EXAMINATION NOTICE NO.10/2017-NDA-II DATED 07.06.

2017

(Last Date for Submission of Applications: 30.06.2017)

NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY & NAVAL ACADEMY EXAMINATION (II), 2017

(Commissions Website upsc.gov.in)

IMPORTANT

1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:

The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the
eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the
stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the
prescribed eligibility conditions.

Mere issue of Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply that his
candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission.

Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents is taken up

only after the candidate has qualified for interview/Personality Test.

2. HOW TO APPLY

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website upsconline.nic.in Brief
instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been given in the
Appendix-II. Detailed instructions are available on the above mentioned website.

3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS:

The Online Applications can be filled upto 30th June, 2017 till 6.00 PM.

4. The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the
commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available on
the UPSC website (upsc.gov.in) for being downloaded by candidates. No Admit
Card will be sent by post. All the applicants are required to provide valid & active
e-mail id while filling up online application form as the Commission may use
electronic mode for contacting them.

5. PENALITY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:

Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong
answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.

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 6. For both writing and marking answers in the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet)
candidates must use black ball pen only Pens with any other colour are
prohibited. Do not use Pencil or Ink pen. Candidates should note that any
omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer
sheet especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection. Candidates are further advised to
read carefully the Special Instructions contained in Appendix-III of the
Notice.

7. FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES:

In case of any guidances/information/clarification regarding their application,
candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSCs Facilitation Counter near Gate C
of its campus in person or over Telephone No.011-23385271/011-23381125/011-
23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs. to 17.00 hrs.

8. MOBILE PHONES BANNED:

(a) Mobiles phones, pagers/bluetooth or any other communication devices are not
allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any
infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban
from future examinations.
(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items
including mobile phones/pagers/bluetooth or any valuable/costly items to the
venue of the examination as arrangements for safe keeping cannot be assured.
Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE AT upsconline.nic.in ONLY.

NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION.

F.No.7/1/2017.E.1(B): An Examination will be conducted by the Union Public Service

Commission on 10th September, 2017 for admission to the Army, Navy and Air
Force wings of the NDA for the 140th Course, and for the 102nd Indian Naval
Academy Course (INAC) commencing from 2nd July, 2018.

The date of holding the examination as mentioned above is liable to be changed at

the discretion of the Commission.

The approximate number of vacancies to be filled on the results of this examination

will be as under :

National Defence Academy : 335 (208 for Army, 55 for Navy

and 72 for Air Force)

Naval Academy : 55
(10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme)

Total : 390
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Vacancies are provisional and may be changed depending on the availability
of training capacity of National Defence Academy and Indian Naval
Academy.
N.B. (i) A candidate is required to specify clearly in the Online Application
Form the Services for which he wishes to be considered in the order of his
preference [1 to 4]. He is also advised to indicate as many preferences as he
wishes to opt so that having regard to his rank in the order of merit due
consideration can be given to his preferences when making appointments.

(ii) Candidates should note that they will be considered for appointment
to those services only for which they express their preferences and for no
other service(s). No request for addition/alteration in the preferences
already indicated by a candidate in his application will be entertained by
the Commission.

(iii) Admission to the above courses will be made on the results of the
written examination to be conducted by the Commission followed by
intelligence and personality test by the Services Selection Board of
candidates who qualify in the written examination.

2. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION:

The Examination will be held at the following Centres :

Agartala, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Allahabad, Bengaluru, Bareilly, Bhopal,

Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Dehradun, Delhi, Dharwad, Dispur, Gangtok,
Hyderabad, Imphal, Itanagar, Jaipur, Jammu, Jorhat, Kochi, Kohima, Kolkata,
Lucknow, Madurai, Mumbai, Nagpur, Panaji (Goa), Patna, Port Blair, Raipur,
Ranchi, Sambalpur, Shillong, Shimla, Srinagar, Thiruvananthapuram,
Tirupati, Udaipur and Vishakhapatnam.
Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of
candidates allotted to each of the centres except Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata and
Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the first-apply-first-allot basis and
once the capacity of a particular centre is attained, the same will be frozen.
Applicants, who cannot get a centre of their choice due to ceiling, will be
required to choose a Centre from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus,
advised that they may apply early so that they could get a Centre of their
choice.

N.B. : Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, Commission reserves the

right to change the Centres at their discretion if the situation demands.

Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table

and place or places of examination. Candidates should note that no request
for change of centre will be granted.

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3. CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY :

(a) Nationality : A candidate must either be :

(i) a citizen of India, or

(ii) a subject of Bhutan, or
(iii) a subject of Nepal, or
(iv) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st January, 1962
with the intention of permanently settling in India, or
(v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri
Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of
Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention
of permanently settling in India.

Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been
issued by the Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will not, however, be necessary in the case of
candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.

(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status :

Only unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 02nd January, 1999 and
not later than 1st January, 2002 are eligible.

The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the

Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate
recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an
extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University which
must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher
Secondary or an equivalent examination certificates. These certificates are
required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written
part of the examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes,
affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the
like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/Higher Secondary
Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative
certificates mentioned above.

NOTE 1 : Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in
the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate available or an
equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will be
accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be
considered or granted.

NOTE 2 : Candidates should also note that once a date of birth has been
claimed by them and entered in the records of the Commission for the
purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed
subsequently or at any subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever.

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NOTE 3 : The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of
birth in the respective column of the Online Application Form for the
Examination. If on verification at any subsequent stage any variation is found
in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent
Examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the
Commission under the Rules.

NOTE 4 : Candidates must undertake not to marry until they complete their
full training. A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his
application though successful at this or any subsequent Examination will not
be selected for training. A candidate who marries during training shall be
discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the
Government.

(c) Educational Qualifications:

(i) For Army Wing of National Defence Academy :12th Class pass of the
10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination conducted by a
State Education Board or a University.

(ii) For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for
the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian Naval Academy :12th Class
pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent with Physics and
Mathematics conducted by a State Education Board or a University.

Candidates who are appearing in the 12th Class under the 10+2 pattern of
School Education or equivalent examination can also apply for this
examination.

Such candidates who qualify the SSB interview but could not produce
Matriculation/10+2 or equivalent certificate in original at the time of SSB
interview should forward duly self attested Photocopies to Directorate
General of Recruiting, Army HQ, West Block.III, R.K. Puram, New Delhi-
110066 and for Naval Academy candidates to Naval Headquarters, DMPR,
OI&R Section, Room No. 204, C Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi-110011 by
24th June, 2018 failing which their candidature will be cancelled. All other
candidates who have produced their Matriculation and 10+2 pass or
equivalent certificates in original at the time of attending the SSB interview
and have got the same verified by the SSB authorities are not required to
submit the same to Army HQ or Naval HQ as the case may be. Certificates in
original issued by the Principals of the Institutions are also acceptable in cases
where Boards/Universities have not yet issued certificates. Certified true
copies/photostate copies of such certificates will not be accepted.

In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not
possess any of the qualifications prescribed in this rule as educationally
qualified provided that he possesses qualifications, the standard of which in
the opinion of the Commission, justifies his admission to the examination.

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NOTE 1 : Candidates appearing in the 11th class exam are not eligible for this
examination.

NOTE 2 : Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the 12th class or
equivalent examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination
should note that this is only a special concession given to them. They are
required to submit proof of passing the 12th class or equivalent examination
by the prescribed date (i.e. 24th June, 2018) and no request for extending this
date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of Board/University
Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever.

NOTE 3 : Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from

holding any type of Commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible
for admission to the examination and if admitted, their candidature will be
cancelled.

NOTE 4 : Those candidates who have failed INSB/PABT earlier are not
eligible for Air Force.

(d) Physical Standards:

Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for

admission to National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination
(II), 2017 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV.

(e) A candidate who has resigned or withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from

any of the training academies of Armed Forces is not eligible to apply.
4. FEE

Candidates (excepting SC/ST candidates/Sons of JCOs/NCOs/ORs specified

in Note 2 below who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a
fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one hundred only) either by depositing the money in
any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking facility of State Bank of
India/State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of
Mysore/State Bank of Patiala/State Bank of Travancore or by using
Visa/MasterCard/Rupay Credit/Debit Card.

N.B. 1 : Applicants who opt for Pay by Cash mode, should print the
system generated Pay-in-slip during Part-II registration and deposit the fee at
the counter of SBI Branch on the next working day only. Pay by Cash
mode option will be deactivated at 23.59 hours of 29.06.2017 i.e. one day
before the closing date; however, applicants who have generated their Pay-
in-slip before it is de-activated may pay at the counter of SBI Branch during
banking hours on the closing date. Such applicants who are unable to pay by
cash on the closing date i.e. during banking hours at SBI Branch, for reason
whatsoever, even if holding a valid Pay-in-Slip, will have no other offline
option but to opt for online Debit/Credit Card or Internet Banking Payment
mode on the closing date i.e. till 6.00 P.M. of 30.06.2017.

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N.B. 2 : Candidates should note that payment of examination fee can be made
only through the modes prescribed above. Payment of fee through any other
mode is neither valid nor acceptable. Applications submitted without the
prescribed fee/mode (unless remission of fee is claimed) shall be summarily
rejected.

N.B. 3 : Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can
the fee be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.

N.B. 4 : For the applicants in whose case payments details have not been
received from the bank, they will be treated as fictitious payment cases and
their applications will be rejected in the first instance. A list of all such
applicants shall be made available on the Commission's website within two
weeks after the last day of submission of online application. The applicants
shall be required to submit the proof of their fee payment within 10 days from
the date of such communication either by hand or by speed post to the
Commission. On receipt of documentary proof, genuine fee payment cases
will be considered and their applications will be revived, if they are otherwise
eligible.

