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Anatomic Sciences

Cranial nerves with parasympathetic function CN III (occulomotor)


CN VII (Facial)

CN IX (glossopharyngeal)
CN X (vagus)

Cranial nerves (Sensory, motor, or both) Mnemonic:


Some Say Money Matters But My Brother Says Big

Boobs Matter More

Retroperitoneal organs Suprarenal glands


Aorta

Duodenum
Pancreas (except tail)

Ureter
Colon (ascending and descending)

Kidneys
Esophagus

Rectum

Union of superficial temporal vein and maxillary


vein (pterygoid plexus drains to the maxillary vein)
Retromandibular vein

Originates on lateral surface of skull and passes


medial to zygomatic arch and inserts into coronoid
Temporalis muscle

process of mandible
Cell bodies of primary sensory neurons of Mesencephalic nucleus of V (Trigeminal)

proprioreception and mechanoreceptors in


periodontal ligament found in?

Jaw-jerk reflex Mesencephalic nucleus

Primary sensory neurons nucleus of termination


involved in pain from maxillary second molar is?
Spinal nucleus of V (Trigeminal)

Fordyce spots appearing on mucous membrane of


cheek results from the presence of?
Aberrant sebaceous glands

Acidophils (alpha cells) of anterior hypophysis Growth hormone


secrete?

Pars distalis (alpha and beta cells) is located? Anterior Pituitary

Pars nervosa (unmyelinated nerve fibers) is located?


Development of upward growth of Rathkes pouch?
Posterior Pituitary
Anterior pituitary

Development of downward growth of diencephalon


and 3rd ventricle?
Posterior Pituitary

Pituicytes are located in? Posterior Pituitary (pars nervosa)


Serotonin thought to be produced by? Enteroendocrine (argentaffin) cells

What is found between basal lamina and secretory Basket (myoepithelial) cells
cell membrane?

Flat bones, without cartilage formation Intramembranous ossification

Mandible (not condyle)


With hyaline cartilage formation (provides region Endochondrial ossification

where bone can grow in length)


Condyle of mandible

Long bones Interstitial growth


Inner growth

Increase in diameter or thickness Appositional growth


Outer surface growth

Difference between hyaline cartilage and bone? Hyaline cartilage can grow interstitially

Maxillary nerve of Trigeminal (V2) leaves skull


through?
Foramen rotundum

Motor division (Mandibular nerve of Trigeminal Foramen ovale


V3) of V & Accessory meningeal artery leaves skull

through?

Middle meningeal artery leaves skull through?


Facial nerve exits?
Foramen spinosum
Stylomastoid foramen

Unpaired vessels contributing to circle of willis are?


What forms posterior boundary of oral cavity and
Anterior communicating and basilar arteries
palatoglossus

anterior boundary of fauces?


Pillars of fauces formed by? Palatoglossus and palatopharyngeus

Muscle that seal off oropharynx from nasopharynx Palatopharyngeus

that result in fold in posterior wall of pharynx?


Muscles that prevent food from entering Tensor veli palatine and levator veli palatine

nasopharynx?
Muscle whos tendon loops around pterygoid Tensor veli palatini

hamulus (of medial pterygoid plate)?


Clogged ears may be restricted function of? Tensor veli palatini

Tensor veli palatini innervated by? V3 (Mandibular nerve of Trigeminal)


Levator veli palatine innervated by? X (Vagus)

Only palatal muscle innervated by Trigeminal Tensor veli palatine (everything else is X (Vagus))

Nerve (V3 Mandibular nerve)?


Only palatal muscle NOT supplied by pharyngeal Tensor veli palatine

plexus?
Ethmoid sinus drains into? Anterior group drains into middle meatus

Posterior group drains into superior meatus


Communication between maxillary sinus and nasal Middle nasal meatus, at the semilunar hiatus

cavity?

Nasolacrimal duct drains into?


Meatus and Conchae
Inferior meatus
Superior meatus: between superior and middle

conchae
Middle meatus: between middle and inferior

conchae
Inferior meatus: under inerior conchae

Conchae and bone Superior conchae: ethmoid bone


Middle conchae: ethmoid bone

Inferior conchae: separate bone

Innervation to infrahyoid muscles (omohyoid,


sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid) receive
Ansa cervicalis (branch of cervical plexus)

motor innervation from?


Innervation to geniohyoid Hypoglossal nerve (XII)

Insertion to articular disc of TMJ (upper head) and Lateral pterygoid muscle
mandibular condyle (lower head)

Insertion to medial of angle of mandible? Medial pterygoid muscle

Originates on tuberosity of maxilla and pyramidal


process of palatine bone (medial surface of medial
Medial pterygoid muscle

pterygoid plate)?
Insertion to lateral of angle of mandible? Masseter

Thyroid hormones are synthesized from which Tyrosine


amino acid?

Derived from neural crest, produces epinephrine, Adrenal Medulla, spinal autonomic ganglia
norepinephrine, and dopamine from tyrosine

Adrenal Cortex Zona glomerulosa: mineralcorticoids (aldosterone)

Zona fasciculate: glucocorticoics (cortisol)


Zona reticularis: androgens

Mammary gland drains its lymph to the?


Coronary Circulation
Axillary lymph node
Right coronary artery: Small cardiac vein

Posterior nterventricular Artery: Middle cardiac


vein

Left (anterior interventricular) coronary artery:

Great cardiac vein


Circumflex artery: Coronary sinus

Nerve that runs between medial and lateral


pterygoid?
Lingual nerve

Pharyngeal pouches 1st: tympanic membrane


2nd: middle ear, tonsils

3rd: inferior parathyroid glands


4th: superior parathyroid glands & parafollicular

cells of thyroid gland


1st:

Brachial arches
Muscles: muscles of mastication, anterior digastric,

mylohyoid, tensor veli palatine, lateral lingual


swelling, tuberculum impar

Skeletal: maxilla, mandible, incus and malleus of


middle ear

Nerve & Artery: V2 (Maxillary of Trigeminal), V3


(Mandibular of Trigeminal), maxillary artery

2nd:

Muscles: muscles of facial expression, buccinators,

platysma, stapedius, stylohyoid, posterior digastric


Skeletal: Reicherts cartilage forms the stapes,

styloid process, and hyoid (lesser horn)


Nerve & Artery: VII (Facial)

3rd:

Muscles: stylopharyngeus
Skeletal: Hyoid (greater horn)

Nerve & Artery: IX (Glossopharyngeal), Common

caroid/Internal carotid artery

4th & 6th:


Muscles: intrinsic muscles of larynx, pharynx,

levator palate
Skeletal: thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage,

arytenoid cartilage
Nerve & Artery: X (Vagus)

Splanchnic nerves Greater: T5-T9 (foregut, celiac ganglia, enteric

nervous system)

Lesser: T9-T12 (midgut, celiac ganglia, enteric


nervous system)

Thoracic splanchnic nerves to celiac ganglion


Least: T12-L2 (renal ganglia)
Preganglionic visceral efferents

contain?
Supplies parasympathetic fibers to ascending colon Vagus

and right ! of transverse colon?

Supplies parasympathetic fibers to left " transverse


colon and rest of GI tract?
Splanchnic nerves

Brachial arches in development of tongue?


