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Module 08.

Basic Aerodynamics
08.1. Physics of the Atmosphere.
Q. 1. The ISA.
1. assumes a standard day.
2. is taken from the equator.
3. is taken from 45 degrees latitude.
Ans is. is taken from 45 degrees latitude.
Expa. The properties of a standard day are related to sea level at latitude 45
degrees latitude. See the Forum for more details.

Q. 2. At higher altitudes as altitude increases, pressure.


1. decreases at constant rate.
2. decreases exponentially.
3. increases exponentially.
Ans is. decreases exponentially.
Expa. Pressure decreases - sure! But the rate of decrease reduces with altitude. At
18000 ft, half the pressure is lost already, and there is still another 40,000ft or so to
go.

Q. 3. When the pressure is half of that at sea level, what is the


altitude?.
1. 12,000 ft.
2. 18,000 ft.
3. 8,000 ft.
Ans is. 18,000 ft.
Expa. Just one of those facts you have to learn - but it is quoted in just about
every text book on CAA reading list.

Q. 4. If gauge pressure on a standard day at sea level is 25 PSI, the


absolute pressure is.
1. 39.7 PSI.
2. 10.3 PSI.
3. 43.8 PSI.
Ans is. 39.7 PSI.
Expa. Absolute pressure = gauge pressure plus atmospheric pressure.
Atmospheric pressure at seallevel = 14.7 PSI.

Q. 5. Pressure decreases.
1. inversely proportional to temperature.
2. proportionally with a decreases in temperature.
3. Pressure and temperature are not related.
Ans is. proportionally with a decreases in temperature.
Expa. Temperature and volume are directly proportional - Charles' Law.

Q. 6. As air gets colder, the service ceiling of an aircraft.


1. reduces.
2. increases.
3. remains the same.
Ans is. increases.
Expa. As air gets colder it gets denser. Lift increases (remember the lift equation
has density) and the engines produce more thrust - so it can climb higher.
Q. 7. What is sea level pressure?.
1. 1012.3 mb.
2. 1013.2 mb.
3. 1032.2 mb.
Ans is. 1013.2 mb.
Expa. Learn the ISA sea level quantities, in all units.
Q. 8. How does IAS at the point of stall vary with height?.
1. It decreases.
2. It is practically constant.
3. It increases.
Ans is. It is practically constant.
Expa. The stalling IAS at altitude is practically the same as it is at sea level. That's
because IAS is not corrected for density.

Q. 9. What is the lapse rate with regard to temperature?.


1. 4C per 1000 ft.
2. 1.98C per 1000 ft.
3. 1.98F per 1000 ft.
Ans is. 1.98C per 1000 ft.
Expa. The lapse rate is approximately 2C per 1000 feet (in the troposphere).

Q. 10. Standard sea level temperature is.


1. 20 degrees Celsius.
2. 0 degrees Celsius.
3. 15 degrees Celsius.
Ans is. 15 degrees Celsius.
Expa. 15 degrees C is standard sea level temperature!.

Q. 11. As altitude increases, pressure.


1. decreases exponentially.
2. decreases at constant rate.
3. increases exponentially.
Ans is. decreases exponentially.
Expa. As altitude increases, pressure decreases exponentially. Since pressure is
given by density * gravity * height, both density and height decreases (that is,
height above the point you measuring) so the decrease in pressure is exponential.

Q. 12. Lapse rate usually refers to.


1. Density.
2. Pressure.
3. Temperature.
Ans is. Temperature.
Expa. Temperature lapse rate is constant up to 36000ft -2degrees per 1000ft.
Q. 13. Temperature above 36,000 feet will.
1. increase exponentially.
2. decrease exponentially.
3. remain constant.
Ans is. remain constant.
Expa. Temperature lapse rate up to 36,000 feet (the tropopause) is approximately
2 degrees centigrade per 1000 feet. Above the tropopause it is constant.

Q. 14. With increasing altitude pressure decreases and.


1. temperature decreases at the same rate as pressure reduces.
2. temperature decreases but at a lower rate than pressure reduces.
3. temperature remains constant to 8000 ft.
Ans is. temperature decreases but at a lower rate than pressure reduces.
Expa. See a graph of pressure against altitude and temperature against altitude.
Pressure decreases faster than temperature therefore pressure has a greater effect
upon the performance of the aircraft.

Q. 15. What is the temperature in comparison to ISA conditions at


30,000ft?.
1. -60C.
2. 0C.
3. -45C.
Ans is. -45C.
Expa. ISA = 15C temperature lapse rate is 2C per 1000ft. Therefore 30000 = -
60 + 15 = 45.

Q. 16. At what altitude is the tropopause?.


1. 36,000 ft.
2. 57,000 ft.
3. 63,000 ft.
Ans is. 36,000 ft.
Expa. The tropopause is 36,000 ft. Above the tropopause is the stratosphere.

Q. 17. What approximate percentage of oxygen is in the


atmosphere?.
1. 12%.
2. 21%.
3. 78%.
Ans is. 21%.
Expa. 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, 1% other
gases.

Q. 18. Which has the greater density?.


1. Air at low altitude.
2. Air at high altitude.
3. It remains constant.
Ans is. Air at low altitude.
Expa. Air density reduces with altitude.

Q. 19. At what altitude does stratosphere commence


approximately?.
1. Sea level.
2. 36,000 ft.
3. 63,000 ft.
Ans is. 36,000 ft.
Expa. The stratosphere is above 36,000
ft.

Q. 20. A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to.


1. 14.7 psi.
2. 1 inch Hg.
3. 100 millibar.
Ans is. 14.7 psi.
Expa. One atmosphere is 14.7
psi.

Q. 21. The millibar is a unit of.


1. atmospheric temperature.
2. pressure altitude.
3. barometric pressure.
Ans is. barometric pressure.
Expa. Barometric pressure is measured in
millibar.

Q. 22. With an increase in altitude under I.S.A. conditions the temperature in


the troposphere.
1. remains constant.
2. decreases.
3. increases.
Ans is. decreases.
Expa. Temperature reduces at a lapse rate of 1.98 degrees celsius per thousand
feet from sea level to about 36000ft (the
tropopause).

Q. 23. A barometer indicates.


1. pressure.
2. density.
3. temperature.
Ans is. pressure.
Expa. A barometer indicates pressure.
Q. 24. The amount of water vapour capacity in the air (humidity holding
capacity of the air) is.
1. greater on a colder day, and lower on a hotter day.
2. doesn't have a significant difference.
3. greater on a hotter day and lower on a colder day.
Ans is. greater on a hotter day and lower on a colder day.
Expa. The amount of water vapour capacity in the air is greater on a hotter
day.

Q. 25. Which condition is the actual amount of water vapour in a mixture of


air and water?.
1. Relative humidity.
2. Absolute humidity.
3. Dew point.
Ans is. Absolute humidity.
Expa. Absolute humidity is the 'actual' amount of water in a mixture of air and
water.

Q. 26. Which will weigh the least?.


1. 98 parts of dry air and 2 parts of water vapour.
2. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapour.
3. 35 parts of dry air and 65 parts of water vapour.
Ans is. 35 parts of dry air and 65 parts of water vapour.
Expa. Water vapour is 62% the weight of dry
air.

Q. 27. Which is the ratio of the water vapour actually present in the
atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the air were saturated at the
prevailing temperature and pressure?.
1. Absolute humidity.
2. Dew point.
3. Relative humidity.
Ans is. Relative humidity.
Expa. Relative humidity is the ratio of the water vapour actually present to the
water vapour that the air would hold if it were
saturated.

Q. 28. The speed of sound in the atmosphere.


1. changes with a change in pressure.
2. varies according to the frequency of the sound.
3. changes with a change in temperature.
Ans is. changes with a change in temperature.
Expa. Speed of sound is affected by air temperature
only.

Q. 29. What is sea level pressure?.


1. 1032.2 mb.
2. 1012.3 mb.
3. 1013.2 mb.
Ans is. 1013.2 mb.
Expa. Sea level pressure is 1013.2
mb.

Q. 30. Which statement concerning heat and/or temperature is


true?.
1. Temperature is a measure of the kinetic energy of the molecules of any
substance.
2. Temperature is a measure of the potential energy of the molecules of any
substance.
3. There is an inverse relationship between temperature and heat.
Ans is. Temperature is a measure of the kinetic energy of the molecules of any
substance.
Expa. Temperature is a measure of the kinetic energy of the molecules of a
substance. Heat is a form of energy
exchange.

Q. 31. What is absolute humidity?.


1. The temperature to which humid air must be cooled at constant pressure to
become saturated.
2. The actual amount of the water vapour in a mixture of air and water.
3. The ratio of the water vapour actually present in the atmosphere to the
amount that would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing
temperature and pressure.
Ans is. The ratio of the water vapour actually present in the atmosphere to the
amount that would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing
temperature and pressure.
Expa. Absolute Humidity is the actual amount of water vapor in a liter of
gas.

Q. 32. The temperature to which humid air must be cooled at


constantpressuretobecome saturated is called.
1. relative humidity.
2. dew point.
3. absolute humidity.
Ans is. dew point.
Expa. The temperature to which humid air must be cooled to become saturated is
called the 'due point'.

Q. 33. Density changes with altitude at a rate.


1. of 2kg/m3 per 1000 ft.
2. which changes with altitude.
3. which is constant until 11 km.
Ans is. which changes with altitude.
Expa. The rate of change of density is not constant - it diminishes with altitude. So
no single figure for lapse rate can be quoted.

Q. 34. Above 65,800 ft temperature.


1. decreases by 1.98C up to 115,000 ft.
2. remains constant up to 115,000 ft.
3. increases by 0.303C up to 115,000 ft.
Ans is. increases by 0.303C up to 115,000 ft.
Expa. 65,800ft is the upper stratosphere boundary. Temperature increases with
altitude in the stratosphere.

Q. 35. At sea level, ISA atmospheric pressure is.


1. 14.7 kPa.
2. 10 Bar.
3. 14.7 PSI.
Ans is. 14.7 PSI.
Expa. An alternative to 1013.2mb.

Q. 36. On a very hot day with ambient temperature higher than ISA, the
pressure altitude is 20,000 ft. How much will the density altitude be?.
1. the same.
2. greater than 20,000ft.
3. less than 20,000ft.
Ans is. greater than 20,000ft.
Expa. "Density Altitude is pressure altitude corrected for temperature and
humidity. Assuming constant humidity (we are told no different) ISA or above
temperature will further thin the air for a given pressure altitude thus making the
density altitude higher. Note : At ISA Temp density and pressure altitude will be the
same and for less than ISA density altitude will be less- Got all that!!.
"

Q. 37. The atmospheric zone where the temperature remains fairly constant
is called the.
1. Stratosphere.
2. Ionosphere.
3. Troposphere.
Ans is. Stratosphere.
Expa. The stratosphere starts at 36,000ft and rises to about 66,000ft.

Q. 38. In the ISA the height of the tropopause is.


1. 11,000 feet.
2. 11,000 metres.
3. 36,000 metres.
Ans is. 11,000 metres.
Expa. 11,000 metres or 36,000 feet approximately.
Q. 39. In the ISA the sea level pressure is taken to be.
1. 14 PSI.
2. 1013.2 mb.
3. 1.013 mb.
Ans is. 1013.2 mb.
Expa. 1013.2 millibars.

Q. 40. In the ISA the temperature lapse rate with altitude is taken to
be : .
1. dependent on pressure and density changes.
2. linear.
3. non linear.
Ans is. linear.
Expa. NIL..

Q. 41. Put in sequence from the ground up.


1. tropopause, stratosphere, troposphere.
2. tropopause, troposphere, stratosphere.
3. troposphere, tropopause, stratosphere.
Ans is. troposphere, tropopause, stratosphere.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 42. The International Standard Atmosphere can be described


as.
1. the atmosphere at 45 degrees north latitude.
2. the atmosphere at the equator with certain conditions.
3. the atmosphere which can be used Worldwide to provide comparable
performance results.
Ans is. the atmosphere which can be used Worldwide to provide comparable
performance results.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 43. The temperature lapse rate below the tropopause is.


1. 1C per 1000 ft.
2. 2C per 1000 ft.
3. 3C per 1000 ft.
Ans is. 2C per 1000 ft.
Expa. 1.98C per 1000 ft to be exact.

Q. 44. Above the tropopause air pressure.


1. decreases at a constant rate.
2. decreases exponentially.
3. increases exponentially.
Ans is. decreases exponentially.
Expa. Air pressure continues to decrease exponentially in the
stratosphere.
Q. 45. Which of the following is correct?.
1. Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure = Gauge pressure.
2. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure.
3. Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure.
Ans is. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure.
Expa. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure.

Q. 46. As the altitude increases what happens of the ratio of Nitrogen to


Oxygen?.
1. Increases.
2. Decreases.
3. Stays the same.
Ans is. Stays the same.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 47. What happens to the density of air as altitude is increased?.


1. Decreases.
2. Stays the same.
3. Increases.
Ans is. Decreases.
Expa. NIL.

08.2. Aerodynamics .

Q. 1. An aircraft is travelling at a speed of 720 nautical miles per hour. To


calculate speed in MPH you.
1. divide by 0.83.
2. multipy by 0.83.
3. multiply by 1.15.
Ans is. multiply by 1.15.
Expa. 1nmph = 1.15mph 1mph = 0.83nmph.

Q. 2. Lift on a delta wing aircraft.


1. increases with an increased angle of incidence (angle of attack).
2. does not change with a change in angle of incidence (angle of attack).
3. decreases with an increase in angle of incidence (angle of attack).
Ans is. increases with an increased angle of incidence (angle of attack). OR does
not change with a change in angle of incidence (angle of.
Expa. This question is much easier than it looks at first read. All wing types
(straight, swept, delta etc.) increase lift with an increase in angle of attack (up to
the stall angle).

Q. 3. The CofP is the point where.


1. the lift can be said to act.
2. the three axis of rotation meet.
3. all the forces on an aircraft act.
Ans is. the lift can be said to act.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 4. When an aircraft experiences induced drag.


1. air flows under the wing span wise towards the root and on top of the wing
span wise towards the tip.
2. Neither a) or b) since induced drag does not caused by span wise flow.
3. air flows under the wing span wise towards the tip and on top of the wing
span wise towards the root.
Ans is. air flows under the wing span wise towards the tip and on top of the wing
span wise towards the root. OR Neither a) or b) since induced drag does not caused
by.
Expa. The high pressure under the wing flows around the tip to the low pressure
on top of the wing. The resulting vortex is what causes induced drag. Since air is
viscous it drags the air underneath the wing towards the tip, and pushes the air on
top of the wing towards the root.

Q. 5. At stall, the wingtip stagnation point.


1. doesnt move.
2. moves toward the lower surface of the wing.
3. moves toward the upper surface of the wing.
Ans is. moves toward the lower surface of the wing.
Expa. At stall the angle of attack is high (all along the wing) and the stagnation
point moves towards the lower surface of the wing.

Q. 6. The rigging angle of incidence of an elevator is.


1. the angle between the bottom surface of the elevator and the longitudinal
datum.
2. the angle between the bottom surface of the elevator and the horizontal in
the rigging position.
3. the angle between the mean chord line and the horizontal in the rigging
position.
Ans is. the angle between the mean chord line and the horizontal in the rigging
position.
Expa. The angle of incidence of any surface is measured from the mean chord
line.

Q. 7. Which of the following is true?.


1. Lift acts at right angles to the relative airflow and weight acts vertically
down.
2. Lift acts at right angles to the wing chord line and weight acts vertically
down.
3. Lift acts at right angles to the relative air flow and weight acts at right
angles to the aircraft centre line.
Ans is. Lift acts at right angles to the relative airflow and weight acts vertically
down.
Expa. Lift acts at right angles to the relative airflow and weight acts vertically
down.
Q. 8. The vertical fin of a single engined aircraft is.
1. parallel with the longitudinal axis but not the vertical axis.
2. parallel with both the longitudinal axis and vertical axis.
3. parallel with the vertical axis but not the longitudinal axis.
Ans is. parallel with both the longitudinal axis and vertical axis. OR parallel with
the vertical axis but not the longitudinal axis.
Expa. Single engined aircraft fin is offset to left to counter torque...i.e. chord of fin
is at an angle to.longitudinal axis.

Q. 9. "What happens to air flowing at the speed of sound


when it enters a converging duct?."
1. Velocity increases, pressure and density decreases.
2. Velocity, pressure and density increase.
3. Velocity decreases, pressure and density increase.
Ans is. Velocity decreases, pressure and density increase.
Expa. Subsonic air in incompressible, so density does not change. But this is sonic
speed, and everything (P and V) change opposite to what they would if it were
subsonic air. Density increases, as does pressure, and velocity decreases. See
Mechanics of Flight by AC Kermode.

Q. 10. As the angle of attack of an airfoil increases the centre of


pressure.
1. remains stationary.
2. moves aft.
3. moves forward.
Ans is. moves forward.
Expa. As the angle of attack of the aerofoil increases, the centre of pressure
moves forward.

Q. 11. Vapour trails from the wingtips of an aircraft in flight are caused
by.
1. low pressure above the wing and high pressure below the wing causing
vortices.
2. low pressure above the wing and high pressure below the wing causing a
temperature rise.
3. high pressure above the wing and low pressure below the wing causing
vortices.
Ans is. low pressure above the wing and high pressure below the wing causing
vortices.
Expa. Vapour trails are caused by wing tip vortices which are caused by low
pressure above the wing and high pressure below the wing.

Q. 12. The chord line of a wing is a line that runs from.


1. the centre of the leading edge of the wing to the trailing edge.
2. half way between the upper and lower surface of the wing.
3. one wing tip to the other wing tip.
Ans is. the centre of the leading edge of the wing to the trailing edge.
Expa. The chord line is a STRAIGHT line which goes from the leading edge of the
wing to the trailing.

Q. 13. The angle of incidence of a wing is an angle formed by


lines.
1. parallel to the chord line and longitudinal axis.
2. parallel to the chord line and the vertical axis.
3. parallel to the chord line and the lateral axis.
Ans is. parallel to the chord line and longitudinal axis.
Expa. The angle of incidence is the angle between the chord line and the
longitudinal axis.

Q. 14. The centre of pressure of an aerofoil is located.


1. 30 - 40% of the chord line forward of the leading edge.
2. 50% of the chord line back from the leading edge.
3. 30 - 40% of the chord line back from the leading edge.
Ans is. 30 - 40% of the chord line back from the leading edge.
Expa. The centre of pressure is positioned roughly 30 - 40 % of the chord line
BACK from the leading edge.

Q. 15. Compressibility effect is.


1. drag associated with the form of an aircraft.
2. the increase in total drag of an aerofoil in transonic flight due to the
formation of shock waves.
3. drag associated with the friction of the air over the surface of the aircraft.
Ans is. the increase in total drag of an aerofoil in transonic flight due to the
formation of shock waves.
Expa. Compressibility effect is associated with an increase in drag during the
transonic flight stage.

Q. 16. A high aspect ratio wing will give.


1. high profile and low induced drag.
2. low profile and high induced drag.
3. low profile and low induced drag.
Ans is. high profile and low induced drag.
Expa. A high aspect ratio has a lower induced drag (due to less wing tip effect)
and a higher frontal area therefore greater profile drag.

Q. 17. Aerofoil efficiency is defined by.


1. lift over drag.
2. lift over weight.
3. drag over lift.
Ans is. lift over drag.
Expa. At plus 4degrees AOA the lift weight ratio is greatest. This is the optimum
AOA therefore the wing is at its most efficient when lift is greatest and drag is at a
minimum.
Q. 18. The relationship between induced drag and airspeed is, induced drag
is.
1. directly proportional to the square of the speed.
2. directly proportional to speed.
3. inversely proportional to the square of the speed.
Ans is. inversely proportional to the square of the speed.
Expa. Induced drag decreases proportionally with the square of the speed.