NOTE-1 : Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes and

those specified in Note 2 below are not required to pay any fee. No fee
exemption is, however, available to OBC candidates and they are required to
pay the full prescribed fee.

NOTE-2 : The sons of serving/ex-Junior Commissioned Officers/Non-

Commissioned Officers/Other Ranks of Army and equivalent ranks in the
Indian Navy/Indian Air Force are also not required to pay the prescribed fee
if they are studying in Military School (formerly known as King George's
School)/Sainik School run by Sainik Schools Society.

[N.B. : A certificate of eligibility for fee exemption is required to be

obtained by all such candidates from the Principals concerned individually
and produced for verification at the time of SSB Test/Interview by the
candidates who are declared qualified for the SSB Test/Interview.]
5. HOW TO APPLY:

Candidates are required to apply Online by using the website

upsconline.nic.in Detailed instructions for filling up online applications are
available on the above-mentioned website.

NOTE-1 : The applicants are advised to submit only single application;

however if due to any unavoidable situation, if he submits another/multiple
applications, then he must ensure that application with the higher RID is
complete in all respects like applicants' details, examination centre,
photograph, signature, fee etc. The applicants who are submitting multiple
applications should note that only the applications with higher RID
(Registration ID) shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against
one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.
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NOTE-2 : All candidates whether already in Government Service including
candidates serving in the Armed Forces, Sailors (including boys and artificers
apprentices) of the Indian Navy, Cadets of Rashtriya Indian Military College
(previously known as Sainik School, Dehradun), Students of Military Schools
(formerly known as King George's Schools) and Sainik Schools run by Sainik
Schools Society, Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar
organizations or in private employment should apply online direct to the
Commission.

N.B. (a) Persons already in Government Service, whether in permanent or

temporary capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or daily
rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises; (b) Candidates
serving in the Armed Forces, Sailors (including boys and artificers
apprentices) of the Indian Navy; and (c) Cadets of Rashtriya Indian Military
College (previously known as Sainik School, Dehra Dun), Students of Military
Schools formerly known as King George's Schools and Sainik Schools run by
Sainik Schools Society are required to inform their Head of
Office/Department, Commanding Officer, Principals of College/School
concerned, as the case may be, in writing that they have applied for this
examination. Candidates should note that in case a communication is received
by the Commission from their employer/authority concerned withholding
permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their
applications will be liable to be rejected/candidatures will be liable to be
cancelled.
NOTE-3 : WHILE FILLING IN THE APPLICATION FORM, THE
CANDIDATE SHOULD CAREFULLY DECIDE ABOUT HIS CHOICE FOR
THE CENTRE FOR THE EXAMINATION.

IF ANY CANDIDATE APPEARS AT A CENTRE OTHER THAN

THE ONE INDICATED BY THE COMMISSION IN HIS E-ADMISSION
CERTIFICATE, THE PAPERS OF SUCH A CANDIDATE WILL NOT BE
VALUED AND HIS CANDIDATURE WILL BE LIABLE TO
CANCELLATION.

NOTE-4 : APPLICATIONS WITHOUT THE PRESCRIBED FEE

(UNLESS REMISSION OF FEE IS CLAIMED AS IN PARA 4 ABOVE) OR
INCOMPLETE APPLICATIONS SHALL BE SUMMARILY REJECTED. NO
REPRESENTATION OR CORRESPONDENCE REGARDING SUCH
REJECTION SHALL BE ENTERTAINED UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCES.
CANDIDATES ARE NOT REQUIRED TO SUBMIT ALONG WITH THEIR
APPLICATIONS ANY CERTIFICATE IN SUPPORT OF THEIR CLAIMS
REGARDING AGE, EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS, SCHEDULED
CASTES/SCHEDULED TRIBES/OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES AND FEE
REMISSION ETC. THEY SHOULD THEREFORE, ENSURE THAT THEY
FULFIL ALL THE ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS FOR ADMISSION TO THE
EXAMINATION. THEIR ADMISSION TO THE EXAMINATION WILL
ALSO THEREFORE BE PURELY PROVISIONAL. IF ON VERIFICATION AT
ANY LATER DATE IT IS FOUND THAT THEY DO NOT FULFIL ALL
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ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS, THEIR CANDIDATURE WILL BE
CANCELLED. THE RESULT OF THE WRITTEN PART OF THE
EXAMINATION IS LIKELY TO BE DECLARED IN THE MONTH OF
DECEMBER, 2017. Successful Candidates would be allotted Selection
Centres and dates of SSB interviews which shall be communicated on the
email ID as filled by the candidate in their UPSC online application.

NOTE 5: CANDIDATES WHO HAVE PASSED WRITTEN TEST ARE

NOT REQUIRED TO SUBMIT THEIR ORIGINAL CERTIFICATE OF AGE
AND EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION EITHER TO DIRECTORATE
GENERAL OF RECRUITING, ARMY HQ, WEST BLOCK-III, RK PURAM,
NEW DELHI-110066 OR TO NAVAL HEADQUARTERS, DMPR, OI&R
SECTION, 'C' WING, SENA BHAWAN, NEW DELHI-110011.
ALL CANDIDATES CALLED FOR INTERVIEW MUST CARRY
THEIR ORIGINAL MATRICULATION CERTIFICATE OR EQUIVALENT
EXAMINATION CERTIFICATE TO THE SERVICES SELECTION BOARD
(SSB). ORIGINALS WILL HAVE TO BE PRODUCED BY THE CANDIDATES
WHO QUALIFY AT THE SSB INTERVIEW SOON AFTER THE INTERVIEW.
THE ORIGINALS WILL BE RETURNED AFTER VERIFICATION. THOSE
CANDIDATES WHO HAVE ALREADY PASSED 10+2 EXAMINATION
MUST CARRY THEIR ORIGINAL 10+2 PASS CERTIFICATE OR MARKS
SHEET FOR THE SSB INTERVIEW. IF ANY OF THEIR CLAIMS IS FOUND
TO BE INCORRECT THEY MAY RENDER THEMSELVES LIABLE TO
DISCIPLINARY ACTION BY THE COMMISSION IN TERMS OF THE
FOLLOWING PROVISIONS:
A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :

(i) obtaining support for his candidature by any

means, or
(ii) impersonating, or
(iii) procuring impersonation by any person, or
(iv) submitting fabricated documents or documents which have
been tampered with, or
(v) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing
material information, or
(vi) resorting to any other irregular or improper means in
connection with his candidature for the examination, or
(vii) using unfair means during the examination, or
(viii) writing irrelevant matter, including obscene language or
pornographic matter, in the script(s), or
(ix) misbehaving in any other manner in the examination hall, or
(x) harassing or doing bodily harm to the Staff employed by the
Commission for the conduct of their examination, or
(xi) being in possession of or using mobile phone, pager bluetooth
or any electronic equipment or device or any other equipment capable
of being used as a communication device during the examination, or

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 (xii) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates alongwith
their Admission Certificates permitting them to take the examination, or

(xiii) attempting to commit or as the case may be abetting the

Commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses,
may in addition to rendering himself liable to criminal prosecution be
liable
(a) to be disqualified by the Commission from the
examination for which he is a candidate and/or
(b) to be debarred either permanently or for a specified
period
(i) by the Commission from any examination or selection
held by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment
under them and;
(c) if he is already in service under Government to disciplinary
action under the appropriate rules.
Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after :
(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making
such representation, in writing as he may wish to
make in that behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the
candidate within the period allowed to him into
consideration.

6. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS:

The Online Applications can be filled upto 30th June, 2017 till 6.00 PM.
7. TRAVELLING ALLOWANCE:
Candidates appearing for SSB interview for the first time for a
particular type of Commission i.e. Permanent or Short Service, shall be
entitled for AC III Tier to and fro railway fare or bus fare including
reservation cum sleeper charges within the Indian limits. Candidates who
apply again for the same type of Commission will not be entitled to
travelling allowance on any subsequent occasion.

8. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION / ARMY / NAVAL /

AIR HEADQUARTERS:
The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the
candidates about their candidature except in the following cases :
(i) The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks
before the commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be
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 made available in the UPSC website [upsc.gov.in] for being downloaded by
candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post. For downloading the e-
Admit Card the candidate must have his vital parameters like RID & Date
of Birth or Roll No. (if received) & date of birth or name, father's name &
Date of Birth available with him.

(ii) If a candidate does not receive his e-Admit Card or any other
communication regarding his candidature for the examination one week
before the commencement of the examination, he should at once contact the
Commission. Information in this regard can also be obtained from the
Facilitation Counter located in the Commissions Office either in person or
over Phone Nos. 01123385271/01123381125/01123098543 Extn 4119,
4120. In case no communication is received in the Commissions Office
from the candidate regarding non-receipt of his e-Admit Card at least one
week before the examination, he himself will be solely responsible for non-
receipt of his e-Admit Card.
(iii) No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination
unless he holds a certificate of admission for the examination. On receipt of
e-Admit Card, check it carefully and bring discrepancies/errors, if any, to
the notice of the UPSC immediately. The courses to which the candidates
are admitted will be according to their eligibility as per educational
qualifications for different courses and the preferences given by the
candidates.
The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be
purely provisional based on the information given by them in the
Application Form. This will be subject to verification of all the eligibility
conditions.
(iv) The decision of the Commission as to the acceptance of the application
of a candidate and his eligibility or otherwise for admission to the
Examination shall be final.
(v) Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admit Card in some
cases, may be abbreviated due to technical reasons.
(vi) Candidates must ensure that their e.mail Ids given in their online
applications are valid and active.
IMPORTANT : All Communications to the Commission should invariably
contain the following particulars.

1. Name and year of the examination.

2. Registration ID (RID).
3. Roll Number (if received).
4. Name of candidate (in full and in block letters).
5. Postal Address as given in the application.

N.B. (i) : Communications not containing the above particulars may not be
attended to.

