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A frise aileron has its hinge line on the assists with aircraft minimizes adverse yaw.
11.1.1 c
leading edge. longitudinal control.
A frise aileron maximizes adverse yaw produces parasite drag has the hinge point as
11.1.1 when the aileron is far forward as possible b
raised.
Large aircraft often have two ailerons on each wing to low-speed flight high altitude flight speed of rotation on
11.1.1 a
enhance characteristics characteristics take-off
In a turn, the aileron of the down-going wing is deflected upwards by a greater angle than downwards
11.1.1 the elevator on the up- a
going wing
In a dual aileron system: dual slots are used to smaller controls are smaller controls are
11.1.1 smooth the airflow inboard operated outboard, due b
to high airspeeds
Devices that are designed to reduce lift on an aircraft drag inducers flaps. spoilers.
11.1.1 c
are commonly known as
11.1.1 Spoilers are used primarily to control roll pitch yaw a
During flight, the spoilers may operate in conjunction elevators ailerons rudder
11.1.1 b
with the
In a turn, the spoiler on the up-going wing will remain flush with the lower with the aileron. rise with the aileron.
11.1.1 a
wing.
In a turn, the spoiler on the down-going wing will remain flush with the lower with the aileron. go up.
11.1.1 c
wing
What is the purpose of the aircraft's ground spoilers? The two outboard The ground spoilers To reduce lift and
spoilers are ground operate in conjunction increases the
spoilers, causing with the flaps using the aerodynamic drag after
11.1.1 induced drag to slow induced drag to slow touch down. c
the aircraft down on the A/C down after
landing. touch down.
At lower aircraft speeds the ailerons and spoilers on be locked out to prevent be in use together. operate differentially
11.1.1 b
one wing, on most aircraft, will movement. (opposite directions)
Spoilers are hinged at the leading edge of their panels on the upper surface of on the lower surface of on the upper surface of
and are located the horizontal the wing, forward of the the wing, forward of the
11.1.1 stabilizer's surface trailing edge trailing edge c
forward of the trailing
edge
Spoilers on modern transport aircraft are designed to downwards only upwards only in either direction
11.1.1 b
deploy
11.1.1 Spoiler panels may also be referred to as speed brake panels slots diffusers a
In the flight mode, when aileron control is commanded raise lower remain flush with the
11.1.1 about the longitudinal axis, the spoiler on the down- wing's surface a
going wing will
In the flight mode, when aileron control about the raises lowers remains flush with the
11.1.1 longitudinal axis is commanded, the spoiler on the up- wing's surface c
going wing
During flight, what unit receives input from both spoiler Spoiler mixer Ratio changer Reduction gearbox
11.1.1 and roll channels and sums the inputs to produce a a
revised signal?
Which cockpit setting on the speed brake lever will allow Flight Up Armed
11.1.1 for maximum in-flight deployment of the spoilers? a
What position on the speed brake cockpit control lever Down Armed Up
11.1.1 will provide for maximum spoiler panel deployment after c
landing?
The fatigue life of an aircraft fuselage is based on the pressurisation cycles flying hours landings
11.2a a
number of
A twisting load applied to the structure during certain T-tail ruddervator low mounted tailplane
11.2a a
manoeuvres is greater on aircraft with a
Failures of the aircraft structure that occur under fatigue failures the modulus of elasticity corrosion failures
11.2a conditions of dynamic loading are referred to as: of the material a
The diameter of a monocoque fuselage is determined formers stringers the guage of metal
11.2b a
by used for the skin
A stressed skin structure with no internal reinforcement truss semi monocoque monocoque
11.2b c
is called a
A monocoque structure uses a truss design carries all of the has a substucture of
11.2b b
stresses in the skin formers and stringers
A dent in the surface of a monocoque structure will reduce its resistance to reduce its rigidity not affect its structural
11.2b b
corrosion strength
Two types of construction used in aircraft fuselages are truss and unstressed truss and stressed skin stressed skin and
11.2b b
skin monocoque
The main longitudinal strength carrying member of the stringer longeron main spar
11.2b b
fuselage , is the
Compartments in the fuselage of an aircraft are frames. bulkheads. beams.
11.2b b
separated by
The main limitation of a monocoque structure is its corrosion heavy loads dents and deformation
11.2b c
vulnerability to
"Neutral Holes" in aircraft structures are most commonly drain holes windows bulkheads
11.2b b
used for
Failures of the aircraft structure that occur under fatigue failures stress fractures corrosion failures
11.2b a
conditions of dynamic loading are referred to as:
The "keel beam" of an aircraft runs along the centreline of next to the wheel well across the centreline of
11.2b a
the fuselage the wings
The purpose of stringers in an aircraft fuselage is to withstand shear absorb longitudinal minimise torsion-
11.2b stresses tension and induced stresses b
compression stresses
The 'Double Bubble' shape of a fuselage is maintained the stringers in the main frames tension in the floor
11.2b c
by frame beams
11.2b Stringers are cord-wise members span-wise members width-wise members b
11.2b Bonded structures are held together by mechanical fasteners glue rivets b
A core material bonded between two thin face sheets is impregnated epoxy construction sandwich construction
11.2b c
termed construction
3 common types of composite material are Glass fibre, carbon fibre Kevlar ,Ceramic fibre Kevlar, Borox and
11.2b and Aluminium alloy and carbon fibre Ceramic fibre b
Moisture entering a honeycomb or foam core in a will drain away through may cause must be dried out
11.2b b
sandwich composite material. the drain holes. delamination before the next flight
Before repairing composite materials, paint should be chemical paint stripper. water based abrasive epoxy resin
11.2b b
removed with paste.
The major dis-advantage of Kevlar material is that it is vulnerable to impact. heavy hygroscopic
11.2b c
On board cargo loading systems are designed to deal fragile cargo all passenger luggage pallets and containers
11.3.1 c
with
Restraining nets in the cargo compartment are fixed and cannot be are used to secure the keep the door area free
11.3.1 c
removed easily. cargo to the floor. for door opening.
To safeguard the aircraft structure against the effects of safety valves. outflow valves. decompression panels.
11.3.1 explosive decompression, the passenger and cargo c
compartments are fitted with:
For safety in a pressurized aircraft Doors must be smaller The door is designed to The door is always a
11.3.1 b
than the door opening act as a plug vertical retracting door.
A "plug" type door is smaller than the larger than the opening, larger than the
11.3.1 opening, with pressure with pressure pushing opening,with pressure b
pushing outward outward pushing inward
Stair type doors Are for use on Are found on Are always a one piece
11.3.1 unpressurized aircraft pressurized and design b
only unpressurized aircraft
An illuminated cabin door warning light indicates that not properly locked to be used only in properly locked
11.3.1 a
the door is emergencies
If the cabin door warning light is off, this means The door is not The door is safe The locking mechanism
correctly closed mechanically, and this is safe electrically, but
can be confirmed by should also be
11.3.1 cycling the electrical confirmed visually that it c
toggle switch. is mechanically locked
Cabin doors and emergency exits are normally sealed silicone seals double seals to prevent inflatable rubber seals
11.3.1 c
by air leakage
Windows fitted in the passenger cabin of pressurised three panes, two of two panes, one of three panes, all of
aircraft consist of which can withstand full which can withstand full which can withstand full
11.3.1 pressurisation force pressurisation force presssurisation force a
On a pressurised aircraft, scratches on acrylic plastic can be repaired by cannot be repaired. The can be repaired if it
windows polishing without any window must be does not reduce the
11.3.1 limitations replaced. windows minimum c
thickness
When installing windshields, all screws should be then backed off by one to a specified torque then backed off by 1/8
11.3.1 b
tightened full turn of a turn
Crazing can be removed from an acrylic windshield With a soap and water With a combination of With abrasives
11.3.1 c
solution hot oil and water
The windows of pressurised aircraft are normally a micrometer ultrasonic measuring feeler gauges
11.3.1 b
checked for thickness with instruments
Dirt should be removed from aircraft windows and a dry cloth bare hands and soapy aircraft fuel
11.3.1 b
windshields with water
Oil and grease can be removed from an acrylic plastic Soap and water Petroleum solution Dry cloth
11.3.1 a
window solution
11.3.1 Passenger cabin windows are located between stringers fuselage frames ribs b
An acetate type of plastic window Is used on most Is a synthetic resin Turns a yellow colour
11.3.1 c
modern aircraft over a period of time.
Using hot water to "form" plastic prevents cracking when causes the plastic to causes the plastic to
11.3.1 b
formed turn cloudy turn yellow
Acrylic sheets should be stored horizontally vertically in an purpose-built
11.3.1 b
clean room
A network of fine cracks found in the surface of a Chemical etching Crazing Fretting
11.3.1 b
material, is known as
Small pieces of acrylic plastic can be heated for Dry ice bucket Water bath Oil bath
11.3.1 c
forming, in a
The main differences when working with aluminium The poorer heat Snap point The poorer heat
11.3.1 compared to acrylic plastics, is conduction of conduction of acrylic c
aluminium plastic
"Thermoplastic" materials can be heated and re- can be heated and must be stored
11.3.1 shaped many times shaped once only vertically in a heated a
room.
11.3.1 Acrylics and rubber should be cleaned with aliphatic naptha. methyl ethyl ketone. soapy water a
A turbine engine nacelle may have aluminium alloy sheet cowling doors fitted with cowl flaps fitted
11.3.5 metal mounts quick disconnect b
fasteners
On swept back wings, the ribs that support the pylon perpendicular to the parallel to the aircraft at right angles to the
11.3.5 b
mounts are wing rear spar centre line front wing spar
11.3.5 2 Firewalls;
11.3.5 Engines are isolated from the rest of the aircraft by isolators nacelles firewalls c
Firewalls should be constructed allow hazardous air, are not required if a
of stainless steel, fluids and flame to pass nacelle is provided
11.3.5 inconel or titanium between compartments a
Turbine engine air used for air-conditioning and compressed air ram air bleed air
11.4.1 c
pressurisation is generally called
Which type of compressor is most suitable for cabin Reciprocating type Roots blower type Vane type
11.4.1 b
pressurisation in large piston-engine aircraft?
On most small, reciprocating-engine powered aircraft, a turbocharger engine bleed air a flow-multiplier
11.4.1 a
the pressurising air is produced by
In an air-cycle air conditioning system, the air is cooled heat exchanger receiver/dryer turbine
11.4.2 a
by a
The Air Cycle Machine (ACM) converts heat energy into compressor turbine flow of ram air
11.4.2 mechanical energy, as the air is expanded by the b
The air entering an ACM compressor is supplied from engine bleed air the ACM turbine cabin air temperature
11.4.2 a
control regulator
Baffles are fitted in ACM water separators to calibrate airflow send air to the give a swirling motion to
11.4.2 c
compressor inlet the air
The ACM secondary heat exchanger is located. between the turbine before the primary heat between the
11.4.2 and water separator exchanger compressor and the c
turbine
Refrigerant R12 is Blue in colour Rerigerant for air cycle colourless
11.4.2 c
machines
In a vapour-cycle system, oil used to lubricate the have a wax content always be replaced mix easily with other oil
11.4.2 b
compressor should during servicing types
The basic air-cycle cooling system consists of: A source of Heaters, compressors Ram air source,
compressed air, heat and coolers. compressors and
11.4.2 exchangers and a engine bleeds. a
turbine.
In a freon cooling system, the expansion valve acts as a reduces the pressure of increases the pressure reduces the pressure of
11.4.2 metering device and the gaseous freon. of the liquid freon. the liquid freon. c
The principle theory of operation of the vapor-cycle air compression and reduction of heated evaporation and
11.4 conditioning system is expansion of air gases through the condensation of the c
osmosis of heat refrigerant
The vapor cycle receiver/ dryer is located on the high pressure side of low pressure side of the compressor
11.4 a
the system system
The purpose of ventilating air in a combustion heater provide combustion air carry heat to the places provide the air required
11.4 system is to for the ground blower. where needed. to support the flame. b
In a vapour-cycle cooling system, freon changes its condenser. evaporator. expansion valve.
11.4 a
state from gas to liquid in the
11.4.3 3 Pressurisation
11.4.3 3 Pressurisation systems;
A pressurised aircraft must be pre-pressurised before unpressurised before pressurised when
11.4.3 a
take-off take-off landing
At take-off point, the cabin pressure is the same as the outside higher than the outside lower than the outside
11.4.3 b
air pressure air pressure air pressure
Uncontrolled leakage is air that escapes through or outflow valve cabin doors and control cables only
11.4.3 b
around the windows
Control and indication including control and safety
11.4.3 3
valves;
In an aircraft pressurisation system, the safety valve closes if the cabin closes when the weight opens if the cabin
11.4.3 pressure exceeds its of the aircraft is on the pressure exceeds its c
safe limit landing gear safe limit
Cabin pressurisation is maintained at specified levels by outflow valve safety valve negative relief valve
11.4.3 a
the
In an aircraft pressurisation system, the negative relief into the aircraft when out of the aircraft when between different zones
valve allows air to flow ambient pressure is ambient pressure is of the aircraft to
11.4.3 higher than cabin lower than cabin maintain constant a
pressure pressure pressure
11.4.3 During cruise, the outflow valve will be open closed modulating c
In a pneumatic cabin pressure control system, the rate controller spring and diaphragm solenoid controlled by
11.4.3 safety valve is normally activated by a inside the valve the landing gear safety c
switch
What category of instrument is an aircraft Attitude Symbolic Straight Scale Circular or clock scale
11.5.1 a
Indicator display?
Which of the following terms describes a standard Basic "4". Basic "L". Basic "6".
11.5.1 c
layout for the aircraft flight instruments?
When installing an instrument in an aircraft, pilot instrument installer. instrument
11.5.1 responsibility for ensuring it is properly marked lies with manufacturer. b
the
The number and size of the marks on instrument dials provide a quick ensure that the entire reduce instrument zero
are designed to:- accurate interpretation range of the instrument error.
11.5.1 of the readings. can be displayed on the a
instrument dial.
Which of the following instruments could be described EGT (Engine Exhaust Attitude Indicater Altimeter.
11.5.1 as a High-Range or Long-Scale instrument? Gas Temperature) c
gauge.
Straight scale instruments are usually chosen for their:- accuracy. space saving. ability to display large
11.5.1 ranges of information b
such as altitude.
The Graduation Marks on an Instrument refer to:- The marks provided to The marks on the Amount of possible
assist in disassembling instrument scale which positions the instrument
the instrument. enable the instrument pointer may stop at.
11.5.1 to display a value for b
the parameter being
monitored.
Information on the limits and range markings on an engine manufacturers aircraft flight manual. instrument
11.5.1 engine instrument is contained in the specifications. manufacturer's b
specifications.
"Flight Instruments" are classified as those instruments indicate the altitude of are connected to the provide the pilot with a
11.5.1 that the aircraft Pitot Static system. picture of the aircraft's c
flight condition.
Engine instruments refer to those instruments which are True. The set of instruments The set of instruments
associated with the monitoring and display of engine will depend on the size will vary depending on
11.5.1 parameters. All aircraft have the same standard set of of the powerplant the type powerplant c
Engine Instruments:- installed. installed.
Manifold pressure gauges are normally used with piston engines only gas turbine engines both piston and gas
11.5.1 a
only turbine engines.