Folding of embryo during 4th week is result of?
1st, 2nd, 3rd
Prominent growth of neural tissue

Crista terminalis is the line of junction between Sinus venosus and auricle
primitive?

Roots of brachial plexus derived from ventral rami Spinal nerves C5 T1

of?

What passes between middle and anterior scalene


muscles?
Brachial plexus and subclavian artery

What passes anterior to anterior scalene muscle and


first rib?
Subclavian vein

Epithelium of Pharyngeal tonisil? Surrounded partly by ciliated pseudostratified


epithelium and partly by connective tissue; no

crypts; has no lymph sinuses


Epithelium of the rest of the tonsils (palatine and Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, has

lingual)? crypts

Vessels supplying blood to walls of large arteries


are known as?
Vasa Vasorum

Tunica media is thickest, more elastic tissue Large artery (aorta)


Tunica adventitia (outer layer) is thickest, more Large vein (vena cava)

smooth muscle
Keratinized papilla? Filiform papilla

Papilla with taste receptors? Circumvallate and fungiform

Loss of taste in tongue is called?


V shape goove dividing anterior 2/3 and posterior
Ageusia/Dygeusia
Sulcus terminalis

1/3 of tongue is?


Innervation of tongue Motor: XII (Hypoglossal)

Posterior 1/3 Taste & Sensory: IX

(Glossopharyngeal)
Anterior 2/3 Sensory: Lingual nerve (branch of V3)

Anterior 2/3 Taste: Chorda Tympani (branch of VII

Artery supplying to anterior 1/3 tongue is?


(Facial))
Deep lingual

Cell bodies of taste fibers from anterior 2/3 tongue


are located in which ganglia?
Geniculate ganglion

Postganglionic sympathetic fibers to submandibular Superior cervical ganglion


gland, dilator pupillae (and to the rest of the head)

are from what ganglion?

Lingual nerve is associated with which ganglion?


Lesser petrosal nerve carries preganglionic
Submandibular ganglion
Otic ganglion

parasympathetic fibers to?


Greater petrosal nerve carries preganglionic Pterygopalatine ganglion

parasympathetic fibers to?


Postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies to Otic ganglion

parotid gland are found?


Location of cell bodies of pain fibers in Superior ganglion of IX (glossopharyngeal)

glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)?

Cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers


to sphincter of pupil are located in?
Edinger-Westphal nucleus

Cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers


to duodenum are located in?
Dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus nerve (X)

Cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers Spinal cord at sacral levels 2, 3, 4


to urinary bladder are located in?

Cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers Nuclei of certain cranial nerves and in the
of autonomic nervous system are located in? anterolateral cell column of grey substance of 2nd,

3r, 4th sacral segmants

Meckels cartilage is responsible for growth of? Mandibular arch; dissolution with minor
contribution to ossification

What vein connects venous sinuses of dura mater Emissary veins


with extracranial veins?

Border of pterygomandibular raphe Posterior: Superior pharyngeal constrictor

Pharyngeal constrictor muscle Origins


Anterior: Buccinator
Superior constrictor: Pterygomandibular raphe

Middle constrictor: Hyoid bone


Inferior constrictor: Cricoid & Thyroid cartilage

Nerve that enters pharynx in gap between superior Glossopharyngeal (IX)


and middle constrictors?

Forms septum between primitive mouth and Buccopharyngeal membrane


pharynx, contains only stomodeum ectoderm and

foregut endoderm (no mesoderm)?

Infection spreading via lymphatics from lower lips


would first enter bloodstream through?
Brachiocephalic vein

Superficial to deep Masseter, Buccinator, Lateral Pterygoid


(horizontal), Medial Pterygoid (vertical)

Motor distribution of V3 Muscles of mastication, anterior belly of digastric


(posterior = facial nerve), tensor tympani, tensor

veli palatine, mylohyoid

Part of cerebral cortex that is involved in highly


skilled, discrete motor activity?
Precentral gyrus (anterior to postcentral)

Part of cerebral cortex that recognize pain from


teeth?
Postcentral gyrus (posterior to precentral)

Submandibular gland arterial supply? Facial branch of external carotid artery


Duct of submandibular gland runs anteriorly from Mylohyoid

gland immediately deep to which muscle?


Sublingual gland located? Superior to mylohyoid muscle

Parotid duct pierces? Buccinator muscle opposite the maxillary second

Submandibular duct opens into?


molar; crosses over masseter muscle
Sublingual caruncle (papilla)

Incision of mucous membrane from molar to


sublingual caruncle (papilla) exposes what?
Sublingual gland, lingual nerves, and
submandibular duct

Structure of major salivary glands? Compound tubuloalveolar gland


Muscle order superficial to deep Anterior digastric, mylohyoid, hyoglossus,

genioglossus

Lingula of mandible to spine of sphenoid attaches


what ligament?
Sphenomandibular ligament

Angle of mandible to styloid process attaches what


ligament?
Stylomandibular ligament

What structures are within the parotid gland? Facial nerve, auriculotemporal nerve, external
carotid artery, superficial temporal artery

Distinguish between stomach and duodenum Submucosal glands in duodenum


histologically?

Where is submucosa not found? Gallbladder

The lamina propria of what attaches directly to bone


without an intervening submucosa?
Hard palate and gingival

Submucosa area of hard palate covered by adipose


tissue is located?
Anterolateral

Salivary glands of hard palate located? Posterolateral


During active tooth formation, bone formation at Horizontal trabeculae

base of socket is?

Nerve to masseter passes?


Zona pellucida is associated with?
Deep to medial pterygoid muscle
Oocyte in mature follicle. It is a glycoprotein

membrane that surrounds plasma membrane of


oocyte

Structures found in the space between medial Lingual nerve, inferior alveolar nerve and artery
pterygoid muscle and ramus of mandible are? NOT lingual artery

Structures found between hyoglossus and Lingual nerve, sublingual gland, submandibular

mylohyoid are? duct, hypoglossal nerve


NOT lingual artery

Artery supplies to upper lip?


Bones form pterygopalatine fossa?
Facial artery
Sphenoid, palatine, maxillary

Structures in pterygopalatine fossa? Pterygopalatine ganglion, maxillary artery, nerve of


pterygoid canal

Opens to the pterygopalatine fossa? Pterygoid canal, pharyngeal canal, sphenopalatine


foramen, pterygomaxillary fissure

Nerve of pterygoid canal contains? Parasympathetic and sympathetic

Bones that form infratemporal fossa?


Structures in infratemporal fossa?
Maxilla, temporal, sphenoid, lateral pterygoid plate
Muscles: temporalis (lower), medial and lateral

pterygoid
Vessels: middle meningial artery, inferior alveolar

artery, deep temporal artery, buccal artery


Nerves: V2, V3, chorda tympani of VII (Facial)

Gag reflex Afferent: IX (Glossopharyngeal)

TMJ joint capsule supplied by what nerves?


Efferent: X (Vagus)
Auriculotemporal (branch of V3) and masseteric

Muscle of mastication not innervated by mandibular


nerve (V3)?
Buccinator muscle (innervated by VII (Facial))

Found in collagen and reticular fibers? Tropocollagen


Basic framework or stroma of lymphoid tissue Reticular fibers (primarily) and collagen

except thymus consists of?