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N.B. (ii) : If a letter/communication is received from a candidate after an
examination has been held and it does not give his full name and roll number,
it will be ignored and no action will be taken thereon. Candidates
recommended by the Commission for interview by the Services Selection
Board who have changed their addresses subsequent to the submission of
their applications for the examination should immediately after
announcement of the result of the written part of the examination notify the
changed address also to :

For candidates with Army as first choiceArmy Headquarters, A.Gs Branch,

RTG (NDA Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066,
Phone No. 26175473.

For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choice Naval

Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower & Recruitment, OI&R Section, R. No.
204, C Wing, Sena Bhawan,New Delhi-110011, Phone No.
23010097/23011282.

For candidates with Air Force as first choiceAir Headquarters, Directorate

of Personnel (Officers), PO 3 (A), Room No. 17, J Block, Opp. Vayu Bhawan,
Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110106, Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7973.

FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH THIS INSTRUCTION WILL DEPRIVE THE

CANDIDATE OF ANY CLAIM TO CONSIDERATION IN THE EVENT OF
HIS NOT RECEIVING THE SUMMONS LETTER FOR INTERVIEW BY THE
SERVICES SELECTION BOARD.

AFTER HAVING CLEARED THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION THE

CANDIDATES SHOULD LOG ON TO THE FOLLOWING WEBSITES FOR
THEIR SSB CENTRE & DATE OF INTERVIEW :-

joinindianarmy.nic.in
joinindiannavy.gov.in
careerairforce.nic.in

Candidates whose names have been recommended for interview by the

Services Selection Board should address enquiries or requests, if any, relating
to their interview or visit website of respective service headquarters after 20
days from the announcement of written results as follows :

For candidates with Army as first choiceArmy Headquarters, AGs Branch,

RTG (NDA Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R.K. Puram, New Delhi 110 066,
Phone No. 26175473 or joinindianarmy.nic.in

For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choiceNaval

Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower & Recruitment, O.I. & R. Section,
Room No. 204, C Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi-110011, Phone No.
23010097/Email : officer-navy@nic.in or joinindiannavy.gov.in

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For candidates with Air Force as first choiceAir Headquarters, Directorate
of Personnel (Officers), PO 3 (A), Room No. 17, J Block, Opp. Vayu Bhawan,
Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110106, Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7973/7646
or careerairforce.nic.in

Candidates are required to report for SSB interview on the date intimated to
them in the call up letter for interview. Requests for postponing interview will
only be considered in exceptional circumstances and that too if it is
administratively convenient for which Army Headquarters will be the sole
deciding authority. Such requests should be addressed to the Administrative
Officer of the Selection Centre from where the call letter for interview has
been received. No action will be taken on letters received by Army/Navy/Air
HQs. SSB interview for the candidates qualified in the written examination
will be held during the months of January, 2018 to April, 2018 or as suitable to
Recruiting Directorate. For all queries regarding Merit list, joining instructions
and any other relevant information regarding selection process, please visit
our website joinindianarmy.nic.in.

9. ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE WRITTEN

EXAMINATION, INTERVIEW OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES,
ANNOUNCEMENT OF FINAL RESULTS AND ADMISSION TO THE
TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED CANDIDATES:

The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of candidates who
obtain the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as fixed by
the Commission at their discretion. Such candidates shall appear before a
Services Selection Board for Intelligence and Personality Test where
candidates for the Army/Navy wings of the NDA and 10+2 Cadet Entry
Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be assessed on Officers Potentiality
and those for the Air Force in Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS)
and Pilot Aptitude Test (which forms the whole PAB Test) and for Officers
Potentiality. PABT applicable to candidates with Air Force as First choice
would also be conducted for all SSB qualified candidates with one of the
choice as Air Force subject to their eligibility and if they are so willing.

TWO-STAGE SELECTION PROCEDURE

Two-stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude Test and

Intelligence Test has been introduced at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection
Boards/Naval Selection Boards. All the candidates will be put to stage-one
test on first day of reporting at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection
Boards/Naval Selection Boards. Only those candidates who qualify at stage
one will be admitted to the second stage/remaining tests. Those candidates
who qualify stage II will be required to submit the Original Certificates along
with one photocopy each of : (i) Original Matriculation pass certificate or
equivalent in support of date of birth, (ii) Original 10+2 pass certificate or
equivalent in support of educational qualification.

13
Candidates who appear before the Services Selection Board and undergo the
test there, will do so at their own risk and will not be entitled to claim any
compensation or other relief from Government in respect of any injury which
they may sustain in the course of or as a result of any of the tests given to
them at the Services Selection Board whether due to the negligence of any
person or otherwise. Parents or guardians of the candidates will be required
to sign a certificate to this effect.

To be acceptable, candidates for the Army/Navy/Naval Academy and Air

Force should secure the minimum qualifying marks separately in (i) Written
examination as fixed by the Commission at their discretion and (ii) Officer
Potentiality Test as fixed by the Services Selection Board at their discretion.
Over and above candidates for the Air Force, and all the SSB qualified
candidates as per their willingness, eligibility and preference for Air Force,
should separately qualify the PABT.

Subject to these conditions the qualified candidates will then be placed in a

single combined list on the basis of total marks secured by them in the
Written Examination and the Services Selection Board Tests. The final
allocation/selection for admission to the Army, Navy, Air Force of the
National Defence Academy and 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval
Academy will be made upto the number of vacancies available subject to
eligibility, medical fitness and merit-cum-preference of the candidates. The
candidates who are eligible to be admitted to multiple Services/Courses will
be considered for allocation/selection with reference to their order or
preferences and in the event of their final allocation/ selection to one
Service/Course, they will not be considered for admission to other remaining
Services/Courses.

N.B.: EVERY CANDIDATE FOR THE AIR FORCE IS GIVEN

COMPUTERISED PILOT SELECTION SYSTEM (CPSS) AND PILOT
APTITUDE TEST (WHICH FORMS THE WHOLE PAB TEST) ONLY
ONCE. THE GRADE SECURED BY HIM AT THE FIRST TEST WILL
THEREFORE HOLD GOOD FOR EVERY SUBSEQUENT INTERVIEW HE
HAS WITH THE AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARD. A CANDIDATE
WHO FAILS IN THE FIRST PILOT APTITUDE TEST CANNOT APPLY
FOR ADMISSION TO THE NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY
EXAMINATION FOR THE AIR FORCE WING OR GENERAL DUTIES
(PILOT) BRANCH OR NAVAL AIR ARM.

Candidates who have been given the Computerised Pilot Selection System
(CPSS) and Pilot Aptitude Test (which forms the whole PAB Test) for any
previous N.D.A. course should submit their application for this examination
for the Air Force Wing only if they have been notified as having qualified in
the Pilot Aptitude Test.

The form and manner of communication of the result of the examination to

individual candidates shall be decided by the Commission at their discretion

14
and the Commission will not enter into correspondence with them regarding
the result.

Success in the examination confers no right of admission to the Academy. A

candidate must satisfy the appointing authority that he is suitable in all
respects for admission to the Academy.

10. DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING

COURSE:

Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the National

Defence Academy, or to the 10 + 2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval
Academy but were removed therefrom for lack of officer-like qualities or on
disciplinary grounds will not be admitted to the Academy.

Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the National

Defence Academy or Indian Naval Academy on medical grounds or left the
above Academy voluntarily are however, eligible for admission to the
Academy provided they satisfy the medical and other prescribed conditions.

11. NO REQUEST FOR WITHDRAWAL OF CANDIDATURE

RECEIVED FROM A CANDIDATE AFTER HE HAS SUBMITTED HIS
APPLICATION WILL BE ENTERTAINED UNDER ANY
CIRCUMSTANCES.

12. The details regarding (a) the scheme and syllabus of the examination,
(b) guidelines for filling up the online Application Form (c) Special
Instructions to candidates for objective type tests, (d) Physical standards for
admission to the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy and (e)
Brief particulars of the service etc., for candidates joining the National
Defence Academy and Naval Academy are given in Appendices I, II, III, IV
and V respectively.

(Om Prakash)
Under Secretary
Union Public Service Commission

15
 APPENDIX-I
(The Scheme and Syllabus of Examination)

A. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
1. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the
maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:
Subject Code Duration Maximum
Marks
Mathematics 01 2 Hours 300
General Ability Test 02 2 Hours 600

Total 900
SSB Test/Interview : 900

2. THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL CONSIST OF OBJECTIVE

TYPE QUESTIONS ONLY. THE QUESTION PAPERS (TEST BOOKLETS) OF
MATHEMATICS AND PART B OF GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE
SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS WELL AS ENGLISH.

3. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the

metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set.

4. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no

circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for
them.

5. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the
subjects at the examination.

6. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or Mathematical or

logarithmic table for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They
should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.

B. SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION

PAPER-I
MATHEMATICS
(Code No. 01)
(Maximum Marks-300)
1. ALGEBRA

Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams.

De Morgan laws, Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation.

Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex numbersbasic

properties, modulus, argument, cube roots of unity. Binary system of
numbers. Conversion of a number in decimal system to binary system and
vice-versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic
16
equations with real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two
variables by graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its
applications. Logarithms and their applications.

2. MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS :

Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix, basic

properties of determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix,
Applications-Solution of a system of linear equations in two or three
unknowns by Cramers rule and by Matrix Method.

3. TRIGONOMETRY :

Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrical

ratios. Trigonometric identities Sum and difference formulae. Multiple and
Sub-multiple angles. Inverse trigonometric functions. Applications-Height
and distance, properties of triangles.

4. ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY OF TWO AND THREE DIMENSIONS:

Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula. Equation

of a line in various forms. Angle between two lines. Distance of a point from a
line. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form. Standard forms of
parabola, ellipse and hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic. Point in a
three dimensional space, distance between two points. Direction Cosines and
direction ratios. Equation two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios.
Equation of a plane and a line in various forms. Angle between two lines and
angle between two planes. Equation of a sphere.

5. DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS :

Concept of a real valued functiondomain, range and graph of a

function. Composite functions, one to one, onto and inverse functions. Notion
of limit, Standard limitsexamples. Continuity of functionsexamples,
algebraic operations on continuous functions. Derivative of function at a
point, geometrical and physical interpretation of a derivativeapplications.
Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of a
function with respect to another function, derivative of a composite function.
Second order derivatives. Increasing and decreasing functions. Application of
derivatives in problems of maxima and minima.

6. INTEGRAL CALCULUS AND DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS :

Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by substitution

and by parts, standard integrals involving algebraic expressions,
trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions. Evaluation of definite
integralsdetermination of areas of plane regions bounded by curves
applications.

17
 Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation
of a differential equation by examples. General and particular solution of a
differential equations, solution of first order and first degree differential
equations of various typesexamples. Application in problems of growth
and decay.
7. VECTOR ALGEBRA :

Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and direction of a

vector. Unit and null vectors, addition of vectors, scalar multiplication of a
vector, scalar product or dot product of two vectors. Vector product or cross
product of two vectors. Applicationswork done by a force and moment of a
force and in geometrical problems.

8. STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY :

Statistics : Classification of data, Frequency distribution, cumulative

frequency distributionexamples. Graphical representationHistogram, Pie
Chart, frequency polygonexamples. Measures of Central tendencyMean,
median and mode. Variance and standard deviationdetermination and
comparison. Correlation and regression.

Probability : Random experiment, outcomes and associated sample space,

events, mutually exclusive and exhaustive events, impossible and certain
events. Union and Intersection of events. Complementary, elementary and
composite events. Definition of probabilityclassical and statistical
examples. Elementary theorems on probabilitysimple problems.
Conditional probability, Bayes theoremsimple problems. Random variable
as function on a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random
experiments giving rise to Binominal distribution.

PAPER-II
GENERAL ABILITY TEST
(Code No. 02)
(Maximum Marks600)
Part AENGLISH (Maximum Marks200)
The question paper in English will be designed to test the candidates
understanding of English and workman like use of words. The syllabus
covers various aspects like : Grammar and usage, vocabulary, comprehension
and cohesion in extended text to test the candidates proficiency in English.

Part BGENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Maximum Marks400)

The question paper on General Knowledge will broadly cover the

subjects : Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Social Studies, Geography and
Current Events.
- The syllabus given below is designed to indicate the scope of these subjects
included in this paper. The topics mentioned are not to be regarded as
exhaustive and questions on topics of similar nature not specifically
18
mentioned in the syllabus may also be asked. Candidates answers are
expected to show their knowledge and intelligent understanding of the
subject.
Section A (Physics)

Physical Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight, Volume,

Density and Specific Gravity, Principle of Archimedes, Pressure Barometer.
Motion of objects, Velocity and Acceleration, Newtons Laws of
Motion, Force and Momentum, Parallelogram of Forces, Stability and
Equilibrium of bodies, Gravitation, elementary ideas of work, Power and
Energy. Effects of Heat, Measurement of Temperature and Heat, change of
State and Latent Heat, Modes of transference of Heat. Sound waves and their
properties, Simple musical instruments. Rectilinear propagation of Light,
Reflection and refraction. Spherical mirrors and Lenses, Human Eye.
Natural and Artificial Magnets, Properties of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet.
Static and Current Electricity, conductors and Non-conductors,
Ohms Law, Simple Electrical Circuits, Heating, Lighting and Magnetic effects
of Current, Measurement of Electrical Power, Primary and Secondary Cells,
Use of X-Rays. General Principles in the working of the following:
Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon, Levers, Balloon, Pumps,
Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask, Gramophone, Telegraphs,
Telephone, Periscope, Telescope, Microscope, Mariners Compass; Lightening
Conductors, Safety Fuses.

Section B (Chemistry)

Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures and

Compounds, Symbols, Formulae and simple Chemical Equations, Law of
Chemical Combination (excluding problems). Properties of Air and Water.

Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen and

Carbondioxide, Oxidation and Reduction. Acids, bases and salts. Carbon
different forms. FertilizersNatural and Artificial. Material used in the
preparation of substances like Soap, Glass, Ink, Paper, Cement, Paints, Safety
Matches and Gun-Powder. Elementary ideas about the structure of Atom,
Atomic Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency.

Section C (General Science)

Difference between the living and non-living. Basis of LifeCells,

Protoplasms and Tissues. Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals.
Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs. Common
Epidemics, their causes and prevention.

FoodSource of Energy for man. Constituents of food, Balanced Diet. The

Solar SystemMeteors and Comets, Eclipses. Achievements of Eminent
Scientists.

Section D (History, Freedom Movement etc.)

19
A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation.
Freedom Movement in India. Elementary study of Indian Constitution and
Administration. Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India.
Panchayati Raj, Co-operatives and Community Development. Bhoodan,
Sarvodaya, National Integration and Welfare State, Basic Teachings of
Mahatma Gandhi.
Forces shaping the modern world; Renaissance, Exploration and
Discovery; War of American Independence. French Revolution, Industrial
Revolution and Russian Revolution. Impact of Science and Technology on
Society. Concept of one World, United Nations, Panchsheel, Democracy,
Socialism and Communism. Role of India in the present world.

Section E (Geography)

The Earth, its shape and size. Lattitudes and Longitudes, Concept of
time. International Date Line. Movements of Earth and their effects.
Origin of Earth. Rocks and their classification; WeatheringMechanical and
Chemical, Earthquakes and Volcanoes. Ocean Currents and Tides
Atmosphere and its composition; Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure,
Planetary Winds, Cyclones and Anti-cyclones; Humidity; Condensation and
Precipitation; Types of Climate, Major Natural regions of the World.
Regional Geography of IndiaClimate, Natural vegetation. Mineral and
Power resources; location and distribution of agricultural and Industrial
activities. Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India.
Main items of Imports and Exports of India.

Section F (Current Events)

Knowledge of Important events that have happened in India in the

recent years. Current important world events. Prominent personalitiesboth
Indian and International including those connected with cultural activities
and sports.

NOTE : Out of maximum marks assigned to part B of this paper, questions

on Sections A, B, C, D, E and F will carry approximately 25%, 15%,
10%, 20%, 20% and 10% weightages respectively.

Intelligence and Personality Test

The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process - stage I and
stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear
for stage II. The details are :

(a) Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture
Perception * Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted
based on combination of performance in OIR Test and PP&DT.

20
(b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology
Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days. The details
of these tests are given on the website joinindianarmy.nic.in.

The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors

viz. The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the
Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The mks are
allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of
the candidate holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are
also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three
techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage.

The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the
presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities and their trainability in a
candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended
at the SSB.
APPENDIXII

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR FILLING ONLINE

APPLICATION

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website

upsconline.nic.in
Salient Features of the Online Applications Form are given hereunder:
Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on
the above mentioned website.
Candidates will be required to complete the Online Application form
containing two stages viz. Part I and Part II.
The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one
hundred only) [except SC/ST candidates and those specified in Note-2
of Para 4 of the Notice who are exempted from payment of fee] either
by depositing the money in any branch of SBI by cash or by using net
banking facility of State Bank of India/State Bank of Bikaner &
Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of Mysore/State Bank of
Patiala/State Bank of Travancore or by using any
Visa/MasterCard/Rupay Credit/Debit Card.
Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have his
photograph and signature duly scanned in the .jpg format in such a
manner that each file should not exceed 40 KB and must not be less
than 3 KB in size for the photograph and 1 KB for the signature.
The Online Applications (Part I and II) can be filled from 7th June, 2017
to 30th June, 2017 till 6.00 PM.
Applicants should avoid submitting multiple applications. However,
if due to any unavoidable circumstances any applicant submits
multiple applications then he must ensure that the applications with
higher RID is complete in all respects.
In case of multiple applications, the applications with higher RID shall
be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall
not be adjusted against any other RID.
21
 The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application Form,
they are providing their valid and active E-mail Ids as the Commission
may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at
different stages of examination process.
The applicants are advised to check their e-mails at regular intervals
and ensure that the email address ending with @nic.in are directed to
their inbox folder and not to the SPAM folder or any other folder.
Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time without
waiting for the last date for submission of online application.

APPENDIXIII

Special Instructions to Candidates for objective type tests

1. Articles permitted inside Examination Hall

Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written)a good quality
Black Ball Pen for marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet
and sheet for rough work will be supplied by the invigilator.
2. Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall
Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those
specified above e.g. books, notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type
of calculators, mathematical and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils
of maps, slide rules, Test Booklets and rough sheets pertaining to earlier
session(s) etc.
Mobiles, phones, Bluetooth, pagers or any other communication devices
are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being
conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail
disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.
Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the
banned items including mobile phones/Bluetooth/pagers to the venue of
the examination, as arrangements for safekeeping cannot be assured.
Candidates are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the
Examination Halls, as safe keeping of the same cannot be assured.
Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.
3. Penalty for wrong Answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG
ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate. One
third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate given more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there
will be same penalty as above for that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there
will be no penalty for that question.

22
4. Unfair means strictly prohibited
No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit
his papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt
to obtain irregular assistance of any description.
5. Conduct in Examination Hall
No candidate should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene
in the Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission
for the conduct of the examination. Any such misconduct will be severely
penalised.
6. Answer Sheet particulars

(i) Write with Black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by test booklet
series (in bracket), subject code and roll number at the appropriate space
provided on the answer sheet at the top. Also encode your booklet series
(A, B, C, or D as the case may be), subject code and roll number in the
circles provided for the purpose in the answer sheet. The guidelines for
writing the above particulars and for encoding the above particulars are
given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on the test
booklet or answer sheet is un-numbered, please report immediately to the
invigilator and get the test booklet/answer sheet replaced.

