Untitled 1

P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Date : 05/07/07 PLASMA DPP : 1
dy
Q1. Determine of the following function
dx
(i) y = (3x + 4)7 (ii) y = ax b
(iii) y = sin(2x + 3) (iv) y = e2x+3
(v) y = log(2x + 3) (vi) y = exsinx
sin x
(vii) y = (viii) y = Rsinand x = Rcos
x
Q2. Find the minimum and maximum values of the function y = x3 3x2 + 6 .
Also, find the values of x at which it occurs.
Q3. Find the slope of the tangent at the given points on the following curves:
(i) y = 2 x2 at x = 0 (ii) y = 2x3 at x = 3
1
(iii) y = 2 at x = 4 (iv) x2 + y2 4x 3 = 0 at x = 3 at y = 2
x
Q4. The angular position of a reference line on a spinning wheel is given by (t) = t3 27t + 4,
d d
find the instantaneous angular velocity = and angular acceleration = .
dt dt
Q5. The displacement x(t) of a particle from its equilibrium position is described by the equation
x = A cos(t +), where A, and are constants. Find the velocity and acceleration of the
particle at time t .
Basic Mathematics
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q1. Instaneous position of a particle, at time t, is given by x= 10 + 12 t + 8 t2 where x and t are in

metre and second respectively. Find the
(1) Initial velocity of particle
(2) Velocity of particle at t = 3 sec.
(3) Instanteneous acceleration of particle
(4) Position of particle at t = 5 sec.
Q 2. Instantaneous velocity of a body of mass 5 kg is given
v = 3t 3 2t 2 25 m/s
calculate the Force experienced by the body at t= 3 sec.

Q 3. A body of one kilogram mass is in straight line motion position of body (x), as function of
time t, is defined as
x = (t - 3)
where x and t are in meter and second respectively. At what time t, body come to rest.
Q 4. Instantaneous coordinates in space of flying mosquito are-
x 31 t 3m, y 21 t 2m and z = t m
Find the instantaneous components of acceleration of mosquito
Q 5. The electric current in a charging R-C circuit is given by i i0 e t / RC where i0 , R and C are
constant parameters of the circuit and t is time. Find the rate of change of current at (A) t =
0, (B) t = RC, (C) t= 10 RC.
Basic Mathematics
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q1. Find the integral of the following functions
1 1
(i) f(x) = x2 (ii) f(x) = (iii) f(x) = (iv) f(x) = cos x (v) f(x) = e x
x x
Q2
(A). A particle moves with a constant acceleration a = 2 ms2 along a straight. If it starts with an
initial velocity of 5ms1, then obtain an expression for its instantaneous velocity.
(B). If the particle occupies a position x = 7m at t = 1s, then obtain an expression for the
instantaneous displacement of the particle.
Q3. Determine the integral of the function y = x2 + 2x + 3
Calculate the definite integral sin x dx

2
Q4.
0 V(ms1)
Q5. The speed of a car increases uniformly from zero to 10ms1 in

10
2 s; and then remains constant.
(i) Find the distance travelled by the car in the first two seconds. 0 2 4 T(s)
(ii) Find the distance travelled by the car in the second two seconds.
(iii) Find the total distance travelled in 4 s.
Q6. Evaluate the following integral
1 /2
dx
(iii) ax b (iv) sin d (v) cos 2 d
2
(i) x dx
6
(ii) a sin t dt
0 0 0
Q7. Determine the area (A = y dx ) enclosed under the curves and the x-axis
(i) y = x2 between x = 0 and x = 6 (ii) y = 3x2 + 6x + 7 between x = 5 and x = 10
Q8. Differentiate the following functions w.r.t. x :
2
1
x
(i) e + 3secx + logx 2
(ii) x (iii) x log x 2
x
ex log x
(iv) (5 4 cosx) (1 2tanx) (v) (vi)
1 cos x ex
Basic Mathematics
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
13/07/07 4
Date : PLASMA DPP :
Q.1 If displacement of a particle is zero, the distance covered :
(A) must be zero (B*) may or may not be zero
(C) cannot be zero (D) depends upon the particle
Q.2 The numerical value of the ratio of velocity to speed is :
(A) always less than one (B) always equal to one
(C) always more than one (D*) equal to or less than one
Q.3 A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (A) versus a

2
10m/s
time (t) is as shown in the figure. The maximum
speed of the particle will be :
(A) 110 m/s (B*) 55 m/s
(C) 550 m/s (D) 660 m/s
t(s)
11
Q.4 The displacement of a body is given by 4s = M + 2Nt4, where M and N are constants. The velocity
of the body at any instant is :
M 2Nt 4 M 2N
(A) (B) 2N (C) (D*) 2Nt3
4 4
Q.5 In the Q.4, the velocity of the body at the end of one second from the start is :
M 2N 2M N
(A*) 2N (B) (C) 2(M+N) (D)
4 4
Q.6 The velocity-time relation of an electron starting from rest is given by kt where k = 2 m/s2.
The distance traversed in 3 sec is :
(A*) 9 m (B) 16 m (C) 27 m (D) 36 m
Q.7 A point moves in a straight line so that its displacement x m at time t sec is given by x2 = 1 + t2. Its
acceleration in m/sec2 at a time t sec is :
1 t2 1 1
(A) 1/x3 (B) t/x3 (C*) 3 (D) 2
x x x x
2 bt
Q.8 The displacement of a particle after time t is given by x = (k/b )(1e ), where b is a constant.
What is the acceleration of the particle :
k bt k bt
(A) kebt (B*) kebt (C) e (D) e
b2 b2
Q.9 The velocity and displacement r of a body are related as 2 kr , where k is a constant. What
will be the velocity after 1 second ? Given that the displacement is zero at t = 0 :
k 0
(A) kr (B) kr3/2 (C*) r (D) data is not sufficient
2
Q.10 The x and y coordinates of a particle at any time t are given by :
x = 7t + 4t2 and y = 5t
where x and y are in m and t in s. The acceleration of the particle at 5 s is :
(A) zero (B*) 8 m/s2 (C) 20 m/s2 (D) 40 m/s2
Q.11 The velocity of a body depends on time according to the equation v = 20 + t2. The body is undergoing
:
(A) uniform acceleration (B) uniform retardation
(C*) non-uniform acceleration (D) zero acceleration
Kinematics
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
dU
Q1. Potential energy of a particle is given by U = y 2 sin y. Force is defined as F = .
dy
Deduce the expression for force.
Q2. Potential energy of a particle is given by U = (10y 4y2) joule. At which position, the potential
energy may have maximum or minimum value.
Q3. Potential energy of body is U(x) = 200 50x + 1000x2 joule. For what value of x, potential
energy of body will be minimum.
1 2
Q4. Instantaneous displacement of particle is given as S = ut at . Plot the graph between
2
velocity and time.
Q5. The velocity-time relation for a particle in one dimension motion is V = 25 + 15 t 8t2
Find the acceleration of particle at t = 0.5 sec. If initially (at t = 0) particle was located at
origin then find its position after t = 0.5 sec.
x2
Q6. Work done by force is given by relation W = Fdx .
x1
(A) Find the work done by the force F = (4x + 5) in displacing the particle from x = 1 to x = 3.
(B) A force F = x3N is acting on a particle. What amount of work will be done in displacing the
particle from x = 0 to x = 1.
Y
.c
Q7. Indicate the part of the graph where slope is .b
increasing / decreasing / constant. .a
0 X
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q.1 A body covers one-third of the distance with a velocity v1, the second one-third of the distance
with a velocity v2 and the remaining distance with a velocity v3. The average velocity is:
v1 v 2 v 3 3v1v 2 v 3
(A) (B*) v v v v v v
3 1 2 2 3 3 1
v1v 2 v 2 v 3 v 3 v1 v1v 2 v 3
(C) (D)
3 3
Q.2 A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance with speed of 3m/s. The other half of
the distance is covered in two equal time intervals with speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s respectively.
The average speed of the particle during this motion is
(A*) 4.0 m/s (B) 5.0 m/s (C) 5.5 m/s (D) 4.8 m/s
Q.3 A body is imparted motion from rest to move in a straight line. It is then obstructed by an opposite
force; then:
(A) the body may necessarily change direction
(B*) the body is sure to slow down
(C) the body will necessarily continue to move in the same direction at the same speed.
(D) none of the above
Q.4 A particle is moving eastward with a velocity of 5m/second. In 10 seconds, the velocity changes
to 5m/second northward. The average acceleration in this time is:
1
(A) zero (B*) m/sec2 towards the north-west
2
1 1
(C) m/sec2 towards the north-east (D) m/sec2 towards north-west
2 2
1
(E) m/sec2 towards north-east
2
Q.5 The acceleration of a moving body can be found from:

(A) area under velocity time graph (B) area under distance time graph
(C*) slope of the velocity time graph (D) slope of the distance time graph
Q.6 A particles position as a function of time is described as y(t) = 2t2 + 3t + 4. What is the average
velocity of the particle from t = 0 to t = 3 sec?
(A) 3m/s (B) 6 m/s (C*) 9 m/s (D) 12 m/s
Q.7 The deceleration experienced by a moving motor boat, after its engine is cut-off is given by
dv
= kv3, where k is constant. If v0 is the magnitude of the velocity at cut-off, the magnitude of
dt
the velocity at a time t after the cut-off is:
v0
(A) v0/2 (B) v0 (C) v0ekt (D*)
2v kt 1
2
0
Kinematics
Q.8 A person moves 30 m north and then 20 m towards east and finally 30 2 m in southwest
direction. The displacement of the person from the origin will be:
(A) 10 m along north (B*) 10 m along south
(C) 10 m along west (D) zero
Q.9 If the velocity of a particle is given by

v = (180 16x)1/2 m/s
then its acceleration will be:
(A) zero (B) 8m/s2 (C*) 8m/s2 (D) 4 m/s2
Q.10 A train is moving towards east and a car is going along north, both with same speed. The observed
direction of car to the passenger in the train is:
(A) east-north direction (B*) west-north direction
(C) south-east direction (D) none of these
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Date : 25.07.2007 PLASMA DPP : 7
Q1. Two metallic spheres of same mass are given equal and opposite charge, then
(A) the mass of positively charged sphere increases
(B) the mass of both remain the same
(C*) the mass of negatively charged sphere increases
(D) the mass of both spheres increases
Q2. A charge Q is divided into two parts q and Q q and separated by a distance R. The force
of repulsion between them will be maximum when
(A) q = Q/4 (B*) q = Q/2 (C) q = Q (D) none of the above
Q3. When a charged comb is brought near a small piece of paper, it attracts the piece. This is
because
(A) piece of paper is light and gravitational attraction between comb and paper results in
the lifting of piece to comb.
(B*) piece of paper becomes charged due to induction and electric force of attraction re-
sults in the lifting of piece to comb.
(C) there is a special kind of interaction, called weak interaction, which acts between the
charged comb and paper and results in lifting of paper piece.
Q4. A point charged q1 exerts a force F upon another charge q2. If another charge q3 be placed
quite near to charge q2, then the force that charge q1 exerts on the charge q2 will
(A*) remain F (B) be less than F (C) be greater than F (D) be zero
Q5. Unit of dielectric constant of a medium is

(A) coulomb/metre newton (B) newton meter2/coulomb2
(C) coulomb2/(newtonmetre)2 (D*) none of the above
Q6. If the force between two charges when placed in medium of air and then in oil is 25 newton
and 5 newton respectively, then the dielectric constant of the oil is
(A) 5 (B*) 5 (C) 52 (D) 1/5
Q7. The electric charge in uniform motion produces

(A) an electric field only (B) a magnetic field only
(C*) both electric and magnetic fields (D) neither electric nor magnetic fields
Q8. +2C and +6C two charges are repelling each other with a force of 12N. If each charge is
given 2C of charge, then the value of the force will be
(A) 4N (Attractive) (B) 4N (Repulsive) (C) 8N (Repulsive) (D*) Zero
Q9. When 1014 electrons are removed from a neutral metal sphere, the charge on the sphere
becomes
(A*) 16 C (B) 16C (C) 32C (D) 32C
Electrostatics
Q10. Three charges +4q, Q and q are placed in a straight line of length l at distances 0, (l/2) and l
respectively. What should be Q in order to make the net force on q to be zero
(A*) q (B) 2q (C) q/2 (D) 4q
Q11. Three equal charges each +q are placed (fixed) on the corners of an equilateral triangle of side a.
Then the coulomb force experienced by one charge due to the rest of the two is
(A) kq2/a2 (B) 2kq2/a2 (C*) 3 kq2/a2 (D) zero
Q12. Four equal charges, each +q are placed at the four corners of a square of side a. Then the
coulomb force experienced by one charge due to the rest of three is

(A*) 2 2 1 kq2 / 2a2 (B) 3kq2/a2
(C) 2 2 kq2/a2 (D) zero
Q13. Two point charges Q and +2Q are placed at a distance R apart. Where should a third point
charge be placed so that it is in equilibrium
(A) at a point on the right of +2Q.
(B*) at a point on the left of charge Q
(C) between Q and +2Q
(D) at a point on a line perpendicular to the line joining Q and +2Q
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q1. An electric field can deflect
(A) X-rays (B) neutrons (C*) particles (D) -rays
Q2. Three charges each of 5 106 coulombs are placed at three corners of an equilateral triangle of
side 10 cm. The force exerted on another charge of 1 C placed at the centre of the triangle in
newton will be
(A) 13.5 (B) 4.5 (C) 6.75 (D*) zero
Q3. A charge q is placed at the centre of a line joining the two equal and like point charges Q. This
system will remain in equilibrium if value of q is
(A) Q/2 (B*) Q/4 (C) Q/4 (D) Q/2
Q4. If Q = 2 coulomb and the force on it is F = 100 newton, then the value of field intensity at that place
is
(A) 1000 N/C (B*) 50 N/C (C) 200 N/C (D) 10 N/C
Q5. Two charges 9e and 3e are placed at a distance r. The distance of the point where the electric
field intensity will be zero is
(A*) r/(1 + 3) from 3e charge (B) r/(1 + 3 ) from 9e charge
(C) r/(1 3 ) from 3e charge (D) r/(1 + 1/ 3 ) from 3e charge
.
y
Q6. Three charges, each q coulomb are placed as shown in
q
the figure. Then the net force on the charge placed at the
origin is
(A*) q2/4 0d2
. .
d 30
(B) 3 q /4 0d
2 2
x
q d q
(C) 2 3 q /4 0d
2 2

A
Q7. Four charges each +q, are placed at the four corners of a regular
pentagon as shown in the figure. The distance of each corner from
the centre O is r. Then the electric field at the centre will be
q .O q
q q q q
(A*) towards OA (B) towards OA
4 o r 2
2 2 o r 2
q
(C) zero (D)
o r 2 towards OA
Q8. Three charges of 2.0 C, 4C and 6.0 C are placed on the same line, each 15 cm apart, then
the resultant force on 2C charge is
(A*) 2.0 N in +x direction (B) 6.4 N in +x direction
(C) 8.4 N in x direction (D) 2.0 N in x direction
Electrostatics
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q.1 A train passes an electric post in 10 second and a bridge of length 2 km in 110 second. The
speed of the engine is:
(A) 19 kmph (B) 36 kmph (C*) 72 kmph (D) 90 kmph
Q.2 An engine of a train moving with uniform acceleration passes an electric pole with velocity u and
the last compartment with velocity v. The middle point of the train passes past the same pole with
a velocity of
uv u2 v 2 u2 v 2 v 2 u2
(A) (B) (C*) (D)
2 2 2 2
Q.3 A proton in a cyclotron changes its velocity from 30 km/sec north to 40 km/sec east in 20 sec.
What is the magnitude of average acceleration during this time?
(A*) 2.5 km/sec2 (B) 12.5 km/sec2 (C) 22.5 km/sec2 (D) 32.5 km/sec2
Q.4 A car starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in
the nth second to that covered in n seconds is:
2 1 2 1 2 1 2 1
(A) 2
(B) 2
(C*) (D)
n n n n n n2 n n2
Q.5 A train 200 m long crosses a bridge 300 m long. It enters the bridge with a speed of 30ms1 and
leaves it with a speed of 50 ms1. What is the time taken to cross the bridge?
(A) 2.5 s (B) 7.5 s (C*) 12.5 s (D) 15.0 s
Q.6 A train accelerates from rest for time t1, at a constant rate and then it retards at the constant
rate for time t2 and comes to rest. The ratio of t1/t2 is equal to:
(A) / (B*) / (C) / (D) /
Q.7 The position vector of a particle is

r (a cos t ) i (a sin t ) j
the velocity of the particle is :
(A) parallel to position vector (B*) perpendicular to position vector
(C) directed towards the origin (D) directed away from the origin
Q.8 Given that x = displacement at time t and p, q, r are constants. Which of the following represents
the motion with constant non-zero acceleration?
(A) x = pt1 + qt2 (B) x = qt (C) x = pt + qt2 (D) x = pt + qt2 = rt3

Q.9 The position vector of a particle is given by r r0 (1 at )t , where t is the time and a as well as r0
are constants. After what time the particle returns to the starting point?
1 1
(A) a (B*) (C) a2 (D)
a a2
Q.10 Which one of the following represents uniformly accelerated motion?

ta ta xa
(A) x = (B) x = (C*) t = (D) x = ta
b b b
Electrostatics
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Four positive charges (2 2 1) Q are arranged at corner of a square. Another charge q is placed
at the centre of the square resulting force acting on each corner is zero. If q is-
7Q 4Q
(A) (B) (C) Q (D) None
4 7
2. Two free point charges +q and +4q are placed a distance x apart. A third charge is so placed
that all the three charges are in equilibrium. Then
4q
(A) unknown charge is
9
9q
(B) unknown charge is
4
x
(C) it should be placed at from smaller charge between them
3
2x
(D) it should be placed at from smaller charge between them.
3
3. A uniform electric field E is created between two parallel charged plates as shown in figure. An
electron enters the field symmetrically between the plates with a speed v0. The length of each
plate is . Find the angle of deviation of the path of the electron as it comes out of the field.
Neglect gravity.
v0
4. Electric field, due to an infinite line of charge, as shown in figure at a point P at a distance r
from the line is E. If one half of the line of charge is removed from either side of point A, then-
E
(A) Electric field at P will have magnitude Y
2
E
(B) Electric field at P in x direction will be
2
X
E
(C) Electric field at P in y direction will be
2
(D) none of these
5. If an electron enters into a space between two parallel plates in which uniform electric field exist
at an angle 1 with the plates and leaves at an angle 2 to the plates the ratio of its kinetic energy
while entering between the plates to that while leaving will be ..................
Electrostatics
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A charge q is placed at the centroid of an equilateral triangle. Three equal charges Q are placed
at the vertices of the triangle. The system of four charges will be in equilibrium if q is equal to-
Q Q Q
(A) (B) (C) Q 3 (D)
3 3 3
2. A total charge Q is distributed over two concentric hollow spheres of radii a and b, (b > a), such
a way that their surface charge densities are equal. The potential at the common centre is given
by-
Q (a b ) Q (b a)
(A) 4 . 2 (B) 4 . 2
0 (a b ) 0 (a b )
2 2
Q (a b ) Q (b a)
(C) 4 . (D) 4 .
0 (a b ) 0 (a b )
2 2
3. Three concentric metallic spherical shell A, B and C of radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have surface
charge densities , +, and respectively. The potential of shell A is-

(A) [a + b c] (B) [a b + c] (C) [b a c] (D) none
0 0 0
2
4. The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z) (all in meters) in space is given by V = 4x volt.
The electric field at the point (1 m, 0, 2 m) in V/m is-
(A) 8 along negative x-axis (B) 8 along positive x-axis
(C) 16 along negative x-axis (D) 16 along positive x-axis
5. Four equal positive charges are fixed at the vertices of a square of side L. Z-axis is perpendicular
to the plane of the square. The point z = 0 is the point where the diagonals of the square intersect
each other. The plot of electric field due to the four charges, as one moves on the z-axis is-
E E E E
(A) (B) (C) (D)
L/2 z L/2 z L z L/2 z
Electrostatics
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q.1 A train passes an electric post in 10 second and a bridge of length 2 km in 110 second. The
speed of the engine is:
(A) 19 kmph (B) 36 kmph (C*) 72 kmph (D) 90 kmph
Q.2 An engine of a train moving with uniform acceleration passes an electric pole with velocity u and
the last compartment with velocity v. The middle point of the train passes past the same pole with
a velocity of
uv u2 v 2 u2 v 2 v 2 u2
(A) (B) (C*) (D)
2 2 2 2
Q.3 A proton in a cyclotron changes its velocity from 30 km/sec north to 40 km/sec east in 20 sec.
What is the magnitude of average acceleration during this time?
(A*) 2.5 km/sec2 (B) 12.5 km/sec2 (C) 22.5 km/sec2 (D) 32.5 km/sec2
Q.4 A car starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in
the nth second to that covered in n seconds is:
2 1 2 1 2 1 2 1
(A) 2
(B) 2
(C*) (D)
n n n n n n2 n n2
Q.5 A train 200 m long crosses a bridge 300 m long. It enters the bridge with a speed of 30ms1 and
leaves it with a speed of 50 ms1. What is the time taken to cross the bridge?
(A) 2.5 s (B) 7.5 s (C*) 12.5 s (D) 15.0 s
Q.6 A train accelerates from rest for time t1, at a constant rate and then it retards at the constant
rate for time t2 and comes to rest. The ratio of t1/t2 is equal to:
(A) / (B) / (C) / (D) /
Q.7 The position vector of a particle is

r (a cos t ) i (a sin t ) j
the velocity of the particle is :
(A) parallel to position vector (B*) perpendicular to position vector
(C) directed towards the origin (D) directed away from the origin
Q.8 Given that x = displacement at time t and p, q, r are constants. Which of the following represents
the motion with constant non-zero acceleration?
(A) x = pt1 + qt2 (B) x = qt (C) x = pt + qt2 (D) x = pt + qt2 = rt3

Q.9 The position vector of a particle is given by r r0 (1 at )t , where t is the time and a as well as r0
are constants. After what time the particle returns to the starting point?
1 1
(A) a (B*) (C) a2 (D)
a a2
Q.10 Which one of the following represents uniformly accelerated motion?

ta ta xa
(A) x = (B) x = (C*) t = (D) x = ta
b b b
Kinematics
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q.1 If the initial velocity of a particle is v0 and collinear acceleration is at2 where a is a constant, then
the velocity after time t is :
1 2 1 3
(A) v v 0 at (B) v v 0 at (C*) v v 0 at (D) v = v0 + at2
2 3
Q.2 A body moves in a straight line such that v = 2t2 11t + 14. Initially (when t = 0), the displacement
of the body from some fixed point O on the line is 50m. Then the value of th displacement of the
body from O when t = 6 sec is :
(A*) 80 m (B) 130m (C) 30 m (D) none of the above
Q.3 A particle starts out at t = 0 from the point x0 = 10 m with an initial velocity v0 = 15 m/s and a
constant acceleration a = 5 m/s2. Then its velocity-time graph is :
(m/s) (m/s)
(m/s)
(m/s)
20 20 20 20
v 10 v 10 v 10 v 10
(A) (B*) 0
(C) (D)
0 0 0
6 (s) 2 4 6 (s) 6 (s)
2 4
t
2 4 2 4 6 (s)
t t t
Q.4 In the above question, the position versus time graph for the particle is :
40 40 40 40
x 20 x 20 x 20 x 20
(A) 10 (B) 10 (C) 10 (D*) 10
00 2 4 6 (s) 00 2 4 6 (s) 00 2 4 6 (s) 00 2 4 6 (s)
t t t t
Q.5 For fig., which a weight W is suspended by using three strings A, B and C, the tension in string A
is :

A C
B
W
W cos W cos
(A) W (B*) (C) (D) zero
sin( ) sin( )
Q.6 For the motion of a particle, velocity v depends on displacement x as v = 20/(3x2). If at t = 0,

x = 0, then at what time t, the x = 20 :
(A) 7 sec. (B) 14 sec. (C*) 28 sec. (D) 35 sec.
Q.7 The acceleration a of a particle depends on displacement s as a = s + 5. It is given that initially s

= 0 and v = 5 m/s. Then the expression for velocity v as a function of s will be :
(A) v s 5 (B) v s 5 (C*) v s 2 10 s (D) v = s 5
Kinematics
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Date : 09/08/07 DPP : 14 PLASMA
Q1. A small metal ball is suspended in a uniform electric field with the help of an insulated thread. If
high energy X-ray beam falls on the ball, then the ball
(A) will be deflected in the direction of the field
(B) will be deflected in the direction opposite to the field
(C) will not be deflected
(D) will oscillate in the field
Q2. Two point charges of 9e and e are placed at a distance of r. At what distance another charge q
be kept away from 9e charges on the line joining the charges so that the system remains in
equilibrium
(A) r/4 (B) r/2 (C) 3r/4 (D) r/3
Q3. In the above question the magnitude of charge q will be

9e 9e e 3e
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16 16 4 4
Q4. A charge q3 = 1 106C is located at the position shown in figure.
If q1 = q2 = 5 106C and the distance separating q1 and q2 is
-q1 Y
10 cm, then the force on q3 is (in newtons)
10 cm
(A) 2.66 107 along +y direction 12 cm q3 X
(B) 45 107 along +x direction
(C) 2.66 107 along y direction +q2
(D) non of the above
Q5. An electron and a proton are situated independently in a uniform electric field then
(A) force on electron and proton will be the same and their accelerations will also be same
(B) force on electron and proton will be the same but acceleration of proton will be more than that
of the electron.
(C) force on electron and proton will be different but their acceleration will be same.
(D) force on electron and proton will be same but the acceleration of electron will be more than
that of the proton.
Q6. T w o s i m i l a r h e l i u m f i l l e l. Another body of
d g a s b a l l o o n s a r e t i e d t o t w o s t r i n g s , e a c h o f t h e l e n g t h
mass M is tied to other ends of the strings. The balloons are charged and in equilibrium situation,
they float in air at a separation of r meter. If the amount of charge on each balloon is the same,
then this charge is
1/ 2 r

(A) 2 0 Mgr 2 tan 1/ 2 Mgr 2 tan
(B)
2

0 l

L

1/ 2
Mgr 2

(C) (D) none of the above
tan
M
Q7. Two identical spheres A and B, each having a charge Q are separated by a distance d. They
experience a force F. Now a third identical sphere C is first touched to A and then to B and then
removed far away. Then the new force of repulsion between A and B will become
4 3
(A) F (B) F (C) F (D) zero
9 8
Electrostatics
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q1. Two uniformly charged metal spheres A and B experience a force of 2 105 newton of repulsive
nature. Another similar uncharged metal sphere C is brought near A and after contact with A it is
separated and now placed midway between the A and B. The total force on this new sphere C in
newton will be:
(A) 1 105 (B) 2 105 (C) 0.5 105 (D) 4 105
Q2. The region surrounding an oscillating electric dipole has

(A) electric field only (B) magnetic field only
(C) electric as well as magnetic field (D) nothing can be predicted
Q3. The ratio of electric fields due to a small electric dipole, on an axial point to an equatorial point is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) none of the above
Q4. Two small balls having equal, positive charges Q (coulomb) on each are suspended by two
insulating strings of equal length L (metre) from a hook fixed to a stand. The whole set up is taken
in a satellite into space where there is no gravity (state of weightlessness). The angle between
the two strings is
(A) 0 (B) /2 (C) (D) none of the above
Q5. In the above question, the tension in the string is

(A) 0 (B) Q2/40L2 (C) Q2/160L2 (D) none of the above
Q6. Two equal negative charges q each are fixed at the points (0, a) and (0, a) on the Yaxis. A
positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the X-axis. The charge Q will
(A) execute simple harmonic motion about the origin
(B) move to the origin and remains at rest
(C) move to infinity
(D) execute oscillatory but not simple harmonic motion.
Q7. A ring of radius R carries a uniformly distributed charge +Q. A point charge q is placed on the
axis of the ring at a distance 2R from the centre of the ring and released from rest, the particle
(A) executes a simple harmonic motion (SHM) along the axis of the ring
(B) moves to the centre of the ring and remains at rest there.
(C) executes oscillatory motion but not SHM
(D) moves through the centre of the ring to infinity along the axis.
Q8. The magnitude of the charges in a dipole is 3.2 1019C and their separation is 2.4 . This dipole
is placed in an electric field of intensity 4 105 V/m, the dipole moment will be
(A) 9.6 105 C-m (B) 12.8 1014 C-m
29
(C) 7.68 10 C-m (D) 30.72 1024 C-m
Q9. Deuteron and an particle are separated in air by a distance of 1 . The magnitude of electric
field acting on particle due to deuteron will be
(A) zero (B) 2.88 1011N/C (C) 1.44 1011N/C (D) 5.16 1011N/C
Q10. A tiny 0.50 g ball carries a charge of magnitude 10C. It is suspended by a thread in a downward
electric field of intensity 300 N/C if the charge on the ball is positive, then the tension in the string
is (take g = 10m/s2)
(A) 5 103N (B) 8 103N (C) 2 103N (D) zero
Electrostatics
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q1. Figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a charged
body. If the electric field at A and B are EA and EB respectively and
if the displacement between A and B is r then
(A) EA > EB (B) EA < EB A. .B
EB EB
(C) EA = (D) EA =
r r2
Q2. A charge particle is free to move in an electric field. It will travel
(A) Always along a line of force
(B) Along a line of force, if its initial velocity is zero
(C) Along a line of force, if it has some initial velocity in the direction of an acute angle with the line
of force.
(D) None of the above
Q3. Below figures (1) and (2) represent lines of force.
Which is correct statement
(A) Figure (2) represents magnetic lines of force
(B) Figure (1) represents magnetic lines of force (1) (2)
(C) Figure (1) represetns magnetic lines of force and figure (2) represents electric lines of force
(D) None of these
Q4. A metallic solid sphere is placed in a uniform electric field. 1 1
The lines of force follow the path(s) shown in the figure as 2 2
(A) 1 (B) 2 3 3
(C) 3 (D) 4 4 4
Q5. A mass m = 20g has a charge q = 3.0 mC. It moves with a velocity of 20m/s and enters a region
of electric field of 80N/C in the same direction as the velocity of the mass. The velocity of the
mass after 3 seconds in this region is
(A) 80 m/s (B) 56 m/s (C) 44 m/s (D) 40 m/s
Q6. An electron of mass me initially at rest moves through a certain distance in a uniform electric field
in time t1. A proton of mass mp also initially at rest takes time t2 to move through an equal distance
in this uniform electric field. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the ratio of t2/t1 is nearly equal to
(A) 1 (B) (mp/me)1/2 (C) (me/mp)1/2 (D) 1836
D C
4q 3q
Q7. Charges q, 2q, 3q and 4q are placed at the corners A, B, C and D of a
square as shown in the following figure. The direction of electric field at
the centre if the square is along O
(A) AB (B) CB (C) BD (D) AC q 2q