Alveolar bone proper (cribiform plate) consists of? Bundle bone and lamellar bone

Sucular epithelium, small spaces between cells in Small amount of tissue fluid

stratum spinosum (prickle cell layer) are normally


filled with?

Prickle cells are found in? Stratified squamous epithelium


Free gingival can be distinguished from epithelial Epithelial attachment does not contain rete pegs

attachment because of?


Found in oral mucous membrane? Basal lamina, lamina propria, stratified squamous

epithelium, keratohyaline granules

Epithelial layers
NOT muscularis mucosa
Stratum Corneum, Lucidum, Granulosum,

Spinosum, Basale (Germinativum), Papillary,


Reticular

Which layer lacks in thin skin? Statum lucidum


Which layer contain keratohyalin granules? Stratum granulosum

Which layer is least cytodifferentiated? Basale (Germinativum)

Which layer forms epithelial root sheath of hair


follicle?
Basale (Germinativum)

Difference between papillary and reticular layer? Papillary layer more finely constructed whereas
reticular layer contains coarser collagenous fibers

Located between greater and lesser wing of


sphenoid?
Superior orbital fissure

Moving head on vertical axis (saying no) is on Atlantoaxial joint


what joint?

Moving head on horizontal axis (saying yes) is on Atlanto-occipital joint

what joint?
Muscles of mastication receive their major blood Pterygoid (second) part

supply from which branch of maxillary artery?


In salivary glands, folds of basal portion of cell Cells of the striated ducts

membrane containing mitochondria are


characteristic of the?

Spleen Red pulp: sinusoids filled with blood, splenic cords

of reticular fibers

White pulp: nodules, lyphoid follicles with B-


lymphocytes, periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths with

T-lymphocytes
Greater omentum joins? Transverse colon to stomach

Lesser omentum joins? Liver to lesser curvature of stomach and duodenum


Joins greater and lesser omentum? Epiploic foramen

Iniguinal ligament runs between? Anterior superior iliac spine and the pupic tubercle

Supplies latissimus dorsi muscle?


Permits oxygenated blood flow from umbilical vein
Thoracodorsal branch of axillary artery
Ductus venosus

to inferior vena cava?


Permits blood flow from pulmonary artery to aortic Ductus arteriosus

arch?
Permits blood flow from right to left atrium? Foramen ovale

What characterizes lymph node? Medullary cord

Efferent lymph channel differs from afferent lymph


channel how?
Efferent is located in hilus region where afferent
enters gland elsewhere

Which muscle help maintain a wide airway through


larynx after exertion?
Posterior cricoarytenoid

What muscle abduct vocal folds? Posterior cricoarytenoid


Recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates which intrinsic Aryepiglottic, Transverse arytenoid, Lateral

muscle of larynx? cricoarytenoid, Posterior cricoarytenoid

Which intrinsic muscle of larynx is innervated by


external laryngeal branch of vagus nerve (X)?
Cricothyroid

Emergency airway can be established by opening?


What nerve pierces thyroid membrane?
Cricothyroid ligament
Internal branch of superior laryngeal

Superior laryngeal artery pierces thyrohyoid Internal laryngeal nerve


membrane in company of what nerve?

Apical cytoplasm of active serous glandular cells Abundance of zymogen granules


filled with?

Cilia and Flagellum core consists of? 9x2 arrangement of microtubules (9 double

Microvillus consists of?


circumferential and 2 single central)
9 triplets of microtubules

Cores of intestinal villi consists of? Lamina propria that contain blood vessels, nerves,
and lacteals

Structures passing through superior orbital fissue CN 3, 4, 5, 6: Oculomotor nerve (III), Trochlear
nerve (IV), ophthalmic nerve (V1), abducens nerve

(VI), superior ophthalmic vein

Not bound by membrane?


Produces rRNA?
Nucleolus
Nucleolus

Develops from outpocketing of gut tube?


Common hepatic artery is branch of?
Lung, liver, gallbladder, pancreas
Celiac artery

Large ascending bundle of fibers in medulla Medial lemniscus


composed of second order neuron fibers conveying

proprioception and discriminatory touch to


conscious levels is?

Thyroid glands point of origin is? Foramen cecum of tongue

Thyroid gland receives blood from branches of?


Wood-testis barrier maintained by?
External carotid & thyrocervical trunks
Sertoli cells

Spermatogenesis occurs where? Sertoli cells


Secrete hormones (testosterone, LH) androgens? Leydig cells (Interstitial cells)

Meiosis occurs? Seminiferous tubules

Veins located within bones of calvarium (skull)? Diploic veins

Ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes) are located?


Angular acceleration is detected by?
Middle ear
Semicircular canals

Linear acceleration is detected by?


What travels posterior to arch of azygos vein?
Utricle and saccule
Right vagus nerve (X)

What runs parallel with median nerve in arm? Brachial artery


Pyramids contain? Upper motor neurons

Prochordal plate consists of? Endoderm of roof of yolk sac and embryonic

What connective tissue found in fetus but not adult?


ectoderm
Mesenchyme

Small bronchus differs from bronchiole by? Bronchus has pseudostratified columnar epithelium
and cartilage

Which muscles contain centrally placed nuclei? Cardiac and smooth


Which muscles contain only one nuclei? Cardiac and smooth (skeletal is multinucleated)

Ependymal cells constitute the tissue that? Lines the ventricles of brain

Osteon is cylinder of compact bone composed of?


Primary source of cranial connective tissue is?
Concentric lamellae
Ectomesenchyme

Artery most commonly involved in stroke?


Pain Gate Theorys controller system
Lenticulostriate
Substantia gelatinosa

Lymph from lungs, bronchi, and trachea drains Mediastinal lymph nodes
into?

Common bile duct and pancreatic duct joins at? Hepatopancreatic ampulla (of Vater)

Slightly movable articulations in which contiguous


bony surfaces are connected by flattened disks of
Amphiarthroses

fibrocartilage or interosseous ligaments are?


Cerebral cortex is characterized by what cells? Purkinje cells

Lingual frenum has what muscle? Genioglossus


What extrinsic muscle retracts the tongue? styloglossus

What has the greatest amount of smooth muscle? Arterioles

Constriction of what is a major factor in increasing


blood pressure (especially when standing)?
Constriction of systemic arterioles

Tidal volume x respiratory rate


Steroid hormones
= Respiratory minute volume
Progesterone

Aldosterone
Testosterone

Estradiol
Cortisol

Biochemistry/Physiology

Normal blood pressure


First step in fatty acid synthesis catalyzed by
120/80 (systolic/diastolic)
Acetyl CoA carboxylase

allosteric enzyme and regulator of pathway?


Active confirmation of trimeric G-protein is? Alpha-subunit bind GTP

Coupled respiration requires? ADP, oxygen, electron donor, phosphate


NOT carbon dioxide

Major route of calcium excretion Feces

Linkages in glycogen?
Lowers the rest and digest activity of muscles and
Alpha-1,6
Atropine

glands from parasympathetic system by preventing


Acetylcholine on secreting cells

Liver secretes and is stimulated by increased GH in IGF-1


blood?