(ii) Candidates should note that any omission/mistakes/discrepancy in

encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard
to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet
liable for rejection.

(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the
test booklet supplied to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing
pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet of the
same series and subject.

7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of
information asked for, on the answer sheet/test booklet/sheet for rough
work.

8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the

Answer Sheet. Do not write anything on the reverse of the answer sheet.

9. Since the answer sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines,

candidates should exercise due care in handling and filling up the answer
sheets. They should use black ball pen only to darken the circles. For
writing in boxes, they should use black ball pen. Since the entries made
by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account
while evaluating the answer sheets on computerised machines, they
should make these entries very carefully and accurately.

23
10. Method of marking answers

In the OBJECTIVE TYPE of examination, you do not write the answers.

For each question (hereinafter referred to as Item) several suggested
answers (hereinafter referred to as Responses) are given. You have to
choose one response to each item. The question paper will be in the Form
of TEST BOOKLET. The booklet will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2,
3.......etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will be given.
Your task will be to choose the correct response. If you think there is more
than one correct response, then choose what you consider the best
response.

In any case, for each item you are to select only one response, if you select
more than one response, your response will be considered wrong.
In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. From 1 to 160 are printed. Against each
numbers, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). After you have read
each item in the Test Booklet and decided which one of the given responses
is correct or the best. You have to mark your response by completely
blackening with black ball pen to indicate your response.
For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing
the letter (b) is to be completely blackened with black ball pen as shown
below :- Example : (a) (c) (d)

11. Entries in Scannable Attendance List.

Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball
pen only against their columns in the Scannable Attendance List, as given
below.
i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)
ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series
iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No.
iv) Write the Answer Sheet Serial No. and also blacken the
Corresponding circles below.
v) Append signature in the relevant column.
12. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If
any candidate indulges in disorderly or improper conduct he will render
himself liable for disciplinary action and/or imposition of a penalty as the
Commission may deem fit.
ANNEXURE

How to fill in the Answer Sheet of objective type tests in the Examination Hall

Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that since the
answer sheets are to be evaluated on machine, any violation of these instructions
may result in reduction of your score for which you would yourself be
responsible. Before you mark your responses on the Answer Sheet, you will have
to fill in various particulars in it.
As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he should check that it is
numbered at the bottom. If it is found un-numbered he should at once get it
replaced by a numbered one.

24
You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top line, which
reads thus:

   
Centre Subject S. Code Roll Number

If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the Mathematics
Paper* and your Roll No. is 081276, and your test booklet series is A you should
fill in thus, using black ball pen.

   
Centre Delhi Subject Mathe- S.Code 0 1 Roll Number 0 8 1 2 7 6
matics (A)

You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and subject in English
or Hindi

The test Booklet Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the top right hand
corner of the Booklet.

Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admission Certificate with

Black ball pen in the boxes provided for this purpose. Do not omit any zero(s)
which may be there.

The next step is to find out the appropriate subject code from the Time Table.
Now encode the Test Booklet Series, Subject Code and the Roll Number in the
circles provided for this purpose. Do the encoding with Black Ball pen. The name
of the Centre need not be encoded.

Writing and encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after receiving the Test
Booklet and confirming the Booklet Series from the same. For Mathematics
*subject paper of A Test Booklet Series you have to encode the subject code,
which is 01. Do it thus:
  ()  0 1
Booklet Series (A) Subject 0 0

1 1
A
2 2

B 3 3

4 4

C 5 5

6 6

D 7 7

8 8

9 9

25
 
Roll Number

All that is required is to blacken

0 8 1 2 7 6
completely the circle marked A
below the Booklet Series and 0 0 0 0 0 0

below the subject code blacken 1 1 1 1 1 1

completely the Circles for 0 (in 2 2 2 2 2 2

the first vertical column) and 1 3 3 3 3 3 3

(in the second vertical column). 4 4 4 4 4 4

You should then encode the Roll 5 5 5 5 5 5

No.081276. Do it thus similarly: 6 6 6 6 6 6

Important : Please ensure that 7 7 7 7 7 7

you have carefully encoded 8 8 8 8 8 8

your subject. Test Booklet 9 9 9 9 9 9

series and Roll Number:

*This is just illustrative and

may not be relevant to your
Examination.

APPENDIXIV

GUIDELINES FOR PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR ADMISSION TO THE

NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY.

NOTE : CANDIDATES MUST BE PHYSICALLY AND MENTALLY

FIT ACCORDING TO THE PRESCRIBED PHYSICAL STANDARDS. THE
GUIDELINES FOR THE SAME ARE GIVEN BELOW.

A NUMBER OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES ARE REJECTED

SUBSEQUENTLY ON MEDICAL GROUNDS. CANDIDATES ARE
THEREFORE ADVISED IN THEIR OWN INTEREST TO GET THEMSELVES
MEDICALLY EXAMINED BEFORE SUBMITTING THEIR APPLICATIONS
TO AVOID DISAPPOINTMENT AT THE FINAL STAGE.

Candidates are also advised to rectify minor defects/ailments in order

to speed up finalisation of medical examination conducted at the Military
Hospital after being recommended at the SSB.

26
Few of such commonly found defects/ailments are listed below :

(a) Wax (Ears)

(b) Deviated Nasal Septum
(c) Hydrocele/Phimosis
(d) Overweight/Underweight
(e) Under Sized Chest
(f) Piles
(g) Gynaecomastia
(h) Tonsillitis
(i) Varicocele

NOTE : Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearm
i.e. from inside of elbow to the wrist and on the reverse side of palm/back
(dorsal) side of hand/Permanent body tattoos on any other part of the body
are not acceptable and candidates will be barred from further selection. Tribes
with tattoo marks on the face or body as per their existing custom and
traditions will be permitted on a case to case basis. Comdt Selection Centre
will be competent auth for clearing such cases.
Civilian candidates appearing for all types of commission in the
Armed Forces will be entitled to out-patients treatment from service sources
at public expense for injuries sustained or diseases contracted during the
course of their examination by the Selection Board. They will also be entitled
to in-patient treatment at public expense in the Officers ward of a hospital
provided

(a) the injury is sustained during the tests or,

(b) the disease is contracted during the course of the examination by selection
board and there is no suitable accommodation in local civil hospital or it is
impracticable to remove the patient to the civil hospital; or,

(c) the medical board requires the candidates admission for observation.

NOTE : They are not entitled to special nursing.

A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board will

undergo a medical examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers. Only
those candidates will be admitted to the academy who are declared fit by the
Medical Board. The proceedings of the Medical Board are confidential and
will not be divulged to anyone. However, the candidates declared unfit will
be intimated by the President of the Medical Board and the procedure for
request for an Appeal Medical Board will also be intimated to the candidate.
Candidates declared unfit during Appeal Medical Board will be intimated
about the provision of Review Medical Board.

27
(a) The candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from
any disease/disability which is likely to interfere with the efficient
performance of Military duties.

(b) There should be no evidence of weak constitution, bodily defects or under

weight. The Candidate should not be overweight or obese.

(c) The minimum acceptable height is 157 cms(162.5 cms. for Air Force). For
Gorkhas and individuals belonging to hills of North-Eastern regions of India,
Garhwal and Kumaon, the minimum acceptable heights will be 5 cms. less. In
case of candidates from Lakshadweep the minimum acceptable height can be
reduced by 2 cms. Height and weight standards are given below :

HEIGHT/WEIGHT STANDARDS FOR

ARMY/AIR FORCE
TABLE-I
Height in Weight in Kgs.
Centimetres
(Without 16-17 17-18 18-19
shoes) years years years
1 2 3 4
152 42.5 44.0 45.0
155 43.5 45.3 47.0
157 45.0 47.0 48.0
160 46.5 48.0 49.0
162 48.0 50.0 51.0
165 50.0 52.0 53.0
167 51.0 53.0 54.0
170 52.5 55.0 56.0
173 54.5 57.0 58.0
175 56.0 59.0 60.0
178 58.0 61.0 62.0
180 60.0 63.0 64.5
183 62.5 65.0 66.5

28
 HEIGHT/WEIGHT STANDARDS FOR NAVY
TABLE-II

Height in Weight in Kgs.

Centimetres
(Without 16 18 20
shoes) years years years
1_________________2___________3___________4________________________
152 44 45 46
155 45 46 47
157 46 47 49
160 47 48 50
162 48 50 52
165 50 52 53
168 52 53 55
170 53 55 57
173 55 57 59
175 57 59 61
178 59 61 62
180 61 63 64
183 63 65 67

Individuals weight is considered normal if it is within 10% departure from

average weight given in the table I and II. However, in individuals with
heavy bones and broad build as well as individuals with thin build but
otherwise healthy this may be relaxed to some extent on merit.

NOTE 1 : Height relaxable upto 2.5 cm. (5 cm. for Navy in case of
candidates below 18 years of age) may be allowed where the Medical Board
certifies that the candidate is likely to grow and come up to the required
standard on completion of his training.

NOTE 2 : To meet special requirement as a pilot in the Air Force the

acceptable measurements of leg length, thigh length and sitting height will be
as under :

Minimum Maximum
Leg Length 99.00 cms. 120.00 cms.
Thigh Length 64.00 cms.
Sitting Height 81.50 cms. 96.00 cms.

(d) Chest should be well developed. Fully expanded chest should not be less
than 81 cms. The minimum range of expansion after full inspiration should be
5 cms. The measurement will be taken with a tape so adjusted that its lower
edge should touch the nipple in front and the upper part of the tape should
touch the lower angle of the shoulder blades behind. X-Ray of the chest is
compulsory and will be taken to rule out any disease of the chest.