Instruments associated with guiding the aircraft from navigation instruments. flight instruments. aircraft attitude
11.5.1 a
one point on the earth to another are classified as indicators
Annunciators:- Are always colored May annunciate a Are always located on a
Red. certain condition or central warning panel
11.5.1 mode of operation of a that the pilot can easily b
system. see.
Aircraft instruments generally use the following Temperature, Pressure, Altitude, Attitude, Airspeed, Distance,
principles to measure and display information:- Acceleration, Heading. Groundspeed, Bearing.
11.5.1 Magnetism, a
Gyroscopic.
11.5.1 Correction charts are commonly used with compasses attitude indicators. altimeters. a
Which of the following would be considered a sensitive Hydraulic pressure Altimeter. Brake pressure gauge.
11.5.1 b
instrument? gauge.
Flight instruments normally conform to a standard layout ensure consistency of simplify maintenance comply with Civil
11.5.1 to information between and fault diagnosis Aviation regulations a
aircraft types
Shock mountings on aircraft instrument panels are all frequencies low frequencies and low high frequencies and
11.5.1 a
designed to absorb vibration at amplitude high amplitude
An aircraft instrument panel is electrically bonded to the Act as a restraint strap. Provide a positive Provide current return
11.5.1 aircraft structure to power supply for the paths. c
panel lighting
How would an airspeed indicator be marked to show the A red radial line. A blue radial line. A green arc.
11.5.1 best rate-of-climb speed (one engine inoperative)? b
The green arc on an aircraft temperature gauge The instrument is not The desirable A low, unsafe
11.5.1 b
indicates:- calibrated. temperature range. temperature range.
A red radial line on the face of an engine instrument Normal operating Caution range. Maximum or minimum
11.5.1 c
indicates:- range. safe operating limits.
What advantage do ratiometer measuring circuits have If the supply voltage If the supply voltage If there are any faulty,
compared with Wheatstone Bridge circuits? varies this will be varies there will be no dirty or loose
detected by the effect on the instrument connections in the
11.5.1 instrument. reading. Ratiometer circuit this b
will have no effect on
the instrument reading.
A common unit used in aviation to measure air pressure kilopascal millibar newton
11.5.1 b
is the
An example of an Aircraft Instrument that reads Gauge Fuel Pressure gauge. Altimeter. Manifold Pressure
11.5.1 a
Pressure would be :- Gauge
Differential pressure is the resultant pressure the range of different the difference between
measured by pressures exerted on absolute and
11.5.1 comparing two different an aircraft in flight atmospheric pressure. a
pressures.
The system of pipes and tubes associated with the Pitot Static System. Aircraft Plumbing Aircraft Pressure
11.5.1 aircraft's flight instruments is called:- System Measurement System. a
An aircraft's "Static Ports" measure:- ram air pressure outside air pressure the difference between
the outside air pressure
11.5.1 and the cabin air b
pressure.
Pitot Tubes are normally heated to ensure:- Ram air temperature is The Pitot tube is not To help prevent insects
11.5.1 above freezing point. blocked by ice build-up crawling down the Pitot b
during flight. line.
The Pitot probe is oriented so that in normal flight Ice to build-up and Pitot pressure error, of Pitot pressure error of a
attitude the probe is pointed directly into the air-stream. block the port. a lower than actual higher than actual
11.5.1 However at slower speeds and higher angles of attack value. value. b
can cause:-
Water is normally removed from Pitot Static lines by blowing down them with heating them to water drains
11.5.1 c
compressed air. evaporate the water
Pitot probes can sometimes contain both Pitot and False True Only on larger Air
11.5.1 b
Static ports:- Transport aircraft.
The Airspeed indicator measures:- Ground speed. Difference between the Airspeed
11.5.1 ground speed and the c
ram airspeed.
The airspeed indicator is connected to :- Both the Pitot pressure The Pitot pressure line The Static Pressure line
11.5.1 line and the Static only. only. a
pressure line.
Airspeed indicators are calibrated in :- Mph (Miles per Hour) Kph (Kilometers per Knots (Nautical miles
11.5.1 c
hour) per hour).
Indicated Airspeed refers to :- The airspeed reading Airspeed readings that Airspeed readings that
shown on an airspeed are contained in the have been corrected for
11.5.1 indicator. green arc of an position error. a
airspeed indicator.
Calibrated Airspeed refers to airspeed that:- Is shown on an Is shown on a Mach Has been corrected for
11.5.1 airspeed indicator that meter. position and instrument c
is calibrated. error.
True Airspeed equals :- Calibrated Airspeed + Mach Airspeed + Indicated Airspeed +
Altitude Correction + Temperature Correction Position Error
11.5.1 Temperature Correction correction a
A Machmeter indicates :- The speed of the airflow Calibrated airspeed Aircraft speed relative
11.5.1 over the top of the converted to Mach. to the speed of sound. c
aircrafts wing.
The speed of sound :- Decreases with an Increases with an Remains constant with
11.5.1 increase in altitude. increase in altitude. changes in altitude a
An aircraft altimeter measures:- Ram air Pressure Rate of change of Atmospheric pressure.
11.5.1 c
atmospheric pressure.
The pilot is required to adjust Altimeter Barometric The aircraft's Air Data The control tower. A weather map of the
11.5.1 settings below approx. 10,000 ft. Where does the pilot Computer. area. b
get the setting information from?
The aircraft altimeter would be connected to the Static pressure source. Pitot pressure source. Both Pitot and Static
11.5.1 a
aircraft's :- pressure sources.
A Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) measures the rate of change of airspeed. difference between the
11.5.1 altitude. pitot and static a
pressures
Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicators contain :- A weighted piston in an A weighted piston in an A weighted piston in an
acceleration pump acceleration pump acceleration pump
which slows or which increases the which ensures the static
11.5.1 dampens the indicators indicators response to pressure line is always b
response to vertical vertical acceleration. clear of water.
acceleration.
An Air Data Computer:- Is placed in the system Can automatically apply Converts the Pitot and
between the aircraft corrections for local Static pressures into
11.5.1 instruments and the Barometric pressure. electrical signals which c
aircraft servo in turn drives the
instruments. instruments.
The Total Air Temperature (TAT) probe provides Total Air Mach No. and True Altitude. Calibrated airspeed.
11.5.1 Temperature information to the Air Data Computer Airspeed. a
(ADC) for calculation of:-
The term "Servo Instruments" refers to those Have more than one Are driven by electrical Which show the
11.5.1 instruments which:- scale. signals from the Air position of the aircraft b
Data Computer. servos.
An "Encoding Altimeter" :- Contains both a digital Is the term given to an Contains an Altitude
and a analogue altitude Altimeter which is Encoding device which
scale. driven by the Air Data sends altitude
11.5.1 Computer (ADC). information to the c
aircraft's Air Traffic
Control (ATC)
transponder.
Digital Air Data Computers (DADC) :- Convert Pitot and Static Convert Pitot and Static Contain only digital
pressure information pressure information outputs.
into digital signals for into analogue signals
processing inside the for processing inside
11.5.1 computer and then the computer and then a
output to the aircraft output to the aircraft
instruments. instruments.
The Total Air Temperature (TAT) provides information to Mach No. and True Altitude. Calibrated airspeed.
11.5.1 a
the Air Data Computer (ADC) for calculation of: Airspeed.
One characteristic of a spinning gyroscope is rigidity in space. the ability to self erect. it always remains
11.5.1 oriented towards north. a
Real drift, or unwanted precession in a gyro is caused excessively long flights imperfections in the aircraft motion that
by gyro such as bearing includes both pitch and
11.5.1 friction and gimbal roll. b
system unbalance.
How many axis of freedom does a free or space gyro 2 3 1
11.5.1 b
have?
The gyroscope used in an Artificial Horizon has a banks left and right moves at 90 degrees to remains vertical.
11.5.1 vertical spin axis. As the aircraft banks left and right the also. the direction of the c
spin axis : aircraft bank.
IRS Ring Laser Gyros detect rate movement about displacement about an the difference in
11.5.1 an axis axis amplitude between two a
beams of light
One disadvantage of using a venturi vacuum system for a minimum speed must it is less efficient at it cannot be used on
pneumatic gyro instruments is that be maintained for the higher altitudes pressurized aircraft
11.5.1 system to remain a
operational.
A free space gyro does not have : to be mounted in a friction in its bearings. an erection system.
11.5.1 c
Gimbal system.
If a force is applied to a spinning gyro, its effect will be 90 deg from the point of 180 deg from the point the point of application
11.5.1 felt at a point application in the of application in the in the direction of a
direction of rotation. direction of rotation. rotation.
An aircraft's attitude is always referenced to the earth's Be a free or space gyro. Have only one degree Be earth tied.
11.5.1 surface. Therefore where aircraft instruments are of freedom. c
concerned, the gyro must be:
Gyro topple can occur if the aircraft carries out an pitch or roll exceeds the gyro is not caged.
11.5.1 uncoordinated turn. limits of the gimbal b
system.
One method of providing vacuum for pneumatic gyro a static port. a venturi mounted on an engine driven
11.5.1 instruments is by the outside of the venturi. b
aircraft.
An engine driven vacuum pump system, used to It is capable of It is easier to maintain It requires less
provide pneumatic power to the aircraft gyros, has an providing a constant as it has fewer filters. plumbing in the aircraft.
11.5.1 advantage over a venturi system in that: vacuum supply, a
regardless of aircraft
speed.
Engine driven pressure pumps used to drive gyro air is blown through the they provide gyro power no filter is required on
instruments have an advantage over engine driven instruments instead of in emergency the regulator.
11.5.1 vacuum pumps in that: being sucked through. situations. c
When carrying out general maintenance on gyro Replace the filters at While the gyro is Ensure none of the
systems a common maintenance practice used on both regular intervals, as spinning at full speed pipes or fitting have
pneumatic and electric gyros is to: prescribed in the remove the driving become chaffed, or
maintenance manual. force and measure the bend radius is to tight.
time it takes for the gyro
11.5.1 b
to run down. Short
rundown times may
indicate worn bearings.
11.5.1 Electric gyros spin at approx: 20,000 - 23,000 rpm. 8,000 - 10,000 rpm 200 - 500 rpm a
A simple check that can be carried out during Listen for any unusual Remove the air filters Remove power and
maintenance of an electric gyro system is to apply noise when the gyro is and check to see if the check the run down
power to the gyro and wait until it reaches full speed spinning. This may gyro speeds up, this time. A long run down
11.5.1 then: indicate worn bearings. indicates the filters may time indicates the a
be blocked. bearings may be getting
worn.
Which of the following pair of instruments operate on Artificial Horizon - Turn Turn and Bank - Altimeter - Artificial
11.5.1 a
gyroscopic principles : and Bank Altimeter Horizon
The aircraft symbol on a Artificial Horizon is : Is connected to the Fixed to the instrument Turns as the aircraft
11.5.1 outer Gimbal ring of the case. banks left and right. b
gyro.
During flight the pilot observes that the aircraft symbol Climbing. Diving. Banking left or right.
on the Gyro Horizon is centered in the blue section of
11.5.1 the instrument. This indicates to the pilot that the aircraft a
is:
The Directional Gyro indicates the heading of the It always shows the It does not suffer from It is not affected by
11.5.1 aircraft. It has some advantages over a compass in that: aircraft heading relative magnetic errors or precession. b
to North. oscillations.
With a Directional Gyro it is necessary for the pilot to Magnetic variation will Heading errors will be It will drift, due to the
check and reset its heading every 15 to 20 minutes as : introduce heading introduced by the earth's rotation, which
11.5.1 errors. earths magnetic dip. introduces heading c
errors.
The knob on the front of a Directional Gyro instrument is Cage the gyro when it Turn the aircraft symbol Adjust the aircrafts
used to: is not operating and to so that it aligns with the course.
11.5.1 adjust the heading magnetic heading. a
scale.
A co-ordinated turn refers to a turn in which: The amount of bank The amount of bank The amount of bank
ensures that the ensures that the ensures that the
resultant force of gravity resultant force of gravity resultant force of gravity
and centrifugal force is and centrifugal force is and centrifugal force is
11.5.1 acting downwards at acting downwards acting downwards at a
right angles to the towards the center of right angles to the
aircraft's wings. the earth. earth's surface.
A common method for slip indication uses : A rate gyro and pointer. A free space gyro and A curved liquid filled
11.5.1 c
pointer. glass tube and a ball.
A standard 2 minute rate turn refers to : A co-ordinated turn. A turn at a rate of 3 A turn only used by
11.5.1 degrees per second. large, high speed, b
aircraft.
A Turn and Bank indicator contains two independent A ball mechanism which A gyro which detects A gyro which detects
mechanisms. One of these is: shows the rate at which the amount of slip or the rate at which the
11.5.1 the aircraft is turning. skid the aircraft is aircraft is turning. c
undergoing during the
turn.
A Rate Gyro differs from other gyros in that it has : Has only one Gimbal Has a spring Is a free or space
ring. interconnecting both gyroscope.
11.5.1 inner and outer Gimbal a
rings.
11.5.1 What gyroscopic principle do Rate Gyro's utilise: Turn error. Rigidity. Precession. c
Vertical Gyro erection systems are required to : Erect and maintain the Ensure that the Keep the gyro erect
gyro perpendicular to precession errors do when power is
11.5.1 the earth's surface at all not allow the gyro to removed, thus a
times. drift. protecting the gyro from
damage.
A common erection method used on an electric gyro Use pendulous vanes. To use mercury Use steel balls acted
11.5.1 is :- switches and torque upon by gravity. b
motors.
When referring to gyroscopes, Turn Error is described Centrifugal forces Incorrect aircraft bank. The aircraft turning at a
11.5.1 as errors introduced in the gyro during turns as a result acting on the gyro rate 4 turn. a
of: erection system.
When carrying out a compass swing with a Lining up the Vertical Lining up the left Either (a) and (b)
Datum/Landing compass on a light aircraft it must be Stabilizer with the wingtip with the anti
11.5.1 aligned with the compass on every sighting.This can be center of the cockpit collision light in the a
achieved by: window in the sight. sight.
Compass Swing procedures for a Direct Reading Different in that remote Different in that a The same.
compass for a Remote Reading compass are: reading compass remote reading
11.5.1 swings, must be carried compass must be c
out using an electronic checked at intervals of
test set. 30 deg.
A Compass Deviation (Steer by) card: Must be completed Must be completed Is used to record the
after a compass swing after a compass swing readings of the Datum
and stored away as a and attached to, or near compass as we carry
record of the compass the compass. out the compass swing.
11.5.1 swing and the compass These values are then b
accuracy. used to calculate
coefficients A, B, C.
Remote Reading compasses are so named as they Remote sensing units They are mounted They can be operated
11.5.1 have: called flux valves. remotely in the cockpit. remotely. a
Remote Reading Gyro - magnetic Compasses: Use a directional gyro Stabilise the gyro with Stabilise the magnetic
to stabilise the information from the compass with
11.5.1 magnetic heading standby compass. information from the a
information from the flux valve.
flux valve.
A Flux Valve can be described as a: A wheel shaped device A fluid filled device, with A valve that opens and
made of ferrous a magnet suspended closes causing a
material with three on a jewel pivot in the magnetic flux to be
11.5.1 spokes and the rim cut centre of the device. generated. a
into three equal parts.