Found in liver and kidney, but not in muscle or Glucose-6-phosphatase (last step in

brain?
Liver has precedence over other tissues in taking up
gluconeogenesis: G-6-P to glucose)
Glucokinase (1st step in glycolysis: phophorylates

glucose because of the presence of?


Glucose reabsorption in nephron?
glucose to G-6-P
Proximal tubules

Composition of collagen? Glycine, praline, hydroxyproline


Smooth muscle contains? Actin, myosin, tropomyosin

NOT troponin

What coenzyme is required for synthesis of


pyrimidines (cytosine, thymine, uracil)?
Folic acid

DNA Bonds Adenine-Thymine (2 H bonds)


Cytosine-Guanine (3 H bonds)

Blocks sodium channels in nerve-axon membranes? Tetrodotoxin


Bile salts are sodium salts of bile acid that are Taurine and glycine

conjugated with?
Chemoreceptors that detect decreased partial Carotid body

pressures of oxygen and increased carbon dioxide,

decreased pH and temperature


Baroreceptors that detect changes in blood pressure; Carotid sinus

associated with glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)


Urea synthesis is catalyzed by? Arginase

Uric acid breakdown to form purines is catalyzed Xanthine oxidase


by?

Bacterial aggregation and elimination from oral Secretory IgA


cavity is due to which protein?

Excessive ketone bodies (ketosis) in blood and urine Diabetes mellitus

and mucomycosis (massive necrotizing lesions of


palate) are caused by?

What can reverse ketosis in non-diabetic patient? Glucose


Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (convertes NAD, CoA, lipoic acid, and thyiamine

pyruvate into acetyl-CoA) are composed of? pyrophosphate


What is the precursor to niacin? Tryptophan

Part of coenzyme FAD? Riboflavin

Right-Shift High: Temperature, DPG, pCO2


Low: pCO, pH

Blood flow to left coronary artery the greatest in


resting individual?
Late diastole

Anti-coagulant of blood? Plasminogen > plasmin (activated by tissue


plasminogen activator tPA, also streptokinase

(bacterial exotoxin))

Functions of Vitamin K?
Heparin (Vitamin K antagonist)
Carboxylation of glutamate residues

What artery supplies blood to Parathyroid gland?


Formation of prothrombin (blood clotting)
Inferior thyroid

Oxyphil cells are present in? Parathyroid gland


PTH functions? Stimulation of 1-alpha-hydroxylase (catalyzes the

formation of 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (active


form of Vit. D)

Stimulation of osteoclasts

Stimulation of calcium reabsorption by kidney


Inhibition of phosphate reabsorption by kidney

25-hydroxycholecalciferol
Stimulation of calcium reabsorption by intestines
Active form of vitamin D, absobs calcium

Derived from 7-dehydro-cholesterol


Lamina papyracea is on what? Ethmoid bone

Enterocytes absorb? Glucose in small and large intestine

Disaccharides Sucrose: glucose-fructose


Lactose: glucose-galactose

Alpha-ketoglutarate, oxygen, and ascorbic acid are


Maltose: glucose-glucose
Hydroxylation of proline

essential for?
Transports fatty acids? Albumin

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) are? Long unbranched polysaccharides of repeating


disaccharide units, part of extracellular matrix

Chondroitin sulfate, dermatan sulfate, keratin

Hyaluronate is?
sulfate, heparin sulfate, heparin, hyaluronic acid
Glycosaminoglycan (non-sulfated), polyanion,

Essential amino acids


highly polar, extracellular matrix component
Methionine, tryptophan, isoleusine

Increases as follicle grows, triggers the surge? Estradiol


Stimulates LH receptors in Graffian follicle prior to Estradiol & FSH

ovulation?

Trigger for LH surge that initiates ovulation?


Ovulation is triggered by increase of?
Estrogen
LH (surpasses FSH prior to ovulation)

Secreted in luteal phase after ovulation?


Major pathway for metabolism of excessive
Progesterone
Deamination by monoamine oxidase (MAO)

intraneuronal free norepinephrine?


Preganglionic sympathetic fibers contain? Acetyl choline

Postganglionic sympathetic fibers contain? Norepinephrine

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers contain?


Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers contain?
Acetyl choline
Acetyl choline

Binding osteoblasts to bone matrix (and fibroblasts


and collagen)
Fibronectin

High affinity for binding calcium and collagen in Osteonectin


calcifying matrix and is important in mineralization

of bone?
Decreases osteoclastic activity, inhibits bone Calcitonin

resorption

Parafollicular cells of thyroid gland secrete?


Inhibited by acetylcholine (parasympathetic)
Calcitonin
Cardiac muscle

Stimulated by acetylcholine
Contraction of smooth muscle (anti-inflammatory)
Skeletal muscle
Adenosine

in response to?

ADH receptors located? Distal tubule, collecting duct

Most fluid reabsorption occurs?


Sound
Proximal tubule
Frequency: pitch

Area of brain
Amplitude: intensity
Thalamus: relay center

Cerebellum: maintenance of equilibrium


Hypothalamus: integrates autonomic nervous

system, endocrine, somatic functions


Limbic system: emotions

Water in body fluid compartments Intracellular (30 L):

Extracellular (15 L):

Interstitial fluid (11 L)


Plasma (3 L)

Trancellular fluids (1 L)
What compartment carries the most amount of Systemic veins (reservoir for blood)

blood?
Muscle fibers Type I: slow-twitch

More mitochondria

More capillaries
Lower myosin ATPase activity

Less extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum


Lower concentration of glycolytic enzyme

Type II: fast-twitch [opposite of slow-twitch]

Parietal cells of stomach secrete? Gastric acid and intrinsic factor


Chief cells of stomach secrete? Pepsinogen

Released by stomach, activated by HCl Pepsinogen > Pepsin (protein digestion)

Enteroendocrine cells of duodenum produce?


Activates pyloric pump, relaxation of pylorus,
Gastrin
Gastrin

contraction of lower esophageal sphincter


Produced by duodenum, regulate pH by stimulating Secretin

bicarbonate from pancreas, liver, and brunners


glands

Released by pancreatic acini, activated by Trypsinogen > Trypsin (protein digestion)

enterokinase Chymotrypsinogen > Chymotrypsin (protein


digestion)

Amylase (starch digestion into simple sugars)


Lipase (hydrolysis of lipids)

Clearance rate is equal to? Renal plasma flow


Deficiency of ADH, excretion of large amounts of Diabetes insipidus

diluted urine is what?


Fluoride is regulated by? Skeletal uptake and renal excretion

Immediate source of methyl group? S-Adenosyl methionine (SAM)

Decrease motility of stomach Enterogastric reflex

Microbiology/Pathology

Enzyme participate in bacterial aggregation on tooth


surface?
Glycosyltransferase

Phenols mechanism? Protein denaturation


Chlorhexidine mechanism? Membrane disruption

Ethylene oxide mechanism? Antimicrobial agent that primarily inactivates DNA


70% isopropyl alcohol mechanism? Lipid solvent and protein denaturation

Alkaline glutaraldehyde mechanism? Alkylation

Penicillins antibacterial action (also cycloserine,


bacitracin, and vancomycin)
Cell wall synthesis; prevents synthesis of
peptidoglycans (best against growing G+)

Tetracycline mechanism? Prevents protein synthesis


Polymyxin mechanism? Membrane disruption

Erythromycin mechanism? Prevents protein synthesis


Ethambutol mechanism? Interferes with synthesis of arabinogalactan of cell

wall of mycobacterium. Treatment for TB

Rifampicin mechanism?
Ciprofloxacin mechanism?
Binds and inactivates RNA polymerase
Inhibits DNA gyrase with broad spectrum of

activity
Injection of penicillin into penicillin-sensitized Constriction of bronchioli and drop in blood

person may lead to death due to? pressure


Do not treat patient with penicillin and erythromycin Penicillin is only effective against growing cells.

because?

