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: 2 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

Q1-Q.5 carry one mark each

01. The volume of a sphere of diameter 1 unit is _____ than the volume of a cube of side 1 unit.
(A) least (B) less
(C) lesser (D) low

01. Ans: (C)


Sol: Lesser than is apt because the sentence should be in comparative degree.

02. The unruly crowd demanded that the accused be ____ without trial.
(A) hanged (B) hanging
(C) hankering (D) hung

02. Ans: (A)


Sol: hanged means death by hanging hung is used only with things and not with people.

03. Choose the statement(s) where the underlined word is used correctly:
(i) A prone is a dried plum.
(ii) He was lying prone on the floor.
(iii) People who eat a lot of fat are Prone to heart disease.
(A) (i) and (iii) only (B) (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only (D) (ii) and (iii) only

03. Ans: (D)


Sol: lying prone means lie down flat. Prone to means vulnerable to.

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: 3 : ME Set - 02

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: 4 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

04. Fact: If it rains, then the field is wet.


Read the following statements:
(i) It rains (ii) The field is not wet
(iii) The field is wet (iv) It did not rain
Which one of the options given below is NOT logically possible, based on the given fact?
(A)If (iii), then (iv) (B) If (i), then (iii)
(C) If (i), then (ii) (D) If (ii), then (iv)

04. Ans: (C)


Sol: Statements i and ii are not logically possible based on the given fact.

05. A window is made up of a square portion and an equilateral triangle portion above it. The base of
the triangular portion coincides with the upper side of the square. If the perimeter of the window is
6m, the area of the window in m2 is ___
(A) 1.43 (B) 2.06
(C) 2.68 (D) 2.88

05. Ans: (B)


Sol: From the given data, the following window is possible

The perimeter of the window = 5x = 6 m x x


6
x 1.20 m
5
Area of the window x x

= Area of square + Area of le

3 x
1.2 1.2 (1.2) 2
4
= 1.44 + 0.623 = 2.06 m2

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: 5 : ME Set - 02

Q.6-Q.10 carry two marks each

06. Students taking an exam are divided into two groups, P and Q such that each group has the same
number of students. The performance of each of the students in a test was evaluated out of 200
marks. It was observed that the mean of group P was 105, while that of group Q was 85. The
standard deviation of group P was 25, while that of group Q was 5. Assuming that the marks were
distributed on a normal distribution, which of the following statements will have the highest
probability of being TRUE?
(A) No student in group Q scored less marks than any student in group P.
(B) No student in group P scored less marks than any student in group Q.
(C) Most students of group Q scored marks in a narrower range than students in group P.
(D) The median of the marks of group P is 100.

06. Ans: (C)


Sol: Group P
Mean () = 105
Standard deviation (1) = 25

Pr ( x + ) 0.6827
68% within one standard deviation
1 1 = 105 25 = 80
1 + 1 = 105 + 25 = 130
range = 80 to 130
Distribution of P:

68% within one standard deviation of P

80 105 130

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: 6 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

Group Q
Mean (2) = 85
Standard deviation (2) = 5

Pr ( x + ) 0.6827
68% within one standard deviation
2 2 = 85 5 = 80
2 + 2 = 85 + 5 = 90
Range of Q in one standard deviation is 80 to 90

Distribution of Q

68% within one standard


deviation of Q

80 85 90

68% within one standard deviation of Q is narrower


68% within one standard deviation of Q means most students of group Q.
Most students of group Q scored marks in a narrower range than students in group P

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: 7 : ME Set - 02

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: 8 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

07. A smart city integrates all modes of transport, uses clean energy and promotes sustainable use of
resources. It also uses technology to ensure safety and security of the city, something which critics
argue, will lead to a surveillance state.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above paragraph?
(i) All smart cities encourage the formation of surveillance states
(ii) Surveillance is an integral part of a smart city.
(iii) Sustainability and surveillance go hand in hand in a smart city.
(iv) There is a perception that smart cities promote surveillance.
(A) (i) and (iv) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iv) only (D) (i) only

07. Ans: (B)

08. Find the missing sequence in the letter series B,FH,LNP,------


(A) SUWY (B) TUVW
(C) TVXZ (D) TWXZ

08. Ans: (C)


Sol: The following letter series is in the order of even letters series

+4 +2 +4 +2 +2 +4

B, F H, L N P,------- TVXZ

09. The binary operation is defined as a b = ab + (a + b), where a and b are any two real numbers.
The value of the identity element of this operation, defined as the number x such that a x = a, for
any a, is ___.
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 10

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: 9 : ME Set - 02

09. Ans: (A)


Sol: The binary operation is defined
a b = ab + (a+b)
a x=a
From the equation b is the variable
Option A: x = 0
a o = a 0 + (a + 0) = 0 + a = a
Option B: x = 1
a 1 = a 1 + (a + 1) = a + a + 1 = 2a + 1
Option C: x = 2
A 2 a 2 + (a + 2) = 2a + a + 2 = 3a+ 2
Option D: x = 10
a 10 a 10 + (a + 10) = 10a + a + 10 = 11 a + 10
Option A only True.

sin x
10. Which of the following curves represents the function y ln e for x 2 ?