In a fixed wing aircraft the Flux valves are typically At the wingtips In the avionics bay In the HSI (Horizontal
11.5.1 a
located. Situation Indicator)
A Compass Coupler, is designed to: Determine the aircraft Cross couple both Connect the output of
heading by measuring number one and the directional gyro to
the output of the flux number two compass the RMI (Radio
11.5.1 valve then precess the systems in the event of Magnetic Indicator) and a
directional gyro to a failure of one system. HIS (Horizontal
synchronies it with the Situation Indicator).
aircraft heading.
The two adjustment screws in the front of a direct Moving the jewel pivot Moving the jewel pivot Moving two magnets
reading compass are used to calibrate the compass. up and down causing left and right causing under the compass and
11.5.1 These screws achieve this by: the compass card to be the compass card to be therefore causing the c
deflected. deflected. compass to be
deflected.
Which two common cockpit instruments receive heading R.M.I and H.S.I. A.D.I. and V.S.I. H.S.I. and A.D.I.
11.5.1 information signals from the flux valve/DG (remote) a
compass system?
Radio waves carry information (intelligence) by producing ground modulation of the producing space waves
11.5.2 b
waves. carrier wave.
Which of the following waves is used for long range Sky waves. Space waves. Ground waves.
11.5.2 a
radio communication?
The behavior of a radio wave when it leaves the Modulation. Propagation. Reflection.
11.5.2 b
antenna is called:
Radio waves travel at the speed of sound. the speed of light a speed that depends
11.5.2 b
on the wavelength.
A radio wave consists of: An electromagnetic An electrostatic wave Both an
wave only. only electromagnetic wave
11.5.2 and an electrostatic c
wave.
The Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) of an efficiency peak power output modulation amplitude
11.5.2 a
antenna system is a measure of its
The ideal length for an antenna is: Half the wavelength of One eigth of the Equal to the wavelength
the radio wave it is wavelength of the radio of the radio wave it is
11.5.2 transmitting or wave it is transmittng or transmitting or a
receiving. receiving. receiving..
The VSWR of a fixed radio antenna system will change power. modulation. frequency.
11.5.2 c
with the transmitted wave's:
Faulty coaxial cables or connectors fitted to aircraft increase the VSWR and increase the VSWR and decrease the VSWR
11.5.2 radio antennae will increase the transmitted decrease the and decrease the b
power transmitted power transmitted power
The area of metal surrounding the base of a 1/4 wave directional loop. parabolic reflector ground plane
11.5.2 c
antenna is termed a
An antenna that must be able to operate over a range of Antenna efficiency is The antenna The antenna VSWR is
frequencies such as VOR is designed so that: optimised as far as propagates ground above 6 : 1 over the
11.5.2 possible over the waves over the frequencies covered. a
frequency range frequencies covered.
required.
In a large transport aircraft which antennae are normally Localiser and Radio altimeter and ATC and DME.
11.5.2 located with the weather radar scanner inside the Glideslope antennae VOR. a
radome?
Static discharge wicks are located: On the nose of the On the nose and At the trailing edges of
aircraft. fuselage of the aircraft. the wing, horizontal and
11.5.2 vertical stabilizers. c
Antennas of radio systems transmitting on the same precipitation static induced EMF mutual radiation
11.5.2 frequency bands should be located as far apart as interference. interference c
possible.This is to reduce:
Autopilots are classified by: their complexity and the the size of aircraft they their complexity and the
11.5.2 number of axes of are fitted to. number of control a
rotation they control surfaces they control
Autopilots fitted to modern aircraft are designed to avoid mid-air collisions control pitch, roll and perform all aircraft
yaw. manoeuvering from
11.5.2 taxying out to taxying b
in.
Aircraft equipped with auto-throttle systems, must have: a Flight Management an Automatic Flight either an Automatic
System (FMS) Control System (AFCS) Flight Control System
11.5.2 installed. (AFCS) or a Flight c
Management System
(FMS) installed.
Which of the following components are part of an Servos Electronic Flight Both (a) and (b)
11.5.2 autopilot system? Instrument System a
(EFIS) displays.
Most modern large air-transport aircraft are fitted with one autopilot system three independent three Flight Director
capable of autopilot systems. systems driving one
11.5.2 automatically landing autopilot system. b
the aircraft.
In aircraft with hydraulic flight control systems, the electro-hydraulic mechanical-hydraulic vacuum operated
11.5.2 autopilot system operates the flight controls by means servos. servos. servos. a
of
In autopilot systems, the force needed to move the flight pilot computer servos
c
control surfaces is generally provided by the
The range of VHF communications is ground wave line of sight sky wave propagation
11.5.2 b
propagation distance distance
In a large aircraft with twin VHF systems, one antenna increase the range of balance the radio minimise mutual
11.5.2 is located on top of the fuselage and one below. This is communications. signals equally radiation between c
to antennae
H.F. radio antennae couplers are used to switch the antenna "tune" the electrical connect two sections of
signals between receive length of the antenna to antenna cable when
11.5.2 and transmit the frequency being they pass through an b
used aircraft bulkhead
The main components of a VHF communication system Transceiver Transceiver Transceiver
11.5.2 are: Antenna Antenna Antenna a
Control panel Indicator Antenna Coupler
11.5.2 The frequency range of an aircraft HF radio is 2 MHz to 30MHz 108 MHz to 135 MHz 2KHz to 30 KHz a
The No. 1 VHF communications control panel in the The No. 1 VHF radio The No. 1 VHF radio No. 1 VHF frequency in
cockpit is observed to have two frequency indication transmit frequency in active frequency in the the Left window and
11.5.2 windows. The numbers in these windows show: the Left window and its Left window and its No. 2 VHF frequency in b
receive frequency in the standby frequency in the right window.
right window. the right window.
On a large air transport aircraft the VHF The instrument panel. The aircraft cockpit. The Avionics Bay.
11.5.2 c
Transmitter/Receiver is located in:
Modern VHF tranceiver have an output power of 300 watts 5 - 20 watts 15 - 20 milli watts
11.5.2 b
approximately
Anyone operating HF equipment on the ground should have an observer in the ensure nobody is not operate VHF at the
11.5.2 cockpit working near the HF same time b
antenna
The main components of an H.F. communication system Tranceiver Receiver Tranceiver
are: Antenna Coupler Indicator Coupler
11.5.2 Control panel Antenna Control panel a
Antenna Control panel
HF voice communication systems are best used for long distances "line of sight" poor weather conditions
11.5.2 communications such as thunderstorms. a
Airborne H.F. communication equipment use the band ground waves and sky ground waves and space waves and sky
11.5.2 a
of frequencies that produce a combination of waves. space waves. waves.
HF voice communication radios suffer from one H.F. radios cannot H.F radio is more H.F. radio transmission
disadvantage over VHF voice communication radios: communicate over long affected by atmospheric is line of sight.
distance. interference than V.H.F.
radio so that H.F.
11.5.2 communication may be b
totally lost during a
thunderstorm.
H.F. radio antennae couplers alter the apparent length capacitance and capacitance and inductance and
11.5.2 of antennae by varying the amount of inductance in the resistance in the resistance in the a
antenna system antenna system antenna system
HF communication systems typically have transmitters Lower than VHF Higher than VHF Similar to VHF
11.5.2 with output power: communication systems communication systems communication systems b
Selective calling systems (SELCAL) can be connected Only to the aircraft HF Only to the aircraft VHF Any of the HF and VHF
11.5.2 to: communication radios. communications radios. communication radios c
The aircraft Selective Calling system (SELCAL) Alerting the pilot that Alerting the pilot that Alerting the pilot that
operates by: there is an incoming there is an incoming there is an incoming
call on the ADF radios, call on the DME radios, call on either the HF or
11.5.2 by flashing a light and by flashing a light and VHF radios, by flashing c
sending a tone over the sending a tone over the a light and sending a
cockpit speakers. cockpit speakers. tone over the cockpit
speakers.
How does the SELCAL system on a particular aircraft Each aircraft is The SELCAL system The calling station is
know that the incoming call is for the aircraft? assigned a dedicated listens for a assigned a dedicated
code, the SELCAL transmission and when code. When the
11.5.2 system listens for this it is received alerts the SELCAL at the calling a
code and when it is pilot. station receives the
received alerts the pilot. code it alerts the pilot.
What is the purpose of the aircraft Selective Calling To alert the pilot that To alert the ground To listen for voice
(SELCAL) system? someone is trying to station that a pilot is transmissions from
11.5.2 contact his aircraft. trying to contact them ground stations, freeing a
from an aircraft. the pilot from this task.
The Flight Interphone system on a passenger aircraft the flight crew and the ground staff when they flight crew members,
provides communication between passenger are servicing the aircraft and connects them to
11.5.2 compartment. the aircraft radio c
systems.
On large transport aircraft, maintenance staff can Service Interphone Cabin Interphone Flight Interphone
11.5.2 a
communicate with each other by using the system. system. system.
Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT's) transmit signals to the are used by air-sea enable rescue teams to
control tower during rescue aircraft to locate find crashed aircraft
11.5.2 emergency landings. crashed aircraft under over land. c
water
Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT's) are normally rear of the fuselage wingtips top of the tailplane
11.5.2 a
installed at the
Before testing an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) inform the local Air inform local air/sea ensure there are no
11.5.2 on the ground, you must Traffic Control tower rescue service aircraft refueling nearby a
Aircraft Cockpit Voice Recorders (CVRs) record only communications only sounds made in sounds in the cockpit
made over the flight the cockpit. and communications
11.5.2 interphone and radio made over the flight c
systems. interphone and radio
systems.
The entire Cockpit Voice Recorder tape can be erased Pushing the 'Erase' Pushing the 'Erase' Pushing the 'Erase'
by: button on the control button on the control button on the control
panel when the aircraft panel anytime power is panel when the aircraft
11.5.2 is on the ground (weight on the aircraft. is airborne (Landing a
on the squat switch), Gear Up).
and the park brake is
set.
When immersed in water, Underwater Locating a flashing strobe light an acoustic signal of an emergency radio
11.5.2 b
Beacons (ULB's) emit 37.5 KHz signal of 121.5 MHz
Cockpit Voice Recorders and Flight Data Recorders are avionics compartment cockpit rear of the fuselage
11.5.2 c
generally located in the
The "area microphone" in a Cockpit Voice Recorder cockpit sounds such as radio conversations announcements made
system records switches being moved between the flight crew over the Passenger
11.5.2 and aural warnings. and air traffic control. Address (PA) system. a
Flight Data Recorders (FDR's) record audible sounds in the multiple aircraft the cause of aircraft
11.5.2 b
cockpit parameters crashes.
Under normal operating conditions, the aircraft Flight one or more engines power is put on the the aircraft takes off.
11.5.2 a
Data Recorders starts to record data when have been started. aircraft.
Cockpit Voice Recorders and Flight Data Recorder blue orange black
11.5.2 b
cases are painted:
Global Positioning Systems (GPS) are normally used to 2-dimensional position 3-dimensional position 4-dimensional position
11.5.2 b
determine an aircraft's
The Automatic Direction Finding A.D.F. radio system is Navigational radio Navigational radio Communicationl radio
a: system designed to system designed to find system which gives the
indicate to the pilot the the geographical pilot the ability to listen
Bearing of the ground position to broadcast band
11.5.2 station that the ADF Latitude/Longitude of Radio stations. a
receiver is receiving. the ground station the
ADF receiver is
receiving.
In Automatic Direction Finding systems (ADF), the ground-based, Non Non Directional Beacon Navigation Data Bus
11.5.2 abbreviation NDB refers to the Directional Beacon. fitted to the aircraft fitted to the aircraft a
ADF systems receive transmissions from ground-based directional radio non-directional radio FM commercial radio
11.5.2 b
beacons beacons stations
In an aircraft ADF system which equipment determines The aircraft ADF The ground station The geographical
(calculates) the bearing of the received station ? equipment. equipment by its location of the ground
11.5.2 transmission. station on aeronautical a
charts.
An aircraft ADF antenna system consists of: A Loop Antenna only A Sense antenna only Both a Loop antenna
11.5.2 c
and a Sense antenna.
11.5.2 In an A.D.F. system, the directional antenna is the loop antenna sense antenna VHF antenna a
The pilot want to get the best possible reception of Tune the A.D.F. control Tune the A.D.F. control The A.D.F equipment is
weather information being broadcast from an A.D.F. panel to the frequency panel to the frequency unable to receive voice
ground station (N.D.B.). How would the pilot use his of the ground station of the ground station communication and
aircraft A.D.F. equipment to do this. and select the ADF and select the ADF would thus be useless.
11.5.2 antenna selector to the antenna selector to the b
LOOP antenna position. SENSE antenna (ANT)
position.
What is the MAIN purpose of the ADF Sense antenna ? To eliminate station To provide the ability to To indicate ground
11.5.2 direction Ambiguity listen to ground station station direction a
(180 error). information.
ADF information is displayed to the pilot as a heading on an deviation on an bearing information on
instrument with a lubber instrument with a an instrument with a
11.5.2 line and compass card. deviation bar and bearing pointer and c
compass card. compass card.
A pilot wishes to fly his aeroplane directly towards the The arrow of the The arrow of the The North of the
ground station N.D.B. his A.D.F. equipment is tuned to. bearing pointer must be bearing pointer must be azimuth card must be
11.5.2 What must be displayed on his R.M.I.? lined up with North on lined up with the lined up with the b
the azimuth card. instrument lubber line. instrument lubber line.
One of the main advantages of a VOR system It can receive normal It can operate over It is less affected by
compared with an ADF system is: broadcast stations, longer ranges. thunderstorms and
11.5.2 such as the local radio atmospheric conditions. c
station.
Airborne VOR receivers determine which VOR radial By measuring the By measuring the By detecting the
the aircraft is on: Heading difference Phase difference difference in strength
between the reference between the reference between the 90 Hz and
11.5.2 and rotating signals and the rotating signals 150 Hz modulated b
transmitted by the transmitted by the signals.
ground station. ground station.
A VOR radial is a magnetic referenced line that radiates outwards from points towards a ground radiates in all directions
11.5.2 a ground station station. from an aircraft a
When discussing navigation, a Bearing is described as: A direction from a A distance from a A direction from a
certain place to another certain place to another certain place to another
11.5.2 place and is measured place and is described place and is described a
in degrees. in nautical miles. in nautical miles.
A Heading is described as: The path on which The direction in which The magnetic bearing
11.5.2 something is traveling. something is pointing. to or from some other b
point.
Without reference to any other airborne system or 1) Which VOR radial 1) Which VOR radial 1) Which VOR radial
equipment (ie with the V.O.R. In automatic mode) a the aircraft is presently the aircraft is presently the aircraft is presently
VOR receiver can determine and display on an R.M.I.: on. on. on.
2) If the aircraft is Left 2) If the aircraft is Left
or Right of a selected or Right of a selected
11.5.2 radial. radial. c
3) If the aircraft is
traveling to or from the
tuned VOR ground
station.
An R.M.I. (Radio Magnetic Indicator) displays: VOR Deviation and VOR and/or ADF D .M. E. Deviation and
11.5.2 To/From information. Bearing information. To/From information. b
VOR Deviation information provides the pilot with: Information showing the Information showing the Information showing the
pilot if he is flying Left pilot what radial he is pilot if he is Left or
11.5.2 or Right of a selected on from a selected Right of a selected a
VOR Radial. VOR station. Heading he is flying
along.