A B
Q8. Four point +ve charges of same magnitude (Q) are placed at four corners Q Q
of a rigid square frame as shown in figure. The plane of the frame is perpen-
dicular to Z axis. If a ve point charge is placed at a distance z away from the
above frame (z << L) then
. L
(A) ve charge oscillates along the Z axis Z-axis
(B) It moves away from the frame Q Q

(C) It moves slowly towards the frame and stays in the plane of the frame
(D) It passes through the frame only once
Electrostatics
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q.1 An object with a mass 10 kg moves at a constant velocity of 10 m/sec. A constant force then acts
for 4 seconds on the object and give it a speed of 2 m/sec in opposite direction. The acceleration
produced is :
(A) 3m/sec2 (B*) 3m/sec2 (C) 0.3 m/sec2 (D) 0.3 m/sec2
Q.2 A cyclist encounters a series of hills. Uphill speed is always V1 and downhill speed is always V2.
The total distance travelled is l with uphill and downhill portions of the track of equal lengths. The
average speed of the cyclist is :
V1 V2 V1V2 2V1V2
(A) V1V2 (B) (C) V V (D*) V V
2 1 2 1 2
Q.3 The diagram shows a light inextensible string with one end fixed at A and a mass of 5 kg suspended
at the other end. The mass is held in equilibrium at an angle to the downward vertical by a
horizontal force F. Then the force F is A
(A*) 36.75 N
40 cm
(B) 61.25N T
(C) 45.25N 90
0
F
(D) cannot be determined 30 cm
5g N
Q.4 The length of seconds hand in a watch is 1 cm. The change in velocity of its tip in 15 seconds is:
(A) zero (B) /(30 2 ) cm/sec (C) /30 cm/sec (D*) ( 2 ) / 30 cm/sec
Q.5 A stone is dropped from a certain height which can reach the ground in 5 sec. If the stone is
stopped after 3 seconds of its fall and then allowed to fall again, then the time taken by the stone
to reach the ground for the remaining distance is :
(A) 2 sec (B) 3 sec (C*) 4 sec (D) none of the above
Q.6 A body is dropped from a height h, then the correct graph is :
v
s a
(A) (B) (C) (D*) All of the above
t t t
Q.7 A weight W is hung as shown in fig. Then the tension T is :
T

0
90
W
(A) W sin (B) W cos (C*) W cosec (D) W cot
Kinematics
Q.8 An object is vertically thrown unpards. Then the displacement time graph for the motion is as
shown in :
2 2
u /2g u /2g
s s
(A) (B*)
u 2u u 2u
g g g g
time time
2
u /2g
u /2
2g
s s
0 u 0
(C) g
2u
g
(D) u
g
2u
g
time time
Q.9 An object is vertically thrown up. The velocity-time graph for the motion of the particle is as shown
in :
t
t u
(A) u (B) 0
v
0 v
t
(C) (D*) t
0 u 0 v
v
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q.1 A body is dropped from a heigh h under acceleration due to gravity g. If t1 and t2 are the time
intervals for its fall for the first one third distance and the rest 2/3 distance, then relation between
t1 and t2 is :
(A) t1 ( 2 1)t1 (B*) t 2 ( 3 1)t1 (C) t 2 ( 2 1)t1 (D) t 2 ( 3 1)t1
Q.2 The acceleration of a particle moving in a straight line is governed by the relationship a = 3t2/2
where t is the time in seconds. When t = 2s the particle passes through the point O with velocity
1 m/s. When t = 4 sec then the velocity of the particle will be :
(A) 32 m/s (B*) 31 m/s (C) 35 m/s (D) 0 m/s
Q.3 The relation between time and velocity of an electron moving from rest is represented by
v = At + 2 where A = 2 (m/s2) and the distance covered in time interval t = 0 s to t = 2 s is :
(A) 2 m (B) 4 m (C*) 6 m (D) 8 m
Q.4 At time t = 0, an object is released from rest at the top of a tall building. At the time t 0 a second
object is dropped from the same point. Ignoring air resistance the time at which the objects have
a vertical separation of l is :
l t0 l t0 l
(A*) t gt 2 (B) t gt 2 (C) t gt (D) none of the above
0 0 0
Q.5 A particle P is at the origin and starts with velocity 2 i 4 j(m / s) and constant acceleration
(3 i 5 j )m / s 2 . After it has travelled for 2 seconds. Its displacement from the origin is :
(A) 10 m (B*) 10.2m (C) 9.8m (D) 11.7m
Q.6 A lift goes up. The variation in the speed of the lift is given in the graph. What is the height to which
the left takes the passensgers :
V
Velocity (m/s)
3.6
0 2 10 12
Time (sec)
(A) 3.6 m (B) 28.8 m

(C*) 36.0 m (D) can not be calculated from the graph
Q.7 In the above graph (question 6), what is the average spped of the lift :
(A) 1 m/s (B) 2.88 m/s (C) 3.24 m/s (D*) 3 m/s
Kinematics
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q.1 Two bodies are projected at angles and (900 ) to the horizontal with the same speed. The
ratio of their times of flight is :
(A) 1 : 1 (B*) tan : 1 (C) 1 : tan (D) tan2 : 1
Q.2 A grass hopper can jump a maximum horizontal distance of 0.2 m. If the spends negligible time
on ground with what speed can be travel along the road :
(A*) 4 m/sec (B) 3 m/sec (C) 2 m/sec (D) 1 m/sec
Q.3 A particle moves in the x-y plane with velocity Vx = 8t 2 and Vy = 2. If it passes through the point
x = 14 and y = 4 at t = 2 sec, the equation of the path is :
(A*) x = y2 - y + 2 (B) x = y + 2 (C) x = y2 + 2 (D) x = y2 + y -2
Q.4 The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile is half its initial velocity of projection u. Its range
on the horizontal plane is :
(3 ) u 2 u2 3u 2 3u 2
(A) (B) (C*) (D)
2 g 3g 2g g
Q.5 The time taken by a projectile thrown with a velocityv cm/sec at an angle with the horizontal to
attain the maximum height is given by :
(A) v/g (B) v/sin (C*) v sin /g (D) (v sin )g
Q.6 If a projectile having horizontal range of 24 m acquires a maximum height of 8 m, then its initial
velocity and the angle of projection are :
(A) 24 g, sin1(6) (B) 8 g, sin1(0.8) (C*) 5 g, sin1(0.8) (D) 5 g, sin1(0.6)
Q.7 A projectile is fired from point O with an inital speed V0. The speed at an altitude h from the ground
is :
(A) V02 2gh (B) 2gh (C*) V02 2gh (D) 2gh V02
Q.8 A cannon ball has the same range R on a horizontal plane for two angles of projection. If h1 and h2
are the greatest heights in the two paths for which this is possible, then :
1
(A) R = h1h2 (B*) R 4 h1h2 (C) R 3 h1h2 (D) R (h h ) 4
1 2
Q.9 A projectile is thrown with initial velocity. (a i b j ) ms1. Its range of projection is twice the maximum
height reached by it. Then :
a
(A) b (B) b = a (C*) b = 2a (D) b = 4a
2
Projectile Motion
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A projectile is fired with a velocity v at right angle to the slope which is inclined at an angle with
the horizontal. The expression for R is
2V 2 2V 2 V2 2V 2
(A) sec (B) tan (C) tan 2 (D*) tan sec
g g g g
2. An aircraft moving with a speed of 1000 km/hr is at a height of 6000 metre, just over head of an
antiarcraft gun. If the muzzle velocity is 540 m/sec, the firing angle should be approximately :
(A) 300 (B) 450 (C*) 600 (D) 900

3. Water is flowing from a horizontal pipe fixed at a hieght of 2 m from the ground. If it falls at a
distance of 3 m as shown in figure, the speed of water when it leaves the pipe is :
(A) 47 m/s (B*) 4.7 m/s (C) 7.4 m/s (D) 14.7 m/s
4. A body aims a gun at a bird from the point, at a horizontal distance of 100 m. If the gun can impart
a velocity of 500 ms1 to the bullet, at what height above the bird must he aim his gum in order to
hit it (take g = 10 m s2)
(A*) 20 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 50 cm (D) 15 cm
5. Two trains A and B are moving along parallel rails. A particle is thrown from train A vertically
upwards. The shape of the path of the particle as seen by an observer standing on the ground is
a:
(A*) parabola (B) straight line (C) circle (D) hyperbola
6. A projectile of mass m is fired with velocity v from a point P as shown below. Neglecting ari
resistance, what is the magnitude of the changes in momentum between leaving P and arriving
at Q
mv
(A) zero (B) (C*) 2 mv (D) 2 mv
2
Projectile Motion
7. A body is projected horizontally with a velocity of 4 ms1. The velocity of the body after 0.7 s is
nearly (take g = 10 ms2)
(A) 10 ms1 (B*) 8 ms1 (C) 19.2 ms1 (D) 11 ms1
8. A projectile A is thrown at an angle 600 to the horizontal from point P with velocity v1. At the same
time another projectile B is thrown with velocity v2 from the point Q vertically below the higher
v2
point A would reach. For B to collide with A, the ratio v should be :
1
(A) 1
(B) 2
3
(C*)
2
(D) 3
9. An aeroplane is flying at a height of 1960 m in horizontal direction with a velocity of 360 km/hr.
When it is vertically above the point A on the ground, it drops a bomb. The bomb strikes at a point
B on the ground. Then the time taken by the bomb to reach the ground is :
(A) 20 (2) sec (B*) 20 sec (C) 10 (2) sec (D) 10 sec
10. The x and y displacements of a particle in the x-y plane at any instant are given by x = aT2 and
y = 2aT where a is a contant. The velocity of the particle at any instant is given by :
a
(A) 4a T 2 4 (B*) 2a T 2 1 (C) 4a T 2 1 (D) T2 4
2
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q1. When the separation between two charges is increased, the electric potential energy of the
charges
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D*) may increase or decrease
Q2. The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform surface charge density is
(A*) zero
(B) constant less than zero
(C) directly proportional to the distance from the centre
Q3. The work done in taking a unit positive charge from P to A is

W A and from P to B is W B. Then
.
A
d .
Q

d .
B
(A) W A > W B (B) W A< W B
(C*) W A = W B (D) W A + W B = 0
.
r
P
Q4. 15 joule of work has to be done against an existing electric field to take a charge of 0.01 C from A
to B. Then, the potential difference VB VA is
(A*) 1500 volt (B) 1500 V (C) 0.15 V (D) none of the above
Q5. Two charges 10C and 5C are 9 cm apart. If they are shifted by 3 cm closer, then the work done is
(A*) 2.5 J (B) 2.5 J (C) 12.5 J (D) none of the above
Q6. An uncharged metal sphere is placed between two equal and oppositely charged metal plates.
The nature of lines of force will be
+ + + +
+
+ + + +
+ + + +
(A) + (B*) + (C) + (D) +
+
+ + + +
Q7. 1000 small water drops each of radius r and charge q coalesce together to one spherical drop.
The potential of the big drop is larger than that of the smaller drops by a factor of
(A) 1000 (B*) 100 (C) 10 (D) 1
Q8. Two charges +10C and 20C are placed at a separation of 2 cm. The electric potential is due
to the pair at the middle of the line joining the two charges is
(A) 9MV (B) 18 MV (C*) 9 MV (D) 27 MV
Q9. The electric potential at the surfaces of an atomic nucleus (Z = 50) of radius 9.0 1015 m is
(A) 80 volt (B*) 8 106 volt (C) 9 volt (D) 9 105 volt
Q10. In the following figure, the electric field lines for charges q1 and q2
are shown. Identify the sign of the charges :
(A*) both negative q1
(B) upper change is negative and lower is positive q2
(C) both positive
(D) upper charge is positive and lower is negative
Electrostatics
Q11. The dependence of electric potential V on the distance r from the centre of a charged spherical
shell of radius R is shown by
V V V V
(A) (B) (C*) (D)

r r r r
0 R 0 R 0 R 0 R
Q12. Three equal charges are placed at the three corners of an equilateral q
triangle as shown in the figure. The statement which is true for electric
potential V and the field intensity E at the centre of the traingle is
0
(A) V = 0, E = 0 (B) V = 0, E 0
(C*) V 0, E = 0 (D) V 0, E 0 q q
C D
Q13. In the electric field of a point charge Q, a unit charge is carried from
A to B, A to C, A to D, and A to E. The work done is B
(A) least along path AB Q
+
(B) least along path AD
(C) maximum along path AE A E
(D*) zero along all paths AB, AC, AD and AE
Q14. An electron is constrained to move along the axis of a ring of radius R, and charge q uniformly
distributed over it. If the electron performed small oscillations through the centre of the ring, then
the angular freuquency is given by
(A*) eq / 40mR 3 (B) 40mR 3 / eq (C) eq / 40mR (D) none of the above
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q1. Two identical thin rings, each of radius R metre, are coaxially placed
Q1 Q2
at a distance R metre apart. If Q1 coul and Q2 coul charges are
. .B
q
respectively the charges uniformly spread on the two rings, the 2
1 A
work done in moving a charge q from the centre of one ring to that R R
of the other is: R
(A) zero (B*) q(Q1 Q2) 2 1/ 2 (40R)

(C) q 2 (Q1 + Q2) /(40R) (D) q(Q1 + Q ) 2 1/
2 2 (40R)
Q2. Point charge q moves from point P to point S along the path PQRS
.
Y
(as shown in figure) in a uniform electric field E pointing a parallel
to the positive direction of the x-axis. The co-ordinates of the points P

S Q E
P, Q, R and S are (a, b, 0), (2a, 0, 0), (a, b, 0) and (0, 0, 0)
R
respectively. The work done by the field in the above process is
given by the expression:
(A) qEa (B*) qEa (C) qEa 2 (D) qE [2a 2 b2 ]
Q3. The work done required to put the four charges together at the corners +q . 1 2
. q
of a square 2of side a, as shown in the figure is:
1 q 2 .6 q2
(B*)
. .
(A)
4 20.6a q2 4 0 a
(C) (D) none of these 4 3
4 0 a q +q
a
Q4. Two concentric spheres of radii R and r have similar charges with equal surface densities ().
What is the electric potential at thier common centre?

(A) /0 (B)
0 (R r) (C*)
0 (R + r) (D) none of these
Q5. Electric charges q, q, 2q are placed at the corners of an equilateral traingle ABC of side l. The
magnitude of electric dipole moment of the system is:
(A) ql (B) 2ql (C*) 3 ql (D) 4ql
Electrostatics
Q6. Equal charges are given to two spheres of different radii. The potential will:
(A*) be more on the smaller sphere
(B) be more on the bigger sphere
(C) be equal on both the spheres
(D) depend on the nature of the material of the sphere
Q7. There is a solid sphere of radius R having uniformly distributed charge throughout it. What is the
relation between electric field E and distance r from the centre (r < R)?
(A) E r2 (B) E r1 (C*) E r (D) E r2
Q8. A uniform electric field of 20N/C exists along the x-axis in space. The potential difference (VB VA)
for the points A(4m, 2m) and B(6m, 5m) is
(A) 20 13 volt (B*) 40 volt (C) zero volt (D) none of these
Q9. For the isolated charged conductor shown in figure, the potentials at points +.
+ + +D
+ + +
+++ +
. ..
A, B, C and D are VA, VB, VC and VD respectively. Then: + +
+ C ++
(A) VA = VB > VC > VD (B) VD > VC > VB = VA +A
+ B ++
++ +
(C) VD > VC > VB > VA (D*) VD = VC= VB = VA ++
Q10. For the isolated charged conductor of figure in the above question, the electric fields at points A,
B, C and D are EA, EB, EC and ED respectively:
(A) EA = EB > EC > ED (B) ED > EC > EB = EA
(C) ED > EA > EC but EB = 0 (D*) EA= EB = EC = 0, ED 0
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A body is revolving with a constant speed along a circle. If its direction of motion is reversed but
the speed remains the same, then which of the following statement is true :
(A*) The centripetal force will not suffer any change in magnitude & direction.
(B) The centripetal force will have its direction reversed.
(C) The centripetal forece would be doubled.
(D) None of above
2. The angular speed of a fly wheel making 120 revolutions/minute will be :
(A) 2 rad / s (B) 42 rad / s (C) rad / s (D*) 4 rad / s

3. What is the value of linear velocity, if 3i 4 j k and r 5i 6j 6k :
(A) 6i 2 j 3k (B*) 18i 13j 2 k (C) 4 i 13j 6k (D) 6i 2 j 8k

4. Three identical particles are joined together by a thread as shown in figure. All the three particles
are moving in a horizontal plane. If the velocity of the outermost particle is 0, then the ratio of
tensions in the three sections of the string is :
(A) 3 : 5 : 7 (B) 3 : 4 : 5 (C) 7 : 11 : 6 (D*) 3 : 5 : 6

5. A stone is thrown at an angle to the horizontal reaches a maximum height H. Then the time of
flight of stone will be :
2H 2H 2 2H sin 2H sin
(A) (B*) 2 (C) (D)
g g g g
6. The kinetic energy k of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends on the distance
covered s as k = as2 where a is constant. The force acting on the particle is :
F1 s I
(B) 2asG
1/ 2
H R JK
s2 2 R2
(A*) 2a (C) 2as (D) 2a
R 2 s
7. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that its centripetal
acceleration ac is varying with time t as, ac = k2rt2. The power delivered to the particle by the force
acting on it is:
mk 4 r 2 t 5
(A) 2mk2r2t (B) mk2r2t (C*) (D) Zero
3
8. A stone is projected from the ground with velocity 50 m/s at an angle of 30. It crosses a wall after
3 sec. How far beyoud the wall the stone will strike the ground (g = 10 ms/2)
(A) 90.2 m (B) 89.6 m (C*) 86.6 m (D) 70.2 m
9. A ball of mass m is thrown vertically upwards. Another ball of mass 2m is thrown at an angle
with the vertical. Both of them stay in air for same period of time. The heights attained by the two
balls are in the ratio of :
(A) 2 : 1 (B*) 1 : cos (C) 1 : 1 (D) cos : 1
10. A bomber plane moves horizontally with a speed of 500 m/s and a bomb released from it, strikes
the ground in 10 sec. Angle at which it strikes the ground will be (g = 10 m/s2)
F
G1I F1I
(A*) tan1
H5JK (B) tan G
H5JK (C) tan1 (1) (D) tan1 (5)
Circular Motion
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A force of 5 N acts on a body of weight 9.8 N. What is the acceleration produced in m/sec2:
(A) 49.00 (B*) 5.00 (C) 1.46 (D) 0.51
2. Gravels are dropped on a conveyor belt at the rate of 0.5 kg/sec. The extra force required in
newtons to keep the belt moving at 2 m/s is :
(A*) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 0.5
3. The velocity of a body at time t = 0 is 10 2 m/s in the northeast direction and it is moving with
2
an acceleration of 2 m/s directed towards the south. The magnitude and direction of the velocity
of the body after 5 sec will be :
(A*) 10 m/s, towards east (B) 10 m/s, towards north
(C) 10 m/s, towards south (D) 10 m/s, towards northeast

4. Which of the four arrangements in the figure correctly shows the vector addition of two forces F1

and F2 to yield the third force F3 :
(A) (B) (C*) (D)
5. A rope of length L is pulled by a constant force F. What is the tension in the rope at a distance x
from the end where the force is applied :
FL F( L x) FL Fx
(A) (B*) (C) (D)
x L Lx Lx
6. Three blocks of masses m1, m2 and m3 are connected by massless strings as shown on a
frictionless table. They are pulled with a force T3 = 40 N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg and m3 = 4 kg,
the tension T2 will be :
(A) 20 N (B) 40 N (C) 10 N (D*) 32 N

7. A block A of mass 7 kg is placed on a frictionless table. A thread tied to it passes over a friction-
less pulley and carries a body B of mass 3 kg at the other end. The acceleration of the system is
(given g = 10 ms2)
(A) 100 ms2 (B*) 3 ms2 (C) 10 ms2 (D) 30 ms2

8. In the arrangement shown in figure the ends P and Q of an unstretchable string move down-
wards with uniform speed U. Pulleys A and B are fixed. Mass M moves upwards with a speed :
A B
P Q
(A) 2U cos (B) U cos (C) 2U / cos (D*) U / cos

9. A force of 50 dynes is acted on a body of mass 5 g which is at rest for an interval of 3 seconds,
then impulse is :
(A) 0.15 103 Ns (B*) 0.98 103 Ns (C*) 1.5 103 Ns (D) 2.5 103 Ns
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. At a place where the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m sec2 a force of 5 kgwt acts on a body
of mass 10 kg initially at rest. The velocity of the body after 4 second is :
(A) 5 m sec1 (B) 10 m sec1 (C*) 20 m sec1 (D) 50 m sec1
2. A vehicle of 100 kg is moving with a velocity of 5 m/sec. To stop it in 1/10 sec, the required force in
opposite direction is :
(A*) 5000 N (B) 500 N (C) 50 N (D) 1000 N
3. A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift. A man hangs his bag on the spring and the spring reads
49 N, when the lift is stationary. If the lift moves downward with an acceleration of 5 m/s2, the reading of
the spring balance will be :
(A) 49 N (B*) 24 N (C) 74 N (D) 15 N
4. Three weight A, B and C are connected by string as shown in the figure. The
system moves over a frictionless pulley. The tension in the string connecting A
and B is (where g is acceleration due to gravity.):
(A) g (B*) g/9
(C) 8g/9 (D) 10g/9
5. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their vector differences. In that case, the force :
(A*) Are equal to each other in magnitude. (B) Are not equal to each other in magnitude.
(C) Cannot be predicted. (D) Are equal to each other.
6. A body of weight 2kg is suspended as shown in the figure. The

tension T1 in the horizontal string (in kg wt) is :
(A) 2l (B) l2 (C*) 2 (D) 2
P
7. One end of a massless rope, which passes over a massless and
frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook C while the other end is free.
Maximum tension that the rope can bear is 360 N with what value of
minimum safe acceleration (in ms2) can a monkey of 60 kg move down
on the rope : C
(A) 16 (B) 6 (C*) 4 (D) 8
8. Two masses M and M/2 are joint together by means of a light inextensible string
passes over a frictionless pulley as shown in figure. When bigger mass is
released the small one will ascend with an acceleration of:
(A*) g/3 (B) 3g/2
(C) g/2 (D) g
9. If above system is acceleration with acceleration 1 m/s2 upward than

(A) acceleration of mass M is ...........
(B) Tension in string is ................
a
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Pulling force making an angle to the horizontal is applied on a block of weight W placed on a horizontal
table. If the angle of friction is , then the magnitude of force required to move the body is equal
to:
W sin W cos W sin W tan
(A) (B) (C*) (D)
g tan( ) cos( ) cos( ) sin( )
2. Two masses A and B of 10 kg and 5 kg respectively are connected with a

string passing over a frictionless pulley fixed at the corner of a table as shown.
The coefficient of static friction of A with table is 0.2. The minimum mass of
C that may be placed on A to prevent it from moving is :
(A*) 15 kg (B) 10 kg (C) 5 kg (D) 12 kg
3. The limiting friction is :

(A*) Always greater than the dynamic friction.
(B) Always less than the dynamic friction.
(C) Equal to the dynamic friction.
(D) Sometimes greater and sometimes less than the dynamic friction.
4. The blocks A and B are arranged as shown in the figure. The pulley is
frictionless. The mass of A is 10kg. The coefficient of friction of A with the
horizontal surface is 0.20. The minimum mass of B to start the motion will
be:
(A*) 2 kg (B) 0.2 kg (C) 5 kg (D) 10 kg
5. A uniform chain of length L changes party from a table which is kept in equilibrium by friction. The
maximum length that can withstand without slipping is l, then coefficient of friction between the table
and the chain is :
1 1 1 L
(A) (B) (C*) (D)
L L 1 L 1 L 1
6. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against
a wall. The coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.2, the
weight of the block is :
(A*) 2 N (B) 20 N (C) 50 N (D) 100 N
7. A car is moving along a straight horizontal road with a speed 0. If the coefficient of friction between
the tyres and the road is , the shortest distance in which the car can be stopped is :
20 0 F I
(C) G J
2
0
Hg K
0
(A*) (B) (D)
2g g
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
Q1. The least count of an instrument is 0.01 cm. Taking all precautions the most possible error in the
measurement can be:
(A) 0.005 cm (B) 0.001 cm (C*) 0.01 cm (D) 0.02 cm
Q2. If X is the mean absolute error and Xm is the mean value of a physical quantity X, then relative
error or fractional error is:
(A*) X /Xm (B) X + Xm (C) X - Xm (D) Xm X
Q3. The percentage error in above equation will be:
X X m X X m
(A) 100 % (B) 100 %
Xm Xm
(C*) X /Xm x 100% (D) Xm/ X 100%
Q4. If X is absolute error in the measurement of X and Y is absolute error in the measurement of
Y, then maximum absolute error in the measurement of difference of X and Y is:
(A) (X-Y) (B*) (X + Y) (C) X/Y (D) XY
Q5. The length of a rod is (11.05 0.05) cm. What is the length of two rods?
(A) (22.1 0.05) cm (B*) (22.1 0.1) cm (C) (22.10 0.05) cm (D) (22.10 0.01) cm
Q6. The X is absolute error in the measurement of X, Y is absolute error in the measurement of
Y and Q is absolute error in Q, i.e., product of X and Y, then maximum fractional error in the
product of quantities:
X Y X Y X Y X Y
(A*) (B) (C) (D)
X Y X Y X Y X Y
Xn
Q7. If Q = and X is absolute error in the measurement of X, Y is absolute error in the
Ym
measurement of Y, then absolute error Q in Q is:
X Y X Y
(A) Q n m (B*) Q n m Q
X Y X Y
X Y X Y
(C) Q n m Q (D) Q n m Q
X Y Y X
Q8. The least count of a stop watch is 0.1 sec. The time of 20 oscillations of the pendulum is found
to be 20 sec. The percentage error in the time period is :
(A) 0.25% (B*) 0.5% (C) 0.75% (D) 1.0%
Q9. An experiment measured quantities a, b, c and then x is calaculated from x = ab2/c3. If the
percentage errors in a, b, c and +1%,+3% and +2% respectively, the percentage error in x can
be:
(A*) +13% (B) +7% (C) +4% (D) +1%
MEASUREMENT AND ERRORS

