VISION IAS

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATION

GENERAL STUIDES (P) 2016 (Test Code 1713)

1. (c)

Constitutionalism is a concept which means that Government derives its authority from a fundamantal
body of law and is legally limited in its powers by the same. It does not have any relation to written or
unwritten constitution or the political system of a country.

2. (b)

Except 3rd Statement, rest all the statements are correct. The Indian Independence Act 1947 abolished the
office of Secretary of State of India and transferred his functions to the Secretary of State for
Commonwealth Affairs.

3. (c)

First and Second elements have been imbibed in the Indian Constitutional Scheme. Third is not applicable
as it is the Constitutition of India which is the source of the Individual rights.

4. (a)

The Charter Act of 1853 separated, for the first time, the executive and legislative functions of the
Governor General's council. It provided for addition of 6 legislative councillors to the council. In other
words, it created a separate Governor General's legislative council which came to be known as the (Indian
Central Legislative Council). It functioned as a mini parliament.

5. (c)

Population of Indian has nothing to do with the bukiness of constitution. Rather it is the diversity of
language, caste and creed whcich our constitution aims to protect thrugh the ideals of liberty, equality and
fraternity. It was also felt that smooth functioning of infant democracy might be jeopardised unless the
constitution mentioned in the detailed things which were left in other constitution to ordinary legislation.
This explains why we have detailed provision about the organistion of judiciary, UPSC, Elections etc.

6. (c)

The Second Schedule to the Constitution of India contains provisions for the emoluments, allowances and
privileges of the President, the Governors of the States, Speakers, Deputy Speakers, Chairmen, and
Deputy Chairmen in Parliament and State Legislatures, Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High
Courts, and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.It doesnot apply to Chairman of UPSC

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7. (b)

Statement 1 is correct: DPSP Article 45 says: The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care
and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. Statement 2 is correct: Art 21A
(part of Fundamental Rights)- The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the
age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. Statement 4 is correct :
Art. 51A was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 as part of Fundamental Duties and
it reads: who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case
may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

8. (a)

AIS, Integrated judiciary and Single citizenship are Unitary features of our constitution whereas, written
constitution is a federal feature as it empowers the central government and state governments both for
their power and roles in governance.

9. (b)

Sources Features Borrowed:

1. Government of India Act of 1935 : Federal Scheme, Office of governor, Judiciary, Public Service
Commissions, Emergency provisions and administrative details.
2. British Constitution: Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, legislative procedure, single
citizenship, cabinet system, prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges and bicameralism.
3. US Constitution: Fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of
the president, removal of Sup-reme Court and high court judges and post of vice-president.
4. Irish Constitution: Directive Principles of State Policy, nomination of mem-bers to Rajya Sabha
and method of election of president.
5. Canadian Constitution: Federation with a strong Centre, vesting of residuary powers in the

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Centre, appointment of state governors by the Centre, and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme

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Court.

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6. Australian Constitution: Concurrent List, freedom of trade, commerce and inter-course, and joint
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sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.

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7. Weimar Constitution of Germany : Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.

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8. Soviet Constitution (USSR, now Russia) : Fundamental duties and the ideal of justice (social,
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economic and political) in the Preamble.

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9. French Constitution: Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble.
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10. South African Constitution : Procedure for amendment of the Constitution and election of
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members of Rajya Sabha.

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11. Japanese Constitution: Procedure established by Law.

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10. (d)
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Article 297- Things of value within territorial waters or continental shelf and resources of the exclusive
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economic zone to vest in the Union (1) All lands, minerals and other things of value underlying the ocean
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within the territorial waters, or the continental shelf, or the exclusive economic zone, of India shall vest in
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the Union and be held for the purposes of the Union.

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11. (b)
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Statement 1 is incorrect : Dhar Commission recommended the reorganization of the states on the basis of
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administrative convenience rather than linguistic factor. Statement 2 is incorrect : JVP Committee
formally rejected language as the basis for reorganization of the states. Statement 3 is correct :Fazal Ali
Commission broadly accepted the language as the basis of reorganization of the states but rejected the
theory of one language one state.