Here, x represents the abscissa and y represents the ordinate.
(A) 1.5
(B) 1.5
1 1
0.5 0.5
2 2 2
0 0
2
0.5 0.5
1 1
1.5 1.5

(C) 1.2 (D) 1.2


1 1
0.8 0.6
0.5 0.5
0.4
0.4
0.2
0.2
2 0 2
2 0 2
10. Ans: (C)
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: 10 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

Q1. Q.25 carry one mark each

01. The condition for which the eigenvalues of the matrix


2 1
A= are positive, is
1 k
(A) k > 1/2 (B) k > 2
(C) k >0 (D) k < 1/2

01. Ans: (A)


2 1
Sol: A
1 k
If 1 , 2 are eigen values of A22 then |A| = 1 2
|A| = 2k 1
1 , 2 > 0
2k 1 > 0
1
k
2
x 2 3x 4
02. The values of x for which the function f ( x ) is NOT continuous are
x 2 3x 4
(A) 4 and 1 (B) 4 and 1
(C) 4 and 1 (D) 4 and 1

02. Ans: (C)


x 2 3x 4
Sol: The function, f ( x ) 2 is not defined at x = 1 and x = 4.
x 3x 4
The function f(x) is not continuous at x = 4, 1.

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: 11 : ME Set - 02

03. Laplace transform of cos(t) is


s
(A) (B)
s 2
2
s 2
2

s
(C) (D)
s 2
2
s 2
2

03. Ans: (A)


s
Sol: L {cos(t)} =
s 2
2

s
L{cos(at )} 2
s a2

04. A function f of the complex variable z = x +iy, is given as f(x,y) = u(x,y) + iv(x,y), where u(x,y) =
2kxy and v(x,y) = x2 y2. The value of k, for which the function is analytic, is ___

04. Ans: 1
Sol: Given, u = 2kxy & v = x2 y2
ux = vy
2ky = 2y
k = 1

05. Numerical integration using trapezoidal rule gives the best result for a single variable function,
which is
(A) linear (B) Parabolic
(C) logarithmic (D) hyperbolic

05. Ans: (A)


Sol: f(x) is a linear function

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: 12 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

06. A point mass having mass M is moving with a velocity V at an angle to the wall as shown in the
figure. The mass undergoes a perfectly elastic collision with the smooth wall and rebounds. The
total change (final minus initial) in the momentum of the mass is

y, j

y, i

(A) 2MVcos j (B) 2MVsin j

(C) 2MVcos j (D) 2MVsin j

06. Ans: (D)



Sol: U V cos i V sin j
V
V V cos i V sin j


mv m V U = 2 mV sin j

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: 13 : ME Set - 02

07. A shaft with a circular cross-section is subjected to pure twisting moment. The ratio of the
maximum shear stress to the largest principal stress is
(A) 2.0 (B) 1.0
(C) 0.5 (D) 0

07. Ans: (B)


max 1=
Sol: 1
1
max=

1=

08. A thin cylindrical pressure vessel with closed-ends is subjected to internal pressure. The ratio of
circumferential (hoop) stress to the longitudinal stress is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50
(C) 1.0 (D) 2.0

08. Ans: (D)


Pd

h 2t
Sol: 2
Pd

4t

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: 14 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

09. The force F1 and F2 in a brake band and the direction of rotation of the drum are as shown in the
figure. The coefficient of friction is 0.25. The angle of wrap is 3/2 radians. It is given that R = 1 m
and F2 = 1N. The torque (in N-m) exerted on the drum is ___

F2

F1

09. Ans: 2.248


3
F 0.25
Sol: 1 e = e 2
= 3.248
F2

F1 = 3.248N
Torque, T = (F1F2)r
= (3.2481)1= 2.248 N-m

10. A single degree of freedom mass-spring viscous damper system with mass m, spring constant k
and viscous damping coefficient q is critically damped. The correct relation among m, k and q is
(A) q 2km (B) q 2 km

2k k
(C) q (D) q 2
m m
10. Ans: (B)
Sol: critical damping constant = 2 km
q 2 km

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: 15 : ME Set - 02

11. A machine element XY, fixed at end X, is subjected to an axial load P, transverse load F, and a
twisting moment T at its free end Y. The most critical point from the strength point of view is

F
T
P
X Y

(A) a point on the circumference at location Y


(B) a point at the center at location Y
(C) a point on the circumference at location X
(D) a point at the center at location X

11. Ans: (C)


Sol: F
T

P
x
y

t t
X t Y t
b b

Element Y(b = 0)

At centre b = 0 and torsional shear stress are zero.