Q10. The length of a strip measured with a metre rod is 10.0 cm. Its width measured with a vernier
callipers is 1.00 cm. The least count of the metre rod is 0.1 cm and that of vernier callipers
0.01cm. What will be error in its area ?
(A) +0.01 cm2 (B) +0.1 cm2 (C) +0.11 cm2 (D*) +0.2 cm2
Q11. The percentage errors in the measurment of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. How
much will be the maximum error in the estimate of the kinetic energy obtained by measuring
mass and speed ?
(A) 11% (B*) 8% (C) 5% (D) 1%
Q12. While measuring the acceleration due to gravity by a simple pendulum, a student makes a positive
error of 1% in the length of the pendulum and a negative error of 3% in the value of time period.
His percentage error in the measurement of g by the relation g = 42(l/T2) will be:
(A) 2% (B) 4% (C*) 7% (D) 10%
Q13. The radius of a ball is (5.0+0.2) cm. The percentage error in the volume of the ball is :
(A*) 12% (B) 4% (C) 7% (D) 9%
Q14. Error in the measurment of radius of a sphere is 1%. The error in the calculated value of its
volume is :
(A) 1% (B*) 3% (C) 5% (D) 7%
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A body of mass m is tied to one end of a string of length l and revolves vertically in a circular path.
The difference between the tension of the string at the highest and the lowest points will be :
(A) 2mg (B) 4mg (C) 6mg (D*) 6mg
2. An object of mass 100gms is tied to one end of a string of one meter length. It revolves along a
circular path in a vertical plane. Its velocity is 2m/sec when string makes an angle of 60 with the
vertical. The tension at this position will be :
(A) 0.4N (B) 0.49N (C*) 0.89N (D) 0.98N
3. A motorcycle is moving in a vertical circular path. At what stage will the speed of the motorcycle
be maximum ?
(A) At the highest point of the path. (B*) At the lowest point of the path.
(C) At the mid height of the path. (D) At all the points in the path.
4. A simple pendulum of mass m with length of string l, is released from the point in the level of point
of suspension (making angle 90 with vertical). The tension of the string at the lowest position of
the pendulum will be :
(A) 6 mg (B*) 3 mg (C) 2 mg (D) 4 mg
5. A bucket full of water is revolved in a vertical circular path of radius R. What is the critical velocity
of the bucket so that the water does not spill ?
(A) R/g (B*) Rg (C) R/g (D) Rg
6. For a body moving along a vertical circle, the minimum speed at the highest point of circle, will be
(A) 3rg (B) 5rg (C*) rg (D) any value
7. An aeroplane flying at 100 m/sec dives in a vertical plane along the circle of radius 200 m. The
mass of the pilot is 75kg. What will be the force exerted by the pilot on his seat when the aeroplane
is at the maximum height (in kgwt.) :
(A*) 300 (B) 200 (C) 450 (D) 100
8. In the above question, the force exerted when the pilot is at the lowest point (in kg wt.) is :
(A*) 450 (B) 250 (C) 300 (D) 100
9. A particle rests on the top of a hemi-sphere of radius R. The minimum linear horizontal velocity
for the particle to leave the vertex without slipping will be :
(A) v 2gR (B) v gR / 2 (C*) v gR (D) v 2g / R
10. The minimum speed of a body at the highest point to complete a circle in a vertical plane should
be :
(A*) rg (B) 2rg (C) 2rg (D) 4rg
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A body of mass m is suspended from a string of length L. What is the minimum speed given to it
that there is no slag in the string :
(A) Lg (B) 2Lg (C*) 5Lg (D) none of these
2. A stone of mass lkg is tied to a rope lm long. It is rotated in a verticle circle at the speed of 4m/
sec. The value of tension will be 6N, when the stone is at :
(A*) top of the circle. (B) the lowest point of the circle.
(C) half way down. (D) none of these.
3. If a body of mass m kg is tied with string of 1 m length and then revolved in vertical circle, then the
critical velocity (in m/s) will be:
(A) 6.32 (B*) 3.16 (C) 9.48 (D) 12.64
4. A stone tied to a string of length L is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of the string at the
centre. It a certain instant of times the stone is at its lowest position and has a speed u. The
magnitude of change in velocity as it reaches a position where the string is horizontal is :
(A) u 2 2gL (C) 2gL (B) u2 gL (D*) 2(u2 gL )
5. A weightless string can hbear tension upto 3.7 kg wt. A stone of mass 500 gm is attached to it
and is rotated in a vertical circle of radius 4m. If g = 10m/s2, the maximum velocity (in rad/sec) of
stone will be :
(A) 4 (B*) 16 (C) 21 (D) 2
6. A motorcycle is moving on a vertical bridge of radius R. The driver is driving at a constant speed
when it is moving upwards on the bridge, the normal force on it :
(A*) increases (B) decreases
(C) remain same (D) increases and decreases
7. The radius of a sphere for performing motion of a motorcycle in some circus is 6.4 m. To complete
a vertical circle the critical speed of the motorcycle (in m/s1) should be :
(A*) 8.0 (B) 10.2 (C) 12.4 (D) 16.0
8. A heavy bob is connected to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The maximum possibility
of wire to break will be :
(A) at the highest point of the circle.
(B*) at the lowest point of the circle.
(C) when wire is in horizontal position.
(D) when the wire is making angle of cos1 (1/3) to the vertical.
9 The height of a swing changes above the ground from 0.1m to 2.5m while in motion. The minimum
speed of a body swinging on it will be :
(A) 5.4 m/s (B) 4.95 m/s (C) 3.14 m/s (D*) zero
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A point source of light is placed in front of a plane mirror.
(A*) All the reflected rays meet at a point when produced backward.
(B) Only the reflected rays close to the normal meet at a point when produced backward.
(C) Only the reflected rays making a small angle with the mirror, meet at a point when produced
backward.
(D) Light of different colours make different images.
2. Total internal reflection can take place only if
(A) light goes from optically rarer medium (smaller refractive index) to optically denser medium
(B*) light goes from optically denser medium to rarer medium
(C) the refractive indices of the two media are close to each other
(D) the refractive indices of the two media are widely different.
3. In image formation from spherical mirrors, only paraxial rays are considered because they
(A) are easy to handle geometrically
(B) contain most of the intensity of the incident light
(C*) form nearly a point image of a point source
(D) show minimum dispersion effect.
4. A point object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm. The
image will form at
(A) infinity (B) pole (C) focus (D*) 15 cm behind the mirror.
5. Figure shows two rays A and B being reflected by a mirror and going as A and B. The mirror
(A*) is plane (B) is convex
(C) is concave (D) may be any spherical mirror.
6. The image formed by a concave mirror

(A) is always real (B) is always virtual
(C*) is certainly real if the object is virtual (D) is certainly virtual if the object is real.
7. Figure shows three transparent media of refractive indices 1, 2 and 3. A point object O is
placed in the medium 2. If the entire medium on the right of the spherical surface has refractive
index 3 the image forms at O. If this entire medium has refractive index 3, the image forms at
O. In the situation shown,
(A) the image forms between O and O
(B) the image forms to the left of O
(C) the image forms to the right of O
(D*) two images form, one at O and the other at O.
8. Four modifications are suggested in the lens formula to include the effect of the thickness t of the
lens. Which one is likely to be correct ?
1 1 t t 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 t t
(A) (B) (C*) (D)
v u uf v 2
u f vt ut f v u uv f
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A double convex lens has two surfaces of equal radii R and refractive index = 1.5. We have,
(A) f = R/2 (B*) f = R (C) f = R (D) f = 2R
2. A point source of light is placed at a distance of 2 f from a converging lens of focal length f. The
intensity on the other side of the lens is maximum at a distance
(A) f (B) between f and 2f (C*) 2 f (D) more than 2 f
3. A parallel beam of light is incident on a converging lens parallel to its principal axis. As one moves
away from the lens on the other side on its principal axis, the intensity of light
(A) remains constant (B) continuously increases
(C) continuously decreases (D*) first increases then decreases.
4. A symmetric double convex lens is cut in two equal parts by a plane perpendicular to the principal
axis. If the power of the original lens was 4 D, the power of a cut-lens will be
(A*) 2 D (B) 3 D (C) 4 D (D) 5 D.
5. A symmetric double convex lens is cut in two equal parts by a plane containing the principal axis.
K the power of the original lens was 4 D, the power of a divided lens will be
(A) 2 D (B) 3 D (C*) 4 D (D) 5 D.
6. Two concave lenses L1 and L2 are kept in contact with each other. If the space between the two
lenses is filled with a material of refractive index 1, the magnitude of the focal length of the
combination
(A) becomes undefined (B) remains unchanged
(C*) increases (D) decreases.
7. A thin lens is made with a material having refractive index = 1.5. Both the sides are convex. It is
dipped in water ( = 1.33). It will behave like
(A*) a convergent lens (B) a divergent lens (C) a rectangular slab (D) a prism.
8. A convex lens is made of a material having refractive index 1.2. Both the surfaces of the lens are
convex. If it is dipped into water ( = 1.33), it will behave like
(A) a convergent lens (B*) a divergent lens (C) a rectangular slab (D) a prism.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A point object O is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length f = 20 cm at a
distance of 40 cm to the left of it. The diameter of the lens is 10 cm. An eye is placed 60 cm to
right of the lens and a distance h below the principal axis. The maximum value of h to see the
image is
(A) 0 (B*) 2-5 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 10 cm.
2. The rays of different colours fail to converge at a point after going through a converging lens. This
defect is called
(A) spherical aberration (B) distortion
(C) coma (D*) chromatic aberration.
3. If the light moving in a straight line bends by a small but fixed angle, it may be a case of
(A*) reflection (B*) refraction (C) diffraction (D) dispersion.
4. Mark the correct options.

(A) If the incident rays are converging, we have a real object.
(B*) If the final rays are converging, we have a real image.
(C) The image of a virtual object is called a virtual image.
(D) If the image is virtual, the corresponding object is called a virtual object.
5. Which of the following (referred to a spherical mirror) do (does) not depend on whether the rays
are paraxial or not ?
(A*) Pole. (B) Focus.
(C*) Radius of curvature. (D*) Principal axis.
6. The image of an extended object, placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a mirror, will be
erect if
(A) the object and the image are both real (B) the object and the image are both virtual
(C*) the object is real but the image is virtual (D*) the object is virtual but the image is real.
7. A convex lens forms a real image of a point object placed on its principal axis. If the upper half of
the lens is painted black,
(A) the image will be shifted downward (B) the image will be shifted upward
(C*) the image will not be shifted (D*) the intensity of the image will decrease.
8. Consider three converging lenses L1, L2 and L3 having identical geometrical construction. The
index of refraction of L1 and L2 are 1, and 2 respectively. The upper half of the lens L3 has a
refractive index 1 and the lower half has 2 (figure). A point object O is imaged at O1 by the lens
L1 and at O2 by the lens L2 placed in same position. If L3 is placed at the same place,
(A*) there will be an image at O,
(B*) there will be an image at O2.
(C) the only image will form somewhere between O, and O2
(D) the only image will form away from O2.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. The coordinates of 2gm, 3gm and 5gm particles are (1/2, -1/2, 1), (-2, 2, 1) and (3, 7, 5).
The coordinates of their centre of mass will be :
(A) (2,10,7) (B*) (1, 4, 3) (C) (5, 3, 1) (D) (11, 43, 30)
2. In the above question, the distance of CM. from the origin will be :
(A*) 5 (B) 19 (C) 8 (D) 30
3. Masses of 1 kg each are placed on the corners B and C of a square. Where should be a mass of
2 kg placed so that the centre of mass of the system may be at O :
(A*) P (B) R
(C) S (D) R
4. A body falling freely towards the earth explodes into several fragments. During this explosion, the
path of centre of mass of the fragments will be :
(A*) along the line of motion before explosion (B) on the point of explosion
(C) deviate from the normal (D) be parabolic
5. Three particles, whose masses are 2, 4 and 6gm respectively are placed at r, r/2 and r/3 with
reference to origin. Their centre of mass will be at :
(A) 6r (B) 12 r (C) r + (r/2) + r/3 (D*) r/2
6. In a system the position vector of particles of 10, 20, 30 and 40 gm is i 2 j 3k ] i 2 j k ]
i 2 j k and i 0 j 2k . The position vector of the centre of mass will be :

(A) 2 i 4 j 3k (B*) 0 i 0 j 0k
(C) i 2 j 6k (D) i j k
7. As shown in the figure, a portion of the square of side a is removed. The centre of mass then,
shifts from its previous position by :
(A*) a / 6 2 (B) a / 2
(C) a / 3 2 (D) 2 2a
8. The mass of a square uniform plate is 2 kg. On placing masses of 1 kg on each of the corners B
and C, the centre of mass will be displaced to the middle point of the line :
(A) OC (B) OB
(C) OY (D*) OX
9. If two masses m1 and m2 are at distances r1 and r2 respectively from the C.M., then the following
relation is correct :
2 2
m1 r2 m1 r1
(A*) m1 / m2 = r2 / r1 (B) m1 / m 2 = r 1 / r2 (C) (D)
m2 r1 m2 r2
10. A ladder is leaned against a smooth wall and it is allowed to slip on a frictionless floor. Which figure
represents the track of its centre of mass :
(A*) (B) (C) (D)
Centre of mass
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. In the absence of an external force, the velocity of the centre of mass will :
(A) be zero (B*) be constant (C) increase (D) decrease
2. A body, moving with velocity v disintegrates into fragments of m1 and m2 masses respectively
and move with velocities V1 and v2. If m1 > m2, then the velocity of centre of mass will be :
(A) v1 + v2 (B) v1 - v2 (C*) v (D) zero
3. Two particles whose velocities are 10 i 2 j 3k and 7 i 9 j 6k form a particle system. If their
masses are 1gm and 3gm respectively, the velocity of the particle system will be :
29 15 31 29 15 31 29 15
(A) 31i j k (B*) i j k (C) i j 15k (D) 31i 29 j k
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
4. The centre of mass is a point for which, one of the following quantities of the system is zero :
(A) mass (B) gravitational force
(C*) mass moment (D) acceleration due to gravity
5. A bomb, when projected from the horizontal surface of the earth will move along a parabolic path,
provided it does not explode. If at any instant in the course of motion along the path, the bomb
explodes and its fragments of different masses move with different velocities and directions, the
centre of mass will :
(A*) move along parabolic path.
(B) move normal to the direction of explosion.
(C) move along the horizontal line of explosion.
(D) none of these.
6. Two particles A and B are initially at rest. They start moving towards each other due to mutual
attractive force. When the velocity of particle A is V, that of B at that instant is 2V. The velocity of
centre of mass will be :
(A) V (B*) zero (C) 1.5 V (D) 3 V
7. The distance between the carbon and oxygen atoms of carbon monooxide molecule is 1.12 .
The distance of carbon atom from the centre of mass will be :
10
( A ) 0 . 4 8 x 1 0 m (B) 0.51 x 10 10 m (C) 0.56 x 10 10 m (D*) 0.64 x 10 10 m
Centre of mass
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. In HCl molecule, separation between both the nuclei is 1.27. Locate the position of centre of
mass of this molecule. Chlorine atom is about 35.5 times as massive as a hydrogen atom.
33.5 1.27
[ Xcm 1.235 ]
36.5
2. Four particles of masses 1 kg, 2 kg, 3 kg and 4 kg are placed at four corners of a square of side
1 m. Locate the position of their centre of mass.
1 7
[CM will be situated at , ,0 ]
2 10
3.
Two particles having velocity vectors respectively as i j k and 2 i 2 j 2k form a two-
particle system. Their masses are respectively 1 kg and 2 kg. Find out total linear momentum of
system of particles about CM.

[P 0 ]
4. If three particles of masses 10, 20 and 30 kg are situated at (1, 1, 1), at what position a particle of
40 kg is to be placed so that CM is now situated at (0, 0, 0).
3 3 3
[mass of 40 kg is to be placed at , , ]
2 2 2
5. A body falling vertically down wards under gravity breaks in two parts of unequal masses. The
CM of the two parts taken together shifts horizontally -
(A*) towards heavier piece
(B) towards lighter piece
(C) does not shift horizontally
(D) depends on the vertical velocity at the time of breaking
6. If resutant of external forces acting on a system is zero, then centre of mass -

(A) must not move (B*) many move (C) may accelerate (D) none
7. Main reason of the motion of CM is :

(A) mutual force (B) nuclear force (C*) external force (D) none
8. A body of mass m kg initially at rest, explodes and breaks into there fragments of masses in the
ratio 1 : 3 : 3. The two pieces of 15 m/sec. each and third piece moves with a speed of 45 2 m/
sec., then the velocity of CM after explosion is -
(A) 5 m/sec. (B) 15 m/sec. (C) 15 2 m/sec. (D*) zero
Centre of mass
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Consider the following two equations :

1

(i) R M mi ri
i

and (ii) a CM
F
M
In a noninertial frame
(A) both are correct (B) both are wrong
(C*) (i) is correct but (ii) is wrong (D) (ii) is correct but (i) is wrong.
2. Consider the following two statements :
(i) Linear momentum of the system remains constant.
(ii) Centre of mass of the system remains at rest.
(A) (i) implies (ii) and (ii) implies (i). (B) (i) does not imply B and B does not imply (i).
(C) (i) implies (ii) but (ii) does not imply (i). (D*) (ii) implies (i) but (i) does not imply (ii).
(i) Linear momentum of a system of particles is zero.
(ii) Kinetic energy of a system of particles is zero.
(A) (i) implies (ii) and (ii) implies (i).
(B) (i) does not imply (ii) and (ii) does not imply (i).
(C) (i) implies (ii) but (ii) does not imply (i).
(D*) (ii) implies (i) but (i) does not imply (ii).
(i) The linear momentum of a particle is independent of the frame of reference.
(ii) The kinetic energy of a particle is independent of the frame of reference.
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are true, (B) (i) is true but (ii) is false,
(C) (i) is false but (ii) is true, (D*) both (i) and (ii) are false.
5. All the particles of a body are situated at a distance R from the origin. The distance of the centre
of mass of the body from the origin is
(A) R (B*) < R (C) > R (D) > R.
6. A circular plate of diameter d is kept in contact with a square plate of edge d as shown in figure.
The density of the material and the thickness are same everywhere. The centre of mass of the
composite system will be
(A) inside the circular plate (B*) inside the square plate
(C) at the point of contact (D) outside the system.
7. Consider a system of two identical particles. One of the particles is at rest and the other has an
acceleration a. The centre of mass has an acceleration
1
(A) zero (B*) a (C) a (D) 2a
2
8. Internal forces can change
(A) the linear momentum but not the kinetic energy
(B*) the kinetic energy but not the linear momentum
(C) linear momentum as well as kinet ic energy
(D) neither the linear momentum nor the kinetic energy.
9. A bullet hits a block kept at rest on a smooth horizontal surface and gets embedded into it. Which
of the following does not change ?
(A) linear momentum of the block (B) kinetic energy of the block
(C*) gravitational potential energy of the block (D) temperature of the block.
Centre of mass
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A uniform sphere is placed on a smooth horizontal surface and a horizontal force F is applied on
it at a distance h above the surface. The acceleration of the centre
(A) is maximum when h - 0 (B) is maximum when h = R
(C) is maximum when h - 2R (D*) is independent of h.
2. A body falling vertically downwards under gravity breaks in two parts of unequal masses. The
centre of mass of the two parts taken together shifts horizontally towards
(A) heavier piece (B) lighter piece
(C*) does not shift horizontally (D) depends on the vertical velocity at the time of breaking.
3. A ball kept in a closed box moves in the box making collisions with the walls. The box is kept on
a smooth surface. The velocity of the centre of mass
(A) of the box remains constant (B*) of the box plus the ball system remains constant
(C) of the ball remains constant (D) of the ball relative to the box remains constant.
4. A body at rest breaks into two pieces of equal masses. The parts will move
(A) in same direction (B) along different lines
(C*) in opposite directions with equal speeds (D) in opposite directions with unequal speeds.
5. The quantities remaining constant in a collision are

(A) momentum, kinetic energy and temperature
(B) momentum and kinetic energy but not temperature
(C) momentum and temperature but not kinetic energy
(D*) momentum, but neither kinetic energy nor temperature.
6. A shell is fired from a cannon with a velocity V at an angle 6 with the horizontal direction. At the
highest point in its path, it explodes into two pieces of equal masses. One of the pieces retraces
its path to the cannon. The speed of the other piece immediately after the explosion is
3
(A*) 3V cos (B) 2Vcos (C) Vcos (D) V cos.
2
7. In an elastic collision
(A*) the initial kinetic energy is equal to the final kinetic energy
(B) the final kinetic energy is less than the initial kinetic energy
(C) the kinetic energy remains constant
(D) the kinetic energy first increases then decreases.
8. In an inelastic collsion
(A) the initial kinetic energy is equal to the final kinetic energy
(B*) the final kinetic energy is less than the initial kinetic energy
(C) the kinetic energy remains the constant
(D) the kinetic energy first increases then decreases.
9. Two balls are thrown simultaneously in air. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the two balls
while in air
(A) depends on the direction of the motion of the balls
(B) depends on the masses of the two balls
(C) depends on the speeds of the two balls
(D*) is equal to g.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. The terminal potential difference of a cell is greater than its e.m.f., when it is :
(A*) being charged (B) on open circuit
(C) being discharged (D) being either charged or discharged
2. The terminal potential difference of a cell when short-circuited is :
(A) E (B) E/2 (C*) zero (D) E/3
3. The resistor R1 dissipates power P when connected to a generator. If a resistor R2 is inserted in
series with R1, the power dissipated by R1 :
(A) increases
(B*) decreases
(C) remains the same
(D) may decrease or increase depending on the values of R1 and R2.
4. Two resistors are connected (A) in series (B) in parallel. The equivalent resistance in the two
cases are 9 ohm and 2 ohm respectively. Then the resistances of the component resistors are :
(A) 2 and 9 (B*) 3 and 6 (C) 3 and 9 (D) 2 and 6
5. A wire of resistance R is stretched till its length is double of the original wire. Then the resistance
of the stretched wire is :
(A) 2R (B*) 4R (C) 8R (D) 16R
6. Two square metal plates A and B are of the same thickness and material. The side of B is twice
that of A. These are connected as shown in series. If the resistances of A and B are denoted by
RA and RB, then (RA/RB) is :
t
t
A B
l
2l
(A) 1/2 (B) 2/1 (C*) 1/1 (D) 4/1

7. The dimensions of a block are 1cm1cm100cm. If the specific resistance of its material is
3107 ohm metre, then the resistance between the opposite rectangular faces is :
(A) 3109ohm (B*) 3107ohm (C) 3105ohm (D) 3103ohm
8. In the Q.78, the resistance between the square faces is :
(A) 3109ohm (B) 3107ohm (C) 3105ohm (D*) 310
3
ohm
9. A current of 2 ampere flows in a system of conductors as shown in the following figure. The
potential difference (VAVB) will be (in volt) :
A
2 3
2amp
D C
3 2
(A) +2 (B*) +1 (C) 1 (D) 2

159. Two resistances R1 and R2 are joined, as shown in the figure, to two batteries of e.m.f. E1 and E2.
If E2 is short-circuited, the current through R1 is :
R1
E1 R2 E2
(A*) E1/R1 (B) E2/R1 (C) E2/R2 (D) E1/(R1+R2)

Current Electricity
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A circuit whose resistance R is connected to n similar cells. If the current in the circuit is the same whether
the cells are connected in series or in parallel, then the internal resistance r of each cell is given by:
(A) r = (R/n) (B) r = nR (C*) r = R (D) r = (1/R)
2. A technician has only two resistance coils. By using these singly, in series or in parallels, he is able to
obtain the resistances of 3 ohm, 4 ohm, 12 ohm and 16 ohm. Then the resistance of the two coils are:
(A) 6 ohm and 10 ohm (B*) 4 ohm and 12 ohm
(C) 7 ohm and 9 ohm (D) 4 ohm and 16 ohm
3. A current I flows through a uniform wire of diameter d, when the mean drift velocity is vd. The same
current will flow through a wire of diameter d/2 made of the same material if the mean drift velocity of the
electrons is :
(A) v/4 (B) v/2 (C*) 4v (D) 2v
4. A primary cell has e.m.f 2 volt. When short-circuited it gives a current of 4 amp. Its internal resistance in
ohm will be :
(A*) 0.5 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 8
5. The resistances in the following figure are in ohm. Then the effective resistance between the points A and B is:
3
3 3
6
6
6
3 3
A 3 B
(A) 3 (B*) 2 (C) 6 (D) 36
6. A current of 5 amp exists in a 10 ohm resistance for 4 min. How many coulombs pass through any cross-
section of the resistor in this time ?
(A) 12 coulombs (B) 120 coulombs (C*) 1200 coulombs (D) 12000 coulombs
7. In an experiment to measure the internal resistance of a cell by a potentiometer, it is found that the
balance point is at a length of 2m, when the cell is shunted by a 5 resistance and at a length of 3m, when
the cell is shunted by a 10 resistance. The internal resistance of the cell is then :
(A) 1.5 (B*) 10 (C) 15 (D) 1
8. The lamp of a flash light is of 1.5 resistance. It use 3 cells each of 1.5 V and internal resistance 0.25.
What is the net potential difference across the lamp ?
(A) 1.5 V (B) 2.25 V (C*) 3V (D) 4.5 V
9. 64 cells, each of e.m.f. 2 volt and internal resistance 2 are connected to supply a maximum current
through an external resistance of 8103. Then the cells must be connected in :
(A) series only (B*) parallel only
(C) mixed series and parallel arrangement (D) any of the above three combinations
Current Electricity
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
C
The fig. shows a network of resistance in which the point A is earthed.
4V

1. The point which has the least potential is
8V
(A) A *(B) B (C) C (D) D B D
2. The current through the 3 resistor is 2V

*(A) 2A from D to A (B) 2A from A to D A
(C) 3.33A from A to D (D) 2.33A from D to A
3. The current through the 4 resistor is
(A) 0.5A from B to C (B) 0.5A from C to B
*(C) 1A from C to B (D) 1A from B to C
4. We have four identical cells each of emf 2V and internal resistance 1 . Identify the
correct arrangement of these cells to get maximum current in the external resistance
of 4. 2V 2V
2V 2V 2V 2V

2V 2V
*(A) (B)

2V

2V
2V 2V 2V

2V
(C) (D)
2V
r
+
A battery of emf E with internal resistance r is connected
with a generator through a resistance R as shown in
fig.
5. In order to charge the battery, the output voltage V of the
generator R +V
*(A) must be greater than E (B) must be at least twice of E
(C) must be very large as compared to E. (D) must not be more than E.
6. The charging current I through the circuit is given by
V V E V E EV
(A) (B) *(C) (D)
Rr Rr Rr Rr
7. In a time t, the energy
(A) stored in the battery is (EIr)It
*(B) energy dissipated as heat is I 2 (R+r)t
*(C) energy supplied by the generator is VIt
(D) energy supplied by the generator is (VE)It
Current Electricity
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. If a cell of constant E.M.F. produces the same amount of the heat during the same time in two
idependent resistors R1 and R2, when they are separately connected across the terminal of the
cell, one after the another, the internal resistance of the cell is-
R1 R 2 R1 R 2 R1R 2
(A) (B) (C) (D*) R1R 2
2 2 2
(E) 2R1R 2
2. A microameter has a resistance of 100 and a full scale range of 50 A. It can be used as a
voltmeter or as a higher range ameter provided a resistance is added to it. Pick the correct range
and resistance combination (s).
(A) 50V range with 10 k resistance in series. (B*) 10V range with 200 k resistance in series.
(C) 5mA range with 1 resistance in parallel. (D) 10mA range with 1 resistance in parallel.
3. A wire of lenght L and 3 identical cells of negligible internal resistance are connected in series.
Due to the current, the temperature of the wire is raised by T in time t. N similar cells is now
connected in series with a wire of the same material and cross section but of length 2L. The
temperature of the wire is raised by the same amount T in the same time t. The value of N is-
(A) 4 (B*) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9
4. There is a miliammeter each division of which reads 1mA. It has a resistance of 15. How would
you convert it into a voltmeter so that each division of its graduation would read 1 volt.
Ans. 985
5. A moving coil galvanometer of resistance 20 gives a full scale deflection when a current of 1mA
is passed through it. It is to be converted into an ammeter reading 20A on full scale. But the shunt
of 0.005 only is available. What resistance should be connected in series with the galvanometer
coil?
Ans. 80
6. In a potentiometer experiment it is found that no current passes through the galvanometer when
the terminals of the cell are connected across 0.52 m of the potentiometer wire. If the cell is
shunted by a resistance of 5, a balance is obtained when the cell is connected across 0.4m of
the wire. Find the internal resistance of the cell.
Ans. 1.5
7. The resistance of a potentiometer wire 8 m long is 8. A high resistance box and a 2V accumulator
are connected in series with it. What should be the value of the resistance in the box, if it is desired
to have a potential drop of 1 V/mm?
Ans. 1992
8. An accumulator of emf 2 volt and negligible internal resistance is connected across a uniform wire
of length 10 m and resistance 30. The appropriate terminals of a cell of emf 1.5 Volt and internal
resistance 1 is connected to one end of the wire, and the other terminal of the cell is connected
through a sensitive galvanometer to a slider on the wire. What length of the wire will be required to
produce zero deflection of the galvanometer? How will balancing change :
(A) when a coil of resistance 5 is placed in series with the accumulator,
(B) the cell of 1.5 volt is shunted with 5 resistor?
Ans. 8.75 m, 6.25 m, 7.5 m
Current Electricity
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. As the temperature of a conductor increases, its resistivity and conductivity change. The ratio of
resistivity to conductivity-
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains constant
(D) may increase or decrease depending on the actual temperature.
2. Two wires each of radius of cross section r but of different materials are connected together end
to end (in series). If the densities of charge carriers in the two wires are in the ratio 1 : 4, the drift
velocities of electrons in the two wires will be in the ratio-
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
3. In a wire of cross-section radius r, free electrons travel with drift velocity v when a current flows
through the wire. What is the current in another wire of half the radius and of the same material
when the drift velocity is 2v?

