Diplomatic Security Contracted WPS EMT-I

Practice Test

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1. Which levels of licensure can perform splinting?

2. Who of the following may establish a peripheral IV on a pt.? (Select all that apply)

3. When applying a hare traction splint which strap should be fasten first?

4. An EMT-Basic may use automatic transport ventilators when indicated.

5. All of the following are ways to treat hypothermia in a traumatically injured casualty
except:

6. Which of the following airway procedures can a WPS EMT-I perform?

7. What is the most important consideration when using suction on a pt.?

8. CHSi EMS only recognizes two ambulance response modes: code 1 (no lights and sirens)
and code 3 (lights and sirens).

9. How is an oropharyngeal airway measured?

10. A complete or partial extremity amputation should have a tourniquet applied regardless of
whether or not hemorrhage is observed.

11. What is the most reliable indicator of the severity of hypothermia?

12. According to the latest TCCC guidelines the Pneumatic Antishock Garment (PASG) is an
approved method in treating shock?

13. Your compound experiences indirect fire (IDF) with reported mortar strikes at the DFAC.
Fire dispatch confirms there are patients. Over the loud speaker you hear Duck and
cover! What is the most appropriate action by the EMS crew?

14. What is the maximum volume of medication which can be administered by subcutaneous
(SQ) route?

15. Which levels of licensure can be authorized to administer SQ injections?

16. Acetaminophen PO is an approved medication for pre-hospital use. What is the intended
use of acetaminophen pre-hospital?

17. In the Care Under Fire phase of TCCC, what is the most important of the following steps:

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18. For a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be done immediately after
defibrillation?

19. Communication is a mass casualty incident should be all of the following except:

20. Which of the following bites/stings should a constricting band be used 2-3 above and
below?

21. An EMT-P is caring for a patient en route to a medical treatment facility. Upon arrival to
facility, what level of care can the EMT-P transfer care to?

22. Can the interventions described in TCCC be performed on or through burned skin in a burn
casualty?

23. What is the GCS of a patient that has a blood pressure of 164/90, pulse of 130, R-22, SpO2
96%, opens eyes to voice, is confused and withdraws to pain?

24. When splinting an extremity, what is done before and after applying splinting?

25. You have controlled hemorrhage on an adult male patient who had an obvious brachial
artery bleed with the proximal application of a tourniquet. Now the patient is complaining
of severe pain from the tourniquet. Which is the most appropriate action?

26. A patient is considered hyperthermic when internal temperature surpasses 101 degrees F.
At what temperature do thermoregulatory functions begin to fail?

27. A person that can reference Time/Date/Place/Person and Situation but is obviously
intoxicated can refuse treatment to the hospital.

28. Normal blood glucose range for a healthy adult is:

29. What level of licensure is authorized to use auto-injectors?

30. What is the most important information to obtain of a patient suspected of having a CVA?

31. Which type of trauma raises an EMS providers index of suspicion of a possible tension
pneumothorax? (Select all that apply)

32. When providing positive pressure ventilation to a patient in respiratory failure via bag-
valve mask, what is the appropriate ventilator rate to delivery?

33. Which of the following findings would merit continuous cardiac monitoring?

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34. What level provider may administer a sternal IO?(Select all that apply)

35. What is the ideal number of personnel needed to physically restrain a patient?

36. What are the locations for a pleural decompression?

37. The most important body organ(s) for regulating heat loss is (are) the:

38. List three signs of respiratory distress.

39. Which of the following is correct regarding an open (sucking) chest wound?

40. Hypotension in an anaphylactic reaction primarily occurs from:

41. A high incidence of morbidity and mortality are seen with:

42. In 1966, the National Academy of Sciences-National Councils (NAS-NRC) Committee on

Trauma and Shock published the White Paper. This document analyzed deficiencies in
pre-hospital care and made recommendations for a new system. The name of this
document was:

43. What does the "M" in MARCH stand for?

44. What does the "A" and "R" in MARCH stand for?

45. The most common cause of an airway obstruction in an unconscious casualty is?

46. The appropriate dressing for a casualty who has suffered penetrating trauma to their chest
is a(an)_______:

47. During circulation you perform a blood rake and recognize the casualty has a burn to their
arm with a glistening wound bed and blisters. There are signs of what type of burn?

48. Direct transfer of heat from the body to a colder object via direct contact is an example of:

49. Performing self-aid to control massive hemorrhaging while still on the X is an example of
what phase of care in TCCC?