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12. (a)

Statement 1 is correct :The Government of India Act of 1919, made a provision for classification of the
central and provincial subjects. Statement 2 is incorrect : The provincial subjects were divided into two
groups: One was reserved and another was transferred. The reserved subjects were kept with the Governor
and transferred subjects were kept with the Indian Ministers. This division of subjects was basically what
they meant by introducing the Dyarchy.

13. (c)

Both the Stataments are correct. The term Caretaker Government has come to be used in common
parlance to describe the status of a Council of Ministers that has resigned for certain reasons but is asked
by President to continue till alternative arrangements are made.

14. (d)

1. Union Powers Committee Jawaharlal Nehru

2. Union Constitution Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Provincial Constitution Committee Sardar Patel
4. Drafting Committee Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas Sardar
Patel. This committee had the following sub-committes:
a. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee J.B. Kripalani
b. Minorities Sub-Committee H.C. Mukherjee
c. North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas
SubCommittee Gopinath Bardoloi
d. Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee A.V.
Thakkar
6. Rules of Procedure Committee Dr. Rajendra Prasad

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7. States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) Jawaharlal Nehru

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8. Steering Committee Dr. Rajendra Prasad
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15. (d)
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Government of India Act, 1935 had the most profound influence on the constitution
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16. (d)
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Montagu Chelmsford Reforms replaced the Indian legislative council by a bicameral legislature consisting
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of upper house and lower house.

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17. (a)
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State and Union territories are dealt in first schedule of the constitution.
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18. (d)
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Statement 1 is incorrect : Article 48 of DPSP directs the State to prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and
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other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds. Statement 2 is incorrect :Article 41 directs the
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State to secure free legal aid to the poor but since it is one of the DPSP's, it is not a justiciable right.
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19. (c)
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Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines or principles to be kept in mind while framing laws and
policies .The DPSP are non justiciable in nature or not enforceable by courts & therefore does not retrict
the supremacy of the Parliament.Rest all the other options restricts the supremacy of the Parliament.

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20. (b)

Except Article 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 all other rights are availbale to both citizens and foreigners. Right
against discrimination on ground of religion etc. (Article 15) and freedom of speech (Article 19) are
avialable to citizens only.

21. (d)

All the Statements are correct.

22. (a)

The first such Commission was established in 1834 through the Charter Act of 1833 under the
Chairmanship of Lord Macaulay which recommended codification of the Penal Code, the Criminal
Procedure Code and few other matters.

23. (c)

1st and 3rd statements are incorrect as they pertain to Aricle 15 and 29 respectively Right to Freedom of
Religion consists of the following Articles (25-28): Article 25 - freedom of conscience and free
profession, practice and propagation of religion. Article 26- Freedom to manage religious affairs. Article
27- Freedom from payments of taxes for promotion of any religion. Article 28- Freedom as to attendance
at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions

24. (c)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Foundations of the central administration in India were laid down by Regulating
Act of 1773. Statement 2 is incorrect: Charter act of 1833 made the Governor General of Bengal as the
Governor General of India. Statement 3 is correct: The Pitt's India Act, 1784 was significant fortwo

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reasons. First, the Company's territories in India were for the first time called the British posessions in

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India' and second, the British Government was given the supreme control over Company's affairs and its

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administration in India.
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25. (b)
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Statement 1 is incorrect : 'Right to Constitutional Remedies' is available only against violation of

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Fundamental Rights. Statement 2 is correct: As per the Supreme Cort of India, 'Right to Constitutional
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Remedies' under Article 32 is a part of the basic structure of the constitutionand thus cannot be amended.
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26. (c)
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Features of federal Govt. are- Dual government (national and regional govt.) and division of powers
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between these two governments, supremacy of the constitution, written constitution, rigid constitution,
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independent judiciary and bicameral system. Rule of law has no bearing on Federalism. Emergency
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provisions weaken federalism.