(A) 2 (B) (C) (D)
2 4
4. Two identical fuses are rated at 10A. If they are joined-
(A) In parallel, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 20 A
(B) In parallel, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 5 A
(C) In series, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 10 A
(D) In series, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 20 A.
5. Both terminals of a battery of emf E and internal resistance r are grounded as shown. Select the
correct alternative-
E r
A B
(A) Potential difference across A and B is E

(B) Current across AB is zero
E
(C) Current across AB is
r
(D) None of these
6. A current flows through a uniform wire of diameter d when the mean electron drift velocity is v.
d
The same current will flow through a wire of diameter made of the same material if the mean
2
drift velocity of the electron is-
v v
(A) (B) (C) v (D) 2v (E) 4v
4 2
7. A metallic conductor of irregular cross-section is as shown in the figure. A constant potential
difference is applied across the ends (1) and (2). Then-
(A) The current at the cross-section P equals the current at the cross-section Q
(B) The electric field intensity at P is less than that at Q
(C) The rate of heat generated per unit time at Q is greater than that at P
(D) The number of electrons crossing per unit area of cross-section at P is less than that at Q
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A non conducting ring of radius R has two positive point charges lying diametrically opposite to
each other, each of magnitude Q. The ring rotates with an angular velocity . If is the equivalent
current then-
2Q
(A) = Q (B) (C) (D) = zero

2. A wire has a non-uniform cross-section as shown in figure. A steady current flows through it. The
drift speed of electrons at points P and Q is vP and vQ -
P Q
(A) vP = vQ (B) vP < vQ (C) vP > vQ (D) Data insufficient
3. When two identical lamps are connected in series to the circuit of a battery, the voltage drop
across the internal resistance is x% of the emf. The rated voltage of the lamp is V volts and the
rated power is P watt. The internal resistance r of the battery is ...........
4. In a electric circuit, a cell of constant E.M.F 6 V and internal resistance 2 is connected in

closed circuit with an external resistance. The potential difference across the terminals of the
cell is 5 volt. If the external resistance is doubled, the potential difference across the terminals of
the cell is _____.
5. A square pyramid is formed by joining 8 equal resistances R across the edges. The square base
of the pyramid has the corner at A, B, C, D. The vertex is at M. Calculate the
(a) current in the edge MC if an ideal cell of emf E is connected across the adjacent corners A
and B.
(b) current in the edge MA if an ideal cell of emf E is connected across the opposite corners A
and C.
6. In the circuit shown in figure, all wires have equal resistance r. The equivalent resistance between
A and B is-
C
3r 2r E
(A) (B) B
5 7 D
F
7r 3r
(C) (D) A
5 4
7. In the circuit shown E, F, G and H are cells of e.m.f. 2V, 1V, 3V and 1V respectively and their
internal resistances are 2, 1, 3 and 1 respectively.
2
(A) VD VB = V
13 A
2 F E
(B) VD VB = V
13 D B
2
21
(C) VG = V = potential difference across G G H
13
C
19
(D) VH = V = potential difference across H.
13
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Twelve identical resistors each of value 1 are connected as shown. Net resistance between C
and D is R C
7 4
(A) R = (B) R = G
6 3 E
A B
F
3 H
(C) R = 1 (D) R =
4
D
2. ABCD is a square where each side is a uniform wire of resistance 1. A point E lies on CD such
that if a uniform wire of resistance 1 is connected across AE and constant potential difference
is applied across A and C then B and E are equipotential-
CE CE
(A) 1 (B) 2
ED ED
CE 1 CE
(C) (D) 2
ED 2 ED
3. Two circuits (shown below) are called Circuit A and Circuit B. The equivalent resistance of
Circuit A is x and that of Circuit B is y between 1 and 2.
2
(A) y > x (B) y = ( 3 1) R (C) x y = 2R (D) x y = 2R
4. Find the potential difference between points M and N of the system shown in fig., if the electromotive
force
4 F E of the battery is 110 V and the capacitance ratio C2/C1 is 2. Ans. 10 V
A
5 F 8 F 2 F C1 C1
M
3 F
8 F E C2 C2
6 F 6 F
N
B
Fig.-50 Fig.-51
5. An infinite number of identical capacitors, each of capacitance 1 F are connected as infinite
number of rows each having 1, 4, 16, 64, 256 capacitors in series, and so on as indicated
in the fig. If these rows are connected in parallel, evaluate the equivalent capacitance between
terminals A and B. C
C C C C
C C
10 V 16
C C
64
Ans. 4/3 F
A B
Fig.-52 Fig.-53
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. In fig., all the capacitors have equal capacitances. Find the equivalent capacitance of the system

across the terminals A and B. C
A
C1 C2
1 2
C
C C C
Ans. 8C/3 Fig.-74

B
Fig.-75
2. Five cells of emfs 1V, 2V, 3V, 2V and 1V and having internal resistances 1, 2, 3, 2 and 1 ohm
respectively are connected as shown in figure : 1v, 1
2v, 2 1v, 1
(A) VA > VB (B) VA = VB A B
(C) VA < VB (D) VA = 2VB 3v, 3 2v, 2
3. Consider an infinite ladder network shown in figure. A voltage V is applied between the points A
and B. This applied value of voltage is halved after each section.
R1 R1 1
(A) R = 1 (B) R =
2 2 2
R1 R1
(C) R = 2 (D) R = 3
2 2
4. In the circuit shown

E = 10 volt (of zero internal resistance)
C = 5 F, R1 = 8,
R2 = 20, R3 = 30, R1 = 50 The charge on the capacitor at the steady state is __________.
5. The capacitor C shown in figure is charged by closing switch S for a long time. Find the charge
on it in steady state-
(A) 8F
(B) 10F
(C) 16F
(D) 20F
6. In previous question find the current in R just after switch S is closed.

(A) 1.56 A (B) 4.68 A (C) 2.34 A (D) 6.25 A
7. A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a resistance R. Resistance R
can be adjusted to any value greater than or equal to zero, A graph is plotted between the current
(i) passing through the resistance and potential difference (V) across it. Select the correct
alternative(s). V
(volt)
10
i
2 (ampere)
(A) internal resistance of battery is 5

(B) emf of the battery is 20V
(C) maximum current which can be taken from the battery is 4A
(D) V-i graph can never be a straight line as shown in figure.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008

1. Let A be a unit vector along the axis of rotation of a purely rotating body and B be a unit vector

along the velocity of a particle P of the body away from the axis. The value of A.B is
(A) 1 (B) 1 (C*) 0 (D) None of these.
2. A body is uniformly rotating about an axis fixed in an inertial frame of reference. Let A be a unit

vector along the axis of rotation and B be the unit vector along the resultant force on a particle P

of the body away from the axis. The value of A.B is
(A) 1 (B) 1 (C*) 0 (D) None of these.
3. A particle moves with a constant velocity parallel to the X-axis. Its angular momentum with respect
to the origin
(A) is zero (B*) remains constant(C) goes on increasing(D) goes on decreasing.
4. A body is in pure rotation. The linear speed of a particle, the distance r of the particle from the

axis and the angular velocity to of the body are related as . Thus
r
1
(A) (B) r (C) 0 (D*) is independent of r.
r
5. Figure shows a small wheel fixed coaxially on a bigger one of double the radius. The system
rotates about the common axis. The strings supporting A and B do not slip on the wheels. If x and
y be the distances travelled by A and B in the same time interval, then
(A) x 2 y (B) x y (C*) y = 2 x (D) none of these.

6. A body is rotating uniformly about a vertical axis fixed in an inertial frame. The resultant force on
a particle of the body not on the axis is
(A) vertical (B) horizontal and skew with the axis
(C*) horizontal and intersecting the axis (D) none of these.
7. A body is rotating nonuniformly about a vertical axis fixed in an inertial frame. The resultant force
on a particle of the body not on the axis is
(A) vertical (B*) horizontal and skew with the axis
(C) horizontal and intersecting the axis (D) none of these.

8. Let F be a force acting on a particle having position vector r . Let T be the torque of this force
about the origin, then

(A*) r . 0 and F. 0 (B) r . 0 but F. 0

(C) r . 0 but F. 0 (D) r . 0 and F. 0
9. One end of a uniform rod of mass m and length l is clamped. The rod lies on a smooth horizontal
surface and rotates on it about the clamped end at a uniform angular velocity . The force exerted
by the clamp on the rod has a horizontal component
1
(A) m2l (B) zero (C) mg (D*) m2l
2
10. A uniform rod is kept vertically on a horizontal smooth surface at a point O. If it is rotated slightly
and released, it falls down on the horizontal surface. The lower end will remain
(A) at O (B) at a distance less than l/2 from O
(C*) at a distance l/2 from O (D) at a distance larger than l/2 from O.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A circular disc A of radius r is made from an iron plate of thickness t and another circular disc B
of radius 4r is made from an iron plate of thickness t/A. The relation between the moments of
inertia IA and IB is
(A) IA > IB (B) IA IB
(C*) IA< IB (D) depends on the actual values of t and r.
2. Equal torques act on the discs A and B of the previous problem, initially both being at rest. At a
later instant, the linear speeds of a point on the rim of A and another point on the rim of B are A
and B respectively. We have
(A*) A > B
(B) A = B
(C) A < B
(D) the relation depends on the actual magnitude of the torques.
3. A closed cylindrical tube containing some water (not filling the entire tube) lies in a horizontal
plane. If the tube is rotated about a perpendicular bisector, the moment of inertia of water about
the axis
(A*) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains constant
(D) increases if the rotation is clockwise and decreases if it is anticlockwise.
4. The moment of inertia of a uniform semicircular wire of mass M and radius r about a line
perpendicular to the plane of the wire through the centre is
1 2 1 2
(A*) Mr2 (B) Mr (C) Mr2 (D) Mr2
2 4 5
5. Let I1 and I2 be the moments of inertia of two bodies of identical geometrical shape, the first made
of aluminium and the second of iron.
(A*) I1 < I2
(B) I1 = I2
(C) I1 > I2
(D) relation between I1 and I2 depends on the actual shapes of the bodies.
6. A body having its centre of mass at the origin has three of its particles at (a,0,0), (0,a,0), (0,0,a).
The moments of inertia of the body about the X and Y axes arc 0.20 kg-m each. The moment of
inertia about the Z-axis
(A) is 0.20 kgm2 (B) is 040kgm2
(C) is 0.20 2 kg-m2 (D*) cannot be deduced with this information.
7. A cubical block of mass M and edge a slides down a rough inclined plane of inclination 6 with a
uniform velocity. The torque of the normal force on the block about its centre has a magnitude
(A) zero (B) Mga (C) Mga sin (D*) Mga sin
8. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with an angular speed . Two
particles having mass m each are now attached at diametrically opposite points. The angular
speed of the ring will become
M M (M 2m) (M 2m)
(A) (B*) (C) (D)
Mm M 2m M 2m M
9. A person sitting firmly over a rotating stool has his arms stretched. If he folds his arms, his
angular momentum about the axis of rotation
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C*) remains unchanged (D) doubles.
10. The centre of a wheel rolling on a plane surface moves with a speed 0. A particle on the rim of
the wheel at the same level as the centre will be moving at speed
(A) zero (B) 0 (C*) 2 0 (D) 20
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A wheel of radius 20 cm is pushed to move it on a rough horizontal surface. It is found to move
through a distance of 60 cm on the road during the time it completes one revolution about the
centre. Assume that the linear and the angular accelerations are uniform. The frictional force
acting on the wheel by the surface is
(A*) along the velocity of the wheel (B) opposite to the velocity of the wheel
(C) perpendicular to the velocity of the wheel(D) zero.
2. The angular velocity of the engine (and hence of the wheel) of a scooter is proportional to the
petrol input per second. The scooter is moving on a frictionless road with uniform velocity. If the
petrol input is increased by 10%, the linear velocity of the scooter is increased by
(A) 50% (B) 10% (C) 20% (D*) 0%
3. A solid sphere, a hollow sphere and a disc, all having B same mass and radius, are placed at the
top of a smooth I incline and released. Least time will be taken in I reaching the bottom by
(A) the solid sphere (B) the hollow sphere (C) the disc (D*) all will take same time
4. A solid sphere, a hollow sphere and a disc, all having I same mass and radius, are placed at the
top of an incline I and released. The friction coefficients between the I objects and the incline are
same and not sufficient to I allow pure rolling. Least time will be taken in reaching I the bottom by
(A) the solid sphere (B) the hollow sphere (C) the disc (D*) all will take same time
5. In the previous question, the smallest kinetic energy at I the bottom of the incline will be achieved
by
(A) the solid sphere (B*) the hollow sphere
(C) the disc (D) all will achieve same kinetic energy,
6. A string of negligible thickness is wrapped several times around a cylinder kept on a rough horizontal
surface. A man standing at a distance I from the cylinder holds one end of the string and pulls the
cylinder towards him. There is no slipping anywhere. The length of the string passed through the
hand of the man while the cylinder reaches his hands is
(A) l (B*) 2l (C) 3l (D) 4l

7. The axis of rotation of a purely rotating body
(A) must pass through the centre of mass (B*) may pass through the centre of mass
(C) must pass through a particle of the body (D*) may pass through a particle of the body.
8. Consider the following two equations
dL
(i) L = I (ii)
dt
In noninertial frames
(A) both (i) and ii are true (B*) A is true but B is false
(C) (ii) is true but i is false (D) both A and B are false.
9. A particle moves on a straight line with a uniform velocity. Its angular momentum
(A) is always zero
(B*) is zero about a point on the straight line
(C*) is not zero about a point away from the straight line
(D*) about any given point remains constant.
10. If there is no external force acting on a nonrigid body, which of the following quantities must
remain constant ?
(A*) angular momentum (B*) linear momentum
(C) kinetic energy (D) moment of inertia.
11. Let IA and IB be moments of inertia of a body about two axes A and B respectively. The axis A
passes through the centre of mass of the body but B does not.
(A) IA < IB (B) If IA < IB the axes are parallel.
(C*) If the axes are parallel, I < I ? (D) If the axes are not parallel, I > I
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A sphere is rotating about a diameter.
(A) The particles on the surface of the sphere do not have any linear acceleration.
(B*) The particles on the diameter mentioned above do not have any linear acceleration.
(C) Different particles on the surface have different angular speeds.
(D) All the particles on the surface have same linear speed.
2. The density of a rod gradually decreases from one end to the other. It is pivoted at an end so that it can move
about a vertical axis through the pivot. A horizontal force F is applied on the free end in a direction perpendicular
to the rod. The quantities, that do not depend on which end of the rod is pivoted, are
(A) angular acceleration
(B) angular velocity when the rod completes one rotation
(C) angular momentum when the rod completes one rotation
(D*) torque of the applied force.
3. Consider a wheel of a bicycle rolling on a level road at a linear speed 0
(A*) the speed of the particle A is zero
(B) the speed of B, C and D are all equal to 0
(C*) the speed of C is 2 0
(D*) the speed of B is greater than the speed of O.
4. Two uniform solid spheres having unequal masses and unequal radii are released from rest from the same
height on a rough incline. If the spheres roll without slipping,
(A) the heavier sphere reaches the bottom first
(B) the bigger sphere reaches the bottom first
(C*) the two spheres reach the bottom together
(D) the information given is not sufficient to tell which sphere will reach the bottom first.
5. A hollow sphere and a solid sphere having same mass and same radii are rolled down a rough inclined plane.
(A) The hollow sphere reaches the bottom first.
(B*) The solid sphere reaches the bottom with greater speed.
(C) The solid sphere reaches the bottom with greater kinetic energy.
(D) The two spheres will reach the bottom with same linear momentum.
6. A sphere cannot roll on
(A) a smooth horizontal surface (B*) a smooth inclined surface
(C) a rough horizontal surface (D) a rough inclined surface.
7. In rear-wheel drive cars, the engine rotates the rear wheels and the front wheels rotate only because the car
moves. If such a car accelerates on a horizontal road, the friction
(A*) on the rear wheels is in the forward direction
(B*) on the front wheels is in the backward direction
(C*) on the rear wheels has larger magnitude than the friction on the front wheels
(D) on the car is in the backward direction.
2
8. A sphere can roll on a surface inclined at an angle if 2 the friction coefficient is more than g tan.
7
1
Suppose the friction coefficient is g tan. If a sphere is released from rest on the incline,
7
(A) it will stay at rest
(B) it will make pure translational motion
(C*) it will translate and rotate about the centre
(D) the angular momentum of the sphere about its centre will remain constant.
9. A sphere is rolled on a rough horizontal surface. It gradually slows down and stops. The force of friction tries
to
(A*) decrease the linear velocity (B*) increase the angular velocity
(C) increase the linear momentum (D) decrease the angular velocity.
10. Figure shows a smooth inclined plane fixed in a car accelerating on a horizontal road. The angle of incline
is related to the acceleration a of the car as a= g tan. If the sphere is set in pure rolling on the incline,
(A*) it will continue pure rolling (B) it will slip down the plane
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A positively charged particle projected towards east is deflected towards north by a magnetic
field. The field may be
(A) towards west (B) towards south (C) upward (D*) downward.
2. A charged particle is whirled in a horizontal circle on a frictionless table by attaching it to a string

fixed at one point. If a magnetic field is switched on in the vertical direction, the tension in the
string
(A) will increase (B) will decrease
(C) will remain the same (D*) may increase or decrease.
3. Which of the following particles will experience maximum magnetic force (magnitude) when
projected with the same velocity perpendicular to a magnetic field ?
(A) electron (B) proton (C) He+ (D*) Li++
4. Which of the following particles will describe the smallest circle when projected with the same
velocity perpendicular to a magnetic field ?
(A*) electron (B) proton (C) He+ (D) Li+
5. Which of the following particles will have minimum frequency of revolution when projected with
the same velocity perpendicular to a magnetic field ?
(A) electron (B) proton (C) He+ (D*) Li+
6. A circular loop of area 1 cm , carrying a current of 10 A, is placed in a magnetic field of 0.1 T

perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The torque on the loop due to the magnetic field is
(A*) zero (B) 104 N-m (C) 102 N-m (D) 1 N-m.
7. A beam consisting of protons and electrons moving at the same speed goes through a thin
region in which there is a magnetic field perpendicular to the beam. The protons and the elec-
trons
(A) will go undeviated
(B) will be deviated by the same angle and will not separate
(C*) will be deviated by different angles and hence separate
(D) will be deviated by the same angle but will separate.
8. A charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic field. The velocity of the particle at some instant
makes an acute angle with the magnetic field. The path of the particle will be
(A) a straight line (B) a circle
(C*) a helix with uniform pitch (D) a helix with nonuniform pitch.
9. A particle moves in a region having a uniform magnetic field and a parallel, uniform electric field.
At some instant, the velocity of the particle is perpendicular to the field direction. The path of the
particle will be
(A) a straight line (B) a circle
(C) a helix with uniform pitch (D*) a helix with nonuniform pitch.
10. An electric current i enters and leaves a uniform circular wire of radius a through diametrically
opposite points. A charged particle q moving along the axis of the circular wire passes through its
centre at speed . The magnetic force acting on the particle when it passes through the centre
has a magnitude
0i 0i 0i
(A) q (B) q (C) q (D*) zero
2a 2a a
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. If a charged particle at rest experiences no electromagnetic force,

(A*) the electric field must be zero (B) the magnetic field must be zero
(C) the electric field may or may not be zero (D*) the magnetic field may or may not be zero.
2. If a charged particle kept at rest experiences an electromagnetic force,

(A*) the electric field must not be zero (B*) the magnetic field must not be zero
(C) the electric field may or may not be zero (D) the magnetic field may or may not be zero.
3. If a charged particle projected in a gravity-free room deflects,

(A) there must be an electric field (B) there must be a magnetic field
(C*) both fields cannot be zero (D*) both fields can be nonzero.
4. A charged particle moves in a gravity-free space without change in velocity. Which of the following
is/are possible ?
(A*) E = 0, B = 0 (B*) E = 0, B 0 (C) E Q, B = 0 (D*) E 0, B Q.
5. A charged particle moves along a circle under the action of possible constant electric and magnetic
fields. Which of the following are possible ?
(A) E = 0, B = 0 (B*) E = 0, B 0 (C) E 0, B = 0 (D) E 0, B 0.
6. A charged particle goes undeflected in a region containing electric and magnetic field. It is possible
that

(A*) E || B, || E (B*) E is not parallel to B

(C) || B but E is not parallel to B (D) E || B but is not parallel to E .
7. If a charged particle goes unaccelerated in a region containing electric and magnetic fields,

(A*) E must be perpendicular to B (B*) must be perpendicular to E

(C) must be perpendicular to B (D) E must be equal to B.
8. Two ions have equal masses but one is singly-ionized and the other is doubly-ionized. They are
projected from the same place in a uniform magnetic field with the same velocity perpendicular
to the field.
(A) Both ions will go along circles of equal radii.
(B*) The circle described by the singly-ionized charge will have a radius double that of the other
circle.
(C) The two circles do not touch each other.
(D*) The two circles touch each other.
9. An electron is moving along the positive X-axis. You want to apply a magnetic field for a short time
so that the electron may reverse its direction and move parallel to the negative X-axis. This can
be done by applying the magnetic field along
(A*) Y-axis (B*) Z-axis (C) Y-axis only (D) Z-axis only.

10. Let E and B denote electric and magnetic fields in a frame S and E and B in another frame S

moving with respect to S at a velocity . Two of the following equations are wrong. Identify them.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
E z B z
(A) B y ' B y 2 (B*) E y ' E y 2 (C*) B y ' B y E z (D) E y ' E y B z
c c
1. A vertical wire carries a current in upward direction. An electron beam sent horizontally towards
the wire will be deflected
(A) towards right (B) towards left (C*) upwards (D) downwards.
2. A current-carrying, straight wire is kept along the axis of a circular loop carrying a current. The
straight wire
(A) will exert an inward force on the circular loop
(B) will exert an outward force on the circular loop
(C*) will not exert any force on the circular loop
(D) will exert a force on the circular loop parallel to itself.
3. A proton beam is going from north to south and an electron beam is going from south to north.
Neglecting the earths magnetic field, the electron beam will be deflected
(A*) towards the proton beam (B) away from the proton beam
(C) upwards (D) downwards.
4. A circular loop is kept in that vertical plane which contains the north-south direction. It carries a
current that is towards north at the topmost point. Let A be a point on the axis of the circle to the
east of it and B a point on this axis to the west of it. The magnetic field due to the loop
(A) is towards east at A and towards west at B
(B) is towards west at A and towards east at B
(C) is towards east at both A and B
(D*) is towards west at both A and B.
5. Consider the situation shown in figure. The straight wire is fixed but the loop can move under
magnetic force. The loop will
(A) remain stationary (B*) move towards the wire

(C) move away from the wire (D) rotate about the wire.
6. A charged particle is moved along a magnetic field line. The magnetic force on the particle is
(A) along its velocity (B) opposite to its velocity
(C) perpendicular to its velocity (D*) zero.
7. A moving charge produces
(A) electric field only (B) magnetic field only (C*) both of them (D) none of them.
8. A particle is projected in a plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. The area bounded by
the path described by the particle is proportional to
(A) the velocity (B) the momentum (C*) the kinetic energy (D) none of these.
9. Two particles X and Y having equal charge, after being accelerated through the same potential
difference enter a region of uniform magnetic field and describe circular paths of radii Rl and R2
respectively. The ratio of the mass of X to that of Y is
(A) (R1/R2)l/2 (B) R1/R2 (C*) (R1/R2)2 (D) R1R2.
10. Two parallel wires carry currents of 20 A and 40 A in opposite directions. Another wire carrying a
current antiparallel to 20 A is placed midway between the two wires. The magnetic force on it will
be
(A) towards 20 A (B*) towards 40 A
(C) zero (D) perpendicular to the plane of the currents.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Two parallel, long wires carry currents i1 and i2 with i1 > i2. When the currents are in the same
direction, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wires is 10 T. If the direction of I2, is
reversed, the field becomes 30 T. The ratio i/i2 is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C*) 2 (D) 1.
2. Consider a long, straight wire of cross-sectional area A carrying a current i. Let there be n free
electrons per unit volume. An observer places himself on a trolley moving in the direction oppo-
i
site to the current with a speed and separated from the wire by a distance r. The mag-
nAe
netic field seen by the observer is very nearly
0i 0i 2 0i
(A*) (B) zero (C) (D)
2r r r

3. The magnetic field at the origin due to a current element i i dl placed at a position r is

0i dl r 0 i r dl 0i r dl 0 i dl r
(A) (B) (C*) (D*)
4 r 3 4 r 3 4 r 3 4 r 3
l
4. Consider three quantities x = E/B, y 1/ 0 / 0 and z . Here, l is the length of a wire, C is
CR
a capacitance and R is a resistance. All other symbols have standard meanings.
(A*) x, y have the same dimensions. (B*) y, z have the same dimensions.
(C*) z, x have the same dimensions. (D) None of the three pairs have the same dimensions.
5. A long, straight wire carries a current along the Z-axis. One can find two points in the X-Y plane
such that
(A) the magnetic fields are equal
(B*) the directions of the magnetic fields are the same
(C*) the magnitudes of the magnetic fields are equal
(D*) the field at one point is opposite to that at the other point.
6. A long, straight wire of radius R carries a current distributed uniformly over its cross-section.
The magnitude of the magnetic field is
(A) maximum at the axis of the wire (B*) minimum at the axis of the wire
(C*) maximum at the surface of the wire (D) minimum at the surface of the wire.
7. A hollow tube is carrying an electric current along its length distributed uniformly over its surface.
The magnetic field
(A) increases linearly from the axis to the surface
(B*) is constant inside the tube
(C*) is zero at the axis
(D) is zero just outside the tube.
8. In a coaxial, straight cable, the central conductor and the outer conductor carry equal currents in
opposite directions. The magnetic field is zero
(A*) outside the cable (B) inside the inner conductor
(C) inside the outer conductor (D) in between the two conductors.
9. A steady electric current is flowing through a cylindrical conductor.
(A) The electric field at the axis of the conductor is zero.
(B*) The magnetic field at the axis of the conductor is zero.
(C*) The electric field in the vicinity of the conductor is zero.
(D) The magnetic field in the vicinity of the conductor is zero.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. The acceleration of moon with respect to earth is 0.0027 m/s2 and the acceleration of an apple
falling on earths surface is about 10 m/s . Assume that the radius of the moon is one fourth of the
earths radius. If the moon is stopped for an instant and then released, it will fall towards the earth.
The initial acceleration of the moon towards the earth will be
(A) 10m/s2 (B*) 0.0027 m/s2 (C) 6.4 m/s2 (D) 5.0m/s2.
2. The acceleration of the moon just before it strikes the earth in the previous question is
(A) 10 m/s2 (B) 0.0027 m/s2 (C*) 6.4m/s2 (D) 5.0m/s 2
3. Suppose, the acceleration due to gravity at the earths surface is 10 m/s2 and at the surface of
Mars it is 4.0 m/s2. A 60 kg passenger goes from the earth to the Mars in a spaceship moving with
a constant velocity. Neglect all other objects in the sky. Which part of figure best represents the
weight (net gravitational force) of the passenger as a function of time.
(A) A (B) B (C*) C (D) D

4. Consider a planet in some solar system which has a mass double the mass of the earth and
density equal to the average density of the earth. An object weighing W on the earth will weigh
(A) W (B) 2W (C) W/2 (D*) 21/3 W at the planet.
5. If the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth is g, the work done in slowly lifting a
body of mass m from the earths surface to a height R equal to the radius of the earth is
1 1
(A*) mgR (B) 2mgR (C) mgR (D) mgR.
2 4
6. A person brings a mass of 1 kg from infinity to a point A. Initially the mass was at rest but it moves
at a speed of 2 m/s as it reaches A. The work done by the person on the mass is 3 J. The
potential at A is
(A) 3 J/kg (B) 2 J/kg (C*) 5 J/kg (D) none of these.
7. Let V and E be the gravitational potential and gravitational field at a distance r from the centre of
a uniform spherical shell. Consider the following two statements :
(i) The plot of V against r is discontinuous. (ii) The plot of E against r is discontinuous.
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct. (B) (i) is correct but (ii) is wrong.
(C*) (ii) is correct but (i) is wrong. (D) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong.
8. Let V and E represent the gravitational potential and field at a distance r from the centre of a
uniform solid sphere. Consider the two statements:
(i) the plot of V against r is discontinuous. (ii) The plot of E against r is discontinuous.
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct. (B) (i) is correct but (ii) is wrong.
(C) (ii) is correct but (i) is wrong. (D*) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong.
9. Take the effect of bulging of earth and its rotation in account. Consider the following statements:
(i) There are points outside the earth where the value of g is equal to its value at the equator.
(ii) There are points outside the earth where the value of g is equal to its value at the. poles.
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct. (B*) (i) is correct but (ii) is wrong.
(C) (ii) is correct but (i) is wrong. (D) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong.
10. The time period of an earth-satellite in circular orbit is independent of
(A*) the mass of the satellite (B) radius of the orbit
(C) none of them (D) both of them.
11. The magnitude of gravitational potential energy of the moon-earth system is U with zero potential
energy at infinite separation. The kinetic energy of the moon with respect to the earth is K.
(A) U < K (B*) U > K (C) U = K (D) U K
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Figure shows the elliptical path of a planet about the sun. The two shaded parts have equal area.
If i1 and t2 be the time taken by the planet to go from a to b and from c to d respectively,
(A) t, < t2
(B*) t, = t2
(C) t, > t2
(D) insufficient information to deduce the relation between t1 and t2.
2. A person sitting in a chair in a satellite feels weightless because
(A) the earth doi.s not attract the objects in a satellite
(B) the normal force by the chair on the person balances the earths attraction
(C*) the normal force is zero
(D) the person in satellite is not accelerated.
3. A body is suspended from a spring balance kept in a satellite. The reading of the balance is W 1
when the satellite goes in an orbit of radius R and is W 2 when it goes in an orbit of radius 2 R.
(A*) W 1 = W 2 (B) W 1 < W 2 (C) W 1 > W 2 (D) W 1 W 2
4. The kinetic energy needed to project a body of mass m from the earths surface to infinity is
1 1
(A) mgR (B) mgR (C*) mgR (D) 2 mgR.
4 2
5. A particle is kept at rest at a distance R (earths radius) above the earths surface. The minimum
speed with which it should be projected so that it does not return is
GM GM GM 2GM
(A) (B) (C*) (D)
4R 2R R R
6. A satellite is orbiting the earth close to its surface. A particle is to be projected from the satellite to
just escape from the earth. The escape speed from the earth is e. Its speed with respect to the
satellite
(A) will be less than e (B) will be more than e
(C) will be equal to e (D*) will depend on direction of projection.
7. Inside a uniform spherical shell
(A) the gravitational potential is zero
(B*) the gravitational field is zero
(C*) the gravitational potential is same everywhere
(D*) the gravitational field is same everywhere.
8. A uniform spherical shell gradually shrinks maintaining its shape. The gravitational poential at the
centre
(A) increases (B*) decreases (C) remains constant (D) oscillates.
9. Consider a planet moving in an elliptical orbit round the sun. The work done on the planet by the
gravitational force of the sun
(A) is zero in any small part of the orbit (B*) is zero in some parts of the orbit
(C*) is zero in one complete revolution (D) is zero in no part of the motion.
10. Two satellites A and B move round the earth in the same orbit. The mass of B is twice the mass of A.
(A*) Speeds of A and B are, equal.
(B) The potential energy of earth + A is same as that of earth + B.
(C) The kinetic energy of A and B are equal.
(D) The total energy of earth + A is same as that of earth + B.
11. Which of the following quantities remain constant in a planetory motion (consider elliptical orbits)
as seen from the sun ?
(A) Speed. (B) Angular speed. (C) Kinetic energy. (D*) Angular momentum.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A rod of length l rotates with a small but uniform angular velocity co about its perpendicular
bisector. A uniform magnetic field B exists parallel to the axis of rotation. The potential difference
between the centre of the rod and an end is
1 1
(A) zero (B*) Bl2 (C) Bl2 (D) Bl2.
8 2
2. A rod of length l rotates with a uniform angular velocity to about its perpendicular bisector. A
uniform magnetic field B exists parallel to the axis of rotation. The potential difference between
the two ends of the rod is
1
(A*) zero (B) Bl2 (C) Bl2 (D) 2Bl2.
2
3. Consider the situation shown in figure. If the switch is closed and after some time it is opened
again, the closed loop will show
(A) an anticlockwise current-pulse
(B) a clockwise current-pulse
(C) an anticlockwise current-pulse and then a clockwise current-pulse
(D*) a clockwise current-pulse and then an anticlockwise current-pulse.
4. Solve the previous question if the closed loop is completely enclosed in the circuit containing the
switch. [C]
5. A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long, vertical copper tube. After some
time the magnet
(A) will stop in the tube (B*) will move with almost contant speed
(C) will move with an acceleration g (D) will oscillate.
6. Figure shows a horizontal solenoid connected to a battery and a switch. A copper ring is placed
on a frictionless track, the axis of the ring being along the axis of the solenoid. As the switch is
closed, the ring will
(A) remain stationary
(B) move towards the solenoid
(C*) move away from the solenoid
(D) move towards the solenoid or away from it depending on which terminal (positive or negative)
of the battery is connected to the left end of the solenoid.
7. Consider the following statements:
(i) An emf can be induced by moving a conductor in a magnetic field.
(ii) An emf can be induced by changing the magnetic field.
(A*) Both (i) and (ii) are true, (B) (i) is true but (ii) is false.
(C) (ii) is true but (i) is false, (D) Both (i) and (ii) are false.
8. Consider the situation shown in figure. The wire AB is slid on the fixed rails with a constant
velocity. If the wire AB is replaced by a semicircular wire, the magnitude of the induced current
will
(A) increase
(B*) remain the same
(C) decrease
(D) increase or decrease depending on whether the semicircle bulges towards the resistance or
away from it.
E.M.I.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Figure (A) shows a conducting loop being pulled out of a magnetic field with a speed . Which of
the four plots shown in figure (B) may represent the power delivered by the pulling agent as a
function of the speed ?
[B]
2. Two circular loops of equal radii are placed coaxially at some separation. The first is cut and a
battery is inserted in between to drive a current in it. The current changes slightly because of the
variation in resistance with temperature. During this period, the two loops
(A*) attract each other
(B) repel each other
(C) do not exert any force on each other
(D) attract or repel each other depending on the sense of the current.
3. A small, conducting circular loop is placed inside a long solenoid carrying a current. The plane of
the loop contains the axis of the solenoid. If the current in the solenoid is varied, the current
induced in the loop is
(A) clockwise
(B) anticlockwise
(C*) zero
(D) clockwise or anticlockwise depending on whether the resistance is increased or decreased.
4. A conducting square loop of side l and resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform velocity
perpendicular to one of its sides. A uniform and constant magnetic field B exists along the
perpendicular to the plane of the loop as shown in figure. The current induced in the loop is
(A) Bl/R clockwise (B) Bl/R anticlockwise
(C) 2Bl/R anticlockwise (D*) zero.
5. A bar magnet is moved along the axis of a copper ring placed far away from the magnet. Looking
from the side of the magnet, an anticlockwise current is found to be induced in the ring. Which of
the following may be true ?
(A) The south pole faces the ring and the magnet moves towards it.
(B*) The north pole faces the ring and the magnet moves towards it.
(C*) The south pole faces the ring and the magnet moves away from it.
(D) The north pole faces the ring and the magnet moves away from it.
6. A conducting rod is moved with a constant velocity v in a magnetic field. A potential difference
appears across the two ends