Instrument Landing Systems I.L.S. assist the pilot to: See the runway ahead. Navigation from airport Land the aircraft in
11.5.2 to airport. conditions of low c
visibility.
Localiser signals Direct the pilot: Down the centerline of Down the glide path. To the Outer Marker
11.5.2 a
the runway. beacon.
An ILS (Instrument Landing System) receiver Detecting the difference By measuring the Detecting the difference
determines if the aircraft is Left or Right of the runway in strength between the Phase difference in strength between the
centerline by: localizer 90 Hz and 150 between the reference glide slope 90 Hz and
11.5.2 Hz modulated signals. and the rotating signals 150 Hz modulated a
transmitted by the signals.
ground station.
ILS Steering information is displayed on: The aircraft R.M.I. The aircraft H.S.I. The aircraft A.D.I.
11.5.2 (Radio Magnetic (Horizontal Situation (Attitude Director b
Indicator). Indicator). Indicator).
An airborne ILS system consists of the following 1) ILS Receiver 1) ILS Receiver 1) ILS Receiver
components: 2) VOR Control panel 2) ILS Control panel 2) VOR Control panel
3) Glideslope Antenna 3) ILS Antenna 3) Glideslope Antenna
11.5.2 4) Localiser Antenna 5) HSI for displaying 4) RMI for displaying a
5) HSI for displaying heading information. bearing information.
steering information.
Airport ILS systems and airborne ILS installations are What degree of training What degree of What degree of visibility
given different Categories. These categories define: the pilot must have to accuracy the system the pilot must have to
11.5.2 land the aircraft. must have to land the land the aircraft. c
aircraft.
Marker Beacon transmitters are: Only located at airports. Only located en-route to Located at reference
airports. points on the ground for
11.5.2 aircraft flying directly c
overhead.
Marker beacon receivers installed on aircraft: Are tuned to different Only receive on one A tuned to different
11.5.2 frequencies by the VOR frequency 75 Mhz. frequencies by the ILS b
control panel. control panel.
There are several different types of Marker Beacon Different modulation Different transmitter Different beam shapes.
11.5.2 transmitters. The difference between them is that they frequencies. frequencies. a
have:
Outer and Middler Marker Beacons are: Located along the side Located along a Located along the
of the runway allowing navigation route approach to an airport,
11.5.2 an approach pattern to signifying the aircraft signifying that the c
be flown. has passed over certain aircraft is lined up with
waypoints. the runway.
An aircraft's Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) slant distance from the the surface distance bearing to a selected
measures and displays aircraft to a selected between the point on ground station.
ground station. the ground directly
11.5.2 below the aircraft and a a
selected ground station.
The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) system low frequency band. radar frequency FM frequency band.
11.5.2 b
operates in the: (microwave) band.
A typical DME system on the aircraft consists of the DME Transceiver DME Receiverr DME Transceiver
following components: RMI Indicator DME Indicator DME Indicator
11.5.2 DME Antenna DME Antenna DME Antenna c
DME Control Panel DME Control Panel VOR Control Panel
11.5.2 DME Distance is displayed in: Nautical Miles Statute Miles Kilometers a
DME ground station transmitters are generally located on their own at airports alongside VOR on their own along
11.5.2 b
stations. navigation routes.
How does the pilot tune the DME transceiver to the By the tuning controls By the tuning controls By the tuning controls
11.5.2 different ground stations: on the ILS control on the DME control on the VOR control c
panel. panel. panel.
Most airborne DME systems include a DME Hold Enable the DME Enable the DME Enable the VOR
switch. The purpose of this switch is to: transceiver to remain transceiver to be tuned transceiver to remain
tuned to the present to a VOR ground tuned while altering the
11.5.2 ground station when the station. DME frequency. a
VOR is tuned to the
next VOR/DME ground
station.
DME distance is calculated by measuring the time taken the aircraft to a ground a ground station to the the aircraft down to a
11.5.2 for radar pulses to travel from station. aircraft and back to the ground station and back c
ground station. to the aircraft.
Typical useful range of a DME system is: 200 - 300 Nautical 500 - 800 Nautical 25 - 50 Nautical Miles
11.5.2 a
Miles Miles
The aircrafts ATC system is a: Primary Radar system. Secondary Radar Altitude reporting
11.5.2 b
system. system.
The A.T.C system operates in the: Low frequency band. Radar frequency F.M. frequency band.
11.5.2 b
(microwave) band.
The A.T.C. system equipment on the aircraft consists of ATC Transceiver ATC Receiver ATC Transceiver
the following components: Antenna Antenna Antenna
11.5.2 ATC Control Panel ATC Control Panel VOR Control Panel a
Indicating Instrument .
The airborne A.T.C. system provides the ground Aircraft Position Aircraft Altitude Aircraft position
controllers with: Aircraft Track along a Aircraft Identification Aircraft Altitude
course Code Aircraft Identification
11.5.2 Aircraft Altitude Code b
Aircraft Identification
Code
Weather Radar is used: To Detect Weather To Detect other aircraft Only to provide a
ahead of the aircraft or that may be on a mapping facility for the
11.5.2 provide ground collision course with the pilot to aid navigation. a
mapping facilities. aircraft.
11.5.2 Weather Radar operates on what principle? Doppler Echo Radiation b
P Scan Weather Radar systems allow the pilot to see: Only the range and size Only the bearing of the Both the range and
11.5.2 of the weather target. weather target. bearing of the weather c
target and its size.
An airborne Weather Radar system consists of the Transmitter/Receiver Receiver Transmitter/Receiver
following components: Radar Antenna Radar Antenna Radar Antenna
11.5.2 Radar Indicator/ Display Coupler Coupler a
Radar Control Panel Radar Indicator or Control panel
Display
The Weather Radar Antenna is normally located: On the top of the On the nose of the Behind the leading
11.5.2 fuselage behind a aircraft behind a edge of the vertical b
fiberglass cover. fiberglass radome. stabiliser.
The Weather Radar Antenna is stabilised to: Enable the pilot to alter Compensate for Compensate for pitch
11.5.2 the antenna tilt. heading changes in the and roll changes of the c
aircraft. aircraft.
The Weather Radar Transceiver is connected to the Waveguide (Hollow Coaxial Cable. Antenna wiring.
11.5.2 a
Radar Antenna via a: rectangular tube)
A Doppler Weather Radar Systems is more useful than Ground mapping Clear air turbulence and Turbulence associated
11.5.2 basic Weather radar because it is able to display: information. ground mapping. with storms. c
Longitudinal, aluminium strips are fitted to radomes to strengthen them protect them from improve detection of
11.5.2 b
lightning strikes weak radar signals
An aircraft Weather Radar systems must not be turned Only when the aircraft Only when aircraft is Whenever the aircraft is
ON: is in the hangar being refuelled or an in the hangar, when it is
11.5.2 aircraft nearby is being being refuelled or an c
refuelled. aircraft nearby is being
refuelled.
The ground mapping mode of a Weather Radar is landing the aircraft. general navigation flying low-level
11.5.2 b
normally used to assist the pilot in operations
The Weather Radar Gain Control : is used to Adjust the is used to Increase the Must never be used,
receiver gain manually range of the radar. the gain is always set to
so the pilot can detect the Auto position.
11.5.2 even the weakest a
signal, however it would
normally be left in the
Auto position.
Large Air Transport aircraft are normally fitted with dual The Number 1 system The Number 1 system One system is
Weather Radar systems: is usually set to detect is usually set to detect operational at a time
Weather while the Weather while the while the other system
11.5.2 Number 2 system is set Number 2 system is set is kept on standby, in c
to detect turbulence. to map mode. case of a failure.
On business Jets and other smaller type aircraft it is On the Weather Radar On the center pedestal In the instrument panel.
11.5.2 common to find the Weather Radar control panel Indicator. between the pilots. a
located:
Aircraft Radio Altimeter systems measure: Height above the Pressure Altitude in Height above whatever
11.5.2 beacon. thousands of feet. surface the aircraft is c
flying over.
Aircraft Radio Altimeter systems have a usable range of: the aircrafts maximum 2,500 ft 7500ft
11.5.2 b
operating altitude.
An aircraft Radio Altimeter system consists of the Transmitter/Receiver Receiver Transmitter/Receiver
following components: Indicator Indicator Indicator
11.5.2 Transmit Antenna Control Panel Control Panel a
Receive Antenna Transmit Antenna Combined Transmit and
Receive Antenna Receive Antennas
Aircraft Radio Altimeter systems operate on the principle Bouncing radio waves Doppler effect, by Measuring the
of: off the surface below measuring the doppler barometric pressure
the aircraft and shift of radio waves outside the aircraft
measuring the time being reflected from the using radio waves and
11.5.2 taken for the radio wave ground below. converting this into a
to travel from the altitude information.
aircraft down to the
ground and back.
Aircraft Radio Altimeter Indicators are fitted with The Radio Altimeter The Radio Altimeter The Radio Altimeter
Decision Height (DH) setting knobs. When the aircraft system emits an aural system brings a red flag system turns ON the
reaches the Radio Altitude that has been set on the DH warning over the into view in the DH light on the
11.5.2 index: cockpit speakers indicator. indicator. c
repeating "Pull Up" "Pull
Up".
The purpose of a Ground Proximity Warning System alert the pilot if the alert Air Traffic Control initiate automatic
(GPWS) is to: aircraft is too close to when the aircraft is avoiding action when
11.5.2 the ground descending too rapidly the aircraft is in danger a
of crashing.
Ground Proximity Warning System (G.P.W.S.) alert the an aural warning such activating a warning a flashing red message
11.5.2 crew to unsafe flight conditions by a red warning light as "Pull Up", "Sink horn in the cockpit on the GPWS indicator. a
and Rate" etc.
Aircraft Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance Systems alert the flight crew that alert the flight crew that alert the control tower
(T.C.A.S.) are designed to: the aircraft is in danger another aircraft is in the that two aircraft are on
11.5.2 of collision with the vicinity and it is a a collision course b
ground. potential hazard.
Traffic Collision and Avoidance Systems (TCAS) detect using Automatic primary radar systems interrogating other
other aircraft in the vicinity by Dircttion Finding (ADF) aircraft ATC and TCAS
11.5.2 receivers transponder equipment. c
Aircraft Traffic Collision and Avoidance Systems (TCAS) a VSI indicator, by the ATC ground radar the aircraft weather
typically display detected aircraft on showing different indicator showing the radar indicator showing
11.5.2 shaped and colored codes and altitudes of the tracks of a
symbols representing surrounding aircraft. surrounding aircraft.
different threat levels.
The Primary purpose of the commutator in a D.C. Motor provide an electrical rectify the DC output of provide an AC output
11.6 is to: connection to the the armature. voltage from the a
rotating armature. armature.
Brakes and clutches fitted to aircraft motors are electromagnetic coils. relays inertial switches
11.6 a
operated typically by
PRIMARY cell batteries can be recharged cannot be recharged can deliver much larger
11.6 currents than b
secondary cells.
"Cell imbalance" in NiCad batteries is the difference in the size of individual electrolyte levels in voltages produced by
11.6 c
cells individual cells individual cells
The capacity of a battery used for a large aircraft is total electrical load current required to turn power required by the
11.6 c
determined primarily by the the engine emergency loads
When discharging, the active materials of a secondary converted into other destroyed not affected
11.6 a
battery cell are materials
When working on aircraft batteries in the battery room, eye protection and hard hats. Ear defenders
11.6 which of the following safety items are required? approved full frontal a
apron
Batteries Convert: Electrical energy into Chemical Energy into Potential Energy into
11.6 b
Potential Energy. Electrical Energy. Electrical Energy.
Which of the following types of batteries are used in Only Nickel - Cadmium Only Lead - Acid Both Lead - Acid and
aircraft electrical systems? batteries are used in batteries are used in Nickel - Cadmium
11.6 aircraft. aircraft. batteries are used in c
aircraft.
The voltage produced by a battery cell is determined by the size of the cell. the type of electrolyte the chemicals used to
11.6 c
used in the cell only. form the cell.
The purpose of vent holes in the caps of battery cells is allow gases to escape enable the cells to be seal the cell so that
to from the battery cells re-filled with electrolyte. nothing can escape.
11.6 while preventing a
electrolyte from spilling
out.
The negative lead of a battery must always be connected last and connected last and connected first and
11.6 b
disconnected last disconnected first disconnected last
If a Nicad battery begins to overheat what should you Disconnect it from the Pour cold water over it Move the aircraft away
do ? electrical system immediately. from any fuel
11.6 immediately. installation as fast as a
possible.
Approximately every 100 - 300 flight hours a Nicad Topped up with Inspected to ensure the Reconditioned (Deep
battery should be: electrolyte to ensure battery connections are Cycled) to ensure
11.6 continued performance tight and have no optimum performance c
and reduce the risk of corrosion. and to correct any cell
thermal runaway. imbalances.
The state of charge of a lead acid battery is determined current that flows in a off-load voltage specific gravity of the
11.6 c
by measuring the standard resistor electrolyte
11.6 Battery capacity is measured in: Its total Cell voltage Ampere Hours Cell Specific Gravity. b
A ni-cad battery should be topped up with water only fully charged fully discharged below 35C.
11.6 a
when it is
Constant current battery chargers operate by: Maintaining a fixed Maintaining a constant Supplying a fixed
voltage across the voltage output across current to the battery for
11.6 battery terminals for an the battery for a fixed a fixed period of time. c
unlimited period of time. period of time.
What precautions must be observed when charging a The battery must be The battery must be The battery vent caps
Lead Acid battery? charged in a well charged in a must be sealed to
ventilated area because temperature controlled prevent hydrogen and
11.6 hydrogen and oxygen room as hydrogen and oxygen gases from a
gases are emitted oxygen gases are escaping during the
during the charging emitted during the charging process.
process. charging process.
The closed circuit (on load) voltage of a Nicad battery. Drops gradually during Remains nearly Drops to zero after the
the entire discharge constant during the battery has been
11.6 cycle. entire discharge cycle. discharged for 80% of b
its rated capacity.
Nicad batteries can suffer from a condition known as Excessive consumption The battery voltage Eventual explosion of
11.6 thermal runaway. Left un-checked this may result in: of electrolyte. reducing to zero. the battery. c
What is the main advantage of a Nicad battery over a It can deliver more It is cheaper and easier It has a much higher
Lead Acid battery? power for the same size to maintain than a Lead internal resistance and
and weight of a Lead Acid battery. will therefore provide
11.6 Acid battery. more power for a given a
weight than a Lead Acid
battery.
Nicad battery Cell Imbalance, if left un-checked, can be When assembling The electrolyte levels The Nicad battery is
a factor in causing a thermal runaway. How do we Nicad batteries only are frequently checked regularly put through a
address the problem of Cell Imbalance ? cells that are of exactly by the maintenance "Deep Cycle" process.
11.6 the same size and program and kept c
capacity are used. topped up as
necessary.
Which of the following aircraft batteries must always Lead Acid battery. Nicad Battery Both (a) and (b)
have a ventilated enclosure when installed on an
11.6 aircraft, either the battery case itself must be vented or a
a vented battery enclosure must be installed ?
When removing a battery from an aircraft, the _______ negative positive largest
11.6 a
terminal should be disconnected first.