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27. (b)
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The Act provides that any person who is/has been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh or any other country
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which is notified by the Government of India are ineligible to apply for Overseas Citizenship of India. The
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Act extends this provision to cover persons whose parents/grandparents/great-grandparents were citizens
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of any of the above countries. Thus statement 1 is not correct. The general permission is not available to
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NRI/PIO to acquire agricultural land/plantation properties in India, such proposals require specific
approval of Reserve Bank. Recent amendments provide that Persons of Indian Origin cardholders shall be
considered to be Overseas Citizen of India cardholders from 9th Jan 2015 . As per the act if a person
renounces his overseas citizenship, their minor children and spouses also lose the overseas citizenship of
India.

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28. (c)

Habeas corpus can be issued against private individuals as well. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is
correct. Certiorari is not available against legislative bodies .

29. (a)

Both Mahatma Gandhi and Mohammad Ali Jinnah were not a part of the Assembly.

30. (b)

Directives addressed to state are also found outside Part IV in articles such as Art. 350A, 351, 335. Since
Art.355 states that it shall be duty of union to ensure that the government of every state is carried in
accordance with the provisions of the constitution, hence it becomes duty of Union to see that every state
takes steps for implementing the directives, therefore refusal to comply with such directions become
ground under Art. 365. Thus only statement 2 is correct.

31. (a)

Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: No law which seek to implement the directive principles
under Art. 39(b) and (c) shall be void on the ground of contraventions of the Fudamental rights conferred
by Article 14, 19 or 31, not all the fundamental rights.

32. (d)

All the statements are correct. The 'Preamble' of the Constitution of India sets out the guiding purpose and
principles of the document, and it indicates the source from which the document which derives its
authority i.e. the 'People'. The hopes and aspirations of the people as well as the ideals before our nation
are described in the Preamble in clear cut words.

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33. (c)

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The Rurban Mission will develop a cluster of Smart Villages. Only Statement 2 in incorrect, as it is State
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Governments, which would identify the clusters in accordance with the Framework for Implementation
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prepared by the Ministry of Rural Development. The clusters will be geographically contiguous Gram
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Panchayats with a population of about 25000 to 50000 in plain and coastal areas and a population of 5000
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to 15000 in desert, hilly or tribal areas. There would be a separate approach for selection of clusters in
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Tribal and Non-Tribal Districts.

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34. (c)
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Both the statements are correct.

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35. (c)
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Lucknowi kebab is not a GI, Chengalikodan banana was recently given GI status in Aug 2015.
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36. (b)
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Udaipur Solar Observatory has operationalised a unique telescope 'Multi Application Solar Telescope'
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(MAST) for detailed study of solar activities which could facilitate space weather predictions in the
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future.Unlike other telescopes, MAST is capable to capture three-dimensional aspects of the solar
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magnetic fields further enabling the scientists to get a better understanding of the solar flares and
eruptions taking place in such twisted magnetic fields

37. (d)

The National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA 2013) converts into legal entitlements for existing food
security programmes of the Government of India. All the given term are mentioned in the act.

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38. (d)

Equality means no section of the society enjoys special privileges and individuals are provided with
adequate opportunities without any discrimination. Secular: In S.R. Bommai vs UOI (1994) The SC of
India held "A state which does not recognise any religion as the state religion, it treats all religions
equally". Republic: means Head of the State is an elected person and not a heredity monarch. The manner
of election can be both direct and indirect. However, in India, the Head of the State is indirectly elected.

39. (b)

The Preamble was the last part of the Constitution to be enacted to ensure that it was in conformity with
the rest of the Constitution as adopted by the Assembly. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act inserted
3 new words - Socialist, Secular and Integrity in the Preamble.

40. (d)

Article 36 states that the definitions of 'State' in Part III and IV of the constitution are the same. So, all
bodies that qualify as state for Fundamental Rights also do so for Directive Principles unless stated
otheriwse.

41. (b)

Statement 1, 2 and 4 are correct: They are a part of Article 51. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 5 is
incorrect: It is a part of the Panchsheel principle.