(A) if || l (B) || B (C) if l || B (D*) none of these.
7. A conducting loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field with its plane perpendicular to the field. An
emf is induced in the loop if
(A) it is translated (B) it is rotated about its axis
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A metal sheet is placed in front of a strong magnetic pole. A force is needed to
(A*) hold the sheet there if the metal is magnetic
(B) hold the sheet there if the metal is nonmagnetic
(C*) move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if the metal is magnetic
(D*) move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if the metal is nonmagnetic.
Neglect any effect of paramagnetism, diamagnetism and gravity.
2. A constant current i is maintained in a solenoid. Which of the following quantities will increase if
an iron rod is inserted in the solenoid along its axis ?
(A*) magnetic field at the centre (B*) magnetic flux linked with the solenoid
(C*) self-inductance of the solenoid (D) rate of Joule heating.
3. Two solenoids have identical geometrical construction but one is made of thick wire and the
other of thin wire. Which of the following quantities are different for the two solenoids ?
(A) self-inductance
(B*) rate of Joule heating if the same current goes through them
(C) magnetic field energy if the same current goes through them
(D*) time constant if one solenoid is connected to one battery and the other is connected to
another battery.
4. An LR circuit with a battery is connected at t = 0. Which of the following quantities is not zero just
after the connection ?
(A) current in the circuit (B) magnetic field energy in the inductor
(C) power delivered by the battery (D*) emf induced in the inductor.
5. A rod AB moves with a uniform velocity v in a uniform magnetic field as shown in figure.
(A) The rod becomes electrically charged. (B*) The end A becomes positively charged.
(C) The end B becomes positively charged. (D) The rod becomes hot because of Joule heating.
6. L, C and R represent the physical quantities inductance, capacitance and resistance respectively.
Which of the following combinations have dimensions of frequency ?
1 R 1
(A*) (B*) (C*) (D) C/L
RC L LC
7. The switches in figure (A) and (8b) are closed at t = 0 and reopened after a long time at t = t0.
(A) The charge on C just after t = 0 is C . (B*) The charge on C long after t = 0 is C .
(C*) The current in L just before t = t0 is / C .(D) The current in L long after t = t0 is / C .
E.M.I.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Which of the graphs fig., shows the variation of magnetic induction B with distance r from a long
wire carrying a current
(A) (B) (C*) (D)
2. Let B and e denote induction to magnetic field and energy density at midpoint of a long solenoid
carrying a current i. The graph between e and i will be
(A) (B) (C*) (D)
3. Let B and e denote induction to magnetic field and energy density at mid point of a long solenoid
carrying a current /. The graph fig. between e and B will be
(A) (B*) (C) (D)
4. Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2 d apart. They carry steady equal currents flowing out
of the plane of the paper as shown in fig. The variation of magnetic field B along the line XX is
given by
(A) (B*) (C) (D)
5. A charge q coulomb moves in a circle at n revolutions per second and the radius of the circle is
r metre, then magnetic field at the centre of the circle is
(A) (B)
(C*) (D)
6. TWo particles X and Y having equal charges, after being accelerated through the same potential
difference, enter a region of uniform magnetic field and describe circular paths of radii R1 and R2
respectively. The ratio of masses of X to that of Y
(A) (R1/R2)1/2 (B) R2/R1 (C*) (R1/R2)2 (D) R1/R2
7. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a constant current i. It is placed in uniform magnetic
field B such that B is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The magnetic force acting on the loop
is
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A portion of a conductive wire is bent in the form of a semicircle of radius r as shown below in fig.
At the centre of semicircle, the magnetic induction will be
(A) zero (B) infinite
(C) (D*)
2. An infinitely long straight conductor is bent into the shape as shown in fig. It carries a current of i
ampere and the radius of the circular loop is r metre. Then the magnetic induction at the centre of
the circular part is
(A) zero (B) infinite (C) (D*)

3. A current i ampere flows in a circular arc of wire which subtends an angle (3 /2) radians at its
centre, whose radius is R. The magnetic induction B at the centre is
(A) Oi/R (B) Oi/2R (C) 2Oi/R (D*) 3Oi/8R
4. In fig., what is the magnetic field induction at point O
(A) (B) (C*) (D)

5. A current i amp. flows in the loop having circular arc of r metre subtending an angle as shown
in fig. The magnetic field at centre O of circle is
(A*) (B) (C) (D)

6. In fig., there are two semi-circles of radii r1 and r2, in which a current i is flowing. The magnetic
induction at centre O will be
(A) (B) (C*) (D)
7. An infinite straight conductor carrying current 2 I is split into a loop of radius r as shown in fig. The
magnetic field at the centre of the coil is
(A) (B) (C) (D*) Zero

P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. An infinite wire bent in the form of L carries current i. What is the magnetic field at the point O ?
(A) zero (B)
0I
(C) (D*) [1 2 ]
2 2d
2. What is the magnetic field at O due to current in the infinite wire forming a loop as shown in fig.
(A*) (B)
0 I
(C) (D)
4 d
3. An infinitely long conductor PQR is bent to form a right angle as shown in fig. A current i flows
through PQR. The magnetic field due to this current at the point M is H1. Now another infinitely
long straight conductor QS is connected at Q so that the current is i/2 in QR as well as Q S, the
current in PQ remaining unchanged. The magnetic field at M is now H2. The ratio H1/H2 is given by
(A) 1/2 (B) 1 (C*) 2/3 (D) 2

4. Two long thin wires ABC and DEF are arranged as shown in fig. They carry equal currents i as
shown. The magnitude of the magnetic field at O is
(A) zero (B) (C*) (D)

5. Two wire loops PQRSP formed by joining two semicircular wires of radii R1 and R2 carries a
current i as shown in fig. The magnitude of magnetic induction at centre C is
(A) (B*) (C) (D)

P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A wire carrying current I, lie on the axis of a conducting ring. The direction of the induced current
in the ring, when I is decreasing at a steady rate is
(A) clockwise (B) anticlockwise

(C) alternatively clock and anticlockwise (D*) no induced current flow in the ring.
2. A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small loop of area 2.0 cm2 placed inside normal to the
axis of the solenoid. If the current carried by the solenoid changes steadily from 2A to 4A in 0.1
sec, what will be the induced voltage in the loop ?
(A) 4mV (B) 60mV (C) 75mV (D*) 7.5 V
3. A one metre long conducting rod rotates with an angular frequency of 400 rad s1 about an axis
normal to the rod passing through its one end. The other end of the rod is in contact with a
circular metallic ring. A constant magnetic field of 0.5 T parallel to the axis exists everywhere.
Then, the emf developed between the centre and the ring is
(A) 200 V (B*) 100 V (C) 40KV (D)100mV
4. The coefficient of coupling between two coils in maximum when the two coils are
(A) placed at right angles
(B) placed parallel at close distance
(C*) wound around a common ferromagnetic core and insulated from it
(D) placed at an angle of 45 with each other.
5 Which of the following currents when maintained in a coil produce the maximum induced emf
(A) 10 ampere direct current (B) 100 ampere direct current
(C) 1 ampere 60 Hz alternating current (D*) 1 ampere 400 Hz alternating current
6. When the current in a coil changes from 2A to 4A in 0.5 seconds, the induced emf in a coil is 8V.
The coefficient of self inductance of the coil is :
(A) 1 H (B*) 2 H (C) 32 H (D) 0.2 H
E.M.I.
7. A copper ring is tied to a string and suspended vertically as shown in the fig. On moving a magnet
towards the coil, the
(A) induced currents are clockwise and the ring moves away from magnet
(B) induced currents are clockwise and the ring moves towards the magnet
(C*) induced currents are anticlockwise and the ring moves away from the magnet
(D) induced currents are anticlockwise and the ring remains at its position
8. The induced emf in a circular conducting loop is E, when placed in a magnetic field decreasing at
a steady rate of x tesla/sec. If two such loops identical in all respect are cut and connected as
shown in figure| then the induced emr! in the combined circuit will be
(A) E (B*) 2E (C) E/2 (D) Zero

9. The induced emf in a circular conducting loop is E, when placed m a magnetic field increasing at
a steady rate. If two such loops, identical in all respect are cut and connected as shown in Fig.,
then the induced emf in the combined circuit will be :
(A) E (B) 2E (C) E/2 (D*) Zero
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A player with 3 m long iron rod runs towards east with a speed of 30 km/hr. Horizontal component
of earths magnetic field is 4 105 Wb/m2. If he is running with rod in horizontal and vertical
positions, then the potential difference induced between the two ends of the rod in two cases will
be
(A) zero in vertical position and 1103 V in horizontal position
(B*) 1 103 V in vertical position and zero in horizontal position
(C) zero in both cases
(D) 1 mV in both cases
2. A r o d l rotates with a small but uniform angular speed about its perpendicular bisector.
o f l e n g t h
A uniform magnetic field B exists parallel to the axis of the rotation. The emf induced between the
centre of the rod and one end is ?
1 1
(A) zero Bl 2 (C*) Bl
(B)
2
(D) Bl 2
2 8
3. In the above problem, the induced p.d. between the two ends of the rod is
1 1
(A*) zero Bl 2 (C) Bl
(B)
2
(D) Bl 2
2 8
4. P and Q are two circular thin coils of same radius and subjected to the same rate of change of
flux. If coil P is made up of copper and Q is made up of iron, then the wrong statement is
(A) emf induced in the two coils is the same

(B) the induced current in P is more than that in Q
(C) the induced current in P and Q are in the same direction
(D*) the induced currents are the same in both the coils
5. A rectangular loop of resistance R, and sides l and x, is pulled out of a uniform magnetic field B
with a steady velocity v.
The necessary force F required for maintaining uniform velocity of withdrawal is

(A) Bxl2v/R (B*) B2l2v/R (C) B2l2v2/R (D) Zero
6. In question 5 above, the amount of work done per second in pulling the loop, is
(A) Bxl2v/R (B) B2l2v/R (C*) B2l2v2/R (D) Zero
7. In question 5, the induced electric power is
(A) Bxl2v/R (B) B2l2v/R (C*) B2l2v2/R (D) Zero
8. The mutual inductance between two coils depends on
(A) medium between the coils only (B) separation between two coils only
(C*) both (A) and (B) (D) none of (A) and (B)
E.M.I.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. An LR circuit is switched on at t = 0. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation
of current with time?
(A) (B) (C*) (D)
2. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of voltage V across the inductor L with
time t in an LR circuit ?
(A) (B) (C) (D*)
3. The timeconstant of an inductor resistor circuit is

(A) R/L (B*) L/R (C) LR (D) 1/LR
4. If L and R represent inductance and resistance respectively then the dimensions of L/R will be:
(A) M0L0T1 (B) M0LT
(C*) M0L0T (D) cannot be expressed in terms of M, L and T
5. In an LR circuit the current attains its final value slowly when:

(A) L is small (B*) L is large (C) L = 0 (D) None of these
6. A c o i l o f i n d u c t a n c e 8 . 4 m H a n d r e s i s t a n c e 6 . 0 is connected to a 12 V battery. The current in

the coil is 1.0 A at approximately the time:
(A) 500s (B) 20s (C) 35 ms (D*) 1 ms
7. A coil of resistance R and inductance L is connected to a Vbolt battery. The final current in the
coil is :
(A) V/L (B*) V/R (C) V/(L2 + R2)1/2 (D) V/(L + R)
8. An inductor L and a resistor R are connected to a battery at t = 0. Which of the following is not
zero just after the connection?
(A) current in the circuit (B) magnetic energy in the inductor
(C) power delivered by the battery (D*) emf induced in the inductor
9. There are two geometrically identical solenoids but one is made of thick wire and the other of thin
wire. Which of the following is(are) different for the two solenoids?
(A) self inductance (B*) rate of joule heating if same current flows in them
(C) magnetic energy if same current flows in them
(D*) time constant
10. Two coils have self inductances L1 = 8mH and L2 = 2mH. In both of them currents are increased
at the same constant rate. At a certain instant the power given to the two coils is the same. If, at
that instant, i1, V1, W 1 and i2, V2, W 2 be the currents, induced voltages and energies stored in the
two coils respectively, then which statement(s) is(are) correct?
(A*) i1/i2 = 1/4 (B) i1/i2 = 4 (C*) W 2/W 1 = 4 (D*) V2/V1 = 1/4
E.M.I.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. The p.d. across a circuit element can be greater than the source e.m.f. in
(A) d.c. circuit only (B*) a.c. circuit only
(C) both d.c. and a.c. circuits, (D) neither of the two.
2. Reactance of a capacitor of 1/. farad at 50 Hz is

(A) 100 (B) 10 (C) 50 (D*) 102 .
3. The angular frequency of a.c. at which a coil of inductance 1 mH has a reactance of 1 is :

(A*) 103 (B)10 (C) 103 (D) 1.
4. In Fig. what is the final value of current in 20 resistor when circuit is completed ?
(A*) 0.1 A (B) 0.2 A (C) 0.3 A (D) Zero
5. In above question what is the final value of current in 10 resistor, when plug of K is inserted ?
3 3 3
(A) A (B) A (C) A (D*) Zero
10 20 11
6. An A.C. circuit using an inductor and a capacitor in series has a max. current. If L =0.5 henry &
C = 8 F, then the angular frequency of a.c. voltage will be.
(A* ) 500 (B) 5 x 105 (C) 4000 (D) 5000
7. In a region of uniform magnetic induction B=102 tesla, a circular coil of radius 30 cm & resistance
2 ohm is rotated about an axis which is perpendicular to the direction of B and which forms a
diameter of the coil. If the coil rotates at 200 rpm, the amplitude of the alternating current induced
in the coil is
(A) 42mA (B) 30 mA (C*) 6 mA (D) 200 mA.
8. A generator produces a voltage that is given by V = 240 sin 120 t volt, where t is in second. The
frequency and r.m.s voltage are
(A) 60 Hz. & 240 volt (B) 19 Hz. & 120 volt (C*) 19 Hz. & 170 volt (D) 754 Hz. & 170 volt
9. A 20 volt a.c. is applied to a circuit consisting of a resistance & a coil with a negligible resistance.
If the voltage across the resistance is 12 volt, the voltage across the coil is
(A*) 16 volt (B) 10 volt (C) 8 volt (D) 6 volt.
10. An alternating voltage, E (in volt) = 200 2 sin 100t is connected to one microfarad capacitor
through an a.c. ammeter. The reading of the ammeter shall be
(A) 10 mA (B*) 20 mA (C) 40 mA (D) 80 mA.
A.C.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A pure resistive circuit element X when connected to an a.c. supply of peak voltage 200 V gives
a peak current of 5A which is in phase with the voltage. A seond current element Y, when connected
to the same a.c. supply also gives the same value of peak current but the current lags behind by
90. If the series combination of X and Y is connected to the same supply. What will he the r.m.s.
value of the current ?
10 5 5
(a) amp (b) amp. (c*) amp. (d) 5amp.
2 2 2
2. In the circuit shown, in Fig., at resonance.
(a) the power factor is zero
(b) the current through the a.c. source is minimum
(c*) the current through the a.c. source is maximum
(d) currents through L and R are equal.
3. In an A.C. circuit, the current is

i 5 sin100 t amp
2
and the a.c. potential is
V= 200 sin (100t) volt . Then the power consumption is
(a) 20 watt (b) 40 watt (c) 1000 watt (d*) zero watt.
4. At resonance, in a series LCR circuit, which relation does not hold ?
1 1 1 1
(a*) (b) (c) L (d) C
LC LC C L
5. In an A.C. circuit, a resistance of R ohm is connected in series with an inductance L. If phase
angle between voltage and current be 45, the value of inductive reactance will be
R R
(a) (b) (c*) R (d) Cannot be found with given data.
4 2
6. A long solenoid has 800 turns per metre. A current of 1.6 A flows through it. The magnetic induction
at the end of solenoid on its axis is
(a) 16104 T (b*) 0.8 104 T (c) 32 104 T (d) 4 104 T
7. Two inductors of inductance L each are connected in series with opposite magnetic fluxes. What
is the resultant inductance ?
(a) zero (b) L (c*) 2L (d) 3L
8. The inductance between A and D in the Fig. is -
(a*) 1H (b) 9H (c) 0.66H (d) 0.99H

9. For the LR circuit shown in Fig. the phase angle if frequency is 100/ is
(a) 30 (b) 60 (c*) 45 (d) 90 A.C.

oDr dk rdktk gS rqQkW ls tq>ksA P H YS I C S
DPP
dc rd pyksxs fdukjs&fdukjsA Target - 2008
1. The instantaneous current from an a.c. source is given by I = 5 sin 314t. What is the rms value of
the current ?
[Ans. 3.54 A]
2. A 3 F capacitor is connected to a 220 V, 50 hz a.c. source. Calculate the rms value of current
through the circuit. Also, find the peak value of voltage across the capacitor.
[Ans. 0.207/4 ; 311.1V]
3. A 100 V, 50 Hz a.c. source is connected to a series combination of an inductance of 100 mH and

a resistance of 25. Calculate the magnitude and phase of the current.
[Ans. 2.49 A, 51.5]
4. When 100 volt d.c. is applied across an inductor, a current of 1A flows through it. If the same
inductor is connected to 100F a.c. source, the current reduces to 0.5 A. Why is the current
reduced in the latter case ? Calculate the value of the reactance of the inductor ?
[Ans. 173.2 ]
5. When a series combination of inductance and resistance are connected with a 10 V, 50 Hz a.c.
source, a current of 1A flows in the circuit. The voltage leads the current by a phase angle of /3
radian. Calculate the values of resistance and inductance.
[Ans. 5 , 27-57 mH]
6. A bulb of resistance 10, connected to an inductor of inductance L, is in series with an a.c.
source marked 100 V, 50 hz. If the phase angle between voltage and current is /4 radian, calcu-
late the value of L.
[Ans. 0 032 H]
7. When an electric device X is connected to a 220 volt, 50 hertz a.c. supply, the current is 0.5 amp,
and is in same phase as the applied voltage. When another device Y is connected to the same
supply, the electric current is again 0.5 amp, but it leads the potential difference by /2.(i) What
are the devices X and Y ? (ii) When X and Y are connected in series across the same source,
what will be the current ?
[Ans. X is resistor, Y is capacitor ; 0.353 A]
8. A variable frequency 230 V alternating voltage source is connected across a series combination
of L = 5.0H, C = 80Fand R = 40. Calculate
(i) the angular frequency of the source which drives the circuit in resonance.
(ii) amplitude of current at resonance frequency
(iii) r.m.s. potential drop across the inductor at resonating frequency.
[Ans. (i) 50 rad/sec (ii) 8.13 A (iii) 1437.5 V]
9. A 100 mH inductor, a 25 F capacitor and a 15 ohm resistor are connected in series to a 120 V,
50 hz a.c. source. Calculate
(i) impedance of the circuit at resonance,
(ii) current at resonance
(iii) Resonant frequency.
[Ans. 15 ; 8.4 ; 100 7 hz]
10. A capacitor of 50 F, a resistor of 10 ohm and an inductor L are in series with an a.c. source of
frequency 50 Hz. Calculate the value of L if phase angle between current and voltage is zero.
[Ans. 0.2 H]
A.C.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Water waves are
(A) longitudinal (B) Transverse
(C*) both longitudinal and transverse (D) neither lonngitudinal nor transverse
2. Of the following the equation of plane progressive wave is
a a
(A) y = rsin t (B*) y = r sin(t-kx) (C) y = sin(t-kx) (D) y = sin(t-kr)
r r
3. In ordinary talk, the amplitude of vibration is approximately
(A) 1012m (B) 1011m (C*) 108m (D) 107m
4. From a point source, if amplitude of waves at a distance r is a, its amplitude at a distance 2r will
be
(A) A (B) 2 A (C*) A/2 (D) A/4
5. The differential equation of a wave is
1 2
(A*) d2y/dt2=v2d2y/dx2 (B) d2y/dx2=v2d2y/dt2 (C) d2y/dx2= d y/dt2 (D) d2y/dx2= vd2y/dt2
v
6. When a wave is reflected from a denser medium, the change in phase is
(A) 0 (B*) (C) 2 (D) 3
7. On reflection of a wave from a rarer medium, change in phase is
(A*) zero (B) /2 (C) (D) 3/4
8. Energy is not propagated by
(A*) stationary waves (B) electromagnetic waves
(C) longitudinal progressive waves (D) transverse progressive waves
9. When a tuning fork vibrates, the vibrations of its two prongs have a phase difference of
(A) (B) /2 (C*) Zero (D) 2
10. On account of damping, the frequency of a vibrating body
(A) remains unaffected (B) increases
(C*) decreases (D) changes erratically
x
11. The equation of a plane progressive wave is y = 0.9 sin 4 t . When it is reflected at a rigid
2
support, its amplitude becmes 2./3 of its previous value. The equation of the reflected wave is
x x
(A) y 0.6 sin 4 t (B*) y 0.6 sin 4 t
2 2
x x
(C) y 0.9 sin 8 t (D) y 0.6 sin 4 t
2 2
12. Three transverse waves are represented by y1 = A cos (kxt), y2 = A cos (kx + t)
y3 = A cos (kxt)
The combination of waves which can produce stationary waves is
(A*) y1 and y2 (B) y2 and y3 (C) y1 and y3 (D) y1,y2and y3
13. If two waves of same frequency and same amplitude, on superposition, produce a resultant
disturbance of the same amplitude, the wave differ in phase by
(A) (B*) 2/3 (C) zero (D) /3
14. The equation of a spherical progressive wave is
a a
(A) y = a sin t (B) y = a sin (t kr) (C) y = sin (t kr) (D*) y = sin (t kr)
2 r
15. The equation of a cylindrical progressive wave is
a a
(A) y = a sin t (B) y = a sin (t kr) (C*) y = sin (t kr)(D) y = sin (t kr)
r r
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008

1. The transverse wave respresented by the equation y = 4sin sin(3x15t) has
6

(A) Amplitude = 4 (B) Wavelength = 4
3

(C*) Speed of propagation = 5 (D) Period =
15
2. A series of ocean waves, each 5.0 m from crest to crest, moving past the observer at a rate of 2
waves per second, what is the velocity of ocean waves ?
(A) 2.5 m/s (B) 5.0 m/s (C) 8.0 m/s (D*) 10.0 m/s
3. A thin plane memberane separates hydrogen at 27C from hydrogen at 127C, both being at the
same pressure. A plane sound wave enters from the cooler to the hotter side. If angle of incidence
on the membrane is 30C, then the angle of refraction is
(A*) sin1 1 3 (B) sin12/8 (C) sin1 3/8 (D) sin1 2/3
4. Two sinusoidal plane waves of same frequency having intensities I0and4I0are travelling in the
same direction, the resultant intensity at a point at which waves meet with a phase difference of
zero radian is
(A) Io (B) 5I0 (C*) 9I0 (D) 3IO
5. If the intensities of two interfering waves be l1 and I2 the contrast between maximum and minimum
intensity is maximum, when
(A) l1 >> I2 (B) I1 << I2 (C*) l1 = I2 (D) Either l1 or I2 is zero
6. Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass through a region at the same time m the same
direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is
(A*) 2(I1 + I2) (B) I1 + I2 (C) I
1 I2
2
(D) I
1 I2
2
7. A uniform wire of length 20 m and weighing 5 kg hangs vertically. If g = 10m/s2, then speed of
transverse waves in the middle of the wire is
(A*) 10 m/s (B) 10 10 2m / s (C) 4 m/s (D) zero
8. If there are six loops for 1 m length in transverse mode of Meldes expt, then number of loops in
longitudinal mode under otherwise identical conditions would be
(A*) 3 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 8
9. A wave y = a sin (tkx) on a string meets with another wave producing a node at x = 0. Then
equation of the unknown wave is
(A) y = a sin (t+kx) (B*) y =a sin (t+kx) (C) y =a sin (tkx) (D) y=a sin (tkx)
10. When a sound wave goes from one medium to another, the quantity that remains unchanged is
(A*) frequency (B) amplitude (C) wavelength (D) speed
11. The ratio of the speed of a body to the speed of sound is called
(A*) Mach number (B) Doppler ratio (C) Sonic index (D) Refractive index
12. The relation between velocity of sound in a gas (v) and r.m.s. velocity of molecules of gas (Cr.m.s.)
is
(A*) v = Cr.m.s. (/3)1/2 (B) Cr.m.s.= v(2/3)1/2 (C) v = Cr.m.s. (D) v = Cr.m.s.(3/)1/2
13. The wavelength of ultrasonics in air is of the order of
(A) 102m (B) 101m (C*) 102m (D) 10m
14. The wavelength of infrasonics in air is of the order of
(A) 10m (B*) 101m (C) 101m (D) 102m
15. The speed of sound in a perfectly rigid rod is
(A*) Infinite (B) Zero (C) 332 m/s (D) 3 108 m/s
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A and B are made up of an isotropic medium. Both A and B are of eoual volume. Body B has
cavity as shown in Fig. (B). Which of the following statements is true?
(A) expansion in volume of A > expansion is B

(B) expansion in volume of B > expansion in A
(C*) expansion in A = expansion in B
(D) none of these
2. In an annular disc of radii r: and r2 is heated, then
(A) r1 increases, r2 decreases (B) r2 increases, r1 decreases