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: 16 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

12. For the brake shown in the figure, which one of the following is TRUE?

F
Brake shoe

Brake drum

(A) Self energizing for clockwise rotation of the drum


(B) Self energizing for anti-clockwise rotation of the drum
(C) Self energizing for rotation in either direction of the drum
(D) Not of the self energizing type

12. Ans: (A)


Sol: l
F
x

For clockwise rotation


MPIVOT = 0 a RN
RN

+ Fl RNx + RNa = 0 Pivot

When applied moment and frictional moment are in same direction is called self energizing brake.

13. The volumetric flow rate (per unit depth) between two streamlines having stream functions 1 &
2 is
(A) 1 2 (B) 12

(C) 1/2 (D) 1 2

13. Ans: (D)

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: 17 : ME Set - 02

14. Assuming constant temperature condition and air to be an ideal gas, the variation in atmospheric
pressure with height calculated from fluid statics is
(A) linear (B) exponential
(C) quadratic (D) cubic

14. Ans: (A)

15. A hollow cylinder has length L, inner radius r1, outer radius r2 , and thermal conductivity k. The
thermal resistance of the cylinder for radial conduction is
lnr2 / r1 ln r1 / r2
(A) (B)
2kL 2kL
2kL 2kL
(C) (D)
lnr2 / r1 lnr1 / r2

15. Ans: (A)

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: 18 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

16. Consider the radiation heat exchange inside an annulus between two very long concentric
cylinders. The radius of the outer cylinder is Ro and that of the inner cylinder is Ri. The radiation
view factor of the outer cylinder onto itself is

Ri Ri
(A) 1 (B) 1
Ro Ro
1/ 3
R Ri
(C) 1 i (D) 1
Ro Ro

16. Ans: (D)


Sol:
2
1
Ri

Ro

F11 = 0, F12 = 1
A1 2 R i L R
F21 F12 1 i
A2 2 R o L Ro

Ri
F22 1 F21 1
Ro

17. The internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of


(A) temperature and pressure (B) volume and pressure
(C) entropy and pressure (D) temperature only

17. Ans: (D)

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: 19 : ME Set - 02

18. The heat removal rate from a refrigerated space and the power input to the compressor are 7.2 kW
and 1.8 kW, respectively. The coefficient of performance (COP) of the refrigerator is __

18. Ans: 4
Sol: NRE = 7.2 kW
W = 1.8 kW
NRF 7.2
COP 4
W 1.8

19. Consider a simple gas turbine (Brayton) cycle and a gas turbine cycle with perfect regeneration. In
both the cycles, the pressure ratio is 6 and the ratio of the specific heats of the working medium is
1.4. The ratio of minimum to maximum temperatures is 0.3 (with temperature expressed in K) in
the regenerative cycle. The ratio of the thermal efficiency of the simple cycle to that of the
regenerative cycle is ____

19. Ans: 0.803


Tmin
Sol: 0 .3
Tmax
Pressure ratio = rp = 6
= 1.4
1 0.4
1
1 1.4
th B 1
r
= 1 = 0.4
p 6

th Ideal regen 1 Tmin rp


1

Tmax
1.4 1
= 1 0.3 6 1.4
= 0.49816
th B 0 .4
0.803
th IR 0.498

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: 20 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

20. In a single-channel queuing model, the customer arrival rate is 12 per hour and the serving rate is
24 per hour. The expected time that a customer is in queue is ___ minutes.

20. Ans: 2.5


Sol: = 12 hr1
= 24 hr1
12
Ww =
2424 12
1
= 60 2.5 minutes
24

21. In the phase diagram shown in the figure, four samples of the same composition are heated to
temperatures marked by a, b, c and d

700
Temperature (Arbitrary Units)

650 d L
+
600 c

550 b

500 a

450
0 5 10 15
Composition (Arbitrary Units)

At which temperature will a sample get solutionzed the fastest?


(A) a (B) b
(C) c (D) d

21. Ans: (C)


Sol: For aluminium alloy solution hardening process will be used to increase strength and hardness. In
this process component will be heated to 550C above temperature so that solute particles can
penetrate into the lattice easily.

