loose smut
(c) 1.29 (d) 0.63 (e) Dense smut
(e) 1.5 186. Whip like black shoot is produced is sugarcane plant
176. To transplant one hectare land, how many grams of brinjal suffering from disease :
seeds are sufficient ? (a) Smut (b) Blight
(a) 500-700 (b) 1000-1200 (c) Rust (d) Rot
(c) 1500-2000 (d) 250-500 (e) None of these
(e) 700-900 187. Genetic purity of seed means freedom of seeds from :
177. The seed rate (kg/ha) of ladies finger for rainy season crop (a) seeds of other crops (b) Inert material
is about: (c) Other variety seeds (d) Weed seeds
(a) 10 (b) 15 (e) Mixed material
(c) 20 (d) 25 188. Random change in gene frequency due to sampling error is
(e) 13 called :
178. Whip tail disease of cauliflower is caused by the deficiency (a) Migration (b) Mutation
of : (c) Genetic drift (d) Selection
(a) Molybdenum (b) Boron (e) None of these
189. What is the minimum isolation distance for production of
(c) Zinc (d) Phosphorus
certified seed of hybrid pearl-millet?
(e) None of these
(a) 200 m (b) 300 m
179. Which of these phosphides is used as bait to control rats ? (c) 400 m (d) 1000m
(a) Alluminium phosphide (e) 500 m
(b) Calcium phosphide 190. In case of poultry, the feed efficiency indicates:
(c) Magnesium phosphide (a) Ratio of feed consumption to weight gained
(d) Zinc phosphide (b) Ratio of feed consumption to feeces passed
(e) Iron phosphide (c) Ratio of feed consumption to total body weight
180. Khapra beetle is : (d) Ratio of feed consumption to number of eggs produced
(a) Trogoderma granarium (e) None of these
(b) Rhizopertha dominica 191. Merino breed of sheep is :
(c) Sitotroga cereallela (a) Mutton breed
(d) Sitophylus granarium (b) Fine wool breed
(e) None of these (c) Coarse carpet wool breed
181. Which of these states of India suffers the most from the (d) Apparel wool breed
outbreak of locust ? (e) Normal wool breed
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Rajasthan 192. Which of these is not a milch breed of cow ?
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Haryana (a) Malvi (b) Sahiwal
(c) Red Sindhi (d) Gir
(e) Punjab
(e) Ganga tiri
256 SPEED TEST 101
193. Which of these is the most widely used cryoprotective agent 197. Which of these programmes fosters basic wage security ?
for bull spermatozoa particularly for frozen semen ? (a) ATMA (b) MREGA
(a) Fructose (b) Glucose (c) JRY (d) NAIP
(c) Manose (d) Glycerol (e) SAIP
(e) Sucrose 198. Which of the component of M.B. plough helps in inverting
194. A situation of market in which supply is exactly equal to the furrow slice ?
demand is termed as : (a) Share (b) Land side
(a) Equilibrium (b) Stable (c) Frog (d) Mould board
(c) Volatile (d) Unstable (e) Upper side
(e) None of these 199. ATMA was introduced in 2005-06 to address the constraints
195. India has been member of World Trade Organization since: of :
(a) 1-1-1995 (b) 1-1-1996 (a) CD (b) T&V
(c) 1-1-1997 (d) 1-1-1998 (c) GMF (d) HYVP
(e) 1-1-1994 (e) None of these
196. In what proportion all the financial liabilities under National 200. Pusa ruby is a variety of _________
Agriculture Scheme is shared by central and state (a) Brinjal (b) Tomato
governments ? (c) Sngarcane (d) Wheat
(a) 75 : 25 (b) 25 : 75 (e) Rice
(c) 50 : 50 (d) 80 : 20
(e) 30 : 70
RESPONSE SHEET
Test Code : ............................... Time taken : ......................... Date : ..........................
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
1. 51. 101. 151.
2. 52. 102. 152.
3. 53. 103. 153.
4. 54. 104. 154.
5. 55. 105. 155.
6. 56. 106. 156.
7. 57. 107. 157.
8. 58. 108. 158.
9. 59. 109. 159.
10. 60. 110. 160.
11. 61. 111. 161.
12. 62. 112. 162.
13. 63. 113. 163.
14. 64. 114. 164.
15. 65. 115. 165.
16. 66. 116. 166.
17. 67. 117. 167.
18. 68. 118. 168.
19. 69. 119. 169.
20. 70. 120. 170.
21. 71. 121. 171.
22. 72. 122. 172.
23. 73. 123. 173.
24. 74. 124. 174.
25. 75. 125. 175.
26. 76. 126. 176.
27. 77. 127. 177.
28. 78. 128. 178.
29. 79. 129. 179.
30. 80. 130. 180.
31. 81. 131. 181.
32. 82. 132. 182.
33. 83. 133. 183.
34. 84. 134. 184.
35. 85. 135. 185.
36. 86. 136. 186.
37. 87. 137. 187.
38. 88. 138. 188.
39. 89. 139. 189.
40. 90. 140. 190.
41. 91. 141. 191.
42. 92. 142. 192.
43. 93. 143. 193.
44. 94. 144. 194.
45. 95. 145. 195.
46. 96. 146. 196.
47. 97. 147. 197.
48. 98. 148. 198.
49. 99. 149. 199.
50. 100. 150. 200.
HINTS &
SOLUTIONS
SOLUTIONS 1
SPEED TEST 1 260

x= = 52
5
53 x + 1 + x + 4 = 2x + 5 = 2 52 + 5 = 109
1. (d) (26)2 358 = x
100 12. (d) According to question number = x
53 x 2 + 42 3 = 238
676 358 = x
100 2x = 112 or x = 56
53 Again 3 56 + 42 2 = 168 + 84 = 252.
318 = x 13. (c) Suppose the number is 10x + y.
100
\ x = 600 (When number at unit place is y and at tens place is x)
3 23 (10x + y) (10y + x) = 9
Again 600 = 103.5
xy=1 .... (i) x + y = 15 .... (ii)
4 100
376 Solving equation (i) and (ii) we get, x = 8; y = 7
2. (b) Average of Set A = = 47 Required number = 10 8 + 7 = 87
8
Minimum number of second set = 47 + 15 = 62 14. (d) Total consumption of electricity
Hence, required sum = 62 + 63 + 64 + 65 + 66 = 320 = (10 16 8 + 3 10 8) unit
3. (d) 4. (d) = (1280 + 240) unit = 1520 unit
5. (c) (H) Hens has one head and two feet. 15. (b) Suppose the number is x.
x
(G) Goats has one head and four feet. x - = 180 7x - x = 180
According to question, 7 7
H + G = 90 ...... (i) 6x 180 7
2H + 4G = 248 ..... (ii) = 180 x =
7 6
Multiplying by 2 in equation (i) and subtract x = 210
2H+ 2G = 180 16. (e) Suppose numbers are x and y
2H + 4G = 248 3 5 x 5 4 x 10
\ x = y = s =
- - 4 6 y 6 3 y 9
- 2G = - 68 17. (d) Suppose first and second number is x and y.
2x2 = 6y
\ G = 34
\ Number of goats = 34 x2 = 3y
Put the value of G in equation (i) Ratio cannot be determined.
18. (b) Suppose digit at tens place is 2x and unit place is x.
H + 34 = 90
H = 56 So original number = 20x + x = 21x
6. (e) x + y = 15 .... (i) After interchanging the number
= 10x + 2x = 12x
x y=3 .... (ii)
Add eqs. (i) and (ii) 21x 12x = 27
x = 9, y = 6 x=3
So, number = 63
Product of two digits of the number = 9 6 = 54
7. (e) P + T = 858 .... (i) Anujs monthly salary = 324000 12 = 27000
(Because both have one head) 19. (c) Suppose each child got x sweets.
\ 112 x = (112 32) (x + 6)
2P + 4T = 1746 .... (ii)
(Because parrot has two legs and tiger has four legs) 112 x = 80 (x + 6)
Multiply by 2 in Eq. (i) and subtract) 112 x = 80x + 480
112 x 80 x = 480
2P + 2T = 1716
-2P 4T = 1746 x = 15
3 4 33 19
-2T = -30 20. (d) 6 - 3 355 = - 355
\ T = 15 P = 843 5 5 5 5
8. (a) Suppose the number is x. 33 - 19 14 355
= 355 = = 994
1 3 2 5 4 3 5 5
x = 15 x = 15 x = 150 21. (b) Suppose the number is 10x + y
5 4 3 1 3 2
30% of x = 150 .3 = 45 Q (10 x + y) (10y + x) = 63
9. (c) Suppose the number of sweets is = x 9x 9y = 63
x x x y=7
\ - =3 x + y = 11
450 - 150 450
x x 3x - 2x \ x=9
- =3 or =3 y=2
300 450 900 So, required number = 92
x = 2700
22. (b) Suppose the number is x
2700
Number of sweets to each children = =9 1
300 Q x 5 = 81
75 2
10. (b) x 600 = 320 x = 81 5 = 405
100 3
600 75 2 x 68 405 68
x = 320 + = 620 \ =
100 3 100 100
11. (e) x + x + 1 + x + 2 + x + 3 + x + 4 = 270 x = 275.4
5x = 27 10 = 260
2 101 SPEED TEST
? 243 6y 12 y y
23. (c) = (?)2 = 432 243 2 - 8 = y - 4 or y = 4 + 8 or =4
432 ? 11 11 11
? = 104976 = 324 \ y = 44 yr.
\ Age of Rakesh after 5 yr = 44 + 5 = 49 yr.
24. (d) Suppose the numbers are x and y x + 1.5x 25
Q xy = 640 2. (c) =
and x + y = (x y) + 32 y + 3.5 y 51
x + y = x y + 32 2.5 x 25
=
2y = 32 4.5 y 51
y = 16 x 25 45 15
640 = =
and x = = 40 y 51 25 17
16 7 3
So, largest number is 40. 3. (e) 1008 - 968
8 4
25. (b) Suppose the number is x.
882 726 = 156
5
x = 720 4. (a) Suppose the number is x.
6 1 3 2 5 4 3
720 6 x = 15 x = 15 x = 150
x= 5 4 3 1 3 2
5 30% of x = 150 0.3 = 45
\ x = 864
5. (e) Change the fractional value into percentage
45
\ 864 = 388.8 5
100 = 83 %
1
100
7 3 6 3
26. (d) ? = 1008 - 568 2 2
8 4 100 = 66 %
? = 882 426 = 456 3 3
27. (b) Suppose the number is x. 2
100 = 40%
2x2 11x = 21 5
2x2 11x 21 = 0 2x2 14x + 3x 21 = 0 1
100 = 25%
2x (x 7) + 3(x 7) = 0 (x 7) (2x + 3) = 0 4
3 2 2
\ x = 7 or - 100 = 18 %
2 11 11
28. (e) Suppose the greater number is x 2
x(x 2) = 6888 or x2 2x 6888 = 0 Value less than 20% =
11
x2 84x + 82x 6888 = 0 or x(x 84) + 82(x 84) = 0 6. (e) Suppose first number is x and second number is y.
(x 84) (x + 82) = 0 or x = 84 or 82 4
So, the greater number is 84. y = 0.3x = y
5
29. (c) Let the total number of packages be x. y 0.8 y = 0.3x
2 0.2 y = 0.3 x
After uploading x packages remaining packages are
5 x 2
2 3 =
x x= x y 3
5 5
x
According to the question, 7. (e) Suppose the original fraction is .
When he uploaded another 3 packages then of original no. y
of packages remained. According to question,
3x x 400
3 1x x+x
\ 3= x =3 100 = 20 x + 4 x = 20
5 2 5 2
6x 5x = 30 x = 30
500 27 y + 5 y 27
y+ y
Hence, 30 packages were in the van before the first delivery. 100
5 x 20 x 20 6 x 8
30. (a) An army commander has 5180 men in the form of a solid = = =
square. 6 y 27 y 27 5 y 9
If he get four more men and form the solid square x
then no. of men in the front row 8. (b) Suppose original fraction is .
y
= 5180 + 4 = 5184 = 72 200 x
x+
\ 100 = 5 300 x 100 = 5
SPEED TEST 2 350 y 12 100 450 y 12
y+
100
1. (c) Let the age of Ram = x and Rakesh = y 2x 5
300 x 5 x 5 3 x 5
x 6 = = = =
then = 450 y 12 3 y 12 y 12 2 y 8
y 11
Short cut
6y
\ x= x + 2x 5
11 =
x-4 1 y + 3.5 y 12
According to question, = 3x 5 x 5 45 5
y-4 2 = or = =
2x 8 = y 4 4.5 y 12 y 3 12 8
9. (b) Suppose number is x.
SOLUTIONS 3
4 3 2 1 19. (a) The LCM of 6, 7, 8 , 9 and 10 = 2520
\ x - x = 648 The greatest number of 6 digits = 999999
5 4 5 6
12 x 2 x 36 x - 4 x Dividing 999999 by 2520, we get 2079 as remainder. Hence,
- = 648 = 648 the 6-digit number divisible by 2520, is (999999 2079), or
20 30 60
648 60 997920.
32 x
= 648 x = = 81 15 Since 6 4 = 2, 7 5 = 2, 8 6 = 2, 9 7 = 2, 10 8 = 2, the
60 32 remainder in each case is less than the divisor by 2.
x = 1215
\ the required number = 997920 2 = 997918
3 4 33 19 20. (b) The LCM of 9, 10 and 15 = 90
10. (d) 6 - 3 355 = - 355
5 5 5 5 On dividing 1936 by 90, the remainder = 46
33 - 19 14 355 But 7 is also a part of this remainder.
= 355 = = 994 \ the required number = 46 7 = 39
5 5
x 21. (a) LCM of 32, 36, 48, 54 = 864
11. (c) Suppose original fraction is = \ the required greatest number = 10,000 864 = 9, 136
y 22. (b) The least number which, when divided by 8, 12 and 16, leaves
240
x+ x 3 as remainder = (LCM of 8, 12, 16) + 3 = 48 + 3 = 51
100 = 2 5 x + 2.4x 17 Other such numbers are 48 2 + 3 = 99, 48 3 + 3 = 147,
Q y - 50 y 6 =
y - 0.5y 6 \ the required number which is divisible by 7 is 147.
100 23. (b) Let x be the remainder, then the numbers (55 x),
3.4x 17 (127 x) and (175 x) are exactly divisible by the required
=
0.5y 6 number.
x 17 0.5 Now, we know that if two numbers are divisible by a certain
\ = number, then their difference is also divisible by the number.
y 6 3.4
Hence the numbers (127 x) (55 x), (175 x) (127 x)
x 5 and (175 x) (55 x) or, 72, 48 and 120 are divisible by
=
y 12 the required number. HCF of 48, 72 and 120 = 24, therefore
x the required number = 24.
12. (d) Suppose the fraction is 24. (d) LCM of 8, 12 and 16 = 48. Such numbers are (48 1 + 3) =
y
x + 2x 15 3x 15 51, (48 2 + 3) = 99, which is divisible by 11.
Q y + 3y = 26 4y = 26 \ the required number = 9.
25. (d) LCM of 42, 49, 56, 63 = 3528; therefore, the required least
x 15 4 60 number = 3528 3500 = 28
\ = =
y 26 3 78 26. (a) 72 52 = 20, 80 60 = 20, 88 68 = 20. We see that in each
x 10 case, the remainder is less than the divisor by 20. The LCM
\ =
y 13 of 72, 80 and 88 = 7920, therefore, the required number 7920
13. (b) Suppose the number is x 20 = 7900
1 27. (a) The greatest number of 4 digits = 9999. LCM of 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,
Q x = 81 x = 81 5 = 405 7 = 420
5 On dividing 9999 by 420, we get 339 as remainder.
x 68 405 68 \ the greatest number of 4 digits which is divisible by 2, 3,
\ =
100 100 4, 5, 6 and 7 = 9999 339 = 9660
x = 275.4 \ the required number = 9660 + 1= 9661
14. (c) The LCM of 18, 22, 30 is 990. 28. (b) LCM of 48, 72, 108 = 432
So, they will meet each other after 990, ie, 16 min and 30 the traffic lights will change simultaneously after 432 seconds
sec. or 7 min = in 12 secs.
15. (b) Time taken \ they will change simultaneously at 8 : 27 : 12 hrs.
29. (d) The first number = 2 44 = 88
2 18, 24, 32
HCF LCM 44 264
2 9, 12, 16 \ The second number = = = 132
88 88
2 9, 6, 8 30. (b) HCF = 12. Then let the numbrs be 12x and 12y.
3 9, 3, 4 Now 12x 12y = 2160 \ xy = 15
3, 1, 4 Possible values of x and y are (1, 15); (3, 5); (5, 3); (15, 1)
\ the possible pairs of numbers (12, 180) and (36, 60)
2 2 2 3 3 4 = 288 sec 31. (a) The required numbers should be multiples of 144. We have
16. (d) The required number must be a factor of (11284 7655) or the greatest number of 4 digits = 9999. On dividing 9999 by
3629. 144, we get 63 as the remainder.
Now, 3629 = 19 191 \ required greatest number of 4 digits = 9999 63 = 9936
\ 191 is the required number. Again, we have the least number of 5 digits = 10000
LCM HCF 2079 27 On dividing 10,000 by 144, we get 64 as the remainder.
17. (c) The required number = = = 297 \ the required least number of 5 digits
First number 189
= 10,000 + (144 64) = 10,080
18. (a) Clearly, the required number must be greater than the LCM 32. (a) The required number = LCM of 12, 18, 32, 40 = 1440
of 18, 24, 30 and 42 by 1. 33. (a) LCM of 32, 36 and 40 = 1440, therefore, the required number
Now, 18 = 2 32 = 1440 8 = 1432
24 = 23 3 34. (c) Bells will toll together again at a time, which is obtained by
30 = 2 3 5 taking L.C.M. of their individual tolling intervals.
42 = 2 3 7 L.C.M. of 9, 12 and 15 = 180 min
\ LCM = 32 23 5 7 = 2520 They will toll together again after 180 min, i.e. 3 hours.
\ the required number = 2520 + 1 = 2521 Time = 8 + 3 = 11 a.m.
4 101 SPEED TEST
35. (b) Since each rod must be cut into parts of equal length and
each part must be as long as possible, so HCF should be
19. (c) (74 )
676 - 42 ? = 496
taken. ( 74 26 - 496)
?= = 1428 42 = 34 = (34)2 = 1156
HCF of 78, 104, 117 and 169 = 13. 42
78 20. (b) ? = (41)2 + (38)2 (0.15)2
No. of parts from 78cm. rod = =6
13 1681 + 1444 0.0225 = 1681 + 32.49 = 1713.49
104 21. (e) 312
No. of parts from 104 cm. rod = =8
13 22. (e) ?2 = 2 48 8 = 21 + 8 + 49 14 8
117 = 14 8 21 + 57 14 8 = 36 = 62
No. of parts from 117 cm. rol = =9
13 \?=6
169 23. (e) 7365 + 29.16 + ? = 7437.16
No. of parts from 169 cm. rod = = 13 .
13 ? = 473.16 7394.16
\ Maximum no. of pieces = 6 + 8 + 9 + 13 = 36
? = 43 = 1849
3
SPEED TEST 3 756 67
24. (b) = 250047
1190 1190 ? 804
1. (a) ? = 3094 or, = 3094
7225 85 25. (c) 26. (d)
or, ? =
3094 85
1190
= 221
27. (d) ?=
{ 2
( 56) + ( 44) 2
}
=
( 56) 2 + ( 44 )2

2

( )
2. (a) Q ?- 2 5 = ( )2 = 5 + 1 - 2
5 -1 5 2
56
16
44
2
4
\?=6 = + = 142 + 11
12 = 196 + 121 = 317
4 4
? 25 ? 5 5 1
3. (a) = = = =
36 (11 3 - 18) 6 33 - 18 15 3 28. (b) 17 + 51 + 152 + 289
6 = 17 + 51 + 152 + 17 = 17 + 51 + 169
\= = 2
3 = 17 + 51 + 13 = 17 + 8 = 25 = 5
4. (c)
29. (d) 217 + 64 217 + 8 = 225 = 15
5. (e) 169 25 26 + 7 = (?)2 = 125 = ?2 ? = 125 = 5 5 30. (a)
6. (e) (16) 2 - 53 +169 = ( ? )
2
31. (b) 3100 567 250 = ? 8
256 125 + 13 = (?)2 56 24 ?
56 24 16 ? 8
144 = (?)2 16 8
? = 12 56 24 8
2 ?= 672
7. (b) ? = 225 + 2304 + (12 ) = 15 + 48 + 144 = 207 16
\ required answer = 670
8. (b) ? = 450 + 890 + 685 = 2025 = 45 32. (c) 73.86 46.04 21.44 = ?
13
9. (c) ? = ( 6859 ) + 4 = 19 + 4 = 23 ? = 74 46 22
447 ? = 154.7 160
10. (e) ? = 7 + 73 - 26 = 149 + 73 - 26 = 196 = 14 33. (e) (45)2 < 2230 < (50)2
21
11. (c)
444
+ 15 + 11 ? = 7 34. (a) (
? = 7921 - 2070.25 )
1
4
37
12 + 15 + 11 ? = 49 11 ? = 49 27 = 22
(89 - 45.5) = 43.5 44 = 11
=
22 4 4 4
\ ?= =2 35. (e)
11
60 - 40 20 210.25 21025 145 145
? = 5 = 5 = 50 36. (d) + + 14.5 + 1.45 = 15.95
12. (d) 2 2 100 10000 10 100
37. (a) 4 2000 45
13. (d) ? = 4 2 = 16 4 16
\ ? = 256 85 400
255 5 425
14. (b) ( ?) 2 = =3 \ ?= 3 -25
17 5 Clearly, the required least number is 25.
9 16 5
15. (d) ( ?) 2 = 80 + = 80 + 20 = 100 38. (b) Let the number be x.
36 Now, according to the question,
Q ? = 100 = 10 x2 (22)3 = 9516
16. (a) ?= ( )2 - 2
6 +1 6 = 6 +1+ 2 6 - 2 6 = 7 or, x2 = 9516 + (22)3 = 9516 + 10648 = 20164
x = 20164 = 142
184 39. (a) Let the number be x.
17. (c) 12 + 26 - 73 = ?
23 According to the question.
= 96 + 26 - 73 = ? = 122 - 73 = 49 = 7 (4052 x2) 15 = 41340
18. (b) 169 64 676 + 2 = (?)2 41340
4052 - x 2 = = 2756 x2 = 4052 2756 = 1296
= 169 64 26 + 2 = (?)2 = 171 90 = 81 15
\?=9 \ x = 1296 = 36
SOLUTIONS 5
40. (a) Number of rows = 34969 15
x = 2449 - 1921
187 100
1 34969 528 100
1 x= = 3520
15
249
28 11. (c) 57% of 394 2.5% of 996
224
57 2.5
2569 = 394 - 996
367 100 100
2569
= 225 25 = 200
34969 = 187 12. (a) 40% of 265 + 35% of 180 = 50% of ?
265 0.4 + 180 0.35 = ? 0.5
Hence, the number of rows = 187
169
SPEED TEST 4 106 + 63 = ? 0.5 ? = = 338
0.5
1 1 21 10
1. (b) 76% of 1285 = 35% of 1256 + ? 13. (b) 4 3 + ? = 20% of 120 + ? = 120 0.2
976.6 = 439.6 + ? 976.6 439.6 = ? 5 3 5 3
\ ? = 537 7 2 + ? = 24 ? = 10
2. (b) (21.5% of 999)1/3 + (43% of 601)1/2 = ? 14. (c) 14% of 250 ? % of 150 = 840
(1000 21.5%)1/3 + (600 43%)1/2 = ? 14 150 ?
250 = 840
(215)1/3 + (258)1/2 = ? 100 100
(216)1/3 + (256)1/2 = ? 35 1.5 ? = 840
(6)3 1/3 + (16)2 1/2 = ? 840
?=
6 + 16 = ? 35 15
? = 22 ? = 16
3. (a) 64.5% of 800 + 36.4% of 1500 = (?)2 + 38 18 27.5
516 + 546 = (?)2 + 38 15. (b) ? = 609 + 450
100 100
1062 38 = (?)2 = 109.62 + 123.75 = 233.37 233
1024 = (?)2 125 85
(32)2 = (?)2 16. (c) 3060 -? = 408
100 100
? = 32 85
4. (c) 41% of 601 250.17 = ? 77% of 910 3825 408 = ?
100
246 250 = ? 701 3417 100
701 + 246 250 = ? =?
700 = ? 85
5. (a) 40.005% of 439.998 + ?% of 655.011 = 228.5 4020 = ?
40 x x y
440 + 655 = 229 17. (d) 500 = 300
100 100 100 100
655x 655x 5x = 3y
176 + = 229 = 229 - 176 5x
100 100 y= .... (i)
53 100 3
x= 8 xy 200
655 = 60 xy = 3000
6. (d) 25% of 84 24% of 85 = ? 100 100
5x 5x
Q y = 3
21 204 = ? x = 3000
428.4 = ? 3
7. (b) 20.06%of 599 + 10.01% of 901 = ? 3000 3
20 10 5x2 = 3000 3 x2 =
600 + 900 =? 5
100 100
120 + 90 = ? x 2 = 1800
\ ? 210 x = 1800 = 2 3 3 10 10
8. (a) 14.2% of 5500 + 15.6% of ? = 1795 x = 30 2
15.6 185 35 ?
781 + ? = 1795 18. (d) 400 + 240 = 1648
100 100 100 100
15.6 ? ?
? = 1014 740 + 84 = 1648 824 = 1648
100 100 100
1014 100 824 100
?= = 6500 ?= or ? = 50
15.6 1648
9. (e) 36% of 245 40% of 210 = 10 ? 19. (a) Let the investment by Raghu = x
88.2 84 = 10 ? 90 9x
4.2 = 10 ? then Mohit = x =
100 10
? = 10 4.2 = 5.8 9 x 120 108 x
1 Pradeep = =
10. (a) of 3842 + 15% of ? = 2449 10 100 100
2 9 x 108 x
15 According, to question, x + + = 17880
1921 + x + = 2449 10 100
100 100 x + 90 x + 108 x 298 x
= 17880 or = 17880 or x = 6000
100 100
6 101 SPEED TEST
36 3x 9 x
20. (d) Number of girls in a college = 2000 = 720 \ x+ + = 86000
100 2 5
Then, boys = 2000 720 = 128 10 x + 15 x + 18 x
= 86000
75 10
Each girls monthly fees = 480 = ` 360 43x = 860000
100
x = 20000
Hence, total amount of fees both boys and girls
9
= (1280 480 + 720 360) = ` 873600 So, income of C = 20000 = ` 36000
21. (b) Ravis annual salary = 1.44 lacs 5
1 1 1 1 20 + 10 + 5 + 2 37
1.44 100000 28. (b) Total expenses = + + + = =
\ Monthly salary = = 12000 2 4 8 20 40 40
12 Saving = ` 900
60 Saving
Monthly salary of Raj = 12000 = 7200
100 Total monthly income = 1 - Total exp ense
Suppose annual salary of Anuj = x
900 900 900
20 75 = = = 40 = ` 12000
then x = 7200 12 37 3 3
100 100 1 - 40
x = 324000 40
Anujs monthly salary = 324000 12 = 27000 75
29. (e) Weight of water in the mixture of 60 g water = 60 = 45g
22. (b) Suppose total student = 100 100
interested in playing = 100 12% = 12 students weight of water in the mixture of 45 g water
= 45 + 15 = 60 g
3
interested in dancing = 100 = 75 students 60 100
4 \ Percentage of water = = 80%
75
interested in singing = 100 10% = 10 students
Remaining = 100 (12 + 75 + 10) = 3 students 30. (b) Let the original numbers be x and y and their product be xy.
Whereas remaining = 15 students 1 x 3 xy
Product of rd of x and 150% of y = y =
3 3 2 2
100 xy
\ Total students = 15 = 500 Required answer = 100 = 50%
3 2 xy
23. (b) Suppose the expense of Vimal = ` 100
Expense of Aman = ` 130
SPEED TEST 5
100 1000
Expense of Raman = 100 = ` 1. (e) Working with options, we have
90 9
Original New Difference
\ Ratio of the expense of Vimal, Aman and Raman
number number
1000 (a) 22 34 12
= 100 : 130 : = 90 : 117 : 100
9 (b) 63 96 33
So, the expense of Aman (c) 24 38 14
117 117 (d) 25
= 6447 = 6447 = ` 2457 Obviously, (e) is the correct option.
90 + 117 + 100 307
2. (c) Let the number of boys be x. Then, the number of girls =
24. (c) Suppose maximum marks = x
35 35 ( x + 15)
then x = 40 + 30 x = 70
100 100 New number of girls = ( x + 15) 1.1
70 100 New number of boys = x 1.16
x= = 200 marks
35 Then, 1.1( x + 15) = 1.16 x + 9
2 50 25
25. (b) ? = 630 1.16 x - 1.1x = 16.5 - 9 = 7.5
3 100 100 7.5
210 50 25 2 210 or 0.06x = 7.5 or x = = 125
?= ?= = 52.5 0.06
100 100 4 Number of boys = 125
26. (c) Suppose the monthly income of Natasha is ` x. Number of girls = 140
60 45 Number of students = 265
x = 11475 3. (b) Let the original number be 100.
100 100
11475 100 100 11475 100 100 Then, the new number = 100 1.1 0.9 = 99
x= = i.e. the number decreases by 1%.
60 45 2700
4. (b) The net annual increase = 5%.
x = ` 42500
Let the initial population be 100.
27. (d) Suppose Income of B = ` x
Then, population after 2 years = 100 1.05 1.05 = 110.25
150 3x Therefore, % increase in population = (110.25 100) = 10.25%
Income of A = x= `
100 2 5. (d) Let the total no. of parts produced at initial stage be 100.
120 3 x Then after three successive percentage rejections of 10%,
Income of C =
100 2 5% and 2%, we have
6 3x 9 x 100 0.9 0.95 0.98 = 83.79
= Therefore, a single effective rejection rate.
5 2 5
= 100 83.79 = 16.21
SOLUTIONS 7
20 10 20 200
6. (b) 40 % of boys = 40% of boys = 10 girls 15. (d) Increase in Area = 10 + 20 + = 30 + = 32%
2 100 100
Total no. of boys = 25 Hence, there will be 32% change in the cost of the plot.
\ Total number of students = 25 + 20 = 45 16. (a) Let x% marks obtained by Rajesh.
7. (b) 15% of 40% = 6% Given: Sushants marks = 1080.
1
8. (c) 20% of 75% = 15% Mohits Marks = 1080 + 1080 = 1296 (1)
80% of 25% = 20% 35% temporary. 5
x 9x
126 Also , Mohits marks = x = (2)
\ Total workers = 100 = 360 10 10
35
9x
9. (d) Only option (d) has difference of 308 and only 2914 is From (1) and (2), we have, = 1296 x = 1440 .
divisible by 47. 10
10. (c) Let he should score in second paper be x But given full marks are 2000
According to question 1440
\ x% = = 72% .
30% of 180 + x% of 150 = 50% of ( 180 + 150) 2000
54 + x % of 150 = 165 17. (a) Let the quantity of hematite mixed = x kg.
x % of 150 = 111 Now, 20% of the ore gets wasted.
111 100 80x
x= = 74% \ Remaining ore = 80% =
150 100
11. (d) Let the price of petrol be 1 80x 25 2000x x
Now, pure iron = = =
1 100 100 10000 5
Increase in price = 25% = But given pure iron in a year = 80,000 kg.
4
1 5 x
\ New price of petrol = 1 + = of original price \\ = 80, 000 x = 400,000 kg .
4 4 5
Let the expenditure be 1 and owner also wants to expend 1 110
18. (d) Population after 1st year = 10,000 = 11000
(or Rs. 100) 100
4 120
\ New quantity with the same amount = of original quantity Population after 2nd year = 11000 = 13200
5 100
4 1 95
\ Decrease in quantity = 1 = = 20% Population after 3rd year = 13200 = 12,540
5 5 100
Hence, owner must reduce 20% consumption of petrol Hence, population after 3rd year = 12, 540.
12. (c) Total marks = 180 + 150 = 330 19. (b) His height was = 5 feet 5 inch = 5 + 60 = 65 feet.
65 (1.25 1)
Student gets 30% in 1st paper out of 180 Required % correction = 100 = 20
and gets at least 50% marks overall. 65 1.25
20. (a) Total votes = 6000
50
i.e., 330 = 165 marks overall. Invalid votes = 25% of 6000
100 \ Valid votes = 75% of 6000 = 4500
Let he scores x marks out of 150 in IInd paper. Bhiku gets = 65% of 4500 = 2925 votes
\ According to the question : \ Mhatre gets = 4500 2925 = 1575 votes.
30 32
165 180 = x x = 111marks. 21. (e) 260 = 83.2 83
100 100
111 0.5 ? 4.78 1255 3.24 440
Thus, 100 = 74% marks 22. (d) = + = 59.989 + 14.256
150 100 100 100
\ He should get 74% marks in IInd paper. 74.245 100
\ ?= = 14849
13. (c) Total Tractor = 29400 0.5
i.e., Mahindra + non Mahindra = 29400 35 3365 8900
Given : Mahindra tractor = 15000 23. ( b) ? = + 1178 + 212 = 1390
100 42
\ Non-Mahindra tractor = 29400 15000 = 14400 1782.55
Now, 53% of 29400 = Red Mahindra + Red Non-Mahindra 24. (a) ? = = 9.958 10
179
53 84 1845 24 178
29400 = 15582.
25. (e) ? = +
100 100 100
Thus, Red Mahindra + Red Non-Mahindra = 15582 = 1549.8 + 42.72 = 1592.52 1590.
98 15000
Now, Non-Red Mahindra = 15582
100 26. (e) ? 25 1080 + 180 670 270 + 1206 = 1476 1475
100 100
= 15582 14700 = 882. 60 2920 10375
882 27. (b) ? = +
\ % non-Red Mahindra = 100 = 6.125% 100 13 18
14400 60 60 800
14. (b) Let x be the total grown quantity of wheat. (225 + 575) ; = 480
\ According to the question 100 100
28. (b) ? = (23.6% of 1254) (16.6% of 834)
31
(7% of x ) + 6 = % of x + 3 295.944 138.444 = 157.5
4
140 12300
7x 31x 31 - 28 29. (a) ? 140% of 12300 = = 17220 17000
+6= +3 3= x 100
100 400 400 22
1200
= x 400 million tonnes wheat grown. 30. (b) Approx value = 450 = 99 100
100
3
8 101 SPEED TEST
15. (a) ? = (31)31 (31) 27
SPEED TEST 6
? = (31)31 27
1. (c) (4 4)3 (512 8)4 (32 8)4 = (2 2)? + 4 ? = (31)4
(16)3 (64)4 (256)4 = (4)? + 4 ? = (961)2
{(12) }
(4)2 3 (4)3 4 (4)4 4 = (4)? + 4 2
-2
(4)6 (4)12 (4)16 = (4)? + 4 (12 )-4
16. (e) = =1
(4)6 2 + 16 = (4)? + 4 (4)10 = (4)? + 4 10 = ? + 4
\?=6 {(12) }2 -2 (12 )-4
2. (d) (0.125)3 (0.25)2 (0.5)2 = (0.5)? 3
812.5 9 4.5
(0.5)3 3 (0.5)2 2 (0.5)2 = (0.5)? 3 17. (e) = 9?
(0.5)9 (0.5)4 (0.5)2 = (0.5)? 3 34.8
(34 ) (32 )
2.5 4.5
(0.5)9 4 + 2 = (0.5)? 3 9 4 + 2 = ? 3 310 39
\ ? = 10 = 9? = 9?
3. (d) (16 4)3 (4)5 (2 8)2 = (4)? 3 4.8 34.8
(64)3 (4)5 (16)2 = (4)? (4)3 3 (4)5 (16)2 = (4)? 310+9- 4.8 = 9? 314.2 = 32?
(4)9 (4)5 (4)4 = (4)? (4)9 5 + 4 = (4)?
\?=8 14.2
2 ? = 14.2 ? = = 7.1
4. (e) (?)2 (12)2 (4 8)2 = 81 2
( ?)2 12 12 173.5 17 7.3
= 81 18. (c) = 17? 17? = 173.5 + 7.3 4.2 = 176.6
48 48 17 4.2
(?) = 81 16 = (9 4)2
2 \ ? = 6.6
\ ? = 36 64 64
5. (b) (0.064) (0.4)7 = (0.4)? (0.0256)2 19. (c) = 6? 68 3 = 6? 6? = 65 ? = 5
3
6
(0.4)3 (0.4)7 = (0.4)? (0.4)4 2
(0.4)3 + 7 = (0.4)? (0.4)8 ( 5) 2 2.7 54.2 = 52? 55.4 54.2
= 5 2 ?
20. (e) or,
( 0.4 )10 ? 55.4 55.4
= ( 0.4 )
( )
0.4
8 or, 55.4 +4.2 -5.4 = 52? or 2 ? = 4.2
4.2
(0.4)10 8 = (0.4)? \?= = 2.1
2 =? 2
( 8)
6 3+ 6- 4
6. (c) 93 812 273 = (3)? 21. (c) 8? =
3 3 6 4
( 64 ) 84 = 8 8 8 = 8 = 85
32 3 34 2 33 3 = (3)? \?=5
36 38 39 = (3)? or 36 + 8 9 = (3)?
( 32 )
2.2
35 = (3)? or ? = 5 22. (d) (3)3.5 ?
33 = ( 3 )
343 49
7. (a) ?= 33.5 + 4.4 - 3 = 3? 34.9 = 3? ? = 4.9
216 16 81
?=
73 72
=
75
=
75 23. (e) ( 0.04 )2 ( 0.008 ) ( 0.2 )6
3
6 2 34 4 3
6 6 4
67 = (0.2)4 (0.2)3 (0.2)6
= (0.2)4 3 + 6 = (0.2)7
( 9 ) ( 81 ) ( 27 ) = ( 3 )( )
3 5 3 ?
8. (c) \?=7
64 16
(3)3 (9)5 (3)3 2 = (3)? or (3)3 (3)2 5 (3)6 = (3)? = 4( ) = 4 = 4(? 3) = ? 3 = 1
?- 3
24. (b)
(3)3 + 10 6 = (3)? or (3)7 = (3)? 256
?=7 \?=3+1=4
9. (e) 81.1 42.7 23.3 = 2? 25. (d) 52 (5 5)3 5 5 5 = 52 53 53 = 511
2? = (23)1.1 (22)2.7 23.3 or 2? = (2)3.3 (2)5.4 23.3 ( 6 )4 6 4 63
= 6( )
216 = 6( ) =
? -5 6 -5
2? = (2)3.3 + 5.4 + 3.3 or 2? = (2)12.0 26. (b)
3 6
? = 12 (36 ) 6
16 32 2 4 25 ( 2 ) 4 +5 2 9 27. (c) (5)( 3.5) ( 5)( 4.8) ( 5)(2.4 ) ( 5)(?) = ( 5)(5.1)

10. (d) ?= = 2 3 4 = 2+3+4 = 3
9 27 81 3 3 3 ( 3) 53.5 +4.8+ 2.4 -? = 55.1
49 49 49 510.7 -? = 55.1
11. (a) ? = (49)3 (7)2 = = 2401
77 10.7 ? = 5.51
12. (a) 643.1 84.3 = 8? ? = 10.70 5.1 = 5
(82)3.1 (8)4.3 = 8? 86.2 84.3 = 8? 28. (d) Q (5)? = 52 253 625 = 52 56 54 = 52 + 6 + 4
86.2 + 4.3 = 8? 810.5 = 8? \ 2 + 6 + 4 = 12
? = 10.5 29. (b) (7)3 (72)2 73 = 7? 2
13. (d) 8? = 87 26 82.4 73 4 + 3 = 7 ? 2
82 ?2=2?=4
8? = 87 2.4 or 8? = 87 + 2 2.4 30. (c) 93.5 32.2 9(?) = 91.4
8
8? = 86.6 or ? = 6.6 32 3.5 32.2 32(?) = 32(1.4)
14. (c) ? = (27)18 (27)3 = (27)18 3 37 + 2.2 2(?) = 32.8 9.2 2(?) = 2.8
= (27)15 (Q am an = amn) 2(?) = 6.4 ? = 3.2
SOLUTIONS 9
SPEED TEST 7 SPEED TEST 8