(C*) both r1 and r2 increase (D) r2 increases, r1 remains unchanged.
3. An isotropic- solid has linear expansion coefficient of x, y and z for three rectangular axes in
a solid. The coefficient of cubical expansion is
x
(A) x y z (B) (C*) x y z (D) 2x 2y 2z
y z
4. Three rods of equal length l are joined to form an equilateral ABC. O is the midpoint of BC.
Distance OA remains same for small change in temperature. If the coefficient of linear expansion
for AB and AC is 2, and for BC is 1 then
(A) 2 31 (B) 2 41 (C) 1 3 2 (D*) 1 4 2
5. A thin wire of length l when heated to a certain temperature increases its length by 1%. A sheet of
the same material of area 2l l is heated to the same temperature. The percentage increase in
area will be
(A) 3% (B) 2.5% (C*) 2% (D) 1.5%
6. A cylinder has an alloy (piston) at a temperature of 20C. There is all round clearance of 0.05 mm
between piston and cylinder wall when the internal diameter of the cylinder is exactly 10 cm. The
temperature at which it will exactly fit into the cylinder is (Given that expansion coefficient of alloy
is 1.6 105 /0C and expansion coefficient of cylinder is 1.25 105/ C.)
(A) 220C (B) 250C (C*) 270C (D) 290C
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Two rods one of Al and other of steel having initial lengths 1 and 2 are connected together to
forma single rod of length 1 2 The coefficient of linear expansion of aluminium and steel are
A . and B respectively. If the length of each rod increases by same amount when the
1
temperature is raised by T 0C then find the relation
1 2
A S A S
(A) (B) (C) (D*)
A S A S A S
2. A bimetallic strip is formed out of two identical strips, one of Cu and the other of brass. The
coefficients of linear expansion of the two metals are C and B . If on heating the temperature of
the strip goes up by T and the strip bends to form an are of radius R, then R is
(A) proportional to T (B*) inversly proportional to T
(C) proportional to | B C | (D*) inversely proportional to | B C |
3. A vertical column 50 cm long at 50C balances another column of same liquid 60 cm long at
100C. The coefficient of absolute expansion of the liquid is
(A*) 0.005/C (B) 0.0005/C (C) 0.002/C (D) 0.0002/C
4. The absolute coefficient of expansion of a liquid is 7 times that the volume coefficient of expansion
of the vessel. Then the ratio of absolute and apparent expansion of the liquid is
1 7 6
(A) (B*) (C) (D) none of these
7 6 7
5. A pendulum clock keeps correct time at 20C. The correction to be made during summer per day
where the average temperature is 40C, ( = 105/C) will be
(A) 5.64 sec (B) 6.64 sec (C) 7.64 sec (D*) 8.64 sec
6. The height of mercury column in a barometer provided with a brass scale correct at 0C is
observed to be 75.2 cm at 20C. If brass = 18 106/C, the true height of the column at 20C will
be
(A*) 75.23 cm (B) 75.24 cm (C) 75.25 cm (D) 75.26 cm
7. A pendulum clock is 5 sec fast at temperature of 15C and 10 seconds slow at a temperature of
30C. At what temperature does it give the correct time ?
(A) 18C (B*) 20C (C) 22C (D) 25C
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Steam at 100C is passed into a calorimeter of water equivalent 10g containing 94 cc, H2O and
10g of ice at 0C. The temperature of the calorimeter and contents rise by 5C. The amount of
steam passed is
(A) 1 g (B*) 2 g (C) 3 g (D) 4 g
2. 10g of ice is added in 40g of water at 15C. The temperature of the mixture is
(A*) 0C (B) 3C (C) 12C (D) 8C
3. Which of the substances A, B or C has the highest specific heat ? The temperature vs time
graph is shown.
(A) A (B) B (C*) C (D) All have equal specific heat

4. A block of ice at 10C is slowly heated and converted to steam at 100C. Which of the following
curves represents the phenomenon qualitatively ?
(A*) (B) (C) (D)
5. 2kg of ice at 20C is mixed with 5 kg of H2O at 20C in an insulating vessel having negligible heat
capacity. Calculate the final mass of water left in the container. Given specific heats of water and
ice are 1 kcal kg10C1 and 0.5 kcal kg10C1 and latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 k cal kg1.
(A) 7 kg (B*) 6 kg (C) 4 kg (D) 2 kg
6. Three liquids with masses m1, m2, m3 are throughly mixed. If their specific heats are S1, S2, S3
and their temperatures 1, 2, 3 respectively, then the temperature of the mixture is
s11 s 2 2 s3 3 m1s11 m2 s2 2 m3 s3 3
(A) m s m s m s (B*) m1s1 m2 s2 m3 s3
1 1 2 2 3 3
m1s11 m2 s2 2 m3 s3 3 m11 m2 2 m3 3
(C) m11 m2 2 m3 3 (D) s s s
1 1 2 2 3 3
7. 80 gm of water at 30C is poured on a large block of ice at 00C. The mass of ice that melts is
(A*) 30 gm (B) 80 gm (C) 150 gm (D) 1600 gm
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A 10 kg iron bar (specific heat 0.11 cal/gm- C) at 80C is placed on a block of ice. How much ice
melts ?
(A*) 1.1 kg (B) 10 kg (C) 16 kg (D) 60 kg
2. One kg of ice at 0C is mixed with 1 kg of water at 10C. The resulting temperature will be
(A) between 0C and 10C (B) greater than 10C
(C) lesser than 0C (D*) equal to 0C
3. The ratio of radii of two spheres of same material is 1:4. Then the ratio of their heat capacity will
be
1 1 1 1
(A*) (B) (C) (D)
64 32 2 4
4. One gm of ice at 0C is added to 5 gm of water at 10C. If the latent heat is 80 cal/gm, the final
temperature of the mixture is
(A) 5C (B*) 0C (C) 5 C (D) None of
ihese
5. 10 gm of ice at 20C is dropped into a calorimeter containing 10 gm of water at 10C; the

specific heat of water is twice that of ice. When equilibrium is reached, the calorimeter will contain
(A) 20 gm of water (B) 20 gm of ice
(C*) 10 gm ice and 10 gm water (D) 5 gm ice and 15 gm water
6. Steam is passed into 54 gm of water at 30C till the temperature of mixture becomes 90C. If the
latent heat of steam is 536 cal/gm, the mass of the mixture will be
(A) 80 gm (B*) 60 gm (C) 50 gm (D) 24 gm
7. One gm of ice is mixed with one gm of steam. After thermal equilibrium is reached, the temperature
of mixture is
(A*) 100C (C)55C (C) 75C (D)0C
8. Two spheres A and B have diameters in the ratio 1 : 2, densities in the ratio 2:1 and specific heats
in the ratio 1:3; find the ratio of their thermal capacities.
(A) 1: 6 (B*) 1:12 (C) 1: 3 (D) 1 : 4
9. 10 litres of a liquid with specific heat 0.2 cal/gm-C has the same thermal capacity as that of 20
litres of liquid with specific heat 0.3 cal/gm-C, find the ratio of their densities.
(A*) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 3 (C) 1: 6 (D) 6 : 1
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A man has a total surface area of 1.5 m2. Find the total rate of radiation of energy from the body.
(A) 566 Js1 (B) 682 jS1 (C) 732 jS1 (D*) 782 Js1
2. Three identical rods A, B and C of equal lengths and equal diameters are joined in series as
shown in Fig. There thermal conductivities are 2K, K and K/2 respectively. Calculate the
temperature at two junction points.
(A*) 85.7, 57.1 C (B) 80.85, 50.3C (C) 77.3,48.3C (D) 75.8, 49.3C
3. Two spheres of same material have radii 1 m and 4 m and temperature 4000 K and 2000 K
respectively. The ratio of energy radiated per second is
(A*) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) none of these
4. The emissivity of a body of surface area 5 cm2 and at temperature 727C radiating 300 J of
energy per minute is
(A) 0.48 (B) 0.38 (C) 0.28 (D*) 0.18
5. A body cools in 7 minutes from 60C to 40C. The temperature after next 7 minutes will be (Given
temperature of surrounding is 10C.)
(A) 32C (B) 38C. (C) 22C (D*) none of these
6. Bodies A and B have thermal emissivities of 0.01 and 0.81 respectively. The outer surface areas
of the two bodies are same. The two bodies emit total radiant power at the same rate. Final
temperature of B if the temperature of A is 5802 K, will be
(A) 1634 K (B) 1734 K (C*) 1934 K (D) none of these
7. A 10 cm long copper rod is weided to 20 cm long steel rod each having cross-section A. If their
thermal conductivities are 386 Jm1s10C1 and 46 Jm1S10C1 the temperature of the juction will
be______. (Given that copper end is at 100C and steel rod end is at 0C)
(A) 87.5C (B) 79.3C (C) 75C (D*) 71.5C
8. The temperature of a body falls from 400C to 36C in 5 minutes. The temperature of the body will
become 32C in
(A) less than 10 minutes (B) 10 minutes
(C*) more than 10 minutes (D) none of these
9. A solid at temperature T1 is kept in an evacuated chamber at temperature T2 > T1. The rate of
growth of temperature is proportional to
(A)T2T1 (B) T2T2 (C) T23T13 (D*) T24-T14
10. Consider the radiation emitted by the human body Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Radiations lie in ultraviolet region
(B*) Radiations lie in infrared region
(C) Radiations are emitted only during the day
(D) Radiations are emitted during summer and absorbed during winter
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Two bodies are at temperature 27C and 927C. The heat energy radiated by them will be in the
ratio
(A) 1: 256 (B*) 1 : 64 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 1 : 16
2. The temperature of a black body increases from T to 2T. The factor by which the rate of emission
will increase is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D*) 16
3. According to Newtons law of cooling, the rate of cooling of a body is proportional to ( )n where
is the difference of temperature of the body and the surroundings and n is equal to
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C*) 1 (D) 2
4. A black body at a temperature 77C radiates heat at a rate of 10 calcm2 s. The rate at which
this body would radiate heat in units of calcm2 s at 427C is closest to
(A) 40 (B*) 160 (C) 200 (D) 400
5. Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross-section have been joined as
shown in Fig. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 0C and 90C
respectively. The temperature of the juction of the three rods is
0
90 C
00C
0
90 C
(A) 45C (B*) 60 C (C) 30C (D) 20C
6. An ideal black body at room temperature is thrown into a furnace. It is observed that
(A*) initially it is the darkest body and at the later times the brighest
(B) it is darkest body at all times
(C) it cannot be distinguished at all times
(D) initially it is the darkest and at later times it cannot be distinguished
7. The thermal conductivity of a rod depends on
(A) length (B) mass
(C) area of cross-section (D*) material of the rod
8. Find the heat radiated per second by a body of surface area 12 cm2 kept in thermal equilibrium in
a room at temperature 20C. The emissivity of the surface is 0.8 and = 6 108 Wm2K4.
(A) 4.2 J (B*) 0.42 J (C) 0.042 J (D) 42 J
9. Two copper spheres, one of large size and the other small, are heated to the same temperature.
Which will cool first ?
(A) Bigger (B*) Smaller
(C) Both is equal time (D) Insufficient data to replay
10. Two spheres of different materials one with double the radius and one-fourth wall thickness of the
other are filled with ice. If the time taken for complete melting of ice in the large sphere is 25
minutes and for smaller one is 16 minutes, the ratio of thermal conductivities of the materials of
larger sphere to that of smaller sphere is
(A) 4 : 5 (B*) 5 : 4 (C) 25 : 8 (D) 8 : 25
11. The maximum energy in the thermal radiation from a hot source occurs at a wavelength of
11 105 cm. According to Wiens law, the temperature of the source (on Kelvin scale) for which
the wavelength at maximum energy is 5.5105 cm. The value of n is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C*) 1/2 (4) 1
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A surface at temperature T0 K receives power P by radiation from a small sphered temperature
T >>T0 and at a distance d. If both T and d are doubled, the power received by surface will
become approximately
(A) P (B) 2P (C*) 4P (D) 16 P
2. A body cools from 60C to 50C in 10 minutes. If the room temperature is 250C and assuming
Newtons law of cooling to hold good, the temperature of the body at the end of the next 10
minutes will be
(A) 38.50C (B) 400C (C*) 42.850C (D) 450C
3. Two vessels of different meterials are similar in size in every respect. The same quantity of ice
filled in them gets melted in 20 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. The ratio of thermal
conductivities of the metal is
(A) 5 : 6 (B) 6 : 5 (C) 3:1 (D*) 2 : 1
4. A wall has two layers A and B each made of different materials. The thickness of both the layers
is the same. The thermal conductivity of A, KA = 3KB. The temperature difference across the wall
is 200C. In thermal equilibrium
(A) The temperature difference across A is 15C
(B) Rate of heat transfer across A is more than acrossB
(C) Rate of heat transfer across both is same
(D*) Temperature difference across A is 5C
5. Certain substance emits only the wavelengths 1 2, 3 and 4 when it is at a high temperature.
When this substance is at a colder temperature it will absorb only the following wavelengths
(A) (B) 2 (C) 1 and 2 (D*) 1 2, 3 and 4
6. Two spheres of the same material have radii 1 m and 4 m and temperature 4000 K and 2000 K
respectively. The energy radiated per second by the first sphere is
(A) greater than that by the second
(B) less than that by the second
(C*) equal in both cases
(D) the information is incomplete to draw any conclusion
7. Three discs A, B and C having radii 2m, 4m and 6m respectively are coated with carbon black on
their outer surfaces. The wavelengths corresponding to maximum intensity are 300 nm, 400 nm
and 500 nm respectively. The power radiated by them are QA, QB and Qc respectively
(A) QA is maximum (B*) QB is maximum (C) Qc is maximum (D) QA = QB = Qc
8. If the temperature of a hot body is raised by 5%, then the heat energy radiated would increase by
(A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 11.65 (D*) 21.55%
9. If a liquid is heated in weightlessness. The heat is transmitted through

(A*) conduction (B) convection (C) radiation (D) None of these
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A bucket full of hot water is kept in a room and it cools from 75C to 70C in T1 minutes, from 70C
to 65C in T2 minutes and from 65C to 60C in T3 minutes. Then
(A) T1 = T2 = T3 (B*) T1 < T2 < T3 (C) T1 > T2 > T3 (D) T1 < T2 > T,
2. One end of a copper rod of uniform cross-section and length 1.5 m is Kept in contact with ice and
the other end iwth water at 100C. At what point along its length should a temperature of 200C be
maintained so that in the steady state, the mass of ice melting be equal to that of the steam
produced in same interval of time. Assume that the whole system is insulated from surrounding
[Lice = 80cal/g,Lsteam = 540cal/g]
(A*) 10.34 cm (B) 20.68 cm (C) 15.17 cm (D) None of these
3. A room at 20C is heated by a heater of resistance 20 ohms connected 200 V mains. The
temperature is uniform throughout the room and heat is transmitted through a glass window of
area 1 m2 and thickness 0.2 cm. Calculate the tempeiature outside [K for glass is 0.2 cal/mC-
s and J = 4.2 J/cal]
(A) 1.524C (B*) 15.24C (C) 20C (D) None of these
4. A black body is at a temperature of 2800 K. The energy of radiation emitted by this object with
wavelength between 499 nm and 500 nm is U1, between 999 nm and 1000 nm is U2 and between
1499 nm and 1500 nm is U3. The wiens constant b = 2.80 106 nm K. Then -
(A) U1 = 0 (B) U3 = 0 (C) U1 > U2 (D*) U2 > U1
5. It is seen that in proper ventilation of a building, windows must be open near the bottom and the
top of the walls so as to pass
(A) in hot air near the roof and cool air out near the bottom
(B) out hot air near the roof
(C*) in cool air near the bottom and hot air out near the roof
(D) in more air
6. When the temperature of a block body increases, it is observed that the wavelength corresponding
to maximum energy changes from 0.26 m. The ratio of the emissive powers of the body at the
respective temperatures is
16 4 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D*)
1 1 4 16
7. The rate of emission of radiation of a block body at temperature 27C is E1 If its temperature is
increased to 327C C, the rate of emission of radiation is E2. The relation between El and E2 is
(A) E2 = 24E1 (B*) E2 = 16E1 (C) E2 = 8E1 (D) E2=4E1
8. Two identical rods with different thermal conductivities K1 and K2 and different temperatures are
first placed along length and then along area, then the ratio of rates of heat flow in both cases is
K1K 2 K1 K1 K 2
(A*) (B) K (C) K K (D) None of these
(K1 K 2 )2 2 2 2
9. Three rods of identical cross-sectional area and made from the same metal form the sides of an
isosceles triangle ABC right angled at B. The points A and B are maintained at temperature T and
2T respectively in the steady state. Assuming that only heat conduction takes place, temperature
of point C will be
A
3T T
(A*) (B)
2 1 2 1
T T
(C)
3 2 1 (D)
2 1
B C
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. The temperature of a room heated by a heated is 20C and it is 10C when the outside temperature
is -40C. The temperature of the heater is
(A) 80C (B) 100C (C) 40C (D*) 60C
2. Four spheres A, B, C and D of different metals but of same radius are kept at same temperature.
The ratios of their densities and specific heats are 2 : 3 : 5 : 1 and 3 : 6 : 2 : 4. Which sphere will
show the fastest rate of cooling (initially)?
(A) A (B*) B (C) C (D) D
3. One end of a conducting rod is maintained at temperature 50C and at the other end ice is
melting at 0C. The rate of melting of ice is doubled if
(A) the temperature is made 200C and the area of cross-section of the rod is doubled
(B) the temperature is made 100C and length of the rod is made four times
(C) area of cross-section of the rod is halved anfl length is doubled
(D*) the temperature is made 100C and area of cross! section of rod and length both are doubled.
4. The rate of dissipation of heat by a black body at temperature T is Q. What will be the rate of
dissipation of heat by another body at temperature 2T and emissivity 0.25 ?
(A) 16Q (B*) 4Q (C) 8Q (D) 4.5Q
5. A planet radiates heat at a rate proportional to the fourth power of its surface temperature T. If
such a steady temperature of the planet is due to an exactly equal amount of heat received from
the sun then which of the following statement is true?
(A) The planets surface temperature varies inversely as the distance of the sun
(B) The planets surface temperature varies directly as the square of its distance from the sun
(C*) The planets surface temperature varies inversely as the square root of its distance from the sun
(D) The planets surface temperature is proportional to the fourth power of its distance from the sun
6. What is the rate of flow of heat through a tapering rod of length l tapering from radius r1 to r2, when
the temperature of the ends are 1 C and 2 C and coefficient of thermal conductivity is K
Kr1r2 (1 2 ) Kr1r2 (1 2 ) Kr 2r 2 ( 2 ) K(r1 r2 )(1 2 )
(A*) (B) (C) 1 2 1 (D)

7. A sphere and a cube of same material and same total surface area are placed in the same
evacuated space turn by turn after they are heated to the same temperature. Find the ratio of
their initial rates of cooling in the enclosure.

(A*) :1 (B) :1 (C) :1 (D) :1
6 3 6 3
8. The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a composite slab, consisting of two materials having
coefficients of thermal conductivity K and 2K and thickness x and 4x respectively are T2 and T1 (T2
A(T2 T1
>T1). The rate of heat transfer through the slab, in a steady state is f , with f equal to
x
(A) 1 (B) 1/2 (C) 2/3 (D*) 1/3

P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. The value of which thermodynamical property is same when the systems are in thermal equilibrium
(A*) temperature (B) pressure (C) volume (D) none of the above
2. In cyclic process the change in the internal energy of an ideal gas

(A) depends upon pressure (B) depends upon volume
(C) depends upon path (D*) is zero
3. The linear expansion coefficient of some material is 1 103 K then the volume expansion
coefficient will be
(A) 4 103 K (B*) 3 103 K (C) 9 103 K (D) 5 103 K
4. If the initial pressure of the gas is p when it is compressed adiabatically then its density becomes
four times the initial denstiy. The final pressure of the gas will be ( = 1.5)
(A) 4p (B) 16p (C) 2p (D*) 8p
6. A bottle filled with tea is shaked at high speed. The internal energy of the system (tea)
(A*) increases (B) decreases (C) no change (D) none of the above
7. Three graphs are shown in the figure
i T i
V
V
i f
f f
(i) T (ii) P (iii) P
(A) Fig. (i) and (iii) show isobaric and (ii) isochoric processes
(B*) all three curves show isothermal processes
(C) all three curves show adiabatic processes
(D) all three curves show isobaric processes
8. A Carnots engine works between the temperature 727C and 27C. The efficiency of the engine
will be
(A*) 0.7 (B) 0.96 (C) 0.35 (D) 0.29
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A system X is neither in thermal equilibrium with Y nor with Z. The systems Y and Z
(A) must be in thermal equilibrium (B) cannot be in thermal equilibrium
(C) may be in thermal equilibrium (D) none of these
2. One quality of a thermometer is that its heat capacity should be small. If P is a mercury
thermometer, Q is a resistance thermometer, and R thermocouple type, then
(A) P is best, R worst (B) R is best, P worst (C) R is best, Q worst(D) P is best, Q worst
3. The first law of thermodynamics expresses
(A) law of conservation of momentum (B) law of conservation of energy
(C) law of conservation of mass (D) all
4. A point on P-V diagram represents
(A) the condition of a system (B) work done on or by the system
(C) work done in a cyclic process (D) a thermodynamic process
5. The first law of thermodynamics is a special case of
(A) Newtons law (B) the law of conservation of energy
(C) Charles law (D) the law of heat exchange
6. A refrigerator is a
(A) heat engine (B) an electric motor
(C) heat engine working in backward direction (D) air cooler
7. A gas has
(A) one specific heat only (B) two specific heats only
(C) infinite number of specific heats (D) no specific heat
8. for a gas is always
(A) negative (B) zero
(C) between zero and one (D) more than one
9. The work done in an adiabatic change in a particular gas depends only upon
(A) change in volume (B) change in temperature
(C) change in pressure (D) None of these
10. An ideal gas of mass m in a state A goes to another state B via three different processes as
shown in fig. If Q1, Q2, and Q3 denote the heat absorbed by the gas along the three paths, then
(A) Q1 < Q2< Q3 (B) Q1= Q2= Q3 (C) Q1= Q2 > Q3 (D) Q1 > Q2 > Q3
11. An ideal gas is taken around the cycle ABCA as shown in the P-V diagram. The net work done by
the gas during the cycle is equal to
(A) 12 P1V1 (B) 6 P1V1 (C) 3 P1V1 (D) P1V1

P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. The slopes of isothermal and adiabatic curves are related as
(A) isothermal curve slope = adiabatic curve slope
(B) isothermal curve slope = adiabatic curve slope
(C*) adiabatic curve slope = isothermal curve slope
(D) adiabatic curve slope= 1/2 isothermal curve slope.
2. Which one of the following is an isoentropic process ?
(A) Isothermal (B*) Adiabatic (C) Isochoric (D) Isobaric
3. A Carnot engine works between a source and a sink maintained at constant temperature T1 and
T2 For efficiency to be the greatest
(A) T1 and T2 should be high (B) T1 and T2 should be low
(C) T1 should be low and T2 should be high (D*) T1 should be high and T2 should be low
4. The adiabatic and isothermal volume elasticities E and E of a gas, are related as
(A*) (E/E) = (B) (E/E) = (C) E/E = (D) EE =
5. A sample of gas expands from volume Vt to V2. The amount of work done by the gas is greatest
when the expansion is
(A) isothermal (B*) isobaric (C) adiabatic (D) equal is all cases
6. Thermodynamics is concerned in part with transformations between
(A) different forms of heat energy
(B) internal energy at various temperature
(C) one form of mechanical energy into other forms
(D*) heat, internal energy and mechanical work
7. The specific heat of an ideal gas is
(A) proportional to T
(B) proportional to T2
(C) proportional to T3
(D*) independent of T, where T denotes the temperature of the gas
8. At same temperature, pressure and volume, the quantity which is same between gases will be
(A*) Number of atoms (B) Average kinetic energy
(C) Mean square velocity (D) Mean free path
9. In the natural processes, the entropy of the universe
(A) remains constant (B) always decreases
(C*) always increases (D) may increases or decreases
10. The second law of the thermodynamics implies
(A) whole of the heat can be converted into mechanical energy
(B*) no heat engine can be 100% efficient
(C) every heat engine has an efficiency of 100%
(D) a refrigerator can reduce the temperature to absolute zero
11. The process in which no heat enters or leaves the system is termed as
(A) isochoric (B) isobaric (C) isothermal (D*) adiabatic
12. In an ideal gas, the energy is
(A*) wholly kinetic (B) wholly potential (C) sum of the two (D) all are true
13. Arrange in ascending order of work done
(A*) Adiabatic < Isothermal < Isobaric (B) Isobaric > Adiabatic > Isothermal
(C) Adiabatic > iolsobaric > lsothermal (D) None of these
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. The isothermal bulk modulus of an ideal gas at pressure P is

(A*) P (B) P (C) P/2 (D) P/
2. The adiabatic bulk modulus of a perfect gas at pressure P is given by
(A) P (B) 2P (C) P/2 (D*) P
3. A system changes from the state (P1, V1) to (P2, V2) as shown in the figure. What is the work done
by the system ?
5
610
Pressure in Nl/m
5 (P2,V 2)
510
5
410
5
310
5
210
5
110 (P1,V1)
1 2 3 4 5
Volume in metre
(A) 7.5 105 joule (B) 7.5 105 ergs (C*) 12105 joule (D) 6105 joule
4. A carnots engine takes 300 calories of heat at 500 K and rejects 150 calories of heat to the sink.
The temperature of the sink is
(A) 1000 K (B) 750 K (C*) 250 K (D) 125 K
5. The source and sink temperatures of a Carnot engine are 400 K and 300 K, respectively. What is
its efficiency ?
(A) 100% (B) 70% (C) 3.3% (D*) 25%
6. A refrogeratpr works between 00C and 270C. Heat is to be removed from the refrigerated space
at the rate 50 kcal/minute, the power of the motor of the refrigerator is
(A*) 0.346 kW (B)3.46 kW (C) 34.6 kW (D) 346 kW
7. The volume of a gas is reduced adiabatically to 1/4 of its volume at 27C. If =1.4 the new
temperature is
(A) (300)20.4K (B) (300)21.4K (C*) 300(4)0.4K (D) 300(2)1.4K
8. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature of 13C. The coefficient of performance of
the engine is 5. The temperature of the air (to which heat is rejected) is
(A) 320 C (B*) 39 C (C) 325 K (D) 325C
9. A Carnots engine works as a refrigerator between 250 K and 300 K. If it receives 750 calories of
heat from the reservoir at the lower temperature, the amount of heat rejected at the higher
temperature is
(A*) 900 calories (B) 625 calories (C) 750 calories (D) 1000 calories
10. A perfect gas goes from a state A to another state B by absorbing 8 105 J of heat and doing
6.5 x 105 J of external work. It is now transferred between the same two states ill another process
in which it absorbs 105J of heat. In the second process
(A) work done by gas is 10 5J (B) work done on gas is 105 J
(C) work done by gas is 0.5 105 J (D*) work done on the gas is 0.5 105 J
11. The temperature of 5 mole of a gas which was held at constant volume was changed from 100
to 120. The change in the internal energy of the gas was found to be 80 joule, the total heat
capacity of the gas at constant volume will be equal to
(A) 8 joule per K (B) 0.8 joule per K (C*) 4.0 joule per K (D) 0.4 joule per K
12. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at a constant pressure of one atmosphere from
00C to 100C. Then the work done by the gas is
(A) 6.56 joule (B*) 8.32102 joule (C) 12.48102 joule (D) 20.8 102 joule
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A polyatomic gas (= 4/3) is compressed to l/8th of its volume adiabatically. If its initial pressure
is Po, its new pressure will be
(A) 8P0 (B*) 16P0 (C) 6P0 (D) 2P0
2. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating with reservoir temperatures of 100C and 23C will
be
100 23 100 23 100 23 100 23
(A*) (B) (C) (D)
100 100 373 373
3. A gas has pressure P and volume V. It is now compressed adiabatically to 1/32 times the original
volume. Given that (32)1.4 = 128, the final pressure is
(A) P/128 (B) P/32 (C) 32 P (D*) 128P
4. At 27C a compressed suddenly such that its pressure becomes (1/8)th of original pressure.
Final temperature will be ( = 5 / 3)
(A) 450 K (B) 300 K (C*) 142C (D) 3270C
5. A diatomic gas initially at 18C is compressed adiabatically to one eighth of its original volume.
The tempenture after compression will be
(A) 18C (B) 887C (C) 327 C (D*) None of these
6. The pressure inside a tyre is 4 times that of atmosphere. If the tyro burst suddenly at temperature
300 K, what will be the new temperature ?
(A) 300(4)7/2 (B) 300(4)2/7 (C) 300(2)7/2 (D*) 300(4)2/7
7. A mass of ideal gas at pressure P is expanded isothermally to four times the original volume and
then slowly compressed adiabatically to its original volume. Assuming y to be 1.5, the new pressure
of the gas is
(A*) 2 P (B) P (C) 4 P (D) P/2
8. The K.E. of one mole of an ideal gas is K= (3/2) RT. Then CP will be
(A) 0.5 R (B) 0.1R (C) 1.5 R (D*) 2.5 R
9. A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure P and volume V are related as PVn = constant,
CP
where n is a constant. If C , then molar heat capacity for the gas in this process is zero for
V
(A*) n = (B) n = 1 (C) n = + 1 (D) n = 1