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: 21 : ME Set - 02

22. The welding process which uses a blanket of fusible granular flux is
(A) tungsten inert gas welding (B) submerged arc welding
(C) electroslag welding (D) thermit welding

22. Ans: (B)


Sol: In submerged arc welding, the arc is completely submerged inside the granular flux powder
and forming as blanket.

23. The value of true strain produced in compressing a cylinder to half its original length is
(A) 0.69 (B) 0.69
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.5

23. Ans: (B)


L
L
change in length 2
Sol: Engg. strain = = = 0.5L/L = 0.5
original length L

True strain = ln(1+e) = ln(10.5)


= 0.69

24. The following data is applicable for a turning operation. The length of job is 900 mm, diameter of
job is 200 mm, feed rate is 0.25 mm/rev and optimum cutting speed is 300 m/min. The machining
time (in min) is ___

24. Ans: 7.53


Sol: N = Rpm of job
1000V 1000 300
= = = 477.7 rpm
D 200

L 900
Time for machining = = = 7.53 min
f .N 0.25 477.7

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: 22 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

25. In an ultrasonic machining (USM) process, the material removal rate (MRR) is plotted as a
function of the feed force of the USM tool. With increasing feed force, the MRR exhibits the
following behaviour:
(A) increases linearly (B) decreases linearly
(C) does not change (D) first increases and then decreases

25. Ans: (D)


Sol: With increase of feed force, the material removal rate MRR is first increases and then
decreases.

Q. 26-Q.55 carry two marks each

26. A scalar potential has the following gradient: yzi xzj xyk . Consider the integral

C
.d r on the curve r x i yj zk . The curve C is parameterized as follows:

xt

y t and 1 t 3.
2

z 3t 2

The value of the integral is ___

26. Ans: 726


Sol: line integral
3
L.I f d r
c
yzdx xzdy xydz
t 1

3
d xyz xyzt 1 3t 5
3
3
t 1 726
t 1

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: 23 : ME Set - 02

3z 5
27. The value of z 1z 2 dZ along a closed path is equal to (4i), where z = x+iy and i

1 .

The correct path is

(A) y (B) y

x
x 0 1 2
0 1 2

(C) (D) y
y

x
x 0
0 1 1 2
2

27. Ans: (B)


Sol: LThe correct path is given in option (B).
3z 5

z 2 dz 2i 3z 5 4i
c z 1 z 2
z 1

28. The probability that a screw manufactured by a company is defective is 0.1. The company sells
screws in packets containing 5 screws and gives a guarantee of replacement if one or more screws
in the packet are found to be defective. The probability that a packet would have to be replaced is
________.

28. Ans: 0.41


Sol: we require P(x1) = 1 P(x=0)
= 1 5C0 (0.1)0 (0.9)5 = 0.4095 0.41
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: 24 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session


29. The error in numerically computing the integral sin x cos x dx
0
using the trapezoidal rule with

three intervals of equal length between 0 and is______

29. Ans: 0.1862



Sol: I sin x cos x dx
0

x 0 2
3 3
f(x) 1 1
3 3
2 2

ba 0
h
n 3 3
By trapezoidal rule, we have

h
f x dx 2 y
0
0 y 3 2y1 y 2

3 3
1 1 2
6 2 2

= 1.813799364 (approximate value)


By Exact method

I sin x cosx dx
0

cosx sin x 0

= cos(0) cos() + sin () sin 0


= 1 (1) = 2 (Exact value)
Error = Exact value approximate value
= 2 1.813799364 = 0.1862
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: 25 : ME Set - 02

30. A mass of 2000 kg is currently being lowered at a velocity of 2 m/s from the drum as shown in the
figure. The mass moment of inertia of the drum is 150 kg-m2. On applying the brake, the mass is
brought to rest in a distance of 0.5 m. The energy absorbed by the brake (in kJ) is ____

2m

2 m/s

2000 kg

30. Ans: (14.11 kJ)

Sol: K.ET =
1
2

m V12 V22
=
1
2

2000 2 2 0
= 4000 J

K.ER =
1
2

I 12 22
=
1
2

150 2 2 0
= 300 J
P.E = mgh
= 20009.810.5
= 9810 J
Total, E = 4000 + 300 + 9810
= 14110 J = 14.11 kJ

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: 26 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

31. A system of particles in motion has mass center G as shown in the figure. The particle i has mass
mi and its position with respect to a fixed point O is given by the position vector ri. The position of
the particle with respect to G is given by the vector i . The time rate of change of the angular
momentum of the system of particles about G is
(The quantity i indicates second derivative of i with respect to time and likewise for ri).

System boundary
mi

G
r1

r
O

(A) iri mi i (B) ii mi ri

(C) iri mi ri (D) ii mi


i

31. Ans: (B)

32. A rigid horizontal rod of length 2L is fixed to a circular cylinder of radius R as shown in the figure.
Vertical forces of magnitude P are applied at the two ends as shown in the figure. The shear
modulus for the cylinder is G and the Youngs modulus is E.

