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GP CPD
In association with: Royal College of General Practitioners
Section 8 of 9
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1. Regarding the role of GPs in the care of pregnant women, which of the following is
correct?
2. That's right.
3. Although the maternity care of women is usually offered by antenatal services, GPs
still have vital roles to play before pregnancy (such as pre-pregnancy counselling),
overseeing general medical problems, and recognising urgent problems during
pregnancy, and advising women on follow up of pregnancy related problems after
delivery.
4. Maternity services will often cover women having home births, and although some
GPs may be involved in this, it is not necessarily part of their role. Women with pre-
existing medical problems can often be managed well outside of hospital, especially if
their GPs communicate well with maternity services. Women with health problems
during pregnancy should feel able to talk to their GPs, as well as other services.
5. Learning bite: handheld medical records
6. It is common practice in the UK for women to have a separate maternity health
record, which they carry to appointments. This is an ideal opportunity to ensure that
all relevant medical and social information is available to other healthcare
professionals.
7. You should make use of the handheld record by recording anything which might be
useful for others involved in the patient's care to know. There are a few exceptions to
this, such as reports of domestic violence, where the abuser may read the record.
2. You are asked to perform a pregnancy test by a 32 year old woman, who you have
been seeing for several years for hypertension, which is controlled by captopril and
nifedipine. Her last menstrual period was about seven weeks ago, and her pregnancy
test is positive. This is her first pregnancy and she is happy to hear the news. What
should you do next?
3. That's right.
4. It is important to manage any pre-existing medical conditions a woman has during
pregnancy, including hypertension. With hypertension it is important to review the
patient's drugs as soon as possible because some drugs are not recommended during
pregnancy: particularly angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors (such as
captopril) and angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), which can lead to congenital
anomalies. There is also an increased risk of congenital anomalies and neonatal
complications if women take chlorothiazides during pregnancy.
5. NICE does recommend using low dose (75 mg) aspirin as a prophylactic measure to
reduce the risk of pre-eclampsia in patients with chronic hypertension. But NICE
recommends starting it after 12 weeks' gestation (normally around the patient's
antenatal booking visit).
3. Which of the following patients should be recognised at their antenatal booking visit
as being at highest risk of gestational diabetes?
4. NICE guidance recommends that you consider complex social factors when planning
or giving medical care in relation to pregnancy. Which one of the following does the
guidance NOT regard as a complex social problem?
5. When is the best time to offer carrier testing to an Afro-Caribbean woman at higher
risk of sickle cell disease?
6. That's right.
7. Generally you should aim to offer carrier testing to women at higher risk of genetic
conditions like haemoglobinopathies as early as possible. Ideally this should be before
she becomes pregnant, so that she and her partner can make informed reproductive
choices. But if the issue is not recognised until she is pregnant, you should offer a
referral as soon as possible during pregnancy, and not wait until her booking visit. It
is certainly not ideal to wait until the delivery of a child with sickle cell disease, if you
knew about the risk beforehand.
6. What proportion of women in the United Kingdom of childbearing age are clinically
obese (BMI 30)?
7. Typically, how many additional calories (kcal) will a pregnant woman require above
her non-pregnant requirement?
8. That's right.
9. During the embryonic and early fetal stages of development there is very little
increase in a woman's calorie requirements. In the third trimester this increases by
around 200 kcal a day. Women who feed their babies with breast milk alone require
about an extra 350-400 kcal a day.10
8. Which of the following is a red flag symptom which should alert you to the possibility
of severe pre-eclampsia requiring urgent assessment?
9. That's right.
10. You should inform your pregnant patients that they should seek urgent medical advice
if they experience symptoms of pre-eclampsia. Such symptoms include:
o Severe headache
o Blurred vision or flashing in front of the eyes
o Severe pain under the ribs (due to hepatomegaly)
o Vomiting
o Sudden swelling of face, hands, or feet (not chronic swelling, which is
common in pregnancy).
A number of risk factors are recognised which lead to a high level of risk of pre-
eclampsia, including:
o First pregnancy
o Age 40 years or older
o Pregnancy interval of more than 10 years
o BMI of 35 or more
o Family history of pre-eclampsia
o Multiple pregnancy.
o For women who have had gestational hypertension, risks in future pregnancies
are:
16-47% risk of gestational hypertension
2-7% risk of pre-eclampsia
o For women who have had pre-eclampsia, risks in future pregnancies are:
13-53% risk of gestational hypertension
16% risk of pre-eclampsia
o For women who have had pre-eclampsia complicated by severe pre-eclampsia,
HELLP syndrome, or eclampsia and led to birth before 34 weeks, risks in
future pregnancies are:
25% risk of pre-eclampsia
o For women who have had pre-eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or eclampsia and
led to birth before 28 weeks, risks in future pregnancies are:
55% risk of pre-eclampsia.