1. (b) 1. (a) Average age of the remaining boys
2. (a) 3
? = 99 21 - 1968 = 111 (80 15 ) - (15 16 + 25 14 ) 1200 - 590 = 15.25
= =
\ ? = (111)3 = 1367631 40 40
8 6 7
(35 160) - 144 + 104 5600 - 144 + 104 5560
? = 790 = 79 8 14 = 8848 2. (e) = = =
3. (a) 35 35 35
3 5 2
= 158.85 cm
4. (b) ? = (41)2 + (38)2 (0.15)2 144 - 104
1681 + 1444 0.0225 Shortcut : 160 - = 158.85
35
1681 + 32.49 = 1713.49 3. (b) Total age of the family of five members = 24 5 = 120
5. (e) ? = 100000 Total age of the family of five members before 8 years
= 120 5 8 = 120 40 = 80
100 100 10 = 100 10 = 100 3.162
80
= 316.2 316. So, Required average age = = 16yr
6. (e) ? = 456.675 + 35.7683 67.909 58.876 5
4. (e) x + x + 2 + x + 4 + x + 6 = 4 36
= 456.675 + 2428.98 58.876
4x + 12 = 144 4x = 144 12
= 2885.66 66 58.876 = 2826.78 2830
7. (b) ? = (7684 + 5454 + 9041) (601 + 296 + 557) 132
4x = 132 x= = 33
= 22179 1454 = 15.25 15. 4
8. (c) ?=
{(52) 2
+ ( 45 )
2
} = 2704 + 2025 = 4729 = 591.125 5. (b) Average age of the whole class
=
32 14 + 28 13 448 + 364 812
= = = 13.53yr
8 8 8 32 + 28 60 60
9. (e) ? = (64)4 (8)5 = (82)4 (8)5. 6. (b) Third number
= (8)2 4 (8)5 = (8)8 (8)5 = 83. = 924 (2 2015 + 2 196) = 924 (403 + 392)
= 924 795 = 129
10. (b) ? = (12.25)2 625 = (12.25) 25
2
7. (b) Actual average marks
= 150.0625 25 = 125.0625 65 150 + 152 - 142 9750 + 10
= = = 150.15
11. (d) ? = 383 38 3.8 = 383 144.4 = 55305.2 65 65
12. (c) ? = 43.231 12.779 6.542 0.669 = 23.241 8. (c) Average age of the remaining girls.
13. (e) ? = 572 + 38 0.50 16 1050 - ( 25 12 + 25 16 ) 1050 - ( 300 + 400)
= =
= 572 + 19 16 = 591 16 = 575 25 25
14. (b) 15 ? = 6269 + 333 + 148 = 6750 1050 - 700
6750 = = 14 years
25
\?= = 450
15 9. (b) Let the score of Ajay = x
1056 7 5 13 Rahul = x 15
15. (a) ?= = 7280 Manish = x 25
3 2 11
According to question, x = 63 + 30
16. (b) ? 9 = 6318 + 26 = 243
\ x = 93
243
\ ? = = 27 \ Score of Ajay = 93
9 then Rahul = 93 15 = 78
\ ? = (27)2 = 729 then Manish = 93 25 = 68
17. (a) (27)7.5 (27)3.5 (27)6 (27)15
Total marks of Rahul, Manish and Suresh
= (27)7.5 + 3.5 + 6 15 = (27)17 15 = (27)2
= 3 63 = 189
\?=2
\ Suresh = 189 (78 + 68) = 43
18. (d) ?= 31329 5 = 177 5 = 885 \ Manish + Suresh = 68 + 43 = 111
19. (c) ?
78700
+ 4 120 = 45 + 460 = 505 ; 525
( 45 36) + 32 - 34 + 45 - 40 1620 + 3
10. (a) Average = =
1750 45 45
20. (c) ? ; 78 + 42 + 9 = 129 ; 130 = 36.07 kg
1 2 3 11. (c) Total speed of car, bus and train
21. (b) 1715 = 85.75 85 = 72 3 = 216 km
8 3 5 5+9
22. (c) 25 124 + 389 15 = 3100 + 5835 = 8935 Speed of car and train = 216 = 168 km
561 5+9+ 4
23. (a) 20 = 320.5 320 168
35 Average = = 84km
2
24. (d) (15)2 730 = 225 27 = 6075 12. (a) Suppose marks got in physics, chemistry and mathematics
25. (a) ? = 4895 + 364 0.75 49 = 4895 + 273 49 = 5119 are P, C and M.
26. (c) ? = 434.43 + 43.34 + 3.44 + 4 + 0.33 = 485.54 P + C + M = C + 120
27. (b) ? = (23.6% of 1254) (16.6% of 834) \ P + M = 120
P+M
295.944 138.444 = 157.5 = 60
2
28. (a) ? = (78.95)2 (43.35)2 = (122.3) (35.6) = 4353.88 13. (b) Difference of marks = 72 + 61 48 65 = 20
29. (d) Approx value = 9999 99 20
= 101 9 = 11.2 11 Correct average marks = 68 + = 68 + 1 = 69
20
30. (c) Approx value = 23 19 8 = 3496 3500
10 101 SPEED TEST
14. (b) (7 26) (3 19 + 3 32) = 182 (57 + 96) 120 - 8 5
= 182 153 = 29 yr 30. (a) = 20
4
15. (b) Let the total number of candidates = x
50x + 100(90 - 600) SPEED TEST 9
\ = 45 \ x = 600
x 1. (d) Total number of students in the school = 819
1
16 28 - 2 58 Number of girls = 364
16. (b) 4 = 24 \ Number of boys = 819 364 = 455
14 \ Required ratio = 435 : 364 = 5 : 4
17. (d) 51 5.05 50 5 = 7.55 gm.
2
18. (a) Total age of 10 students = 15 10 = 150 yrs 2. (d) Share of Urmila in dividend = 57834 = ` 19278
Total age of 15 students = 15 16= 240 yrs 6
3. (d)
240 - 150
\ Average of new students = = 18 yrs. 4. (e) Let the number of girls = x
5 \ Number of boys = 1.16 x
19. (e) 56 + 8 2.5 = 76 yrs \ Required ratio = 1.16 x : x = 116 : 100 = 29 : 25
20. (c) A + B + C = 3 84 = 252 kg A 4
A + B + C + D = 4 80 = 320 kg 5. (d) According to the question, = ... (i)
B 7
\ D = 320 252 = 68 kg 50
\ E = 68 + 3 = 71 kg A 1 +
100 = 8
320 - A + 71 and ... (ii)
Now, = 79 25 7
4 B 1 -
\ A = 75 kg 100
From equations (i) and (ii), we cannot find the earning of A
21. (c) 6 49 + 6 52 11 50 = 294 + 312 550 = 56
22. (c) By Direct Formula : and B.
2 60 30 2 60 30 5100 51 17
Average = = = 40 km/hr 6. (e) Ratio of the capital of Rinku and Pooja = = =
60 + 30 90 6600 66 22
23. (c) Average of five consecutive even numbers or odd numbers is 2730 17
\ Rinku's share = = ` 1190
the middle term. In this case, the average is c. 17 + 22
24. (c) Total of 10 innnings = 21.5 10 = 215 7. (c) Let the number of girls be = x
Suppose he needs a score of x in 11th innings; then average 115 x
215 + x \ Number of the boys =
100
in 11 innings = = 24 or, x = 264 215 = 49
11 115 x
25. (b) By the theorem : Average speed \ Required ratio = . x = 23 : 20
100
3 40 30 15 3 40 30 15 8. (c) Ratio of equivalent capitals of A, B and C for 1 month
= = = 24 km/hr = 35000 12 : 20000 5 : 15000 7
40 30 + 30 15 + 40 15 2250
x = 35 12 : 20 5 : 15 7 = 84 : 20 : 21
26. (a) Let the total journey be x km. Then km at the speed of 25 Sum of the ratios = 84 + 20 + 21 = 125
3
20
x \ B's share = ` 84125 = `13460
km/hr and km at 30 km/hr and the rest distance 125
4
9. (b) Ratio of profit = 1 12 : 2 6 : 3 4 = 1 : 1 : 1
x x 5
x - - = x at the speed of 50 km/hr.. 1
3 4 12 \ Manavs share = 45000 = ` 15000
3
Total time taken during the journey of x km
10. (a) Let number of students in Arts and Commerce were 4x and
x x 5x 18 x 3x 5x respectively.
= hrs + hrs + hrs = hrs = hrs
3 25 4 30 12 50 600 100 4x 8 520
x 100 1 Then, = 44x 40x = 520 x = = 130
\ average speed = = = 33 km/hr 5x + 65 11 4
18 x 3 3 \ Number of students in Arts = 4 130 = 520
600 11. (d) Ratio of capital = 50000 12 : 80000 6 = 5 : 4
27. (a) Let the total no. of workers be x. 18000 5
Now, 8000 x = 7 12000 + (x 7) 6000 \ Saritas share = = ` 10000
(5 + 4)
42000
x= = 21 2 1
2000 12. (b) Ratio of the salaries of Sumit and Rajan = : = 4:5
28. (c) Mean salary of the remaining 20 workers 5 2
5
75 5680 - 25 5400 - 30 5700 Rajan's salary = 36000 = ` 20000
= 9
20
? 189
15 5680 - 5 5400 - 6 5700 13. (a) =
= 84 ?
4 or ?2 = 84 189 or ?2 = 21 4 21 9
= 15 1420 5 1350 6 1425
or ?2 = 212 22 32
= 15 [1420 450 2 285] \ ? = 21 2 3 = 126
= 15 [1420 450 570] = 15 400 = 6000 20
29. (c) Total annual income 14. (d) Smallest angle = (13 + 12) =5
100
= 3 2200 + 4 2250 + 5 3120 + 1260 \ Ratio of angles = 13 : 12: 5
= 6600 + 9000 + 15600 + 1260 = 32460
\ Sum of smallest and second largest angles
32460
Average monthly income = = Rs. 2705 180 (12 + 5) 180 17
12 = = = 102
(13 + 12 + 5) 30
SOLUTIONS 11
15. (a) Required number of gold coins 23. (c) Let the shares of A, B, C and D be Rs. 5x, Rs. 2x, Rs. 4x and
{950 - (25 + 15 + 30)} 73 Rs. 3x respectively.
= + 15 = 365 + 15 = 380 \ Bs share = Rs. 2x = Rs. (2 1000) = Rs. 2000.
(20 + 73 + 83)
24. (b) Let the fixed amount be Rs. x and cost of each unit be
16. (c) Rita : Sita : Kavita
Rs. y. Then, 540y + x = 1800 ....(i)
7 : 15
and 620yi + x = 2040 ...(ii)
7 : 16
On subtracting (i) from (ii), we get 80y = 240 y = 3.
49 : 105 : 240
Putting y = 3 in (i), we get:
The ratio of money with Rita, Sita and Kavita is
540 3 + x = 1800 x (1800 1620) = 180.
49 : 105 : 240
\ Fixed charges = Rs. 180,
We see that 49 ` 490 \ 240 ` 2400
Charge per unit = unit = Rs. 3.
17. (c) A:B=3:4
Total charges for consuming 500 units = Rs. (180 + 500 3)
B : C = 8 : 10
= Rs. 1680.
C : D = 15 : 17
25. (a) Let the ratio be x : (x = 40). Then,
A : B : C : D = 3 8 15 : 4 8 15 :4 10 15 :4 10 17
x 2
= 9 : 12 : 15 : 17 = 7x = 2x + 80 5x = 80 x = 16.
18. (c) 4 leaps of hound = 5 leaps of hare ( x + 40) 7
25 \ Required ratio = 16 : 56.
\ 5 leaps of hound = leaps of hare
4
25 26. (d) Fare after reduction.
\ the rate of hound : rate of hare = : 6 = 25 : 24 1st 2nd 3rd
4
Or, Ratio of Hound Hare 8 6
8- 6- 3
Leap frequency 5 6 6 12
20 11
Leap length 4 5 3
Then the required ratio of speed is the ratio of the cross- 3 2
product. 40 33 18
That is, speed of hound : speed of hare Ratio of revenue
= 5 5 : 6 4 = 25 : 24 1st 2nd 3rd
19. (c) There are 12 mirrors in the carton. So, the sum of terms in 9 40 12 33 26 18
the ratio must divide 12 exactly. We see that 2 + 1 = 3 divides Ratio of revenue of all three classes = 10 : 11 : 13
12 exactly. 3 + 1 = 4 also divides exactly. 1088 10
\ Collection for 1st class = = Rs 320
3 + 2 = 5 doesnt divide 12 exactly. 34
Thus, our answer is (c). 27. (a) Iron Copper
20. (d) We should know that Alloy I 8 : 6 14 kg.
6 Alloy II 36 : 6 42 kg.
a+b = [(a + b) + (b + c) + (a + c)]
6+ 7 +8 44 : 12 56 kg
6 6 28. (c) Ratio of the amount is
= [2(a + b + c)] = 28 = 8 2
21 21 r
7 7 28 P 1 +
Similarly, b + c = [2(a + b + c)] = 28 = 100 = 6 1 + r = 6 r = 20%
6+ 7 +8 21 3 100 5
Pr 5
and a + c =
8
28 =
32 P + 100

21 3
28 14 29. (c) Let the number of Mechanical engineering graduates be M
Now, a = [(a + b + c) (b + c)] = 14 - = and Electronic engineering graduates be E. Then
3 3
32 10 2.45M + 3.56E
14 - = = 3.12 2.45M + 3.56E = 3.12M + 3.12E
Similarly, b = and c = 14 8 = 6 M+E
3 3
14 10 0.67 67
Thus, a = ,b = and c = 6 0.44E = 0.67M E = M= M
3 3 0.44 44
14 10 For E to be an integer, the least value will be 67.
\ a:b:c= : : 6 = 14 : 10 : 18 = 7 : 5 : 9 90
3 3 30. (b) Weight of dry grapes without water = 250 = 225 kg
21. (a) Originally, let the number of seats for Mathematics, Physics 100
and Biology be 5x, 7x and 8x respectively. Let weight of fresh grapes be x kg.
140 150 175 21x According to question,
i.e. 5x , 7 x and 8 x i.e.7 x, and 14x.
100 100 100 2 20 225 100
x = 225 x = = 1125 kg
21x 100 20
\ Required ratio = 7 x : : 14x = 14x : 21x : 28x
2 SPEED TEST 10
= 2 : 3 :4.
22. (a) Originally, let the number of boys and gils in the college be 1. (b) According to the above theorem,
7x and 8x respectively. Their increased number is (120% of a : b = 3 : 2 (Income)
7x) and (110% of 8x). c : d = 5 : 3 (Expenditure)
120 110 42 x 44 x X = 2000 (Savings)
i.e 7 x and 8 x i.e. and .
100 100 5 5 Xa(d - c) 2000 3 (3 - 5)
42 x 44 x Therefore, As income = =
\ Required ratio = : = 21 : 22. ad - bc 3 3- 2 5
4 5 = ` 12, 000
12 101 SPEED TEST
Xb(d - c) 2000 2 (3 - 5) and amount received by the wife = Rs. 96000
and Bs income = = = ` 8,000
ad - bc 3 3- 2 5 \ Total amount distributed by Shri Ramlal
1 3 5 39 1 = Rs. (96000 + 2 48000 + 24000) = Rs. 216000
2. (c) x: = : or, 27x = \x=
27 11 9 11 5 55 2 1
+
3
3. (a) 9:8 10. (b) ( ?) 3 3 = 42 5 or ? 3 = 210
14 : 15 25
We know that the total bill = wage per person no. of total 11. (c) Total no. of boys in the school = 270 = 125
54
employees. 29
Therefore, the ratio of change in bill Total no. of girls in the school = 270 = 145
54
= 9 14 : 8 15 = 126 : 120 = 21 : 20
After inclusion of 15 boys and 15 girls, the ratio of boys to
The ratio shows that there is a decrease in the bill.
girls in the school
4. (a) 2m = 5b
= (125 + 15) : (145 + 15) = 140 : 160 = 7 : 8
2w = 3b
12. (c) Let the first number be x and the second number be y.
Combining the two relations : (Follow the rule)
According to the question,
2m = 5b
2x + 3y = 141 ...(i)
3b = 2w
3x + 2y = 174 ...(ii)
2 3m = 5 3b = 5 2w 6m = 15b = 10w
By equation (i) 3 (ii) 2, we have
Now, to find the ratio of wages of a man, a woman and a boy,
6x + 9y 6x 4y = 423 348
let 6m = 15b = 10 w = k (say) 75
k k k 5y = 75 y = = 15
\ m= ;b= ;w= 5
6 15 10 From equation (i), 2x + 3 15 = 141
1 1 1 96
\ m:w:b= : : =5 :3 :2 2x = 141 45 = 96 x = = 48
6 10 15 2
The ratio of wages of 6 men, 12 women and 17 boys \ Larger number = 48
= 6 5 : 12 3 : 17 2 = 30 : 36 : 34 13. (d) According to the question,
50 46x + 30 + 41x + 30 + 34x + 25 = 2505
\ 17 boys get 34 = ` 17 2420
30 + 36 + 34 121x = 2505 85 = 2420 x = = 20
\ 1 boy gets ` 1 121
5. (a) As share : Bs share : Cs share \ Number of coins received by Parat
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 11 = 41x + 30 = 41 20 + 30 = 850
= : : 1 - + 1 = : :
4 4 5 2 4 5 16 10 20 264 252 544
14. (e) Total cost = 24 + 21 + 25
Multiplying each fraction by LCM of 16, 10 and 20, 11 14 17
i.e., 80. = Rs (576 + 378 + 800) = Rs. 1754
We have 5 : 8 : 44 15. (a) Let the population of the village X be 5x.
1140 and that of village Y = 7x.
\ As share = 5 = ` 100 5x 25
57 According to the question, =
1140 7x + 25000 36
Bs share = 8 = ` 160 180x = 175x + 25 25000 5x = 625000
57
1140 \ x = 625000
Cs share = 44 = ` 880 16. (d) Let the number of students in colleges A and B be 3x and 4x
57
6. (b) Suppose B joined the business for x months. respectively.
450 12 1 3x + 50 5
Then using the above formula, we have = According to the question. =
300 x 2 4x 6
or 300 2x = 450 12 300
20x = 18x + 300 2x = 300 x = = 150
450 12 2
\ x= = 9 months \ Number of students in college, B = 4x
2 300
Therefore, B joined after (12 9) = 3 months. 4 150 = 600
7. (b) Suppose B puts in x cows. The ratio of As and Bs rents a b c
17. (b) Let = = = k .
1 3 3 4 7
= 1:1 + = 1: = 2 : 3 a = 3k, b = 4k, c = 7k
2 2
100 8 2 100 8 3 a+b+c 3k + 4k + 7k 14k 2
Then, = or, x = = 600 cows. \ = = or 2 :1
x2 3 22 c 7k 7k 1
8. (d) For As share : (10% 8%) ` 220 4 x 2 - 3 y 2 12
220 18. (c) = 9(4x2 3y2) = 12 (2x2 + 5y2)
\ 100% = 100 = ` 11000 2 x 2 + 5 y 2 19
2
\ As capital = ` 11000 x2 9 x 3
52x2 = 117y2 4x2 = 9y2 = =
2 y2 4 y 2
For Bs and Cs share : 11000 \ Required ratio is 3 : 2
5
3 11000 19. (a) x2 + 4y2 = 4xy x2 4xy + 4y2 = 0 (x 2y)2 = 0
\ 3 = ` 16500
5 2 x 2
\ Bs and Cs capitals are ` 8250 each. (x 2y) = 0 x = 2y =
y 1
9. (e) Amount received by each son = Rs. 48000
\ x:y=2 :1
\ Amount received by her daughter = Rs. 24000
SOLUTIONS 13
A 2x 2 6
20. (d) Let A = 2x, B = 3x and C = 4x. Then = = , Largest side = 104 cm = 48 cm
B 3x 3 13
B 3x 3 C 4x 2 27. (b) Let the numbers be 600, 800 and 1500.
= = and = =
C 4x 4 A 2x 1 Then the new numbers are 2400, 3000 and 3000.
A B C 2 3 2 \ Ratio = 24 : 30 : 30 4 : 5 : 5
: : = : : = 8 : 9 : 24 28. (b) Ratio of X, Y and Z = 1.2 6.5 : 1.5 5 : 2.8 3 = 26 : 25 : 28
B C A 3 4 1
Q 2 3 108941
21. (b) Let P = 2x and Q = 3x. Then = R= Q \ Xs share = 26 = 35854
R 3 2 79
3 9x 108941 28
= 3x = Zs share =
79
= 38612
2 2
R 2 3 9x 27x \ Diff = 38612 35854 = 2758
3
Also, = S = R = = . 29. (d) Let the numbers be x and y.
S 3 2 2 2 4
x 4
Thus, P = 2x, Q = 3x, R =
9x
and S =
27x
. \ y=7
2 4
Now, P + Q + R + S = 1300 \ 7x = 4y ... (a)
9x 27x x + 30 5
=
2x + 3x + 2 + 4 = 1300 y + 30 8

(8x + 12x + 18x + 27x) = 5200 \ 8x 5y = 90 ...(b)
5200 From eqn (b), 32x 20y = 360
65x = 5200 x = = 80. From eqn (a), 35x = 20y
65 \ 32x 35x = 360
\ Ps share = Rs. (2 80) = Rs. 160
360
5 \ x= = 120
22. (b) Quantity of milk in 16 litres of mix. = 16 3
8 y = 210
litres = 10 litres.
Quantity of milk in 20 litres of new mix. = (10 + 4) litres 330
\ Avg = = 165
Quantity of water in it = (20 14) litres = 6 litres. 2
\ Ratio of milk and water in the new mix. = 14 : 6 = 7 : 3 30. (a) Shalinis equivalent = ` (80000 12 + 100000 12)
23. (c) Let the three containers contain 3x, 4x and 5x litres of = ` (960000 + 1200000) = ` 2160000
mixtures respectively, Nalinis equivalent capital for 1 month
4 12x = ` (80000 12 + 50000 12)
Milk in 1st mix. = 3x litres = litres. = ` (690000 + 600000) = ` 1560000
5 5
12x 3x \ Ratio of the profit = 2160000 : 1560000
Water in 1st mix. = 3x - litres = litres. = 216 : 156 = 18 : 13
5 5
3 13
Milk in 2nd mix. = 4x litres = 3x litres. \ Nalinis share = ` 93000
4 13 + 18
Water in 2nd mix. = (4x 3x) litres = x litres. 13
5 25x = ` 93000 = ` 39000
31
Milk in 3rd mix. = 5x litres = litres.
7 7 31. (e) Let Ys salary = ` 100
25x 10x \ Xs salary = ` 80
Water in 3rd mix. = 5x - litres = litres.
7 7 80 120
12x 25x and Zs salary = = ` 96
Total milk in final mix. = + 3x + litres 100
5 7 \ Required ratio = 80 : 100 : 96 = 20 : 25 : 24
314x
= litres.
35 SPEED TEST 11
3x 10x
Total water in final mix. = +x+ litres 1. (b) Let the required time be x seconds. Then,
5 7 More metres, more time (Direct Proportion)
106x \ 0.128 : 25 :: 1 : x
= litres.
35 25 25 1000
314x 106x 0.128 x = 25 1 x = 0.128 = 28
Required ratio of milk and water = : = 157 : 53.
35 35 x = 195.31.
24. (b) Let the third proportional to 12 and 30 be x.
\ Required time = 195 sec (approximately)
Then, 12 : 30 :: 30 : x 12x = 30 30 2. (b) Let the height of the building be x metres.
( 30 30 ) Less lengthy shadow, Less is the height (Direct Proportion)
x= = 75
12 \ 40.25 : 28.75 :: 17.5 : x 40.25 x = 28.75 17.5
\ Third proportional to 12 and 30 = 75.
( 28.75 17.5)
Mean proportional between 9 and 25 = 9 25 = 15 x= x = 12.5.
40.25
\ Required ratio = 75 : 15 = 5 : 1 5
2 6 11 2 3. (b) Work done = .
25. (b) Required ratio = = = 2 : 1 8
3 11 2 1 5 3
1 1 1 Balance work = 1 - = .
26. (b) Ratio of sides = : : = 6 : 4 : 3 8 8
2 3 4
14 101 SPEED TEST
Less work, Less days (Direct Proportion) Hence, the required number of rounds = 49.
Let the required number of days be x. 12. (b) Let the required quantity of coal be x metric tonnes.
5 3 5 3 3 8 More engines, More coal (Direct Proportion)
Then, : ::10 : x x = 10 x = 10 =6. More hours per day, More work (Direct Proportion)
8 8 8 8 8 5
More rate, More coal (Direct Proportion)
4. (d) Let the required number of days be x.

Then, Less men, More days (Indirect Proportion)
Engines 5:8
\ 27 : 36 :: 18 : x 27 x = 3618
Hours per day 9 :10 : : 6 : x
36 18
x= x = 24 1 1
27 Rate :
5. (c) After 10 days: 150 men had food for 35 days. 3 4
Suppose 125 men had food for x days. Now, Less men, More 1 1
\ 5 9 x = 8 10 6
days (Indirect Proportion) 3 4
150 35 15x = 120 x = 8.
\ 125 : 150 :: 35 : x 125 x = 150 35 x = 13. (c) Let x men can do the work in 12 days and the required number
125
x = 42 of days be z.
Hence, the remaining food will last for 42 days. More men, Less days (Indirect Proportion)
6. (b) Let the required number of days be x. Less work, Less days (Direct Proportion)
Less persons, More days (Indirect Proportion) Men 2x : x

More working hrs per day, Less days (Indirect Proportion) 1 ::12 : z
Work 1:
Persons 30 : 39 2
::12 : x
Working hrs / day 6:5 1
39 5 12 \ (2x 1 z) = x 12 2xz = 6x z = 3.
2
\ 30 6 x = 39 5 12 x = x = 13.
30 6 14. (a) Let the remaining food will last for x days.
7. (c) Let the required number of days be x. Then, 500 men had provision for (27 3) = 24 days.
Less spiders, More days (Indirect Proportion) (500 + 300) men had provisions for x days.
Less webs, Less days (Direct Proportion) More men, Less days (Indirect Proportion)
Spider 1: 7 \800 : 500 :: 24 : x = (800 x) = (500 24)
:: 7 : x 500 24
Webs 7 :1
x = 800 = 15
\17x=7 17 x=7
8. (b) Let the required number of days be x. Then, 15. (d) Initially, let there be x men having food for y days.
Less pumps, More days (Indirect Proportion) After 10 days, x men had food for (y 10) days. Also,
Less weight, Less days (Direct Proportion) x
x - men had food for y days.
More hours / day, Less days (Indirect Proportion) 5
4x
Pumps 16 :18 \ x(y 10) = y 5xy 50x = 4xy xy 50x = 0
5
Weight 2170 :1736 ::10 : x x(y 50) = 0 y 50 = 0 y = 50.
Hours / day 9 : 7
16. (b) [(100 35) + (200 5)] men can finish the work in 1 day.
\(16 2170 9 x) = (18 1736 7 10) \ 4500 men can finish the work in 1 day. 100 men can finish
18 1736 7 10 4500
x = 6 2170 9 = 7 it in
100
= 45 days.
9. (b) Let the required time be x seconds. This is 5 days behind schedule.
3 3 2 17. (a) After 25 days, 35 men complete the work in 12 days.
Part filled = , Remaining part = 1 - = . Thus, 35 men can finish the remaining work in 12 days.
5 5 5
Less part, Less time (Direct Proportion) (12 35)
\ 30 men can do it in = 14 days, which is 1 day behind.
3 2 3 2 30
\ : :: 60 : x x = 60 x = 40 18. (b) 1 man 2 boys (12 men + 18 boys) (12 2 + 18) boys
5 5 5 5
10. (d) Let the required number of units of work be z. = 42 boys.
More men, More work (Direct Proportion) Let required number of boys = x. 21 men + x boys (21 2
More working hours, More work(Direct Proportion) + x) boys = (42 + x) boys.
More days, More work (Direct Proportion) Less days, More boys (Indirect Proportion)
Men x : y More hrs per day, Less boys (Indirect Proportion)
Days 50 : 60
Hours per day x : y :: x : z
15
Days x : y Hours per day 9 : :: 42 : ( 42 + x )
2
y3
\ (x x x z) = (y y y x) z = Work 1: 2
x2
11. (b) Let the required number of rounds be x. 15
\ [50 9 1 (42 + x)] = 60 2 42
More radius, Less rounds (Indirect Proportion) 2
\ 20 : 14 :: 70 : x (20 x) = (14 70) 37800
14 70
(42 + x) = 450 42 + x = 84 x = 42.
x= x = 49.
20
SOLUTIONS 15
19. (b) (2 14) men + (7 14) boys (3 11)men + (8 11) boys. 26. (b) (20 16) women can complete the work in 1 day.
5 men 10 boys 1 man 2 boys. 1
\ 1 womans 1 days work =
\ (2 men + 7 boys) (2 2 + 7) boys = 11 boys. 320
(8 men + 6 boys) (8 2 + 6) boys = 22 boys. (16 15) men can complete the work in 1 day.
Let required number of days be x. 1
\ 1 mans 1 days work = .
Now, More boys, Less days(Indirect Proportion) 240
More work, More days (Direct Proportion) 1 1
So, required ratio = : = 4 :3
Boys 22 :11 240 320
::14 : x
Work 1: 3 1
462 27. (c) 10 mens 1 days work = ;
15
\ (22 1 x) = (11 3 14) \ x = = 21
22
Hence, the required number of days = 21. 1
15 womens 1 days work = .
d 12
20. (d) Cost of x metres = Rs. d Cost of 1 metre = Rs. .
x 1 1 9 3
d yd (10 men + 15 women)s 1 days work = + = = .
5 12 60 20
Cost of y metres = Rs. y = Rs. .
x x
1 1 3 2
21. (b) As 1 days work = and Bs 1 days work = . \ 10 men and 15 women will complete the work in = 6 days.
10 15 20 3
1 1 1 28. (e) (7 12) men can complete the work in 1 day.
\ (A + B)s 1 days work = + = 1
10 15 6 \ 1 mans 1 days work = .
So, both together will finish the work in 6 days. 84
1 1 1 37 1 5
22. (d) (P + Q + R)s 1 hours work = + + = 7 mens 5 days work = 5 = .
8 10 12 120 12 12
37 37 5 7
Work done by P, Q and R in 2 hours = 2 = . Remaining work = 1 - = .
120 60 12 12
37 23 1 5
Remaining work = 1 - = 5 mens 1 days work = 5 = .
60 60 84 84
1 1 11 5
(Q + R)s 1 hours work = + = work is done by them in 1 day..
84
10 12 60
7
11 work is done by them in
Now, work is done by Q and R in 1 hour.. 12
60
84 7 49 4
23 60 23 23 = days = 9 days
So, work will be done by Q and R in = 5 12 5 5
60 11 60 11 1
hours = 2 hours. 29. (a) 1 mans 1 days work = .
So, the work will be finished approximately 2 hours after 11 108
a.m. i.e., around 1 p.m. 1 2
12 mens 6 days work = 6 = .
23. (a) Bs daily earning = Rs. (300 188) = Rs. 112. 9 3
As daily earning = Rs. (300 152) = Rs. 148. 2 1
Cs daily earning = Rs. [300 (112 + 148)] = Rs. 40 Remaining work = 1 - = .
3 3
24. (b) Let 1 mans 1 days work = x and 1 womans 1 days work = y.
1 1
1 1 18 mens 1 days work = 18 = .
Then, 4x + 6y = and 3x + 7y = . 108 6
8 10 1
Solving these two equations, we get: work is done by them in 1 day..
6
11 y = 1
x= , . 1 1
400 400 \ work is done by them in 6 = 2 days.
1 3 3
\ 1 womans 1 days work = 30. (a) Let 1 womans 1 days work = x.
400
x x
1 1 Then, 1 mans 1 days work = and 1 childs 1 days work = .
10 womens 1 days work = 10 = 2 4
400 40
3x 6x 1 28x 1
Hence, 10 women will complete the work in 40 days. So, + 4x + = =
25. (a) Let 1 mans 1 day work = x and 1 boys 1 days work = y. 4 4 7 4 7
1 1 1 4 1
Then, 6x + 8y = and 26x + 48y = x= =
10 2 7 28 49
1 1 \ 1 woman alone can complete the work in 49 days.
Solving these two equations, we get : x = and y = . So, to complete the work in 7 days, number of women
100 200
15 20 1 49
(15 men + 20 boy)s 1 days work= + = required = = 7.
100 200 4 7
\ 15 men and 20 boys can do the work in 4 days.
16 101 SPEED TEST
SPEED TEST 12 7. (b) m1 d1 t1 w 2 = m 2 d 2 t 2 w1
24 10 8 1 = m2 6 10 1
1
1. (b) Work done by (A + B) in 1 day = 24 10 8
12 m2 = = 32 men
6 10
1
Work done by (B + C) in 1 day = 1 1 2 1
16 8. (b) (A + B)s 2 days work = 2 + = =
Let C finishes the work in x days. 18 9 6 3
1 2
1 Remaining work = 1 - =
Then, work done by C in 1 day = 3 3
x
We have, As 5 days work + Bs 7days work + Cs 13 days 1 1 1 1
work = 1 (A + B + C)s one days work = + + =
18 9 6 3
or [(A + B)s 5 days + (B + C) s 2 days + Cs 11 days] work 1/3 work in one day is completed if all of them work together.
=1 Hence, 2/3 work will be completed by A, B and C in 2 days.
5 2 11 Total number of days taken to finish the work is
or + + = 1 or x = 24 days 2 + 2 = 4 days.
12 16 x
2. (d) Part of the tan k filled by the three pipes working 9. (b) Let the worker worked for (40 + x) hours.
1 1 1 17 56 x 1.5 56
simultaneously in one hour is = + - = Now, 40 + = 88 or 2.4x = 24
5 6 12 60 35 35
60 x = 10 hours
i.e. it takes hours to fill up the tank completely.. The worker worked for (40 + 10) = 50 hours
17
1 1 1
1 10. (b) Bs one day work = - =
Now, of the tank is filled with all the pipes open, 6 10 15
2
Hence, B can do the work alone in 15 days.
60 1 13 11. (c) Let the leak empties the tank in x hours.
simultaneously together in = 1 hours
17 2 17 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
3. (b) Let Sunil finishes the job in x hours. Now, - = or = - = or x = 30 hrs.
5 x 6 x 5 6 30
x
Then, Ramesh will finish the job in hours. 12. (c) Let pipe A fills the cistern in x minutes.
2 Therefore, pipe B will fill the cistern in (x + 5) minutes.
x
We have, x - = 3 x = 6 1 1 1
2 Now, + = x = 10
Therefore, Sunil finishes the job in 6 hours and Ramesh in 3 x x +5 6
hours. Thus, the pipes A and B can fill the cistern respectively in 10
minutes and 15 minutes,
1 1 1
Work done by both of them in 1 hour = + = 1 1 9
6 3 2 13. (a) Work done together in one day = + =
They together finish the piece of work in 2 hours. 8 10 40
4. (d) Let the exhaust tap empties the tank in x minutes. 40
Therefore, the work will be completed together in or
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 9
Then, + - = or = + - 4
12 15 x 20 x 12 15 20 4 days.
1 5+ 4-3 6 1 9
or = = = or x = 10 min 14. (a) Portion of the tank filled by all the pipes together in 1 hour
x 60 60 10
1 1 1 1 6+5-3 8 2
5. (d) (Mother + Daughter)s one days work = = + - = = =
4 10 12 20 60 60 15
3 15 1
Remaining work = Hence, the tank will be filled in hours or 7 hours.
4 2 2
1 1 1 1
Mothers one days work = 15. (b) (A + B)s one days work = + =
6 10 15 6
1 1 1 2 1
Daughters one days work = - = (A + B)s two days work = =
4 6 12 6 3
1 1 2
work is done by the daughter in 1 day.. Remaining work = 1 - =
12 3 3
3 1
Therefore, work will be done by the daughter in work is done by A in 1 day .
4 10
12 3 2 2 2
= 9 days work is done by A in 10 = 6 days
4 3 3 3
6. (a) 15 W = 10 M
1 1 45 9
4 15 16. (b) (A + B)s 5 days work = 5 + = =
Now, 5W + 4M = 5W + W = 5W + 6W = 11 W 25 20 100 20
10 9 11
Remaining work = 1 - =
Now, 15 women can complete the project in 55 days, 20 20
then 11 women can complete the same project in 11
11
55 15 of the work would be finished by B in 20 = 11 days.
= 75 days 20 1
11 20
SOLUTIONS 17
17. (a) Part of the capacity of the cistern emptied by the leak in one Hence, it took (24 6 = 18 min.) to fill the remaining half of
1 1 1 the tank when the outlet pump is opened. Thus, the total
hour = - = of the cistern. time required to empty half of the tank
6 7 42
The whole cistern will be emptied in 42 hours. 18 6 18 6
= = = 9 minutes
1 18 - 6 12
18. (b) (2M + 7C)s 1 days work = Thus, capacity of the tank = 100 9 2 = 1800 litres
4
work will be completed by 4 (2M + 7C) = 8 M + 28 C 1
1 26. (c) Time taken by one tap to fill the cistern = hr
Again, (4M + 4C)s 1 days work = 10
3 1
i.e. 12M + 12C will complete the work. and second tap fills the cistern = hr
8M + 28C = 12M + 12C or M = 4C 15
Therefore, 4M + 4C = 5M The time taken by the both tap to fill the cistern
Since 5M complete a work in 3 days, 1 1 3+ 2 5 1
= + = = =
1 M will complete it in 15 days. 10 15 30 30 6
1 Thus, both tap fill the cistern in 6 minutes. Now, given when
19. (c) Units of work done by A in 1 day =
9 1
15 waste pipe is open, both can fill the cistern in hr .
1 18
Units of work done by B in 1 day = =
90 6 Time taken by waste pipe to empty the cistern
Hence, B alone will complete the work in 6 days. 1 1 3 -1 2 1
1 1 5 = - hrs = = = minutes
20. (a) Work done by A and B in 5 days = + 5 = 6 18 18 18 9
10 15 6 Hence, in 9 minutes waste pipe can empty the cistern.
5 1 1 2
Work remaining = 1 - = 27. (b) Work of pipe P in 16 minutes = 16 =
6 6 24 3
\ C alone can do the work in 6 2 = 12 days 1 1
Similarly, work of pipe Q in 16 minutes = 16 =
5 5 2 32 2
Ratio of their share work = : : = 3 : 2 :1
10 15 12 1 1
Share of wages = Rs 225, Rs 150, Rs 75. \ Remaining work of pipe Q = 1 =
2 2
21. (a) Let it takes t minutes to completely fill the tank. 1
t t t -6 Now, Time taken by pipe P = 24 = 12 minutes.
Now, + + =1 2
6 8 12 Hence, first pipe (ie P) should be turned off after 12 minutes.
4 t + 3t + 2 t - 12 1 1 1
or = 1 or 9t 12 = 24 28. (b) Work of both tap for 1 hour = - =
24 2 3 6
36 Hence, both tap will fill the cistern in 6 hours.
or 9t = 36 or t = = 4 min .
9 1
1 29. (c) In 1 hour, empty part = th.
22. (b) In one hr. B finishes of the work. 8
20
1 3 3 When tap is turned on, then
In one hr. A finishes = of the work. 1
20 2 40 empty part in 1 hour = th .
2+3 1 12
A+B finish = of the work in 1 hr.. \ Part of cistern emptied, due to leakage in
40 8
Both of them will take 8 hrs. to finish the work. 1 1 3- 2 1
23. (a) Work done by 3rd tap in 1 min 1 hour = - = = th
8 12 24 24
1 1 1 -7 Now, In 1 min, cistern fill = 6 lit
= - + = part
15 10 12 60 1
ve sign denotes that 3rd tap empty the tank. \ In hr, cistern fill = 6 lit.
60
7
Since, 3rd tap empty part of the tank in 1 min. \ Cistern can hold = 6 60 24 litre = 8640 litre.
60
60 4 30. (b) Working
\ 3rd tap empty the full tank in min . or = 8 min . Men Days Work
7 7 hours
8 min. 34 seconds
24. (b) Let the waste pipe can empty the cistern in x minutes. 15 8 12 1
1 1 1 1
\ + - =
12 15 x 20 15 5 9
x++ 6 30
1 1 1 1 15 + 12 - 9 1 2 2 4
= + - = = Using M1T1W2 = M2T2W1, we get
x 12 15 20 180 10
Thus, the waste pipe take 10 minutes to empty the full cistern. 9
15 (8 12) = ( x + 10)(6 30) 1
1 1 1 4
25. (a) The two filler tap can fill the + or part of tank
20 30 12 8 12 9
in 1 min. x + 10 = 2 6 4 = 18
\ The two filler tap can fill the tank in 12 min. x = 18 10 = 8
\ Half of the tank will be filled in 6 min. Hence, 8 men must be associated
18 101 SPEED TEST
16 - 12 100 1
SPEED TEST 13 \ % profit = 100 = = 33 %
12 3 3
1. (d) Cost price of 30 kg wheat = 30 45 = ` 1350 13. (d) Suppose the S.P. per metre = ` 1
Cost price of 30 kg wheat + 25% profit = Selling Price Then, S.P. of 33 metres = ` 33
= 1350 1.25 = ` 1687.50 Profit = ` 11
40% of 30 kg wheat = 30 0.40 = 12 kg \ C.P. of 33 metres = 33 11 = ` 22
Selling price of 12 kg wheat = 12 50 = ` 600 11
\ % Profit = 100 = 50%
Remaining 18 kg wheats selling price 22
= 1687.50 600 = ` 1087.50 14. (b) Difference in 5% profit = Diff. in ` 10 profit
1087.50 10
\ Selling price of 1 kg wheat = = ` 60 \ 100% = 100 = ` 200
18 5
2. (e) Cost of one apple = ` 25
x 100 x 8x
\ Cost of 12 apples = 25 12 = ` 300 15. (b) Let C.P.= ` =` per hundred and SP
Amount paid = ` 250 dozen 12 hundred
Discount = 300 250 = ` 50 100 x
8x -
50 100 \ % profit = 12 100 = 96 x - 100 x 100 12
% Discount = = 17% (approx.)
300 100 x 12 100 x
3. (a) Suppose cost price = ` x 12
90% of 15000 = 108% of x ` = 4%
90 108 16. (b) Suppose he has x litre of milk in total.
15000 = x Thus, we have 5x + 200 = 6x 150
100 100 or, x (6 5) = 200 + 150
108 \ x = 350 litres.
150 90 = x
100 \ each vessel contains = 35 litres
150 90 100 100 100 100
x= = ` 12500 17. (a) First Purchased for 250
108 125 125 125
4. (b) Total cost price = 11250 + 150 + 800 = ` 12200
4 4 4
115 = 250 = ` 128
Selling price = 12200 = ` 14030 5 5 5
100 Selling price 60 7
4080 + 3650 7730 18. (b) Cost Price = = = ` 70
5. (d) Cost price of watch = = = 3865 1 6
2 2 1-
7
996 + 894 1890 77 - 70
6. (c) The cost price of an article = = = ` 945 \ % profit = 100 = 10%
2 2 70
7. (a) There is always a loss in such case and th e loss 7.5 100 7.5 100
19. (c) Cost Price = = = ` 50
(10)2 Difference in % profit 22 - 7
% % = 1%
100 20. (a) He purchases 64 bananas more for 40% of ` 40 or, ` 16.
100 120 16
8. (b) By rule of fraction : 153 = ` 204 \ Reduced price per dozen = 12 = ` 3
90 100 64
100 21. (d) Let the listed price be = ` 100
9. (a) CP = 240 = ` 192
125 3 3
216 - 192 25 1 Then, CP = 100 = ` 75 and SP = 100 = ` 150
\ profit = 100 = = 12 % 4 2
192 2 2 150 - 75
10. (d) Let the cost price be = ` 100. \ % profit = 100 = 100%
75
2 100 - 9
rd of original SP = 100 20% of 100 = ` 80 22. (a) He purchased 15
3 for a rupee.
100
80 3 91 100
\ Original SP = = ` 120 Now to gain 5%, he must sell 15 = 13 for a rupee
2 100 105
120 - 100 23. (d) Let the CP be = ` 100
\ % profit = 100 = 20%
100 Actual SP = 100 + 20% of 100 = ` 120
11. () He must have purchased less number of oranges for a rupee, 100 120 100
as he bears a loss. Therefore, no. of oranges purchased for a \ Marked Price = 120 = = `125
100 - 4 96
60
rupee = 32 . Now, to gain 20%, he must sell less 125 - 100
100 Marked Price is 100
number of oranges for a rupee. And that number is 96
60 100 = 25% more than the cost price.
32 = 16 24. (c) Let cost price = x
100 120
12. (b) Suppose he invested ` 16 12. 95 110 105
Then we have, x = x -1
16 12 100 100 100
Then, CP of 1 article = ` = ` 12
16 100 100
16 12
or, x = 200
and SP of 1 article = ` = ` 16 105 100 - 95 100
12 \ Cost price = ` 200
SOLUTIONS 19
25. (a) Suppose the cost price of the goods is ` 100. 480
4. (a) Speed of bus = = 60km / h
120 8
Then, selling price in the first case = 100 = ` 120
100 60 4
Speed of train = = 80 km / h
100 400 3
Therefore, marked price = ` 120 = `
100 - 10 3 Speed of train : Speed of car = 16 : 15
Now, selling price in the second case 80
400 100 - 20 320 \ Speed of car = 15 = 75 km / h
= =` 16
3 100 3 Distance covered by car in 6 h r = 75 6 = 450 km
320 5. (c) Distance travelled by Car A = 65 8 = 520 km
Therefore, % profit = - 100 (Q CP = 100)
3 Distance travelled by Car B = 70 4 = 280 km
20 2 520
= =6 % Ratio = = 13 : 7
3 3 280
25
26. (b) Profit on the first table = 400 = ` 80 50 44 110
125 6. (a) Distance between Ramgarh and Devgarh = =
he loses ` 80 on the second table (Since there is neither 60 3
profit nor loss) Average speed of the bus is increased by 5 km/hr then the
80 speed of the bus = 55 km/hr
\ Cost price of second table = 100 = ` 800 Distance 110 60
10 Required time = = = 40 min
27. (b) Total selling price of two horses = 2 720 = ` 1,440 Speed 3 55
100 30
The CP of first horse = 720 = ` 576 7. (a) Distance covered in 4 seconds = 7 metres
125 7
100 30
The CP of second horse = 720 = ` 960 \ Speed in m/s =
75 4
Total CP of two horses = 576 + 960 = ` 1,536
30 18
Therefore, loss = ` 1,536 ` 1,440 = ` 96 \ Speed in km/hr = = 27 km/hr
4 5
96 100 8. (b) Walking + Riding = 6 hrs 30 min (1)
\ % loss = = 6.25%
1536 2 Riding = 6 hrs 30 min 2 hrs 10 min
28. (b) Shortcut : = 4 hrs 20 min (2)
100(10 - 7) - 2 10 7 160 Solving the above two relations (equations);
= % gain as the sign is+ve. 2 (1) (2) gives
200 + 10 - 7 203
2 walking = 13 hrs 4 hrs 20 min = 8 hrs 40 minutes
29. (d) Amount received by all the officers
= 45 25000 = 11,25,000 18
9. (c) S1 = 10 = 36 km/hr
3 5
Amount received by each clerk = 25000 = 15000 36
5 S2 = 36 + = 48 km/hr
Amount received by all the clerks = 80 15000 = 12,00,000 3
Total amount of profit earned = 11,25,000 + 12,00,000 1
= `23.25 lakh. \ Difference in time = T1 T2 = 7 am 7.20 am = - hr
3
30. (e) Let the cost price of the articles be `100 \ Distance of meeting point from madras
Marked Price = `130
After giving a discount of 10% the selling price of the articles 1
= 0.9 130 = 117 68 - 48 - 3 68 + 16
(117 - 100) = 36 = 36 = 36 km
So, actual profit per cent = 100 = 17% 36 + 48 36 + 48
100
SPEED TEST 14
10. (a) Speed Starting time
575
1. (c) Average speed of a tractor = = 25 km / h A 3 km 1 o'clock
23
The speed of a bus in an hour = 25 2 = 50 km B 4 km 2 o'clock
9 C 5 km 3 o'clock
The speed of a car in an hour = 50 = 90 km
5 A takes a lead of 3 km from B.
So, the distance covered by car in 4 h is Relative speed of A and B = 4 3 = 1 km/hr
90 4 = 360 km Thus, A and C are 12 10 = 2 apart at 5 oclock.
2. (b) Total distance = 64 8 = 512 km
3
512 \ B catches A after = 3 hrs, i.e., at 2 + 3 = 5 oclock.
Now speed = = 85 km / h 1
6 \ A returns at 5 oclock and from a distance of 3 4
3. (e) Suppose the speed of boat in still water is x km/h and speed = 12 km from Poona.
of stream is y km/h In the mean time C covers a distance of 5 2 = 10 km from
Speed of boat in downstream = (x + y) km/h Poona.
\ x + y = 32 .... (i) Thus, A and C are 12 10 = 2 km apart at 5 Oclock.
Speed of boat in downstream = (x y) km/h Relative speed of A and C = 3 + 5 = 8 km/hr.
\ x y = 28 .... (ii)
2 1
Add. Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get Thus, they meet after = hr = 15 min.
2x = 60 8 4
x = 30 km /h Thus, C will get the message at 5.15 oclock.
20 101 SPEED TEST
Time difference S1 S2 Now,
11. (b) Distance = x 5 x 5
S1 - S2 Speed of train in two cases = +2 = + 4
Where, S1 and S2 are the speeds of the two persons. 9 18 10 18
1 15 x x 10 5 x 5
3 or, - = - or, =
2 4 = 15 = 7.5 km 9 10 9 9 90 9
\ distance = 5
15 2
-3 \ x = 90 = 50 m.
4 9
12. (a) Let the distance be x km. Then, 40
20. (b) Boats upstream speed = = 5 km/hr
x x 8
total time = + = 10 hrs.
2 21 2 24 36
Boats downstream speed = = 6 km/hr
x ( 24 + 21) 10 2 21 24 6
or, = 10 \ x = = 224 km 5+6
2 21 24 45 \ Speed of boat in still water = = 5.5 km/hr
13. (b) Let the speed of train be x km/hr. 2
x 21. (a) Let the distance be x km.
Then, speed of horse transit = km/hr Now, upstream speed = 9 3 = 6 km/hr.
3 and downstream speed = 9 + 3 = 12 km/hr.
2x Total time taken in upstream and downstream journey
and speed of steamer = km/hr
3 x x
= + =3
120 3 450 60 3 1 6 12
Now, total time = + + = 13
2x x x 2 18x 3 72
or, =3 \ x = = 12 km
1 27 1 72 18
or = = \ x = 60 km/hr..
x 2 810 60 22. (c) Same as Q. 3.
5 10 1 {(5)2 - (1) 2 } 24
14. (b) Relative speed = 42 30 = 12 km/hr = 12 = m/s Distance = = = 2.4 km.
18 3 2 5 10
23. (a) The Quicker formula given in Q.3 can be written in the form:
Total length of both the trains 84 + 60
Time = = 2 Distance Speed in still water
Relative speed 10 Total time =
3 (Speed in still water) - (Speed in current) 2
144 3 2 22.5 6
= = 43.2 seconds = = 8 hrs.
10 (6) 2 - (1.5)2
15. (a) Relative speed of the train and first person 16
24. (b) Upstream speed = km/hr
75 18 5
= 10 m/s = = 36 m/s
15 5 28
Downstream speed = km/hr
2 5
\ speed of the train = 36 + 6 = 42 km/hr 28 16
-
Now, relative speed of the train and 2nd person \ Velocity of current = 5 5 = 12 = 1.2 km/hr
75 300 18 2 10
= 4 m/s = = 40 km/hr
27 27 5 1
Shortcut: Speed of 2nd peson = Relative speed of train 25. (b) Upstream speed = 60 km/hr = 6km/hr
6
with respect to 1st peson + Speed of first person Relative 1
speed of train with respect to 2nd peson Downstream speed = 60 km/hr = 10 km/hr
6
75 18 75 18 10 6
= + 6 - 4 = 36 + 6 40 = 2 km/hr \ Velocity of current = = 2km/hr
15 5 27 5 2
26. (a) Let the speed of A in still water = x km/hr
2
120 9
Then, downstream speed = x + km/hr
16. (a) Speed of the train = = 24 m/s 4
5
\ time taken by the train to pass the platform 9
and upstream speed = x - km/hr
120 + 180 4
= = 12.5 seconds
24 9 9
Now, distance = 6 x + = 9 x -
17. (c) Length of the train = Relative speed time 4 4
5 15 5 48 27 81 135
= (40 - 25) 48 = = 200 m or, 6 x + = 9x - or 3x =
18 18 2 4 4
18. (c) Let the length of the train = x m 135 45 1
x x + 100 \ x= = = 11 km/hr
Then, speed of the train = = 4 3 4 4
15 25 27. (c) Let the speed of boat in still water = x km/hr
or, 25x = 15x + 1500 or, 10x = 1500 Speed of current = 4 km/hr.
\ x = 150 m Speed upstream = (x 4) km/hr
19. (c) Let the length of train = x m. Speed downstream = (x + 4) km/hr
We know that, when train and man are moving in the same 6 6
direction relative speed = Speed o Train Speed of Man Now, + =2
\ Speed of train = Relative speed + Speed of man x-4 x+4
SOLUTIONS 21
6( x + 4)( x - 4) 5. (c) In this question, the alligation method is applicable on prices,
or, =2 so we should get the average price of mixture.
2
x - 16 SP of mixture = ` 20/litre; profit = 25%
2x2 32 = 6x + 6x
or, x2 6x 16 = 0 100
\ average price = 20 = ` 16/litre
or, (x 8) (x + 2) = 0 125
\ x = 8 or 2. 6. (b) Short-Cut-Method : In such questions the ratio is
We reject the negative value. 2
\ Speed of boat in still water = 8 km/hr water : milk = 16 :100 = 1 : 6
3
28. (e) 7. (c)
29. (b) Let the distance it travelled at the speed of 160 kmh1 be x km.
x (560 - x)
\ + = 9.5
160 40
x + 4(560 - x)
= 9.5 \ ratio of quantities sold at 14% profit and 6% loss
160 = 2 : 18 = 1 : 9.
x + 2240 - 4x = 1520 50
\ 3x = 720 \ quantity sold at 14% profit = 1 = 5kg and sold at
\ x = 240 km 1+ 9
6% loss = 50 5 = 45 kg.
120 8. (c) Here, the % values of milk and water that is taken from the
30. (a) Speed of first train = = 30ms-1
4 vessel should be taken into consideration.
Milk Water
Total length when it passed another train = 120 + 210 = 330m
70% 30%
330
\ Relative speed = = 22ms -1 55%
15
\ Speed of second train = 30 22 = 8 ms1 25% 15%
5:3
SPEED TEST 15 Ratio of milk to water = 5 : 3
80
1. (c) The mean value is 90 P and the price of water is 0 P. \ quantity of milk = 5 = 50 litres
Milk Water 5+3
108 0 80
and quantity of milk = 3 = 30 litres
90 5+3
9. (c) Amount of liquid left after n operations, when the container
originally contains x units of liquid from which y units in
90 0 108 90 n
By the Alligation Rule, Milk and water are in the ratio of 5 : 1. x - y
\ quantity of milk in the mixture = 5 16 = 80 litres. taken out each time is x units.
x
100 Thus, in the above case, amount of milk left
2. (b) Cost price of mixture = 40 P = 32P per kg
125 3
By the rule of fraction 80 - 8
= 80 kg = 58.32 kg
42 24 80
10. (b) Gold Copper
32 19 9
8 10
Ratio = 4 : 5 15
Thus, for every 5 kg of salt at 24 P, 4 kg of salt at 42P is used. 6 4
4 \ Gold : Copper = 6 : 4 = 3 : 2
\ the required no. of kg = 25 = 20. 11. (e) This question can be solved in so many different ways. But
5
3. (c) The existing solution has 40% sugar. And sugar is to be mixed; the method of alligation method is the simplest of all the
so the other solution has 100% sugar. So, by alligation methods. We will apply the alligation on price of milk, water
method: and mixture.
40% 100% Milk Water
3.5 0
50%
Mean
50% 10%
\ The two mixtures should be added in the ratio 5 : 1. 2
2 1.5
300 \ ratio of milk and water should be 2 : 15 = 4 : 3
Therefore, required sugar = 1 = 60 gm 40
5 \ added water = 3 = 30 litres
4. (c) Here, alligation is applicable for money per boy or girl. 4
3900 12. (d) We will apply aligaton on % profit. If he sells the milk at CP,
Mean value of money per student = = 60 P he gains 0%. But if he sells water at CP, he gains 100%.
65
Boys Girls Milk Water
80 30 0% 100%
60 25%
30 20 75% 25%
\ Boys : Girls = 3 : 2 Ratio of milk to water in the mixture should be 3 : 1
65
\ Number of boys = 3 = 39 1
3+ 2 \ % of water in mixture = 100 = 25%
and number of girls = 65 39 = 26 3+1
22 101 SPEED TEST
13. (d) Apply alligation on fraction of A in each mixture. 1
This means that rd of the butt of sherry was left, i.e. to
Original mixture B 3
7 0 2
12 say, the butler drew out rd of the butt.
3
New mixture 2
7 \ rd of the butt was stolen.
3
16 19. (b) Selling price of 150 kg wheat at 20% profit
7 7
16 48 120
7 7
: = 3 :1 = 150 7 = ` 1260
Ratio of original mixture to B = 100
16 48 Selling price of 50 kg wheat at 10% profit
9
When 9 litres of B is mixed, original mixture should be 3 110
1 = 50 7 = ` 385
= 27 litres. 100
Therefore initial quantity in can = 27 + 9 = 36 litres. \ Selling price per kg of remaining 100 kg wheat
14. (c) Apply the alligation on fracfion of milk in each mixture. 1260 - 385
Mixture Water = = ` 8.75
100
2 0 1
3 20. (d) In original mixture, % of liquid B = 100 = 20%
4 +1
1 3
3 In the resultant mixture, % of liquid B = 100 = 60%
2+3
1 1 Replacement is made by the liquid B, so the % of B in second
3 3 mixture = 100%
Ratio of mixture to water = 1 : 1 Then, by the method of Alligation :
Therefore, if there is 60 liture of solution, 60 litres of water 20% 100%
should be added.
15. (c) 1st wheat 2nd wheat3rd wheat 60%
120 144 174
40% 40%
following the above rule, we have, \ Ratio in which first and second mixtures should be added
[(144 141) + (174 141)] is 1 : 1. What does it imply? It simply implies that the reduced
120 3 + 33
[= 141 120] quantity of the first mixture and the quantity of mixture B
which is to be added are the same.
141 144 21
\ Total mixture = 10 + 10 = 20 litres
20
21 and liquid A = 4 = 16 litres
174 5
[= 141 120] 21. (e) Initially water (weight) = 45 gm & milk 15 gm. After added
Therefore, the required ratio = 36 : 21 : 21 = 12 : 7 : 7 15 gm
16. (c) By the above theorem the required ratio is weight of water
2 3 3 1 1 2 water the percentage of water = total weight of mixture
+ + : + +
2 + 1 3 + 1 3 + 2 2 + 1 3 + 1 3 + 2
60
2 3 3 1 1 2 = 100 = 80%
= + + : + + 75
3 4 5 3 4 5 22. (c) By the rule of alligation:
40 + 45 + 36 20 + 15 + 24 Cost of 1 kg pulses Cost of 1 kg pulses
= : = 121 : 59
3 4 5 3 4 5 of 1st kind of 2nd kind
5 Rs 15 Rs. 20
17. (c) In vessel A, milk = of the weight of mixture
7
8 Mean price
In vessel B, milk = of the weight of mixture. Now, we
13 Rs. 16.50
9
want to form a mixture in which milk will be of the
13
weight of this mixture. 3.50 1.50
By alligation rule: \ Required rate = 3.50 : 1.50 = 35 : 15 = 7 : 3
23. (b) By the rule of alligation:
Cost of 1 kg rice of 1st kind
Cost of 1 kg rice
Cost of 1 kg rice of 2nd kind
of 1st kind
1 2 720 p 570 p
\ required proportion is : = 7:2
13 91
18. (c) By the alligation rule, we find that wine containg 30% of
spirit and wine containing 12% of spirit should be mixed in Mean price
the ratio 1 : 2 to produce a mixture containing 18% of spirit. Rs. 16.50
30% 12%
18% 60 90
\ Required rate = 60 : 90 = 2 : 3
6% 12%
Ratio = 6 : 12 = 1 : 2
SOLUTIONS 23
24. (a) By the rule of alligation: 29. (a) Let cost of 1 litre milk be Re. 1.
Cost of 1 kg tea of 1st kind 8
Mlk in 1 litre mix. in B = litre, C.P. of a litre mix. in
13
5
B = Re. .
7
5
Milk in 1 litre mix. in B = litre, C.P. of 1 litre mix. in
7
5
B = Re.
7
900 1 9
\ Required ratio = 750 : 250 = 3 : 1. Milik in 1 litre of final mix. = 1 = litre;
13 100 13
25. (a) By the rule of alligation: 9
C.P. of 1 litre of water C.P. of 1 litre of milk mean price = Re. .
13
0 Rs. 12
By the rule of alligation, we have:
Mean price C.P. of 1 litre mixture in A C.P. of 1 litre mixture in B
8 5
Rs. 8
13 Mean price 7
3
4 8 13
Ratio of water to milk = 4 : 8 = 1 : 2 2 9
26. (a) S.P. of 1 kg of the mixture = Rs. 68.20, Gain = 10% 91 91
100 2 1
C.P. of 1 kg of the mixture = Rs. 68.20 = Rs. 62. \ Required ratio = : = 2 : 7.
110 91 13
By the rule of alligation, we have 30. (c) Suppose the can initially contains 7x and 5x litres of mixtures
Cost of 1 kg tea Cost of 1 kg tea A and B respectively.
of 1st kind of 2nd kind 7 21
Rs. 60 Rs. 65 Quantity of A mixture left = 7 x 9 litres = 7 x
12 4
litres.
Mean price 5
Quantity of B in mixture left = 5x 9 litres
Rs. 62 12
15
= 5 x litres.
3 2 4
\ Required ratio = 3 : 2 21
27. (b) By the rule of alligation, we have: 7x
4 = 7 28 x 21 = 7
\ 15 9 20 x + 21 9
5x + 9
4
252x 189 = 140x + 147
112 x = 336 x = 3.
So, the can contained 21 litre.
SPEED TEST 16
\ So , Ratio of 1st and 2nd quantities = 7 : 14 = 1 : 2
2 P 4 5
\ Required quantity replaced = 1. (d) 2000 =
3 100
28. (d) Let the C.P. of spirit be Re. 1 per litre. \ P = 10000
5 5 4
2
Spirit in 1 litre mix. of A = litre; C.p. of a litre mix. in A = Re. . Now, CI = 10000 1 + - 1 = 10000 0.0816 = 816
7 7
7 100
Spirit in 1 litre mix. of B = litre; C.P. of 1 litre mix. in 1120 8.5 3
13 2. (a) Amount = 11200 + = 11200 + 2856 = 14056
5 100
B = Re. . 3. (d) In question principle and simple interests are not given.
13
8 8 8730 100
Spirit in 1 litre mix. of C= litre; Mean price = Re. . 4. (d) Principle = = 48500
13 13 63
By the rule of alligation, we have : 2
C.P. of 1 litre mixture in A C.P. of 1 litre mixture in B 6
Compound Interest = 48500 1 + - 1
5 7 100
Mean price = 48500 0.1236 = ` 5994.60
7 13
8 r
n
5
2
A = P 1 +
13 5. (c) = 4000 1 +
1 9 100 100