The difference between DC Alternators and DC D.C. Alternators only the field current in an D.C. Alternators do not
Generators is that produce AC current. A.C. Alternator is use brushes.
11.6 supplied to the rotor, b
not the stator.
How is a Constant Speed Drive (CSD) reconnected It cannot be By pushing the CSD By pulling the CSD
11.6 a
after being disconnected in flight? reconnected in flight. disconnect handle reconnect handle.
One advantage of using brushless generators is reduced friction on the the elimination of arcing they don't need a CSD.
11.6 commutator. at high altitudes. b
Single-wire electrical distribution systems are commonly used on connect the positive have no earth return
both metallic and voltage to equipment by path.
composite-skinned insulated conductors
11.6 aircraft to save weight. and the negative return b
path is via the airframe.
The electrical power system is one of the most critical each generator must it is extremely important the requirements of the
systems found on a modern aircraft and a complete only be operated to that the generator electrical system are
11.6 electrical failure would be catastrophic. For this reason: 70% of its capacity. buses are cooled by specified by c
ram air. international regulatory
authorities
The electrical load of an aircraft is the sum of all the the sum of all the the total power
continuous loads that possible loads that can available from all the
11.6 can be operating at any be operating at any one generators and b
one time time. batteries fitted to the
aircraft
The continuous electrical load of an aircraft should 80% of the generator's 50% of the generator's the generator's rated
11.6 c
never exceed rated output. rated output. output.
On a large commercial aircraft, which of the following flight-essential emergency hydraulic emergency lighting
11.6 c
would be connected directly to the battery? communication radios pumps systems
Three phase current transformers in power distribution detect variances in detect variances in convert three phase AC
11.6 systems are used to phase current between frequency between into DC a
multiple generators multiple generators
The purpose of a TRU (Transformer Rectifier Unit) is to convert AC power to isolate different AC smoothe the output
11.6 DC for specific circuits buses from each other. from DC generators a
on the aircraft.
Split-bus power distribution systems are more single engined, light large aircraft with three large, twin engined
11.6 c
commonly found on: aircraft. or more engines. aircraft.
Split-bus power distribution systems use a single generator can tolerate variance of use two generators
11.6 with the output split frequency better than driven by a single b
between two buses parallel systems engine
Standby buses are used to power the least critical aircraft the most critical aircraft emergency lighting
11.6 b
systems systems
In large transport aircraft, the power distribution system Bus Power Control Unit Generator Control Unit Transformer Rectifier
11.6 a
is typically controlled by a solid-state (BPCU) (GCU) Unit (TRU)
During an emergency evacuation, passengers can exit cabin windows passenger entrance emergency exit doors
11.7.a b
an aircraft through the doors only
Emergency escape slides can be activated from outside the main cabin inside the main cabin either inside or outside
11.7.a b
only only of the main cabin
The escape slide pack consists of an inflation bottle is electrically activated can be inspected in situ is activated by a
11.7.a c
which lanyard
A girt-bar is attached to the floor while the the floor of the aircraft the evacuation slide
passenger entry door is and an indication signal and must be secured to
11.7.a in the fully open is available to the pilot the aircraft floor during c
position flight
Emergency escape slides that are deployed before each flight annually on 10% of a at regular intervals of
11.7.a c
automatically must be functionally tested company's fleet less than 18 months
When re-stitching harnesses or lap belts, the new coincident with the at right angles to the parallel with the original
11.7a c
thread pattern must be original pattern original pattern pattern
Aircraft lap belts and harnesses should be cleaned with dilute washing up approved dry cleaning acid-free soap
11.7a c
detergent chemicals.
Each aircraft seat restraint must have a __________ single-point. dual-point. multi-point.
11.7a a
release for occupant evacuation.
11.7b 1 (4Q) (Furnishings & Equipment)
11.7b 1 Cabin layout;
Special requirements for galley areas are oven temperature restricted access to sealed floors and
limiters to limit the allow only cabin drainage to prevent
11.7b temperature to assistants entry corrosion c
approximately 75% of
boiling point
Galley movement during flight is prevented by tie rods with built in tie rods with a multi-point point
11.7b mositure collectors temperature dissipation harness that resists a
properties heat and moisture
Aircraft galleys are particularly likely to be affected by electrical power corrosion caused by contamination of water
11.7.b b
interruptions spillage supplies
Galley movement during flight is prevented by tie rods with built-in tie rods with a multi-point harness
11.7.b moisture collectors temperature dissipation that is resistant to heat a
properties and moisture
The main electrical supply to an aircraft galley is a master switch on the thermal circuit breakers the main cabin staff
11.7.b a
normally controlled by flight deck in the oven
11.7b 1 Airstairs.
The pressure for hydraulically-operated airstairs on a DC hydraulic pump a manually operated three phase AC
11.7b a
large transport aircraft is normally generated by pump hydraulic generator
Thermal switches used for fire detection are connected in series with each in parallel with each in parallel with each
other and in parallel other and with the other and in series with
11.8a with the indicator lights. indicator lights. the indicator lights. c
The Kidde continuous-loop detection system utilizes one wire two wires three wires
11.8a ________ embedded in a special ceramic core within b
an inconel tube.
The Fenwal continuous-loop detection system dual single triple
11.8a surrounds a _______ wire with a continuous string of b
ceramic beads in an inconel tube.
In both the Kidde and Fenwal detection systems, the drops rises remains the same
resistance of the ceramic or eutectic salt core material
11.8a prevents electrical current from flowing at normal a
temperatures. In case of a fire or overheat condition, the
core resistance ________ and current
Smoke detection devices are classified by their method Construction Maintenance Detection
11.8a c
of
When a carbon monoxide detector that contains a green blue orange
11.8a a
yellow silica gel detects carbon monoxide it will turn
A contaminated carbon monoxide indicator should be replaced replenished by heating replenished by flowing
the chemicals until they oxygen through the
11.8a return to their normal chemicals until they a
colour return to their normal
colour
The fire detection system that senses temperature rise Fenwal continuous loop Lindberg continuous Thermocouple system
11.8a c
is called loop
Thermocouple fire detection systems activate the generating a voltage a decrease in its expanding when heated
warning system by when heated resistance when heated to close a switch in an
11.8 electrical circuit a
Light refraction smoke detectors measure a reduction in sense light reflected use radiation induced
the amount of visible or from smoke particles ionization to detect the
11.8 infrared light in the passing through a presence of smoke. b
surrounding area. chamber.
The most common cause of false fire warnings in improper routing or moisture. dents, kinks, or crushed
11.8 continuous-loop fire-detection systems is clamping of loop. sensor sections. c
Which fire detection system operates on the principle Kidde continuous-loop Lindberg continuous- Thermal switch system
11.8 that the buildup of gas pressure within a tube is system element system b
proportional to its temperature?
Which of the following is NOT used to detect fires in the Smoke detectors Rate-of-temperature- Flame detectors
11.8 a
reciprocating engine nacelles? rise detectors
Which of the following fire detection systems measure Thermocouple Thermal switch Lindberg continuous
11.8 temperature rise compared to a reference temperature? element a
Two continuous-loop fire detection systems that will not Kidde and Lindberg Kidde and Fenwal Thermocouple and
11.8 b
test due to a broken detector element are the system system Lindberg system
Which of the following fire detection systems will detect Kidde and Kidde and Fenwal Thermocouple and
11.8 a fire when an element is inoperative but will not test thermocouple systems systems Lindberg systems b
when the test circuit is energized?
After a fire is extinguished, or overheat condition Must be manually reset Automatically resets Sensing component
11.8 removed in aircraft equipped with a Systron-donner fire must be replaced b
detector, the detection system
Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment of an chemical reactor. photo-electric cell. gas sniffer.
11.8 b
aircraft is commonly detected by a
Engine fires are sensed by spot detectors continuous-loop either of the above
11.8 c
detectors
The Edison thermocouple-type fire detector system a preset high a preset rate of a preset infrared level is
11.8 triggers when temperature is reached temperature rise is detected b
detected
Smoke detectors which use a measurement of light Electromechanical Photoelectrical devices Visual devices
11.8 b
transmission are called devices
What is the principle of operation of the continuous loop Fuse material which Core resistance A bimetallic
fire detector system sensor? melts at high material which prevents thermoswitch which
11.8 temperatures current flow at normal closes when heated to b
temperatures a high temperature
A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher may be used on an metallic non metallic non magnetic
11.8 b
electrical fire if its horn is
What retains the nitrogen charge and fire-extinguishing Breakable disk and Pressure switch and Pressure gauge and
11.8 agent in a high rate of discharge (HRD) container? fusible disk check tee valve cartridge a
How is the fire-extinguishing agent distributed in the Spray nozzles and fluid Nitrogen pressure and Spray nozzles and
11.8 c
engine section? pumps slinger rings perforated tubing.
The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for a Carbon dioxide Dry chemical Methyl bromide
11.8 a
carburetor or intake fire is
In the dual container aircraft fire extinguishing system, yellow red green
the safety discharge connection is capped with a
_______ indicating disk. If the temperature rises beyond
11.8 a predetermined safe value, the disk will rupture, b
dumping the extinguishing agent overboar
In the dual bottle, aircraft fire extinguishing system, a yellow red green
_______ disk discharge indicator port is used to
11.8 indicate that the system was fired from the cockpit. If a
the system was fired from the cockpit, this disk will be
missing.
Aircraft fire extinguishers are normally charged with carbon monoxide and freon and nitrogen sodium bicarbonate and
11.8 b
nitrogen carbon dioxide
What method is used to detect the thermal discharge of Discoloring of a yellow Rupture of a red plastic A thermal plug missing
11.8 a built in fire extinguisher system plastic disk in the side disk on the side of the on the side of the bottle b
of the fuselage fuselage
How are most aircraft turbine engine fire-extinguishing Electrically discharged Manual remote control Pushrod assembly
11.8 a
systems activated? cartridges valve
What is the operating principle of the spot detector Resistant core material A conventional A bimetallic
sensor in a fire detection system? that prevents current thermocouple that thermoswitch that
11.8 flow at normal produces a current flow closes when heated to c
temperatures a high temperature
The explosive cartridge in the discharge valve of a fire- A life-dated unit Not a life-dated unit Mechanically fired
11.8 a
extinguisher container is
The pulling out of an illuminated fire handle in a typical Closes all firewall Closes fuel shutoff, Closes fuel shutoff,
large jet aircraft fire protection system commonly shutoff valves, closes hydraulic shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff,
accomplishes what events? disconnect the disconnect the closes oxygen shutoff,
11.8 generator and generator field, and disconnect the b
discharge a fire bottle arms the fire generator field and
extinguishing system arms the fire
extinguishing system
The colour coding for plumbing lines that carry fire Brown Yellow Red and Green
11.8 a
extinguishing agent is
The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for an Carbon tetrachloride Carbon dioxide Methyl bromide
11.8 b
electrical fire is
A squib as used in a fire protection system is a A temperature sensing A device for causing the Probe for installing a
11.8 device extinguishing agent to frangible disk in the b
be released bottle
Carbon dioxide extinguishes engine fires by lowering the displacing oxygen smothering the flames
11.8 b
temperature
Maintenance of a fire extinguishing system includes the Repair of damaged Removal of excessive Replacement of
11.8 c
sensing elements element material damaged elements
During a walk around inspection the fire bottle red disk the bottle was The bottle was The bottle is
11.8 is missing this means discharged to the discharged to overpressurized b
engine atmosphere
How would you know that the pressure in an engine fire by referring to the AMM by reading the pressure if the pressure rises too
bottle is correct? to correct the pressure gauge mounted on the high the safety disc will
11.8 for ambient temperature bottle blow out a
11.8 A fuel or oil fire is defined as a Class B fire Class A fire Class C fire a
If fuel is ignited in an engine nacelle it would be class A fire class B fire class D fire
11.8 b
classified as a
The correct way to shut an engine down if a fire occurs pull the fire handle move the throttle to idle move the start lever to
11.8 c
cutoff
While an engine is being started the most important EGT oil pressure RPM
11.8 a
parameter to monitor is
In the event of a hung start, without exceeding EGT ignition exciter box starter power source engine run-down time
11.8 b
limits, you would check the
In the event of a tail-pipe fire during an attempted pull the fire handle and stop the engine and shut off fuel to the
ground run rotate it to discharge discharge a CO engine but leave the
11.8 the engine fire extinguisher into the starter engaged to c
extinguisher intake continue cranking
Water-based fire extinguishers must not be used on electric shock further spreading of the exploding pieces of
11.8 Class D fires because they can result in fire through fuel spillage metal c
The front spar of a horizontal stabiliser is generally lighter heavier more flexible
11.9 a
__________ than its rear spar
11.9 3 Trim control;
Changes in aircraft fuel and weight distribution are balance weights trim tabs trim control systems
11.9 c
compensated for by
11.9 3 Active load control;
What type of flight control system is used mostly on Power-assisted Power-operated Manual
11.9 c
small, light aircraft such as the Piper Archer?
Fly by wire high speed protection is designed to prevent high speed stall increase the pitch angle prevent tuck under
11.9 as speed increases c
11.9 Pitch control of a fly-by-wire system is achieved by elevators only stabilizer and elevator stabilizer only b
Following repairs on a flight control system, the system checked for washout balanced checked to ensure that
must be: the same amount of
11.9 weight is added to the b
opposite surface.
When rigging an aircraft, the protractor should be aircraft in a level flight aileron in the fully down aileron in the neutral
11.9 c
zeroed with the attitude position position
"Rigging" checks are carried out on aircraft control the rigging pins can be moving parts are friction moving parts do not
11.9 surfaces to ensure that correctly fitted before free excxeed their limits of c
flight travel
11.9 3 Stall protection/warning system.
The main parameter monitored in stall warning systems airspeed angle of attack altitude
11.9 b
is
Fuels for turbine engines are susceptible to increased viscocity of high vapour pressure microbial contaminants.
11.10 the fuel at high altitudes c
Microbial growth in jet fuel is minimised by using anti-icing and anti purging the fuel with keeping the fuel tank
11.10 bacterial additives. carbon dioxide topped up. a
The fuel strainer is located in the lowest point of the fuel trap any small amount provide a drain for trap any micro-
11.10 system to of water that may be residual fuel organisms that may be a
present in the fuel present in the fuel
Fuel temperatures on turbine powered aircraft, can be the filter the tank a heat exchanger
11.10 c
controlled by sending engine bleed air to
Fuel lines in an aircraft must be identified with green supported with bonded located below electical
11.10 b
markings type cushion clamps. wiring.
Aircraft fuel system flexible hoses are manufactured rubber impregnated butyl rubber synthetic rubber
11.10 c
from either Teflon or vinyl
Yellow or white lines are marked on fuel hoses to identify twisting of the identify the material align hoses that are
11.10 hose. used to manufacture joined together a
the hose
Aircraft fuel filler caps must be red and secured with designed to prevent yellow and designed to
safety chains improper installation prevent incorrect fitting
11.10 and loosening during b
flight
Any type of fuel leak that allows fuel vapors to must be repaired at the must be repaired before must have sealant
accumulate next scheduled the aircraft is allowed to removed with steel wool
11.10 inspection. fly. within 30 minutes. b
11.10 Bypass filters operate on the basic principle of regulated flow differential pressure diminished return b
Fuel heating systems are installed to prevent fuel from heat the fuel filter to heat the fuel by means
11.10 freezing at low prevent freezing of a heat exchanger c
temperatures
Fuel system components must be electrically bonded galvanic corrosion stray currents build up of static
11.10 c
and grounded to prevent. electricity.
