CIVL2611 Introductory Fluid Mechanics

CIVL9611 Introductory Fluid Mechanics

Tutorial 12 Solutions

Question 1:

The problem is illustrated below:

To maintain laminar flow, the Reynolds number has to be less than 2100. Since
VD Q 4Q
Re = and V= =
A D 2
We have
4Q D Re
Re = and Q=
D 4
The maximum Q occurs with the maximum Re for laminar flow, i.e. Re = 2100. Thus
D 2100
Qmax = = 1649 D
4
(a) For 20o water, = 1.00410-6 m2/s
( )
Qmax = 1649 D 1.004 10 6 = 1.656 10 3 D (with D in m)
(b) For standard air, = 1.4610-5 m2/s
( )
Qmax = 1649 D 1.46 10 5 = 2.408 10 2 D (with D in m)

For different diameters of the tube, the maximum flow rates are obtained as follows:

20o water Standard air

D = 0.0005 m 8.2810-7 m3/s 1.20410-5 m3/s
D = 0.0010 m 1.65610-6 m3/s 2.40810-5 m3/s
D = 0.0020 m 3.31210-6 m3/s 4.81610-5 m3/s

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Question 2:

The Reynolds number is calculated as

VD
Re =

(a) D = 0.1 m

Re =
(10 0.1) 0.1 = 89,300
1.12 10 6
(b) D = 100 nm

Re =
(10 100 10 ) 100 10
9 9
= 8.93 10 8
6
1.12 10

Question 3:

The velocity distribution is given by

r2
u (r ) = 21 2
R
We also have the following distribution for fully developed steady laminar flow in a circular
pipe
r 2
u = u max 1
R
Thus,
umax = 2 m/s.
We could also use the fact that the maximum velocity occurs at the centerline of the pipe, i.e.
r = 0.
0
u (0 ) = uc = 21 2 = 2 m/s = u max
R
The average velocity is obtained as
1
u = u max = 1 m/s
2
And the volume flow rate is calculated as
2
Q = uA = u D = 1 0.04 2 = 1.256 10 3 m 3 /s
4 4

2
Question 4:

The problem is illustrated below:

From Table B.1 of Munson et al. (2010), for water at 20o we have
= 1.00410-6 m2/s
m = 1.00210-3 Ns/m2
(a) The maximum pressure drop corresponds to the maximum average velocity for laminar
flow
32 m Vmax
Dpmax =
D2
where
(Re )max 1.004 10 6 2100
Vmax = = = 2.108 m/s
D 10 3
Thus,
32 1.002 10 3 1 2.108
pmax = = 67.6 kPa
(10 )
3 2

(b) Since
(Re )max 2100 32 m Vmax
Vmax = = and Dpmax =
D D D2
it follows that
32 m (2100 )
Dpmax =
D3
It is clear that the larger the diameter, the smaller the maximum pressure drop allowed to
maintain laminar flow. Thus, consider D = 1.1 mm = 1.110-3 m,

pmax =
(
32 1.002 10 3 1 2100 1.004 10 6 ) = 50.79 kPa
(1.1 10 ) 3 3

3
Question 5:

The pressure drop in the pipe can be determined from

e 1
Dp = f , Re V 2
D D 2
The friction factor is determined from the Moody Diagram using the Reynolds number and
roughness. For plastic pipe, e = 0.0 mm, and thus

=0
D
The Reynolds number is calculated as
VD 0.1 0.2
Re = = = 1.992 10 4
1.004 10 6
From the Moody Diagram we have
f = 0.0255

Therefore, the pressure drop per meter ( = 1 m) is

1 1
p = 0.0255 998 0.12 = 0.636 Pa
0.2 2

Question 6:

The problem is illustrated below:

The energy equation is written as

2 2
p1 V1 p V
+ + z1 = 2 + 2 + z 2 + hL
g 2g g 2g
where
p2 = 0, z2 = 0, z1 = 4 m, V1 = V2 = V,
4
and
V2 e
hL = f , Re
2g D D
It follows that
p1 = g (hL z1 )
For galvanized iron pipe, e = 0.15 mm. Thus,
0.15
= = 0.015
D 10

(a) For V = 5 m/s, the Reynolds number is calculated as

VD 5 0.010
Re = = = 4.98 10 4
1.004 10 6
From Moody Diagram we have
e
f , Re = 0.044
D
Therefore,
52 4
hL = 0.044 = 22.43 m > z1
2 9.81 0.010
Thus p1 > 0. Water will leak out of the pipe if V = 5 m/s.

(b) For V = 0.5 m/s, the Reynolds number is calculated as

VD 0.5 0.010
Re = = = 4.98 103
1.004 10 6
From Moody Diagram we have
e
f , Re = 0.052
D
Therefore,
0.52 4
hL = 0.052 = 0.265 m < z1
2 9.81 0.010
Thus p1 < 0. Air will enter into the pipe if V = 0.5 m/s.

Note: It can be demonstrated that the above conclusions are valid regardless of the
length of the pipe.

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Question 7:

The problem is illustrated below:

For the horizontal pipe we have z1 = z2, V1 = V2 = V. The energy equation

2 2
p1 V1 p V
+ + z1 = 2 + 2 + z 2 + hL
g 2g g 2g
is then reduced to
p1 p2 = ghL
where
V2 e
hL = f , Re
2g D D
It follows that
V 2 e
p1 p2 = f , Re
2 D D
Here,
Q 0.02
V= = = 7.07 m/s
A (0.06 )2 4
And the Reynolds number is
VD 7.07 0.060
Re = = = 4.23 105
1.004 10 6

The actual friction factor is then calculated as

e p p D p p2 D
f , Re = 1 2 2 = 1
D V 2 V 2 2
135 103 0.06
= = 0.0325
10 998 7.07 2 2

For a new galvanized iron pipe, e = 0.15 mm and e /D = 0.15/60 = 0.0025. The friction factor
can be obtained from Moody Diagram as f = 0.026. Since this is less than the actual value of
f = 0.0325, the pipe is not a new pipe.

With the Reynolds number and friction factor of f = 0.0325, we obtained from Moody
Diagram a relative roughness of e /D 0.006. This is more than double the roughness of the
new pipe.

A very old partially clogged pipe would have considerably greater head loss. Thus, the pipe
is an old pipe with somewhat increased roughness.