13 91 21 21
= 4000 = ` 4410
1 9 20 20
\ Required ratio = : = 7 : 9.
13 13
24 101 SPEED TEST
S.I 100 10230 100 6800 100
6. (a) R= = = 12.4%p.q. 11. (a) R= = 10%
PT 27500 3 17000 4
r
t 10
4 11 4
CI = P 1 + - 1 C.I. = 17000 1 + - 1 = 17000 - 1
100 100 40
12.4 3 112.4 3 11 11 11 11 10 10 10 10
= 27500 1 + = 17000
- 1 =27500 1 10 10 10 10

100 100
14641 10000
112.4 112.4 11.24 - 100 = 17000
100 100 10000
= 27500 17000 4641
100 100 100 = = ` 7889.7
10000
12. (b) Ratio of two parts = r2 t2 : r1 t1 = 54 : 50 = 27 : 25
1420034.624 - 1000000 2600
= 27500 \ Sum lent out at 10% = 27 = ` 1350
1000000 52
420034.624 13. (a) Let the rate of interest = r %
= 27500 \ times = r years
1000000
= 27500 0.42 = `11550 S S r r
Now, =
30240 100 16 100
7. (e) Rate per annum = % = 12% 25 1
84000 3 100
or, r2 = \ r= =6 %
3 16 4 4
12
\ Compound Interest = 84000 1 + - 1 100(2 - 1) 1
= 12 %

100
14. (d) Rate of interest =
16 2
3
3 28 3 15. (d) It dobles in 10 yrs.
= 84000 1 + - 1 = 84000 - 1 Then trebles in 20 yrs.
25 25 16. (d) Quicker Maths :
28 28 28 Sum =
Difference in Interest 100
-25 25 25 Times Difference in rates
= 84000 = 84000 21952 - 15625
25 25 25 2.5 100 2.5 100
15625 or, 500 = \ x= = 0.25%
2 x 2 500

17. (b) Suppose ` x was lent at 6% per annum.
6327 x 6 5 (7000 - x) 4 5
= 84000 = ` 34013.95 + = 1600
15625 Thus,
100 100
8. (a) Suppose the principle is ` x.
3 x 7000 x
6 6.5 7.0 7.5 + = 1600
+ + + 10 5
x = 3375
100 100 100 100 3 x + 14,000 - 2 x
x 3375 100 or, = 1600
27 = 3375 \ x = = ` 12500 10
100 27 \ x = 16000 14000 = ` 2000
12000 100 S.I. 100 18. (b) Suppose the rate of interest = r% and the sum = ` A
9. (d) R= R= = 10% A+ r4
40000 3 P T Now, A + = 600 ;
100
r
t 10
3 Ar
CI = P 1 + - 1 = 40000 1 + - 1 or, A + = 600
100 100 25
r
11 3 or, A 1 + = 600 ...(1)
1331 - 1000
= 40000 - 1 = 40000 25
10 1000 A r 6
And, A + = 650 ;
100
31
= 40000 = 40 331 = ` 13240 3r
1000 or, A 1 + = 650 ...(2)
10. (d) Suppose at the rate of 12% p.a. he borrowed ` x. 50
Dividing (1) by (2), we have
x 12 2 (30000 x ) 10 2 r
36480 30000 = + 1+
100 100 25 = 600 ; or, (25 + r ) 2 = 12
24 x 600000 20 x 3r 650 50 + 3r 13
6480 = + 1+
100 100 50
6480 100 = 24x + 600000 20x (25 + r ) 2 12
or, =
648000 600000 50 3r 13
4x = 648000 600000 = 48000 or, (50 + 2r) 13 = (50 + 3r) 12
48000 or, 650 + 26r = 600 + 36r; or, 10r = 50
x= = ` 12000 \ r = 5%
4
SOLUTIONS 25
19. (b) Afte 2 years, amount returned to Ramu
13225 r
400 5 2 = 1+
= 400 + = ` 440 10000 100
100 115 r r 115
Amount returned to Arun = 2% of ` 440 = ` 8.80 = 1+ = -1
100 100 100 100
20. (a) Let the sum be ` x.
r 115 - 100 r 115
x 8 4 32 x = =
\ Interest = = 100 100 100 100
100 100 r = 15%
32 x 68 x
x- = R
n 15
3
100 100 25. (c) C. I. = P 1 + - 1 = 8000 1 + 100 - 1
68 x
100

When interest is less, the sum is ` x.
100 115 3 23 3
x = 8000
\ when interest is 340 less, the sum is 100 340 = ` 500 - 1 = 8000 - 1
68x 100 20
r
2 594.5 r
2
23 23 23 - 20 20 20
21. (a) 594.5 = 5800 1 + - 1 = = 1 + -1 = 8000
5800 100 20 20 20

100

8000
r
2
= (12167 - 8000 ) = ` 4167
0.1025 + 1 = 1 + 8000
100
r
t
(100 + r )2 26. (a) CI = P 1 + - 1
1.1025 = 100
10000
1.1025 10000 = (100 + r)2. 114 2 1.14 2
11025 = (100 + r)2. = 7850 1 + - 1 = 7850 100 - 1
105 = 100 + r 100
r = 5% 2
= 7850 [(1.14) 1] = 7850 [1.2996 1]
22. (b) Suppose principle is P = 7850 [0.2996] = ` 2351.86
r
t 27. (c) Compound interest accrued half-yearly.
\ Compound interest = P 1 + 100 - 1 R = 20% yearly = 10% half-yearly
n = 2 years = 4 half-yearly
8
2 n
1414.40 = P 1 + r
- 1 CI = P 1 + - 1
100 100
1414.40 = P [1.1664 1] 4 11 4
10
P=
1414.40 = 10000 1 + - 1 = 10000 - 1
= ` 8500 100 10
0.1664
So A = P + SI = 8500 + 1414.40 = ` 9914.40 11 11 11 11 - 10 10 10 10
2 = 10000
27 10 10 10 10
23. (d) Compound interest = 7400 1 + - 1 14641 - 1000 4641

200
= 10000 = 10000 10000 = ` 4641
10000
227 2 227 227 - 200 200 2 2
= 7400 - 1 = 7400 R 14
200 200 200 28. (e) Required difference = P = 985 100
100
51529 - 40000 11529 196
= 7400
40000 = 7400 40000 = 985 = 19.306
10000
= 2132.865 = ` 2132.87 29. (a) Let the sum be ` x.
r
T x44 5
3
24. (c) C. I. 1 + - 1 Then, - 57 = x 1 + - 1
100 100 100
r
2
4676.25 = 14500 1 + 100 - 1
or,
4x
25
- 57 = x { }
1261
8000
4 1261
or, x - = 57
4676.25 r
2 25 8000
= 1 + -1 1280 - 1261
14500 100 or, x
8000 = 57
2
4676.25 r 57 8000
+ 1 = 1 + \ x= = ` 24000
14500 100 19
4676.25 14500 r
2 30. (d) Difference in amounts = 2977.54 2809 = ` 168.54
= 1 + Now, we see that ` 168.54 is the interest on ` 2809 in one
14500 100 year (it is either simple or compound interest because both
19176.25 r r are the same for a year).
= 1+ 1.3225 = 1 + 168.54 100
14500 100 100 Hence, rate of interest = = 6%
2809
26 101 SPEED TEST
Now, for the original sum,
SPEED TEST 17
2
6 1. (c) Let the age of father and son be 15x years and x years
2809 = x 1 +
100 respectively.
2 15x + x
53 Now, according to the question, = 16
or, 2809 = x 2
50
16 2
2809 50 50 or, x = = 2years
\ x= = ` 2500 16
53 53 Hence age of the son = 2 years
31. (c) Difference in interest = 236.25 225 = ` 11.25 2. (b) Average age = 28.5
This difference is the simple interest over ` 225 for one year. \ Total age = 28.5 2 = 57
11.25 100 5
Hence, rate of interest = = 5% \ Daughters age = 57 = 15 years
225 1 19
Now, since any particular number of years is not mentioned, 3. (a) Let Sudhas and Neetas present ages be 6x and 7x years
we cannot find the sum. respectively.
3 According to the question.
25 6x - 5 5
32. (a) 10000 = x 1 + =
100 7x - 5 6
10000 4 4 4 36x 30 = 35x 25
\ = ` 5120 x=5
5 5 5
\ Sudhas present age = 6 5 = 30 years
t
2 15 36 + 12 16
33. (b) 6632.55 = 6250 1 + 4. (a) Required average age = years
100 36 + 12
t 540 + 192 732
or,
6632.55 51
=
= years = years = 15.25 years.
48 48
625000 50 5. (a) Let the ages of Swati and Khyati two years ago be 5x and 7x
663255 51
t years respectively.
or, = According to the question,
625000 50
5x + 4 7
t t =
132651 51 51 7x + 4 9
or, = = \ t=3 49x + 28 = 45x + 36
125000 50 50
4x = 8 x = 2
t 3 \ Khyatis present age = 7x + 2 = 7 2 + 2 = 16 years
Hence, the time is =
2 2 6. (b) Shortcut method :
34. (a) The general formula for such question is : 5(9 - 1)
Sons age = = 8 yrs
r r r (9 - 4)
A = P 1 + 1 1 + 2 1 + 3 ... \ Fathers age = 4 8 = 32 yrs
100 100 100
7. (b) Shortcut method :
where A = Amount, P = Principal and r1, r2, r3 are the rates
of interest for different years. 5(7 - 1) + 5(3 - 1)
Sons age = = 10 yrs
7 -3
3 4 5
From the first relationship of ages, if F is the age of the father
2249.52 = P 1 + 1 + 1 +
100 100 100 then F + 5 = 3 (10 + 5)
or, 2249.52 = P(1.03) (1.04) (1.05) \ F = 40 yrs
2249.52 8. (c) Shortcut method :
\ P= = ` 2000 10(4 - 1) + 10(2 - 1)
1.03 1.04 1.05 Daughters age = = 20 yrs
35. (a) Whenever the relationship between CI and SI is asked for 3 4-2
years of time, we use the formula: 1
9. (e) 10 yrs ago, A was of Bs ago.
rt 2
SI = CI 3
r
r AT present, A is of Bs age.
100 1 + - 1 4
100 1
10 - 1
2
5 3 \ Bs age = = 20 yrs
150 = CI 1 3
r
3 -
100 1 + - 1 2 4
100 3
As age = of 20 = 15 yrs
9261 - 8000 4
150 100 10. (b) Let the age of the daugher be x yrs.
CI = 8000 Then, the age of the mother is (50 x) yrs.
5 3 5 yrs ago, 7(x 5) = 50 x 5
150 100 1261 1261 or, 8x = 50 5 + 35 = 80
= = = ` 157.62 \ x = 10
5 3 8000 8 Therefore, daughters age = 10 yrs
and mothers age = 40 yrs
SOLUTIONS 27
11. (c) Let the ratio of proportionality be x, then R 5R
4x x = 196 or, 4x2 = 196 or, x = 7 R+ + = 138
3 2
Thus, Fathers age = 28 yrs, Sons age = 7 yrs R = 36
After 5 yrs, Fathers age = 33 yrs. 36
Sons age = 12 yrs S= = 12
3
\ Ratio = 33 : 12 = 11 : 4 5 36
12. (b) Difference in ratios = 8 F= = 90
2
Then 8 24 \ 1 3
19. (c) Let the ages of Abhay and his father 10 years ago be x and 5x
i.e., value of 1 in ratio is equivalent to 3 yrs
years respectively. Then,
Thus, Ritas age = 3 3 = 9 yrs
Abhays age after 6 years = (x + 10) + 6 = (x + 16) years.
Mothers age = 11 3 = 33 yrs.
After 3 years, the ratio = 12 : 36 = 1 : 3 Fathers age after 6 years = (5x + 10) + 6 = (5x + 16) years.
13. (c) Let the present age be x yrs. Then 3
\ (x + 16) = ( 5x + 16 ) 7 (x + 16) = 3 (5x + 16)
1 7
125% of (x 10) = x; and 83 % of (x + 10) = x
3 7x + 112 = 15x + 48
1 8x = 64 x = 8.
\ 125% of (x 10) = 83 % of (x + 10) Hence, Abhays fathers present age = (5x + 10) = 50 years.
3
5 5 20. (b) Let their present ages be 4x, 7x and 9x years respectively.
(x = 10) = (x + 10) Then, (4x 8) + (7x 8) + (9x 8) = 56 20x = 80 x = 4.
4 6
5 5 50 50 \ Their present ages are 16 yrs, 28 yrs. and 36 yrs. respectively.
or, x - x = + 21. (d) 16 years ago, let T = x years and G = 8x years
4 6 6 4
After 8 years from now, T = (x + 16 + 8) years and
5x 250
or, = \ x = 50 yrs. G = (8x + 16 + 8) years.
12 12 \ 8x + 24 = 3(x + 24) 5x = 48.
14. (b) Let the fathers present age be x and sons age be x1 and x2.
Now, x = 3(x1 + x2) .....(i) 48
+8
T x +8 88 11
Also, x + 5 = 2(x1 + 5 + x2 + 5) 8 years ago, = = 5 = =
x + 5 = 2(x1 + x2 + 10) .....(ii) G 8x + 8 8 48 + 8 424 53
x 5
Putting value of (x1 + x2) = from (i) in equation (ii) 22. (d) R Q = R T Q = T. Also, R + T = 50
3
R + Q = 50
x
x + 5 = 2 + 10 = 45 So, (R Q) cannot be determined.
3 23. (e) Let the ages of father and son be x and (45 x) years
15. (a) Let the present ages of P and Q be 3x and 4x respectively. respectively.
After 4 years Then, (x 5) (45 x 5) = 34
4x 3x = 5
(x 5) (40 x) = 34 x2 45x + 234 = 0
\x=5
\ Ps present age = 3x = 3 5 = 15 years (x 39) (x 6) = 0 x = 39 or x = 6.
16. (c) Let the present ages of Rama and Shyama be 4x and 5x years \ Fathers age = 39 years and sons age = 6 years
respectively, 24. (a) Let the ages of children be x, (x + 3), (x + 6)
4x + 5 5 and (x + 12) years.
\ = Then, x + (x + 3) + (x + 6) + (x + 9) + (x + 12) = 50
5x + 5 6
25x + 25 = 24x + 30 5x = 20 x = 4.
x = 30 25 = 5 \ Age of the youngest child = x = 4 years.
\ Ramas present age = 4 5 = 20 years 25. (b) Anups age = (5 2) years = 3 years. Let Gagans age be x
17. (d) Let the mothers age be y years. years.
\ The age of father = (y + 9) years x -6
Then, = 3 x 6 = 54 x = 60.
y 18
The age of son = years 26. (c) Let the school ages of Neelam and Shaan be 5x and 6x
2
respectively. Then,
y
The age of daughter = - 7 years 1
5x
2 3 5 1 5
Now according to the given condition, = 9 5x = 6x 15 = 15.
1 9 3 2
y 6x
(y + 9) = 3 - 7 2
2 Thus, Shaans age cannot be determined.
3 y - 42 27. (d) Let Cs age be x years. Then, Bs age = 2x years. As age =
y+9= (2x + 2) years.
2
2y + 18 = 3y 42 \ (2x + 2) = 2x + x = 27 5x = 25 x = 5.
y = 60 years Hence, Bs age = 2x = 10 years.
18. (d) Suppose age of Ram = R 28. (d) Let the present ages of the father and son be 2x and x years
his sons age = S respectively.
and his fathers age = F
Then, (2x 18) = 3 (x 18) x = 36.
R 2
According to question, S = and R = F \ Required sum = (2x + x) = 3x = 108 years.
3 5 29. (d) Let the ages of Preeti and Sonal 1 year ago be 4x and
5R R +S+ F x years respectively.
\ F= and = 46
2 3 Then, [(4x + 1) + 6] [(x + 1) + 6] = 9 3x = 9 x = 3.
R + S + F = 46 3 \ Required ratio = (4x + 1) : (x + 1) = 13 : 4.
28 101 SPEED TEST
30. (a) Let the present age of the father be x and that of the son be 9. (b) Let log10 x - log10 x = 2 log x 10
x 8
y. Then y = 3 1 4
log10 x = 2 log x 10 log10 x = log x 10 s
2
\ 3x = 8y ...(i)
log10 x
x + 12 2 = 4 (log10 x ) 2 = 4
Further, = \ x + 12 = 2y + 24 log x 10
y + 12 1
log10 x = 2 x = 102 or 102
\ x 2y = 12 ...(ii)
3 1/ 2
From eqn (i) and (ii), x = 48, y = 18 10. (c) log 6 216 6 = log 6 (6) (6)
\ sum = 66 yrs.
7/2 7 7
= log 6 (6) = log 6 6 = (Q loga a = 1)
SPEED TEST 18 2 2
1 11. (b) log 7 log5 ( x + 5 + x ) = 0
1. (c) Let m = log 5 3 5 , then 5 m = 3 5 = (5) 3 use loga x = b ab = x
1 1 \ log 5 ( x + 5 + x ) = 70 = 1
So, m = . Thus, log 5 3 5 = .
3 3
1 1 x + 5 + x = 51 = 5 2 x = 0 \ x = 0
2. (d) log8x + log8 =
6 3 1 1 k
11. (c) log a b = , logb c = and logc a =
1 1 x 1 2 3 5
or log8 x = or log 8 =
6 3 6 3 log b 1 log c 1 log a k
x log a = 2 , log b = 3 , log c = 5
or = (8) 1/ 3 { Q logab = x (a)x = b}
6 1 1 k
x = 1 k = 30
or = (23)1/3 or x = 12 2 3 5
6
1 12. (c) log a ( ab) = x
3. (b) log10 25 - 2 log10 3 + log10 18
2 log ab log b log a 1
1/ 2 2 =x = x -1 =
= log10 ( 25) - log10 (3) + log10 18 log a log a log b x - 1
= log10 5 - log10 9 + log10 (9 2) log ab log a + log b
= log10 5 - log10 9 + log10 9 + log10 2 Now, logb(ab) = =
log b log b
= log10 5 + log10 2 = log10 (5 2)
log a 1 1 + x -1 x
= log10 10 = 1 = +1 = +1 = =
log b x -1 x -1 x -1
1
4. (d) Using, log k m = log m 1 1
a k 13. (d) log8 x + log8 =
log 1 6 3
2 17
log8 17
=
( 2 2)
=2
log 2 2 17 log
= 2 2
17 1 1 x 1
log 9 23 log 2 23 1 log3 23 log8 x = log8 =
3 log 3 23 6 3 6 3
2 1 x
log8 17 log 2 2 17 log 2 2 17 log 2 2 17 ( 8) 3 = Q if log y = x, then ( a ) x = y
a
Hence, - = - =0 6
log9 23 log 3 23 log 3 23 log 3 23
(2 )
1 x
3 3
1 1 1 = x = 12
5. (d) Given expression = + + 6
log xyz log xyz log xyz
( )
2 2
log xy log yz log zx 14. (d) log10 ( 5log10 100 ) = log10 5log10 10 2

log xy + log yz + log zx log x 2 y 2 z 2
= = 2
log xyz log xyz = log10 (10 log10 10 )
2 log xyz
= =2 = [log10 10]2 [Q log10 10 = 1] = 12 = 1
log xyz
log 12 log 24 log 36 log 12 1
6. (b) abc = . . = 15. (c) log10 125 - 2 log10 4 + log10 32 + log10 1
log 24 log 36 log 48 log 48 3
log 48 + log 12 log( 48 . 12) 1 3 2 5
\1 + abc = = = log10 ( 5 ) - 2 log10 ( 2 ) + log10 ( 2 ) + 0
log 48 log 48 3
log 242 log 24 = log10 5 - 4 log10 2 + 5log10 2
= =2. = 2bc
log 48 log 48 = log10 5 + log10 2 = log10 10 = 1
7. (c) Let x = 256 log13 (10 ) log13 (10 )
16. (b) 1
log x = 56 log 2 = 56 0.30103 = 16.85
log169 (10 )
= Q log ab c = log a c
\ Number of digits in 256 = 17 log
13 2 (10 ) b
8. (c) A = log 2 log 2 log 4 (4) 4+ 2 log 2 2 ( ) 2

=
log13 10
=
1
=2
1 1 2
= log 2 log 2 4 + 2 2 Q log a a = 1 log13 10
= log 2 log 2 (2) 2 + 4 = log 2 2 + 4 = 1 + 4 = 5 2
SOLUTIONS 29
5 128 5 7. (d) A = x2 y2 = (x + y)(x y) = 10 (x y)