L
R

P
L

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: 27 : ME Set - 02

The vertical deflection at point A is



(A) PL3 / R 4G
(B) PL3 / R 4 E

(C) 2PL3 / R 4 E (D) 4PL3 / R 4G

32. Ans: (D)


Sol: T = P(2L) = 2PL


TL

2PL L = 32 2PL2 y

GJ G 2R 4 GR 4 16 R
32
4PL2
Q=
GR 4
4PL3
y = R =
GR 4

33. A simply supported beam of length 2L is subjected to a moment M at the mid-point x =0 as


shown in the figure. The deflection in the domain 0 x L is given by
Mx
W L x x c
12EIL
Where E is the Youngs modulus, I is the area moment of inertia and c is a constant (to be
determined).

y
M
x

L L

The slope at the center x = 0 is


(A) ML/(2EI) (B) ML/(3EI)
(C) ML/(6EI) (D) ML/(12EI)

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: 28 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

33. Ans: (C)


Sol:
1 First moment of area M
BA =
EI APB about B 2EI
y x
B
1 M 1 2L ML2 A
= L =
EI 2 2 3 6EI M
2EI P
BA ML
Slope at A =
L 6EI
BA
(at A x=0 , W = 0 so slope = )
L

34. In the figure, the load P = 1 N, length L = 1 m, Youngs modulus E = 70 GPa, and the cross-section
of the links is a square with dimension 10 mm 10 mm. All joints are pin joints.

L C

45o

45o B

P
L

The stress (in Pa) in the link AB is _____


(Indicate compressive stress by a negative sign and tensile stress by a positive sign)

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: 29 : ME Set - 02

34. Ans: 0
Sol: Pcos45 = FBcos45
FBC
FBC = P
Fy = FBCsin45 = Pcos45 + FAB 450 450

1 P 450
P FAB P
2 2
FAB
FAB = 0
AB = 0

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: 30 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

35. A circular metallic rod of length 250 mm is placed between two rigid immovable walls as shown in
the figure. The rod is in perfect contact with the wall on the left side and there is a gap of 0.2 mm
between the rod and the wall on the right side. If the temperature of the rod is increased by 200oC,
the axial stress developed in the rod is ______MPa.
Youngs modulus of the material of the rod is 200 GPa and the coefficient of thermal expansion is
105 per oC.

250 mm 0.2 mm

35. Ans: 239.8 MPa



Sol: t 250 105 200
1
= 0.5mm gap
2
P
Deformation prevented = 0.5 0.2 = 0.3 =
AE
250 0.2
0.3 =
200 10 3
= 239.8 MPa

36. The rod AB, of length 1 m, shown in the figure is connected to two sliders at each end through
pins. The sliders can slide along QP and QR. If the velocity VA of the slider at A is 2 m/s, the
velocity of the midpoint of the rod at this instant is __ m/s.

P
VA

60o 60o
R
Q
B

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: 31 : ME Set - 02

36. Ans: 1m/sec


Sol: Locate the I-centre for the link AB as shown in fig. M is the mid point of AB
Given VA = 2m/sec

VA QB
A
30o I
QA
V M
VA IA. A 30o
IA 60o 60o B
Q VB
VA IM
VM IM. IM .VA
IA IA
1
sin 30 o.VA .2 1m / sec
2

37. The system shown in the figure consists of block A of mass 5 kg connected to a spring through a
massless rope passing over pulley B of radius r and mass 20 kg. The spring constant k is 1500 N/m.
If there is no slipping of the rope over the pulley, the natural frequency of the system is __ rad/s.

B
r

A
k

37. Ans: 10 rad/sec


1 1
Sol: KE mx 2 I 2
2 2
x
m=5kg,
r

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: 32 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

20 r 2
I 10r 2
2
1 2 1 x 2 1
KE 5x 10r 2 . 2 15x 2
2 2 r 2
m eq 15

1 2
PE kx
2
k eq k 1500 N / m

k eq 1500
Natural frequency n 10rad / sec
meq 15

38. In a structural member under fatigue loading, the minimum and maximum stresses developed at the
critical point are 50 MPa and 150 MPa, respectively. The endurance, yield, and the ultimate
strengths of the material are 200 MPa, 300 MPa, and 400 MPA, respectively. The factor of safety
using modified Goodman criterion is
3 8 12
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2
2 5 7

38. Ans: (D)


Sol: max = 150 MPa, min = 50 MPa
Se = 200 MPa, Syt = 300 MPa,
Sut = 400 MPa
max min 150 50
a 50 MPa
2 2
max min 150 50
m 100 MPa Goodmans equation :
2 2
a m 1 50 100 1
FS 2
Se S ut FS 200 400 FS

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: 33 : ME Set - 02

39. The large vessel shown in the figure contains oil and water. A body is submerged at the interface of
oil and water such that 45 percent of its volume is in oil while the rest is in water. The density of
the body is ___ kg/m3.
The specific gravity of oil is 0.7 and density of water is 1000 kg/m3.
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2.