Q. 19. What is the definition of Angle of Incidence?.


1. The angle the underside of the mainplane or tailplane makes with the
horizontal.
2. The angle the underside of the mainplane or tailplane makes with the
longitudinal datum line.
3. The angle the chord of the mainplane or tailplane makes with the
horizontal.
Ans is. The angle the chord of the mainplane or tailplane makes with the
horizontal.
Expa. Angle of incidence is the 'wing setting angle'. That is the angle of the chord
of the mainplane or tailplane with the horizontal - or aircraft centre line when in the
rigging position.

Q. 20. What is Boundary Layer?.


1. Separated layer of air forming a boundary at the leading edge.
2. Sluggish low energy air that sticks to the wing surface and gradually gets
faster until it joins the free stream flow of air.
3. Turbulent air moving from the leading edge to trailing edge.
Ans is. Sluggish low energy air that sticks to the wing surface and gradually gets
faster until it joins the free stream flow of air.
Expa. The boundary layer is the layer of air immediately in contact with the
aircraft skin which is slowed down by the skin friction.

Q. 21. "What is the collective term for the fin and rudder
and other surfaces aft of the centre of gravity that
helps directional stability?."
1. Empennage.
2. Fuselage surfaces.
3. Effective keel surface.
Ans is. Effective keel surface.
Expa. All the side surfaces aft of the centre of gravity which aid the directional
stability are collectively called the EFFECTIVE KEEL SURFACE.

Q. 22. "A decrease in incidence toward the wing tip may be


provided to."
1. prevent adverse yaw in a turn.
2. retain lateral control effectiveness at high angles of attack.
3. prevent span wise flow in maneuvers.
Ans is. retain lateral control effectiveness at high angles of attack.
Expa. A decrease in incidence towards the wingtip (known as washout) causes the
wing root to stall before the wing tip. So, even after the wing roots have stalled, the
wing tips are still flying and full aileron control is provided.

Q. 23. For a given aerofoil production lift, whereP = pressure and V =


velocity.
1. P1 is greater than P2, and V1 is less than V2.
2. P1 is greater than P2, and V1 is greater than V2.
3. P1 is less than P2 and V1 is greater than V2.
Ans is. P1 is greater than P2, and V1 is less than V2.
Expa. Bernoulli's principle applies.

Q. 24. Low wing loading.


1. increases stalling speed, landing speed and landing run.
2. increases lift, stalling speed and maneuverability.
3. decreases stalling speed, landing speed and landing run.
Ans is. decreases stalling speed, landing speed and landing run.
Expa. Wing loading is aircraft weight divided by wing area, therefore an aircraft
with a low wing loading will require less landing speed, less landing run and have a
decreased stalling speed.

Q. 25. As a general rule, if the aerodynamic angle of incidence (angle of


attack) of an aerofoil is slightly increased, the centre of pressure will.
1. move towards the tip.
2. move forward towards the leading edge.
3. never move.
Ans is. move forward towards the leading edge.
Expa. As the angle of attack increases the centre of pressure moves towards the
leading edge.

Q. 26. The 'wing setting angle' is commonly known as.


1. angle of dihedral.
2. angle of incidence.
3. angle of attack.
Ans is. angle of incidence.
Expa. The wing setting angle is commonly known as the 'angle of
incidence'.

Q. 27. When does the angle of incidence change?.


1. It never changes.
2. When the aircraft attitude changes.
3. When the aircraft is ascending or descending.
Ans is. It never changes.
Expa. The angle of incidence is the angle at which the wing is 'set' into the
fuselage. It never changes.
Q. 28. As the angle of attack decreases, what happens to the centre of
pressure?.
1. It moves rearwards.
2. Centre of pressure is not affected by angle of attack decrease.
3. It moves forward.
Ans is. It moves rearwards.
Expa. The centre of pressure moves FORWARDS with an INCREASE in angle of
attack. Therefore it moves REARWARDS with a DECREASE in angle of attack.

Q. 29. A decrease in pressure over the upper surface of a wing or aerofoil is


responsible for.
1. approximately 2/3 (two thirds) of the lift obtained.
2. approximately 1/2 (one half) of the lift obtained.
3. approximately 1/3 (one third) of the lift obtained.
Ans is. approximately 2/3 (two thirds) of the lift obtained.
Expa. Look at a diagram of the lift distributions on the top and bottom surfaces of
a wing. 2/3rds of the lift is provided by the top surface.

Q. 30. Which of the following types of drag increases as the aircraft gains
altitude?.
1. Interference drag.
2. Parasite drag.
3. Induced drag.
Ans is. Induced drag.
Expa. As density decreases with altitude, the lift must be compensated by
increasing angle of attack. Induced drag increases with angle of attack, therefore
induced drag increases with altitude.

Q. 31. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving,
in relation to the rest of the airflow, is known as.
1. none of the above.
2. camber layer.
3. boundary layer.
Ans is. boundary layer.
Expa. The boundary layer is the layer of air in immediate contact with the skin of
the aircraft which is slowed down by skin friction.

Q. 32. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin


friction?.
1. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.
2. Aspect ratio.
3. Fineness ratio.
Ans is. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.
Expa. Countersunk rivets increase skin friction and turbulence.
Q. 33. If the C of G is aft of the Centre of Pressure.
1. when the aircraft yaws the aerodynamic forces acting forward of the Centre
of Pressure.
2. changes in lift produce a pitching moment which acts to increase the change
in lift.
3. when the aircraft sideslips, the C of G causes the nose to turn into the
sideslip thus applying a restoring moment.
Ans is. changes in lift produce a pitching moment which acts to increase the
change in lift.
Expa. If the C of G is aft of the centre of pressure (not normal, but possible), an
increase in lift will pitch the aircraft nose-up, which will increase the lift even further
etc. etc.

Q. 34. The upper part of the wing in comparison to the lower.


1. develops less lift.
2. develops the same lift.
3. develops more lift.
Ans is. develops more lift.
Expa. Look at the lift distribution diagram of an aerofoil and see how
approximately 2/3rds of the lift is derived from the top surface.

Q. 35. What effect would a forward CG have on an aircraft on


landing?.
1. Increase stalling speed.
2. Reduce stalling speed.
3. No effect on landing.
Ans is. Increase stalling speed.
Expa. A forward CG would require the tail of the aircraft to exert more download to
keep the nose level. This will increase the wing loading and thus the aircraft would
stall at a higher speed.

Q. 36. QNH refers to.


1. quite near horizon.
2. setting the altimeter to zero.
3. setting the mean sea level atmospheric pressure so an altimeter reads the
aerodrome altitude above mean sea level.
Ans is. altimeter reads the aerodrome altitude above mean sea level.
Expa. Q' is the mathematical symbol for pressure. 'NH' stands for Nautical Height.
QNH refers to the setting of actual sea level atmospheric pressure so the altimeter
indicates the actual altitude above sea level of the non-standard day.

Q. 37. QNE refers to.


1. setting the mean sea level atmospheric pressure in accordance with ICAO
standard atmosphere i.e. 1013 millibars.
2. Setting an altimeter to read aerodrome altitude above sea level.
3. quite new equipment.
Ans is. setting the mean sea level atmospheric pressure in accordance with ICAO
standard atmosphere i.e. 1013 millibars.
Expa. Q' is the mathematical symbol for pressure. 'NE' stands for Nautical
Elevation. QNE refers to the setting of the standard sea level atmospheric pressure
(i.e. 1013mb) so the altimeter indicates the elevation above mean sea level.
(Although it is not the 'true' elevation, if it is not a standard day).

Q. 38. An aspect ratio of 8 : 1 would mean.


1. span 64, mean chord 8.
2. mean chord 64, span 8.
3. span squared 64, chord 8.
Ans is. span 64, mean chord 8.
Expa. Aspect Ratio is the ratio of the span to the chord.

Q. 39. QFE is.


1. airfield pressure.
2. difference between sea level and airfield pressure.
3. sea level pressure.
Ans is. airfield pressure.
Expa. Q' is the mathematical symbol for pressure. 'FE' stands for Field Elevation.
QFE refers to setting airfield pressure so the altimeter indicates zero on the runway.

Q. 40. For any given speed, a decrease in aircraft weight, the induced drag
will.
1. decrease.
2. remain the same.
3. increase.
Ans is. decrease.
Expa. Induced drag is 'lift dependant drag'. Less lift and there will be less induced
drag.

Q. 41. The amount of lift generated by a wing is.


1. greatest at the tip.
2. constant along the span.
3. greatest at the root.
Ans is. greatest at the root.
Expa. See a diagram of the lift distribution of the wing (viewed from the front) and
you will see it is parabolic. The wing tip vortices decrease the lift at the tips.

Q. 42. Induced Drag is.


1. greatest towards the tip and downwash decreases from tip to root.
2. greatest towards the wing tip and downwash is greatest towards the root.
3. greatest towards the wing root and downwash is greatest at the tip.
Ans is. greatest towards the tip and downwash decreases from tip to root.
Expa. Induced drag is associated with wingtip vortices. The greater the vortices at
the tip, the greater is the induced drag.

Q. 43. Induced Drag is.


1. never equal to profile drag.
2. equal to profile drag at Vmd.
3. equal to profile drag at stalling angle.
Ans is. equal to profile drag at Vmd.
Expa. Sketch the drag curves (drag against speed). Induced drag decreases
exponentially with speed. Profile drag increases exponentially with speed. Vmd
(minimum drag speed) is where they meet.

Q. 44. With an increase in aircraft weight.


1. Vmd will be at a higher speed.
2. Vmd will be at the same speed.
3. Vmd will be at a lower speed.
Ans is. Vmd will be at a higher speed.
Expa. Sketch the drag curves (drag against speed). Induced drag decreases
exponentially with speed. Profile drag increases exponentially with speed. The
induced drag is elevated with weight (since it is lift dependant) and so cuts the
profile drag further to the right (higher Vmd).

Q. 45. For a given IAS an increase in altitude will result in.


1. an increase in induced drag.
2. no change in the value of induced drag.
3. an increase in profile drag.
Ans is. an increase in induced drag.
Expa. With a decrease in density the aircraft must fly with a greater angle of
attack (CL) to compensate for the loss of lift. Induced drag is dependant upon AOA,
therefore induced drag increases with altitude.

Q. 46. As the angle of attack of a wing is increased in level flight.


1. the C of G moves aft and the CofP forward.
2. the CofP and transition point move forward.
3. the CofP moves forward and the stagnation point aft over the upper
surface.
Ans is. the CofP and transition point move forward. OR the CofP moves forward
and the stagnation point aft over the.
Expa. As AOA increases in level flight, CofP moves forward and the Transition Point
(the point at which the laminar flow breaks away and forms into turbulent flow) also
moves forward.

Q. 47. Stall inducers may be fitted to a wing.


1. at the root to cause the root to stall first.
2. at the tip to cause the root to stall first.
3. at the root to cause the tip to stall first.
Ans is. at the root to cause the root to stall first.
Expa. Stall inducers (or stall strips) are placed at the root of the wing to trip up the
airflow just before full stall to ensure the wing stalls first at the root (and maintains
the aileron authority even with a partially stalled wing).

Q. 48. The optimum angle of attack of an aerofoil is the angle at


which.
1. the aerofoil produces maximum lift.
2. the aerofoil produces zero lift.
3. the highest lift/drag ratio is produced.
Ans is. the highest lift/drag ratio is produced.
Expa. The optimum angle of attack is the angle at which the highest lift/drag ratio
is produced.

Q. 49. A high aspect ratio wing has a.


1. increased induced drag.
2. decreased skin friction drag.
3. decreased induced drag.
Ans is. the highest lift/drag ratio is produced.
Expa. Induced drag decreases with increasing aspect ratio. (However, skin friction
drag also reduces with an increased chord length due to thickening of the boundary
layer - but this is less significant.).

Q. 50. Minimum total drag of an aircraft occurs.


1. when induced drag is least.
2. at the stalling speed.
3. when profile drag equals induced drag.
Ans is. when profile drag equals induced drag.
Expa. Sketch the drag curves (drag against speed). Induced drag decreases
exponentially with speed. Profile drag increases exponentially with speed. Vmd
(minimum drag speed) is where they meet.

Q. 51. If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the induced drag at a given


speed.
1. will increase.
2. will decrease.
3. will remain the same.
Ans is. will increase.
Expa. If weight is increased, for a given speed the aircraft must fly at a greater
angle of attack (CL). Induced drag increases with increased
AOA.

Q. 52. The transition point on a wing is the point where.


1. the boundary layer flow changes from laminar to turbulent.
2. the flow divides to pass above and below the wing.
3. the flow separates from the wing surface.
Ans is. the boundary layer flow changes from laminar to turbulent.
Expa. The transition point is a point on the surface of the wing where the
boundary layer changes from laminar to turbulent.

Q. 53. The boundary layer of a body in a moving airstream is.


1. a layer of air over the surface where the airspeed is changing from free
stream speed to zero speed.
2. a layer of separated flow where the air is turbulent.
3. a thin layer of air over the surface where the air is stationary.
Ans is. a thin layer of air over the surface where the air is stationary. OR a layer
of air over the surface where the airspeed is changing from free stream speed to
zero speed.
Expa. The boundary layer is a thin layer of slowed air in contact with the surface
of the skin which is slowed by friction. Speed ranging from stationary to free stream
speed.

Q. 54. A laminar boundary layer will produce.


1. more skin friction drag than a turbulent one.
2. the same skin friction drag as a turbulent one.
3. less skin friction drag than a turbulent one.
Ans is. less skin friction drag than a turbulent one.
Expa. Skin friction drag is greater in a turbulent boundary layer than in a laminar
boundary layer.

Q. 55. The boundary layer is.


1. thickest at the leading edge.
2. thickest at the trailing edge.
3. constant thickness from leading to trailing edges.
Ans is. thickest at the trailing edge.
Expa. The boundary layer is thickest at the trailing edge.

Q. 56. The amount of thrust produced by a jet engine or a propeller can be


calculated using.
1. Newtons 3rd law.
2. Newtons 2nd law.
3. Newtons 1st law.
Ans is. Newtons 2nd law.
Expa. Newton's second law is Force = Mass x Acceleration.

Q. 57. An engine which produces an efflux of high speed will be.


1. less efficient.
2. more efficient.
3. speed of efflux has no affect on the engine efficiency.
Ans is. less efficient.
Expa. A pure turbojet accelerates a low mass of air at a high rate and is less
efficient than a turbo fan or turbo prop. This is because the wasted energy is
1/2mV2 of the jet efflux.
Q. 58. Wing loading is calculated by weight.
1. divided by lift.
2. divided by gross wing area.
3. multiplied by gross wing area.
Ans is. divided by gross wing area.
Expa. Wing loading is weight divided by wing area and measured in Newtons per
square metre.

Q. 59. Induced drag is.


1. nothing to do with speed.
2. proportional to speed.
3. inversely proportional to the square of speed.
Ans is. inversely proportional to the square of speed.
Expa. Induced drag is inversely proportional to the square of the speed - i.e. it
reduces with the square of the speed.

Q. 60. As the angle of attack increases the stagnation point.


1. moves towards the upper surface.
2. does not move.
3. moves towards the lower surface.
Ans is. moves towards the lower surface.
Expa. The stagnation point is the stationary air at the leading edge of the wing. As
the angle of attack increases the stagnation point moves towards the lower
surface.

Q. 61. The term pitch-up is due to.


1. compressibility effect.
2. ground effect.
3. longitudinal instability.
Ans is. longitudinal instability.
Expa. Pitch-up' is a longitudinal instability. It is caused by wingtip stall on swept
wings, resulting ina drop of the tail.

Q. 62. In a steady climb at a steady IAS, the TAS is.


1. more than IAS.
2. the same.
3. less than IAS.
Ans is. more than IAS.
Expa. IAS = TAS x square root of sigma. Sigma is the ratio of density at altitude to
density at sea- level. Sigma is always less than 1.

Q. 63. An untapered straight wing will.


1. have no yaw effect in banking.
2. stall at the root first.
3. have no change in induced drag in the bank.
Ans is. stall at the root first.
Expa. The straight wing will always stall at the root first. This is the desired stall
characteristic.

Q. 64. With the ailerons away from the neutral, induced drag is.
1. higher on the lower wing plus profile drag increases.
2. unchanged but profile drag is higher.
3. higher on the upper wing plus profile drag increases.
Ans is. higher on the upper wing plus profile drag increases.
Expa. Induced drag is 'lift dependant drag'. The upper wing has more lift and
hence more induced drag. It also has more profile drag due to the aileron's
protrusion into the airflow.

Q. 65. All the lift can be said to act through the.


1. centre of pressure.
2. centre of gravity.
3. normal axis.
Ans is. centre of pressure.
Expa. All the lift is said to act through the centre of pressure.

Q. 66. The concept of thrust is explained by.


1. Bernoullis theorem.
2. Newtons 3rd law.
3. Newtons 1st law.
Ans is. Newtons 3rd law.
Expa. Newton's Third Law states 'Every action has an equal and opposite
reaction'.

Q. 67. The camber of an aerofoil section is.


1. the angle which the aerofoil makes with the relative airflow.
2. the curvature of the median line of the aerofoil.
3. the angle of incidence towards the tip of a wing.
Ans is. the curvature of the median line of the aerofoil.
Expa. Aerofoil camber is the curvature of the median line of the
aerofoil.

Q. 68. Induced drag.


1. is caused by skin friction.
2. is associated with the lift generated by an aerofoil.
3. results from disturbed airflow in the region of mainplane. OR is associated
with the lift generated by an aerofoil.
Ans is. results from disturbed airflow in the region of mainplane
attachments.
Expa. Induced drag is often called 'lift dependant drag' because it increases with
increasing lift (due to increased AOA).
Q. 69. As air flows over the upper cambered surface of an aerofoil, what
happens to velocity and pressure?.
1. Velocity increases, pressure increases.
2. Velocity increases, pressure decreases.
3. Velocity decreases, pressure decreases.
Ans is. Velocity increases, pressure decreases.
Expa. As air flows over the upper cambered surface of an aerofoil, velcity
increases and pressure decreases. This is Bernoulli's effect.

Q. 70. What is the force that tends to pull an aircraft down towards the
earth?.
1. Thrust.
2. Weight.
3. Drag.
Ans is. Weight.
Expa. Weight tends to pull the aircraft down towards the earth.

Q. 71. The angle at which the chord line of the aerofoil is presented to the
airflow is known as.
1. angle of attack.
2. resultant.
3. angle of incidence.
Ans is. angle of attack.
Expa. Angle of Attack is the angle at which the chord line of the aerofoil is
presented to the airflow.

Q. 72. The imaginary straight line which passes through an aerofoil section
from leading edge to trailing edge is called.
1. the chord line.
2. the direction of relative airflow.
3. centre of pressure.
Ans is. the chord line.
Expa. The Chord Line is the imaginary straight line which passes through the
aerofoil from leading edge to trailing edge.

Q. 73. What is the angle between the chord line of the wing, and the
longitudinal axis of the aircraft, known as?.
1. Angle of dihedral.
2. Angle of attack.
3. Angle of incidence.
Ans is. Angle of incidence.
Expa. Angle of incidence is the angle between the chord line of the wing and the
longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

Q. 74. Wing tip vortices create a type of drag known as.


1. form drag.
2. profile drag.
3. induced drag.
Ans is. induced drag.
Expa. Induced drag is associated with wingtip vortices.

Q. 75. Which of the following describes the 'Empennage'?.


1. Tail section of the aircraft, including fin, rudder, tail plane and elevators.
2. Nose section of an aircraft, including the cockpit.
3. The wings, including the ailerons.
Ans is. Tail section of the aircraft, including fin, rudder, tail plane and elevators.
Expa. Empannage' is the whole tail of the aircraft including fin, rudder, tailplane
and elevator.