When removing components in a fuel system always replace old replace only damaged always leave old
gaskets and seals with gaskets and seals. gaskets and seals in
11.10 new ones. place, ensuring that a
they are torqued
correctly..
Hand operated fuel selector valves Do not require a detent. Must be of the "cone Are most commonly the
11.10 type", allowing free cone or poppet type of c
movement. valve.
What is the purpose of a surge box inside a fuel tank? collect sediment at the ventilate the tank during prevent sloshing of fuel
bottom of the tank high pressure refueling away from pump inlet
11.10 during abnormal c
maneuvers
Fuel tanks in a modern passenger jet aircraft are nitrogen from a storage ram air through the vent bleed air from the
11.10 b
maintained at a positive pressure by cylinder system pneumatic system
The amount of water that accumulates in fuel tanks can securing the filler cap draining the tanks at the filling the tanks after
11.10 be minimised by tightly and plugging the end of each day each flight c
drains
Corrosion in fuel tanks is often as a result of: the rubber of the tank the fuel tank material organic growth when
reacting with the recting with the fuel there is water in the fuel
11.10 2 dissimilar material of c
the aircraft structure
11.10 3 Supply systems;
11.10 Fuel line identification markings are red blue green a
The power supply for emergency fuel pumps must be the same as independent of higher than
11.10 _________ the power supply for each corresponding b
main pump.
One of the most satisfactory pumps for positive delivery Vane-Type Fuel Pump Variable-Pressure Fuel Variable-Volume Fuel
11.10 a
of fuel is the Pump
Aircraft fuel systems are designed to ensure that cannot draw fuel from can draw fuel from any can draw fuel from
individual fuel boost pumps more than one tank tank specified tanks to
11.10 maintain fuel symmetry. a
Fuel ejector systems are used in some fuel systems to provide fuel to the boost pump fuel overboard move fuel from a higher
pumps when installed in during the dumping positon in the tank to
11.10 a collector tank process the boost pumps a
Centrifugal boost pumps are used in fuel systems are positive need no pressure supply high pressure
11.10 b
because they displacement pumps regulation
Fuel boost pumps are replaceable without manually primed before positive displacement
11.10 draining the tank they are operated type pumps a
Aircraft operating at high altitude use centrifugal boost provide positive supply fuel under allow cooling air to
11.10 pumps in their fuel systems to displacement pressure to engine circulate around the b
driven pumps. motor.
Fuel tank boost pumps are: high pressure spur gear high pressure low pressure centrifugal
11.10 c
pumps centrifugal pumps pumps
Fuel heaters are installed in the wing fuel tanks fuselage fuel tanks engine fuel system
11.10 mounted on the engine c
Aircraft integral fuel tanks are replaced when leaks part of the aircraft self-sealing
11.10 b
occur structure.
In large transport aircraft, fuel is normally vented into a surge tank the atmosphere, directly any adjoining tank with
11.10 spare fuel capacity a
In an electronic type fuel quantity indicating system, the capacitor variable resistor variable inductor
11.10 a
tank sensing unit is a.
Some fuel tanks are equipped with dump valves which prevent fuel surges in automatically dump fuel enable fuel to be
are used to the tank. through the jettisoned in
11.10 magnetically locked emergencies. c
measuring stick.
When repairing an integral fuel tank, the old sealant a blunt chisel a chisel-shaped piece aluminium wool
11.10 b
should be removed with of hard plastic
In a Capacitance type fuel contents gauging system, the in the indicator and in the tank and in the tank and
reference capacitor is fitted: compensates for compensates for compensates for
11.10 changes in ambient changes in the S.G. of irregular tank shape. b
temperature. the fuel.
Fuel dumping systems must be incorporated into all greater than 75,000 kg less than 7,500 kg significantly lower than
11.10 aircraft whose maximum landing mass is its maximum take off c
mass (MTOM)
In an aircraft with a fuel dumping system it will allow fuel down to a down to zero kilograms to leave 15 gallons in
11.10 to be dumped: predetermined safe each tank a
value
How much fuel can be jettisoned? a specific amount the captain decides a specified amount
11.10 c
must remain
The probe of a capacitance type fuel level gauge is a variable capacitor that capacitor with fuel and capacitor with fuel and
11.10 activates a float air acting as one of the air acting as the c
plates dielectric
A drip gauge may be used to measure the amount of fuel in a system leakage with the the total quantity of fuel
11.10 tank unit extended on board the aircraft a
The fuel totalizer indicates the total amount of fuel consumed by each in any selected tank in all tanks
11.10 c
engine individually
Fuel leaks can be classified as heavy stains, running stain, seep, running stain, seep, heavy seep
11.10 seeps, light seeps and seep and leak. and running leak. c
running leaks.
Manual fuel gauging systems may include dipstick or a drip stick an auto shut off system a gauge at the leading
11.10 edge of the wing in the a
fueling panel
Fuel gauges are calibrated to read zero when unuseable fuel only zero fuel remains the tank contents drop
11.10 a
remains to 5% of full
A float type fuel measurement system uses a maximum capacitance minimum resistance maximum resistance
11.10 b
potentiometer which provides when the tank is full when the tank is full when the tank is full
To use a sight gauge to check the fuel level in a tank pull the sight gauge pull the sight gauge up pull the sight gauge
down until the line of until the line of reflected down until the line of
11.10 reflected light is light is minimised reflected light is c
maximised minimised
11.10 Light aircraft fuel quantity systems usually are of the: float type. capacitance type. underwing type. a
Magnetic Stick fuel quantity systems are found on most In the aircraft At the refueling station At various points under
11.10 c
modern Jet aircraft. Where are they located? instrument panel. on the aircraft. the wing tanks.
The most common type of fuel measuring system on jet sight glass. capacitance type float type.
11.10 b
aircraft is the
Capacitance fuel quantity measurement systems Mass Volume Density
11.10 a
measure fuel:
Capacitance fuel quantity systems have some Can accurately Use less electrical Measure fuel volume as
advantages over float type systems in that they: measure fuel quantity of power. opposed to fuel mass.
11.10 irregular shaped tanks. a
Densitometer's are normally found in: Aircraft fuel flow Light aircraft fuel Large aircraft fuel
11.10 measuring systems. quantity systems. quantity measuring c
systems.
Turbine engine flow meters measure: volume fuel flow in mass fuel flow in volume flow in pounds
11.10 b
gallons per hour. pounds per hour. per hour.
A dip stick will read correctly when it is fully extended the magnets are the bayonet-lock is
11.10 b
engaged released
On what principle does the fuel contents gauging capacity affected by capacity affected by changes in dielectric
system work on a modern large aircraft? dielectric therefore dielectric therefore causes changes in
11.10 changing EMF of changing electrical capacitance c
system resistance of system
Modern passenger aircraft are refuelled by over-wing gravity suction refuelling using pressure refuelling from
11.10 refuelling the aircraft pumps tanks c
A twin jet aircraft would normally be refueled by which of over wing refueling suction refueling pressure refueling
11.10 c
the following methods:
11.10 Hand operated pumps are often called Wobble pumps Fuel ejectors Vane type a
When an aircraft tank is fuelled at its filler neck, this is over wing fuelling single point pressure under wing re-fuelling.
11.10 a
known as. re-fuelling.
The chemical stability of hydraulic fluid is its ability to evaporation excessive pressure oxidation
11.11 3 c
resist
Hydraulic fluids are usually classified according to their viscosity colour type of base
11.11 3 c
A hydraulic system is designed to operate at 3,000 psi, 1,000 psi 750 psi 2650 psi
11.11 3 what would the approximate accumulator preload be? a
Friction in hydraulic systems creates ___________ that contamination heat air bubbles
11.11 3 b
must be continuously removed from the fluid.
Which component stores hydraulic fluid under high Accumulator Reservoir Filter assembly
11.11 3 a
pressure in a hydraulic system?
11.11 3 Phosphate Ester Hydraulic fluid is also known as Mil-H-5606 Skydrol Mil-H-7644 b
Hydraulic fluids coloured red are vegetable based mineral based phosphate ester based
11.11 3 b
A major disadvantage of skydrol, is that it is extremely toxic. highly flammable. easily contaminated by
11.11 3 water from the c
atmosphere.
If skydrol fluid comes into contact with the eyes, they clean water a weak solution of salt water
11.11 3 should be flushed immediately with large volumes of sodium bicarbonate a
In an open-centered hydraulic system, when the Idling position Full load, high output Full load, minimum
actuating units have reached their selected positions position output position
11.11 3 and the control valves reposition to the by-pass a
position, what position is the hydraulic pump in?
The open-centered hydraulic system develops minimum no continuous
11.11 3 _____________ pressure except when a subsystem b
(mechanism) is being operated.
The closed-center hydraulic system will ___________ always never seldom
11.11 3 have hydraulic fluid stored under pressure when the a
pump is operating.
In a closed-center hydraulic system, once the automatically automatically reduced permanently reduced to
subsystem pressure is built up to a pre-determined maintained by a by an unloading valve. zero
11.11 3 value, the load is differential variance b
valve.
A closed hydraulic system directs fluid flow to the main check valve reflief valve manifold
11.11 3 c
system
In a closed-centre hydraulic system, the initial source of pump reservoir system accumulator
11.11 3 c
pressure comes from the
Which type of aircraft is most likely to have a non- Transport category General aviation, light Military fighter aircraft
11.11 3 b
pressurized hydraulic system reservoir? aircraft aircraft
In systems designed to operate at 3,000 psi normal shuttle relief regulator
pressure, the _____________ valve might be set to be
11.11 3 completely open at 3,650 psi and to reseat at 3,190 psi. b
The hydraulic filter is normally placed in the return line of the outlet line of the return line of the pump.
11.11 3 a
reservoir reservoir.
Many malfunctions in fluid power systems can be traced improper "O"-rings in low pressures some type of
11.11 3 c
to ___________ in the fluid. use contamination
In a properly serviced, hydraulic system, as soon as a the standby portion of the engine driven pump the system accumulator
11.11 3 hydraulic system is actuated, pressure first comes from the reservoir c
The removal of air from an aircraft hydraulic system is automatically by by operating the various by allowing the system
normally done component bleed components through a to sit inoperative for a
11.11 3 valves. number of cycles. number of hours.. b
What happens to the fluid in an open centred hydraulic It returns to the It returns to the The pressure drops to
11.11 3 system when no unit is being actuated? reservoir through the reservoir through the zero because the pump b
unloading valve. selector valves. stops pumping.
In hydraulic systems with an accumulator, a loud air in the fluid too high a pre-load in too low or no pressure
11.11 3 c
hammering noise is a symptom of the accumulator. in the accumulator.
Which type of actuator allows for the doubling of the Double-acting, Tandem actuating Single-acting, balanced
11.11 3 b
output force with NO change in piston area? unbalanced cylinder
Some hydraulic actuators utilize internal __________ relieving locking bleeding
features in the full retracted or extended positions to
11.11 3 restrict or prevent movement when pressures have b
been released.
Filters in aircraft hydraulic systems are rated in pounds per square inch microns liters per second
11.11 3 b
of restriction
If a filter element is made of sintered metal, the element bronze cellulose paper mesh
11.11 3 a
is made from
When an open-centered hydraulic system is "at rest", in parallel with a in series with a in series with a
11.11 3 the selector valves are common return line to common return line to common return line to c
the reservoir the pump the reservoir
When there is no flow requirement in a closed-centre system relief valve pressure regulator restrictor valve
11.11 3 system, the constant-volume pump is "unloaded" by the b
In a closed-center, variable-volume pump, the pump's internal control valve internal relief valve external control valve
11.11 3 a
output is controlled by an
A _______ is used to provide the necessary flow of reservoir pump selector valve
11.11 3 b
fluid.
What component of a hydraulic system can be A reservoir An accumulator. A heat exchanger.
11.11 3 described as a steel sphere divided into two separate b
chambers by a synthetic rubber diaphragm?
In a hydraulic system, fluid pressure is converted into pump actuator accumulator
11.11 3 b
useful work by the
What valve is used to direct the flow of fluid to the Selector valve Sequence valve Priority valve
11.11 3 a
various components within a hydraulic system?
What type of valve is used to ensure that the wheel-well Relief valve. Sequence valve. Check valve.
11.11 3 b
doors open before the landing gear is lowered?
11.11 3 In a hydraulic system, loss of fluid is prevented by a hydraulic fuse pressure regulator check valve a
What type of valve is used when pre-loading hydraulic Schrader valve Relief valve Check valve
11.11 3 a
or pneumatic systems?
In a non-pressurized hydraulic reservoir, how is Pressure relief valves Selector valves and Fluid is forced into the
"foaming" kept to a minimum? and poppet valves directional control tank in a swirling motion
11.11 3 discharge unwanted air valves route unwanted or baffle plates are c
air to dump boxes used in the return path
What component in a hydraulic reservoir ensures that Standpipe Surge valve Expansion valve
11.11 3 sufficient fluid is always available for emergency use? a
Unwanted heat is commonly removed from hydraulic radiator diffuser heat exchanger
11.11 3 fluid by a __________ submerged in the wing's fuel c
tank.
A basic constant displacement hydraulic pump provides a variable flow allows a positive flow to does not require a
11.11 3 of fluid to the system the system regulator or relief valve b
in the system
The accumulator of an aircraft's hydraulic system is pre- oxygen compressed air or dry carbon dioxide
11.11 3 b
charged with nitrogen
The action of an aircraft hydraulic actuator can be slow or rapid in internal or external linear or rotary
11.11 3 c
response action
A hydraulic actuator generates less force in the the effective area of the the effective volume of the pump returns to the
retraction stroke because piston is reduced by the the piston is reduced by idle position each time
11.11 3 piston rod. the piston rod. the piston is in the a
retraction stroke.
Aircraft hydraulic actuators can be pressurised or non- single or double acting vane or gear-type in
11.11 3 b
pressurised design
The aircraft hydraulic actuator design known as a servo- primarily in manual in a system installation only on multiple
actuator is used reversion type where the actuator is redundancy
operations on light required to move to and applications for
11.11 3 aircraft designs from a specific position emergency operations. b
for operational
purposes.
The servo actuator design will often have the control selector valve fuselage structure control surface that is
linkage connected directly to the _________. As the being operated
11.11 3 control surface reaches the position set by the linkage, a
the servo will automatically close off the fluid supply and
actuator travel will cease.
Fluid is directed from one side of an actuator to the selector valve relief valve regulator valve
11.11 3 a
other by a
A basic, single-action type actuating cylinder, has springs fitted to has fluid acting on one is also referred to as a
11.11 3 b
both sides side of the cylinder vane type actuator
A linear, spring-loaded hydraulic actuator is returned to system back-pressure an external spring an internal spring
11.11 3 c
its original position by
A double-acting hydraulic actuator is extended by fluid fluid pressure system back-pressure air pressure
11.11 3 a
pressure and retracted by
In a double-action, unbalanced, linear actuating different diameter there are three ports in there is a difference in
cylinder, piston rods are used in the actuator and only the effective working
11.11 3 each of the chambers one common shaft areas on the two sides c
of the piston.