17. (a) 2 log + log + log B = 20
8 125 2 Now, it is not possible to compare A and B, as the value of x
= 2 log 5 2 log 8 + log 128 log 125 + log 5 log 2 and y is not known.
= 2 log 5 2 log 23 + log 27 log 53 + log 5 log 2 8. (b) 2x + y = x + 2y
= (2 log 5 6 log 2) + (7 log 2 3 log 5) + log 5 log 2 x= y
= 3 log 5 3 log 5 7 log 2 + 7 log 2 = 0
x2 x2
1 1 1 Now, 2 = 2 = 1
18. (b) log100 0.1 = log 2 = log10 y x
10 10 2 10
1 1 1 1
-1
= log10 (10 ) = - log10 10 = - 9. (c) No of women = (108) = 36
3
2 2 2
\ No of unmarried women = No of women No of unmarried
women = 36 9 = 27
19. (b) log 2 log 3 log 4 .... log 1000
1 1 1 1 10. (b) Let the total no of boys be n.
2 3 4 1000 Now, No of boys above 160 cm height = 18
3
n = 18
log 2 log3 log 4 log1000 log a 4
= .... Q log b a = log b n = 24
1 1 1
log log log log 1
Also, let total no of students be N.
2 3 4 1000
2
log 2 log 3 log 4 log1000 Then, n = N = 36
3
= - log 2 log 3 - log 4 .... log1000
3
n = (24) = 36
= ( 1) ( 1) ( 1) .... ( 1) 2
(Q number of terms is odd ) = 1 \ Number of girls = N n = 36 24 = 12
11. (a) T + R = ` 525 ...(1)
3
SPEED TEST 19 T + 2R = 850 ...(2)
2
1. (e) x + y = 23 and xy = 126 (Given) Performing (1) (2), we get T = 400
Now x2 + y2 = (x + y)2 2xy \ R = 525 400 = ` 125
= (23)2 2 126 = 529 252 12. (c) H + G = 81 ...(1)
x2 + y2 = 277 2H + 4G = 234
2. (e) 7x 5y = 20 ...(i) or H + 2G = 117 ...(2)
12x + 5y = 75 ...(ii) (2) (1) G = 36
Adding both the equations, 13. (a) xy=3 ...(i)
95 x2 y2 = 63
19x = 95 or, x = =5 (x + y) (x y) = 63
19
From equation (i), 63
7 5 5y = 20 or, 5y = 35 20 (x + y) 3 = 63 (x + y) = = 21
3
15 Hence, x + y = 21 ...(ii)
or, y = = 3 \ xy = 5 3 = 15 Solving (i) and (ii), we get
5
3. (d) Let the length and breadth of the rectangle be 3x and 2x x = 12 and y = 9
respectively. \ larger no. = 12
\ 2 (3x + 2x) = 40 10x = 40 14. (c) 10x + y 10y x = 9
9(x y) = 9 xy=1
40 15. (e) Let the number of parrots be p and the number of tigers be t.
x= = 4 \ Area of rectangle = 3x 2x
10 Then
= 6x = (6 42) cm2 = 96 cm2
2
p + t = 858 ...(i)
4. (d) 2x + 3y = 87 2p + 4t = 1846 ...(ii)
3x 3y = 48 After rearranging equation (ii), we get
__________ p + 2t = 923 ...(iii)
5x = 135 Solving (i) & (ii), we get
135 t = 65 & p = 793
\ x= = 27
16. (e) Train fare from Agra to Aligarh for one person
5
2.34 3
5. (c) Sukhvinders monthly income = = 2 420 = 630
12 4
3 2.34 1 Then required sum = 3 420 + 4 630
Jassis monthly income = = 2.34 lakh = 1260 + 2520 = ` 3780
2 12 8
17. (b) Let Rs. x be the fare of city B from city A and Rs. y be the
1 fare of city C from cityA.
Ganeshs monthly income = 2 2.34 = Rs.58500
8 Then, 2x + 3y = 77 ...(i) and
30 20 3x + 2y = 73 ...(ii)
6. (e) Number of sweets given to all students = 30 = 180 Multiplying (i) by 3 and (ii) by 2 and subtracting, we get: 5y
100
= 85 or y = 17.
30 30
Number of sweets given to two teachers = 2 = 18 Putting y = 17 in (i), we get: x = 13.
100 18. (a) Clearly, the required number would be such that it leaves a
\ Required number of sweets = 180 + 18 = 198 remainder of 1 when divided by 2, 3 or 4 and no remainder
when divided by 5. Such a number is 25.
30 101 SPEED TEST
19. (c) Clearly, the black cards are either clubs or spades while the 12 17
red cards are either diamonds or hearts.
Let the number of spades be x. Then, number of clubs = (7 x). 9 8
8 8
Number of diamonds = 2 x number of spades = 2x;
Number of hearts = 2 x number of diamonds = 4x.
Total number of cards = x + 2x + 4x + 7 x 6x + 7. 8 4 9 8
2
Therefore 6x + 7 = 13 6x = 6 x 1. 7. (d)
2
I. x x 12 = 0 II. y + 5y + 6 = 0
Hence, number of clubs = (7 x) = 6.
20. (c) Let there be (x + 1) members. Then,
4 3-I 3 2
1 3
Fathers share = , share of each other member = .
4 4x
4 3 - II 3 2
\ 3 = 4x = 36 x = 9
3 1
4x 4 x = 4, 3 y = 2, 3
Step I: Split the middle term in such a way that its sum equals
Hence, total number of family member = 10.
to the coefficient of the middle term and its product equals to
SPEED TEST 20 the product of the constant term and the coefficient of highest
power.
2
ax + bx + c = 0 Step II. Divide each split term by co-efficient of highest
power and change the sign. These are the roots of the given
II Step
a b 2 quadratic equation.
(Divide by co-efficent of x ) 2 2
8. (a) I. x 8x + 15 = 0 II. y 3y + 2 = 0
III Step
a/a b/a (Change the sign)
1. (c) x = 3, 4 5 3 2 1
y = 4, 5
\ xy 5 3 2 1
2-6 : x = 5, 3 y = 2, 1
Note: Let the quardatic equation be ax2 + b + c = 0.
To find roots of this equation quickly, we find two factors of b 9. (c) x2 = 144; x = 12
such that their sum is equal to b and their product is equal to y = 169 = 13
the product of the coefficient of x2 and the constant term c.
Let two such factors be a and b. 10. (b) x = 121 = 11 , y2 = 121, y = 11
The a + b = b and a b = ca 11. (e) x2 = 15, x = 4
In the second step, we divide these factors by the coefficient of x2, 2
y + 9y + 20 = 0
ie be a.
In the next step, we change the signs of the outcome.These are the
roots of the equation. 5 4
2 2
2. (c) x + 13x + 42 = 0 y + 19y + 90 = 0
5 4
y = 5, 4
7 6 10 9
3 4 7
12. (e) I. + = x = x
7 6 10 x x x
9
7 = x2 = x \ x = 7
2 2
3. (a) x + 15x + 56 = 0 y 23y + 132 = 0
5 5
2 (7) 2 (7) 2
8 7 12 11 II. y = 0 y2 =
y y
5 5 5
2
8 7 12 11 y y = (7) 2 ( y ) 2 = (7) 2 y=7
2 2 2 2
4. (e) x + 7x + 12 = 0 y + 6y + 8 = 0 x + 11x + 30 = 0 y + 7y + 12 = 0
13. (c)
4 3 4 2 Ist 6 5 Ist 4 3
4 3 4 2 IInd 6 5 IInd 4 3
5. (b)
2
x 22x + 120 = 0
2
y 26y + 168 = 0 14. (b) I. 16x2 + 20x + 6 = 0
2
8x + 10x + 3 = 0 (4x + 3) + (2x + 1) = 0
14 12 3 1
12 10 \ x = - or -
4 2
II. 10y2 + 38y + 24 = 0 5y2 + 19y + 12 = 0
12 10 14 12 \ (y + 3) (5y + 4) = 0
2 2
6. (d) x + 12x + 32 = 0 y + 17y + 72 = 0 4
\y = 3 or - Hence, x > y
5
8 4 9 8 15. (d) I. 18x2 + 18x + 4 = 0 9x2 + 9x + 2 = 0
(3x + 2) (3x + 1) = 0
8 4 9 8 2 1
\ x = - or -
3 3
SOLUTIONS 31
II. 12y2 + 29y + 14 = 0 7. (e) 4 9 5 14 12 34 23
(3y + 2) (4y + 7) = 0
0.44 0.357 0.5 0.75 0.66
2 7
\ y = - or - Hence, x y 9 3 6
3 4 8. (d) = 0.29; = 0.17; = 0.26;
16. (c) I. 8x2 + 6x 5 = 0 31 17 23
4 7
5 1 = 0.36; = 0.28
(4x + 5) (2x 1) = 0 \ x = - or 11 25
4 2 4
II. 12y2 22y + 8 = 0 6y2 11y + 4 = 0 Hence, the largest fraction =
11
1 4 3 4
(2y 1) (3y 4) = 0 \ y = or 9. (d) = 0.42, = 0.44,
2 3 7 9
Hence, x y 6 7
17. (a) I. 17x2 + 48x 9 = 0 = 0.54, = 0.46
11 15
3 7
(x + 3) (17x 3) = 0 x = 3 or Second largest fraction =
17 15
II. 13y2 32y + 12 = 0 (y 2) (13y 6) = 0 3 5 16
10. (a) = 0.6; = 0.625; = 0.64
6 5 8 25
\ y = 2 or Hence, x < y 4 9
13 = 0.8; = 0.5625
5 16
18. (a) I. 25 x 2 - 125 = 0 25x 2 = 125 9 3 5 16 4
125 Clearly, < < < <
5x = 125 \ x = = 25 16 5 8 25 5
5 6 13 15
11. (c) = 0.54; = 0.56; = 0.51;
II. 361 y + 95 = 0 19y = 95 11 23 29
y = 5 Hence, x > y 3 4
= 0.42; = 0.31
7 13
5 5 x 15 - 5 x
19. (c) I. - = = 4 3 15 6 13
7 21 42 21 42 Clearly, < < < <
13 7 29 11 23
10 12. (a) Decimal equivalent of fractions:
x = 42 = 20 \ x = 20 20 = 400
21 4 2
= 0.8; = 0.286;
y y 250 4 y + y 250 5 7
II. + = = 9 6 5
4 16 y 16 y = 0.692; = 0.545; = 0.55
13 11 9
250 16 2 5 9 4
5 y y = 250 16 y = = 800 6
5 Clearly, < < < <
7 11 9 13 5
Hence, y > x 6
20. (a) I. 5x2 18x + 9 = 0 \ Second fraction =
11
5x2 15x 3x + 9 = 0 5x (x 3) 3 (x 3) = 0 13. (e) Decimal equivalent of each fraction.
3 2 3 1
(5x 3) (x 3) x = or 3 = 0.286 = 0.375 = 0.33
5 7 8 3
SPEED TEST 21 4 4 3 1 2
= 0.57 Clearly, > > >
7 7 8 3 3
3 1 8 4 2 5 5
1. (e) , , , , , and 2 5 1
5 8 11 9 7 7 12 14. (a) = 0.66; = 0.72; = 0.166;
3 7 6
0.6, 0.125, 0.727, 0.444, 0.285, 0.714 and 0.416
3 5 2 3
\ Descending order = 0.727, 0.714, 0.6 , 0.444, 0.416, = 0.37; = 0.45; = 0.28; = 0.60
0.285, 0.125, 8 11 7 5
3 After arranging ascending order then fractions are
\ third fraction = 1 2 3 5 3 2 5
5 , . , , , ,
2. (e) 6 7 8 11 5 3 7
4 8 6 15. (a) Decimal equivalent of the fractions:
3. (e) = 0.8; = 0.89; = 0.86; 7 5 2 3
5 9 7 = 0.875; = 0.7 = 0.67; = 0.6
1 3 8 7 3 5
= 0.33; = 0.375; 7 5 2 3
3 8 Clearly, > > >
1 8 3+8 11 2 8 7 3 5
\ Required sum = + = = =1 16. (c) Decimal equivalent of each fraction:
3 9 9 9 9 5 3
4 5 3 1 2 = 0.45; = 0.375
4. (e) = 0.44; = 0.45; = 0.43; = 0.25; = 0.4 11 8
9 11 7 4 5 4 2 2 3 4 5
= 0.44; = 0.286 \ < < <
4 2 20 - 18 2 9 7 7 8 9 11
\ Required difference = - = = 4 2
9 5 45 45 17. (e) = 0.44; = 0.285;
5. (b) 9 7
6. (e) 3 4 5 7 8 3 6 5
= 0.375; = 0.46; = 0.454
7 9 11 12 15 8 13 11
0.42 0.44 0.45 0.58 0.53 6 5 4 3 2
Clearly, > > > >
13 11 9 8 7
32 101 SPEED TEST
9 7
18. (c) = 0.82; = 0.78; SPEED TEST 22
11 9
5 4 11 12 11
= 0.83; = 0.8; = 0.85 1. (e) Total possible result = n(S) 12C2 = = 66
6 5 13 1 2
7 4 9 5 11 43
Clearly, < < < < Total number of event =n(E) C2 =
4
=6
9 5 11 6 13 1 2
2 3 5 6 n (E) 6 1
19. (b) = 0.286; = 0.6 = 0.45; = 0.353 \ Required probability = = =
7 5 11 17 n ( S) 66 11
2 6 5 3
Clearly, < < <
7 17 11 5 2. (b) Total possible result = n(S) = 12C3.
5 9 3 7 12 11 10
20. (c) = 0.714; = 0.82 = 0.6; = 0.78 = = 220 Total number of event = n(E)
7 11 5 9 1 2 3
9 7 5 3 Except blue marbles, selection of 3 marbles out of 7 marbles
Clearly, > > >
11 9 7 5 7 765
1 1 1 81 81 = C3 = = 35
21. (c) 5+ = 5+ = 5+ = 5+ =5 1 2 3
1 10 496 496 496 35 7 37
6+ 6+
81 81 81 \ Required probability = 1 - = 1 - =
220 44 44
10 3. (d) Total possible result = Selection of 3 marbles out of 12
1 2 5 2
22. (b) 2 - 3 +1 - = 0 12 11 10
2 3 6 3 = 12C3 = = 220
1 2 3
23. (c) 0.532 Total number of event n(E) = 3C3 + 4C3.
Numerator = period = 532 n (E) = 1 + 4 = 5
Denominator = as many nines as the number of digits in the
n (E) 5 1
denominator
Required probability = n S = 220 = 44
532 ( )
\ Ans = 3
999 C3
00983 - 00 983 4. (e) Probability to be a Blue = 7
24. (c) 5.00983 = 5 =5 C3
99900 99900
4
25. (c) 17.838 38 38 C3
Probability to be a Red = 7
0.007 77 77 C3
3
310.020 22 22 C3 4 C3 2
Required probability = 7 + =
327.866 38 37 7 35
C3 C3
Thus, the answer = 327.86638 5. (e) Total number of caps = 2 + 4 + 5 + 1 = 12
26. (b) 17.108 68 68 Total result n(S) = 12C2.
12! 12! 12 11 10!
7.984 99 99 n (S) = = = = 66
9.123 68 69 2! 12! - 2 2! 10! 2 1 10!
Favourable result n(E) = C2 = 1 2
Thus, the answer = 9.12368
2 4736 6 n (E) 1
27. (e) 27 12 5.5262 0.6 = 27 1 5 Required probability p ( E ) = n S = 66
9 9000 9 ( )
11 49736 6 6. (a) Total number of caps = 12
= 27
9 9000 9 Total result n(S) = 12C4.
11 49736 2 1094192 12! 12 11 10 9 8!
= = = 121.577 n (S ) =
9000 9000 = = 5 99
4! 12! - 4 4 3 2 1 8!
28. (d) (a) 0.725
n(E1) = Out of 5 caps, number of ways to not pick a green
(b) 0.725 = 0.7255.... cap = 5C0.
(c) 0.725 = 0.7252525.... n(E 2) = Out of 7 caps, number of ways to pick 4 caps
(d) 0.725 = 0.725725725.... 7! 7 6 5 4 3!
= 7C4. = = = 35
Hence, largest number is 0.725 . 4! 7!- 4 4 3 2 1 3!
29. (a) Since, LCM of 3, 8, 10 = 120 n ( E1 ) n ( E 2 ) 1 35 7
p (E ) = = =
7 84 2 80 5 75 n (s ) 5 99 99
\ - =- ,- = - and - = -
10 120 3 120 8 120 7. (d) Total number of caps = 12
84 80 72 7 2 5 12! 12 11 10 9!
Q - <- <- - <- <- n (S) = 12C3. = = = 220
120 120 120 10 3 8 3! 12! - 3 3 2 1 9!
p n(E1) = Out of 4 red caps, number of ways to pick 2 caps = 4C2
30. (d) = 2.52 ...(i)
q 4! 4 3 2 1
100p = = =6.
= 252.52 2! 4! 2 2 1 2 1
...(ii) n(E 2) = Out of 5 green caps, number of ways to pick one
q
On subtracting Eq. (i) from (ii), we get cap = 5C 1 = 5
99p q 99 n ( E1 ) n ( E 2 ) 6 5 3
= 250 = = 0.396 p (E) = = =
q p 250 n (S ) 220 22
SOLUTIONS 33
8. (b) Total number of caps = 12 17. (c) Suppose three people have been given a, b and c number of
n (S) = 12C1 = 12 items.
Out of (2 blue + 1 yellow) caps number of ways to pick one Then, a b c = 30
cap n(E) = 3C1 = 3 Now, There can be 5 cases :
n (E) 3 1 Case I : When one of them is given 30 items and rest two 1
Required probability p ( E ) = n S = 12 = 4 item each.
( ) 3!
8
C2 28 38 19 So, number of ways for (30 1 1) = =3
9. (c) Required probability = 1 = 1- = = 2!
12 66 66 33 (As two of them have same number of items)
C2
10. (b) n(S) = Number of ways to select 3 marbles out of 7 marbles = 7C3. Case II : Similarly, number of ways for (10 3 1) = 3! = 6
Case III : Number of ways for (15 2 1) = 3! = 6
765 Case IV : Number of ways for (6 5 1) = 3! = 6
= = 35
1 2 3 Case V : Number of ways for (5 3 2) = 3! = 6
n(E) = Probability that two are green and one is red = 4C2 3C1 Here, either of these 5 cases are possible.
Hence, total number of ways = 3 + 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 = 27
4 3 n ( E ) 18
= 3 = 18 Required probability = = 18. (b) S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}; n(S) = 6
1 2 n ( S) 35 E(not divisible by 3) = 1, 2, 4, 5}, n(E) = 4
11. (c) Total number of cards = 104 = 2 52 4 2
and total number of jacks = 8 = 2 4 \ P(not divisible by 3) = =
8 6 3
\ Probability for the jack in first draw = 104 19. (b)
20. (b) The 7 different letters of the word ARTICLE can be arranged
7 in 7! ways, i.e., n(S) = 7!
and probability for the jack in second draw =
103 n(E) = 3P3 4P4 = 3! 4! = 6 34
Since both the events are independent events.
Hence the probability that both of them are jacks. 6 24 1
\ P(E) = = .
8 7 7 7! 35
= = 21. (c) Selection of 1 boy and 3 girls in 5C1 4C3 = 5 4 = 20 ways
104 103 1339 Selection of 4 girls and no boy in 5C0 4C4 = 1 1 = 1 way
12. (d) P(E) = Probability of passing in English = 0.6
\ n(E) = total no. of ways = 21
P(E M) = Probability of passing in Maths and English Without any restriction, a committee of 4 can be formed from
= 0.54 among 4 girls and 5 boys in 9C4
P(M) = Probability of passing in Maths
Since, P(M) and P(E), both are independent events. 9876
= = 9 7 2 ways
So, P(E M) = P(E) P(M) 4 3 2
n(E) 21 1
0.54 \ P(E) = = = .
P(M) = P(E M)/ P(E) = = 0.9 n(S) 9 7 2 6
0.6 22. (c) Total no. of balls =4 + 3 + 5 = 12
\ Probability of failing in Maths = 1 0.9 = 0.1 = 10%
13. (c) Probability of Head or Tail on the upper side for a coin 12 11
n(S) = 12C2 = = 66
1 2
=
2
\ Probability of same side on the upper side for the 43 3 2 5 4
3 n(E) = 4C2 + 3C2 + 5C2 = + +
1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2
three coins = = = = 6 + 3 + 10 = 19
2 2 2 2 8
n(E) 19
\ angles are 80, 60 and 40 \ Required probability, P(E) = =
14. (c) For 1st student, Probability of selecting any one day as his n(S) 66
365 23. (b) P(At least one good) = 1 P(All bad)
birthday = = 1 Now, the remaining two students to be 4
365 C 4 1 54
selected must have same day as their birthday as for the 1st = 1 - 12 3 = 1 - = 1- =
C3 220 55 55
student.
Probability of rest two students, having the same birthday as 24. (b) Total number of balls = 5 + 4 + 3 = 12
1 1 12 11 10
n(S) = 12C3 = = 220
that of the 1st student = 1 2 3
365 365 i.e., 3 marbles out of 12 marbles can be drawn in 220 ways.
1 1
Hence, required probability = 1 2 = If all the three marbles are of the same colour, it can be done
(365) (365)2 in 5C3 + 4C3 +3C3 = 10 + 4 + 1 = 15 ways
1 Now, P(all the 3 marbles of the same colour) + P(all the 3
15. (c) Probability of a particle lying in any particular half =
2 marbles are not of the same colour) = 1
\ Probability of all 10 particles lying in either 1st half or \ P(all the 3 marbles are not of the same colour)
10 10 10 1 15 205 41
1 1 1 = 1- = =
2nd half = + = 2 = 2 9 220 220 44
2
2
2 25. (b) P(At least one from Karnataka) = 1 P(No one from Karnataka)
16. (c) Let E be the event of selecting the three numbers such that 10
their product is odd and S be the sample space. C4 10 9 8 7 2 11
= 1 - 15 = 1- = 1- =
For the product to be odd, 3 numbers choosen must be odd. C4 15 14 13 12 13 13
\ n (E) = 5C3
n (S) = 9C3 SPEED TEST 23
5
n( E ) C3 5 1. (a) Principal can be appointed in 36 ways.
\ P (E) = = =
n( S ) 9 C3 42 Vice principal can be appointed in the remaining 35 ways.
Total number of ways = 36 35 = 1260
34 101 SPEED TEST
2. (d) Two possibilities are there : 9. (c) The student can choose 4 questions from first 5 questions or
(i) Chemistry part I is available in 8 books with Chemistry he can also choose 5 questions from the first five questions.
part II. \ No. of choices available to the student
or = 5C4 8C6 + 5C5 8C5 = 196.
(ii) Chemistry part II is not available in 8 books but Chemistry 10. (c) There are 55 girls and 45 boys in the college.
part I is available. Out of 45 boys, 36 are studying Statistics and 9 are not
7 65 studying statistics.
Total No. of ways = 1 1 6C1 + 7 C3 = 6 + = 6 + 35 = 41 \ The probability that a boy picked up at random is not
3 2 9 1
3. (c) Required number of ways studying Statistics = = .
= ways of selecting 4 objects out of 6 given objects 45 5
65 11. (a) No. of ways in which 6 men and 5 women can dine at a
= 6C4 =
2
= 15 round table = 6! 5!
12. (b) The student can answer by using the following combinations
4. (c) Total no. of unrestricted arrangements = (7 1) ! = 6 !
4 from 5 and 6 from 8 or 5 from 5 and 5 from 8
When two particular person always sit together, the total no.
of arrangements = 6! 2 5! 5! 8! 5! 8!
i.e. 5C4 8C6 + 5C5 8C5 = +
Required no. of arrangements = 6! 2 5! 4!1! 6!2! 5!0! 3!5!
= 140 + 56 = 196 Ways
= 5! (6 2) = 5 4 3 2 4 = 480. 13. (c) Since 2 players are always included
5. (c) In MATHEMATICS, the consonants M and T are repeated \ We have to select only 9 players from 20.
two times each. \ No. of ways = 20C9. Also 4 are always excluded. i.e. 9
Also the vowel A is repeated two times. should be selected from 16 only, i.e. 16C9 ways.
Since there are four vowels, A, A, E and I; A being repeated, 6!
4
14. (c) Number of ways = (Q T letter comes in two time)
2!
therefore vowels can be arranged in = 12 ways. 6 5 4 3 2 1
2 = = 360
Now remaining 7 consonants, with M, T being repeated, can 2 1
7 15. (e) CYCLE whereas C comes two times.
be written in = 7 6 5 3 2 = 1260 ways. 5! 5 4 3 2
22 So, arrangements are = = = 60 ways
Now four vowels together can take any of the 8 places as 2! 2
5!
shown below: 16. (e) Required no. of ways = = 60 is
VC VC VC VC VC VC VC V 2!
Total no. of letters in the word is 5; T is repeated twice.
\ Total number of ways in which the letters of the word 17. (c) The committee of 4 persons is to be so formed that it has at
MATHEMATICS can be arranged such that vowels always least 1 woman.
come together = 1260 8 12 = 120960. The different ways that we can choose to form such a
6. (c) There are 8 different letters in the word MATHEMATICS; committee are:
three letters M, A and T being repeated. 6 5 4
The number of ways in which four letters of the word (i) 1w. 3 m in 4C1 6C3 = 4 = 80
3 2 1
MATHEMATICS can be arranged = 8 P4 4 3 6 5
(ii) 2w. 2 m in 4C2 6C2 = = 90
= 8 7 6 5 = 1680 2 1 2 1
4 6
(iii) 3w. 1 m in C3 C1 = 4 6 = 24
7. (d) Let the four candidates gets the votes x, y, z and w such that
x + y + z + w = 51 ...(i) (iv) 4w in 4C4 = 1
Here x 0 , y 0, z 0, w 0 \ Total no. of different ways in which a committee of 4
persons can be formed so that it has at least one woman.
The number of solutions of the above equation in this case is
= 80 + 90 + 24 + 1 = 195
same as the number of ways in which the votes can be given
18 (d) The committee of 4 persons is to be so formed that it has at
if atleast no two candidates get equal number of votes.
least 2 men. The different ways that we can choose to form
(Note : The number of ways in which n identical things can be such a committee are:
distributed into r different groups = n + r 1Cr 1) 65 33
\ Total number of solutions of eqn. (i) (i) 2m. 2w in 6C2 4C2 = = 90
2 1 2 1
= 5 + 4 1C4 1 = 8C3 = 56 6 5 4
But in 8 ways the two candidate gets equal votes which are (ii) 3m. 1w in 6C3 4C1 4 = 80
shown below : 3 2 1
65
(2, 2, 1, 0), (2, 2, 0, 1), (0, 2, 2, 1), (1, 2, 2, 0), (0, 1, 2, 2), (iii) 4m in 6C4 = = 15
(1, 0, 2, 2), (2, 0, 1, 2), (2, 1, 0, 2) 2 1
\ Total no. of different ways in which a committee of 4
Hence the required number of ways = 56 8 = 48 persons can be formed so that it has at least 2 men.
8. (a) 6 men can be sit by 5! ways and on remaining 6 seats, 5 = 90 + 18 + 15 = 185
women can sit by 6C5 ways . 19. (e) One girl can be chosen in 4C1 = 4 ways
\ Required number of ways = 5! 6P5 = 6! 5! and 4 boys can be chosen in 6C4 = 15 ways
M1 \ Total number of ways = 4 15 = 60 ways
W5 20. (a) CORPORATION= 11 letters
O comes thrice, R twice.
11!
M6 M2
\ total no. of ways = = 3326400
3!2!
W4 W1
21. (b) There are seven letters in the word COUNTRY and two
vowels O and U. Considering two vowels as one unit, total
number of letters will be 5 + 1 = 6. So, number of
M5 M3 arrangements = 6!
Now, the two vowels can be arranged in 21 ways among
W2
W3 themselves.
M4 \ Total number of ways = 6! 2! = 1440
SOLUTIONS 35
22. (c) The word PROBLEM consists of 7 distinct letters. 2
Required time T = (H 30 A) minutes past H.
\ Number of arrangements = 7! 11
= 70 6 5 4 3 2 1 = 5040 2
23. (e) Total possible result = n(S) \ One timing = (4 30 + 90) minutes past 4
11
12 12 11 2
= C2 = = 66 = 38 minutes past 4. Or 4 : 38 approx.
1 2 11
4 43
Total number of event = n(E) = C2 = =6 7. (a) Since, in one hour, two hands of a clock coincide only once,
1 2 so, there will be value.
n(E) 6 1
\ Required problability = = = 2
n(S) 66 11 Required time T = (H 30 + A) minutes past H.
12 11 10 11
24. (b) Total possible result = n(S) = 12C3 = = 220 Here H = initial position of hour hand = 3
1 2 3 (Since 3 oclock)
Total number of event = n(E)
Except blue marbles, selection of 3 marbles out of 7 marbles A = required angle = 0 (Since it coincides)
765 2
= 7C3 = = 35 T= (3 30 + 0) minutes past 3
1 2 3 11
35 4
7 37 = 16 minutes past 3.
\ Required probability = 1 - = 1 - = 11
220 44 44 8. (b) At 5 oclock, the hands are 25 min. spaces apart.
25. (e) There are 6 letter inthe word ATTEND whereas, T comes
To be at right angles and that too between 5.30 and 6, the
two times.
minute hand has to gain (25 + 15) = 40 min. spaces
6! 720
So, required number of ways = = = 360 55 min. spaces are gained in 60 min.
2! 2 60 7
26. (a) In word offices, there are 7 letters and F comes two times. 40 min. spaces are gained in 40 min . = 43 min .
7! 7 6 5 4 3 2! 55 11
Required number of ways = = = 2520
2! 2! 7
\ Required time = 43 min. past 5
27. (e) ARMOUR = 6 letter whereas R repeated twice 11
6! 6 5 4 3 2 1 9. (d) At 4 oclock, the hands of the watch are 20 min. spaces apart.
\ = = 360 To be in opposite directions, they must be 30 min. spaces apart.
2! 2 1 \ Minute hand will have to gain 50 min. spaces
28. (a) Total number of ways to form committee 55 min. spaces are gained in 60 min.
5 4 65 3
= 5C2 6C2 3C1 = = 10 15 3 = 450 60 6
1 2 1 2 1 50 min. spaces are gained in 50 min . or 54 min .
29. (d) Total number of ways to form committee 55 11
= 5C2 6C0 3C3 + 5C1 6C1 3C3 + 5C0 6C2 3C3 6
\ Required time = 54 min. past 4
= 10 + 30 + 15 = 55 11
30. (c) Total number of ways to stand boys and girls together 10. (a) 55 min. spaces are covered in 60 min.
= 4! 3! 2! = 4 3 2 3 2 2 = 288 60 5
60 min. spaces are covered in 60 min. = 65 min.
55 11
SPEED TEST 24
Loss in 64 min. = 65 5 - 64 = 16 min .
1. (b) No of right angles in one hour = 2
11 11
\ No of right angles in 24 hours = 24 2 = 48
Loss in 24 hrs. = 24 60 min = 32 min .
16 1 8
2. (a) Hour hand covers an angle of 360 in 12 hours.
\ Time taken to cover an angle of 135 11 64 11
12 11. (c) 100 years contain 5 odd days.
= 135 =4.5 h \ Required time = 3 + 4.5 = 7.5 = 7:30 \ Last day of 1st century is Friday
360 200 years contain (5 2) 3 odd days.
3. (d) Angle made by hour hand for 12 hours = 360
\ Last day of 2nd century is Wednesday.
360 300 years contain (5 3) = 15 1 odd day.
Angle made by hour hand for 1 hour =
12 \ Last day of 3rd century is Monday.
360 400 years contain 0 odd day.
\ Angle made by hour hand for 6 hours = (6) = 180 \ Last day of 4th century is Sunday.
12
4. (b) In a year, number of weeks = 52 extra day = 1 This cycle is repeated.
From 2002 to 2008, there are 6 years. \ Last day of a century cannot be Tuesday or Thursday or
So number of extra days = 6 (1) = 6 Saturday.
While 2004 and 2008 are leap years, having one more extra 12. (a) The century divisible by 400 is a leap year.
day apart from the normal extra day. \ The year 700 is not a leap year.
Thus, number of extra days = 6 + 1 + 1 = 8 13. (b) x weeks x days = (7x + x) days = 8x days
Out of these 8 extra days, 7 days form a week and so 1 day remains. 14. (c) On 31st December, 2005 it was Saturday.
Hence, March 1, 2002 is 1 day less then March 1, 2008 i.e., Number of odd days from the year 2006 to the year 2009
= (1 + 1 + 2 + 1) = 5 days
it is Friday.
\ On 31st December 2009, it was Thursday.
5. (c) In one hour, hour hand and minute hand are at right angles 2
Thus, on 1st Jan, 2010 it is Friday.
times. 15. (c) The year 2004 is a leap year. It has 2 odd days.
Time = 10 p.m 1 p.m = 9 hr. \ The day on 8th Feb, 2004 is 2 days before the day on 8th
\ No. of times, when both hands are perpendicular to each Feb, 2005. Hence, this day is Sunday.
other in 9 hr = 9 2 = 18 16. (d) Count the number of odd days from the year 2007 onwards
6. (b) Here H 30 = 4 30 = 120 0 . from the year 2007 onwards to get the sum equal to 0 odd day.
(Since initially the hour hand is at 4. \ H = 4).
Required angle A = 90 0 and since, H 30 > A so, Year 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017
there will be two timings. Odd day 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1

36 101 SPEED TEST
17. (b) Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days SPEED TEST 25
So, after 63 days, it will be Monday.
\ After 61 days, it will be Saturday. 88 7
18. (c) 17th June, 1998 = (1997 years + Period from 1.1.1998 to 1. (e) 2pr = 88 \ r = = 14 m
44
17.6.1998) \ Area = pr2.
Odd days in 1600 years = 0 22 220 7
Odd days in 300 years = (5 3) 1 = 14 14 = 616 m2. 2pr = 220 r1 = = 35 m
7 1 2 22
97 years has 24 leap years + 73 ordinary years.
Number of odd days in 97 years = (24 2 + 73) = 121 = 2 2 22
\ Area = pr1 = 35 35 = 3850m 2
odd days. 7
Jan. Feb. March April May June Difference = 3850 616 = 3234 m2.
(31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 17) = 168 days 2. (b) 2 (l + b) 668 \ l + b = 334 \ l = (334 b)
= 24 weeks = 0 odd day Length of a rectangle = Twice the diameter of a circle
Total number of odd days = (0 + 1 + 2 + 0) = 3
Given day is Wednesday. 334 - b
334 b = 2 d = 2 2r = 4r \ r =
19. (d) No. of days between 21st July, 1947 and 21 st July, 1999 = 4
52 years + 366 days. Area of square = Circumference of circle (22)2 = 2pr
= 13 beap years + 39 ordinary years + 366 days 2 22 ( 334 - b ) 484 7 4
= (13 2) odd days + 39 odd days + 2 odd days 484 = \ 334 b = = 308
74 2 22
= (26 + 39 + 2) odd days = 67 odd years = 4 odd days.
\ b = 334 308 = 26 cm
= (7 4) = 3 days before the week day on 21st July,
1999 = Saturday. 3. (c) Area of square (a)2 = 196
20. (b) Next train for N. Delhi leaves at 8:30 p.m. Since time interval \ a = 196 = 14cm Radius of a circle = 14 2 = 28 cm
between two trains for N. Delhi is 45 minutes. A train for 22
New Delhi has left 15 minutes ago. \ Circumference = 2 28 = 176 cm
7
Time of information = 8:30 45 + 15 = 8 P.M. Now according to question b, = 176 m
21. (b) Time between 1 p.m. on Tuesday to 1 p.m. on Thursday =
Also 2(l +b) = 712 2(l + 176) = 712
48 hrs. The watch gains (1 + 2) = 3 minutes in 48 hrs.
l + 176 = 356 \ l = 356 176` \ l = 180 cm
it gains 1 min, in 16 hrs.
Hence, it will show correct time at 5 a.m. on Wednesday. 4. (d) Area of rectangle = l b = 240
22. (b) A reverse flow chart will look as follows: Either length or breadth should be clear, then answer can be
Desk officer - Friday determined.
Same day 5. (c) Circumference of smaller circle = 132 m 2pr1 = 132
Senior clerk - Friday 132 132 7
Senior clerks leave -Thursday r1 = = = 21 m
Next day 2p 2 22
Inward clerk - Wednesday Circumference of larger circle = 176 m
23. (b) Ashish leaves his house at 6:40 AM. 176 176 7
Ashish reaches Kunals house at 7:05 AM. 2pr2 = 176 r2 = = = 28 m
They finish Breakfast at 7:05 + 0:15 = 7:20 AM. 2p 2 22
Thats the time when they leave Kunals house for thier office. Required difference = p{(28)2 (21)2}
24. (b) Anuj reached at = 8 : 15 AM 22 22
Time when the other man came = 8:15 + 0:30=8:45 AM =
7
{( 28 + 21)( 28 - 21)} = 7 49 7 = 1078 sq m
(who was 40 minutes late) 6. (c) Area of the circle = 39424 sq cm
\ scheduled time of meeting = 8:45 0: 40 = 8 : 05 AM
22 2
25. (d) First clock will gain 11 2 minutes in 11 hrs., and second pr2 = 39424 r = 39424
clock will lose 11 1 minutes in 11 hrs. 7
Hence difference will be 33 minutes. 2 39424 7
26. (d) 1st of month was Tuesday, hence the date on first Saturday r = r2 = 1792 7
22
was 5th.
r = 12544 r = 112 cm 4a = r 4a = 112 a = 28
Hence the other Saturdays of the month are 12, 19, 26. Rama
met her brother on 26th. \ Area of the square = a2 = (28)2 = 784 sq cm
1 7. (c) Suppose the length of the field is x m.
27. (d) 2 hrs = 150 min 3x
2 So, the breadth of the field will be m.
1 4
\ Angle covered by hour hand in 1 min =
2
\ Angle covered by hour hand in 2 hrs. 1.5 m
1
= 150 min =150 = 75
2
28. (c) Total no. of days between 27.3.1995
1.5 m
and 1.11. 1994 = 27 + 28 + 31 + 31 + 29 = 146

Now, 146 is not completely divided by 7. It we have one
day more then we have 147 days which is completely divided
by 7. Thus, the days of the week on 1 Nov, 1994 was 3x 2 300 4
Monday. But the day will be Tuesday ( We have 146 days) x = 300 \ x = = 400
4 3
29. (a) 16 - 1- 1997Thursday.
Number of normal year between 1997 and 2000 = 2 x = 400 x = 20 \ Area of the garden
We know every year has 1odd day. = {(20 + 3) (15 + 3)} 300 = {(23) (18)} 300
Now, number of leap year = 1 = 114 square metre
Leap year has 2 odd days 8. (a) Let the length and breadth of the rectangle be x and y.
\ odd days = 2 + 2 = 4 \ 4 Jan, 2000 was Tuesday. 160 8x
30. (b) Day is on 28th Feb = Tuesday Then, its area = xy New length = x =
Since, the leap year is excluded 100 5
\ The day is on 28th March = Tuesday
SOLUTIONS 37
As the area remains the same, the new breadth of the rectangle 18. (b) Length of the wire = circumference of the circle
xy 5y 2 22 42
= = = 2p 42 = = 264 cm
8x 8 7
5 Now, perimeter of the rectangle = 264 cm.
5y 3y Since, perimeter includes double the length and breadth, while
\ decrease in breadth = y - =
8 8 finding the sides we divide by double the sum of ratio.
3y 100 75 1 264
\ % decrese in breadth = = = 37 % Therefore, length = 6 = 72 cm
8 y 2 2 2(6 + 5)
9. (a) By the theorem : 264
52 and breadth = 5 = 60 cm
% increase in its area = 2 5 + = 10 + 0.25 = 10.25% 2(6 + 5)
100
19. (b) Edge of the cube = 3 343 = 7 cm
22 \ Radius of cone = 3.5 cm
10. (a) Required % increase = 2 2 + = 4 + 0.04 = 4.04%
100 1 2
11. (b) From the figure, it is required to find the length CD. height = 7 cm volume of cone = pr h
We have CA = LB = 15m 3
\ LD = BD LB = 15m 1 22 1
D = 3.5 3.5 7 = 22 12.25 90 cc
3 7 3
15 m 20. (a) Let the final length of the side of the smaller square be a.
Now, a + 10 + 7 = 19
C L
36 m a = 19 17 = 2
15 m
\ Area of the smaller square = (2)2 = 4
A B \ Decrease in the area of the smaller square = 16 4
36 m = 12 sq. units.
\ CD = CL2 + DL2 = 362 + 152 = 1521 = 39 cm 21. (c) Let the breadth be b.
Then, length = b + 13 Perimeter = 50 = 2(l + b)
12. (d) Total area = Area of square + 4 (Area of a semi-circle) 2(b + 13 + b) = 50 b = 6 m l = 6 + 13 = 19 m
2 1 2 2 \ Area = length breadth = 19 (6) = 114 m2
= 2 + 4 pr = (4 + 2p) m2 radius = = 1
2 2 22. (c) Let the radius of hemispherical bowl = r
13. (d) Area of the square = 22 cm2 2 3
\ Perimeter of the square = 4 22m \ Volume of hemispherical bowl = pr
3
Now, this perimeter is the circumference of the circle. Let the height of cylindrical vessel = h
\ circumference of the circle = 2pr = 4 22 50 2
r = h 1 + h = 3r
2 22
2 100
2 22
\ r= \ area of the circle = pr2 = p 2 2 3
p p Volume of cylindrical vessel = pr (2r / 3) = pr
3
p 4 22 4 22 4 22 7 Hence, volume of the beverage in the cylindrical vessel
= = = = 28 cm 2
p2 p 22 (2 / 3)pr 3
14. (b) Such area = Area of semicircle Area of such largest triangle = 100% = 100%
(2 / 3)pr 3
p 2 2 2p 2 (22 - 14)
= r - r = r - 1 = 14 = 112 cm 2 23. (d) Let the angles be 4x, 3x and 2 x.
2 2 14 4x + 3x + 2x = 180 x = 20
15. (b) In any quadrilateral, \ angles are 80, 60 and 40.
Area of the quadrilateral 24. (c) Let the maximum no of small pieces of cake be n.
1 Now, n(5 5 10) = 5 30 30
= any diagonal (sum of perpendiculars drawn on
2 5 30 30
1 n= = 18
diagonal from two vertices) = D (P1 + P2 ) 5 5 10
2 25. (a) Let r and h be the radius and height of cylinder respectively.
1
= 23 (17 + 7) = 12 23 = 276 sq cm Since the cylinder is made by rolling 100 cm side.
2 1 1
16. (a) Let the radius of the sphere be r cm and side of the cube be x \ h = 50 cm = m and 2pr = 100 cm r = m
cm. Then, diagonal of cube = Diameter of sphere or, 2 2p
2r 1 1 1 2
\ Curved surface area = 2prh = 2p = m
3x = 2r or, x = 3 2p 2 2
Ratio of volumes = Vol. of cube : Vol. of sphere Cost of painting = ` 50 per m2
1
3
\ Total cost of painting = 50 = ` 25
3 4 3 2r 4 8 4
= x : pr = : pr 3 = : p = 2 : 3p 2
3 3 3 3 3 3
SPEED TEST 26
17. (b) By the formula, we have for cubes
ratio of sides = (ratio of volumes)1/3 1. (e) Carpenter X = 2 days
and ratio of surface areas = [ratio of volumes]2/3 Carpenter Y = 4 days
2 4 1
8 1
1
3 2 Total number of days by both X and Y = = 1 days
\ ratio of sides = (8 :125) 3 = = 2:5 2+4 3
125 5 2. (a) Total number of days that carpenter Z will take to make one
and ratio of surface areas piece each of all four items together
2
= 3 + 2 + 12 + 15 = 32 days
2 8 3 4
= (8 :125) 3
= = 4 : 25
125 25
38 101 SPEED TEST
3. (c) Carpenter X makes a table in = 3 days 17. (c) Average exports of Company B
Carpenter Y makes a table in = 6 days 500 + 400 + 600 + 800 + 900 + 700 + 700
Carpenter Z makes a table in = 2 days =
7
Total time taken by X, Y and Z 4600
= = 657.14
3 6 2 3 6 2 3 6 2 7
= = = = 1 days
3 6 + 6 2 + 3 2 18 + 12 + 6 36 18. (d) Total exports of the three companies in the year 2003
4. (d) Suppose the expenditure of company A in year 2007 was = 500 + 400 + 550 = 1450
` x lakh. Total exports of the three companies in the year 2006
1.5 150 = 550 + 900 + 600 = 2050
\ 40 = 100 40 x = 150 x = = 3.75 lakh Required ratio = 1450 : 2050 = 29 : 41
x 40
5. (d) Data insufficient. 19. (d) Income of company A in the year 2005 = ` 1354300
6. (a) Suppose in 2004, expenditure by company A and B each Profit of company A in the year 2005 = ` 600000
was ` one lakh. Required expenditure = 1354300 600000 = ` 754300
For company A 20. (e) Expenditure of company B in the year 2006 = 2211430
I -I Profit of company B in the year 2006 = 400000
\ 35 = 1 100 135 I = 100 I1. .... (i) Required income = 2211430 + 400000 = ` 2611430
I
I2 - I (3 + 5 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 6 )
For company B 40 = 100 21. (c) Required average profit = lakh
I 6
140 I = 100 I2 .... (ii) 29
= lakh = 483333 483000 (approx.)
I1 135 27 6
Equations (i) and (ii) = = = 27 : 28 22. (a) Profit made by company A in the year 2002 = 5 lakh
I 2 140 28
Profit made by company A, B and C in the years 2002
7. (e) Average percentage profit earned by company B over the = 5 + 3 + 8 = 16 lakh
years. 5
40 + 45 + 40 + 35 + 30 + 45 235 1 Required percentage = 100 = 31.25%
= = = 39 % 16
6 6 6 23. (b) Required percentage increase
8. (c) If in year 2008, income of each company was x lakhs then 8-7
= 100 = 14.28% 14% (approx.)
for company A 7
x - E1 24. (d) Total value of the quantity sold for item D
50 = 100 150E1 = 100 x .... (i) 40 150 12.5 90
E1 = 100 = 60 11.25 100 = ` 67500
x - E2 100 100
30 = 100 130 E2 = 100 x .... (ii) 25. (e) Average price per kg. of items A, B and C
E2
E1 130 (17.5 + 10 + 7.5 ) 35
From equations (i) and (ii) = = 13 :15 = = = ` 11.667 10.50 (approx)
E 2 150 3 3
( 2.5 + 3 + 3.5 )1000 = 3000 26. (a) Total value of quantity sold for item E = 15 25 100 = 37500
9. (c) Total value of quantity sold for item F
3 = 10 35 100 = 35000
10. (d) Total number in 2002 = 0.5 + 1 + 1.5 = 3 1000 = 3,000
Required ratio = 37500 : 35000 = 15 : 14
Total number in 2003 = 1 + 2 + 2.5 = 5.5 1000 = 5,500
27. (e) Total value of the quantity sold for item C
Total number in 2004 = 1.5 + 2.5 + 3 = 7 1000 = 7,000
= 45 100 7.50 = 33750
Total number in 2005 = 2.5 + 3 + 3.5 = 9 1000 = 9,000
Total value of the quantity sold for item E
Total number in 2006 = 2.5 + 3 + 3.5 = 9 1000 = 9,000
= 22.5 100 15 = 33750
Total number in 2007 = 2.5 + 3 + 3.5 = 9 1000 = 9,000 33750
From graph it is clear that number is same in 2005, 2006 and \ Required percentage = 100 = 100%
2007. 33750
28. (d) Required price
11. (a) In 2004, B + C = 2.5 + 3 = 5.5 1000 = 5500 120 17.5 120
In 2007, B + C = 3.5 + 3 = 6.5 1000 = 6500 = 20 100 = 2400 21 = ` 50400
100 100
5500 29. (b) Profit earned by Company B in 2006 is 65% of investment
Required percentage = 100 = 84.61% 85%
6500 or 812500.
12. (d) (1 + 2 + 2.5) 3 = 2.5 1000 = 2500 812500
\ Income = 165 = 2062500
(1 + 2 + 1.5 + 2.5 + 3 + 2.5) 1000 65
13. (b) = 2083 2090 30. (c) Let the amount invested by Company A and B in the year
6
14. (a) Percent increase in exports of Company C from 2004 2005 be `x each. Income of A in 2005 = 1.70x
( 750 - 500) 100 Income of B in 2005 = 1.55 x
to 2008. = = 50% A 1.70x 34
500 Ratio = = =
B 1.55x 31
15. (e) Total exports of Company A
= 350 + 500 + 400 + 600 + 550 + 400 + 500 = 3300 SPEED TEST 27
Total exports of Company B
= 500 + 400 + 600 + 800 + 900 + 700 + 700 = 4600 1. (c) Number of students in school Q in 2007 = 8000
3300 100 and in year 2006 = 5500
\ Required percentage = = 71.73 72 (approx) Increase = 8000 5500 = 2500
4600
2500
16. (b) Export in the year 2003 = 400 thousand tonne % increase = 100 45%
Export in the year 2004 = 600 thousand tonne 5500
Student qualified from School P in 2005
( 600 - 400) 100 200 100 = 50% 2. (b) Ratio =
Required percentage = = Student qualified from School Q in 2008
400 400 85
\ Per cent rise in exports from the previous year was the = = 17 :18
90
maximum in 2004.
SOLUTIONS 39
3. (a) Students qualified in 2005 from both the schools together = 20. (e) Number of females in organization D
(85 + 60) 100 = 145 100 = 14500 15 60
Total number of students qualified from school over all the = 35000 = 3150
100 100
years together = (60 + 55 + 80 + 90 + 75 + 85) 100 = 445 21. (d) Total number of students studying in college H
100 = 44500 = 51.2 + 40 + 36.5 = 127.7 thousand
Difference = 44500 14500 = 30000 Total number of students studying in college K.
4. (e) Total number of students, who qualified in the exam from = 30 + 56 + 25 = 111 thousand
school P over all the years together Required difference = (127.7 111) thousand
= (85 + 80 + 95 + 65 + 40 + 90) 100 = 455 100 = 45500 = 16.7 thousand = 16700
Total number of the students, who qualified in the exam from 22. (b) Total number of students studying in all the colleges together
both the schools together in the 2006 and 2007 years together. = [(51.2 + 40 + 36.5) + ( 65 + 50 + 33)
= (80 + 55 + 95 + 80) 100 = 310 100 = 31000 + (44 + 30 + 60) + 30 + 56 + 25)] thousand
45500 (127.7 + 148 + 134 + 111) = 520.7 thousand = 520700
Required percentage = 100 147%
31000 23. (c) Number of students from the faculty of science from college
5. (b) Total number of students, who qualified in the exam over all H and I together = 40 + 50 = 90
the years from both the schools together Number of students from the faculty of science from college
= (85 + 60 + 80 + 55 + 95 + 80 + 65 + 90 + 40 + 75 + 90 + 85) J and K together = 30 + 56 = 86
100 = 900 100 = 90000 90 45
Required ratio = = = 45 : 43
60 86 43
\ Required number of males = 90000 = 54000 24. (a) Number of students from the faculty of science from college
100
[Since females are 40%] I = 50
6. (e) Required number of people = 25 + 15 = 40 thousand Total number of students from college I = 65 + 50 + 33 = 148
10 50
7. (a) Required percentage = 100 = 18.18 18 (approx.) Required percentage = 100 = 33.78% 34% (approx.)
55 148
8. (b) Required ratio = 15 : 10 = 3 : 2 25. (e) Average number of students from the faculty of commerce
55 from all the colleges together.
9. (d) Required percentage = 100 = 91.666 = 91.67 (36.5 + 33 + 60 + 25 )
60 = thousand
10. (e) Average number of people using mobile service M 4
154.4
15 + 10 + 25 + 20 + 25 + 15 = thousand = 38.625 thousand = 38625
= thousand 4
6 26. (d) Total number of students studying B.Sc. in all the colleges
110 1 together = 350 + 325 + 300 + 375 + 425 = 1775
= thousand = 18333
6 3 27. (c) Total number of students studying B.Sc. in the colleges C
(15 + 7.5 + 15 + 30 + 17.5) 1000 = 17000 and E together = 300 + 425 = 725
11. (c)
5 Total number of students studying B. A. in the colleges A
12. (e) 2006 = 10 + 7.5 + 15 = 32.5 1000 = 32500 and B together = 275 + 300 = 575
2008 = 25 + 30 + 20 = 75 1000 = 75000 725
Total production = 32500 + 75000 = 107500 \ Required ratio = = 29 : 23
575
22.5 9 28. (a) Total number of students studying B.Sc. in all the colleges together
13. (a) = = 9 :10
25 10 = 350 + 325 + 300 + 375 + 425 = 1775
14. (a) (25 + 30) 15 = 40 1000 = 40000 Total number of students studying B.A. in all the colleges
15. (d) 15 : 30 : 15 = 1 : 2 : 2 together = 275 + 300 + 325 + 450 + 325 = 1675
31 Total number of students studying B.com in all the colleges
16. (d) Required percentage = 100 = 206.67 207 (approx.) together = 425 + 475 + 325 + 425 + 225 = 1875
15
\ Required ratio = B.Sc. : B.A. : B.Com.
18 3
17. (c) A = 35000 = 1890 = 1775 : 1675 : 1875 = 71 : 67 : 75
100 10 29. (e) Number of students studying B.Com. in college
22 11 C = 325
B = 35000 = 4235
100 20 Number of students studying B.Com. in all the colleges
31 3
C = 35000 = 6510 325 100
100 5 together = = 17 (approx.)
15 2 1875
D = 35000 = 2100 30. (b) Number of students studying B.A. in college B = 300
100 5 Total number of students studying B.A., B.Sc. and B.Com.
14 1 in college B.
E = 35000 = 1225
100 4 = 300 + 325 + 475 = 1100
Total number of males in all the organizations 300 100
= 1890 + 4235 + 6510 + 2100 + 1225 = 15960 \ Required percentage = = 27.27
1100
18. (b) Total number of males in organization A and C
18 30 31 60 SPEED TEST 28
= 35000 +
100 100 100 100
35000 1. (a) Required percentage
= ( 540 + 1860 ) = 3.5 2400 = 8400 5 14
2000 1 - 2 14
10000 2000
35000 22 9 7 100 7 100 100
19. (a) Number of females in organization B = = 3465 = 100 =
100 20 7 140
2000
35000 14 3 100
Number of females in organization E = = 3675 80
100 4 = 100 57%
Required difference = 3675 3465 = 210 140
40 101 SPEED TEST
2. (d) Total number of teachers who teach English and History 13. (c) Female players who plays cricket
40
( 7 + 27 ) = 2000 = 800
together = 2000 = 680 100
100 Male players who plays hockey
Total number of teachers who teach Mathematics and Biology
10 15
(14 + 12 ) 4200 - 2000 = 420 - 300 = 120
together = 2000 = 520 100 100
100 800
Required difference = 680 520 = 160 Ratio = = 20 : 3
3. (e) Total number of Biology and History teachers 120
14. (b) Number of male players who plays football, cricket and lawn
12 100 + 40 27 100 - 20 tennis
= 2000 + 2000
100 100 100 100 17 + 35 + 25 13 + 40 + 22
= 4200 - 2000
12 140 27 80 100 100
= 2000 + 2000 = 3234 1500 = 1734
100 100 100 100
= 336 + 432 = 768 15. (a) Male players who plays rugby
4. (b) Required average 13 10
= 4200 - 2000 = 546 200 = 346
2000 ( 25 + 27 + 12 ) 100 100
1280 Total number of players play lawn tennis
100 420
= = 25
3 3 = 4200 = 1050
12 2000 100
100 12 346
5. (d) Required ratio = = = 4 :5 Required percentage = 100 33%
15 2000 15 1050
100 16. (b) Number of promoted employees in HR department
6. (b) Number of boys in management = 1200 0.11 = 132
Number of working employees in HR department
16 12 = 3600 0.12 = 432
= 3500 - 1500 = 560 180 = 380
100 100 132
Number of boys in IT So, required percentage = 100 = 30.56
432
20 18 17. (d) Number of promoted employes in all departments = 1200
= 3500 - 1500 = 700 270 = 430
100 100 Number of working employees in all departments = 3600
\ Total number of boys in both = 380 + 430 = 810
1200
38 So, required percentage = 100 = 33
7. (c) Number of girls in Art = 1500 = 570 3600
100 18. (c) Number of working employees in production and marketing
Number of boys in Science
= 3600 (0.35 + 0.18) = 1908
22 11 Number of male employees in production and marketing =
= 3500 - 1500 = 770 165 = 605
100 100 2040 (0.50 + 0.15) = 1326
\ Required ratio = 570 : 605 = 114 : 121 So, the number of female employees in production and
8. (d) Total number of girls in Science and Commerce together = marketing = 1908 1326 = 582
( 21 + 11) 19. (e) Number of promoted employees in IT department
1500 = 480 = 1200 0.26 = 312
100
Number of promoted male employees in HR department =
11
9. (a) Number of girls in Science = 1500 = 165 156
100 Number of working male employees in IT department
20% girls from Science merged into Management then the = 2040 0.20 = 408
number of students.
16 20 156
= 3500 + 165 = 560 + 33 = 593 So, required percentage = 100 38
100 100 408
10. (e) Total number of girls in Arts, Science and Commerce together 20. (a) Number of working employees in accounts department
( 38 + 11 + 21) = 3600 (0.20) = 720
= 1500 = 1050 Number of male employees in accounts department = 2040
100 (0.05) = 102
1050 100 So, number of working females in accounts department
Required percentage = = 30%
3500 = 720 120 = 618
11. (d) Average number of players who play football and rugby 21. (e) Number of candidates selected from agriculture discipline =
17 + 13 7
4200 7390 = 517.3
100 = 630 100
together =
2 Number of candidates selected from Engineering discipline
22 11
12. (a) Female players who plays lawn tennis = 2000 = 440 = 7390 = 812.9
100 100
Male players who plays rugby Required difference = 812.9 517.3 = 295.6
13 10 296 (approx.)
= 4200 - 2000 = 546 200 = 346
100 100
Difference = 440 346 = 94
SOLUTIONS 41
6. (b) Total number of soldiers retired from Air Force in the years
25780 28 7390 32
22. (c) Science - 2006, 2007 and 2008 = 2.9 + 5.4 + 4.2 = 12.5
100 100 Number of soldiers retired from Army in the year 2009
= 7218 2365 = 4853 = 8.4 Difference = 12.5 8.4 = 4.1 thousands = 4100
Engineering 7. (c) Total number of soldiers retired from BSF in the years 2005
and 2006 = 5.1 + 3.7 = 8.8
25780 16 7390 11
- = 4124 - 813 = 3311 Total number of soldiers retired from Navy over all the years
100 100 together
25780 18 7390 16 = 1.6 + 1.9 + 2.4 + 2.8 + 1.5 + 3.5 = 13.7
Commerce -
100 100 8.8
Required per cent = 100 64%
= 4640 1182 = 3458 13.7
25780 12 7390 20 8. (a) Total number of soldiers retired in the year 2007
Management - = (5.4 + 7.2 + 2.8 + 2.7 + 5.2) 1000
100 100
= 3093 1478 = 1615 23300
= 23300 \ Average = = 4660
Hence, the difference is maximum in science discipline. 5
9. (e)
24
23. (b) Required percentage = 100 = 150 5.2
16 10. (d) Required ratio = = 13 : 3
24. (a) Total number of candidates selected from commerce and 1.2
agriculture discipline. 80
980
23 7390 100 100
= 7390 of 23% = = 1699.70 1700 (approx.) 11. (a) Required percentage =
74
100 2200
100
25780 12 7390 11
25. (b) Required ratio = : = 3094 : 813 784
100 100 = 100 48%
26. (d) Number of working men in Marketing department 1628
18 7 14
= 1800 = 189 1500
100 715 100 = 210 = 5 : 8
12. (d) Required ratio =
28 336
28 11 1200
1800 100
100 11 + 1 100 462
27. (b) = 100 = 91.67% 1500 + 3000 + 1200
28 504 13. (e) Required average = = 1900
1800 3
100
14. (c) Required difference
17 2 74 93 2200 26 3000 17
1800 = 2200 + 3000 - +
28. (c) 100 2 + 7 = 68 = 2 = 2 : 9 100 100 100 100
17 306 9 = (1628 + 2490) (572 + 510) = 4118 1082 = 3036
1800
100 15. (b) Total number of candidates qualifying in
980 20 1200 28 2500 21
14 3 bank K, L and M = + +
1800 100 100 100
29. (a) 100 4 = 189 = 3 = 3: 4
14 252 4 = 196 + 336 + 525 = 1057
1800 16. (e) (9.65 + 2.75 + 5.42) 1000 = 17820
100
7.50 + 8.55 + 11.40 + 17.80 + 9
23 4 17. (b) 1000 = 10850
1800 5
30. (e) 100 9 100 = 10% (approx.) Hence, the difference is maximum in science discipline.
1800 18. (a) Monthly expenditure of A
= 12.5 + 7.5 + 6.52 + 3.3 + 4.72 = 34.54
SPEED TEST 29 Monthly expenditure of B
1. (e) Required difference = 680 258 = 422 = 16 + 8.55 + 8.38 + 2.75 + 5.86 = 41.54
550 - 430 Monthly expenditure of C
2. (b) Required percentage = 100 27% = 13.8 + 11.4 + 12.6 + 6.3 + 9.3 = 53.4
430 Monthly expenditure of D
160 + 708 + 550 + 586 = 9.65 + 17.8 + 9.95 + 8.4 + 7.85 = 53.65
3. (b) Required average = = 501 Monthly expenditure of E
4
4. (a) Number of flights cancelled by airline R in 2010 due to = 14.5 + 9 + 10.25 + 3.9 + 5.42 = 43.07
19. (a) Monthly expenditure of C on childrens education
880 60 = 12.60 1000 = 12600
technical fault = = 528
100 Yearly expenditure after increased by 5%
( 600 + 546)
= 12600
105
5. (e) Required percentage = 100 12 = 158760
365 100
1146 4.72
= 100 = 314 (approx.) 20. (d) = 59 :105
365 8.40
42 101 SPEED TEST
21. (d) Marks obtained by C (in percentage)
75 56 72 SPEED TEST 30
100 + 100 + 150
100 100 100
75 75 80 1. (c) Age of C = Total age age of (A + B + D + E)
+ 60 + 150 + 40 = Total age 2 Average ages of (A + B) 2 Average
= 100 100 100 ages of (D + E)
6
2. (c) From I
75 + 56 + 108 + 45 + 112.5 + 32
= Q N
6
428.5
= = 71.41% 71%
6
22. (a) Marks obtained by B in Maths and English
88 80 W E
= 100 + 150 = 88 + 132 = 220
100 100
Marks obtained by F in maths and english
85 74 S-W
= 100 + 150 = 88 + 111 = 196 S
100 100 P H
Difference = 220 196 = 24 P is to the South-West of Q.
From II
75
23. (c) Marks obtained by E in Geography = 40 = 30
100 Q
60
F
Marks obtained by E in Hindi = 100 = 60
100
60 x% = 30 x = 50% P
80 Again, P is to the South-West of Q.
24. (b) Marks obtained by D in History = 60 = 48
100 3. (e) From I :
62 K
and Geography 40 = 24.8
100
Total marks obtained 48 + 24.8 = 72.8 (+)N M()
Total marks = 60 + 40 = 100 From II : F (+) K ()
72.8 Combining both:
Percentage marks = 100 = 72.8%
100 F(+) K()
25. (e) Average marks of all students in Science
82 85 72
150 + 150 + 150 + N(+) M()
100 100 100
80 68 90 Hence K is the mother of N.
150 + 150 + 150 4. (e) Statement II:
= 100 100 100
Ranis age = x yrs.
6
2x + x = 72 3x = 72 x = 24 yrs.
82 85 72 80 68 90
150 + + + + + Using this with Statement I, we get
100 100 100 100 100 100
= 24
6 Age of Nidhi = 3 times younger than Ranis age = = 8 yrs.
477 150 3
= = 119.25
600 \ Both statements I and II are Sufficient.
26. (d) Total amount earned by store C through the sales of M and 5. (a)
O type products together 6. (e) Since the ages of none of them is given, no conclusion can
= (57 5.6 + 48 50) thousand be drawn through both the statements.
= (319.2 + 2400) thousand 7. (d) From both the statements:
= 27.192 lakh B D
27. (e) Number of L type product sold by store F = 48 + 10
Number of L type product sold by store E = 40
48
Left 20th Right
\ Required percentage = 100 = 120
40 Ds position from the left end cannot be determined.
28. (a) Required difference 8. (e) From both the statements:
= (60 75 44 15) thousand
N
= (4500 660) thousand
K
= 38.4 lakh NW NE
29. (e) Required ratio = (61 + 54) : (54 + 48) = 115 : 102
30. (b) Required average W E D
16 + 15 + 14.5 + 15.6 + 18.2 + 14.9
= thousand SW SE
6
S
M
94.2
= thousand = ` 15700 Clearly, Town M is towards South-East direction of Town K.
6
9. (d) From both the statements K, M and T are siblings of P.
SOLUTIONS 43
10. (c) From I. M 16. (e) From the both statements
PT 4th 21
Thus, it can be found that M is to the north-west of T. So, I R S
alone is sufficient to answer the question. 15th
From II. M K There are 21 students between R and S.
T 17. (d) From the the statements
Thus, it can be deduced that M is to the north-west of T. So, Suneeta has two children. However, she may have more sons.
II alone is also sufficient to answer the question. Thus, the 18. (c) From Statement I
answer can be found by using either of the statements alone. H
11. (e) From I. It is clear that K, D and R are siblings while K and
D are females. But no relation can be found between D and
M.
From II. It can be found that Rs father is certainly the father
of K and D as well. Since M is married to Rs father, it means
N
M is the mother of R. X Y NW NE
Thus, after combining I and II, we can definitely say that M
is the mother of D. So, both statements I and II are required From statement II W E
to answer. X R SE
12. (e) Ds position = 15th from right SW
S
\ Rs position = (15 10 =) 5th from right
= (40 5 + 1 = ) 36th from left
13. (c) 20 m
30 m
Y
19. (e)
20. (a)
SPEED TEST 31
D was facing East when he started his journey, from
statement I. 1. (b) From I: Na Si La Lo= you may go now ...(i)
Ne Si Na Pe = he may go there ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii), Na Si = may go ...(iii)
Using (iii) in (ii), Ne Pe = he there
30 m Hence Pe = he or there
From II: Ki se Pe Bo = come there and see ...(i)
Se Ni Bo Ki = come here and see ...(ii)
20 m From (i) and (ii), Ki Se Bo = come and see ...(iii)
Using (iii) in (i), Pe = there
D was facing East when he started his journey, from statement 2. (a) From I: N is the 2nd youngest. Q, O and M are older than N.
II. Hence, the remaining person P is the youngest.
14. (d) From statement I and II. 3. (e) to, which is not common between the two codes, stands
A for walks.
4. (e) From I: Divya was born in July or August.
+ From II: She was born in April, May, June or July
B C D From I & II both: She was born in July.
15. (c) From Statement I 5. (e) From I and the statement we get the code for red. Using II,
R 10 km S we get the code for roses and lovely. Using both together,
the only word remaining in the statement is those and so its
code can be easily found.
2 km 2 km 6. (d) Statement I gives us the two tallest persons. Hence it is not
T sufficient.
P 5 km Q From II, either D or F is the shortest. Hence II is also not
North sufficient.
7. (a) Statement I
you must see = la pa ni ...(i)
West East
did you see = jo ni pa ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii), you see = pa ni...(iii)
South Using (iii) in (i), we get must = la.
Required distance = PT = PQ + QT = (5 + 10) km Hence I alone is sufficient.
= 15 km From Statements II But II is not even remotely connected with must.
2 km Q 8. (e) From I: Artis birthday falls on Thu, Fri or Sat.
T From II: It falls on Sat, Sun or Mon.
P Combining I and II, it falls on Sat.
2 km 2 km 9. (d) From I: he is sure = ja ha ma
From II: is she sure = ka ja ma
R 13 km S Combining the two, we get is sure = ja ma
Hence, sure = ja or ma
Require distance = PT = PQ + QT = (2 + 13) km = 15 km
44 101 SPEED TEST
10. (b) From I: P is the oldest and Q second oldest. 26. (d) From both the statements
From II: R is the youngest and S second youngest.
11. (a) From I: Saurav visited Delhi on Wednesday. when you will come do na pa ka
From II: He visited on Tue, Wed or Thu. can you come back sa pa ka ho
12. (b) From Statement II : Arun left for London on Friday 2 =
27. (a) From statements I
Wednesday
Ws birthday was on 14th March.
13. (e) From both the Statements :
28. (a) From statements I :
new good clother 539
good clothes are costly 9673 never do this pa da na
From (i) and (ii), code for new is 5:
14. (d) From I. Possible dates of brithday of Mohans mother are do this again na ka da
13th, 14th, 15th, 16th or 17th of July. \ never pa
From II. Possible dates of birthday of Mohans mother are 29. (d) From both the statements :
16th, 17th or 18th of July. S > Q, R > P, T
Thus, II alone is also not sufficient to answer the question. 30. (d) No answer can be found even with the data in Statements I
Now, even after combining I and III, it is found that Mohans and II together.
mothers brithday is either on 16th or 17th July.
Thus, the answer cannot be found even after combining both SPEED TEST 32
the statements. Hence, option (d) follows.
15. (b) From I. go near the tree sa na pa ta 582 482 4 29 2 9 162
Thus, code for near cannot be found. 1. (d) ?= =
2152.96 29 29 2.56
From II. tree is near home ja pa da sa
Again,code for near cannot be found. 36 16 2
After combining I and II, it is found that the code for nera = = 36 100 = 3600
2.56
can be either sa or pa.
Thus, the answer cannot be fond even after combining both Note: For the above question, we should use the approach
the statements. of approximation. We see that 482 is approximately 2300, so
16. (b) From I. > D > is obtained if all of them are arranged if we consider 482 divided by 2152.96 equal to 1 then the
in descending order of the marks scored. 2
But we cannot say who among them scored the lowest marks. approximate value of ? is 58 3400 . And the nearest value
From II. It is clear that E has scored the lowest marks. in given choices is 3600. So our answer should be (d).
Thus, II alone is sufficient to answer to the question. 2. (c) ? = 7432 92.4 18.25 = 80 18.5 = 1480
17. (d) jump and play 3 5 7. 3. (a) 3 ? = 99 21 1968 =111 \ ? = (111)3 = 1367631
Play for now 5 9 8.
Cannot find the code for jump 3 3612.75
4. (e) 9634 ? = 28.902 ? = = 125
18. (b) From I: P is the shortest and T second shortes. Of rest, we 8 28.902
dont know. 5. (b)
From II: R is the tallest and S the second tallest.
6. (a) Approx value = 5555 50 = 111.1 110
19. (e) From both the statements Meenas birthday may be on 28th.
20. (d) From both the statements 7. (a) Approx value = (18)3 = 5832 5830
8. (e) 95? = 953.7 951.0
sa ka ho water satisfies thirst 95? = 953.7 1 = 952.7 ? = 2.7
be ho na water is blue
3
The meaning of be is either blue or is. 9. (b) ?= 10000 + 1892 = 100 + 1135.2 = 1235.2 1230
21. (b) From statement I 5
P, S, T > R > Q 0.0004
From statement II 10. (c) 36 = 4 36 = 144 145
0.0001
P > S > Q, R, T 11. (c) Total number of obese men in 2007
22. (e) From both the statements
= 66000 35% = 23100
boy is brave ha ka to Total number of obese women in 2007
= 54000 35% = 13500
brave and clever na pe ka Total number of obese children in 2007
23. (c) From statement I = 16000 12.5% = 2000
Rank of Shamika from the bottom = 21st Required average = (32100 + 13500 + 2000) 3
\ Total number of chidren = 13 + 21 1 = 33 = 38600 3 12867
From statement II 78000 37.5%
Rank of Rajesh from the bottom = 18th 12. (b) Required percentage 100 = 60%
\ Total number of children = 16 + 18 1 = 33 78000 62.5%
V 60000 20%
24. (d) From both the statements T > R, 13. (d) Required ratio = = 48 : 77
P 70000 27.5%
25. (c) From statement I 14. (a) No, of obese women in 2006
buy your own book ta na pi la = 20% of 60000 = 12000
Number of obese children in 2006
do try your best sa jo ta be = 25% of 12000 = 3000
From statement II Number of obese men in 2006 = 32.5% of 63000 = 20475
Required difference = 20475 (12000 + 300)
please sumbit your reports ka si do ta = 20475 15000 = 5475
your house is grand fi ta go hi
SOLUTIONS 45
15. (d) Number of children not suffering from obesity in 2005 = 3
90% of 21000 = 18900 24. (d) 16 25 = 150
Total of these two equals of 31650. 8
16. (c) 3 girls can be seated in a row in 3! ways. Now, in the 4 gaps 11 6 5
4 boys can be seated in 4! ways. Hence, the number of ways 25. (b) 2500 -
100 11 11
in which no two boys sit adjacent to each other.
= 3! + 4! = 6 24 = 144 (26-30): Distribution of officers in different categories is as follow:
17. (b) Let the amount invested in scheme A be ` x. Pub. Pub. Pr i. Pr i. Pub.
x 12 2 3600 100 Ru Ur Ru Ur (R u + Ur )
\ = 3600 x = = ` 15000
100 24 450 3750 300 1800 3600
Total investment = ` 35,000
\ Amount invested in scheme B. = ` (35000 15000) Pub. + Pr i ( R u ) Pub. + Pr i ( U r )
= ` 20000 600 2250
T 10 2 26. (b)
R
\ C.I = P 1 + - 1 = 2000 1 + 100 - 1 27. (d) Total number of candidates.
100 = 450 + 3750 + 3600 + 600 + 2250 = 10650
= 20000 (1.21 1) = 2000 0.21 = ` 4200 450 3
18. (b) In 36 days 12 men can do 1 complete work. 28. (b) Reqd ratio = 3: 2
300 2
3 Required ratio = 300 + 450 = 2 : 3
In 36 days 12 women can do th of the work.
4 29. (c) Required number of candidates working in Private Sector
Since time and the no. of persons is the same in both cases. Banks in Urban Areas only
= 1800 + 2250 = 4050
3 30. (e) Number of candidate having no prior experience of working
1 womans daily work = th of 1 mans daily work
4 in banking sector
3 = 15000 (450 + 3750 + 300 + 1800 + 3600 + 600 + 2250)
8 womens daily work = 8 = 6 mens daily work = 15000 12750 = 2250
4
(10 men + 8 womens daily work) = (10 men + 6 men) r
t
= 16 mens daily work 31. (a) SI = P 1 + - 1
12 men can do the work in 36 days 100
12
\ 16 men can do the work is 36 = 27 days. r
2
594.5 = 5800 1 + 100 - 1
16
19. (c) Mixture : 2 kg of rice at `15/kg + 3 kg of rice at `.13/kg.
Total weight = 2 + 3 = 5 kg
Total cost price = (2 15) + (3 13) = 30 + 39 = ` 69 2
594.5 r
+ 1 = 1 +
69 5800 100
Cost price per kg of the mixture = = ` 13.80
5 2
6394.5 r r
1 = 1 +
Selling price to get 33 % profit 5800 100 100
3
1 r
100 + 33 = 1.05 1 = 0.05 r = 5%
= 3 ` 13.80 = 400 ` 13.80 100
100 3 100 32. (c) The original fraction
4
= ` 13.80 = ` 18.40 25 ( 350 + 100 ) 25 45 15
3 = = =
51 150 + 100 51 25 17
20. (d) Total Time = 6 hours
Speed of the boat in still water = 4 km/hr. 7!
Let the distance between M and N be D. 33. (d) Required number of ways = = 2520
2!
and the speed of the stream be x.
34. (b) Required per cent profit
1 1 4- x + 4- x
D + = 6 or D =6 348000 - 2500 98000
4 + x 4 - x ( x + x )( 4 - x )
=
250000
100 =
250000
100 = 39.2%
8 8D 35. (e) Let the number of parrots be p and the number of tigers be t.
D = 6 or =6 Then p + t = 858 ...(i)
42 - x 2 16 - x 2 2p + 4t = 1846 ...(ii)
6
( ) ( 3
D = 16 - x 2 = 16 - x 2
8 4
) After rearranging equation (ii), we get
p + 2t = 923 ...(iii)
Since the speed of the stream (x) is not given, the distance D Solving (i) & (ii) we get t = 65 & p = 793
cannot be determined. 36. (e) SaleA1992 = 80000 0.75 = 60000,
7 2 SaleA1993 = 90000 0.64 = 57600 \ % rise = 4%
21. (a) Ratio = 12 : 6 = 7 : 4
12 3 84 - 65 1900
22. (c) 4% of 2500 = 100 37. (c) % rise = 100 = = 29.23%
65 65
5 7 3 8
23. (d) Ratio = 16 + 15 : 16 + 15 = 17 : 14
8 5 8 15
46 101 SPEED TEST
38. (b) SaleA1994 = 81000 0.84 = 68040,
15000 9 2
SaleA1993 = 90000 0.64 = 57600 44. (b) Sl = = ` 2700
100
( 68040 - 57600)
\ Reqd % = 100 = 18.125% 8
2 27 2
57600 Cl = 12000 1 + - 1 = 12000 - 1
39. (b) SaleB1995 = 72000 0.72 = 51840 ProfitA1993 = 90000 100 25
51840 729 - 625 104