Patient with heart valve abnormality should use this


antibiotic?
Penicillin

Spherical body produced by action of penicillin or


lysozyme is?
Protoplast (organized body of a species)

If patient with heart valve is allergic to penicillin, Erythromycin


what should be given?

Prolonged administration of streptomycin may Auditory nerve


damage?

What can qualitatively and quantitatively affect oral Corticosteroid therapy

microflora?
Treatment of disease caused by fungus? Amphotericin B

Elevated serum amylase Acute pancreatitis


Myelin degeneration of axis cylinders of peripheral Lead poisoning

nerves
Calcium dipicolinate present in? Spores

Interleukins IL-1 (Macrophages, also make TNF)

IL-2 (TH1) differentiation of T cells and B cells,


Natural killer (NK) cells activated

IL-3 (T cells) stimulates bone marrow stem cells


IL-4 (TH2) proliferation of B cells, allergic

response (IgE)
IL-5 (TH2) differentiation of B cells

Phagocytic cells are? Monocyte, histiocyte (tissue), neutrophil,


macrophage

(Lymphocyte is NOT phagocytic)

Most radiosensitive cell?


What happens in the development of neutrophils in
Lymphocyte
Nucleus becomes more hyperchromatic

bone marrow?
Interstitial pulmonary inflammation is most Viral pneumonia

characteristic of?
Protection against Hep B? Anti-HBsAg (Hep B Surface Antigen)

Normal anaerobic flora of gingival sulcus? Fusobacterium

Prevotella

Actinobacillus
Porphyromonas

Oral streptococci
Infective endocarditis associates with?
Alpha-hemolytic
Alpha-hemolytic streptococci

Blood in stool is called? Melena


Lack of clotting Factor VIII (von willebrand) and is Hemophilia A

x-linked recessive?

Normal prothrombin time & prolonged partial


thromboplastin time?
Factor VIII deficiency

Form of histiocytosis X (excessive histiocytes-


macrophages) that cuases lipids to accumulate in
Hand-Schuller-Christian disease

body?
Lipids accumulate in spleen, liver, lungs, bone Niemann-Pick disease

marrow, brain is this disease?


Prostate cancer metastasizes to? Usually bones (vertebral columns), lymph nodes,

lungs

Acid phosphatase is increased in?


Human papillomavirus 16 & 18 are associated with?
Metastatic carcinoma of prostate
Cervical cancer

Benign neoplasm of myometrium of uterus is?


Teichoic acids, lots of peptidoglycan present in?
Leiomyoma
G+ (gram negative)

Lipopolysaccharide, endotoxin, porins, few layers G- (gram negative)


peptidoglycan present in?

Role in periodontal disease due to its ability to incite Endotoxin

inflammatory response?
Composed of Lipoprotein-polysaccharide Endotoxin

complexes?
Toxic, not secreted by bacteria are (but contained Endotoxin

inside the bacteria and released when it dies)?


Soluble protein secreted by bacteria are? Exotoxin

Bacterial exotoxin that converts plasminogen to Streptokinase


plasmin?

Pseudomonas aeruginosas exotoxin A does? Inhibit protein synthesis

Chronic adrenal disorder, anorexia, hypoglycemia,


hypotension, hypovolemia is?
Addisons disease (hypocortisolism)

Oral manifestation of Addisons disease is?


Chemical mediator of acute inflammation generated
Melanosis (dark pigmentation)
Bradykinin

from activation of Hageman factor?


Most numerous organism in oral cavity? Facultative streptococci (viridans strep: includes s.

sanguis, s. mitis, s. gordonii, s. oralis, s. angiosus, s.

Cariogenic property of Streptococcus mutans is?


mutans)
Production of glucosyltransferase (sucrose into

water-soluble glucans cause of caries) and


synthesis of insoluble dextran

Tests to distinguish Streptococcus mutans from other Fermentation of mannitol and sorbitol
oral streptococci? Production of intracellular polysaccharide

Colonial morphology on mitis-salivarius agar


Production of adherent extracellular polysaccharide

NOT gram stain

Spreading factor of Streptococci? Hyaluronidase (hydrolysis of hyalurnic acid,


constituent of interstitial barrier, causing tissue

Found on dorsum of tongue?


permeability)
Streptococcus salivarius

Chlamydia exhibits? Asymptomatic, extracellular, co-infection with


gonorrhea, likelihood that younger women will

acquire salpingitis

RSV differs from influenza how?


What produces aflatoxins?
RSV affects infants
Aspergillus (fungus)

Rickettsiae and chlamydiae are common how?


What causes meningitis?
They multiply in bacterial cells
Neisseria meningitides & Streptococcus

pneumoniae
Distinguish between Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus pneumonia has antiphagocytic

Cryptococcus neoformans? polysaccharide capsules

Host responses against encapsulated Streptococcus


pneumonias are mediated by?
Opsonins

Capsule of Streptococcus mutans does?


Self-limiting, benign disease, soil-borne, fungus?
Enhances oral accumulation
Histoplasma capsulatum

Fungus that cause systemic disease, most commonly Histoplasma capsulatum


of lungs, and produces tuberculate chlamydospores

is?
What is most likely involved in bacillary dysentery Shigella

(blood and pus in stool)?

Cause of gastroenteritis and serious diarrhea in


young children?
Rotavirus

Acute, diffuse inflammation of soft tissues


(connective tissues), not circumscribed and not
cellulitis

confined to one area is?


Increases antibody response? Adjuvant

What would you use to culture root canal specimens? Thioglycollate broth

Root surface caries is related to?


Greatest incidence of rubella occurs when?
Actinomyces and Odontomyces
1st trimester in utero

Rubella (virus) and toxoplasmosis (parasite) are


similar in?
Both are potentially teratogenic (causing
malformation in fetus)

Hypersensitivity Type I hypersensitivity (immediate, anaphylactic,


atopic)

IgE
Asthma, urticaria (hives), anaphylaxis

Type II hypersensitivity (Ab dependent)


Self antigen

Goodpastures, erythroblastosis fetalis, pemphigus,


pernicious anemia, hashimotos thyroiditis,

rheumatic fever

Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex)


IgG and IgM, complement activation

Serum sickness, rheumatoid arthritis

Type IV hypersensitivity (Delayed-type)

Mediated by T cells & macrophages


Contact dermatitis, TB

Complement system can be activated by/ C1 and C3


Chemotactic accumulation of mononuclear cells C3, C5a

where immune complexes are deposited are result


of?

Oral lesions of herpangina differs from hand-foot- Intraoral locations

and-mouth disease by?


