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FIITJEE SAMPLE PAPER 2017

for students of
Class 12 Appeared
Paper 1
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am 12:30 pm) Maximum Marks: 417
Code 1300
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. This Question paper consists of 2 sections. All questions will be multiple choice single correct out of four
choices with marking scheme in table below:

Marking Scheme for each question


Section Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
Q. 1 to 24 +3 0
APTITUDE
SECTION I Q. 25 to 36 +4 0
TEST
Q. 37 to 45 +5 0
Q. 46 to 63 +3 0
PHYSICS Q. 64 to 68 +4 0
Q. 69 to 70 +5 0

SECTION II Q. 71 to 88 +3 0
(PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY CHEMISTRY Q. 89 to 93 +4 0
& MATHEMATICS) Q. 94 to 95 +5 0
Q. 96 to 113 +3 0
MATHEMATICS Q. 114 to 118 +4 0
Q. 119 to 120 +5 0

2. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
4. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.

Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 120 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

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Section-I APTITUDE TEST (AT)


Straight Objective Type
This section contains 45 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 45. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Directions (Q. 1 to 3): Find the missing number/letter of the series.

1. 3, 10, 38, 150, 598, __


(A) 1000 (B) 2390
(C) 2340 (D) 2490

2. 5, 11, 10, 13, 15, 15, ?


(A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 17 (D) 24

3. abca_bcaab_ca_bbc_a
(A) ccaa (B) bbaa
(C) abac (D) abba

Directions (4 to 5) : Select a figure from the alternative which when placed in the blank space of (X)
would complete the pattern.

4.

(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

5.

(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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6. In a certain code, the word LOTUS is codes as RTXXU, then how do we code the word
FLOWER?
(A) LQSZHT (B) MRTAHT
(C) OQTZHS (D) MQTAHR

7. If PANTHER is coded as 6901257 and DAMP is coded as 3946, then how is MATTER coded?
(A) 491156 (B) 491157
(C) 491158 (D) 491159

8. In a certain code language, PIC TOP BOO means DOGS ARE BEAUTIFUL, TOP SIG ZAP
means DOGS AND CATS, and KIP PIC RUM means MONKEYS ARE MAD. What is the code
for BEAUTIFUL in that code language?
(A) BOO (B) ZAP
(C) MAD (D) None of these

9. Anu and Vinay are ranked seventh and eleventh respectively from the top in a class of 31
students. What will be Vinays rank from the bottom in the class?
(A) 20 (B) 21
(C) 22 (D) 23

10. Rahul put his time piece on the table in such a way that a 6:00 pm hour hand points to North. In
which direction the minute hand will point at 9:15 pm?
(A) East (B) West
(C) North (D) South

11. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A B means A is the brother of B; A % B means A is the father
of B and A B means A is the sister of B. Which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle
of Q?
(A) Q N M P (B) P + S N Q
(C) P M + N Q (D) Q S % P

12. Kiran introduces Kapil saying, He is the husband of the grand-daughter of the father of my father
and my father is the only son to his father. How is Kiran related to Kapil?
(A) Son (B) Nephew
(C) Brother-in-law (D) Son-in-law

13. At what time, between 5:30 and 6:00, will the hands of the clock be at right angles?
7 7
(A) 43 min past 5 (B) 44 min past 5
11 11
7
(C) 45 min past 5 (D) None of these
11

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14. What is the angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the clock
shows 3 hr 20 min?
(A) 20 (B) 30
(C) 40 (D) 50

Directions (Q. 15 to 17): These questions are based on the given data.
A large cube is painted on all six faces and then cut into a certain number of smaller but identical cubes. It
was found that among the smaller cubes, there were eight cubes which had no face painted at all.

15. How many smaller cubes was the original large cube cut into?
(A) 27 (B) 48
(C) 64 (D) 125

16. How many small cubes have exactly one face painted?
(A) 12 (B) 24
(C) 16 (D) 32

17. How many small cubes have exactly two faces painted?
(A) 6 (B) 12
(C) 18 (D) 24

Directions (Q. 18 to 19): These questions are based on the following illustrations. Which are four views of a
cube.