Oil

Water

39. Ans: 865


Sol: bg.V = oil g 0.45 V + waterg0.55 V
b = 865 kg/m3

40. Consider fluid flow between two infinite horizontal plates which are parallel (the gap between
them being 50 mm). The top plate is sliding parallel to the stationary bottom plate at a speed of 3
m/s. The flow between the plates is solely due to the motion of the top plate. The force per unit
area (magnitude) required to maintain the bottom plate stationary is ___ N/m2.
Viscosity of the fluid = 0.44 kg/m-s and density = 888 kg/m3.

40. Ans: 26.4 N/m2


F V 0.44 3
Sol: = 3
= 26.4 N/m2
A y 50 10

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: 34 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

41. Consider a frictionless, massless and leak-proof blocking a rectangular hole of dimensions 2R L
at the bottom of an open tank as shown in the figure. The head of the plug has the shape of a semi-
cylinder of radius R. The tank is filled with a liquid of density up to the tip of the plug. The
gravitational acceleration is g. Neglect the effect of the atmospheric pressure.

g
R R R

F F
Sectional view A-A A

The force F required to hold the plug in its position is



(A) 2R 2gL1 (B) 2R 2gL1
4 4
2
(C) R 2gL (D) R gL
2
41. Ans: (A)
Sol: C D
B

A E

Force required to balance hydrostatic force


FV=[(Volume)Rectangle (Volume)Semicircle)]g

FV = [2R R L R .L ]g
2


= 2R2gL 1
4

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: 35 : ME Set - 02

42. Consider a parallel-flow heat exchanger with area Ap and a counter-flow heat exchanger with area
Ac. In both the heat exchangers, the hot stream flowing at 1 kg/s cools from 80oC to 50oC. For the
cold stream in both the heat exchangers, the flow rate and the inlet temperature are 2 kg/s and
10oC, respectively. The hot and cold streams in both the heat exchangers are of the same fluid.
Also, both the heat exchangers have the same overall heat transfer coefficient. The ratio Ac/Ap is
____

42. Ans: 0.9278


h 1kg / s, m
Sol: m c 2kg / s

Th 1 80o C, Th 2 50o C

TC1 10o C, TC 2 ?

Heat lost by hot fluid = Heat gained by cold fluid



h c p Th1 Th 2 m
m
c c p Tc 2 Tc1

1 80 50 2 Tc 2 10
Tc 2 25o C

80C 80C

50C 1=55C
1=70C 2=25C 25C
25C 50C
2=40C
10C 10C

Parallel flow Heat exchanger Counter flow Heat exchanger

LMTD P.F T1 T2 80 10 50 25
T 80 10
ln 1 ln
T2 50 25

= 43.7054

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: 36 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

LMTD C.F T1 T2
80 25 50 10
T 80 25
ln 1 ln
T2 50 10

= 47.1026
( Q ) C . F (Q ) P . F

U(A) C.F (LMTD) C.F U (A) P.F (LMTD) P.F

( A ) C. F
43.7054 / 47.1026 0.9278
( A ) P .F

43. Two cylindrical shafts A and B at the same initial temperature are simultaneously placed in a
furnace. The surfaces of the shafts remain at the furnace gas temperature at all times after they are
introduced into the furnace. The temperature variation in the axial direction of the shafts can be
assumed to be negligible. The data related to shafts A and B is given in the following Table.

Quantity Shaft A Shaft B


Diameter (m) 0.4 0.1
Thermal conductivity (W/m-K) 40 20
Volumetric heat capacity (J/m3-K) 2 106 2 107

The temperature at the centerline of the shaft A reaches 400C after two hours. The time required
(in hours) for the centerline of the shaft B to attain the temperature of 400C is _______

43. Ans: 5 hrs


hA s t
T T VC
Sol: e p
Ti T

CP A 2 106 J/m3K, Cp B 2 107 J/m3K


dA = 0.4 m, dB = 0.1 m
tA = 2hrs = 2 3600 = 7200 sec
hA = hB
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: 37 : ME Set - 02

hA s hA s
t t
VC
p A VCp B

0.4 L 7200
tB
0 .1 L t = 18000 secs = 5 hrs

2 10 6 0.4 2 L 2 10 7 0.12 L

4 A 4 B

44. A piston-cylinder device initially contains 0.4 m3 of air (to be treated as an ideal gas) at 100 kPa
and 80C. The air is now isothermally compressed to 0.1m3. The work done during this process is
________ kJ.
(Take the sign convention such that work done on the system is negative)