10. Which of the following maternal risk factors is correctly paired with complications
with which they are associated?
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GP trainee
Interactive case history
Section 5 of 9
Chronic kidney disease: early identification
and management in adults - in association
with NICE
10013214 45
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Key points
Haemodialysis
To detect and identify proteinuria, use urine albumin:creatinine ratio in preference, as it has
greater sensitivity than protein:creatinine ratio for low levels of proteinuria. For
quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, protein:creatinine ratio can be used as an
alternative. Urine albumin:creatinine ratio is the recommended method for people with
diabetes.
Offer ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor blockers to non-diabetic people with chronic
kidney disease and hypertension and urine albumin:creatinine ratio 30 mg/mmol or more
(approximately equivalent to protein:creatinine ratio 50 mg/mmol or more, or urinary protein
excretion 0.5 g/24 h or more).
Stage 3 chronic kidney disease should be split into two subcategories defined by:
For the purposes of classifying the stages of CKD define proteinuria as urinary urine
albumin:creatinine ratio 30 mg/mmol or more, or protein:creatinine ratio 50 mg/mmol or
more (approximately equivalent to urinary protein excretion 0.5 g/24 h or more).
Offer people testing for chronic kidney disease if they have any of the following risk factors:
Diabetes
Hypertension
Cardiovascular disease (ischaemic heart disease, chronic heart failure, peripheral
vascular disease, and cerebral vascular disease)
Structural renal tract disease, renal calculi, or prostatic hypertrophy
Multisystem diseases with potential kidney involvement - for example, systemic lupus
erythematosus
Family history of stage 5 chronic kidney disease or hereditary kidney disease
Opportunistic detection of haematuria or proteinuria.
In the absence of the above risk factors, do not use age, sex, or ethnicity as risk markers to
test people for chronic kidney disease. In the absence of metabolic syndrome, diabetes, or
hypertension, do not use obesity alone as a risk marker to test people for chronic kidney
disease.
Obtain a minimum of three eGFR estimations over a period of not less than 90 days
In people with a new finding of reduced eGFR, repeat the eGFR within two weeks to
exclude causes of acute deterioration of GFR - for example, acute kidney injury or
initiation of ACE inhibitor therapy
Define progression as a decline in eGFR of more than 5 ml/min/1.73 m2 within one
year, or more than 10 ml/min/1.73 m2 within five years
Focus particularly on those in whom a decline of eGFR continuing at the observed
rate would lead to the need for renal replacement therapy within their lifetime by
extrapolating the current rate of decline.
In people with chronic kidney disease aim to keep the systolic blood pressure below 140 mm
Hg (target range 120-139 mm Hg) and the diastolic blood pressure below 90 mm Hg.
In people with chronic kidney disease and diabetes, and also in people with an urine
albumin:creatinine ratio 70 mg/mmol or more (approximately equivalent to protein:creatinine
ratio 100 mg/mmol or more, or urinary protein excretion 1 g/24 h or more) aim to keep the
systolic blood pressure below 130 mm Hg (target range 120-129 mm Hg) and the diastolic
blood pressure below 80 mm Hg.
Clinical tips
Matured arteriovenous fistula
Offer a renal ultrasound to all people with chronic kidney disease who:
Have progressive chronic kidney disease (eGFR decline more than 5 ml/min/1.73 m2
within one year, or more than 10 ml/min/1.73 m2 within five years)
Have visible or persistent invisible haematuria
Have symptoms of urinary tract obstruction
Have a family history of polycystic kidney disease and are aged over 20
Have stage 4 or 5 chronic kidney disease
Are considered by a nephrologist to require a renal biopsy.
Advise people with a family history of inherited kidney disease about the implications of an
abnormal result before a renal ultrasound scan is arranged for them.
If a patient with chronic kidney disease has anaemia you should first request haematinics to
find out the cause - you shouldn't automatically assume that it is anaemia due to chronic
kidney disease.
The algorithms
Algorithms on the investigation and management of chronic kidney disease in people with and without
diabetes
Taken from: http://www.nice.org.uk/CG073quickrefguide
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