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

18. The symbol at the bottom of (iv) is


(A) (B)
(C) (D)

19. The symbol opposite the face having the symbol is


(A) (B)
(C) (D)

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Directions (Q. 20 to 21): Each of the questions contain three objects. The relationship among these
three objects can be represented by one of the venn diagrams below. Identify the appropriate diagram
and write its serial number in the bracket provided.
(A) (B)
A B A B
C

(C) (D)
A B C A B

20. Dogs, Pets, Cats.

21. Male, Father, Brother.

Directions (Q. 22 to 23): In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (A) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (B) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (C) if either I or II follows.
Give answer (D) if neither I nor II follows.

22. Statement I : All shawls are carpets.


II No carpet is a pullover.
Conclusion I : No shawls are pullovers.
II : All carpets are shawls.

23. Statement I : All boys are honest.


II : Kiran is honest.
Conclusion I : Kiran is a boy.
II : All honest persons are boys.

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Directions (Q. 24 to 25): In each of the following questions. Find the minimum number of straight lines
required to make the given figure.

24.

(A) 9 (B) 11
(C) 15 (D) 16

25.

(A) 13 (B) 15
(C) 17 (D) 19

Directions (Q. 26 to 27): Find the missing character/number in each of the following questions.

26. ? 4
7

235 15

117 29
59
(A) 324 (B) 386
(C) 438 (D) 469

27. 3 7 1

6 25 2 11 70 8 4 12 5

4 6 ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 6 (D) 10

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Directions (Q. 28 to 32): A, B, C, D and E are five friends. Who stay in sea view apartments in Mumbai.
They are Doctor, Advocate, Banker, Engineer and Auditor but not in the same order.
(i) A plays cricket but is not an engineer.
(ii) D who is an auditor does not play hockey.
(iii) The Advocate and the Doctor are not interested in basketball.
(iv) B is an expert golf player but is not an Advocate.
(v) E finds time on Sunday morning to play tennis and he is a Banker.
(vi) C who does not like Golf is neither a Doctor nor an Advocate.

28. Who is a basketball player?


(A) A (B) C
(C) D (D) E

29. Who is a Doctor?


(A) B (B) D
(C) A (D) E

30. What is the profession of A?


(A) Doctor (B) Advocate
(C) Banker (D) Auditor

31. Who plays hockey?


(A) B (B) A
(C) E (D) C

32. Who plays Golf?


(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D

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Directions (Questions 33 to 37): The following questions are based on the information given below:
Data on 450 candidates, who took an examination in Social Science, Mathematics and Science is given
below:
Passed in all the subjects 167
Failed in all the subjects 60
Failed in Social Sciences 175
Failed in Mathematics 199
Failed in Science 191
Passed in Social Sciences only 62
Passed in Mathematics only 48
Passed in Science only 52

33. How many failed in Social Sciences only?


(A) 15 (B) 21
(C) 30 (D) 42

34. How many failed in one subject only?


(A) 152 (B) 144
(C) 61 (D) 56

35. How many passed in Mathematics and at least one more subject?
(A) 210 (B) 203
(C) 170 (D) 94

36. How many failed in two subjects only?


(A) 56 (B) 61
(C) 152 (D) 162

37. How many passed at least in one subject?


(A) 450 (B) 390
(C) 304 (D) 167

38. 2, 3, 5, 15, 65, 255, 1265, ?


(A) 5055 (B) 4042
(C) 2101 (D) 3018

39. 24, 30, 36, 42, 52, ______, 68, 78


(A) 55 (B) 60
(C) 62 (D) 65

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Direction (Question N. 40-42) Read the following questions are based on the information given below
A cuboid shaped woden block has 6 cm. length, 4 cm breadth and 1 cm height.
Two faces measuring 4 cm 1 cm are coloured in black
Two faces measuring 6 cm 1 cm are coloured in red
Two faces measuring 6 cm 4 cm are coloured in green
The block is divided into 6 equal cubes of sides 1 cm (from 6 cm 6 cm side), 4 equal cubes of side 1 cm
(from 4 cm side)

40. How many smaller cubes have atleast three of their faces coloured with different colours?
(A) 16 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 4

41. How many cubes will have 4 faces coloured faces and two non coloured faces?
(A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 16 (D) 10

42. How many cubes will have green colour on two sides and rest of the four sides having no colour?
(A) 12 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 4

Direction (Question N. 43-45) Read the following information carefully and answer the question given
below it.