42. (a)

Only statement 3 is wrong. As 86th constitution amendment was inserted in 2002 and RTE 2009 can not
be enforced against unaided minority and non-minority schools.

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43. (c)

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Supreme court has expanded the scope of Article 21 through its various judgements. All the given
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statements are correct except Right to die.

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44. (d)
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Right to demonstrate is avaiable under Freedom of Speech but Right to Strike is not a Fundamental Right.
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Rest all the statements are correct.

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45. (a)
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The Inner Line Permit (ILP) is an official travel document issued by the Government of India to grant
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inward travel of an Indian citizen into a protected area for a limited period. It is obligatory for Indians
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residing outside those states to obtain permission prior to entering the protected areas. Currently, the Inner
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Line Permit is operational in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Nagaland. The document has been issued
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under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation, 1873 and the conditions and restrictions vary from state to
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state. It can be issued for travel purposes solely. Visitors are not allowed to purchase property in these
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regions. However, there might be a different set of rules for long term visitors, though they are not valid
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for central government employees and security forces. In Manipur, for the past several months, protests
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are on to demand the implementation of the Inner Line Permit in the region. Thus only statement 1 is
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correct.

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46. (c)

Through the Global Gender Gap Report, the World Economic Forum quantifies the magnitude of gender-
based disparities and tracks their progress over time. The report examines four critical areas of inequality
between men and women.

These are:

1. Economic participation and opportunity outcomes on salaries, participation levels and access to
high-skilled employment
2. Educational attainment outcomes on access to basic and higher level education
3. Political empowerment outcomes on representation in decision-making structures
4. Health and survival outcomes on life expectancy and sex ratio.

Among the BRICS grouping, India has the lowest rank (108), while South Africa is on top at the 17th
position, followed by Russia (75), Brazil (85) and China (91). In 2014, India ranked 114 among 142
countries.

47. (c)

Fundamental Rights are included under Part III of the indian Constitution. They aim to safeguard
individual liberty and put restrictions on the power and authority of the State. The Parliament can amend
fundament rights provided that basic structure of the constitution is not affected. Therefore Statement 3 is
incorrect. Any new law which restricts the scope of Fundamental Rights can be challenged in the Supreme
Court under Article 32 of the Constitution.

48. (d)

All the statements given are correct.

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49. (d)

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All statements are correct. As per the ruling of the Supreme Court of India, boundary disputes can be
settled by an executive order as it will not amount to cession of indian territory to foreign country.
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50. (c)
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Except Statement 2 i.e :"To minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities" (Art.38)
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which was added by 44th Amendment Act, 1978 rest all the statements are correct.
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51. (c)
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NFSA is a form of socio-economic justice which is a part of Preamble and the Directive Principles of
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State Policy.
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In PUCL vs Union of India The court affirmed the right to food as necessary to uphold Article 21 of the
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Constitution of India, which guarantees the fundamental right to life with human dignity. Thus the
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National food security act also tries to fulfill the Right to have a dignified life under Article 21. Hence
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"C" is the correct answer.

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52. (c)
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It is a blasting material invented by Alfred Nobel (who also invented Dynamite). It cannot explode
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without detonator and thus, it can be stored safely. On September 12, 2015, two powerful explosions took
place in a restaurant during breakfast hours in Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh, India. It was caused by
Gelatin sticks.

53. (a)

Long Range Surface-to-Air Missile (LRSAM), Barak 8 co-developed by India and Israel was successfully
test-fired for the first time from an Israeli Naval Platform in Nov 2015.
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54. (b)

AUSINDEX15 is inaugural bilateral maritime exercise between India and Australia, commenced off coast
of Visakhapatnam in september 2015

55. (a)

Statement 1 is correct. Though set up by the Government, the Akademi functions as an autonomous
organisation. Statement 2 is correct. Besides the 22 languages enumerated in Schedule VIII of the
Constitution ofIndia, the SahityaAkademi has recognised English and Rajasthani as languages in which its
programme may be implemented. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Jananpith Award is
presented by the Bhartiya Jnanpith.