Q. 76. As the angle of attack is increased (up to the stall point), which of the
following is correct?.
1. Both a) and b) are correct.
2. Pressure difference between top and bottom of the wing increases.
3. Lift increases.
Ans is. Both a) and b) are correct.
Expa. As the angle of attack is increased the pressure difference between the
upper and lower surfaces of the wing is increased. This causes the lift to
increase.

Q. 77. What type of drag, depends on the smoothness of the body, and
surface area over which the air flows?.
1. Form drag.
2. Parasite drag.
3. Skin friction drag.
Ans is. Skin friction drag.
Expa. Skin friction drag depends upon the smoothness of the body and the
surface area.

Q. 78. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil


decreases, what takes place?.
1. Pressure decreases, lift increases.
2. Pressure increases, lift decreases.
3. Pressure increases, lift increases.
Ans is. Pressure increases, lift decreases.
Expa. When airflow velocity over the upper cambered surface of an aerofoil
DECREASES, the pressure increases and thus the lift decreases.

Q. 79. When an aircraft stalls.


1. lift increases and drag decreases.
2. lift and drag increase.
3. lift decreases and drag increases.
Ans is. lift decreases and drag increases.
Expa. When an aircraft stalls the drag increases and the lift
decreases.
Q. 80. Wing loading is.
1. the maximum all up weight multiplied by the total wing area.
2. the maximum all up weight divided by the total wing area.
3. the ratio of the all up weight of the aircraft to its basic weight.
Ans is. the ratio of the all up weight of the aircraft to its basic weight. OR the
maximum all up weight divided by the total wing area.
Expa. Wing Loading is weight divided by wing area. Measured in Newtons per
Square Metre.

Q. 81. An aircraft wing with an aspect ration of 6 : 1 is proportional so


that.
1. the wing area is six times the span.
2. the mean chord is six times the thickness.
3. the wing span is six times the mean chord.
Ans is. the wing span is six times the mean chord.
Expa. If aspect ratio is 6 : 1 the wing span is 6 times the mean chord.

Q. 82. Upward and outward inclination of a mainplane is termed.


1. dihedral.
2. sweep.
3. stagger.
Ans is. dihedral.
Expa. Upward and outward inclination of a mainplane is termed
dihedral.

Q. 83. Which of the following forces act on an aircraft in level


flight?.
1. Lift, drag, thrust.
2. Lift, thrust, and weight.
3. Lift, thrust, weight, and drag.
Ans is. Lift, thrust, weight, and drag.
Expa. Lift, thrust, weight and drag act on an aircraft in level
flight.

Q. 84. With reference to altimeters, QFE is.


1. the manufacturers registered name.
2. quite fine equipment.
3. setting aerodrome atmospheric pressure so that an altimeter reads zero on
landing and take off.
Ans is. setting aerodrome atmospheric pressure so that an altimeter reads zero
on landing and take off.
Expa. Q is the mathematical symbol for pressure. FE stands for Field Elevation.
QFE refers to setting the altimeter to aerodrome atmospheric pressure so the
altimeter reads zero on landing and takeoff.
Q. 85. Under the ICAO 'Q' code there are which three settings?.
1. QEF, QNH, QEN.
2. QE, QN, QQE.
3. QFE, QNH, QNE.
Ans is. QFE, QNH, QNE.
Expa. The ICAO 'Q' codes are QFE. QNE, QNH.

Q. 86. Wing loading is.


1. WING AREA * WING CHORD.
2. GROSS WEIGHT divided by GROSS WING AREA.
3. the ultimate tensile strength of the wing.
Ans is. GROSS WEIGHT divided by GROSS WING AREA.
Expa. Wing loading is gross weight divided by wing area measured in Newtons per
Square Metre.

Q. 87. Weight is equal to.


1. mass * acceleration.
2. mass * gravity.
3. volume * gravity.
Ans is. mass * gravity.
Expa. Weight = mass * gravity in straight and level flight. In a manoeuvre,
additional accelerations are present, which are sometimes considered to increase
weight. The question can therefore be answered in two ways.

Q. 88. Induced drag.


1. increases with increase in aircraft weight.
2. increases with an increase in speed.
3. reduces with an increase in angle of attack.
Ans is. increases with increase in aircraft weight.
Expa. Induced drag increase with aircraft weight because it is 'lift dependant
drag'.

Q. 89. Airflow over the upper surface of the wing generally.


1. flows towards the tip.
2. flows towards the root.
3. flows straight from leading edge to trailing edge.
Ans is. flows towards the root.
Expa. Due to wing tip vortices there is a general flow of air from tip to root on the
top surface, and root to tip on the lower surface.

Q. 90. With an increase in aspect ratio for a given IAS, induced drag
will.
1. reduce.
2. remain constant.
3. increase.
Ans is. reduce.
Expa. A long slender wing (high aspect ratio) has a low induced drag.

Q. 91. If the density of the air is increased, the lift will.


1. remain the same.
2. increase.
3. decrease.
Ans is. increase.
Expa. See the formula for lift. Lift is directly proportional to air density.

Q. 92. All the factors that affect the lift produced by an aerofoil
are.
1. angle of attack, velocity, wing area, aerofoil shape, air density.
2. angle of attack, air temperature, velocity, wing area.
3. angle of attack, air density, velocity, wing area.
Ans is. angle of attack, velocity, wing area, aerofoil shape, air density.
Expa. Lift formula is CL (includes aerofoil shape and angle of attack) * 1/2 * air
density * velocity squared.

Q. 93. A wing section suitable for high speed would be.


1. thin with high camber.
2. thick with high camber.
3. thin with little or no camber.
Ans is. thin with little or no camber.
Expa. A high speed wing is thin with little camber.

Q. 94. The induced drag of an aircraft.


1. increases if aspect ratio is increased.
2. decreases with increasing speed.
3. increases with increasing speed.
Ans is. decreases with increasing speed.
Expa. Induced drag decreases with increasing speed.

Q. 95. As the speed of an aircraft increases, the profile drag.


1. decreases at first then increase.
2. increases.
3. decreases.
Ans is. increases.
Expa. Profile drag increases with increasing speed.

Q. 96. The stagnation point on an aerofoil is the point where.


1. the boundary layer changes from laminar to turbulent.
2. the suction pressure reaches a maximum.
3. the airflow is brought completely to rest.
Ans is. the airflow is brought completely to rest.
Expa. The stagnation point on the aerofoil is the point where the airflow is brought
completely to rest on the leading edge.

Q. 97. The stalling of an aerofoil is affected by the.


1. transition speed.
2. airspeed.
3. angle of attack.
Ans is. angle of attack.
Expa. The stall position of an aerofoil is determined by its angle of attack only.

Q. 98. The most fuel efficient of the following types of engine is


the.
1. turbo-jet engine.
2. turbo-fan engine.
3. rocket.
Ans is. turbo-fan engine.
Expa. The turbo fan is the most fuel efficient engine.

Q. 99. The quietest of the following types of engine is the.


1. turbo-jet engine.
2. rocket.
3. turbo-fan engine.
Ans is. turbo-fan engine.
Expa. The turbo fan is the quietest engine.

Q. 100. Forward motion of a glider is provided by.


1. the weight.
2. the drag.
3. the engine.
Ans is. the weight.
Expa. The weight provides forward motion of a glider.

Q. 101. Profile drag consists of what drag types?.


1. Form, induced and interference.
2. Form, induced and skin friction.
3. Form, skin friction and interference.
Ans is. Form, skin friction and interference.
Expa. Profile drag (known as Parasite drag in the USA) consists of Form Drag, Skin
Friction Drag and Interference Drag.

Q. 102. An aircraft in straight and level flight is subject to.


1. a load factor of 1.
2. a load factor of .
3. zero load factor.
Ans is. a load factor of 1.
Expa. An aircraft in straight and level flight is subject to a load factor of 1 (i.e. 1g).

Q. 103. Aspect ratio is given by the formula.


1. Mean Chord / Span.
2. Span2 / Area.
3. Span2 / Mean Chord.
Ans is. Span2 / Area.
Expa. Aspect Ratio is span/mean chord. Multiply top and bottom by span and you
get span2/area.

Q. 104. An aspect ratio of 8 means.


1. the mean chord is 8 times the span.
2. the span is 8 times the mean chord.
3. the area is 8 times the span.
Ans is. the span is 8 times the mean chord.
Expa. An Aspect Ratio of 8 means the span is 8 times the chord.

Q. 105. A high aspect ratio wing.


1. has a higher stall angle than a low aspect ratio wing.
2. is stiffer than a low aspect ratio wing.
3. has less induced drag than a low aspect ratio wing.
Ans is. has less induced drag than a low aspect ratio wing.
Expa. A long slender wing (high aspect ratio) has less induced drag than a short
stubby wing.

Q. 106. Induced downwash.


1. reduces the effective angle of attack of the wing.
2. increases the effective angle of attack of the wing.
3. has no effect on the angle of attack of the wing.
Ans is. reduces the effective angle of attack of the wing.
Expa. Induced downwash reduces the effective angle of attack of the wing.

Q. 107. A straight rectangular wing, without any twist, will.


1. have less angle of attack at the tip.
2. have greater angle of attack at the tip.
3. have the same angle of attack at all points along the span.
Ans is. have the same angle of attack at all points along the span. OR have less
angle of attack at the tip.
Expa. Due to wingtip vortices, there is more downwash at the tip, and therefore
there is less angle of attack at the tip.

Q. 108. Given 2 wings, the first with a span of 12m and a chord of 2 m. The
second has a span of 6m and a chord of 1m. How do their Aspect Ratios
compare?.
1. The first is higher.
2. They are the same.
3. The second is higher.
Ans is. They are the same.
Expa. Aspect ratio = Span/Chord.

Q. 109. The C of G moves in flight. The most likely cause of this is.
1. movement of passengers.
2. consumption of fuel and oils.
3. movement of cargo.
Ans is. consumption of fuel and oils.
Expa. Consumption of fuel and oil causes the C of G to move in flight.

Q. 110. A straight rectangular wing, without any twist, will.


1. stall equally along the span of the wing.
2. stall first at the tip.
3. stall first at the root.
Ans is. stall first at the root.
Expa. A straight rectangular wing will stall first at the root. This is because the
effective angle of attack is reduced at the tips because of the greater downwash at
the tips.

Q. 111. When an aircraft experiences induced drag.


1. air flows under the wing span wise towards the root and on top of the wing
span wise towards the tip.
2. air flows under the wing span wise towards the tip and on top of the wing
span wise towards the root.
3. Neither a) or b) since induced drag does not cause span wise flow.
Ans is. Neither a) or b) since induced drag does not cause span wise. OR air flows
under the wing span wise towards the tip and on top of the wing span wise towards
the root.
Expa. Induced drag causes air to flow under the wing span wise towards the tip
and on top of the wing span wise towards the root.

Q. 112. An aeroplane wing is designed to produce lift resulting from


relatively.
1. positive air pressure below and above the wing's surface.
2. positive air pressure below the wing's surface an negative air pressure above
the wing's surface.
3. negative air pressure below the wing's surface and positive air pressure
above the wing's surface. OR negative air pressure below the wing's surface and
positive air.
Ans is. negative air pressure below the wing's surface and positive air.
Expa. The wing is designed to produce lift resulting from relatively positive air
pressure below the wing surface and negative air pressure above the wing surface.

Q. 113. Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of the.


1. wingspan to the mean chord.
2. wingspan to the wing root.
3. square of the chord to the wingspan.
Ans is. wingspan to the mean chord.
Expa. Aspect ratio is defined as the ratio of the wing span to mean chord.

Q. 114. Which of the following is true?.


1. Lift acts at right angles to the relative airflow and weight acts vertically
down.
2. Lift acts at right angles to the wing chord line and weight acts vertically
down.
3. Lift acts at right angles to the relative air flow and weight acts at right angles
to the aircraft centre line.
Ans is. Lift acts at right angles to the relative air flow and weight acts vertically
down.
Expa. Lift acts at right angles to the relative airflow and weight acts vertically
down.

Q. 115. The airflow over the upper surface of a cambered wing.


1. increases in velocity and reduces in pressure.
2. increases in velocity and pressure.
3. reduces in velocity and increases in pressure.
Ans is. increases in velocity and reduces in pressure.
Expa. Airflow flowing over the upper surface of an aerofoil increases in velocity
and decreases in pressure.

Q. 116. With increased speed in level flight.


1. profile drag increases.
2. induced drag increases.
3. profile drag remains constant.
Ans is. profile drag increases.
Expa. With increased speed in level flight, the profile drag increases and the
induced drag decreases.

Q. 117. An aeroplane wing is designed to produce lift resulting from


relatively.
1. positive air pressure below the wing's surface and negative air pressure
above the wing's surface.
2. negative air pressure below the wing's surface and positive air pressure
above the wing's surface.
3. positive air pressure below and above the wing's surface.
Ans is. positive air pressure below and above the wing's surface.
Expa. The wing is designed to produce lift resulting from relatively positive air
pressure below the wing surface and negative air pressure above the wing
surface.".
Q. 118. The angle of attack of an aerofoil section is the angle between
the.
1. underside of the wing surface and the mean airflow.
2. chord line and the relative airflow.
3. chord line and the centre line of the fuselage.
Ans is. chord line and the relative airflow.
Expa. Angle of attack of an aerofoil is the angle between the chord line and the
relative air flow.

Q. 119. A swept wing tends to stall first at the.


1. centre section.
2. root.
3. tip.
Ans is. tip.
Expa. A swept wing tends to stall first at the tip.

Q. 120. The trailing vortex on a pointed wing (taper ratio = 0) is.


1. at the tip.
2. equally all along the wing span.
3. at the root.
Ans is. at the root.
Expa. The vortex of a pointed wing concentrated at the root of the wing - exactly
opposite to straight wings.

Q. 121. The lift curve for a delta wing is.


1. more steep than that of a high aspect ratio wing.
2. less steep than that of a high aspect ratio wing.
3. the same as that of a high aspect ratio wing.
Ans is. less steep than that of a high aspect ratio wing.
Expa. A delta wing produces less lift for any given angle of attack than any other
type of wing.

Q. 122. An increase in the speed at which an aerofoil passes through the air
increases lift because.
1. the increased speed of the airflow creates a greater pressure differential
between the upper and lower surfaces.
2. the increased speed of the airflow creates a lesser pressure differential
between the upper and lower surfaces.
3. the increased velocity of the relative wind increases the angle of attack.
Ans is. the increased velocity of the relative wind increases the angle. OR the
increased speed of the airflow creates a greater pressure differential between the
upper and lower surfaces.
Expa. Increasing the speed of an aerofoil increases the pressure differential
between the upper and lower surface.

Q. 123. A delta wing has.


1. a lower stall angle than a straight wing.
2. a higher stall angle than a straight wing.
3. the same stall angle than a straight wing.
Ans is. a higher stall angle than a straight wing.
Expa. A delta wing has a much higher stall angle than a normal wing (some as
much as 40 degrees).

Q. 124. The airflow over the upper surface of a cambered wing.


1. reduces in velocity and increases in pressure.
2. increases in velocity and reduces in pressure.
3. increases in velocity and pressure.
Ans is. increases in velocity and reduces in pressure.
Expa. Airflow over the upper surface of a cambered surface of the wing increases
in velocity and decreases in pressure.

Q. 125. The speed of air over a swept wing which contributes to the lift
is.
1. less than the aircraft speed.
2. the same as the aircraft speed.
3. more than the aircraft speed.
Ans is. less than the aircraft speed.
Expa. If aircraft speed is V, speed of airflow over wing which contributes to lift is
Vcos(sweepangle). Cos(sweepangle) < 1. See AC Kermode, Mechanics of Flight
(10th edition). Pg 359 Fig 11.16.

Q. 126. For a given angle of attack, induced drag is.


1. greater on a high aspect ratio wing.
2. greater towards the wing root.
3. greater on a low aspect ratio wing.
Ans is. greater on a low aspect ratio wing.
Expa. A low aspect ratio wing (short-stubby wing) has a greater induced drag.

Q. 127. In straight and level flight, the angle of attack of a swept wing
is.
1. less than the aircraft angle to the horizontal.
2. more than the aircraft angle to the horizontal.
3. the same as the aircraft angle to the horizontal.
Ans is. less than the aircraft angle to the horizontal.
Expa. Since the 'effective' velocity vector over a swept wing is not parallel with
the forward direction of the aircraft, a change in pitch of the aircraft has lesser
effect upon the AOA of the wing.

Q. 128. Induced drag.


1. is equal to the profile drag at Vmd.
2. is equal to the profile drag at the stalling speed.
3. is never equal to the profile drag.
Ans is. is equal to the profile drag at Vmd.
Expa. Induced drag is equal to profile drag at Vmd.
Q. 129. A delta wing aircraft flying at the same speed (subsonic) and angle of
attack as a swept wing aircraft of similar wing area will produce.
1. more lift.
2. less lift.
3. the same lift.
Ans is. less lift.
Expa. A delta wing aircraft at any given angle of attack and speed will produce
less lift than any other type of wing.

Q. 130. The stagnation point is.


1. static pressure minus dynamic pressure.
2. dynamic pressure only.
3. static pressure plus dynamic pressure.
Ans is. static pressure plus dynamic pressure.
Expa. At stagnation, the pressure is total (static plus dynamic).

Q. 131. On a swept wing aircraft, due to the adverse pressure gradient, the
boundary layer on the upper surface of the wing tends to flow.
1. towards the root.
2. towards the tip.
3. directly from leading edge to trailing edge.
Ans is. towards the tip.
Expa. Due to adverse pressure gradient on a swept wing, the boundary layer
slides towards the tip and thickens at the tip. This is why swept wings stall first at
the tips.

Q. 132. With increased speed in level flight.


1. induced drag increases.
2. profile drag increases.
3. profile drag remains constant.
Ans is. profile drag increases.
Expa. Profile drag increases with speed, induced drag decreases with speed.

Q. 133. If a swept wing stalls at the tips first, the aircraft will.
1. pitch nose up.
2. roll.
3. pitch nose down.
Ans is. pitch nose up.
Expa. Since the tips are behind the Centre of Gravity, losing the lift at the tips will
cause the nose to rise.

Q. 134. The thickness/chord ratio of the wing is also known as.


1. fineness ratio.
2. mean chord ratio.
3. aspect ratio.
Ans is. fineness ratio.
Expa. The thickness/chord ratio of the wing is also known as the fineness ratio.
(Technically, thickness/chord ratio = 1/fineness ratio).

Q. 135. Flexure of a rearward swept wing will.


1. increase the lift and hence increase the flexure.
2. increase the lift and hence decrease the flexure.
3. decrease the lift and hence decrease the flexure.
Ans is. decrease the lift and hence decrease the flexure.
Expa. Flexure of a rearward swept wing will decrease the lift (since the wing
presents its upper surface to the airflow and the angle of attack reduces) and so the
wing flexes back.

Q. 136. A High Aspect Ratio wing is a wing with.


1. short span, long chord.
2. long span, long chord.
3. long span, short chord.
Ans is. long span, short chord.
Expa. Aspect ratio is the ratio of span to chord.

Q. 137. Stall commencing at the root is preferred because.


1. it provides the pilot with a warning of complete loss of lift.
2. the ailerons become ineffective.
3. it will cause the aircraft to pitch nose up.
Ans is. it provides the pilot with a warning of complete loss of lift.
Expa. Stall commencing at the root causes turbulent air to hit the tailplane. The
resulting 'buffet' warns the pilot just before complete stall.

Q. 138. An aircraft flying in 'ground effect' will produce.


1. the same lift as a similar aircraft outside of ground effect.
2. less lift than a similar aircraft outside of ground effect.
3. more lift than a similar aircraft outside of ground effect.
Ans is. more lift than a similar aircraft outside of ground effect.
Expa. An aircraft flying in ground effect will have more lift than an aircraft not
flying in ground effect (which is why seagulls glide close to the water surface).