Seven friends Kamla, Manish, Rohit, Amit, Gaurav, Pritam and Priya are sitting in a circle. Kamla, Manish,
Rohit, Amit, Pritam and Priya are sitting at equal distance from each other. Rohit is sitting two place right
of Pritam, Who is sitting are place right of Amit. Kamla from an angle of 900 from Gaurave and an angle of
1200 from Manish. Manish is just opposite Priya and is sitting on the left of Gaurav.

43. Who is the only person sitting between Rohit and Manish
(A) Pritam (B) Amit
(C) Gaurav (D) Kamla

44. The angle between Gaurav and Manish is the clock wise direction is
(A) 1500 (B) 1800
0
(C) 210 (D) None of these

45. Gaurav is not sitting at equal distance from.


(A) Rohit and Pritam (B) Amit and Kamla
(C) Manish and Pritam (D) All of the above

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Section II (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

Physics (Part A)
Straight Objective Type
Physics contains 25 multiple choice questions numbered 46 to 70. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

46. Two particle are projected simultaneous with the same speed u m/s in the same vertical plane
o o
with angles 30 and 60 with horizontal. At what time their velocities will become parallel?
u u
(A) (B)

g 3 1 g 3 1
2u 3u
(C) (D)
g 3 2g

47. System shown in figure is in equilibrium. Find the magnitude of net


change in the strings force between two masses just after, when string PQ
is cut. Mass of both the blocks is same and equal to m and spring
constant of both spring is k. d
(A) Zero (B) Mg m
3mg 3mg P
(C) (D) Q
4 2
m

3t 2
48. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies with time as P W . Here, t is in second. At
2
t = 0, v = 0; the velocity of particle at time t = 2s will be
(A) 1 m/s (B) 4 m/s
(C) 2 m/s (D) 2 2 m/s

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49. A thin L-shaped rod as shown has moment of inertia I1 and I2 about x-axis and z-axis (passing
I
through O) respectively. 1 equals
I2
y

x
O l
z

(A) 0.5 (B) 1


(C) 2 (D) 3

50. An infinitely long wire carrying current I is along y-axis such that its one end is at point A (0, b)
while the wire extends upto . The magnitude of magnetic field strength at point (a, 0) is

I

(0, 0) (a, 0)

0I b 0I b
(A) 1 (B) 1
4a a b2
2
4a a b2
2

0I b
(C) 2 (D) None of these
4a a b 2

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51. Find the electric field vector at P (a, a, a) due to three infinitely long lines of charges (1, 2, 3)
along x, y and z-axes respectively. The charge density, i.e. charge per unit length of each wire
is .
y
2
p 1
x
3
z


(A)
30 a

i j k (B)
20 a

i j k
2
(C)
2 2 a
i j k (D)
0 a

i jk
0

52. In the shown arrangement of the experiment of a meter bridge, if AC corresponding to null
deflection of galvanometer is x, what would be its value if the radius of the wire AB is doubled?

R2

R1
G
A x C

x
(A) x (B)
4
(C) 4x (D) 2x

53. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two particles of masses m 1 and m2, having non-zero
velocities. The ratio of the de Broglie wavelengths of the particles 1, 2 is
m1 m2
(A) (B)
m2 m1
m2
(C) 1.0 (D)
m1

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54. A horizontal solid cylinder (of mass m) is pivoted about its longitudinal axis. To the end of a
thread wrapped on the cylinder a block (of mass 2m) is attached, as shown. If the system is left
free, acceleration of the block is (string is massless and there is no slipping anywhere)

2m

g
(A) g (B)
5
2g 4g
(C) (D)
5 5

55. The binding energies per nucleon of deuteron H and helium


1
2
2
He4 atoms are 1.1 MeV and 7
MeV. If two deuteron atoms react to form a single helium atom, then the energy released is
(A) 13.9 MeV (B) 26.9 MeV
(C) 23.9 MeV (D) 19.2 MeV