\ Reqd % = 100 = 57.6% = 12000 = 12000 = ` 1996.8
90000 625 625
\ Total earned interest = ` (2700 + 1996.8) = ` 4696.8
64 + 60 + 80 + 90 + 81 + 48
40. (d) AvgA = 45. (c) Total equivalent capital of A for 1 month
6
= 5x 12 + 8x 12 = ` 156x
423 Total equivalent capital of B for 1 month
= = 70.5 thousand = 70500
6 = 6x 24 = ` 144x
Total equivalent capital of C for 1 month
705 235
SaleB = 96000 0.7 = 67200\ Ratio = = = 8x 12 + 4x 112 = ` 144x
672 224 \ Required ratio = A : B : C
x = 156x : 144x : 144x = 13 : 12 : 12
41. (c) Let the fraction by 46. (d) We need equivalence between one days work of man and
y
woman.
After the respective increase in Nr and Dr,
From statement I, we can get 1 mans 1 days work.
6 From statement II or III, we can get 1 womans 1 days
x work.
5 = 6 4 x = 24x 24x 3
5 5 5 y 25y \ 25y = 5 Hence, we can establish relation between mans and
y
4 womans work and get the required answer.
47. (e) When a train crosses a pole, then Speed of train
x 3 25 5 5
= = \ Original fraction = Length of train
y 5 24 8 8 =
Time taken
42. (d) Total weight of the mixture = 40 + 25 = 65 kg When a train crosses a platform, then Speed of train
Total cost price of wheat = ` (40 12.50 + 25 15.10)
= ` (500 + 377.50) = ` 877.50 Length of platform and train
=
Total selling price of wheat Time
Clearly, statement II and either I or III supplement the
877.50 110
= ` = ` 965.25 required data to determine the speed of train.
100
1
965.25 48. (e) Area of the square = (side)2 = (diagonal)2
\ SP per kg = ` = ` 14.85 2
65 Again, Perimeter = 4 side
43. (a) A team of 5 children, consisting of at least two girls can be Clearly, from any one of the three statements we can
formed in following ways : determine area of the square.
I. Selecting 2 girls out of 4 and 3 boys out of 5. This can 49. (c) Let the number be 10x + y.
be done in 4C3 5C3 ways.
From statement I, (10y + x) (10x + y) = 18
II. Selecting 3 girls out of 4 and 2 boys out of 5. This can
9 (y x) = 18 y x = 2 ...(i)
From statement II, x + y = 14 ...(ii)
III. Selecting 4 girls out of 4 and 1 boy out of 5. This can
From statement III, y x = 2 ...(iii)
Clearly, statement II and either I or III can supplement the
Since the team is formed in each case, therefore, by the
data to know x and y and hence the number.
fundamental principle of addition, the total number of ways
of forming the team. 50. (b) From statement I, we do not know the principal.
= 4C2 5C3 4C3 5C2 + 4C4 + 5C1 From statement II, data are incomplete. i.e. principal is unknown.
From statement III, we get the required data i.e.
43 543 43 2 5 4 If principal be ` x, Interest = ` x Time = 5 years,
= + + 1 5
1 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 2
Interest 100
= 60 + 40 + 5 = 105 Rate =
Principal time
SOLUTIONS 47
SPEED TEST 33 14. (b) 489 5 484; 541 5 536

654 5 649; 953 5 948
1. (e) -3 +4
2 3 # 783 5 778
-3
O I C
+4 Second highest number = 778
Highest number = 948
-3 +4
K O 5 74=3
-3
# P I
+4 15. (d) 489 849; 541 451
654 564; 953 593
-2 +3
B $ < 783 873 = 593 953
2. (a) +3 +3 +3
P # 7 @ D
+3 Third highest number = 593 953
16. (a) 489 + 1 = 490; 541 + 1 = 542
+3 +3 +3 +3
R L I O K 654 + 1 = 655; 953 + 1 = 954
+3 +3 +3 +3 783 + 1 = 784
J 3 2 N C 54=1
3. (c) 11th to the left of 16th from left means 5th from the
17. (c) 489 984; 541 145
left. But the sequence has been reversed. Therefore,
654 456; 953 359
required element will be 5th from right in the original
783 387
sequence.
Second highest number = 456 654
5th from right B
18. (b) TRAIL
4. (c) Consonant Number Symbol 19. (a) Find the corresponding letters from the right.
Such combinations are 20. (e) The first letter follows + 1, +2, +3, +4...... The second
follows +2, +3, +4, +5, .....
R3P , N7O , K5D , Q4 21. (b) Move two letters backward in the alphabetical series
5. (e) Number Symbol Consonant for each corresponding letter.
22. (b) C O NTAG I O US
There is no such combination. GI O U S C O N TA
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 23. (b) 52 6 318 7 6 1 54 2 7 812456 78
6. (e) OU T R A G E OU S
24. (d) S E A R C H E S
Meaningful words EAST, SEAT
7. (d) New sequence 25. (e) 169, 196, and 961 which are the squares of 13, 14 and 31
respectively. Of these, 14 is ruled out because it is even.
9 7 6 8 3 0 4 2 1 5 We are still left with two such numbers 13 and 31.
26. (a) R1 = 15 8 21
5th from right =7 21 [Apply Rule (v)]
8. (c) Arrangement according to english alphabet = 28 [Apply Rule (i)]
Hence p = R1 = 28
C E I N P R Now, R2 =p 3 27
= 28 3 27
P R I N C E = 31 27 [Apply Rule (ii)]
= 58 [Apply Rule (i)]
9. (a) 27. (e) m = R1 = 12 64 17
3 8 9 12 4 18 5 14 = 52 17 [Apply Rule (iii)]
C H I L D R E N = 69 [Apply Rule (ii)]
Now, R2 = 20 m 16
= 20 69 16
10. (b) = 89 16 [Apply Rule (ii)]
7 6 4 5 2 8 = 73 [Apply Rule (v)]
28. (b) r = R1 = 85 17 35
8 7 6 5 4 2 =5 35 [Apply Rule (iv)]
11. (b) D A N G E R O U S = 40 [Apply Rule (i)]
1 +1 1 1 +1 1 +1 +1 1 Now, R2 = 16 19 r
C B M F F Q P V R = 16 19 40
= 35 40 [Apply Rule (ii)]
12. (c) A D J E C T I V E
= 5 [Apply Rule (v)]
+1 1 1 +1 1 1 +1 1 +1 29. (c) d = R1 = 24 15 3
B C I F B S J UF F = 39 3 [Apply Rule (ii)]
13. (b) 489 489; 541 145 = 13 [Apply Rule (iv)]
654 456; 953 359 Now, R2 =d 6 15
783 378 = 13 6 15
Lowest number 145 541 =7 15 [Apply Rule (v)]
= 22 [Apply Rule (i)]
48 101 SPEED TEST
30. (d) h = R1 = 28 49 15 17. (d) First term = 32 + 3.
= 21 15 [Apply Rule (iii)] Second term = 42 + 4
= 36 [Apply Rule (i)] Third term = 52 + 5
Now, R2 =h 3 12 \ Fourth term = 62 + 6
= 36 3 12 18. (c) First term = 22 1
= 39 12 [Apply Rule (ii)] Second term = 32 + 1
Third term = 32 1
= 27 [Apply Rule (v)]
\ Fourth term = 42 + 1
SPEED TEST 34 19. (c) First term = 32 1.
1. (a) A square is a two-dimensional figure consisting of sides Second term = 33 + 1
Third term = 42 1
whereas a cube is a three- dimensional figure. Similarly,
\ Fourth term = 43 + 1
circle is a two-dimensional figure and a sphere is a three-
20. (b) First term = 23.
dimensional figure.
Second term = 32
B R I G H T Third term = 43
\ Fourth term = 52
+1 1 21. (d) Second term = 4 First term
2. (e)
\ Fourth term = 4 Third term
J S C S G F 22. (a) Second term = (First term)2 1
Similarly, \ Fourth term = (Third term)2 1
23. (e) Second term = (First term)3
J O I N E D \ Fourth term = (Third term)3.
1 24. (a) Second term = First term + 1/8 First term.
+1 \ Fourth term = Third term + 1/8 Third term.
25. (e)
J P K C D M 26. (c) 1 and 4 are what happens after a disease. 5 is its symptom
3. (a) The second number is the product of the digits of the but not a definite one. 2 is a probable cause.
first. 27. (c) The first is the force fighting on/in the second.
4. (d) The first is found in the form of the second. 28. (e) More of a test of your English.
5. (c) In first term, two letters are missing between first two 29. (c) Secretly is the opposite of openly, and silently is the
letters while last two are continous but in second term opposite of noisily. Choices a and b are clearly not the
first two letters are continuous and two letters are opposites of silently. (Choice d) means the same thing
missing between last two letters. as silently.
6. (a) The third letter of second term is the next letter 30. (b) A spring forms or has the shape of a coil, and a ring
according to alphabet to the third letter of first term. forms a loop.
7. (a) The letters of each group are in reverse order. SPEED TEST 35
8. (d) First two letters of the first term are in reverse order in
the second term and so are the next two letters. 1. (a) +2 -3
H J G
9. (b) Fifth and third letters of the first term are first and +1 -3
second letters of the second term and first two letters P Q N
of the first term are third and fourth letters of the second +1 -3
D E B
term. +1 -3
10. (a) There is a gap of one letter between third and fourth, T U R
fourth and first, and first and second letters of each +1 -3
K L I
group. 2. (e) Lotus is grown in water (Mud).
11. (a) The letters in first and second terms are in reverse order 3. (b) P R O B L E M
of alphabet.
12. (e) There is a gap of one letter between each corresponding
letters of 'QYGO' and 'SAIQ' 2 9 4 8 3 7 5
13. (d) There is a gap of three letters between each B O R E M O E P
corresponding letters of 'YAWC' and 'UESG'.
14. (c) There is a gap of two letters between the two ;
consecutive letters of each term. 8 4 9 7 5 9 (4) 7 2
15. (e) First, Second, and third each term is one more than the L B O R O M E P

;
square of prime number. Hence the fourth term
= (19)2 + 1 3 8 4 9 4 5 7 2
16. (a) First term = (6)2 + 6.
E R O L
Second term = (7)2 + 7
Third term = (10)2 + 10
\ Fourth term = (11)2 + 11 7 9 4 3
SOLUTIONS 49
4. (e) 19. (a) Except Mustard, all others are grains. Mustard is an
5. (d) River is a water body. oilseed.
6. (d) Except 255 all other numbers are one more than perfect 20 (d) All the numbers are multiples of 5. But 25 is a perfect
square. square.
50 = (7)2 + 1, 65 = (8)2 + 1;
21. (d) All others are synonyms
170 = (13)2 + 1, 290 = (27)2 + 1
But, 255 = (16)2 1 22. (c) All others are synonyms
7. (e) The number 49 is a perfect square of a natural 23. (d) In each pair if first letter is mth from the beginning of
number. alphabet the second letter is mth from end.
8. (e) Except Brinjal, all others grow underground. 24. (e) In all others,
9. (d) All others are parts of a car. 1st letter + 1 = 4th letter.
10. (c) Except 529, all others are perfect squares of even 4th letter + 1 = 2nd letter
numbers. The number 529 is a perfect square of an odd and 2nd letter +2 = 3rd letter
number. 25. (c) In all others
196 = 14 14; 256 = 16 16 4th letter + 1 = 1st letter
529 = 23 23; 576 = 24 24 1st letter + 2 = 2nd letter
324 = 18 18 2nd letter + 1 = 3rd letter.
11. (a) -2 -2 26. (b) All others are synonyms.
R P N
27. (d) All others are synonyms.
-4 +2
W S U 28. (a) All others imply UP.
-4 +2 29. (c) Large is an adjective whereas others are noun.
H D F
30. (d) All others are negative.
-4 +2
L H J SPEED TEST 36
-4 +2 1. (a) 1050 420 168 67.2 26.88 10.752
Q M O
12. (b) The number 441 is a multiple of 3 2.5 2.5 2.5 2.5 2.5
-3 -3 0 6 24 60 120 210 ?
13. (e) P M; E B; 2. (e)
-3 -3 +6 +18 +60 +90 +126
T Q; I F; +36
+3
V Y +12 +18 +24 +30 +36
14. (d) 115 = 5 23 ; \ ? = 210 + 126 = 336
85 = 5 17; 3. (a) The pattern of the series is :
95 = 5 19; 19 15 = 4 = 22
155 = 5 31; 83 19 = 64 = 43
But, 75 = 5 15 119 83 = 36 = 62
One factor of 75 is not a Prime Number. 631 119 = 512 = 83
15. (e) Except number 345, all other numbers are product of 23 \ ? = 631 + 102 = 631 + 100 = 731
and a Prime Number. 4. (c) The pattern of the series is :
115 = 23 5; 19 + 1 7 = 19 + 7 = 26
161 = 23 7 26 + 2 7 = 26 + 14 = 40
253 = 23 11; 40 + 4 7 = 40 + 28 = 68
391 = 23 17 68 + 8 7 = 68 + 56 = 124
But 345 = 23 15. 124 + 16 7 = 124 + 112 = 236
The number 15 is not a Prime Number. 5. (d) The pattern of the number series is as given below:
16. (c) -2
O M Q
+4 11 1 1 = 10
10 2 2 = 18
-2 +4 18 3 3 = 51
H F J
51 4 4 = 200
-4 +2 200 5 5 = 995
T P R
\?= d
-2 +4
T R V 6. (b) The pattern of the number series is as given below:
-2 +4
14 + 10 = 24
V T X 24 + 19 (= 10 + 9) = 43
17. (c) In all others, 1st letter 1 = 2nd letter, and 2nd letter 43 + 28 (= 19 + 9) = 71
2 = 3rd letter. 71 + 37 (= 28 + 9) = 108
18. (a) Except Diabetes, all others are infectious diseases. 108 + 46 (= 37 + 9) = 154
50 101 SPEED TEST
7. (e) The pattern of the number series is as given below: 19. (b) The pattern of number series is as follows:
144 + 29 = 173 8424 2 = 4212
173 33 = 140 4212 2 = 2106
140 + 29 = 169 2106 2 = 1053 1051
169 33 = 136 1053 2 = 526.5
526.5 2 =263.25
136 + 29 = 165
263.25 2 =131.625
8. (a) The pattern of the number series is as given below: 20. (a) The series is
656 200, 100, 50, 25, 12.5, 6.25, ......
+ 24 = 328 + 24 = 352
2 21. (c) The series is
352 1.5, 2, 1.5, 2, 1.5, 2, .....
+ 24 = 176 + 24 = 200 22. (e) The given series is 2 6
2
200 Reqd no. = 50 2 6 = 25 6 = 19
+ 24 = 100 + 24 = 124 23. (d) (1015 + 1) 2 = 508;
2 (508 + 2) 2 = 255; (255 + 3) 2 = 129;
124 (129 + 4) 2 = 66.5; (66.5 + 5) 2 = 35.75;
+ 24 = 62 + 24 = 86
2 (35.75 + 6) 2 = 20.875
86 24. (b) The series is
+ 24 = 43 + 24 = 67 (354 + 6) 2 = 180
2
9. (b) The pattern of the number series is as given below: (180 + 12) 3 = 64
12 4 30 = 48 30 = 18 (64 + 20) 4 =21
(21 + 30) 5 = 10.2
18 4 36 = 72 36 = 36
(10.2 + 42) 6 = 8.7
36 4 42 = 144 42 = 102 25. (a) The series is
102 4 48 = 408 48 = 360 4, 8, 12, 16, 20
360 4 54 = 1440 54 = 1386 26. (d) The series is
10. (c) 71 78 99 134 183 246 1.1, 2.2, 4.4, 8.8, 17.6
+(7 1) +(7 3) +(7 5) +(7 7) +(7 9) 27. (e) The series is
342 337.5 328.5 315 297 274.5 +112, + 122, + 132, + 142, + 152.
11. (b) 28. (d) The series is abcbc, bcaca, cabab.
(4.5 1) (4.5 2) (4.5 3) (4.5 4) (4.5 5) 29. (a) The series is abccb, bcaac, cabba.
12. (c) 161 164 179 242 497 1520 30. (b) The series is abcac, bcaba, cabca.
+3 +15 +63 +255 +1023 SPEED TEST 37
(3 4)+3 (15 4)+3 (63 4)+3 (255 4)+3 1. (d)
13. (d) 3601 3602 1803 604 154 36 12 155
3601 3602 1803 604 154 36 12
1+1 2+2 3+3 4+4 5+5 6+6
14. (a) 1+1 2+2 3+3 4+4 5+5 6+6
4 12 42 196 1005 6066 42511 154 is written in place of 155.
2. (a)
2 2 2 2 2 2 45
2+(2) 3+(3) 4+(4) 5+(5) 6+(6) 7+(7) 4 12 42 196 1005 6066 42511
32 16 24 65 210 945 5197.5
15. (e)
0.5 1.5 2.5 3.5 4.5 5.5
16. (d) The pattern of number series is as follows: 42 is written in place of 45.
7 2 2 = 12 3. (a)
12 4 (2 + 6) = 48 8 = 40 10
40 6 (8 + 10) = 240 18 = 222 2 8 12 20 30 42 56
222 8 (18 + 14) = 1776 32 = 1744 1742
+4 +6 +8 + 10 + 12 + 14
1744 10 (32 + 18) = 17440 50 = 17390
8 is written in place of 6.
17. (c) The pattern of number series is as follows:
6 7 + 72 = 42 + 49 = 91 4. (e)
60
91 6 + 62 = 546 + 36 = 582 584
32 16 24 65 210 945 5197.5
582 5 + 52 = 2910 + 25 = 2935
2935 4 + 42 = 11740 + 16 = 11756 0.5 1.5 2.5 3.5 4.5 5.5
11756 3 + 32 = 35268 + 9 = 35277 65 is written in place of 60.
18. (e) The pattern of number series is as follows:
5. (d)
9050 153 = 9050 3375 = 5675 193
5675 133 = 5675 2197 = 3478 7 13 25 49 97 194 385
2478 113 = 3478 1331 = 2147
2147 93 = 2147 729 = 1418 +6 + 12 + 24 + 48 + 96 + 192
1418 73 = 1418 343 = 1075 1077 194 is written in place of 193
SOLUTIONS 51
6. (d) The given series is 1.5 + 1.5, 2.5 + 2.5, 3.5 + 3.5,
4.5 + 4.5, 5.5 + 5.5. 2 2 + 22 = 8 .....(2)
7. (b) The series is (15 6) 1 = 9, (9 5) 2 = 8, (8 4) 3 = 8 3 + 32 = 33 ... (3)
12, (12 3) 4 = 36, (36 2) 5 = 170. Therefore, the number 8 will come in place of (2).
Similarly, for the question row, 28. (b) The series is based on the following pattern:
a = (19 6) 1 = 13, b = (13 5) 2 = 16 5 1+2=7
8. (a) The series is 1 1, 2 2, 3 3, 4 4, 5 5. 7 2 4 = 10
9. (e) The series is 2 + 22, 3 + 32, 4 + 42, 5 + 52, 6 + 62. 10 3 + 6 = 36
10. (c) The series is 1 + 1, 2 + 2, 3 + 3, 4 + 4, 5 + 5. 36 4 8 = 136
11. (b) 3 + 32, 5 + 52, 7 + 72. 136 5 + 10 = 690
12. (a) 92 + 10, (19)2 + 20, (29)2 + 30 Similarly, the new series is as follows:
13. (e) 100 1.1, 200 2.2, 300 3.3, 400 4.4 2 1+2=4 .... (1)
14. (b) + 12 02, + 32 22, + 52 42, + 72 62. 424=4 .... (2)
15. (e) 3 + 1, 3 + 3, 3 + 5, 3 + 7 ........ 4 3 + 6 = 18 .... (3)
16. (d) Series is 99, 89, 79, 69, 59. 18 4 8 = 64 .... (4)
17. (a) Series is 1 + 11, 2 + 21, 3 + 31, 4 + 41. 64 5 + 10 = 330 ....(5)
18. (b) Series is + 112, + 102, + 92, + 82.
19. (e) Series is 9 + 9, 8 + 8, 7 + 7, 6 + 6. Therefore, the number 330 will come in place of (5).
20. (a) Series is +91, +81, +71, +61. 29. (c) 22
21. (d) The series is abcab, bcabc, cabca. 30. (e) The series is based on following pattern:
22. (c) First two letters of each term are in reverse order. 8 0.5 = 4,
Similarly third and fourth letters are also in reverse order. 4 1.5 = 6,
Besides this, second letter of the second term is the 6 2.5 = 15,
next letter after the first letter of the first term. 15 3.5 = 52.6,
Second Method - 52.5 4.5 = 236.25
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 Similarly,
4 0.5 = 2 .... (1)
D C X W, F E V U, H G T S, ...
J ...
I ...
R Q... 2 1.5 = 3 .... (2)
1 1 3 2.5 = 7.5 .... (3)
7.5 3.5 = 26.25 . ...(4)
+1
+1 Therefore, the number 26.25 will come in place of (4).
+1
23. (e) The letters are in reverse order while one letter is SPEED TEST 38
missing between two consecutive letters.
24. (b) There is a gap of one letter between two consecutive 1. (c) As
letters. Besides, this the letters are capital and lower E N G L I S H
respectively. +1 1 +1 1 +1 1 +1
25. (b) m m l l F M H K J R I
mmll Similarly,
mmll O C T O B E R
26. (b) The series is based on following pattern: +1 1 +1 1 +1 1 +1
812=6 P B U N C D S
623=9 2. (c) 'Aeroplane' can fly and 'aeroplane' is called 'bulldozer'.
9 3 4 = 23 3. (d) te da ka ni intelligence is in genes ...(1)
23 4 5 = 87 se po lo ni genes are not responsible ...(2)
87 5 6 = 429 ba da fu te intelligence is through experience ...(3)
Similarly, the new series is as follows: From (1) and (2), ni genes
612=4 .... (1) From (1) and (3), da and te intelligence and is
423=5 .... (2)
\ ka in
5 3 - 4 = 11 ..... (3) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (e)
11 4 5 = 39 .... (4) 7. (b) 8. (d)
39 5 6 = 189 .... (5) 9. (a) As,
Therefore, the number 11 will come in place of (3) M O D E and D E A F
27. (d) The series is based on following pattern:
2 1 + 12 = 3
# 8 % 6 % 6 7 $
3 2 + 22 = 10
10 3 + 32 = 39 Similarly,
39 4 + 42 = 172 F O A M
172 5 + 52 = 885
Similarly, the new series is as follows: $ 8 7 #
1 1 + 12 = 2 ....(1)
52 101 SPEED TEST
10. (a) 9 7 85 17 + 15 (apply BODMAS) Therefore,
= 63 5 + 15 = 78 5 = 73 B O N D I N G
11. (c) A D G I L T +1
1 +1
3 6 8 2 4 5
M N A E H O J
D I G I T A L 18. (d) Conditions (ii) applies.
6 + 2 + 8 + 2 + 5 + 3 + 4 = 30 19. (e) Conditions (iii) applies.
12. (e) W E A K W H E N 20. (a) No condition applies.
21. (c) Condition (i) applies.
22. (a) Conditions (i) and (iii) apply.
5 % 9 $ 5 * % 7 23. (c) As,
Therefore,
T E R M I N A L
H A N K
+1 +1 +1 +1
+1 +1 +1 +1
* 9 7 $
13. (e) As N S F U M B O J
and
B R I G H T
T O W E R S
+1 1
+1 +1
J S C S G F
Similarly, +1 +1 +1 +1
N E D X P U T S F
J O I Similarly,
+1 1 So, A T E
M
J P K C D M
14. (a) B O A R D
+1 +1 +1 +1
5 1 3 2 4 B N F U
and 24. (b) how can you go = ja da ka pa .... (i)
S I D E can you come here = na ka sa ja ...(ii)
come and go = ra pa sa ...(iii)
9 6 4 7 From (i) and (ii), can you = ja ka ...(v)
Therefore,
B A S E From (ii) and (iii), come = sa ...(vi)
Using (v) and (vi) in (ii), we get here = na.
5 3 9 7 25. (a) THR I VES
15. (e) 24 T 16 Q 32 P 8 R 4 = ?
? = 24 + 16 32 8 4
? = 24 + 16 4 4 = 24 RHT I SEV
16. (c) As,
O R G A N I S E +1 1 1
+1 +1 +1 +1 1 1 1 1
SIU H RDU
P S H B M H R D Similarly
After reversing the order, we can get the given code as SOU L FUL
given below:
BHSPDRHM
Similarly, UOS L LUF
D E S T I N E D
+1 1 1
+1 +1 +1 +1 1 1 1 1
E F T U H M D C VPT K KTE
After reversing the order, we have the required code as 26. (c) how many goals scored = 5 3 9 7 ...(i)
given below: many more matches = 9 8 2 ...(ii)
UTFECDMH he scored five = 1 6 3 ...(iii)
17. (b) As, From (i) and (ii), many = 9 ...(iv)
J O U R N E Y From (i) and (iii), scored = 3 ...(v)
Using (iv) and (v) in (i), we get goals = 5 or 7.
1 +1 +1
T N I S Z F O
SOLUTIONS 53
27. (e) BUI L DER BF = AB (AE + EF)
= AB {(AB CD) + EF}
= 8 {(8 5) + 3} = 8 {3 + 3}= 8 6 = 2 km
IUB L RED 4. (b) P O
N
+1 1 +1
10 km
10 km
JVC K SFE W E
Similarly,
SEA L ING
6 km S
5. (a) 15 m
AES L GNI N
+1 1 +1
10 m
BFT K HOJ W E
28. (c) First write the first three letters in reverse order and O
then the next two in reverse order. S
29. (b) MAJO RITY 6. (a) PQ = 10 + 6 = 16 km
7. (d)
P
OJAM YTIR
+1 1
5 km
8. (a)
PKBN XSHQ N
Q
Similarly, 5 km
SANC TION
5 km
W E
CNAS NOIT
+1 1 S S
R 5 km
Obviously, Q lies North of S.
DOBT MNHS
30. (b) Each corresponding letter moves five places forward N
in the alphabet. 9. (d)
D M
SPEED TEST 39 W E
M 15 m X R K
1. (c)
S
10. (b) O
20 m
15 m Y
30 m
N 12 m
Z
XZ = XY + YZ = MN + YZ = 20 m + 12 m = 32 m 15 m
2. (d) C 15 km D
N
12 km
20 m
W E
B 15 km A S
Obviously, CB = AD = 12 km and B is south of C. P
15 m
3. (b) B 7 km C
OP = 30 m + 20 m = 50 m
11. (b) D A 40 m
O
N
5 km
F
30 m
30 m
8 km
3 km
W E
C B
E 7 km D 20 m
S
OD = OA + AD = OA + BC
= 40 m + 20 m = 60 m
A
54 101 SPEED TEST
12. (d) B
21 km
C 19. (c) Given information diagrammatically can be shown as
follows :
5 km
5 km
5km D
A D 5km
8 km 13 km
We have to find out C to D.
13. (d) If a person walks in a straight line for 8 m towards West
from point R, then he would be cross 'S'. A B
9m
Q T P
N 5km
5m
5m
S
3m
R W E
7m C
5km
S
V From the above diagram, it is clear that the houses of C and
14. (e) S, V, T are in straight line. D are less than 20 km apart.
N 20. (c)
15. (b)
W E 25 m
R Q S P T
S 15 m
16 (a) N
15 km South- west direction
25 m
P Q
W E 12km
18 km 21. (b) Home
O
5 km
R
S 3 km
let O be the starting point and P, Q and R the positions
after every movement. Hence, Distance from the starting
2 km
point =
Distance of final position R from O =
OR = 18 12 = 6 km. 4 km 3 km
17. (b) N
Stop
South West
3 km
Distance from home = (5 + 2 + 4)2 + 32
W E
= 121 + 9
East North = 130 km towards South-East.
S 22. (c) As final position
From the figure, it is clear that S becomes North-east C E A
in the new figure (dotted line)
5 km
18 (e) 90 90
N
2 km
N S
8 km School
W E
5 km
1 km W
5 km S B D
Remaining distance = 8 (2 + 1) = 5 km
Hence, the drivers require to travel 5 km towards north
to reach the school again.
SOLUTIONS 55
C1B2A3 A1D2C3 7. (a) T
23. (a)
B2 D2
F(+) R() H()

Hence F is the son-in-law of T.
8. (e) G(+) M()
C2 A2 T() Q()
Hence M is the wife of G.
B1C2D3 D1A2B3
9. (c) K(+) T()
Hence final configuration of ADBC has now CBDA.
[Where,
A1B1C1 and D1 are original position of A, B, C & D
D(+) B M(+)
A2B2C2 and D2 are position after 1st movement of A, B,
10. (e) S
C and D.
A3, B3, C3 and D3 are final position.]
24. (a) BD T() R(+) V()