Both are caused by coxsackievirus

Herpangina: fever, soar throat, lesions around soft


palate, faucial pillars, tonsils

HFM disease: fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy,

sore mouth, lesions begin as vesicles rupture and


become ulcers and can occur anywhere in mouth

Viremia is?
Juvenile periodontitis is associated with?
Virus entering bloodstream susceptible to Ab
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans

Function of SIgA? Prevent ingress of antigen through mucosa


Immunoglobulin most abundant in saliva? IgA

Histamine released from mast cells require? IgE attached to mast cells and reacting with antigen

Adult periodontitis have what antibodies?


What would occur when T-lymphocyte from patient
IgG (IgM initially, but IgG predominates)
Production of macrophage inhibition factor (MIF)

with chronic periodontitis are cultured with dental


plaque antigen?

Predominant immunoglobin in memory response IgG


Synthesis of J chain occurs in? IgM producing plasma cells

What is first detected after primary immunization? IgM


Anaerobic bacteria lacking catalase are? Sensitive to H2O2

Catalase converts H2O2 to H2O and O2

Kopliks spots (white spots) on oral mucosa adjacent


to 1st molar with bluish-red ring, eyes are red and
Measles (rubeola)

runny, blotchy reddish rash behind ears and face.


Sterilization Steam Autoclave: 121 oC (250 oF) 20 min, 15 lbs

pressure time varies


Corrosion

Chemical (formaldehyde and alcohol): 134 oC (273


o
F) for 20 minutes

No corrosion

Dry heat oven: 160 oC (320 oF) for 1-2 hours


No corrosion

Dry heat destroys by?


Immersian sterilant that is recommended for
Coagulation of proteins
Glutaraldehyde

disinfecting dental units and handpieces?


Most reliable gaseous sterilizing agent is? Ethylene oxide (inactivates DNA)

Heat sensitive materials may be sterilized without Ethylene oxide

destruction by?
Spores are destroyed by? Autoclaving: 121 degrees C for 20 min

Mutations Transitions: purine replaced by purine

Transversions: purine replaced by pyrimidine


Secondary invader of carious lesions Lactobacillus casei (lactic acid produced by

streptococcus allows Lactobacillus to grow)


Exaggerated IgE response causing hay fever and Atopy

asthma

Wheal and flare reaction which is a manifestation of


IgE mediated allergy, common response to allergy
Prausnitz-Kuster

shots or insect bites.


Deposition of immune complex in local tissues cause Arthus reaction

local inflammatory response known as?


(Horse serum injected into rabbit and again into skin)

In order for RNA oncogenic viruses to be integrated RNA-dependent DNA polymerase


into host genome, they must possess?

Unique to RNA tumor viruses? Reverse transcriptase

Streptococcus pyogenes, group A, is subdivided into


specific antigenic types principally on the basis of
M protein

immunologic differences in?


Majority causes of pharyngitis is? Viruses (cause 70%)

Bacterial pharyngitis include: streptococcus

Not found in oral cavity?


pyogenes
Streptococcus pyogenes

Resistant to penicillin?
Abscess formation is associated with?
Staphylococcus (has enzyme that attacks penicillin)
Staphylococcus

Acute osteomyelitis (infection of bone marrow), Staphylococcus


brain abscess, cavernous sinus thrombosis, tissue

abscesses are caused by?

Coats Staphylococcus aureus with polysaccharide


capsule to resist phagocytosis?
Coagulase (reacts with prothrombin to convert
fibrinogen to fibrin)

What component of Staphylococcus is


antiphagocytic (by binding to Fc), elicits
Protein A

hypersensitivity, and causes platlet injury?


Impetigo caused by? Streptococci and staphylococci

Gram negative (G-) sepsis (whole-body Escherichia coli


inflammation) caused by?

Collagenase (exotoxin, destroys extracellular Bacteroides

structures) producing, associated with periodontal


disease is?

Higher concentrations in gingival crevice than on


tongue or plaque?
Bacteroides melaninogenicus

Drainage of swelling elicits foul-smelling, purulent Bacteroides & Peptostreptococcus


material, what organisms are involved?

Cell wall of Mycobacteriaceae responsible for acid- Lipids and waxes


fastness are?

Immunological resistance to extracellular pathogens Humoral: mediated by Ab

is?
Immunological resistance to intracellular pathogens Cellular: mediated by lymphocytes and

is?
Malignant epithelial cells have increased number and
macrophages. Such as in skin graft rejection
Laminin (helps to attach to basement membrane)

wider distribution of which receptors?


Chronic passive congestion of lung is characterized Thickening of alveolar walls and hemosiderosis

by? (bleeding from alveolar capillaries)

Squamous metaplasia of bronchial epithelium that


predisposes to lung cancer is?
Chronic bronchitis

Blood in sputum is not characteristic of?


Squamous metaplasia not common in?
Emphysema (dry cough)
Emphysema

Cigarette-smoking patient, labored breathing with Emphysema (loss of elasticity)


prolonged, expiratory effort has?

Chronic passive congestion of lungs is secondary to? Atherosclerotic heart disease

Chief complication of mumps (viral disease of


salivary glands) in adult male?
Orchitis (testicular inflammation)

Glomerulonephritis
Nephritic syndrome
Viral infection, inflammation of glomeruli
Collection of signs with disorders affecting kidneys

(glomerular disorders)
Nephrotic syndrome Leak of protein into urine

Prostacyclin and thromboxane are products of? Cyclooxygenase (breaks down arachidonic acid)
Leukotrienes are producs of? Lipoxygenase (breaks down arachidonic acid)

Cirrhosis Ascites formation

Production of inflammatory edema is?


Edema may result from?
Increased capillary permeability
Increased sodium retention

Increased venule blood pressure


Decreased plasma osmotic pressure

Right heart failure (RHF) Venous congestion, splenomegaly, peripheral

edema of ankles (dependent edema)

Postmordem indicator of left heart failure (LHF)


Complications of left heart failure (LHF)
Pulmonary edema and vascular congestion
Orthopnea (dyspnea when lying flat)

Pleural effusion
Bacterial pneumonia

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea


Cause of palpable breast in woman? Fibrocystic disease

What chemical substance is secreted by Catecholamines


pheochromocytomas (malignant neoplasm of adrenal

medulla)?

Sudden arrest of heart function? Cardiac tamponade (hemorrhage into pericardial


space)

Cerebral embolism occurring as a consequence of


myocardial infarction is indicative of what?
Mural thrombosis (Thrombus formation in
endocardial lining of heart)

Lesions of uvula, anterior pillars, posterior pharynx? Coxsackievirus


Identifying morphologic characteristic of Candida Chlamydospore and yeast cells

albicans is?

This type of candidiasis produces firmly adherent


white plaque on oral mucosa?
Chornic hyperplastic

Cultured from chronic, bilateral ulcerations at


corners of mouth?
Candida

Endogenous fungus causing opportunistic infections? Candida


Prolonged antibacterial antibiotic therapy may Candida albicans

predispose to disease caused by what?


Deficiency in what can predispose to candidiasis T lymphocytes (deficient in AIDS, causes common

(yeast infection)? opportunistic infections such as candidiasis)

Opportunistic infections associated with HIV? Candidiasis


Hairy leukopolakia (caused by EBV)

Cryptosporidium enterocolitis (diarrhea)


Pneumocystic carinii pneumonia

Treatment for candidiasis? Nystatin


Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) is associated with? Burkitts lymphoma

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Infectious mononucleosis caused by?