56. (d)

Only statement 3 is incorrect. Members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by indirect election by
the members of the Provisional Legislative Assemblies that had been established in 1935. It was
composed roughly along the lines suggested by the plan proposed by the Cabinet Mission.

57. (b)

Jaipur and Varanasi were recently added to the Creative Cities Network as cities of Crafts & Folk Art and
Music respectively.

58. (c)

Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Bicameralism in states is not part of the basic structure.

59. (d)

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The Constitution (Ninety Seventh Amendment) Act 2011 relating to the co-operatives is aimed to

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encourage economic activities of cooperatives which in turn help progress of rural India. It is expected to
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not only ensure autonomous and democratic functioning of cooperatives, but also the accountability of the
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management to the members and other stakeholders. As per the amendment the changes done to
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Constitution are:- (i) In Part III of the constitution, Article 19 (1) (c) (ii) In Part IV a new Article 43B was
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inserted, which says: The state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning,
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democratic control and professional management of the co-operative societies". (iii) Article 243ZJ,
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Article 243ZM, Article 243ZR and Article 243ZT under Part IXB talks about co-operatives.
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60. (d)
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1st statement is incorrect because it is the Parliament which can impose reasonable restrictions on the
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FRs of the citizens.

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2nd statement is incorrect because it's the Courts which decide upon the reasonableness of the
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restrictions placed on fundamental rights.

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61. (c)
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Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct. In the Government of India Act, 1935, the power to enact legislation
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was specifically given to Provincial Legislature by Entry 12 in the Provincial Legislative List. By virtue
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of this power, new Acts were enacted by many other States vesting powers of administration, including
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criminal justice, in the hands of the Panchayats.

62. (a)

Only statement 1 is correct. According to the Objectives Resolution, the Constituent Assembly declared
its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Soverign Republic.

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63. (c)

President's rule has no effect on Fundamental rights whereas National Emergency and Martial Rule have.
When a National Emergency is declared, the Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically
suspended and this suspension continues till the end of the emergency.

64. (d)

Both of the given statements are correct. Hence D is the correct answer.

65. (c)

Most of the FRs are available against the arbitrary action of the State with few exceptions like Art 15, Art
17 etc. which are also available against private individuals. Fundamental Rights are justiciable in nature
while DPSPs and Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable in nature

66. (d)

Directive Principles of State Policy aim to establish a welfare state and promote social and economic
democracy. These are not justiciable in nature and hence can not be enforced by the court of law.

67. (b)

Gandhian method included picketing of liquor shops. So (1) is correct. (2) is incorrect. Legal protection of
environment is a relatively recent phenomenon. It was introduced by the 42nd Amendment. (3) is
incorrect. It is a socialist principle. (4) is correct. The work of Gandhiji in upliftment of Harijans is well
known.

68. (d)

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Statement 1 is incorrect:The bill can be introduced by either a minister or by a private member. Statement

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2 is correct : The provisions of the Constitution which can be amended by a simple majority are outside
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the scope of Article 368 like admission or establishment of new States;abolition or creation of legislative
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councils in states. Statement 3 is correct : The bill does not require the prior permission of the President.
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69. (c)
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The Supreme Court upheld the validity of the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act in Kesavananda
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Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1971 and laid down the principle of Basic structure. According to the Basic
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Structure doctrine, Parlimament can amend any part of the Constitution however formed the basis of
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power of the Indian judiciary to review, and strike down, amendments seek to alter this principle. In the
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Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic
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structure doctrine. The court unanimously ruled that the power of the Parliament of India to amend the
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constitution is limited by the constitution. The ruling struck down few sections of the Constitution (Forty-
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Second Amendment) Act. Recently, in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record -Association and another v.
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Union of India case, Supreme Court struck down 99th constitutional amendement which proposed the
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formation of NJAC for selection and transfer of judges in SC and High courts. Golaknath vs State of
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Punjab, 1967 was before the basic structure doctrine. In this case the SC opined that fundamental rights
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can not be amended. After this judgement, the parliament enacted 24th amendemnt which provided that
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nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment of the constitution under Article 368.
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70. (c)

All the provisions are amended by a simple majority of both Houses ,except the extent of the Executive
power of the Union which is amended by Special majority of the Parliament and consent of States.