Q. 139. If the angle of attack of a wing is increased in flight, the.


1. CofP will move aft.
2. CofP will move forward.
3. C of G will move aft.
Ans is. CofP will move forward.
Expa. Increasing the AOA moves the CofP forward.

Q. 140. The Rams Horn Vortex on a forward swept wing will be.
1. more than a rearward swept wing.
2. less than a rearward swept wing.
3. the same as a rearward swept wing.
Ans is. less than a rearward swept wing.
Expa. A forward swept wing does not suffer from the Rams Horn Vortex.

Q. 141. For a cambered wing section the zero lift angle of attack will
be.
1. 4 degrees.
2. zero.
3. negative.
Ans is. negative.
Expa. A non symmetrical wing will produce some lift at zero degrees. Therefore it
must have a negative angle of attack to produce zero lift.

Q. 142. Airflow at subsonic speed is taken to be.


1. compressible.
2. either a or b depending on altitude.
3. incompressible.
Ans is. incompressible.
Expa. Subsonic airflow is always considered to be incompressible.

Q. 143. Bernoulli's equation shows that.


1. at constant velocity the kinetic energy of the air changes with a change of
height.
2. with a change in velocity at constant height the static pressure will change.
3. with a change in speed at constant height both kinetic and potential energies
change.
Ans is. with a change in velocity at constant height the static pressure will
change.
Expa. Bernoulli's theorem states that if velocity increases, the static pressure
decreases, and vice versa.

Q. 144. If fluid flow through a venturi is said to be incompressible, the speed


of the flow increases at the throat to.
1. allow for a reduction in static pressure.
2. maintain a constant volume flow rate.
3. allow for an increase in static pressure.
Ans is. maintain a constant volume flow rate.
Expa. Volume flow rate is constant at all parts of the flow (if fluid in
incompressible) regardless of cross sectional area.

Q. 145. To produce lift, an aerofoil must be.


1. asymmetrical.
2. symmetrical.
3. either symmetrical or asymmetrical.
Ans is. either symmetrical or asymmetrical.
Expa. To produce lift, the aerofoil can be either symmetrical or asymmetrical.
Q. 146. Lift is dependent on.
1. the net area of the wing ,the density of the fluid medium and the velocity.
2. the area of the wing, the density of the fluid medium, and the square of the
velocity.
3. the frontal area of the wing, the density of the fluid medium and the
velocity.
Ans is. the area of the wing, the density of the fluid medium, and the square of
the velocity.
Expa. See the formula for lift.

Q. 147. A wing develops 10,000 N of lift at 100 knots. Assuming the wing
remains at the same angle of attack and remains at the same altitude, how much
lift will it develop at 300knots?.
1. 30,000 N.
2. 900,000 N.
3. 90,000 N.
Ans is. 90,000 N.
Expa. See the formula for lift. Velocity is squared, so if you triple the velocity, the
lift is 9 times.

Q. 148. The angle of attack is.


1. related to angle of incidence.
2. always kept below 15 degrees.
3. not related to the angle of incidence.
Ans is. not related to the angle of incidence.
Expa. See definitions of angle of attack and angle of incidence.

Q. 149. The difference between the mean camber line and the chord line of
an aerofoil is.
1. neither are straight.
2. they both may be curved.
3. one is always straight and the other may be straight.
Ans is. one is always straight and the other may be straight.
Expa. See the definitions of mean camber and chord line.

Q. 150. If the C of G is calculated after loading as within limits for take


off.
1. a further calculation is required prior to landing to allow for fuel and oil
consumption.
2. a further calculation is required prior to landing to allow for flap
deployment.
3. no further calculation is required.
Ans is. a further calculation is required prior to landing to allow for fuel and oil
consumption.
Expa. If the CG of the fuel is not directly on the empty aircraft CG, the loaded
aircraft CG must be calculated twice (with and without fuel).
Q. 151. Helicopter rotor blades create lift by.
1. pushing the air down.
2. working like a screw.
3. creating low pressure above the blades.
Ans is. creating low pressure above the blades.
Expa. A pure aerodynamicist would say all three are correct. But probably a) is
technically most correct.

Q. 152. The span wise component of the airflow is.


1. greater at higher speeds.
2. unaffected by speed.
3. less at higher speeds.
Ans is. less at higher speeds.
Expa. The tip vortices are less at high speed (due to lower AOA at high speed).
The tip vortices cause the span wise flow.

Q. 153. A wing fence.


1. acts as a lift dumping device.
2. reduces span wise flow on a swept wing thus reducing induced drag.
3. increases lateral control.
Ans is. reduces span wise flow on a swept wing thus reducing induced
drag.
Expa. A wing fence reduces span wise flow. Refer : Barnard and Phillpott Page 78.

Q. 154. With all conditions remaining the same, if the aircraft speed is halved,
by what factor is the lift reduced?.
1. Half.
2. By a factor of 4.
3. Remains the same.
Ans is. By a factor of 4.
Expa. Lift is proportional to the square of aircraft speed.

Q. 155. The boundary layer over an aerofoil is.


1. a layer of air close to the aerofoil which is moving at a velocity less than free
stream air.
2. a layer of turbulent air close to the aerofoil which is moving at a velocity less
than free stream air.
3. a layer of air close to the aerofoil that is stationary.
Ans is. a layer of air close to the aerofoil which is moving at a velocity less than
free stream air.
Expa. Boundary layer air consists of turbulent and laminar airflow.

Q. 156. On a swept wing aircraft, the fineness ratio of an aerofoil


is.
1. highest at the root.
2. equal throughout the span.
3. highest at the tip.
Ans is. highest at the tip.
Expa. Fineness ratio (chord/thickness) is greatest at the tip. Fineness ratio is the
inverse of thickness/chord ratio. Some textbooks differ on the definition of 'fineness
ratio' but most state FR = chord/thickness. Quote A&P Mechanics Airframe
Handbook Page 32 'If a wing has a high fineness ratio, it is a very thin wing. A thick
wing has low fineness ratio'.

Q. 157. Streamlining will reduce.


1. induced drag.
2. skin friction drag.
3. form drag.
Ans is. form drag.
Expa. Form drag is a function of shape.

Q. 158. If an aircraft has a gross weight of 3000 kg and is then subjected to a


total weight of 6000 kg the load factor will be.
1. 2G.
2. 9G.
3. 3G.
Ans is. 2G.
Expa. Load factor is a measure of how many times heavier the aircraft 'feels'
compared to how heavy it actually is.

Q. 159. Ice formed on the leading edge will cause the aircraft to.
1. stall at a higher speed.
2. stall at a lower speed.
3. stall at the same stall speed and AOA.
Ans is. stall at a higher speed.
Expa. Ice change the wing section shape and hence lift (CL) is less and stall speed
is greater.

Q. 160. Under what conditions will an aircraft create best lift?.


1. Hot damp day at 1200 ft.
2. Cold dry day at 200 ft.
3. Cold wet day at 1200 ft.
Ans is. Cold dry day at 200 ft.
Expa. Cold dry air at low altitude provides maximum air density hence best lift.

Q. 161. As Mach number increases, what is the effect on boundary


layer?.
1. Becomes more turbulent.
2. Decreases in thickness.
3. Becomes less turbulent.
Ans is. Becomes more turbulent.
Expa. As speed increases (speed here is measured in Mach) the transition point
moves forward, hence turbulent boundary layer increases.
Q. 162. During a glide the following forces act on an aircraft.
1. lift and weight only.
2. lift, drag, weight.
3. lift, weight, thrust.
Ans is. lift, drag, weight.
Expa. No thrust in a glide. The weight provides the forward motion.

Q. 163. If an aileron is moved downward.


1. the stalling angle of that wing is increased.
2. the stalling angle is not affected but the stalling speed is decreased.
3. the stalling angle of that wing is decreased.
Ans is. the stalling angle of that wing is decreased.
Expa. The aileron increases the 'local' AOA and provides a greater camber. Both
will cause the stalling angle of the wing to decrease.

Q. 164. If the wing loading of an aircraft were reduced the stalling speed
would.
1. increase.
2. not be affected.
3. decrease.
Ans is. decrease.
Expa. An increase in wing loading increases the stall speed. And vice versa.

Q. 165. The lift on a wing is increased with.


1. an increase in temperature.
2. an increase in pressure.
3. an increase in humidity.
Ans is. an increase in pressure.
Expa. Lift depends on density. Increases in humidity and temperature reduce
density. Increase in pressure increases density.

Q. 166. The airflow behind a normal shockwave will.


1. always be subsonic and in the same direction as the original airflow.
2. always be supersonic and in the same direction as the original airflow.
3. always be subsonic and deflected from the direction of the original
airflow.
Ans is. always be subsonic and in the same direction as the original
airflow.
Expa. The airflow behind a normal shock is subsonic, and in the same direction. It
is supersonic behind an oblique shock (and slightly deflected).

Q. 167. Induced drag can be reduced by the use of.


1. streamlining.
2. high aspect ratio wings.
3. fairings at junctions between fuselage and wings.
Ans is. high aspect ratio wings.
Expa. High aspect ratio wings have low induced drag (IE a glider wing).

Q. 168. Interference drag can be reduced by the use of.


1. fairings at junctions between fuselage and wings.
2. high aspect ratio wings.
3. streamlining.
Ans is. fairings at junctions between fuselage and wings.
Expa. Interference drag occurs as a result of turbulence at wing body joints.

Q. 169. Gliding angle is the angle between.


1. ground and the glide path.
2. aircraft and flight path.
3. aircraft and airflow.
Ans is. ground and the glide path.
Expa. The greater the L/D angle the less the glide angle is- therefore you can glide
further.

Q. 170. Propeller Solidity can be increased by.


1. increasing the number of blades.
2. decreasing the length of the blades.
3. increasing the blade angle.
Ans is. increasing the number of blades.
Expa. A C Kermode Mechanics of Flight CH 4 Page 138 shows methods of
increasing solidity.

Q. 171. Lift is generated by a wing.


1. mostly on the bottom surface.
2. mostly on the top surface.
3. equally on the top and bottom surfaces.
Ans is. mostly on the top surface.
Expa. 2/3 of lift is produced by the top surface.

Q. 172. Lift is dependent on.


1. the area of the wing, the density of the fluid medium and the square of the
velocity.
2. the net area of the wing, the density of the fluid medium and the velocity.
3. the frontal area of the wing, the density of the fluid medium and the
velocity.
Ans is. the area of the wing, the density of the fluid medium and the square of
the velocity.
Expa. Lift = Lift Coefficient x 1/2 x density x velocity 2 x wing area (Lift formula).

Q. 173. To produce lift, an aerofoil must be.


1. symmetrical.
2. asymmetrical.
3. either (a) or (b).
Ans is. either (a) or (b).
Expa. A symmetrical wing will produce lift if presented at a suitable positive angle
of attack.

Q. 174. If fluid flow through a venturi is said to be incompressible, the speed


of the flow increases at the throat to.
1. allow for a reduction in static pressure.
2. allow for an increase in static pressure.
3. maintain a constant volume flow rate.
Ans is. maintain a constant volume flow rate.
Expa. Continuity of flow principle.

Q. 175. Bernoulli's equation shows that.


1. at constant velocity the total energy of the air changes with a change in
height.
2. with a change in speed at constant height both kinetic and potential energies
change.
3. with a change in velocity at constant height the static pressure will change.
Ans is. with a change in velocity at constant height the static pressure will
change.
Expa. Bernoulli's theorem states that if velocity increases, the static pressure
decreases, and vice versa.

Q. 176. Airflow at sub-sonic speed is taken to be.


1. incompressible.
2. compressible.
3. either (a) or (b) depending on altitude.
Ans is. incompressible.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 177. The total drag of an aircraft.


1. changes with speed.
2. increases with speed.
3. increases with the square of speed.
Ans is. changes with speed.
Expa. The graph of TOTAL drag against airspeed is 'U' shaped. c can be the only
Ans.

Q. 178. _______ angle of attack is known as optimum angle of


attack.
1. 5 to 7 degrees.
2. 3 to 4 degrees.
3. 10 to 12 degrees.
Ans is. 3 to 4 degrees.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 179. Induced drag is ________ at root.
1. lowest.
2. greatest.
3. neutral.
Ans is. lowest.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 180. Profile drag is _______ to speed.


1. neutral.
2. inversely proportional.
3. proportional.
Ans is. proportional.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 181. A shock stall occurs at.


1. large angles of attack.
2. small angles of attack.
3. equally both large and small angles of attack.
Ans is. small angles of attack.
Expa. An arguable point. Shock stall is due to shock induced separation which can
occur at any angle of attack, but it would be difficult to achieve the high speed
necessary with a high angle of attack.

Q. 182. What happens to the wingtip stagnation point as the AOA


increases?.
1. It moves down and under the leading edge.
2. It moves up and over the leading edge.
3. It remains unchanged.
Ans is. It moves down and under the leading edge.
Expa. It moves down and under the leading edge.

Q. 183. What does the term 'wing washout' mean?.


1. The design of the wing that gives the wing tip a lower angle of incidence.
2. The design of the wing that gives the wing tip a much greater angle of
incidence.
3. The airflow moves toward the end of the wing.
Ans is. The design of the wing that gives the wing tip a lower angle of incidence.
Expa. Wing is twisted such that incidence is lower at the tip.

Q. 184. The point at which airflow ceases to be laminar and becomes


turbulent is the.
1. boundary point.
2. transition point.
3. separation point.
Ans is. transition point.
Expa. transition point.
Q. 185. Which of the following is true about Profile drag?.
1. Profile drag = Skin Drag + Form Drag.
2. Profile drag = skin drag + induced drag.
3. Profile drag = induced drag + Form drag.
Ans is. Profile drag = Skin Drag + Form Drag.
Expa. Profile drag = Skin Drag + Form Drag.

Q. 186. Which statement is true?.


1. Both Induced drag and profile drag increase with the square of the
airspeed.
2. Profile drag increases with the square of the airspeed.
3. Induced drag increases with the square of the airspeed.
Ans is. Induced drag increases with the square of the airspeed.
Expa. Profile drag increases with the square of the airspeed but induced drag
decreases with the square of the airspeed.

Q. 187. Which statement is true?.


1. Rectangular wings stall at the root first.
2. Both tapered and rectangular wings will stall at the tip first.
3. Tapered wings stall at the root first.
Ans is. Rectangular wings stall at the root first.
Expa. Rectangular wings stall at the root first.

Q. 188. During inverted level flight an aircraft accelerometer


shows.
1. -2g.
2. -1g.
3. 0g.
Ans is. -1g.
Expa. Inverted (level) flight is -1g.

Q. 189. During straight and level flight an aircraft accelerometer


shows.
1. 4g.
2. 1g.
3. 2g.
Ans is. 1g.
Expa. Straight and level flight is 1g.

Q. 190. Which of the following is incorrect about induced drag?.


1. It will increase inversely to the square of the airspeed.
2. It will decrease in proportion to the square of the airspeed.
3. It will increase when the angle of attack is reduced.
Ans is. It will increase when the angle of attack is reduced.
Expa. Which is Incorrect.
Q. 191. What produces the most lift at low speeds?.
1. High camber.
2. Low aspect ratio.
3. High aspect ratio.
Ans is. High aspect ratio.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 192. If the angle of attack is zero, but lift is produced, the.


1. wing is symmetrical.
2. wing is cambered.
3. wing has positive angle of incidence.
Ans is. wing is cambered.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 193. When is the angle of incidence the same as the angle of


attack?.
1. Never.
2. In descent.
3. When relative airflow is parallel to longitudinal axis.
Ans is. When relative airflow is parallel to longitudinal axis.
Expa. NIL.

08.3. Theory of Flight .

Q. 1. Flaps at landing position.


1. decrease landing speed.
2. decrease take off and landing speeds.
3. decrease take off speed.
Ans is. decrease landing speed.
Expa. Although an aircraft will take-off with flaps at landing position, this is not
normal.

Q. 2. As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure.


1. moves aft.
2. moves forward.
3. is unaffected.
Ans is. moves aft.
Expa. Assuming that the aircraft is to remain at constant altitude, it must reduce
its angle of attack as it speeds-up. This alone will move the CofP rearwards, in
accordance with the sub-sonic angle of attack change theory.

Q. 3. Lowering of the flaps.


1. increases drag.
2. increases lift.
3. increases drag and lift.
Ans is. increases drag and lift.
Expa. Jeppesen A+P Technician General Textbook. Page 1-17.

Q. 4. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated


with.
1. rudder.
2. elevators.
3. ailerons.
Ans is. ailerons.
Expa. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 51. Jeppesen A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-12.

Q. 5. What do ruddervators do?.


1. Control yaw and roll.
2. Control pitch and yaw.
3. Control pitch and roll.
Ans is. Control pitch and yaw.
Expa. Jeppesen A+P Technician General Textbook. Page 1-16 fig 1-36.

Q. 6. What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft?.


1. Ailerons.
2. Elevons.
3. Elevators.
Ans is. Elevons.
Expa. Jeppesen A+P Technician General Textbook. Page 1-17.

Q. 7. What does a trim tab do?.


1. Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit.
2. Provides finer control movements by the pilot.
3. Eases control loading for pilot.
Ans is. Eases control loading for pilot.
Expa. A&P General Textbook Pg 2-35.

Q. 8. How does a balance tab move?.


1. In the same direction a small amount.
2. In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached
to.
3. In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to.
Ans is. In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached
to.
Expa. A&P General Textbook Pg 2-36.

Q. 9. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim
tab on the rudder?.
1. To the centre.
2. To the left.
3. To the right.
Ans is. To the left.
Expa. Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43.

Q. 10. If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the
left aileron trim tab?.
1. Down.
2. Up.
3. Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation.
Ans is. Up.
Expa. Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43.

Q. 11. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the
wing for?.
1. To re-energise the boundary layer.
2. To increase the lift.
3. To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts.
Ans is. To re-energise the boundary layer.
Expa. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 50. Jeppesen A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-32.

Q. 12. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is


true?.
1. The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the same angle.
2. The up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down going
aileron.
3. The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going
aileron.
Ans is. The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going
aileron.
Expa. Mechanics of Flight, Kermode, Page 301. The down going aileron moves
less, to reduce the induced drag which causes adverse aileron yaw.

Q. 13. The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore
provide a side-load.
1. only when the rudder is moved.
2. if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement.
3. only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw.
Ans is. if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder
movement.
Expa. Rudder deflection or yaw.

Q. 14. An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the
left aileron trim tab in the cockpit would be.
1. moved up causing the left aileron to move up.
2. moved up causing the left aileron to move down.
3. moved down causing the left aileron to move down.
Ans is. moved up causing the left aileron to move down.
Expa. Down aileron required - which requires up trim.

Q. 15. An elevator tab moves down.


1. to make the nose go down.
2. to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy.
3. to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy.
Ans is. to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy.
Expa. Elevator tab DOWN, elevator UP, aircraft nose UP.

Q. 16. The stall margin is controlled by.


1. speed bug cursor.
2. EPR limits.
3. angle of attack and flap position.
Ans is. angle of attack and flap position.
Expa. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Page 143/4.

Q. 17. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located?.


1. Under the Fuselage.
2. Either side of the Fuselage.
3. On the wing.
Ans is. Either side of the Fuselage.
Expa. Reference BAe 146 etc.

Q. 18. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts, what will
happen to the angle of attack?.
1. Tend to decrease.
2. Stay the same.
3. Tend to increase.
Ans is. Tend to increase.
Expa. Assuming that 'rising gust' means it has a vertical component.

Q. 19. A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is.


1. leading edge flaps.
2. trailing edge flaps.
3. spoiler.
Ans is. spoiler.
Expa. Spoilers are sometimes called 'lift dumps'.