56. A different forces is applied to each of four 1 kg blocks to slide them across a uniform steel
surface at constant speed as shown. In which diagram is the coefficient of friction between the
block and the steel smallest?
F=5N 1 kg F=3N 1 kg
block block
(A) (B)
Steel Steel

F=2N 1 kg F=4N 1 kg
block block
(C) (D)
Steel Steel

57. 49 divisions on the vernier scale coincides with 50 divisions on the main scale of a vernier caliper.
The least count of the instrument is, if graduation on the main scale is 2 mm.
1 1
(A) mm (B) mm
25 50
2 1
(C) mm (D) mm
49 49

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58. A thin rectangular plate is hanging with the help of two identical massless springs as shown. Just
after one of the springs is cut, angular acceleration of the plate is

a
b

3gb
(A) zero (B)
a b2
2

6gb 12gb
(C) (D) 2
a b2
2
a b2

59. An object of mass 5 kg is acted upon by a force that varies with position of the object as shown.
If the object starts from rest at a point x = 0. What is its speed at x = 50m?
F(N)
10

25 50 x(m)

(A) 12.2 ms 1 (B) 18.2 ms 1


(C) 16.4 ms 1 (D) 20.4 ms 1

60. A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m above the surface of water in a lake. The refractive index
of water is 4/3. A fish inside the lake, in the line of fall of the ball, is looking at the ball. At an
instant when the ball is 12.8 m above the water surface, the fish sees the speed of ball as
(A) 9 ms 1 (B) 12 ms 1
1
(C) 16 ms (D) 21.33 ms 1

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61. If the ratio of lengths, radii and Youngs moduli of steel and brass wires in the
figure are a, b, and c respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in Steel
their lengths is M
(A) 2a2cb (B) 3a/2b2c
(C) 2ac/b 2
(D) 3c/2ab2 Brass
2M

62. Fig. shown a composite rod containing two halves. The thermal conductivities and the geometric
dimensions are marked. If the ends are maintained of temperature T1 and T2 respectively, the
temperature of the interface is (cross section is uniform)
2l l/2

A k/4 k

T1 T=? T2

T1 T2 8T1 T2
(A) (B)
2 9
4T1 T2 T1 16T2
(C) (D)
5 17

63. A block of ice (specific gravity S1 = 0.90) is floating in a container having two immiscible liquids
(one of specific gravity S1 = 0.50 and other is water) as shown in figure. Now the ice block melts,
then (Here, H2 = height of liquid 2, H1 = height of liquid 1, H = total height of both the liquids)
S = 0.50
H2
Ice block
H
H1
Water

(A) H2 will decrease and H will increase


(B) H1 will increase and H will remain same
(C) H1 will remain unchanged, whereas H2 will decrease
(D) H2 will decrease and H will decrease

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64. For the arrangement shown in figure. the coefficient of friction between the two blocks is . If
both the blocks are identical, then magnitude of acceleration of each block is

m
F
m

Smooth

F F
(A) 2g (B)
2m 2m
F
(C) g (D) zero
2m

65. If the particle escapes from the centre of the solid sphere of radius R encircled by the ring 2R, the
v will be :
Ring M

2R Solid
uniform
Sphere M
R

3GM 2GM
(A) (B)
R R
3GM GM
(C) (D) 2
2 R

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66. A thin glass rod is bent into a semicircle of radius r. A charge +Q is uniformly distributed along
the upper half and a change Q is uniformly distributed along the lower half, as shown in figure.
Calculate electric field E at P, the centre of semicircle.
++
++ A
+
+
+
+
+ O P






B

Q 2Q
(A) (B)
2 0 r 2 2 0 r 2
4Q Q
(C) (D)
0r 2
2
4 0r 2
2

67. The resistance of all the wires between any two adjacent dots is R. The equivalent resistance
between A and B as shown in figure is
A

7 7
(A) R (B) R
3 6
14
(C) R (D) None of these
8

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68. A biconvex lens of focal length 15 cm is in front of a plane mirror. The distance between the lens
and the mirror is 10 cm. A small object is kept at a distance of 30 cm from the lens. The final
image is
(A) Virtual and at a distance of 16 cm from the mirror
(B) real and at a distance of 16 cm from the mirror
(C) virtual and at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror
(D) real and at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror

69. A uniform circular disc of radius r is placed on a rough


horizontal surface and given a linear velocity v 0 and angular
velocity 0 as shown. The disc comes to rest after moving v0
some distance to right. It follows that
(A) 3v 0 20 r
0
(B) 2v 0 0r
(C) 3v 0 20 r
(D) 2v 0 20 r

70. A uniform rod AB of length three times the radius of a hemisphered B


r
bowl remains in equilibrium in the bowl as shown. Neglecting C
friction find the inclination of the rod with the horizontal.
(A) sin1 0.92 (B) cos 1 0.92 3r
A
(C) cos 1 0.49 (D) tan1 0.92

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Chemistry (Part B)
Straight Objective Type
Chemistry contains 25 multiple choice questions numbered 71 to 95. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

71. For He, the Urms (molar mass M) in terms of their molar kinetic energy (E) is
3E 2E
(A) Urms (B) Urms
2M 3M
2E E
(C) Urms (D) Urms
M 3M

72. The aqueous solution with the lowest F.P. is


(A) 0.01 M MgSO4 (B) 0.01 M NaCl
(C) 0.01 M C2H5OH (D) 0.008 M MgCl2

73. The complex used as an anticancer agent is:


(A) mer-[Co(NH3)3Cl3] (B) Cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2]
(C) Cis-K2[PtCl2Br2] (D) Na2[CoCl4]

74. The ligand called -acid is:


(A) CO (B) NH3
(C) C2 O42 (D) ethylene diamine

75. Which of the following is not soluble in NaOH?


(A) Fe(OH)3 (B) Zn(OH)2
(C) Al(OH)3 (D) Sn(OH)2

76. Which of the following is not correct?


(A) eq of a weak electrolyte increases with dilution
(B) Electrolysis of aqueous NaCl using pt electrodes increases the pH of the solution
(C) Electrolysis of aqueous CuSO4 using Cu electrodes increases pH of the solution
(D) Option (A) and (B) are correct

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77. Which of the following reagents can not oxidize KI to iodine?


(A) H2O2/HCl (B) O3/H2O
(C) CuSO4 (D) O2

78. Which of the following compounds yield acetone on ozonolysis?


(A) 2-Methyl-1-butene (B) 2-Methyl-2-butene
(C) 2-Butene (D) 1-Butene

79. Ag Ag+ 1M Ag+ 2M Ag


1 litre 1 litre

0.5 F of electricity in anode and 1 F in the cathode is first passed making them independent
electrolytic cell at 298 K. EMF of the cell after electrolysis will be
(A) increased (B) decreased
(C) no change (D) time is also required to find it

80. Rate of electrophilic aromatic substitution in the following compounds is


CHO CH2 OCH3 OCH3 COCH3 Cl

NO2
1 2 3 4 5

(A) 2 > 5 > 3 > 4 > 1 (B) 3 > 2 > 5 > 4 > 1
(C) 3 > 4 > 2 > 1 > 5 (D) 4 > 5 > 1 > 3 > 2

81. Which is true for an ideal gas?


U U
(A) 0 (B) 0
V T T P
U U
(C) 0 (D) 0
P V T V

82. The root mean square speed of an ideal gas at 27oC is 0.3 m/sec. Its rms velocity at 927oC is:
(A) 3.0 m/sec (B) 2.4 m/sec
(C) 0.9 m/sec (D) 0.6 m/sec

83. Pick out the incorrect statement in the following:


(A) Bong angle : NH3 > PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3
(B) Hybridization sp3 - H2O, ice, Diamond, Carborundum
(C) Paramagnetic behaviour : O2 > O 2 O 22
(D) Covalent character : H2O < NH3 < CH4

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84. The ion which can be precipitated with both HCl and H2S are:
2+ 2+
(A) Pb (B) Cu
+ 2+
(C) Na (D) Sn

85. Which of the following is most acidic?


(A) Mn2O7 (B) Mn3O4
(C) MnO (D) Mn2O3

86.
+
Ph CH2 CH2 NEt 3 OH P
major (alkene)
P is
(A) C2H4 (B) Ph CH CH2
(C) Ph CH CH Et (D) CH3 CH CH CH3