Abcess in oral cavity (usually over angle of
Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
Actinomycosis

mandible) with central necrosis extruding pus


containing sulfur granules (colonies of infecting

organisms) and is characterized by swelling and


draining fistulas, caused by G+, microaerophilic,

filamentous microorganism is?


Intoxication is characterized by? Botulism

During necrosis, reduction in size of nucleus and Pyknosis

condensation of nuclear material is known as?


During necrosis, destructive fragmentation of Karyorrhexis

nucleus
During necrosis, cell death irreversible cell damage, Karyolysis

dissolution of nucleus Order: pyknosis, karyorrhexis, karyolysis


Myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies are directed Acetylcholine receptor

against?
Cause of pyelonephritis (UTI) Infection from urinary reflux

Copper in lever cells, degenerative changes in brain, Wilsons disease

greenish-brown ring on cornea is?


Genetic disorder where gangliosides (lipids) Tay-Sachs

accumulate in brain
Facial erythema, fever, Raynauds phenomenon Systemic lupus erythematosus

(discoloration of fingers, toes), joint pain,

photophobia has?
Blood smear Fe-deficiency anemia: hypochromic-microcytic

Drug-induced bone marrow suppression:


normochromic-normocytic

Hemorrhagic tendency is seen in? Scurvy


Acute leukemia

Hepatic insufficiency (deficient in vitamin K and


clotting factors)
Thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets)
Neoplasm affects children (most common)? Neuroblastoma (malignancy of nerves in adrenal
medulla or sympathetic chain)
Cancer of plasma cells, bone pain, osteolytic lesions, Multiple myeloma
plasma cell infiltration of marrow, synthesis of
abnormal immunoglobulins
Megaloblasts in bone marrow, hyperchromic, Inability of stomach to form intrinsic factor
macrocytic anemia, atrophic glossitis in oral is what? AKA megaloblastic anemia (lack of intrinsic
factor or folic acid)
Reduction in acid secretion by stomach, increased Pernicious enemia
tendency to gastric carcinoma, atrophic glossitis,
myelin degeneration in spinal cord show?
Vitamin B12 deficiency is? Pernicious anemia (a form of megaloblastic anemia)
Vitamin B12, Folic acid deficiency is? Megaloblastic anemia
Deficient purine metabolism where uric acid (sodium Gout
urate) found in joints is?
Noncaseating granulomas, inflammation, bowel Crohns disease
disease
Least likely complication of nodular prostatic Development of carcinoma
hyperplasia (urinary obstruction)?
Hormonally dependent? Prostate
Neoplasms of loose connective tissue filled with Myxomas
mucus, tumor of heart
Common wart Verruca vulgaris
Most common primary malignant neoplasm of lung? Squamous cell carcinoma
Most common skin cancer, appears on upper face Basal cell carcinoma (has good prognosis)
and around eyes (inner canthus)
What would be seen in bacterial infections? Neutrophils
What would be seen in viral infections? Lymophcytes
What would be seen in fungal infections? Lymphocytes & macrophages
What would be seen in parasitic infections? Eosinophils
Biopsy of tongue shows small, coiled, encysted Trichinae
larvae of nematode worms, these would be?
Benign & malignant neoplasms Benign:
Encapsulation
Rapid growth
No metastasize
Differentiation

Malignant: [opposite of benign]


Histologic feature of malignant growth? Anaplasia (backward growth, less differentiated)
Pleomorphism (changed growth)
Hyperchromatism (increased color)
Abnormal mitosis
66 y/o man complains of ill-fitting denture. Osteitis deformans (Pagets disease)
Radiographs show diffuse cotton-wool opacity.
Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, normal
calcium and phosphorus, large skull, increased
incidence of osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma)
Osteosarcoma is increased by? Osteitis deformans (Pagets disease)
Benign neoplasm of bone that doesnt become Osteoblastoma
malignant unless radiation?
Radiolucent bone lesions, anemia, Thalassemia (abnormal hemoglobin)
hypergammaglobulinemia, bone tumors containing
plasma cells?
Greatest capacity for regeneration? Liver
Amyloidosis, the amyloid (insoluble fibrous protein) Stromal connective tissue
is deposited where?
Transplant Autograft: same person
Isograft: genitically identical donor, same species
(twins)
Allograft: genitically non-identical, same species
Xenograft: another species