Q. 20. The purpose of a slot in a wing is to.


1. provide housing for the slat.
2. speed up the airflow and increase lift.
3. act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.
Ans is. act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.
Expa. A slot is to act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary
layer.
Q. 21. Large flap deployment.
1. causes increased span wise flow towards tips on wing upper surface.
2. causes increased span wise flow towards tips on wing lower surface.
3. has no effect on span wise flow.
Ans is. causes increased span wise flow towards tips on wing lower
surface.
Expa. Flaps increase the pressure differential between top and bottom surfaces,
increase tip vortices and span wise flow.

Q. 22. Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls


first?.
1. Tip stalls first.
2. Both stall together.
3. Root stalls first.
Ans is. Tip stalls first.
Expa. The tip of a swept wing stalls first.

Q. 23. During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would
have a tendency to fly.
1. right wing low.
2. left wing low.
3. nose up.
Ans is. right wing low.
Expa. The leading wing (left wing) has increased lift, causing it to rise.

Q. 24. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer.


1. there is an increased tail plane up-force.
2. the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increased tail plane down
force.
3. there is an increased tailplane down-force.
Ans is. there is an increased tailplane down-force.
Expa. The lower cambered surface produces a down-force on the tail.

Q. 25. When the trailing edge flap is extended.


1. CP moves rearward.
2. the CP moves forward but the CG does not change.
3. the CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to nose up.
Ans is. CP moves rearward.
Expa. CP moves rearwards when the flap is extended.

Q. 26. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling


will.
1. rise.
2. not be affected.
3. lower.
Ans is. rise.
Expa. As ambient temperature drops, density increases and aircraft performance
increases.

Q. 27. What type of flap is this?.


1. Split flap.
2. Plain flap.
3. Fowler flap.
Ans is. Split flap.
Expa. Split flap.

Q. 28. Servo tabs.


1. enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral.
2. move in such a way as to help move the control surface.
3. provide artificial feel.
Ans is. move in such a way as to help move the control surface.
Expa. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Pg.1-29.

Q. 29. Spring Tabs.


1. provide artificial feel.
2. enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral.
3. move in such a way as to help move the control surface.
Ans is. move in such a way as to help move the control surface.
Expa. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Pg.1-29.

Q. 30. Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of
attack of a wing?.
1. Increase the angle of attack.
2. Decrease the angle of attack.
3. No effect on angle of attack.
Ans is. Decrease the angle of attack.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 31. To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges
are.
1. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root.
2. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip.
3. installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.
Ans is. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 32. Krueger flaps make up part of the.


1. wing lower surface leading edge.
2. wing lower surface trailing edge.
3. wing upper surface leading edge.
Ans is. wing lower surface leading edge.
Expa. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-37. Automatic Flight Control
Pallett Page 53 fig 1.37 (Note : lower surface when retracted, upper surface when
extended.).

Q. 33. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed.


1. to assist the up going aileron.
2. in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons.
3. to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons.
Ans is. to assist the up going aileron.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 34. Dutch role is movement in.


1. yaw and pitch.
2. yaw and roll.
3. pitch and roll.
Ans is. yaw and roll.
Expa. Avionic Fundamentals Jeppesen page 291.

Q. 35. What is the main purpose of a frize aileron?.


1. Increase drag on the up going wing.
2. Decrease drag on the up going wing.
3. Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads.
Ans is. Decrease drag on the up going wing.
Expa. The Frise aileron increases drag on the up-going aileron, which is on the
downgoing wing. And Vise versa on the other aileron.

Q. 36. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to.


1. nose down.
2. go one wing down.
3. nose up.
Ans is. go one wing down.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 37. If an aircraft moves in yaw, what axis is it moving about?.


1. Longitudinal.
2. Lateral.
3. Normal.
Ans is. Normal.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 38. If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable.


1. aircraft returns to trimmed attitude.
2. CofP moves back.
3. aircraft becomes too sensitive.
Ans is. aircraft returns to trimmed attitude.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 39. What are ground spoilers used for?.
1. To assist the aircraft coming to a stop.
2. To slow the aircraft.
3. To dump lift.
Ans is. To dump lift.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 40. Mass balance weights are used to.


1. balance the trailing edge of flying control surfaces.
2. counteract flutter on control surfaces.
3. balance the tabs.
Ans is. counteract flutter on control surfaces.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 41. What is a slot used for?.


1. Increased angle of attack during approach.
2. Increase the speed of the airflow.
3. To reinforce the boundary layer.
Ans is. To reinforce the boundary layer.
Expa. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 53.

Q. 42. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and.


1. horizontal axis.
2. relative air flow.
3. tip path plane.
Ans is. relative air flow.
Expa. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 3.

Q. 43. A high lift device is used for.


1. take-off only.
2. take-off and landing.
3. landing only.
Ans is. take-off and landing.
Expa. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 50.

Q. 44. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control


systems?.
1. Spoiler to elevator.
2. Spoiler to aileron.
3. Spoiler to flap.
Ans is. Spoiler to aileron.
Expa. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 54.

Q. 45. What is aileron droop?.


1. The droop of ailerons with no hydraulics on.
2. The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow.
3. One aileron lowered.
Ans is. The droop of ailerons with no hydraulics on.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 46. Earths atmosphere is.


1. 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen.
2. 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen.
3. 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen.
Ans is. 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 47. An anti-balance tab is used.


1. to relieve stick loads.
2. for trimming the aircraft.
3. to give more feel to the controls.
Ans is. to give more feel to the controls.
Expa. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-29.

Q. 48. The fin helps to give.


1. directional stability about the normal axis.
2. directional stability about the longitudinal axis.
3. longitudinal stability about the normal axis.
Ans is. directional stability about the normal axis.
Expa. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-22.

Q. 49. If an aircraft moves in roll, it is moving about the.


1. longitudinal axis.
2. normal axis.
3. lateral axis.
Ans is. longitudinal axis.
Expa. Mechanics of flight by A.C. Kermode page 241.

Q. 50. What effect does lowering the flaps for take-off have?.
1. Increases lift & reduces drag.
2. Increases lift and drag.
3. Increase lift only.
Ans is. Increases lift and drag.
Expa. Avionics Fundamentals. Jeppesen Page 244.

Q. 51. What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have?.


1. Reduces takeoff speeds only.
2. Reduces landing speeds only.
3. Reduces takeoff and landing speeds.
Ans is. Reduces takeoff speeds only.
Expa. Avionics Fundamentals. Jeppesen Page 244.

Q. 52. When the flaps are lowered.


1. the lift vector moves rearward.
2. there is no effect on the lift vector.
3. the lift vector moves forward.
Ans is. the lift vector moves rearward.
Expa. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 51.

Q. 53. At take-off, if the flaps are lowered there is a.


1. large increase in lift and drag.
2. large increase in lift and small increase in drag.
3. small increase in lift and drag.
Ans is. large increase in lift and drag.
Expa. Avionics Fundamentals. Jeppesen Page 244.

Q. 54. Wing spoilers be used.


1. to assist the respective down going aileron in a turn.
2. as ground spoilers on landing.
3. to assist the elevators.
Ans is. as ground spoilers on landing.
Expa. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett page 55. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
by Jeppesen. 1-14.

Q. 55. Differential aileron control will.


1. cause a nose down moment.
2. prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input.
3. cause a nose up moment.
Ans is. prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 56. Dutch Roll affects.


1. pitch and yaw simultaneously.
2. yaw and roll simultaneously.
3. pitch and roll simultaneously.
Ans is. yaw and roll simultaneously.
Expa. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett page 26.

Q. 57. Which of the following are primary control surfaces?.


1. Elevators, ailerons, rudder.
2. Roll spoilers, elevators, tabs.
3. Elevators, roll spoilers, tabs.
Ans is. Elevators, ailerons, rudder.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 58. A split flap.
1. forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted.
2. forms part of the leading edge's lower surface when retracted.
3. forms part of the trailing edge's upper surface when retracted.
Ans is. forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted.
Expa. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page1-30 /31.

Q. 59. An anti-servo tab.


1. assists the pilot to move the controls back to neutral.
2. moves in the opposite direction to the control surface to assist the pilot.
3. moves in the same direction as the control surface to assist the pilot.
Ans is. assists the pilot to move the controls back to neutral.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 60. Slats.
1. keep the boundary layer from separating for longer.
2. increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing.
3. act as an air brake.
Ans is. keep the boundary layer from separating for longer.
Expa. Jeppesen A & P technician airframe textbook page 1-32.

Q. 61. Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in
flight.
1. nose should be lowered, reducing AOA.
2. nose should be raised, increasing AOA.
3. nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AOA.
Ans is. nose should be lowered, reducing AOA.
Expa. The main purpose of flaps is to increase lift so that the pilot can lower the
nose, increase decent angle and get a better view of the runway.

Q. 62. Flight spoilers.


1. can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that
wing.
2. can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of
airspeed.
3. can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a turn.
Ans is. can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction
of airspeed.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 63. If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move
the elevator trim tab?.
1. Up to move elevator down.
2. Up to move elevator up.
3. Down to move elevator up.
Ans is. Down to move elevator up.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 64. Wing tip vortices are strongest when.
1. flying high speed straight and level flight.
2. flying into a headwind.
3. flying slowly at high angles of attack.
Ans is. flying slowly at high angles of attack.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 65. Aerodynamic balance.


1. will reduce aerodynamic loading.
2. will cause CP to move forward of hinge and cause overbalance.
3. will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability.
Ans is. will reduce aerodynamic loading.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 66. A balance tab.


1. effectively increases the area of the control surface.
2. assists the pilot to move the controls.
3. is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft.
Ans is. assists the pilot to move the controls.
Expa. Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook pg 1-29.

Q. 67. Elevons combine the functions of both.


1. rudder and elevator.
2. elevator and aileron.
3. rudder and aileron.
Ans is. elevator and aileron.
Expa. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-16 Fig 1-36.

Q. 68. Flutter can be reduced by using.


1. a horn balance.
2. mass balancing.
3. servo tabs.
Ans is. mass balancing.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 69. An elevator provides control about the.


1. longitudinal axis.
2. lateral axis.
3. horizontal stabilizer.
Ans is. lateral axis.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 70. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft.


1. are isolated at high speeds.
2. are isolated to improve sensitivity.
3. are isolated at low speeds.
Ans is. are isolated at high speeds.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 71. Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?.
1. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the up-going aileron increases
more.
2. Both wings have an equal increase in drag.
3. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases
more.
Ans is. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron
increases more.
Expa. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-26.

Q. 72. Which flap will increase wing area and camber?.


1. Slot.
2. Split.
3. Fowler.
Ans is. Fowler.
Expa. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 20.

Q. 73. Wing loading of an aircraft.


1. varies with dynamic loading due to air currents.
2. is independent of altitude.
3. decreases with density.
Ans is. is independent of altitude.
Expa. Wing loading = aircraft weight/wing area.

Q. 74. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack
is.
1. high.
2. high or low.
3. low.
Ans is. high.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 75. On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is
caused by.
1. left spoilers extending, right spoilers remaining retracted.
2. right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted.
3. left and right spoilers extending.
Ans is. right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 76. A split flap increases lift by increasing.


1. the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion.
2. the surface area.
3. the camber of the top surface.
Ans is. the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion.
Expa. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-30.

Q. 77. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will.
1. pitch nose up.
2. pitch nose down.
3. sink.
Ans is. pitch nose down.
Expa. Due to the centre of pressure moving.

Q. 78. In aileron control.


1. the up going aileron moves further than down going aileron.
2. the down going aileron moves further than up going aileron.
3. it is assisted by the rudder.
Ans is. the up going aileron moves further than down going aileron.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 79. The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the.


1. ailerons.
2. elevator.
3. rudder.
Ans is. elevator.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 80. The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the.


1. ailerons.
2. elevator.
3. rudder.
Ans is. rudder.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 81. Dutch roll is.


1. a combined yawing and rolling motion.
2. primarily a pitching instability.
3. a type of slow roll.
Ans is. a combined yawing and rolling motion.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 82. The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the.


1. ailerons.
2. elevator.
3. rudder.
Ans is. ailerons.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 83. Ruddervators when moved, will move.


1. opposite to each other only.
2. together only.
3. either opposite each other or together, depending on the selection.
Ans is. either opposite each other or together, depending on the selection
Expa. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16.

Q. 84. As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit.


1. the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch, due to the high longitudinal
stability.
2. the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to the low
stability.
3. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high.
Ans is. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 85. What is the term used for the amount of water in the
atmosphere?.
1. Relative humidity.
2. Absolute humidity.
3. Dew point.
Ans is. Absolute humidity.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 86. An anti-balance tab is moved.


1. via a fixed linkage.
2. hydraulically.
3. when the C.G. changes.
Ans is. via a fixed linkage.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 87. A servo tab is operated.


1. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control
surfaces.
2. automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main control
surfaces.
3. by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control
surfaces when moved.
Ans is. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control
surfaces.
Expa. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 23.

Q. 88. On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane, pitch up is caused


by.
1. decreasing tailplane incidence.
2. up movement of the elevator trim tab.
3. increasing tailplane incidence.
Ans is. decreasing tailplane incidence.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 89. When checking full range of control surface movement, they must be
positioned by.
1. moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops.
2. moving them by hand directly until against the secondary stops.
3. operating the control cabin controls until the system is against the primary
stops.
Ans is. operating the control cabin controls until the system is against the
primary stops.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 90. An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface


centre of pressure.
1. rearwards, resulting in too much assistance.
2. rearwards, resulting in loss of assistance.
3. forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance.
Ans is. forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 91. A flying control mass balance weight.


1. keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible.
2. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.
3. ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control
column load.
Ans is. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 92. The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called
a.
1. plain flap.
2. split flap.
3. Fowler flap.
Ans is. Fowler flap.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 93. Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing
area?.
1. Split flap.
2. Fowler flap.
3. Slotted flap.
Ans is. Fowler flap.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 94. Which of the following is not a primary flying control?.
1. Elevator.
2. Tailplane.
3. Rudder.
Ans is. Tailplane.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 95. A leading edge slat is a device for.


1. increasing the stalling angle of the wing.
2. decreasing the stalling angle of the wing.
3. decreasing wing drag.
Ans is. increasing the stalling angle of the wing.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 96. A Krueger flap is.


1. a flap which extends rearwards but does not lower.
2. a leading edge flap which hinges forward.
3. a leading edge slat which extends forward.
Ans is. a leading edge flap which hinges forward.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 97. A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving
automatically in the opposite direction to the control surface is called a.
1. servo tab.
2. geared balance tab.
3. trim tab.
Ans is. geared balance tab.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 98. What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?.


1. Elevator.
2. Aileron.
3. Rudder.
Ans is. Rudder.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 99. What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed
rapidly in event of severe turbulence, or speed tending to rise above the Never
Exceed Limit?.
1. Lift dumpers.
2. Air brakes.
3. Wheel brakes.
Ans is. Air brakes.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 100. When spoilers are used asymmetrically, they combine with.
1. ailerons.
2. rudder.
3. elevators.
Ans is. ailerons.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 101. "What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move


towards an undesirable flight attitude?."
1. Trim tabs.
2. Spring tabs.
3. Balance tabs.
Ans is. Trim tabs.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 102. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving,
in relation to the rest of the airflow, is known as.
1. none of the above are correct.
2. camber layer.
3. boundary layer.
Ans is. boundary layer.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 103. A control surface which forms a slot when deployed is called


a.
1. slat.
2. slot.
3. flap.
Ans is. slat.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 104. Asymmetric flaps will cause.


1. the aircraft to descend.
2. the aircraft to ascend.
3. one wing to rise.
Ans is. one wing to rise.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 105. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil


decreases, what takes place?.
1. Pressure decreases, lift increases.
2. Pressure increases, lift decreases.
3. Pressure increases, lift increases.
Ans is. Pressure increases, lift decreases.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 106. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin
friction?.
1. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.
2. Aspect ratio.
3. Fineness ratio.
Ans is. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 107. Changes in aircraft weight.


1. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift
change.
2. will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed.
3. will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant.
Ans is. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift
change.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 108. When an aircraft stalls.


1. lift increases and drag decreases.
2. lift and drag increase.
3. lift decreases and drag increases.
Ans is. lift decreases and drag increases.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 109. Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed.


1. roll will not occur.
2. pitch trim is not affected.
3. no yaw takes place.
Ans is. pitch trim is not affected.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 110. The aircraft stalling speed will.


1. only change if the MTWA were changed.
2. be unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is dependant upon the
angle of attack.
3. increase with an increase in weight.
Ans is. increase with an increase in weight.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 111. In a bank and turn.


1. extra lift is not required if thrust is increased.
2. extra lift is not required.
3. extra lift is required.
Ans is. extra lift is required.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 112. The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is
to.
1. fit bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces.
2. attach weights forward of the hinge line.
3. allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow.
Ans is. attach weights forward of the hinge line.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 113. Control surface flutter may be caused by.


1. excessive play in trim tab attachments.
2. high static friction in trim tab control tabs.
3. incorrect angular movement of trim tabs.
Ans is. excessive play in trim tab attachments.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 114. A differential aileron control system results in.


1. aileron drag being reduced on the inner wing in a turn.
2. aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn.
3. aileron drag being compensated by small rudder movements.
Ans is. aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 115. The primary function of a flap is.


1. to trim the aircraft longitudinally.
2. to alter the position of the centre of gravity.
3. to alter the lift of an aerofoil.
Ans is. to alter the lift of an aerofoil.
Expa. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-30.

Q. 116. The angle of attack at which stall occurs.


1. can be varied by using flaps and slats.
2. depends on the weight of the aircraft.
3. cannot be varied, it is always constant.
Ans is. can be varied by using flaps and slats.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 117. The stalling speed of an aircraft.


1. is increased when it is heavier.
2. does not change.
3. is increased when it is lighter.
Ans is. is increased when it is heavier.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 118. A wing flap which has dropped or partially extended on one wing in
flight will lead to.
1. a fixed banked attitude which would be corrected by use of the rudder.
2. a pitching moment which would be corrected by used of the elevators.
3. a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons.
Ans is. a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 119. With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the stalling angle
of a wing.
1. remains the same.
2. increases.
3. decreases.
Ans is. decreases.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 120. Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved.


1. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line.
2. by weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge line.
3. by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface.
Ans is. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line.
Expa. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7.

Q. 121. A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing


to.
1. assist the pilot in moving the control.
2. increase stability.
3. decrease the drag when the control is deflected.
Ans is. assist the pilot in moving the control.
Expa. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7.

Q. 122. Downward displacement of an aileron.


1. increases the angle at which its wing stalls.
2. decreases the angle at which its wing will stall.
3. has no effect on its wing stalling angle, it only affects the stalling speed on
that wing.
Ans is. decreases the angle at which its wing will stall.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 123. Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flap-induced


downwash on the tailplane.
1. will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch.
2. "may cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the initial
tailplane load
."
3. will tend to cause an aircraft nose down pitch.
Ans is. will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 124. Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension of the
flaps, to maintain the lift constant it would be necessary to.
1. raise the nose.
2. lower the nose.
3. keep the pitch attitude constant.
Ans is. lower the nose.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 125. The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the diagram),
is provided to.
1. make the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces encountered when moving
the control.
2. provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder.
3. prevent control surface flutter.
Ans is. provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the
rudder.
Expa. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 25 Para 7.

Q. 126. A differential aileron control is one which gives.


1. the down-going aileron more travel than the up-going one.
2. equal aileron travel in each direction, but variable for stick movement.
3. a larger aileron up travel than down.
Ans is. a larger aileron up travel than down.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 127. Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the
wing?.
1. Flap and slat.
2. Slat.
3. Flap.
Ans is. Slat.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 128. The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control


surface.
1. operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls.
2. operated independently at which point in the length of cable the tensiometer
is applied.
3. operating automatically to provide feel to the controls.
Ans is. operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 129. Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by.