What type of selector valve is used to operate a double- 4-way 2-way 3-way
11.11 3 a
acting, unbalanced, linear actuator?
A double-acting, piston-type actuator (with equal where a greater force is where equal force is where a greater force is
working areas) is designed into an aircraft hydraulic required on the control required in both required on the
system surface side of the directions of actuator structure side
11.11 3 actuator. movement. (attachment point) to b
return the control
surface to a neutral
position.
In a double-acting, balanced, linear actuator, the piston originates (begins) at originates (begins) at extends through the
rod shaft the piston and extends the piston and extends piston and out through
11.11 3 through the cylinder through the cylinder on both ends of the c
assembly on both the control surface side cylinder assembly.
sides. ONLY.
The most common actuator used in a multiple tandem actuator double-acting balanced double-acting
11.11 3 a
redundant hydraulic system is the unbalanced
Of the three common methods of classifying aircraft directional control flow control pressure control
11.11 3 hydraulic valves, which is considered to be the most b
basic?
The aircraft hydraulic system's selector valve is pressure control flow control directional control
11.11 3 c
classified as which type of control valve?
Which one, directional control valve in the selector valve the poppet valve the ball valve the rotary spool valve
11.11 3 category can also be classified as a pressure control a
AND flow control valve?
11.11 3 Identify the aircraft valve in this illustration. gate-type check valve ball-type check valve variable restrictor valve b
11.11 3 Identify the hydraulic valve in this illustration. cone-type check valve gate-type check valve variable restrictor valve a
Identify the valve in this illustration. ball-type check valve cone-type check valve swing-type check valve
11.11 3 c
The pin of the metering check valve holds the______ spring sleeve ball
11.11 3 partially off the seat to provide for the speed of fluid c
flow.
In the design of the metering-type check valve the pin seat spring
11.11 3 _______ is used to make contact with the ball to b
regulate fluid flow.
The ________ valve can be called a timing or load sequence relief selector
11.11 3 valve because it times the operation of certain hydraulic a
subsystems in a proper order.
A common use of the ______ valve would be in the selector sequence relief
landing gear door subsystem where the doors must
11.11 3 open before the landing gear can extend and the gear b
must be retracted before the doors are closed.
The valve shown in this illustration is designed to have sequence shuttle relief
a free-flow of hydraulic fluid from the upper port through
11.11 3 the check valve body to the port on the right when the a
valve is in the return path of the system. This valve is
known as a _______ valve.
The pressure operated sequence valve may also be sequence priority relief
called a ___(1)___ valve. The ____(1)____ valve, like a
11.11 3 check valve, has an arrow on the body of the valve to b
indicate the direction of flow. The ___(1)____ valve is a
completely automatic valve that is u
What valve is used to isolate the normal hydraulic Selector valve Solenoid Shuttle valve.
11.11 3 c
system from the emergency system?
This illustration shows a typical design for a ___(1)____ priority selector shuttle
valve. Note it's three ports; one for the normal operating
11.11 3 system; one for the emergency system; and the supply c
line.
The __(1)___ , shown in this illustration, is located in check valve fuse restrictor
many wheel-brake, flap and thrust reverser systems to
11.11 3 prevent the complete loss of fluid when a hydraulic leak b
occurs down-stream of the fuse. If a line should break
or an excessive external leak d
There are two basic types of hydraulic fuses. One type quantity-measuring pressure-sensing electro-magnetic
shuts off fluid flow when a specified volume of fluid
11.11 3 flows through the fuse. This type is a ___(1)____ fuse. a
There are two basic types of hydraulic fuses. One type quantity-measuring pressure-sensing servo-mechanical
shuts off fluid flow when a sufficient pressure drop
11.11 3 occurs through the fuse. This type is a ____(1)____ b
fuse.
What type of valves are used in hydraulic systems to Pressure reducing Pressure regulating Volumetric differential
11.11 3 lower the normal operating pressure to a specified a
amount?
____________ valves are pressure limiting or safety Regulator Priority Relief
valves commonly used to prevent pressure from
11.11 3 building to a point where seals might blow or c
component damage might occur.
Main system __________ valves are designed to priority shuttle relief
operate within certain specific pressure limits and to
11.11 3 relieve complete pump output when in the open c
position.
The pressure where the valve just begins to open is relief valve. pressure regulator pressure reducing
called the valves cracking pressure. The cracking valve. valve.
11.11 3 pressure is usually set somewhere between full flow a
and reseat. When this valve is in the open position, it
directs excessive pressurized fluid to th
What type of valve is installed in the flap down line to Pressure relief valve Flap selector valve Priority valve
11.11 3 a
prevent lowering of the flaps at too high an airspeed?
What type of valve allows servicing of the air/nitrogen Filler valve Servicing valve Schrader valve
11.11 3 system and traps the pre-charge within the accumulator c
or strut assembly?
A hydraulic system using a variable displacement pump, does not require an is unloaded by the requires an unloading
11.11 3 unloading valve constant flow to the valve. a
actuators
11.11 3 A vane type pump is normally used to produce a low pressure high pressure variable flow a
A variable displacement, piston type hydraulic pump. is also known as a spur uses a system of must have an unloading
11.11 3 gear pump sleeves and a valve fitted in the b
compensator spring system
Which valve allows full fluid flow in one direction and no Check valve Metering valve Shuttle valve
11.11 3 a
fluid flow in the other direction?
Before a hydraulic accumulator is removed from an system pressure should pre-load should be reservoir should be
11.11 3 a
aircraft the be relieved discharged drained
In an open centre system, selector valves allow fluid to flow through the fluid to flow in 3 a limited flow in one
11.11 3 valve in the "off" directions in the "on" direction and no flow in a
position. position the other.
Relief valves are used in hydraulic systems As damage preventing As one way valves To direct fluid flow to
11.11 3 a
units. the actuators
Where flow is required to both ends of an actuator at four port, closed centre three port, four way two port open centred
11.11 3 the same time, the most common selector valve is the a
Which accumulator air pre-load would be most suitable 1500 psi 500 psi 2000 psi
11.11 3 for a closed centre system with a 1500 psi operating b
pressure?
A common cause of slow actuation of hydraulic cold fluid internal leakage in the blocked filters.
11.11 3 b
components is. component
11.11 3 The most common seal for two-way use is the Chevron seal U ring packing O-ring c
11.11 3 An O-ring with a green dash, is compatible with vegetable based fluids. mineral based fluids ester based fluids c
Normally seals are fitted to a hydraulic system if the cure date is if the seal is less than if a yellow and blue dot
11.11 3 missing from the 24 months old. is on the seal. b
packaging
A gasket is used in a hydraulic system to allow for relative where there is no where high engine oil
11.11 3 movement relative movement. pressures are expected b
A backup ring allows the seal to distort is not required for two is used to prevent
11.11 3 c
below 1500 psi way seals. extrusion of the seal
The correct O-ring for a H-5606 fluid must have a blue must be red in colour can also be used in a
11.11 3 a
marking skydrol system
What type of seal is most commonly used to prevent Gasket O-ring Chevron
11.11 3 b
internal and external leaks in hydraulic components?
What is used to prevent extrusion of an O-ring seal in a Back up ring, fitted on Two way seal, fitted in a Back up ring, on the
high pressure system? the side of the O-ring special groove side of the O-ring away
11.11 3 towards the pressure from the pressure c
What type of seal is fitted to a hydraulic system that is Gasket Packing Low pressure back up
11.11 3 b
subject to motion? ring
What actions are taken to prevent damage to packings Threaded section Packings should be The threaded section
and seals when installing seals on threaded sections? should be coated with a stretched before should be covered with
11.11 3 heavy grease istallation to avoid a stiff paper material. c
contact with threaded
section.
What type of packings should be used for a skydrol AN packings made of AN packings made of Packing materials made
11.11 3 hydraulic system? natural rubber neoprene for ester based fluids c
O-rings are colour coded to identify the size of the seal. type of fluid that it is pressure range of the
11.11 3 b
compatible with. seal.
When installing chevron seals in a hydraulic cylinder, the apex goes toward the open side goes they can be installed
the pressure toward the pressure either way because
11.11 3 chevron seals are b
double-acting.
11.11 3 Skydrol system fluid lines should be flushed out with Stoddarts solvent a mineral based fluid triclorethylene c
11.11 3 A flexible hose with one layer of fabric braid, is a high pressure hose rigid line low pressure hose c
An important precaution when installing rigid fluid lines install fluid lines above never pull a tube up to 1/ 8 th of an inch tubing
is to electrical wire bundles. the fitting with the nut. should be supported
11.11 3 every 12 inches. b
The lay line along a flexible hydraulic line has a built in spiral to should never spiral. is allowed to spiral, if it
11.11 3 allow for excess is a high pressure b
pressures. system
11.11 3 A high pressure fluid line, can carry pressures Up to 3000 psi Up to 1500 psi less than 250 psi a
A high pressure hose that is coloured green is designed to carry is designed to be used Must have yellow lay
11.11 3 oxygen with phosphate ester lines b
fluid
When replacing Teflon hoses in an aircraft, they should be bent into the correct be straightened before not be bent
11.11 3 shape by applying heat. installation c
New, metal hydraulic lines should be installed with protective caps with sufficient bends to in straight lengths
11.11 3 fitted to prevent fluid allow expansion, joined with flexible b
flow in the system contraction and flexing hoses
When "pre-setting" a flareless tube, the ferrule is caused to the open end of the the open end of the
"bite" into the tube. tube is polished, so it tube is expanded so the
11.11 3 will not crack when it is ferrule will not slide off. a
expanded.
Which type of hydraulic hose is covered with a rough medium pressure hose low pressure hose high pressure hose for
11.11 3 black cotton braid. use with mineral based a
fluid.
Corrosion resistant steel tubing Is used in high pressure Has a low tensile Is identified by the code
11.11 3 hydraulic systems strength 5052 and a purple a
band.
To calculate the inside diameter of a rigid tube. Subtract half the wall Subtract twice the wall Subtract the inside
11.11 3 distance from the thickness from the diameter from the b
outside diameter. outside diameter. outside diameter.
Rigid tubing under a 1/4 inch diameter, made with soft Can be bent by hand. Must be bent with a Can have a
metal with a thin wall. production-type tube deformation, as long as
11.11 3 bender. more than 50% tube a
diameter remains.
Hydraulic power can be interchanged between the left APU PTU EDP
11.11 3 b
and right systems with the use of a
Hydraulic power can be obtained within the aircraft's APU EDP RAT
11.11 3 hydraulic system, in an emergency situation, with the c
use of a
Some modern turbine-powered transport category turbine exhaust air freon precharge compressor bleed air
11.11 3 aircraft use what source to pressurize their hydraulic c
system reservoirs?
The pneumatic pressure used for gyros in a small can vary since the gyro is maintained constant is maintained constant
aircraft speed is alowed to vary by a pressure regulator bypilot adjustment
11.11 3 as long as has erected b
When the emergency air source of the aircrafts wheel priority shuttle check
brake emergency system is selected, the ________
valve repositions, allowing airflow to the wheel brakes
11.11 3 for an emergency operation. In this emergency b
position, air is prevented from entering the hydra
The possibility of foaming of the hydraulic fluid at higher a steadily decreasing pressure fluctuations pressure fluctuations
11.11 3 altitudes may be detected by: pressure indication and blinking of the High and blinking of the Low c
Pressure light Pressure light.
Hydraulic system filter inspection results must be after every inspection after every second if abnormal or
recorded or documented (in the flight logbook) IAW inspection excessive foreign
11.11 3 maintenance manual procedures and company policies particles are found. c
Micronic stainless steel filter elements are cleaned with ultrasonic cleaning Stoddard solvent trichlorethylene
11.11 3 a
methods
Clogged filters in aircraft hydraulic systems are often a red indicator light a pop-up button on the an audible warning in
11.11 3 b
indicated by head assembly the cockpit
In a pressurized hydraulic system, the reservoir is 40 150 5
11.11 3 a
pressurized to approximately _______ psi.
Prior to servicing an aircraft hydraulic system's servicing of the servicing of the servicing of the
accumulator to the proper air preload charge, what must accumulator pre-charge accumulator pre-charge accumulator pre-charge
be done with the fluid side of the hydraulic system? should always be should always be should always be
accomplished when the accomplished when the accomplished when the
11.11 3 hydraulic system hydraulic system hydraulic system a
pressure is at zero. pressure is at one-half pressure is at full
it's regulated pressure. operating system
pressure.
During installation of the check valve in the system, arrow; body body; label fitting; end
maintenance personnel must note the ____(1)____
11.11 3 direction on the ___(2)____ of the check valve. This a
represents free flow direction of the fluid.
What color is the hydraulic liquid in a modern jet purple red yellow
11.11 a
airliner?
11.11 The temperature of hydraulic fluid is measured: after the cooler in the reservoir b
The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to: allow the parking brake allow a reduced prevent loss of system
to remain on overnight pressure to the wheel fluid if the pipeline to a
11.11 if required brake system to avoid brake unit should c
locking the wheels rupture
A shuttle valve will: allow the accumulator reduce pump loading automatically switch to
to be emptied after when normal system a more appropriate
11.11 engine shut down pressure is reached source of hydraulic c
supply
11.11 In a modern airliner what is hydraulic fluid used? synthetic mineral mineral / alcohol a
A shuttle valve is used to: restrict the rate of select the most suitable allow two supplies to be
11 operation of a system system pressure available to a service c
Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized by: ram air in flight only separate helium gas engine bleed air from
11 c
system turbine engine
Hydraulic pressure typically used in the system of large 2000 - 3000psi 3000 - 4000psi 1000 - 2000psi
11 b
transport aircraft is:
Hydraulic fluid: needs no special is harmful to eyes and is harmful to eyes and
11 treatment skin skin, and is also a fire c
hazard
Ice formation on propellors in flight will decrease thrust and increase the stall speed decrease the aircraft
11.12 3 increase vibration and increase noise stall speed and a
increase noise
On electrically heated windshields, the heat sensors are embedded in the glass. attached to the glass by attached around the
11.12 3 a
special adhesive. edges of glass.
What is used as a temperature sensing element in an Thermocouple Temperature Sensor Thermometer
11.12 3 b
electrically heated windshield?
Chemical anti-icing is used for carburetors, propellors windshield and engine propellor leading edge
11.12 0 a
and windshields. intakes and engine intakes
When on the ground, leading edges of wings are not allowing the system thermal sensing engine bleed air
protected from overheating by to function on the switches which close temperature regulators
11.12 0 ground the anti ice valves keeping the b
temperature within
limits
The heating element on a windshield is located On the inside of the On the ouside of the On the inside of the
11.12 0 a
outer glass inner glass inner glass
Anti-ice fluid is distributed to the propellor blade by Gravity Centifugal force Pressure from the
11.12 0 b
means of pump
11.12 0 Propellor ice protection could be Electrothermal Pneumatic hot air Pneumatic boots a
A "Slinger ring" supplies de-icing fluid to the engine nose cone outboard section of the propellor blades
11.12 0 c
during operation wing leading edge
How do de-icier boots help remove ice accumulations? By preventing the By breaking up the ice By allowing only a thin
11.12 3 b
formation of ice. formation. layer of ice to build up.