71. (b)

The words strive to be a good human being are not mentioned in the Fundamental Duties

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72. (a)

Under federal system there is an independent Supreme Court as the arbiter of the disputes between the
union and the units. The federal system is also believed to bring a sense of unity among the people having
diverse cultures, languages and territories. Whereas, under unitary system all powers are vested with the
central legislature. Statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, statements 1st and 2nd are correct.

73. (c)

Within a year of the adoption of the universal declaration of Human Rights, the assembly incorporated in
the constitution of India the substance of most of these rights. The two parts, the fundamental rights and
directive principles of the constitution of India between them covered almost the entire field of Human
rights

74. (a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. President was bound to the advice of cabinet by 42nd Constituional
Aamendment Act.

75. (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect : Early childhood care and education till age of six years forms a part of Directive
Principles of State policy( Art.45). It was added by 86th Amendment Act, 2002. Statement 3 is incorrect :
Duty to pay taxes was recommended by Swaran Singh Committee to be included under Art. 51 A, but the
recommendation was not accepted.

76. (b)

An illegal migrant cannot acquire the Citizenship of India. Statement 2 is correct:The Citizenship Act,

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1955, prescribes three ways of losing citizenship viz. renunciation, termination and deprivation. If a

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citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalisation, been imprisoned in any country for two
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years, his citizenship is compulsorily terminated by the Central Government.
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77. (a)
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Independent judiciary is same in both countries. Rest all are different.

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78. (d)
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All have bearing on DPSP. Directive principles have become a guideline for decisions of supreme court.
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Many decisions related to implement the directive principles have been given by supreme court. For
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example, recently, SC directed centre to see the status of UCC under Article 44 in the constitution.
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Establishing village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to
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function as units ofself-government (Article 40). To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or
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historic interest which are declared to be ofnational importance (Article 49). ASI performs this function.
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To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas (Article 43). KVIC
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performs this function.

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79. (b)
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The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. It only identitfies the
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persons who became citizens of India at its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to
provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.

80. (a)

Only 3rd Statement is incorrect because it is set up by Ministry of Finance.To be operational by the year
end, 2015, NIIF will primarily focus on fund infusion in infrastructure projects -- greenfield, brownfield
and the stalled ones.

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81. (a)

The major difference between these two systems is that the executive leader of the Parliamentary system
is elected from the legislative branch directly. In the Presidential System, it is more difficult to enact
legislation, especially in the event that the President has different views than the legislative body.

82. (b)

The Pay Commission submitted its report to Finance Minister who in turn submits to the Union cabinet of
India headed by Prime minister.

83. (c)

The government had launched three ambitious schemes to reduce the physical demand for gold and fish
out 20,000 tonnes of the precious metal worth $800 billion lying idle with households. Modi launched the
maiden sovereign gold bond, gold monetisation and the Indian gold coin scheme. The main objectives of
the schemes are:

To reduce Indias gold imports.

Bring all the gold lying idle with individuals and households.

84. (b)

An ex-post-facto law is one that imposes penalties retrospectively (retroactively), that is, upon acts
already done or which increases the penalties for such acts. The enactment of such a law is prohibited by
the first provision of Article 20. However, this limitation is imposed only on criminal laws and not on
civil laws or tax laws. Thus, Statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is correct. Hence "b" is the correct
answer."