1. placing a weight ahead of the hinge point.
2. placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface.
3. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point.
Ans is. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point.
Expa. AL/3-24 para 4.2.

Q. 130. Aerodynamic balance is used to.


1. reduce the control load to zero.
2. make the flying controls easier to move.
3. prevent flutter of the flying controls.
Ans is. make the flying controls easier to move.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 131. A horn balance is.


1. a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the
end.
2. a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the control
cables are attached.
3. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge
line.
Ans is. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge
line.
Expa. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16.

Q. 132. A control surface is mass balanced by.


1. the attachment of weights acting on the hinge line.
2. fitting a balance tab.
3. the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line.
Ans is. the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 133. The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to.


1. relieve stick loads.
2. trim the aircraft.
3. give more feel to the control column.
Ans is. give more feel to the control column.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 134. You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy.
What was the direction of travel of the trim tab?.
1. The elevator trim tab has moved down.
2. The elevator trim tab has moved up.
3. The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down.
Ans is. The elevator trim tab has moved down.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 135. The tropopause exists at about.


1. 18,000 ft.
2. 30,000 ft.
3. 36,000 ft.
Ans is. 36,000 ft.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 136. Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such
that there is.
1. an increase in gradient with wing speed.
2. no change in gradient with wing speed.
3. decrease in gradient with wing speed.
Ans is. decrease in gradient with wing speed.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 137. If an aircraft is yawing left, the trim tab on the rudder would be
positioned.
1. to the right, moving the rudder left.
2. to the centre.
3. to the left, moving the rudder right.
Ans is. to the left, moving the rudder right.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 138. Instability giving roll and yaw.


1. is dutch roll.
2. is longitudinal stability.
3. is lateral stability.
Ans is. is dutch roll.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 139. Vortex generators are fitted to.


1. move transition point rearwards.
2. move transition point forwards.
3. advance the onset of flow separation.
Ans is. move transition point forwards.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 140. Leading edge flaps.


1. increase stalling angle of the wing.
2. decrease stalling angle of the wing.
3. do not change the stalling angle.
Ans is. increase stalling angle of the wing.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 141. Krueger flaps are on.


1. the leading edge.
2. either the leading or training edge.
3. the trailing edge.
Ans is. the leading edge.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 142. Sweepback will.


1. decrease lateral stability.
2. not affect lateral stability.
3. increase lateral stability.
Ans is. increase lateral stability.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 143. A plain flap.


1. does not increase the wing area on deployment.
2. is attached to the leading edge of the wing.
3. forms part of lower trailing edge.
Ans is. does not increase the wing area on deployment.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 144. A split flap, when deployed.


1. is used only on high speed aircraft.
2. increases lift without a corresponding increase in drag.
3. increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to fully
down.
Ans is. increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to
fully down.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 145. A flying control mass balance weight.


1. keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible.
2. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.
3. tends to move the control surface C of G forward of the hinge line.
Ans is. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 146. An elevator controls the aircraft motion in.


1. yaw.
2. roll.
3. pitch.
Ans is. pitch.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 147. Air above Mach 0.7 is.


1. compressible only when above the speed of sound.
2. incompressible.
3. compressible.
Ans is. compressible.
Expa. Aircraft Flight Barnard and Philpot, Second Edition Page123. Mechanics of
Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page 385.
Q. 148. Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the.
1. pressure to increase, velocity to increase.
2. pressure to increase, velocity to decrease.
3. pressure to decrease, velocity to increase.
Ans is. pressure to decrease, velocity to increase.
Expa. Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page 340.

Q. 149. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True


Airspeed. Its Mach. No. will.
1. not change.
2. decrease.
3. increase.
Ans is. decrease.
Expa. Speed of sound INCREASES with DECREASING altitude, so mach number will
decrease.

Q. 150. A nose down change of trim (tuck-under) occurs due to shock


induced.
1. tip stall on a delta wing aircraft.
2. root stall on a delta wing aircraft.
3. tip stall on a straight wing aircraft.
Ans is. root stall on a delta wing aircraft.
Expa. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 45.

Q. 151. A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle


of attack of 0. A shock wave will form.
1. on the upper and lower surface and will move aft until the point of maximum
camber.
2. on the upper and lower surface and will move aft.
3. on the upper surface only and move aft.
Ans is. on the upper and lower surface and will move aft.
Expa. Shockwaves form on upper and lower surfaces BEGINNING at point of max
curvature, gradually moving back.

Q. 152. Shock stall.


1. occurs at high speeds.
2. is a flap down stall and occurs at high speeds.
3. occurs at low speeds.
Ans is. occurs at high speeds.
Expa. Shock stall (or shock induced stall) is caused by the formation of shock
waves in the transonic speed range.

Q. 153. As you approach supersonic speed.


1. thrust is reduced.
2. total drag is increased.
3. lift is reduced.
Ans is. total drag is increased.
Expa. An additional drag - wave drag - is added to the total drag.

Q. 154. Mach trim in some aircraft assists.


1. lateral stability.
2. vertical stability.
3. longitudinal stability.
Ans is. longitudinal stability.
Expa. Mach trim is used to correct the longitudinal trim upset during the transonic
speed range.

Q. 155. Before an aircraft reaches critical mach.


1. the nose pitches up because the CP moves Forward.
2. the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave.
3. the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear.
Ans is. the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear.
Expa. Mechanics of Flight 10th edition Barnard and Philpott Pg 341.

Q. 156. On a standard day, at which altitude will the speed of sound be the
greatest?.
1. 20,000 ft.
2. 10,000 ft.
3. Sea level.
Ans is. Sea level.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 157. Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach Number of an
aerofoil?.
1. Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back.
2. Decreasing the fineness ratio of the wings.
3. Increasing the aspect ratio of the wings.
Ans is. Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 158. As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region, the centre of


pressure tends to.
1. turn into a shock wave.
2. move rearward.
3. move forward.
Ans is. move rearward.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 159. Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will decrease its
speed and.
1. decrease temperature and increase density.
2. increase temperature and decrease density.
3. increase temperature and increase density.
Ans is. increase temperature and increase density.
Expa. Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page 326 fig 11.4.

Q. 160. An increase in mach number will cause the.


1. CofP to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane.
2. CofP to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane.
3. CofP to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane.
Ans is. CofP to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane.
Expa. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett. Page 50.

Q. 161. At speeds above Mach 1, shockwaves will form above and below the
wing.
1. at the trailing edge.
2. at both the leading edge and the trailing edge.
3. at the leading edge.
Ans is. at both the leading edge and the trailing edge.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 162. Above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient.


1. increases.
2. remains the same.
3. decreases.
Ans is. increases.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 163. Mach trim counters.


1. longitudinal instability.
2. vertical instability.
3. lateral instability.
Ans is. longitudinal instability.
Expa. Automatic Flight Control Pallett page 231 and 50.

Q. 164. At high Mach Numbers above Mach 2.2, some aircraft


metals.
1. such as aluminium, become brittle.
2. lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect.
3. will shrink due to the extreme pressures involved.
Ans is. lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 165. Mach trim operates.


1. along the longitudinal axis.
2. along the lateral axis.
3. to reduce Dutch roll.
Ans is. along the longitudinal axis.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 166. To increase critical mach number.


1. the wings are swept.
2. elevons are fitted.
3. tailerons are fitted.
Ans is. the wings are swept.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 167. When approaching the speed of sound the.


1. pressure above the wing exceeds the pressure below the wing in places.
2. pressure above the wing can never exceed the pressure below the wing.
3. pressure above the wing equals the pressure below the wing.
Ans is. pressure above the wing exceeds the pressure below the wing in
places.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 168. Airspeeds above the speed of sound, but not exceeding 4 times the
speed of sound are.
1. supersonic.
2. hypersonic.
3. hyposonic.
Ans is. supersonic.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 169. An aircraft experiences a large loss of lift and a big increase in drag in
straight and level flight, what would be the most probable cause?.
1. Atmospheric conditions.
2. Aircraft reached its critical mach number.
3. Severe head winds.
Ans is. Aircraft reached its critical mach number.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 170. A Mach Trimmer is a device which.


1. prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach No.
2. automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region.
3. switches out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic speed range.
Ans is. automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 171. Mach trim usually operates between.


1. 0.9 mach and 0.99 mach.
2. 0.7 and 0.8 mach.
3. 0.6 mach 0.7 mach.
Ans is. 0.7 and 0.8 mach.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 172. Mach trimming is initiated by an input signal from the.


1. IRS.
2. vertical gyro.
3. CADC.
Ans is. vertical gyro.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 173. Mach trim prevents.


1. the nose dropping in a low speed turn.
2. the nose dropping at high speed.
3. the nose lifting at high speed.
Ans is. the nose dropping at high speed.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 174. Critical Mach No. may be increased by.


1. using a higher thickness/chord ratio wing.
2. sweeping back the wing.
3. using more powerful engines.
Ans is. sweeping back the wing.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 175. Airflow either side of a normal shock wave is.


1. sonic upstream and downstream.
2. sonic upstream, subsonic downstream.
3. subsonic upstream, sonic downstream.
Ans is. sonic upstream, subsonic downstream.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 176. Mach Number is defined as.


1. speed of sound at sea level divided by local speed of sound.
2. IAS divided by the local speed of sound.
3. TAS divided by local speed of sound.
Ans is. TAS divided by local speed of sound.
Expa. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 66.

Q. 177. The reason for sharp leading edged wings on high speed aircraft is
to.
1. enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned.
2. decrease wave drag.
3. decrease boundary layer.
Ans is. enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 178. Critical Mach Number is defined as.
1. that number at which the airflow becomes supersonic.
2. that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the airflow over the
aircraft becomes sonic.
3. the minimum mach number at which the aircraft can go supersonic.
Ans is. that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the airflow over the
aircraft becomes sonic.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 179. The transonic region is a region of.


1. all subsonic.
2. all supersonic.
3. mixed airflow.
Ans is. mixed airflow.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 180. Immediately downstream of an oblique shockwave is


always.
1. supersonic.
2. the same as upstream.
3. subsonic.
Ans is. supersonic.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 181. Wave drag.


1. increases in the supersonic region.
2. increases at the low speed stall.
3. increases in the transonic region.
Ans is. increases in the transonic region.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 182. For increased Mcrit.


1. decrease thickness/chord ratio.
2. decrease sweepback.
3. decrease true airspeed.
Ans is. decrease thickness/chord ratio.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 183. Symptoms of shock stall are.


1. decrease in speed, buffet and movement of the centre of pressure.
2. buffet, loss of control, and instability.
3. compressibility effects, buffet and loss of control.
Ans is. buffet, loss of control, and instability.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 184. Sweepback increases Mcrit by.


1. decreasing the amount of airflow over the lowest point on the aerofoil
section.
2. decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil
section.
3. increasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil
section.
Ans is. decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil
section.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 185. Mach number is.


1. the ratio of the aircrafts TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric
conditions.
2. the ratio of the aircrafts IAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric
conditions.
3. the ratio of the aircrafts TAS to the speed of sound at sea level.
Ans is. the ratio of the aircrafts TAS to the speed of sound at the same
atmospheric conditions.
Expa. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page
19.

Q. 186. The critical Mach number is.


1. the Mach No. when a shock wave forms at the leading edge.
2. the Mach No. when the aircraft reaches the speed of sound.
3. the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of sound at some
point on the aircraft.
Ans is. the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of sound at
some point on the aircraft.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 187. Above the Critical Mach No. the drag coefficient will.
1. remain the same.
2. start to increase.
3. start to decrease.
Ans is. start to increase.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 188. A wing of low thickness/chord ratio, the Critical Mach No. will
be.
1. lower than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
2. higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
3. the same as a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
Ans is. higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 189. An aeroplane flying above the Critical Mach No. will usually
experience.
1. a nose up pitch.
2. an oscillation in pitch.
3. a nose down pitch
Ans is. a nose down pitch.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 190. Tuck-under can be counteracted by.


1. mach trim.
2. aileron reversal.
3. trim tabs.
Ans is. mach trim.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 191. What causes tuckunder?.


1. Flap back effect.
2. Shock stall.
3. Aileron reversal.
Ans is. Shock stall.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 192. When does a shock stall occur?.


1. When the aircraft forward speed is above Mach One.
2. At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane.
3. When the aircraft reaches speed of sound in a dive.
Ans is. At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 193. With an increase in altitude under I.S.A. conditions, the temperature


in the troposphere.
1. increases.
2. remains constant.
3. decreases.
Ans is. decreases.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 194. Air either side of an oblique shockwave is generally.


1. sonic.
2. supersonic.
3. subsonic.
Ans is. supersonic.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 195. Downstream of a normal shock wave.


1. pressure decreases temperature increases.
2. pressure and temperature increase.
3. pressure and temperature decrease.
Ans is. pressure and temperature increase.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 196. Speed of sound varies with.


1. altitude.
2. temperature.
3. pressure.
Ans is. temperature.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 197. Immediately downstream of a normal shockwave, air is


always.
1. subsonic.
2. supersonic.
3. the same as upstream.
Ans is. subsonic.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 198. Increased sweepback.


1. improves tip stall characteristics.
2. raises Mcrit.
3. decreases stability.
Ans is. raises Mcrit.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 199. Aerodynamic heating.


1. increases as a function of airspeed.
2. increases with skin friction.
3. decreases with altitude.
Ans is. increases as a function of airspeed.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 200. To overcome ineffective control surface problems in the transonic


region.
1. an all moving tailplane may be used.
2. hydraulic powered elevators may be used.
3. Frise ailerons may be used.
Ans is. an all moving tailplane may be used.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 201. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True


Airspeed, its Mach. No. will.
1. remain the same.
2. increase.
3. decrease.
Ans is. decrease.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 202. To counter the effect of a shift of centre of pressure as an aircraft flies


through the transonic region, fuel is pumped.
1. forwards.
2. backwards.
3. sideways.
Ans is. backwards.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 203. An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a constant True


Airspeed, its Mach. No. will.
1. remain the same.
2. decrease.
3. increase.
Ans is. remain the same.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 204. The velocity of sound with an increase in altitude will.


1. remain constant.
2. increase.
3. decrease.
Ans is. decrease.
Expa. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page
19.

Q. 205. Mach number equals the ratio of.


1. altitude to airspeed.
2. sonic speed to indicated airspeed.
3. true airspeed to local sonic speed.
Ans is. true airspeed to local sonic speed.
Expa. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page
19.

Q. 206. Tuck-under is caused by.


1. tip stall on a straight wing aircraft.
2. tip stall on a swept wing aircraft.
3. root stall on a swept wing aircraft.
Ans is. root stall on a swept wing aircraft.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 207. The purpose of sweepback on an aerofoil is to.


1. decrease drag.
2. decrease Mcrit.
3. increase Mcrit.
Ans is. increase Mcrit.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 208. As the airspeed over a cambered wing is increased, a shock wave will
appear initially.
1. at the leading edge.
2. at the trailing edge.
3. near the point of maximum curvature.
Ans is. near the point of maximum curvature.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 209. In the transonic speed range.


1. the position of the wing centre of pressure remains constant.
2. the centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory.
3. the centre of pressure initially moves forward, then back.
Ans is. the centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory. OR the centre
of pressure initially moves forward, then back.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 210. The angle of attack of a blade is the.


1. angle between the spin axis and relative air flow.
2. angle between the chord line and plane of rotation.
3. angle between the chord line and relative airflow.
Ans is. angle between the chord line and relative airflow.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 211. On a helicopter, what is blade dragging?.


1. Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral hinges.
2. Contact of the blade tips on the ground.
3. Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge.
Ans is. Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge.
Expa. A&P General Textbook Pg 2-58.

Q. 212. Lift generated by a blade is proportional to the.


1. relative airflow and the pitch.
2. aircraft airspeed and angle of attack.
3. relative airflow and the angle of attack.
Ans is. aircraft airspeed and angle of attack.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 213. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter?.


1. No effect.
2. Increases lift.
3. Increases thrust.
Ans is. Increases lift.
Expa. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 1-58.
Q. 214. What damps vibrations on a helicopter?.
1. Swashplate.
2. Scissor levers.
3. Bifilar damper.
Ans is. Bifilar damper.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 215. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor?.


1. Weight of blade.
2. Fineness ratio.
3. Engine and gearbox.
Ans is. Weight of blade.
Expa. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 1-54. http :
//www.tpub.com/content/hseries/TM-1-1520-265-23/css/TM-1-1520-265-23_104.htm

Q. 216. Relative velocity of a helicopter rotor.


1. increases at forward travelling blade.
2. is equal for all blades.
3. increases at retreating blade.
Ans is. increases at forward travelling blade.
Expa. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 1-59.

Q. 217. When OAT increases, what happens to an helicopter operating


ceiling?.
1. Decrease.
2. Increase.
3. No effect.
Ans is. Decrease.
Expa. As temperature increases, density decreases and aircraft performance
decreases.

Q. 218. With the helicopter in forward flight, parasitic drag will cause the
helicopter to.
1. pitch nose down with an increase in forward airspeed.
2. pitch nose down with a decrease in forward airspeed.
3. pitch nose up with an increase in forward in airspeed.
Ans is. pitch nose down with an increase in forward airspeed.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 219. When a blade moves about the flapping hinge.


1. the pitch angle of the blade always reduces.
2. the drag forces on the blade change.
3. the drag forces on the blade change and the angle of attack (AOA)
changes.
Ans is. the drag forces on the blade change and the angle of attack (AOA)
changes.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 220. To maintain the position of the helicopter with a decrease in air


density, the pilot must increase.
1. main rotor RPM.
2. cyclic pitch.
3. collective pitch.
Ans is. collective pitch.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 221. The forces which govern the coning angle are.


1. lift and centrifugal force.
2. thrust and centrifugal force.
3. lift and thrust.
Ans is. lift and centrifugal force.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 222. As a helicopter accelerates in level forward flight above


approximately 15 knots, it will be necessary to : .
1. reduce power because of the additional lift due to translational flight.
2. increase power because rotor RPM is increasing.
3. reduce power because rotor profile drag is reduced.
Ans is. reduce power because of the additional lift due to translational flight.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 223. Assuming the phase lag of a rotor blade is 90o and the control
advance angle is 15 degrees, then the pitch operating arm must be at the highest
point of the swash plate : .
1. 90o ahead of the highest flapping position.
2. 75o ahead of the highest flapping position.
3. 105o ahead of the highest flapping position.
Ans is. 75o ahead of the highest flapping position.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 224. A helicopter is hovering and the pilot applies right pedal.Assuming the
main rotor rotates anti clockwise viewed from above, the helicopter
will.
1. descend, unless the pilot inches the throttle open.
2. ascend, unless the pilot decreases rotor RPM.
3. descend, unless the pilot applies more collective pitch.
Ans is. descend, unless the pilot inches the throttle open.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 225. A helicopter has a main rotor which rotates anti-clockwise viewed
from above, and is fitted with an anti-torque tail rotor. It will tend to drift sideways
to.
1. port, if the tail rotor is mounted on the left side of the aircraft.
2. starboard, whichever way the tail rotor is fitted.
3. port, if the tail rotor is mounted on the right side of the aircraft.
Ans is. starboard, whichever way the tail rotor is fitted.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 226. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward, what happens to the
rearward travelling blade's pitch angle?.
1. Increases.
2. Decreases.
3. No change.
Ans is. Increases.
Expa. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Pg.1-59.