44. Ans: 55.45 kJ


V
Sol: 1 W2 P1V1 n 2
V1
0.1
= 100 0.4 n
0.4
= 55.45 kJ

45. A reversible cycle receives 40 kJ of heat from one heat source at a temperature of 127oC and 37 kJ
from another heat source at 97oC. The heat rejected (in kJ) to the heat sink at 47oC is ___

45. Ans: 64 kJ
Sol:
T1 = 400 K T2 = 370 K

Q1 = 40 kJ Q2 = 37 kJ
E
Q3

T3 = 320 K

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: 38 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

Applying Classius inequality


Q
T
0

Q1 Q 2 Q 3
0
T1 T2 T3
40 37 Q 3
0
400 370 320
Q3
0.1 + 0.1 0
320
Q3 = 0.2 320= 64 kJ

46. A refrigerator uses R-134a as its refrigerant and operates on an ideal vapour-compression
refrigeration cycle between 0.14 MPa and 0.8 MPa. If the mass flow rate of the refrigerant is 0.05
kg/s, the rate of heat rejection to the environment is ____ kW.
Given data:
At P = 0.14 MPa, h = 236.04 kJ/kg, s = 0.9322 kJ/kg-K
At P = 0.8 MPa, h = 272.05 kJ/kg (superheated vapour)
At P = 0.8 MPa, h =93.42 kJ (saturated liquid)

46. Ans: 8.9315 kW


kJ
Sol: h 2 272.05 T
kg 2

kJ 0.8MPa
h 3 h 4 93.42 3
kg
kJ
h1 236.04
kg
4 0.14MPa 1
mr = 0.05 kg/sec
s
kg kJ
Heat Rejected = m r h 2 h 3
sec kg
= 0.05 (272.05 93.42) = 8.9315 kW
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: 39 : ME Set - 02

47. The partial pressure of water vapour in a moist air sample of relative humidity 70% is 1.6 kPa, the
total pressure being 101.325 kPa. Moist air may be treated as an ideal gas mixture of water vapour
and dry air. The relation between saturation temperature (Ts in K) and saturation pressure (ps in
kPa) for water is given by ln(ps/po) = 14.317 5304/Ts, where po = 101.325 kPa. The dry bulb
temperature of the moist air sample (in oC) is ___

47. Ans: 19.89C


Sol: = 0.7 , P0 = 101.325
Pv P
Psat v
Psat
1.6
Psat 2.28571 kPa
0.7
Corresponding to saturation pressure what ever is the temperature is the DBT
P 5304
ln S 14.317
P0 Tsat

2.28571 5304
n 14.317
101.325 Tsat

5304
3.7916 14.317
Tsat
5304
TSat
18.1086
= 292.898 K = 19.89C

48. In a binary system of A and B, a liquid of 20% A (80% B) is coexisting with a solid of 70% A
(30%B). For an overall composition having 40% A, the fraction of solid is
(A) 0.40 (B) 0.50
(C) 0.60 (D) 0.75

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: 40 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

48. Ans: (A)


Sol: Weight of the liquid of A = WLA = la Wl = 0.2 Wl (Where Wl is Weight of total liquid)
Weight of solid of A = WSA = Sa (WT Wl) = 0.7 (WT Wl)
WA = 0.2 Wl + 0.7 (WT Wl)
WA = 0.7 WT 0.5Wl
WA W
0.7 0.5
WT WT
0.4 = 0.7 0.5 (% Wl)
(0.5) (% Wl) = 0.3
3
(% Wl) =
5
3
(% Ws) = 1
5
= 0.4

49. Gray cast iron blocks of size 100 mm 50 mm 10 mm with a central spherical cavity of diameter
4 mm are sand cast. The shrinkage allowance for the pattern is 3%. The ratio of the volume of the
pattern to volume of the casting is __

49. Ans: 0.913


Sol: Ratio of volume of pattern to casting
0.97 100 0.97 50 0.97 10
= = 0.913
100 50 10
Volume of cavity is assumed to be small and negligible.