Why are de-icer boot tubes alternately inflated? To keep the disturbance To ensure that the flight To ensure that there is
of the airflow over the crew have control over a constant load on the
11.12 3 wing or fin to a which sections are pump. a
minimum. inflated.
Silicon is sprayed onto rubber de-icer boots to act as an anti-icing fluid provide a smooth protect the boots from
11.12 0 surface so ice does not hail damage b
adhere to it readily
Inflation of individual de-ice boots is sequenced As there is not enough Since tests have shown So that there is no time
air from the pump to it is the most effective available for the ice to
11.12 0 inflate all the boots at way of breaking the ice form once the system is b
once turned on
To ensure that a new de-ice boot is correctly fitted Cement a test piece of Check that the Check that the wing
the boot to the wing and adhesive expiry date leading edge has been
11.12 0 check the adhesion has not been exceeded clensed and coated a
quality with a thin layer of wax
When removing wet snow from a small aircraft, it is best a soft brush or hot air. warm, soapy water.
11.12 3 a
to use squeegee.
To replenish the rain repellant system change the pressurized refill the reservoir with the reservoir must filled
11.12 0 cannister correct specification from a pressure supply a
fluid
The rain repellant system must be serviced when the system is empty the fluid level is visible the low level light
11.12 0 b
in the sight gauge illuminates
Rain repellant fluid should not be used on a dry windshield when the aircraft is with windshield wipers
11.12 0 a
stationary
Positive Camber is the amount that the aircraft wheel inboard outboard rearward on the axle
11.13 3 b
leans
Negative Camber is the amount the aircraft wheel leans inboard outboard rearwards of the axle
11.13 3 a
On fixed gear systems, wheel alignment is done by shims behind the wheel shim washers between adjustment bolts in the
11.13 3 means of axles the torgue links wheel support brackets a
11.13 3 If toe-in is excessive the aircraft tires will wear more On the outboard side In the middle On the inboard side a
If the toe -out is excessive the aircraft tire will wear more On the outboard side In the middle On the inboard side
11.13 3 c
Water stains on the surface of a wheel bearing should be removed is cause for rejection of requires a special
11.13 3 before installing the the bearing grease on installation b
bearing again
11.13 3 Overheating of wheel bearings is indicated by spalling brinell marks blue color c
Wheel bead seat areas should be inspected by using eddy current testing Zyglo dye penetrant testing
11.13 3 a
Before disassembly of a wheel remove the Schraeder remove the air remove the fuse plugs
11.13 3 b
valve
The stators of a multiple disc brake assembly are keyed wheel hub brake flange torque tube
11.13 3 c
into the
11.13 3 In a multiple disc brake the rotors are keyed into the wheel hub brake flange brake hub a
Automatic adjusters in a multiple disc brake adjust the brake disc clearance travel of the brake hydraulic pressure
11.13 3 a
pistons
The component responsible for allowing the correct metering valve de-boost valve shuttle valve
11.13 3 a
pressure to the brakes as required pilot is the brake
The function of a brake fuse is to prevent the brake from shut off fluid to the disarm the anti skid
11.13 3 locking up the wheel brake in case of a leak system if an electrical b
under heavy braking in the line to the brake failure occurs
If the piston return spring broke inside a brake master brakes would become brakes would drag. brake travel would
11.13 3 b
cylinder, the spongy. became excessive.
In brake service work, the term "bleeding brakes" is the pressurising the braking extracting air bubbles topping up the brake
11.13 3 process of: system. from the braking system reservoir with small b
amounts of fluid.
When bleeding aircraft brakes, one of the indications partial brake pedal full brake pedal travel. firm brake pedals.
11.13 3 c
that the air has been purged from the system is travel.
Which statement is true with respect to an aircraft Incorporate no Do not set park brakes No parking brake
equipped with hydraulically operated multiple-disk type automatic adjusters, when brakes are hot. provisions are possible
11.13 3 brake assemblies? because clearance for this type of brake b
between brake disks assembly.
are not important.
What type of valve is used in the brake actuating line to A bypass valve. An orifice check valve. A shuttle valve.
11.13 3 isolate the emergency brake system from the normal c
power brake control system?
Power boost braking systems are used on aircraft that a high landing speed. low pressure hydraulic more than one brake
11.13 3 a
have: systems assembly per axle.
11.13 3 Tyres;
Tyres fitted to a wheel with too much positive camber in the middle on the outboard side on the inboard side
11.13 b
will wear
A tyre tread that wears in the centre indicates that the correct too high too low
11.13 b
tyre inflation pressure is
The strip or mark applied to a wheel rim and extended creep or slippage mark. wheel-to-tyre balance wheel weight reference
11.13 a
onto the sidewall of a tube-type tyre is a: mark. mark.
Some aircraft nose wheel tyres use chines to protect the sidewalls reduce hydroplaning. deflect water away from
11.13 c
from damage the engines
Aircraft tyres can be damaged if they are exposed to: low humidity. helium. electrical equipment.
11.13 c
After fitting new inner tubes, tyres should be inflated, the tube is correctly the wheel will be the tread will wear
11.13 fully deflated and then re-inflated. This procedure positioned inside the properly balanced evenly a
ensures that tyre.
Why do tire and wheel manufactures often recommend To relieve the strain on As a safety precaution To remove the static
that the tires on split rim wheels be deflated before the wheel retaining nut in case the bolts that loads imposed upon the
removing the wheel from the axle? and axle threads. hold the wheel halves wheel bearings by the
11.13 together have been inflated tire. b
damaged or weakened.
11.13 Over inflated aircraft tyres may cause damage to the: brake linings. wheel hub. wheel flange. c
Aircraft tyre pressure should be checked: at least once a week or after each flight. once a month.
11.13 a
more often.
11.13 3 Steering.
Nose wheel steering pressure is normally supplied from landing gear up line landing gear down line system hydraulic
11.13 b
the pressure
The aircraft nose wheel steering tiller is normally left side of the cockpit right hand side of the cockpit centre pedestal
11.13 a
located on the cockpit
The external light at the starboard wingtip of an aircraft a green navigation light a red navigation light a white landing light
11.14 a
is
11.14 The external light at the port wingtip of an aircraft is green red white b
Navigation lights must be visible through an arc of 220 through an arc of 140 from a point directly
degrees in the vertical degrees in the ahead to 110 degrees
11.14 plane horizontal plane port and starboard c
respectively in the
horizontal plane
Landing lights are used to illuminate the runway enable safe taxiing from enable the pilot to turn
immediately ahead of the runway to the off the runway at the
11.14 an aircraft terminal buildings correct exit after landing a
Stroboscopic anti-collision lights on aircraft are visible red and blue lights flashing blue lights flashing red lights
11.14 c
as flashing alternately
The rate at which stroboscopic anti-collision lights flash approximately once 120 times per minute automatically varied to
11.14 is every second match the aircraft a
speed
Taxi lights are used to illuminate are retractable lights are usually fitted to
the turn-off points along located at the wingtips aircraft nosewheels to
11.14 the runway facilitate aircraft c
manouevering
Incandescent lights work on the principle that applying a voltage to a discharging a voltage certain materials emit
filament heats it up and through a xenon-filled light by fluorescence
11.14 causes it to glow tube excites the gas when a voltage is a
brightly molecules and causes applied
emission of light
11.14 3 Emergency.
In emergency situations such as a crash landing at directly from the directly from the AC bus by individual battery
11.14 night, essential lighting is powered aircraft's main batteries system packs c
The emergency lighting system operates automatically the system is switched the system is armed the system is switched
11.14 whenever to "ON" on the flight and the DC bus falls to "ON" by the cabin b
deck below 12 volts staff
Some exit signs on aircraft use radio-active tritium gas Must be handled in Must be removed after Can be replaced only
containers for self-illumination. These containers accordance with every flight and stored by specially-qualified
international regulations in a suitably-labelled, engineers wearing
11.14 governing the use and metal container until breathing apparatus a
disposal of radio-actve required for the next and fully-enclosed
materials flight. protective clothing.
With the emergency lighting switch selected to ARMED, when the aircraft's when aircraft power is before take-off and after
11.3.1 the emergency lights will illuminate: climbs above 10000ft. lost. landing of the aircraft. b
11.15 3 (2Q) Oxygen (ATA 35)
11.15 3 General Principles (not in 66)
The atmosphere contains 78% Nitrogen and 21% 79% Oxygen and 20% 50% Oxygen and 50%
11.15 a
Oxygen Nitrogen Nitrogen
Compared with commercial oxygen, aviation oxygen has a lower water
b
content
Breathing oxygen used in large, commercial transport the Department of the International Civil military authorities
aircraft must meet rigorous standards that are specified Transportation (DOT) Aviation Authority c
by (ICAO)
11.15 Hypoxia can occur at altitudes above 10,000 ft 8,000 ft 6,000 ft a
11.15 Hypoxia is a condition caused by lack of oxygen carbon dioxide nitrogen a
As altitude increases, the ratio of oxygen to nitrogen in remains the same decreases increases
11.15 a
the atmosphere
As altitude increases the oxygen content of the increases decreases remains the same
11.15 b
atmosphere
The moisture content of an aircraft's breathing oxygen is low high zero
11.15 a
Leak testing on gaseous oxygen systems should be toluene non-oily soap solution a gas leak detector
11.15 b
carried out using
11.15 High pressure oxygen plumbing lines are made from: Seamless aluminum Stainless steel Teflon b
Once the chemical oxygen generator has been it should be stopped It will stop delivering It must be allowed to
activated: when no longer oxygen to the pilot, completely discharge
11.15 required to prevent when there is no flow to and then be replaced, c
excessive heat build up the masks as it cannot be serviced
or recharged
Passenger emergency oxygen systems are normally diluter demand type continuous flow type set to operate at 20,000
11.15 b
ft cabin altitude
What will be provided to the mask of a diluter demand 100% flow to mask zero oxygen emergency oxygen only
regulator, if the levers are in the following positions:
11.15 Emergency lever on, Supply lever off, Oxygen selection b
lever 100%.
11.16 3 Distribution;
What valve is installed in the pneumatic system to allow Relief valve Shuttle valve Dump valve
11.16 the emergency function to occur without having two b
separate operating systems installed?
Aircraft emergency brake systems use high pressure air operate the brakes operate separate, pressurise a hydraulic
11.16 to normally pneumatically operated supply which is used to c
brakes operate the brakes
11.16 Aircraft pneumatic systems do not contain compressible fluids system return lines reservoirs b
After the compressed air in an aircraft pneumatic returned directly to the returned to the reservoir dumped overboard.
11.16 system has served its purpose it is pneumatic system via a chemical drier c
reservoir.
In a 3000 psi high pressure pneumatic system, what Unloading valve. Back pressure valve Pressure reducer
11.16 valve enables the nose wheel steering to operate at c
1000 psi?
After purging a pneumatic system the air bottles should inspected drained removed
11.16 b
be
Fan bleed air is used for air conditioning and in the precooler to cool to assist intermediate
11.16 pressurization. air conditioning air. air. b
The pressure and volume produced by a medium low pressure, high high pressure, low high pressure, high
11.16 a
pressure pneumatic system, is: volume. volume. volume.
The most commonly used component to provide a vane type pump geroter pump suction venturi
11.16 vacuum source is a a
In a pneumatically operated gyro system, a vacuum draw air across the prevent icing cool the gyro
11.16 a
pump is used to gyro.
Compressed air used in a modern aircraft pneumatic aircraft engines APU pressurised cylinders
11.16 a
system during flight is supplied by
Which valve prevents excessive pressures from Relief valve. Check valve Restrictor valve.
11.16 bursting lines and blowing out seals in a pneumatic a
system?
Purging is the process used to ____________ a clean bleed depressurise
11.16 a
pneumatic system.
Compared with hydraulic systems, pneumatic systems are lighter in weight. require no maintenance contain no filters
11.16 a
The normal pressure range for high pressure pneumatic 100 - 150 psi 1000 - 3000 psi higher than 3000 psi
11.16 b
systems is
In a pneumatic system, the high pressure regulating high altitude high engine power low engine power
11.16 c
valve is open at settings settings
Which of the following are not used in aircraft Crossfeed valves Accumulators Isolation valves
11.16 b
pneumatic systems?
11.16 The most commonly used vacuum pump is a sliding vane type sliding cylinder type sliding piston type a
Carbon vanes used in "dry" vacuum pumps need no lubrication are lubricated with are lubricated by the
11.16 silicon grease moisture in the a
atmosphere
Which valve prevents reverse flow when the high H.P. non return valve L.P. check valve Shut-off valve
11.16 b
pressure bleed is operating?
11.16 The high pressure regulating valve is controlled electrically pneumatically manually a
The most common type of air pumps used in modern "wet" pumps. "dry" pumps with steel "dry" pumps with
11.16 gyro instrument systems are vanes and rotors. carbon vanes and c
rotors.
The primary purpose of relief valves in a pneumatic automatically maintain prevent damage to the re-direct excess air
11.16 b
system is to a set pressure system back into the system.
Check valves in a pneumatic system allow air to flow only in allow air to flow fast in restrict the flow of air in
one direction. one direction and slow one direction.
11.16 in the opposite a
direction.
An adjustable restrictor in a pneumatic system is annually manually automatically during
11.16 b
adjusted operation.
11.16 A shuttle valve in a pneumatic system has two ports three ports one port b
Shuttle valves in a pneumatic system: will assist in allowing are normally electrically allow one out of two
two pressure systems controlled and systems to operate at a
11.16 to operate at the same operated. time. c
time.
Moisture separators in a pneumatic system will remove 100% of the are normally heated to remove water from the
moisture prevent water from system and dump it
11.16 freezing. overboard during b
system operation.
Filters in pneumatic systems incorporate a relief don't need a relief valve are normally screen-
11.16 valve as a bypass. in case of a bypass. type filters rather than a
micronic filters.
Low ambient temperatures at cruise altitude, result in low moisture content in high moisture content in high humidity levels in
11.16 a
the cabin air the cabin air the cabin air
11.16 As altitude increases, the humidity in the air decreases increases remains the same a
11.16 As heat is added to a solid, the solid becomes a gas a liquid and then a gas a liquid b
As heat is extracted from a gas it becomes a gas and it becomes a liquid and it evaporates
11.16 b
then a liquid then a solid
When a gas is compressed its temperature _______ increases; decreases decreases; increases increases; remains the
11.16 and when the pressure on the gas is decreased its same a
temperature __________ .
When two materials have different temperatures and expand contract equalize
11.16 heat is free to flow between them, they will attempt to c
__________ .
Heat transfers only from a material having a given a higher a lower a neutral
11.16 temperature to a material having _______ temperature. b
A toilet drain valve connects the toilet bowl to the waste toilet bowl to the drain waste tank to the
11.17 c
tank mast ground service panel
An anti-siphon valve prevents contaminated ensures that toilet is used during ground
water entering the waste is removed from servicing of the waste
11.17 potable water line feed the bowl during flushing system a
to a vacuum toilet bowl
11.18 2 Printing;
The OBS printer is used to print reports accessible via: MCDU's. CMC 1and CMC 2. the ACARS.
11.18 a
BITE characteristics include the: identification of the fault distinction between detection of any fault
11.18 at component level. faults at the data loader. affecting the system. c
The Ground Test menu of a centralised maintenance ATA chapters order. faults occurrence order. fault history order.
11.18 a
computer system is normally
01/02/09
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