87. For an isothermal irreversible expansion of 1 mole of an ideal gas, which is incorrect?
(A) U 0 (B) H 0
P P
(C) W RT ln 1 (D) q RT 2 1
P2 P1

88. Which of the following show tautomerism?


(1) O (2) H3C NO 2
H3C C CH3

(3) H 2N C NH2 (4)

O
NO
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 2, 3
(C) 1, 2 (D) 1, 2, 4

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89. 20 ml 0.1 M K2Cr2O7 is mixed with 40 ml 0.1 N KMnO4 in presence of H2SO4. If this solution is
treated with excess of a mixture of H2C2O4 and NaHC2O4 then how many milli moles of CO2 will
be evolved?
(A) 32 (B) 22
(C) 16 (D) None of these

90. The number of stereoisomers of Ma3b3 is x & the number of stereoisomers of Ma2b2c2 is y. Find
the value of x + y
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) 12

91. Which of the following phenols will show highest acidity?


Me
Me OH OH
(A) (B)
Me NO2 Me
NO2
Me
Me OH OH
(C) (D)

O 2N Me
Me NO2

92. Strongest base among the following is


NH2
N

(A) PhNH2 (B)


N
H2N
NH

(C) H3C NH2 (D) H2N C NH2

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93. AB forms NaCl type structure, if all the atoms along one of the diagonal plane of symmetry are
removed (hypothetically) find the resultant stoichiometry of the solid. (A atoms forms fcc & B
atoms occupy all O.V.)
(A) AB (B) A7B5
(C) A5B4 (D) A2B3

94.

, , ,
1 2 3 4
Which is incorrect?
(A) Stability order 1 < 2 < 3 < 4
(B) H combustion 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
(C) Angle strain in 1 is highest among all 4 compounds
(D) 1 reacts with HBr to give alkyl bromide

95. The density of equilibrium mixture of N2O4 (g) and NO2 (g) at 2 atm is 4 gm/lt. at 17oC. Find the
vapour density of equilibrium mixture.
(A) 28.6 (B) 49.2
(C) 38.7 (D) 23.8

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Mathematics (Part C)
Straight Objective Type
Mathematics contains 25 multiple choice questions numbered 96 to 120. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

log 3 log2 4 logx 83


96. If 4 9 9 10 , then x is equal to
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 10 (D) 30


97. The derivative of sin sin x 2 at x is
2
(A) 1 (B) 0

(C) (D)
2 2

98. Solve the following:


If x 2 22/3 21/3 , then the value of x 3 6x 2 6x is
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 2

99. The equation 2log1/25 bx 28 log5 12 4x x 2 has coincident roots if


(A) b 12 (B) b 4
(C) b 4 or b 12 (D) b 14 or b = 12

100. The centre of the smallest circle touching the circles x 2 y 2 2y 3 0 and
x 2 y 2 8x 18y 93 0 is:
(A) (3, 2) (B) (4, 4)
(C) (2, 7) (D) (2, 5)

101. If the line joining foci subtends an angle of 90o at an extremity of minor axis then the eccentricity
of the ellipse is:
1 1
(A) (B)
3 2
1
(C) (D) None of these
2

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102. If x y K is normal to the parabola y 2 12x then K is


(A) 3 (B) 9
(C) 9 (D) 3

1 106
103. If z
2

3 i , then value of z101 i109 is (where is imaginary cube root of unity)
(A) i (B) 1
(C) (D) 2

104. The tangent at any point on the ellipse 16x 2 25y2 400 meets the tangent at the extremities of
major axis at T1 & T2. The circle on T1T2 as diameter passes through
(A) (3, 0) (B) (0, 0)
(C) (0, 3) (D) (4, 0)

105. If
, , 1, , 2 & 2

are imaginary cube roots of unity then number of triplets
a b c
, , such that 1 is
a b c
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) 12

2 1 1
106. If in ABC , sin A cosB and sinB cos A , then the triangle is
2 2
(A) Equilateral (B) Isosceles
(C) Right angled (D) Right angled isosceles


