1. Which of the following bleeding disorder does not involve the blood vessels?

(A) Scurvy
(B) Henoch schonlein purpura
(C) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
(D) Marfan's syndrome
2. Endothelin raised in MI is?
(A) Endothelin-1 (B) Endothelin-2

(C) Endothelin-3 (D) Endothelin-4

3. Drug of choice for idiopathic cranial hypertension is?
(A) Nadolol (B) Nitrates

(C) Verapamil (D) Acetazolamide

4. Most common cause of Bacterial endocarditis in IV drug abuser is?
(A) Enterococci
(B) Streptococcus
(C) Staphylococcus aureus
(D) Coagulase-negative staphylococci
5. Pharmacotherapy is given in all EXCEPT:
(A) BMI>30
(B) BMI >27 with risk factor
(C) BMI > 25 with Non alcoholic fatty liver disease
(D) Not controlled by diet and exercise
6. Heart rate from ECG can be calculated by?
(A) 1507 RR interval (B) 200/ RR interval
(C) 6007 RR interval (D) 1500/ RR interval
7. A Boy from Bihar presents with Hepato Splenomegaly as shown in the picture below.
What is the most probable diagnosis?

(A) Tuberculosis (B) KalaAzar

(C) Malaria (D) Filariasis

8. All are true about Hepatitis B virus EXCEPT:

(A) Most common cause of chronic infection
(B) Most common mode of spread is blood transfusion
(C) Vaccine contains live attenuated virus
(D) Risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma
9. Most common cause of fulminant hepatic failure is?
(A) Hepatitis A (B) Hepatitis B
(C) Hepatitis C (D) Hepatitis D
10. Vertical transmission of Hepatitis B in pregnancy can be assessed by?
 (A) WBC (B) HBcAg

(C) HBVDNA (D) LFT

11. Most common cause of chronic type II respiratory failure is?

(A) Acute asthma (B) COPD
(C) Pneumonia (D) Pneumothorax
12. ARDS is common in?

(A) Pregnancy (B) Old age

(C) Coal worker (D) Health care worker
13. Chronic pulmonary complication of pulmonary tuberculosis is?

(A) Caries spine (B) Laryngitis

(C) Aspergilloma (D) Empyema necessitans
14. Smoking have protective effect on?
(A) Infection colitis (B) Crohn's disease
(C) Ulcerative colitis (D) Radiation colitis
15. Which of the following is recommended in the treatment of acute diarrhea?
(A) Magnesium (B) Zinc
(C) Calcium (D) Iron
16. Diarrhoea responding to prolonged fasting is supposed to be of?
(A) Osmotic diarrhoea (B) Secretory diarrhoea
(C) Inflammatory diarrhoea (D) Infective Diarrhoea
17. Stress ulcer can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Burns
(B) Severe trauma
(C) Chronic use of NSAIDs
(D) Increased intracranial pressure
18. TIBC is increased in?
(A) Hemolytic anemia (B) Megaloblastic anemia
(C) Iron deficiency anemia (D) Anemia of chronic disease

19. Which of the following is a major risk factor of Atherosclerosis?

(A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Type A personality

(C) Physical inactivity (D) Unsaturated fatty diet

20. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy causes?

(A) Arterial dysfunction only
 (B) Systolic dysfunction only
(C) Diastolic dysfunction only
(D) Both systolic and diastolic dysfunction
21. Most common cause of Hirsutism is?
(A) Idiopathic
(B) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
(C) Oral contraceptive pill
(D) Cushing syndrome
22. True regarding hyponatremia in diabetic ketoacidosis is?
(A) Level of blood sugar should be taken into consideration before correction
hyponatremia
(B) 3% saline is ideal fluid for correction
(C) Hyponatremia is always symptomatic in beginning
(D) Hyponatremia is worsened by administration of insulin
23. Which of the following is not true about Hypoaldosteronism?
(A) Decreased sodium (B) Increased potassium
(C) Decreased glucose (D) Metabolic acidosis
24. Which is a laboratory feature of SIADH?

(A) Deceased urine osmolarity (B) Increased urine sodium level

(C) Increased serum osmolarity (D) Increased serum sodium level
25. Less than 1% fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) is typically seen in?

(A) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (B) Acute gastroenteritis

(C) Acute interstitial nephritis (D) NSAIDs induced renal injury
26. Chronic ambulatory peritoneal dialysis is performed?

(A) Once a week (B) Twice a week

(C) Thrice a week (D) Thrice a day
27. Which vascular access for hemodialysis has highest long term patency rate?
(A) Arteriovenous graft
(B) Arteriovenous fistula
(C) Double lumen jugular catheter
(D) Tunneled double lumen jugular catheter
28. Acute nephritis is presenting manifestation of?
(A) Minimal change disease
(B) Membraneous glomerulopathy
(C) Wegener granulomatosis
(D) Amyloidosis

29. RBC casts are typically seen in?

(A) Nephrotic syndrome

(B) Acute nephritic syndrome
(C) Acute tubular necrosis
 (D) Acute interstitial nephritis

30. Which of the following is associated with renal scars?

(A) Lithium associated nephropathy

(B) Reflux nephropathy
(C) Chronic glomerulonephritis
(D) Light chain cast nephropathy

31. Pickwickian syndrome is a complication of?

(A) Vertebral deformity (B) Obesity

(C) High blood pressure (D) Raised blood sugar

32. Pickwickian syndrome risk factor is?

(A) Vertigo (B) Obstructive sleep apnea

(C) Diabetes (D) None

33. Metabolic syndrome involves?

(A) Resistin (B) Adiponectin

(C) IL6 (D) IL2

34. Stem cell transplant with gene therapy done in?

(A) Cystic fibrosis (B) Thalassemia

(C) Sickle cell disease (D) SCID

35. Jamaican vomiting sickness is due to?

(A) Ricin (B) Hypoglycin

(C) Abernin (D) Strychnine

36. Most common inherited peripheral neuropathy is?

(A) Refsum's disease (B) Charcot marie tooth 1

(C) Farber's disease (D) Fabry disease

37. Which of the following is not a sign of upper motor neuron lesion?

(A) Spasticity (B) Hyperactive tendon reflex

(C) Positive Babinski sign (D) Denervation pattern of EMG

38. Which HIV subtype is most common in India?

(A) A (B) B

(C) C (D) D

39. Best confirmatory serological test for syphilis is?

(A) VDRL (B) TPPA

(C) TPHA (D) FTA-ABS

40. CO2 level in kPa above which brain stem death is confirmed?

(A) 1 (B) 3

(C) 5 (D) 6.5