Q. 227. The tail rotor.


1. produces a force opposing torque reaction.
2. produces a force in the same direction as torque reaction.
3. is not subject to dissymmetry of lift.
Ans is. produces a force opposing torque reaction.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 228. With the tail rotor pedals in neutral, the tail rotor blade pitch will
be.
1. positive.
2. negative.
3. neutral.
Ans is. positive.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 229. The main rotor drive shaft is tilted laterally on some helicopters to
correct tail rotor.
1. drift.
2. torque.
3. roll.
Ans is. drift.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 230. Certain helicopters tend to tilt laterally when landing. This problem
can be overcome by placing the tail rotor thrust.
1. below the line of the main rotor hub.
2. above the line of the main rotor hub.
3. in line with the main rotor hub.
Ans is. in line with the main rotor hub.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 231. Ground cushion effect is produced by.
1. recirculating air giving additional lift.
2. increased pressure under the main rotor disc.
3. increase in density above the fuselage.
Ans is. increased pressure under the main rotor disc.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 232. A helicopter hovering near a tall building will.


1. drift away from it.
2. be unaffected by it.
3. drift towards it.
Ans is. drift towards it.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 233. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by.


1. flapping.
2. dragging.
3. centrifugal force.
Ans is. centrifugal force.
Expa. Centrifugal force counteracts the droop of helicopter blades at low RPM.

Q. 234. During decent with power-on, on a helicopter.


1. lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopter.
2. lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter.
3. lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter.
Ans is. lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter.
Expa. All four forces act on the helicopter.

Q. 235. A helicopter hovering 2m above the ground subject to a strong cross


wind will.
1. lose lift due to the removal of the ground cushion effect.
2. increase lift due to ground cushion effect.
3. lose lift due to recirculation.
Ans is. lose lift due to recirculation.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 236. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling


will.
1. lower.
2. rise.
3. not be affected.
Ans is. rise.
Expa. As ambient temperature drops, density increases and aircraft performance
increases.
Q. 237. During an autorotative descent, rotor RPM will be.
1. higher than in powered flight.
2. lower than in powered flight.
3. substantially the same as in powered flight.
Ans is. higher than in powered flight.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 238. Helicopter blades are.


1. symmetrical.
2. highly cambered.
3. reverse cambered.
Ans is. symmetrical.
Expa. Helicopter blades are usually symmetrical section.

Q. 239. Autorotative force is the.


1. component of the total reaction which acts forward in the plane of rotation in
opposition to drag.
2. force required to turn in a hover.
3. force the pilot must apply to the collective lever to obtain a controlled
descent.
Ans is. component of the total reaction which acts forward in the plane of
rotation in opposition to drag.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 240. Autorotation.
1. leaves the aircraft with no directional control.
2. results in a loss of power.
3. is the production of lift from freely rotating rotor blades.
Ans is. is the production of lift from freely rotating rotor blades.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 241. If the main rotor of a helicopter rotates in an anti-clockwise direction


when viewed from above, and a hovering left turn is required, the following
movements of the controls are selected : .
1. Rudder pedal to the left, and decrease throttle.
2. Rudder pedal to the left, and increase throttle.
3. Rudder pedal to the right, and increase throttle.
Ans is. Rudder pedal to the left, and decrease throttle.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 242. Helicopter derives its lift from.


1. air is pushed downward.
2. rotor acts as a airscrew.
3. the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it.
Ans is. the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it.
Expa. All three are correct, but an aerodynamicist would choose a 'creates a low
pressure above it'.

Q. 243. A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called.


1. semi rigid rotor.
2. fully articulated rotor.
3. rigid rotor.
Ans is. semi rigid rotor.
Expa. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Pg.1-53.

Q. 244. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from above


where, would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards,
(90 degrees to what)?.
1. In front of the lateral axis.
2. Left of the longitudinal axis.
3. Right of the longitudinal axis.
Ans is. Right of the longitudinal axis.
Expa. Due to precession of the rotor disc, the input to tilt the disc backwards must
be placed 90 degrees before, in direction of motion of the disc.

Q. 245. On a helicopter, what is vortex ring state?.


1. Tip vortex build-up during hover.
2. Tip vortex interference at high forward speed.
3. Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground.
Ans is. Tip vortex build-up during hover.
Expa. During hover, the tip vortex of one blade adds to the tip vortices of the
preceding blades, producing a large vortex ring and a very inefficient helicopter.

Q. 246. Climbs with forward speed require less power than vertical climbs,
because of.
1. translational lift.
2. increased inertia.
3. forward momentum.
Ans is. translational lift.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 247. Translational flight is.


1. achieved by raising or lowering the collective lever.
2. when the helicopter changes from one steady flight condition to another.
3. achieved by tilting the rotor disc in the direction of flight.
Ans is. achieved by tilting the rotor disc in the direction of flight.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 248. The best design of a rotor blade is where the CofP.


1. moves freely along the length of the blade.
2. does not move.
3. is insignificant.
Ans is. does not move.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 249. When the cyclic stick is eased forward in the hover


position.
1. altitude is increased.
2. forward thrust is decreased.
3. vertical lift is reduced.
Ans is. vertical lift is reduced.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 250. The rotor cone is formed by.


1. blade alignment.
2. centrifugal force and lift.
3. centrifugal force only.
Ans is. centrifugal force and lift.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 251. Tracking is carried out to_____________the main rotor blade tip


path.
1. restore.
2. align.
3. balance.
Ans is. align.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 252. The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving.


1. one moving forward into relative airflow.
2. highest blade.
3. one moving in direction of relative air flow.
Ans is. one moving forward into relative airflow.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 253. Lift is generated by.


1. down-wash below the blade.
2. high pressure above the blade.
3. low pressure above the blade.
Ans is. low pressure above the blade.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 254. Static stability of a helicopter is.


1. the stability of the helicopter when hovering.
2. the tendency move back toward neutral after disturbance.
3. the tendency to oscillate until the neutral is achieved.
Ans is. the tendency move back toward neutral after disturbance.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 255. Forward velocity causes the advancing blade to.


1. flap down to increase lift.
2. give increased lift due to blade flapping.
3. flap up to reduce lift.
Ans is. flap up to reduce lift.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 256. When moving from the hover to forward flight it is necessary


to.
1. increase the engine power.
2. decrease the engine power.
3. maintain constant engine power.
Ans is. increase the engine power.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 257. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor RPM will rise and fall. This
is called.
1. static droop.
2. transient droop.
3. under swing.
Ans is. transient droop.
Expa. The Helicopter and How it Flies by John Fay Page 20/21. The initial total fall
in rotor RPM is called transient droop. The change in stabilised RPM is referred to as
static droop. The RPM difference between transient droop and static droop is called
the underswing.

Q. 258. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade, the blade will be at maximum
flap at.
1. 90.
2. 0.
3. 180.
Ans is. 90.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 259. The rotor disc is.


1. the ground cushion.
2. the distance between tip to tip.
3. the rotor head hub.
Ans is. the distance between tip to tip.
Expa. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Page 59/60 fig 1.42.

Q. 260. The maximum forward speed of a helicopter is limited by.


1. retreating blade stall and the forward speed of the advancing blade.
2. engine power.
3. the shape of the fuselage.
Ans is. retreating blade stall and the forward speed of the advancing
blade.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 261. What principle does the delta 3 hinge use?.


1. Triangular pitch change lever.
2. Flapping actuators.
3. Offset hinges.
Ans is. Offset hinges.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 262. As the angle of attack of a rotor blade increases, it affects


the.
1. flapping forces.
2. dragging and the flapping forces.
3. dragging forces.
Ans is. dragging and the flapping forces.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 263. With an increase in its angle of attack, the drag acting on a rotor
blade.
1. decreases.
2. increases.
3. remains constant.
Ans is. increases.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 264. Forces on a helicopter, in a power-on descent are.


1. lift, drag, thrust, weight.
2. lift, drag, thrust.
3. weight, drag, lift.
Ans is. lift, drag, thrust, weight.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 265. The bell stability augmentation system is based on.


1. flapping hinges.
2. offset hinges.
3. gyroscopic forces.
Ans is. gyroscopic forces.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 266. During forward flight the advancing blade will.


1. flap down.
2. flap up.
3. lag.
Ans is. flap up.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 267. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing?.


1. Going to the highest point.
2. Increasing in lift.
3. Increasing in drag.
Ans is. Increasing in lift.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 268. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for?.


1. Control of the pitch of the rotor blades.
2. Control of the speed of the rotor blades.
3. Control of the flap of the rotor blades.
Ans is. Control of the pitch of the rotor blades.
Expa. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 61.

Q. 269. Upwash on a helicopter would result in.


1. decrease in lift.
2. increase in lift without an increase in power.
3. decrease in speed.
Ans is. increase in lift without an increase in power.
Expa. Upwash increases angle of attack.

Q. 270. After a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the helicopter
would.
1. continue to roll further.
2. remain at the position that it had rolled to.
3. roll back to the horizontal.
Ans is. continue to roll further.
Expa. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 65.

Q. 271. The difference between transient droop and static droop is.
1. overswing.
2. underswing.
3. a hole in one.
Ans is. underswing.
Expa. The Helicopter history, piloting and how it flies John Fay ISBN81-70002-030-
1 Page No 21".

Q. 272. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight?.


1. The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation.
2. The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of rotation.
3. The cabin goes in the direction of rotation.
Ans is. The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 273. The RPM of the rotor blades is constant, within small limits
to.
1. prevent blades over-speeding.
2. prevent blades folding up during flight.
3. reduce torque loading.
Ans is. prevent blades folding up during flight.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 274. To maintain the position of the helicopter, when hovering with a


decrease in air density, the pilot must.
1. increase the collective pitch.
2. increase rotor RPM.
3. increase the cyclic pitch.
Ans is. increase the collective pitch.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 275. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade.


1. increases at the tip.
2. is unaffected by blade position.
3. increases at the root.
Ans is. increases at the tip.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 276. An helicopter fin helps to give.


1. longitudinal stability about the normal axis.
2. directional stability about the normal axis.
3. directional stability about the longitudinal axis.
Ans is. directional stability about the normal axis.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 277. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter, the helicopter
would.
1. continue to roll.
2. come back to level flight.
3. increases roll.
Ans is. come back to level flight.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 278. Solidity of the rotor is the ratio of the.


1. blade area to disc area.
2. all up weight to blade area.
3. all up weight to disc area.
Ans is. blade area to disc area.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 279. Which direction is the air flowing through the main rotor during
autorotation?.
1. Upwards.
2. Parallel to the rotor chord line.
3. Downwards.
Ans is. Upwards.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 280. The purpose of an off-set vertical stabilizer is to.


1. provide stability during vertical flight.
2. relieve some of the load on the tail rotor during forward flight.
3. provide lift during forward flight.
Ans is. relieve some of the load on the tail rotor during forward flight.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 281. The purpose of the horizontal stabilizer is to.


1. maintain the aircraft in as near a horizontal attitude as possible, during
forward flight.
2. to reduce rotor head loads during translational flight.
3. to stabilize the aircraft in the hover.
Ans is. maintain the aircraft in as near a horizontal attitude as possible, during
forward flight.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 282. During autorotation, the rudder pedals.


1. would need to be backed off due to the loss of torque.
2. would have no effect on directional control.
3. would need to be advanced to counteract the increased torque.
Ans is. would need to be backed off due to the loss of torque.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 283. In forward flight, the advancing blade would be expected


to.
1. lag.
2. increase pitch.
3. flap up.
Ans is. flap up.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 284. When the helicopter moves from the hover to translational flight, the
lift vector will.
1. remain vertical.
2. move forward.
3. move aft.
Ans is. move forward.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 285. If the blade angle of attack increases.
1. lift increases only.
2. lift and drag increases.
3. drag increases only.
Ans is. lift and drag increases.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 286. When a blade is flapping up.


1. pitch will increase.
2. pitch will decrease.
3. lift and drag both increase.
Ans is. pitch will decrease.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 287. Vortex ring start requires.


1. retreating blade stall.
2. advancing blade stall.
3. power on descent.
Ans is. power on descent.
Expa. The helicopter and how it flies Page 117 by John Fay.

Q. 288. Rotor tip vortices are strongest when.


1. hovering with high weight.
2. flying high speed in straight and level flight.
3. flying into a headwind.
Ans is. hovering with high weight.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 289. Tail rotor effects the helicopter in.


1. pitch and roll.
2. vertical axis.
3. horizontal axis.
Ans is. vertical axis.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 290. A blade of a Helicopter Main Rotor is.


1. highly cambered.
2. reverse cambered.
3. symmetrically cambered.
Ans is. symmetrically cambered.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 291. Helicopter rotor blades produce lift by.


1. moving a small mass of air downwards slowly.
2. moving a large mass of air downwards quickly.
3. creating a lower pressure above the blade than below.
Ans is. creating a lower pressure above the blade than below.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 292. With an increase in forward velocity of a helicopter, the increase in


parasitic drag will cause the fuselage attitude to.
1. pitch down.
2. remain level.
3. pitch up.
Ans is. pitch down.
Expa. The amount of parasitic drag increases with increasing airspeed, so that the
thrust/parasite drag (nose down) couple becomes stronger.

Q. 293. On a helicopter, rotor disc lift happens.


1. 180 later.
2. 90 later.
3. immediately.
Ans is. immediately.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 294. During an autorotative decent, rotor RPM will be.


1. higher than in powered flight.
2. approximately the same as in powered flight.
3. lower than in powered flight.
Ans is. higher than in powered flight.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 295. Lift in a helicopter is a result of.


1. pitch * square root of speed.
2. angle of attack * velocity squared.
3. angle of attack * velocity squared and forward speed.
Ans is. angle of attack * velocity squared.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 296. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum
flap at.
1. 180.
2. 90.
3. 0.
Ans is. 90.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 297. When the rotor blade increases its angle of attack, the centre of
pressure.
1. does not move.
2. moves rearwards.
3. moves forward.
Ans is. does not move.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 298. Autorotative force attempts to pull the rotor blade.


1. in the direction of normal rotation.
2. both in and against the direction of normal rotation.
3. against the direction of normal rotation.
Ans is. in the direction of normal rotation.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 299. The ground effect is effective up to a height equalling.


1. twice the diameter of the rotor disc.
2. the length of the fuselage.
3. the diameter of the rotor disc.
Ans is. the diameter of the rotor disc.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 300. Movement of the collective control will.


1. increase the pitch of the main rotor blades.
2. increase the pitch of the tail rotor.
3. tilt the disc and increase engine power.
Ans is. increase the pitch of the main rotor blades.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 301. Rotor blade sailing is a problem at.


1. low rotor RPM at engine shut down.
2. normal rotor RPM in gusty conditions.
3. high rotor RPM at engine start up.
Ans is. low rotor RPM at engine shut down.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 302. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving,
in relation to the rest of the airflow, is known as.
1. camber layer.
2. boundary layer.
3. none of the above are correct.
Ans is. boundary layer.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 303. During helicopter forward flight the retreating blade will tend
to.
1. flap down.
2. no change.
3. flap up.
Ans is. flap down.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 304. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil


decreases, what takes place?.
1. Pressure increases, lift decreases.
2. Pressure decreases, lift increases.
3. Pressure increases, lift increases.
Ans is. Pressure increases, lift decreases.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 305. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin


friction?.
1. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.
2. Fineness ratio.
3. Aspect ratio.
Ans is. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 306. Changes in aircraft weight.


1. will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant.
2. will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed.
3. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift
change.
Ans is. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift
change.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 307. When an aerofoil stalls.


1. lift and drag increase.
2. lift decreases and drag increases.
3. lift increases and drag decreases.
Ans is. lift decreases and drag increases.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 308. When a helicopter rotor disc is tilted forward, what happens to the
pitch of the retreating blade?.
1. Increases.
2. Remains constant.
3. Decreases.
Ans is. Increases.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 309. Airflow through the main rotor disc in autorotation is.


1. always down through the rotor disc.
2. always up through the rotor disc.
3. may be either up or down.
Ans is. always up through the rotor disc.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 310. The blade stalling speed will.


1. only change if the MTWA were changed.
2. increase with an increase in helicopter weight.
3. be unaffected by helicopter weight changes since it is dependant upon the
angle of attack.
Ans is. increase with an increase in helicopter weight.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 311. Ground effect will be most apparent when.


1. taxiing in the hover.
2. hovering close to the ground.
3. taxiing on the ground.
Ans is. hovering close to the ground.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 312. When entering into a stable autorotative state, the main rotor RPM
will initially.
1. increase.
2. decrease.
3. be unaffected.
Ans is. decrease.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 313. The stalling speed of an helicopter blade.


1. is increased when the helicopter is heavier.
2. is increased when the helicopter is lighter.
3. does not change.
Ans is. is increased when the helicopter is heavier.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 314. Helicopters in forward flight are usually.


1. directionally stable.
2. laterally stable.
3. longitudinally stable.
Ans is. directionally stable.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 315. Stability of a helicopter is its.


1. ability to hover at a fixed point above the ground.
2. ability to move in all 3 axis where and when required.
3. ability to return to original attitude after displacement.
Ans is. ability to return to original attitude after displacement.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 316. In forward flight the relative air velocity at each blade.


1. is greatest for the retreating blade.
2. is equal at all blades due to compensation.
3. is greatest for the advancing blade.
Ans is. is greatest for the advancing blade.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 317. What forces are acting on the helicopter during descent?.


1. Lift only.
2. Lift and weight.
3. Weight only.
Ans is. Lift and weight.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 318. The ground cushion effect is apparent.


1. in the hover only.
2. in the hover and at low translational flight close to the ground.
3. on the ground only.
Ans is. in the hover and at low translational flight close to the ground.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 319. If the angle of attack is increased on a main rotor blade.


1. there is no change in drag.
2. there is an increase in drag.
3. there is a reduction in drag.
Ans is. there is an increase in drag.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 320. A helicopter main rotor blade may be tapered from root to tip
to.
1. equalise lift along the blade.
2. reduce induced drag.
3. reduce the blade weight.
Ans is. equalise lift along the blade.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 321. A helicopter main rotor blade is twisted from root to tip to.
1. permit the blade to straighten under aerodynamic load.
2. equalise lift along the blade.
3. give the blade additional strength.
Ans is. equalise lift along the blade.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 322. Translational drift is.
1. the tendency for the aircraft to drift laterally.
2. the tendency for the aircraft to turn to port.
3. the tendency for the aircraft to pitch nose up.
Ans is. the tendency for the aircraft to drift laterally.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 323. The choice of aerofoil section for a rotor blade is such that.
1. it has a stable centre of pressure.
2. the CofP moves very slowly.
3. the CofP moves rapidly in response to pitch changes.
Ans is. it has a stable centre of pressure.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 324. When the rotor blade is flapping up, the angle of attack.
1. remains the same as the pitch angle.
2. is less than the pitch angle.
3. is greater than the pitch angle.
Ans is. is less than the pitch angle.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 325. When the rotor blade is flapping down, the pitch angle.
1. is less than the angle of attack.
2. remains the same.
3. is greater than the angle of attack.
Ans is. is less than the angle of attack.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 326. The tropopause exists at about.


1. 18,000 ft.
2. 30,000 ft.
3. 36,000 ft.
Ans is. 36,000 ft.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 327. The rotor blades operate at the best Lift/Drag ratio when
their.
1. angle of attack is 0 degrees.
2. pitch angles closely approach the stall angle.
3. angle of attack is about +3 degrees.
Ans is. angle of attack is about +3 degrees.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 328. The centre of pressure of an aerofoil is that point on the cord


line.
1. which moves most, with changes in angle of attack, if the section is
symmetrical.
2. at which the highest pressure is said to act.
3. at which the lift forces resultant is said to act.
Ans is. at which the lift forces resultant is said to act.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 329. The main rotor assembly of a helicopter provides.