107. If k.3tan x k.3 tan x 4 0 has real solutions, where 0 x , x , then k belongs to
2
(A) 2, 2 (B) 2, 0
(C) 0, 2 (D) 0,
6
x
108. The value of dx is
3 9x x
(A) 3 (B) 3/2
(C) 1 (D) 1/2

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x2 x 2
109. The range of f x , x R is
x2 x 1
11
(A) 1, (B) 1,
7
7 7
(C) 1, (D) 1,
3 5

110. Let PQ and RS be tangents at extremities of the diameter PR of the circle of radius r. If PS &
RQ intersects at a point X on the circumference of the circle, then length of diameter of the circle
is
PQ RS
(A) PQ . RS (B)
2
2PQ . RS PQ2 RS2
(C) (D)
PQ RS 2

111. Area of the triangle formed by the line x y 3 and angular bisectors formed by the pair of
straight lines x 2 y2 2y 1 0 is
(A) 2 sq. units (B) 4 sq. units
(C) 6 sq. units (D) 8 sq. units

112. Two rays in the first quadrant x y a and ax y 1 intersects each other in the interval
a a0 , , then the value of a0 is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 1/2

113. px 2y 1 is normal to parabola y 2 4ax for :


(A) No value of p (B) Exactly one value of p
(C) Exactly two values of p (D) Exactly three values of p

114. The least value of the expression x 2 4y 2 3z2 2x 12y 6z 14 is


(A) 1 (B) no least value
(C) 0 (D) None of these

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115. The line 2x y 1 0 is tangent to the circle at the point (2, 5) and the centre of the circles lies
on x 2y 4 . The radius of the circle is:
(A) 3 5 (B) 5 3
(C) 2 5 (D) 5 2

116. The smallest positive x satisfying the equation logcos x sin x logsin x cos x 2 is

(A) (B)
2 3

(C) (D)
4 6

x2 y2
117. If base of a triangle is the major axis of the ellipse 1 and third vertex moves on the
16 9
ellipse, then maximum area of triangle will be:
(A) 6 (B) 72
(C) 12 (D) None of these

118. The angle between a pair of tangents drawn from the point P to the circle
x 2 y 2 4x 6y 9 sin2 13cos2 0 is 2 , then the equation of locus of P is
(A) x 2 y 2 4x 6y 4 0 (B) x 2 y 2 4x 6y 9 0
(C) x 2 y 2 4x 6y 4 0 (D) x 2 y 2 4x 6y 9 0

119. If f x sin x cos x and g x x 2 1 then g f x is invertible in the domain



(A) 0, (B) ,
2 4 4

(C) , (D) 0,
2 2

120. Let AB be the chord of contact of the point 5,5 w.r.t. the circle x 2 y 2 5 . Then the locus of
the orthocenter of the PAB , where P be any point moving on the circle is
2 2 2 2 5
(A) x 1 y 1 5 (B) x 1 y 1
2
2 2 2 2 5
(C) x 1 y 1 5 (D) x 1 y 1
2

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FIITJEE SAMPLE PAPER 2017


for students of
Class 12 Appeared
Paper 1
ANSWERS
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. D
5. A 6. B 7. B 8. A
9. B 10. B 11. C 12. C
13. A 14. A 15. C 16. B
17. D 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. A 22. A 23. D 24. B
25. A 26. D 27. B 28. C
29. A 30. B 31. D 32. B
33. A 34. C 35. B 36. D
37. B 38. A 39. B 40. D
41. B 42. C 43. C 44. D
45. D 46. A 47. A 48. C
49. A 50. B 51. B 52. A
53. C 54. D 55. D 56. C
57. C 58. B 59. A 60. C
61. B 62. D 63. D 64. C
65. D 66. A 67. B 68. B
69. B 70. B 71. C 72. D
73. B 74. A 75. A 76. C
77. D 78. B 79. C 80. B
81. A 82. D 83. A 84. A
85. A 86. B 87. C 88. A
89. C 90. C 91. A 92. D
93. A 94. B 95. D 96. C
97. B 98. B 99. C 100. D
101. B 102. B 103. D 104. A
105. C 106. C 107. C 108. B
109. C 110. A 111. A 112. B
113. B 114. A 115. A 116. C
117. C 118. D 119. B 120. A

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