Large wounds heal by? Secondary intention


Which hormone has greatest effect on granulation Cortisone
tissue in healing wounds?
Secondary cardiac disorder from infective Tetralogy of Fallot
endocarditis? Congenital aortic stenosis
Patent ductus arteriosus
Ventricular septal defect
Oral ulcerations that involve oral, ocular, and genital Behcets Syndrome (disturbance in immune system)
lesions?
Oral lesion that may appear as an ulcer, nodule, or histoplasmosis
vegetative process and is often mistaken for
squamous cell carcinoma is?
Decubital (bedsore) ulcer is an example of tissue Ischemia
destruction caused by?
Inflammation of urinary bladder? Cystitis (not associated with urinary outflow
obstruction)
Intestinal malabsorption syndrome is characterized Steatorrhea (pale feces)
by?
Production of bone in scar tissue occurs by? Metaplasia
Tertiary syphilis is characterized by? Gumma (tissue nodule)
Toxoids are? Antigenic and nontoxic
Esophageal varices are common complication of? Portal hypertension
Renal ischemic infarct shows? Coagulation necrosis
Exudate Proteins, inflammation
Transudate Less proteins, not inflammation but caused by
disturbances of colloid osmotic pressure
Dental Anatomy/Occlusion
Deciduous Temoporary primary
Which primary teeth shows prominent cervical Maxillary centrals (E, F)
ridge on facial and lingual? (Mandibular 1st molars only show on facial)
Primary canine differs from permanent canine how? Primary canines have sharper and longer cusps
Primary canines have mesial cusp ridge longer than
distal
Mesial surface of crown of primary maxillary 1st Larger than distal surface
molar is?
Primary maxillary molar has facial groove located True
distally, lingual does not
How many pulp horns are in primary mandibular 1st 4
molar?
Primary molars lack an identifiable? Root trunk
Most frequently contain single root canal? Maxillary incisors
Least likely to have bifurcation of tooth? Maxillary centrals
According to root morphology, what tooth lends Maxillary centrals
themselves to rotation during extraction?
Shortest mandibular root? Central incisor
Maxillary lateral is equal or larger than maxillary Root length (cervicoapically)
central in what dimension?
Marginal ridges more prominent on? Maxillary laterals
Most concave in lingual? Maxillary laterals
Anterior teeth that most frequently possess a Mandibular Canine
bifurcated root
Occlusal view of maxillary canine shows? Distofacial concavity
Longest root Maxillary canine
Largest incisal/occlusal embrasure? Maxillary lateral and canine
Distolingual groove? Maxillary laterals
Mesial marginal developmental groove? Maxillary 1st premolar
Mesiolingual groove? Mandibular 1st premolar
Which premolar frequently has only one pulp horn Mandibular 1st premolar
Which premolar has facial cusp with triangular Mandibular 1st premolar
ridge so prominent that it separates its mesial pit
from distal pit?
Distinguish between maxillary 1st premolar and 1st premolar has 2 roots
maxillary 2nd premolar
Cresent-shape central developmental groove? Mandibular 2nd premolar
Differences between mandibular 1st premolar and Mandibular 2nd premolar has rounded shape
mandibular 2nd premolar (occlusal view)
Masticatory function of mandibular 1st premolar is Mandibular 2nd premolar
most similar to?
Premolar with mesial cusp ridge longer than distal Maxillary 1st, mesial cusp may be concave
cusp ridge when viewed facially
Maxillary Premolars have how many ridges 6 (4 cusp ridges, 2 marginal ridges)
occlusally?
Concavities on maxillary teeth Mesial 1st premolar (complicates root planing)
Distal 1st molar
Mesial 2nd molar
Proximal view: Molars Mandibular: Rhomboidal (Inclined lingually)
Maxillary: Trapezoid
Molar cusps order (largest to smallest) Maxillary: mesiolingual, mesiofacial, distofacial,
distolingual
Mandibular: mesiofacial, mesiolingual,
distolingual, distofacial, distal
Concavity on roots on either or both facial and Lingual root of maxillary 1st molar
lingual surfaces
Fissure groove cavity preparations most frequently Maxillary molars
needs to extend from occlusal surfaces to lingual of?
Which molar has most difficulty removing calculus Distal of mandibular 2nd molar
from root trunk?
When is apex of permanent teeth fully developed? 24-36 months after eruption
Accessory teeth between centrals are called? Mesiodens
Most commonly accepted theory for pain receptors Odontoblastic processes serve as only receptors for
in dental pulp is? pain
Enamel spindles formed by? Odontoblasts
Derived from ectomesenchyme Odontoblasts
Development of PDL, osteoblasts for alveolar bone, Dental Sac (ectomesenchyme)
cementoblasts
Pulp formation Dental Papilla
After the 12th year, 3rd molar formation is initiated, Dental lamina (by 12th year, we do not need it)
what is not needed?
Intramembranous ossification Flat bones, without cartilage formation
(transformation of osteoblasts to osteocytes)
Mandible (not condyle)
Endochondral ossification With hyaline cartilage formation (provides region
where bone can grow in length)
Condyle of mandible
Hypomineralized structures which extend form DEJ Enamel lamellae
to surface of enamel are? (Enamel spindles and tufts are only around the DEJ)
Junctional epithelium contains? Hemidesmosomes and gap junctions
Epethilial cells attach to enamel or cementum by? Hemidesmosomes
Cells of sulcular epithelium are joined by? Desmosomes
What are present in the development and growth of Osteoblasts, osteoclasts, osteoid
alveolar process?
Primary cementum posses? Lamellae
Calcified body on PDL is? Cementicle
Denticles are characterized by? Containing dentinal tubules
Excessive calcified tissue formation on root apices Hypercementosis
is known as?
Temporomandibular ligament found where? Lateral surface of TMJ
What ligament restricts rotational opening and Temporomandibular ligament
initiates translation?
What ligament restricts excessive protrusive Stylomandibular
movement of mandible?
What ligament restricts movement of disc away Discal (collateral) ligament
from condyle and divides TMJ into superior and
inferior joint cavities?
What ligament surrounds and encompasses entire Capsular ligament
TMJ and helps retain synovial fluid. Resists medial,
lateral, inferior forces that tend to dislocate articular
surfaces?
Vascular portion of TMJ Retrodiscal tissue (Bilaminar zone) on periphery of
TMJ
Thickest section of articular disc? Posterior border
Stability of TMJ is maintained by what type of Elevators
muscles?
Articulating surface of TMJ of older person covered Fibrous connective tissue containing chondrocytes
by?
Nonarticular surfaces of TMJ are covered with? Periosteum
Rotational movement of TMJ? Inferior compartment
Translational movement of TMJ? Superior compartment
Difference between cementum and enamel? Cementum has collagen and cellular component in
mature tissue
Difference between dentin and cementum Cementum: produced by cells of PDL
Dentin: produced by pulp cells
Difference between intertubular dentin and Peritubular dentin has higher content of inorganic
peritubular dentin? salts
Stimulus of forming enamel matrix? Presence of predentin
Once enamel matrix is formed, what happens? Nuclei of ameloblasts move to non-secreting end
Secretory phases of enamel matrix of ameloblast Tomes granular layer
contain?
Dentin from root differs from crown dentin by? Tomes granular layer
Structure first formed by tooth bud that remains in DEJ
formed tooth is?
Number of roots are determined by? Number of medial ingrowths of cervical loop and
unequal proliferation of epithelial diaphragm
Hertwigs epithelilal root sheath is essential to Molds shape of root and stimulates differentiation
development of the root of tooth because? of odontoblasts
Accessory root canals formed by? Break in Hertwigs epithelial sheath during dentin
formation
Dead tracts & Sclerotic dentin Dead tracts = Dark
Sclerotic dentin = translucent
Free gingival groove related to? Arrangement of supraalveolar fibers
Line of demarcation of free and attached gingiva? Free gingival groove
Para-keratinized oral mucosa is found? Attached gingiva
Area where bone had once been removed by Reversal line
osteoclasts forming a Howships lacuna, now filled
by new bone?
Sudden reorientation of tubule Resting line
direction/appositional growth?
Junction between primary and secondary dentin is? Sharp change in direction of dentinal tubules
Long axis of mandibular condyle are what Posteriomedial
direction?
Development of tongue involves? Copula, tuberculum impar, 1st, 2nd, 3rd brachial arch
During eruption, permanent teeth erupt? Occlusally and buccally
Sharpeys fibers and principal fibers of PDL Collagenous fibers
contain? NOT elastic fibers or reticular fibers
What surface would root reabsorption be on primary Lingual surface
incisor?
Tetracycline occurs only on? Teeth whos enamel has not yet been completed
Laterotrusive (working) condyle movement rotates? Vertical axis and translates laterally
Acute abcess on max. left lateral, no decay or Dens in dente (presence of tooth-like structure
restoration. What would be seen radiographically? within pulp chamber of another tooth)
Dental pulp in the space within crown of tooth? Pulp chamber
Dental pulp in the space within root of tooth? Pulp canal
Healthy mouth, thinnest alveolar process? Facial mandibular central incisor
Apices of mandibular 2nd molar located? Inferiorly to the mylohyoid muscle insertion
Hypoplasia of primary teeth on incial thirds of teeth Metabolic disturbance during prenatal period
suggest?
Height of contours Anterior teeth: Facial & Lingual = cervical 1/3
Posterior teeth:
Facial = cervical 1/3
Lingual = middle 1/3
Matrix protein of enamel? Amelogenin
Mature dentin is filled with? Type I collagen (Most abundant)
Articular cartilage and hyaline cartilage is made of? Type II collagen
Dentin formation requires? Inner enamel epithelium
Greatest protection for lips, cheeks, and tongue? Horizontal overlap (overjet)
25 y/o person, whats seen in pulp tissue? Loose areolar tissue
Lines in enamel and dentin Enamel: Lines of Retzius, Neonatal line
Dentin: Line of Von Ebner, Line of Owen