29
 (e) There should be no maldevelopment or impairment of function of the
bones or joint.

Spinal Conditions
-
(f) Past medical history of diseases or injury of the spine or sacro iliac joints,
either with or without objective signs which have prevented the candidate
from successfully following a physically active life, is a cause for rejection for
commissioning in IAF. History of spinal fracture/prolapsed intervertebral
disc and surgical treatment for these conditions will entail rejection. The
following conditions detected radiologically during medical exam will
disqualify a candidate for Air Force service:

(i) Granulomatous disease of spine

(ii) Arthritidies/spondylosis
Rheumatoid arthritis and allied disorders
Ankylosing spondylitis
Osteoarthrosis, spondylosis and degenerative joint disease
Non articular rheumatism (e.g. lesions of the rotator cuff, tennis elbow,
recurrent lumbago etc.)
Miscellaneous disorders including SLE, , polymyositis, vasculitis.
(iii) Spondylolisthesis/spondylolysis.
(iv) Compression fracture of vertebrae.
(v) Scheuerman's disease (Adolescent kyphosis)
(vi) Loss of cervical lordosis when associated with clinically restricted
movements of cervical spine.
(vii) Unilateral/Bilateral cervical ribs with demonstrable neurological or
circulatory deficit.
(viii) Scoliosis more than 15 degree as measured by Cobb's method.
(ix) Degenerative Disc. Disease.
(x) Presence of schmorl's nodes at more than one level.
(xi) Atlanto-occipital and atlantoaxial anomalies.
(xii) Hemi vertebrae and/or incomplete block (fused) vertebrae at any level
in cervical, dorsal or lumbar spine and complete block (fused) vertebrae at
more than one level in cervical or dorsal spine.
(xiii) Unilateral Sacralisation or lumbarisation (Complete or incomplete) at
all levels and bilateral incomplete sacralisation or lumbarisation.
(xiv) Any other abnormality if so considered by the specialist.

(g) Mild Kyphosis or Lordosis where deformity is barely noticeable and there
is no pain or restriction of movement will not preclude acceptance.

(h) In case of noticeable Scoliosis or suspicion of any other abnormality or

spinal deformity, more than mild, appropriate X-rays of the spine are to be
taken and the Examinee referred for specialists advice.

(i) The following conditions detected on X-ray examination will be

disqualifying for entry to Armed Forces :

30
(i) Granulomatius disease of spine.
(ii) Arthritidies/spondylosis
(iii) Scoliosis more than 15 degree as measured by Cobbs Method
(10 degree for Army and Navy).
(iv) More than mild Kyphosis/Lordosis
(v) Spondylolisthesis/Spondylosis/Spondylolysis
(vi) Herniated nucleus pulposes.
(vii) Compression fracture of Vertebra.

(viii) Sacaralisation Disease

(ix) Cervical ribs with demonstrable neurological or Circulatory

deficit.

(x) Presence of Schmorls node at more than one level.

(xi) Atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial anomalies.

(xii) Incomplete Sacaralisation Unilateral or Bilateral

(xiii) Spina Bifida other than SV 1 and LV 5 if completely Sacralised

(xiv) Any other abnormality, if so considered by specialist.

(j) A candidate should have no past history of mental breakdown or

fits.

(k) The hearing should be normal. A candidate should be able to

hear a forced whisper with each ear at a distance of 610 cms. in a
quiet room. There should be no evidence of present or past
disease of the ear, nose and throat. Audiometric test will be done
for AF. Audiometric hearing loss should not be greater than 20
db in frequencies between 250 and 8000 Hz. There is no
impediment of speech.

(l) There should be no signs of functional or organic disease of the

heart and blood vessels. Blood pressure should be normal.

(m) There should be no enlargement of liver or spleen. Any evidence

of disease of internal organs of the abdomen will be a cause for
rejection.

(n) Un-operated hernias will make a candidate unfit. In case of

Hernia which has been operated, a minimum of 6 months must
have passed prior to final medical examination before
commencement of the course.

31
 (o) There should be no hydrocele, varicocele or piles.

(p) Urine examination will be done and any abnormality if detected

will be a cause for rejection.

(q) Any disease of skin which is likely to cause disability or

disfigurement will also be a cause for rejection.

(r) Distance Vision (Corrected): Better Eye 6/6, Worse Eye 6/9. Myopia
should not be more than -2.5D and manifest hypermetropia not more than
+3.5D including Astigmatism. Internal examination of the eye will be done
by means of ophthalmoscope to rule out any disease of the eye. A candidate
must have good binocular vision. The Colour vision standard will be CP-III
(Defective Safe). Candidates should be able to recognize white, signal red
and signal green colours correctly as shown by Martins Lantern at a distance
of 1.5 metre or read the requisite plate of Ishihara Book / Tokyo Medical
College Book. Candidates who have undergone or have evidence for having
undergone Radial Keratotomy, to improve the visual acuity will be
permanently rejected for all the services. Candidates who have undergone
Laser Surgery for correction of refractive error are also not acceptable to
defence services.

Vision standard for Naval candidates

Uncorrected without glass 6/6, 6/9

Corrected with glass 6/6, 6/6
Limits of Myopia 0.75
Limits of Hypermetropia +1.5
Binocular vision III
Limits of colour perception I

Visual Standards for Air Force

Candidates who habitually wear spectacles are not eligible for Air
Force, Minimum distant vision 6/6 in one eye and
6/9 in other, correctable to 6/6 only for Hypermetropia. Colour vision CP-I
Hypermetropia : +2.0 D Sph Manifest Myopia : Nil Retinoscopic Myopia : 0.5
in any Meridian permitted Astigmatism : + 0.75 D Cyl (within + 2.0 D.Max)
Maddox Rod Test

(i) at 6 meters Exo-6 prism D

Eso-6 prism D
Hyper-1 prism D
Hypro-1 prism D

(ii) at 33 cms Exo-16 prism D

Eso-6 prism D
Hyper-1 prism D
Hypo-1 prism D
32
Hand held StereoscopeAll of BSV grades ConvergenceUp to 10 cm Cover test for
distant and nearLatent divergence/convergence recovery rapid and complete.
(a) Candidates who have undergone PRK (Photo Refractive Keratotomy / Lasik
(Laser in Situ Keratomileusis) may be considered fit for commissioning in the Air
Force in all branches. Candidates having undergone cataract surgery with or without
IOL implants will also be declared unfit. Binocular vision must possess good
binocular vision (fusion and stereopsis with good amplitude and depth).

(b) Post PRK/Lasik candidates must meet the visual requirements required for the
branch.
(c) The following criteria must be satisfied prior to selecting post-PRK/LASIK at the
time of Air Force Medical Examination:-

(i) LASIK surgery should not have been carried out before the age of 20 years.
(ii) The axial length of the eye should not be more than 25.5 mm as measured by
IOL master.
(iii)At least 12 months should have elapsed post uncomplicated stable LASIK
with no history or evidence of any complication.
(iv) The post LASIK corneal thickness as measured by a corneal pachymeter
should not be less than 450 microns.
(v) Individual with high refractive errors (> 6D) prior to LASIK are to be
excluded.
(vi) Radial Keratotomy (RK) surgery for correction of refractive errors is not
permitted for any Air Force duties. Candidates having undergone cataract
surgery with or without IOL implants will also be declared unfit.
(s) USG abdomen examination will be carried out and any congential
structural anomaly or disease of the abdominal organs will be a cause for
rejection in Armed Forces.
(t) The candidates should have sufficient number of natural and sound teeth.
A minimum of 14 dental points will be acceptable. When 32 teeth are present,
the total dental points are 22. A candidate should not be suffering from severe
pyorrhoea.

(u) Routine ECG for Air Force candidates must be within normal limits.

(v) Physical conditioning : Prospective candidates are advised to keep

themselves in good physical condition, by following the under mentioned
routine :

(a) Running 2.4 km in 15 minutes

(b) Skipping

(c) Pushups and sit ups (minimum 20 each)

(d) Chin ups (minimum 08)

(e) Rope climbing 3-4 metres.

33
 APPENDIX-V
(BRIEF PARTICULARS OF THE SERVICE ETC.)

1. Before a candidate joins the Academy, the parent or guardian will be

required to sign :

(a) A certificate to the effect that he fully understands that he or his son or
ward shall not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from the
Government in respect of any injury which his son or ward may sustain in the
course of or as a result of the training or where bodily infirmity or death
results in the course of or as a result of a surgical operation performed upon
or anesthesia administered to him for the treatment of any injury received as
aforesaid or otherwise.
(b) A bond to the effect that if, on account of his dismissal or discharge
or withdrawal from National Defence Academy for knowingly furnishing
false particulars or suppressing material information in his application for
admission to the said National Defence Academy or in the event of his being
dismissed or discharged or withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from the said,
National Defence Academy or for any reason not beyond the control of the
cadet, he does not complete the prescribed period of training, or he, the cadet,
does not accept a Commission if offered as conventated above, then the
Guarantors and the cadet shall jointly and severally be liable to pay forthwith
to Government in cash sums as the Government shall fix but not exceeding
such expenses as shall have been incurred by the Government on account of
the Cadet on his training and all the money received by the Cadets as pay and
allowance from the Government together with interest on the said money
calculated at the rate in force for Government loans.

2. The cost of training including accommodation, books, uniforms,

boarding and medical treatment will be borne by the Government. Parents or
guardians of cadets, will, however, be required to meet their pocket and other
private expenses. Normally these expenses are not likely to exceed Rs.
3000.00 p.m. If in any case a cadetss parents or guardian is unable to meet
wholly or partly even this expenditure financial assistance of Rs. 1000.00 p.m.
for the period of training may be granted by the Government whose parents
income is less than Rs. 21,000/- per month. Cadet whose parents or
guardians income exceeds Rs. 21,000/- per month will not be liable for the
assistance. If more than one son/ward simultaneously undergoing training at
NDA, IMA, OTA and corresponding training establishment in the Navy and
Air Force, then BOTH would be eligible for the financial assistance.