R 2
10. For a gas C 3 . Possibly the gas is
P
(A) diatomic (B*) monoatomic

(C) a mixture of diatomic and monoatomic (D) polyatomic
11. The average degrees of freedom per molecule for a gas is 6. The gas performs 25 J of work
when it expands at constant pressure. The heat absorbed by gas is
(A) 75J (B*) 100 J (C) 150 J (D) 125 J
12. In a given process of an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0. Then for the gas
(A*) the temperature will decrease (B) the volume will increase
(C) the pressure will remain constant (D) the temperature will increase
13. The plot of isotherms will not be a straight line when a plot is drawn between
(A) PV and V (B) S (entropy) and T (C*) V and P (D) P and T
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A source of sound of frequency 1000 Hz is moving with a uniform velocity 20 m/s. The ratio of
apparent frequency heard by the observer before and after the source crosses him would be
(A*) 9 :8 (B) 8:9 (C) 1:1 (D) 9 :10
2. The term Red shift referring to Dopplers effect for light represent which of following property
(A*) decrease in frequency (B) increase in intensity
(C) decrease in intensity (D) increase in frequency
3. An engine blowing whistle of frequency 1240 Hz is moving with a velocity 72 km/hour towards a
hill. Frequency of the echo of whistie heard by the driver will be (sound velocity is 330 m/sec)
(A) 1240 Hz (B*) 1400 Hz (C) 1560 Hz (D) 1600 Hz
4. A radar sends a radio signal of frequency 9 109 Hz towards an aircraft approaching the radar. If
the reflected wave shows a frequency shift of 3 103 Hz, the speed with which the aircraft is
approaching the radar, in m/s is
(A) 150 (B) 100 (C*) 50 (D) 25
5. A source of sound of frequency 500 Hz is moving towards an observer with velocity 30 m/s. The
speed of sound is 330 m/s. The frequency heard by the observer will be
(A*) 550 Hz (B) 458.3 Hz (C) 530 Hz (D) 545.5 Hz
6. A source and a listener are moving towards each other with a speed 1/10 of the speed of sound.
If the frequency of the note emitted by the source is f the frequency of the note heard by the
listener will be nearly
(A) 1.11 f (B*) 1.22 f (C) f (D) 1.33 f
7. A car sounding a horn of frequency 1000 Hz passes an observer. The ratio of frequencies of the
horn noted by the observer before and after passing of the car is 11:9. If the speed of sound is v,
the speed of the car is
1 1 1
(A*) v (B) v (C) v (D) v
10 2 5
8. A source and an observer are moving towards each other with a speed equal to v/2, where v is
the speed of sound. The source is emitting sound of frequency n. The frequency heard by the
observer will be
(A) zero (B) n (C) n/3 (D*) 3n
9. Light from the constellation Virgo is observed to increase in wavelength by 0.4 %. With respect to
Earth the constellation is
(A*) moving away with velocity 1.2 106 m/s(B) coming closer with velocity 1.2 106 m/s
(C) moving away with velocity 4 106 m/s (D) coming close with velocity 4 106 m/s
10. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed 1/5th of the speed of
sound. The wavelength and frequency of the source emitted frequency of the source emitted are
and n respectively. The apparent frequency and wavelength recorded by the observer are
respectively
(A*) 1.2n, (B) 0.8n, 0.8 (C) n, 1.2 (D) 1.2n, 1.2
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Tube A has both ends open while tube B has one end closed, otherwise they are identical. The
ratio of fundamental frequency of tube A and B is
(A) 1: 2 (B) 1:4 (C*) 2 :1 (D) 4:1
2. A tuning fork arrangement (pair) produces 4 beats / sec with the fork of frequency 288 cps. A little
wax is placed on the unknown fork and it then produces 2 beats/sec. The frequency of the unknown
fork is
(A) 286 cps (B*) 292 cps (C) 294 cps (D) 288 cps
3. A wave y = sin (t - kx) on a string meets with another wave producing a node at x = 0. Then the
equation of the unknown wave is
(A) y = sin (t + kx) (B*) y = sin (t + kx)
(C) y = sin (t - kx) (D) y = sin (t - kx)
4. Length of a string tied to two rigid supports is 40 cm. Maximum length (wavelength in cm) of a
stationary wave produced on it is
(A) 20 (B*) 80 (C) 40 (D) 120
5. The displacement of a particle varies according to the relation x = 4 (cos t + sin t). The amplitude
of the particle is
(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 4 (D*) 4 2
6. A metal wire of linear mass density of 9.8 g/m is stretched with a tension of 10 kg-wt between two
rigid supports 1 metre apart. The wire passes at its middle point between the poles of a permanent
magnet, and it vibrates in resonance when carrying an alternating current of frequency n. The
frequency n of the alternating source is
(A) 25 Hz (B*) 50 Hz (C) 100 Hz (D) 200 Hz
7. The displacement y of a wave travelling in the x - direction is given by
where x is expressed in meters and t in seconds. The speed of the wave - motion in ms1 is
(A) 200 (B*) 300 (C) 600 (D) 1200
8. A tuning fork of known frequency 256 Hz makes 5 beats per second with the vibrating string of a
piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per second when the tension in the piano string
is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was
(A) 256 + 5 Hz (B) 256 + 2 Hz (C) 2562 Hz (D*) 2565 Hz
9. The displacement y of a particle in a medium can be expressed as : y = 106 sin (100t + 20x + /4) m,
where t is in second and x in metre. The speed of the wave is
(A) 2000 m/s (B*) 5 m/s (C) 20 m/s (D) 5 m/s
10. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound, with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity
of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent freququency ?
(A*) 20 % (B) 5 % (C) 0.5% (D) zero
11. When two tuning forks (fork 1 and fork 2) are sounded simultaneously, 4 beats per second are
heard. If the frequency of fork 1 is 200 Hz, then what was the original freuqency of fork 2 ?
(A) 204 Hz (B*) 196 Hz (C) 202 Hz (D) 200 Hz
12. A whistle producing sound waves of frequencies 9500 Hz and above is approaching a stationary
person with speed ms1. The velocity of sound in air is 300 ms1. If the person can hear
frequencies upto a maximum of 10000 Hz, the maximum value of v upto which be can hear the
whistle is
(A*) 15 ms1 (B) 30 ms1 (C) 15 2 ms1 (D) 15 / 2 ms1
13. A string is stretched between fixed points separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have resonant
frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no other resonant frequencies between these two.
Then, the lowest resonant frequency for this string is
(A) 1050 Hz (B) 10.5 Hz (C*) 105 Hz (D) 1.05 Hz
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Which is/are correct about pressure ?

(A) Pressure at a point acts equally in all direction
(B) Liquid at rest exerts lateral pressure which decreases with depth
(C) Pressure acts normally on any area whatever orientation the area may be held
(D*) Both (A) and (C) above
2. A triangular element of the liquid is shown in the figure. Px Py and Pz represent the pressure on
the element of the liquid. Then
(A) Px = PyPz (B*) PX=Py = Pz (C) PxPyPz (D) None of these

3. The pressure at the bottom of a tank of liquid is not proportional to
(A) density of the liquid (B*) area of the liquid surface
(C) height of the liquid (D) acceleration
4. If a vessel containing a fluid of density upto height h is accelerated vertically downwards with
accelerated a0, then the pressure by fluid at the bottom of vessel is
(A) P = Po+ gh + ha0 (B) P = P0+ gh (C*) P = P0+ h(ga0) (D) P = P0gh
5. If a vessel contains n types of fluid of densities p1, P2,Pnat depth ht, h2, ...hn respectively. Then
guage pressure at bottom is
n n n n
(A*) g i1
ihi (B) P0 g i 1
ihi (C)
i1
ihi (D) P0 ghi 1
i i
6. The figure shows a conical vessel having its outlet at A to which u-tube manometer is connected.
The reading of the manometer given in the figure shows when the vessel is empty. Find the
reading at manometer when the vessel is completely filled with water.
(A) 400 mm (B) 300 mm (C*) 430 mm (D) 330 mm

7. The hydraulic press down in the figure is used to raise the mass m through a height of 0.05 cm
by performing 500J of work of the small piston. The diameter of the large piston is 10 while that of
the smaller one is 2 cm. The mass m is
(A) 100 kg (B*) 104 kg (C) 103kg (D) 105kg

8. One end of a u-tube of uniform bore (area A) containing mercury is connected to a sanction
pump. Because of it the level of liquid of density falls in one limb. When the pump is removed, the
restoring force in the other limb is
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A U-tube of uniform cross-section is partially filled with a liquid (i) and another liquid (ii), which
does not mixed with liquid (i), is poured into one side. It is found that the liquid levels of the two
sides of the tube are the same while the level of liquid (i) has risen by 2 cm. If the specific gravity
of liquid (i) is 1.1 Then specific gravity of liquid (ii) must be
(A) 1:12 (B*) 1.1 (C) 1:05 (D) 1.2
2. A U-tube is partially filled with water. Oil which does not mix with water, is next poured into one
side until water rises by 2.5 cm on the other side. If the density of oil be 0.8, the oil level will stand
higher than the water level by
(A) 6.25 cm (B*) 12.5 cm (C) 31.35 cm (D) 20 cm
3. In each heart beat, a heart pumps 80 ml of blood at an average pressure of 100 mm of Hg. What
will the power output of the heart ? (Assume 60 heart beat per minute)
(A) 1 W (B) 2.75 W (C*) 1.06 W (D) 0.5 W
4. A liquid is contained in a vertical U-tube. The total length of the liquid column inside the tube is .
When the liquid is in equilibrium, the liquid is just pushed down slightly, one of the arms of U-tube
are released. The entire liquid column will start a periodic motion
(A) the motion is not S.H.M.
(B) the motion is S.H.M.

(C) if it undergoes S.H.M., the time period will be 2
g

(D*) if it undergoes S.H.M., the time period will be 2
2g
5. When n fluid of masses m1, m2..... mn and densities 1,2,...n respectively are mixed together,
then resultant density of mixture is
n n n

i
mi
i
mi i m
i
i
n n n
(A) (B) (C*) (D) infinity
m
mi
i i
i i i i
6. When equal volumes of two substance are mixed, the specific gravity of mixture is 4. When
equal weights of the same substance are mixed, the specific gravity of the mixture is 3. The
specific gravity of the two substance would be
(A*) 6 and 2 (B) 3 and 4 (C) 2.5 and 3.5 (D) 5 and 3
7. If the weight of a body in vacuum is to and w1 and w2 are weight when it is immersed in a liquid of
specific gravity p1 and p2 respectively, then relation among w, w1 and w2 is
w12 w 21 w12 w 21 w w 21 w12 w 21
(A) w w1 w 2 (B*) w 2 1 (C) w 1 2
1 2 (D) w 1 2
8. An alloy is prepared by mixing equal volume of two metals. The specific gravity of alloy is 4. But
when equal masses of two same metals are mixed together, the specific gravity of alloy is 3.
Specific gravity of each metal will be
(A) 2,4 (B) 6,4 (C*) 2,6 (D) 4,8
9. If a liquid is subjected to a horizontal acceleration. Then
(A) slope of the liquid is inversly proportional to the horizontal acceleration
(B*) slope of the liquid is directly proportional to the horizontal aceleration
(C) there is no direct relation between acceleration and inclination
(D) none of these
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. On a smooth inclined plane, making an angle a with horizontal, a trolley containing a trolley
containing a liquid of density p slides down. What is the angle of inclination 0 of free surface with
horizontal ?
(A) =

(B)
3

(C)
9
(D*) =
2. On a horizontal surface, an open vessel containing water is given a constant aceleration a Due
to aclerated motion. The free surface of water gets sloped with horizontal at an angle given by
1 a g a 1 g
(A*) tan (B) tan 1 (C) sin1 (D) cos
g a g a
2
3. A rectangular box containing water is accelerated up wards at 3 m/s on an inclined plane 30to
the horizontal. Slope of the free liquid surface will be
(A*) 0.23
1
(B)
3
(C) 3
(D) 0.32
4. A closed rectangular tank 10 m long, 5 m wide and 3 m deep is completely filled with an oil of
specific gravity 0.92. The pressure difference between the rear and front corners of the tank, if it
is moving with an acceleration of 3 m/s2 in the horizontal direction, will be
(A*) 27.6 kPa (B) 50 kPa (C) 60kPa (D) 70 kPa
5. The force of buoyancy on an immersed body is
(A) due to weight of the body
(B*) due to the pressure difference between upper surface and lower surface of the body
(C) due to atmospheric pressure
(D) both (A) and (C) above
6. A body weight 5 N in air and 2 N when imersed in a liquid. The buoyant force is
(A) 2 N (B*) 3 N (C) 5N (D) 7N
7. A neckless weighing 50 gm in air, but it weight 46 g in water. Assume copper is mixed with gold to
prepare the neckless. Find how much copper is present in it ? (Specific gravity of gold is 20 and
that of copper is 10)
(A) m = 25 g (B*) m = 30 g (C) m = 35 g (D) m = 20 g
8. If air of weight w is filled in a empty balloon which weighs w1, the weight of balloon will become w2.
If density of air inside and outside the balloon is same, then
(A) w2 = w1 + w (B) w2 = w 1w (C*) w2 = wt (D) w2 = w1 w
9. In air, a metallic sphere with an internal cavity weights 40 g and in water it weights 20 g. What is
the volume of cavity if the density of material with cavity be 8 g/cm3 ?
(A) zero (B*) 15 cm3 (C) 5 cm3 (D) 20 cm3
10. A soft plastic bag of weight w0 is filled with air at S.T.P. Now weight of the bag is w in air. Then
(A) w > w0 (B*) w = w0 (C) w > w0 (D) w < w0
11. A block of ice of area A and thickness 0.5 m is floating in the fresh water. In order to just support
a man of 100 kg, the area A should be (specific gravity of ice is 0.917 and density of
water = 1000 kg/m3)
(A) 1.24 m2 (B) 4.21 m2 (C*) 2.41 m2 (D) 7.23 m2
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A dog is sitting in a boat which is floating in a pond. If the dog drinks some water from the pond,
then
(A) level of water in the pond decreases
(B) level of water in the pond increases
(C) level of water in the pond first increases, then decreases
(D*) level of water in the pond remains unchanged
2. A glass bulb is balanced by a brass weight in a sensitive beam balance. Now the balance is
covered by a bell-jar which is then evacuated. Then
(A) the beam will remain horizontal (B*) the pan containing the bulb will go down
(C) the pan containing the bulb will go up (D) none of these
3. A piece of ice is floating in water. Find the fraction of volume of the piece of ice outside the water
(Given : density of ice = 900 kg/m3 and density of water = 1000/ kg/m3)
(A) 0.21 (B) 0.01 (C*) 0.1 (D) 0.9
4. A block of wood floats with VA of its volume under water. What is the density of the wood ?
(Density of water = 1000 kg/m3)
(A) 750 kg/m3 (B*) 250 kg/m3 (C) 300 kg/m3 (D) 260 kg/m3
5. A boat is floating on the surface of water in a tank carrying steel balls. If the balls are thrown into
the tank one by one, how will it affect the level of water ?
(A) It will rise (B*) It will fall
(C) It will remain unchanged (D) First it will rise and then fall
6. When a solid flaots in a liquid in the partially submerged position, then
(A) the solid exerts a force equal to its weight on the liquid
(B) the liquid exerts a force of buoyancy on the solid which is equal to the weight of the solid
(C) the weight of the displaced liquid equals the weight of the solid
(D*) all of these
6. A solid is completely immersed in a liquid. The force exerted by the liquid on the solid will
(A) increase if it pushed deeper inside the liquid
(B) change if its orientation is changed
(C*) decrease if it is taken partially out of the liquid
(D) none of these
7. A block weight 15 N and 12 N in air and water respectively. When it is immersed in another liquid,
it weights 13 N, then the relative density of the block will be
(A*) 5 (B) 6 (C) 10 (D) 2
8. In a beaker containing liquid, an ice cube is floating. When ice melts completely, the level of liquid
rises, then the density of the liquid is
(A*) more than the density of ice (B) less than the density of ice
(C) same as the density of ice (D) none of these
9. Pressure is a scalar quantity because
(A*) pressure is always compressive in nature.
(B) a vector (force) divided by a scalar (area) is a scalar quantity.
(C) a vector (force) divided by a vector (area) is a scalar quantity.
(D) none of these
10. Choose the correct definition of pressure (p)
F F
(A) p (B*) p lim (C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these
A A 0 A
11. According to Pascals law, pressure applied to a confined liquid is transmitted

(A) equally in all directions to every part of the liquid.
(B) unequally and undiminished to every part of the liquid.
(C*) equally and undiminished to every part of the liquid.
(D) equally and undiminished to every part of the liquid only in homogeneous liquids.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. The figure shows a hydrostatic condition for a liquid of density p. Choose the correct alternative,
F1 F2
(A) F1 = F2 (B) A A
1 2
F1 F2
(C*) A A (D) nothing can be said
1 2
2. In the figure, density of the manometric fluid is and density of the liquid in the vessel is 0. The
absolute value pressure at A is
(A) pA = 0 + gh1
(B) pA = 0 + gh1 0gh3
(C) pA = 0 + gh1 + gh2 gh3
(D*) pA = 0 + g(h1 +h3) gh3
3. In the figure, the vessel and the tube contains the same liquid of density . The absolute value of
pressure at the point A is
(A) pA = p0 (B*) pA = p0 gh1 (C) pA = p0 + gh1 (D) pA = P0 gh1 + pgh2

4. Identify the most correct definition of buoyant force.
(A) It is equal to the weight of the immersed part of the solid body.
(B*) It is always equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by a solid body.
(C) It is always equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by a solid body.
(D) It is.the force which a liquid exerts on a solid
5. For a floating body, choose the basic necessary condition.
(A) The centre of gravity G must lie above and the centre of buoyancy B.
(B) The centre of gravity G must lie below the centre of buoyancy B.
(C) The centre of gravity G must coincide with the centre of buoyancy B.
(D*) The centre of gravity G and the centre of buoyancy B must lie along the same vertical line.
6. For the stable equilibrium of a completely immersed body.
(A*) The centre of gravity G must lie below the centre of buoyancy B.
(B) The centre of gravity G must coincide with the centre of buoyancy B.
(C) The centre of gravity G may lie above the centre of buoyancy B
(D) All the above.
7. The figure shows a container filled with a liquid of density i>, It shows three points A, B and C lying
along the same horizontal line. Identify the correct statement about the pressure at the three
points.
(A) pA < PC < PB
(B*) PA = PB = pc
(C) PA = O
(D) nothing can be said
8. A rectangular tank partially filled with a liquid is accelerated horizontally with constant acceleration
a. Two points A and : B lie on the same horizontal plane. Mark the correct statement about the
pressure at the points A and B.
(A) pA = PB
(B) pA > pB
(p*B)>
C pA
(D) pB > pA
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. In the above problem, the correct shape of the free surface is given by
(A) (B*) (C) (D)
2. Identify the correct definition of streamlines.

(A*) These are the lines drawn such as a tangent at every point gives the direction of velocity and
the spacing between the two gives the magnitude of velocity.
(B) Two streamlines do not intersect.
(C) Converging streamlines show accelerating flow and diverging streamlines show decelerating
flow
(D) All of these
3. Identify the correct statement of continuity.equation.

(A) A1V1 = A2v2 for steady flow (B*) 1A1V1 = 2A2v2 for steady flow.
(C) 1v1 = r2A2v2 for any flow (D) both (A) and (C) above
4. The Bernoullis equation is applicable

(A) for ideal fluids only. (B*) for ideal fluid flow.
(C) for any fluid flow. (D)to any fluid flow under steady state conditions only
5. The following figures represent a venturimeter with a U-tube manometer. Identify the figure showing
the correct deflection of manometer.
(A) (B) (C*) (D) None of these
6. In the following figures, single tube manometers are connected at three different positions along
a venturimeter. Identify the diagram represent the correct rise in the tubes.
(A*) (B) (C) (D) Nonw of these
7. The figure shows a container filled with a liquid of density p. Four points A, B, C and D lie on the
vertices of a vertical square. Points A and C lie on a vertical line and points B and D lies on a
horizontal line. Choose the correct statement(s) about the pressure at the four points.
(A*) pD = pB (B*) pA < pB = pD < pc
pC p A pC p A
(C) pD pB (D*) pD pB
2 2
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. The value of surface tension of a liquid at critical temperature
(A*) zero (B) infinite (C) between 0 and (D) can not be determined
2. A liquid does not wet the sides of a solid. If the angle of contact is
(A) zero (B*) obtuse (More than 90)
(C) acute (Less than 90) (D) 90
3. The spherical shape of rain-drop is due to
(A) density of the liquid (B*) surface tension
(C) atmospheric pressure (D) gravity
4. Surface tension is due to
(A) Frictional forces between molecules (B*) Cohesive forces between molecules
(C) Adhesive forces between molecules (D) Gravitational forces
5. A soap bubble assumes a spherical surface. Which of the following statement is wrong ?
(A) The soap film consists of two surface layers of molecules back to bak
(B) The bubble encloses air inside it
(C*) The pressure of air inside the bubble is less than the atmospheric pressure : that is why the
atmospheric pressure has compressed it equally from all sides to give it a spherical shape
(D) Because of the elastic property of the film, it will tend to shrink to as small a surface area as
possible for the volume it has enclosed
6. If two soap bubble of different radii are in communication with each other
(A) air flows from larger bubble into the smaller one
(B) the size of the bubbles remains the same
(C*) air flows from the smaller bubble into the large one and the larger bubble grows at the
expense of the smaller one
(D) the air flows from the larger
7. Energy needed in breaking a drop of radius R into n drops of radii r is given by
4
(A*) 4T(nr2R2) (B) T-(n3rR2) (C) 4T-(R2nr2) (D) 4T(nr2+R2)
3
8. The meniscus of mercury in the capillary tube is
(A*) Convex (B) Concave (C) Plane (D) Uncertain
9. The potential energy of a molecule on the surface of a liquid compared to one Inside the liquid Is
(A) zero (B) smaller (C) the same (D*) greater
10. Two droplets merge with each other and forms a large droplet. In this process
(A*) energy is liberated (B) energy is absorbed
(C) neither liberated nor absorbed (D) some mass is converted into energy
11. When there is no external force, the shape of a liquid drop is determined by
(A*) surface tension of the liquid (B) density of liquid
(C) viscosity of liquid (D) temperature of air only
12. A drop of water breaks into two droplets of equal size. In this process, which of the following
statement is correct
(A) The sum of temperature of the two droplets togetther is equal to the original temperature of
the drop ?
(B*) The sum of masses of the two droplets is equal to the original mass of the drop
(C) The sum of the radii of two droplets is equal to the radius of the original drop
(D) The sum of the surface areas of the two two droplets is equal to the surface area of the
original drop
13. The height upto which water will rise in a capillary tube will be
(A) maximum when water temperature is 4C (B) maximum when water temperature is 0C
(C*) minimum when water temperature is 4C(D) same at all temperatures
14. Soap helps in cleaning clothes, because
(A) chemicals of soap change (B) it increases the surface tension of the solution
(C) It absorbs the dirt (D*) it lowers the surface tension of the solution
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A drop of liquid of diameter 2.8 mm breaks up into 125 identical drops. The change in energy is
nearly (Surface Tension of liquid = 75 dynes/cm)
(A) Zero (B) 19 erg (C) 46 erg (D*) 74 erg
2. When two capillary tubes of different diameters are dipped vertically, the rise of the liquid is
(A) same in both the tubes (B) more in the tube of larger diameter
(C) less in the tube of smaller diameter (D*) more in the tube of smaller diameter
3. A pin or a needle floats on the surface of water, the reason for this is
(A*) surface tension (B) less weight (C) upthrust of liquid (D) None of these
4. Excess pressure inside a soap bubble is three times that of the other bubble then the ratio of their
volumes will be
(A) 1:3 (B) 1:9 (C*) 1: 27 (D) 1: 81
5. Coatings used on raincoat are waterproof because
(A) water is absorbed by the coating (B*) cohesive force becomes greater
(C) water is not scattered away by the coating (D) angle of contact decreases
6. Water rises against gravity in a capillary tube when its one end is dipped into water because
(A*) pressure below the menscus is less than atmospheric pressure
(B) pressure below the meniscus Is more than atmospheric pressure
(C) capillary attracts water
(D) of viscosity
7. If temperature increases, the surface tension of a liquid
(A) increases (B*) decreases (C) remains the same(D) increases then decreases
8. A capillary tube of radius R is immersed In water and water rises in it to a height H. Mass of water
in the capillary tube is M. If the radius of the tube is doubled, mass of water that will rise in the
capillary tube will now be
(A) M (B*) 2M (C) M/2 (D) 4M
9. A drop of oil is placed on the surface of water, Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) It will remain on it as a sphere.
(B*) It will spread as a thin layer
(C) It will be partly as spherical droplets and partly as thin film
(D) It will float as a distorted drop on the water surface
10. Due to capillary action a liquid will rise in a tube, if the angle of contact is
(A*) Acute (B) Obtuse (C) 90 (D) Zero
11. More liquid rises in a thin tube because of
(A) larger value of radius (B) larger value of surface tension
(C) smaller value of surface tension (D*) smaller value of radius
12. When the temperature is increased, the angle of contact of a liquid
(A) increases (B*) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) first increase and then decreases
13. The temperature at which the surface tension of water is zero, is
(A) 0C (B) 277 K (C*) 370C (D*) slightly less than 647 K
14. When a capillary tube is dipped in water it rises upto 8 cm in the tube. What happens when the
tube is pushed down such that its end is only 5 cm above the outside water level ?
(A*) The radius of the meniscus increases and therefore water does not overflow
(B) The radius of the meniscus decreases and therefore water does not overflow
(C) The water forms a droplet on top of the tube but does not overflow
(D) The water start overflowing
15. A soap film of surface tension 3102 Nm1 formed in, ractangular frame, can support a straw.
The length of the film is 10 cm. Mass of the straw the film can support is
(A) 0.06 gm (B*) 0.6 gm (C) 6 gm (D) 60 gm
16. Radius of a soap bubble is r surface tension of soap solution is T. Then without increasing the
temperature, how much energy will be needed to double its radius ?
(A) 4r2T (B) 2r2T (C) 4r2T (D*) 24r2T
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Work done in splitting a drop of water of 1 mm radius into 106 droplets is (Surface tension of
water = 72 103 J/m2
(A) 9.58 105J (B*) 8.95 105J (C) 5.89 105J (D) 5.98 106J
2. The surface tension of soap solution is 25 103 Nm1 The excess pressure inside a soap
bubble of diameter 1 cm is
(A) 10 P (B*) 20 P (C) 5 P (D) None of the above
3. Kerosens oil rises up the wick in a lantern
(A*) due to surface (B) the wick attracts the kerosene oil
(C) of the diffusion of the oil through the wick (D) none of these
4. A small air bubble is at the inner surface of the bottom of a breaker filled with cold water. Now
water of the breaker is heated. The size of bubble increases. The reason for this may be
(A) increase in the saturated vapour pressure of water
(B) root mean square velocity of air molecules inside the bubble increases
(C) decrease in surface tension of water
(D*) all of these
5. The spiders and insects move and run about on the surface of water without sinking because
(A*) elastic membrane is formed on water due to property of surface tension
(B) spiders and insects are lighter
(C) spiders and insects swim on water
(D) spider and insects experience upthrust
6. A spherical liquid drop of radius R is divided into eight equal droplets. If surface tension is T. then
the work done in this process will be
(A) 2R2T (B) 3R2T (C*) 4R2T (D) 2R2r
7. In the state of weightlessness, a capillary tube is dipped in water, then water
(A) not rise at all
(B) rise to same height as at atmospheric pressue
(C) rise to less height than at atmospheric pressure
(D*) rise up to the upper end of the capillary tube of any length
8. When two soap bubbles of radius r1 and r2 (r2 > r1) coalesce, the radius of curvature of common
surface is
r2 r1 r1r2
(A) r2r1 (B) r1r2 (C*) (D) r2 + r1
r2 r1
9. Water rises to a height of 10 cm in capillary tube and mercury falls to a depth of 3.112 cm in the
same capillary tube. If the density of mercury is 13.6 and the angle of contact for mercury is 135
the ratio of surface tension of water and mercury is
(A) 1 : 0.15 (B) 1: 3 (C*) 1: 6 (D) 1.5 : 1
10. Two parallel glass plates are dipped partly in the liquid of density d keeping them vertical. If the
distance between the plates is V surface tension for liquids is T and angle of contact is then rise
of liquid between the plates due to capillary will be
T cos 2T cos 2T 2 cos
(A) (B*) xdg (C) xdg cos (D) xdg
xd
11. The excess of pressure due to surface tension in a spherical liquid drop of radius r is directly
proportional to
(A) r (B) r2 (C*) r1 (D) r2
12. The amount of work done in blowing a soap bubble such that its diameter increases from d to D
is (T=surface tension of the solution)
(A) A(D2d2)T (B) 8(D2d2)T (C) (D2d2)T (D*) 2(D2d2)T
13. Water rises in a capillary tube to a certain height such that the upward force due to surface
tension is balanced by 75104 N force due to the weight of the liquid. If the surface tension of
water is 6102 Nm1 the inner circumference of the capillary must be
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Small droplets of a liquid are usually more spherical in shape than larger drops of the same liquid
because
(A) Force of surface tension is equal and opposite to the force of gravity
(B*) Force of surface tension predominates the force of gravity
(C) Force of gravity predominates the force of surface tension
(D) Force of gravity and force of surface tension act in the same direction and are equal
2. It is not possible to write directly on b blotting paper or newspaper with ink pen
(A) Because of viscosity (B) Because of inertia
(C) Because of friction (D*) Because of capillarity
3. A soap bubble of radius R is blown. After heating the solution a second bubble of radius 2R is blown.
The work required to blow the second bubble in comparison to that required for the first bubble is
(A) Double (B) Slightly less than double
(C*) Slightly less than four times (D) Slightly more than four times
4. Energy required to form a soap bubble of diameter 20 cm will be (Surface tension for soap
solution is 30 dynes/cm)
(A) 12000 ergs (B) 1200 ergs (C) 2400 ergs (D*) 24000 ergs
5. Hairs of shaving brush cling together when it is removed from water due to
(A) Force of attraction between hair (B*) Surface tension
(C) Viscosity of water (D) Characteristic property of hairs
6. The diameter of rain-drop is 0.02 cm. IF surface tension of water be 72103 newton per metre,
then the pressure difference of external and internal surfaces of the drop will be
(A*) 1.44 dyne cm2 (B) 1.44 newton m2
2
(C) 1.44 dyne cm (D) 1.44 newton m2
7. A square frame of side L is dipped in a liquid. On taking out, a membrane is formed. If the surface
tension of the liquid is T, the force acting on the frame will be
(A) 2TL (B) 4TL (C*) 8TL (D) 10TL
8. If T is the surface tension of soap solution, the amount of work done in blowing a soap bubble
from a diameter D to 2D is
(A) 2D2T (B) 4D2T (C*) 6D2T (D) 8D2T
9. A long cylindrical glass vessel has a small hole of radius V at its bottom. The depth to which the
vessel can be lowered vertically in the deep water bath (surface tension T) without any water
entering inside is
(A) 4T/rg (B) 3T/rg (C*) 2T/rg (D) T/rg
10. Two capillary tubes P and Q are dipped in water. The height of water level in capillary P is 2/3 to
the height in Q capillary. The ratio of their diameter is
(A) 2:3 (B*) 3 : 2 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 4 : 3
1 2
11. The radius of a soap bubble is increased from cm to cm. If the surface tension of water