C A
Hence T is the daughter of S.
11. (b) V()
T() R(+) S
12. (d) T(+) R()
B D
Hence B and D are at the mid point between A and C.
B V(+) S
25. (d) C S is either the nephew or niece of T.
D A
13. (c) T(+) R() T() V(+)() S
V(+) S R(+)
(1) (2)
S is nephew or niece of T. Absurd relationship.
T() S(+)
B D
C A R(+) V(+)
(3)
SPEED TEST 40 S is husband of T.
We need not go further.
1. (e) Boy = son of Urmila's grandfather's only daughter 14. (a) R(+) V() S
= son of Urmila's paternal aunt
= Urmila's cousin
Hence, Urmila is also the boy's cousin. T(+)
2. (d) M is maternal uncle of T. Hence V is the aunt of T.
M is sister of K, who is mother of T 15. (d) Girl = the only daughter of Arun's grandfather's son.
MKT = the only daughter of Arun's father or uncle
3. (a) Grandfather = father of father = +, + = Arun's sister or cousin
4. (e) It is possible that Ashok is married, that he has no 16. (b) Boy = Grandson of Rasika's grandmother's only son =
child, etc. Grandson of Rasika's father = Rasika's nephew
5. (b) R(+) 17. (a) R()
T(+)
L() Q()
F() H(+)
Hence H is brother of F.
6. (e) If N is the mother, then N must be a female. Hence all P(+)
the choices are ruled out. Hence T is maternal grandfather of P.
56 101 SPEED TEST
18. (e) (a), (b) and (c) are ruled out because in all these P is a For questions 25 and 30:
male, In (d), P is a generation below S whereas "sister" Female and wife of V
implies same generation. Hence (d) is ruled out. T
Female and wife of U U
19. (a) P(+) Q() V Male scientist
Male lecturer Q R Male lawyer

S(+) R(+)
Hence P is father of S.
20. (c) Wife of doctor P J Wife of R
T
S
Male doctor
Q(+) R()
25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b)
28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
P(+)
Hence R is P's paternal aunt. SPEED TEST 41
21. (d) Q() R(+) S 1. (d) 1 3 9 5 1 5 1 5 5 3 9 9 3 1 5 7 7
2. (c) 4 2 6 1 3 8 9 5 8 1 6 5 1 5 8 5 3 9 4 9 2 3 2 1 5 7 2 6 2 4 2 7 4
P() 3. (a) 4 2 6 1 3 8 9 5 8 1 6 5 1 5 8 5 3 9 4 9 2 3 2 1 5 7 2 6 2 4 2 7 4
There are no such 1s.
Since we don't know S's sex, S is either uncle or aunt 4. (c) 5 3 7 3 5 9
of P. Thus there are two digits 5 and 3 that appear
22. (d) brothers, = couple, offspring, W twice.
male, d female, X unknown 5. (a) 7th to the right of 19th from the right.
= (19 7 =) 12th from the right = 3
E A D B
6. (c) According to Pratap: 20, 21 or 22 ...(i)
According to his sister: not 22 ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii), the birthday falls on Apr 20 or 21.
G 7. (a) R's position = 11th from right
X X \ M's position = (11 + 15 + 1 = ) 27th from right
Clearly, C and F are the remaining members to be = (40 27 + 1 =) 14th from left
adjusted in place of two x. since, there are 3 children 8. (a) R = 12th from left
out of which two are girls, i.e. G and F, so clearly the T = 18th from right = (40 18 + 1 = ) 23rd from left
third children C is a boy. So C is the son of E and A. \ No. of boys between R and T = 23 12 1 = 10
23. (b) O Female, W Male, Couple, 9. (c) According to Mohit: Apr 18 or earlier ...(i)
Offspring According to his sister: April 18 or 19 ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get Apr 18.
F 10. (e) 169, 196 and 961, which are the squares of 13, 14 and 31
respectively. Of these, 14 is ruled out because it is even.
We are still left with two such numbers 13 and 31.
D A E 11. (a) R = 16th from the right.
\ w = (16 5 =) 11th from the right.
12. (e) According to Meena, 19th, 20th or 21st ...(1)
C B According to her brother, 21st, 22nd or 23rd ...(2)
Combining the two, we get 21st.
Since, there is only 1 married couple, so D must be 13. (d) According to Nitin, Nidhi's birthday falls on Wed or
married to A, as D is the mother of two and B is the son Thu ...(i)
of A. Also, as number of males and females are equal, According to Derek, Nidhi's birthday falls on Thu or
so F must be a female. Fri ...(ii)
24. (d) ' ' Male,'O' From (i) and (ii), Nidhi's birthday falls on Thursday.
Female
14. (c) As per Sunita, Jun, Jul, Aug, Sep, Oct ...(i)
' ' offspring, '=' couple As per Sanjay, Aug, Sep, Oct, Nov, Dec ...(ii)
As per Mohan, Apr, Jun, Sep, Nov ...(iii)
' ' Sibbling From (i), (ii) and (iii), Diwali was celebrated in Sep.
Salesman D = A Lady 15. (e) Time at which the train arrived = 7 : 14 PM
But Seema's watch is 6 minutes fast, hence the time in
the Seema's watch = 7 : 20 PM.
Doctor B = C Lawyer 16. (c) 12th 16th
R S
Accountant F = E engineer
22nd
As, sex of E is not clear, so E can be brother or sister of Total number of children in the row
F. Hence, relation between E and F cant be established. = 16 + 22 1 = 37
SOLUTIONS 57
17. (d) Neeta is 22nd from the top and Kalyan is 22 + 5 = 27th 3. (a) 1 R
from the top and 36th from the bottom who passed the G B
examination. Therefore, total number of students who W Y 2
passed the examination. O 3
= 27 + 36 1 = 72 G O
Therefore, total number of students in the class RW
B Y
72
= 5 = 90 4. (a) B & K can't opposite to A
4 M & K '' '' to H
18. (d) B > C > D, A, E B & P '' '' to H
19. (e) R From above statements
I L H cant be opposite to B, K, M, P
E
G D R T
F Thus H will in opposite of A.
H (Qs. 5-8). Since, there are 64 smaller cubes of equal size, therefore,
T
T
n = no. of divisions on the face of undivided cube = 4
There are five boys between D and R. 5. (c) no. of cubes with no face coloured = (n 2)3
20. (c) According to question = (4 2)3 = 8
Z 6. (d) no. of cubes with one face painted = (n 2)2 6
X D
12
1 = (4 2)2 6 = 24
11
V 10 F 7. (a) Number of cubes with two red opposite faces = 0
2
(none of the cubes can have its opposite faces
T 9 3 H
coloured)
8 4 J 8. (c) Number of cubes with three faces coloured
R 5
7 6
L = 4(cubes at top corners) + 4(cubes at bottom corners)
P N =8
19.45 = 07.45 9. (d)
21. (d) In order to solve this question, we must know the 10. (d) From figure, 6 is opposite 4
position of either Ravina or Mohini from both the ends. 1 is opposite 2
22. (a) There may be many assumptions and hence many sets 3 is opposite 5
of answers. 11. (c) is opposite to =
23. (c) According to Pratap his mother's birthday may be on will opposite to +
20th, 21st or 22nd April will opposite to
According to Pratap's sister their mother's birthday may hence (a) (b) (d) are not identical.
12. (a) When the sheet shown in fig. (X) is folded to from a
be from 1st April to 21st April.
cube, then the face bearing the dot lies opposite to the
Common Dates 20th and 21st shaded face, the face bearing a circle (With + sign
24. (a) +1 +1
O G E N inside it) lies opposite to a blank face and the remain-
1 -1 ing two blank faces lie opposite to each other. Clearly,
D F B P the cubes shown in figures (B) and (D) cannot be
Similarly. formed since they have the shaded face adjacent to the
+1 -1
A K L D face bearing a dot and the cube shown in fig. (C) can-
+1 +2 +3 +4 not be formed since it shown all the three blank face
25. (d) T J N A G adjacent to each other. Hence, only the cube shown in
+2 +3 +4 +5
E U K R H fig.(A) can be formed.
13. (c) The symbols adjacent to D are d , , and .
SPEED TEST 42 Hence, the remaining symbol (?) will be opposite
to D.
1. (d) 1 is correct as it clearly shows that 1 and 5 are the top
14. (a) The numbers adjacent to 6 are 2, 3, 4 and 5 (from the
and bottom. 2 and 6 are on the sides of 4. So 2 is opposite first three figure). Hence, number 1 will be opposite
6. 2 is correct on the same lines. 3 is opposite 4. 3 is to 6.
correct as I & IV clearly tells that 4 is opposite 3. All the
three statements regarding the figure given in the 15. (a)
question are correct. Hence, the answer is (d).
2. (a) As it is clear from the figure that face 2 is adjacent to
face 3.
2 The total no. of all such smaller cubes
= 4 2 (layers) = 8.
5 16. (b) There are 10 cubes.
1 4 3
17. (c) The number on the fall opposite to face having 1 is
6 6 because 3, 2 and 4 are adjacent faces of 6.
58 101 SPEED TEST
18. (a) The number opposite to 4 is 2 because 5, 1, 6 and 3 For questions 21 to 25:
are adjacent faces of 4
19. (a) Bottom face of figure I means opposite face of 5. It will Employee Department Sport
be 3 because 4, 1, 6 and 2 are adjaceent faces of 5. A Pers TT
20. (a) Symbols adjacent to are , , , +. Therefore, B Admin Football
symbol D will be opposite to .
C Admin Hockey
SPEED TEST 43
D Admin Basketball
For questions 1 to 5: E Mktg Cricket
Friend Bank Occupation F Pers Volleyball
A S Forex G Mktg LT
B M Agriculture H Mktg Badminton
C N Economist 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (e)
D L TO 24. (a) 25. (d)
E R IT (26-30) : Ascending order of fatness :-
Q < T < V < W < R < S/P < P/S
F Q Clerk E555F
G P Research Ascending order of height
V<W< T<S<R< P<Q
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 26. (c)
4. (d) 5. (e) 27. (e) Even all the conditions are not sufficient to find the
For questions 6 to 10: thickest.
Mon P 28. (b)
Tue R 29. (d) P or S can come.
30. (c) R is 5th from the left in both arrangements.
Wed W
Thu V SPEED TEST 44
Fri S For questions 1 to 5: On the basis of the given information and
Sat Q conclusion as well as sub-conclusions drawn from them we can
construct the following table:
Sun T
Person Colour of S hirt Colour of
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) Trous ers
9. (c) 10. (e) A Black/W hite Red
For questions 11 to 15:
B Red Black/W hite
Friend Shift Day off
C W hite/Violet/Black Yellow
P II Tuesday
D Green Indigo
Q I Monday
E Yellow Blue
R II Wednesday
F W hite/Violet/Black Black/W hite
S I Sunday
G Blue Cream
T III Friday 1. (e) The colour of A's trouser is Red.
V III Thursday 2. (b) The colour of G's trouser is cream.
W I Saturday 3. (c) Either C or F wears violet colour shirt.
4. (d) The colour of F's shirt is either white or violet.
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 5. (d) The colour of B's trouser is white or black.
14. (d) 15. (c) For questions 6 to 10: On the basis of given information we can
For questions 16 to 20: construct the following table:
A > D > G ...(ii); C > E > H ...(iii)
D > B > F ...(iv); G > C ...(v); F > G ...(vii) Member Sex Profession Relationship
Combining these, we get P M/F Banker
A > D > B> F> G >C > E > H Q Female Teacher Wife of W.
16. (e) R M/F Doctor
17. (b) A > D > B > F > G. > C , J > E > H S Male Chartered Accountant Husband of T
18. (a)
19. (b) G, C, E and H T Female Architect Wife of T.
20. (e) V Male Engineer
W Male Lawyer Husband of Q
SOLUTIONS 59
Married couples: WQ and ST Ascending order according to their 22. (e) Wednesday 2-4 Thursday
incomes: +
T<Q< P<S<W< V<R Friday
Mon + Tue +
6. (c) R earns maximum in the group. Saturday
7. (d) Married couples are: WQ and ST. +
8. (e) R > V > W > S > P > Q > T Sunday
9. (a) V is an Engineer. Thursday 3-3
10. (e) The sex of P and R is not clear.
For questions 11 to 15: Monday Friday
+ +
Person Sex Relationship Profession Saturday
Tuesday
L Female W ife of M Architect + +
Sunday
M Male Father of P. Business man Wednesday
Hus band of L. Similarly, off day Saturday 5-1
Son of Q and O. 23. (e) 24. (c) 25. (c)
SPEED TEST 45
N Female Daughter-in-law Housewife
of O and Q. For questions 1 to 5:
O Female W ife of Q. Pilot Candi - (i) / (ii) /
Q.No (iii) (iv) (v) Ans.
P Male Son of M and L. Journalist date (A) (B)
1. Shobha P (P) P P P (a)
Q Male Grandfather of Doctor
P. Husband of 2. Rohan P P P P (c)
O. Father of M . 3. Pr akash (P) P P P P (b)
R Advocate 4. Sudha P P P P (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 5. Amit P P P P P (e)
14. (d) 15. (e) For questions 6 to 10:
Candi - (i) / (v) /
Student Class Colour Q.No (ii) (iii) (iv) Ans.
date (A) (B)
A V White
6. Samir P P P P (e)
M IV Black
7. Navin P P P P P (a)
P III Green
8. Neeta P P P (P) (b)
J III Brown
9. Ashok (P) P P P P (c)
H III Yellow
10 Gemma P P P P (P) (d)
D IV Red
K V Blue
Q.No. Person (i) (ii) /(A) (iii) /(B) (iv) (v) Ans.
16. (a) P likes Green colour.
17. (e) All combinations are incorrect. 11. Pr anab P P P P P (a)
18. (c) A likes White colour. 12. Sheetal P P P P (c)
19. (b) K likes Blue colour. 13. Pr abir P (P) P P P (d)
20. (a) P, J and H study in Standard III.
14. Shailesh P P (P) P P (e)
15. Navin P P P P (b)
Days Subject
16. Meera P P P P (b)
Monday Organization Behaviour 17. Akash P (P ) P P P (d)
Tuesday Psychology
18. Shekhar P P P P P (a)
Wednesday Statistics
19. Sunetra P P P P (c)
Thursday Computer Science
20 Mohit P P (P) P P (e)
Friday Research Methods
Saturday
Sunday Economics
21. (e) Sunday - Economics.
60 101 SPEED TEST
For questions 21 to 25: Therefore, M D = K > R
Q.No. Candidate (i) (ii) (iii) /(A) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) /(B) Ans.
Conclusions
I. R $ M R < M: True
21. Kesav P P (P) P P P P (b)
II. K d M K = M: Not True
22. Arindam P P P P P (e) III. K $ M K < M : Not True
23. Sohan P P P P P P (a) K is either smaller than or equal to M.
24. Neha P P P P P P (P) (c)
Therefore, either II or III is true.
6. (a) F @ T F T
25. Neeta P P P P P P P (d) T dKT=K
For questions 26 to 30: K*D KD
Therefore, F T = K D
Q.No. Name (i) /(A) (ii) (iii) /(B) (iv) (v) Ans.
Conclusions
26. S Awasthi (P) P P P P (d) I. D @ F D F: Not True
27. A Soren P P P P (c) II. F @ K F K: True
III. D @ T D T : True
28. S Biswas P P P P (a)
(712)
29. A Ghosal P P (P) P P (e)
d * % <
30. N Jaiswal P P P P P (b)
$ > @ =
SPEED TEST 46
7. (d) B % N B < N
For questions 1 to 6: N dFN F
(i) P $ Q P < Q FHFH
(ii) P c Q P > Q Therefore, B < N F H
(iii) P d Q P = Q Conclusions
(iv) P @ Q P Q I. H $ N H > N : Not True
(v) P * Q P Q II. F % B F < B : Not True
1. (b) B c N B > N III. B % H B < H : Not True
N@ RNR 8. (c) W d F W F
F*RFR F%KF<K
Therefore, B > N R F K$MK>M
Conclusions Therefore, W F < K > M
I. B c R B > R : True Conclusions
II. F * N F N : Not True I. M % F M < F : Not True
III. R $ B R < B: True II. M d F M F : Not True
2. (b) D $ M D < M III. W $ K W > K : Not True
M*BMB M may be smaller than or greater than or equal to F.
BdJ B= J 9. (b) W $ B W > B
Therefore, D < M B = J B@MB=M
Conclusions MRMR
I. J c D J > D : True Therefore, W > B = M R
II. B @ D B D : Not True Conclusions
III. J @ M J M: True I. R $ B R > B : Not True
3. (c) F * T F T II. R @ B R = B : Not True
T$ NT<N R is either greater than or equal to B. Therefore, either
N@R NR I or II is true.
Therefore, F T < N R III. M % W M < W : True
Conclusions 10. (a) M D M D
I. R $ T R < T : Not True D$KD>K
II. N c F N > F: True K@TK=T
III. F $ R F < R: Not True Therefore, M D > K = T
4. (e) W d K W = K Conclusions
I. T % D T < D : True
K c FK>F
II. K % M K < M : Not True
F$M F<M III. M % T M < T : Not True
Therefore, W = K > F < M 11. (d) K @ F K = F
Conclusions F$MF>M
I. M c K M > K: Not True MdTMT
II. W @ F W F: Not True Therefore, K = F > M T
III. F @ W F W : Not True Conclusions
5. (d) M @ D M D I. T % F T < F : True
D dKD=K II. M % K M < K : True
K c R K>R III. K $ T K > T : True
SOLUTIONS 61
12. (c) N A N A 9. (e) Argument I is weak as it is not true. II is strong as such
A% BA< B standardisation is desirable. III is also strong as the
BdDB D university-specific requirement's can't be overlooked.
Therefore, N A < B D 10. (d) Argument I is strong as "one year" does matter in a
Conclusions student's career. II and III are strong but contradict
I. D % A D < A : Not True each other. Since they can't be true at the same time,
II. B $ N B > N : True either II or III is strong.
III. N % D N < D : Not True 11. (a) I is strong as growth of the economy is desirable. II is
13. (d) R D ...(i); D > W ...(ii); B W ...(iii) not strong because Saturdays and Sundays are meant
None of the inequations can be combined. for this very "intermittent rest". This purpose is not
However, either I (W < R) or III (W R) must be true. served by holidays.
14. (c) H V ...(i); V = M ...(ii); K > M ...(iii) 12. (e) I is strong because it is desirable to help the needy
Combining these, we get H V = M < K students. II is also strong because compromising on
Hence K > V and I follows. quality takes away from the purpose of education.
Also, M H and II follows. 13. (b) I is weak because it gives undue weightage to nuclear
But H and K can't be compared. Hence III does not follow. power. Hydel power etc. also help reduce air pollution.
15. (a) K < T ...(i); T B ...(ii); B F ...(iii) II is strong because safety is very important criterion.
Clearly, the inequations can't be combined. 14. (d) I is weak because it lacks in substance. Merely calling
16. (a) Z < F ...(i); R F ...(ii); D > R ...(iii) something "a nuisance" is simplistic. II is weak because
Clearly, the inequations can't be combined. it wrongly assumes that those people can't contribute
17. (b) M > R ...(i); R = D ...(ii); D N ...(iii) to the nation otherwise.
Combining these, we get M > R = D N 15. (a) I is strong because performance should definitely be a
I does not follow as M and N can't be related. criterion for "national sport" status. II is irrelevant: one
N R and II follows. fails to see the harm in two nations sharing a national
M > D and III follows. sport. Besides, if every nation decided to have a
18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (e) different national sport, we would run out of sports as
SPEED TEST 47 there would be just too many countries.
16. (c) Both the arguments are strong but both can't be true at
1. (d) I is strong because such a reduction in trends will be a the same time. The sale with either be affected (as I
desirable consequence. II is weak as it is silent as to says) or not be affected (as II says). Hence, either is
what effect the ban will have on the "creative pursuits." strong.
III is strong because a ban will take away from the 17. (e) I is strong as school is the ground where we prepare
power of the portrayal. for the future battles of life. II is strong because
2. (a) I is weak because talking of culture is irrelevant in a examinations kill our creativity, turning us all into mere
case which would have made no sense in the absence clerks.
of modern medical technology. In fact, I is not even 18. (b) I is weak because reduction of workload of IT officials
true. II is weak because it is simplistic. We are not told is not too desirable a motive. II is strong because
what these "unhealthy practices" will be. III is weak reduced tax collection will have a bad impact on state
because it is superfluous. activities.
3. (e) I is weak because it is not true. Look at the alternative 19. (d) I is weak as it is an argument by example. II is weak
given in II. But II is also not strong because instead of because it is absurd. In fact, if maturity is really seen as
getting into the reason it provides an alternative. III is a criteria, lesser maturity would be required when the
simplistic and hence weak. It is argument by example. choice is limited.
4. (e) I is strong because competent workforce is desirable.
20. (a) I is strong because reduced tobacco consumption is
II is weak because it does not appear to be true for all
desirable. II is weak because such convenience is not
PSUs. And even if it be true, an argument that takes
desirable.
recourse in helplessness seems to fall short on merit.
III is strong because competition is desirable. SPEED TEST 48
5. (c) I is weak because there is a mismatch of scale. II is
weak because it is a trivial reason. III is strong because 1. (b) This appears to be true from the thrust given at the end
discrimination is undesirable. of the passage.
6. (a) Argument I is strong as it attempts to address the power 2. (c) Secondary education is simply out of picture.
problem from the consumption side. II is weak as it 3. (a) Clear from the sixth sentence of the passage.
stretches the free market theory a bit too much. III is 4. (e) Definitely false from the first sentence.
weak because it is false. 5. (d) There are issues that go beyond the budgetary
7. (c) Argument I is weak as it merely tries to evade the issue. allocation, viz political and administrative tasks. Hence
II may turn out to be true but it is based on a negative "substantial improvement" is rather doubtful.
mindset may be it's more of an assumption. Hence II 6. (b) From the fact that prudent banks are likely to weather
is weak. III gets into the reason and is therefore strong. the crisis by taking into account these factors.
8. (e) I is weak as it is not true. II is also weak on the same 7. (e) This is clearly a one-off case.
grounds. III is strong as it elaborates on how banning 8. (a) This is what skews the risk-reward equation.
exports would help tackle the drought situation. 9. (b) This is probably what misprices risks.
62 101 SPEED TEST
10. (d) Policy errors are also liable and there is a chance that or
some of these are political. Fingers
11. (a) That's what the entire passage is about. Neclaces
12. (a) The passage says: "..... the government simply cannot
create enough public universities to satisfy the Rings Ears
demand".
13. (c) There is no information about developed countries.
14. (d) Probably not if private not-for-profit universities are
encouraged.
Conclusions :
15. (e) The passage says that "guidelines ... should be made
clear, .... " Which means the guidelines are there. I. True
16. (e) China, Japan and India also have robust economies. II. Not True
17. (d) India and China seem to be in that position. 3. (d) Bottles
18. (a) South Korea adopted "outward-oriented economic Cups
policies" while India continued with "import
substitution policy".
19. (e) Clear from the last sentence of the passage. Plates
20. (b) The Asian growth stories mainly revolve around India
and China. Spoon
21. (e) The confounding multiplies with the quantum of
wealth. or
22. (a) Read the fourth sentence. Bottles
23. (b) Because there are more investment options at present. Cups
24. (d) Remember the "clutter and noise".
25. (c) No information about fund managers.
26. (e) Consider the following line of the passage:
"However, agriculture and allied activities account for Spoon
less than even one-fourth of the total GDP".
Plates
Therefore, the inference is definitely false. Conclusions :
27. (e) It is mentioned in the passage that the structure of
I. Not True
industrialisation has changed over the years and not
over the past few decades. II. Not True
28. (a) The inference is definitely true. Both conclusions form complementary pair.
29. (e) Consider the following line of the passage: 4. (a) Erasers
"So it is less likely that aggregate economic growth will
be adversely affected if rainfall is scanty". Pens
30. (e) It is mentioned in the passage that the component of Sharpners
the manufacturing sector that depends on agriculture
for the supply of intermediates is not very high. This
does not imply that manufacturing sector is Staples
independent of agricultural sector. or
SPEED TEST 49 Erasers
Radios Pens Sharpners

1. (c) Computers Televisions
Phones Staples
Conclusions :
I. Not True
II. Not True
Conclusions :
I. Not True 5. (d) Jungles Bushes
II. True Trees
2. (b) Fingers Hills

Neclaces
Rings
Conclusions :
I. True
Ears II. True
SOLUTIONS 63
Poles Poles or
6. (d)
Houses Trees
Rockets Rockets
Trams or Trams Forests
Ropes
Ropes
or Tents
Buses Hills
Poles Conclusions :
Trams I. True
II. True
III. Not True
Ropes IV. Not True
Rockets Rivers Mountains
9. (b) Lakes
Tents
Conclusions : Books
I. True
II. Not True Papers
III. Not True
IV. True
Spoons or
7. (c) Lakes Rivers
Mirrors
Papers
Dials
Chairs Books Mountains

Conclusions :
Decks I. Not True
or II. Not True
Spoons III. Not True
IV. Not True
Mirrors Hence, II & IV conclusions form complementary pair.
Horses
10. (c)
Dogs
Dials Tigers
Goats
Decks
Chairs Cats
Conclusions : Cats
I. Not True Conclusions :
II. True I. Not True
III. Not True II. True
IV. Not True III. True
Trees IV. Not True
8. (a)
Buses 11. (e) Note books Tanks
Pens
Houses Hills
Forests Table
Desks
64 101 SPEED TEST
or
Note books Desks
Tyres Rains
Flowers
Tanks
Tubes
Pens Jungles
Tables
or Conclusions :
Tanks I. Not True
Note books II. True
III. True
IV. True
Desks 14. (d) Trunks
Boxes
Pens Tables
Tables Chairs
Desks
Conclusions :
I. Not True
II. Not True
III. True
Conclusions :
IV. Not True
I. True
As I and IV conclusions complement to each other.
II. True
Rollers
12. (c) Belts III. True
Mats
IV. True
15. (c)
Birds Goats
Cars Wheels
Tigers
or Lions Horses
Rollers or
Belts
Birds Goats
Wheels
Mats
Cars Tigers Horses
Lions
Conclusions : or
I. True
II. Not True Birds Goats
III. Not True
IV. True
13. (b) Jungles Tigers
Tubes
Flowers Horses
Lions
Conclusions :
I. Not True
II. Not True
Tyres Rains III. Not True
or IV. Not True
Since, conclusion I and II, and III and IV form
complementary pair.
SOLUTIONS 65
or
16. (d) Holiday Forces
Holiday
Vacation Powers
or Trips Torque
Trips
Energies
Vacation
Conclusions : or
I. Not True
Forces
II. Not True Powers
Kites Birds Torque
17. (d) Energies
Kites Birds or
Aeroplane Aeroplane
Conclusions :
SPEED TEST 50
I. Not True
II. Not True Bins
Fibres
18. (a) Flowers
1. (e)
Metals
Handles
Plastics
Sticks
Conclusions : Bins
I. True
II. Not True
Rocks or
19. (b)
Flowers Handles
Animals Plants
Sticks
Conclusions I : True
Conclusions : II : Not true
I. Not True III : Not true
II. True 2. (b) Houses
20. (b) Institutes
towers
Banks windows
temples
School
Houses
Academics
Conclusions : or
I. Not True temples
II. True
towers
Sol. (21-22) : windows
Forces Powers Conclusions I : Not true
Torque II : True
III : Not true
Energies
or
66 101 SPEED TEST
3. (c) cots Pens
6. (d)
walls Toys
doors chairs
walls Desks
doors Roads
or Roads
Pens
or
cots
chairs
walls doors
Toys Desks
or Conclusions I : Not true
II : Not true
chairs Bangles
7. (c)
cots
Conclusions I : Not true
II : Not true
III : Not true Table Ring
As conclusions I and III complement to each other. Huts
Ring
4. (d) or
trees
Bangles
fences
gardens stones Table Huts
Conclusions I : True
II : True or Bangles
III : True
5. (a)
Box Leaves Ring
Table Huts
Books II : Not true
Since, conclusion I and II form complementary pair.
Therefore, either (I) or (II) follows.
Jungles
8. (e)
Trees
or Jungles Chairs
Poles
Rooms
Books Conclusions I : True
Leaves
II : True
(Qs. 9-10) House Flats
Box
Buildings
II : Not true
III : Not true
Appartment
SOLUTIONS 67
Flats 16. (d) Conclusions I : Not true
II : Not true
or
17. (b) Circles
Rings ellipse
Buildings Appartment
House Squares
9. (b) Conclusions I : Not true
II : True
10. (d) Conclusions I : Not true
Conclusions I : Not True
II : Not true
(Qs. 11-12) II : True
Rivers 18. (d)
Appar- Bun-
House glows
Canal tment
or
Oceans Bun- Appar-
Seas House glows tment
or
Seas
II : Not True
Oceans
19. (a)
Rivers Canal Gases Liquids
11. (d) Conclusions I : Not true Water
II : Not true
12. (e) Conclusions I : True or
II : True
(Qs. 13-14)
evening
Gases Liquids
Noon
Water
Day Conclusions I : True

Night II : Not True
Noon 20. (b)
or Hours
Seconds
Day
Day Night
evening
or
13. (d) Conclusions I : Not true Hours
II : Not true Seconds
14. (a) Conclusions I : True
II : Not true Day
(Qs. 15-16)
card