The parent/guardian of a candidate desirous of having financial

assistance from the Government should immediately after his son/ward
having been finally selected for training at the National Defence Academy
submit an application through the District Magistrate of his District who will
forward the application with his recommendation to the Commandant,
National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla, Pune-411023.
34
3. Candidates finally selected for training at the Academy will be required
to deposit the following amount with the Commandant, National Defence
Academy, on their arrival there :
(a) Pocket allowance for five months Rs. 15000.00
@ Rs. 3000.00 per month.

(b) For items of clothing and equipment Rs. 17865.00

(c) Army Group Insurance Fund Rs. 6400.00

(d) Incidental Expenditure during Rs. 7516.00

1st Semester
Total Rs. 46781.00

Out of the amount mentioned above the following amount is

refundable to the candidates in the event of financial aid being sanctioned to
them :

(a) Pocket allowance for five months Rs. 2000.00

at Rs. 400.00 per month
(Corresponding to Govt. Financial
Assistance)

(b) For items of clothing and equip- Rs. 13935.00

ment approximately
4. The following Scholarships/Financial Assistance are tenable at the
National Defence Academy.

(1) PARASHURAM BHAU PATWARDHAN SCHOLARSHIPThis

Scholarship is granted to cadets overall first in Academics of Passing out
Course. One time scholarship amount is Rs. 5000/-.

(2) COLONEL KENDAL FRANK MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP

This scholarship is of the value of Rs. 360.00 per annum and awarded to a
MARATHA cadet who should be the son of an ex-serviceman. The
scholarship is in addition to any financial assistance from the Government.

(3) KAUR SINGH MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIPTwo scholarships

are awarded to cadets who obtain the highest position amongst candidates
from BIHAR. The value of each scholarship is Rs. 37.00 per mensem tenable
for a maximum period of 4 years during the training at the National Defence
Academy, Khadakwasla and thereafter at the Indian Military Academy,
Dehra Dun and the Air Force Flying College; and Indian Naval Academy,
Ezhimala where the cadets may be sent for training on completion of their
training at the National Defence Academy. The scholarship will, however, be
continued subject to maintaining good progress at the above institution.
(4) ASSAM GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPTwo scholarships
will be awarded to the cadets from ASSAM. The value of each scholarship is
35
 Rs. 30.00 per mensem and is tenable for the duration of a cadets stay at the
National Defence Academy. The scholarships will be awarded to the two best
cadets from ASSAM without any reference to the income of their parents. The
cadets who are granted this scholarship will not be entitled to any other
financial assistance from the Government.

(5) UTTAR PRADESH GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPSTwo

scholarships each of the value of Rs. 30.00 per month and an outfit stipend of
Rs. 400.00 are awarded to two cadets who belong to UTTAR PRADESH on
merit-cum-means basis and are tenable for a period of three years subject to
satisfactory performance by the cadets at National Defence Academy. Cadets
who are granted these Scholarships are not entitled to any other financial
assistance from Government.

(6) KERALA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPSOne merit

scholarship of the value of Rs. 480/- per annum for the entire period of
training at NDA, will be awarded by the State Government of Kerala to a
Cadet who is domiciled resident of the State of KERALA and who secures the
first position in the All India UPSC Entrance Examination to NDA
irrespective of the fact whether he has passed out from RIMC or from any of
the Sainik Schools in India. The financial position of a Cadets
father/guardian is not taken into consideration.

(7) BIHARI LAL MANDAKINI PRIZEThis is cash prize of Rs.

500.00 available for the best BENGALI boy in each Course of the Academy.
Application Forms are available with the Commandant, National Defence
Academy.
(8) ORISSA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPSThese
scholarships, one for the Army, one for the Navy and the other for the Air
Force of the value of Rs. 80.00 each per month will be awarded by the
Government of Orissa to the cadets who are permanent residents of the State
of ORISSA. Two of these scholarships will be awarded on the basis of merit-
cum-means of the cadets whose parents or guardians income does not
exceed Rs. 5,000/- per annum and the other one will be given to the best cadet
irrespective of his parents or guardians income.

(9) State Government Amount Eligibility

(i) The cadet must be Indian
West Bengal
Low Middle High Citizen and the cdt and/or his
*Income
of/or permanently domiciled in
Initial Lump sum 5000/- 3750/ 2500/- the State of West Bengal.
grant (ii) The Cadet is not in receipt of
Scholarship per 1800/- 1350/- 900/- any other financial assistance/
semester grant from the Govt. of India

36
 *Table Income group and/or the State Government or
Low - up to Rs. 9000/-pm any other authority
Middle - Rs. 9001/- to Rs. 18000/-pm excepting scholarship or stipend
High - Above 18000/-pm received on merit.
(10) Goa Rs. 1000/- per month during the (i) The income limit of the cadet's
period of training (subject to a maximum of parent/guardian shall not
24 months or duration of the guardian shall not exceed Rs.
course whichever is less) & one time outfit 15,000/- pm (Rs. 1,80,000/- per
allowance of Rs. 12,000/- annum).
(ii) The income limit of those
belonging to SC/ST/OBC
should not exceed Rs.
37,500/- per month (Rs. 4,50,000/-
per annum).
(iii) He should not be
receiving financial
assistance/freeship from any other
source.
(11) Nagaland Rs. 1,00,000/- one time payment Should be domicile of Nagaland
State.
(12) Manipur Rs. 1,00,000/- one time payment Should be domicile of Manipur
State.
(14) Gujarat Scholarship Rs. 6,000/- per To the ward of Serving/Ex-
annum servicemen (incl Ex/Serving
Officer) of Native/
Domicile of Gujarat.

(15) Uttarakhand
(a) Pocket Money Rs. 250/- pm for NDA Cadets of Uttarakhand domicile is paid to
father/guardian of cadets (Ex-Servicemen/Widow, through respective Zilla Sainik
Kalyan Officers.)
(b) Cash Award of Rs. 50,000/- for NDA Cadets of Uttarakhand domicile is paid to
father/guardian of cadets through Directorate of Higher Education, Haldwani.
(16) Punjab Rs. 1,00,000/-(one time Should be domicile of Punjab State.
payment)
(17) State Govt. Rs.1.5 lakhs for all Offrs Award for successful candidates of
Sikkim entry schemes Sikkim for all Officersentry
schemes.

(18) Fg Officer Anuj Nanchal Memorial Scholarship. Rs. 1500/- (One time payment)
Second best all round Air Force cadet of VI term

(19) Pilot Officer Gurmeet Singh Bedi Memorial Scholarship. Pilot Officer Gurmeet
Singh Bedi Memorial Scholarship. Rs. 1500/- (One time payment). Best all round
Air Force cadet at the time of Passing Out of VI term.
37
 (20) HIMACHAL PRADESH GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP
Four scholarships will be awarded to cadets from HIMACHAL PRADESH.
The value of each scholarship is Rs. 30.00 per month during the first two years
of training and Rs. 48.00 per month during the third year of training. These
scholarships will be available to those cadets whose parents income is below
Rs. 500.00 per month. No cadet in receipt of financial assistance from the
Government will be eligible for this scholarship.

(21) TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPhe

Government of Tamil Nadu has instituted at NDA one scholarship per course
of the value of Rs. 30/- per month plus an outfit allowance of Rs. 400/- (one
only during the entire period of cadets training) to be awarded to a cadet
belonging to the State of TAMIL NADU whose parents/guardians monthly
income does not exceed Rs. 500/-. The application by an eligible cadet can be
made to the Commandant, National Defence Academy on their arrival.

(22) KARNATAKA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPSThe Govt.

of Karnataka has awarded scholarships to cadets from Karnataka State who
join the National Defence Academy. The value of the scholarship shall be Rs.
1000/- (Rupees One thousand) per month and outfit allowance of Rs. 12000/-
in first term.

(23) ALBERT EKKA SCHOLARSHIPThe Government of Bihar has

instituted at NDA 25 Merit Scholarships at Rs. 50/- per month for entire
period of six terms at the NDA and Rs. 650/- one time towards clothing and
equipment. The cadet awarded the above merit scholarship would not be
eligible for any other scholarship or financial assistance from the Government.
The application by an eligible cadet can be made to the Commandant,
National Defence Academy on their arrival.

(24) FG OFFICER DV PINTOO MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIPGp

Capt. M Vashishta has instituted 3 scholarships of Rs. 125/- each per month at
NDA for one term to be awarded to the first three cadets in the order of merit
on completion of their first semester till end of second term. The cadets in
receipt of Govt. Financial Assistance will not be eligible for the above
scholarships. The application for eligible cadets can be made to the
Commandant, NDA on arrival.

(25) FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO WARDS OF EX-

SERVICEMENMAHARASHTRA STATE
The wards of Maharashtrian ex-service officers/men who are
undergoing training as cadets at NDA will be given Rs. 50,000/- as one time
incentive.
The parents/guardians of the wards should submit their applications to their
respective Zilla Sainik Welfare Office alongwith the certificates obtained from
the Academy. Terms and conditions governing these scholarships are
38
obtainable from the Commandant, National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla,
Pune 411 023.

(26) AWARD OF FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO CANDIDATES OF

HARYANA DOMICILE UNDER TRAINING AT NDA.

The Haryana State Govt. has declared a cash award of Rs. 1,00,000/- (Rupees
one lakh) to every individual who successfully completes the training at
NDA/IMA/OTA and other Defence Academies of National Status and
domicile of State of Haryana.

(27) INCENTIVE GRANT TO CADETS DOMICILE OF UT,

CHANDIGARH UNDER TRAINING AT NDA.