1. both lift and horizontal thrust.
2. lift, a component of which is horizontal so thrust is obtained.
3. lift, but an unbalanced component in the direction of flight moves the aircraft
forward.
Ans is. lift, a component of which is horizontal so thrust is obtained.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 330. An advantage of the symmetrical section blades used on helicopters


is that.
1. the movement of the centre of pressure with changes of the angle of attack
is greater than that of a fixed wing.
2. the centre of pressure moves forward with changes in angle of attack.
3. the position of the feather axis and the centre of pressure and centre of
gravity coincide, providing stability.
Ans is. the position of the feather axis and the centre of pressure and centre of
gravity coincide, providing stability.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 331. Which part of the rotor disc produces the most lift during forward
flight?.
1. The mid-span portion.
2. The front portion.
3. The rear portion.
Ans is. The front portion.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 332. The aerofoil shape of a main rotor blade is symmetrical in order to


make the blade have.
1. the highest possible lift co-efficient when hovering.
2. the best possible autorotative characteristics.
3. a relatively stable centre of pressure position with changes in angle of
attack.
Ans is. a relatively stable centre of pressure position with changes in angle of
attack.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 333. Aspect ratio is the ratio of the.


1. disc diameter to the chord.
2. blade chord to the disc area.
3. blade span to the chord.
Ans is. blade span to the chord.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 334. Disc loading is defined as the.


1. ratio of gross weight to disc area.
2. ratio of blade area to disc area.
3. ratio of gross weight to total blade area.
Ans is. ratio of gross weight to disc area.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 335. A helicopter has a main rotor which rotates anticlockwise viewed from
above. What happens if a loss of anti-torque device at cruise speed in
flight?.
1. Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to right.
2. Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to left.
3. No appreciable change.
Ans is. Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to right.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 336. Over pitch causes.


1. an increase in RPM.
2. a reduction in RPM.
3. blades to cone up.
Ans is. blades to cone up.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 337. A shrouded tail rotor.


1. reduces need for cyclic feathering.
2. gives control in pitch and yaw.
3. has increased airflow so yaw can be controlled by the rudder.
Ans is. reduces need for cyclic feathering.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 338. In a helicopter with its main rotor turning anti-clockwise, which way
does the aircraft tend to drift?.
1. Port if tail rotor is mounted on the right.
2. Starboard, irrespective of which side the tail rotor is mounted on.
3. Port if tail rotor is mounted on the left.
Ans is. Starboard, irrespective of which side the tail rotor is mounted on.
Expa. NIL.

08.4. Flight Stability and Dynamics.

Q. 1. Dihedral wings combat instability in.


1. yaw.
2. side-slip.
3. pitch.
Ans is. side-slip.
Expa. As the aircraft side-slips, there is a greater angle of attack on the lower wing
which increases lift,straightens the aircraft and stops the side-slip.

Q. 2. An aircraft, which is longitudinally stable, will tend to return to level


flight after a movement in which axis?.
1. Pitch.
2. Yaw.
3. Roll.
Ans is. Pitch.
Expa. Longitudinal stability is stability about the pitch axis.

Q. 3. The normal axis of an aircraft passes through.


1. the centre of gravity.
2. a point at the centre of the wings.
3. at the centre of pressure.
Ans is. the centre of gravity.
Expa. All the axis of the aircraft (normal, longitudinal and lateral) pass through the
centre of gravity.

Q. 4. Due to the change in downwash on an untapered wing (i.e. one of


constant chord length) it will.
1. not provide any damping effect when rolling.
2. not suffer adverse yaw effects when turning.
3. tend to stall first at the root.
Ans is. tend to stall first at the root.
Expa. The change in downwash is caused by the wingtip vortices, which has a
lesser affect inboard than it does at the tip. The downwash reduces the effective
angle of attack (more so at the tip). This causes the root of the wing to stall before
the tip.

Q. 5. Correcting for a disturbance which has caused a rolling motion about


the longitudinal axis would re-establish which of the following?.
1. Lateral stability.
2. Longitudinal stability.
3. Directional stability.
Ans is. Lateral stability.
Expa. The aircraft's response to rolling is lateral stability.

Q. 6. Porpoising is an oscillatory motion in the.


1. yaw plane.
2. roll plane.
3. pitch plane.
Ans is. pitch plane.
Expa. Porpoising is an oscillatory motion in pitch, about the lateral axis.
Q. 7. Directional stability is maintained.
1. by the tailplane, and controlled by the elevators.
2. by the keel surface and fin, and controlled by the rudder.
3. by the mainplanes, and controlled by the ailerons.
Ans is. by the keel surface and fin, and controlled by the rudder.
Expa. Directional stability is maintained by the keel surface and the fin and
controlled by the rudder.

Q. 8. Longitudinal stability is given by.


1. the fin.
2. the wing dihedral.
3. the horizontal tailplane.
Ans is. the horizontal tailplane.
Expa. The horizontal stabilizer (tailplane) provides longitudinal stability.

Q. 9. Lateral stability is given by.


1. the horizontal tailplane.
2. the ailerons.
3. the wing dihedral.
Ans is. the wing dihedral.
Expa. The wing dihedral provides lateral stability.

Q. 10. Stability about the lateral axis is given by.


1. the ailerons.
2. the horizontal tailplane.
3. wing dihedral.
Ans is. the horizontal tailplane.
Expa. Stability about the lateral axis is longitudinal stability. The horizontal
stabilizer (tailplane) provides longitudinal stability.

Q. 11. Sweepback of the wings will.


1. decrease lateral stability.
2. not affect the lateral stability.
3. increase lateral stability.
Ans is. increase lateral stability.
Expa. When an aircraft rolls, it sideslips. A sideslipping aircraft with sweepback
has a higher AR on the leading wing than than it has on the trailing wing. The lift is
greater on a higher AR wing, so it corrects the roll. (10 degrees of sweepback has
the same effect as 1 degree of dihedral).

Q. 12. Dutch Roll is.


1. primarily a pitching instability.
2. a combined rolling and yawing motion.
3. a type of slow roll.
Ans is. a combined rolling and yawing motion.
Expa. Dutch role is a combination of role and yaw.

Q. 13. A high wing position gives.


1. more lateral stability than a low wing.
2. less lateral stability than a low wing.
3. the same lateral stability as a low wing.
Ans is. more lateral stability than a low wing.
Expa. The pendulum effect produced by the fuselage of a high wing aircraft
provides more lateral stability.

Q. 14. Directional stability may be increased with.


1. pitch dampers.
2. horn balance.
3. yaw dampers.
Ans is. yaw dampers.
Expa. Yaw dampers increase directional stability.

Q. 15. Lateral stability may be increased with.


1. increased lateral dihedral.
2. increased lateral anhedral.
3. increased longitudinal dihedral.
Ans is. increased lateral dihedral.
Expa. Lateral dihedral increases lateral stability. (BTW : Longitudinal dihedral is
the difference between mainplane and tailplane angles of incidence).

Q. 16. Longitudinal stability is increased if the.


1. CG is forward of the CP.
2. Thrust acts on a line below the total drag.
3. CP moves forward of the CG.
Ans is. CG is forward of the CP.
Expa. If the CG is forward of the CP it will have a nose-down tendency which
makes the aircraft less likely to stall and therefore it will have more longitudinal
stability.

Q. 17. Directional stability is about the.


1. lateral axis.
2. longitudinal axis.
3. normal axis.
Ans is. normal axis.
Expa. Directional stability is stability about the normal axis.

Q. 18. Lateral stability is about the.


1. longitudinal axis.
2. normal axis.
3. vertical axis.
Ans is. longitudinal axis.
Expa. Lateral stability is stability about the longitudinal axis.

Q. 19. Longitudinal stability is provided by the.


1. horizontal stabilizer.
2. vertical stabilizer.
3. mainplane.
Ans is. horizontal stabilizer.
Expa. Longitudinal stability is provided by the horizontal stabiliser (tailplane).

Q. 20. If the aircraft turns and side-slips.


1. the sweepback of the wing will correct the sideslip.
2. the keel surface will correct the sideslip.
3. the dihedral of the wing will correct the sideslip.
Ans is. the dihedral of the wing will correct the sideslip.
Expa. http : //www.allstar.fiu.edu/aero/axes33.htm

Q. 21. An aircraft disturbed from its normal flight path, and automatically
returns to that normal flight path, without any action on the part of the pilot is
known as.
1. aircraft stall.
2. aircraft instability.
3. aircraft stability.
Ans is. aircraft stability.
Expa. Stability is the aircraft's ability for the aircraft to return to its normal
flightpath after being disturbed.

Q. 22. The fin gives stability about which axis?.


1. Longitudinal axis.
2. Lateral axis.
3. Normal axis.
Ans is. Normal axis.
Expa. The fin gives stability about the normal axis.

Q. 23. If the nose of the aircraft is rotated about its lateral axis, what is its
directional movement?.
1. Rolling or banking to the left or right.
2. Turning to the left or right.
3. Climbing or diving.
Ans is. Climbing or diving.
Expa. For an aircraft to climb or dive it must be rotated about ts lateral axis.

Q. 24. The function of an aircraft fin.


1. is to provide directional control.
2. is to provide straight airflow across the rudder.
3. is to provide stability about the normal axis.
Ans is. is to provide stability about the normal axis.
Expa. The function of the aircraft fin is to provide stability about the normal
axis.

Q. 25. Movement of an aircraft about its normal axis.


1. is rolling.
2. is yawing.
3. is pitching.
Ans is. is yawing.
Expa. yawing' is movement of the aircraft about its normal axis.

Q. 26. If, after a disturbance, an aeroplane initially returns to its equilibrium


state.
1. it has neutral stability.
2. it has static stability and may be dynamically stable.
3. it is neutrally unstable.
Ans is. it has static stability and may be dynamically stable.
Expa. Static stability is when an aircraft returns to its equilibrium (trimmed) state.
Dynamic stability is the ability of the aircraft to oppose the disturbance.

Q. 27. Stability of an aircraft is.


1. the tendency of the aircraft to return to its original trimmed position after
having been displaced.
2. the tendency of the aircraft to stall at low airspeed.
3. the ability of the aircraft to rotate about an axis.
Ans is. the tendency of the aircraft to return to its original trimmed position after
having been displaced.
Expa. Stability is the tendency for the aircraft to return to its original position after
being displaced.

Q. 28. The three axes concerned with stability of an aircraft have.


1. normal axis through C of G. Lateral axis - wing tip to wing tip. Longitudinal
axis - nose to tail but not through C of G.
2. longitudinal, lateral and normal axis all passing through aircraft centre of
gravity.
3. longitudinal axis nose to tail, lateral axis at furthest span point, normal axis
through centre of pressure.
Ans is. longitudinal, lateral and normal axis all passing through aircraft centre of
gravity.
Expa. The longitudinal, lateral and normal axis all pass through the aircraft's
centre of gravity.

Q. 29. If an aircraft returns to a position of equilibrium it is said to


be.
1. positively stable.
2. neutrally stable.
3. negatively stable.
Ans is. positively stable.
Expa. If an aircraft is positively stable it will return to its trimmed position.

Q. 30. The pendulum effect on a high wing aircraft.


1. has no effect on lateral stability.
2. increases lateral stability.
3. decreases lateral stability.
Ans is. increases lateral stability.
Expa. Pendulum effect on a high wing aircraft increases lateral stability.

Q. 31. After a disturbance in pitch, an aircraft continues to oscillate at


constant amplitude. It is.
1. longitudinally unstable.
2. longitudinally neutrally stable.
3. laterally unstable.
Ans is. longitudinally neutrally stable.
Expa. If an aircraft oscillates in pitch without the oscillations increasing or
decreasing it is longitudinally neutrally stable.

Q. 32. On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane nose up pitch is caused


by.
1. decreasing tailplane incidence.
2. increasing tailplane incidence.
3. up movement of the trim tab.
Ans is. decreasing tailplane incidence.
Expa. To make the nose pitch-up, the tailplane down load must be increased. This
is done by decreasing its incidence (or increasing its negative incidence).

Q. 33. What gives the aircraft directional stability?.


1. Vertical stabiliser.
2. Elevators.
3. Horizontal stabiliser.
Ans is. Vertical stabiliser.
Expa. The vertical stabiliser gives the aircraft directional stability.

Q. 34. In flight if the aircraft nose gets an upward gust of wind, what
characteristic will have the greatest effect to counteract it?.
1. Wing Sweep.
2. Horizontal stabiliser and fuselage length.
3. Position of the centre of pressure relative to the centre of gravity.
Ans is. Horizontal stabiliser and fuselage length.
Expa. Longitudinal stability is effected mainly by the stabiliser and length of
fuselage behind the C of G.

Q. 35. To correct dutch roll you must damp oscillation around : .


1. the longitudinal axis.
2. the lateral axis.
3. the vertical axis.
Ans is. the vertical axis.
Expa. Dutch Roll is a figure of eight oscillation around the vertical axis.

Q. 36. An elevator trim tab is used to.


1. counteract propeller torque.
2. prevent the control surface from stalling the airflow.
3. reduce control column forces on the pilot.
Ans is. reduce control column forces on the pilot.
Expa. See AC Kermode Chapter 9.

Q. 37. A high wing aircraft will be more.


1. laterally stable than a low wing aircraft.
2. longitudinally stable than a low wing aircraft.
3. directionally stable than a low wing aircraft.
Ans is. laterally stable than a low wing aircraft.
Expa. Due to pendulum effect of the fuselage, a high wing aircraft will be more
laterally stable than a low wing aircraft.

Q. 38. After an aircraft has been disturbed from its straight and level flight, it
returns to its original attitude with a small amount of decreasing oscillation.The
aircraft is.
1. statically stable but dynamically unstable.
2. statically unstable but dynamically stable.
3. statically stable and dynamically stable.
Ans is. statically stable and dynamically stable.
Expa. Static stability is the ability of the aircraft to return to its untrimmed
position. Dynamic stability is the ability of the aircraft to not oscillate about the
trimmed position.

Q. 39. If there is an increase of density, what effect would there be in


aerodynamic dampening?.
1. Decreased.
2. Increased.
3. None.
Ans is. Increased.
Expa. Flight forces (and hence aerodynamic dampening) are all increased with
increasing density.

Q. 40. Yawing is a rotation around.


1. the lateral axis obtained by the rudder.
2. the normal axis obtained by the rudder.
3. the normal axis obtained by the elevator.
Ans is. the normal axis obtained by the rudder.
Expa. Yawing is rotation around the normal axis obtained by the rudder.
Q. 41. Lateral stability is reduced by increasing.
1. dihedral.
2. sweepback.
3. anhedral.
Ans is. anhedral.
Expa. Anhedral is a downward and outward inclination of the wing. It is opposite to
dihedral.

Q. 42. Azimuth stability is dependent on.


1. dihedral.
2. keel and fin.
3. tailplane.
Ans is. keel and fin.
Expa. Azimuth is a fancy word for 'direction'.

Q. 43. Sweepback of the wings will.


1. increase lateral stability at high speeds only.
2. not affect lateral stability.
3. increase lateral stability at all speeds.
Ans is. increase lateral stability at all speeds.
Expa. 10 degrees of sweepback provides the same effect as 1 degree of dihedral.

Q. 44. If you have an aircraft that is more laterally stable then directionally
stable it will tend to : .
1. bank.
2. slip.
3. skid.
Ans is. skid.
Expa. Skidding out of turns is symptomatic of dutch roll, extra vertical stabilisers
are often added to correct this (Nimrod MR2).

Q. 45. A centre of gravity position close to its aft limit will cause the aircraft
to.
1. pitch nose down and increase its longitudinal stability.
2. pitch nose up and decrease its longitudinal stability.
3. pitch nose up and increase its longitudinal stability.
Ans is. pitch nose up and decrease its longitudinal stability.
Expa. AC Kermode page 145 states that a pitch up will increase AOA and further
destabilise the aircraft.

Q. 46. A sharply swept wing will promote.


1. excessive lateral instability.
2. excessive longitudinal stability.
3. excessive lateral stability.
Ans is. excessive lateral stability.
Expa. Swept wing fighter aircraft often have anhedral to promote greater roll rate,
which is needed due to excessive stability.
Q. 47. Which control surfaces provide lateral control , also longitudinal
control and stability?.
1. Ruddervators.
2. Tailerons.
3. Flapperons.
Ans is. Tailerons.
Expa. Tailerons are all moving tailplanes as fitted to the Tornado".

Q. 48. If, after a disturbance, an aeroplane initially returns to its equilibrium


state.
1. it has neutral stability.
2. it has static stability and may be dynamically stable.
3. it is neutrally unstable.
Ans is. it has static stability and may be dynamically stable.
Expa. Question says nothing about overshooting and oscillating, so it could be
dynamically unstable, even though it is statically stable.

Q. 49. Yaw dampers are designed to.


1. prevent dutch roll.
2. assist the pilot to move the rudder.
3. reduce the effect of crabbing due to cross winds.
Ans is. prevent dutch roll.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 50. Tuck under occurs when.


1. a shock stall occurs on the outboard portion of swept wing.
2. a shock stall warning occurs on the inboard position of a straight wing.
3. the aircraft reaches Mcrit.
Ans is. the aircraft reaches Mcrit.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 51. The lateral axis is.


1. a straight line through the CG at right angles to the longitudinal and lateral
axis.
2. a straight line through the CG from nose to tail.
3. a straight line through the CG parallel to a line joining the wingtips.
Ans is. a straight line through the CG parallel to a line joining the wingtips.
Expa. A straight line through the CG parallel to a line joining the wingtip.

Q. 52. The main factors which affect longitudinal stability are.


1. design of the fuselage and position of the CG.
2. design of the mainplane and position of the CG.
3. design of the tailplane and position of the CG.
Ans is. design of the tailplane and position of the CG.
Expa. NIL.
Q. 53. A yawing motion provides what kind of Stability?.
1. Directional.
2. Lateral.
3. Longitudinal.
Ans is. Directional.
Expa. Yawing is directional stability.

Q. 54. Where would you find the normal axis?.


1. Through C of G at right angles to longitudinal and lateral axis.
2. Vertically through CofP.
3. In line with the wing tips through C of G.
Ans is. Through C of G at right angles to longitudinal and lateral axis.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 55. When a aircraft is in a slideslip and is yawing the.


1. the fin will correct the yawing motion.
2. the effective keel area will make the ac yaw further into the direction of the
sideslip.
3. the dihedral will prevent the yaw motion.
Ans is. the effective keel area will make the ac yaw further into the direction of
the sideslip.
Expa. Page 290 Mechanics of Flight Kermode.

Q. 56. As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit.


1. the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to low
stability.
2. the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch, due to the high longitudinal
stability.
3. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high.
Ans is. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 57. With the C of G on its forward limit.


1. the change in control loading is dependant on the position of the CofP.
2. control loading decreases.
3. control loading increases.
Ans is. control loading increases.
Expa. NIL.

08.5.

Q. 1. A 'slug' is a unit of.


1. mass.
2. density.
3. volume.
Ans is. mass.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 2. An undercarriage leg in flight produces 3 lbs of drag at 100kts. If


speed is increased to 200kts the drag would be.
1. 12 lbs.
2. 9 lbs.
3. 6 lbs.
Ans is. 12 lbs.
Expa. Profile drag rises with V squared.

Q. 3. A stall warning device must be set to operate.


1. at a speed just above stalling speed.
2. at a speed just below stalling speed.
3. at the stalling speed.
Ans is. at a speed just above stalling speed.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 4. In cruise the weight of an aeroplane is decreasing as fuel is used. A


stall would occur.
1. at a lower speed.
2. at the same speed.
3. at a higher speed.
Ans is. at a lower speed.
Expa. Stall speed increases with increasing weight.

Q. 5. The purpose of 'streamlining' is to reduce.


1. profile drag.
2. skin friction drag.
3. induced drag.
Ans is. profile drag.
Expa. NIL.

Q. 6. As height increases, with angle of attack and speed


constant.
1. lift will remain constant.
2. lift Increases.
3. lift decreases.
Ans is. lift decreases.
Expa. That is why a greater angle of attack is required at higher altitude.