papers boards II : True
or papers (21 -22)
boards r s
so
Teachers
fes
o
card Pr
rs
15. (c) Conclusions I : Not true ture
Lec
II : Not true
or
Since conclusions I and II form complementary pair.
68 101 SPEED TEST
2. (d) Step II : ultra 73 12 16 mail sort 39 kite
Professors Step III : ultra 73 sort 12 16 mail 39 kite
Lecturers Step IV : ultra 73 sort 39 12 16 mail kite
Teachers Step V : ultra 73 sort 39 mail 12 16 kite
Step VI : ultra 73 sort 39 mail 16 12 kite
or Step VII : ultra 73 sort 39 mail 16 kite 12
rs
Hence, Step VI will be the last but one.
so 3. (d) We can't work backward in an arrangement type.
fes Teachers,
o 4. (c) Step II : tube 83 49 34 garden flower rat 56
Pr Lecturers Step III : tube 83 rat 49 34 garden flower 56
Step IV : tube 83 rat 56 49 34 garden flower
21. (a) Conclusions I : True Step V : tube 83 rat 56 garden 49 34 flower
II : Not True Step VI : tube 83 rate 56 garden 49 flower 34
22. (b) Conclusions I : Not True 5. (a) Input : hunt for 94 37 good 29 48 book.
II : True Step I : hunt 94 for 37 good 29 48 book
Step II : hunt 94 good for 37 29 48 book
(23 - 24) : Possible venn diagram are
Step III : hunt 94 good 48 for 37 29 book
Step IV : hunt 94 good 48 for 37 book 29
Roses Flower Red (Sol. 6-10):
In each step, one word gets arranged from the left and one
or from the right. Note that words starting with vowels get
arranged from the left and those starting with consonants
Red
get arranged from the right. This goes on in such a manner
Roses Flower that finally we have vowel-starting words arranged in reverse
alphabetical order followed by consonant-starting words
arranged in reverse alphabetical order.
or Input: gem stat ace cast omit fan rate uncut era input
Red Step I : uncut gem stat ace omit fan rate era input cast
Flowers Red Step II : uncut omit gem stat ace rate era input fan cast
Step III : uncut omit input stat ace rate era gem fan cast
Step IV : uncut omit input era stat ace rate gem fan cast
23. (d) Step V : uncut omit input era ace stat rate gem fan cast
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (e)
24. (a) (Sol. 11-15):
25. (a) A possible Venn diagram is Input : for 52 all 96 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46
Step I : all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46 96
High Step II : bus all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73
Hills Step III : for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52
Step IV : hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46
Step V : jam hut for bus all 25 road 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38
Step VI : road jam hut for bus all 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38 25
Step VII : stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 52 46 38 25 15
11. (b) Step IV : hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52
46 Eighth from the right road.
12. (c) 13. (c)
SPEED TEST 51 14. (a) Step V : jam hut for bus all 25 road 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38
(Sol. 1-5): Sixth from the left is 25
15. (d)
In step I, the word that comes last in the alphabetical order
(Sol. 16-21):
comes to the first place, pushing the rest of the line rightward.
In the first step, the word that comes first in the reverse
In step II, the largest number comes at the second place, alphabetical order comes to the first place and the rest of the
pushing the line rightward. Thus, words and numbers get line shift rightward. In the next step, the largest number
arranged alternately till all the words are in reverse occupies the next place and the rest of the line shifts
alphabetically order and numbers in descending order. rightward. This goes on alternately till the words get arranged
1. (d) Input: glass full 15 37 water now 85 67 in the reverse alphabetical order and the numbers in a
Step I : water glass full 15 37 now 85 67 descending order.
Step II : water 85 glass full 15 37 now 67 16. (b) Step III : year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house 39
Step III : water 85 now glass full 15 37 67 Step IV : year 92 ultra 39 15 23 strive house
Step IV : water 85 now 67 glass full 15 37 Step V : year 92 ultra 39 strive 15 23 house
Step V : water 85 now 67 glass 37 full 15 Step VI : year 92 ultra 39 strive 23 15 house
Since the arrangement has been done, there will be no Step VII : year 92 ultra 39 strive 23 house 15
step VI. Hence, 7 3 = 4 more steps will be required.
SOLUTIONS 69
17. (c) Input : any how 49 24 far wide 34 69 (Sol. 7-12):
Step I : wide any how 49 24 far 34 69 In the first step, the smallest number comes to the left most
Step II : wide 69 any how 49 24 far 34 position and the remaining line shifts rightward. In the next
Step III : wide 69 how any 49 24 far 34 step, the word that comes last in the alphabetical order
Step IV : wide 69 how 49 any 24 far 34 occupies the second position form the left and the remaining
Step V : wide 69 how 49 far any 24 34 line shifts rightward. This goes on alternately till all the
Step VI : wide 69 how 49 far 34 any 24 numbers are arranged in ascending order and all the words
Hence step V will be the last but one. in reverse alphabetical order at alternate positions.
18. (d) We can't proceed backward 7. (c) Input : 89 bind 32 goal house 61 12 joy
19. (d) Input : play over 49 37 12 match now 81 Step I : 12 89 bind 32 goal house 61 joy
Step I : play 81 over 49 37 12 match now Step II : 12 joy 89 bind 32 goal house 61 joy
Step II : play 81 over 49 now 37 12 match Step III : 12 joy 32 89 bind goal house 61
Step III : play 81 over 49 now 37 match 12 Step IV : 12 joy 32 house 89 bind goal 61
Since the line is already arranged, there will no 4th step Step V : 12 joy 32 house 61 89 bind goal
20. (b) Step II : war 58 box cart 33 49 star 24 Step VI : 12 joy 32 house 61 goal 89 bind
Step III : war 58 star box cart 33 49 24 8. (c) Step II : 15 yes 62 51 48 talk now gone
Step IV : war 58 star 49 box cart 33 24 Step III : 15 yes 48 62 51 talk now gone
Step V : war 58 star 49 cart box 33 24 Step IV : 15 yes 48 talk 62 51 now gone
Step VI : war 58 star 49 car 33 box 24 Step V : 15 yes 48 talk 51 62 now gone
Step VI : 15 yes 48 talk 51 now 62 gone
SPEED TEST 52 9. (e) Step III : 21 victory 30 joint 64 47 all gone
(Sol. 1-6): Step IV : 21 victory 30 joint 47 64 all gone
In step I, the largest number goes to the extreme left and the Step V : 21 victory 30 joint 47 gone 64 all
rest of the line shifts rightwards. In the next step the word 5 3 = 2 more steps will be required
that comes first in alphabetical order goes to the second 10. (e) Input : win 92 task 73 59 house range 34
position from the left and the rest of the line shifts rightwards. Step I : 34 win 92 task 73 59 house range
Thus the numbers and the words get arranged alternately Step II : 34 win 59 92 task 73 house range
till all the numbers are in descending order and all the words Step III : 34 win 59 task 92 73 house range
in alphabetical order. Step IV : 34 win 59 task 73 92 house range
1. (c) Input : show 51 36 new far 81 46 goal 11. (e) Input : save 21 43 78 them early 36 for
Step I : 81 show 51 36 new far 46 goal Step I : 21 save 43 78 them early 36 for
Step II : 81 far show 51 36 new 46 goal Sep II : 21 them save 43 78 early 36 for
Step III : 81 far 51 show 36 new 46 goal Step III : 21 them 36 save 43 78 early for
Step IV : 81 far 51 goal show 36 new 46 Step IV : 21 them 36 save 43 for 78 early
Step V : 81 far 51 goal 46 show 36 new Hence step III will be last but one.
Step VI : 81 far 51 goal 46 new show 36 12. (b) Input : desire 59 63 all few 38 46 zone
Step VII : 81 far 51 goal 46 new 36 show Step I : 38 desire 59 63 all few 46 zone
Thus step VI will be the last but one. Step II : 38 zone desire 59 63 all few 46
2. (e) Input : home turf 39 24 86 44 roll over Step III : 38 zone 46 desire 59 63 all few
Step I : 86 home turf 39 24 44 roll over Step IV : 38 zone 46 few desire 59 63 all
Step II : 86 home 44 turf 39 24 roll over Step V : 38 zone 46 few 59 desire 63 all
Step III : 86 home 44 over turf 39 24 roll (Sol. 13-20):
Step IV : 86 home 44 over 39 turf 24 roll In step I the least number comes to the left most position,
Step V : 86 home 44 over 39 roll turf 24 pushing the rest of the line rightward . In step II the word
Step VI : 86 home 44 over 39 roll 24 turf that comes last in the alphabetical order shifts to second
Thus step VI will be the last. from left, pushing again the rest of the line rightward. Similarly,
3. (a) Step II : 76 ask 12 32 begin over join 42 in step III the second least number shifts to third from left. In
Step III : 76 ask 42 12 32 begin over join step IV the second from last in the alphabetical order comes
Step IV : 76 ask 42 begin 12 32 over join to the fourth position. And this goes on alternately till all the
Step V : 76 ask 42 begin 32 12 over join numbers are arranged in ascending order and the words in
Step VI : 76 ask 42 begin 32 join 12 over reverse alphabetical order.
Thus 6 2 = 4 more steps will be required. Step V : jam hut for bus all 25 road 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38
4. (b) Step IV : 58 box 47 dew 15 21 town pot Step VI : road jam hut for bus all 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38 25
Step V : 58 box 47 dew 21 15 town pot Step VIII : stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 52 46 38 25 15
Step VI : 58 box 47 dew 21 pot 15 town 13. (c) Step II : 18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31
Thus step VI will be last. Step III : 18 task 31 bear cold dish 81 63
5. (d) We can't proceed backward. Step IV : 18 task 31 dish bear cold 81 63
6. (e) Input : buy win task 52 38 43 door 12 Step V : 18 task 31 dish 63 bear cold 81
Step I : 52 buy win task 38 43 door 12 Step VI : 18 task 31 dish 63 cold bear 81
Step II : 52 buy 43 win task 38 door 12 Step VII : 18 task 31 dish 63 cold 81 bear
Step III : 52 buy 43 door win task 38 12 14. (d) Input : 72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey
Step IV : 52 buy 43 door 38 win task 12 Step I : 24 72 59 37 go for picnic journey
Step II : 24 picnic 72 59 37 go for journey
70 101 SPEED TEST
Step III : 24 picnic 37 72 59 go for journey rule is framed, it is assumed that people are capable of
Step IV : 24 picnic 37 journey 72 59 go for following it.
Step V : 24 picnic 37 journey 59 72 go for 9. (a) Assumption I is implicit in "at their own cost"
Step VI : 24 picnic 37 journey 59 go 72 for Assumption II is contrary to what the citizens may have
15. (a) Input : nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56 assumed.
Step I : 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56 10. (d) Were it assumed that the employees might leave, such
Step II : 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56 a decision would not be taken. Hence Assumption I is
Step III : 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56 not implicit.
16. (d) Step II : 16 victory 19 36 53 store lake town Assumption II is not implicit because "next year" is
Step III : 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake present nowhere in the picture.
Step IV : 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake 11. (e) Both are implicit in Mr. X's instructions to his assistant.
Since the line is already arranged, there will be no fifth 12. (b) II is implicit as it serves the purpose of introducing AC
step. buses. Contrary to this, I is not implicit as it defeats the
17. (d) We can't work out backward. purpose.
18. (b) Input : milk pot 18 24 over goal 36 53 13. (a) I is implicit because whenever a scheme is announced,
Step I : 18 milk pot 24 over goal 36 53 it is assumed that people will welcome it. II is not implicit.
Step II : 18 pot milk 24 over goal 36 53 Had fear been there on the mind of the govt, it would
Step III : 18 pot 24 milk over goal 36 53 have refrained from introducing such a scheme.
Step IV : 18 pot 24 over milk goal 36 53 14. (d) I is not implicit because an announcement is made with
Step V : 18 pot 24 over 36 milk goal 53 the assumption that it will be positively received. It is
Step VI : 18 pot 24 over 36 milk 53 goal not implicit because the municipal authority is not
Hence step V is the last but one. covered by the ambit of the statement.
19. (a) Step III : 36 win 44 95 86 ultra box queen 15. (d) If the response does not come, as Assumption I says,
Step IV : 36 win 44 ultra 95 86 box queen the ad won't make sense. Hence I is not implicit. II is
Step V : 36 win 44 ultra 86 95 box queen not implicit; hence the qualification "with good
Step VI : 36 win 44 ultra 86 queen 95 box communication skills".
Hence 6 3 = 3 more steps will be required 26. (a) All these assumptions are in directions contrary to what
20. (a) Input : new 22 model 27 pump 38 11 join the statement says.
Step I : 11 new 22 model 27 pump 38 join 27. (c) Whenever such a decision is taken, the assumptions
Step II : 11 pump new 22 model 27 38 join are that it would be welcome and allowed to implement.
Step III : 11 pump 22 new model 27 38 join 28. (c) The urging of the govt makes sense only when (A) and
Step IV : 11 pump 22 new 27 model 38 join (B) are implicit.
29. (b) The decision to auction assumes response to it. Hence
SPEED TEST 53 (A) is not implicit. Unless the private entities are
1. (a) Assumption I is implicit because it is this that makes us capable, the decision would make no sense. Hence (B)
import sugar in spite of the increase in the number of is implicit. (C) is implicit as without financial benefit,
sugar factories. private entities would not turn up for the auction.
But II is not implicit because "future" is beyond the 30. (b) (A) must be implicit to make the request meaningful.
scope of the statement. The govt is out of picture here. Hence (B ) is not implicit.
2. (b) Compensation is a way of sympathizing with the victims, (C) is not implicit as the case may be only of delay, not
not a deterrent to terrorism. Hence II is implicit but I is of cancellation of flight.
not.
SPEED TEST 54
3. (a) Assumption I is implicit because only then the switching
over makes sense. But II need not be an assumption. 1. (a) Only conclusion I seems to be reasonable. Considering
The switching over may have been prompted by the different nature of IT Companies different
economic factors or those of convenience. parameters should be employed for rating. It is not
4. (b) Assumption I is ruled out because of the word only. necessary that if separate rating agency is established
But II is implicit because without considering this factor for IT companies the investors will get protection of
relocation won't make sense. their investment. Therefore, conclusion II does not
5. (a) Assumption I is implicit as the govt's moves are follow.
generally aimed at protecting the interests of the 2. (a) By increasing the manufacturing capacity the Company
masses. But II is not implicit because of "any other "Y" would compete reasonably on the cost front. And,
way". There might be other means of gambling which as such it can improve the quality of its products. Hence,
the govt does not consider significantly detrimental conclusion I follows. Conclusion II seems to be an
for the people. assumption.
6. (b) When one applies for leave, one assumes that it would 3. (b) Considering the amount of loss incurred by Public
be granted. Hence I is not implicit. But Assumption II Sector Units it seems to be true that the Government
is implicit because only then period of "two years" did not take care in the matter of investment in the
assumes meaning. Public Sector Units. The use of term "only" in the
7. (a) When you instruct someone to do something, you conclusion I makes it invalid.
assume that he may do it. Hence I is implicit and II is not. 4. (b) Clearly, only conclusion II follows. It is not clear how
8. (e) Assumption I is implicit as this is the purpose assumed the population of developing countries will not increase
while levying the tax. II is also implicit because when a in the future.
SOLUTIONS 71
5. (c) It is mentioned in the statement that Mr. X has been 2. (d) (A) would be an extreme step. (B) is not within the
declared successful in the preliminary screening for govt's purview. (C) is advisable when there is
the post of Director of KLM Institute. Therefore, either retrenchment on such a large scale.
he will be selected or will not be selected as Director of 3. (b) (A) is not feasible in a democracy. (C) does not follow
KLM Institute. because the problem is not concerned with "criminals".
6. (d) II may be an assumption which the professor is (B) is the only course the authorities can resort to.
assuming before passing his statement but it definitely 4. (a) (A) would be a step in the right direction: it would
cannot be a conclusion. Hence II does not follow. I ensure that hunger does not deprive children of
may or may not be possible. Hence I does not follow. education. (B) is escapism. (C) is absurd.
7. (b) It is clear that either there is no facility for health 5. (d) (A) does not make sense unless it be known that these
insurance available or it is available for only affluent officials are the culprits. (B) is necessary to prevent
sections. Hence I cannot be definitely concluded. II such incidents in the future. So is (C).
follows from the given statement, as limited resources 6. (b) I and III would be too harsh; II is absurd. Efforts should
of the person suggests that he will go to a hospital be made to supervise the quality of the food prepared
which provides treatment on nominal charges or free. by the canteen.
8. (a) Only conclusion I follows. The statement talks about 7. (a) I is the right course. II and III would create a bigger
dedicated ordinary doctros but that in no way infers problem, viz pollution.
that extra ordinary specialists are not dedicated to their 8. (d) II is for the immediate future, III is for some time ahead.
profession. So conclusion II follows. I is true in the I does not follow because of the word "immediately".
context of the scenario prevailing in the country. 9. (b) II would suffice; hence no need to go for I.
9. (c) Either I or II can follow. As the government would be 10. (c) Both of these are solutions to traffic jam but both
reviewing the diesel prices in light of the spurt in the together may not be feasible or necessary.
international oil prices, the gove can either decide to 11. (b) I is an extreme step but II should bring things under
increase or keep the price stagnant (increasing subsidy.) control.
10. (d) The availability of vegetables is not mentioned in the 12. (b) I is not practical. II is necessary.
given statement. So, I does not follow. Also, II is not 13. (b) Again, I is not practical.
directly related to the statement and so it also does not 14. (b) I is simply absurd. II follows as a solution to the
follow. Probably the demand is surpassing the supply. complicated paperwork.
11. (d) I and II are assumptions and not conclusions. 15. (b) I is easier said than done. Even I makes sense only
12. (d) The statement does not say why the poor societies when the govt goes for II.
suffer. Hence I does not follow. II also does not follow 16. (b) I is impractical. Water is essential for life to go on. II is
because the statement merely states a fact; it does not sensible, especially when using ground water is proving
look into the merits of the fact. to be uneconomical.
13. (c) As Praveen has not yet returned, he might have got 17. (a) I is the obvious course of action. But II is absurd:
killed or might have survived. Hence (c) is the correct punishment for thieves is understandable. But how can
option. you punish - "all the students"?
14. (b) Nothing has been said in the statements which imply 18. (d) I is simply absurd. But even II is not the solution.
that VCRs and being now manufactured indigenously. 19. (b) Only course of action II seems to be appropriate. In
Therefore, I is invalid. Since import licence on VCRs case of severe drought food, water and fodder become
has been withdrawn, they can be now freely imported. scarce and in such a situation these items should be
15. (d) Nothing of the sort can be concluded as given in two sent immediately to the affected areas to save the people
conclusions on the basis of the statements. and cattle. At a glance, the course of action I too seems
16. (d) Both of the conclusion are invalid. to be suitable for pursuing. But the use of term
17. (b) Unless absolute figures are given, no conclusin of the "immediately" makes it invalid.
type I can be made. Since average no. of students per 20. (e) Both courses of action are suitable for pursuing. Do
teacher (60) in rural areas is higher than the average not get confused by the use of the term "all" in the first
no. of students per teacher (50) in urban areas, we can course of action. Since, murder of a large number of
people is not a usual event. Therefore, course of action
conclude that more students study with the same
I is also suitable.
teacher in the rural areas as compared to those in the
21. (b) Only course of action II is suitable for pursuing. Since
urban areas.
capsuled Vitamin E has not any deleterious effect on
18. (d) This statement does not mention anything about
human body, it is not proper to ban the sale of capsuled
healthy people. Neither does it mention about evening
Vitamin E.
walks. Hence none of the conclusions follows.
22. (b) Only course of action II is suitable for pursuing. The
19. (a) Only this can balance the equation.
first course of action may aggravate the situation
20. (e) All the given choices would lead to an increase in the
further. Therefore, it is not suitable for pursuing.
number of visits to health facilities. 23. (a) Only course of action I seems to be appropriate for
SPEED TEST 55 pursuing. It is not desirable to achieve something by
undue means.
1. (a) The alarming situation is pretty obvious. So a review 24. (e) Both the courses of action are suitable for pursuing
committee is not required. Hence I does not follow. considering the visit of a large number of people.
Water crisis is not the concern of the statement. Hence 25. (b) The first course of action does not match the scale of
II does not follow. Merely two days of downpour does the problem. The problem is not so big as to merit a
not merit "relief supplies"; one assumes there is not a govt enquiry. It is enough that the civic body take action
flood-like situation as yet. Hence III does not follow. and hence II follows.
72 101 SPEED TEST
26. (e) I will help in cure while II will help in prevention. 23. (b) Lack of projects has led to the lay-off.
27. (a) II is an extreme action and hence does not follow. I is a 24. (a) The attractive schemes are attempts to boost sales.
proper course of action. Note that taking immediate 25. (d)
steps is not the same as immediate removal of the 26. (b) Job market is an important consideration in determining
constructions, which may again have been considered the curriculum of schools.
to be an extreme course of action. 27. (e) There seems to be some common cause that is leading
28. (d) If the rainfall is normal, it does not mean we would to deterioration in both kinds of education.
deprive the farmer of his due. The actions may be 28. (e) Hike in fuel prices seems to be the common cause.
deemed to be correct only if we know that they are the 29. (a) The effect is a win-win solution to this cause.
reversal of policies which had been framed during crisis 30. (c) Tax is only one component of the price. So, the increase
years. in price will be there but the increase percentage will be
lower.
29. (e) Both the courses of action will help increase the
population of dolphins. SPEED TEST 57
30. (a) Being "not as attractive as promoted" is a clear case of
hiding things. Hence "transparency" is the answer to 1. (d) The shifting of the elements takes place in such a way
the problem and I follows. II goes against the spirit of that the change is completed in four steps. So the
free market and is not relevant to the problem either. change from figure five to six will be similar to the
change from figure one to figure two.
SPEED TEST 56 2. (a) In each step, two pairs of elements get changed,
beginning from the upper left and lower right. The
1. (b) The pressure of the social activists has led to the change takes place in three successive steps.
banning. 3. (c) The main design rotates respectively through 45
2. (d) The two are contradictory and must be the effects of clockwise, 180 and 90 anticlockwise after every two
independent causes. figures. The shaded leaflet rotates through 45
3. (b) The large number of terrorist attacks has led to clockwise, 90 clockwise, 135 clockwise, 45
tightened security checks. anticlockwise and 90 anticlockwise.
4. (a) The court order has led to the urgent work. 4. (d) Watch the rotation of each element separetely. The
5. (b) The flood has led to epidemics. triangel rotates by 90 ACW and 180. The circle rotates
6. (d) In fact, the two statements seem to have contrary 45, 135, 90 CW 45 CW ... C rotates 45, 90, 135,
causes. 180 CW.
7. (b) The fighting has led to the closure of the shops. 5. (b) In each step elements interchange in pairs while one
8. (e) It seems the price of petroleum has increased in general. element beginning from one end is replaced by a new
Alternatively, subsidies may have been reduced, again one. The line of orientation rotates by 45 ACW.
a cause common to both the statements. 6. (d) In each step the elements of the upper row shift from
9. (a) The cyclone is expected to cause heavy rains. left to right in cyclic order while elements of the lower
row shift from right to left in cyclic order.
10. (a) The poor performance of the students has led to the
7. (b) In each step, the whole figure rotates by 45 ACW. The
exit of the professor. middle element interchanges with elements on either
11. (b) Statement B is the cause and statement A is its effect. side alternately while the third element is replaced by a
Owing to agitation against high fees the Government new one.
appointed a committee to look into the matter. 8. (c) In each step the whole figure rotates by 90 ACW while
12. (b) Statement B is the cause and statement A is its effect. one of the end elements is replaced alternately on either
Owing to reduction in the procurement price of Kharif side.
crops the farmers are reluctant to sell their Kharif crops 9. (a) In the first step the elements shift from the upper left to
to Government agencies. lower right middle left upper right lower left
13. (b) Statement B is the cause and statement A is its effect. upper left. In the next step the elements shift one step
Owing to inability of the small banks to withstand the CW in cyclic order.
competitions of the bigger banks the Reserve Bank of 10. (e) In each step the upper element rotates by 90 ACW.
India put restrictions on few small banks. The lower element gets inverted and a curve is added
14. (d) Both the statements A and B are effects of independent to it on the upper side.
causes. 11. (d) In alternate steps the elements shift one-and-a-half sides
15. (e) Both the statements are effects of some common cause. CW while one of the elements beginning from the ACW
16. (b) In order to check the menace of poor eating habits, end gets replaced by a new one in each step.
schools have banned the sale of fast food. 12. (b) In each step the whole figure rotates by 90 CW while
17. (e) Both are effects of a common cause the recession. one element is added in each step alternately on CW
18. (a) The unhealthy competition leads to the negative and ACW end.
mindset that is responsible for suicide. 13. (b) In each step the whole figure rotates by 90 ACW and
19. (d) (A) is the result of global warming. (B) is the result of an arc is added on the CW side.
tectonic shifts. 14. (b) In each step the triangles rotate by 90 CW. The shading
20. (c) Both are independent causes. of the right triangle changes alternately. The shadings
21. (b) Changes in wind pattern have caused increase in of the middle and left triangles change in each step in a
temperature. set order.
15. (a) In each step the quadrilateral rotates by 90 ACW while
22. (a) The motorists' hardship has led to the municipal it shifts half a side CW alternately.
sanction.
SOLUTIONS 73
18. (e) The first column from left becomes the second row
SPEED TEST 58
from top. The second column from left becomes the
1. (a) From problem figure (4) to (5) the lower design is lower row. The third column goes to the top while the
reversed laterally while the other design moves to the fourth column becomes the third row. One element each
opposite side. Similar changes would occur from is added in the first and second row from top while one
problem figure (2) to (3). element each is reduced from the third and fourth row
2. (a) Symbol changes positions as shown in both the from top.
diagrams alternately and symbols in place of the sign 19. (d) The whole figure rotates by 45 ACW while the end
remain unchanged in each of the successive figure. element gets inverted.
20. (c) The upper left rotates by 45 CW and the lower left
rotates by 45 ACW. The upper right rotates by 135
CW and the lower right by 135 ACW.
21. (e) In alternate steps the whole figure rotates by 90 and 45
ACW while one end element changes side.
Figure (1) to (2) Figure (2) 22. (c) In each step the whole figure rotates by 90 CW. A new
3. (c) Each symbol of the figure rotates in Anticlockwise and element appears at ACW side while other two shift one
a new symbol replaces the symbol at the top which is step towards CW side.
inverted alternatively in each of the successive figures. 23. (e) In each step two line segments are added and the whole
4. (e) From problem figure (1) to (2), first and second figure figure gets inverted.
interchange their position and are reversed at the new 24. (c) In alternate steps the elements of smaller square
positions and at the same time, third figure remains interchange diagonally while the outer elements shift
unchanged. From problem figure (2) to (3), second and one step ACW.
third figures interchange their positions and are
reversed at the new position and the figure (1) remain 1 1
25. (b) The crossed square shifts , 1, 1 , 2, ..... sides CW
unchanged. The same problem is repeated alternatively. 2 2
5. (a) In each step, both the line segments close to the sides while the central element is replaced by a new one.
of the hexagon, move to the adjacent sides in a 26. (c) For the square follow if 1 = 5 then 2 = 6 rule. In alternate
Clockwise. Also the line segments at the corner move steps the lower-row elements go to the upper row and
to the adjacent corner Clockwise and their number new elements appear in the lower row.
increases by one, in the first, third, fifth steps. 27. (b)
6. (c) In each subsequent figure the main design rotates 28. (b) In each step the corner elements rotate 90 CW and
through 90 clockwise and the line segment comes out shift one side ACW alternately. The middle figure
of the main design alternately after moving respectively rotates 180 and 90 CW alternately.
one and two sides in anticlockwise direction alternately. 29. (e) In alternate steps the upper left shifts to centre lower
7. (b) In the subsequent figures the design rotates through right upper left. The upper right shifts to right middle
45 and 90 clockwise alternately and half leaflet is added upper-middle upper right and lower left left
ahead and behind of the main design alternately. middle lower middle lower left.
8. (c) In each subsequent figure all the designs move half 30. (e) In each step the side arrow rotates 90 CW and shifts
step in clockwise direction and two designs are replaced one side CW. The smaller arrow rotates 45 ACW and
with new design while in the third step three designs the larger arrow 45 CW alternately.
are replaced with new designs.
SPEED TEST 59
9. (d) In each figure two designs are either outside or inside
the main design. (1-4) The arrangement of boys and girls:
10. (e) In each subsequent figure all the designs move half Right Left
step in anticlockwise direction. The triangle rotates
through 90 clockwise after every two figures. All other C4 C2 C3 C6 C1 C5
designs change in each subsequent figure and after + + + + + +
three figures the same pattern is repeated.
11. (e) From element I to II the design rotates through 180 B3 B6 B1 B4 B2 B5
12. (b) From element I to II the design is mirror image after
being rotated through 90 clockwise. Left Right
13. (c) From element I to II the design is enclosed by another 1. (d) The girl C6 is facing the boy B4.
design. 2. (b) The following pairs of boys and girls are at the extreme
14. (e) From element I to II the upper design encloses the lower ends.
design. B3 C4, B5 C5, B3 C5, B5 C4
15. (d) From element I to II the design is divided into four
3. (a) B1 is to the immediate left of B4.
equal parts and the lower left part becomes shaded.
16. (a) The upper 1 left element rotates by 90 CW while the 4. (b) B6 is facing C2.
(5-10) : P T Q V S R
other four rotate by 90 ACW.
Row 1
17. (b) The whole figure rotates by 90 ACW. The first and the
third, and the second and the fourth elements
interchanged places. Row 2
C D E F A B
74 101 SPEED TEST
5. (c) 6. (e) 7. (b) 7. (e) Conclusion : Public education has deteriorated in the
8. (a) 9. (e) 10. (d) last 50 years. Evidence : The inability of high school
S (Pakistan)
seniors to compose a business letter. (e) strengthens
(11-16): the argument by adding meaning to the evidence. If
V (Sri Lanka)
W (New Zealand) 80 percent of seniors could write acceptable business
letters 50 years ago, and only 50 percent of today's
X (South Africa) T (India)
seniors can do so, then the conclusion is more
believable.
8. (e) Coolidge, it's argued, won't benefit from introducing
R (England) Q (West Indies) a new cereal since doing so will merely "steal" its
P (Australia) own customers away from other Coolidge brands.
Anything that demonstrates that Coolidge may
11. (c) 12. (a) actually benefit from introducing a new brand will
13. (b) There is pattern of going from the second member weaken this argument, and (e) does exactly that. If
of a pair to the first member of the next pair. introducing a new brand will attract buyers of
+ 2, + 3, + 4... CW. competitor's cereals, Coolidge will have suceeded in
14. (c) 15. (d) increasing its overall customer base without
(25-29): G cannibalizing its own product.
A B 9. (b) Anything alleging the possibility of keeping abreast
of friends' well-being at a distance would seriously
H D weaken the argument. (b) presents a way in which
friends can live apart from one another and still keep
C in contact.
E
F 10. (c) The correct choice is (c) the author assumes that
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28.(e) 29. (c) excessive pressure, because it's offered as one sure
V cause, is the only possible cause,even though there
(30-34): S Q may be others.
11. (d) The argument stated in the information is that all animal
actions are a result of an interaction between
R W experiences and genotype. Therefore, if all experiences
and genotype are identical, all actions will also be
identical. This is mentioned in option (d).
P
T 12. (d) The given passage says (1) media supplies the stuff of
Y thought.
30. (b) 31. (c)
32. (d) Others sit in the middle of the sides. (2) it shapes the process of though.
1 1 (3) internet has reduced our capacity to concentrate
33. (a) Move 1 , 2, 2 , 3 ... sides clockwise on the square. this is stated/exemplified in (d). Therefore, it streng-
2 2
34. (c) thens the given argument.
13. (e) Statement (e) says that the younger judges who have
SPEED TEST 60 ready access to internet have become better at judging
1. (c) Since life expectancy depends on genetic make-up complex and intricate cases. This implies that their
migration cant enhance it. capacity to concentrate has improved which negates
the argument given in the passage.
2. (c) This dents the reliability factor.
14. (d) The theme of the passage says that when soldiers are
3. (e) 4. (c)
subjected to high pressure situations even in simulated
5. (c) Once the trials are over, availability of material, warfare, their naturalistic decision making capacity/
management and other resources is necessary to ability is not compromised. Statement (i) and (ii) clearly
maintain production schedule. negate the above notion. (iv) suggests that individual
Thus, option I will strengthen the chairman's decision. and naturalistic decision making ability is lost. (v) says
Option II is not related to the statement. Option III will that officers believe more in experience of soldiers than
strengthen the decision because a better network of simulation based training. This makes (d) the correct
dealers and complete formalities would be good for choice.
sale and thus for the company. 15. (c) The author is not happy with the huge amount of
6. (a) Read the last statement of the paragraph, expenses incurred in research of things which have no
SOLUTIONS 75
use in day to day life. (c) weakens this argument could still become extinct. Answer choice (d) is correct
because we can apply something to the use of mankind because it makes the conclusion about extinction less
only if we have the knowledge of it. likely to be true.
16. (e) The passage clearly emphasizes that practising Hatha-
Yoga is really difficult and only a few resolute souls go SPEED TEST 61
through all the stages of its practice (refer sentence 3).
So E strengthens the idea of the passage. C and D are 1. (a) The problems of beggars cannot be solved by sending
out of context as the passage doesn't talk about Yoga them to villages. Therefore, argument I seems to be
schools teaching Raja Yoga. A and B are also out of forceful.
context as they restrict themselves to people in a given 2. (a) Argument I seems to be forceful.
ashram . 3. (d) The mention of the term 'only' in argument I makes it
17. (b) A person seeking to refute the argument might argue invalid. Argument II is also invalid.
that managing big organization is more challenging 4. (d) Neither of the arguments is forceful.
than small. The reason being the CEO of any 5. (a) Argument I seems to be forceful.
organization whether it is big or small has similar kind
of duties and responsibilities but the CEO of big 6. (d) Neither of the arguments is forceful. It is true that
organization has more complex nature of work. privatisation may make institutes of Technology
financially healthy and competitive considering the
18. (a) If the given statement that CEO of small organization prevalent trend of market. But it cannot be taken as
come from good educational background is true it will universally true. Hence, argument I is not forceful. The
strengthen the speakers argument, the reason being second argument lacks any substance and hence it is
the speaker wants that CEOs of big and small not forceful.
organizations should be paid similarly and if the CEO
of small organization comes from good educational 7. (a) Taking into account the fact that a large number of
background they should receive a similar amount which cases are pending in the courts for a long time, it is
a CEO of big organization receives. desirable that vacations of court judges must be
reduced to speed up judicial process. Therefore
19. (a) The argument is essentially that the proposed law argument I seems to be forceful. Argument II is based
makes no sense because knitting needles are dangerous on an example and we know that citing an example is a
as well. The argument relies explicitly on an analogy bad argumentation.
between hypodermic and knitting needles. Thus, the
two must be similar in all respects relevant to the 8. (d) It is not necessary that if any practice which has been
argument. Otherwise, the argument is unconvincing. in vogue for long time is right and it must be continued.
(a) affirms that knitting needles are in fact dangerous, Therefore, argument I is not forceful. Argument II is
thereby affirming the analogy between the two types partly true and hence it cannot be forceful.
of needles. 9. (d) It is an established fact that higher qualification could
(b) and (c) each in its own way supports the bare not be only criteria for any kind of promotion in an
assertion that the proposed law might not be effective. organisation. Other factors are also equally important.
However, none of these answer choices affirms the It is very difficult to assess the higher qualification and
arguments essential reasoning. other factors on the same scale. Therefore, neither of
the arguments is forceful.
(d) actually weakens the argument, by providing a
reason why hypodermic needles and knitting needles 10. (d) Neither of the arguments is forceful. None of the
are not relevantly similar. arguments holds strong vis-a-vis the statement.
20. (d) Provides an alternate source of the Raynhu bark. Even 11. (d) None of the arguments is forceful. The census activities
though the tree is rare in the wild, the argument is silent take a few days and the loss incurred in the classes can
on the availability of cultivated trees. The author of the be compensated by organising extra classes or pruning
argument must be assuming that there are no Raynhu the holidays. Therefore, argument I is not forceful. Other
trees other than those in the wild, in order to make the persons may also accomplish the task of census very
leap from the stated evidence to the conclusion that well. Therefore, argument II is also not forceful.
the Raynhu is headed for extinction. The option (d) 12. (a) Only argument I holds forceful. In the present context
weakens the assupmtion - there are limited raynhu trees the solution of any major problem lies in the proper
- by saying that there are other ways as well for the dialogue between the concerned parties. Argument II
propogation of Raynhu. The other answer choices all is based on individual's opinion and hence it cannot be
contain information that is irrelevant. Note that the forceful.
correct choice does not make the conclusion of the 13. (d) None of the argument is forceful. The employees may
argument impossible. In fact, it is possible that there raise their demands by other means also.
may be domesticated Raynhu trees and the species
76 101 SPEED TEST
14. (b) Only argument II is forceful. Unauth orised Sol. (Qs. 6-10) :
constructions create many other problems. The people
may be shifted to some regularised colonies. Sony Rishi Manu Alka Rohan Tinku Ritu Akash
L R
15. (d) The use of the word "only" in the argument I makes it
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
invalid.
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
The policy of open market advocates privatisation. Each
country is opening its market for foreign investors. How, (Sol. 11-12):
privatisation will pose a threat to national security? Possible Venn-diagrams are
16. (b) Argument I makes no sense. If the income of farmers
Purse
are not adequate they cannot be brought under the net Beautiful
of taxation as per rules governing the Income Tax Act. Black
Bag
Therefore, argument I is not forceful.
Argument II seems to be forceful. In order to increase
revenue the government should bring more persons 11. (b) Thus, only II follows.
under the net of taxation. Argument III is also forceful. 12. (e) Another pssible Venn-diagram is
17. (e) Only arguments I and II are forceful. The Government
is keen to introduce the VAT (Value Added Tax) which Purse
Beautiful
is the system envisaging simplified tax structure. A
single tax will check the double taxation and Bag Black
manufacturers as well as traders will be encouraged to
pay taxes.
Both I and II follow.
Argument III is an example. We know that citing an
example is bad argumentation. (Sol. 13-15):
18. (e) Only argument II is forceful. Possible Venn-diagram is
19. (a) None of the arguments is forceful. The use of term fish cat black
'only' in the argument I makes it invalid.
dog
20. (a) None of the arguments is forceful.
or
SPEED TEST 62
Fish Cat Dog Black
(Sol. 1-5) :
13. (e) Both I and II follow.
The machine rearranges one number and one word in each step. It
14. (d)
picks even numbers and odd numbers alternately, starting with
even numbers, and arranges even numbers in ascending order 15. (d) Possible Venn-diagram
and odd numbers in descending order from left to right. Words are
Red Rose
arranged in reverse alphabetical order from right to left.
Input : virus 11 inter 52 16 arm keep 47 wind 22 quick 31 66 luck Flower
Step I. 16 virus 11 inter 52 arm keep 47 22 quick 31 66 luck wind
Thus neither I nor II follows.
Step II. 16 47 11 inter 52 arm keep 22 quick 31 66 luck virus wind
Step III. 16 47 22 11 inter 52 arm keep 31 66 luck quick virus wind (16-20) : Member Country Sport
Step IV. 16 47 22 31 11 inter 52 arm 66 keep luck quick virus wind K China Archery
Step V. 16 47 22 31 52 11 arm 66 inter keep luck quick virus wind T USA Football
Step VI. 16 47 22 31 52 11 66 arm inter keep luck quick virus wind F France Volleyball
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) L Australia Athletics
4. (b) (n+1)th term of step V is related to nth term of step VI. J Russia Tennis
5. (a) R Korea Rifle Shooting
H Japan Boxing
SOLUTIONS 77
16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19.(b) 20. (b) 39. (a) The formation of groups by residents to initiate self-
(21-27) : help micro-credit programme, as mentioned in sentence
(Chairman)
(Managing E A, represents the step which helped the process of
Director) C F (Group liberalisation and empowerment of the villages.
Leader) 40. (e) Success experienced by the residents of the village
(Company Kenal has made them idols to be pursued for. This result
Secretary) B H (Manager) is aptly depicted in sentence D.
(Vice 41. (e) A proper course of action would be serving notices to

President) G D (Financial these clubs to behave themselves. Even police
A personnel may be deployed, but only during the
Advisor)
(President) sensitive hours.
21. (d) 22. (e) 23. (a) 42. (b) I and III would be too harsh; II is absurd. Efforts should
24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (e) be made to supervise the quality of the food prepared
by the canteen.
27. (b)
43. (a) I is the right course. II and III would create a bigger
28. (c) Even (C) can be inferred only probably.
problem, viz pollution.
29. (e) If the infrastructure does not exist, the deal will be a
44. (d) II is for the immediate future; III is for some time ahead.
wastage of money.
I does not follow because of the word immediately
30. (b) Getting connected by air is bound to have an impact
45. (c) I would be punishing the brave. II is absurd; how can
on road traffic.
city flights be diverted? Only III makes sense.
31. (d) Takes care of the compatibility factor and (A) states
46. (e) From Problem Figure (1) to (2) the shaded block moves
the advantage over other competing planes.
one sector in anticlockwise direction and one more block
32. (e) Note that the separate lane decision is an incentive. gets shaded. From Problem Figure (2) to (3) the shaded
Now an incentive is given with a motive in mind blocks move two sectors in anticlockwise direction and
(Assumption I) and with the hope of people falling for one more block gets shaded. Similar changes ooccur
it (Assumption II). from Problem Figure (4) onwards.
33. (e) Assumption I is implicit in the invitation Assumption 47. (d) From Problem Figure (1) to (2) one design moves di-
II is implicit in the request Manish makes to his mother. agonally after being rotated through 90 anticlockwise,
34. (b) Assumption I is not implicit because adverse impacts the square moves one-half step and shaded part of it
area not assumed. II is implicit in the period of also moves in anticlockwise direction. Similar changes
suspension being six months. occur from Problem Figure (3) to (4) and from Problem
35. (a) Assumption I is implicit because such an announcement Figure (5) to Answer Figure.
is made with the hope that people will heed to it. For 48. (e) In the subsequent figures respectively two, three, one,
the same reason, Assumption II is not implicit. two three curves are added in clockwise direction to
36. (d) With such negative assumptions, the statement would complete the leaflets.
lose its meaning. 49. (d) The following changes occur in the subsequent figures :
37. (b) Sentence B is an obvious inference because of the use (1) to (2) (2) to (3),
of words are now in the first sentence of the given (3) to (4) (4) to (5)
paragraph. That means, the village was earlier not self
(5) to (6)
sufficient.
38. (c) Lack of new advancements an d technologies
developments because of a lack of urban intervention
proves that intervention from urban counterparts can
lead to new advancements and technological
developments and benefit the village. 50. (d) After Problem Figure (3) the pattern is repeated in the
reverse order and the outer line segment moves to the
opposite side.
78 101 SPEED TEST
SPEED TEST 63 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c)
1. (b) imperial means of an empire or its rulers, adamant 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (b)
means firmly or stubbornly, determinedly. 29. (c) 30. (a)
2. (c) Verbose means using or containing more words than
are needed, ambiguous means having more than one SPEED TEST 65
meaning. 1. (b) Replace have been by has been. A band collective
3. (c) heritage noun is used as singular.
4. (c) Once I fall ill, it takes me long to recuperate. That is, I 2. (c) Replace are by is. The number takes singular verb.
take a long time to recover my health or strength after 3. (d) Replace has been by have been. Subject, managers
I have been ill. Convalesce is another synonym of comments plural so plural verb will be used.
recuperate. Convalescence is the period or process of 4. (c) Replace was by were. Subject of the verb details
becoming healthy and well again after an illness or is plural.
operation. 5. (c) Replace passes by pass. The noun after of (writers)
5. (b) You are familiar with the word tenuous. Attenuate also is plural so the verb will also be plural.
comes from the same Latin root tenuis (= thin). If you 6. (c) Replace mind is due by mind are due.
attenuate something, you make it slender or thin; you 7. (c) Replace are by is. The noun after of (mango) is
reduce it in force or value. singular so the verb will also be singular.
6. (c) If you abstain from something, you deliberately do not 8. (e) No error.
do it. Abstinence, however, is a particular kind of 9. (c) Replace have by has. Governing body collective
abstaining that from alcoholic drink, sex etc, often noun so verb singular.
for health or religious reasons. If you abstain from 10. (d) Replace their by its. The bankers association
drinking, you do not get drunk. Abstinence does not collective noun so pronoun its singular.
refer to drink only, 11. (b) Replace are by is. five quintals refers a definite
7. (d) A taciturn person is not dumb. A dumb person cant quantity (as collective noun) so verb will be singular.
speak. A taciturn person can speak but does not want 12. (a) Replace have by has. Dickens is the name of a
to. In other words, he maintains a reserve. person.
8. (d) One who is blithe is carefree and cheerful. 13. (d) Insert are after hopes. Hopes is plural, so verb will
9. (d) You are captivated by something attractive; It fascinates be plural.
you. 14. (a) Place be after may.
10. (c) Government servants are not allowed to receive money 15. (b) Replace richest man by richest men.
from any other job. Suppose an income-tax officer 16. (a) Replace We can almost get by we can get almost.
desired to edit this book. He would then have to be the 17. (c) Replace drink by drinks. Every Each takes singular
honorary editor of this book. That is, he cannot receive verb.
any payment as wages for editing the book. An honorary 18. (b) Replace is by are.
job is thus unpaid for. 19. (b) Replace man by men.
11. (b) If you visualise something, you imagine what it is like 20. (b) Replace were by was.
by forming a mental picture of it. You may visualise 21. (b) Replace are by is. Horse and carriage refers one thing
future events as well, your wedding for example. You as a unit so takes singular verb.
thus foresee your wedding. 22. (b) Replace are by is. Rice and fish used as a unit takes
12. (a) From Akbar to Aurangzeb, every Mughal emperor went singular verb.
on annexing one kingdom or another to what they 23. (b) Replace I can help you by can I help you. With under
inherited. In other words, each of them added to his no circumstances inversion is applied.
fathers empire. 24. (c) Replace nor she does by nor does she, Inversion is
13. (d) A menage is a group of people living together in one applied here.
house. In other words, a household. 25. (d) Replace so John is by so is John. Inversion is applied
14. (c) If something is firm, it is strong enough to maintain its here.
balance. Infirmity therefore suggests weakness. 26. (a) Write never had I been. Inversion is applied here.
15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 27. (b) Write must this switch., Inversion is applied here.
19. (e) 20. (b) 21. (e) 22. (d) 28. (a) Write Seldom had I seen. With Seldom/Hardly/Rarely/
23. (e) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) Scarcely/Never, Inversion is applied.
27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (b) 29. (e) No error
SPEED TEST 64 30. (b) Replace he created by did he create. Inversion is applied
here.
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b)
5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a) SPEED TEST 66
9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (d) 1. (c) Delete into.
13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d)
SOLUTIONS 79
2. (d)
Delete to. 11. (b) The correct answer choice is (b) because it expresses
3. (a)
Change it to apparent to. that the action is complete, i.e. our foreign exchange
4. (a)
Change it to Proposed to. reserves have increased substantially. The sentence is
5. (c)
Change among to between. Between is used for two. the form of present perfect tense the 1st answer choice
6. (d)
and about the poor. would have fit in if the action would have begun in
7. (c)
Correct phrase is blind in. past and still continued, i.e present perfect continuous
8. (b)
Replace among by amongst. tense.
9. (c)
Delete with. 12. (a) Only the answer choice (a) fits correctly because the
10. (b)
Place of after admits. sentence is simple present tense and if will be or would
11. (c)
Place of after loss. be is used it becomes a sentence which uses future
12. (d)
Change to by for. tense.
13. (d)
Replace for by of after worthy. 13. (e)
14. (c)
Delete on. 14. (c) How the burglar got into ...
15. (a)
Change decline of to decline in. 15. (b) should be checked ...
16. (b)
Delete for after order. 16. (d) None of the given answer choices fit in correctly. The
17. (c)
Place on before land. correct grammatical form of sentence will be People
18. (c)
Delete to before Chennai. should have their own mechanism ...........
19. (d)
Replace for by to. 17. (a) him is not the right usage because it is a possessive
20. (c)
Change look for by look after. pronoun, and in the sentence it is followed by who,
which is used to refer. So the pronoun he should be
21. (a)
Delete for after await.
used. He, who has the best rapport with the students.
22. (c)
debarred from sending is correct.
18. (d) Different is used with from e.g- you are different from
23. (a)
Do not use of with despite. Despite means inspite of.
Ritu. Than is used for comparisons, e.g., The world is
24. (a)
Change it to yielded to
more populated than it was in our time.
25. (b)
dying of hunger is correct. 19. (d) When we use the word hardly, it implies a negative
26. (c)
Change than by to. meaning, there is then no need to use not, so the most
27. (d)
Change by to for. suitable use is he hardly had any friends.
28. (b)
Change to stay in by rather than stay in. She prefers 20. (c) The tense in this sentence should be the present perfect
to write rather than to speak on telephone. continous because it refers to an action that started at
29. (c) Change startled by to startled at. some time in past and continues till the present time so
30. (b) Change with to from. right use is have been living in Mumbai.
SPEED TEST 67 21. (a) As a child, should be followed by a phrase that has child
as its subject, i.e., as a child I was taken by my parents to
1. (e) This sentence is correct none of the changes suggested visit Jammu & Kashmir or other ways, we can change the
will improve it. So, the option (e) is the correct answer. first part of the sentence, the second part describes an action
2. (e) This sentence is grammatically correct none of the so the first should be an adverb clause. Thus when I was
changes suggested will improve it. So, the option (e) is child is the most suitable alternative.
the correct answer. 22. (a) Anyone implies a person involved. So a personal
3. (c) The correct sentence should be read, 'Appollo was pronoun will be needed to give conditions later in the
worshipped as long as the Roman empire 'lasted' sentence, there must be a he or one in the sentence.
therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. The reason The noun cannot be in the second person but has to be
being Apollo was worshipped till the Roman empire in the third person because Anyone refers to an
was there therefore 'lasted' fits in best, the other two unknown third person.
options was continued or ruled are incorrect. 23. (b) would is a modal and its use here is unnecessary. There
4. (e) 5. (e) 6. (b) 7. (b) is a would have in the second part of the sentence but
8. (c) Leniency is not the grammatically correct word to be it should not be repeated in the first one, because the
used the correct word is lenient and the only answer use of would have is done as a possibility of an affect
of something done in past. So generally would have
choice which uses this word is option (c).
will be followed by a past perfect verb.
9. (d) None of the given answer choices fit in correctly as
24. (b) 25. (e)
some or the other grammatical error is present. The
26. (c) The given sentence is the statement of simple past tense.
correct form of sentence would be The government
Hence it should be worried instead of worries.
should launch such projects which should reverse the
27. (d) It should be took instead of take.
distractive cycle of flood and drought !
28. (e) The word think about refers to consider. Hence no
10. (a) Only the first answer choice fits correctly because the
correction is required.
sentence is in the past tense where the action that is of 29. (d) 30. (b)
setting up the committee is already over.
80 101 SPEED TEST
SPEED TEST 68 16. (a) He could work on the project as he is both interested in
it and familiar with the problems involved. Use parallel
1. (b) and his attention to detail. This sentence uses the structure with elements joined by a correlative
correlative pair "Bothand" to present two conjunction.
characteristics. Both characteristics should be in the 17. (b) Bajaj's sewing machine was considered to be very
same form, but one is a possessive pronoun + noun expensive and too complicated for general use.
(his determination), while the other is a phrase (the way 18. (a) either attend the college or to work in the family
he paid attention to detail). We need another possessive business. Correlative pairs such as eitheror,
pronoun + noun: "his attention to detail." neithernor, not onlybut also, and whetheror also
2. (a) and writing poetry. Gerund should be used to complete require parallelism. When you see one of these pairs in
the sentence. a sentence, check to make sure that the words or group
3. (d) and hardware engineering. This sentence uses the of words immediately following each conjunction are
correlative pair "Bothand" to present two in the same form.
characteristics. Both can be connected without using 19. (b) Ritik is not only an excellent actor but also a good
also. singer. Use parallel structure with elements joined by a
4. (a) or want to put one there. Both the parts of the sentence correlative conjunction.
must be written in the same grammatical form. 20. (b) We'll never forget the cruel, unsympathetic, short
5. (c) but sleep, fish and watch movies. Parallelism means tempered principal, who never had a kind word for
that the things in the list must be in the same anyone. Just like verbs, adverbs and adjectives in a list
grammatical form. The items in the list must be all must agree. Descriptive words are easy to replace with
nouns, all infinitives, all prepositional phrases, all wordy phrases.
gerunds, or all clauses. This sentence is in future tense,
so it is better to maintain the same tense. SPEED TEST 69
6. (a) and to have our identification ready. Use parallel 1. (e) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b)
structure with elements joined by coordinating
5. (d) 6. (e) 7. (c) 8. (a)
conjunctions.
7. (b) to wear shoes, or to eat in the living room. Use parallel 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (e)
structure with elements in lists or in a series. 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (d)
8. (b) Vikas stayed in hotels that were modern, comfortable 16 (b)
and less expensive. If a sentence contains elements 17. (d)
related in purpose or structure, be sure these elements 18. (e) Technology - Reshaping the Future of Education
are presented in the same grammatical form. 19. (e) None of these
9. (c) The quilt was of a bright color, with small stitches that 20. (a) Analyzing the strengths and weaknesses of a student
were neat and evenly spaced. If a sentence contains and designing an educational syllabus accordingly
elements related in purpose or structure, be sure these 21. (d) The education system is not guided by technology and
elements are presented in the same grammatical form. hence the pace of learning is slow
10. (b) Vicky said that he neither had the time nor the interest 22. (c)
in learning to drive. 23. (c) One who freely and actively participates in acquiring
11. (c) Madhuri learned to blend exotic spices, to substitute skills and knowledge in a systematic manner.
ingredients, and to set an attractive table. Parallelism 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b)
dictates that all the things Madhuri did must be in the 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (b)
same form.
SPEED TEST 70
12. (a) everybody: exercise equipment, aerobics classes, and
a swimming pool. 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d)
13. (a) we were amazed by the snowcapped mountains on one 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (e) 8. (d)
side and the beautiful lakes on the other. Correlative
expressions like both, and; not, but; not only, but also; 9. (e) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b)
either, or; etc, should be followed by the same 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (d)
grammatical construction. Many violations of this rule 16. (c) The author wants us to stop debating and implement
can be corrected by rearranging the sentence. policies.
14. (b) desserts are not only fattening, but they are also high in 17. (c) Stated in the first paragraph.
cholesterol. When making comparisons, the things you 18. (d) Uncertainty about payment is mentioned, hence option
compare should be couched in parallel structures (d).
whenever that is possible and appropriate. 19. (b) Refer to the second paragraph. State governments have
15. (c) subtle color contrasts, intriguing textures and a pleasing not implemented agreed plans to ensure repayment
balance. Use parallel structure with elements in lists or when due...
in a series. 20. (a) All the factors are mentioned in the passage.
SOLUTIONS 81
21. (a) Refer to the third paragraph. The Delhi model has SPEED TEST 72
worked. But it receives no public support.
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (e)
22. (d) Clearly, populist measures would go against financial
5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d)
wellbeing. 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (e)
23. (d) It is stated in the passage that the enforcement of the 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c)
reforms was inadequate. 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (e) 20. (a)
24. (c) Eminent British economists and political scientists have 21. (e) 22. (4) 23. (c) 24. (a)
strongly attacked the tradition of budget secrecy. 25. (d) 26. (e) 27. (b) 28. (c)
25. (e) It leads to the control of public expenditure in order to 29. (c) 30. (a)
set realistic taxation implications.
SPEED TEST 73
26. (b) He has presented the example of both the open budget
system and the secret budget system, practised by 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c)
various countries and has looked into all their aspects. 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d)
27. (d) 28. (e) 9. (e) 10. (c)
29. (a) Sir Richard Clarke was the originating genius of nearly 11. (d) into 12. (a) around
13. (b) translating 14. (c) practice
every important development in the British budgeting
15. (c) chance 16. (d) provided
techniques during the last two decades.
17. (a) other 18. (e) off
30. (b) 19. (e) hard 20. (b) equilibrium
SPEED TEST 71 21. (e) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (e)
25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (a)
Sol: (Qs. 1-5): Clearly C must be followed by D, which must be
further followed by the E as E reitrates the housing shortage and SPEED TEST 74
says that the real deficit will be even higher. D and E provide the 1. (d) [Ordinance = enactment;
statistical proof of the staggering task mentioned in C. So this Ordnance = military stores]
leads us to two options (b) and (d). Among them (b) seems to be 2. (e) The correct word in I is reverent and that in II is
more appropriate as B again emphasises on but is being said is A reverend.
and also that B cannot be the concluding statement of the [Reverent = respectful;
paragraph. Hence, ABCDE gives the correct arrangement. Reverend = respectable]
3. (a) The correct word in II should be Antique.
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d)
[Antic = odd, Antique = old]
5. (e) 4. (a) The correct word in II should be effected.
Sol. For (Qs.6-10) : The arrangement EABDC is correct. [effect = result, affect = to influence]
The paragraph is clearly taking about Goa state and hence E has 5. (c) [Wrapt = lost in something,
to be opening sentence is the paragraph. This is followed by A Rapt = enraptured]
where the phrase, is an impressive case in point, which is an 6. (d) [Meter = a measuring apparatus,
example of what is being said in E. A is followed by E as a similar Metre = unit of length]
agitation mentioned in B refers to the public activism mentioned 7. (d) [Urbane = courteous;
in A. B is further followed by D and C. Urban = pertaining to city]
6. (e) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 8. (a) The correct word in II should be jealous.
10. (c) [Zealous = full of zeal;
Jealous = envious]
Sol For. (Q.11-15): The required arrangement is ABDCE.
9. (a) The correct word in II should be migrants.
A is the opening sentence as is clear from the given options. A is
[Emigrant = one who leaves his country to settle in any
followed by B as the proposal mentioned in B is reffering to other country;
whatever has been talked in A. B is followed by D as D continues Immigrant = one who enters a country to settle there]
to talk about the response mentioned in B. Also note that B 10. (b) The correct word in I should be accede.
mentions a 2 : 1 response against the proposal which is also clear [Accede = agree; Exceed = surpass]
by the 68 : 31 mentioned in D. D is followed by C and C is followed 11. (b) Both (2) and (4), here Alter signifies make different;
by E. The other immigration organizations mentioned in E clearly cause a transformation and change denotes more or less
states that the previous sentence must have a statement from some the same. So does modify. On the contrary fix means
other organization, which is the immigration lawyers as mentioned restore by replacing a part or putting together what is
in C. torn or broken while gender means the properties that
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) distinguish organisms on the basis of their reproductive
15. (e) 16. (e) 17. (b) 18. (e) roles.
19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (b) 12. (c) Both (1) and (4) Cryptic and secret are synonyms to
23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) the key word mysterious which means of an obscure
27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (d) nature whereas peculiar and queer denotes something
odd.
82 101 SPEED TEST
13. (c) All (2), (3) and (4); primitive, Uninitiated and SPEED TEST 75
uninstructed are synonyms to naive which means
marked by or showing unaffected simplicity and lack 1. (b) You cannot repel (drive away) comments or criticism,
of guile or worldly experience while sophisticated only an attack or onslaught can be repelled. So, the
means having or appealing to those having worldly pair of most suited words would be citizens - onslaught
knowledge and refinement and savoir-faire. 2. (c) Since, there is a but between the two parts of the
14. (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4) options are more or less same sentence, the passive words should be antonyms. (a)
in the meaning. and (d), thus, get eliminated never - also do not fit the
sense of the sentence properly thus, not - always are
15. (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4); Disposition, inclination, Trend
the most suitable fillers for the given sentence.
and leaning are synonyms to the key word tendency.
3. (c) An analysis must be careful, it may or may not be
16. (c) Only (1), (2) and (4), all these three option Future, likely
detailed and final. It certainly should bot be random,
and potential are synonyms to the key word prospective
thus, (a) is eliminated of the remaining careful is the
whereas retrospective is just opposite. most appropriate choice for this sentence.
17. (a) Only (1), Insufficiency is the synonyms to the key word 4. (c) Graphologist is one who studies handwriting, while a
deficiency. All three options do not match with the key cosmetologist is a person skilled in the art of cosmetics,
word. Beagle is a species of dog and lapidary is a person
18. (b) (b) Both (2) and (4) i.e. Self-respect and self-regard skilled in polishing of stones.
are synonyms to the key word dignity while other 5. (b) The second blank could either be voice so (c) and (d)
options humility and humbleness do not match with are eliminated. Hypothetic means something that is
the key word. assumed and titular means a ruler without real authority.
19. (a) Only (1) disused is synonyms to obsolete. Other options So, titular - voice is the appropriate choice of words.
redundant, Superfluous and surplus have the different 6. (b) If the particles need no wounding then spanning is their
meaning. natural property, so the filler for second plant should
20. (b) Both (1) and (4), Observation and Expression are the be synonymous to natural or internal. Radical means
synonyms to the key word reflection while suspension drastic, intrinsic is inbuilt or internal, intangible is
and outburst differ in meaning. something that is not available in the physical form,
21. (a) consolidation is the synonyms to the word integration hypothetical is assumed. Thus, intrinsic will be the filler
whereas Intensifying, combination and Heightening do for the second gap.
not match with the key word. 7. (b) Apprehend means to arrest, nabbed means to catch,
22. (a) Only (4) Nutritious means of or providing nourishment. admonish is scolding mildly, the second gap could be
On the other hand, Tiring, toiling and Tasty do not filled by either option (a), (b) or (d) renowned means
correspond to the key word. popular for some talent or skill, thus, too can be
23. (c) Both (3) and (4) Obeisance means the act of obeying; eliminated. The choice is between (a) and (b), notorious
dutiful or submissive behaviour with respect to another means popular for wrong reason and is, therefore, a
person and respect denotes an attitude of admiration or more appropriate choice than famous.
esteem. Other options Accomplishment and Flexibility 8. (d) Spleen means anger, so, according to the meaning of
differ in meaning. the sentence, the object should be inanimate (lifeless)
24. (c) Only (1), (3) and (4), all these three options are 9. (a), (c) and (d) can be eliminated because intimidations is
synonyms to the key word obligation whereas demand a noun whereas we have to fill an adjective, inherent
has the different meaning. will give the sentence a positive meaning whereas it is
25. (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4), all the four options are close to negative towards compromise. (a) and (b) are available
one another in meaning. options because unselected and odious are both negative
26. (a) Only (3); Simpatico means easy to like; agreeable and words. Compromise and confusion, although, do not
is synonyms to the key word compatible. On the other fit well, so (a) will be the answer.
hand, other options have different meaning and do not 10. (d) A proposal is turned down not forced down. So, we
match with the key word. have to choose from (b) and (d) naivete means
27. (c) Both (1) and (2) i.e. Disrupt and Break up are equivalent inexperience and saphistry means clever reasoning done
words to interrupt whereas Examination and Progress to mislead. sophistry and turned are the appropriate
have the different meaning. fillers for the sentence.
28. (b) Both (1) and (4) Taunt and Tease are the same in 11. (b) Profound (Adjective) means having or showing great
meaning and synonyms to the key word tantalise while knowlege or insight (into a subject).
spoof and charade denotes a composition that imitates 12. (c) The sense in which the sentence intends to convey
or misrepresents somebody's style, usually in a requires that an antonym of word facts is used in the
humorous way. gap. As the word Projectons is most nearly opposite in
29. (e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4); all four options Deadlock, meaning to facts, so it is the right choice
Impasse, Standstill and Dead-end are more or less the 13. (e) Mitigate (Verb) means make (something) less severe,
same in meaning. violent or painful; moderate: mitigate somebodys
30. (a) Only (1) Rite means an established ceremony suffering anger, anxiety etc.
prescribed by a religion; any customary observance or 14. (c) Salubrious (Adjective) means (specially of the climate)
practice whereas all the three options do not conform health giving : the salubrious mountain air. so, the
to the key word ritual. answer is (c).
SOLUTIONS 83
15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 21. (e) This sentence is grammatically correct. None of the
19. (e) 20. (c) 21. (d) 22. (e) suggested changes will improve it. So, the option (e) is
23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (b) the correct answer.
27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a) 22. (c) The correct sentence should read, 'Apollo was
worshipped as long as the Roman empire 'lasted'
SPEED TEST 76 therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. The reason
1. (d) As a study report is not a legal document it is not binding being Apollo was worshipped till the Roman empire
on anyone. Sentence represents study in a lighter vein was there: therefore 'lasted' fits in best, the other two
so it must not be taken seriously but as the study is options was continued or ruled are incorrect.
done there must be some purpose of it and results at 23. (c) Leniency is not the grammatically correct word to be
least is taken note of. This logic brings to the option used; the correct word is lenient and the only answer
(d) which is correct part to complete the incomplete choice which uses this word is option (c).
sentence of passage. 24. (b) The correct answer choice is (b) because it expresses
2. (a) Only option (a) seems to be logical for the context. As that the action is complete, i.e. our foreign exchange
subsequent part of passage shows how it was a problem reserves have increased substantially. The sentence is
to bail out one and to deny other the same resources. the form of present perfect tense. The 1st answer choice
Option (d) and (e) are out of place. would have fit in if the action would have begun in
3. (a) It is only logical option other options do not follow past and still continued, i.e. present perfect continuous
any logic. If income is less than expenditure is less than tense.
income than there is definitely a loss. 25. (a) Only the answer choice (a) fits correctly because the
4. (a) As the passage says that risk aggregation is new at the sentence is in simple present tense and if will be or
beginning of passage it can be inferred that most banks would be is used it becomes a sentence which uses
are yet to conceptualize it in their processes. future tense.
Hence option (a) is correct. Option (c) is farfetched 26. (c)
conclusion. Option (d) is repetition of what is being 27. (c) The first blank could be filled either by appeal or caters
stated in passage earlier. So it can not be the answer. because inhibits means prevents or restraint and panders
5. (a) Passage is about nonresident Indian entity and its tax means satisfying vulgar tastes. So, we have option
deduction. Other options are not in the context of between (a) and (c) archetypal means of a particular
passage as they talk about the things which are not given kind while eclectic means choosing from various
or can be inferred from the passage. source. Electric goes well with the meaning of the
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (e) sentence, so, the proper choice is (c).
10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 28. (b) 'Ways' is the best choices among the four as 'ways to
14. (c) 15. (a) help the paralysed people' is the right usage. Further
16. (c) The passage talks of the consequences of inflation and we need to bypass the damaged or blocked nerves.
what is impacted the most by its consequences is the 29. (b) The second blank could either be voice so (c) and (d)
poor, people without social security and pensioners. are eliminated. Hypothetic means something that is
Hence, (c) is the right answer. assumed and titular means a ruler without real authority.
17. (e) seems to be the only logical option as the passage in-
So, titular - voice is the appropriate choice of words.
fers credible fiscal consolidation that may only be ac-
30. (b) If the particles need no wounding then spanning is their
companied with higher capital outlay. Other options
natural property, so the filler for second plant should
are not relevant to the context.
be synonymous to natural or internal. Radical means
18. (b) As the passage tells about the Reserve Bank undertak-
drastic, intrinsic is inbuilt or internal, intangible is
ing several initiative to better banking experience for
something that is not available in the physical form,
the disabled and common man, it has gone for faster
grievances redressal mechanism. Other options are just hypothetical is assumed. Thus, intrinsic will be the filler
redundant. for the second gap.
19. (c) As the sentence preceding to the blank cites the invest- 31. (a) scared 32. (e) risk
ment cycle, the option (c) seems to be the most logical. 33. (c) damaged 34. (b) express
Other options do not fit in the blank. 35. (d) real 36. (d) prevention
20. (a) As the passage talks of security features of banknotes, 37. (b) discomfiture 38. (b) ignored
it may possibly tell about the challenge of counterfeit 39. (a) doesnt 40. (b) serious
notes; hence option (a) is the correct. Other options do 41. (e) No error
not conform to the blank. 42. (d) Here, levied additional monthly charges on consumers
is used.
SPEED TEST 77 43. (a) Here, Despite curfew is used.
1. (e) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 44. (d) Here, Has been doubled is used.
5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (c)
9. (a) 10. (e) 11. (c) 12. (c) 48. (c) Here, arise when they are not is used.
13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a) 49. (e) No error
17. (e) 18. (e) 19. (b) 20. (c) 50. (b)
84 101 SPEED TEST
SPEED TEST 78 Hence, the size of the ROM is 2n 22n
In the question, n = 4
1. (a) Hence, 2 4 224
2. (b) PROLOG is considered to be an important logic 8 28 23 28
programming language and is used in AI for natural 2 210 2 k bit
language processing and dealing with expert systems. 23. (b) Effective access time = p page fault time + (1 p)
3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) memory access time
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a) where P = page fault rate
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c)
15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 1 1
eA = 10 106 + 1 - 20 109
19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (c) 6 6
10 10
23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (b)
= 10 + 20 + 109 20 103 = 10 + 20 109 20
27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (c)
3
SPEED TEST 79 10 + 20 @ 30ns
24. (d)
1. (c) 2. (d) 25. (c) As given, basic RAM is 32 k 1 and we have to design
3. (b) Pipelining is a technique to build fast processors. It a RAM of 256 k 8.
allows the execution of multiple instruction by Therefore, number of chips required
overlapping them. In an assembly unit every stage has = 256 k 8/(32 k 1)
one and only one activity to do. It keeps repeating them = 245 1024 8/32 1024 1)
again and again. In the same way in a instruction (Multiplying and dividing by 1024)
pipeline at every clock cycle one particular step of = 64 = 8 8
multiple instruction will be performed Every instruction Means, 64 = 8 parallel lines 8 serial RAM chips.
has multiple stages. Say at the first clock cycle first 26. (c) The interrupt register is checked after finishing the
step of instruction1 is performed At the second clock execution of the current instruction. At this time, a CPU
cycle the second step of instruction1 and 1st step of generally handles an interrupt by the execution of an
instruction2 would be performed and so on. So interrupt service routine.
pipelining is called instruction prefetch. So the option 27. (c) The seek latency is not linearly proportional to seek
is (b) distance due to the higher capacity of tracks on the
4. (c) 6. (b) 7. (e) 8. (d) periphery of the latter. The higher capacity of the tracks
9. (d) There are three types of interrupts. They are is responsible for the presence of this certain amount
1. External interrupts of time is required for this cells to reach the read-write
2. Internal interrupts head so that data transfer can take place.
3. Software interrupt 28. (b) 7 bits are required if there are 128 lines. The reason
External interrupts come from I/O devices. Internal behind is that 128 is 27.
interrupts are from illegal or wrong use of an instruction Now, each line is of 64 words or 26 words.
or data A software interrupt is initiated by executing Hence, number of bits required is 6 bit as 64 or 26.
an instruction. As per the given, a 20 bit address is generated for a
10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) word in main memory, so bits required for tag
14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (a) = 20 (7 + 6) = 20 13 = 7 bit.
18. (b) 29. (a) The formula used is
19. (c) A cache is a simple example of exploiting temporal Total disk size is given by = Number of surfaces
locality, because it is a specially designed faster but Number of tracks Number of sectors Capacity of
smaller memory area, generally used to keep recently each sector.
referenced data and data near recently referenced data, Therefore from the given data, we get
which can lead to potential performance increases. Total disk size = 16 128 256 512 byte
20. (b) = 28 220 = 28 megabyte = 256 MB
21. (c) Register remaining is done is pipelined processors to Total number of sectors = 16 128 256 byte
handle certain kinds of hazards. = 219 byte
22. (d) The normal size of ROM is n 2n 30. (a) Each address is multiple of 3 as the starting address is
\ Now, we are multiplying two n-bit numbers. 300 and is each instruction consists of 24 bit, i.e., 3
So, the resultant has 2n bit. byte.
SOLUTIONS 85
Thus, in the given options the valid counter will be the 9. (a)
one which is the multiple of 3. Out of the options we 10. (d)
can see that only 600 satisfies the condition. 11. (c) An object can not belong to two classes.
Therefore, it is 600. 12. (d) Design phase included the design of whole software
including data, architectural, interface and procedural
SPEED TEST 80 design.
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 13. (c) Writing the whole program in FORTRAN takes 100
5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) man-day, remaining 1% code requires 4 man-day. If it
9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) is completed in 13 days then 104/13 = 8 programmers
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b) it required
17. (e) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (d) 14. (b) The first case takes 99+10=109 man-day. The second
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b) case require 100+4=104 man-day. Percentage = (109-
25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 104)100/100 = 5
29. (b) 30. (e)SPEED TEST 81
15. (e) These three constructs are sufficient to program any
SPEED TEST 81 algorithm. Moreover, as far as possible single entry
single exit control constructs are used
1. (a)
16. (a) Data design is the first and most important design
2. (c) A good approximation to the optimal algorithm is based
activity, where the main issue is select the appropriate
on the observation that pages that have been heavily
used in the last few instructions will probably be heavily data structure.
used again in the next few. Conversely, pages that have 17. (c) The objects contains attributes, names and operations
not been used for ages will probably remain unused for as well.
a long time This idea suggests a realizable algorithm: 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (c)
when a page fault occurs, throw out the page that has 22. (d) System integration is the bringing together of the
been unused for the longest time This strategy is called component subsystems into one system and ensuring
LRU (Least Recently Used) paging. that the subsystems function together as a system. In
3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c)
information technology, systems integration is the
7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) process of linking together different computing systems
15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) and software applications physically or functionally,
19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (d) to act as a coordinated whole
23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (a) 23. (c) The spiral model is based on continuous refinement of
27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (b) key products for requirements definition and analysis,
system and software design, and implementation (the
SPEED TEST 82
code). At each iteration around the cycle, the products
1. (c) The program cannot access the private members of a are extensions of an earlier product. This model uses
class in any way. many of the same phases as the waterfall model, in
2. (d) essentially the same order, separated by planning, risk
3. (c) assessment, and the building of prototypes and
4. (d) The management of software development is dependent simulations
upon four factors : People, Product, Process and 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d)
Project. 28. (c) 29. (e) 30. (b)
5. (a) Software development requires good managers. The
manager who can understand the requirements of SPEED TEST 83
peopl(e) Hence , people are the crucial and criticle
1. (e) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b)
during software development. 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b)
6. (d) Capability maturity model is not a software life cycle model 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (a)
7. (c) Build and fix model has 2 phases one is " build " and 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a)
other is " fix " . 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b)
8. (c) Waterfall model does not accommodate any change 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (a)
that's why this model is used in those situations where 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b)
requirements are well understood 29. (d) 30. (c)
86 101 SPEED TEST
SPEED TEST 84 Address Type Name
1. (c) Time and space 00000020 a T_BIT