is 30 dynes per cm. then the work done will be
(A) 180 ergs (B) 360 ergs (C*) 720 ergs (D) 960 ergs
12. Water does not wet an oily glass because
(A) Cohesive force of oil > cohesive froce of water
(B) Oil repels water
(C) Oil repels water
(D*) Cohesive force for water > adhesive force between water and oil molecules
13. The angle of contact between glass and mercury
(A) 0 (B) 30 (C) 90 (D*) 1350
14. A false statement is
(A) Angle of contact < 90, if cohesive force < adhesive force
(B) Angle of contact > 90, if cohesive force > adhesive force
(C) Angle of contact = 90, if cohesive force = adhesive force
(D*) If the radius of capillary is reduced to half, the rise of liquid column becomes four times.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. The angle of contact between glass and water is 0 and it rises in a capillary upto 6 cm when its
surface tension 70 is dynes/cm. Another liquid of surface tension 140 dynes/cm, angle of contact
60 and relative density 2 will rise in the same capillary by
(A) 12 cm (B) 24 cm (C*) 3 cm (D) 6 cm
2. The surface tension of a liquid is 5 N/m. If a thin film of the area 0.02 m2 is formed on a loop, then
its surface energy will be
(A) 5102J (B) 2.5102J (C*) 2101J (D) 3 101J
3. If the work done in blowing a bubble of volume V is W, then the work done in blowing the bubble
of volume 2V from the same soap solution will be
(A) W/2 (B) 2 W (C) 3 2 W (D*) 3 4 W
4. If work W is done in blowing a bubble of radius R from a soap solution, then the work done in
blowing a bubble of radius 2R from the same solution is 1
(A) W/2 (B) 2W (C*) 4W (D) 2 W
3
5. A bubble of 8 mm diameter is formed in the air. The surface tension of soap solution is 30 dynes/
cm. The excess pressure inside the bubble is
(A) 150 dynes/cm2 (B*) 300 dynes/cm2 (C) 3 103 dynes/cm2 (D) 12 dynes/cm2
6. A spherical drop of oil of radius 1 cm is broken into 1000 droplets of equal radii. If the surface
tension of oil is 50 dynes/cm, the work done is
(A) 18 ergs (B) 180 ergs (C*) 1800 ergs (D) 18000 ergs
7. Two capillaries made of same material but of different radii are dipped in a liquid. The rise of liquid
in one capillary is 2.2 cm and that in the other is 6.6 cm. The ratio of their radii is
(A) 9 : 1 (B) 1 : 9 (C*) 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 3
8. The work done in blowing a soap bubble of radius r of the solution of surface tension T will be
4 3
(A*) 8r2T (B) 2r2T (C) 4r2T (D) r T
3
9. If the surface tension of a soap solution is 0.03 MKS units, then the excess of pressure inside a
soap bubble of diameter 6 mm over the atmoshpheric pressure will be
(A) Less than 40 N/m2 (B*) Greater than 40 N/m2
2
(C) Less than 20 N/m (D) Greater than 20 N/m2
10. A water drop takes the shape of a sphere in a oil while the oil drop spreads in water, because
(A*) C.F. for water > A.F. for water and oil (B) C.F. for oil > A.F. water and oil
(C) C.F. for oil < A.F. for water and oil (D) None of the above
11. Which of the fact is not due to surface tension
(A) Dancing of a camphor piece over the surface of water
(B) Small mercury drop it self becomes spherical
(C*) A liquid surface comes at rest after stiring.
(D) Mercury does not we the glass vessel
12. Water rises to a height of 16.3 cm in a capillary of height 18 cm above the water level. If the tube
is cut at a height of 12 cm,
(A) water will come as a fountain from the capillary tube
(B*) water will stay at a height of 12 cm in the capillary tube
(C) the height of the water in the capillary will be 10.3 cm
(D) water will flow down the sides of the capillary tube
13. If two indentical mercury drops are combined to form a singal drop, then its temperature will
(A) decrease (B*) increase (C) remains the same(D) none of the above
14. The excess of pressure inside a soap bubble than that of the outer pressure is
(A) 2T/r (B*) 4T/r (C) T/2r (D) T/r
15. In the glass capillary tube, the shape of the surface of the liquid depends upon
(A*) only on the cohesive force of liquid molecules
(B) only on the adhesive force between the molecules of glass and liquid
(C) only on relative cohesive and adhesive force between the atoms
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Planck constant has the same dimensions as
(A) force time (B) force distance (C) force speed (D*) force distance time.
2. Two photons having
(A) equal wavelengths have equal linear momenta (bf equal energies have equal linear momenta
(C) equal frequencies have equal linear momenta
(D*) equal linear momenta have equal wavelengths.
3. Let p and E denote the linear momentum and energy of a photon. If the wavelength is decreased,
(A*) both p and E increase (B) p increases and E decreases
(C) p decreases and E increases (D) both p and E decrease.
4. Let nr and nb be respectively the number of photons emitted by a red bulb and a blue bulb of equal
power in a given time.
(A) nr = nb.
(B) nr < nb.
(C*) nr > nb.
(D) The information is insufficient to get a relation between nr and nb.
5. The equation E = pc is valid
(A) for an electron as well as for a photon (B) for an electron but not for a photon
(C*) for a photon but not for an electron (D) neither for an electron nor for a photon.
6. The work function of a metal is hv0 Light of frequency v falls on this metal. The photoelectric
effect will take place only if
(A*) v > v0 (B) v > 2v0 (C) v < v0 (D) v < v o/2.
7. Light of wavelength X falls on a metal having v/ork function hc/0. Photoelectric effect will take
place only if
(A) > 0 (B) > 0 (C*) < 0 (D) < 0/2
8. When stopping potential is applied in an experiment on photoelectric effect, no photocurrent is
observed. This means that
(A) the emission of photoelectrons is stopped
(B*) the photoelectrons are emitted but are reabsorbed by the emitter metal
(C) the photoelectrons are accumulated near the collector plate
(D) the photoelectrons are dispersed from the sides of the apparatus.
9. If the frequency of light in a photoelectric experiment is doubled, the stopping potential will
(A) be doubled (B) be halved
(C*) become more than double (D) become less than double.
10. The frequency and intensity of a light source are both doubled. Consider the following statements.
(i) The saturation photocurrent remains almost the same.
(ii) The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is doubled.
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are true. (B*) (i) is true but (ii) is false,
(C) (i) is false but (ii) is true. (D) Both (i) and (ii) are false.
11. A point source of light is used in a photoelectric effect. If the source is removed farther from the
emitting metal, the stopping potential
(C*) will remain constant (D) will either increase or decrease.
12. A point source causes photoelectric effect from a small metal plate. Which of the following curves
may represent the saturation photocurrent as a function of the distance between the source and
the metal ?
(D)
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A nonmonochromatic light is used in an experiment on photoelectric effect. The stopping potential
(A) is related to the mean wavelength (B) is related to the longest wavelength
(C*) is related to the shortest wavelength (D) is not related to the wavelength.
2. A proton and an electron are accelerated by the same potential difference. Let e and p denote
the de Broglie wavelengths of the electron and the proton respectively,
(A) e= p
(B) e< p
(C*) e> p
(D) The relation between e and p depends on the accelerating potential difference.
3. When the intensity of a light source is increased,

(A*) the number of photons emitted by the source in unit time increases
(B*) the total energy of the photons emitted per unit time increases
(C) more energetic photons are emitted
(D) faster photons are emitted.
4. Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because

(A*) there is a minimum frequency below which no photoelectrons are emitted
(B*) the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends only on the frequency of light and
not on its intensity
(C*) even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated the photoelectrons leave the surface immediately
(D) electric charge of the photoelectrons is quantized.
5. A photon of energy hv is absorbed by a free electron of a metal having work function < hv.
(A) The electron is sure to come out.
(B) The electron is sure to come out with a kinetic energy hv .
(C) Either the electron does not come out or it comes out with a kinetic energy hv .
(D*) It may come out with a kinetic energy less than hv .
6. If the wavelength of light in an experiment on photoelectric effect is doubled,

(A) the photoelectric emission will not take place
(B*) the photoelectric emission may or may not take place
(C) the stopping potential will increase
(D*) the stopping potential will decrease.
7. The photocurrent in an experiment on photoelectric effect increases if

(A*) the intensity of the source is increased (B) the exposure time is increased
(C) the intensity of the source is decreased (D) the exposure time is decreased.
8. The collector plate in an experiment on photoelectric effect is kept vertically above the emitter
plate. Light source is put on and a saturation photocurrent is recorded. An electric field is switched
on which has a vertically downward direction.
(A) The photocurrent will increase. (B*) The kinetic energy of the electrons will increase.
(C) The stopping potential will decrease. (D) The threshold wavelength will increase.
9. In which of the following situations the heavier of the two particles has smaller de Broglie
wavelength ? The two particles
(A*) move with the same speed (B) move with the same linear momentum
(C*) move with the same kinetic energy (D*) have fallen through the same height.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. The minimum orbital angular momentum of the electron in a hydrogen atom is
(A) h (B) h/2 (C*) h/2 (D) h/.
2. Three photons coming from excited atomic-hydrogen sample are picked up. Their energies are
12.1 eV, 10.2 eV and 1.9 eV. These photons must come from
(A) a single atom (B) two atoms
(C) three atoms (D*) either two atoms or three atoms.
3. Suppose, the electron in a hydrogen atom makes transition from n = 3 to n = 2 in 108 s. The
order of the torque acting on the electron in this period, using the relation between torque and
angular momentum as discussed in the chapter on rotational mechanics is
(A) 1034Nm (B*) 1024Nm (C) 1042Nm (D) 108Nm
4. In which of the following transitions will the wavelength be minimum ?

(A) n = 5 to n = 4 (B)n = 4 to n = 3 (C) n = 3 to n = 2 (D*) n = 2 to n = 1.
5. In which of the following systems will the radius of the first orbit (n = 1) be minimum ?
(A) hydrogen atom (B) deuterium atom
(C) singly ionized helium (D*) doubly ionized lithium.
6. In which of the following systems will the wavelength corresponding to n = 2 to n = 1 be minimum?

(A) hydrogen atom (B) deuterium atom
(C) singly ionized helium (D*) doubly ionized lithium.
7. Which of the following curves may represent the speed of the electron in a hydrogen atom as a
function of the principal quantum number n ?
(C)
8. As one considers orbits with higher values of n in a hydrogen atom, the electric potential energy
of the atom
(A) decreases (B*) increases (C) remains the same(D) does not increase.
9. The energy of an atom (or ion) in its ground state is 54.4 eV. It may be
(A) hydrogen (B) deuterium (C*) He+ (D) Li++.
10. The radius of the shortest orbit in a one-electron system is 18 pm. It may be
(A) hydrogen (B) deuterium (C) He+ (D*) Li++.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. A hydrogen atom in ground state absorbs 10.2 eV of energy. The orbital angular momentum of
the electron is increased by
(A*) 1.05 1034 Js (B) 2.11 1034 Js (C) 3.16 1034 Js (D) 4.22 1034 Js
2. Which of the following parameters are the same for all hydrogen-like atoms and ions in their
ground states ?
(A) radius of the orbit (B) speed of the electron
(C) energy of the atom (D*) orbital angular momentum of the electron.
3. In a laser tube, all the photons

(A) have same wavelength (B) have same energy
(C) move in same direction (D*) move with same speed.
4. In a laboratory experiment on emission from atomic hydrogen in a discharge tube, only a small
number of lines are observed whereas a large number of lines are present in the hydrogen
spectrum of a star. This is because in a laboratory
(A) the amount of hydrogen taken is much smaller than that present in the star
(B*) the temperature of hydrogen is much smaller than that of the star
(C) the pressure of hydrogen is much smaller than that of the star
(D) the gravitational pull is much smaller than that in the star.
5. An electron with kinetic energy 5 eV is incident on a hydrogen atom in its ground state. The
collision
(A*) must be elastic (B) may be partially elastic
(C) must be completely inelastic (D) may be completely inelastic.
6. Which of the following products in a hydrogen atom are independent of the principal quantum
number n ? The symbols have their usual meanings.
(A*) n (B*) Er (C) En (D) r.
7. Let An be the area enclosed by the nth orbit in a hydrogen atom. The graph of In (An /A1) against
ln(n)
(A*) will pass through the origin
(B*) will be a straight line with slope 4
(C) will be a monotonically increasing nonlinear curve
(D) will be a circle.
8. Ionization energy of a hydrogen-like ion A is greater than that of another hydrogen-like ion B. Let r,
u, E and L represent the, radius of the orbit, speed of the electron, energy of the atom and
orbital angular momentum of the electron respectively. In ground state
(A) rA > rB (B*) uA > uB (C) EA > EB (D) LA > LB.
9. When a photon stimulates the emission of another photon, the two photons have
(A*) same energy (B*) same direction (C*) same phase (D*) same wavelength.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. X-ray beam can be deflected

(A) by an electric field
(B) by a magnetic field
(C) by an electric field as well as by a magnetic field
(D*) neither by an electric field nor by a magnetic field.
2. Consider a photon of continuous X-ray coming from a Coolidge tube. Its energy comes from
(A*) the kinetic energy of the striking electron
(B) the kinetic energy of the free electrons of the target
(C) the kinetic energy of the ions of the target
(D) an atomic transition in the target.
3. The energy of a photon of characteristic X-ray from a Coolidge tube comes from
(A) the kinetic energy of the striking electron
(B) the kinetic energy of the free electrons of the target
(C) the kinetic energy of the ionstif the target
(D*) an atomic transition in the target.
4. If the potential difference applied to the tube is doubled and the separation between the filament
and the target is also doubled, the cutoff wavelength
(A) will remain unchanged (B) will be doubled
(C*) will be halved (D) will become four times the original.
5. If the current in the circuit for heating the filament is increased, the cutoff wavelength
(C)* will remain unchanged (D) will change.
6. Moseleys law for characteristic X-rays is v = a(Z b). In this,
(A*) both a and b are independent of the material
(B) a is independent but b depends on the material
(C) b is independent but a depends on the material
(D) both a and b depend on the material.
7. Frequencies of K Xrays of different materials are measured.
Which one of the graphs in figure may represent the relation
between the frequency v and the atomic number Z.
(D)
8. The Xray beam coming from an X-ray tube
(A) is monochromatic
(B) has all wavelengths smaller than a certain maximum wavelength
(C*) has all wavelengths greater than a certain minimum wavelength
(D) has all wavelengths lying between a minimum and a maximum wavelength.
9. One of the following wavelengths is absent and the rest are present in the X-rays coming from a
Coolidge tube. Which one is the absent wavelength ?
(A*) 25 pm (B) 50 pm (C) 75 pm (D) 100 pm.
10. Figure shows the intensity-wavelength relations of X-rays coming from two different Coolidge
tubes. The solid curve represents the relation for the tube A in which the potential difference
between the target and the filament is VA and the atomic number of the target material is ZA.
These quantities are VB and Zn for the other tube. Then,
(A) VA > Vn, ZA > ZB (B*) VA > VB, ZA < ZB (C) VA<VB, ZA > Zn (A) VA< Vn, ZA<Z n.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. 50% of the X-ray coming from a Coolidge tube is able to pass through a 0.1 mm thick aluminium
foil. If the potential difference between the target and the filament is increased, the fraction of the
X-ray passing through the same foil will be
(A) 0% (B) < 50% (C) 50% (D*) > 50%.
2. 50% of the X-ray coming from a Coolidge tube is able to pass through a 01 mm thick aluminium
foil. The potential difference between the target and the filament is increased. The thickness of
aluminium foil, which will allow 50% of the X-ray to pass through, will be
(A) zero (B) < 0.1 mm (C) 0.1 mm (D*) > 0.1 mm.
3. X-ray from a Coolidge tube is incident on a thin aluminium foil. The intensity of the X-ray transmitted
by the foil is found to be I0. The heating current is increased so as to increase the temperature of
the filament. The intensity of the X-ray transmitted by the foil will be.
(A) zero (B) < I0 (C) I0 (D*) > I0.
4. For harder X-rays,
(A) the wavelength is higher (B) the intensity is higher
(C*) the frequency is higher (D*) the photon energy is higher.
5. Cutoff wavelength of X-rays coming from a Coolidge tube depends on the
(A) target material
(B*) accelerating voltage
(C) separation between the target and the filament
(D) temperature of the filament.
6. Mark the correct options.
(A) An atom with a vacancy has smaller energy than a neutral atom.
(B*) K X-ray is emitted when a hole makes a jump from the K shell to some other shell.
(C*) The wavelength of K X-ray is smaller than the wavelength of L X-ray of the same material.
(D) The wavelength of K X-ray is smaller than the wavelength of K X-ray of the same material.
7. For a given material, the energy and wavelength of characterstic X-rays satisfy
(A) E(K) > E(K) > E(K) (B) E(M) > E(L) > E(K)
(C*) (K) > (K) > (K) (D*) (M) > (L) > (K).
8. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is increased. As a result, in the emitted radiation,
(A) the intensity increases (B) the minimum wavelength increases
(C*) the intensity remains unchanged (D*) the minimum wavelength decreases.
9. When an electron strikes the target in a Coolidge tube, its entire kinetic energy
(A) is converted into a photon (B*) may be converted into a photon
(C) is converted into heat (D*) may be converted into heat.
10. X-ray incident on a material
(A*) exerts a force on it (B*) transfers energy to it
(C*) transfers momentum to it (D*) transfers impulse to it.
11. Consider a photon of continuous X-ray and a photon of characteristic X-ray of the same wavelength.
Which of the following is/are different for the two photons ?
(A) frequency (B) energy (C) penetrating power (D*) method of creation.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. The mass of a neutral carbon atom in ground state is
(A*) exact 12 u
(B) less than 12 u
(C) more than 12 u
(D) depends on the form of carbon such as graphite or charcoal.
2. The mass number of a nucleus is equal to

(A) the number of neutrons in the nucleus (B) the number of protons in the nucleus
(C*) the number of nucleons in the nucleus (D) none of them.
3. As compared to 12C atom, 14C atom has

(A) two extra protons and two extra electrons (B) two extra protons but no extra electron
(C*) two extra neutrons and no extra electron (D) two extra neutrons and two extra electrons.
4. The mass number of a nucleus is

(A) always less than its atomic number
(B) always more than its atomic number
(C) equal to its atomic number
(D*) sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number.
5. The graph of 1n(R/R0) versus 1n A (R = radius of a nucleus and A = its mass number) is
(A*) a straight line (B) a parabola (C) an ellipse (D) none of them.
6. Let Fpp, Fpn and Fnn denote the magnitudes of the nuclear force by a proton on a proton, by a
proton on a neutron and by a neutron on a neutron respectively. When the separation is 1 fm,
(A) Fpp > Fpn = Fnn (B*) Fpp = Fpn = Fnn (C) Fpp > Fpn > Fnn (D) Fpp < Fpn - Fnn
7. Let Fpp, Fpn and Fnn denote the magnitudes of the net force by a proton on a proton, by a proton on
a neutron and by a neutron on a neutron respectively. Neglect gravitational force. When the
separation is 1 fm,
(A) Fpp > Fpn = Fnn (B) Fpp = Fpn = Fnn (C) Fpp > Fpn > Fnn (D*) Fpp < Fpn = Fnn
8. Two protons are kept at a separation of 10 nm. Let Fn and Fe be the nuclear force and the
electromagnetic force between them.
(A) Fe = Fn (B*) Fe >> Fn
(C) Fe << Fn (D) Fe and Fn differ only slightly
9. As the mass number A increases, the binding energy per nucleon in a nucleus
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains the same
(D*) varies in a way that depends on the actual value of A.
10. Which of the following is a wrong description of binding energy of a nucleus ?

(A) It is the energy required to break a nucleus into its constituent nucleons.
(B) It is the energy made available when free nucleons combine to form a nucleus.
(C) It is the sum of the rest mass energies of its nucleons minus the rest mass energy of the nucleus.
(D*) It is the sum of the kinetic energy of all the nucleons in the nucleus.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. In one average-life,
(A) half the active nuclei decay (B) less than half the active nuclei decay
(C*) more than half the active nuclei decay (D) all the nuclei decay.
2. In a radioactive decay, neither the atomic number nor the mass number changes. Which of the
following particles is emitted in the decay ?
(A) proton (B) neutron (C) electron (D*) photon.
3. During a negative beta decay,

(A) an atomic electron is ejected
(B) an electron which is already present within the nucleus is ejected
(C*) a neutron in the nucleus decays emitting an electron
(D) a proton in the nucleus decays emitting an electron.
4. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half-life 2 h emits radiation of intensity which is 64 times
the permissible safe level. The minimum time after which it would be possible to work safely with
this source is
(A) 6 h (B*) 12 h (C) 24 h (D) 128 h.
5. The decay constant of a radioactive sample is X. The half-life and the average-life of the sample
are respectively
(A) 1/ and (In 2/) (B*) (ln2/) and 1/ (C) (ln2) and 1/ (D) /(ln2) and 1/.
6. An -particle is bombarded on 14N. As a result, a 17O nucleus is formed and a particle is emitted.
This particle is a
(A) neutron (B*) proton (C) electron (D) positron.
7. Ten grams of 57Co kept in an open container beta-decays with a half-life of 270 days. The weight
of the material inside the container after 540 days will be very nearly
(A*) 10 g (B) 5 g (C) 2.5 g (D) 1.25 g.
8. Free 238U nuclei kept in a train emit alpha particles. When the train is stationary and a uranium
nucleus decays, a passenger measures that the separation between the alpha particle and the
recoiling nucleus becomes x in time t after the decay. If a decay takes place when the train is
moving at a uniform speed , the distance between the alpha particle and the recoiling nucleus at
a time t after the decay, as measured by the passenger will be
(A) x + t (B) x t
(C*) x (D) depends on the direction of the train.
9. During a nuclear fission reaction,

(A) a heavy nucleus breaks into two fragments by itself
(B) a light nucleus bombarded by thermal neutrons breaks up
(C*) a heavy nucleus bombarded by thermal neutrons breaks up
(D) two light nuclei combine to give a heavier nucleus and possibly other products.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. As the mass number A increases, which of the following quantities related to a nucleus do not
change ?
(A) mass (B) volume (C*) density (D) binding energy.
2. The heavier nuclei tend to have larger N/Z ratio because

(A) a neutron is heavier than a proton
(B) a neutron is an unstable particle
(C*) a neutron does not exert electric repulsion
(D*) Coulomb forces have longer range compared to the nuclear forces.
3. A free neutron decays to a proton but a free proton does not decay to a neutron. This is because
(A) neutron is a composite particle made of a proton and an electron whereas proton is a
fundamental particle
(B) neutron is an uncharged particle whereas proton is a charged particle
(C*) neutron has larger rest mass than the proton
(D) weak forces can operate in a neutron but not in a proton.
4. Consider a sample of a pure beta-active material.

(A) All the beta particles emitted have the same energy.
(B) The beta particles originally exist inside the nucleus and are ejected at the time of beta decay.
(C) The antineutrino emitted in a beta decay has zero mass and hence zero momentum.
(D*) The active nucleus changes to one of its isobars after the beta decay.
5. In which of the following decays the element does not change ?

(A) -decay (B) +-decay (C) -decay (D*) -decay.
6. In which of the following decays the atomic number decreases ?

(A*) -decay (B*) +-decay (C) -decay (D) -decay.
7. Magnetic field does not cause deflection in

(A) -rays (B) beta-plus rays (C) beta-minus rays (D*) gamma rays.
8. Which of the following are electromagnetic waves ?

(A) -rays (B) beta-plus rays (C) beta-minus rays (D*) gamma rays.
9. Two lithium nuclei in a lithium vapour at room temperature do not combine to form a carbon
nucleus because
(A) a lithium nucleus is more tightly bound than a carbon nucleus
(B) carbon nucleus is an unstable particle
(C) it is not energetically favourable
(D*) Coulomb repulsion does not allow the nuclei to come very close.
10. For nuclei with A > 100,

(A) the binding energy of the nucleus decreases on an average as A increases
(B*) the binding energy per nucleon decreases on an average as A increases
(C*) if the nucleus breaks into two roughly equal parts, energy is released
(D) if two nuclei fuse to form a bigger nucleus, energy is released.
P H YS I C S
DPP
Target - 2008
1. Pure silicon at 300 K has equal electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 1016 m3.
Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 1022 m3. Calculate ne in the doped silicon.
Ans.
2. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases when electromagnetic radiation of
wavelength shorter than 2480 nm is incident on it. Find the band gap of the semiconductor. Given
h = 6.63 1034Js c= 3.0 108ms1.
Ans.
3. A semiconductor has an electron concentration of 0.45 1012 m3 and a hole concentration of
5.0 1020 m3. Calculate its conductivity. Given electron mobility = 0.135 m2 V1 s1; hole mobility
= 0.048 m2V1 s1.
Ans.
4. The circuit shown in the Fig. (a) cotains two diodes each with a forward resistance of 50 and
with infinite reverse resistance. If the battery voltage is 6 V,find the current through the 100 .
resistance.
Ans.
5. Find the current produced at the room temperature in a pure germanium plate of area 2 104 m2
and of thickness 1.2 103 m when a potential of 5 Vis applied across the faces. Concentration
of carriers in germanium at room temperature is 1.6 106 per cubic metre. The mobility of
electrons and holes are 0.4 m2 V1 s1and 0.2 m2 V1 s1respectively. How much heat is generated
in the plate in 100 second.
Ans. I = ,H=
6. The acceptor levels in p-type semiconductor are 66 meV above the valence band. Determine the
maximum wavelength of light which, can create a hole, h = 6.6 1034Js.
Ans.
7. The width ofdepletion region in P-N junction diode is 500 nm and an intense electric field of
6 105 Vm1 is also found to exist in it. Calculate the height of potential barrier. Also calculate the
kinetic energy which a conduction electron must have in order to diffuse from the N-side to
P-side.
Ans.
8. The diode used in the circuit shown in fig. has a constant voltage drop at 0. 5 V at all currents and
a maximum . power rating of 100 milliwatt. What should be the value of the resistance R connected
in series and with diode for obtaining maximum current.
Ans.

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P H YS I C S

(i) y = (3x + 4)7 (ii) y = ax b

(iii) y = sin(2x + 3) (iv) y = e2x+3

(v) y = log(2x + 3) (vi) y = exsinx

Also, find the values of x at which it occurs.

(i) y = 2 x2 at x = 0 (ii) y = 2x3 at x = 3

Q1. Instaneous position of a particle, at time t, is given by x= 10 + 12 t + 8 t2 where x and t are in

calculate the Force experienced by the body at t= 3 sec.

Q 4. Instantaneous coordinates in space of flying mosquito are-

Find the instantaneous components of acceleration of mosquito

Calculate the definite integral sin x dx

Q5. The speed of a car increases uniformly from zero to 10ms1 in

(i) y = x2 between x = 0 and x = 6 (ii) y = 3x2 + 6x + 7 between x = 5 and x = 10

Q8. Differentiate the following functions w.r.t. x :

Q.3 A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (A) versus a

Q.5 The acceleration of a moving body can be found from:

Q.9 If the velocity of a particle is given by

Q5. Unit of dielectric constant of a medium is

Q7. The electric charge in uniform motion produces

(C) 2 2 kq2/a2 (D) zero

(D) none of the above

Q.7 The position vector of a particle is

Q.10 Which one of the following represents uniformly accelerated motion?

(D) none of these

(A) 8 along negative x-axis (B) 8 along positive x-axis

(C) 16 along negative x-axis (D) 16 along positive x-axis

(A) (B) (C) (D)

L/2 z L/2 z L z L/2 z

Q.7 The position vector of a particle is

Q.10 Which one of the following represents uniformly accelerated motion?

Q.6 For the motion of a particle, velocity v depends on displacement x as v = 20/(3x2). If at t = 0,

Q.7 The acceleration a of a particle depends on displacement s as a = s + 5. It is given that initially s

Q3. In the above question the magnitude of charge q will be

Q2. The region surrounding an oscillating electric dipole has

Q5. In the above question, the tension in the string is

(A) AB (B) CB (C) BD (D) AC q 2q

(A) ve charge oscillates along the Z axis Z-axis

(B) It moves away from the frame Q Q

Q.7 A weight W is hung as shown in fig. Then the tension T is :

(A) W sin (B) W cos (C*) W cosec (D) W cot

(A) 3.6 m (B) 28.8 m

(A) 300 (B) 450 (C*) 600 (D) 900

Q3. The work done in taking a unit positive charge from P to A is

(A) (B) (C*) (D)

(A) zero (B*) q(Q1 Q2) 2 1/ 2 (40R)

(A) 6i 2 j 3k (B*) 18i 13j 2 k (C) 4 i 13j 6k (D) 6i 2 j 8k

(A) 3 : 5 : 7 (B) 3 : 4 : 5 (C) 7 : 11 : 6 (D*) 3 : 5 : 6

(A) (B) (C*) (D)

(A) 20 N (B) 40 N (C) 10 N (D*) 32 N

(A) 100 ms2 (B*) 3 ms2 (C) 10 ms2 (D) 30 ms2

(A) 2U cos (B) U cos (C) 2U / cos (D*) U / cos

6. A body of weight 2kg is suspended as shown in the figure. The

9. If above system is acceleration with acceleration 1 m/s2 upward than

2. Two masses A and B of 10 kg and 5 kg respectively are connected with a

3. The limiting friction is :

Q3. The percentage error in above equation will be:

(C*) X /Xm x 100% (D) Xm/ X 100%

MEASUREMENT AND ERRORS

6. The image formed by a concave mirror

4. Mark the correct options.

i 2 j k and i 0 j 2k . The position vector of the centre of mass will be :

(A*) (B) (C) (D)

6. If resutant of external forces acting on a system is zero, then centre of mass -

7. Main reason of the motion of CM is :