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85. (c)

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The following are the features of the Representative democracy: gm
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Free and fair elections

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Free to form political parties

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Univeral adult suffarage

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Equality of citizens
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Independent judiciary
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Equality to all citizens

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The following are the features of the Direct Democracy: Plebiscite, recall, referendum, initiative
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86. (d)
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Sitting during the national anthem doesnt necessarily mean the disrespect to the national flag. It is the
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willful act to insult the flag will fall under disrespect category.
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87. (c)
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RSL have been prominently mentioned in the news as they are an indirect evidence of water on Mars.
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88. (d)
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The Government of Indias innovative approach of programs provided the synergistic lift off to make
MNTE a reality.
Indias re-energized national immunization programme and the special immunization weeks and the
most recent Mission Indradhanush, helped ensure that children and pregnant women are reached
with vaccines.
The National Rural Health Mission promoted institutional deliveries with a focus on the poor.
The Janani Suraksha Yojana encouraged women to give birth in a health facility.
11 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
89. (c)

Even though fundamental duties are not enforceable, it may be taken into consideration to determine the
Constitutionality of any law. This is done in order to prevent reckless citizens against anti-social activities
such as burning the Constitution, destroying public property etc. Thus, both statements are correct.

90. (a)

Statement 1 is correct as certain duties such as cherishing noble ideals of freedom struggle is a moral
precept while respecting the constitution is a civic duty. Statement 2 is wrong. Fundamental duties are
confined to citizens only.

91. (c)

Project Mausam is essentially a Ministry of Culture project concerning the creation of cultural links with
Indias maritime neighbours.

At the macro level to re-connect with the countries of the IOR with the aim of enhancing the
understanding of cultural values and concerns.
At a more localised level, to enable an understanding of national cultures in a regional maritime
milieu.

Project Sagarmala, on the other hand, is an initiative to enable port-led direct and indirect development,
especially the provision and efficient operation of port infrastructure.

92. (b)

It enacted the Indian council Act, 1909 and not GoI Act, 1909. It retained official majority in the Central
Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non-official majority. Hence

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only statement 2 is correct.

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Separation of power under Seventh Schedule is a federal provision of our Constitution which can be
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amended by special majority of house under Article 368 and needs to be ratified by half of state
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legislatures with simple majority. Both Union and State list are part of Seventh Schedule. Hence only
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statement 2 is correct.
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94. (d)
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All statments are correct. SDG contains 17 goals with 169 targets. MDG contained 8 goals and 21 targets.
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95. (c)
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Features of the bill:

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Mandatory for arbitrators to settle disputes within 12 months. This period can be extended by 6
s
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months only by a court on sufficient cause.

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It cuts down the fees of arbitrators if the court finds that the delay has been caused due to
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arbitrators. Rewarding arbitrators with extra fees in case the matter is disposed of within 6 months
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and the parties agree to pay more.

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Empower arbitration tribunals to grant all kinds of interim measures that courts provide. It gives
more teeth to them in order to make tribunals directives enforceable in the same manner as those
of courts

12 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

96. (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Seats alloted to the Provinces and Princely States were in proportion to their
respective population and not area. Statement 2 is incorrect: Seats allocated to each British province were
to be decided among Muslims, Sikhs and General ( all except Muslims and Sikhs).

97. (d)

Most of the Fundamental Rights are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few
exceptions like those against the States action and against the action of private individuals. For example,
Abolishing Untouchability. When the rights that are available against the States action only are violated
by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies. Some of
them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are
positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons. For eample, Article 21A, Right to
education. Hence, both statements are wrong.

98. (d)

Goa was conferred Statehood in 1987. Both Manipur and Tripura became States in 1972. Sikkim was
never a Union Territory, it became a 'Protectorate' of India and in 1974 it expressed its desire for greater
association with India. Thus, under 35th Constitutional Amendment Act , 1974 , it was made a State.

99. (c)

Both Statements are correct. The Act made amendments to Schedule I of the constitution to exchange the
disputed territories occupied by both the nations.

100. (b)

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Hyderabad was integrated by the means of police action while Junagarh by referendum. Hence statement

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1 is wrong. Nagaland was part of Indian union and was separated later from Assam. Hence statement 3 is
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incorrect. Statement 4 is incoorect as the basis for creating these new states was socio-political and not
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linguistic. Only statement 2 is correct.

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