2. (b) Counting the number of key operations 00000040 a F_BIT
3. (a) Counting the maximum memory needed by the 00000080 a I_BIT
20000004 t irqvec
algorithm
20000008 t fiqvec
4. (d) Null case
2000000c t InitReset
5. (d) Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all
20000018 T _main
6. (a) When Item is somewhere in the middle of the array
20000024 t End
7. (a) O(n)
20000030 T AT91F_US3_CfgPIO_useB
8. (b) O(log n) 2000005c t AT91F_PIO-CfgPeriph
9. (c) O(n2) 200000b0 T main
10. (c) 20000120 T AT91F_DBGU_Printk
11. (a) The elements are popped from the top of the stack. 20000190 t AT91F_US_TxReady
12. (a) A simple version of an LSD radix sort can be achieved 200001c0 t AT91F_US_PutChar
using queues as buckets. 200001f8 T AT91F_SpuriousHandler
13. (a) For sorting 200 names bubble sort makes 200 199/2 20000214 T AT91F_DataAbort
= 19900 comparisons. The time needed for 1 20000230 T AT91F_FetchAbort
comparison is 200 sec. In 800 sec it can make 80,000 2000024c T AT91F_Undef
comparisons. We have to fine n, such that n(n 1)/2 = 20000268 T AT91F_UndefHandler
80,000. From this n is approximately 400. 20000284 T AT91F_LowLevellnit
14. (b) In the best case quick sort algorithm makes n log(n) 200002e0 t AT91F_DBGU_CfgPIO
comparisons so 1000 x log (1000) = 9000 comparisons, 2000030c t AT91F_PIO-CfgPeriph
which takes 100 sec. To sort 100 names a minimum of 20000360 t AT91F_US_Configure
100 log (100) = 600 comparisons are needed. This takes 200003dc t AT91F_US_SetBaudrate
100 x 600/9000 = 6.7 sec. 2000041c t AT91F_US_Baudrate
15. (d) Five trees are 200004ec t AT91F_US_SetTimeguard
2000051c t AT91F_PDC_Open
2000059c t AT91F_PDC_Disable Rx
200005c8 t AT91F_PDC_Disable Tx
200009a4 A _bss_start_
200009a4 A _edata
16. (a) Load factor is the ratio number of records that are 200009a4 A _end
currently present and the total number of records that 25. (b) Statement 1 True: Parsing algorithms exists for some
can be present. If the load factor is less free space will of the programming languages whose complexities are
be more. This means probability of collision is less. So even less than q (n ^ 3).
Statement 2 False: A programming language allowing
the search time will be less.
recursion cannot be implemented with static storage
17. (b) It can be proved by induction that a binary tree with n allocation.
leaf nodes will have total of 2n 1 nodes. So number Statement 3 False: L-attributed definition can be
of non-leaf nodes is (2n 1) n = n 1 evaluated in framework of bottom up parsing.
18. (b) Statement 4 True: Code improvement can be done at both
19. (c) He scans throught the rest of the cards and pick the one source language level and intermediate language level.
with least value and places it next to the point till which 26. (d) Code optimizations are generally carried out on
he has already sorted the cards intermediate code. This is done to convert the source
code to the machine language of the target machine on
20. (c) the basis of back end tools. It enhances the portability
21. (b) Through Linked list binary search can be performed of the compilers to the other target processors.
efficiently. 27. (d) Statement 1 True: A programming language which
22. (a) Finite state automata. does not permit global variables of any kind has no
23. (c) the lexical analysis of program. nesting of procedures/functions, but permits recursion
can be implemented with static storage allocation.
24. (b) Symbol table is a data structure in a compiler. It was
Statement 2 False: It is not necessary to have nesting
devised for the purpose that it can be used to manage of procedures/function in the programming language
information about variable and their attributes. being implemented when activation records are
Example Symbol table. arranged using multi level access link.
SOLUTIONS 87
Statement 3 True: Recursion in programming The tester does not ever examine the programming code
language cannot be implemented with dynamic storage and does not need any further knowledge of the program
allocation. other than its specifications.
Statement 4 : False Nesting of procedures/functions 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c)
and recursion can be implemented with a stack based 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (a)
allocation scheme for activation. 24. (c)
Statement 5 True: The programming languages which 25. (c) The start and stop bits are used to synchronize the serial
permit a function to return a function as its result cannot recivers.
be implemented with a stack based storage allocation 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a)
scheme for activation records. 30. (a) 31. (b) 32. (d)
28. (a) Top-down parsing is a technique to analyze unknown 33. (d) Since conversion from regular to postfix and similarly
data relationship. This is done by hypothesizing general from regular to infix is based on stack concept so it's a
parser tree structures and then considering whether the stack application.
known fundamental structures are compatible with the 34. (d)
hypothesis that was made earlier. 35. (d) When simplified with Boolean Algebra (x + y)(x + z)
Recursive descent parser is a top down parser. simplifies to x + yz
29. (b) The grammar is a left recursive grammar. The predictive [(x + y) (x + z)] = xx + xz + xy + yz = x + xz
parser does not go hand in hand with left recursive grammar. + xy + yz (Qxx = x)
30. (b) Number of states is equal to SLR and LALR. = x(1+z) + xy + yz = x + xy + yz {Q(1+z) = 1}
LR have more number of states then the two due to the = x(1 + y) + yz = x + yz {Q(1+y) = 1}]
look ahead. 36. (b) ECL is the fastest logic family of all logic families.
Let the number of states for SLR (1) be n1. (High speeds are possible in ECL because the
Number of states for LR(1) be n2. transistors are used in difference amplifier
Number of states for LALR(1) be n3. configuration, in which they are never driven into
Then, n1 = n3 < n2. saturation and thereby the storage time is eliminate(d)
37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b)
SPEED TEST 85 40. (c) Loader is a program that places programs into memory
and prepares them for execution.
1. (a) The instruction ADI adds some content to the 41. (b)
accumulator. It is an immediate addressing mode 42. (a)
instruction. The instruction STA stores the contents of 43. (a) The digital logic family which has the lowest
the accumulator in the particular memory location propagation delay time is ECL
specified as operand (Lowest propagation delay time is possible in ECL
CMA instruction takes complement of the contents of because the transistors are used in difference
the accumulator. amplifier configuration, in which they are never driven
SUB instruction subtracts the contents of the register into saturation and thereby the storage time is
to the contents of the accumulator. eliminated).
2. (d) 3. (c) 44. (c) Assembly program consists of three types of statements.
4. (a) X.25 is a connection oriented protocol. 1. Imperative 2. Declarative
5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 3. Assembler directives
9. (d) The question asks about the number of bits in the 45. (b) The Floyd-Warshall algorithm (also known as Floyds
physical address. The word size is 1024. So, the number algorithm, Roy-Warshall algorithm, Roy-Floyd
of bits required to calculate the offset into each page = algorithm, or the WFI algorithm) is a graph analysis
210=1024=10 bits. algorithm for finding shortest paths in a weighted graph
So for 32 frames(25) of 1024 words each,we would (with positive or negative edge weights) and also for
require a total of 5+10 bits = 15 bits. Therefore the finding transitive closure of a relation R.
option is (D) 46. (c) Only element 70 violates the rule Hence, it must be
10. (d) shifted to its proper position.
11. (b) The number of gates for the different classification are Step1: swap(10, 70)
as follows. Step2: swap(40, 70)
Small Scale Integration(SSI) - <10 Hence, only 2 interchanges are required
Medium Scale Integration(MSI) - between 10 to 1000 47. (c)
Large Scale Integration(LSI) - >1000 48. (b) Since it is a sorted array, we can use binary search to identify
Very Large Scale Integration(VLSI) - >100000 the position of the first occurence of the given integer in
So the answer is option (B) (logn) steps. If at all this integer repeats, its appearance has
12. (a) to be continuous because the array is sorted.
13. (d) Negative numbers can be represented in signed 49. (d) As there are 4 6 = 24 chips so (as 25 > = 24) 5 bits are
magnitude form, or '1' complement form or '2''s required to address them.
complement form. So the option is (D) in each RAM number of bytes = (8k 4)/8 = 4k
14. (a) This is the disadvantage of waterfall model. so to represent 4k we need (as 212 = 4096) 12 bits
15. (b) In a black box testing the tester only knows the inputs Therefore to represent total structure we need 12 + 5 =
and what would be the expected outcome, he does not 17 bits.
know how the program arrives at those outputs. 50. (c)
88 101 SPEED TEST
1. (e) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 1. (e) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (e)

5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (e) 8. (e) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (e) 8. (a)
9. (e) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (c)
9. (c) 10. (e) 11. (d) 12. (e)
13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (e)
13. (e) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c)
17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (c)
17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (e) 20. (c)
21. (e) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d)
21. (e) 22. (e) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (e) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (e)
29. (d) 30. (d) 31. (e) 32. (c)
33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (b) SPEED TEST 91
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d)

SPEED TEST 87 5. (d) 6. (e) 7. (e) 8. (c)
9. (e) 10. (e) 11. (e) 12. (a)
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 13. (e) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b)
5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (d)
9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (a) 21. (c) 22. (e) 23. (e) 24. (a)
13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (d) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a)
17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (c) 29. (c) 30. (e) 31. (c) 32. (d)
33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (e)
37. (d)
25. (e) 26. (a) 27. (e) 28. (c)
29. (c) 30. (d) SPEED TEST 92
1. (e) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a)

SPEED TEST 88
5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a)
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 9. (e) 10. (e) 11. (d) 12. (a)
5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (e)
17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (d)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a)
13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (e)
25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c)
17. (b) 18. (e) 19. (e) 20. (e) 29. (e) 30. (b) 31. (e) 32. (c)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (e) 24. (c) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (e) 36. (d)
25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (e) 28. (c) 37. (c) 38. (e) 39. (e) 40. (b)
29. (d) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (d) 41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (c)
45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (d)
33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c)
49. (c) 50. (c)

1. (b) 2. (e) 3. (e) 4. (e) 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b)
5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (d)
9. (a) 10. (d) 11 (a) 12. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b)
13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a)
13. (e) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (d)
17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (c)
17. (e) 18. (c) 19. (d) 19. (c)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (b)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (e) 24. (e) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (b)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (a)
29. (e) 30. (a) 31. (b) 33. (b) 34. (c)
SOLUTIONS 89
17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)
SPEED TEST 94
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d)
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b)
25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a)
5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b)
29. (a) 30. (a) 31. (b) 32. (a)
9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (b)
33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (b)
13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (c)
17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21 (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) SPEED TEST 98
25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (a)
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b)
29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (b)
5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b)
33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (c)
9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b)
37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (d)
13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b)
17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)
SPEED TEST 95 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b)
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a)
5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (b)
9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b) 33. (b)
13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (d)

SPEED TEST 99
17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b) 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b)
25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a)
29. (a) 30. (a) 31. (d) 32. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (c)
33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (a) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a)
37. (b) 38. (d) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (a)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (b)
SPEED TEST 96
29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (a)
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (d)
5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b)
9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (a)
13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (d) SPEED TEST 100
17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a)
25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (b)
29. (a) 30. (c) 31. (b) 32. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (B)
33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (b)
37. (b) 38. (b) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b)
25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d)
SPEED TEST 97 29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (d)
33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (a)
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b)
5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (a)
9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (c)
13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (d) 49. (d) 50. (c)
90 101 SPEED TEST
SPEED TEST 101
9
0.5 ? 4.78 1255 3.24 440 18. (c) Number of female lectures in Zoology = 22% of 1600
1. (d) = + = 59.989 + 14.256 16
100 100 100 = 48
74.245 100 Required difference =198 48 = 150

\ ? = = 14849
0.5 19. (a) Total number of male lecture in university
(128.5 64 ) + (13.8 465 ) 3 5
2. (d) ?= 1
25 = 21%160 + 18% of 1600 + 12% of 1600 +
7 8 4
8224 + 6417
= = 585.64
25 1 9 7
13% 1600 + 14% of 1600 + 22 of 1600
8 14 16
1
3. (a) (22)3.7 (23)12 (25)1 = 144 + 180 + 48 + 26 + 144 + 154 = 696
( 23 )
-3
14 5 21 3
= (22)3.7 (23)1.2 + (2)5 (2)9 = (2)7.4 36 + 5 9 = (2)0.2. 20. (a) Respective ratio = 1600 :1600
100 14 100 7
4. (b) (?)2 = 4056 7776
=5:9
\ ?= 31539456 = 5616
21. (c) Time taken by Punit, Vinit and Ajit to be together at the
5. (d) starting point
6. (e) 95? = 953.7 951.0
= LCM of 45.54 and 36 seconds
95? = 953.7 1 = 952.7 ? = 2.7
3 = 3 45, 54, 36
7. (b) ? = 10000 + 1892 = 100 + 1135.2 = 1235.2 1230
5
3 15, 18, 12
0.0004 2 5, 6, 4
8. (c) 36 = 4 36 = 144 145
0.0001
5, 3, 2
140 12300
9. (a) ? 140% of 12300 = = 17220 17000
100 \ LCM = 3 3 2 5 3 2 = 540 seconds
10 (c) ? 3739 + 160 30 = 3739 + 4800 = 8539 8200 x
22. (d) Let the original fraction be .
11. (e) The series is l + 1, 2 + 2, 3 + 3, ... So 8 is wrong. y
Beginning with 8, we get 20 as third term. According to the question,
12. (e) The series is l + 12, 2+ 22, 3+ 32 ....
450 9
13. (b) The series is 2 + 9, 2 + 11, 2 + 13 .... x x x 9 8 4
14. (d) The series is 1 1, 2 + 2, 2 2, 3 + 3, .... 100 = 9 2 = 9 = =
400 22 y 4 22 y 9 22 11
15. (d) The series is 3 + 1, 4 + 1, 5 + 1, .... y
100
16. (d) Total number of lecturers (male + female) in Hindi = 12% of
1600 = 192
Total number of female lecturers in Mathematics & Chemistry Men Hours/day Days
together 9 7 15
23. (a)
4 7
= 21% of 1600 = 192 + 13% of 1600 = 182 = 374 6 9 x
7 8
192 Where x = number of days
Required percentage = 100 51%
374
17. (c) Total number of lecturers in Zoology 6 :9
= 22% of 1600 = 352 \ : :15 : x
9 :5
Total number of male lecture in Chemistry and Education
6 9 x = 9 7 15
1 5
13% of 1600 + 18% of 1600 = 26 + 180 = 206
8 8 9 7 15 35 1
x= = = 17 days
Required difference = 352 206 = 146 69 2 2
SOLUTIONS 91
24. (b) Nitin will take rest seven times i.e. 70 minutes in covering 37. (b) Suppose the distance is 192 km (as LCM of 64 and 48 = 192)
150 k.m. 192
Time taken without stoppage = = 3 hrs.
Time taken to cover 150 km at 15 kmph 64
192
150 Time taken with stoppage = = 4 hrs.
= = 10 hours 48
15
The bus stops for 1 hr in every 4 hrs with stoppage
= Total time = 10 hours + 70 minutes journey.
= 11 hours 10 minutes 1
25. (a) Total balls = 4 + 6 + 7 = 17 Stoppage time per hour = hr
4
\ n(S) = 17C3 = 680 = 15 minutes
Two red balls can be selected from four red balls in 4C2 = 6 38. (c) LCM of 36 sec, 48 sec and 42 sec = 1008 sec
ways, and the third ball can be selected from the remaining \ After 1008 seconds, they will be together at the starting
13 balls in 13C1 = 13 ways. point.
39. (b) Total correct questions for getting 60% grade
13 6 39
\ P(E) = = 60
680 340 = 250 = 150
100
48 40% of 125 = 50 questions
26. (e) Approximate percentage = 100 = 87.71 86% \ x% of 125 = 150 50 = 100 questions
56
100 100
27. (d) Required difference = 120 12 108 x= = 80
125
28. (a)
Required percentage = 80%
29. (b) R ratio = 12 : 40 = 3 : 10 Note: This can be solved by alligation method quickly. Try
30. (c) it.
31. (d) Average number of female teachers 40. (c) Total income of the four-membered family
= 4 15430 = ` 60520
125 + 105 + 120 + 80 + 100 530 Total income of three family members
= = = 106 = 3 14660 = ` 43980
5 5
Monthly income of the married daughter
32. (d) Reqd. number = 60520 43980 = ` 16540
68 55 100
=175 + 180 41. (c) CP of Karthik = 10500 = 7500
= 119 + 99 = 218 140
100 100
33. (a) Reqd. ratio 100
\ CP of Prathik = 7500 = ` 6250
120
35 20
320 : 80 = 112:16 = 7:1 85
100 100 42. (d) Total no. of valid votes = 15200 = 12920
100
34. (e) Reqd. difference
No. of valid votes the other candidate got
35 70 45
100 : 290 = 35 ~ 203 = 168 = 12920 = 5814
100 100 100
9
35. (c) Reqd. % 43. (c) Age of Farah = x = ( x - 8 )
7

= 250
74
+ 105
40 100 9 ( x - 8)
% x= 7x = 9x 72 2x = 72
100 100 355 7
(18500 + 4200) 22700 72

= % = % = 63 94% x= = 36 years
355 355 2
36
= 64%(App.) Present age of her daughter = = 6 years
6
36. (d) Let the numbers A, B, C, D and E be x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6 and \ Age of daughter 3 years ago
x + 8 respectively. = 6 3 = 3 years
Now, A + C = 146 44. (e) SI = ` 15,300
x + x + 4 = 146 2x = 142 x = 71 Time = 4 years
\ Value of E = 71 + 8 = 79 Principal = ` 45,000
92 101 SPEED TEST
61. (c) Using statement I :
15300 100
Rate of interest = = 8.5% Q > R, S > T > P
45000 4
Q is the heaviest.
8.5
4 Using statement II :
CI = 45000 1 + - 1 Q > R > S, T, P
100
Q is the heaviest.
= 45000 [1.385 1] = 45000 0.385 62. (b) Using statement I :
= `17325 `17364 A A
C E C
D
5 4
45. (d) 1248 - 1150
6 5 E B D B
We cannot determine if all the friends are facing the centre.
= 1040 920 = 120
46. (b) The maximum growth is 200 for two years 2004 & 2005. % Using statement II.
A
200
growth is maximum for 2004 because between 100 & D C
400
E B
200
100 the previous one is greater.. A is facing outside and C is facing the centre of circle. So, all
600 friends are not facing the centre.
47. (d) Required ratio is
63. (c) Using statement I :
145 : 205 = 29 : 41
46, 000
48. (c) Average exports = = 657.14 Day Subject
7
Monday Botany
33
49. (e) Required % = 100 72% T uesday Mathematics
46
Wednesday Physics
250 Thursday Chemistry
50. (a) % increase = 100 = 50%
500 Friday Zoology
(51-53) : The word and number arrangement machine rearranges the
input with the logic that in step I, it shifts the largest number Chemistry is not taught on Wednesday.
to the left-most place and the last word coming in English Using statement II :
alphabetical series to the rightmost place. In step II, it shifts
the smallest number to the leftmost place and the next word Day Subject Subjec t
(in reverse alphabetical order) to the rightmost. In step III Monday Botany/Zoology Botany/Zoology
2nd largest number is shifted to the leftmost place and so on.
Tuesday Mathematics Chemistry
Input : fun 89 at the 28 16 base camp 35 53 here 68
Step I : 89 fun at 28 16 base camp 35 53 here 68 the Wednesday Physics Mathematics
Step II : 16 89 fun at 28 base camp 35 53 68 the here Thursday Chemistry Physics
Step III : 68 16 89 at 28 base camp 35 53 the here fun Friday Zoology/Botany Zoology/Botany
Step IV : 28 68 16 89 at base 35 53 the here fun camp
Step V : 53 28 68 16 89 at 35 the here fun camp base 64. (c) From statement I :
Step VI : 35 53 28 68 16 89 the here fun camp base at At 9 : 30 the minute and the hour hands will make an angle
51. (e) 52. (c) 53. (d) alightly more than 90. So now, the time is not
9 O clock.
Sol. (54-59) :
From Statement II : At 8 : 45, the hour and the minute
Row 1. P V S T R Q hands would coincide with each other. So, time now is not 9
Row 2. C F A E B D O clock.
54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (b) 65. (d) From statement I :
57. (b) 58. (c) B is the father of M and T.
B is the grandfather of F.
59. (e) There is a difference of one in all the rest. The gender of F is not known.
60. (a) Trying option (a) From statement II :
P>Q=RT<S There is no mention of B.
From both the statements.
P>R The gender of F is not known.
R < S As Q = R so Q < S 66. (d) R K ... (i); K < M ... (ii); M = J ... (iii) Combining these, we
Both the expressions are true in option (a) get R K < M < J
SOLUTIONS 93
Hence J > K and I follows. 82. (b) Some banks are academics = All academics are schools = I +
Also, M < R and II follows. A = I Some banks are schools. This does not lead us to I. II
follows because All institutes are school.
Again, R < J and III follows.
83. (a) No force is torque + All torques are powers = E + A = O* =
67. (c) Z = M ... (i); M > K ... (ii); K < F ... (iii) Some powers are not forces. Hence the possibility of II is
Combining these, we get Z = M > K < F ruled out. All energies are forces + No force is torque = A + E
From this F and Z cant be compared. Neither can F and M. = E = No energy is torque + All torques are powers = E + A
= O* = Some powers are not energies. This does not rule out
Hence, I and III do not follow. But K < Z and II follows.
the possibility of I.
68. (b) B < J ... (i); J W... (ii); W > M ... (iii) 84. (b) It follows from the solution to the above question. But I does
Combining these, we get B < J W > M. not follow unless we know that All forces are energies.
Hence M < J and I follows. 85. (b) There being no negative statements, the possibility
But W and B cant be compared. Neither can B and M. (conclusion II) exists but not certainty (conclusion I).
Hence II and III do not follow.
69. (e) V H ... (i); H = F ... (ii); F E ... (iii) (86 - 87) : M 3m O
Combining these, we get.
V H = F E. Hence V F. 5m 5m
Which means either I (F = V) or II (F < V) follows.
Again, E H. Hence III follows. 3m
P Q
70. (a) W > T ... (i); T N ... (ii); N D ... (iii)
No comparisons can be made. 2m
N
Sol. (71-75) :
Q. No. i ii /(A) iii iv v /(B) Ans
26 P P P P P (a)
27 P (P ) P P P (d) North
NW NE
28 P P P - P (c)
29 P (P ) P P P (d)
30 P P P P (b) West East
76. (c) According to the advertisement given in statement is meant SW SE

to influence the buyers and thus increasing sale of the South
television. Hence, both assumption I and II are implicit.
77. (d) Only I and II are implicit. As incentive is an award for the
punctuality and sincerity and will work as a motivation force. 4m
86. (e) 3m
This will definitely increase the productivity of the company.
However, profitability cant be predicted definitely as it
depends on other factors.
78. (a) According to statement and given assumptions, we can say 5m
none of the given assumptions is implicit.
79. (a) State Governments decision to increase octroi by 5% is based 3m
on the assumption that the assumption that the State
P
Government is competent to implement the decision and
2m
also get the consent the Central Government. The hike is in
view of earning additional amount. Hence, all are implicit. N
80. (b) Only II and III are implicit as Ashok has decided to keep a
margin of 2 hr in advance assuming that he may be able to
Points R, P and Q are in a straight line.
reach the airport will before 6:00 pm and also get adequate
time to search for a vehicle too go to the airport. 87. (b) Points O is 7 metres towards North of Point N.
Sol. (8185) : +1 +1
88. (a) O G E N
81. (b) All institutes are academic. All academics are schools = A + A
1 -1
= A = All institute are schools. Hence I does not follow. Some D F B P
institute are banks (I) conversion Some banks are Similarly.
institute (I) + All institutes are academics = I + A =\ I = Some
+1 -1
banks are academics. Hence the possibility of II exists. A K L D
94 101 SPEED TEST
moves downwards (along the vertical line) and one it reaches
+1 +2 +3 +4
89. (d) T J N A G the lowermost position, it moves to the topmost position in
+2 +3 +4 +5 the next step. In the LHS element, the square moves up and
E U K R H
down sequentially. It also turns to the other side of the vertical
line in every second step. In the RHS element, the arrowhead
90. (b) G R I M R M O S
+1 moves from right to left and once it reaches the leftmost
position, it moves to the rightmost position in the next step.
+1
The arrowhead also gets laterally inverted in every second
+1 step. In the lower element, the horizontal line segment remains
+1 unchanged while the other line segment moves from right to
left and once it reaches the leftmost position, it moves to the
D U S K L Q P I rightmost position in the next step. It also shifts to the other
+1 side of the horizontal line in each step.
+1 100. (c) In each step, the symbols in the row at the middle position
+1 interchange positions and the symbol that reaches the RHS
+1 position gets replaced by a new symbol. In the other row, the
elements move one space to the right and the rightmost element
Similarly, moves to the leftmost position in each step. Also, this row
changes its position (from upper to lower and vice-versa) in
S T O P P J G B
+1 each step.
101. (e) All are true.
+1
102. (c) Only (A) and (C).
+1
103. (d) There is a chance that in 2012 the economy would be better
+1
than what has been forecast.
(91-95) : 104. (d) The current Economic Scenario.
91. (e) In the first step the upper middle shifts to middle left 105. (a) Only (B).
lower left upper middle while the remaining four shift one 106. (a) These will bring about only minor growth.
step CW in a cyclic order. In the next step the middle row 107. (e) None is true.
elements shift from left to right in a cycle order while the 108. (e) All (A), (B) and (C).
remaining five shift one step CW.
109. (a) The meaning of word Draw (verb) as used in the passage is :
92. (d) In the first step the upper left and middle right interchange Influence.
places ; so do the upper right and middle left. The remaining
Hence, the words Draw and Entice are synonymous.
three elements shift one step CW. In the next step the lower-
110. (a) The meaning of clock (noun) as used in the passage is : time
left and lower-right elements are replaced by new ones while
keeping device.
the remaining five shift one step ACW in a cyclic order.
Hence, the words Clock and Watch are synonymous.
93. (d) In each step the upper middle rotates by 45 CW and the
lower middle rotates by 45 ACW. Among the middle-row 111. (d) The meaning of Abate (verb) as used in the passage is : to
elements two pairs interchange places while the fifth element become less.
is replaced by new one successively from the right to left, Hence, the words Abate and Lessen are synonymous.
beginning from the right. 112. (b) The meaning of emerging (verb) as used in the passage is :
94. (b) From fig 1 to 2: The upper left and the middle left interchange come into sight.
positions while the remaining five elements shift one step Hence, the words Emerging and Developing are synonymous.
CW in a cyclic order. 113. (c) The meaning of Myraid (adjective) as used in the passage is
95. (a) Follow the shifting of the elements in alternate steps. : numerous.
96. (c) In each step, all the existing elements move one space ACW; Hence, the words myraid and few are antonymous.
a new element is added at the ACW-end and the two elements 114. (a) The meaning of Tepid (Adjective) as used in the passage is
at the CW-end interchange positions. warm.
97. (d) In each step, the symbol existing at lower-middle position is Hence, the words tepid and moderate are antonymous.
115. (a) The meaning of Myth as used in the passage is : fictional.
116. (e) 117. (b) 118. (d) 119. (a) 120. (e)
lost and all the symbols move in the sequence .A
121. (c) 122. (e) 123. (d) 124. (b) 125. (d)
126. (c) 127. (d) 128. (b) 129. (d) 130. (b)
new symbol appears at the upper-left position.
131. (b) 132. (c) 133. (a) 134. (b) 135. (e)
98. (e) Sequentially, 4, 3, 2, 1, crosses are added to the figure. The
136. (a) 137. (b) 138. (c) 139. (e) 140. (d)
addition takes place in lower and upper squares alternately.
141. (a) Meaning of Hamper -
99. (e) In the upper element, the vertical line segment remains
unchanged while the other line segment rotates sequentially To prevent the free movement, action, or progress of
45CW, 45CW, 45ACW, 45ACW, 45CW, and also A large basket, usually with a cover
SOLUTIONS 95
New policy of tax shifting can hamper the bubbling 3. A baby carriage.
industrial sector. 4. A wheeled support or frame for carrying a heavy object,
His boyfriend sent her a big gift hamper on her birthday. such as a cannon.
142. (a) Meaning of Dent- 5. A moving part of a machine for holding or shifting another
1. A depression in a surface made by pressure or a blow: part
A dent in the side of a car. 6. (a) The act or process of transporting or carrying
2. A significant, usually diminishing effect or impression: Usage -
The loss put a dent in the team's confidence. The Prince used to pass through the city in his royal
Irresponsible statement like this has dented his carriage.
image. What is the rate of carriage?
3. Informal Meaningful progress; headway Take care of movements of carriage.
He has not made a dent in his carrier for last some 146. (a) 147. (b) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (c)
years.
Professional Knowledge : IT
143. (a) Meaning of Strike -
151. (a) 152. (d) 153. (d) 154. (c) 155. (a)
1. To hit sharply, as with the hand, the fist, or a weapon.
156. (d) 157. (a) 158. (c) 159. (b) 160. (b)
To inflict (a blow).
161. (d) 162. (b) 163. (b) 164. b) 166. (d)
US drone fighter planes strike the terrorist airbase
166. (c) 167. (c) 168. (b) 169. (a) 170. (c)
in Pakistan in stillness of night.
171. (b) 172. (d) 173. (b) 175. (d) 175. (c)
2. To penetrate or pierce 176. (c) 177. (c) 178. (b) 179. (b) 180. (a)
Nail got fixed by striking with hammer. 181. (d) 182. (c) 183. (c) 184. (a) 185. (c)
3. (a) To collide with or crash into
186. (d) 187. (b) 188. (a) 189. (d) 190. (c)
(b) To cause to come into violent or forceful contact
191. (d) 192. (c) 194. (b) 195. (b) 196. (d)
Speeding bus strikes the car coming from the
wrong side of road with such a force that a 197. (b) 198. (c) 199. (c) 200. (c)
deafening sound can be heard from a kilometer
distance. OR
(d) To damage or destroy, as by forceful contact Professional Knowledge : Marketing
4. To make a military attack on; assault. 151. (a) 152. (b) 153. (b) 154. (b) 155. (d)
5. To afflict suddenly, as with a disease or impairment 156. (e) 157. (d) 158. (b) 159. (a) 160. (b)
6. To cause to become by or as if by a blow 161. (d) 162. (b) 163. (c) 164. (d) 165. (e)
7. (a) To snap at or seize (a bait). 166. (d) 167. (e) 168. (e) 169. (d) 170. (e)
Their 10 years long marriage strike with not 171. (e) 172. (a) 173. (d) 174. (c) 175. (b)
much ado.
176. (c) 177. (c) 178. (c) 179. (c) 180. (e)
(b) To hook (a fish that has taken the bait) by a pull on
181. (a) 182. (c) 183. (e) 184. (d) 185. (b)
the line
186. (b) 187. (d) 188. (d) 189. (c) 190. (d)
144. (c) Meaning of GLANCE -
191. (c) 192. (b) 193. (a) 194. (a) 195. (d)
1. (a) To direct the gaze briefly
196. (d) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (c) 200. (b)
(b) To move rapidly from one thing to another. Used of
the eyes.
OR
2. To shine briefly; glint.
Professional Knowledge : Agriculture
3. To strike a surface at such an angle as to be deflected
4. To make a passing reference; touch briefly 151. (c) 152. (c) 153. (b) 154. (a) 155. (b)
Usage - 156. (a) 157. (b) 158. (c) 159. (a) 160. (a)
He glanced through the report and nodded in positive. 161. (a) 162. (d) 163. (a) 164. (b) 165. (b)
It glanced in the sky for a brief period and then went 166. (c) 167. (a) 168. (b) 169. (b) 170. (d)
missing in the night sky. 171. (b) 172. (c) 173. (a) 174. (b) 175. (d)
His casual glances will not help the issue. 176. (a) 177. (a) 178. (a) 179. (d) 180. (a)
145. (e) Meaning of CARRIAGE - 181. (b) 182. (d) 183. (b) 184. (d) 185. (a)
1. A wheeled vehicle, especially a four-wheeled horse- 186. (a) 187. (c) 188. (c) 189. (a) 190. (a)
drawn passenger vehicle, often of an elegant design.
191. (b) 192. (a) 193. (d) 194. (a) 195. (a)
2. Chiefly British A railroad passenger car.
196. (c) 197. (b) 198. (d) 199. (b) 200. (b)

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4. Percentage-1 7-8 31. Comparison, Critical analysis, Date,

5. Percentage-2 9-10 Day based on data sufficiency 69-70

7. Simplification 13-14 REASONING

70. Reading Comprehension - II 161-164 94. Plant Physiology, Genetics and

78. Computer Fundamentals/Digital Logic 185-186 100. Section Test:

101 SPEED TEST - SOLUTIONS 1-95

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e 16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e

RESPONSE 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e 21. a b c d e 22. a b c d e

3 Square Root & Cube Roots

? 25 13. ( 656 164 )2 = ?

(a) 43 (b) 45 (c) 55 (a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 81

21. 97344 = ? 31. 3100 567 250 = ? 8

(a) 11 (b) 14 (c) 15

( 3 795657 7) (3.8 5.5) = ?

25. (34.12)2 7396 = ? (a) 48 (b) 22 (c) 43

20. a b c d e 21. a b c d e 22. a b c d e 23. a b c d e 24. a b c d e

Directions (Qs. 1-18): What should come in place of the 1

(a) 450 (b) 500 (a) ` 6000 (b) ` 12000

(e) None of these (e) None of these

19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e 21. a b c d e 22. a b c d e 23. a b c d e

13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e 16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e

GRID 23. a b c d e 24. a b c d e 25. a b c d e 26. 27. a b c d e

(a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 14 16 32

3. (16 4)3 (4)5 (2 8)2 = (4)?

4. (?)2 (12)2 (48)2 = 81 9

(a) 8.4 (b) 8 (c) 6.6 (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7

19. 64 362 216 = 6(?)

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e 16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e

GRID 23. a b c d e 24. a b c d e 25. a b c d e 26. 27. a b c d e

9 Ratio & Proportion - 1

13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e 16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e

GRID 23. a b c d e 24. a b c d e 25. a b c d e 26. 27. a b c d e

10 Ratio & Proportion - 2

13. a b c d e 14. a b c d e 15. a b c d e 16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e

RESPONSE 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e 21. a b c d e 22. a b c d e

GRID 23. a b c d e 24. a b c d e 25. a b c d e 26. 27. a b c d e

11 Chain Rule/ Unitary Method

15. a b c d e 16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

4 8. A man takes 6 hrs 30 min in walking to a certain place and

15. a b c d e 16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

RESPONSE 21. a b c d e 22. a b c d e 23. a b c d e 24. a b c d e 25. a b c d e

GRID 26. a b c d e 27. a b c d e 28. a b c d e 29. a b c d e 30. a b c d e

16. a b c d e 17. a b c d e 18. a b c d e 19. a b c d e 20. a b c d e

(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 16 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5

1 9. If log10 x log10 x = 2 log x 10 , then a possible value of

10. log 216 6 to the base 6 is

log13 (10 ) / log169 (10 )

1 1 18. What is the value of

(d) 1 (e) None of these (a) 1/2 (b) 1/2 (c) 2

16. What is the value of (d) 2 (e) None of these

20. What is the value of