Chandigarh Administration has introduced the scheme for grant of one time
incentive of Rs. 1,00,000/- (Rupees one lakh) to the cadets who are resident of
UT, Chandigarh and joined NDA .

5. Immediately after the selected candidates join the Academy, a

preliminary examination will be held in the following subjects:

(a) English;
(b) Mathematics;
(c) Science;
(d) Hindi.
The standard of the examination in the subjects at (a), (b) and (c) will not be
higher than that of the Higher Secondary Examination of an Indian University
or Board of Higher Secondary Education. The paper in the subject at (d) is
intended to test the standard attained by the candidate in Hindi at the time of
joining the Academy.
Candidates are, therefore, advised not to neglect their studies after the
competitive examination.
TRAINING

6. The selected candidates for the three services, viz., Army, Navy and Air
Force are given preliminary training both academic and physical for a period
of 3 years at the National Defence Academy which is an Inter-Service
Institution. The training during the first two and half years is common to the
cadets of three wings. All the cadets on passing out will be awarded degrees from
Jawaharlal Nehru University, Delhi as under :-
(a) Army Cadets - B.Sc./B.Sc. (Computer)/BA /B.Tech degree*
(b) Naval Cadets - B.Tech degree*
(c) Air Force Cadets - B.Tech degree*

*Note : All the cadets undergoing B.Sc./B.Sc (Computer)/BA Degree programme

shall be awarded the degree on the successful completion of Academics, Physical and
Service Training at NDA. All the cadets undergoing B. Tech programme shall be
awarded the B.Tech degree on the successful completion of Academics. Physical and
Service Training at NDA and the subsequent Pre Commissioning Training
Academies/Institutions/Ships/Air Craft.

39
 The selected candidates of the Naval Academy will be given
preliminary training both academic and physical, for a period of 04 years at
Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala. The cadets of 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme
will be awarded a B. Tech Degree on successful completion of training.

7. On passing out from the National Defence Academy, Army Cadets go

to the Indian Military Academy, Dehra Dun, Naval Cadets to Indian Naval
Academy, Ezhimala and Air Force cadets to AFA, HYDERABAD.

8. At the I.M.A. Army Cadets are known as Gentlemen Cadets and are
given strenuous military training for a period of one year aimed at turning
officer capable of leading infantry Sub-units. On successful completion of
training Gentlemen Cadets are granted Permanent Commission in the rank of
Lt subject to being medically fit in "SHAPE" one.

9. The Naval cadets are selected for the Executive Branch of the Navy, on
passing out from the National Defence Academy and are given further
training at Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala for a period of one year on
successful completion of which they are promoted to the rank of Sub
Lieutenants.

10. Air Force Cadets receive flying training for a period of 1 years.
However, at the end of 1 year of training they are given provisional
Commission in the rank of Flying Officer. After successful completion of
further training of six months they are absorbed as permanent commissioned
officers on probation for a period of one year.

TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF SERVICES

11. Army Officers and equivalent ranks in Air Force and Navy

(i) Fixed Stipend for Cadet Training

Gentlemen cadets during the entire duration of training in Service

academies i.e. during training period at IMA and OTA shall be entitled to
stipend of Rs. 21,000/- p.m. (Rs. 15,600/- as pay in Pay Band plus Grade Pay
of Rs. 5,400/-).

(ii) Pay

(a) Rank Pay Band (Rs.)

Lt to Maj 15,60039,100/- (PB-3)

Lt Col to Maj Gen 37,40067,000/- (PB-4)
Lt Gen HAG Scale 67,000/-(annual increment @3%)--79,000/-
HAG+ Scale* 75,500/-(annual increment @3%) 80,000/-

(*Admissible to 1/3rd of total strength of Lt Gens)

VCOAS/Army Cdr/Lt Gen (NFSG) 80,000/- (fixed)
COAS 90,000/- (fixed)
40
(b) In addition to pay, Grade Pay will also be given as under :

Lt Rs. 5,400/-
Capt Rs. 6,100/-
Major Rs. 6,600/-
Lt Col Rs. 8,000/-
Col Rs. 8,700/-
Brig Rs. 8,900/-
Maj Gen Rs. 10,000/-

(c) A Fixed sum of Rs. 6,000/- p.m. is also payable as Military Service Pay
(MSP) to the officers from the rank of Lt to Brig.

(iii) QUALIFICATION PAY AND GRANT

Officers possessing certain prescribed Qualification are

entitled to lumpsum Qualification Grant of Rs. 6,000/-,
9,000/-, 15,000/- or 20,000/- based on the qualification held by
them.

The Army Aviators (Pilots) serving in Army Aviation Corps are entitled to the
Qualification Pay, based on the Qualification held by them, as under :
(i) Master Aviation InstructorRs. 500/- p.m.
(ii) Senior Aviation Instructor Class IRs. 400/- p.m.
(iii) Senior Aviation Instructor Class IIRs. 280/- p.m.
(iv) Aviators holding Master Green CardRs. 400/- p.m.
(v) Aviators holding Green Card Rs. 280/- p.m.

The Army Aviators (Pilots) serving in the Army Aviation Corps are
entitled to flying allowance as under :

(a) Brig & above Rs. 10,500/-

(b) Maj to Col Rs. 14,000/-
(c) Capt Rs. 11,000/-
(d) Lt Rs. 9,000/-

(iv) Allowances

In addition to pay, an officer at present receives the following

allowances :

(a) Dearness Allowances are admissible at the same rates and under
the same conditions as are applicable to the Civilian Gazetted Officers from
time to time.

(b) A kit maintenance allowance of Rs. 400/- p.m.

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 (c) Depending upon rank and area of posting, officer posted to Field
Areas will be eligible for compensatory Highly Active Field Area Allowance
at the rate of Rs. 6,780/- to Rs. 8,400/- p.m., Compensatory Field Area
Allowance at the rate of Rs. 4,200/- to Rs. 5,200/- p.m. and Compensatory
Modified Field Area Allowance at the rate of Rs. 1,600/- to Rs. 2,000/- p.m.

(d) In addition to the Compensatory Field Areas Allowance, officers

posted to areas situated at a height of 9000 ft. and above are entitled for High
Altitude Allowance in the range of Rs. 1,060/- p.m. to Rs. 11,200/- p.m.
depending upon rank of the officer and place of posting.

(e) Uniform allowance : Initial allowance for one time kit @ Rs. 14,000/- and
Rs. 3,000/- for every three years.

(f) Transport allowance : Transport @ Rs. 3,200/- + DA thereon p.m. in A-

1/A class Cities and Rs. 1,600/- + DA thereon p.m. at other places shall be
admissible to officers.
Note : In the case of allowances specific to Defence Forces, the rates of these
allowances have been further enhanced by 50% as Dearness Allowance has
gone up by 100%.

12. (a) Army Group Insurance Fund is a compulsory contributory group

scheme, which provides insurance cover for Rs. 15 Lac on payment of one
time non refundable premium of Rs. 6400/- for 3 years paid in advance in
lump sum by the cadets including Naval and Air Force Cadets of NDA from
the date of joining for Pre-commission training till completion of training at
NDA. In case of relegation, an additional premium of Rs. 1160/- per relegated
term will be paid immediately on occurrence. For those who are medically
boarded out of NDA on account of Disability, the cover provided is 50 per
cent of the insured amount for 100 per cent disability i.e. Rs.7.5 lac for 100 per
cent disability which is proportionately reduced to Rs.1.5 lakh for 20 per cent
disability. Cadets being boarded out with less than 20 per cent disability
during initial years of training will be given an ex-gratia grant of Rs. 50,000/-
and Rs. 1 lac for cadet invalided out with less than 20 per cent disability
during last year of training. Disability due to alcoholism, drug addiction and
due to the diseases of pre-enrolment origin will not qualify for disability
benefits and ex-gratia. In addition, a cadet withdrawn on disciplinary
grounds or as undesirable or voluntarily leaves the Academy will also not be
eligible for disability benefits and ex-gratia.

(b) At IMA when in receipt of stipend, the Gentlemen Cadets are

provided insurance cover of Rs. 75 lac with a monthly contribution of Rs.
5,000/- w.e.f. 01 October, 2016 as per main AGI scheme as applicable to
regular officers. Those who are medically boarded out of IMA on account of
disability, the cover provided is Rs. 25 Lac for 100 per cent disability which is
proportionately reduced to Rs. 5 lac for 20 per cent and an ex-gratia grant of
Rs. 50,000/- for less than 20 per cent disability. Disability due to alcoholism,
drug addiction and due to the diseases of pre enrolment origin will not
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 qualify for disability benefits and ex-gratia. In addition, a cadet withdrawn on
disciplinary grounds or as undesirable or voluntarily leaves the Academy will
also not be eligible for disability benefits and ex-gratia.
13. PROMOTIONAL AVENUES:

S.No. Army Navy Air Force Minimum

Reckonable
Commissioned
Service
required for
Substantive
Promotion
(a) Lieutenant Sub Flying Officer On
Lieutenant Commission
(b) Captain Lieutenant Flight Lieutenant 02 Years
(c) Major Lt. Squadron Leader 06 years
Commander
(d) Lieutenant Colonel Commander Wing 13 years
Commander
(e) Colonel(Selection) Captain Group Captain 15 years
(Selection) (Selection)
(f) Colonel Captain Group Captain 26 years
(Time Scale) (Time Scale) (Time Scale)
(g) Brigadier Commodore Air Commodore On Selection
(h) Major General Rear Admiral Air Vice Marshal On Selection
(i) Lieutenant General Vice Admiral Air Marshal On Selection
(j) General Admiral Air Chief On Selection
Marshal

14. RETIREMENT BENEFITS

Pension, gratuity and casualty pensionary award will be admissible in

accordance with the rules in force from time to time.

15. LEAVE

Leave will be admissible in accordance with the rules in force from

time to time.

***

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