50. The voltage length characteristic of a direct current arc in an arc welding process is V = (100 +
40l), where l is the length of the arc in mm and V is arc voltage in volts. During a welding
operation, the arc length varies between 1 and 2 mm and the welding current is in the range 200-
250 A. Assuming a linear power source, the short circuit current is _____A.
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: 41 : ME Set - 02

50. Ans: 425


Sol: V = 100 + 40 L ,
L = 1 to 2 mm , I = 200 to 250 A
L = 1, I = 250
V0
V = 100 + 401 = 140 V0 250
Is

L = 2, I = 200
V0
V = 100 + 40 2 = 180 V0 200
Is

V0
40 50
Is

V0 40 4

I s 50 5

4
V0 140 250
5
= 140 + 200 = 340
V0 4 V 5 340 5
Is 0 425 A
Is 5 4 4

51. For a certain job, the cost of metal cutting is Rs. 18C/V and the cost of tooling is Rs. 270 C/(TV).
Where C is a constant, V is the cutting speed in m/min and T is the tool life in minutes. The
Taylors tool life equation is VT0.25 = 150. The cutting speed (in m/min) for the minimum total
cost is ____

51. Ans: 93.2


18C 270C
Sol: L m , Cg , VT0.25 = 150
V TV
n
n Lm
Vopt V C
1 n C g
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: 42 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

0.25
18C
0.25
150 V
270C
1 0.25
TV
0.25
0.25 18
150 T
1 0.25 270
0.25 0.25
1 18 150 4 1
150 4 15057.914 4
3 270 V V
1
V 150 57.914
V
V2 = 150 57.914
V = 93.2 m/min

52. The surface irregularities of electrodes used in an electrochemical machining (ECM) process are 3
m and 6 m as shown in the figure. If the work-piece is of pure iron and 12 V DC is applied
between the electrodes, the largest feed rate is ___ mm/min.

Conductivity of the electrolyte 0.02ohm1mm1


Over-potential voltage 1.5 V
Density of iron 7860 kg/m3
Atomic weight of iron 55.85 gm

Assume the iron to be dissolved as Fe+2 and the Faraday constant to be 96500 Coulomb.

Tool

6 m

Nominal Gap
3 m

Work-piece (Iron)

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: 43 : ME Set - 02

52. Ans: 51.542


1
0.009
L 0.02 50 0.009
Sol: R
Area Area Area
V 12 1.5 Area
I 23.333 Area
R 50 0.009
L = 3 + 6 = 9 m = 0.009
AI 55.85 23.333 Area
MRR = 0.98189 Area
ZF 7860 10 6 2 96500
MRR
0.8590 mm / sec 0.8590 60 mm / min = 51.542 mm/min
Area

53. For the situation shown in the figure below the expression for H in terms of r, R and D is

R H

(A) H D r 2 R 2 (B) H R r D r

(C) H R r D 2 R 2 (D) H R r 2DR r D 2

53. Ans: (D)


Sol: H = (R + r) + O2A
2
O 2 A O1O 2 O1 A 2
O2
R r 2 D R r 2
O1 H
2DR r D 2 A

H R r 2DR r D 2 D

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: 44 : GATE_2016_Afternoon Session

54. A food processing company uses 25,000 kg of corn flour every year. The quantity-discount price of
corn flour is provided in the table below:

Quantity (kg) Unit price (Rs/kg)


1-749 70
750-1499 65
1500 and above 60

The order processing charges are Rs. 500/order. The handling plus carry-over charge o an annual
basis is 20% of the purchase price of the corn flour per kg. The optimal order quantity (in kg) is
______
54. Ans: 1500
Sol: A = 25,000
S = 500
I = 0.2
C1 = 60

2AS
EDQ
C1 I

2 25000 500
=
60 0.2
= 1443 < 1500 units
Hence not the best order

EOQ is falling in the 750 1499 prime range


TACEOQ AC 2ACS I

25000 65 2 25000 65 500 0.2


= 1625000 + 18027.75
= 16,43,027.75
If 1500 kgs are ordered we get it at 60/-

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: 45 : ME Set - 02

A Q
TACQ AC S CI
Q 2

TAC1500 25000 60 25000 500 1500 60 0.2


1500 2
= 15,00,000 + 8333.33 + 9000 = 15, 17, 333.33
(TAC)1500 < (TAC)EOQ
Hence order 1500 units

55. A project consists of 14 activities, A to N. The duration of these activities (in days) are shown in
brackets on the network diagram. The latest finish time (in days) for node 10 is _______.

E(4)
3 10
B(3)
J(2) M(3)
6 8 K(3)
F(2)
A(2) C(4) L(2) N(2)
1 2 4 9 11 12
G(4) I(5)
D(2)
7 H(4)

55. Ans: 14
Sol:
5 9
3
4 10
3 8 10 14 3
6 8
0 2 10 12 15 17 19
2 11
2
1 2 4 9 12
4 10 5
0 2 15 17 19
2 7
4
10
4
5
13
(LFT) for node 10 = 14 days

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